Digital Marketing 1st Edition By Raj Sachdev TEST BANK

TEST BANK Digital Marketing 1st Edition By Raj Sachdev

TABLE OF CONTENTS: Chapter 1: Digital Marketing in a Digital World Chapter 2: Creating Value through Digital Marketing Strategy Chapter 3: Digital Consumer Behavior and Customer Relationship and Experience Management Chapter 4: Website Marketing Strategy Chapter 5: Search Engine Optimization (SEO) Strategy Chapter 6: Search Engine Marketing (SEM) Strategy Chapter 7: Email Marketing Strategy Chapter 8: Social Media and Community Marketing Strategy Chapter 9: Mobile Marketing Strategy Chapter 10: Digital Brand, Trust, and Reputation Management Strategy Chapter 11: Digital Marketing Legal, Ethical, Privacy, and Security Considerations Chapter 12: Trends and the Future of Digital Marketing

Chapter 1: Digital Marketing in a Digital World 1) Digital marketing has little in common with traditional marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2) Providing value to consumers is a key aspect of digital marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3) The Internet refers to one section of the world wide web. ⊚ true ⊚ false

4) Email is an early type of digital marketing which was first used in the 1990s. ⊚ true ⊚ false

5) It is anticipated that Web 5.0 will provide a more sensory experience for users. ⊚ true ⊚ false

6) In the United States, digital marketers must follow rules established by the Federal Trade

Commission Act. ⊚ true ⊚ false

7) Firms conducting direct consumer or B2B sales online need a website presence, but this is

optional for other types of organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8) Sponsoring organizations incur direct costs when utilizing search engine marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9) Artificial intelligence can be used to make personalized product recommendations to

consumers based on their online activity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10) The role of digital marketers will remain static, as society now gradually moves away from

an Internet of Everything (IoE) environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11) Consumer value can be thought of as the relationship between what a consumer pays and

what they receive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

12) A high degree of digital trust can help improve customer retention. ⊚ true ⊚ false

13) Because of the global nature of the medium, segmentation is not an important strategy in

digital marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

14) Adapting is one of the 7A’s of digital marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

15) Digital marketers must follow the law and follow customer preferences based on choices

provided. ⊚ true ⊚ false

16) An appropriate conversion objective for a nonprofit animal shelter is increasing the number

of shelter volunteers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

17) In digital marketing, customer insights may be gained through data such as engagement with

digital marketing activities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

18) Customer service can often be delivered directly through mobile apps and social media

platforms. This enables 24-hour-access by consumers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

19) Return on investment (ROI) refers to the amount it costs an organization to acquire a new

customer or achieve one sale. ⊚ true ⊚ false

20) Data analyzed in a useful or strategic manner is known as information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

21) The concept integral to most definitions of marketing is A) service.

B) allure.

C) choice.

D) value.

22) Janice wants to install a security system at her home. She begins the purchase process by

searching for local firms online, comparing features, and reading their customer reviews. The online availability of this information is a way that digital marketers A) drive down consumer costs.

B) identify social needs.

C) provide value to consumers.

D) replace their traditional marketing efforts.

23) When an online ad for hot tubs mentions the featured product is named Jacuzzillos, it is

referring to A) a value offering.

B) a specific brand.

C) a brand strategy.

D) the company nickname.

24) The digital marketing process is dynamic, which means that it is A) constantly changing.

B) unrelated to other marketing efforts.

C) designed to target everyone.

D) personalized for each consumer.

25) The broad term for the global network that permits users to communicate, share, and obtain

information is A) platform.

B) world wide web.

C) cyberspace.

D) Internet.

26) Which digital strategy was the first, among the choices shown, to be used to reach online

consumers with information about products and services?

A) email B) search engine optimization C) social media marketing D) mobile apps

27) For digital marketers, Web 3.0 activity introduced new ways of engaging consumers. This

included A) launching user-generated content.

B) using chatbots exclusively to deliver service.

C) engaging consumers via emails.

D) basing advertising on a consumer’s online behavior.

28) The current version of the web is also known as the

. It involves technologies such

as chatbots.

A) semantic web B) user-generated web C) symbiotic web D) sensory and emotive web

29) Which two additional macro-environment factors were added to the PEST analysis first

described by Francis J. Aguilar?

A) public and stakeholder B) economic and organizational C) competitive and social D) environmental and legal

30) The United States–Mexico–Canada Agreement modernized former NAFTA policies

regarding intellectual property and digital trade among its three signatory nations. This is an example of which macro-environment force affecting digital marketing?

A) political B) social C) environmental D) technical

31) Consumers in certain countries may often seek in-depth product knowledge before making a

purchasing decision. They also embrace technology as an efficient means in acquiring this knowledge. This reflects a(n) force which organizations must consider when developing a digital marketing strategy.

A) political B) social C) economic D) technical

32) New legal considerations for digital marketers include a steep rise in regulations concerning

cybersecurity and A) digital waste.

B) gender neutral language.

C) multicultural inclusion.

D) privacy.

33) After careful research, Adeem determines that his consulting firm should expand its

recruitment efforts to include Twitter and Instagram. He is adjusting his digital strategy in which aspect of the micro-environment?

A) competitors B) intermediaries C) suppliers D) organization

34) Reviewing the digital platform that rival firms are using is a marketing strategy most directly

related to A) improving customer service.

B) understanding the customer experience.

C) assessing the competitive landscape.

D) selecting appropriate intermediaries.

35) The crucial component of the micro-environment which digital marketers must always base

their strategies on is A) demographic trends.

B) the organization itself.

C) competitors.

D) the supply chain.

36) Which element plays the most essential role in enticing a consumer to open a marketing

email?

A) B) C) D)

the call to action the message the format the subject line

37) The American Red Cross, a nonprofit charitable organization, provides disaster relief

assistance both in the U.S. and internationally. Its online site seeks monetary donations and educates users about first aid and CPR training options. In this example, the American Red Cross is engaging in A) paid advertising.

B) website marketing.

C) community marketing.

D) search engine optimization.

38) The Farmer’s Dog, an organic dog food company, has a brightly-colored box near the top of

its home page which reads “Get started.” Clicking on the box takes the user deeper into the site where they can enter their consumer information. This is an example of A) customer service.

B) raw data.

C) a call-to-action.

D) natural results.

39) Clara is setting up an at-home party business. She designs a website to target consumers

seeking to host candle-making parties in their own homes, and she includes a form for a noobligation custom party plan. As Clara has an extremely limited marketing budget, she works to ensure that her site will rank high in results when consumers search “home candle-making party.” Right now, Clara’s marketing efforts focus on A) social media marketing.

B) search engine optimization.

C) mobile marketing.

D) search engine marketing.

40) Search engine optimization seeks to improve

, while search engine marketing

involves .

A) artificial results; natural results B) customer conversion; customer service C) natural results; paid advertising D) accessibility; website design

41) A consumer comparing brands of rain-resistant clothing searches for the term “weatherproof

men’s pants” on Google. In digital marketing, this term is an example of A) metainformation.

B) consumer messaging.

C) a keyphrase.

D) search engine results.

42) Unpaid links to websites which appear on search engine results pages are part of the A) organic results.

B) dark web results.

C) automatic results.

D) SEM results.

43) Maybelline posts a close-up image of lips wearing a new 18-hour-wear lipstick on its official

Instagram account. Many people like the image, while others comment on the various shade options. Maybelline is engaging in A) mobile marketing.

B) smart-environment marketing.

C) social media marketing.

D) community marketing.

44) A key goal of community marketing is A) generating click-throughs.

B) connecting with consumers.

C) lowering advertising costs.

D) expanding the smart environment.

45) Marketing developed directly for smartphones, tablets, and smart watches is referred to as A) organic marketing.

B) mobile marketing.

C) paid advertising.

D) website marketing.

46) When Jake searches for “used Toyota Camry” on his phone, the first result he sees is an ad

from a local Toyota dealer with images of a Camry for sale. This is an example of A) social media marketing.

B) smart-environment marketing.

C) natural results.

D) mobile marketing.

47) Which aspect of digital marketing creates direct value for consumers?

A) providing product information B) supporting local economies C) increasing brand promotion D) demonstrating corporate social responsibility

48) Reaching a broader range of consumers is a way that digital marketing provides value for A) society.

B) consumers.

C) competitors.

D) the organization.

49) Dollar Shave Club entered the men’s grooming market with untraditional and humorous

YouTube ads designed to look like viral videos. These spots associated the product with stylish young professionals seeking a great shave at a low price. In this situation, Dollar Shave Club used digital marketing to A) change its reputation.

B) create a brand image.

C) replace sales promotions.

D) manage customer experiences.

50) Many people follow model Sommer Ray’s Instagram posts about lifestyle, fitness, and trendy

workout gear. Consumers often look to A) salespeople B) marketers C) executives D) influencers

like Sommer for product recommendations.

51) An organization’s digital target market refers specifically to A) its existing customers.

B) anyone who might purchase similar products.

C) the digital group(s) of consumers it is trying to reach with its marketing efforts.

D) its past and future customers.

52) Rebekah works on the digital marketing team for a company specializing in vegan goods.

She develops two different Instagram accounts, one highlighting the firm’s beauty products and the other focusing on vegan accessories. Rebekah is engaged in A) segmentation.

B) retailing.

C) positioning.

D) branding.

53) In digital marketing, STP refers to segmentation, targeting, and A) planning.

B) packaging.

C) positioning.

D) perception.

54) Customer relationship management focuses on building a(n)

relationship with

customers. This is especially important in digital marketing.

A) in-person B) short-term C) temporary D) long-term

55) What is the digital marketing mix element which refers to providing meaningful experiences

for consumers?

A) allure B) advance C) add D) associate

56) JetBlue has successfully attracted new customers by offering temporary $22 fares to popular

destinations. These 24-hour flash sales demonstrate which aspect of the digital marketing mix?

A) adjust B) advance C) abide D) allure

57) At the onset of the COVID-19 pandemic, The Famous Glorious Seafood Restaurant initiated

online carryout advertising to boost business. At the same time, it ended an online campaign suggesting The Famous Glorious as a special occasion destination. This firm’s response to environmental changes highlights which digital marketing mix element?

A) advance B) adapt C) add D) associate

58) Jeep has been named the “Most Patriotic Brand” in the U.S. for two decades. Jeep owners

enjoy expressing their values of freedom, adventure, and authenticity by owning Jeeps and participating in special off-roading trips organized by enthusiasts and marketed online. The feelings that Jeep owners have about their vehicles are an example of A) conversion.

B) brand association.

C) adjustment.

D) brand analysis.

59) Which of the 7 A’s of the digital marketing mix includes gaining customer insights through

monitoring and measuring online behaviors?

A) analyze B) allure C) associate D) adapt

60) Digital marketing objectives should always be aligned with A) the competition’s strategy.

B) a firm’s overall business objectives.

C) cost reduction strategies.

D) goals of the organization’s top leader.

61) An essential consideration in determining key digital marketing objectives is to A) reduce marketing costs.

B) replace traditional marketing efforts.

C) focus on value creation.

D) emphasize brand exposure.

62) When creating marketing objectives, digital marketers build in

to know whether

specific objectives have been realized.

A) metrics B) redundancies C) line-item budgets D) alternatives

63) Enticing a consumer to sign up for a new online streaming service is an example of which

marketing objective?

A) customer insights B) retention C) conversion D) customer service

64) Teena is investigating how long users browse her website, and which pages they visit most

often. Based on this information, she plans to tweak her site to provide more information to consumers on the most popular products she offers. Teena’s current objective is A) enhancing retention.

B) gaining customer insights.

C) improving customer service.

D) building her brand image.

65) Digital marketers must use

to digital marketing strategy.

A) periodic observation B) in-person focus groups C) employee interviews D) customer data and analytics

to gain customer insights and make meaningful changes

66) A digital strategy offering points and rewards with repeated purchases focuses on which

marketing objective?

A) exceptional service B) loyalty C) conversion D) information

67) The website for Anova features detailed specifications and modern images to showcase its

smart-enabled kitchen products. Each individual product page features a video demonstrating how to use the product, plus apps for recipes and other tips. Also included are lengthy product specs related to performance, durability, and connectivity. Based on this, we can conclude that a key marketing objective for Anova is A) increasing retention.

B) enhancing loyalty.

C) improving customer service.

D) providing information.

68) Which marketing objective highlights recent awards and endorsements from industry

professionals?

A) establish expertise B) provide interactive sales C) gain customer insights D) enhance retention

69) In digital marketing analytics,

activity and outcomes.

A) manipulating B) measuring C) microprogramming D) monitoring

refers to the screening and checking of digital

70) When you determine the net sales revenue a new search ad generates as compared to its cost,

this provides you with which key performance indicator?

A) cost per lead B) return on investment C) cost per acquisition D) click-through rate

71) Which key performance indicator specifies the amount it costs an organization to identify a

new potential contact?

A) cost per lead B) return on investment C) cost per acquisition D) click-through rate

72) A crucial reason that marketers monitor and analyze the organization’s digital marketing

efforts is to A) create a competitive advantage.

B) phase out other marketing efforts.

C) drive down marketing costs.

D) determine if they reached the right audience.

73) A sportwear apparel manufacturer designs an online ad campaign featuring five different

versions of its ad, and learns details for each ad about resulting impressions and clickthroughs. These unprocessed facts are examples of A) tactics.

B) data.

C) algorithms.

D) information.

74)

refers to data analyzed in a way that it is helpful, such as for strategic marketing decision making.

A) Information B) Facts C) Intelligence D) Numbers

75) When marketers use algorithms, data, and artificial intelligence to hypothesize about

potential marketing outcomes, they are utilizing A) augmented reality.

B) predictive analytics.

C) digital positioning.

D) content analysis.

76) Briefly compare digital marketing to traditional marketing.

77) Review the importance of understanding the competitive landscape in developing a digital

marketing strategy.

78) Select an organization you are familiar with and briefly describe at least three macro-

environmental factors which influence its marketing strategies.

79) Compare and contrast search engine optimization (SEO) with search engine marketing

(SEM).

80) Define the core digital marketing concepts of segmentation, targeting, and positioning.

Provide an example for each concept using an everyday product such as toothpaste or bodywash.

81) Develop an example which demonstrates how digital marketing provides value to consumers.

82) Explain the relationship of digital marketing to an organization’s IMC strategy.

83) Briefly describe the seven elements of the digital marketing mix. Why is this framework used

in addition to the traditional Four P’s?

84) Think about websites or mobile applications you have recently engaged with while searching

for information about a specific organization, product, or service. Describe a call-to-action that you observed, and your response to it. Did your response result in a conversion?

85) Define the two key activities used in digital marketing analytics. Why it is important to

incorporate analytics into a digital marketing strategy?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 1) FALSE

To understand digital marketing, we must start with the definition of marketing in general. The American Marketing Association (AMA) says marketing is “the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and society at large.” The AMA refers to digital marketing as “the use of digital or social channels to promote a brand or reach consumers.”

2) TRUE

A common element of many definitions of marketing is value. Digital marketing refers to marketing offerings of value to consumers and society through digital means.

3) FALSE

The Internet is a broad term, which includes the web, in a global network that permits users to communicate, share, and obtain information from anywhere where it is accessible. The world wide web is a part of the Internet and includes various connected documents.

4) FALSE

Email marketing as an example of digital marketing originated back in the late 1970s and so predated the web.

5) TRUE

Eventually, we will enter Web 5.0, described by some as “sensory and emotive,” which will take the web to a new level.

6) TRUE

Digital marketing must adhere to advertising rules under the Federal Trade Commission Act and enforced by the Federal Trade Commission (FTC), including prohibitions against “unfair and deceptive practices.”

7) FALSE

Website marketing is marketing done through one or more websites. Even if no direct sales are being conducted on a website, it is important for organizations to have a website presence.

8) TRUE

Organizations generally do not directly pay for search engine optimization (SEO), but they do pay for search engine marketing (SEM).

9) TRUE

Using Recommendations AI, recommendations will be made to the consumer based on their past activity rather than based on popular recommendations from the same or similar categories, or based on what others were interested in.

10) FALSE

Eventually, people expect that we will be in a true Internet of Everything (IoE) environment, in which almost everything is connected to the Internet. As we move further and further toward use of smart devices, smart robots, smart homes, and even smart cities, digital marketing to the smart environment will play an even greater role for consumers and in society.

11) TRUE

Value is a combination of quality, service, and price, essentially the relationship between what the consumer receives for what they pay.

12) TRUE

Digital trust is the confidence a digital consumer has in an organization or its brand. Building and maintaining both digital trust and digital reputation are important; these may affect whether consumers will purchase an organization’s products or services, come back to buy more, or make referrals to others.

13) FALSE

Digital marketing should be conducted based on the marketing concepts of segmentation, targeting, and positioning, together abbreviated as STP. Digital segmentation is dividing the total digital target market into smaller groups. It is often more effective to aim at a more specific target market than to attempt to serve all markets.

14) TRUE

Digital marketing is about the ability to adapt to and adjust based on changes in the environment and consumer behavior. Digital marketers need to be able to change their approach when the situation warrants and to be flexible in their strategy and tactics.

15) TRUE

Digital marketers must respect and abide by or follow customer preferences. They must understand these preferences through digital accounts and settings or through their digital activity. They must also abide by laws that apply to their digital marketing activities.

16) TRUE

One of the primary objectives of digital marketing is conversion. This involves an action by a consumer engaging with the organization’s digital marketing, which results in an intended objective being met. Conversion may include a sale, a sign-up to a newsletter, a new membership, completion of a survey, or other action.

17) TRUE

The wealth of consumer data available through digital marketing is crucial to understanding customers and gaining customer insights. Data may include time and length of website visits, social media engagement, mobile app downloads and activity, and opening marketing emails.

The types of insights these data may provide include consumer preferences, shopping behavior, and other details that may help with targeting.

18) TRUE

Digital channels may be used to provide customer service. Mobile apps may be used to message organizations about a problem; a website may be used to return a product; and social media may be used to get more information.

19) FALSE

The KPI cost per acquisition (CPA) is the amount it costs an organization to acquire a new customer or achieve one sale.

20) TRUE

Information is data that is analyzed in a way that it is helpful, such as for strategic marketing decision making.

21) D

Marketing, according to the AMA, is “the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and society at large.” A common element of many definitions of marketing is value.

22) C

Marketing is “the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and society at large.” Providing service and product information is a way that firms provide value.

23) B

A brand may be a “name, term, design, symbol,” or other aspect that identifies one organization’s product or service from that of another. Jacuzzillos represents a trademarked brand of hot tubs.

24) A

What is important about digital marketing is that it is always a changing, dynamic process.

25) D

The Internet is a broad term, which includes the web, in a global network that permits users to communicate, share, and obtain information from anywhere where it is accessible. The world wide web is a part of the Internet and includes various connected documents.

26) A

In the 1990s early forms of digital marketing were seen on the web. However, email marketing as an example of digital marketing originated back in the late 1970s and so predated the web.

27) D

Web 3.0, otherwise known as the “semantic web,” involved a “web of data” and was dominant from 2010–2019. Advertising based on a consumer’s online behavior and activity became important in this phase, as did human-machine interaction such that computers became more useful and performed some tasks based on data.

28) C

Web 4.0, the current version, also known as the “symbiotic web,” involves “intelligent interactions” between people and machines.

29) D

A commonly used variation of Aguilar’s PEST analysis (first known as ETPS) is the PESTEL analysis that incorporates the two additional factors of Environmental and Legal.

30) A

The macro-environment is a broad set of the forces generally not in the control of the marketer.

Political factors, including policies relating to foreign trade, may affect digital marketing.

31) B

The macro-environment is a broad set of the forces generally not in the control of the marketer.

Differences in social attitudes toward digital marketing across regions must also be considered.

For example, it is a social norm in many regions to make purchases through digital channels such as smart devices, where available. Lifestyle choices and social trends can also compel digital marketers to be creative in their approaches.

32) D

Digital marketers must be aware of a number of legal considerations. Laws and regulations concerning privacy and cybersecurity are on the rise.

33) B

Digital marketing intermediaries are those individuals, organizations, online services, and platforms that assist in the marketing of products and services of one or more organizations.

34) C

It is important to regularly check the digital platforms that competitors are using and even learn from their digital marketing activity, including what their customers are saying. This is pat of the competitive landscape in digital marketing.

35) B

The micro-environment of digital marketing includes specific factors over which the organization may have some control. The organization itself is the key component of the microenvironment; it must be well-suited to engage in digital marketing and have a well-defined strategic plan backed by top management.

36) D

An email subject line will likely play a key role in determining whether the consumer will open a marketing email.

37) B

Website marketing is marketing done through one or more websites. Even if no direct sales are being conducted on a website, it is important to have a web presence.

38) C

A call-to-action (CTA) is an item in an email or on a website that promotes a desired action.

39) B

Search engine optimization (SEO) involves improving a website to optimize its use by search engines, which often prefer websites that have relevant content and that are secure and accessible. A key benefit of SEO includes ranking highly on search engine results pages (SERPs).

40) C

Search engine optimization (SEO) involves improving a website to optimize its use by search engines, which often prefer websites that have relevant content and that are secure and accessible. Organizations generally do not directly pay for SEO, but they do pay for search engine marketing (SEM). It involves bidding on keywords or keyphrases, the terms consumers use to search within search engines.

41) C

Keywords or keyphrases are the terms consumers use to search within search engines.

42) A

Natural or organic results on SERPs include unpaid links to websites, based on a combination of many factors, and there may be several such results on the page.

43) C

Many consumers are active on social media platforms, such as Facebook, Instagram, LinkedIn, Twitter, YouTube, Pinterest, Snapchat, TikTok, and many others. Social media marketing may include various activities such as social media advertising, promotion, sharing, branding, and otherwise connecting with consumers.

44) B

Community marketing may take place through social media but also through other platforms such as blogs, webcasts, and forums. It involves making a connection, promoting engagement, and building a community with consumers.

45) B

Many activities such as checking email, visiting websites, and engaging in social media activity are conducted through mobile devices such as smartphones, tablets, and smart watches. For this reason, every organization needs a strategy for mobile marketing—marketing specifically for use via mobile devices.

46) D

Today, many activities such as checking email, visiting websites, and engaging in social media activity are conducted through mobile devices such as smartphones, tablets, and smart watches.

For this reason, every organization needs a strategy for mobile marketing—marketing specifically for use via mobile devices.

47) A

For consumers, digital marketing may be a source of information, a way to learn about brand, products, and services, and a method of improving their experience through personalized marketing. This value should continue when a consumer becomes a customer by purchasing a product or service.

48) D

For organizations, digital marketing is a way to promote a brand, market products digitally, and reach those consumers who otherwise would not be reached.

49) B

Digital marketing can also create or enhance the brand image of an organization, which is the perception a consumer has about a brand, including the features and ideas they associate with the brand.

50) D

Influencers may help to enhance the organization’s brand in the minds of consumers, and so create value. Influencers are people, platforms, or organizations that make recommendations relied on by online consumers.

51) C

A target market includes single or multiple identifiable groups toward which an organization will aim its marketing.

52) A

Digital segmentation is dividing the total digital target market into smaller groups. It is often more effective to aim at a more specific target market than to attempt to serve all markets.

53) C

Digital marketing should be conducted based on the marketing concepts of segmentation, targeting, and positioning, together abbreviated as STP. 54) D

Once a consumer becomes a customer, it is important for digital marketers to build digital customer relationships and manage customer experiences with the organization. The goal of customer relationship management is to provide value that builds long-term relationships with customers.

55) C

Digital marketing should add value as a core consideration. It should aim to go above and beyond traditional marketing to provide meaningful experiences to consumers and customers, and also add value to society.

56) D

In digital marketing, allure refers to any experience which will attract or fascinate a consumer.

Methods of allure include promotions, announcements, or enticing initiatives.

57) B

Digital marketing is also about the ability to adapt to and adjust based on changes in the environment and consumer behavior. Digital marketers need to be able to change their approach when the situation warrants and to be flexible in their strategy and tactics.

58) B

Having consumers associate with the brand is essential to provide a meaningful connection.

Digital marketing may play a key role in creating and fostering brand association, which is the link a consumer makes with a brand and its offerings. This may be done through intentional engagement with consumers.

59) A

To analyze the results of digital marketing efforts, organizations use various metrics, or points of measurement. These measures provide the grist for a variety of analytics. Consistently monitoring digital marketing efforts and measuring results is essential.

60) B

Digital marketing objectives must draw from the digital marketing strategy, which is aligned to broader marketing objectives, which in turn are aligned to the overall business objectives.

61) C

When determining objectives, organizations should focus on creation of value for customers and for the organization itself.

62) A

It is crucial to include metrics for each objective. Without a specific metric, it is hard to determine whether the objective has been achieved 63) C

Conversion involves an action by a consumer engaging with the organization’s digital marketing, which results in an intended objective being met. Conversion may include a sale, a sign-up to a newsletter, a new membership, completion of a survey, or other action.

64) B

Data obtained through analytics may include time and length of website visits, social media engagement, mobile app downloads and activity, and opening marketing emails. The types of insights these data may provide include consumer preferences, shopping behavior, and other details that may help with targeting.

65) D

The wealth of consumer data available through digital marketing is crucial to understanding customers and gaining customer insights. Data may include time and length of website visits, social media engagement, mobile app downloads and activity, and opening marketing emails.

66) B

Organizations can enhance loyalty through digital marketing such as offering of points, discounts, or other rewards with purchases.

67) D

Providing information is another objective for digital marketing. Consumers often use digital marketing sources to find more information about a company, a brand, a product or service, and even to make a final purchase decision.

68) A

Strategies that enable an organization to be perceived at the forefront of its field include digital marketing activities such as: websites with substantial, relevant, and authoritative content designed with the experience of the customer in mind; and social media profiles that provide meaningful and informative activity.

69) D

The key activities in digital marketing analytics involve monitoring and measuring. Monitoring is the screening and checking of important activity and outcomes of digital marketing. Measuring involves assessing whether objectives have been achieved.

70) B

Digital marketing return on investment (ROI) is the measure of the amount made through the sale of a product or service divided by the associated cost of the digital marketing.

71) A

The cost per lead (CPL) is the cost to the organization for each new potential customer or contact.

72) D

Failure to monitor, measure, and then analyze various aspects of the digital marketing effort may result in reaching the wrong audiences and substantial loss of marketing expenditure. Using analytics to inform strategies and tactics should be a key component that digital marketers must focus on.

73) B

Data refers to facts or numbers that are not processed. Information is data that is analyzed in a way that it is helpful, such as for strategic marketing decision making.

74) A

Information is data that is analyzed in a way that it is helpful, such as for strategic marketing decision making.

75) B

Digital marketers may engage in predictive analytics, using data, algorithms, and AI to understand potential prospective “outcomes” and to speculate on future possibilities.

76) Essay

According to the American Marketing Association (AMA), marketing is “the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and society at large.”

A common element of many definitions of marketing is value.

Digital marketing is an aspect of marketing that can be done in conjunction with or separately from traditional marketing, defined as that which is not conducted digitally. The American Marketing Association (AMA) refers to digital marketing as “the use of digital or social channels to promote a brand or reach consumers.” Digital marketing is always a changing and dynamic process.

77) Essay

The micro-environment of digital marketing includes specific factors over which the organization may have some control, including competitors.

The competitive landscape in a digital context can be substantial. The internet has opened doors to global competitors that may show up in search engine result pages (SERPs). Finding ways to sustain a competitive advantage—the “superior position” an organization has over its competitors because of the value it provides—is challenging.

It is important to regularly check the digital platforms that competitors are using and even learn from their digital marketing activity, including what their customers are saying. Digital marketers may employ various competitive strategies to sustain such advantage.

78) Essay

Factors which can be discussed include political, economic, social, and technical influences, as well as environmental and legal factors.

Student examples will vary, but should reference these main points: Digital marketers must bear in mind political factors such as import and export costs and shipping considerations relating to specific countries. E-commerce websites that serve international audiences especially need to consider such peculiarities. Countries or regions experiencing political instability may compel digital marketers to reconsider their strategies.

The economic status of certain countries, or across regions or states within countries, may affect which countries or regions should be targeted in the digital marketing strategy.

Organizations must carefully measure fluctuations in demand and supply.

Differences in social attitudes toward digital marketing across regions must also be considered. Consumers decide what they consider to be socially acceptable, and digital marketers must cater to their target market’s understanding and avoid communicating in ways that may offend those understandings. A single communication is not always appropriate in an international setting.

Existing, emerging, and futuristic technologies allow digital marketers to provide exceptional personalized and convenient experiences to consumers in ways that would never have been expected just a few years ago.

Organizations are finding ways to promote environmental factors and be sustainable. This can include avoiding paper waste. Organizations must also consider digital waste and cloud recycling.

Digital marketers must adhere to requirements in privacy and cybersecurity laws, such as the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) and the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the EU. Also, digital marketing must adhere to advertising rules under the Federal Trade Commission Act and enforced by the Federal Trade Commission (FTC), including prohibitions against “unfair and deceptive practices.” Laws and practices also vary between countries.

79) Essay

Search engine optimization (SEO) involves improving a website to optimize its use by search engines, which often prefer websites that have relevant content and that are secure and accessible. Organizations generally do not directly pay for SEO. A key benefit of SEO includes ranking highly on search engine results pages (SERPs), the pages that display ads, weblinks, and other materials based on a search input into a search engine.

Organizations generally do not directly pay for SEO. A key benefit of SEO includes ranking highly on search engine results pages (SERPs), the pages that display ads, weblinks, and other materials based on a search input into a search engine.

Organizations generally do not directly pay for SEO. A key benefit of SEO includes ranking highly on search engine results pages (SERPs), the pages that display ads, weblinks, and other materials based on a search input into a search engine.

Organizations pay for SEM, and paid advertising may be part of an SEM strategy.

Generally, when consumers click on these ads, a cost to an advertiser is triggered.

80) Essay

A target market includes single or multiple identifiable groups toward which an organization will aim its marketing. The target market for Harry’s brand body wash is men.

The target market for Harry’s brand body wash is men.

The target market for Harry’s brand body wash is men.

The market for Harry’s can be segmented into men who typically engage with digital marketing through social media advertising and men who typically engage with digital marketing through email.

Harry’s uses its social media account to highlight the different body wash scent options the company has available.

81) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should reference these main points: The concept of value is central to marketing. Value is a combination of quality, service, and price, essentially the relation between what the consumer receives for what they pay.

For consumers, digital marketing may be a source of information, a way to learn about brand, products, and services, and a method of improving their experience through personalized marketing. This value should continue when a consumer becomes a customer by purchasing a product or service.

82) Essay

Digital marketing is a key aspect of an integrated marketing communication (IMC) strategy. The American Marketing Association (AMA) defines IMC strategy as “a planning process designed to assure that all brand contacts received by a customer or prospect for a product, service, or organization are relevant and consistent over time.” It includes strategies relating to all platforms through which marketing communications will take place, including all types of digital marketing.

Important to an IMC strategy is content marketing, which emphasizes the creation of relevant content that creates value. Creating content that is not relevant or of value to consumers is normally counter-productive in digital marketing.

83) Essay

Add: Digital marketing should add value as a core consideration. It should aim to go above and beyond traditional marketing to provide meaningful experiences to consumers and customers Because organizations do not have unlimited marketing budgets, there should be a measurable return on digital marketing investment.

Allure: It is important to attract consumers through digital marketing. This may involve methods of “allure”—fascinating consumers such as through promotions, announcements, or enticing initiatives.

Advance: Digital marketing helps consumers advance through the steps necessary to convert consumers into customers.

Adapt/Adjust: Digital marketing is also about the ability to adapt to and adjust based on changes in the environment and consumer behavior. Digital marketers need to be able to change their approach when the situation warrants and to be flexible in their strategy and tactics.

Associate: Having consumers associate with the brand is essential to provide a meaningful connection. Digital marketing may play a key role in creating and fostering brand association, which is the link a consumer makes with a brand and its offerings.

This may be done through intentional engagement with consumers.

Abide: Digital marketers must respect and abide by or follow customer preferences. They must understand these preferences through digital accounts and settings or through their digital activity. They must also abide by laws that apply to their digital marketing activities, such as legal notices and prohibitions against misleading advertising.

Analyze: Consistently monitoring digital marketing efforts and measuring results is essential. To analyze the results of digital marketing efforts, organizations use various metrics, or points of measurement.

It is helpful to look at digital marketing through the seven A’s (7A’s) of digital marketing, also called the digital marketing mix. This approach captures the core concept of value while focusing on key aspects of digital marketing strategy.

84) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should reference these main points: Conversion involves an action by a consumer engaging with the organization’s digital marketing, which results in an intended objective being met. Conversion may include a sale, a sign-up to a newsletter, a new membership, completion of a survey, or other action.

Conversion may differ for different types of organizations. A not-for-profit organization seeking memberships may see conversion as the number of new members that have signed up through digital marketing. Conversion for social media marketing may be measured by the number of new subscribers or other metrics.

Conversion will be linked to the outcomes that involve value for both the organization and the consumer.

Conversion rate optimization (CRO) involves techniques to change consumers to those who take a desired step, such as purchasing a product or service. Usually, an express callto-action is employed to increase conversion. This CTA may be a conspicuous button on a website saying Order Now, a link from a social media ad to make a purchase, or a link to download an app.

85) Essay

The key activities in digital marketing analytics involve monitoring and measuring. Monitoring is the screening and checking of important activity and outcomes of digital marketing. Measuring involves assessing whether objectives have been achieved.

Failure to monitor, measure, and then analyze various aspects of the digital marketing effort may result in reaching the wrong audiences and substantial loss of marketing expenditure. It is not enough just to collect data from digital marketing. While regular collection of data is important, monitoring, measuring, and analyzing such data to provide information that can lead to insights is crucial. This information can then be used for digital marketing intelligence, which is information used to make digital marketing decisions.

Chapter 2: Creating Value through Digital Marketing Strategy 86) Overall corporate strategy flows from marketing strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) Determining your firm’s online target market is an essential aspect of digital marketing

strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

88) Digital marketing tactics must support an organization’s overall marketing strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89) Increasing customer conversions is an example of a digital marketing tactic. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90) The first step in creating a strategic digital marketing plan focuses on analyzing the external

environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91) Digital marketers must understand the organization’s mission and vision in order to design an

effective online strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92) Stage 2 of the digital marketing planning process should describe strategies for ensuring

consumer privacy and security. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93) Identifying specific analytics to measure and track digital marketing takes place during the

planning process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

94) The digital value proposition reveals how a consumer would experience allurement. ⊚ true ⊚ false

95) The traditional Four P’s of marketing do not need to be considered by digital marketers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

96) Online ads urge Express clothing customers to buy online, through an app, or in-store. This is

an example of an omni-channel strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) Digital marketing efforts for retailers generally fall outside the parameters of an integrated

marketing communications approach. ⊚ true ⊚ false

98) Over a million consumers follow Chipotle on TikTok, where it posts fun challenges like

#ChipotleLidFlip. This account can be considered a digital asset. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99) One of the 7A’s of digital marketing is “Add,” which refers to adding value for consumers or

society. ⊚ true ⊚ false

The “Abide” strategy addresses the ethical strategies that digital marketers should employ as opposed to the legal regulations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100)

101)

“Advance” digital marketing strategies address issues related to customer conversion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102)

Meena is finalizing a strategic digital marketing plan for an electronics firm. A recap of the firm’s mission, vision, and overall objectives should be the focus of the executive summary section. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103)

Marketing objectives are measurable goals that an organization’s marketing activity is intended to produce. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104)

105)

In a digital SWOT analysis, opportunities and threats are externally focused factors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

As the consumer audience for digital marketing efforts is unlimited, segmentation and targeting are mostly unnecessary. ⊚ true ⊚ false

106)

A digital marketing strategy must include a digital target market, a digital marketing mix, as well as A) the rationale for the overall marketing strategy.

B) strategies to sustain digital competitive advantage.

C) tactics to phase out traditional marketing.

D) the organization’s mission statement.

107)

Organizations first establish a(n) , and from this then flows the A) digital strategy; overall corporate strategy B) marketing mix; corporate strategy C) overall corporate strategy; marketing strategy D) target market; digital strategy

.

108)

A is a specific marketing activity designed to achieve one or more overall marketing goals.

A) tactic B) corporate strategy C) strategic plan D) policy

109)

Lundeen Family Jewelers posts stories on its Instagram account featuring happy customers who have just become engaged with a “Lundeen-guaranteed” ring. This is an example of a(n) A) overall corporate strategy.

B) digital marketing strategy.

C) overall marketing strategy.

D) digital marketing tactic.

110)

Increasing the average amount of time consumers spend interacting with the Sprecher Brewery website is a component of a(n) A) overall corporate strategy.

B) digital marketing strategy.

C) overall marketing strategy.

D) digital marketing tactic.

111)

How do digital marketing strategies fit into an organization’s overall marketing plan?

A) They are one element.

B) They will target an unsegmented audience.

C) They will replace traditional marketing efforts.

D) They are unrelated to overall marketing strategy.

112)

In the strategic digital marketing process outlined in the text, the first stage focuses on A) identifying key digital marketing analytics.

B) conducting a digital SWOT analysis.

C) crafting a value proposition.

D) documenting the overall organizational mission and vision.

113)

refers to understanding both the internal and external environments in which digital marketing occurs.

A) Customer insight B) Situation analysis C) Corporate strategy D) Segmentation

114)

115)

What is an important objective of strategic digital marketing planning?

A) document digital marketing strategies B) establish overall organizational strategy C) evaluate the organization’s mission D) replace traditional marketing strategy

Uber positions itself online as providing high convenience to people who need transportation but don’t drive or don’t own a vehicle. This represents Uber’s A) external environment.

B) situation analysis.

C) digital value proposition.

D) digital tactic.

116)

Joel assigns three members of the firm’s marketing team to work strictly on digital marketing. He also creates a digital marketing budget for the first quarter, and specifies how these team members should track their progress. This represents which aspect of the planning process?

A) Stage One: Organizational and Marketing Overview B) Stage Two: Situation Analysis and Digital Marketing Objectives, Strategies, and Tactics C) Stage Three: Digital Marketing Analytics and Implementation Plan D) Stage Four: Evaluation and Revision

117)

In response to customer inquiries, the manager of Busy Day Bakery decides to highlight the gluten-free menu items on the bakery’s website. This action indicates concern with which of the basic 4 P’s of marketing?

A) product B) pricing C) place D) promotion

118)

119)

Subscription based, flat-fee, bundled, and freemium are all marketing strategies related to A) product.

B) pricing.

C) place.

D) promotion.

Regardless of individual usage, all T-Mobile Magenta customers receive unlimited talk, text, data for the same rate each month. This reflects a pricing strategy.

A) freemium B) bundled C) dynamic D) flat-fee

120)

Spotify provides consumers with a basic, limited music streaming platform at no charge, but offers an unlimited premium service for a fee. This describes a _ pricing strategy.

A) freemium B) bundled C) subscription D) flat-fee

121)

Because she receives a coupon in the mail, Sabina plans to purchase new sheets from Bed, Bath, & Beyond. When Sabina expresses unhappiness with the selection offered in her local store, the salesclerk suggests looking at other options online—and says the coupon still applies. Bed, Bath, and Beyond is using a(n) strategy.

A) single-channel B) digital-only C) omni-channel D) mobile-first

122)

123)

What is considered an optimal digital platform strategy? Platforms chosen must be A) transferable to an SEO strategy.

B) identical to those used by competitors.

C) the broadest available given cost constraints.

D) relevant to the organization’s target market.

Paradise Nursery specializes in trees grown for home landscaping. Most of its website is devoted to tree descriptions and planting guides and does not need frequent updating. This strategy, which supports SEO objectives, utilizes A) evergreen content.

B) interactive content.

C) native advertising.

D) dynamic content.

124)

A marketer who is comparing the channel on which to digitally market is concerned with which of the 4 P’s?

A) product B) pricing C) place D) promotion

125)

Dell successfully sells monitors, desktops, and laptops directly to millions of consumers using a standard pricing model. This disintermediation strategy demonstrates the role of in digital marketing.

A) product B) pricing C) place D) promotion

126)

Use of native advertising, such as an online pharmaceutical ad designed to look like a journal article, is a type of digital strategy.

A) product B) pricing C) place D) promotion

127)

When digital word-of-mouth marketing takes place, an organization’s products and services.

A) consumers B) marketers C) competitors D) advertisers

share information about

128)

Nonna’s Homestyle Foods collects detailed information about the consumers who visit its sites and purchase its products online. It knows, for instance, the average age and geographic location of consumers who purchase family meal kits six or more times a year. This customer information is part of its A) promotional content.

B) digital reputation.

C) evergreen content.

D) digital assets.

129)

digital strategies pique consumer interest, using tactics such as attractive design, creative content and enticing messages.

A) Add B) Allure C) Associate D) Advance

130)

A consumer searching for a replacement filter for an appliance is frustrated by the confusing list of options on a retailer’s website. Adding a live chat feature would enable the consumer to ask a specific question, enter the appliance, brand, and model number, and quickly place an order. Which of the 7 A’s does this strategy demonstrate?

A) associate B) allure C) adjust D) advance

131)

Which of the 7 A’s of the digital marketing mix involves reviewing analytics from existing campaigns and then changing tactics in response to data?

A) associate B) allure C) adjust D) advance

132)

Notre Dame University offers officially licensed merchandise from Fanatics on its website. Notre Dame has found that fans looking for gear with the Notre Dame logo are more likely to purchase from a brand they trust, benefitting both Notre Dame and Fanatics. This strategy represents a(n) A) IMC strategy.

B) strategic relationship.

C) competitor analysis.

D) conversion strategy.

133)

Which of the 7As of the digital marketing mix involves meeting ethical and legal standards?

A) abide B) allure C) analyze D) associate

134)

Digital marketers who investigate what other organizations in the same digital market are doing and assess these other firms’ market position are developing a A) predictive relationship.

B) SWOT analysis.

C) competitor analysis.

D) strategic relationship.

135)

Which element of a formal digital marketing plan includes a few brief paragraphs describing its key points?

A) executive summary B) organizational mission and vision C) digital value proposition D) digital STP

136)

A firm’s should be included in a digital marketing plan in order to describe the organization’s overall purpose and long-term goals.

A) organizational chart B) competitive advantage C) mission statement and vision D) executive structure

137)

The basis for a specific digital marketing objective, such as enhancing customer retention rates by 7 percent, should be the organization’s A) overall marketing goals.

B) external threats.

C) past successes.

D) internal weaknesses.

138)

In conducting a digital marketing situation analysis, considered.

A) digital tactics B) digital threats C) digital strengths D) digital opportunities

139)

140)

are an internal factor to be

Another name for a digital marketing situation analysis is a(n) A) disintermediation strategy.

B) digital value proposition.

C) IMC strategy.

D) digital SWOT.

Brown’s Pet Emporium hopes to attract 10 percent more users to its social media platforms, where it provides existing customers with better pet care tips. This is an example of A) a digital marketing objective.

B) digital segmenting.

C) digital trust.

D) a digital tactic.

141)

Outdoor clothing company L.L. Bean creates digital content designed for customers living in the Northeast and Midwest: especially areas with cold weather and a penchant for outdoor activity. By focusing on these specific consumers, L.L. Bean is engaging in A) audience analysis.

B) digital SWOT. C) audience segmentation.

D) search engine optimization.

142)

Which type of digital segmentation is based on characteristics such as personality, lifestyle, or social class?

A) demographic B) geographic C) psychographic D) behavioral

143)

Using a location-based app to alert consumers to a restaurant’s specials when they are shopping nearby utilizes segmentation strategies.

A) demographic B) geographic C) psychographic D) behavioral

144)

Marketers can choose to base digital segmentation on geographic, demographic, psychographic, or segmentation variables.

A) behavioral B) universal C) educational D) social

145)

A retailer known for selling affordable fashions, tracks the number of times an average consumer visits their website before making a purchase. Based on this information, the company retargets consumers with personalized content after their third visit. This represents which type of segmentation strategy?

A) demographic B) geographic C) psychographic D) behavioral

146)

The digital marketers for a food delivery service describe their typical customer as “Taylor, a single professional living in the city who dines out four or more times a week.”

This description can be thought of as a basic digital A) buyer persona.

B) relationship.

C) personality.

D) asset.

147)

Detailed knowledge and statistics tied to specific customers is referred to as A) Big Data.

B) granular data.

C) strategic information.

D) transparent data.

148)

The best example of a digital value proposition for an office supply store might be A) “We stock a wide variety of supplies.”

B) “Offering ten convenient locations throughout the metro area.”

C) “We offer free delivery with any order over $300.”

D) “To businesses who need affordable supplies quickly, we offer easy online ordering for the budget-friendly office supplies.”

149)

The digital value proposition must offer A) strategies; organization B) value; consumer C) analysis; consumer D) value; organization

to the

.

150)

Improving the user experience associated with an organization’s website, such as adding additional interactive content and engaging images, involves which part of a strategic digital marketing plan?

A) Executive Summary B) Digital Marketing Strategies and Tactics C) Digital Marketing Situation Analysis D) Organizational Mission, Vision, Objectives

151)

Pursuing a mobile-first strategy means that marketers are A) targeting content for the mobile environment from the beginning.

B) adding mobile marketing efforts at a later time.

C) advertising only on mobile devices.

D) eliminating other marketing strategies.

152)

The digital marketing strategy for Vrbo (formerly VRBO) positions its rental offerings as a fun alternative for vacation accommodations. “Fun vacation accommodations” is another way of describing Vrbo’s A) target market.

B) digital trust.

C) marketing tactics.

D) digital brand.

153)

In order to generate effective marketing results, a digital brand should be A) ordinary.

B) evergreen.

C) unique.

D) artistic.

154)

Whenever he makes an online mortgage payment through Central Savings & Loan, Drew feels confident that his transaction will be completed correctly and that his personal financial data is secure. Drew’s confidence in his banking institution can be expressed as A) customer insights.

B) digital trust.

C) customer service.

D) digital privacy.

155)

Which standard does not support ethical digital marketing practices?

A) adhering to “truth in advertising” standards B) disclosing material connections C) using transparent marketing techniques D) making exaggerated product claims

156)

The bounce rate refers to the percentage of website visitors who A) search a term and fail to engage with any results.

B) make a quick purchase and exit.

C) leave after viewing a single page.

D) click through multiple website pages.

157)

Around the holidays, Macy’s sends out a digital coupon via email to all its credit card holders. Marketers who want to know how many recipients actually read this email are interested in which analytic?

A) click-through-rate B) the open rate C) the engagement rate D) the bounce rate

158)

The percentage of website visitors who make a purchase, sign up for a newsletter, or take other actions desired by the sponsoring organization can be measured using a(n) A) click-through-rate.

B) open rate.

C) conversion rate.

D) install rate.

159)

Which element is not necessary to include in the digital marketing implementation/control plan and budget section of the strategic plan?

A) contingency plan B) digital marketing ad copy C) budget D) key resources needed

160)

Sometimes marketers forget to account for contributions related to employee experience, skills, and knowledge. These valuable resources are collectively known as A) man hours.

B) tangible assets.

C) artificial intelligence.

D) human capital.

161)

Briefly review the relationship between corporate strategy, marketing strategy, and digital marketing strategy.

162)

Distinguish between a digital marketing tactic and digital marketing strategy. Include examples to demonstrate each concept.

163)

Provide a brief outline of the three-stage digital marketing planning process.

164)

What is digital STP? What role does it play in the marketing process?

165)

Select an item or service you have recently researched and/or purchased online. Describe related strategies and tactics you observed in terms of the Four P’s.

166)

The digital marketing mix consists of seven types of strategies, each beginning with the letter “A.” Using an example, explain what marketers must consider regarding each of the 7 A’s.

167)

Discuss the importance of competitor analysis in digital marketing. How is this connected with competitive advantage?

168)

Recall the elements of a digital SWOT analysis. Then create a brief digital SWOT for a proposed business: a private rideshare service exclusive to your campus.

169)

170)

Describe the four basic types of digital segmentation.

Define the concept of digital value proposition. Develop a digital value proposition for your university.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 1) FALSE

Digital marketing strategies and plans must start from an overall well-defined organizational or corporate strategy. Such a strategy lays out the high-level actions of an organization that enable it to “gain and sustain superior performance” in relation to its competitors based on a guiding policy and to meet corporate goals. Marketing strategy, in turn, flows from the overall corporate strategy.

2) TRUE

Digital marketing strategy establishes digital marketing goals and lays out the actions and resources needed to achieve these goals. It includes determining a digital target market, a digital marketing mix, and ways to sustain a digital competitive advantage to meet digital marketing goals.

3) TRUE

Digital marketing strategies and tactics that are out of line in relation to overall marketing or corporate strategies may not serve to further the organizational purpose and objectives.

4) FALSE

Digital marketing strategy should be distinguished from digital marketing tactics, which are the more-specific digital marketing activities that are meant to assist in achieving the higher-level overall strategy.

5) FALSE

Stage 1 of the digital marketing planning process documents the overall organizational mission and vision. It is an overview of the organization and its marketing efforts.

6) TRUE

Stage 1 of the digital marketing planning process documents the overall organizational mission and vision. Without understanding what the organization does now or where it wishes to head, it will be difficult to determine appropriately aligned digital marketing strategy and objectives.

7) FALSE

Stage 2 of the digital marketing planning process is to conduct a situation analysis. The goal of a situation analysis is to understand the internal and external environments in which the digital marketing is expected to take place. In this stage, the strategies and tactics will include privacy, security, legal, and ethical considerations.

8) TRUE

Stage 3 of the digital marketing planning process is to identify digital marketing analytics and determine resources and an implementation plan. This stage should identify key analytics that will used to measure and track digital marketing.

9) FALSE

A digital value proposition identifies why a consumer within an organization’s target market should purchase its offering.

10) FALSE

An organization’s general 4P’s strategies may be applied in a digital marketing sense. It is important that the digital marketing aspects of the 4P’s are consistent with the organization’s overall marketing objectives. Digital marketers should further consider the 7A’s of digital marketing.

11) TRUE

Digital marketing place strategies start with decisions about the digital marketing channel, which includes those organizations that are involved in assisting a product or service to be available to consumers. Organizations must decide if they will proceed with an omni-channel strategy. That strategy involves offering their products or services across various channels including different online (digital) channels and in physical retail outlets.

12) FALSE

An integrated marketing communication (IMC) strategy ensures that all contacts received by customers for a product, service, or organization are consistent over time. Adopting optimal IMC strategies will allow an organization to employ various communication strategies to reach and appeal to consumers. Part of an IMC strategy is the selection of optimal digital platform strategies.

13) TRUE

An organization may build a set of digital assets—all of the digital items of value that an organization owns, including content, data, websites, and accounts. These items are considered digital assets if they have value for the organization and consumers.

14) TRUE

The product or service offered by an organization must add value, and digital marketing should be able to promote that value or be a source of value itself. Digital marketers should ask if a digital marketing strategy adds further value.

15) FALSE

As part of “Abide” strategies, digital marketers must abide by legal regulations relating to advertising, privacy, and security. Ethical strategies should be employed to ensure digital marketing meets ethical standards.

16) TRUE

Advance strategies are those that address failure of customers to advance toward a purchase.

Digital marketers must carefully research why consumers are not converting and then implement conversion strategies that will help advance the buying process.

17) FALSE

The executive summary is a short summarizing statement of the strategic digital marketing plan, usually three to five paragraphs, which places the plan in context and includes the key points covered.

18) TRUE

The organization’s overall marketing objectives are measurable goals that the organization’s marketing activity is intended to produce. They may include, among others, specific sales growth, increased brand awareness, increased customer retention, and market growth.

19) TRUE

A digital SWOT analysis specifies the organization’s digital strengths, digital weaknesses, digital opportunities, and digital threats. Strengths and weaknesses are internally focused factors; opportunities and threats are externally focused factors.

20) FALSE

Digital STP (segmentation, targeting, and positioning) is an essential aspect of the digital marketing plan. Digital segmentation may be based on demographic, geographic, psychographic, and behavioral segmentation variables.

21) B

A digital marketing strategy establishes digital marketing goals and lays out the actions and resources needed to achieve these goals. It includes determining a digital target market, a digital marketing mix, and ways to sustain a digital competitive advantage to meet digital marketing goals.

22) C

An overall corporate strategy lays out the high-level actions of an organization that enable it to “gain and sustain superior performance” in relation to its competitors based on a guiding policy and to meet corporate goals. Marketing strategy, in turn, flows from the overall corporate strategy.

23) A

Digital marketing strategy should be distinguished from digital marketing tactics, which are the more-specific digital marketing activities that are meant to assist in achieving the higher-level overall strategy.

24) D

Digital marketing strategy should be distinguished from digital marketing tactics, which are the more-specific digital marketing activities that are meant to assist in achieving the higher-level overall strategy.

25) B

Digital marketing strategy establishes digital marketing goals and lays out the actions and resources needed to achieve these goals.

26) A

Digital marketing strategy should not be developed without first understanding and placing it in the context of general marketing strategy. Organizations should continue to employ key marketing strategies as they develop specific digital marketing strategy as one key element to the overall marketing strategy. The focus of digital marketing strategy will be on creating value through digital means.

27) D

Stage 1 of the digital marketing planning process documents the overall organizational mission and vision. It is an overview of the organization and its marketing efforts.

28) B

The goal of a situation analysis is to understand the internal and external environments in which the digital marketing is expected to take place. The organization should identify specific and measurable digital marketing objectives that will be used to guide the rest of the plan.

29) A

The strategic digital marketing planning process is the procedure that digital marketers engage in to plan and document strategic direction for digital marketing activities. During this process, a strategic digital marketing plan—a document that outlines key digital marketing strategies based on the organization’s environment, objectives, and other key considerations—may be developed.

30) C

A digital value proposition is a proposal about why a consumer within an organization’s target market should purchase its offering.

31) C

Stage three of the digital marketing planning process is to identify digital marketing analytics and determine resources and an implementation plan. The budget and nonfinancial resources that will be allocated to digital marketing should be determined and documented, along with how the strategic digital marketing plan will be implemented.

32) A

An organization’s general 4P’s strategies may be applied in a digital marketing sense. Products and services of an organization must provide value to consumers. Digital marketing product strategies should include communicating that value to digital consumers.

33) B

An organization’s general 4P’s strategies may be applied in a digital marketing sense. Digital consumers may often compare prices using search engines and other digital tools. Several digital marketing pricing strategies are frequently used: subscription-based, flat-fee, bundle, and freemium, among others.

34) D

With a flat-fee pricing strategy, customers pay an agreed-upon, unvarying fee for whatever level of service they use during a contract period.

35) A

Some organizations adopt a freemium pricing strategy in which they offer a basic service at no charge and consumers pay for added services or a premium service level.

36) C

Digital marketing place strategies start with decisions about the digital marketing channel.

Organizations must decide if they will proceed with an omni-channel strategy. That strategy involves offering their products or services across various channels including different online (digital) channels and in physical retail outlets.

37) D

Part of an IMC strategy is the selection of optimal digital platform strategies, that is, selecting those platforms that are relevant to an organization’s target markets.

38) A

A key factor of content strategy is creating appropriate content for various digital marketing platforms that should enable search engines to determine which search results to display as relevant content. Evergreen content, which remains “continually relevant” over time, is often created with SEO in mind.

39) C

Digital marketing place strategies start with decisions about the digital marketing channel, which includes those organizations that are involved in assisting a product or service to be available to consumers. For many organizations, a carefully designed digital channel strategy is optimal, enabling consumers to interact with the organization and its products and services through a variety of digital channels.

40) C

A disintermediation strategy is one digital marketing place strategy. Digital marketing may assist an organization to reach a consumer directly and thus effectively eliminate or reduce the number of channels. A disintermediation strategy involves removing or not including channel members, also known as intermediaries.

41) D

According to the Content Marketing Institute, native advertising is paid advertising whose content “matches the form, feel, function, and quality of the content of the media on which it appears.” This is a promotion strategy.

42) A

Consumers can spread helpful information about their relationship with an organization or its products and services via online dialogue with others—that is, via digital word-of-mouth (WOM) marketing.

43) D

With digital marketing, an organization may build a set of digital assets—all of the digital items of value that an organization owns, including content, data, websites, and accounts. These items are considered digital assets if they have value for the organization and consumers.

44) B

Allure strategies attract consumers using creative and informative content, attractive design, enticing messages, and relevant information.

45) D

Factors that may lead to a failure to advance include lack of relevant information, clunky processes, unenticing design, non-user-friendly approaches, poor customer experience or user experience, high perceived prices, or low perceived value. Advance strategies are those that address failure of customers to advance toward a purchase.

46) C

Digital marketers must be ready to adapt or adjust their digital marketing strategies and tactics according to how well a campaign is performing or the environment in which the marketing is taking place. To know how well a campaign is performing, specific digital marketing analytics need to be reviewed and acted upon.

47) B

Digital marketers should create strategic relationships—valuable associations and partnerships that help digital marketers achieve their objectives. Partnering with other organizations, people, influencers, and platforms may allow digital marketers to achieve new heights.

48) A

Digital marketers must abide by legal regulations relating to advertising, privacy, and security.

Ethical strategies should be employed to ensure digital marketing meets ethical standards.

49) C

Digital marketers need to understand the competitive landscape in which they operate. They will create a competitor analysis that analyzes what other organizations in the same digital market are doing and what their position is in such market.

50) A

The executive summary is a short summarizing statement of the strategic digital marketing plan, usually three to five paragraphs, which places the plan in context and includes the key points covered.

51) C

Section 1 of the digital marketing plan lays out the organization’s mission, vision, and objectives.

The goal of this section of the strategic plan is to ensure that readers know the organization’s overall mission, vision, and objectives.

52) A

All digital marketing objectives should be directly linked to overall marketing objectives and support these.

53) C

A digital marketing situation analysis describes the internal and external environments in which the digital marketing is being pursued. Strengths and weaknesses are internally focused factors; opportunities and threats are externally focused factors.

54) D

A digital marketing situation analysis describes the internal and external environments in which the digital marketing is being pursued. Also called a digital SWOT, this analysis specifies the organization’s digital strengths, digital weaknesses, digital opportunities, and digital threats.

55) A

An organization may wish to focus on specific digital marketing objectives that are tied to overall marketing goals. For example, organizations may intend to increase digital conversion rates, gain specific digital customer insights, enhance retention rates, or increase digital brand image. It is important that these objectives are accompanied by metrics.

56) C

Digital segmentation involves dividing the total digital market into smaller groups, in order to target some of these segments later. Such audience segmentation divides a group into specific segments (audiences) such as demographically. Segmentation is worthwhile because it is unlikely that an organization can fulfill the needs of many consumers broadly.

57) C

Digital segmentation involves dividing the total digital market into smaller groups, in order to target some of these segments later. Psychographic segmentation divides a digital market based on consumers’ personal characteristics such as social class, personality, lifestyle.

58) B

Geographic segmentation enables digital marketers to concentrate on specific regions, cities, states, or countries. Mobile-app marketers may adopt a location-based strategy by targeting consumers in particular geographic areas, potentially enticing them to shop based on a local deal they receive to their mobile device while visiting a particular area.

59) A

Digital segmentation is based on demographic, geographic, psychographic, and behavioral segmentation variables.

60) D

Behavioral segmentation divides a digital market based on behavioral characteristics such as existing purchase history of website or mobile app customers. Shopping behavior, such as what time consumers shop, where they ship, and where they fall within the spectrum of quality versus price interest are all possible considerations related to behavior.

61) A

Part of understanding the digital target market is knowing the digital buyer. Therefore, digital marketers may want to build a digital buyer persona, which is an outline of what the organization knows about its target consumers.

62) B

While conducting digital STP, it is important to get as much granular data as possible—that is, data that includes detailed aspects tied to specific customers.

63) D

A digital value proposition is a unique, convincing proposal about why a consumer within an organization’s target market should purchase its offering(s). Writing a solid digital value proposition is crucial; it enables an organization to document what it offers for its target market(s). Digital value propositions should follow a set format.

64) B

The digital value proposition allows a consumer to recognize value in the offering and may assist in their decision to purchase. It is a unique, convincing proposal about why a consumer within an organization’s target market should purchase its offering(s).

65) B

Digital Marketing Strategies and Tactics (Section 5) is the heart of the strategic digital marketing plan. It states the key digital marketing strategies and tactics an organization intends to pursue.

This often includes website design strategies and tactics, including analysis of the user experience.

66) A

It is crucial for an organization to have a mobile-first strategy, which involves thinking about mobile marketing from the start, rather as a later add-on to traditional devices. This strategy requires digital marketing efforts such as websites to be designed for and suited to a mobile environment first, as that is where consumers are likely to engage.

67) D

A digital brand encompasses the various qualities that provide an organization, product, service, or person their uniqueness, as perceived by a consumer based on digital marketing activities.

68) C

A digital brand encompasses the various qualities that provide an organization, product, service, or person their uniqueness, as perceived by a consumer based on digital marketing activities.

69) B

Digital trust is the firm belief or confidence in an organization when a consumer is engaging in a digital transaction. By building trust, digital marketers will likely see an increase in conversion, retention, and loyalty.

70) D

A digital marketing ethical strategy may “emphasize transparent, trustworthy, and responsible” marketing. Digital campaigns that exaggerate the truth, are not transparent, or are offensive may be considered unethical depending on the specific activity and standards the organization adopts.

71) C

For website marketing, the bounce rate is the percentage of website visitors who leave after visiting a single page.

72) B

An open rate is the percentage of recipients who open marketing communications.

73) C

The website conversion rate is the percentage of visitors to the website who take a desired action, such as purchasing.

74) B

Section 8 indicates how the organization will implement the digital marketing identified in the of the strategic plan. This should include what the organization will do and by when. It also should identify a contingency plan, the expected budget, and key resources. You may want to add an appendix to include specific campaign samples such as digital marketing ad copy, social media copy, email marketing samples, and other material that is too large to put within the plan itself.

75) D

Determining the budget may need to be done in conjunction with finance and budgeting personnel. Be sure to consider the human capital that will be required. This will be the collective resources possessed by individuals and groups dedicated to digital marketing, including digital marketing skills, knowledge, experience, and other factors.

76) Essay

An overall well-defined organizational or corporate strategy lays out the high-level actions of an organization that enable it to “gain and sustain superior performance” in relation to its competitors based on a guiding policy and to meet corporate goals. Marketing strategy, in turn, flows from the overall corporate strategy; it involves determining a target market, a marketing mix, and a plan to build a sustainable competitive advantage to meet overall marketing goals.

Following from the organization’s marketing strategy, digital marketing strategy establishes digital marketing goals and lays out the actions and resources needed to achieve these goals. It includes determining a digital target market, a digital marketing mix, and ways to sustain a digital competitive advantage to meet digital marketing goals.

77) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should include the following concepts: Digital marketing strategy establishes digital marketing goals and lays out the actions and resources needed to achieve these goals. For example, a digital marketing strategy may include the goal of increasing web traffic by a certain percentage.

Digital marketing tactics are the more-specific digital marketing activities that are meant to assist in achieving the higher-level overall strategy. Digital marketing tactics may include adding an email marketing campaign to direct more traffic to the firm’s site.

78) Essay 1. Stage 1 of the digital marketing planning process documents the overall organizational

mission and vision. It is an overview of the organization and its marketing efforts.

2. Stage 2 of the digital marketing planning process is to conduct a situation analysis, determine digital marketing objectives, strategies, and tactics, and factor in other key considerations. The goal of a situation analysis is to understand the internal and external environments in which the digital marketing is expected to take place.

3. Stage 3 of the digital marketing planning process is to identify digital marketing analytics and determine resources and an implementation plan. This stage should identify key analytics that will be used to measure and track digital marketing. Also, the budget and nonfinancial resources that will be allocated to digital marketing should be determined and documented, along with how the strategic digital marketing plan will be implemented.

79) Essay

Digital STP refers to segmentation, targeting, and positioning. After identifying this information for the sponsoring organization, digital marketers will identify key digital marketing strategies and tactics.

80) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should reference the following concepts: Product: Products and services of an organization must provide value to consumers.

Example: replacement car brakes are sold by many automotive service providers. Value was offered by a firm providing a lifetime guarantee for this product.

Example: replacement car brakes are sold by many automotive service providers. Value was offered by a firm providing a lifetime guarantee for this product.

Example: replacement car brakes are sold by many automotive service providers. Value was offered by a firm providing a lifetime guarantee for this product.

Example: The pricing strategy for car brakes is often a flat-fee (purchase and installation for a set price). Service providers decide if the pricing offered is the same for all customers (in-person, online appointments, bundled services, etc.)

Example: One digital marketing channel for car owners needing brake replacements are websites advertising this service.

Example: Midas, a national automotive repair chain, has recently incorporated a new logo and animated spokesperson into all its marketing efforts. It includes coupons on its website and provides volume discounts to consumers contracting for more than one service.

81) Essay

Answers will vary.

82) Essay

A competitor analysis assesses what other organizations in the same digital market are doing and what their position is in such market. It looks at: Who are the organization’s current competitors?

Who are the organization’s potential future competitors?

What key digital strategies do they use?

What are their digital tactics? Are these successful?

How can our organization respond effectively?

Following/mimicking some of what competitors are doing.

Learning from mistakes made by competitors.

Carefully selecting digital platforms to compete on.

Employing competitive vigilance and being prepared to respond to changes in the competitive landscape.

Hiring outside assistance if in-house digital resources are limited.

83) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should reference the following concepts, and include appropriate examples for each SWOT category: A digital SWOT analysis specifies the organization’s digital strengths, digital weaknesses, digital opportunities, and digital threats.

Strengths and weaknesses are internally focused factors; opportunities and threats are externally focused factors.

Internal strengths: hyperlocal focus; dynamic pricing strategy Internal weaknesses: app development incomplete; driver availability External opportunities: few students own cars; digitally savvy customers External threats: well-known competitors; rising insurance costs; low profit margin 84) Essay

Digital segmentation may be based on demographic, geographic, psychographic, and behavioral segmentation variables, Demographic segmentation divides a group into smaller audiences based on statistical divisions such as age, education, income, or gender.

Geographic segmentation enables digital marketers to concentrate on specific regions, cities, states, or countries when placing search ads on Google or other search engines.

Psychographic segmentation divides a digital market based on consumers’ personal characteristics such as social class, personality, lifestyle.

Behavioral segmentation divides a digital market based on features of behavior, such as existing purchase history of website or mobile app customers.

85) Essay

A digital value proposition is a unique convincing proposal about why a consumer within an organization’s target market should purchase its offerings. The digital value proposition allows a consumer to recognize value in the offering and may assist in their decision to purchase.

Student examples will vary.

Chapter 3: Digital Consumer Behavior and Customer Relationship and Experience Management 171)

When you purchase movie tickets online using your smartphone, you are considered a digital consumer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

172)

173)

A digital customer and a digital consumer perform the same set of actions. ⊚ true ⊚ false In marketing, “going viral” can be a low-cost strategy that delivers maximum impact. ⊚ true ⊚ false

174)

The digital conversion funnel is roughly similar to the AIDA model which identifies stages that individuals go through in the process of purchasing a product. ⊚ true ⊚ false

175)

When a consumer seeks more information about the latest iPhone model and how to obtain it, they’ve entered the first stage of the digital conversion funnel. ⊚ true ⊚ false

176)

Consumers move through the digital conversion funnel at their own pace. ⊚ true ⊚ false

177)

Digital marketers must plan for the entire consumer decision-making process to take place across the same device. ⊚ true ⊚ false

178)

Consumer decision-making begins with recognition of a need or problem to be solved, such as the need for transportation to get to work. ⊚ true ⊚ false

179)

Marissa needs a new phone, and decides on a maximum budget of $400. She begins the buying process by searching online, clicking on an ad, and reading posted reviews on the Best Buy website. Finally, Marissa interacts with an online service rep to get her final questions answered. These moments in Marissa’s consumer journey are thought of as customer insights. ⊚ true

⊚ false

180)

The Coach Outlet Store engages in digital marketing efforts to sends website visitors a series of pop-up ads adjacent to their email. These ads are personalized and feature the specific products the consumer previously viewed. This describes a retargeting strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

181)

A digital buyer persona represents an organization’s current, not potential, customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

182)

A digital buyer persona often reflects customer preferences for engaging via mobile technology. This information can help drive digital marketing strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

183)

Digital marketers require a single digital buyer persona to fully understand their target market. ⊚ true ⊚ false

184)

Comfort levels regarding digital privacy are becoming more important in understanding and reaching the digital consumer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

185)

Customer relationship management systems are decreasing in importance in digital marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

186)

Customer relationship management can help organizations target areas which need improvement, such as customer service. ⊚ true ⊚ false

187)

CRM systems center around interpersonal customer engagement to build relationships with online only consumers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

188)

Customer lifetime value refers to the current value of all profit anticipated from one customer during the entire fiscal year. ⊚ true ⊚ false

189)

An essential goal of digital customer experience management is providing increased value to the customer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

190)

The Zeigarnik effect suggests that offering a complicated set of choices can slow down consumer decision-making. ⊚ true ⊚ false

191)

A parent orders a replacement laptop to be shipped directly to their son’s dorm after his is stolen. In this situation, the parent is a , while the son represents a .

A) digital decision-maker; digital influencer B) digital customer; digital consumer C) digital influencer; digital buyer persona D) digital consumer; digital customer

192)

193)

Offering a digital consumer a personalized shopping experience is most likely to A) anger the customer.

B) decrease customer conversion.

C) reduce customer lifetime value.

D) improve the customer experience.

Anglers Online Direct determines that consumers browse its site several times before making a purchase. However, once customers have received and used their products, Anglers learns that they make additional purchases once or twice a month. This information is an example of A) customer lifetime value.

B) digital consumer behavior.

C) digital group influences.

D) digital convenience.

194)

In the digital marketing environment, digital culture involves the knowledge, beliefs, and practices of in an online context.

A) consumers B) marketers C) organization employees D) phishers

195)

Marketers for Chick-fil-A determined that customers did not like waiting in long drivethrough lines for food when they were on the go. They developed the Chick-fil-A app to deliver faster service—with an added bonus of accruing points towards free food items when using the app. Offering this application to customers generated A) personalized experiences.

B) digital convenience.

C) consumer trust.

D) digital consistency.

196)

The use of allows companies to personalize a customer’s online experience.

A) digital group influences B) viral marketing C) shared stories D) digital monitoring

197)

Followers of lifestyle blogger Lauren Conrad make purchases based on her fashion and skin care product recommendations, netting her an estimated $50 million in endorsements.

Lauren Conrad is best described as a(n) A) digital influencer.

B) digital customer.

C) information architect.

D) organizational marketer.

198)

Which activity primarily takes place when marketers engage in digital monitoring?

A) manipulating consumer impressions B) safeguarding consumer data C) promoting consumer products D) tracking consumer behavior

199)

Videos showing people taking part in the ALS ice bucket challenge circulated rapidly online, as individuals kept forwarding the funniest videos to all their friends. This low-cost effort brought widespread attention to the ALS funding campaign. It is a good example of marketing.

A) viral B) cultural C) influencer D) convenience

200)

The digital conversion funnel is most similar to A) the product life cycle.

B) Porter’s five forces.

C) the AIDA model.

D) the Ansoff matrix.

201)

Anna reads an online blog about a personal safety alarm which attaches to a keychain.

She doesn’t know where to purchase one, but thinks it sounds like a good product. Anna is at the stage of the digital conversion funnel.

A) action B) interest C) desire D) awareness

202)

In the phase of the digital conversion funnel, a consumer may sign up for a service, such as a Netflix monthly subscription.

A) action B) interest C) desire D) awareness

203)

Which action would occur when a consumer enters the interest phase of the digital conversion funnel?

A) A consumer downloads an app.

B) A consumer is first exposed to a brand.

C) A consumer signs up for a free trial.

D) A consumer clicks on an ad.

204)

Because of space limitations, Felipe waits until he moves to a new place to purchase an outdoor grill. He is now comparing models online and checking if any retailers are offering free assembly and shipping. Felipe is at the stage of the digital conversion funnel.

A) action B) interest C) desire D) awareness

205)

In terms of the digital conversion funnel, customers move through the buying process A) in a very rapid manner.

B) in different ways, and at their own pace.

C) in similar ways, and at the same pace.

D) in a straight linear progression.

206)

The customer journey in the consumer decision-making process can best be described as A) a steady progression from recognition to search to purchase.

B) nearly identical for everyone.

C) a direct path leading to a purchase.

D) unique for every individual.

207)

Doreen plans to visit her parents at Thanksgiving and realizes she needs to book her travel online while direct flights are still available. She is in the phase of the consumer decision-making process.

A) search B) assessment C) recognition D) evaluation

208)

When a consumer views online sources for more information or seeks product recommendations on social media, they are in the_ phase of the consumer decisionmaking process.

A) evaluation B) assessment C) recognition D) search

209)

Cal wants to improve his golf game. After reading blogs written by professional players, he determines he needs to buy a rangefinder. At this point in his purchase process, Cal is in the phase of the consumer decision-making process.

A) evaluation B) assessment C) recognition D) search

210)

Reinforced consumer loyalty and retention may occur during which step of the digital consumer decision-making process?

A) choice B) assessment C) recognition D) search

211)

The path a customer takes from their first digital interaction to online purchasing and then assessing a product is referred to as A) the personalized experience.

B) the product life cycle.

C) the customer relationship.

D) the customer journey.

212)

A consumer is enticed by an online ad and clicks on it. They then browse the company’s website and interact with its chatbot. After another website visit the next day, the consumer ultimately makes a purchase and receives an email confirming the order and its estimated delivery date. These interactions with this company and its marketing efforts are types of A) digital influences.

B) customer touchpoints.

C) customer insights.

D) personalized marketing.

213)

During the customer purchase journey, digital marketing should be involved A) during the recognition and assessment phases.

B) at the purchases phase.

C) at every customer touchpoint.

D) when traditional marketing efforts do not apply.

214)

Which digital marketing effort for a furniture store describes a customer touchpoint?

A) A consumer looking at sofas online requests two fabric samples.

B) The firm creates a digital buyer persona: “a young professional man in his early 30s who lives in an urban condo.”

C) The company decides to pursue affiliate marketing with a seller of area rugs.

D) Marketers examine the click-through rates for two versions of a new online ad.

215)

The Home Spa Company sends advertising with flash sales to consumers who recently viewed products on its website but did not make a purchase. Home Spa is using A) a retargeting strategy.

B) customer insights.

C) an affiliate marketing plan.

D) influencer appeals.

216)

A fitness center chain agrees to partner with a manufacturer of high-end workout gear by including a small ad on its website. Every time a customer clicks on this ad, the manufacturer pays the fitness chain a set fee. This is an example of A) customer evaluation.

B) retargeting.

C) affiliate marketing.

D) customer relationship management.

217)

A firm’s marketers build a buyer persona based on marketing strategy.

A) the target market B) general consumer profiles C) their competitors’ customers D) industry standards

218)

in order to hone their

The general purpose of developing a digital buyer persona is to A) alter existing consumer behavior.

B) analyze the competition.

C) identify and understand patterns of consumer behavior.

D) prepare a report for stakeholders.

219)

When creating multiple digital buyer personas, your firm may A) focus on its idealized market identity.

B) enhance the user experience your firm’s website provides.

C) base the personas on past experience in digital marketing.

D) tailor products to specific personas.

220)

The bring your own persona (BYOP) concept is based on the idea that A) consumers all bring different levels of digital comfort to the buying process.

B) digital consumers differ significantly from other types of consumers.

C) all consumers show predictable patterns of behavior.

D) the consumer buying process cannot be easily understood.

221)

Creating customer loyalty programs and offering special email promotions to online customers are types of A) customer journeys.

B) digital user experiences.

C) customer relationship management.

D) consumer decision-making.

222)

Firms connect and bond with their digital customers through the use of A) customer relationship management systems.

B) SEO strategies.

C) recommender systems.

D) digital reputation management.

223)

Which digital marketing activity would be considered a direct part of customer relationship management?

A) creating a report about conversion rates B) texting existing customers a message about a flash sale C) developing two versions of an online ad D) assessing the technical aspects of the user interface

224)

The value of all profit anticipated from one person during the entire time they are a customer of the organization is referred to as A) customer lifetime value.

B) the monetization rate.

C) customer satisfaction value.

D) user stickiness.

225)

U.S. Flag Source, a firm specializing in display flags for government offices and businesses, begins monitoring all its online interactions. Customers who contact customer service or return a product automatically receive an online buy one/get one free offer. U.S. Flag Source is using customer relationship management to A) improve site accessibility.

B) provide increased value to customers.

C) attract new customers.

D) analyze purchasing patterns.

226)

CRM systems can help organizations measure customer content the customer is with a product and the service offered.

A) loyalty B) attrition C) retention D) satisfaction

, which indicates how

227)

TOMS Shoes understands that its customers care deeply about helping others. When a customer purchases a pair of shoes, TOMS rewards them by donating a pair of shoes to someone in need. This results in a higher-than average percentage of repeat customers. At TOMS, customer relationship management is used to A) shorten the customer journey.

B) increase loyalty.

C) replace traditional advertising.

D) improve customer service.

228)

229)

A good strategy for improving your firm’s digital customer experience is to A) improve the website user experience.

B) monitor all digital competition.

C) focus on the organization’s needs.

D) move the customer relationship management function online.

Digital marketers for Midlands Bank are working to optimize the bank’s mobile website.

The new site will feature simple and engaging graphics, a condensed menu for easy mobile browsing, and a chat feature for on-the-go customer service. In optimizing this site, marketers are focusing on A) customer conversion.

B) information architecture.

C) the user experience.

D) customer lifetime value.

230)

Click testing and eye-tracking are ways marketers can assess digital A) reliability.

B) credibility.

C) usability.

D) accessibility.

231)

When Andre accesses a local Chinese restaurant’s website, he finds that its online menu is organized under just three headings: appetizers, soups, and entrees. Ordering a meal is fast and easy, as Andre really just wants a few appetizers. This website design reflects which user experience (UX) principle?

A) the Zeigarnik effect B) the Pareto principle C) Hick’s law D) the aesthetic usability effect

232)

Digital marketers understand that only 20% of digital marketing inclusions may be credited for 80% of conversions, known as A) the Zeigarnik effect.

B) the Pareto principle.

C) Hick’s law.

D) the Peter principle.

233)

Difficulty or confusion in completing an online order causes customer frustration, often leading consumers to exit a site without making a purchase. This basic element of website design involves A) information architecture.

B) the user interface.

C) interaction design.

D) the reliability effect.

234)

When digital marketers focus on refining a site’s information architecture (IA), they are most concerned with improving A) desirability and findability.

B) reliability and credibility.

C) accessibility and desirability.

D) usability and findability.

235)

Effective information architecture (IA) smoothly coordinates context, content, and A) consumers.

B) developers.

C) sellers.

D) marketers.

236)

Consumers accessing a real estate website find the site attractive and easy to navigate, but its listings are out of date and links to video tours do not always work. In terms of information architecture, which aspect of this site needs more attention?

A) consumers B) accessibility C) content D) context

237)

Tiana is shopping online for office supplies. When she selects an item and adds it to her cart, a checkmark appears next to the item on the webpage. This is an example of A) microinteraction.

B) microanimation.

C) responsive web design.

D) a landing page.

238)

The best example of a digital microanimation is A) an eye-tracking analytic which assesses how long a consumer looks at a screen.

B) a feature which enables a consumer to adjust the font size on an online order form.

C) a link on an Instagram post which connects a user to a product website.

D) a countdown timer that alerts the consumer to time remaining to complete a ticket purchase.

239)

Marketers incorporate microinteractions into digital sites in order to A) obscure product flaws.

B) demonstrate voice and tone.

C) improve the consumer experience.

D) collect customer data.

240)

A website design based on minimalism uses A) images instead of words.

B) a simple and uncluttered layout.

C) lengthy and extended text.

D) multiple photos and text blocks.

241)

Website content should have a consistent , which reflects the brand’s personality. It is determined based on the brand, the digital channel and the information being conveyed.

A) voice B) layout C) tone D) mood

242)

A craft store features a image of a shopping cart on its webpage to signal that users can visit their cart to review what is placed in it or to checkout. This website is using to transmit meaning.

A) shapes B) icons C) color D) mood

243)

A recent user-experience design trend is the use of shapes which are A) straight and boxy.

B) fluid and curvilinear.

C) symmetrical and static.

D) geometric and angular.

244)

When consumers receive a similar message across website, advertising, and social media channels, they feel the source is trustworthy. This describes a consumer experience.

A) consistent B) minimalistic C) transparent D) creative

245)

In digital marketing, clear disclosure of information about a product or service is an ethical standard known as A) desirability.

B) accessibility.

C) findability.

D) transparency.

246)

Compare the digital consumer with the digital customer. Provide an example of each.

247)

Discuss the importance of digital convenience in reaching consumers.

248)

Using the AIDA-based digital conversion funnel, review a student’s online journey in thecollege selection process.

249)

Two individuals are interested in purchasing an electric-assisted bicycle (or other product of your choice). Create two different versions of their decision-making process. Assume that at least one individual made a purchase.

250)

Think about the process of purchasing a book online. Describe all the various customer touchpoints this may involve.

251)

Explain the concept of a digital buyer persona. What elements might be included?

252)

What is digital customer relationship management (CRM)? How can CRM increase retention and loyalty?

253)

What is the goal of digital customer experience management? How can it benefit the customer? How can it benefit the organization?

254)

Describe the components of effective information architecture (IA) as noted by Peter Morville.

255)

Explain guidelines for the general use of language, voice, and tone in digital marketing.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 1) TRUE

A digital consumer is one who uses electronic means to obtain products and services.

2) FALSE

Technically, a digital customer is one who purchases a product, service, or offering of an organization, while a digital consumer is one who uses or consumes it.

3) TRUE

Digital marketers want to have things “go viral” among relevant consumers. When applied to the Internet, viral means relating to or involving an image, video, or piece of information that is circulated rapidly and widely from one Internet user to another. This strategy may be a low-cost avenue to garner much attention, promotional capital, and brand value.

4) TRUE

In 1898, St. Elmo Lewis introduced the AIDA model that identifies the stages that individuals go through in the process of purchasing a product: Awareness, Interest, Desire, and Action. An AIDA-based digital conversion funnel identifies the stages a potential customer may go through to progress from awareness and eventually arrive at a digital purchase decision and beyond.

5) FALSE

The digital conversion funnel, based on the AIDA model, identifies the stages a potential customer may go through to progress from awareness and eventually arrive at a digital purchase decision and beyond. In the third stage, the desire stage, the consumer wishes to take next steps, has the ability to do so, and seeks more information.

6) TRUE

The digital conversion funnel identifies the stages a potential customer may go through to progress from awareness and eventually arrive at a digital purchase decision and beyond.

Consumers may move through the funnel in different ways.

7) FALSE

Digital marketing may greatly affect the digital consumer decision-making process—the process that most digital consumers will go through as they make decisions about which products and services they will purchase. Note that the process may not happen all at once, and consumers may engage in the process across different devices.

8) TRUE

Digital consumers may first recognize an issue or problem they wish or need to resolve. This may be a product they need, such as medication, or a product or service they want, such as a vacation package.

9) FALSE

During the decision-making process, digital marketers may track and review digital consumer behavior such as online searches, purchases, and social media and mobile app activity. Such tracking can provide customer insights, information about customers’ thoughts and preferences, which may be collected from various digital sources.

10) TRUE

Digital consumers may not purchase in the first instance in which they engage with an organization’s digital marketing. A retargeting strategy may be appropriate, in which an organization for a second or subsequent time presents to a consumer ads pertinent to what they were perusing, such as on an organization’s website.

11) FALSE

The digital persona is based on an organization’s target market, and even though it is not an outline of a real customer, it reflects current or sought-after customers.

12) TRUE

A digital buyer persona consists of key details an organization knows about its target consumers.

These include demographic variables, customers’ goals and frustrations, and preferred technology/channels. Understanding a consumer’s goals, what their challenges are, the technology they use, their personality, and their motivations will help digital marketers to tailor their marketing to them.

13) FALSE

The number of personas that will need to be created will depend on the nature of the organization and what it offers. For some organizations, many buyer personas may be necessary, and products may even be tailored to each of these personas.

14) TRUE

Digital marketers must be ready to recognize and adjust to various buyer personas in order to remain relevant and successful. Over time, digital savviness is changing, and more and more consumers are becoming aware of privacy considerations.

15) FALSE

Managing digital customer relationships is paramount in digital marketing and is key to success.

These relationships may be built with the assistance of digital customer relationship management (CRM), which includes all the processes by which an organization connects and bonds with customers.

16) TRUE

CRM systems can help identify gaps in the satisfaction process, such as when a customer chats with customer service and rates that they are not satisfied with the service provided. If organizations actively seek out these gaps, they may ensure that the customer will be satisfied and keep coming back.

17) FALSE

Digital customer relationship management (CRM) includes all the processes by which an organization connects and bonds with customers. These software systems use customer data to build relationships and provide personalized experiences to customers.

18) FALSE

Customer lifetime value (CLV) which is the current value of all profit anticipated from one customer during the entire time they are a customer of the organization.

19) TRUE

Digital marketers should strive to provide an exceptional digital customer experience (DCX) across customer touchpoints. A great experience can add value for consumers, advance them through the conversion process, and allow them to associate the organization with a positive experience.

20) FALSE

The Zeigarnik effect says that consumers remember incomplete or “interrupted tasks” more than ones that were completed. Thus, bad website, app, or social media experiences can disrupt or override good ones.

21) B

Sometimes the term digital consumer is used interchangeably with the term digital customer, although these terms have distinct meanings. Technically, a customer is one who purchases a product, service, or offering of an organization, while a consumer is one who uses or consumes it.

22) D

When digital marketers or the systems they employ know the consumer, the digital consumer may receive personalized experiences, shopping experiences tailored specifically for them. Both the personalized experiences and the relevance may increase revenue and improve the customer experience.

23) B

The term digital consumer behavior refers to all of the procedures adopted by consumers in an online context when searching, selecting, buying, using, and even discarding products and services secured through digital channels.

24) A

Digital consumers may be affected by any number of influences. One of those is digital culture, along with the group influences that contribute to that culture. Digital culture involves “knowledge, beliefs, and practices” of consumers in an online context, which may or may not be different from those in an offline context.

25) B

Digital convenience describes consumers’ ability to search for, view, and compare information on products and services online, complete purchases, and to do this at any time and through any device. Digital convenience is a major factor for consumers.

26) D

One aspect of digital consumer behavior is the desire of some consumers for personalized experiences. To personalize consumer experiences, digital marketers do digital monitoring of consumer behavior, using various technical mechanisms to track and review consumer activity online.

27) A

Increasingly, digital influencers are having an impact. They are humans or technological personas who affect a consumer’s buying decision by virtue of their fame, Internet presence, position, recognition, or other factor.

28) D

To personalize consumer experiences, digital marketers do digital monitoring of consumer behavior, using various technical mechanisms to track and review consumer activity online. For example, organizations may track a customer’s activity while logged into the organization’s website.

29) A

Digital marketers want to have things “go viral” among relevant consumers. When applied to the Internet, viral means relating to or involving an image, video, or piece of information that is circulated rapidly and widely from one Internet user to another. Digital marketers seek to create digital marketing that consumers talk about, share, and/or otherwise promote to relatively high levels.

30) C

The AIDA-based digital conversion funnel identifies the stages a potential customer may go through to progress from awareness and eventually arrive at a digital purchase decision and beyond.

31) D

In the awareness stage of the digital conversion funnel, the consumer becomes aware of a brand or its products or services through a digital channel. At this stage, the consumer may have come across information or a digital ad and has been exposed to specific digital marketing.

32) A

In the action stage of the digital conversion funnel, the consumer pays, signs up, downloads, or takes other desired action. The consumer may purchase the product or service, subscribe to a newsletter, or download an app.

33) D

When the consumer enters the interest stage of the digital conversion funnel, they may visit the organization’s website, click on an ad, or conduct some additional review.

34) C

In the desire stage of the digital conversion funnel, the consumer wishes to take next steps, has the ability to do so, and seeks more information. The consumer may look further into the product or service, get information about how to order the product (including its price and shipping details), chat with the organization about buying, or even try the product.

35) B

Customers may move through the digital conversion funnel in different ways.

36) D

Digital marketing may greatly affect the digital consumer decision-making process—the process that most digital consumers will go through as they make decisions about which products and services they will purchase. Note that the process may not happen all at once, consumers may engage in the process across different devices, and the process may not happen in the typical order.

37) C

Digital consumers may first recognize an issue or problem they wish or need to resolve. This may be a product they need, such as medication, or a product or service they want, such as a vacation package.

38) A

In the evaluation phase, digital consumers may evaluate alternatives online, narrowing down their possible choices. A number of possible online sources, such as informational websites or social media, can help with such evaluation.

39) D

In the search phase, digital consumers conduct an online search to find a product or service that may resolve their issue or problem. The search may be performed using search engines, social media, or other sources.

40) B

When the product arrives or is picked up, consumers will assess the product or service after the purchase. If the product goes beyond expectations, consumers may be likely to come back, purchase again, refer it to others, and trust the brand. This may lead to greater loyalty and retention.

41) D

Digital marketing plays a key role in the customer journey—the path a customer takes from preliminary interaction to purchase and beyond.

42) B

Customer touchpoints are the moments of interaction between the consumer and the organization and its marketing efforts.

43) C

Digital marketing plays a key role in the customer journey—the path a customer takes from preliminary interaction to purchase and beyond. Digital marketing should be involved at all customer touchpoints, moments of interaction between the consumer and the organization and its marketing efforts.

44) A

Customer touchpoints are moments of interaction between the consumer and the organization and its marketing efforts. For example, if a consumer clicks on a search ad, arrives on a website, puts an item into the shopping cart, and chats with the AI chatbot to get a question answered before making a purchase on the website, each of these will be considered customer touchpoints.

45) A

Digital consumers may not purchase in the first instance in which they engage with an organization’s digital marketing. A retargeting strategy may be appropriate, in which an organization for a second or subsequent time presents to a consumer ads pertinent to what they were perusing, such as on an organization’s website.

46) C

Affiliate marketing is a strategy of engaging an affiliate (such as another website operator), usually through a commission or reimbursement-based model, whereby the affiliate gets paid for customers referred.

47) A

The digital buyer persona is based on an organization’s target market, and even though it is not an outline of a real customer, it reflects current or sought-after customers.

48) C

The digital buyer persona is based on an organization’s target market, and even though it is not an outline of a real customer, it reflects current or sought-after customers. These personas help to “identify similar patterns of behavior that result in commonly held goals.”

49) D

The personas that will need to be created will depend on the nature of the organization and what it offers. For some organizations, many buyer personas may be necessary, and products may even be tailored to each of these personas.

50) A

According to the bring your own persona (BYOP) concept, instead of people showing patterned, predictable behaviors that can be segmented into targeted buyer personas, consumers bring their own different levels of digital comfort to the buying process.

51) C

Digital customer relationships may be built with the assistance of digital customer relationship management (CRM), which includes all the processes by which an organization connects and bonds with customers.

52) A

Customer relationship management (CRM) systems help digital marketers manage customer relationships. These software systems use customer data to build relationships and provide personalized experiences to customers.

53) B

Digital customer relationship management includes all the processes by which an organization connects and bonds with customers. It may include some or all the interactions that the customer has had with the organization and its digital assets, such as website account activity, engaging with email promotions, making purchases, and chats with customer service.

54) A

Building great customer relationships can help to improve customer lifetime value (CLV) which is the current value of all profit anticipated from one customer during the entire time they are a customer of the organization.

55) B

Managing digital customer relationships is paramount in digital marketing and is key to success.

It helps organizations to digitally provide value to customers in ways that are useful to them. It creates a connection between customers and the organizations and encourages further interaction between them.

56) D

Customer satisfaction is the degree to which a customer is content with a product or service and the organization’s customer service. CRM systems can help identify gaps in the satisfaction process, such as when a customer chats with customer service and rates that they are not satisfied with the service provided.

57) B

A CRM system also can help with loyalty and retention. Loyalty describes the feeling of customers who not only prefer buying from an organization but also continue purchasing despite the marketing strategies of a competitive product. A positive customer experience may lead to increased digital engagement which in turn can increase loyalty and sales.

58) A

Consumers need to be given exceptional digital consumer experiences throughout their journey.

In digital marketing, user experience (UX) plays a key role in the experience of customers and may enhance conversion.

59) C

User experience (UX), an aspect of customer experience (CX), is how digital marketing (such as a website) “feels” for consumers and how engaging and usable it is. It involves what the consumer feels, thinks, and senses and the action they take when interacting and engaging with digital activities of an organization.

60) C

Unpleasant perceptions or experiences can lead visitors to bounce (leave the website or app). To enhance usability and user experience (UX), digital marketers may do various types of usability testing, including click testing, preference testing, and eye-tracking.

61) C

Hick’s law says that the time it takes for a consumer to make a decision increases with increased complexity of choice. To improve UX, there should not be an abundant or complicated set of choices such as a disproportionate number of pages or options.

62) B

Under the Pareto principle, about 80% of effects can be attributed to 20% of the causes.

63) B

User interface (UI) is the interaction between humans and digital systems and devices. From a website marketing angle, the interface needs to be accessible and easy for consumers to use and understand.

64) D

Information architecture (IA) is the structural design of shared information environments. IA particularly supports two of the factors of the user experience honeycomb—usability and findability—to enhance the consumers’ digital experience.

65) A

Information architecture is the structural design of shared information environments. Effective IA consists of the harmonious coordination of three circles of IA—context, content, and users (consumers).

66) C

In digital marketing, consumers are the users, the context includes the environment in which the consumers make decisions, and the content is the information provided through digital marketing.

67) B

Microanimation is the use of small images in digital marketing. These small images may help lead consumers through interactions or add playfulness within digital marketing.

68) D

Microanimation is the use of small images in digital marketing. These small images may help lead consumers through interactions or add playfulness within digital marketing.

69) C

Microinteractions are small actions that consumers are encouraged to take in digital marketing assets. For example, an option to allow a consumer to adjust the size of or zoom into an image to look closer at a product may be helpful to their experience, and they may behave differently as a result. Strategic use of both microanimation and microinteraction can improve the digital customer experience.

70) B

Minimalism is the concept of simplicity in design. Adopting a minimalistic approach involves keeping the design simple and not cluttered.

71) A

As the term is used in digital marketing, voice involves the brand’s personality, which is relatively constant and should reflect the overall brand. Various voice types used—from authoritative to conversational to educational to quirky—will depend on the brand, the information being conveyed, and the digital channel, 72) B

Icons are an important function of digital marketing. These images or symbols help consumers identify actions, steps, or features. Icons used in digital marketing typically are in the form of small images that represent a specific action.

73) B

A recent UX-design trend has been a shift from traditional geometric shapes, based on principles of math, toward organic shapes that are more fluid, may be curvilinear, and are similar to natural items such as a rock or animal.

74) A

Consistency is the agreement of the various aspects of digital marketing and can help to build or improve trust. Consistency of message gives consumers the same or similar experiences across digital channels.

75) D

Digital marketers should ensure transparency which includes the visibility of information about a product or service. Transparency in digital marketing can lead to trust in the digital consumer experience.

76) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should reference the following concepts: A digital consumer is one who uses electronic means to obtain products and services.

This individual consumes or uses the product/service.

A digital customer is someone who uses electronic means to purchase goods and services.

For example, a parent may purchase an online service for their child, and it is the child who will use the service. In that case, the parent is the digital customer, and the child is the digital consumer.

77) Essay

Digital convenience describes consumers’ ability to search for, view, and compare information on products and services online, complete purchases, and to do this at any time and through any device.

Digital convenience is a major factor for consumers. It therefore is important for digital marketers to understand digital consumer behavior with regard to the various factors of digital convenience—time of browsing, purchasing, and engagement with digital marketing, as well as the devices used to engage in such activities. Full understanding of digital convenience enables digital marketers to tailor their marketing to such times and devices.

78) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should reference the following concepts: In the awareness stage, the consumer becomes aware of a brand or its products or services through a digital channel.

When the consumer enters the interest stage, they may visit the organization’s website, click on an ad, or conduct some additional review.

In the desire stage, the consumer wishes to take next steps, has the ability to do so, and seeks more information.

In the action stage, the consumer pays, signs up, downloads, or takes other desired action.

79) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should reference the following concepts: The consumer decision-making process may not happen in the order of stages set out as listed below. It may be that a consumer will go through the process across various devices or digital marketing methods, for example.

Recognition: Digital consumers may first recognize an issue or problem they wish or need to resolve.

Search: Digital consumers may then conduct an online search to find a product or service that may resolve that issue or problem. The search may be performed using search engines, social media, or other sources.

Evaluation: Digital consumers may then evaluate alternatives online, narrowing down their possible choices. A number of possible online sources, such as informational websites or social media, can help with such evaluation.

Choice and purchase: If satisfied, or if value is perceived, consumers may make a choice and purchase online. This decision may stem from a number of criteria used by the consumer to reach their conclusion, such as price, quality, brand, or other factors.

Assessment: When the product arrives or is picked up, consumers will assess the product or service after the purchase. After purchase, a consumer may be satisfied if their perceived expectations were met or dissatisfied if they were not. Even better, the product may have gone beyond their expectations, and the consumer may be “delighted” with the purchase.

80) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should reference the following concepts: Digital marketing plays a key role in the customer journey—the path a customer takes from preliminary interaction to purchase and beyond. Digital marketing should be involved at all customer touchpoints, moments of interaction between the consumer and the organization and its marketing efforts.

For example, if a consumer clicks on a search ad, arrives on a website, puts an item into the shopping cart, and chats with the AI chatbot to get a question answered before making a purchase on the website, each of these will be considered customer touchpoints.

81) Essay

A digital buyer persona is a draft of what an organization knows about its target consumers. The persona is based on an organization’s target market, and even though it is not an outline of a real customer, it reflects current or sought-after customers. These personas help to “identify similar patterns of behavior that result in commonly held goals.” The persona should include demographic variables, customers’ goals and frustrations, and preferred technology/channels.

The persona should include demographic variables, customers’ goals and frustrations, and preferred technology/channels.

The persona should include demographic variables, customers’ goals and frustrations, and preferred technology/channels.

82) Essay

Digital customer relationship management (CRM) includes all the processes by which an organization connects and bonds with customers.

A CRM system can help with loyalty and retention. Loyalty describes the feeling of customers who not only prefer buying from an organization but also continue purchasing despite the marketing strategies of a competitive product. A positive customer experience may lead to increased digital engagement which in turn can increase loyalty and sales.

Retention is essentially keeping customers or keeping them coming back. With potentially high costs of acquiring customers, streaming services such as Netflix and Disney+, for example, must take calculated steps to retain customers. Digital marketing can be a key factor in customer retention efforts, and to do this effectively, digital marketers must continue to provide an exceptional customer experience and ongoing value.

83) Essay

When the customer experience takes place mainly through digital means, we refer to it as digital customer experience (DCX). The goal of DCX management is to provide a great overall customer experience and to increase satisfaction and loyalty in digital settings.

DCX management benefits both customers and the organization. A great experience can add value for consumers, advance them through the conversion process, and allow them to associate the organization with a positive experience. Companies that actively employ a CX outlook report 4 percent to 8 percent greater revenue as compared to companies in their industry.

84) Essay

Morville suggests that effective IA consists of the harmonious coordination of three circles of IA—context, content, and users. In digital marketing, consumers are the users, the context includes the environment in which the consumers make decisions, and the content is the information provided through digital marketing.

What each circle represents depends on the type of marketing: In social media marketing, the social context in which the consumer may make a decision should be considered, such as reviews and influence by others. In website marketing, site content should be created and organized in a way that is easily accessible and navigable. For example, a disorganized website, social media page, or app may very well detract from the experience. Apps with low resolution and blurry images, or websites that are difficult to navigate because of complex webpages where products are hard to find can detract from the consumer’s experience.

85) Essay

Language: Digital marketers should write content that the target audience will understand and like to read. It is important to avoid industry jargon unless industry-specific terms are commonly known, or the terms are explained for likely visitors.

Voice: Voice involves the brand’s personality, which is relatively constant and should reflect the overall brand. Various voice types used—from authoritative to conversational to educational to quirky—will depend on the brand, the information being conveyed, and the digital channel.

Tone: Tone describes emotive expression—it’s how you express the brand’s personality and is changeable, depending on mood, digital channel, and the situation. It may be funny, calming, or helpful, among other tones. The tone used in digital marketing must always match audience preferences. For example, the tone for a modern technology brand may differ significantly from that for a professional financial services firm.

Chapter 4: Website Marketing Strategy 256)

In modern business, organizations of all sizes should have a dedicated website. ⊚ true ⊚ false

257)

Animation and 3D text were widely used website design features in the early 1990s. ⊚ true ⊚ false

258)

Websites are intended to create value for organizations, not for customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

259)

Effective websites have particular objectives aligned with the organization’s digital marketing strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

260)

All organizational websites focus on the same universal marketing goal: to provide information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

261)

Electronic databases associated with a website can be used to obtain insights into customer behaviors and needs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

262)

Websites are ineffective tools for customer retention efforts as they are intended only for conversion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

263)

Having a website presence is a clear indication of credibility. ⊚ true ⊚ false

264)

Hiring a specialty IT or marketing firm is required to build a website. ⊚ true ⊚ false

265)

Longer website domain names are universally preferred because they aid in search engine optimization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

266)

It is a good idea to register domains with misspelled versions of a brand’s name to prevent unwanted, unauthorized, or unethical uses by others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

267)

When a digital marketer describes a website as fully accessible, they mean it looks attractive across all types of devices. ⊚ true ⊚ false

268)

Collecting cookies helps organizations protect consumer’s PII, or personally identifiable information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

269)

An example of minimalistic website design is a clean and simple background featuring important but limited content. ⊚ true ⊚ false

The “voice” used in a website’s content describes its emotional expression, and should fluctuate often with the mood and the situation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

270)

271)

It is always preferable to rely strictly on evergreen website content rather than to revise time-relevant or time-sensitive information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

272)

Images that are copyrighted by others generally should not be used for a website unless a valid exception exists. ⊚ true ⊚ false

273)

Conversion data cannot be measured via website analytics. ⊚ true ⊚ false

274)

Google Analytics shows the lifetime value of new website users in its reporting. ⊚ true ⊚ false

275)

The total length of time a user interacts with a website page is a measurement known as user stickiness. ⊚ true ⊚ false

276)

Ultimately, organizations create websites in order to provide A) community awareness and goodwill.

B) value related to the marketing strategy.

C) public employee communication platforms.

D) forums for consumer comments and complaints.

277)

What are consumer expectations for organizational websites in the 2020s?

A) text without animation or illustrations B) accessible on one or two platforms C) limited search capability D) valuable features through the use of existing and emerging technologies

278)

Websites provide substantial value to customers by A) enhancing the brand image.

B) collecting consumer insights.

C) automating customer service.

D) providing a source of sales.

279)

Enhancing brand image and being part of an integrated marketing communication strategy are ways that websites A) give back to society.

B) help organizations better serve their customers.

C) increase consumer choice.

D) contribute value to the organization.

280)

The primary goal for digital marketers is to create a(n) provides value and helps guide traffic to the site.

A) evergreen B) award-winning C) optimized D) accessible

website, one that

281)

The website for Brooker Pottery Company attracts consumers looking for architectural tile ideas for renovation projects. The site’s attractive design and easy-to-use visualization tools help consumers picture how Brooker’s products will look in their own spaces. A prominently placed “Today’s Deal” feature convinces many website users to make purchases on a first or second site visit. Based on this information, the most likely marketing objective for this website is A) increasing conversion.

B) enhancing retention.

C) establishing expertise.

D) gaining customer insights.

Betty’s Budget Blinds developed a website with a “quick ship” section: customers can order two styles of blinds in standard sizes for immediate shipment. These customers do not need an in-person appointment to order, but must still contact Betty’s to schedule installation.

What is the overall marketing objective this website supports?

A) enhancing brand exposure B) increasing sales C) improving customer service D) facilitating social interaction

282)

283)

284)

A landing page is a webpage that consumers arrive at when they A) type in a web address.

B) search a keyword.

C) find an organization’s homepage.

D) click on search ads.

In addition to a design supporting visitor conversion, what should be included on a landing page?

A) up-to-date and relevant consumer content B) complete company history and contact information C) the firm’s current organizational chart D) links to past advertising

285)

A enables marketers to scan data on each page of a website and send it to various Google Analytics reports.

A) call-to-action button B) tracking code C) search field D) universal product code

286)

Brenna’s boss asks her to locate information on customers who purchased their most expensive athletic shoes in the last three months, including customer names, total purchase amount, contact information, and recent website visits. To quickly find this information, Brenna should access A) the firm’s annual report.

B) the website’s heat maps.

C) the quarterly sales report.

D) the website’s database(s).

287)

Otis sells fashion jewelry through an online retail site. He wants to determine which product images attract the highest number of views, and which web pages generate the highest sales volume. How should Otis obtain the most accurate information?

A) read through chatbot conversations with consumers B) track consumer interactions and other data on the site C) conduct an online survey with existing customers D) analyze customer retention data for the past quarter

288)

Priya browses the Gilt website several times a week to keep up with the latest trends. She loves finding bargain designer fashions, and orders something for herself a few times a month. Gilt tracks Priya’s website interactions in order to A) gain customer insights.

B) improve employee productivity.

C) establish its expertise.

D) increase its credibility.

289)

A high-end restaurant features information on its website about its recent James Beard Foundation Award for Best New Restaurant. Which website marketing objective is supported by this action?

A) gain customer insights B) enhance customer loyalty C) improve customer service D) establish expertise and excellence

290)

The ability of to understand plain human language as it is spoken and written is known as natural language processing.

A) company executives B) customer service reps C) computer programs D) foreign customers

291)

A national paint retailer encourages consumers to visualize new paint colors for their home by uploading a photo to their site and virtually painting it on. This opportunity enhances the customer’s experience and drives sales. This is considered A) enhanced customer service.

B) an interactive experience.

C) brand differentiation.

D) credibility building.

292)

293)

Which website strategy is especially helpful in building consumer trust?

A) using artificial intelligence B) monitoring loyalty programs C) adding strong security and privacy D) providing basic information

Which website marketing objective directly involves helping consumers make purchase decisions by including details about products and services?

A) providing information B) building organizational reputation C) increasing trust D) enhancing retention

294)

The Planet Green Cleaning Services website includes a section devoted to its methods and cleaning agents. It shows an image of every individual product the company uses, along with details on ingredients, manufacturers, and environmental ratings. Planet Green urges consumers to make the greenest cleaning choices possible even when they are handling the job themselves. A marketing objective for this site is to A) develop customer interactions.

B) enhance loyalty.

C) provide information.

D) improve customer service.

295)

Parallax Medical Devices wants to maximize opportunities for customer engagement, and decides to create a targeted marketing website. The first step for the Parallax marketing department in developing this site is A) conducting a focus group.

B) deciding who will create it.

C) selecting a domain name.

D) acquiring a website-building tool.

296)

297)

Wordpress, Weebly, and Wix are all examples of A) programming languages.

B) e-commerce hosting platforms.

C) website-building tools.

D) website design firms.

What is a special consideration in developing a mobile-first strategy for a marketing website?

A) desktop capabilities B) avoiding links C) including virtual reality D) size of mobile screens

298)

An effective strategy for selecting a website’s domain name is to choose one that A) is shorter.

B) mimics a competitor.

C) includes a catchy phrase.

D) is hyphenated.

299)

The database can be searched to find the owner of a domain name.

A) ERIC B) Google Scholar C) WHOIS D) LexisNexis

300)

In Amazon’s URL, https://www.amazon.com/, .com refers to the A) retail B) base C) top-level D) third-level

domain.

301)

Employers with questions about labor practices can navigate to the U.S. Department of Labor at https://www.dol.gov/. How can site visitors be confident they have reached an official government website?

A) the www prefix B) the .gov top-level domain C) an HTTPS identifier D) a DOL logo on a website

302)

One way to help prevent unwanted, fraudulent, or unethical use of an organization’s website is to A) print bold warnings across the top of every website page.

B) continuously monitor the Internet for fraudulent use.

C) retain lawyers to prosecute unethical users.

D) register the domain name and all similar/misspelled variants.

303)

What is the most accurate description of website accessibility?

A) Sites designed to enable access by people of all abilities.

B) Sites created for both English and non-English speaking individuals.

C) Sites compatible with desktop and mobile devices.

D) Sites designed with simple fonts and minimal color.

304)

The optimum time for an organization to think about website privacy and security is A) immediately before the site’s public launch.

B) when the marketing content has been approved.

C) during the initial site creation.

D) after the first security breach.

305)

are files that can be used to retain a consumer’s website preferences.

A) Cookies B) Snapshots C) Heat maps D) Interactives

306)

Twice a year, Dev and his IT team are asked to assess their firm’s primary website. Team members check its loading speed, internal linking, usability, performance, and security. A marketing department staff member also reviews the site’s SEO strategy and effectiveness.

These individuals are involved in A) A/B testing.

B) website design.

C) a website audit.

D) a focus group.

307)

Marketers employing user experience design focus on creating a site which is accessible, usable, and A) basic.

B) engaging.

C) cost-effective.

D) flashy.

308)

Which site best meets the goals of user experience design for consumers?

A) Sunkist, an agricultural cooperative of citrus growers, has a website which focuses on information about families who grow fruit. Maps show where growers are located.

B) The Hudson Family Jewelers site tells the history of the firm and provides biographies of family members now working at the firm. Images of firm’s founders are included.

C) The website for Sling streaming service shows a colorful moving backdrop filled with hundreds of channel logos. It also features a prominent call to action button for free trial service.

D) The Paper Source has used the same website design for decades. Its pages are filled with rows of small product images, using random fonts and background colors. Users must navigate to the end to purchase a product.

309)

In terms of user experience design, a site which is “useful” is designed to A) build trust with consumers.

B) include emotional design elements.

C) be easy to navigate.

D) provide valuable information to the consumer.

310)

Designers must incorporate consumers can easily navigate the site.

A) desirability B) findability C) accessibility D) credibility

311)

into UX website design. This means that

Becca hires a web designer to create a unique and attractive website for her wedding planning business. She wants site visitors to click on images of dream wedding styles, which will open to reveal beautiful, motion-based events featuring unique decor, lighting, and florals amidst a musical background. Becca wants to apply strategies related to A) interaction design.

B) responsive web design.

C) information architecture.

D) progressive web apps.

312)

If a web designer strives to create a site in which its elements automatically adjust to fit a variety of devices, they are using A) Hick’s law.

B) responsive web design.

C) interaction design.

D) the Pareto principle.

313)

What tool helps marketers identify the most popular elements of a web page?

A) information architecture B) cookies C) UX design D) heat maps

314)

Binh is searching for a flight on a discount airline’s website. When he selects an option, the “purchase now” button turns into a tiny airplane after he clicks on it, and then begins to “fly” as his transaction is being processed. Binh understands that his purchase has gone through when the airplane “lands” and the words “Payment Confirmation” appear in its place.

Watching the airplane icon move during the transaction is an example of A) a microinteraction.

B) responsive web design.

C) an avatar.

D) a progressive web app.

315)

Use of small images on a website to help site visitors see different product angles is referred to as A) microinteractions.

B) microanimation.

C) microanalysis.

D) microscaling.

316)

Which statement should web designers keep in mind regarding use of color?

A) Avoiding using white in favor of other colors is preferred.

B) Including green suggests illness, such as seasickness or nausea.

C) Feelings associated with colors may be culturally based.

D) Using contrasting colors tends to confuse consumers.

317)

Which strategy is not recommended in designing digital marketing websites?

A) Incorporate images of real people.

B) Fill each page with multiple images and graphics.

C) Highlight product features using images instead of text.

D) Select graphics based on the site’s purpose.

318)

When incorporating video into an organization’s website, which approach best facilitates consumer engagement?

A) Embed it into the site.

B) Add a link to external video content.

C) Reference the video and where it may be accessed.

D) Use text and images to describe video content.

319)

Ang is designing a website emphasizing how his company’s dental products line maintains consumers’ oral health, improves their appearance, and supports their overall wellness. He adds a feature allowing consumers to locate products in their zip code. Ang is focusing on developing content which A) provides value to consumers.

B) creates a pleasant reading experience.

C) expresses brand personality.

D) adapts to consumer behavior.

320)

Regarding website content, based on context.

A) voice B) rhythm C) tone D) style

describes emotive expressions, which changes

321)

When Jarrad accesses a travel website, he conducts a search for tickets to Amsterdam.

When he visits the site again, similar suggestions are displayed for Jarrad. His experience with the travel website reflects A) just-in-time content.

B) interactive content.

C) evergreen content.

D) dynamic content.

322)

Rainmaker Marketing has been hired to collect and review website data related to customer conversion, satisfaction, and retention for Aptar Electronics over two years.

Rainmaker Marketing is responsible for A) digital marketing.

B) website analytics.

C) responsive web design.

D) website hosting.

323)

Organizations using Analytics tools to gather and assess key marketing intelligence information are cautioned to get legal advice and employ when using this tool.

A) a heat map B) a website developer C) an adequate privacy policy D) a legal team

324)

Faizal heads the digital marketing team for a regional theater chain. To demonstrate that the firm needs a mobile-first strategy, Faizal shows that within the last hour, 82 percent of website users were on mobile devices, and about half of these consumers purchased online tickets. To provide this information, Faizal accessed a(n) A) Engagement overview.

B) position-based attribution model.

C) User Acquisition overview report.

D) Realtime overview report.

325)

Right before an important meeting, Lara is asked to generate an executive summary of website data for the new “prestige” lipstick line. Meeting attendees are strictly interested in the number of users, users by state, and total revenue. To generate this information, Lara can use which feature of Google Analytics?

A) User-Acquisition Overview Report B) Engagement Overview C) Tech Overview D) Reports Snapshot

326)

The average value of purchases per new user for a particular time period is a measure known as A) lifetime value.

B) customer attribution.

C) user stickiness.

D) daily active users.

327)

Which type of attribution model should markets use if they wish to proportionately credit each touchpoint in the consumer’s process?

A) last-interaction attribution model B) first-interaction attribution model C) linear-attribution model D) time-decay attribution model

328)

Team members responsible for keeping Sentry Fashions’ website running effectively want information on website users by platform, device, and operating system. They are also interested in how the site looks on each type of device or screen used. To get this information, the team should review which Google Analytics report?

A) User-Acquisition Overview Report B) Engagement Overview C) Tech Overview D) Reports Snapshot

329)

Jenni runs a mid-sized home health care business, and wants to calculate her business website’s user stickiness ratio. Jenni needs which information?

A) the daily active users and the monthly active users B) the last channel customers used to access the website C) the average value of contracts per new user D) the number of retargeting ads and the number of conversions

330)

A real estate brokerage is reviewing how often the same visitors access its website. The brokerage wants to increase this number, knowing that it often leads to greater customer engagement and increased sales. Which metric reveals the information required?

A) attribution B) user stickiness C) lifetime value D) eye-tracking

331)

Discuss how a website can be an effective tool for increasing conversion. Include a specific strategy or tactic for achieving this.

332)

Organizations can use website strategies for retaining customers. Review examples of this strategy, and how it may benefit the organization.

333)

Define the concept of interactive experiences as it relates to website marketing. Provide an example of a personal experience you’ve had with this type of marketing.

334)

Website marketers should consider a mobile-first strategy when developing websites.

What is this strategy and why is it recommended? Using a real brand, provide an example of how this strategy may be achieved.

335)

Briefly discuss what global marketers must consider when creating a website which will be accessed by consumers beyond the country’s borders.

336)

What is user-experience focused design and why is it important? Compare this strategy to responsive web design, and its role in the customer experience. Provide examples as you compare.

337)

Congratulations! Your professor selects you to design a website as a promotional vehicle for this class. Discuss how you can provide value for the target market (students), and what language, voice, tone, and style strategies you will select and incorporate.

338)

339)

Briefly discuss some essential ethical and legal considerations for websites.

You oversaw the website development for a boutique eyeglass retailer. Now you’ve been asked to evaluate the recent performance of this site. Describe your approach to this task and the tool(s) you might use. Discuss at least one specific strategy for collecting and reporting data. (Support your response with real or fictional examples, if desired.)

Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 1) TRUE

At some level, all organizations create websites to create value: it is estimated there are 1.71 billion websites worldwide.

2) TRUE

In the 1990s it was not uncommon to visit websites and face numerous pop-up advertisements and messages ranging from legitimate to malicious. The use of flash on websites was very common. Much animation and 3D text were used throughout the web as a key design consideration.

3) FALSE

As part of an overall digital marketing strategy, websites can be a source of substantial value to customers, the organization, and society. They create value for customers by providing information to assist in consumer decision making, for instance.

4) TRUE

It is important to have specific objectives for an organization’s website (or for each of the websites within an organization’s portfolio). These objectives must draw from the digital marketing strategy aligned to broader marketing objectives.

5) FALSE

The purpose of some websites will be to provide information, while others will be to convert or enhance the value of a brand. Many websites have multiple website-marketing goals.

6) TRUE

Websites and their associated electronic data can offer of a wealth of consumer data, which is crucial to understanding customers and gaining customer insights. Several website tools and data sources should be properly used or analyzed to obtain such insights. Electronic databases are one such source.

7) FALSE

Many website strategies can be used for retaining customers. One way to monitor retention and loyalty is to measure how often customers return and buy. Another way is to measure how much they purchase, as seen through customer accounts and by tracking web behavior patterns.

Websites based on a subscription model especially lend themselves to ensuring effective retention strategies.

8) FALSE

It used to be that some organizations launched a website as a source of credibility. Having an online presence was in some instances a method to establish an organization as credible. These days, the mere existence of an organization’s website is no longer enough to establish credibility, although may serve as one factor towards establishing it.

9) FALSE

Whether the organization uses in-house or external services, basic websites can be built using easy-to-work with website-building tools such as Wordpress, Weebly, or Wix. More advanced websites may be built using programming and a number of services.

10) FALSE

Shorter domain names are often preferred because they are easy to remember and type. Long, hyphenated domain names, or those with several terms, are not recommended, as these can cause confusion or may not reflect the brand. While some organizations may use a longer hyphenated domain name, it is not generally preferred.

11) TRUE

Website creators should also be aware that some unethical people may register related domains and use them to pose as an organization’s brand. In this context, registering yourbrandnamesucks.com or domains that misspell the brand name may also be a good idea, even if these domain names will not be used.

12) FALSE

Website accessibility describes characteristics of websites that enable access by people of all abilities. Such websites are designed for consumers “whatever their hardware, software, language, location, or ability.”

13) FALSE

One of the main privacy and security considerations is the collection of consumers’ personal data or PII (personally identifiable information) such as a Social Security number or credit card information. If a site is set to collect such data, additional privacy and security measures are needed. Cookies are files that can be used to keep a consumer’s website preferences or provide relevant content. There is much discussion in industry about the use of cookies.

14) TRUE

Minimalism refers to the concept of simplicity in design. Many websites have moved to a minimalistic approach. A simple background and relatively little but valuable content and imagery are encouraged under this approach.

15) FALSE

The “voice” used in a website should be based on a brand’s personality and should show in the content. Voice, like personality, is relatively constant. Tone describes emotive expression—it’s how you express personality and is changeable, depending on mood and the situation.

16) FALSE

Website content should be written to be fresh and current. An out-of-date website reflects poorly on the brand. Evergreen website content may help to ensure a website does not look outdated.

However, such content should not be a reason to avoid updating websites, and time-sensitive and time-relevant content should be updated.

17) TRUE

Digital marketers may have access to a set of stock images or databases of images to draw on.

Images that are copyrighted by others should not be used for a site unless there is a legally permissible exception.

18) FALSE

Website analytics is “the collection, reporting, and analysis of website data.” Organizations may be interested in a variety of types of data related to websites, including conversion, customer satisfaction, retention, and brand performance. Some of these activities, such as conversion, can be measured directly; analytics can provide the number of consumers that have converted.

19) TRUE

Google Analytics’ User Acquisition overview report presents data about the acquisition of new users through the website. This report also shows lifetime value, a financial measure that Google calculates as the average value of purchases per new user for the time increment being used (e.g., day, week, month).

20) FALSE

User stickiness is a key metric that measures how often users return to a website.

21) B

Organizations create websites, whether relatively primitive or cutting-edge, with the intent of providing value relating to different aspects of an overall marketing strategy.

22) D

Websites of the 2020s are expected to continue incorporating many more existing and emerging technologies.

23) C

As part of an overall digital marketing strategy, websites can be a source of substantial value to customers, the organization, and society. Ways they contribute value to customers include being an information source in consumer decision making and as a provider of 24/7 automated customer service.

24) D

As part of an overall digital marketing strategy, websites can be a source of substantial value to customers, the organization, and society. They contribute value to organizations by being a source of sales, enhancing brand image, being part of an organization’s IMC strategy, providing customer insights, being a source of competitive advantage and differentiation, building digital trust, and facilitating social interaction.

25) C

Marketers should strive to provide an exceptional customer experience, which includes the entirety of the customer’s experience through all touchpoints at a website. The goal should be to build an optimized website, one that both provides value and is in line with guidelines on getting traffic to the website.

26) A

A website can be an effective tool for increasing conversion. Often the conversion is a sale such as for an e-commerce website or the number of new members that have signed up through the site. Key text on the website includes terms such as Shop, Deliver, Deal, Renewed, Best Seller, Gift Ideas, Coupons, and Today’s Deals. These are all designed to attract consumer attention and increase conversion.

27) B

It is important to have specific objectives for an organization’s website. Many websites have multiple website-marketing goals, but the primary goal of this website is to increase sales for customers in a hurry.

28) D

Various techniques to enhance conversion include having a very effective landing page. This is the webpage that consumers will arrive at when they click on ads; it may be different from an organization’s homepage.

29) A

The landing page should show relevant and up-to-date content, based on a researched understanding of what consumers value. It should be in line with the content that got them there, such as the content in a search ad.

30) B

When creating a website, it is important first to install Google Analytics by adding tracking code to the website. That code is a tracking ID that will enable website marketers to scan data on each page of the website and send it to various Google Analytics reports.

31) D

An electronic database consists of data stored in an organized fashion. It may include customer details such as name, contact details, products purchased, time of purchase, customer comments, questions, contacts, web visits, website activity, and other data, any of which can be later retrieved for various digital marketing efforts.

32) B

Google Analytics includes tools to help organizations understand how visitors are using their website and how to improve the visitor’s experience. It can be useful to track consumer interactions, which are the responses and actions a user takes while engaging with a website or other digital marketing. Data relating to website visits, visits to specific pages, purchases, returns, time spent with specific pages, and data in customer accounts on the site can provide customer insights.

33) A

It is possible to gain customer insights that can help to improve customer website experiences, leading to conversion. For example, it can be useful to track consumer interactions, which are the responses and actions a user takes while engaging with a website or other digital marketing. Data relating to website visits, visits to specific pages, purchases, returns, time spent with specific pages, and data in customer accounts on the site can provide customer insights.

34) D

A display of expertise through industry-recognized certifications, adherence to industry standards, and a high class of service could result in a potential customer perceiving the company in high regard. For example, the James Beard Foundation Awards recognize exceptional talent and achievement in the culinary arts and hospitality industry.

35) C

Artificial intelligence (AI) is moving ahead full force. For example, AI is being used to provide product recommendations and to service customers. Chat functionality has long been part of website marketing strategy: it uses natural language processing to communicate with consumers.

Natural language processing involves computer programs being able to understand language as used by humans.

36) B

A website may be one among various possible touchpoints in the customer journey from inquiry to purchase and beyond. Creating interactive experiences—opportunities for customers to engage with a website—can enhance the customer’s overall website experience.

37) C

Websites can especially help to build trust. Sometimes, building digital trust can be done with the assistance of platforms or tools that increase privacy and security.

38) A

Websites often provide information for consumers and details that they may be looking for about products and services.

39) C

Websites often provide information for consumers and details that they may be looking for about products and services. Websites are superior methods to provide information beyond what some retail environments may be able to provide, and can also provide information about a company or brand.

40) B

Deciding who will create an organization’s website can be a tricky first step. A great deal of the organization’s marketing efforts will depend on the effectiveness of the website. It often will be preferable to rely upon the services of expert external web designers and instruct them on marketing objectives, especially if there is no in-house expertise or resources.

41) C

Whether the organization uses in-house or external services, basic websites can be built using easy-to-work with website-building tools such as Wordpress, Weebly, or Wix. 42) D

In creating a mobile-first website, it is important to take into consideration screen sizes as well as various browsers that consumers may use.

43) A

It is important to start thinking early about a domain name for a website. Shorter domain names are often preferred because they are easy to remember and type.

44) C

Domain names can usually be purchased from a domain name registrar such as domain.com or godaddy.com. Some coveted domain names that have been registered by others may be put on sale at high prices. The WHOIS database can be used to check the owner of a domain name (unless it is kept private).

45) C

The last letters (after the dot) in a domain name are referred to as the top-level domain (TLD).

46) B

The top-level domain used for government websites is . gov.

47) D

An organization should try to protect its own trademark or brand name. If registering a yourbrandname.com domain, it may be prudent also to register other domains such as yourbrandname.us and other similar domains so that others may not register them. These domain names may be redirected to the organization’s main website: and visitors will be sent automatically to the domain the brand chooses.

48) A

Website accessibility describes characteristics of websites that enable access by people of all abilities. Such websites are designed for consumers “whatever their hardware, software, language, location, or ability.”

49) C

Privacy and security are sources of concern for websites and should not be an afterthought. They should be considered during the creation of the website, from the very beginning. For example, writing software code when designing a website should be done in a secure manner, adopting privacy and security best practices.

50) A

Cookies are files that can be used to keep a consumer’s website preferences. Sometimes consent is necessary to collect this information.

51) C

It is important to conduct a regular website audit, a formal examination of the effectiveness of a website. The purpose of a website audit is to assess and optimize the website. Audits can be performed using many different measures: loading speed, content issues, crawlability, internal linking, SEO effectiveness, usability, performance, security, CRO, CTAs, and others.

52) B

The goal of user experience design is to develop a website that is “accessible, usable, and engaging.”

53) C

The goal of user experience design is to develop a website that is “accessible, usable, and engaging.” One aspect of such design is to create a perception of superior service quality or brand image such as by offering visitors ample opportunity to ask questions, or ensuring the colors and content match the brand. In addition, a website design should increase the chances of obtaining a desired response. A response is any action a consumer may take when presented with digital marketing, such as a call-to-action button.

54) D

User experience (UX) design must consider various “facets” of the user experience. Sites which are useful provide information useful to the consumer.

55) B

UX design must also consider various “facets” of the user experience. Objects must be findable, including ease of navigation such as with a clear navigation menu at the top of a webpage.

56) A

Interaction design (IxD) seeks to create aesthetically pleasing websites, which may enhance the interaction a consumer has with the website. This can include words, motion, sound, and visual imagery.

57) B

Responsive web design (RWD) involves designing a website to adapt to whatever device or platform loads the site. If an organization uses RWD, various web elements such as “layout, text size, content, navigation, and images automatically adjust to fit the device your customer prefers.”

58) D

Digital marketers use heat maps to identify “popular” elements of web pages. These maps identify areas of a website that visitors often click or when eye-tracking is used, where consumers have often looked.

59) A

Microinteractions can be used to encourage engagement in small ways, such as letting consumers track progress of a download; a download button, once clicked, could turn into an indicator showing download progress, and finally change to an open file message when the download is complete.

60) B

Microanimation is the use of small images on a website. It can be used to assist website visitors to see different angles of products. It can also provide a feeling of playfulness to a site.

61) C

Diligent use of colors on the website contributes to branding goals and creates the right perception. However, color also plays a crucial role in website marketing beyond branding aspects. Color can convey certain emotions or perceptions, but it is important to remember that feelings and perceptions related to color are culturally based.

62) B

Designers of digital marketing websites should use images and graphics wisely. This decision will depend on the purpose and objective of the site, but filling a page with images and graphics is usually an unhelpful approach. Do not use a large number of images just because the organization has access to them.

63) A

Video enables consumers to learn about product, services, or other information, to increase engagement, and to allow for interactions. One way to add video is by embedding it into a website rather than by adding such content by means of a link. Inserting the video into the website content so that it plays with just a simple click of a play button is often preferable to using links to the video.

64) A

Website content is important to providing value. Thus, it is not enough just to list products or services; the website content must enhance products and services by making clear all that these can do for the consumer, beyond the physical product itself.

65) C

Voice, like personality, is relatively constant. Tone describes emotive expression—it’s how you express personality and is changeable, depending on mood and the situation.

66) D

Dynamic content, otherwise known as adaptive content, is content that changes based on user behavior. For example, dynamic content enables the website to be personalized to the visitor.

67) B

Website analytics is the collection, reporting, and analysis of website data. Organizations may be interested in a variety of types of data related to websites, including conversion, customer satisfaction, retention, and brand performance.

68) C

Tools such as Google Analytics can assist with assessing website marketing performance and provide insights to reach consumers with increased chance of success. This tool, as with many others, should be used with an adequate privacy policy and considering legal rules in each relevant jurisdiction.

69) D

Google Analytics can assist with assessing website marketing performance and provide insights to reach consumers with increased chance of success. The Realtime overview report presents selected (customized) current data about website usage.

70) D

Google Analytics is a popular tool that can provide a host of data for an organization’s websites.

The Reports snapshot provides key charts and graphs representing the important data for the website. This includes the number of users, total revenue, users in the last 30 minutes, and users by country, among other data. These reports also available in other sections, but are shown in snapshot view for quick reference.

71) A

Lifetime value is a financial measure that Google calculates as the average value of purchases per new user for the time increment being used. It can be generated using the User-Acquisition overview report.

72) C

In gathering attribution data, digital marketers wish to know what activity led to a conversion in order to track (“attribute”) what aspects of digital marketing were successful. The linearattribution model gives credit to each touchpoint in the consumer’s process including, for example, a search ad, social media ad, email, and any others; each touchpoint would share a proportion of the credit.

73) C

The Tech overview of Google Analytics shows information about the percentage of users by platform, operating system, browser, device, and screen resolution. All of this information is useful in assessing the technology effectiveness of websites.

74) A

User stickiness is a key metric that measures how often users return to a website. It is calculated by dividing the daily active users (DAU) by monthly active users (MAU).

75) B

The Engagement overview presents data about the various measures of the length of time that visitors engage with the website. User stickiness is a key metric that measures how often users return to a website. It is calculated by dividing the daily active users (DAU) by monthly active users (MAU).

76) Essay

As part of an overall digital marketing strategy, websites can be a source of substantial value to customers, the organization, and society. Website may contribute value by: Providing information to assist in consumer decision making.

Being a source of sales.

Providing 24/7 automated customer service.

Enhancing the brand image.

Being part of an organization’s integrated marketing communication (IMC) strategy.

Providing customer insights to help make better marketing decisions.

Being a source of competitive advantage and differentiation.

Building digital trust through disclosures, detailed content, and interesting design.

Providing broad consumer choice and variety.

Facilitating social interaction.

Enabling digital marketers to engage in socially responsible actions.

77) Essay

A website can be an effective tool for increasing conversion. Often the conversion is a sale such as for an e-commerce website or the number of new members that have signed up through the site. Key text on the website includes terms such as Shop, Deliver, Deal, Renewed, Best Seller, Gift Ideas, Coupons, and Today’s Deals. These are all designed to attract consumer attention and increase conversion.

Various techniques to enhance conversion include having a very effective landing page. This is the webpage that consumers will arrive at when they click on ads; it may be different from an organization’s homepage. The landing page should show relevant and up-to-date content, based on a researched understanding what consumers value. It also should be designed in such a way that visitors will take the desired action of converting.

78) Essay

One way to monitor retention and loyalty is to measure how often customers return and buy.

Another way is to measure how much they purchase, as seen through customer accounts and by tracking web behavior patterns. Websites based on a subscription model especially lend themselves to ensuring effective retention strategies.

Through website analytics, it is possible to measure customer retention on the website.

Looking at sales data, including repeated purchases and extent of purchases, can inform marketing strategy such as pricing and customer satisfaction strategies.

Offering points with purchases may enhance loyalty (and thus, retention). For example, by offering a clear picture of the availability of points, the associated value (in terms of money) and the status of the customer, a firm can display a promising picture to the customer of how loyalty is rewarded. As the points and their value increase, customers feel better about continued use of the service, and as needs arise, they remember the ability to use their available points.

A clear guide to benefits of loyalty can enhance the value that customers see to the extent that some customers may strive to higher levels of loyalty programs just to reap what they perceive to be of great value.

79) Essay

A website may be one among various possible touchpoints in the customer journey from inquiry to purchase and beyond. Creating interactive experiences—opportunities for customers to engage with a website—can enhance the customer’s overall website experience.

Student examples will vary, but should contain details of the service/product, the website, and the experience.

80) Essay

When creating a website, it often is advisable to start with a mobile-first strategy. A mobile-first strategy involves thinking about mobile marketing from the start, rather as a later add-on to traditional devices. This will allow the website to be viewed on mobile devices, allow activity and transactions that are mobile friendly, and cultivate relationships with mobile consumers, some of whom rarely use non-mobile devices.

Student examples will vary, but should contain details of the service/product, the website, and the experience.

81) Essay

It is important to think about global marketing considerations when creating a website and when a site is expected to be used beyond national boundaries.

A one-size-fits-all approach may not be adequate.

Different versions of a website might be required based on language, cultural, and other related considerations.

International tax, duties, quota, and related financial considerations may also apply.

International legal and ethical considerations.

International privacy and security considerations.

82) Essay

User experience (UX) describes “the feel” aspect of a website’s design and how engaging and usable it is. Just as the feel matters for a product, so too is substantial performance attached to the website feel. Consumers may make serious decisions based on an organization’s website if it contributes to the overall customer experience.

Responsive web design (RWD) involves designing a website to adapt to whatever device or platform loads the site. With the ever-increasing number of devices and numerous screen sizes and formats available, various elements used for a desktop site may not work for other devices. If an organization uses RWD, various web elements such as “layout, text size, content, navigation, and images automatically adjust to fit the device your customer prefers.” Thus, a mobile site designed for a particular type of device will look different from the desktop version but should not take away from the objective and value intended.

Student examples will vary, but should contain details of the service/product, the website, and the experience.

83) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should include most of these main points and explain individual design choices: Website content is important to providing value and building trust. Having a landing page is crucial to narrow in on the specific value being sought. Value is provided on the landing page and elsewhere on the website by addressing key aspects of the specific objective.

Website content must enhance products and services by making clear all that these can do for the consumer, beyond the physical product itself. Providing value in this way also strengthens trust in the brand.

Website content should be understandable and pleasant to read. Here’s where decisions about language, voice, tone, and style come into play. The language should reflect what the intended audience will understand and be comfortable with.

The “voice” used should be based on a brand’s personality and should show in the content. Voice, like personality, is relatively constant. For example, an “educational” voice may be appropriate for informational websites, while an “authoritative” voice may be more appropriate for some types of news websites. A conversational voice uses the words you, your brand, your own, and so on.

For example, an “educational” voice may be appropriate for informational websites, while an “authoritative” voice may be more appropriate for some types of news websites.

A conversational voice uses the words you, your brand, your own, and so on.

For example, an “educational” voice may be appropriate for informational websites, while an “authoritative” voice may be more appropriate for some types of news websites.

A conversational voice uses the words you, your brand, your own, and so on.

84) Essay

Content on websites should be legal and ethical, abiding by all applicable rules. This includes all written content, images, video, and other content elements.

It is important not to violate the intellectual property of others such as others’ trademarks and copyrights. Using trademarks of others should be done only with consent. Quoting others’ copyrighted material should be done under fair-use law or with consent, depending on the amount and type of content being used.

Digital marketers usually have access to a set of stock images or databases of images to draw on. Images that are copyrighted by others should not be used for a site.

More often than not, images found through Google are the property of other websites.

Sometimes, images will appear from websites that are legally free to use. More often, though, images appearing on a Google search are from other websites and should not be used without permission or legal exception. The website from which the image appears is usually shown in an image search, and that website would be the place to start a permissions request.

85) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should include many of the following main points: Website analytics is “the collection, reporting, and analysis of website data.”

Organizations may be interested in a variety of types of data related to websites, including conversion, customer satisfaction, retention, and brand performance.

Activities related to websites can be analyzed through various website analytics tools.

The types of website analytics that are available through various tools include visits to a website, popular keywords drawing traffic, sources of traffic, whether goals are being met, landing-page statistics, which pages are being visited, what actions visitors are taking, geographical visitor data, heatmaps, patterns of behavior, and where on pages visitors are clicking.

There are many web analytics tools and services, including but not limited to Optimizely, Crazy Egg, Adobe Analytics, Hotjar, Full Story, and Salesforce Marketing Cloud. Google Analytics is a popular tool that can provide a host of data for an organization’s websites.

The various reports available in Google Analytics can help digital marketers assess how website marketing efforts are going and provide key marketing-intelligence information.

The Realtime overview report presents selected (customized) current data about website usage. The User Acquisition overview report presents data about the acquisition of new users through the website. This report also shows lifetime value, a financial measure that Google calculates as the average value of purchases per new user for the time increment being used. The user-acquisition overview report shows new users based on how this data is reported. Attribution is how credit for website responses is assigned to the touchpoints (channels) through which consumers make their way to a conversion action on a website.

The Engagement overview presents data about the various measures of the length of time that visitors engage with the website. The Conversions report shows the number of first visits, purchases, and those that have begun checkout. These numbers are important to understanding the activity of users. They may alert website marketers to issues such as a large percentage of consumers who do not convert or who begin checkout and do not complete. The Monetization overview shows the total revenue over a period of time, as well as total purchasers and average purchase revenue per user. The Retention overview shows several measures relating to customer retention: new versus returning users, user engagement, and lifetime value. The Tech overview shows information about the percentage of users by platform, operating system, browser, device, and screen resolution. All of this information is useful in assessing the technology effectiveness of websites.

The Realtime overview report presents selected (customized) current data about website usage.

The User Acquisition overview report presents data about the acquisition of new users through the website. This report also shows lifetime value, a financial measure that Google calculates as the average value of purchases per new user for the time increment being used. The user-acquisition overview report shows new users based on how this data is reported. Attribution is how credit for website responses is assigned to the touchpoints (channels) through which consumers make their way to a conversion action on a website.

The Engagement overview presents data about the various measures of the length of time that visitors engage with the website.

The Conversions report shows the number of first visits, purchases, and those that have begun checkout. These numbers are important to understanding the activity of users.

They may alert website marketers to issues such as a large percentage of consumers who do not convert or who begin checkout and do not complete.

The Monetization overview shows the total revenue over a period of time, as well as total purchasers and average purchase revenue per user.

The Retention overview shows several measures relating to customer retention: new versus returning users, user engagement, and lifetime value.

The Tech overview shows information about the percentage of users by platform, operating system, browser, device, and screen resolution. All of this information is useful in assessing the technology effectiveness of websites.

The Realtime overview report presents selected (customized) current data about website usage.

The User Acquisition overview report presents data about the acquisition of new users through the website. This report also shows lifetime value, a financial measure that Google calculates as the average value of purchases per new user for the time increment being used. The user-acquisition overview report shows new users based on how this data is reported. Attribution is how credit for website responses is assigned to the touchpoints (channels) through which consumers make their way to a conversion action on a website.

The Engagement overview presents data about the various measures of the length of time that visitors engage with the website.

The Conversions report shows the number of first visits, purchases, and those that have begun checkout. These numbers are important to understanding the activity of users.

They may alert website marketers to issues such as a large percentage of consumers who do not convert or who begin checkout and do not complete.

The Monetization overview shows the total revenue over a period of time, as well as total purchasers and average purchase revenue per user.

The Retention overview shows several measures relating to customer retention: new versus returning users, user engagement, and lifetime value.

The Tech overview shows information about the percentage of users by platform, operating system, browser, device, and screen resolution. All of this information is useful in assessing the technology effectiveness of websites.

Chapter 5: Search Engine Optimization (SEO) Strategy 340)

“Archie” and “Veronica” were some of the earliest search engines. ⊚ true ⊚ false

341)

The true value of search engines is to eliminate most advertising costs for manufacturers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

342)

The first results displayed on search engine results pages are called natural or organic results. ⊚ true ⊚ false

343)

You are interested in purchasing a new energy efficient vehicle, and type the term “hybrid cars” into Google to get information. This is an example of a text search. ⊚ true ⊚ false

344)

Digital marketers determine what information is displayed in search engine results pages (SERPs) and in what order. ⊚ true ⊚ false

345)

Social media coverage and influencer links are types of off-site SEO. ⊚ true ⊚ false

346)

Digital marketers understand that effective SEO means it’s more important to drive significant website traffic than to convert customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

347)

In digital and other types of marketing, a lead is a prospect who may become an actual customer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

348)

Organic results appearing on the first results page are one way that SEO can enhance an organization’s image. ⊚ true ⊚ false

349)

Each time a consumer clicks on a search results link, the sponsoring organization incurs a small direct cost. This is in addition to its development costs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

350)

Keyword research is an essential tactic for optimizing an SEO strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

351)

Specialty retailers like Foot Locker must include every highly targeted keyword in order to rank high on SERPS. ⊚ true ⊚ false

352)

Keyword stuffing should be avoided by digital marketers as it can result in a website being removed from search results. ⊚ true ⊚ false

353)

A sitemap page is intended for consumers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

354)

Improving website security is important, but does not lead to higher search rankings. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Digital marketers can be guided by the phrase “location is king” when developing a website. This reminds them about the order of words in the domain name. ⊚ true ⊚ false

355)

356)

Creating website content that engages consumers also supports SEO. ⊚ true ⊚ false

357)

Website content that is accurate but remains unchanged contributes to consistent SEO rankings. ⊚ true ⊚ false

358)

Impressions are a measurement indicating how many times a search result was displayed through a search engine. ⊚ true ⊚ false

359)

Page loading speed is not an important SEO analytic, as it does not impact consumer usability. ⊚ true ⊚ false

360)

In the early 1990s, some of the earliest search engines functioned as A) university content repositories.

B) Internet directories.

C) replacements for organizational advertising.

D) primitive encyclopedias.

361)

Search engine optimization means designing a website to A) automatically adjust to customer behaviors and input.

B) replace other forms of organizational communication.

C) be accessible to customers using all types of devices.

D) rank high on search engine webpages where results are displayed.

362)

Today, major retailers like Target and Walmart engage in SEO to A) satisfy regulatory requirements.

B) engage with consumers via social media.

C) drive traffic to their websites.

D) replace traditional advertising efforts.

363)

SEO can deliver value to consumers by A) eliminating the need for mass market advertising.

B) enhancing brand names or images they are familiar with.

C) helping them find a product, service, or information.

D) building a database of their insights.

When Nico searches the term “ice cream near me,” the first five results are paid ads. The next result is an article about a local ice cream store which includes a link to the shop’s current menu. This article reflects which type of search results?

A) evergreen B) advertising C) natural D) paid

364)

365)

SERPs are the search engine webpages where search results are displayed. The first results displayed are A) those beginning with “A.” B) from paid advertising.

C) those posted most recently by a firm or organization.

D) from the largest sponsoring firm or organization.

366)

Digital marketers who are hired to engage in SEO to achieve specific goals for an organization are referred to as A) keyword planners.

B) technical analysts.

C) mobile marketers.

D) search marketers.

Kaisely says, “Hey Google, where can I buy flowers nearby?” as she is leaving for a birthday party. Her phone quickly lists local florists and their operating hours. This is an example of the growing importance of in SEO. A) voice search B) keyword stuffing C) text search D) keyword research

367)

A(n) involves a “set of rules” governing which information from the index will be displayed in SERPs. A) tracking code B) algorithm C) sitemap D) encryption

368)

369)

Search engines such as Google are online programs that help people find information they need. They rely on_ to accomplish this.

A) paid placements B) consumer decision making C) keywords and phrases D) consumer tracking

370)

The strategies used in which type of SEO include using appropriate keywords on the site, optimizing images, and creating relevant and quality website content?

A) technical SEO B) off-site SEO C) off-page SEO D) on-site SEO

371)

Bryce owns a small consulting firm. He knows a little about digital marketing, but is most concerned about links to influencers, quality social media coverage about his business, and incorporating quality links into his website. Bryce is focused on A) technical SEO. B) off-site SEO. C) off-page SEO. D) on-site SEO.

372)

Galaxy Electronics builds and assembles printed circuit boards for specialty manufacturers. Its primary customers are purchasing agents throughout North and South America. What is most likely to be the top goal for its SEO strategy?

A) increase qualified leads B) broaden brand exposure C) drive traffic to its site D) improve employee productivity

373)

Which business objective is least directly related to SEO? A) drive traffic B) create leads C) improve efficiency D) convert customers

374)

A patient undergoing chemotherapy searches online for “natural looking wigs.” What is most likely to create conversion when this individual is looking through search results?

A) fast website loading speed B) descriptive and lengthy domain name C) multiple repetitions of the keyword “wig” D) high rank in natural search results

375)

Organic results appearing on the first page of a SERP are likely to make an organization appear A) greedy.

B) affordable.

C) reputable.

D) large.

A pet products company applies SEO to connect with consumers searching for “pet travel supplies,” “pet car safety” and “mobile dog feeding.” When Mobile Pet Love Company appears high in these searches, it is A) enhancing customer service.

B) creating a call to action.

C) using keyword stuffing.

D) building brand exposure.

376)

377)

378)

What is the cost to organizations of adopting SEO tactics?

A) Organizations incur a minor direct cost every time a consumer enters their site.

B) Organizations incur a standard direct cost every time a consumer enters their site.

C) Organizations use time and budget to adopt SEO strategies.

D) Organizations do not incur any financial costs to adopt SEO strategies.

Grandpa’s Old-Fashioned Root Beer hires a digital marketing team. Which of its strategies is least likely to enhance Grandpa’s SEO rankings?

A) improving website usability B) incorporating the keyword “old-fashioned” multiple times on the home page C) linking to associated webpages, including those for ice cream and summer desserts D) creating new website content, such as cocktail recipes

379)

For digital marketers, the purpose of keyword research is to A) determine which keywords to target in your organization’s website.

B) investigate whether SEO will benefit your organization.

C) duplicate your competition’s SEO successes.

D) expose consumers to the keywords your organization plans to use.

380)

Keyword research is important in SEO because A) it is the primary tool used for customer conversions.

B) it helps organizations improve their positions in search results.

C) marketers must incorporate all highly targeted keywords into their websites.

D) marketers should eliminate highly targeted keywords from their domain names.

381)

Slava owns a small travel agency catering to international clients. Although he has a website for his business, lately it is not generating many qualified leads. Keyword research could benefit Slava’s digital marketing efforts by A) improving accessibility of his site and its content.

B) identifying target keywords and variations best for SEO purposes.

C) increasing the site’s page-load speed and decreasing its FID (first input delay).

D) designating content which can enhance his business reputation.

382)

One free keyword research tool available to digital marketers is A) WordPress.

B) Ahref’s Explorer.

C) Google’s Keyword Planner.

D) Moz’s Keyword Difficulty Tool.

383)

To enhance SEO, select a domain name for your website that A) reflects the site’s contents.

B) uses unique or unusual spelling.

C) mimics a successful competitor.

D) is lengthy and/or hyphenated.

384)

Which strategy can help a search engine crawl and recognize your website?

A) including dead links B) using a premium domain name C) adding a sitemap file D) incorporating keyword stuffing

385)

Website operators employ a robots.txt file in order to A) attract consumers who are tech-savvy.

B) facilitate links to other webpages.

C) tell search engines how their tools may crawl or index a site.

D) increase webpage loading speeds.

386)

A

is a system that stores the words appearing on webpages.

A) search index B) sitemap file C) keyword planner D) search engine bot

When he needs some gardening supplies delivered, Bashir searches online for “dark brown mulch.” After clicking on one supplier’s link, Bashir notices that this website loads quite slowly. In this situation, Bashir is likely to A) feel positively about this supplier.

B) begin his search again with different words.

C) understand that this is a security measure.

D) select another site to make a purchase.

387)

388)

What is an important consideration before adding a backlink to the organization’s website?

A) Is the site authoritative and trustworthy?

B) Does this site provide unusual content?

C) How many backlinks will fit on the main webpage?

D) Does my primary competitor use backlinks?

389)

Which additional content will most improve an organization’s SEO rankings?

A) an advertisement running on a local cable channel B) a link on the website to an individual’s private blog C) a duplicate image appearing in later webpages D) a backlink from Instagram to an organization’s website

390)

Which type of website content can hamper SEO rankings?

A) sourced citations B) social media links C) scraped content D) encrypted data

391)

Shana is opening a specialty printing business in a new strip mall. What information should she make available online in order to optimize local SEO? A) business name and description including operating hours and directions B) sample templates for print project customization C) personal profile including her photo and educational background D) links to recommendations from satisfied clients

392)

A form of SEO generated by common questions that consumers ask directly through search engines is called A) eHow. B) Answer Now. C) People Also Ask. D) Call a Librarian.

393)

As Lynetta searches online for a specialty donut called paczki, she sees that other people in her community also posed this question. After reading through their answers, Lynetta chooses a recommended local bakery for her order. This is an example of A) Off-site SEO. B) PAA (People Also Ask) SEO. C) Technical SEO. D) On-site SEO.

394)

The phrase “ A) color B) budget C) content D) location

395)

Which criteria for website content is most essential for effective SEO? A) It should be personal and positive.

B) It should be evergreen and accurate.

C) It should be useful and relevant.

D) It should be exciting and controversial.

396)

Whenever possible, an organization’s website content must be A) duplicated.

B) automatically generated.

C) scraped.

D) unique.

397)

Overall, it is considered best practice to design website content for A) the organization.

B) the consumer.

C) web crawler access.

D) SEO purposes.

398)

is king” applies to digital marketing and SEO.

Elijah, a website developer, is assisting a local company, Garden of Eden Florists, in balancing SEO-driven content with more creative content to attract readers. Which is the best strategy for Elijah to recommend to Garden of Eden Florists to increase reader engagement?

A) Tell a few stories about how Garden of Eden is part of customers’ life celebrations.

B) Add more detailed descriptions about the design services offered by Garden of Eden.

C) Insert duplicate images and content from Garden of Eden’s online floral design catalog.

D) Include information about the symbolism associated with various flowers and plants.

399)

A web designer who creates and includes alternative text for the images displayed in the site is working to increase its A) reliability.

B) accessibility.

C) interactivity.

D) creativity.

400)

Antonia’s Catering plans to make its website more accessible for visually impaired customers. A web designer suggests adding alt text to the images on the site. Which alt text description of a menu item’s image would be most useful to Antonia’s customers?

A) A large pan of homemade pasta contains thick sauce, sausage, and cheese.

B) This is a picture of Antonia’s mostaccioli.

C) An image shows a delicious-looking dish.

D) All pasta from Antonia’s is made by scratch, including this popular dish.

401)

A good content plan for an organizational website focuses on identifying A) which content is backlinked to other content.

B) what content has been popular in the past.

C) which content includes the most common keywords.

D) what content will be developed and when it should be developed.

402)

Tools such as Trello, Loomly, SproutSocial, and Hootsuite are used in developing and managing A) alternative text.

B) website content links.

C) an editorial content calendar.

D) HTML tags.

403)

A , a summary of the content on a webpage, is sometimes used by search engines as a snippet on SERPs. A) heat map B) meta description C) HTML tag D) page title

404)

405)

In terms of website design, using context effectively includes A) adding working links for related videos.

B) being sensitive about using gender-neutral language.

C) placing images near related text.

D) using colors that are soothing to consumers.

Website designers should be aware that engines.

A) lengthy keywords B) content using Flash or JavaScript C) alt text descriptions D) content using HTML tags

may not be considered by search

406)

The website for The Carefree Clean Company consistently ranks highly, about 5.2 on the SERP, when consumers search for “robotic vacuums.” What does this tell the marketing team about this website?

A) It has little competition.

B) It has a low click-through rate.

C) It has a high position.

D) It has a high number of impressions.

407)

Conor wants to analyze how his Celtic gift business website is doing regarding SEO performance. In other words, he is interested in how it is executing when consumers use Google to find similar merchandise. A good tool for this task is A) Google Search Console.

B) Google Docs.

C) Google Trends.

D) Google calendar.

408)

A key metric of a Google search performance report is A) searches with a high probability of displaying the organization’s website.

B) accessibility data indicating low visibility and contrast for text and imagery.

C) searches which generate highly positive consumer impressions.

D) website areas which consumers engage with for the longest periods.

409)

The number of times a search result is shown to a consumer through a search engine is counted as a(n) A) link.

B) impression.

C) entry.

D) click.

410)

Analysis shows that the Mapleview Poultry Farms website has a very high number of impressions with a low number of click throughs to the site. A digital marketer can surmise that this site A) generates few search results.

B) is highly relevant to consumers.

C) appears late in SERPs. D) may not be valuable to consumers.

411)

Cameron’s online business sells custom seat covers for cars. But his website appears late in search results, has a click-through rate of under 1 percent, and a low conversion rate. How could a search performance report improve Cameron’s business?

A) It will provide a domain rating and suggest a more appropriate domain name for his site.

B) It will diagnose and correct how long it takes users to access his site and for its pages to load.

C) It will highlight technical website errors and help fix HTML coding, which decreases his SEO. D) It will track his position on SERPS, and influence his keyword strategy.

412)

A first contentful paint (FCP) metric has information about a website’s A) click-through rates.

B) global accessibility.

C) conversion rates.

D) page-load speed.

413)

The domain rating metric can assess the strength of A) backlinks.

B) page loading speeds.

C) keywords.

D) search engine bots.

414)

What is the least important consideration for digital marketers in selecting tools to assess SEO strategies and tactics?

A) website type B) available budget C) scraped content D) analytics needed

415)

Define search engine optimization and discuss its value to consumers and to organizations.

416)

Briefly explain how SEO works, including the use of algorithms. Why is it important for digital marketers to understand this process?

417)

List at least three organizational objectives for using SEO.

418)

You are part of a new digital marketing team for your university, and your first assignment involves keyword research. Discuss why this is important and how you might proceed, using fictional examples to support your response.

419)

Applying what you know about domain names and SEO, create a domain name for your own (fictional) small business. Briefly describe the business in your response, and explain why you selected this domain name.

420)

Discuss the use of quality links in SEO. As part of your discussion, review the importance of backlinks in supporting SEO.

421)

Briefly discuss three website content strategies that can apply to any organization.

422)

You are asked to design a website for a friend’s new food truck business. Discuss how you might use content planning to keep website content relevant for this changing and seasonal business. Include specific examples to explain your response.

423)

424)

Define the term impressions, and discuss its importance in understanding SEO analytics.

Explain how a digital marketer uses the first contentful paint (FCP) and first input delay (FID) metrics.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 1) TRUE

Back in 1990, Alan Emtage of Canada’s McGill University started what is considered the world’s first search engine, called Archie—short for “archive.” Other early search engines included Veronica, Gopher, WAIS (Wide Area Information System), Excite, Webcrawler, Lycos, Infoseek, AltaVista, among others.

2) FALSE

One major goal of search engines is to provide relevant information to consumers. Consumers who use search engines get value by finding a product, service, or information. The first results shown are from paid advertising.

3) FALSE

The first results displayed on search engine results pages (SERPs) are from paid advertising, which may be part of an organization’s SEM (search engine marketing) strategy. Below the paid ads are the unpaid links to websites that have been discovered in the search process. These search results are called natural or organic.

4) TRUE

Digital searches may be performed for words or phrases by means of a text search, the act of entering words, phrases, or keywords into a search engine search bar.

5) FALSE

Search engines regularly crawl websites by using a program to methodically and routinely search websites and individual web pages for relevant information such as keywords and keyphrases.

The search engine uses algorithms to index the information—that is, to determine what to display in SERPs and in what order.

6) TRUE

Off-site SEO involves those optimization actions that are not specifically taken on a website.

This may include building good-quality links to the organization’s website, blog posts, influencer links, social media coverage, positive reviews, and brand coverage.

7) FALSE

Key objectives of SEO are to drive traffic, create leads, and have consumers convert from leads to purchases. The goal of marketing is to acquire, keep, and grow customers.

8) TRUE

SEO can draw leads—prospective customers who may be converted to actual customers. These leads can be pointed to resources such as a landing page, contact center or sales department.

9) TRUE

An objective of SEO may be to enhance an organization’s brand image and reputation.

Consumers who see organic results on the first page of a SERP may attach reputability to those organizations, enhancing the organization’s image. These results may be more likely to be clicked on, further enhancing the reputation of the organization.

10) FALSE

SEO does not come with a direct cost when links are clicked on. Yet, it can take time and budget for an organization to adopt effective SEO strategies and tactics.

11) TRUE

Before determining and implementing further SEO strategies and tactics, it is important to conduct extensive keyword research, which involves determining which keywords and keyphrases to target in an organization’s website. Keyword research is so important because of the impact keywords have on how organizations’ websites will rank on SERPs. 12) FALSE

Targeting keywords that are coveted by many organizations may be prudent if key facets of the organization revolve around related products and services. However, it may be difficult for highly targeted keywords to rank highly because many organizations may be pursuing similar techniques in order to reach such ranks, and there is limited space on the first pages of SERPs. 13) TRUE

Flooding a webpage with keywords is not recommended. In fact, keyword stuffing—adding unnecessary keywords or duplicating a keyword many times in an effort to attract search engines—may be recognized by the search engine and may result in being bumped way down in the rankings. Some search engines may even remove the website from search results.

14) TRUE

A sitemap file is a document that links to key webpages on an organization’s site; it is meant for use by a search engine. A sitemap page, usually referred to simply as sitemap, is a webpage linking to important webpages on an organization’s website; it is meant for use by consumers.

15) FALSE

Good website security is one factor that may help with higher search rankings. Search marketers should work with relevant teams to enhance the security of the site.

16) FALSE

The phrase “content is king” puts the importance of content into perspective. Without effective content, achieving high ranking in search engines is very difficult.

17) TRUE

Content should be engaging and designed for the consumer, rather than solely for search engine purposes. Content designed solely for SEO purposes may appear odd to a consumer and interrupt or stop their experience with the website.

18) FALSE

Content should up to date. Organizations should establish a content plan that identifies when and what content will be developed for the website. Search engines will not favorably rank sporadic or limited content. Regularly scheduled and planned content based on specific keywords and keyphrases can greatly improve the chances of ranking highly in search engines and will add value.

19) TRUE

Impressions are the number of times a search result was displayed to a consumer through a search engine. In other words, whenever a search result is shown (whether or not clicked on), this will count as an impression.

20) FALSE

Slow-loading webpages can take away from the customer experience; fast page speed assists with SEO. Various tools such as PageSpeed Insights or other more advanced software also are available to test page-load speeds. Some tools diagnose the reasons for slow page loads, and these may be useful to address problems with an organization’s website.

21) B

Throughout the 1990s some search engines operated as Internet directories and advanced how content and data was cataloged, indexed, and found on the vast Internet. Getting an organization’s name or website onto these directories would mean being noticed by users on the Internet.

22) D

The concept of search engine optimization (SEO) refers to designing a website to optimize its use by ranking high on search engine webpages where results are displayed.

23) C

In today’s business, SEO is a very popular and lucrative way for digital marketers to obtain traffic to their webpages even if the site is already well known and without the need to directly pay for that traffic.

24) C

One major goal of search engines is to provide relevant information to consumers. Consumers who use search engines, sometimes as a first point of search, get value by finding a product, service, or information.

25) C

The first results displayed on SERPs are from paid advertising, which may be part of an organization’s SEM (search engine marketing) strategy. Generally, when consumers click on these paid ads, a cost to an advertiser is triggered. Below the paid ads are the unpaid links to websites that have been discovered in the search process. These search results are called natural or organic results and are based on a combination of many factors.

26) B

The first results displayed on SERPs are from paid advertising, which may be part of an organization’s SEM (search engine marketing) strategy.

27) D

SEO may be very valuable to an organization in the long term and may be conducted through search marketers, digital marketers who engage in SEO to achieve specific goals for an organization.

28) A

Voice search is the act of a consumer speaking their search through a microphone on their device. Voice search is becoming more popular. According to a PwC survey, consumers conduct voice search through devices such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, desktops, speakers, TV remotes, car navigation systems, and wearables.

29) B

A search engine algorithm involves a “set of rules” used to determine which information from the index should be displayed in SERPs. The search engine uses algorithms to index the information—to determine what to display in SERPs and in what order.

30) C

Search engines aim to provide the most relevant results to consumers who are searching for products and services. Their algorithms determine what is most relevant by looking at a combination of factors. Digital searches may be performed for words or phrases by means of a text search, the act of entering words, phrases, or keywords into a search engine search bar.

31) D

On-site SEO is the optimization that should be done on an organization’s website, including all the individual webpages that comprise it.

32) B

Off-site SEO involves those optimization actions that are not specifically taken on a website.

This may include building good-quality links to the organization’s website, blog posts, influencer links, social media coverage, positive reviews, and brand coverage.

33) A

Key objectives of SEO are to drive traffic, create leads, and have consumers convert from leads to purchases. Organizations use SEO not only to get consumers to their websites but also to enhance the type of consumers who reach there. SEO can help to increase qualified leads. These are consumers who are more likely than other leads to convert to customers because of their potential and interest.

34) C

Key objectives of SEO are to drive traffic, create leads, and have consumers convert from leads to purchases. Organizations use SEO not only to get consumers to their websites but also to enhance the type of consumers who reach there.

35) D

The descriptions under search results are helpful to consumers to attract their attention to what is being offered. Likewise, by ranking highly in natural results, these organizations may enhance conversion.

36) C

An objective of SEO may be to enhance an organization’s brand image and reputation.

Consumers who see organic results on the first page of a SERP may attach reputability to those organizations, enhancing the organization’s image. These results may be more likely to be clicked on, further enhancing the reputation of the organization.

37) D

Consumers who are not aware of an organization also may be introduced to the organization and its products or services through SEO. Awareness may build into digital trust when consumers come to believe in an organization’s brand image and reputation will satisfy their search needs.

38) C

SEO does not come with a direct cost when links are clicked on. Yet, it can take time and budget for an organization to adopt effective SEO strategies and tactics. These often require particular attention on the part of digital marketers.

39) B

Some of the key factors for strong SEO strategy include using very relevant keywords, and relevant engaging content, new content, website usability, location, quality and reputation, quality links to the website or webpages, an appropriate domain name, time to load webpages, secure website, website settings, and other factors. Flooding a webpage with keywords is not recommended.

40) A

Before determining and implementing further SEO strategies and tactics, it is important to conduct extensive keyword research, which involves determining which keywords and keyphrases to target in an organization’s website.

41) B

Good keyword research can lead to successful positions in search results as well as increased conversions. This research may be influenced by the nature of the organization, its products or services, areas of focus, the market, or other factors. Targeting keywords that are coveted by many organizations may be prudent if key facets of the organization revolve around related products and services. However, it may be difficult for highly targeted keywords to rank highly because many organizations may be pursuing similar techniques in order to reach such ranks, and there is limited space on the first pages of SERPs. 42) B

Keyword research involves determining which keywords and keyphrases to target in an organization’s website. Good keyword research can lead to successful positions in search results as well as increased conversions.

43) C

Search engines offer keyword research tools that can help digital marketers conduct research on keywords. These include tools such as Google’s Keyword Planner and Microsoft’s Keyword Planner Tool.

44) A

A domain name should be carefully selected. For SEO purposes, it should not be lengthy, should reflect the content of the website, and should be easy to remember. The domain may include relevant keywords if these make sense from the marketing perspective. Selecting very lengthy domain names, or those that combine a number of keywords, is not recommended.

45) C

Website SEO strategies should also revolve around crawling and indexing by search engines. It is important to help search engines crawl an organization’s website. This may be done by engaging with guidelines offered by search engines, such as adding a sitemap and managing crawling through a robots.txt file.

46) C

By employing a robots.txt file, website operators can tell search engines how their tools may crawl or index their website. For example, this file can tell search engines which webpages should be crawled, and which should not be, and which content may be excluded. It also can provide permissions for various types of search engine bots.

47) A

After crawling, search engines will index the data found and track that data in a search index, a system that stores the words appearing on webpages.

48) D

One website SEO strategy relates to page speed—the speed at which webpages load on a browser. Slow-loading webpages can take away from the customer experience, fast page speed assists with SEO. Page speed also affects the ability of a consumer to advance through a conversion process.

49) A

Backlinks are links from referral domains to an organization’s website. Some factors that digital marketers should consider are the popularity of the website that is linking to the organization’s website, how trustworthy it is, and its authority as measured by search engines and ranking authorities.

50) D

Backlinks are links from referral domains to an organization’s website. Quality references and mentions from other sources to an organization’s website can assist with SEO, including links from social media to an organization’s website.

51) C

It is important for search marketers to follow search engine best practices when engaging in SEO strategies and tactics, and to avoid violating webmaster guidelines. Abiding by legal regulations on copyright is very important. Search engines may recognize unfavorable practices through review of content on the Internet. Some key things to avoid that may hurt SEO include keyword stuffing, scraped content, and duplicate content.

52) A

For organizations with a local physical presence or local service options, local SEO, also called local search engine optimization (LSO), is crucial as search engines may favor websites optimized for local searches. Local information may be used by search engines to provide relevant local results to consumers. Local organizations should ensure they have a business profile on search engines, providing operating hours and a direct link to directions along with other key information.

53) C

A form of SEO, called People Also Ask (PAA) SEO, gathers and displays questions consumers often use in their searches. PAA may show up in SERPs, and consumers may use these search results to get quick answers to their questions.

54) B

A form of SEO, called People Also Ask (PAA) SEO, gathers and displays questions consumers often use in their searches. PAA may show up in SERPs, and consumers may use these search results to get quick answers to their questions. They may click on the links to get further information and may even be allured to make a purchase. PAA SEO may add value to the search engine’s results for consumers.

55) C

Producing relevant and current content is extremely important for SEO, and search marketers should pay careful attention to content. Marketers have no doubt heard the phrase “content is king,” which puts the importance of content into perspective. Without effective content, achieving high ranking in search engines is very difficult.

56) C

Content produced for websites must meet several criteria for effectiveness. Above all, it should be relevant and useful. It should be geared to the audience that is searching for such content and should clearly outline useful information relevant to that audience.

57) D

An effective searchable website should generally contain unique content—content that is not reproduced from other websites or duplicated. There are, at times, legitimate reasons why content may be duplicated. For example, a product on an e-commerce website might show on several webpages. But if done deceptively, content duplication may reduce the consumer’s experience with the website.

58) B

Content should be engaging and designed for the consumer, rather than solely for search engine purposes. Content designed solely for SEO purposes may appear odd to a consumer and interrupt or stop their experience with the website.

59) A

Creative content is original content that may be imaginative and engages readers. SEO content can be heavily keyword-based and may not always have a creative focus. Search marketers should seek to employ a balance of content that is both creative and SEO-driven; the results should benefit the consumer while ranking high on SERPs. Telling stories, using real-world topics, and connecting with readers, while including keywords relevant to SEO efforts, are some strategies of achieving this balance.

60) B

Including alternative text (ALT text), which is a text version that describes what is in the images on a website, is also helpful to SEO. Use of ALT text makes images more accessible, able to be accessed and used by all consumers, regardless of ability. When ALT text exists, a screen reader can read out the text for a visually impaired consumer can also provide further context.

61) A

Use of ALT text makes images more accessible, able to be accessed and used by all consumers, regardless of ability. When ALT text exists, a screen reader can read out the text for a visually impaired consumer and can also provide further context. Individuals using alt text need information related to their search purpose.

62) D

Organizations should establish a content plan that identifies when and what content will be developed for the website. Search engines will not favorably rank sporadic or limited content.

Regularly scheduled and planned content based on specific keywords and keyphrases can greatly improve the chances of ranking highly in search engines and will add value.

63) C

Many tools may be used to prepare an editorial calendar, including Excel as featured in the exhibit. However, tools such as Trello, Loomly, SproutSocial, Hootsuite, and others can also be used.

64) B

A meta description, which is a summary of the content on a webpage, may be used by search engines as a snippet on SERPs. Creating an accurate meta description is important: It both creates attention and lets consumers know more about the webpage even if it is not directly a factor for search engine ranking.

65) C

Specific content may benefit from special treatment in order to help search engines find and potentially rank it. Images should be placed around the area where the related text is located and should have some context, which may include surrounding information about the image or topic.

66) B

It is important to carefully decide on what type of content will be used. For example, content with or using either Flash, or JavaScript may not be considered by search engines. Keywords and content which are used for SEO purposes should not be contained within these elements.

67) C

Position is a measurement analytic in Google Search Console that identifies an organization’s organic result versus other organizations’ results.

68) A

One popular tool to analyze SEO is Google Search Console which can provide analytics on how an organization’s website is executing on Google search. The search performance report displays various SEO metrics useful to assess an organization’s SEO performance.

69) A

Google Search Console can provide analytics on how an organization’s website is executing on Google search. The search performance report displays various SEO metrics useful to assess an organization’s SEO performance. Importantly, it shows searches that have high probability of displaying an organization’s website.

70) B

Impressions are the number of times a search result was displayed to a consumer through a search engine. In other words, whenever a search result is shown (whether or not clicked on), this will count as an impression.

71) D

Impressions are the number of times a search result was displayed to a consumer through a search engine. In other words, whenever a search result is shown (whether or not clicked on), this will count as an impression. However, note that a high number of impressions with a low number of clicks is not a good sign. It shows consumers are not clicking when that search result is displayed, potentially signifying that it may not be as relevant or valuable to a consumer as other results.

72) D

The average CTR to an organization’s webpages may greatly inform SEO strategy and tactics.

One popular tool to analyze SEO is Google Search Console which can provide analytics on how an organization’s website is executing on Google search. The search performance report displays various SEO metrics useful to assess an organization’s SEO performance. Importantly, it shows searches that have high probability of displaying an organization’s website.

73) D

The PageSpeed Insights test for first contentful paint (FCP) is an important metric for page-load speed; it indicates the time it takes for the user to see anything happening on the screen.

74) A

The domain rating measures how strong the backlink profile is against those of other websites.

75) C

A variety of paid and free tools are available to understand how well or poorly SEO strategies and tactics are performing. The tools selected must be in line with the analytics needed, budget available, and type of website and digital marketing assets being used. The domain rating measures how strong the backlink profile is against those of other websites.

76) Essay

The concept of search engine optimization (SEO) refers to designing a website to optimize its use by ranking high on search engine webpages where results are displayed. SEO is a popular and lucrative way for digital marketers to obtain traffic to their webpages even if the site is already well known and without the need to directly pay for that traffic.

One major goal of search engines is to provide relevant information to consumers. Consumers who use search engines, sometimes as a first point of search, get value by finding a product, service, or information.

SEO also may be very valuable to an organization in the long term. Well-done SEO can result in substantial benefit to digital marketers— consumer exposure to brands, increased visits to digital assets, increased conversions, and revenue—without directly paying for specific marketing activities other than the cost associated with employing SEO strategies and tactics.

77) Essay

Search engines regularly crawl websites by using a program to methodically and routinely search websites and individual web pages for information such as keywords and keyphrases. Web crawlers are deployed to look for information that the search engine may display to consumers as both relevant and useful. The search engine uses algorithms to index the information: this means to determine what to display in SERPs and in what order. In other words, search engines will match the keyword or keyphrase entered with the index and then will sort and provide results in a way useful to consumers. SERPs may include websites, videos, images, or a number of other items.

A search engine algorithm involves a “set of rules” used to determine which information from the index should be displayed in SERPs. Many algorithms are applied to establish the ranking that will be displayed.

As algorithms are updated regularly by search engines, digital marketers must be aware of and follow updates to search engine practices to optimize SEO strategies and tactics. Search engines are a touchpoint in the digital consumer decision-making process and part of the customer journey, and thus of high importance to marketers.

78) Essay

Key objectives of SEO include: To drive traffic.

To create leads.

To have customers convert.

To increase qualified leads.

To enhance the brand image or organization reputation.

To increase brand awareness.

To build digital trust.

79) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should include most of the following points: Keyword research involves determining which keywords and keyphrases to target in the organization’s website. It is important because of the impact the keywords have on how organizations’ websites will rank on SERPs. Good keyword research can lead to successful positions in search results as well as increased conversions. This research may be influenced by the nature of the organization, its products or services, areas of focus, the market, or other factors.

Targeting keywords that are coveted by many organizations may be prudent if key facets of the organization revolve around related products and services. However, it may be difficult for highly targeted keywords to rank highly because many organizations may be pursuing similar techniques.

Search engines offer keyword research tools that can help digital marketers conduct research on keywords. These include tools such as Google’s Keyword Planner and Microsoft’s Keyword Planner Tool. Other tools are available through other organizations such as Semrush’s Keyword Magic Tool and Keyword Tool.

Paid keyword research tools include Term Explorer, Moz’s Keyword Difficulty Tool, and Ahref’s Explorer.

Variations of keywords should be researched in order to be acquainted with other possible combinations that might be relevant in SEO efforts. For example, it may become clear in the keyword research that consumers may be searching terms in a different order or using synonyms.

80) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should reflect the following points: For SEO purposes, a domain name should not be lengthy, should reflect the content of the website, and should be easy to remember.

The domain may include relevant keywords if these make sense from the marketing perspective.

Selecting very lengthy domain names, or those that combine a number of keywords, is not usually be recommended.

81) Essay

Having quality links to an organization’s website also may influence SEO. Backlinks are links from referral domains to an organization’s website. Some factors that digital marketers should consider are the popularity of the website that is linking to the organization’s website, how trustworthy it is, and its authority as measured by search engines and ranking authorities.

Having a few good quality backlinks from reputable websites is better than a large number of backlinks from poor-quality sources.

Linking from blogs to an organization’s website, including quality blogs operated by others, can help with SEO. The more reputable and higher quality the blog linked to an organization’s website is, the greater the value the search engine attaches for SEO purposes, which can help to boost its ranking in natural results.

82) Essay

Student responses will vary, but should include most of the following main points: Content produced for websites must meet several criteria for effectiveness. Above all, it should be relevant and useful. It should be geared to the audience that is searching for such content and should clearly outline useful information relevant to that audience.

Making reasonable and judicial use of keywords is important. It may also be useful to dedicate various pages of a website to specific topics rather than cluttering a webpage with a number of different topics. Also, building a search-engine–friendly website that focuses on value is important. However, a website should never be designed solely using SEO strategies and tactics; it must also make sense to the consumer.

An effective searchable website should generally contain unique content—content that is not reproduced from other websites or duplicated.

Content should be engaging and designed for the consumer, rather than solely for search engine purposes.

Creative content is original content that may be imaginative and engages readers. SEO content can be heavily keyword-based and may not always have a creative focus. Search marketers should seek to employ a balance of content that is both creative and SEOdriven; the results should benefit the consumer while ranking high on SERPs. Telling stories, using real-world topics, and connecting with readers, while including keywords relevant to SEO efforts, are some strategies of achieving this balance.

Search marketers must always take care to ensure that the content they use does not violate the copyright or trademark of others.

83) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should include most of these main points as related to scenario: Content should up to date. Organizations should establish a content plan that identifies when and what content will be developed for the website. In this scenario, a weekly schedule for content changes would be appropriate, based on the weekly menu changes of the food truck business.

In this scenario, a weekly schedule for content changes would be appropriate, based on the weekly menu changes of the food truck business.

In this scenario, a weekly schedule for content changes would be appropriate, based on the weekly menu changes of the food truck business.

Keyword changes might include menu items, flavors, or ingredients: grilled cheese, pumpkin spice, BBQ pork, etc. They could also include a month (May) or season (fall).

For this business, the menu and location of the truck change weekly. Consumers seek out convenient locations and desirable menu items; thus the website content must be constantly updated. Content may also take on a seasonal theme, such as “summertime salad” or “fall soup lunch.”

84) Essay

Impressions are the number of times a search result was displayed to a consumer through a search engine. In other words, whenever a search result is shown (whether or not clicked on), this will count as an impression.

A high number of impressions with a low number of clicks is not a good sign. It shows consumers are not clicking when that search result is displayed, potentially signifying that it may not be as relevant or valuable to a consumer as other results.

85) Essay

The PageSpeed Insights test for first contentful paint (FCP) is an important metric for page-load speed; it indicates the time it takes for the user to see anything happening on the screen. Consumers are unlikely to bail out if a site has rapid results.

The first input delay (FID) is how usable a page is; it shows how consumers may take actions on the page within milliseconds. An unacceptable score will cause consumers to lose interest rapidly.

Some of these metrics in the report rate can score in the orange (needs improvement) and red (poor) ranges, which are potential causes for further investigation and improvement.

Chapter 6: Search Engine Marketing (SEM) Strategy 425)

426)

427)

Pay-per-click advertising is an important type of SEO. ⊚ true ⊚ false Search engine marketing includes paid search advertising. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Natural results determine the final cost of SEM to organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

428)

Search engine advertising provides substantial revenue for search engine parent companies, such as Google. ⊚ true ⊚ false

429)

Commonly, an objective of SEM is to increase customer conversions or sales. ⊚ true ⊚ false

430)

Attracting targeted leads is a top goal of an SEM strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

431)

Qualified leads refers to consumers who are at the very top of the conversion funnel. ⊚ true ⊚ false

432)

In SEM, conversion rate optimization increases when consumers advance to the site’s landing page and then subscribe or make a purchase. ⊚ true ⊚ false

433)

In contrast to SEO, SEM is not an effective tool for gaining consumer insights. ⊚ true ⊚ false

434)

A licensed and specialized real estate attorney is an example of someone who might use local paid search advertising to establish expertise with potential customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

435)

SEO is the best option for executing a rapid positioning strategy in the short term. ⊚ true ⊚ false

436)

Search marketers should analyze the cost vs. benefits when choosing search engines used for SEM. ⊚ true ⊚ false

437)

Search ad campaigns can be designed for mobile devices and can feature call ads. ⊚ true ⊚ false

438)

Organizations bidding for search ad placement on a cost-per-click model must guarantee a minimum number of clicks to the search engine provider. ⊚ true ⊚ false

439)

Search marketers for the latest model of iPhone will most likely choose a brand keyword strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

440)

Ad extensions provide additional information for consumers such as a weblink to a specific page on the advertiser’s site. These are located near the top of a search ad. ⊚ true ⊚ false

441)

Google’s responsive ads use AI to select from up to 15 different ad headlines to display to a consumer during a search. ⊚ true ⊚ false

442)

Culture may affect how consumers search for information, but it does not impact how they perceive it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

443)

Keyword performance measures should guide SEM strategy decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

444)

The average cost-per-click is similar across industries, with the exception of the technology industry. ⊚ true ⊚ false

445)

Search engine optimization relies on on .

A) pay-per-click; organic search results B) natural search results; paid advertising C) public relations; publicity D) product placement; personal selling

, while search engine marketing focuses

446)

Diego wants to purchase a personalized neon sign for his office. When he searches “custom neon signs” online, the first result he sees is likely to be A) an article about the history of neon signs.

B) highly ranked manufacturers’ websites.

C) People Also Ask results.

D) a PPC ad.

447)

The initial cost to advertisers for paid search ads is determined by A) organic search results.

B) standardized advertising rate calendars.

C) bidding.

D) competitor click-throughs.

448)

Brandeis sees and clicks on an ad for Earthly Beauty Products while searching online for “natural face masks.” This represents a in the decision-making process.

A) decision B) purchase C) natural result D) touchpoint

449)

For digital marketers, generating organizational value through search engine marketing involves balancing A) the product life cycle and consumer demand.

B) advertising innovation and brand prestige.

C) costs and projected revenue.

D) brand awareness and information overload.

450)

For organizations, what is the value of consumer analytics associated with paid search advertising?

A) forcing out the competition B) eliminating advertising costs C) gathering consumer insights D) improving customer service

451)

A company selling air purifiers will most likely prefer bidding on which keyword term within Google as part of its SEM strategy?

A) air quality B) appliance filter C) air conditioning D) home cleaners

452)

A top priority objective for organizational search engine marketing is often to A) facilitate social interaction.

B) win awards.

C) improve customer service.

D) increase sales or conversions.

453)

Driving traffic to a landing page is directly related to which SEM objective?

A) increasing qualified leads B) building digital trust C) increasing value to customers D) winning awards

454)

Five Star Electronics sells refurbished consumer electronics, including smartphones and wireless headphones. What best describes Five Star’s target market for its online ads?

A) consumers seeking information about electronics B) consumers needing electronic repair services C) consumers looking for low prices D) consumers looking to purchase secondhand devices

455)

Recall advertising can increase click-throughs by A) prompting consumers to remember a brand name or specific product.

B) addressing consumers by name if they have visited the site before.

C) facilitating consumer interaction on social media sites.

D) describing recalls associated with competitors’ products.

456)

What should digital marketers keep in mind when designing their firm’s SEM strategy?

A) A SEM strategy always includes increasing paid ads.

B) Search ads must be carefully considered and planned.

C) Every industry benefits from using paid search advertising.

D) SEM provides little valuable information about consumers or their needs.

457)

The marketing team for Crafts-n-Such plan to add an SEM strategy to drive consumers to its landing page. The decision under discussion is which search engine to select. What factor(s) should the team consider?

A) Cost is the primary determinant.

B) Reach and exposure are the only factors which matter.

C) Ad options, competition, ad pricing, expected results, and other factors must be analyzed.

D) Consumer device default settings are the major factor to consider.

458)

Digital marketers seeking the search engine with the greatest reach and market share should choose A) Bing.

B) Google.

C) Baidu.

D) Yahoo.

459)

Aarthi, a search marketer, explained to her client that the online ad campaign she designed could be changed, started, or stopped at any time. She also noted an alternative version of an ad can be used if a specific ad does not generate desired results. Aarthi is indicating that this SEM campaign is A) dynamic.

B) beneficial.

C) interactive.

D) localized.

460)

Search marketers refer to a(n) overall search advertising.

A) campaign B) account C) mass market D) group

461)

level when they are discussing an organization’s

A search ad option especially useful for firms with a mobile-first strategy is to allow A) ads without images.

B) ordering through search.

C) call ads.

D) local inventory ads.

462)

A search ad’s is dynamic, depending on factors such as its competition, the context of the search, and the ad relevance at that moment.

A) ad headline B) ad position C) ad rank D) ad quality

After researching cost-per-click for the hospitality industry and the search term “seafood restaurant,” Jonah’s Seafood Emporium determines it will pay a maximum of $1.85 each time its search ad is accessed by an individual consumer. Because of the company’s knowledge of the industry, Jonah’s has decided to use A) smart bidding.

B) a minimum bidding process.

C) a manual bidding process.

D) an automated bidding process.

463)

464)

A search ad’s positioning, such as first, second, or third in relation to other search ads in a SERP, is determined by_ .

A) bid price and ad rank B) ad layout and ad uniqueness C) industry relevance and ad size D) ad quality and format

465)

Selecting an automated bid strategy for a search ad is recommended for advertisers who A) have obtained detailed bid estimates.

B) have completed significant keyword and industry research.

C) desire little control over the bid process.

D) are committed to spending significant time, effort, and resources on conversion.

466)

Century Backpacks Company has used a cost per clicks model in bidding on its search ad placements. However, both costs and clicks have remained low over the past few weeks. To improve conversion results, a search marketer would advise Century to first A) enable the local inventory feature in its search ad.

B) increase the quality and relevance of its search ad.

C) check the ad rank threshold.

D) use a cost per acquisition bidding model.

467)

Search marketers focusing strictly on increasing brand exposure would most likely use a(n) A) automated bidding model.

B) max cost-per-click model.

C) cost per impressions model.

D) cost-per-click (CPC) model.

468)

What digital tool is designed to help marketers identify ads resulting in the desired action?

A) Bing SEO Reports B) link explorer C) keyword tools D) conversion tracking

469)

Of the following, the best example of a general keyword is are used in SEM to interest consumers when they are .

A) leather jacket; initially searching B) slim fit faux leather coat; seeking specific brands C) Armani jacket; searching for local retailers D) Belstaff men’s leather jacket; comparing prices

. General keywords

470)

It is recommended that search marketers identify negative keywords for ads. These are terms that A) have a damaging connotation.

B) have similar but incorrect spelling.

C) are intentionally excluded from the search ad.

D) are used exclusively by the organization’s competitors.

471)

An example of an affinity keyword for “thai food” is A) retailer.

B) alcohol.

C) brewery.

D) restaurant.

472)

Which keyword match type results in more targeted leads, but also tends to generate fewer leads?

A) phrase match B) exact match C) broad match D) recent match

473)

Unless otherwise specified, Google uses a(n) ads being considered in more search results.

A) phrase B) exact C) broad D) recent

match type, which often results in

474)

Research revealing keywords that competitors use for their brands and knowing which keywords are important to marketing efforts is part of A) long-tail keyword development.

B) A/B ad testing.

C) global targeting.

D) search competition.

475)

Semrush, Moz and Spyfu are all examples of A) tools to increase accessibility.

B) keyword tools.

C) A/B testing tools.

D) automated bidding software.

476)

Grouping or linking together large keyword lists, sometimes with the help of keyword tools, is known as A) concentration.

B) consideration.

C) concatenation.

D) congruence.

477)

Kylie, a search marketer, is developing a keyword list for a Big Red Granola search ad.

She begins the list with “buy gluten-free granola,” and then uses a tool to generate all potential variations. Kylie is engaging in A) concatenation.

B) search competition.

C) conversion tracking.

D) dynamic search.

478)

When a consumer searches for electric bikes, which text entry will generate search results with an exact phrase match, and including no other terms?

A) electric-powered bikes B) “electric bikes” C) [electric bikes] D) electric bikes near me

479)

Davis has designed a search ad for his firm’s new car emergency kit, and wants to attract consumers wishing to order this type of product. To make an informed and cost-effective bid for ad placement, Davis should A) generate negative keywords.

B) focus on an exact match strategy.

C) utilize keyword testing.

D) examine the competition.

480)

A significant difference between search ads and display ads is that A) display ads appear on display networks.

B) search ads reach greater numbers of consumers.

C) display ads do not include text.

D) search ads have lower conversion rates.

481)

When Jocelyn is browsing YouTube, she notices a small, boxed ad for Stella and Grace jewelry above the music video thumbnails. She loves its beautiful image of a pearl bracelet, and clicks on it to find out more. Jocelyn is reacting to a A) SEO strategy.

B) search ad.

C) remarketing strategy.

D) display ad.

482)

Venita has been browsing online for a specific designer purse, but has not made a purchase yet. She begins seeing an ad for a Michael Kors Bedford Legacy handbag every time she logs into her Gmail account. A Michael Kors retailer is trying to convert Venita through A) dynamic remarketing.

B) location extension.

C) responsive web design.

D) landing page design.

483)

In search engine marketing, the most effective strategy for marketers is to funnel consumers from a paid search ad to A) a related product or service.

B) a targeted landing page.

C) the organization’s home page.

D) a similar display ad.

484)

What consideration are digital marketers most likely to use in first determining the budget for a conversion-oriented search campaign?

A) competitive keyword inclusion B) ad rank C) cost-per-click D) cost per impression

485)

An important part of a search ad is the sponsoring organization’s website address, known as its A) headline.

B) display URL. C) backlink.

D) ad extension.

486)

487)

The title of a search ad is its A) headline.

B) primary keyword.

C) display URL. D) ad extension.

Recalling the qualities of search ad content, the most significant for achieving search marketing goals is that it is A) refreshing.

B) repetitive.

C) relevant.

D) responsive.

488)

Which element in a Bing search ad has a similar purpose to the description and ad extensions in a Google ad?

A) callout extension B) display URL C) title D) ad text

489)

Bryant wants to enable consumers who view his search ad to link directly to the landing page with his email newsletter sign-up. Bryant needs to include a A) location extension.

B) sitelink extension.

C) secondary headline.

D) service description.

490)

Responsive ads use to automatically serve the most appropriate ad headline and description to users.

A) analysts B) website designers C) machine learning algorithms D) focus groups

491)

A search ad for a multinational cosmetics company is created to introduce a new foundation for people of all skin colors. A search ad featuring the keywords “fresh nude makeup” is an example of content which A) is culturally sensitive.

B) is too personalized.

C) is not brand appropriate.

D) is not related to conversion.

492)

The search marketing team for Eco Pure Air suggests incorporating more specific valuable content into the search ad for its top-selling air purifier. Based on this idea, the best phrase to insert would be A) “available near you at leading home improvement retailers.”

B) “made in the USA from recycled materials.”

C) “the best air purifier we sell.”

D) “recommended for better sleep by the American Lung Association.”

493)

Which strategy is least important in designing culturally sensitive search ads?

A) copying successful approaches used by local competitors B) using appropriate keywords for specific regions C) avoiding particular words, phrases, and numbers in certain countries D) investigating differences in how consumers search

494)

In SEM, refers to the number of times a search ad is displayed on a search engine results page.

A) leads B) click-throughs C) views D) impressions

495)

496)

An ad’s average click-through rate is calculated by dividing the number of clicks by A) the number of impressions, and multiplied by 100.

B) the total number of actions, and multiplied by 100.

C) the total cost of conversions.

D) the total number of active daily site users.

When a search marketer calculates the total ad spend divided by the total measured views, they are finding the A) average cost per action (CPA).

B) return on ad spend (ROAS).

C) cost per view (CPV).

D) cost per impression (CPM).

497)

Competitive keywords tend to generate a marketing activity.

A) below average B) low C) high D) negative

_ cost per click in search engine

498)

Extremely high cost per click results in a single month should be investigated promptly, as these may be a sign of A) search ad duplication.

B) overused keywords C) fraudulent activity.

D) dynamic ad malfunction.

499)

The owner of several sporting goods stores reviews the raw SEM data for its new search ad. Based on what you know, which data would indicate the most desirable results?

A) an industry average cost per click with a high conversion rate B) a high number of impressions with a low click-through rate C) a low impressions rate with a very high cost per view D) an average return on ad spend for its industry, with a low ad quality score

500)

Briefly compare search engine marketing to search engine optimization in terms of strategy, tactics, and revenue.

501)

Explain the primary objective of an SEM strategy. Include an example describing how this is achieved.

502)

Discuss a situation in which a business owner may use SEM in order to establish or increase the prestige of their firm.

503)

Using an extended example, explain the concept of a dynamic SEM campaign. How does employing this strategy benefit an organization?

504)

Outline how search engines establish pricing for ads. Include a brief description of two commonly used bidding models.

Using the product “smartphones,” compare and contrast a general keyword and a branded keyword. Define and provide a related example of other types of keywords, including competitive, affinity, long-tail, and negative.

505)

506)

Discuss the remarketing process used in SEM and how it benefits marketers. Provide an example of a remarketing strategy you are personally familiar with.

507)

Explain how responsive search ads work. Next, create three versions of a headline for a responsive search ad for an online college furniture resale business.

508)

Regarding relevant ad content, what must search ad marketers keep in mind? What must be included within ad content? How do cultural factors play a role in this process?

509)

As sole proprietor of a small personal training business, you are using search ad marketing for the first time. What tools will help you assess ad performance? Discuss what the impressions and conversation rate analytics reveal about an ad. If the ad generates a high number of impressions with a low click-through rate, explain what this might indicate.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 1) FALSE

PPC ads may appear after a user conducts a search using a search engine, and advertisers on search engines will pay when consumers click their ads. PPC ads are a key form of SEM. 2) TRUE

Search engine marketing (SEM) is marketing in which an organization bids on keywords within a search account that are relevant to the organization’s products and services, and whose results are displayed on search engine results pages (SERPs). SEM focuses on paid search advertising.

3) FALSE

SEM focuses on paid search advertising, whereas SEO is more about ranking high on natural results on SERPs. Search engine marketing (SEM) is marketing in which an organization bids on keywords within a search account that are relevant to the organization’s products and services, 4) TRUE

SEM is a substantial source of revenue for search engines such as Google. Reportedly, most of Alphabet’s revenue was attributed to the Google Ads platform bringing in more than $200 billion in 2021.

5) TRUE

Specific objectives for SEM can vary, although most organizations will engage in SEM for purposes of increasing sales or conversions.

6) TRUE

An increase in traffic to the website can result in more leads, the most valuable of which would be targeted or qualified leads—consumers who are more likely than other leads to convert to customers because of their potential and interest.

7) FALSE

Consumers engaging in a search may initially be at the top of the conversion funnel, where they become aware of the organization’s offering. If they are attracted by the search ad and gain an interest in the product or service, they may click the ad and proceed to the landing page.

8) TRUE

If consumers are attracted to a search ad and gain an interest in the product or service, they may click the ad and proceed to the landing page. SEM can help increase conversion rate optimization (CRO)—improvement of the percentage of consumers who arrive at a landing page and actually engage in an action that the brand desires, such as a purchase.

9) FALSE

The analytics available through paid search advertising tools can tell organizations much about consumers. The types of search terms consumers use, which search engines they use, and a host of other data may be available.

10) TRUE

A specialized professional who wants consumers to perceive them as local experts in a particular service may use local paid search advertising to show up at the top of results for specific keywords.

11) FALSE

Rapid positioning refers to showing up on search engines in top advertising spots in the short term. This is achieved through SEM. 12) TRUE

Costs for search ads will vary on different search engines, and search marketers may wish to compare the costs and benefits of different search engines.

13) TRUE

Because many consumers search via mobile devices, some search engines may have specific campaign options geared towards mobile search. For example, Google Ads allows text, image, mobile-app promotion, and call ads (phone number prominently displayed) for mobile devices.

14) FALSE

A common bidding model is the cost-per-click (CPC) model. In this approach to search advertising, the advertiser pays each time a search ad is clicked on. Search engines often allow the advertiser to select a maximum amount they are willing to pay for a single consumer click— an amount known as maximum or max CPC. 15) TRUE

Search marketers may adopt a brand keyword strategy—using branded keywords in their search ads—if there is a well-known brand that consumers actively search for. If a specific model of an iPhone is being advertised, using the product brand is a most likely strategy.

16) FALSE

Ad extensions, which appear toward the bottom of a search ad, provide additional information that may be useful to the consumer.

17) TRUE

Google, Bing, and Yahoo offer responsive ads (RSAs), which are ads that take advantage of machine learning to deliver more relevant ads to consumers. For example, Google RSAs automatically serve the ad headline and description to users from a set of up to 15 headlines and four descriptions supplied by the advertiser.

18) FALSE

Search marketers should be aware of cultural differences across the regions where they are advertising. Certain terms, colors, and numbers may be appropriate or inappropriate in certain regions.

19) TRUE

Specifically measuring keyword performance is an important aspect to informing SEM strategy and tactics. Within a Google Ads account, search advertisers may assess keyword performance and determine whether to make pivots to their SEM. 20) FALSE

The average CPC can vary widely in industry. For non-competitive keywords, the average CPC may be extremely low, costing just cents. Competitive keywords can accrue substantial costs.

21) B

SEM focuses on paid search advertising, whereas SEO is more about ranking high on natural results on SERPs. 22) D

Many consumers rely on search engines to find information, products, services, and other things they are looking for. For many consumers, this is a first step towards finding information about anything and often a step towards ordering online. PPC ads often appear after a user conducts a search using a search engine, and advertisers on search engines will pay when consumers click their ads.

23) C

Search engine marketing (SEM) is marketing in which an organization bids on keywords within a search account that are relevant to the organization’s products and services, and whose results are displayed on search engine results pages (SERPs).

24) D

SEM is one of the key digital activities by which organizations can create value. As part of the digital consumer decision-making process, some consumers will click on an ad and make a direct purchase; others may engage in many touchpoints before deciding to purchase.

25) C

Creating value through SEM involves a careful balancing act between search marketing spend and projected revenue. If not carefully implemented, it may be a source of depletion of funds and result in financial loss.

26) C

The analytics available through paid search advertising tools can tell organizations much about consumers. The types of search terms consumers use, which search engines they use, and a host of other data may be available. These analytics can lead to customer insights.

27) A

Search engine marketing (SEM) is marketing in which an organization bids on keywords within a search account that are relevant to the organization’s products and services, and whose results are displayed on search engine results pages (SERPs). “Air quality” is the most directly relevant term for a product that helps with such quality.

28) D

Most organizations will engage in SEM for purposes of increasing sales or conversions, although specific objectives can vary.

29) A

An increase in traffic to the website can result in more leads, the most valuable of which would be targeted or qualified leads—consumers who are more likely than other leads to convert to customers because of their potential and interest.

30) D

SEM can contribute to an increase in traffic to a website, with the ultimate main objective being conversion. An increase in traffic to the website can result in more leads, the most valuable of which would be targeted or qualified leads—consumers who are more likely than other leads to convert to customers because of their potential and interest. Those looking for secondhand refurbished devices are the relevant target market. Those looking for low prices may also be looking for new products.

31) A

Reminder or recall advertising prompts consumers to remember specific brands, products, or services, with a goal of having consumers decide to purchase specific brands again 32) B

Simply increasing the number of paid search ads or SEM will not necessarily automatically enable organizations to meet their objectives. Paid search advertising is conducted within a particular competitive environment and must be carefully planned and strategized.

33) C

The choice of which search engine on which to conduct SEM is a major decision. Placement of search ads on SERPs, search ad options, competition, search ad pricing, expected results, and other factors are considerations. Costs for search ads will vary on different search engines, and search marketers may wish to compare the costs and benefits of different search engines.

34) B

SEM objectives should help the search marketer decide which search engine to use. If reach and exposure are key, Google has the largest market share.

35) A

SEM campaigns are dynamic, which means they can be started, stopped, varied, and bids changed, generally, at any time. SEM should be based on a specific segmentation, targeting, and positioning (STP) strategy which may vary across time and platforms.

36) B

The account level is an umbrella-like level for an organization’s search advertising, and which may include a number of campaigns.

37) C

Because many consumers search via mobile devices, search engines may have specific campaign options geared towards mobile search. For example, Google Ads allows text, image, mobile-app promotion, and call ads (phone number prominently displayed) for mobile devices.

38) C

Ad rank is the value used to determine whether an organization’s ads will be shown and what the ad position will be, as measured by ad rank thresholds. These thresholds measure the ability of an organization to compete with other in ad auctions. Thresholds are determined dynamically at the time of each auction based on factors such as ad position, ad quality, consumer’s location, the topic of the search, and other, related auctions.

39) C

Search engines often allow the advertiser to select a maximum amount they are willing to pay for a single consumer click—an amount known as maximum or max CPC. In a manual bidding process, the advertiser specifically selects the max CPC. Manual bidding is recommended when a search marketer has researched CPC for the industry and types of keywords being bid on and is confident about what they wish to spend.

40) A

For each search, the dynamic interaction of bid price and ad rank will determine ad position. Ad position is where an ad will be positioned in relation to other search ads, such as the first or second ad that appears at the top of the search engine results page (SERP).

41) C

Google offers automated bidding which allows Google to set bid amounts based on that ad’s likelihood to result in a click or conversion. Likewise, Microsoft offers the maximize-clicks automated bidding strategy. Selecting an automated strategy versus a manual one will depend on how much control the search advertiser wishes to exert, along with the amount of time and effort that will be expended on the campaign.

42) B

SEM campaigns can have different associated bidding models. If a campaign focuses on clicks and if a search ad consistently appears on a SERP but is rarely or ever clicked on, search engines will usually identify this as a negative factor. The ad may be seen as less relevant to consumers searching using the specific search terms for which the ad appeared.

43) C

In a CPM strategy, the advertiser would pay a certain amount for each impression (or for every thousand impressions). This model would be appropriate for search advertisers who wish to increase exposure to the brand.

44) D

Conversion tracking is a digital tool that helps search advertisers identify which ads most effectively resulted in actions or acquisitions.

45) A

A general keyword is one that includes generic terms such as leather jacket or bike. However, general keywords are often too broad and have low conversion rates.

46) C

Negative keywords are keywords that are intentionally excluded, so that when consumers use such keywords, the advertiser’s search ad would not appear. Excluding these keywords reduces the possibility of the search marketer having to pay for consumer clicks that are not likely to lead to conversion.

47) D

Affinity keywords are related to an organization’s offering but are not specific terms for the products or services being offered.

48) B

Search marketers should use exact match to narrow the possibilities of search ads being shown in a targeted fashion. This match type may generate a more targeted lead but may also generate fewer leads.

49) C

When search marketers place search ads, Google defaults to broad match. This match type permits ads to display even if the search did not include the same exact keywords but did include related ones. It may result in ads being considered in broader search result opportunities.

50) D

Search marketers should do extensive research across search engines, to find out what the competition is doing. Search competition includes the keywords that your competitors are bidding on and to what extent.

51) B

Keywords may be selected with the help of various keyword tools which are designed to allow advertisers to research possible keywords. These include Semrush, Moz, Spyfu, as well as Google Keyword Planner and Microsoft Keyword Planner Tool.

52) C

Concatenation involves grouping or linking together large keyword lists, possibly with the assistance of keyword tools or software.

53) A

Concatenation involves grouping or linking together large keyword lists, possibly with the assistance of keyword tools or software. For example, the Found Concatenation Tool helps search marketers to do this.

54) C

Where a keyphrase consists of several words, search engines will often default to a broad match (unless the type of match is otherwise specified). Quotation marks around a keyphrase or parts of a keyphrase will result in phrase matching, but may also include other terms with that exact phrase. Brackets will result in ads where the consumer has searched for the exact keyphrase and no other terms or order of words.

55) C

Keyword testing involves trying different keywords to determine what keywords or keyphrases work best in ad searches, and the tool provides various options to consider.

56) A

Display ads are different from search ads in important respects. Most importantly, search ads will be shown on search engines, whereas display ads will be shown on display networks.

57) D

The Google Display Network claims to reach 90% of those who use the Internet on a global basis, including on many websites, blogs, news sites, Gmail, and YouTube. Display ads stand out from the rest of the website in a box or banner, market specific brands, products, or services, and may be clicked on to lead to landing pages.

58) A

Dynamic remarketing through Google can display specific product details “tailored” to the consumer’s website activity. If a consumer visited an organization’s website and was looking at a specific product, Google can later show that consumer an ad for that same product with an image and price.

59) B

A specific landing page relevant to the search ad is important in SEM to avoid consumer confusion. If consumers must navigate through a website to find what they clicked on to learn more about it, they may give up the search.

60) C

A budget is often assigned based on digital marketing objectives. For conversion-oriented ad campaigns, CPC would be one measure digital marketers might decide to use for budgeting because they will be concerned about paying too much to obtain a conversion.

61) B

A display URL is the organization’s website address (which is not always the URL to which the search ad will link).

62) A

The headline is the “title” of the search ad, usually displayed in the largest type size in the ad.

63) C

Ads should relate to search terms, or they will unlikely be helpful to reach search marketing goals. This means that ad content should be on-point and relevant to consumers.

64) D

Microsoft Bing offers search ads consisting of a title, a display URL, and ad text. The ad text in a Bing search provides additional information about the organization, product, or service being advertised. Its purpose is similar to the description and various ad extensions of a Google ad.

65) B

Ad extensions, which appear toward the bottom of a search ad, provide additional information that may be useful to the consumer. A sitelink extension allows an ad to be augmented with weblinks that take consumers directly to a specific page on the advertiser’s site.

66) C

Responsive ads take advantage of machine learning to deliver more relevant ads to consumers.

For example, search marketers may generate a number of different possible headlines that will be selected to be displayed. Google dynamically changes the headline and description to find the winning combination—the one that results in the best click-through rate and highest conversion rate for the ad.

67) C

Ads should relate to search terms, or they will unlikely be helpful to reach search marketing goals. This means that ad content should be on-point and relevant to consumers. Content should be targeted based on keywords: but search ads must be appropriate and in line with the organization’s brand.

68) D

Providing ad copy that is general is not usually recommended. Search marketers should specify the value being provided and avoid generic statements. Ads should use terminology and language that consumers are familiar with.

69) A

Search marketers should also be aware of cultural differences across the regions where they are advertising. Certain terms, colors, and numbers may be appropriate or inappropriate in certain regions. It is important to understand how consumers search as well as pay special attention to cultural differences when selecting keywords.

70) D

Impressions are the number of times a search ad was displayed on a SERP. 71) A

The average click-through rate (CTR) is SEM metric, calculated as the number of clicks divided by the number of impressions, multiplied by 100.

72) C

The SEM metric cost per view (CPV) is calculated as the total ad spend divided by total measured views.

73) C

The average CPC can vary widely by industry. For non-competitive keywords, the average CPC may be extremely low, costing just cents. Competitive keywords can accrue substantial costs.

74) C

Very high CPC costs in one month should be investigated. For example, for competitive bots may be used to fraudulently increase CPC costs of competitors by causing robots to click on a competitor’s search ads, making the advertiser pay more.

75) A

Within a Google Ads account, a statistics tool is available that shows performance data including impressions, clicks, and click-through rates (CTRs). A high conversion rate is desirable, indicating that a high percentage of consumers viewing the ad proceed to its landing page and take action (such as make a purchase). An industry standard cost per click is expected. Together, these two metrics indicate the favorable return on ad spend from the above options.

76) Essay

SEO should not be confused with SEM. Search engine marketing (SEM) is marketing in which an organization bids on keywords within a search account that are relevant to the organization’s products and services, and whose results are displayed on search engine results pages (SERPs).

SEM focuses on paid search advertising, whereas SEO is more about ranking high on natural results on SERPs. SEM is a substantial source of revenue for search engines such as Google, while SEO is not a revenue provider for search engines.

Many consumers rely on search engines to find information, products, services, and other things they are looking for. For many consumers, this is a first step towards finding information about anything and often a step towards ordering online. Consumers may access paid or natural search results when looking for information.

77) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should include most of the following main points.

SEM can contribute to an increase in traffic to a website, with the ultimate main objective being conversion. An increase in traffic to the website can result in more leads, the most valuable of which would be targeted or qualified leads—consumers who are more likely than other leads to convert to customers because of their potential and interest.

Conversion can be rather immediate if a paid search advertising campaign gets off to a good start. Sales may result from a paid search campaign that leads consumers to webpages and then on to landing pages that are designed to advance consumers through the process.

Consumers engaging in a search may initially be at the top of the conversion funnel, where they become aware of the organization’s offering. If they like the search ad and gain an interest in the product or service, they may click the ad and proceed to the landing page. SEM can help increase conversion rate optimization (CRO)—improvement of the percentage of consumers who arrive at a landing page and actually engage in an action that the brand desires, such as a purchase.

78) Essay

In some cases, when an organization wishes to establish its expertise in an area, it may attempt to do so by having its ads consistently show up on search engines. This tactic might involve use of keyterms that consumers use for the area in which the organization wishes to establish or maintain expertise.

For example, a specialized professional who wants consumers to perceive them as local experts in a particular service may use local paid search advertising to show up at the top of results for specific keywords. Examples might be ads for lawyers specializing in niche areas of law or forensic accounting for a specific industry.

However, simply increasing the number of paid search ads or SEM will not necessarily automatically enable organizations to meet their objectives. Paid search advertising is conducted within a particular competitive environment and must be carefully planned and strategized.

79) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should include most of the following main points.

SEM campaigns are dynamic, which means they can be started, stopped, varied, and bids changed, generally, at any time.

Search ads may be one part of a customer journey, and digital marketers should understand buyer personas when deciding what search ads to use. SEM should be based on a specific segmentation, targeting, and positioning (STP) strategy. For example, SEM can be used to target specific market segments through specific search engine networks, locations, audience, and language. Positioning may be incorporated with search ad content.

SEM campaigns can be employed and tailored to various levels: Account level.

Campaign level. Group level.

Account level.

Campaign level.

Group level.

Account level.

Campaign level.

Group level.

80) Essay

Search engines display search ads based on ad auctions. In this pricing process, search advertisers make bids for ads that could appear for specific search terms. Based on these bids, the search engine decides the ad rank and whether it will appear.

The results of ad auctions are influenced by a number of factors: A bid is the amount of money a search marketer specifies as the maximum they wish to spend on a keyword when a consumer clicks on the organization’s search ad.

Ad quality is the overall superior characteristic of an ad. It is based on the expected clickthrough-rate (CTR), the ad’s relevance (the extent to which an ad relates to the consumer’s expected needs), and the experience provided by the landing page.

Ad rank is the value used to determine whether an organization’s ads will be shown and what the ad position will be, as measured by ad rank thresholds.

The dynamic interaction of bid price and ad rank will determine ad position.

One model is the cost-per-click (CPC) model. In this approach to search advertising, the advertiser pays each time a search ad is clicked on.

In a manual bidding process, the advertiser specifically selects the max CPC (maximum amount they are willing to pay for a single consumer click).

Google offers automated bidding which allows Google to set bid amounts based on that ad’s likelihood to result in a click or conversion. As a type of automated bidding, smart bidding uses machine learning to increase conversion rates for ad auctions. The search engine will automatically and dynamically adjust bid prices (within bid limits) to improve the position of ad results based on objectives set by search advertisers.

As a type of automated bidding, smart bidding uses machine learning to increase conversion rates for ad auctions. The search engine will automatically and dynamically adjust bid prices (within bid limits) to improve the position of ad results based on objectives set by search advertisers.

In a cost-per-impression (CPM) strategy, the advertiser would pay a certain amount for each impression (or for every thousand impressions).

Conversion-focused campaigns may use a cost per action or cost per acquisition (CPA) model. In this model, advertisers pay a certain amount for each action or acquisition by a consumer, as defined in the advertising agreement with the search engine.

As a type of automated bidding, smart bidding uses machine learning to increase conversion rates for ad auctions. The search engine will automatically and dynamically adjust bid prices (within bid limits) to improve the position of ad results based on objectives set by search advertisers.

81) Essay

There are different types of keywords. The use of specific keyword types may depend on the stage in which the consumer is in the conversion funnel: A general keyword is one that includes generic terms such as smartphone. However, general keywords are often too broad and have low conversion rates.

A branded keyword is one that includes the name of a brand directly, such as Apple iPhone 13 Pro Max or Samsung Galaxy S22 Ultra.

A competitive keyword is one that is used by an organization’s competitors. Samsung uses “galaxy,” the name of a popular smartphone model.

Samsung uses “galaxy,” the name of a popular smartphone model.

Affinity keywords are related to an organization’s offering but are not directly included in its keyword list. The keywords “personal digital assistant” and “telecommunications” are associated with smartphones.

The keywords “personal digital assistant” and “telecommunications” are associated with smartphones.

Long-tail keywords are longer phrases. I want to “buy an alpine green iPhone 13 Pro Max in Seattle.”

I want to “buy an alpine green iPhone 13 Pro Max in Seattle.”

Negative keywords are keywords that are intentionally excluded, so that when consumers use such keywords, the advertiser’s search ad would not appear. “Rotary phone” and “pay phone” could be negative (excluded) keywords for smartphone retailers.

“Rotary phone” and “pay phone” could be negative (excluded) keywords for smartphone retailers.

Samsung uses “galaxy,” the name of a popular smartphone model.

The keywords “personal digital assistant” and “telecommunications” are associated with smartphones.

I want to “buy an alpine green iPhone 13 Pro Max in Seattle.”

“Rotary phone” and “pay phone” could be negative (excluded) keywords for smartphone retailers.

82) Essay

Remarketing can be a powerful tool to reengage with consumers who have visited an organization’s website. It involves targeting with additional advertising those who have visited but left the website, such as after viewing specific products on the site. Sometimes, these consumers need just a reminder. Others need more of an incentive to see how the organization adds value and to be allured and advance through the conversion process.

Search marketers may use remarketing to attempt to convert the consumer to a customer. This may be done by employing a tracking code—a code added to an organization’s website that will allow the capture of specific data.

Dynamic remarketing through Google can display specific product details “tailored” to the consumer’s website activity. That is, if a consumer visited an organization’s website and was looking at a specific product, Google can later show that consumer an ad for that same product with an image and price. Messaging may be targeted specifically to consumers and feel more relevant to them.

Student examples will vary, but should contain details of the service/product, and the experience.

83) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should include these main points as well as three appropriate headlines.

Responsive ads (RSAs) are ads that take advantage of machine learning to deliver more relevant ads to consumers. With responsive ads, search marketers may generate a number of different possible headlines that will be selected to be displayed. Some search engines dynamically change the headline and description to find the combination which results in the best click-through rate and highest conversion.

Headline examples: Low cost and Used Dorm Furniture For Sale Go Green with Used Furnishing For Your College Apartment Best Used Furniture Options For Your College Student Low cost and Used Dorm Furniture For Sale Go Green with Used Furnishing For Your College Apartment Best Used Furniture Options For Your College Student Low cost and Used Dorm Furniture For Sale Go Green with Used Furnishing For Your College Apartment Best Used Furniture Options For Your College Student 84) Essay

It is important that all aspects of the search ad display value for the consumer. The ad should be designed to advance consumers through the conversion funnel and entice them to click on the ad.

It should identify key differentiators of the product, service, or brand in order to convey its value.

Ads should relate to search terms, or they will unlikely be helpful to reach search marketing goals. This means that ad content should be on-point and relevant to consumers. Content should be targeted based on keywords. Keywords should be included in the search ad.

Search marketers should also be aware of cultural differences across the regions where they are advertising. Certain terms, colors, and numbers may be appropriate or inappropriate in certain regions.

85) Essay

Google Analytics includes various analytics to measure SEM performance.

Within a Google Ads account, search advertisers may assess keyword performance and determine whether to make pivots to their SEM. A statistics tool is available that shows performance data including impressions, clicks, and click-through rates (CTRs). An ad quality score is also available, ranked between 1 and 10, with 10 being the top score.

Bing also offers a variety of reports helpful to measure SEM performance. The Bing Performance report displays how effective search ads were over a given time period. A variety of analytics offered in that report will be important for search marketers, such as impressions, clicks, advertising spend, and average CPC. Key metrics include: Average cost per click.

Impressions.

Cost per impression.

Cost per thousand viewable impressions.

Average click-through rate.

Conversion rate.

Average cost per action (or acquisition/ conversion).

Return on ad spend.

Cost per view.

The impressions analytic reveals the number of times a search ad appears on a search engine in response to a search. The average click through rate (CTR) indicates the average percentage of clicks against the number of views. A very high number of impressions with a very low click through rate (CTR) is a sign that your campaign may need to be adjusted or removed.

Chapter 7: Email Marketing Strategy 510)

The use of email has declined since its peak in the early 1990s. ⊚ true ⊚ false

511)

One advantage of email marketing is that it is cost effective. ⊚ true ⊚ false

512)

Most organizations agree that they can never send too many marketing emails. ⊚ true ⊚ false

513)

Email marketing brings value to consumers by providing product information and access to promotions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

514)

Email marketing is widely used for generating leads. ⊚ true ⊚ false

515)

An excellent way to build a brand image is by employing loyalty email marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

516)

When preparing an email marketing plan, email marketers should determine specific objectives and then select a specific type of email to meet that objective. ⊚ true ⊚ false

517)

The email click-through rate reflects the percentage of consumers who have opened a marketing email compared to the number of emails delivered. ⊚ true ⊚ false

518)

Email open rates are not impacted by the time of day a marketing email is sent. ⊚ true ⊚ false

519)

Hard bounce issues are typically temporary and will resolve within a few hours. ⊚ true ⊚ false

520)

Segmenting the target market will likely positively impact both the organization’s open rates and click-through rates (CTR) in email marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

521)

Encouraging consumers to use an unsubscribe option for marketing emails is a good strategy for marketers. It helps improve brand image. ⊚ true ⊚ false

522)

One purpose of A/B testing in email marketing is to discern which of two options increases consumer engagement more. ⊚ true ⊚ false

523)

Marketers must strive to reduce sticky email content because consumers do not find it appealing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

524)

More consumers rely on a mobile device for reading emails than on a desktop device, making a mobile-first strategy an important consideration in email marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

525)

It is recommended that marketers incorporate the terms cash bonus, profits, pre-approved and lifetime into email subject lines to increase open rates. ⊚ true ⊚ false

526)

An inverted pyramid layout in a marketing email may be a good option for helping consumers locate important information quickly. ⊚ true ⊚ false

527)

Every marketing email, regardless of length, should contain a single call to action. ⊚ true ⊚ false

528)

A conversion rate of around 10 percent for marketing emails would be considered good in most situations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

529)

Email marketers should strive to increase engagement levels and the list growth rate. ⊚ true ⊚ false

530)

Email marketing has been in broad use since the early A) 1970s.

B) 1980s.

C) 1990s.

D) 2000s.

531)

Which statement accurately describes the status of email marketing in today’s business environment?

A) In light of more innovative technologies, email marketing is rarely used.

B) The marketing purpose of email is more about awareness than conversion.

C) The use of email remains unimportant in digital marketing.

D) Email marketing is actively, but not exclusively, used in digital marketing.

532)

An advantage of email marketing for organizations is that it is often methods.

A) easier B) more cost-effective C) costlier D) trendier

than other

533)

Segmented email lists allow organizations to reach_ A) broad B) specific C) unrestricted D) undefined

534)

Which email marketing tactic can most easily harm an organization’s reputation?

A) sending targeted emails B) describing promotions to current customers C) allowing consumers to subscribe to an email list D) sending frequent and unsought emails

535)

audiences.

The downside in sending very frequent emails to the same email list is that consumers tend to view them as A) spam.

B) sticky.

C) dull.

D) advertising.

536)

In terms of email marketing, A) gaining traffic B) increasing conversion C) accessing promotions D) increasing brand reputation

537)

One way that email marketing provides value to the sponsoring organization is by A) enhancing retention.

B) making brand choices easy.

C) showing consumers how they make a difference.

D) providing access to promotions.

describes value provided to consumers.

538)

When Sephora Beauty emails a high-value customer list about a special holiday savings event, their purpose is to A) increase sales.

B) build awareness.

C) enhance brand reputation.

D) improve customer loyalty.

539)

What describes a typical email marketing objective for a non-profit organization such as Doctors Without Borders?

A) generating sales B) building awareness C) enhancing loyalty D) improving retention

540)

When a consumer receives an email about an item abandoned in their virtual shopping cart, the marketing purpose is to A) build awareness.

B) drive website traffic.

C) reinforce brand loyalty.

D) increase conversion.

541)

Which organization is most likely to engage in loyalty email marketing?

A) a medical office B) a food bank C) an airline D) a Christmas tree shop

542)

DSW customers can sign up for a free program which rewards them with points for every purchase. It sends periodic emails to enrolled customers reminding them about their current points balance and promotions they are eligible for. A key purpose of this strategy is to A) enhance customer lifetime value.

B) convert new customers.

C) increase brand exposure.

D) build website traffic.

543)

Once every three months, Darby Auto Repair emails its customers to remind them about scheduled maintenance for their vehicles. It offers these customers a 15% discount on any maintenance services. The primary objective of this marketing effort is to A) reach a broader target audience.

B) enhance customer retention.

C) build the firm’s reputation.

D) convert new customers.

544)

Which email marketing strategy best supports an objective to enhance brand image?

A) alerting customers to current promotions B) sending reminders about items left in virtual shopping carts C) tracking customer loyalty program points D) including consistent imagery and logos

545)

The first step in a successful email marketing campaign is to A) survey existing customers.

B) develop an email marketing plan.

C) assess the competition’s efforts.

D) segment the target market.

546)

An email is automatically sent to a new customer who signs up for Choice Hotel’s loyalty program. The email describes all program benefits and invites the customer to fill out a room preference profile. This is an example of a A) welcome email.

B) new-content email.

C) promotional email.

D) survey email.

547)

Sender reputation refers to A) the target audience’s perception of the sponsoring organization.

B) current customers’ feelings about recent marketing campaigns.

C) the trust a service provider has for the email marketer.

D) the attitude former customers have towards re-engagement efforts.

548)

You have just placed your first order with the online food delivery service DoorDash.

Shortly after your meal arrives, you receive a brief email asking you to rate the service from 1 to 10 on value. This is an example of a A) welcome email.

B) new-content email.

C) promotional email.

D) survey email.

549)

Mailchimp, Hubspot, and Campaign Monitor are all types of A) Internet service providers.

B) graphic design firms.

C) email marketing platforms.

D) digital ad agencies.

550)

A gym has a series of emails set up to send automatically based on a member’s activities.

These include a welcome email when a member joins, a “We miss you!” email when a member hasn’t checked in for over a month, and a “Keep up the good work!” email when a member checks in four or more times a week for over a month. This is an example of a A) drip campaign.

B) reengagement tactic.

C) loyalty program.

D) consumer survey.

551)

An email is the percentage of emails accessed compared to the number delivered.

A) open rate B) conversion rate C) click-through-rate D) bounce rate

552)

An email click-through-rate is the percentage of consumers who perform a click-through action compared to A) the total number of consumers.

B) the total number of customers.

C) the number of emails delivered.

D) the number of links included.

553)

Which tactic is most likely to increase an email’s open rate?

A) incorporating a catchy subject line B) disregarding scheduling issues C) repeating previous content D) targeting all devices identically

554)

A good way to determine the optimum time for sending emails to your customers is to A) ask your least active customers what they prefer.

B) compare the open rate to the click-through rate.

C) test open rates at different times of day.

D) investigate the schedule your competitors use.

555)

Of the following methods, likely the least effective way to generate a quality email list is

to A) B) C) D)

ask consumers to sign up for your newsletter. advertise on social media. purchase an existing list. collect information on your landing page.

556)

A temporary issue which prevents an email from being delivered, such as a full mailbox, is called a A) hard bounce.

B) junk email.

C) soft bounce.

D) spam email.

557)

A retailer’s email list with a high hard bounce rate is an issue related to A) security.

B) deliverability.

C) accessibility.

D) reliability.

558)

Niaz receives daily emails from a mailing list he did not sign up for, and he considers these emails to be junk mail. What action can he take that may damage the email reputation of the company sending the emails?

A) lodge a spam complaint B) unsubscribe from the mailing list C) create a filter to send the emails directly to his trash folder D) contact the company directly to request to be removed from the list

559)

Email marketers want to avoid spam complaints against their organizations. These complaints involve emails which consumers consider to be A) unsolicited.

B) confusing.

C) false.

D) advertising.

560)

Which tactic best reflects an output-based approach to email marketing?

A) assessing open rates by time of day and country B) segmenting an email list by consumer age and educational level C) tracking consumer landing page engagement D) sending continuous emails to an unsegmented list

561)

Bernie’s Furniture Warehouse uses an output-based approach to email marketing. This means the company is most interested in A) increasing customer lifetime value.

B) reaching a very broad audience.

C) building its reputation.

D) targeting the right consumers.

562)

Dividing consumers on a firm’s email list into four groups designated as strictly mobile users, occasional mobile users, mobile and desktop users, and strictly desktop users is an example of A) engaging.

B) converting.

C) segmenting.

D) targeting.

563)

For a new travel offering, Midwest River Adventures wants to engage with consumers who reside in states bordering the Mississippi River. Additionally, they only wish to reach consumers over age 50 with high incomes. By narrowing their list of consumer names in this way, Midwest River Adventures is using which email marketing strategy?

A) targeting B) converting C) re-engaging D) advertising

564)

Chewy.com emails existing customers who have not ordered any products within the past 45 days. The email contains a reminder about the 5% discount Chewy offers for automated pet food subscriptions. This reminder email is an example of a(n) A) limited time offer.

B) personalization strategy.

C) re-engagement strategy.

D) output-based approach.

565)

An online fashion retailer distributes two versions of its spring email campaign to its most active customer list. The second version uses the words “free shipping” in the subject line, which generates an open rate 20% higher than the first message. This demonstrates the use of A) consumer re-engagement.

B) A/B testing.

C) effective segmentation.

D) loyalty email marketing.

566)

Sticky email content can be described as A) unattractive and unappealing.

B) repetitious.

C) memorable and engaging.

D) overly emotional.

567)

Why should email marketers consider focusing on a mobile-first strategy?

A) If an email looks attractive on a mobile device, it will look attractive on a desktop device.

B) This is a faster and less expensive option than other types of email.

C) Mobile devices have replaced all other types of devices for consumers.

D) More consumers read emails on mobile devices than on other digital platforms.

568)

A responsive email template can adjust a marketing email based on A) the time of day it is opened.

B) the size of the screen it is viewed on.

C) the viewer’s visual impairments.

D) the consumer’s online behaviors.

569)

A good way for email marketers to evaluate subject line effectiveness is by A) checking spam folders.

B) calculating the bounce rate.

C) assessing the open rate.

D) determining the character count.

Zentime Tea Company uses the subject line “I am good for you” in a new marketing email. This is best described as a subject line.

A) conversational B) controversial C) funny D) inquisitive

570)

An email subject line which reads, “Do you need a better night’s sleep?” represents which type?

A) conversational B) controversial C) funny D) inquisitive

571)

572)

A good strategy for producing engaging email content for the broadest audience is to A) incorporate jargon.

B) write simply.

C) use abbreviations to save space.

D) place key points at the end.

573)

Which content element is most likely to increase stickiness in a marketing email?

A) jargon B) abbreviations C) images D) complex writing

574)

What advantage does using an HTML email provide to marketers?

A) less expensive to develop B) simpler and easier to read C) lower bounce rates D) more opportunities for imagery and design

575)

What is the key benefit of using an inverted-pyramid layout in a marketing email?

A) highlights information in the center of the email B) allows consumers to view content in an organized fashion C) reads like an office memo without images D) allows consumers to get important information quickly

576)

Chipotle Rewards Program members receive an email for free guacamole and chips during their birthday month. What tactic is Chipotle using to increase customer engagement?

A) drip campaign B) good UX design C) personalization D) call-to-action

577)

A good guideline for marketing emails is to include content which is A) nativist.

B) wholly image-based.

C) inclusive.

D) gender-specific.

578)

For every 100 marketing emails sent out by Crate and Barrel, an average of four new customers sign up to receive its monthly design catalog. In this marketing effort, the measures 4 percent.

A) open rate B) conversion rate C) engagement level D) bounce rate

579)

It is reasonable for email marketing professionals to expect an open rate of up to A) 1 percent.

B) 25 percent.

C) 50 percent.

D) 75 percent.

580)

Minted, an online design goods firm, wants to know which month generates the highest sales volume related to its email marketing. In other words, they are looking at A) engagement levels.

B) click-through rates.

C) conversion rates.

D) open rates.

581)

582)

The bounce rate in email marketing refers to A) the percentage of consumers who took a desired action.

B) the percentage of consumers who unsubscribe from an email campaign.

C) the percentage of consumers who mark an email as spam.

D) the percentage of emails not delivered to those on an email list.

The email click-through rate records the number of consumers who perform a clickthrough action compared to A) the number of customers.

B) the number of emails sent.

C) the number of emails delivered.

D) the number of consumers in a target market.

583)

Of the following analytics, marketers want the A) engagement level B) bounce rate C) unsubscribe rate D) spam complaint rate

to be as high as possible.

584)

A marketer for an electronics firm wants to know the amount in sales generated by a new email campaign sent only to a limited high-value customer list. Which metric would be most useful?

A) click-through rate B) bounce rate C) revenue per email D) list growth rate

585)

Describe at least three ways that email marketing provides value to consumers.

586)

Describe how and why a firm may use loyalty email marketing.

587)

Create an email which can be used by your university in its marketing efforts to new students. Combine at least two types of email in your example.

588)

Describe strategies email marketers can use to lessen or avoid extensive consumer use of the unsubscribe option.

589)

Assume that you are responsible for creating a marketing strategy for a small firm selling athletic apparel online. What are some strategies for segmenting this market for your email marketing approach?

590)

List three email marketing strategies which can boost customer engagement.

591)

Describe strategies marketers can use to create an appropriate subject line for marketing emails. What words or terms should be avoided?

592)

Briefly describe benefits of three popular layouts for marketing emails: inverted-pyramid, columns, and zigzag.

593)

Create a specific example which demonstrates the open rate for a marketing email.

594)

Create a specific example which demonstrates revenue per email.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 1) FALSE

There are expected to be some 4.6 billion email users in 2025, up from approximately 4 billion in 2020. Today, email marketing is very much an active type of digital marketing, alongside other innovative methods of digital marketing.

2) TRUE

According to one report, email can generate a return of $36 for every $1 spent on email marketing. In conjunction with other digital marketing, email marketing may allow organizations to reach new audiences, including alluring diverse audiences, and may even be more costeffective and faster than other methods.

3) FALSE

Email marketing can harm reputation and brand image, especially if abused. For example, some organizations send out emails to the same email groups on a very regular basis. Consumers may come to see too-frequent emails as spam.

4) TRUE

Email marketing may be used to generate awareness among consumers and provide information about the brand, its products and services, and promotions. This brings value.

5) TRUE

Email marketing is used heavily for purposes of generating leads, sales, and conversion.

6) FALSE

Using loyalty email marketing is a good strategy for increasing customer loyalty and retention.

Loyalty email marketing involves sending emails relating to customer-loyalty efforts such as loyalty rewards balances, loyalty perks, and special loyalty promotions.

7) TRUE

A number of types of emails can be used for marketing purposes. In preparing an email marketing plan, email marketers need to determine which type(s) to use to achieve objectives.

Specific strategies and tactics may be employed for each.

8) FALSE

The email click-through-rate (CTR) is the percentage of consumers who perform a click-through action compared to the number of emails delivered.

9) FALSE

Email marketers should consider both the time and the day of the week to send emails. Both can affect a campaign. For example, some consumers read their email first thing in the morning; others may engage further with marketing emails late into the evening.

10) FALSE

A soft email bounce is a temporary situation preventing an email from being successfully delivered. A soft bounce might occur if the email recipient’s email box is full and cannot accept further messages (due to space limitations). A hard email bounce is a permanent failure to deliver an email. A hard bound might happen if the email address no longer exists or the email account has been terminated.

11) TRUE

Selecting the right audience will have a major impact on open rates and CTR. Organizations may wish to start with their current email list and consider segmenting it to target groups based on engagement levels. Well-implemented email segmentation can result in great improvement in who may respond to an email campaign.

12) FALSE

To reduce consumer use of the unsubscribe option, email marketers will want to provide valuable and useful email content, valuable information, and desired promotions. Balancing the frequency and timing of sending emails can also help avoid consumers getting annoyed by emails. An unsubscribe may still be required nevertheless, but encouraging it may not be a good strategy.

13) TRUE

A/B testing involves testing two versions of an email campaign or message to see which performs better among initial audiences. Testing various aspects of an email campaign or message is a good idea to improve the potential for better results.

14) FALSE

Content should be sticky. Sticky email content is content that consumers will read and care about. It is content that sticks in the minds of consumers.

15) TRUE

Many more emails will be opened on a mobile device than on a desktop device. Email marketers should consider that not everyone might own or have access to a computer and may instead rely on a mobile device. Considering different devices, different size screens, and how an email will be displayed on these should be a key part of email marketers’ considerations.

16) FALSE

Subject lines should be devoid of words that may be caught by email provider spam filters that will reject the message. Even if specific words may not be rejected, some words should not be used, including expect to earn, buy, cash bonus, profits, pre-approved, lifetime, ad, form, and many others.

17) TRUE

An inverted-pyramid layout presents the image and content information first and points attention to the call-to-action button below. The simplicity of the design allows consumers to get key information quicky and draws their attention to the call-to-action button at the end without surrounding imagery or text beside or below it.

18) FALSE

Calls-to-action are key elements of an email campaign, and they should be designed in a way that attracts consumers to click on these. Placing these in appropriate places is also important, so that consumers can see them at different intervals, especially if the email is long. Placing a callto-action at the very top, in the middle, and at the end of an email may be a technique used by email marketers depending on the format of the email.

19) TRUE

The conversion rate for email is the percentage of consumers who took a desired action.

Conversion rates will vary widely based on factors such as industry, type of business, type of email, time of year, promotion, and special events. Often conversion rates are only a few percent.

20) TRUE

Engagement level is the degree of consumer engagement with email. Email marketers will want these to be as high as possible. The list growth rate is the percentage by which an email list has grown over time. Growing a list allows email marketers to increase the chance of reaching their goals, such as conversion, as they are increasing the consumer or customer base to market to.

21) C

Email marketing employs email to have consumers and customers become aware of an organization’s brand or offerings, or for other marketing purposes. In 1978, Gary Thuerk sent the first mass-marketing email to promote a product, resulting in substantial sales. By 1991, email marketing was being widely used.

22) D

Today, email marketing is very much an active type of digital marketing, alongside other innovative methods of digital marketing.

23) B

In conjunction with other digital marketing, email marketing may allow organizations to reach new audiences, including alluring diverse audiences, and may even be more cost-effective and faster than other methods.

24) B

Email marketing can be very effective if employed appropriately. A targeted and segmented email list may allow organizations to reach specific markets.

25) D

Email marketing can harm reputation and brand image, especially if abused. Consumers may come to see too-frequent emails as spam, which is the sending of unrequested or unsought email to a broad email audience, often in bulk.

26) A

Some organizations send out emails to the same email groups on a very regular basis. Consumers may come to see too-frequent emails as spam, which is the sending of unrequested or unsought email to a broad email audience, often in bulk.

27) C

The organizational email marketing objective of gaining traffic, leads, sales, and conversion provides value to the consumer by providing access to promotions, products, and services.

28) A

Email marketing also may help organizations enhance retention and loyalty. Customers may act on email marketing efforts by purchasing promoted products or services at regular intervals, and such repeated email outreach can keep customers coming back.

29) A

Email marketing is used heavily for purposes of generating leads, sales, and conversion. Email campaigns that target the sale of products and services are common, such as alerting customers to special deals.

30) B

Non-profit organizations will often use email marketing not only to generate awareness of various causes but also to provide value to their consumers such as showing how they are making a difference.

31) D

If a consumer places a product in a shopping cart, email marketing may be used to help advance the consumer toward the purchase step in the conversion process.

32) C

An organization might employ loyalty email marketing, which involves sending emails relating to customer-loyalty efforts such as loyalty rewards balances, loyalty perks, and special loyalty promotions. Travel organizations and credit card companies regularly engage in this type of marketing.

33) A

Email marketing may also enhance the customer lifetime value (CLV) of an email subscriber.

For example, an organization might employ loyalty email marketing, which involves sending emails relating to customer-loyalty efforts such as loyalty rewards balances, loyalty perks, and special loyalty promotions.

34) B

Email marketing also may help organizations enhance retention and loyalty. Customers may act on email marketing efforts by purchasing promoted products or services at regular intervals, and such repeated email outreach can keep customers coming back.

35) D

By employing brand-consistent imagery and content, an organization may enhance brand image through email marketing. Prominent logo placement and matching the email layout and content to the brand’s voice can help to remind consumers about the brand and introduce it to others.

36) B

There are numerous considerations, strategies, and tactics needed to make email marketing campaigns successful. The first step is to develop an email marketing plan.

37) A

A welcome email is sent to a consumer who signs up for an app, service, or account. It states how the consumer can take advantage of the service, and provides additional assistance. These are often automated.

38) C

High bounce rates may undermine sender reputation, which is the trust a service provider has for the email marketer, usually based on an IP address. That service provider may be the Internet service provider (ISP) or an email service provider (ESP), a service that may be engaged to support your email marketing activity.

39) D

It is common to send a survey by email to obtain feedback or a rating of how well a consumer’s interaction with the brand went.

40) C

Various email marketing platforms and software are available including Mailchimp, Hubspot, Sendinblue, Campaigner, Campaign Monitor, and many others.

41) A

Automated platforms offer drip campaigns—automated emails that are sent to consumers to allure them to take a desired action, sometimes based on previous activity they may have taken.

Templates from these platforms can create effective automated emails that may be sent automatically through a service upon an action by a consumer.

42) A

An email open rate is the percentage of emails opened compared to the number delivered.

43) C

The email click-through-rate (CTR) is the percentage of consumers who perform a click-through action compared to the number of emails delivered.

44) A

Content can definitely affect open rates and CTR. For example, a catchy subject line can increase open rates, and valuable content can increase CTR. Email marketers should also be aware that CTR will vary by device. Emails may be opened at different rates depending on the device, and therefore targeting specific devices may be an important strategy.

45) C

While it is difficult to determine when consumers will prefer to receive an email, studying consumers’ email behavior is useful to understand optimal times. Testing email open rates at different times is also a good idea.

46) C

Generating an email list may be a lot more effective than buying one, although it may take some time to generate a list. Lists may be generated by asking people to sign up to a newsletter, collecting emails through blogs, promotions, landing pages, pop ups, sign-up forms, physical event sign ups, and social media ads, among other methods.

47) C

A soft email bounce is a temporary situation preventing an email from being successfully delivered. A soft bounce might occur if the email recipient’s email box is full and cannot accept further messages (due to space limitations).

48) B

Deliverability, which is whether emails are being delivered to recipient consumers, can be a serious issue with email lists. A hard email bounce is a permanent failure to deliver an email.

This might happen if the email address no longer exists, or the email account has been terminated.

49) A

Spam complaints can damage reputation. These are complaints that consumers lodge with email services or governmental bodies when they consider an email to be junk, unwanted, or unsolicited. Spam is regulated in the United States under the CAN-SPAM Act of 2003.

50) A

Spam complaints can damage reputation. These are complaints that consumers lodge with email services or governmental bodies when they consider an email to be junk, unwanted, or unsolicited. Spam is regulated in the United States under the CAN-SPAM Act of 2003.

51) D

An output-based approach for email involves maximizing the number of emails sent to an email list, with little focus or effort on segmentation and targeting.

52) B

An output-based approach for email involves maximizing the number of emails sent to an email list, with little focus or effort on segmentation and targeting. This approach may result in a high number of emails being sent to an audience that is not maximized from a value perspective.

53) C

Consumers on an existing list may be segmented as extremely engaged, very engaged, somewhat engaged, little engaged, or not engaged. With that segmentation information, the organization can send different emails with more relevant content or change the type and frequency of emails it sends to the various groups. Marketers can also segment lists based on the platform used.

54) A

Combining segmentation criteria involves using more than one criterion to create a target audience. By selecting the criteria an email marketer may target, it is possible that the list will get smaller, although that smaller list may be more receptive to the offering.

55) C

In an e-commerce setting, re-engaging consumers can help to increase conversion. For example, those who have previously purchased a product may be re-engaged with additional opportunities.

56) B

A/B testing involves testing two versions of an email campaign or message to see which performs better among initial audiences. Testing various aspects of an email campaign or message is a good idea to improve the potential for better results.

57) C

Sticky email content is content that consumers will read and care about. It is content that sticks in the minds of consumers.

58) D

Many more emails will be opened on a mobile device than on a desktop device. Email marketers should also consider that not everyone might own or have access to a computer and may instead rely on a mobile device.

59) B

Using a responsive email template is one method to create mobile-friendly emails designed for mobile environments. This is a template used by marketers that can adjust based on the screen of the device on which an email will be viewed.

60) C

In email marketing, the effectiveness of subject lines is judged largely by the open rate.

61) A

Conversational subject lines can work great in many circumstances. They are designed to allow the brand itself to speak to the consumer.

62) D

Inquisitive subject lines are those in which a brand is asking the consumer a question. These emails can work well with consumers whose interest is piqued by the subject matter.

63) B

Writing in a simple manner that can be understood by many audience segments will often help to make a point clearly.

64) C

In order to be sticky, email content should be engaging. For example, to help create stickiness: provide content which is relevant; don’t make consumers guess what is being stated; provide credible sources to back up claims such as testimonials; and show (such as through use of images) rather than just list benefits.

65) D

HTML emails are emails that can appear more like a website, including images and other design elements. They will provide much greater opportunity to enhance design and experiences for the consumer.

66) D

An inverted-pyramid layout presents the image and content information first and points attention to the call-to-action button below. The simplicity of the design allows consumers to get key information quicky and draws their attention to the call-to-action button at the end.

67) C

Personalized email content and CTAs can lead to much higher email performance. Sending birthday offers is a popular method of personalization.

68) C

Email marketers should be culturally sensitive and should include content that will not be likely to offend or be disrespectful to different cultures. They also should strive to incorporate content that promotes diversity, equity, and inclusion.

69) B

Conversion rate for email is the percentage of consumers who took a desired action. For example, they may have clicked a link in the email, proceeded to a website, and completed a conversion action such as purchasing a product, signing up for a newsletter, or paid for a membership.

70) B

The open rate is the percentage of consumers who open an email compared to the number of emails delivered. Although open rates vary by industry and type of organization, they hover around the 10 to 25% range in many cases.

71) C

Conversion rate is calculated as the number of desired actions taken divided by the number of emails delivered, multiplied by 100. Conversion rates will vary widely based on various factors such as industry, type of business, type of email, time of year, promotion, and special events.

72) D

Bounce rate is the percentage of emails not delivered to consumers on an email list. For example, consumers may no longer be using the email address, may have blocked emails from the organization, or may have initiated an unsubscribe.

73) C

The email CTR (click-through rate) is the percentage of consumers who perform a click-through action compared to the number of emails delivered. It is calculated as the total number of unique clicks (not counting when a consumer has clicked a link more than once) divided by the number of emails delivered.

74) A

Engagement level is the degree of consumer engagement with email. It is measured by the number of times a consumer takes a desired action (such as a click) divided by the number of emails sent to that consumer. Email marketers will want this to be as high as possible.

75) C

Revenue per email measures how much in terms of sales were made for each email. It is calculated as the dollar amount made in sales divided by the number of emails delivered.

76) Essay

Recall the definition of digital marketing as marketing offerings of value to consumers and society through digital means. In email marketing, value for consumers includes: Providing information about the brand or its products and services, including new products and services.

Alerting subscribers to deals and savings.

Providing loyal customers with perks such as loyalty rewards balances, loyalty perks, and special loyalty promotions.

Reminding consumers about the brand and introducing it to others.

77) Essay

Email marketing may enhance the customer lifetime value (CLV) of an email subscriber. For example, an organization might employ loyalty email marketing, which involves sending emails relating to customer-loyalty efforts such as loyalty rewards balances, loyalty perks, and special loyalty promotions.

78) Essay

A number of types of emails can be used for marketing purposes: Informational Promotional New-product announcement Newsletter Welcome Survey Limited-offer Purchase completion / receipt Confirmation Thank you Discount Warranty New-content Event Student examples will vary, but should include at least two types of emails.

79) Essay

In the U.S., commercial email messages must tell consumers how they can opt-out, and an optout request must be honored within 10 days. To reduce consumer use of the unsubscribe option, there are several strategies email marketers can use: Provide valuable and useful email content, valuable information, and desired promotions.

Balance the frequency and timing of sending emails to help avoid consumers getting annoyed by emails.

Provide an incentive to stop consumers from unsubscribing.

Offer alternatives, such as staying on the mailing list but receiving less-frequent emails.

80) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should reference most of the following points: Organizations may wish to start with their current email list and consider segmenting it to target groups based on engagement levels. For example, consumers on an existing list may be segmented as extremely engaged, very engaged, somewhat engaged, little engaged, or not engaged.

Combining segmentation criteria involves using more than one criterion to create a target audience.

Other methods of segmenting include by: Platform used Location of email recipients Activity on digital assets such as landing pages or surveys Date added Language Age Platform used Location of email recipients Activity on digital assets such as landing pages or surveys Date added Language Age Platform used Location of email recipients Activity on digital assets such as landing pages or surveys Date added Language Age 81) Essay

When engagement declines, it is important to re-engage with consumers. To do so, email marketers must take actions needed to allure consumers to boost their engagement with email marketing.

This can include: 1. Sending a targeted email to those who do not engage often, providing an incentive to reengage.

2. Personalizing an email.

3. Providing rewards to those who engage often.

82) Essay

An email’s subject line should be informative and allure consumers to open the email. The subject line also should be catchy and potentially personalized, which can help make it stick. In addition, many email marketers state in the subject line the value that will be presented in the email. Various types of subject lines can be effective, including conversational, controversial, funny, and inquisitive subject lines.

Subject lines should be devoid of words that may be caught by email provider spam filters that will reject the message. Even if specific words may not be rejected, some words should not be used, including expect to earn, buy, cash bonus, profits, pre-approved, lifetime, ad, form, and many others.

83) Essay

An inverted-pyramid layout presents the image and content information first and points attention to the call-to-action button below. The simplicity of the design allows consumers to get key information quicky and draws their attention to the call-to-action button at the end without surrounding imagery or text beside or below it.

A one-column or two-column layout presents the email content in columns. This method permits consumers to read content in an organized fashion and may be easy to read.

A zigzag layout presents the content on one side, then on the other, and so forth. This approach allows different concepts to be portrayed on different sides of the email. While extensive zigzagging may be confusing to some consumers, using an appropriate amount can be very effective in highlighting specific items of value.

84) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should reference the following points: The open rate is the percentage of consumers who open an email compared to the number of emails delivered.

Example: Great Lakes Equipment delivers 5000 marketing emails, and 900 of these are opened by customers. This marketing email has an open rate of 18%. (900 divided by 5000 times 100) 85) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should reference the following points: Revenue per email measures how much in terms of sales were made for each email. It is calculated as the dollar amount made in sales divided by the number of emails delivered.

Example: Great Lakes Equipment delivers 5000 marketing emails. These emails generate $15,000 in sales. The revenue per email is $3. ($15,000 in revenue divided by 5000).

Chapter 8: Social Media and Community Marketing Strategy 595)

Friendster is widely thought of as the first active social media site. ⊚ true ⊚ false

596)

Community marketing is based on establishing and maintaining relationships. ⊚ true ⊚ false

597)

There are no costs of any kind involved in social media marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

598)

One objective of social media marketing is to provide value for consumers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

599)

Posting fresh content on social media platforms is an effective strategy for increasing brand engagement. ⊚ true ⊚ false

600)

Social media marketing plans must be based on niche consumer objectives. ⊚ true ⊚ false

601)

Facebook Ads should be considered in many, but not all, social media marketing plans. ⊚ true ⊚ false

602)

Instagram is a good platform for creating consumer awareness, but offers no opportunity for conversion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

603)

Using targeted keywords is important in helping consumers find you on Pinterest. ⊚ true ⊚ false

604)

Marketers cannot use LinkedIn for paid search ads. ⊚ true ⊚ false

605)

On Snapchat, a snap refers to a photo or video clip. ⊚ true ⊚ false

606)

It is recommended to choose a wide variety of usernames across platforms to help more consumers find your organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

607)

Both paid and unpaid social media influencers may be valuable in increasing consumer conversions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

608)

The specific timing of posts remains unimportant in social media marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

609)

Social media marketers should strive for a consistent tone across all platforms. ⊚ true ⊚ false

610)

Using duplicate content increases the efficacy of search marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

611)

Marketers can use Meta Business Suite to analyze performance and content across every social media platform. ⊚ true ⊚ false

612)

Adding a Snap Pixel to an organization’s website helps marketers track conversions related to Snapchat. ⊚ true ⊚ false

613)

Marketers cannot measure conversions attributed to TikTok, but they can measure the level of audience engagement. ⊚ true ⊚ false

614)

A high social shares rating would tell marketers to pay close attention to their social media marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

615)

Promoting, branding, and connecting with consumers on platforms such as Instagram, Facebook and TikTok is known as A) social networking.

B) social media marketing.

C) search marketing.

D) community marketing.

616)

An important goal of community marketing is to A) increase employee engagement.

B) replace traditional marketing efforts.

C) create long-lasting consumer relationships.

D) drive down advertising costs.

617)

Organic social media marketing refers to marketing activities which do not involve A) brand awareness.

B) consumer interaction.

C) ongoing relationships.

D) direct costs.

618)

The best example of organic social media marketing is A) developing a blog on your company’s website.

B) creating unpaid content on social platforms.

C) creating a Facebook ad for a new product.

D) optimizing your firm’s website by adding more keywords.

619)

In 2022, it’s estimated that more than social media.

A) one-tenth B) one-fourth C) one-third D) one-half

of the world’s population is active on

620)

One way that social media marketing does not directly provide value for the consumer is

by A) B) C) D)

increasing offline conversions. providing access to new products and services. building customer retention. improving brand image.

621)

Social media posts discussing plot twists in the science fiction series Stranger Things include a link back to the Netflix website. What represents the most likely social media marketing objective for Netflix in this situation?

A) establish expertise B) improve customer service C) increase conversions D) bolster brand image

Michaels craft store was an early partner with Pinterest in providing “buyable pins.”

These allow consumers to view project ideas on Pinterest, and then click on a link and buy the supplies directly from Michaels. This social media strategy will likely lead to A) a decreased brand community B) the elimination of influencers.

C) improved customer service.

D) increased website traffic and sales.

622)

623)

If social media marketers want to reach the broadest possible audience, the best platform is likely to be A) LinkedIn. B) Twitter.

C) Facebook.

D) TikTok.

624)

A social media marketer wants to have certain content posted on the firm’s Facebook site appear more prominently in front of other consumers who fall within its target market.

Another term for this paid tactic is to the post.

A) boost B) convert C) create D) enhance

625)

A real estate agent plans to create an Instagram post containing moving images of several homes for sale, each with a link taking the viewer to the full listing site. The best format for this post would be a A) story ad.

B) video ad.

C) messenger ad.

D) carousel ad.

626)

When consumers tap on items featured in an Instagram Shop, information about the item offered for sale pops up. These descriptive labels are referred to as A) product tags.

B) hidden ads.

C) Insta stories.

D) product pins.

627)

Which Instagram feature allows firms to communicate directly with customers and deliver customer service as well?

A) Instagram Stories B) Instagram Ads C) Instagram Messenger D) Instagram Reels

628)

The marketing objective least suited for the Pinterest platform is A) boosting overall social media use.

B) establishing expertise.

C) enhancing the brand.

D) increasing conversions.

629)

Consumers who engage with Pinterest use Pins, which can also be thought of as a type of A) product tag.

B) backlink.

C) digital bookmark.

D) nonpaid ad.

630)

Courtney, an avid quilter, enjoys browsing Pinterest for designs. When she finds ideas from other quilters on Pinterest, she collects and separates them into two categories: “traditional quilt ideas” and “modern quilt ideas.” These two collections are thought of as A) projects.

B) bookmarks.

C) tags.

D) boards.

631)

A social media marketer interested in engaging consumers on Pinterest might target an audience that has interests very similar to that of its current customer base. This audience is known as a(n) A) avatar.

B) actalike.

C) facsimile.

D) lookalike.

632)

Of the following, which marketing objective is best suited to Twitter?

A) delivering detailed product information B) enhancing customer satisfaction C) announcing a new-to-the-world product D) resolving a customer service issue

633)

At this time, Tweets are messages limited to A) 80 characters.

B) 120 characters.

C) 280 characters.

D) 500 characters.

634)

Which of the following is an example of a branded hashtag?

A) #happy B) #photooftheday C) #ShareACoke D) #chicagofashion

635)

Some Nike customers have opted in on Twitter for receiving Tweets about new product information and release dates. They like to be first in line when limited-edition merchandise goes on sale, and often receive invitations to early buying opportunities. In this situation, Nike is utilizing A) branded notification.

B) actalikes.

C) Twitter Moments.

D) Twitter Chats.

636)

Robert Half, an executive recruiting firm in the U.S., wants to reach a professional audience in its marketing efforts. The best social platform for this effort is likely to be A) YouTube.

B) Twitter.

C) LinkedIn. D) Facebook.

637)

638)

What is unique about a dynamic ad viewed on the LinkedIn platform?

A) It combines multiple images into a single ad.

B) Content is personalized for each viewer.

C) Its cost is calculated per one thousand impressions.

D) Content is developed from ads on other platforms.

When developing an ad for LinkedIn, social media marketers tend to target an audience with particular professional traits, which may include A) gender.

B) age.

C) country of origin.

D) industry.

639)

What is the LinkedIn feature which enables marketers to retarget audiences after importing its own data?

A) matched audiences B) takeover ads C) actalike audiences D) follower ads

640)

Which social marketing objectives is best suited to the features of the WhatsApp platform?

A) establish brand image B) enhance customer service C) manage customer loyalty programs D) monitor conversions

641)

Consumers and organizations primarily share information on Snapchat through A) graphics.

B) lengthy text.

C) hashtags.

D) photos or videos.

642)

M&Ms have been sold since 1941, and most consumers are very familiar with this candy.

What describes an appropriate way for Mars Candy, makers of M&Ms, to utilize Snapchat in a fresh marketing effort?

A) Ask consumers how they rate this product.

B) Show consumers discovering the new purple-colored M&Ms. C) Resolve customer complaints with their candy purchases.

D) Display places where consumers can purchase M&Ms.

643)

provide a way for Snapchat users to link to a sponsoring organization’s

website.

A) Snap filters B) Lenses C) Stickers D) Snapcodes

644)

Displaying a fun 15-second product video on TikTok is a good way for marketers to A) establish their expertise.

B) increase engagement.

C) increase retention.

D) build long-lasting relationships.

645)

Target pays to place a small static ad for holiday wreaths on YouTube. It invites the viewer to click on it to see all the size and color options available. This describes a type of A) skippable in-stream ad.

B) bumper ad.

C) discovery ad.

D) non-skippable in-stream ad.

646)

Keywords which marketers use to describe an organization’s individual videos on YouTube are referred to as A) searchable tags.

B) QR codes.

C) subject lines.

D) key links.

647)

When Apple introduces a new model of iPhone during a shareholder’s meeting at company headquarters, the event is often shown in real time to other viewers over the Internet, a process referred to as A) advertising.

B) livestreaming.

C) relaying.

D) narrowcasting.

648)

Hootsuite and HubSpot are A) social media management platforms.

B) video streaming platforms.

C) social media platforms.

D) cloud storage options.

649)

What is the most advantageous strategy for selecting your organization’s usernames for social media engagement?

A) Use unique usernames for every platform.

B) Use lengthy usernames.

C) Use the same username across all platforms.

D) Use rhyming words for usernames.

650)

Social media accounts which have been confirmed as belonging to the person or brand it says it represents are referred to as . Sometimes these are designated by badges or checkmarks.

A) legal B) official C) lookalikes D) verified

651)

Of the following, which factor is most important in ranking high in social media optimization?

A) memorable username B) appropriate tags and keywords C) high ratio of text to images D) brevity

652)

Cyrus has directed his team to examine the firm’s social media profiles and their consistency across platforms. He also wants the team to assess their social media marketing goals and current analytic tactics. In other words, he is suggesting a A) customer relationship management program.

B) 360-degree review.

C) social media audit.

D) new social media marketing plan.

653)

A firm engaging in social listening in order to assess and improve its social media strategy is generally gathering information from A) marketers.

B) competitors.

C) employees.

D) consumers.

654)

Which individual is the best example of a micro-influencer?

A) Kim Kardashian B) the White House press secretary C) the head of your firm’s marketing department D) a vegan lifestyle blogger with 8,000 followers

655)

What tactic is suggested for use in a mobile-first strategy in social media marketing?

A) add videos over 3 minutes in length B) use optimized images to provide updates C) keep keywords to a minimum D) focus on lengthy text descriptions

656)

A content calendar is designed to help social media marketers A) select from various platforms for consumer engagement.

B) determine what content is needed and when to distribute it.

C) record past social media activity.

D) analyze competitors’ social media posts.

657)

While not optimum in every situation, research indicates that generally the best time for organizations to post on social media is A) very early morning on Saturday and Sunday.

B) after midnight but before 6 am on Monday.

C) midmorning on Tuesday through Thursday.

D) late evening on Thursday through Saturday.

658)

What is the best advice for marketers regarding language and style in social media posts?

A) Strive to maintain a consistent and brand-appropriate style across platforms.

B) Create significant variety in language, tone, and style to pique consumer interest.

C) Always use formal language in social media content.

D) Employ an informal and humorous style across every social platform.

659)

Marketers can increase consumer engagement across social media channels by incorporating the use of A) brand facts.

B) industry jargon.

C) statistics.

D) storytelling.

660)

content is taken directly from one source and published on another. This should be avoided on social platforms because it can result in negative treatment by search engines.

A) Syndicated B) Duplicate C) Evergreen D) Optimized

661)

Which social platform is most appropriate for posting multiple times each day?

A) Pinterest B) Facebook C) Twitter D) LinkedIn

Which platform suggests posting content which is “deceptively simple, quirky or bizarre” in order to increase its effectiveness and engage more consumers?

A) Pinterest B) Facebook C) TikTok D) Twitter

662)

663)

For marketers using Pinterest, the Pin click rate tells them A) the percentage of users who click on a Pin compared to the number who viewed it.

B) the percentage of all Pinterest users who viewed a Pin. C) the percentage of users who click through to the sponsoring organization’s website.

D) the percentage of times an individual Pin is saved compared to the number of times it appeared on a screen.

664)

The Meta Business Suite helps marketers analyze performance, trends, and content effectiveness on Facebook and A) Twitter.

B) LinkedIn. C) YouTube.

D) Instagram.

665)

A high Pin save rate tells the sponsoring organization that A) its Pin was saved more than any other Pins that day.

B) its Pin will lead to high conversions.

C) its Pin was viewed more than any others in its category.

D) its Pin was popular with those who viewed it.

666)

What is the benefit of adding a Snap Pixel code to an organization’s website?

A) enables tracking of conversions related to Snapchat content B) automatically drives content from website to Snapchat C) enables tracking of all Snapchat users D) determines content Snapchat users prefer and drives it to the top of the site

667)

Marketers who are active on TikTok can utilize the view-through-attribution analytic in order to attribute customer to viewing a TikTok video.

A) attrition B) conversion C) satisfaction D) retention

668)

A marketer in the fashion industry wants to know which of four social media icons on the firm’s website attract the most interest from consumers. Which analytic would be most helpful?

A) swipe-up rate B) cost per VTA conversion C) social shares D) social path

669)

Briefly describe how social media marketing provides value to consumers.

670)

Provide an example of paid marketing and an example of organic marketing for a common consumer product.

671)

672)

List at least four objectives which can be achieved using social media marketing.

What advantage is offered by utilizing social media channels to provide customer service solutions for organizations?

673)

Provide an example of a way in which social media marketing can help a brand establish expertise.

674)

Outline the essential elements for developing a social media marketing plan.

675)

Review strategies for maximizing the effectiveness of podcasts in social media marketing.

676)

677)

Describe some tips for increasing accessibility in social media marketing.

Assume you are responsible for digital marketing for a local small restaurant. Create an abbreviated social media content calendar for this restaurant for one week. Be sure to include the platform recommended for your posts.

678)

Describe analytics tools available for Facebook.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 1) FALSE

The first social networking website is considered to be Six Degrees, created by Weinreich back in 1997. This social media site offered users features such as profiles, lists of friends, and other social possibilities.

2) TRUE

Community marketing is marketing to a digital community base, enhancing engagement, and creating long-lasting relationships with that base through online communities, blogs, message boards, forums, and other places where consumers may gather.

3) FALSE

While organic social media marketing will involve those activities for which there is not a direct cost (that are not directly paid), the time and effort dedicated to such activities will, in practice, mean that it is not free.

4) TRUE

Social media marketing objectives include providing consumer value through access to new brands, products, and information.

5) TRUE

By providing updated and fresh content, brands may allure consumers to their social profiles and keep them engaged. Posting valuable and relevant content often can result in consumers engaging regularly.

6) FALSE

Social media marketing plans are based on organizational objectives. A social media marketing plan involves planning for a number of considerations. After determining an organization’s social media marketing objectives, social media marketers will need to consider what platforms to be on, as well as whether and to what extent paid social and community marketing will be conducted.

7) TRUE

Facebook Ads is widely used to promote products, services, events, and much more. If the brand can reach the appropriate market through Facebook, a social media marketer should consider Facebook Ads. 8) FALSE

Consumers can shop and Buy on Instagram using Instagram shopping features. Similar to a Facebook’s Shop, brands can create an Instagram Shop through which to offer products and services to social audiences using photos and videos.

9) TRUE

In Pinterest, keywords and hashtags may be used as with other platforms. The goal of their use may be to attract traffic, allure consumers, increase chances of being found through searches, and allow consumers to follow certain trends while adding value.

10) FALSE

LinkedIn Ads includes the ability to promote a variety of sponsored (paid-for) content.

11) TRUE

A snap is a photo or video communication on Snapchat and is a way consumers and organizations share information.

12) FALSE

The strategy to select a username, profile name, handle, etc. (collectively referred to as usernames) in social media must be carefully planned and executed. For consumers to find the same username across all platforms is optimal, although in some cases may already be taken.

13) TRUE

Social media and community influencer marketing is the use of paid or unpaid influencers. It may be a source of substantial conversion or brand awareness across social and community channels. Consumers are increasingly relying upon influencer recommendations when making purchases.

14) FALSE

Careful attention should be given to timing of posts. Research from Hootsuite and SproutSocial shows that (generally) the best times to post on social media is 9 a.m. or 10 a.m. Tuesday to Thursday.

15) TRUE

It is crucial to be true to an organization’s brand voice and maintain a consistent tone throughout its social media content. Consumers may pick up, or even be confused by, inconsistency among voice and tone across social media channels.

16) FALSE

Social and community marketers should be careful with duplicate content, which is content directly taken from one source and published on another. A simple copy-and-paste approach may result in negative treatment by search engines.

17) FALSE

Meta Business Suite allows social media marketers to review performance, trends, and content effectiveness on Facebook and Instagram.

18) TRUE

The Snap Pixel is computer code that may be added to an organization’s website, which will allow it to track what a Snapchat user does on the website. This code enables tracking capabilities, such as when a consumer purchases something after having been led to the website from Snapchat.

19) FALSE

A view-through-attribution (VTA) is a model that attributes a conversion action to a prior TikTok Video viewing. TikTok allows a certain time frame, such as 1 or 2 days, from the viewing to the time it took the consumer to research and decide to convert.

20) TRUE

Social shares measure how often consumers click on social media icons on an organization’s website.

21) B

Social media or social networking or social platforms are websites, programs, and applications that allow users to digitally communicate, share, post, and/or otherwise network with others.

Social media marketing uses these websites, programs, and applications to reach consumers and market products or services.

22) C

Community marketing is marketing to a digital community base, enhancing engagement, and creating long-lasting relationships with that base through online communities, blogs, message boards, forums, and other places where consumers may gather.

23) D

Organic social media marketing involves those activities for which there is not a direct cost (that are not directly paid), but the time and effort dedicated to such activities will, in practice, mean that it is not free.

24) B

Organic social media marketing involves those activities for which there is not a direct cost (that are not directly paid), but the time and effort dedicated to such activities will, in practice, mean that it is not free.

25) D

In early 2022, it was estimated that there were about 3.96 billion social media users worldwide, representing more than half the world.

26) A

Social media marketing provides value for the consumer by providing access to new brands, products, and information.

27) C

Social media marketing can increase traffic and generate leads that may result in sales and conversion. For example, social media activity, posts, and advertising can increase traffic to social media or other digital assets such as an organization’s website.

28) D

Social media marketing can increase traffic and generate leads that may result in sales and conversion. For example, social media activity, posts, and advertising can increase traffic to social media or other digital assets such as an organization’s website.

29) C

Facebook has long been the most popular social media platform. It has approximately 2.93 billion active monthly users.

30) A

One Facebook ad tactic is to boost a post, which creates an ad from that post. This allows content that is doing well to be boosted to an ad that may reach wider audiences.

31) D

A carousel ad allows social media marketers to show several images or videos with links. These are useful when trying to display several items.

32) A

Consumers can shop and Buy on Instagram using Instagram shopping features. An organization’s brand, products, collections, and details may be shared in an organization’s Instagram Shop using descriptive labels, called product tags, for each item offered for sale.

33) C

Instagram offers social media marketers a variety of features. Instagram Messenger may be used to communicate with consumers and provide customer service.

34) A

Pinterest’s Homepage navigates through possible interests such as green-thumb ideas, new-look outfits, weeknight dinner ideas, home decor ideas, and others. Such ideas can be of great value to brands that can effectively market within the context of those ideas, possibly increasing conversion, enhancing the brand, and establishing expertise.

35) C

Many consumers search on Pinterest using keywords of ideas and concepts. Using a consumer’s activity, their feed will include Pins, which are bookmarks of content specific to the consumer’s activity. Pins may include photos/images, video, or specific products.

36) D

Boards that consist of a collection of Pins may be created around specific topics and concepts and may be used to feature products, services, or blogs. Consumers can create Boards, and so can organizations for purposes of marketing.

37) B

Targeting on Pinterest can be based on demographics, interests, keywords, or other methods.

One of those methods is to create actalikes, which are Pinterest audiences that behave like or have interests similar to current customers.

38) C

Social media marketers can use Twitter to organically send messages to consumers. For example, they can use the Twitter platform to make major announcements such as product releases, major events, and key updates.

39) C

Tweets are messages that Twitter users may send, receive, and read. They may consist of text, images, videos, and links, with a limit of 280 characters per Tweet.

40) C

A branded hashtag is a hashtag that uses a brand name.

41) A

Consumers receive branded notifications (notifications about specific brands) if they have liked a call-to-action (CTA) Tweet for that brand, promoted using Twitter Ads. These notifications enable social media marketers to have one-on-one conversations with consumers who have opted in via CTAs. 42) C

LinkedIn marketing is especially important if professional and business audiences are relevant to an organization’s segments and targets.

43) B

LinkedIn Ads includes the ability to promote a variety of sponsored (paid-for) content. Ads known as dynamic ads are personalized automatically to adapt content to each consumer.

44) D

After selecting an objective, social media marketers on LinkedIn will build a target audience by using professional traits—consumer characteristics such as professional title, organization, industry, or interests.

45) A

An organization may import its own existing data into LinkedIn and use matched audiences, a feature that enables marketers to retarget audiences, target email contacts, or perform “accountbased targeting.”

46) B

In general, social media marketers can use WhatsApp to provide customer service, to enhance satisfaction, and to reduce the extensive costs associated with other types of customer service.

47) D

A Snap is a photo or video communication on Snapchat and is a way consumers and organizations share information.

48) B

A Snap is a photo or video communication on Snapchat and is a way consumers and organizations share information. Social media marketers should consider using Snapchat Stories to gain immediate interest such as Taco Bell did to introduce new menu items and deals.

49) D

On the Snapchat platform, Snapcodes are like quick response codes (QR codes) that provide a way for Snapchat users to quickly link to organizations’ websites.

50) B

Social media marketers are able to tell their brand stories and engage consumers through TikTok. This is a good practice for brands that wish to increase engagement and share more about their brand with consumers.

51) C

YouTube ads can be targeted based on factors such as interests, life stage, location, and specific demographics. The platform offers a variety of ad choices such as clickable ads, skippable ads, short ads, and long ads. Discovery ads are visual ads that may appear on YouTube Home or on certain feeds or promotional areas and are designed for consumers to click on to open for further discovery.

52) A

Social media marketers should associate searchable tags with videos on their YouTube Channel.

These are keywords that describe a video.

53) B

YouTube allows livestreaming whereby organizations broadcast live video to viewers in real time over the Internet. Livestreaming a new-product launch, for example, may be a good practice for social media marketers when there is heightened interest in the details related to its new products.

54) A

Numerous social media management platforms are available. With Hootsuite, social media marketers can manage from one source the various social media platform channels they use.

Management platform Hubspot Social offers a variety of publishing features and reports. It allows for monitoring of various social media activity, including conversations, interactions, and new followers. Social media marketers find it helpful to see the marketing data in one place.

55) C

The strategy to select a username, profile name, handle, etc. (collectively referred to as usernames) in social media must be carefully planned and executed. For consumers to find the same username across all platforms is optimal, although in some cases may already be taken.

56) D

Verified accounts are those that a social media platform has confirmed as being the person or international brand it purports to be. Verification on social media platforms can increase trust with consumers and make them more comfortable engaging with the content and taking desired actions. Each platform has its own process of successful verification, which often results in a blue checkmark or other badge.

57) B

High ranking in social media search results and on consumer social feeds will help drive views and traffic to a brand’s social media pages and accounts. Social media content is one of the key factors that helps boost social media and community search optimization. As is the case with SEO, social media content, blogs, and forums should contain keywords, tags, and titles that are relevant to searches happening on social media, including optimizing images (such as using alttext for images).

58) C

A social media audit is a formal examination of the state of an organization’s social media assets and their relation to the overall digital marketing portfolio. An audit should select areas to examine based on their social media goals and extent of the portfolio.

59) D

Social listening is the process of monitoring, reviewing, and gathering information from social media channels. Its purpose is to gain insights about how customers, consumers, and the market interact with, talk about, or view a brand and to use this to inform social media strategy.

60) D

Micro-influencers or nano-influencers are influencers who are not necessarily celebrities or big names, may have fewer followers, but are passionate about one or more areas. Although microinfluencers may have fewer than 10,000 followers, they possibly may create more engagement than other influencers.

61) B

For social media and community channels, a mobile-first strategy should be adopted because many consumers will view these channels from their mobile devices. It is important to use images and content that is optimized for mobile. This can mean using images optimized for mobile devices to provide updates and replace lengthy text.

62) B

A social media content calendar or posting schedule can be helpful in determining what content will be used and when it is expected to go out. Such a calendar may be planned for both the short and long term.

63) C

While different factors will play a role in when to post, research from Hootsuite and SproutSocial shows that (generally) the best times to post on social media is 9 a.m. or 10 a.m.

Tuesday to Thursday.

64) A

It is crucial to be true to an organization’s brand voice and maintain a consistent tone throughout its social media content. Consumers may pick up, or even be confused by, inconsistency among voice and tone across social media channels.

65) D

Social storytelling is fundamental to social media; it helps with the brand narrative, which is a brand’s story. Rather than simply telling people about the brand and its products and services, brands should provide a story that is memorable, provides greater engagement, and captures consumer interest.

66) B

Social and community marketers should be careful with duplicate content, which is content directly taken from one source and published on another. A simple copy-and-paste approach may result in negative treatment by search engines.

67) C

Twitter, unlike other platforms, is conducive to multiple daily posts, allowing social media marketers to display their brand message or narrative over a period of time.

68) C

If the goal is to have content go viral, social media marketers should consider content that is engaging. In order for it to be effective TikTok recommends content that is “deceptively simple, quirky or even bizarre.”

69) A

Pinterest Analytics allows measurement of organic, paid, and earned Pins. The Pin click rate measures the percentage of users who click on a Pin compared to the number of people who viewed it.

70) D

Meta Business Suite allows social media marketers to review performance, trends, and content effectiveness on Facebook and Instagram.

71) D

The Pin save rate is percentage of times a Pin was saved compared to the number of times the Pin was on a screen.

72) A

The Snap Pixel is computer code that may be added to an organization’s website, which will allow it to track what a Snapchat user does on the website. This code enables tracking capabilities, such as when a consumer purchases something after having been led to the website from Snapchat.

73) B

A view-through-attribution (VTA) is a model that attributes a conversion action to a prior TikTok Video viewing. TikTok allows a certain time frame, such as 1 or 2 days, from the viewing to the time it took the consumer to research and decide to convert.

74) C

Google Analytics can track both social shares and social path. Social shares measure how often consumers click on social media icons on an organization’s website. Social path is the route a consumer took through social platforms to arrive at a website.

75) Essay

Social media marketing adds value to consumers by providing access to information, brands, products, services, promotions, and complaint resolution. In addition, it allows for collaboration and a forum for opinions. Additionally, many consumers first hear about a brand through social media.

76) Essay

Paid marketing includes social media ads. An example of paid marketing for shampoo is an ad for Pantene’s “Smooth and Strong” shampoo that appears in your Facebook feed.

The ad has been created and paid for by Procter & Gamble (manufacturer of Pantene products).

An example of paid marketing for shampoo is an ad for Pantene’s “Smooth and Strong” shampoo that appears in your Facebook feed. The ad has been created and paid for by Procter & Gamble (manufacturer of Pantene products).

An example of paid marketing for shampoo is an ad for Pantene’s “Smooth and Strong” shampoo that appears in your Facebook feed. The ad has been created and paid for by Procter & Gamble (manufacturer of Pantene products).

An example of organic marketing for shampoo are an influencer’s posts who demonstrates the “before” and “after” photos of her hair after using Pantene’s Smooth and Strong shampoo. This individual has received free samples of Pantene products to try, but is not paid to review or endorse them.

77) Essay

Increase brand awareness, exposure, and image.

Increase traffic, leads, sales, and conversions.

Improve customer service.

Increase engagement.

Establish expertise.

Increase community and build long-lasting relationships.

Increase retention and loyalty.

78) Essay

More and more organizations are offering customer-service solutions through their social media channels. Customers hate waiting long periods to speak with customer-service staff through phone channels. Social media provides an opportunity for customers to get the necessary service they need—more immediately—through digital means.

79) Essay

Social media marketing can allow brands to establish themselves as experts for specific products or services, or on specific topics or trending conversations. They may use blogs and forums to provide detailed guidance, information, and expertise on specific topics. This tactic can help a brand become known for expertise in certain areas and differentiate itself from others.

WebMD, for example, features images, bios, and blog posts from expert contributors to establish expertise in health and set itself apart from others in the field. It even features posts from patients suffering from certain conditions and diseases, to allow consumers to learn more about others’ situations. Such postings help establish WebMD as the go-to source for healthcare expertise.

80) Essay

A social media marketing plan involves planning for a number of considerations. After determining an organization’s social media marketing objectives, social media marketers will need to consider: What platforms to be on Whether and to what extent paid social and community marketing will be conducted Plan for organic content Selection of usernames Social media and community optimization How and when to conduct a social media audit Social listening strategy Use of influencers Social and community content Mobile and accessibility strategies Privacy and security legal considerations Social media analytics

81) Essay

Podcasts provide brands with the opportunity to engage in a different way with consumers and communities. Podcasts can allow a deeper dive into specific topics.

Strategies: It may be necessary to advertise a podcast through podcast advertising channels, such as Apple, in order to increase the chances of it being found.

A podcast SEO strategy involves optimizing a podcast to assist in search when consumers are looking for what to listen to, by including keywords, updating the podcast title, description, and show notes.

A podcast growth strategy involves balancing organic and paid options, to gain traction for the podcast.

Another podcast strategy is to invite influencers to a podcast and showcase them in the podcast description. This strategy increases the chance that consumers will decide to listen to the podcast—and potentially is the sole reason they may do so.

Adopting a branded podcast strategy can help organizations increase brand recognition, image, or reputation.

82) Essay

Use common language rather than complicated jargon or numerous acronyms.

Images should have captions and alt-text.

Video should include closed-captioning.

Designs should be careful of contrasting colors.

Remember that some consumers will be using screen readers.

Follow accessibility guidelines on individual social media sites.

83) Essay

Student examples will vary.

A social media content calendar or posting schedule can be helpful in determining what content will be used and when it is expected to go out. Such a calendar may be planned for both the short and long term. It can also incorporate a view of the types of content and specific platforms.

Monday: Content = description of daily specials for the week. Post on Facebook.

Tuesday: Content = photo of today’s special. Post on Instagram.

Wednesday: Content = chef’s blog on making a chimichurri sauce, including a recipe. Post on restaurant’s blog.

Thursday: Content = reminder to make reservations for the weekend. Post on Facebook, Instagram.

Friday: Content = start your weekend early at happy hour; 15-second video clip. Post on TikTok. Saturday: Content = date night photo and caption. Post on Instagram.

Sunday: Content = job opportunities at the restaurant. Post on LinkedIn. 84) Essay

Meta Business Suite allows social media marketers to review performance, trends, and content effectiveness on Facebook and Instagram.

Facebook Ads Manager allows social media marketers to determine effectiveness of campaigns and specific paid ads.

Meta Business Suite offers an overview option that shows alerts such as underdelivering ads, unanswered messages, and top ad accounts, among other helpful information. It also offers the FB Pixel which is code that can be added to an organization’s website to track conversions and action on the website (such as making a purchase after seeing a Facebook Ad). These features will help track activity based on such advertising.

Chapter 9: Mobile Marketing Strategy 679)

The concept known as mobile marketing includes marketing related to mobile search and social media applications. ⊚ true ⊚ false

680)

Due to growing privacy concerns, use of mobile apps to conduct consumers’ daily business transactions continues to decline. ⊚ true ⊚ false

681)

In contrast to other forms of digital marketing, mobile marketing provides little value for consumers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

682)

Many apps use their brand logo as their mobile app icon because it can help enhance consumers’ connection with the brand. ⊚ true ⊚ false

683)

Mobile apps may increase website traffic but are not successful in increasing conversions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

684)

A major benefit of mobile apps is that they may be accessed by consumers 24 hours a day. ⊚ true ⊚ false

685)

When mobile marketing is in place, firms can eliminate other marketing strategies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

686)

A successful mobile marketing plan promotes a mobile-first strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

687)

In mobile marketing, one way to target your audience is through the degree to which a consumer engages with mobile apps. ⊚ true ⊚ false

688)

A geo-fencing strategy means asking consumers to block messages from other nearby firms. ⊚ true ⊚ false

689)

Internal expertise is an important consideration for in-house app development. ⊚ true ⊚ false

690)

Marketers who are interested in the per-unit cost when a consumer downloads their app are specifically looking for the app install rate. ⊚ true ⊚ false

691)

Strategies used in improving app store optimization are similar to those for search engine optimization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

692)

The firm’s marketers are the source of mobile app ratings. ⊚ true ⊚ false

693)

The principles of good CX design are also important in mobile app design. ⊚ true ⊚ false

694)

It’s good practice to use popular keywords for a mobile app title, even if these terms do not represent the brand. ⊚ true ⊚ false

695)

Marketers must be cautious about messaging consumers about personal types of products, as this may make some consumers feel uneasy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Interactive image content, such as using an app to “paint” a room with a selected color, helps consumers to visualize a product and how they can use it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

696)

697)

In mobile marketing, the cost-per-install (CPI) rate is based on the amount that consumers must pay to download and install an app. ⊚ true ⊚ false

698)

A consumer’s average engagement time can be measured as the average time a consumer spends engaging with an app over a certain time period or in a single session. ⊚ true ⊚ false

699)

Good prospects for mobile marketing became widely available to marketers in the early A) 1970s.

B) 1980s.

C) 1990s.

D) 2000s.

700)

A clear benefit of mobile marketing is that it enables firms to A) bypass other types of marketing.

B) reach large numbers of consumers.

C) eliminate traditional marketing departments.

D) reach consumers without incurring any costs.

701)

Mobile marketing refers to A) reaching consumers who are outside their home environment.

B) reaching consumers through social media applications.

C) marketing which dynamically adjusts to individual consumers.

D) marketing which takes place on any mobile device.

702)

Which consumer is engaging with mobile marketing?

A) Amy, who receives a text about a flash sale at Lululemon B) Fumihito, who views four billboards on his drive to work C) Char, who checks Instagram every morning as soon as she wakes up D) Deshawn, who is responding to emails at work

703)

The use of mobile apps to make purchases and conduct other business is estimated at about of all current transactions.

A) decreasing; 15 percent B) stable; 25 percent C) increasing; 40 percent D) skyrocketing; 75 percent

,

After “opting in” to receive text messages from Crate and Barrel, Emmie receives at least one text a day from the firm. Often the message is related to products she has recently browsed online. This is an example of A) mobile search.

B) mobile applications.

C) email marketing.

D) mobile marketing.

704)

705)

Each week, Danielle’s Walgreen’s app sends her reminders about the weekly ad and highlights savings on items that Danielle frequently purchases. These reminders are likely related to which mobile marketing objective?

A) establish brand familiarity B) increase brand loyalty C) improve customer service D) measure customer satisfaction

706)

Using an element of a brand’s logo on the company’s mobile app icon, even without including the brand’s name, is a strategy designed to A) increase brand awareness.

B) provide customer service.

C) establish relationships.

D) build customer satisfaction.

707)

Firms should be aware that that highly extensive text campaigns can A) increase customer questions.

B) reduce app downloads.

C) harm brand image.

D) replace other strategies.

708)

When Leeza is bored and looking at her phone, she sees her Etsy app and decides to browse the site for holiday gift ideas. This is an example of how mobile marketing can be used to A) increase retention.

B) deliver customer service.

C) build brand awareness.

D) improve customer satisfaction.

709)

Chibale needs groceries, but is too busy to spend much time shopping and waiting in line at the grocery store. Instead, he places an order using Safeway’s app. He receives an immediate text message confirming the order, and in a few hours receives another text saying his order is ready for pickup. This is an example of how mobile marketing can be used to A) increase brand awareness.

B) provide customer service.

C) establish relationships.

D) reduce employee workloads.

710)

A significant benefit to consumers using mobile apps is the ability to engage with the organization’s mobile site A) during early evening hours.

B) at any time from Monday through Friday.

C) during standard business hours.

D) at any time they choose.

711)

After a firm determines its mobile marketing goals, the next step is to A) identify an appropriate influencer.

B) compare potential analytics.

C) determine the target market.

D) select an app name and icon.

712)

Breslin Home Repair Services is developing a mobile app as part of its mobile marketing plan. Breslin wants to reach consumers who conduct most of their daily business on their smartphones, including banking, bill paying, and scheduling appointments. Breslin Home Services is targeting its audience based on A) demographics.

B) mobile operating systems.

C) mobile app engagement.

D) location.

713)

is an example of a mobile location-based targeting strategy.

A) Mobile retargeting B) Geo-fencing C) Search marketing D) Mobile optimization

714)

A firm using a geo-fencing strategy in its mobile marketing is making content available

to A) B) C) D)

715)

people in a specific or designated area. anyone operating a mobile device. anyone searching online on any type of device. people using an iOS operating system.

Rio Cantina, a popular restaurant on San Antonio’s Riverwalk, messages customers enrolled in its loyalty program when they are near the restaurant. Messages include a coupon for a free appetizer to entice customers to stop by for lunch or dinner. This strategy is an example of A) in-app advertising.

B) playable advertising.

C) geo-texting.

D) mobile retargeting.

716)

The two major considerations in choosing between in-house or external mobile app development are A) operating systems and in-house expertise.

B) budget and time.

C) company size and industry.

D) budget and in-house expertise.

717)

An excellent tactic for getting consumers to find and download your firm’s mobile app is

to A) B) C) D)

develop an attractive icon. give it a catchy name. use paid search advertising. make it free-of-charge.

718)

To increase the likelihood that consumers will download your app from the app store, marketers should A) let consumers preview what is available.

B) avoid using popular keywords to describe it.

C) charge a small fee for every download.

D) limit use of images and video.

719)

What is a clear benefit of using an influencer strategy when promoting a mobile app?

A) It establishes competitive advantage.

B) It keeps marketing costs low.

C) It gets the app in front of a broader audience.

D) It restricts app usage to elite consumers.

720)

Apple Search Ads, where marketers can promote their applications, appear in A) every mobile device.

B) the Apple App Store.

C) Google Play.

D) the Google Search platform.

721)

An important marketing tool for app developers is the , which is similar to a website’s landing page. It must communicate value to the consumer.

A) app title B) app description C) app icon D) app store page

722)

Which metric helps marketers budget for the development and promotion of mobile app installations?

A) target cost-per-install B) in-app purchases C) churn rate D) install rate

723)

Which strategy is most likely to help boost an app’s install rate?

A) geo-texting B) device synchronization C) mobile retargeting D) geo-targeting

724)

Mobile app ratings can influence consumers to download an app. What is considered a very high rating for a mobile app?

A) A B) AAA C) one star D) five stars

725)

To maximize search results, it’s recommended that a mobile app name should A) be very general.

B) indicate something about the app.

C) be hard to pronounce.

D) sound similar to competitors’ names.

726)

Which aspect of mobile app design is most focused on consumer accessibility?

A) aesthetic useability B) information architecture C) user interface D) interaction design

727)

In mobile app design focusing on positive consumer experience, which design aspect should be avoided?

A) App has too much functionality.

B) App has ability to be rendered in different sizes.

C) App uses a graphic element from the brand’s logo.

D) App icon uses bright colors.

728)

Which app feature can best deliver customer service as well as advance consumers through the conversion funnel?

A) device synchronization B) targeted push notifications C) social integration D) mobile chat

729)

An app feature which allows consumers to use an app seamlessly on more than one device is known as A) device synchronization.

B) targeted push notification.

C) social integration.

D) mobile chat.

730)

In-app advertising are ads which appear within a mobile app. An ad which looks very similar to the content surrounding it can be referred to as a(n) A) false ad.

B) hidden ad.

C) display ad.

D) native ad.

731)

Mobile app retention is most supported by apps which A) are developed for one specific use.

B) keep consumers engaged.

C) have slow loading times.

D) use significant amounts of storage.

732)

Magnification alternatives and automatic speech recognition are features which increase your mobile app’s A) consistency.

B) security.

C) reliability.

D) accessibility.

733)

Bella books a flight on her phone using Southwest’s app. She immediately receives a text noting the details of her flight and informing her that she will be notified of any changes in flight time or status. This is an example of which mobile marketing strategy?

A) text promotion B) text confirmation C) mobile welcome D) mobile retargeting

734)

735)

In developing an app’s tone and voice, marketers should generally focus on A) incorporating industry jargon.

B) using an informal tone.

C) matching the brand voice.

D) using a highly formal tone.

Apps using more conversions.

A) generic B) personalized C) private D) non-specific

content are usually better received by consumers and often result in

736)

Which mobile marketing strategy would be most beneficial in increasing consumer engagement with a mobile app?

A) requesting consumer ratings B) decreasing loading speed C) personalizing messages D) increasing message formality

737)

What tactic is suggested for mobile marketers who want to include especially long or detailed information?

A) Place relevant content at the end of the message.

B) Include a link to the organization website.

C) Keep consumers guessing about your message.

D) Eliminate any images to make more room for text.

738)

Wayfair’s mobile app allows consumers to view home décor and furniture in 3D, and arrange pieces to create their own perfect space. Wayfair is using _ content to make its app more appealing to consumers.

A) personalized B) localized C) accessible D) interactive

739)

Almost all content within mobile apps should be easily through the conversion process.

A) keyword stuffed B) short C) complex D) lengthy

740)

to help advance consumers

When Target texts a customer that their online order is ready for store pickup, it displays the Target red bullseye logo at the top of the message. This is an example of A) mobile chat.

B) interactive content.

C) geo-texting.

D) a branded text.

741)

Which strategy is suggested to enhance the effectiveness of a mobile text campaign?

A) adding images or video B) making it difficult to opt out C) including multiple links D) adding very lengthy messages

742)

Dividing the number of app uninstalls by the total number of app installs and multiplying by 100 gives marketers the . Marketers want this number to remain low.

A) install rate B) uninstall rate C) cost per install D) average daily installs

743)

Which analytic helps marketers determine the effectiveness of ads promoting mobile apps?

A) uninstall rate B) cost per install C) conversion rate D) churn rate

744)

According to mobile intelligence firm Quettra, it takes for the average app to lose more than three-fourths of its daily active users after the initial install.

A) 3 hours B) 3 days C) 3 weeks D) 3 months

745)

Mobile app over time.

A) activation B) installation C) stickiness D) engagement

refers to the percentage of consumers who continue using an app

746)

Marketers should encourage consumers to use a mobile app within activation. This boosts its chances of long-term usage.

A) three hours B) three to seven days C) three to seven weeks D) three months

of

747)

Pandora music-streaming services wants to know how many times consumers access its content each day. This will help marketers determine the type and variety of ad content the app delivers. Which analytic provides the most useful information for this situation?

A) daily active users B) flow analysis C) churn rate D) average daily app launch

748)

Marketers interested in the consumer’s journey within an app and which aspects are most visited are looking for A) a flow analysis.

B) the conversion rate.

C) a stickiness rate.

D) the average engagement time.

749)

750)

In mobile marketing, it is a good sign if an application’s A) retention rate B) cost-per-install rate C) uninstall rate D) churn rate

is high.

Which analytics should marketers use in conjunction with conversion rates to determine the ultimate success of an app?

A) install rate and retention rate B) average daily app sessions and average engagement time C) in-app purchases and product-page conversion D) churn rate and uninstall rate

751)

Knowing the push notification open rate can help mobile marketers best determine A) the sequence of the customer journey.

B) how many notifications to send.

C) ways to improve app accessibility.

D) why consumers uninstall apps.

752)

In mobile text marketing, the should be high, while the minimal.

A) delivery rate; delivery speed B) delivery speed; text click-through rate C) conversion rate; delivery rate D) delivery speed; conversion rate

should be

753)

Which text analytic would mobile marketers look to in determining if the basic content of text messages needs adjusting?

A) messages sent B) delivery speed C) delivery rate D) click-through rate

754)

Discuss how mobile marketing provides value to organizations and to consumers.

755)

What role does mobile marketing play in consumer conversion?

756)

Provide an example of customer service you have experienced which involved an app or a text message. Was your experience positive? Why or why not?

757)

Explain location-based targeting strategy. When is it useful to mobile marketers? What technique is used?

758)

What is app store optimization? List the factors marketers must consider regarding this strategy.

759)

Briefly review important factors mobile marketers should keep in mind when designing the brand’s mobile app icon, including design elements to be avoided.

760)

Discuss the importance of personalization in mobile marketing.

761)

What is mobile app stickiness? How is it calculated?

762)

What does the measurement of average daily app launches mean to marketers? Provide an example of this analytic.

763)

What are crashlytics? How do they support the mobile marketing process?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 1) TRUE

Mobile marketing is defined as marketing specifically for use via mobile devices. It also includes marketing for mobile websites, mobile search, email marketing for mobile, and social media apps.

2) FALSE

Increasingly, consumers are using mobile apps to conduct business and purchase. Over 40% of transactions online are now completed via mobile, making mobile ever so critical.

3) FALSE

Mobile marketing provides value to consumers by providing information about brand choices, providing an easy path to ordering products and services, and conveniently resolving customer service issues.

4) TRUE

A well-designed mobile app icon may also increase the brand image by creating a positive image in the minds of mobile consumers. Many apps use their logo or brand name conspicuously on or as their mobile app icon which may stick on the mind of consumers and help to enhance their connection with the brand.

5) FALSE

Leads and traffic to mobile apps can be generated through campaigns designed to get consumers to download apps or engage further with them. Mobile apps can also increase conversion and sales by offering purchasing capabilities within apps and in-app advertising.

6) TRUE

Mobile consumers may engage with an organization’s mobile app at any time, at their convenience. This ability may increase engagement with a brand—simply from the convenience of one’s mobile device.

7) FALSE

Mobile marketing integrates with overall strategic digital marketing, as it is one component of the overall plan. It helps to achieve goals and reaches consumers where they are, on mobile devices.

8) TRUE

A mobile marketing plan should promote a mobile-first strategy and cover all mobile aspects of a marketing strategy, including web, social, mobile apps, mobile texting, and others.

9) TRUE

Mobile marketing enables organizations to target consumers specifically, using a variety of mobile-relevant factors. For example, one factor is mobile-app engagement—the extent to which a consumer engages with mobile apps.

10) FALSE

Marketing based on a consumer’s location may be part of the targeting decision and can be impactful, especially to allure consumers to local businesses. A geo-fencing strategy involves setting a virtual boundary, fence, or circle in a geographic area, making selected content available only to those in that specific area.

11) TRUE

One important determination will be whether to build a mobile app built in-house or through an external service. This decision will largely depend on internal expertise and budget.

12) FALSE

An app’s install rate is the rate at which consumers are installing an app.

13) TRUE

App store optimization (ASO) involves taking steps necessary to improve a mobile app’s visibility within app stores. As is the case with SEO, app stores use various factors to determine which apps will show within app store search results. Some of these factors are, for example: the relevance of the text that is being searched, the app’s title, the keywords used, the primary category the app is listed under, and others.

14) FALSE

App users provide mobile app ratings. Mobile app ratings are very important to mobile marketers and can influence consumers to download. These ratings typically have a number assigned (usually one to five), based on the perceived value of the app to the consumer.

15) TRUE

In order to enhance customer experience (CX), mobile apps should ensure that the app creates desirability and that it is useful and usable. The various principles of CX design apply to mobile app design as well.

16) FALSE

As is the case with SEO, stuffing keywords into mobile app content often can appear odd to a consumer. While keywords may be used in the title of an app, mobile app marketers should be careful not to use terms that may be considered spam. Nor should they name an app just from an SEO perspective if the name does not make sense for an app.

17) TRUE

Mobile marketers should be very careful with mentioning personal types of products for which some consumers may be sensitive.

18) TRUE

Sometimes the best content is visual rather than textual. Visual content may be especially effective if the value of product features needs to be displayed. Interactive image content can help consumers to visualize products or the results of using them, such as with paint colors.

19) FALSE

The CPI is the amount marketers pay to obtain one app install. It is calculated as the amount an organization spent on mobile app install promotion (such as mobile app ads) divided by the number of installs achieved from that activity.

20) TRUE

The average session length or average engagement time is the average amount of time a consumer spent engaging with an app over a specific time period such as 30 days, or average engagement time per session measuring the activity in a single session.

21) D

In the early days of mobile phones, the phones were comparatively not very smart—they could only make and receive phone calls, and marketing opportunities were extremely limited. As smart phones became popular in the 2000s, opportunities for mobile marketing started to increase.

22) B

Mobile marketing can provide substantial value to mobile marketers as an avenue to reach large numbers of consumers, many of whom spend a lot of time using their mobile devices.

23) D

The text defines mobile marketing as marketing specifically for use via mobile devices. We understand that mobile marketing also includes marketing for mobile websites, mobile search, email marketing for mobile, and social media apps.

24) A

Mobile marketing also includes marketing for mobile websites, mobile search, email marketing for mobile, and social media apps.

25) C

Increasingly, consumers are using mobile apps to conduct business and purchase. Over 40% of transactions online are now completed via mobile, making mobile ever so critical.

26) D

Some consumers rely heavily on text messages for communication. Mobile marketers can launch texting campaigns to inform consumers about new products and services, engage consumers in promotions, and get consumers to visit other digital channels or download an app.

27) B

Mobile consumers may engage with an organization’s mobile app at any time, at their convenience. This ability may increase engagement with a brand—simply from the convenience of one’s mobile device. Providing relevant incentives can also increase use and retention.

28) A

Mobile consumers may have added exposure to a brand when they see a mobile app icon that may entice them to engage with the app, even if they did not initially intend to. Recognition of the image without the name, which can be enhanced through mobile app icons, can help to achieve brand-related objectives.

29) C

Text messages may also increase brand awareness and exposure, especially if a brand name and/or logo is included in the text message. However, extensive or annoying texting campaigns can also reduce brand image.

30) C

Mobile marketing can greatly increase brand awareness through mobile apps and app stores.

Mobile consumers may have added exposure to a brand when they see a mobile app icon that may entice them to engage with the app, even if they did not initially intend to.

31) B

Mobile apps designed to allow customers to perform certain customer service–related activities with minimal clicks may enhance the organization’s ability to provide quick and efficient service. Text messages can improve customer service by, for example, confirming an order, or confirming that an item is ready for pickup.

32) D

Mobile consumers may engage with an organization’s mobile app at any time, at their convenience. This ability may increase engagement with a brand—simply from the convenience of one’s mobile device. With added convenience, consumers may be more inclined to engage and to make repeat purchases.

33) C

After determining mobile marketing goals, mobile marketers and organizations need to select the target market.

34) C

Mobile marketing enables organizations to target consumers specifically, using a variety of mobile-relevant factors. For example, one factor could be the type of device that a consumer uses including considerations such as mobile operating systems, screen sizes, and even brands.

Another key factor is mobile-app engagement—the extent to which a consumer engages with mobile apps.

35) B

Geo-fencing involves setting a virtual boundary, fence, or circle in a geographic area, making selected content available only to those in that specific area.

36) A

A best practice may be to adopt a geo-fencing strategy, where appropriate. This involves setting a virtual boundary, fence, or circle in a geographic area, making selected content available only to those in that specific area.

37) C

Geo-texting (or geo-targeted texting, or location-based text marketing) is sending text messages to consumers based on their geographic location.

38) D

One important determination will be whether to build a mobile app built in-house or through an external service. This decision will largely depend on internal expertise and budget.

39) C

Launching an app onto an app store does not mean consumers will automatically find and start to download the app. The app must be promoted, which can be done through paid and organic means. One effective paid mobile app advertising is Apple Search Ads, where consumers see ads promoting an app when they search on the App Store.

40) A

For a mobile app to become discovered on app stores requires careful planning and implementation of strategies and tactics surrounding key factors. Optimizing images and video, including allowing consumers to preview what is available, is also important.

41) C

A mobile app influencer strategy may help brands to get their apps to larger audiences. Using influencers to promote an app can be an effective strategy, not only to get consumers to download apps, but also to build trust as they use them.

42) B

One effective paid mobile app advertising is Apple Search Ads, where consumers see ads promoting an app when they search on the App Store. Data from Apple shows that a majority of those who visit the App Store use the search functionality.

43) D

An app store page—the landing page for a mobile app—is a crucial marketing tool for mobile app marketing. Much like a landing page for a website, this page should allure consumers to download the app.

44) A

Marketers can select a target cost-per install (tCPI) to manage how much is paid when consumers install the app. CPI is the amount an organization expects to spend on mobile app installations. The tCPI is simply a budget target for that expenditure.

45) C

To improve the install rate, mobile marketers may undertake a mobile retargeting strategy. In this promotion strategy, consumers who have previously connected with a mobile app page or promotion are shown relevant promotions pertaining to the app. For example, ads that are retargeted may be served to consumers based on their past activity and/or interest.

46) D

Mobile app ratings are very important to mobile marketers and can influence consumers to download. These ratings typically have a number assigned (usually one to five), based on the perceived value of the app to the consumer.

47) B

Mobile marketers should choose a name for an app that is not too general. A name that is too general may get buried deep down in search results when consumers search for an app. The app name should be easy to pronounce and remember and should say something about the app.

48) C

A good user interface (UI) strategy involves a design that helps consumers interact with the app by means of an interface that is accessible and not difficult to use.

49) A

A design problem that can lead to a poor consumer experience include apps that have too much functionality.

50) D

Mobile chat functionality enables consumers to chat with a company’s customer service agent or bot through their mobile device. If effectively deployed, mobile chat can help consumers advance through a conversion process and also provide customer service through the app.

51) A

Device synchronization is the action of causing devices to remain identical in more than one location. Thus, if consumers use an app on different mobile devices, the content or activity is harmonized for a seamless experience.

52) D

In-app ads may be display ads, video ads, or native ads that appear similar to the environment in which they are displayed.

53) B

A mobile app retention strategy goes hand in hand with the value the app provides a consumer.

Keeping a consumer engaged, offering promotions and discounts, notifying consumers about information they wish to know, providing added valuable features and more opportunities and reasons to engage, listening to consumer feedback, are all ways in which mobile marketers can keep customers coming back to use and engage with an app.

54) D

Mobile apps should build in appropriate measures to assist all consumers being able to interact with the app. For example, automatic speech recognition may make accessible an app for consumers who cannot otherwise hold a phone or touch a screen. Magnification and contrast options may assist consumers who have difficulty viewing small screens or apps with small font sizes or contrast.

55) B

Many organizations offer a text confirmation, such as flight and purchase confirmations. This exchange allows consumers to be at ease, knowing their transaction has been successful.

56) C

Appropriate tone and voice must be used, matching what works best for the target audience. As with websites, content should in general match the brand voice, although some mobile marketers prefer to pitch content to consumers directly.

57) B

Apps that include personalized content may resonate better with consumers. For example, mobile marketers may have information about the activity consumers engage in with their apps. Using that information, personalized content can be delivered, which may be more relevant to consumers and result in greater chances of consumers taking a desired action.

58) C

Apps that include personalized content may resonate better with consumers. For example, mobile marketers may have information about the activity consumers engage in with their apps. Using that information, personalized content can be delivered, which may be more relevant to consumers and result in greater chances of consumers taking a desired action.

59) B

Content within apps, especially due to limited real estate, should be concise. Using short, clear messages enables mobile marketers to get quickly to the point. If there is longer content that needs to be included or is helpful to consumers, it may be appropriate to use hyperlinks to that content.

60) D

Interactive image content can help consumers to visualize products or the results of using them.

61) B

Content within apps, especially due to limited real estate, should be concise. Using short, clear messages enables mobile marketers to get quickly to the point.

62) D

To keep a brand in the minds of consumers and even help to enhance its image, mobile marketers will often choose to use branded texts. These are text messages that include a brand name, logo, or other brand asset.

63) A

Text messages including imagery and videos, or links to the same, can also boost conversion.

Too much imagery or extensive links to videos, though, may be a turn off for many consumers and thus should be used sparingly.

64) B

The rate at which consumers uninstall in app is calculated by dividing the number of uninstalls by the number of app installs and multiplying by 100.

65) C

Google Analytics, Firebase, Apple, and others provide analytics to measure the effectiveness of ads placed to promote mobile apps such as the conversion rate.

66) B

Similar to analytics for website usage, daily active users (DAU) are the number of consumers who use an app on a daily basis, and monthly active users (MAU) the number of consumers who use an app in a one-month period. Based on data from Quettra, on average, an app loses 77% of the DAU in the three days after it is installed.

67) C

Mobile app stickiness is the percentage of consumers who continue to use an app over time. It is calculated as the DAU divided by the MAU, multiplied by 100. This percentage can help mobile marketers determine how often consumers use the app and stick with it over time.

68) B

Getting users to use the app within the first three to seven days is crucial and increases the chance that they will continue to use the app over the long term.

69) D

Mobile marketers want to know the number of times a consumer opens and engages with an app within one day, known as average daily app launches.

70) A

Adobe Analytics and others provide a flow analysis that shows the customer’s journey in the app, what aspects of it were visited or engaged with, and even at what point a customer left the app.

This information enables mobile marketers to understand the actions of customers better and adjust the app if needed.

71) A

Retention rate over time measures how many consumers continue to use an app after it is downloaded.

72) C

After install, determining the conversion rate for activity within the app may be the single most important metric for mobile marketers. Some mobile marketers focus so heavily on a conversionrate that they forget that various other analytics may help to improve this one. These include inapp purchases, sales, users, product page views, product-page conversion rate, and pre-orders.

73) B

Push notification app analytics tell mobile marketers about consumer activity with notifications.

For example, a push notification open rate measures how many consumers (devices) were sent a notification and opened it. They can also track an action as taken based on a push notification.

This information can help mobile marketers determine a careful balance between notifications and other aspects of an app.

74) A

The delivery rate refers to the percentage of text messages successfully delivered, while the delivery speed is how much time it took for a text message to be received.

75) D

The mobile text click-through rate reports the percentage of clicks from a mobile text message compared to the number of text messages sent. This information may inform text marketing campaigns.

76) Essay

Mobile marketing provides value for both organizations and consumers through mobile applications (mobile apps) and mobile texting.

For marketers, mobile marketing can provide substantial value as an avenue to reach large numbers of consumers, many of whom spend a lot of time using their mobile devices.

Increasingly, consumers are using mobile apps to conduct business and purchase. Over 40% of transactions online are now completed via mobile, making reaching consumers through mobile means essential.

For consumers, apps provide value by delivering information, offering products and services, informing consumers about offers and promotions, providing customer service, and keeping in touch.

77) Essay

Leads and traffic to mobile apps can be generated through campaigns designed to get consumers to download apps or engage further with them. Mobile apps can also increase conversion and sales by offering purchasing capabilities within apps and in-app advertising.

Likewise, texting campaigns can be designed to increase conversion and can be specially targeted. For example, personalized text messages based on past purchases may be more effective than broadly based ones that are not targeted.

78) Essay

Student examples will vary, but may include some of the following points: Customer service may be provided through mobile apps, including answers to questions, returns, refunds, and more.

Mobile apps designed to allow customers to perform certain customer service–related activities with minimal clicks may enhance the organization’s ability to provide quick and efficient service.

Mobile apps may offer avenues to provide feedback and suggestions, and to perform certain common customer actions.

Text messages can improve customer service by confirming an order or confirming that an item is ready for pickup. Busy customers do not need to periodically check for order status, and the text message serves as a reminder.

By providing options and obtaining information, mobile marketers may obtain information about consumers’ questions, satisfaction, and reasons for satisfaction and dissatisfaction.

79) Essay

Marketing based on a consumer’s location may be part of the targeting decision and can be impactful, especially to allure consumers to local businesses. With many consumers using their mobile devices to find information, targeting a consumer based on their current or other location through a mobile location-based targeting strategy may be fruitful.

A best practice may be to adopt a geo-fencing strategy, where appropriate. This involves setting a virtual boundary, fence, or circle in a geographic area, making selected content available only to those in that specific area. Geo-fencing requires use of technologies such as the Global Positioning System (GPS), radio-frequency identification (RFID), wireless fidelity (Wi-Fi), mobile-device location services, mobile preferences indicated by the consumer, or other mobile cellular data.

Using the boundary that has been set, mobile marketers can implement a mobile geo-targeting strategy. This involves creating a marketing communication that is based on where a consumer is physically located, as captured by their device location within a geographical area.

80) Essay

App store optimization (ASO) involves taking steps necessary to improve a mobile app’s visibility within app stores.

App stores use various factors to determine which apps will show within app store search results.

Some of these factors are: relevance of the text that is being searched the app’s title the keywords used the primary category the app is listed under mobile user experience promotional text (a short mobile app description) updates, service, and user mobile app behavior such as downloads, feedback, ratings, and reviews optimized images and video 81) Essay

The mobile app icon is the face of the mobile app to the world and represents an organization’s brand. It is the one thing consumers will see and click on from their devices. Mobile marketers will want to define a concept for their icon before pursuing a design.

This concept needs to: incorporate the brand’s image allow consumers to associate with the brand through the icon be in line with organizational and app store design guidelines be able to be rendered in different sizes allow consumers to connect with and remember it enable consumers to relate it with what it does or what products or services the organization provides be distinct from other app icons be consistent with the organization’s marketing. have too much functionality have too many options are designed in a dull way are slow or crash often have aspects that are inconsistent.

82) Essay

Apps that include personalized content may resonate better with consumers. For example, mobile marketers may have information about the activity consumers engage in with their apps. Using that information, personalized content can be delivered, which may be more relevant to consumers and result in greater chances of consumers taking a desired action.

83) Essay

Mobile app stickiness is the percentage of consumers who continue to use an app over time.

Mobile app stickiness is calculated as the DAU (daily active users) divided by the MAU (monthly active users), multiplied by 100. This percentage can help mobile marketers determine how often consumers use the app and stick with it over time.

84) Essay

Student examples may vary.

Mobile marketers want to know the number of times a consumer opens and engages with an app within one day, known as average daily app launches.

An example would be how many times a consumer opened a music app each day. Some consumers may open a music app once or twice a day and engage with different songs; others may listen every few days.

85) Essay

Google Firebase, a platform for creating mobile and web applications, provides crashlytics tools that help mobile marketers analyze the extent of mobile app crashes. These tools report on “stability issues” that may affect the quality of an app and also on how well the app is performing (such as how fast it is).

For example, it reports the percentage of crash-free users, the number of crashes, and the number of users affected. By reviewing crashlytics reports, mobile marketers can get a sense for the stability of their app and work to improve its performance.

Chapter 10: Digital Brand, Trust, and Reputation Management Strategy 764)

Part of what defines a digital brand is the credibility consumers associate with it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

765)

Digital visibility refers to the degree that a brand rates higher than its competitors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

766)

Amazon is rated among the top digital brands in the U.S. ⊚ true ⊚ false

767)

The most essential element of digital trust is high online visibility. ⊚ true ⊚ false A brand’s digital reputation does not impact consumer conversion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

768)

769)

Coca-Cola is a brand with high digital durability. ⊚ true ⊚ false

770)

A few times a week, DSW emails its customers recommending shoe styles they might like, based on their recent online browsing behavior. This is an effective tactic in building digital interest. ⊚ true ⊚ false

771)

Digital differentiation refers to products being perceived differently by online versus inperson consumers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

772)

Enhancing digital reputation and digital trust will increase brand value in the eyes of consumers.

⊚ true ⊚ false

773)

Digital branding relies on consumer experiences across all communication channels. ⊚ true ⊚ false

774)

It is important to be a technology brand in order to be successful at digital marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false 775) Dove launched an online promotion focused around helping young people improve low body confidence and anxiety over appearances. This ad content communicates a digital brand story that presents positive brand values to consumers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

776)

Building digital credibility also builds the value of a brand. ⊚ true ⊚ false

777)

The best way to increase brand reputation with consumers is to offer a vast variety of messages and brand images. ⊚ true ⊚ false

778)

Being clear and upfront with consumers about terms of service commitments is a good way to build your brand’s reputation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

779)

Digital marketers must respond forcefully to consumers who post negative feedback online. This response includes immediately deleting any negative reviews. ⊚ true ⊚ false

780)

One way to measure consumers’ positive or negative responses to a brand is using a brand sentiment analytic.

⊚ true ⊚ false

781)

Brand mentions and brand sentiment tools offer similar information to digital marketers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 782) A brand’s net promoter score measures brand reach, which is how many consumers in the target market have received its message. ⊚ true ⊚ false

783)

An NPS (net promoter score) of 90 would be highly favorable. ⊚ true ⊚ false

784)

reflects what a digital brand stands

785)

Good reviews and positive mobile app ratings are critical factors in establishing a brand’s A) digital reach.

B) digital accessibility.

C) digital authority.

D) digital credibility.

According to the Digital Branding Institute, for and what it does for a consumer.

A) digital visibility B) digital identity C) digital credibility D) digital authority

You are interested in purchasing a hybrid car, and an online search reveals “Hyundai hybrid cars” as the top result. Several mentions of Hyundai hybrids also appear on your Facebook and Instagram feeds, and Hyundai ads pop-up alongside your emails. This demonstrates the brand’s A) digital visibility.

B) digital credibility.

C) digital authority.

D) digital reputation.

786)

787)

The intersection of identity, credibility, and form what consumers think of as a digital brand, according to the Digital Branding Institute.

A) visibility B) reliability C) consistency D) accessibility

788)

Digital marketing activities shape a digital brand’s A) accessibility B) transparency C) uniqueness D) life cycle

in the eyes of consumers.

Millions of consumers received emails from Classmates.com claiming that “someone you know is trying to contact you.” However, the company told these consumers that the only way to connect is to purchase an upgraded membership. After a lawsuit resulting in a multimillion-dollar settlement, Classmates.com had to work to regain its credibility, which is the essence of digital A) trust.

B) differentiation.

C) identity.

D) accessibility.

789)

790)

In addition to building a brand’s name and status, a key responsibility of digital reputation management involves A) improving employee morale.

B) resolving leadership conflicts.

C) managing consumer feedback.

D) assessing the competition.

791)

Digital reputation management is important to digital marketers because of its relationship to A) company awards.

B) consumer conversion.

C) leadership advancement.

D) employee retention.

792)

Establishing a digital brand is especially critical to the success of A) new B) multinational C) well-known D) non-technology

businesses.

793)

It is important for established firms to maintain the brand image they have worked hard to acquire. This quality is known as A) digital retention.

B) digital reach.

C) digital durability.

D) digital trust.

794)

Apple has built and maintained an especially strong online brand presence in consumers’ eyes over many years. This means the Apple brand is high in A) digital engagement.

B) digital transparency.

C) digital durability.

D) digital differentiation.

795)

Consumers who have browsed Etsy’s website without making a purchase are retargeted with promotional emails by individual product sites they accessed. This tactic is designed to build A) product differentiation.

B) comparative advantage.

C) brand durability.

D) digital interest.

796)

When Netflix suggests titles to its customers based on their past viewing habits, its marketing objective is to A) build digital trust.

B) maintain digital interest.

C) manage its reputation.

D) establish its brand.

797)

Nature’s Best Pet Foods offers new online customers a 5 percent discount for signing up for automated pet food shipments. After six months, these customers are offered a 10 percent discount for maintaining their pet food subscription. This tactic is designed to A) establish credibility.

B) increase its reputation.

C) build retention.

D) create an identity.

798)

Focusing digital marketing efforts on retention and loyalty is a critical objective for firms which A) have little competition.

B) rely on repeat customers.

C) sell infrequently used services.

D) do not have an established identity.

799)

Because it offers free shipping and returns, and provides efficient and friendly customer service, millions of consumers prefer to buy products from online retailer Amazon. In the eyes of consumers, this exceptional service has helped it achieve A) digital differentiation.

B) digital connectedness.

C) digital visibility.

D) digital transparency.

800)

To achieve digital differentiation, a firm must use online marketing to demonstrate why it is than competing firms.

A) wealthier B) larger C) newer D) better

801)

Consumers perceive that a brand with an excellent digital reputation is also A) higher in value.

B) lower in competition.

C) higher in price.

D) lower in differentiation.

802)

What is common to all top digital brands?

A) They are technology-related.

B) They represent entertainment industries.

C) They work to build consumer trust.

D) They focus on B2B markets.

803)

Marketers understand that what a brand stands for and the value it delivers refers to its A) value proposition.

B) digital voice.

C) digital engagement.

D) name recognition.

804)

Wayfair is an online retailer of furniture and home décor. The typical Wayfair customer is a 35-to-65-year-old female homeowner with an annual household income of $60,000 to $175,000. Which statement best communicates Wayfair’s value proposition for this audience?

A) We offer free shipping on many in-stock items.

B) We make shopping from home easy.

C) We help you create beautiful, personalized spaces at great prices.

D) We sell furniture, lighting, and unique decor.

805)

The focus of digital branding should be on A) providing value to customers.

B) reducing marketing costs.

C) targeting new consumer groups.

D) bringing innovation to the marketplace.

806)

The Humane Society’s website features images of an undernourished puppy. Readers are urged to “be a hero” by donating to save the lives of animals in puppy mills, factory farms, and testing labs. This site is using to reach consumers.

A) personal digital branding B) digital consistency C) emotional digital branding D) digital connectedness

807)

A strategic digital brand story must always communicate a brand’s consumers.

A) exclusivity B) value C) tactics D) history

to

In its online ads, Smucker’s Natural Fruit Spreads describes its product as “Father Nature Tested, Mother Nature Approved.” Smucker’s Instagram images show a greenery-filled kitchen with a dad serving jam-topped snacks to his children. A Facebook ad displays a jar of Smucker’s Natural Strawberry Jam next to fresh berries. These examples are tactics which A) focus on brand connectedness.

B) manage the brand reputation.

C) enhance brand transparency.

D) tell the brand story.

808)

809)

When Campbell’s Soup created its Well Yes! brand line, marketing efforts focused on showing its hand-crafted flavors featuring ingredients like kale, quinoa, barley, beans, sweet potatoes, and whole grain. The narrative was that you can “Say Yes” to both nutrition and convenience. This is an example of using to reach consumers.

A) brand engagement B) brand mentions C) brand management D) brand story

810)

Carefully choosing appropriate images, colors, fonts, and style for digital marketing efforts are tactics which communicate A) brand reach.

B) brand trust.

C) brand value.

D) brand durability.

811)

812)

Which strategy is suggested for effective digital branding?

A) Incorporate the brand logo across every relevant digital platform.

B) Change the brand story frequently to maintain interest.

C) Develop individual brand styles for each digital platform.

D) Use differing colors across digital platforms to create visual interest.

Which social media content is most appropriate for Williams Sonoma, a kitchenware and gourmet food retailer?

A) USDA food pyramid guidelines B) demonstration of unique gift-wrapping ideas C) images of beautiful dishes of food D) profiles of award-winning chefs

813)

The MACE framework suggests that four factors can prolong digital brand life. One of those factors is A) changeability.

B) cadence.

C) color.

D) choice.

814)

In the MACE framework, ensnarement is analogous to A) innovation.

B) convenience.

C) stickiness.

D) consistency.

815)

When Sling TV offers digital consumers a free online code to try out their streaming service using a very simple sign-up form, this reflects which MACE framework factor?

A) mastery B) accessibility C) cadence D) ensnarement

816)

Amazon has a high degree of connectedness with U.S. consumers. This means that A) Amazon and consumers connect successfully on digital platforms.

B) Amazon supports a mobile-first policy.

C) consumers report that the Amazon site is easy to navigate.

D) consumers seek out Amazon for most of their shopping needs.

817)

Research indicates that brand value is directly related to an increase in A) engagement.

B) trust.

C) online mentions.

D) price.

818)

Outdoor gear retailer REI works to eliminate products from its site which use hazardous substances in their manufacturing. Digitally sharing information about these efforts with consumers supports which marketing objective?

A) increase accessibility B) enlarge its web presence C) reward consumer engagement D) build credibility

819)

Which online strategy is suggested to build brand reputation and trust?

A) Ignore negative customer reviews on social media sites.

B) Keep messaging consistent across platforms.

C) Hide key information used in consumer decision making.

D) Remove all links to third-party sites.

820)

Brand strategy studies indicate that increased brand value is directly related to an increase

in A) B) C) D)

social movement support. name recognition. competition. consumer trust.

821)

is highly important in building brand trust and reputation in digital marketing.

A) Variety B) Consistency C) Simplicity D) Conflict

822)

Conflicting messages across digital channels are associated with A) misinformation B) excitement C) expansion D) range

by consumers.

823)

To digital marketers, design transparency refers to A) making pertinent information visible to consumers.

B) appropriately crediting website designers and contributors.

C) keeping digital designs simple and easy to navigate.

D) incorporating generous white space around digital elements.

824)

Consumers discover that Peacock’s streaming service can be accessed free-of-charge. But Peacock’s online ads, social media posts, and website clearly state that full content access, such as watching the new season of Yellowstone, requires a monthly subscription which is cancellable at any time. This disclosure demonstrates , which helps build consumer trust in the brand.

A) consistency B) accessibility C) transparency D) reliability

825)

What is the best policy regarding consumer comments and brand mentions on social media?

A) Any publicity is good publicity.

B) All product mentions and reviews increase brand reputation.

C) Social media activity and mentions should be closely monitored.

D) Ignoring negative comments or reviews is the best long-term strategy.

826)

What is an example of a symbol which serves to increase brand reputation?

A) “Verified by Visa®” on a product website B) a house icon on a brand’s Instagram post C) an arrow action button which triggers a video clip D) a telephone symbol on a brand’s Facebook page

827)

Which website element is the least directly intended to enhance a brand’s digital reputation?

A) a link to a list of the week’s sales and clearance items B) complete company and contact information C) positive customer testimonials D) ISO 9001 certification details

828)

Consumers interested in subscribing to Vanity Fair are directed to its landing page.

Which element on the site is likely least effective in increasing consumer trust in this brand?

A) link to access a free one-month subscription B) comprehensive company and contact information C) information about recent industry awards D) details about a free tote bag offer

829)

What does a HTTPS designation in the website address, or a lock symbol, indicate to consumers?

A) increased security during transactions B) recipient of industry awards C) current product availability D) meets product certification standards

830)

831)

Brand24 is a tool companies can use for A) tracking sales.

B) reputation management.

C) customer relationship management.

D) search engine optimization.

The best general strategy for responding to negative consumer feedback about a product or brand is to A) respond publicly and aggressively.

B) ignore these comments and respond with general information.

C) determine ahead of time who, what, and when to respond.

D) respond immediately and privately.

832)

Brand sentiment, brand mentions, and net promoter score are used by marketers to understand A) the product life cycle.

B) consumer buying patterns.

C) digital brand, trust, and reputation.

D) search performance.

833)

The Repustate Brand Sentiment Analysis tool measures consumer brand sentiment as A) low, medium, or high.

B) aware or unaware.

C) like, dislike, or uninterested.

D) positive, negative, or neutral.

834)

Marketers for White Oaks Distillery are interested in which social platform contains the most posts about their new craft cocktail kits. This information will help shape a new social media marketing strategy. Which analytic is this firm interested in?

A) brand sentiment B) digital connectedness C) brand mentions D) net promoter score

835)

836)

A brand mentions analytic measures A) consumer B) competitor C) advertising D) website

references to a brand online.

An analytic that calculates by how much favorable brand impressions exceed unfavorable ones is the A) brand sentiment analysis.

B) net promoter score.

C) social shares ratio.

D) click-through rate.

837)

A net promoter score of 80 means that A) the brand has a high percentage of dissatisfied customers.

B) many consumers are neutral about the brand.

C) the brand has a high percentage of loyal customers.

D) the rate of unfavorable brand impressions is very high.

838)

A brand with a net promoter score near zero is A) a marker for the decline stage of the product life cycle.

B) a generally positive sign for marketers.

C) an indication that it is new to the market.

D) a red flag for marketers.

839)

Briefly explain the three elements of digital branding, as defined by the Digital Branding Institute.

840)

Select any digital brand you are familiar with, and briefly describe its digital identity.

841)

How does building a digital brand image differ for new and established organizations?

842)

What is digital durability? Include an example of a brand with high digital durability.

843)

Imagine creating a website to promote your personal brand (perhaps as part of a job search). Outline tactics which can help deliver your personal brand story.

Student examples will vary, but should reference the following major points: Telling the digital brand story lets consumers know what the digital brand is all about and what value the brand may provide to consumers.

Draw from a value proposition and positioning to build a digital brand story that will resonate with target audiences. This can be done through imagery, design, and words.

The story should represent the value of the brand and its uniqueness. Individuals promoting their personal brand should not neglect to provide a personal story for their personal brand. When telling the brand story, digital brand voice and tone are important.

844)

Discuss brand credibility in terms of supporting a current social movement.

845)

How should digital marketing managers react to negative consumer reviews?

846)

What is brand sentiment, and how is this information helpful to marketers?

847)

Briefly explain how a net promoter score (NPS) is calculated.

848)

What is the range for a net promoter score (NPS)? What is considered a good score?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 1) TRUE

A digital brand encompasses the various qualities that provide an organization, product, service, or person their uniqueness as perceived by a consumer based on digital marketing activities.

Digital credibility is the trust that a consumer places on the brand in an online context.

2) FALSE

Digital visibility is the extent to which consumers will see or be exposed to the brand through digital channels. Seeing a digital brand on search engines, in social media, and on blogs makes it visible.

3) TRUE

Among the top digital brands in the United States are Google, Amazon, and Facebook who focus heavily on building their identity, are highly visible on digital channels, and work to build credibility among consumers.

4) FALSE

Digital trust is that part of digital branding that focuses on building credibility. It may include how reliable the brand is, how much integrity it holds, or how believable the brand is.

5) FALSE

Digital trust and reputation can help consumers to advance through a conversion process.

6) TRUE

An objective for many brands is digital durability, which is the ability to make a brand last in an online world. Some companies, such as Coca-Cola, have done this well.

7) TRUE

Maintaining digital interest allows brands to add value and allure consumers. Tactics that can help to increase digital retention and loyalty include offering opportunities for consumers to repurchase items online, providing personalized recommendations based on online activity, and giving digital incentives to keep coming back.

8) FALSE

Digital differentiation refers to consumers’ perception of superior difference in an organization’s digital marketing activities.

9) TRUE

Increasing and maintaining digital trust can be difficult for brands, but if done well, digital trust can lead to increased confidence among consumers, with consumers believing what the brand says. Enhancing digital reputation can raise the brand in the eyes of consumers, enabling them to perceive greater value.

10) FALSE

Digital branding focuses largely on customer experiences across digital channels.

11) FALSE

Many top global brands include many technology brands, which are prominent across digital channels. However, Coca-Cola, Toyota, Mercedes Benz, and McDonalds also rely heavily on digital marketing although are not technology brands themselves.

12) TRUE

Telling the digital brand story lets consumers know what the digital brand is all about and what value the brand may provide to consumers. Digital marketers should draw from their value proposition and positioning to build a digital brand story that will resonate with target audiences.

13) TRUE

Studies show that the value of a brand will increase where there is an increase in trust. To increase trust, digital brands may need to develop credibility, which is the extent to which a consumer believes in the brand and its message.

14) FALSE

Consistency is important to build or improve trust and reputation with digital marketing. If consumers see conflicting messages across digital channels, they may associate that messaging with misinformation or marketing ploy.

15) TRUE

To increase trust and reputation, digital marketers should also ensure design transparency, ensuring pertinent information is always visible to consumers.

16) FALSE

Some brands make the mistake of responding too aggressively to consumers who provide negative feedback or negative reviews. Before responding, it may be prudent to take a breath and formulate a thoughtful response. Organizations should consider carefully before deleting negative reviews as censorship damages brand credibility.

17) TRUE

Brand sentiment is how consumers feel about a brand, or their attitude toward it. It can be measured through different possible tools. Repustate offers a Brand Sentiment Analysis Tool that provides sentiment trends and an overall sentiment analytic (positive, neutral, or negative).

18) FALSE

Brand sentiment is how consumers feel about a brand, or their attitude toward it. Brand mentions are consumer references to a brand in online settings.

19) FALSE

The net promotor score (NPS) is another analytic that measures the extent to which favorable brand impressions exceed unfavorable ones. It reflects customers’ experience and is of relevance to brands, trust, and reputation.

20) TRUE

The net promotor score (NPS) is another analytic that measures the extent to which favorable brand impressions exceed unfavorable ones. It reflects customers’ experience and is of relevance to brands, trust, and reputation. The NPS will range between –100 (lowest, meaning all detractors) and +100 (highest, meaning all promoters). The higher the NPS, the better.

21) B

Digital identity often involves a story of the digital brand and what it stands for, such as how a brand got to where it is and what that does for a consumer.

22) D

Digital credibility is the trust that a consumer places on the brand in an online context. This may be done through positive mobile app rankings, positive reviews, and the voice and tone used throughout its digital channels.

23) A

Digital visibility is the extent to which consumers will see or be exposed to the brand through digital channels. Seeing a digital brand on search engines, in social media, and on blogs makes it visible.

24) A

The founder of the Digital Branding Institute, a global hub for digital branding resources, education, and training, defines a digital brand as “the identity, visibility, and credibility among consumers who discover, relate to, and interact with a brand on digital platforms.”

25) C

A digital brand encompasses the various qualities that provide an organization, product, service, or person their uniqueness as perceived by a consumer based on digital marketing activities.

26) A

Digital trust is that part of digital branding that focuses on building credibility (as seen above). It may include how reliable the brand is, how much integrity it holds, or how believable the brand is.

27) C

Digital reputation management involves not only building the brand name, standing, and status but also managing feedback (positive or negative) in digital contexts. This activity is relevant to brands regardless of size.

28) B

Digital reputation management involves not only building the brand name, standing, and status but also managing feedback (positive or negative) in digital contexts. Digital trust and reputation can help consumers to advance through a conversion process.

29) A

For a new organization, creating a digital brand can be paramount to its success. A newer small business may wish to establish a digital brand that can lead to digital consumers knowing and recognizing the brand and to enhanced online ordering.

30) C

Organizations will want to maintain their brand and the image it has gained, once established. An objective for many brands is digital durability, which is the ability to make a brand last in an online world.

31) C

Organizations will want to maintain their brand and the image it has gained, once established. An objective for many brands is digital durability, which is the ability to make a brand last in an online world.

32) D

An objective of digital marketing is to keep the digital interest of consumers. Keeping their digital interest will allow brands to add value and allure consumers. Tactics that can help to increase digital retention and loyalty include offering opportunities for consumers to repurchase items online, providing personalized recommendations based on online activity, and giving digital incentives to keep coming back.

33) B

An important objective is to keep the digital interest of consumers. Keeping their digital interest will allow brands to add value and allure consumers. Tactics that can help to increase digital retention and loyalty include offering opportunities for consumers to repurchase items online, providing personalized recommendations based on online activity, and giving digital incentives to keep coming back.

34) C

While some organizations offer products and services intended to be used or availed of once, many rely on repeat customers who are faithful to the brand. Using their brand, organizations can increase digital retention and loyalty, especially when consumers recognize the brand online and make repeat purchases as a result of such recognition, positive digital experiences, or other factors.

35) B

While some organizations offer products and services intended to be used or availed of once, many rely on repeat customers who are faithful to the brand. Using their brand, organizations can increase digital retention and loyalty, especially when consumers recognize the brand online and make repeat purchases as a result of such recognition, positive digital experiences, or other factors.

36) A

Digital differentiation—consumers’ perception of superior difference in an organization’s digital marketing activities—might be an objective for some brands. Such brands will wish to capitalize on why they might be digitally better in ways that their competition is not.

37) D

Digital differentiation—consumers’ perception of superior difference in an organization’s digital marketing activities—might be an objective for some brands.

38) A

Increasing and maintaining digital trust can be difficult for brands, but if done well, digital trust can lead to increased confidence among consumers, with consumers believing what the brand says. Enhancing digital reputation can raise the brand in the eyes of consumers, enabling them to perceive greater value.

39) C

Top digital brands are active online across various digital channels, they work to enhance their brand in online settings, they look for opportunities to build trust among consumers, and try to maintain the reputation they enjoy.

40) A

A digital brand should offer a clear value proposition that is relevant to its digital audience. This digital value proposition should convince a consumer to understand what the brand stands for, recognize the value it provides, and buy from the brand.

41) C

A digital brand should offer a clear value proposition that is relevant to its digital audience. A digital value proposition should convince a consumer to understand what the brand stands for, recognize the value it provides, and buy from the brand.

42) A

Digital branding focuses largely on customer experiences across digital channels and how these provide value. It is this value that must come out loud and clear.

43) C

Brands may select from various digital branding approaches. For example, a non-profit may decide to use emotional digital branding to appeal to consumer emotions.

44) B

Telling the digital brand story lets consumers know what the digital brand is all about and what value the brand may provide to consumers.

45) D

Digital marketers should draw from their value proposition and positioning to build a digital brand story that will resonate with target audiences. This can be done through imagery, design, and words such as in website content, blogs, social media posts, and others.

46) D

Telling the digital brand story lets consumers know what the digital brand is all about and what value the brand may provide to consumers.

47) C

Brands may apply visual strategy and tactics to their digital marketing, including selecting appropriate images, colors, fonts, and style that display the value of the brand.

48) A

Maintaining consistency among elements in different digital marketing activities is also important, to achieve a unified understanding of the brand. Brands should use their digital logo across digital platforms as much as possible. If colors and style of the brand changes across platforms, consumers may not recognize the brand in the same way.

49) C

Valuable and engaging content will often provide the value that consumers seek and increase the value of the brand in the minds of consumers. Brands should provide content that supports their products.

50) B

David Collis and William Collis came up with the MACE framework to explain how to build enduring brands in the digital age. They propose that four factors may be used to prolong digital brand life: mastery, accessibility, cadence, and ensnarement, whose acronym is MACE. 51) C

Ensnarement is making the brand “sticky,” so that consumers stay with it.

52) B

Accessibility involves making it easy for consumers to obtain your product or service.

53) A

Brands may be centered around digital connectedness, the degree to which consumers, brands, and things are connected through digital means. Opinium has rated Amazon the number-one most connected brand in both the U.S. and the UK, with Google also appearing prominently on the list.

54) B

According to Interbrand, a brand consultant that specializes in brand strategy and management, “Trust Always Wins.” Studies show that the value of a brand will increase where there is an increase in trust.

55) D

To increase trust, digital brands may need to develop credibility, which is the extent to which a consumer believes in the brand and its message. To develop credibility with consumers, some brands commit to certain causes and integrate these into their business model.

56) B

Consistency is important to build or improve trust and reputation with digital marketing.

Inconsistency may reduce the brand image and be confusing to digital consumers.

57) D

According to Interbrand, a brand consultant that specializes in brand strategy and management, “Trust Always Wins.” Studies show that the value of a brand will increase where there is an increase in trust.

58) B

Consistency is important to build or improve trust and reputation with digital marketing.

Inconsistency may reduce the brand image and be confusing to digital consumers.

59) A

Inconsistency may reduce the brand image and be confusing to digital consumers. If consumers see conflicting messages across digital channels, they may associate that messaging with misinformation or marketing ploy.

60) A

To increase trust and reputation, digital marketers should also ensure design transparency, ensuring pertinent information is always visible to consumers. For example, key information used in consumer decision making should not be buried in website terms and conditions.

61) C

To increase trust and reputation, digital marketers should also ensure design transparency, ensuring pertinent information is always visible to consumers. If a certain commitment period is needed when signing up for a service, this information should be made clear, along with the value provided by the service. Hiding such details where consumers do not often look could diminish trust. A transparent approach will greatly help increase trust and reputation.

62) C

Mentions, likes, and positive reviews on social media can lead to increased trust and reputation.

Not all goes positively when it comes to reputation on social media, though. While overcoming negative reviews and bad reputation may not always be easy, it is important for brands to try to reach out to the customer to resolve the complaint, if possible, and offer a number of ways for customers to reach them.

63) A

Many brands use symbols to increase trust and reputation. One symbol that conveys trust is “Verified by Visa®; which is a program that helps to prevent credit card fraud. It provides security by requiring passwords or codes, such as those sent by text message to a consumer’s cell phone before the transaction may be verified.

64) A

Identifying the company and complete contact information, listing positive customer testimonials, and including awards and certifications are all tactics which increase a brand’s digital reputation. Merely advising consumers which social platforms the company is active on does not achieve this.

65) D

Many methods can be used to increase consumer trust in a brand. This includes a free trial option, providing company and contact information, and detailing certifications and awards that are relevant to the industry.

66) A

Digital marketers can use a number of privacy and security symbols to build trust and reputation.

The HTTPS designation in the website address along with the associated lock symbol builds trust among consumers who may feel safer conducting transactions online when they see the HTTPS designation.

67) B

Brand24 offers an online reputation management service through which mentions of a brand across various digital channels can be tracked and reported.

68) C

Some brands make the mistake of responding too aggressively to consumers who provide negative feedback or negative reviews. Before responding, it may be prudent to take a breath and formulate a thoughtful response. A good management strategy will be to determine who will respond, what they will respond to, how soon they will respond, and the tone and voice that will be used.

69) C

Brand sentiment, brand mentions, and net promoter score are analytics used in understanding digital brand, trust, and reputation.

70) D

Brand sentiment is how consumers feel about a brand, or their attitude toward it. It can be measured through different possible tools. Repustate offers a Brand Sentiment Analysis Tool that provides sentiment trends and an overall sentiment analytic (positive, neutral, or negative).

71) C

Brand mentions measures consumer references to a brand in online settings.

72) A

Brand mentions measures consumer references to a brand in online settings.

73) B

The net promotor score (NPS) is an analytic that measures the extent to which favorable brand impressions exceed unfavorable ones. It reflects customers’ experience and is of relevance to brands, trust, and reputation.

74) C

The net promotor score (NPS) is an analytic that measures the extent to which favorable brand impressions exceed unfavorable ones. It reflects customers’ experience and is of relevance to brands, trust, and reputation. The NPS will range between –100 (lowest, meaning all detractors) and +100 (highest, meaning all promoters). The higher the NPS, the better.

75) D

The net promotor score (NPS) is an analytic that measures the extent to which favorable brand impressions exceed unfavorable ones. The NPS will range between –100 (lowest, meaning all detractors) and +100 (highest, meaning all promoters).

76) Essay

Digital identity often involves a story of the digital brand and what it stands for, such as how a brand got to where it is and what that does for a consumer. For example, social media profiles, websites, and other digital assets inform a brand’s identity and help to build and sustain it.

Digital visibility is the extent to which consumers will see or be exposed to the brand through digital channels. Seeing a digital brand on search engines, in social media, and on blogs makes it visible.

Digital credibility is the trust that a consumer places on the brand in an online context.

This may be done through positive mobile app rankings, positive reviews, and the voice and tone used throughout its digital channels.

77) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should reference the following major points: Digital identity involves a story of the digital brand and what it stands for, such as how a brand got to where it is and what that does for a consumer.

Social media profiles, websites, and other digital assets inform a brand’s identity.

78) Essay

For a new organization, creating a digital brand can be paramount to its success. A newer small business may wish to establish a digital brand that can lead to digital consumers knowing and recognizing the brand and to enhanced online ordering. For organizations who are not visible online compared to their competition, an objective may be to build digital brand awareness.

Organizations will want to maintain their brand and the image it has gained, once established.

Because many consumers use digital channels to find information and products and to comparison shop, this has been problematic for some traditional brands. An objective for many brands is digital durability, which is the ability to make a brand last in an online world.

79) Essay

Digital durability is the ability to make a brand last in an online world. Organizations will want to maintain their brand and the image it has gained, once established.

Examples of brands high in digital durability include Coca Cola, Apple, and Amazon.

80) Essay 81) Essay

To develop credibility with consumers, some brands commit to certain causes and integrate these into their business model. However, simply hopping onto a movement just because it is popular in the media may look inauthentic.

For example, some brands supported the Black Lives Matter (BLM) movement, by promoting support for the African-American community through Tweets, ads, posts, and other means.

However, some critics have responded that such support is not representative of the leadership of these brands. Others question whether these brands really support the cause and seek evidence that they do. Others challenge that the brands have not put any financial support behind related causes.

Brands need to be careful with simply stating their support for a cause without authentically doing so in whichever way(s) might be appropriate.

82) Essay

Some brands make the mistake of responding too aggressively to consumers who provide negative feedback or negative reviews. Before responding, it may be prudent to take a breath and formulate a thoughtful response. At the same time, responding too slowly can also create further commentary or upset an already irate consumer. Organizations should consider carefully before deleting negative reviews, as censorship damages brand credibility.

Another action to avoid is the unethical practice of posting fake reviews.

Additionally, having public relations personnel review the content of a response can be helpful.

It always pays to respond professionally and address consumers’ concerns with an honest response.

83) Essay

Brand sentiment is how consumers feel about a brand, or their attitude toward it. It can be measured through different possible tools, some of which break down comments and sentiment by topic. Brand reputation scores enable brands to understand how consumers interact with their brand and even get insights from specific messages and surveys. This information can help inform a brand strategy and find gaps that need to be filled.

Brands may use brand-sentiment information to adapt, adjust, and even respond.

84) Essay

The net promotor score (NPS) is an analytic that measures the extent to which favorable brand impressions exceed unfavorable ones. In a one-question survey, customers are asked to rate a brand (from 0 to 10). Those who rate a 9 or 10 are considered promoters and are considered loyal customers. Those who give a 7 or 8 rating are considered passive customers. Those who have rated the brand between 0 to 6 are considered detractors.

The formula for NPS is the percentage of promoters minus the percentage of detractors. To calculate the percentages needed for that formula, digital marketers add up the number of promoters, divide the number of promoters by the total number of responses, and multiply by 100. They repeat that process for the number of detractors. Then, they subtract the number of detractors from the number of promoters.

85) Essay

The NPS will range between –100 (lowest, meaning all detractors) and +100 (highest, meaning all promoters). The higher the NPS, the better.

Chapter 11: Digital Marketing Legal, Ethical, Privacy, and Security Considerations 849)

New and emerging technologies continue to change the legal framework for digital marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

850)

The CAN-SPAM Act is an example of case law which impacts digital marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

851)

Digital marketing activity which is considered deceptive is unethical but not unlawful. ⊚ true ⊚ false

852)

Snapchat’s rules for placing of digital ad content are a type of contract. ⊚ true ⊚ false

853)

Because of its complex technical nature, mobile platform accessibility is not subject to provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act. ⊚ true ⊚ false

854)

A high level of clickbait leading to an organization’s website represents an ethical dilemma for digital marketers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

855)

To demonstrate the highest ethical standards, it’s recommended that terms and conditions for product, website, and other disclaimers be displayed in the exact detailed legal language which applies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

856)

When digitally marketing to an international audience, marketers should take into account laws in all countries where it will appear. ⊚ true ⊚ false

857)

Organizations are legally liable for digital content only in their country of origin. ⊚ true ⊚ false

858)

Digital marketing security includes protecting consumer data from criminal use. ⊚ true ⊚ false

859)

Personally identifiable information (PII) is sometimes referred to as personal data or confidential data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

860)

861)

Malware is software that helps protect consumer data from unauthorized access. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Digital brand managers should be aware that brand reputation can be harmed by phishing attacks instigated by other parties. ⊚ true ⊚ false

862)

Cybersecurity attacks are occurrences always originating from outside the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

863)

The Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act includes provisions for requiring parental consent to collect information about children aged 17 and under. ⊚ true ⊚ false

864)

Digital marketers must adhere to federal statutes regarding security and privacy, but cannot be expected to know or follow individual state regulations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

865)

It’s good business practice to collect all possible data from online customers, whether or not it is needed for marketing purposes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

866)

Giving consumers choices over the data a firm collects about them can enhance the trust they associate with the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

867)

Purchasing all software and system updates is part of the legally-defined security parameters which firms doing business in the United States must adhere to for all technology they use. ⊚ true ⊚ false

868)

A differential privacy approach is one way that may help to protect consumer privacy and security. ⊚ true ⊚ false

869)

Which statement accurately describes today’s digital marketing legal framework?

A) It continues to develop in response to new and emerging technologies.

B) It aligns exactly with the digital marketing ethical framework.

C) It is consistent across all fifty states.

D) It is regulated similarly everywhere in the world.

870)

Digital marketing ethics refers to A) business strategies B) court interpretations C) federal laws D) moral judgments

that guide marketers’ actions.

871)

Of the following contexts influencing digital marketers, which tends to be the most subjective?

A) state regulations B) ethics C) federal legislation D) case law

872)

The strictures of case law impacting digital marketing are determined by A) business leaders.

B) courts.

C) regulatory bodies.

D) Congress.

873)

The CAN-SPAM Act and the Federal Trade Commission Act (FTC Act) are examples of A) court decisions.

B) federal (U.S.) legislation.

C) case law.

D) international regulations.

874)

What standard must guide marketers regarding free speech and digital content?

A) All online speech is unrestricted under First Amendment protections.

B) Online content is relatively unregulated and not subject to personal ethics.

C) Creatively pushing free speech boundaries is encouraged and expected in marketing practice.

D) Any deceptive acts or practices affecting commerce are unlawful.

875)

According to current FTC guidelines, any marketing claims related to health, safety or performance must be A) supported by evidence.

B) reasonable to the average consumer.

C) avoided at all times.

D) within plausible community standards.

876)

The Supreme Court case Facebook Inc. v. Duguid examined consumer privacy violations related to text messaging in violation of A) the Federal Trade Commission Act. B) the Consumer Review Fairness Act. C) the Telephone Consumer Protection Act. D) the CAN-SPAM Act.

877)

As part of a digital campaign, Sony invited well-known online gamers to try its new virtual reality headsets and to post images or videos of them having fun with the equipment.

Participants received compensation each time a consumer viewed their posts. What FTC standard applies to this marketing strategy?

A) The relationship between Sony and the gamers must be disclosed to consumers.

B) The posts cannot exceed 30 seconds in length.

C) The gamers must disclose the total amount of compensation they receive.

D) The content must be accessible to the average consumer.

878)

A word, name, design, or expression that distinguishes products or services of a particular source from others is known as a A) logo.

B) copyright.

C) patent.

D) trademark.

879)

What legislation helps protect trademarksused traditionally and digitally?

A) Digital Millennium Copyright Act B) Lanham Act C) CAN-SPAM Act of 2003 D) Anticybersquatting Consumer Protection Act

880)

When consumers see an Instagram post showing someone drinking coffee captioned America runs on Dunkin’, they know it is referring to the Dunkin’ Donuts restaurant chain.

America runs on Dunkin’ is an example of a A) brand name.

B) trademark.

C) logo.

D) copyright.

881)

The unauthorized use of a trademark or one that is similar to a famous trademark used in a way which damages its uniqueness is referred to as of trademark.

A) negation B) refutation C) dilution D) repudiation

882)

Original literary, dramatic, and musical creations can be registered and protected from unauthorized use by others, including digital marketers. This legal protection is known as a A) copyright.

B) label.

C) brand.

D) trademark.

883)

You are creating a website for your new event planning business. To give potential customers an idea of the services offered, you find online images of beautiful weddings and other events taken by well-known photographers, and include these on the site. Using these images likely an example of A) trademark infringement.

B) public domain use.

C) copyright violation.

D) fair use.

884)

Assuming the user does not own the images in question, which situation is most likely to fit the criteria for fair use of a copyrighted work without explicit permission from the copyright holder?

A) images being commented upon in a news report B) images in an online ad C) images in a social media post D) images in a company blog

885)

Original works that are now not protected by copyright law, and can be used by digital marketers without permission, are called A) fair use.

B) public domain.

C) licensable.

D) public access.

886)

Creative Commons is a nonprofit organization established to A) protect the rights of digital creators.

B) permit sharing of non-copyright content.

C) pursue violators of trademarked materials.

D) permit sharing of copyrighted content.

887)

All marketers must be aware of guidelines and legal restrictions detailed in the Americans with Disabilities Act. These apply to digital content in relation to A) accuracy.

B) defamation.

C) accessibility.

D) reliability.

888)

_ to ensure that certain FTC and other

889)

The best way for organizations to ensure legal compliance in their marketing approach is

Digital marketing content must always be relevant standards are met.

A) original and creative B) brief and simple C) specific and detailed D) fair and truthful

to A) B) C) D)

890)

891)

work toward ethical compliance. consult a lawyer in all applicable jurisdictions. read about regulations in their country of origin. strive to meet all universally applicable accessibility standards.

According to FTC guidelines, proper disclosures related to marketing claims must be A) clear and conspicuous to consumers.

B) accessible via links.

C) provided in writing upon request.

D) available for FTC review.

When Sharna purchases some echinacea-based tablets online, she sees a notification stating that the product is a dietary supplement used to soothe common cold symptoms, and not an FDA-approved drug. This notification is an example of A) an ADA standard.

B) a trademark.

C) a disclosure.

D) a marketing tactic.

892)

Both ethically and legally, the best language for contracts, disclosures, or disclaimers related to digital marketing content is A) legalese.

B) complicated.

C) technical.

D) simple.

893)

In terms of ethical and legal considerations, what is a good strategy for marketers when developing new digital content?

A) Ask for forgiveness, not permission.

B) Create policies and review all content, images and copy before using.

C) If it is legal, it will be considered ethical.

D) Resolve any legal or ethical challenges as they arise.

894)

A consumer’s right to know how the marketing information and data about them are collected and used refers to digital marketing A) security.

B) content.

C) privacy.

D) ethics.

895)

Protecting digital marketing systems and their data from breach of confidentiality, violation of integrity, and loss of availability is a critical part of A) digital marketing security.

B) consumer privacy.

C) marketing ethics.

D) search optimization.

896)

Malik’s team works hard to prevent his company’s online systems and customer data from being accessed by bad actors including criminals. They also ensure that individuals within the company who are authorized to access these are able to consistently do so for organizational purposes. Malik’s team specializes in A) cybersecurity.

B) reputation management.

C) digital privacy.

D) ethical compliance.

897)

Protecting customers’ private information that the firm has collected, such as their credit card numbers, is a security issue related to A) loss of availability.

B) breach of confidentiality.

C) unauthorized tracking.

D) violation of integrity.

898)

The software used to maliciously encode data on systems so that it cannot be used or accessed by the firm which originally collected it, and such that a reward may be requested to potentially regain access is known as A) encryption software.

B) data falsification.

C) a virus.

D) ransomware.

899)

Your grandmother has just received an email asking for confirmation of her credit card number. It states that there have been several large purchases today. The email seems to originate from a well-known retailer, but does not contain a phone number or contact person.

You advise your grandmother that this is likely a type of A) ransomware.

B) phishing attack.

C) insider threat.

D) man-in-the-middle attack.

900)

You search for products using your mobile device while turning off settings and refusing permission to share your data and search results. Despite this, you still see retargeting ads and promotions for products you searched for on your mobile phone. In this situation, you have probably experienced what type of security breech?

A) a phishing attack B) social engineering C) malware D) unauthorized tracking

901)

Notions of privacy contained in the A) First B) Fourth C) Fifth D) Tenth

Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.

902)

What type of safeguards related to digital marketing are provided to consumers under the Federal Trade Commission Act? A) protections against sensitive patient health information disclosure B) full explanations of information sharing practices C) restrictions related to marketing to children without parental consent D) protections against unfair/deceptive privacy and security promises

903)

Which act specifies that digital marketers must obtain parental permission before marketing to those under age 13?

A) Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act B) Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act C) Gramm-Leach-Biley Act D) Fair Credit Reporting Act

904)

The Gramm-Leach-Biley Act regulates information-sharing practices and security measures for A) financial institutions.

B) the health care industry.

C) educational institutions.

D) the retail industry.

905)

Which state has recently enacted the CPRA, legislation allowing consumers to stop businesses from “sharing personal information” about them and to correct inaccurate information?

A) Colorado B) Connecticut C) North Carolina D) California

906)

For digital marketers, what is the most essential feature of the European Union General Data Protection Regulation?

A) It applies to any organization that processes personal data of persons in the EU. B) Many fines have been issued based on violations of the GDPR. C) It suggests that digital marketers must regularly evaluate their security measures.

D) Its stipulations apply to many digital marketing activities.

907)

Which has its own version of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) as well as a commissioner’s office for regulating information including data privacy?

A) France B) Germany C) Spain D) United Kingdom

908)

The ISO 27001 standard published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is related to A) quality control.

B) digital accessibility.

C) security.

D) deceptive claims.

909)

The privacy practices established by the Digital Advertising Alliance are described as A) international legal standards.

B) federal legal standards.

C) mandatory payment collection guidelines.

D) self-regulatory principles.

910)

When Paige browses an online site showing vacation rentals in Florida, trackers collect data about her search history. Suddenly, Paige notices ads showing all types of Florida vacations when she is online. This is an example of using A) third-party cookies.

B) pseudonymization.

C) malware.

D) deceptive activity.

911)

Text that is stored on a consumer’s device and which collects data to be used by other parties is known as A) ransomware.

B) customer management software.

C) third-party cookies.

D) sensitive information.

912)

A trend among major players in the digital sphere, as demonstrated by Apple’s App Tracking Transparency protocol, is toward A) a cookieless world.

B) decreased consumer privacy.

C) greater deception in collecting information.

D) misusing consumer data.

913)

Digital marketers are more likely to obtain consent from consumers to collect their data when A) they exaggerate the benefits of providing it.

B) they guarantee it will not be used for marketing purposes.

C) they increase consumer perceived value.

D) they ask for it only when required by law.

914)

A first-party data strategy refers to A) gathering data from new, but not existing, customers.

B) purchasing data from affiliated organizations.

C) obtaining data only through explicit permission.

D) obtaining data directly from consumers or customers.

915)

when

916)

In digital marketing, what is evidence of consumer choice and control?

A) letting individual consumers know about and decide what is done with their data B) blocking all third-party cookies on a site C) providing consumers with a variety of payment and shipping options D) enabling website and app customization features

An organization can build relationships with its online customers by using tracking pixels.

A) hiding the evidence B) obtaining consent C) guaranteeing anonymity D) providing rebates

917)

Multi-factor authentication is a security feature which requires system access.

A) executive approval B) at least one nondigital method C) at least two methods D) a special ID

for obtaining

918)

When is the optimum time for digital marketers to implement security and privacy features to marketing software systems?

A) when sites are live to consumers B) during initial setup C) when sites are accessible by employees D) after beta testing

919)

It is recommended that organizations engaging in digital marketing implement which refers to recording events within systems and networks.

A) registering B) mapping C) logging D) enumerating

,

920)

What should be a basic feature of an organization’s privacy policy?

A) Guarantee 100% privacy and security of all data.

B) Spell out every aspect of the policy in legal language.

C) Avoid revealing potential marketing applications.

D) Outline what information is collected.

921)

Applying to commercial websites and online services, the California Online Privacy Protection Act (CalOPPA) is designed to safeguard A) the personal data of California residents.

B) the marketing data of California-based organizations.

C) the privacy of California state legislators.

D) the intellectual property of firms doing business in California.

922)

Data minimization is a data collection policy designed to A) reduce consumer engagement.

B) maximize data security and privacy.

C) increase consumer conversions.

D) lock out intruders when security violations occur.

923)

Google has used differential privacy as one approach to A) enhance consumer privacy.

B) profit from data sales to third parties.

C) protect itself from ransomware attacks.

D) collect additional data.

924)

Outline the basic requirements of the CAN-SPAM Act of 2003.

925)

Discuss balancing marketing tactics which may be legal, but are considered unethical by consumers. Include some ethical questions which digital marketers face.

926)

What must be considered when marketing to an international digital audience? Provide an example of a digital ad you view as inappropriate for a global audience.

927)

Define personally identifiable information (PII), including specific types of information this might involve.

928)

Describe an example of a phishing attack experienced by you or someone you know.

929)

How might emerging and new technologies lead to more privacy threats for consumers?

930)

Select and describe three digital security and privacy measures which might be considered “reasonable” for organizations engaging in digital marketing to implement. Who is involved in organizational security?

931)

What does security by design and privacy by design mean in digital marketing practice?

932)

What two basic security issues must be considered when using the services of third parties?

933)

How does a data minimization policy benefit an organization?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 1) TRUE

The legal and ethical framework for digital marketing has greatly evolved over the past years.

This is especially the case because of new and emerging technologies that are not contemplated by the law.

2) FALSE

The CAN-SPAM Act is an example of federal legislation—a written law codified by the federal legislative bodies of Congress.

3) FALSE

Digital marketing which is unfair or deceptive is unlawful. Deceptive activity is considered to be that which misleads consumers and affects the consumer’s decisions in relation to the product or service in question.

4) TRUE

Contract law regulates legally binding agreements between parties. Snapchat provides specific advertising rules. For example, advertisers must not infringe intellectual property of others, may not suggest that they are affiliated with Snapchat, must follow specific rules if they run promotions, and must respect “the laws and cultural norms” of the locations they target, among other rules.

5) FALSE

The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) prohibits discrimination based on a disability. All digital marketing content—including websites, emails, social media, and mobile apps—should be checked for accessibility, to avoid the potential for lawsuits. Mobile apps should be accessible through a screen reader, use of increased size of buttons or tap zones, and larger font sizes.

6) TRUE

Marketers must focus on selecting or creating images that will allure consumers without misleading them. Clickbait is headlines, images or videos that may convince consumers to click, only to find the content was not as initially portrayed.

7) FALSE

Digital marketers should not use complicated language for contracts, disclosures, or disclaimers.

Keeping it simple is usually the best approach from a legal perspective. For example, when creating terms and conditions for a website, digital marketers should write such information in plain English (or other language, if relevant), rather than in complicated technical or “legalese” (legal language).

8) TRUE

When marketing to an international digital audience, or targeting specific countries, digital marketers should consider local laws in all relevant countries. Organizations should take relevant legal advice.

9) FALSE

When marketing to an international digital audience, or targeting specific countries, digital marketers should consider local laws in all relevant countries.

10) TRUE

Digital marketing security (also called cybersecurity) is the protection of systems, devices, and consumer and customer data used in digital marketing from unauthorized access. Digital marketing security includes protection from criminal use, breach of confidentiality, violation of integrity, or the loss of availability.

11) TRUE

PII usually includes confidential information of consumers such as name, Social Security number, address, and a variety of other information that might be used to identify an individual.

It may be legally defined differently in different jurisdictions or may be named differently (such as personal data, personal information, or confidential data).

12) FALSE

Malware is malicious software that can be used to gain unlawful access to systems and data.

13) TRUE

A phishing attack occurs when an attacker uses email or other methods to trick consumers into providing confidential information. When this is done using a branded email that appears to come from a well-known brand, this can harm the reputation of the brand, which could lose the trust of the consumer.

14) FALSE

Organizations should also be aware of insider threats which involve authorized individuals within an organization using that access to launch attacks or steal data. For example, a disgruntled employee with access to confidential information may decide to launch such an attack. Cybersecurity attacks may also happen from outside the organization.

15) FALSE

If marketing digitally to children, defined as those under age 13, the federal Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA) applies. Website operators that have “actual knowledge” that they collect children’s information must get consent from a parent before they collect the child’s information.

16) FALSE

State laws are also relevant to privacy and security in digital marketing. In the context of the various state laws, digital marketers should implement relevant and reasonable measures in order to protect consumer information. They should also consult resources that track the various new state laws—as more and more states are enacting such laws—to ensure they are complying with those relevant to their digital marketing activities.

17) FALSE

Recommended strategies for digital marketers using tracking pixels include obtaining consent, using only those that are needed (including only those relevant to target markets), and allowing consumers to avoid tracking by providing options of not being tracked, such as opt-out mechanisms.

18) TRUE

Consumers who feel the need to be in control of their data and information may be more inclined to share it if they feel they have been provided control. By providing choice and control, digital marketers can enhance trust and consumers may associate with the brand further.

19) FALSE

Basic measures such as strong passwords, keeping software and systems updated and patched, and employing security software are considered minimal and reasonable security measures.

20) TRUE

An approach called differential privacy can enhance privacy while still obtaining insights from consumers in order to increase value provided to them. Differential privacy applies mathematical concepts to privacy by changing some information within a database that will not statistically have significant impact but will help maintain privacy.

21) A

The legal and ethical framework for digital marketing has greatly evolved over the past years.

This is especially the case because of new and emerging technologies that are not contemplated by the law. The digital marketing legal framework includes the rules, regulations, and law that govern digital marketing activity. These parts of the framework may differ in different countries and states.

22) D

Digital marketing ethics are the moral judgments that digital marketers make when engaging in digital marketing.

23) B

Digital marketing ethics are the moral judgments that digital marketers make when engaging in digital marketing.

24) B

Case law is the law made by courts through their case decisions as they interpret legislation.

25) B

Federal (U.S.) legislation is the written laws codified by federal legislative bodies of Congress, such as the CAN-SPAM Act and the Federal Trade Commission Act. 26) D

While there is a right to free speech under the First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution, this freedom is not unlimited. Digital marketing which is unfair or deceptive is unlawful. Digital marketers should be aware of the FTC rules and abide by the requirements.

27) A

Digital marketers should be aware of the FTC rules and abide by the requirements. For example, specific types of claims—such as those that relate to “health, safety, or performance”—need to be substantiated, which means supported by evidence.

28) C

Under the Telephone Consumer Protection Act (TCPA), there are restrictions on using what is called, an “automatic telephone dialing system.” In the Supreme Court case of Facebook Inc. v.

Duguid, Facebook sent a text message to one Noah Duguid; the issue in this case was whether the text message platform used was an “automatic telephone dialing system” under the TCPA law.

29) A

Disclosure is telling digital consumers of any “material relationship” between an influencer and a brand. For example, if a brand pays (or provides complementary products or services to) a digital influencer to endorse their brand, or the influencer is employed by or has personal or family connections with the brand, these relationships should be disclosed. The disclosure rule extends to likes, pins, tags, and other ways of endorsing a brand.

30) D

A trademark is a word, name, design, or expression that distinguishes products or services of a particular source from others. Under U.S. trademark law, it is “any word, name, symbol, or design, or any combination thereof, used in commerce to identify and distinguish the goods of one manufacturer or seller from those of another and to indicate the source of the goods.

31) B

The Lanham Act, 1946 (as amended in 1996) applies to trademarks that are “used in commerce.”

For example, if a mark is being used to market goods or services, it will likely be considered being used in commerce.

32) B

A trademark is a word, name, design, or expression that distinguishes products or services of a particular source from others. Under U.S. trademark law, it is “any word, name, symbol, or design, or any combination thereof, used in commerce to identify and distinguish the goods of one manufacturer or seller from those of another and to indicate the source of the goods.

33) C

Dilution of trademark results from the unauthorized use of a trademark or one that is similar to a famous trademark in a way that is likely to weaken the uniqueness of or harm the perception of the trademark.

34) A

Copyright is a type of intellectual property protection that protects original works of authorship when an author fixes the work in a tangible form of expression, such as documenting it on paper or electronically. Copyright can cover works of authorship such as original “literary, dramatic, musical, architectural, cartographic, choreographic, pantomimic, pictorial, graphic, sculptural, and audiovisual creations.”

35) C

Copyright can cover works of authorship such as original “literary, dramatic, musical, architectural, cartographic, choreographic, pantomimic, pictorial, graphic, sculptural, and audiovisual creations.” Taking images from the Internet without determining the legal ability to use it is dangerous.

36) A

The Digital Millennium Copyright Act (DMCA) of 1998 offers added legal protection in order to encourage owners of copyright to distribute their works digitally. Fair use of copyrighted works allows the use of a copyrighted work under certain conditions without permission from the copyright holder. Fair use is permitted under certain conditions based on “freedom of expression” principles, but this is limited to situations such as “criticism, comment, news reporting, teaching, scholarship, and research” considered on a case-by-case basis.

37) B

The public domain consists of works that are now not protected by copyright law and may generally be used without permission.

38) D

The nonprofit organization Creative Commons helps to permit the sharing of copyrighted content by providing legal mechanisms (licenses) to do so. The organization offers various licenses through which content creators can offer certain usage rights to the public, while still preserving their copyright.

39) C

The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) prohibits discrimination based on a disability. All digital marketing content—including websites, emails, social media, and mobile apps—should be checked for accessibility, to avoid the potential for lawsuits.

40) D

To ensure that FTC and other relevant standards are met, digital marketing should be truthful and fair. Digital marketing should not be dishonest, false, or unfair.

41) B

Digital marketers may employ key strategies and tactics to abide by, address, and comply with legal and ethical considerations. While specific strategies and tactics may differ on an international level, some are widely applicable. Digital marketers should consult a licensed lawyer in the jurisdiction in which they have digital marketing activities to ensure their activities comply with all relevant law.

42) A

Digital marketers and influencers should ensure proper disclosure when required. Disclosures should be “clear and conspicuous” to avoid digital marketing from being unfair or deceptive under FTC disclosure guidelines.

43) C

Digital marketers and influencers should ensure proper disclosure when required. Disclosures should be repeated in videos or when live-streaming so that consumers who do not view the whole video or live-stream will still receive the disclosure information. Disclosures should be “clear and conspicuous” to avoid digital marketing from being unfair or deceptive under FTC disclosure guidelines. Sometimes, specific types of disclaimers may be necessary under law, such as for some medical products.

44) D

Digital marketers should not use complicated language for contracts, disclosures, or disclaimers.

Keeping it simple is usually the best approach from a legal perspective. Use of simple language will allow for a greater chance of consumers understanding the terms. It also demonstrates that marketers have not tried to unethically bury important terms in technical or legal language.

45) B

Brands should create policies that cover digital marketing rules and ethical guidelines. These policies may include various legal and ethical considerations, including how/when to incorporate accessibility, when disclaimers are needed, and even details such as font sizes. A review of all content, images, and copy should be conducted before launching digital marketing activity.

46) C

Digital marketing privacy is the right to know how information and data collected through digital marketing are collected and used.

47) A

Digital marketing security is the protection of systems, devices, and consumer and customer data used in digital marketing from unauthorized access. Digital marketing security includes protection from criminal use, breach of confidentiality, violation of integrity, or the loss of availability.

48) A

Digital marketing security (also called cybersecurity) is the protection of systems, devices, and consumer and customer data used in digital marketing from unauthorized access. Digital marketing security includes protection from criminal use, breach of confidentiality, violation of integrity, or the loss of availability.

49) B

Digital marketers must work to protect the security of data and information so that those who are not authorized (including would-be criminals) cannot access it. Also, data must be protected from being released to parties who should not have it, causing confidentiality to be lost.

50) D

Ransomware involves a kind of malware that is used to encrypt files on devices (encoding them in a format that is not readable), such that the files cannot be accessed.

51) B

A phishing attack occurs when an attacker uses email or other methods to trick consumers into providing confidential information such as Social Security numbers and bank details. When this is done using a branded email that appears to come from a well-known brand, this can harm the reputation of the brand, which could lose the trust of the consumer.

52) D

Unauthorized tracking is the collecting of data when consent has not been obtained. Digital marketers should be aware of the potential for data collection on an unauthorized basis and take steps to prevent it.

53) B

Although the U.S. Constitution does not explicitly state the word “privacy,” the Fourth Amendment provides a reasonable expectation of privacy. It states the “right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated.” Some call it “the right to be left alone.”

54) D

Under the Federal Trade Commission Act, privacy and security statements or promises must not be unfair or deceptive.

55) B

If marketing digitally to children, defined as those under age 13, the federal Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA) applies. Website operators that have “actual knowledge” that they collect children’s information must get consent from a parent before they collect the child’s information.

56) A

Financial institutions have to explain “information-sharing practices” and “safeguard sensitive data” under the Gramm-Leach-Biley Act (GLBA). Financial institutions and some creditors must comply with the Red Flags Rule which provides for “how to develop, implement, and administer an identity theft prevention program” under the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA).

57) D

The California Consumer Privacy Rights Act (CPRA) in effect from January 1, 2023, enhances privacy law in California to allow consumers to stop businesses “from sharing personal information,” to correct information about them that is not accurate, and to limiting their use of that personal information.

58) A

The European Union General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) applies to organizations that process personal data of persons in the EU even if not based there. Therefore, this law applies to EU organizations and to organizations who specifically target services to individuals in the EU and process their data.

59) D

The UK has its own version of the GDPR known as the UK GDPR. The UK Information Commissioner’s Office (ICO) regulates data privacy and enforces rules pertaining to obtaining a copy of consumer data, consent, and other privacy and security-related information rules. (Recall that the United Kingdom has officially exited the EU.) 60) C

The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) publishes international standards, some of which are privacy- and security-related. For example, it published the ISO 27001 which is a standard that covers information security management and includes measures organizations can use to enhance their security. Likewise, the ISO 27701 covers privacy information management to enhance privacy measures within an organization.

61) D

The Digital Advertising Alliance (DAA) is an association that seeks to establish responsible privacy practices for digital advertising and publishes self-regulatory principles for digital advertisers.

62) A

Third-party cookies are text that gets stored on a consumer’s device and that collect data that may be used by third parties. For example, when a consumer visits a website, it may place thirdparty cookies on the consumer’s device. These help digital advertisers to track the browsing activity of consumers and use that information to target consumers.

63) C

Third-party cookies are text that gets stored on a consumer’s device and that collect data that may be used by third parties. For example, when a consumer visits a website, it may place thirdparty cookies on the consumer’s device. These help digital advertisers to track the browsing activity of consumers and use that information to target consumers.

64) A

There is much talk about a cookieless world. The decline in the use of third-party cookies has been announced by major organizations. Google’s approach to web browser privacy includes stopping the use of cookies in the Chrome browser. Apple’s new consent protocol called App Tracking Transparency (ATT) is another example of the move to stop using cookies.

65) C

It is not enough just to ask for consent without also showing what the consumer will get in return. By increasing the consumer perceived value (CPV) digital marketers my make consumers more willing to “give up” their privacy and provide consent.

66) D

A first-party data strategy involves obtaining data from consumers and customers, including data in CRMs, subscriptions, accounts, databases, and social media.

67) B

While tracking can provide huge benefits for consumers by providing them with relevant digital marketing, it is an ongoing concern for some consumers. Some recommended strategies for digital marketers using tracking pixels include obtaining consent, using only those that are needed (including only those relevant to target markets), and allowing consumers to avoid tracking by providing options of not being tracked, such as opt-out mechanisms.

68) A

Digital marketers should provide consumer choice and control—options that let consumers choose between data-collection alternatives and select what is done with their information.

69) C

Having multi-factor authentication (MFA) can help to prevent privacy and security incidents. It is the requirement to have at least two methods of obtaining access to a system, such as requiring a digital marketer to provide a password and a code sent to their device via text message in order to gain access to a marketing system.

70) B

Employing privacy by design (PbD) and security by design (SbD) means incorporating privacy and security by default from the start and not simply adding it on later. Software developers in organizations are advised to build in privacy and security when they develop such software.

When digital marketers are setting up or contracting with third parties to implement marketing software and systems, privacy and security should be at the forefront of the setup and implementation and should not be an afterthought.

71) C

Logging is a method of recording events that take place within a system and networks. In other words, organizations will collect logs of such activity and should review these logs to see if they find any unusual activity that needs further investigation.

72) D

Organizations cannot guarantee 100% privacy and security. But they should clearly state what data is collected and what is done with it.

73) A

The California Online Privacy Protection Act (CalOPPA) requires “commercial websites and online services” that collect personally identifiable information of California consumers to have a privacy policy.

74) B

A key principle in privacy and security is data minimization which involves collecting only that data that is needed and no more than that. Doing so will allow digital marketers to collect what they need for specific purposes, but not have extra data and information that was never needed or used and may be subject to a privacy or security breach.

75) A

Apple and Google have used an approach called differential privacy to attempt to enhance privacy while still obtaining insights from consumers in order to increase value provided to them.

76) Essay

The CAN-SPAM Act of 2003 applies to all email where the “primary purpose” is for “commercial advertisement or promotion,” and its application is not limited only to spam, junk, or unwanted marketing mail. The requirements of this law include: Email headers (From/TO) must be correct and valid (as opposed to “false or misleading”).

Subject lines must not mislead.

A valid postal address must be provided.

Opt-out options and information must be provided.

77) Essay

Ethics sometimes requires digital marketers to look beyond the legal requirements and address challenges that arise. Having guidelines is always helpful to guide digital marketers in their activities.

Consumers may consider certain aggressive digital marketing tactics as unethical. Similarly, some consumers may consider constant or extensive tracking, even if legal, as invasive.

Likewise, consumers may consider as unethical, or at least annoying, constant retargeting based on a single search of a product.

Some ethical challenges occur in specific industries. For example, digital marketing pertaining to electronic health (eHealth) products need to be carefully considered against ethical challenges.

Digital marketers need to balance what is legally required with ethical considerations such as whether consumers really understand the services being offered. Likewise, for online financial services and related products, exaggerated statements of potential for profitability and financial success may not be ethical.

Ethical questions for digital marketers: Even if meeting legal guidelines, are there different ethical standards or considerations globally or locally?

Are we digitally marketing something that is harmful?

Is there bias in our digital marketing that we can remove?

Are we unnecessarily tracking consumers even if consent was obtained?

Are we editing images and content in order to present them as something they are not?

Are we presenting clickbait?

Are we engaging in manipulative or overly aggressive tactics?

Are we inappropriately targeting specific digital consumers such as vulnerable consumers?

Are we giving value to the consumer?

Is the purpose of our digital marketing solely to harm competitors?

Are we being clear and transparent about our claims?

78) Essay

When marketing to an international digital audience, digital marketers should consider local laws in all relevant countries. It is also important to consider global ethical factors and to be sensitive to cultural considerations. These can help to avoid legal liability as well as ethical blunders in international environments.

Student examples will vary.

79) Essay

PII usually includes confidential information of consumers such as name, Social Security number, address, and a variety of other information that might be used to identify an individual.

An example would be your full name, date of birth, and Social Security number. Together, these could be used to identify a consumer.

80) Essay

A phishing attack occurs when an attacker uses email or other methods to trick consumers into providing confidential information such as Social Security numbers and bank details. Often, phishing emails will be accompanied by brand logos and trademarks to confuse the consumer.

Student examples will vary.

81) Essay

Emerging and new technologies bring along with them new threats in the realm of privacy and security. An Internet of Things (IoT) environment, where many things are connected to the Internet, can open the way for many security and privacy concerns.

For example, within a smart home there are many things connected to the Internet and to each other. If the home includes a smart bed, smart appliances, and smart toilets, it may track a consumer’s sleep behavior, appliance use, and toilet usage. This threat may include confidential information about the consumer’s living habits or even private health information.

82) Essay

Student examples will vary, but will include some of the following concepts: In order to combat against common privacy and security attacks, organizations should employ at least reasonable privacy and security. Doing so usually involves a partnership among marketing, IT security folks, and various other departments across an organization.

Basic measures such as strong passwords, keeping software and systems updated and patched, and employing security software (such as Norton, McAfee, Bitdefender, Trend Micro, etc.) are all important.

A strategy of minimizing access—limiting who has access to what data and systems to a needed-only basis—should be employed.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) can help to prevent privacy and security incidents. It is the requirement to have at least two methods of obtaining access to a system, such as requiring a digital marketer to provide a password and a code sent to their device via text message in order to gain access to a marketing system.

Employing privacy by design (PbD) and security by design (SbD) means incorporating privacy and security by default from the start and not simply adding it on later.

Logging is a method of recording events that take place within a system and networks. In other words, organizations will collect logs of such activity and should review these logs to see if they find any unusual activity that needs further investigation.

83) Essay

In digital marketing, employing privacy by design (PbD) and security by design (SbD) mean incorporating privacy and security by default from the start and not simply adding it on later within digital marketing systems.

Software developers of digital marketing software in organizations are advised to build in privacy and security when they develop such software. When digital marketers are setting up or contracting with third parties to implement marketing software and systems, privacy and security should be at the forefront of the setup and implementation and should not be an afterthought.

Features and settings should be configured to maximize privacy and security from the beginning.

84) Essay

Digital marketers will often employ the services or subscribe to software of third parties.

1. It is important to verify the third-party’s privacy and security processes.

2. It is also important to confirm whether they comply with applicable legislation.

85) Essay

A key principle in privacy and security is data minimization which involves collecting only that data that is needed and no more than that. Doing so will allow digital marketers to collect what they need for specific purposes, but not have extra data and information that was never needed or used and may be subject to a privacy or security breach.

Chapter 12: Trends and the Future of Digital Marketing 934)

Voice-based search is expected to continue growing in consumer popularity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

935)

FindLaw and Zillow are types of vertical search platforms. ⊚ true ⊚ false

936)

There are no digital marketing opportunities available on vertical search platforms. ⊚ true ⊚ false

937)

At this time, digital customer relationship management cannot successfully be automated. ⊚ true ⊚ false

938)

A significant amount of software used by digital marketers is provided to consumers as a service through the cloud. ⊚ true ⊚ false

939)

Experts predict that we are moving toward an Internet of Everything (IoE) environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false 940) The trend is toward growth of first- and third-party cookies by major organizations such as Google. ⊚ true ⊚ false

941)

When you order a meal on your phone using the McDonald’s app, and then pick up your food in the drive-through lane, this is an example of a phygital experience. ⊚ true ⊚ false

942)

Digital marketing is taking place when you are watching a smart television. ⊚ true

⊚ false

943)

Consumers engaging in open online brand forums with unlimited participants are part of a digital campfire community. ⊚ true ⊚ false

944)

Augmented reality product experiences, such as being able to view a chair from every angle and “see” it in your own living room, can advance customer conversion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

945)

The metaverse represents the future version of the Internet, but it is not yet in use. ⊚ true ⊚ false

946)

AI technologies help run chatbots, such as customer service robots that pop up and answer consumer questions online. ⊚ true ⊚ false 947) Digital twins are a concept restricted to online gaming use. ⊚ true ⊚ false

948)

For best results, it’s recommended that digital marketers embrace all new technologies as soon as they are available. ⊚ true ⊚ false

949)

Voice search optimization takes consumer habits into account as well as their actual words. ⊚ true ⊚ false

950)

A brand embracing the Internet of Things environment can provide increased value to consumers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

951)

Experts suggest automating every aspect of digital marketing. This maximizes consumer engagement and increases return on investment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

952)

Consumer privacy remains a top concern in digital marketing activities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

953)

The importance of consumer data will likely decline in future digital marketing. ⊚ true ⊚ false In the near future, why is voice search expected to overtake text-based search?

A) It costs less to implement.

B) Consumers value its convenience.

C) It produces fewer results.

D) Consumers believe it delivers more accurate results.

954)

955)

As a salesperson on the road all day, Tony uses a virtual assistant in his car to map out his driving route, find restaurants for client meetings, and place grocery orders on his way home.

Tony’s experience helps explain the growth in in marketing.

A) digital marketing as-a-service B) vertical search C) hyper-personalization D) voice search

956)

Carla and her partner are looking for a new home. They begin the process of locating available properties in their price range by accessing the Trulia and Zillow online real estate platforms. This is an example of A) vertical search.

B) search optimization.

C) voice search.

D) mainstream search.

957)

Britt works for a chain of affordably-priced Caribbean resorts. As a marketer, she learns that she’ll reach more customers searching for last-minute vacation ideas by focusing online marketing efforts on A) general search platforms such as Google.

B) smart-home environments.

C) vertical search platforms such as KAYAK. D) digital campfire environments.

958)

A vertical search is one which involves A) the dark web.

B) highly technical or academic content.

C) non-commercial or government sites.

D) a specific industry or type of online content.

959)

Based on what we know, marketing automation is expected to A) decrease B) disappear C) increase D) remain stable

960)

The growing use of hyper-personalization in digital marketing relies on incorporating A) automation.

B) blockchain.

C) smart products.

D) third-party cookies.

in the future.

961)

Yui receives a text message that she left something in her cart after she had been shopping online that morning. The message contains a picture of the item, and a link to add it to her previous order. This is an example of what digital marketing trend?

A) digital marketing as-a-service B) smart-home environment C) hyper-personalization D) vertical search

Devon, an avid collector of college team gear, receives an online “catalog” displaying dozens of basketball shoes, warm-ups, and jerseys. He is surprised to see that all the products listed are available in his size and feature his favorite teams. This company is using to target Devon.

A) hyper-personalization B) customer relationship management C) augmented reality D) smart devices

962)

963)

A new restaurant signs up for a customer relationship management system. The system tracks customer spending, and issues loyalty rewards automatically. It also emails customers with personalized birthday offers. What marketing trend is in use here?

A) phygital convergence B) cloud-based software C) smart environment D) agile project management

964)

A family-owned brewery wants to enhance its image with local college students by engaging in social media marketing, design and content, but it does not have the in-house talent to accomplish this. In this situation, the brewery needs to investigate A) digital marketing as-a-service.

B) vertical search.

C) agile project management.

D) automated segmentation.

965)

Which common consumer product is part of the growing Internet of Things?

A) a microwave oven B) a smartwatch C) a clothes steamer D) a phone charger

966)

The Internet of Things refers to items, devices, or products which are A) powered by means other than electricity.

B) accessible from more than one device.

C) connected to the Internet and used by a consumer.

D) displayed, marketed, or purchased online.

967)

What digital marketing trend is predicted in the future Internet of Things (IoT) environment?

A) Smart “things” will be the marketing target.

B) Digital marketing will decline in importance.

C) Marketing tactics will become universal.

D) Targeted marketing will become obsolete.

968)

From a digital marketing perspective, another way of looking at an Internet of Everything (IoE) environment is that A) marketing is no longer important.

B) “everything” becomes a consumer.

C) AI will replace marketing strategy.

D) human consumers decrease in value.

969)

What does industry’s movement toward a cookieless world likely mean for marketers?

A) Personalization will decline and then fade away.

B) Consumers cannot be asked for private data.

C) Digital marketing is no longer of value.

D) New techniques are needed to understand consumer behaviors.

970)

Which statement best explains the idea of a cookieless world?

A) Digital marketing will be of limited value.

B) Marketers will not track consumers with cookies.

C) Consumer privacy can now be 100% guaranteed.

D) Consumer behaviors will be recorded by smart devices.

971)

In digital marketing, the intersection between the physical and digital worlds is described

as A) B) C) D)

972)

digital twinning. automation. phygital. metaphysical.

Creating a phygital shopping experience should be focused on providing value to A) employees.

B) consumers.

C) target marketers.

D) digital personas.

973)

While waiting in line at Best Buy, Marina used her phone to order the television she wanted. By the time she reached the front of the line, her purchase was paid for and ready for pickup. This retailer is enabling a experience.

A) cookieless B) smart environment C) hyper-personal D) phygital

974)

After enrolling and registering his credit card online, Vijay can fill his cart with groceries at Amazon Go and walk out to his car without stopping at a checkout. Payment is automatic, and a digital receipt is sent to his virtual wallet. This is an example of a(n) shopping experience.

A) phygital B) personalized C) virtual reality D) augmented reality

975)

Blockchain is a that records data in a large, public, and decentralized database.

A) customer relationship program B) consumer tracking mechanism C) digital ledger system D) search optimization program

976)

A key benefit of blockchain systems is the potential to A) improve data security.

B) enable virtual reality.

C) customize the consumer experience.

D) facilitate digital communication.

977)

Blockchain is commonly used to A) target individuals who are “off the grid.”

B) coordinate a global marketing strategy.

C) secure and verify transactions.

D) analyze the competition.

978)

Each of the following items can be purchased online. Which is the best representation of a non-fungible token?

A) a best-selling e-book B) a one-of-a-kind avatar C) access to a live-streamed performance D) a song download

979)

Digital marketers are aware that non-fungible tokens generally cannot be A) duplicated.

B) marketed.

C) sold.

D) described.

980)

Many consumers enjoy engaging in digital campfire environments because they are online communities.

A) public B) unlimited C) large D) private

981)

Marketers from which organization are most likely to benefit from access to a digital campfire for Porsche owners?

A) a firm selling car emergency kits B) a firm offering car loans C) a firm selling grill badges for Porsches D) a firm promoting a movie featuring a Porsche

982)

In digital marketing, one advantage of adopting an agile project management approach is A) changes can be made early in the process.

B) employee loyalty increases dramatically.

C) fewer individuals are needed on the team.

D) marketing costs are significantly lower.

983)

The agile project management approach uses strategies borrowed from the industry.

A) public relations B) health care C) advertising D) software development

984)

An AR experience is one uniquely designed to allow online consumers to A) read about the product.

B) interact with the product.

C) purchase the product.

D) see the product.

985)

In the Pokémon GO game, players and their avatars collected Pokémon characters, eggs, and other game items from virtual “PokéStops” found near parks, monuments, and other realworld landmarks. The game’s popularity boosted sales of related Pokémon merchandise. This marketing strategy demonstrated the use of A) VR technology.

B) product personalization.

C) search optimization.

D) AR technology.

986)

By some accounts, the metaverse is understood to be the A) past B) current C) future D) unreachable

987)

As described in the text, the Indiana Pacers used AI to A) categorize consumers and personalize their email marketing.

B) attract customers to its influencer sites.

C) handle online ticketing.

D) resolve customer service complaints.

version of the Internet.

988)

Artificial General Intelligence (AGI) refers to artificial intelligence (AI) which A) replaces human decision-making.

B) is more intelligent than humans.

C) interacts only with other virtual entities.

D) can learn like humans do.

989)

What future technology will involve AI learning that is considered more intelligent than humans?

A) machine learning B) Artificial Super Intelligence C) natural language processing D) Artificial General Intelligence

990)

What currently used technology uses machine learning and natural language processing to engage with consumers in applications such as customer service?

A) conversational AI B) AR product configurator C) AR billboards D) Artificial Super Intelligence

991)

When Jessie’s package arrives from Anthropologie, it contains only two of the three items she ordered online. Jessie accesses the firm’s website, where a virtual assistant reads her complaint, and tells her the missing item is still in transit. The assistant concludes the interaction by thanking Jessie for her patience and asking if further assistance is needed. This customer engagement was made possible by A) virtual reality.

B) conversational AI. C) voice search.

D) artificial super intelligence.

992)

Someday we may all have a , a futuristic and more advanced digital persona.

Because it reflects our own behaviors and needs, it may make purchase decisions on our behalf.

A) digital twin B) celebrity lookalike C) digital simulation D) personal chatbot

993)

One potential advantage to digital marketers in adopting edge computing technology is A) automated retargeting.

B) improved search optimization.

C) faster data processing.

D) mobile-first indexing.

994)

At a specialized Lush cosmetics store in Japan, consumers use their mobiles to scan products displayed in glass cases. Scans reveal more about ingredients, properties, and benefits of each product—consumers can even access a special booth to receive a “smell sample.” After each interaction sensed by a computer to be positive, a voice asks if the customer wants to place the item in their virtual cart, which is sent directly to their shipping address. This shopping experience is a demonstration of A) automated retargeting.

B) digital consumer-machine interaction.

C) faster data processing.

D) virtual reality.

995)

The recommended approach for digital marketers regarding technology is to A) install smart technology at every opportunity.

B) move slowly in making any change.

C) keep to the tried-and-true tactics.

D) embrace new technologies strategically.

996)

What are two basic considerations for marketers regarding new technology adoption?

A) Is it cutting edge, and will it impress consumers?

B) Is it relevant to their goals, and within their capabilities?

C) Has it worked for others, and will it work for them?

D) Are they first to market, or the first to adopt?

997)

A theater chain is working to improve its search rankings by considering consumers’ spoken words and their screen habits. It has new data that shows many customers purchase movie tickets by speaking into mobile devices or using Bluetooth systems while driving.

These marketers are accounting for which digital trend?

A) voice search optimization B) vertical search marketing C) smart products D) Internet of Things environment

998)

999)

For digital marketers, the primary goal of voice search optimization is to A) improve search rankings in voice-based searches.

B) establish the brand’s competitive advantage.

C) reduce consumer frustration in voice-based searches.

D) decrease consumer reliance on text-based searches.

Voice search optimization uses both context and rankings.

A) trending topics B) sales data C) conversation D) consistency

to improve search result

1000) When companies embrace voice search optimization, it can benefit consumers by A) improving their voice-search results.

B) demonstrating how to use technology.

C) differentiating the brand.

D) increasing consumer conversions.

1001) Marketers tell parents the Lumi by Pampers monitoring system can improve their baby’s

comfort and health. An activity sensor notifies parents on their smartwatch if baby needs a diaper change or is uncomfortably hot or cold—and of course, this helps sell more diapers.

Promotion of the Lumi system demonstrates what emerging digital marketing trend?

A) providing value in smart environments B) implementing voice search optimization C) supporting consumer privacy D) building in automation

1002) As modern companies provide new and valuable services to consumers in smart

environments, it is expected to A) devalue other marketing strategies.

B) eliminate the need for digital marketers.

C) increase consumer conversions.

D) decrease their marketing costs.

1003) Customers in smart settings are more likely to A) abandon items in their shopping cart.

B) compare different brands.

C) struggle to find the right product to meet their needs.

D) make a digital purchase.

1004) If your firm helps others automate consumer insights for data analysis through the cloud,

this is an example of which digital marketing trend?

A) agile project management B) augmented reality C) phygital experiences D) digital marketing as-a-service

1005) In the future, privacy and security issues are expected to A) be easily managed with new technologies.

B) remain critical concerns in digital marketing.

C) decrease in importance to most consumers.

D) be nonexistent in VR and AR environments.

1006) What is evidence of a first-party data strategy?

A) Firms use trackers to understand customers’ buying behaviors.

B) Firms compare their conversion data to competitors’ data.

C) Firms obtain marketing data directly from consumers.

D) Firms employ third-party cookies to compile customer information.

1007) What additional tactic will improve marketing outcomes for organizations committed to

using a first-party data strategy?

A) unifying all data across digital channels B) purchasing data from other sources C) increasing the use of third-party cookies D) narrowing the target market

1008) In order to remain competitive, firms adopting a cookieless strategy will need to A) seek new ways to collect customer data.

B) purchase consumer data from their closest competitors.

C) hide the trackers they put on customer files.

D) significantly broaden their target markets.

1009) Discuss trends in digital marketing related to search.

1010) What is hyper-personalization? How can it be applied to digital marketing strategy?

1011) Explain the idea of the Internet of Things (IoT), and how it is expected to impact

marketing. Provide an example of a product demonstrating this concept.

1012) Define the term phygital, and explain its role in digital marketing.

1013) What smart devices are available for homes? Discuss how you engage or would engage

with them, and what digital marketing opportunities they may offer.

1014) Explain the concept of non-fungible tokens, and reference a product which fits this

description.

1015) Imagine you are on the digital marketing team for a new and improved smart

lawnmower, the RoboCrop. RoboCrop senses when your lawn needs mowing, exits its charging station automatically, and mows your lawn to the perfect height based on weather, grass type, location, and your preferences. Alternatively, you can use an app on your phone to instruct the RoboCrop to begin mowing. The digital marketing team is asked to develop a cutting-edge campaign for this device. Therefore, select one or more trends discussed in this chapter, and explain how you might use them to market this product. Be creative in your response.

1016) Discuss the best general approach for digital marketing regarding new and/or emerging

technologies.

1017) How does voice search optimization improve search result rankings?

1018) What is the outlook for privacy and security concerns related to digital marketing?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 12 1) TRUE

Voice search is expected to soon overtake text-based searches. Consumers value the convenience of being able to speak their search into their personal device or those that are around them in their homes, vehicles, and offices.

2) TRUE

Vertical search focuses on a particular industry or segment of online content. Examples of vertical search platforms would be FindLaw for the legal industry, or Zillow for the real estate market.

3) FALSE

Another trending opportunity revolves around vertical search which focuses on a particular industry or segment of online content. Consumers may prefer searching on dedicated platforms such as Zillow rather than starting their search using general search engines because of the specialized information and access to detailed information the vertical platform provides.

4) FALSE

Various technologies today help to automate digital marketing tasks. Currently, all of the following digital marketing activities can be fully or partially automated: consumer data collection; segmentation and targeting; customer service; messaging based on consumer activity; customer relationship management; personalized experiences; digital marketing tests (such as website or email testing); recommendations based on analytics; and many others.

5) TRUE

“The cloud” includes services that are accessed through the Internet often through servers, databases, and software. Much of the software used by marketers is provided as a service through the cloud rather than being physically installed on the organization’s computers.

6) TRUE

As we move into an Internet of Everything (IoE) environment, in which “everything” is connected to the Internet, then it is possible that “everything” will be a consumer. While this seems very futuristic, it may be that we will see this shift in marketing come sooner that we think.

7) FALSE

Industry appears to be moving to a cookieless world. Major organizations such as Google and Apple have announced moving away from cookies as a method to track consumers.

8) TRUE

Phygital is the intersection between the physical and digital worlds. It allows consumers to experience some of both during their customer journey.

9) TRUE

Consumers have been engaging with various smart devices for years. For example, smart robots, smart appliances, smart speakers, smart toilets, and smart TVs are basic examples of things through which digital marketing currently is being conducted.

10) FALSE

Consumers are engaging more with digital campfire environments where they interact with other consumers in smaller private digital communities. Moving into these smaller forums allows consumers to be more personal in their interactions and to discuss things that are important to them.

11) TRUE

VR, AR, MR, and XR are being used in digital marketing. Virtual product experiences are expected to be greatly enhanced such that consumers will be able to deeply experience products and even services. Enhanced digital services such as these can allure consumers to a brand or advance them through a conversion process with enhanced trust.

12) FALSE

The metaverse is defined as a future version of the Internet, “beyond” the universe as we know it, using advanced virtual reality technologies to create new interactive 3D or 4D digital experiences. There are some aspects of the future metaverse already in use, such as Second Life (Metaverse City) where consumers, using a digital persona or avatar, can live and interact in virtual communities, or Roblox where various experiences and games can be created using 3D and other technologies.

13) TRUE

Digital marketers are not new to artificial intelligence (AI), which is currently being used with chatbots, recommendation systems, customer relationship management, and other systems.

14) FALSE

Social media and digital social interactions may be changed through realities in the future by allowing us to have a more advanced, “re-created” digital persona of oneself, or a digital twin.

Using realities, AI, and other technologies, our digital twin in the form of a virtual persona will be able to act, speak, and make decisions on our behalf based on our behaviors, needs, and characteristics.

15) FALSE

Digital marketers should employ AI and take advantage of the blockchain where it makes sense—but not do it just for the sake of doing it. Digital marketers should definitely be aware of and ready for what is coming. They then can strategically assess if anything new is relevant to their goals and within their capabilities, and lead into the future.

16) TRUE

Voice search optimization (VSO) is the improvement of search result rankings from voice-based searches. VSO incorporates both context and conversation and involves taking into consideration what the consumer may have on their screen, their habits, and tastes, along with the consumer’s spoken words.

17) TRUE

Smart environments and the IoT/IoE ecosystems raise a number of opportunities for digital marketing. Being able to provide value in this ecosystem can result in increased conversions and trust for brands. For example, a brand that can be at the forefront of smart environments, flaunting their brand and offering valuable services, can greatly increase its value.

18) FALSE

While marketing automation is not the answer to all digital marketing initiatives, some automation may be appropriate.

19) TRUE

Privacy and security will be long-term considerations in digital marketing into the future. Digital marketers should embrace for novel issues in these areas and new approaches.

20) FALSE

In a cookieless world, digital marketers have to broaden the ways in which they collect data from consumers. A first-party data strategy, in which brands must work hard to provide value in exchange for gathering data directly from consumers, will grow in importance. Additionally, digital marketers should try to unify the data they do have in order to understand consumers across data and digital channels.

21) B

Voice search is expected to soon overtake text-based searches. Consumers value the convenience of being able to speak their search into their personal device or those that are around them in their homes, vehicles, and offices.

22) D

Voice search is expected to soon overtake text-based searches. Consumers value the convenience of being able to speak their search into their personal device or those that are around them in their homes, vehicles, and offices. Results may be displayed on devices or spoken back to them.

23) A

Another trending opportunity revolves around vertical search which focuses on a particular industry or segment of online content. Examples of vertical search platforms would be FindLaw for the legal industry, or Zillow for the real estate market.

24) C

Another trending opportunity revolves around vertical search which focuses on a particular industry or segment of online content. Consumers may prefer searching on dedicated platforms such as Zillow rather than starting their search using general search engines because of the specialized information and access to detailed information the vertical platform provides.

Dedicated travel platforms are a popular choice.

25) D

Vertical search focuses on a particular industry or segment of online content. Market combinations or acquisitions are sometimes referred to as vertical, meaning they occur in one specific industry niche.

26) C

Various technologies today help to automate digital marketing tasks. Marketing automation is expected to increase rapidly in the coming years.

27) A

Smarter marketing automation is always in the works, and it is expected that AI will continue to further provide benefits to assist with decision making within marketing automation platforms.

One example is hyper-personalization, which is the use of behavior and consumer profiles to provide a highly personalized experience.

28) C

Smarter marketing automation is always in the works, and it is expected that AI will continue to further provide benefits to assist with decision making within marketing automation platforms.

One example is hyper-personalization, which is the use of behavior and consumer profiles to provide a highly personalized experience. Personalized content that is based on a consumer’s browsing behavior, sent to them through the most effective digital marketing approach that they are expected to respond to, will be much more effective than today’s basic personalization methods.

29) A

Hyper-personalization is the use of behavior and consumer profiles to provide a highly personalized experience. Personalized content that is based on a consumer’s browsing behavior, sent to them through the most effective digital marketing approach that they are expected to respond to, will be much more effective than today’s basic personalization methods.

30) B

“The cloud” includes services that are accessed through the Internet often through servers, databases, and software. Many services now are offered through the cloud, such as software-asa-service (SaaS). For example, much of the software used by marketers is provided as a service through the cloud rather than being physically installed on the organization’s computers.

Marketers would navigate to a website, log in, and access services in that way.

31) A

Digital marketing itself may be provided as a service, known as digital marketing as-a-service (DMaaS) which is cloud-based digital marketing services used by marketers. For example, when organizations might need specific digital marketing services, including social media marketing, design, content, and many other services, they may contract these through the cloud.

32) B

Into the future, new Internet of Things (IoT) user experiences will be prevalent. Consumers will be accustomed to a number of devices connected to the Internet and to each other, providing them with value in different settings. While digital marketers are deeply focused on understanding the digital consumer, there likely will be a time where the marketing effort may have to shift from the consumer to the thing, a smart item, device, or product connected to the Internet and used by a consumer.

33) C

Into the future, new Internet of Things (IoT) user experiences will be prevalent. While digital marketers are deeply focused on understanding the digital consumer, there likely will be a time where the marketing effort may have to shift from the consumer to the thing, a smart item, device, or product connected to the Internet and used by a consumer.

34) A

Into the future, new Internet of Things (IoT) user experiences will be prevalent. While digital marketers are deeply focused on understanding the digital consumer, there likely will be a time where the marketing effort may have to shift from the consumer to the thing, a smart item, device, or product connected to the Internet and used by a consumer, especially if it knows the consumer very well.

35) B

As we move into an Internet of Everything (IoE) environment, in which “everything” is connected to the Internet, then it is possible that “everything” will be a consumer. While this seems very futuristic, it may be that we will see this shift in marketing come sooner that we think.

36) D

Industry appears to be moving to a cookieless world. Major organizations such as Google and Apple have announced moving away from cookies as a method to track consumers. As they do so and others follow suit, digital marketers will need to think of ways to understand consumers beyond a cookie approach. They will need to embrace new techniques to understand consumers.

37) B

Industry appears to be moving to a cookieless world. Major organizations such as Google and Apple have announced moving away from cookies as a method to track consumers. As they do so and others follow suit, digital marketers will need to think of ways to understand consumers beyond a cookie approach. They will need to embrace new techniques to understand consumers.

38) C

Phygital is the intersection between the physical and digital worlds. It allows consumers to experience some of both during their customer journey.

39) B

While consumers live in a physical world but have increasing reliance on the digital world, digital marketers should not ignore the convergence between the two. Phygital is the intersection between the physical and digital worlds. It allows consumers to experience some of both during their customer journey.

40) D

Phygital is the intersection between the physical and digital worlds. It allows consumers to experience some of both during their customer journey.

41) A

Phygital is the intersection between the physical and digital worlds. It allows consumers to experience some of both during their customer journey. For instance, Amazon Go employs a “just walk out technology” mimicking a digital purchasing experience transferred to a physical setting where consumers scan upon entry, pickup what they need, and "keep going" creating an environment of convenience.

42) C

Blockchain is a decentralized digital ledger that allows the recording of transactions and tracks these within the network without requiring verification by another party.

43) A

Blockchain is a decentralized digital ledger that allows the recording of transactions and tracks these within the network without requiring verification by another party. Blockchain can be used to automate secure payments and to obtain a host of data analytics. This can be done because blockchain can be used to remove middlepersons and transactions can automatically be verified.

44) C

Blockchain can be used to automate secure payments and to obtain a host of data analytics. This can be done because blockchain can be used to remove middlepersons and transactions can automatically be verified.

45) B

Many brands are excited about the prospects of non-fungible tokens, which are “unique identifiers” or digital assets that are not able to be duplicated or divided. People can own NFTs and this ownership is recorded on the blockchain. Many products, including digital art, can be sold as NFTs. 46) A

Non-fungible tokens are “unique identifiers” or digital assets that are not able to be duplicated or divided. People can own NFTs and this ownership is recorded on the blockchain. Many products, including digital art, can be sold as NFTs. 47) D

Consumers are engaging more with digital campfire environments where they interact with other consumers in smaller private digital communities. Moving into these smaller forums allows consumers to be more personal in their interactions and to discuss things that are important to them.

48) C

Consumers are engaging more with digital campfire environments where they interact with other consumers in smaller private digital communities. Digital marketers may find ways to provide value to such communities. They may partner with some communities in order to present valuable information or access to useful products or services.

49) A

Agile project management breaks projects down into small iterations called “sprints,” and teams work in sprints for a short time to accomplish the small portions of work assigned. The benefit of this approach is that it allows teams to see the results of smaller steps within the whole project and to put that whole project into perspective. If something is not working early on, changes can be implemented early.

50) D

Agile project management for digital marketing is on the rise, borrowing concepts from the software-development industry approach.

51) B

Various digital realities—VR, AR, MR, and XR—are being used in digital marketing. For example, different realities are providing enhanced shopping experiences, virtual journeys, and product experiences. Into the future, these realities will play an even greater role. Virtual product experiences are expected to be greatly enhanced such that consumers will be able to deeply experience products and even services.

52) D

A 3D and AR product configurator is a software that uses AR technology to enable consumers to “visualize products” very clearly and at different angles, allowing them to make better choices.

Enhanced digital services such as these can allure consumers to a brand.

53) C

The metaverse is considered, by some accounts as a future version of the Internet, “beyond” the universe as we know it, using advanced virtual reality technologies to create new interactive 3D or 4D digital experiences.

54) A

The Indiana Pacers used Einstein AI to help predict when consumers might open, click, convert, or unsubscribe from digital channels. Einstein AI uses scoring to place customers into categories such as “Dormants, Selective Subscribers, Window Shoppers, and Loyalists,” all based on their previous activity and associated predictions. By using personalization for email marketing, a 20% increase in engagement was noted.

55) D

As AI becomes more advanced, AI may be able to learn just like humans do, a capability known as Artificial General Intelligence (AGI).

56) B

In the future, Artificial Super Intelligence (ASI) will involve AI learning that is more intelligent than humans.

57) A

Into the future, conversational AI, the use of machine learning and natural language processing to speak with consumers such as through chatbots, is on the rise and will become even more advanced. Such conversational AI will also become more accessible in various languages.

58) B

AI chatbots are trending at the moment and are expected to get more advanced. For example, chatbots are answering basic questions consumers have and can provide resources based on keywords and consumer inquiries. Into the future, conversational AI, the use of machine learning and natural language processing to speak with consumers such as through chatbots, is on the rise and will become even more advanced.

59) A

Social media and digital social interactions may be changed through realities in the future by allowing us to have a more advanced, “re-created” digital persona of oneself, or a digital twin.

Using realities, AI, and other technologies, our digital twin in the form of a virtual persona will be able to act, speak, and make decisions on our behalf based on our behaviors, needs, and characteristics.

60) C

AI is also being used with other technologies such as edge computing technology. This technology uses a “distributed computing framework” that situates applications near to data sources (such as servers). It enables data to be processed faster, with less response time, which can improve the customer experience.

61) B

Digital consumer-machine collaboration (or digital consumer-machine interaction) refers to the communication, collaboration, and interaction that take place between a digital consumer and a machine through a digital interface. When consumers work together with AI, such as where consumers interact with smart robots, this collaboration can create meaningful experiences for the consumer and opportunities for digital marketing that are valuable to the consumer.

62) D

While digital marketers should not do “dumb” digital marketing in smart environments, this does not mean that they should jump into and engage with every new or futuristic type of digital marketing that comes about. Digital marketers should employ AI and take advantage of the blockchain where it makes sense—but not do it just for the sake of doing it.

63) B

Digital marketers should definitely be aware of and ready for what is coming. They then can strategically assess if anything new is relevant to their goals and within their capabilities, and lead into the future.

64) A

Digital marketers should follow the trend towards voice search and engage in voice search optimization (VSO) which is the improvement of search result rankings from voice-based searches. VSO incorporates both context and conversation and involves taking into consideration what the consumer may have on their screen, their habits, and tastes, along with the consumer’s spoken words.

65) A

Voice search optimization (VSO) is the improvement of search result rankings from voice-based searches. VSO incorporates both context and conversation and involves taking into consideration what the consumer may have on their screen, their habits, and tastes, along with the consumer’s spoken words.

66) C

Digital marketers should follow the trend towards voice search and engage in voice search optimization (VSO) which is the improvement of search result rankings from voice-based searches. VSO incorporates both context and conversation and involves taking into consideration what the consumer may have on their screen, their habits, and tastes, along with the consumer’s spoken words.

67) A

Digital marketers should follow the trend towards voice search and engage in voice search optimization (VSO) which is the improvement of search result rankings from voice-based searches. VSO takes into consideration what the consumer may have on their screen, their habits, and tastes, along with the consumer’s spoken words. If the results provided are tailored to what the consumer may expect, VSO can provide a better experience for them.

68) A

Smart environments and the IoT/IoE ecosystems raise a number of opportunities for digital marketing. Being able to provide value in this ecosystem can result in increased conversions and trust for brands. For example, a brand that can be at the forefront of smart environments, flaunting their brand and offering valuable services, can greatly increase its value.

69) C

Smart environments and the IoT/IoE ecosystems raise a number of opportunities for digital marketing. Being able to provide value in this ecosystem can result in increased conversions and trust for brands.

70) D

As consumers are more and more likely to purchase digitally in smart settings, embracing strategies and tactics that allow brands to be leaders in this space can help them stay relevant as the world gets “smarter.”

71) D

Automating consumer insights might be a fast and productive approach over manual data analysis methods. Automating some portions of digital marketing activities will leave digital marketing experts time and resources to focus on actions that can be taken from those insights.

With respect to digital marketing as-a-service, if there are specific digital marketing service needs that might be achieved through the employment of such services, these can supplement a digital marketing team for as long as needed.

72) B

Privacy and security will be long-term considerations in digital marketing into the future. Digital marketers should embrace for novel issues in these areas and new approaches.

73) C

In a cookieless world, digital marketers have to broaden the ways in which they collect data from consumers. In a first-party data strategy, brands must work hard to provide value in exchange for gathering data directly from consumers.

74) A

In a first-party data strategy, brands must work hard to provide value in exchange for gathering data directly from consumers. Additionally, digital marketers should try to unify the data they do have in order to understand consumers across data and digital channels.

75) A

In a cookieless world, digital marketers have to broaden the ways in which they collect data from consumers. In a first-party data strategy, brands must work hard to provide value in exchange for gathering data directly from consumers.

76) Essay

Voice search is expected to soon overtake text-based searches. Consumers value the convenience of being able to speak their search into their personal device or those that are around them in their homes, vehicles, and offices. Results may be displayed on devices or spoken back to them.

Another trending opportunity revolves around vertical search which focuses on a particular industry or segment of online content. Examples of vertical search platforms would be FindLaw for the legal industry, or Zillow for the real estate market. Consumers may prefer searching on dedicated platforms such as Zillow rather than starting their search using general search engines because of the specialized information and access to detailed information the vertical platform provides.

Search is also getting smarter based on consumer experiences, behaviors, and preferences.

77) Essay

Hyper-personalization is the use of behavior and consumer profiles to provide a highly personalized experience.

For example, personalized content that is based on a consumer’s browsing behavior, sent to them through the most effective digital marketing approach that they are expected to respond to (such as a push notification), will be much more effective than today’s basic personalization methods.

78) Essay

Into the future, new Internet of Things (IoT) user experiences will be prevalent. Consumers will be accustomed to a number of devices connected to the Internet and to each other, providing them with value in different settings.

While digital marketers are deeply focused on understanding the digital consumer, there likely will be a time where the marketing effort may have to shift from the consumer to the thing, a smart item, device, or product connected to the Internet and used by a consumer, especially if it knows the consumer very well.

Student examples will vary.

79) Essay

Phygital is the intersection between the physical and digital worlds. It allows consumers to experience some of both during their customer journey. Phygital is changing the way some consumers shop, and marketers must respond to this.

80) Essay

Student examples will vary, but may reference these points: Some distinct smart environments have come about, including smart-home environments where certain devices, acting in consort or not, provide smart services to consumers.

Smart robots, smart appliances, smart speakers, smart toilets, and smart TVs are basic examples of things through which digital marketing currently is being conducted.

Smart home services and technologies are ready to vastly increase. Virtual vacations, virtual food tastings.

Virtual vacations, virtual food tastings.

Virtual vacations, virtual food tastings.

81) Essay

Non-fungible tokens are “unique identifiers” or digital assets that are not able to be duplicated or divided. People can own NFTs and this ownership is recorded on the blockchain.

Many products, including digital art, can be sold as NFTs. (Student examples may vary).

82) Essay

Student examples will vary, but should reference one or more of the following points: Voice search is expected to soon overtake text-based searches. Consumers value the convenience of being able to speak their search into their personal device or those that are around them in their homes, vehicles, and offices. Results may be displayed on devices or spoken back to them.

Another trending opportunity revolves around vertical search which focuses on a particular industry or segment of online content.

Automation can be used for hyper-personalization, which is the use of behavior and consumer profiles to provide a highly personalized experience. For example, personalized content that is based on a consumer’s browsing behavior, sent to them through the most effective digital marketing approach that they are expected to respond to (such as a push notification), will be much more effective than today’s basic personalization methods.

Into the future, new Internet of Things (IoT) user experiences will be prevalent.

Consumers will be accustomed to a number of devices connected to the Internet and to each other, providing them with value in different settings. While digital marketers are deeply focused on understanding the digital consumer, there likely will be a time where the marketing effort may have to shift from the consumer to the thing, a smart item, device, or product connected to the Internet and used by a consumer, especially if it knows the consumer very well.

Industry appears to be moving to a cookieless world. Major organizations such as Google and Apple have announced moving away from cookies as a method to track consumers.

As they do so and others follow suit, digital marketers will need to think of ways to understand consumers beyond a cookie approach.

While consumers live in a physical world but have increasing reliance on the digital world, digital marketers should not ignore the convergence between the two. Phygital is the intersection between the physical and digital worlds. It allows consumers to experience some of both during their customer journey.

Consumers have been engaging with various smart devices for years. Some distinct smart environments have come about, including smart-home environments where certain devices, acting in consort or not, provide smart services to consumers. These are the basis of various digital marketing activities currently. Connecting such a product with services offering related items for sale can provide substantial future opportunity for digital marketers.

Consumers are engaging more with digital campfire environments where they interact with other consumers in smaller private digital communities. Moving into these smaller forums allows consumers to be more personal in their interactions and to discuss things that are important to them.

A 3D and AR product configurator is a software that uses AR technology to enable consumers to “visualize products” very clearly and at different angles, allowing them to make better choices. Enhanced digital services such as these can allure consumers to a brand or advance them through a conversion process with enhanced trust.

(AI) is currently being used with chatbots, recommendation systems, customer relationship management, and other systems. Some digital marketers currently use AI to place ads, and AI will play a much greater role in digital marketing in the future. For example, AI can be used to determine advertising budgets, adjust budgets based on performance and predictions, target markets and audiences, and even create and personalize ads and decide on advertising objectives. AI chatbots are trending at the moment and are expected to get more advanced. For example, chatbots are answering basic questions consumers have and can provide resources based on keywords and consumer inquiries. Into the future, conversational AI, the use of machine learning and natural language processing to speak with consumers such as through chatbots, is on the rise and will become even more advanced.

83) Essay

While digital marketers should not do “dumb” digital marketing in smart environments, this does not mean that they should jump into and engage with every new or futuristic type of digital marketing that comes about. Digital marketers should employ AI and take advantage of the blockchain where it makes sense—but not do it just for the sake of doing it.

Digital marketers should definitely be aware of and ready for what is coming. They then can strategically assess if anything new is relevant to their goals and within their capabilities, and lead into the future.

84) Essay

Voice search optimization (VSO) is the improvement of search result rankings from voice-based searches. VSO incorporates both context and conversation and involves taking into consideration what the consumer may have on their screen, their habits, and tastes, along with the consumer’s spoken words.

This means the search is based not only on textual elements but also on consumer behavioral factors, the words they may use, and the environment in which the search is taking place. These factors all improve search results.

85) Essay

Privacy and security will be long-term considerations in digital marketing into the future.

Digital marketers should embrace for novel issues in these areas and new approaches. Digital marketers should seek opportunities that privacy and security can bring and reasonably address any challenges they raise.