TEST BANK for Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 7th Edition by Lynn Lippert All Chapters 1-20. Q&A +

CHAPTER 1 Basic Information Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Osteokinematic motions include: a.

Roll b. Spin

c. d.

Flexion Glide

2. The frontal axis passes ____________ through the ___________ plane. a.

Top to bottom, horizontal c.

Side to side, frontal b. Front to back, frontal d.

Side to side, sagittal 3. In which plane do scapular elevation and depression occur? a.

Horizontal c.

Transverse b. Frontal d.

Sagittal 4. The anatomical position is: a.

Supine b. Prone

c. d.

The starting position for movements The position of ideal posture

5. How many degrees of freedom does a biaxial joint have? a.

1 c.

3 b. 2 d.

4 6. Which motions typically occur in the frontal plane? a.

Flexion-extension c.

Medial-lateral rotation b. Circumduction d.

Abduction-adduction 7. The head is ________ to the pelvis. a.

Medial b. Caudal

c. d.

8. The sagittal plane passes through the body: a.

Horizontally, dividing the body into top c. and bottom portions b. Diagonally, dividing the body into d. triangular portions

Superior Ventral Vertically, dividing the body into front and back portions Vertically, dividing the body into right and left portions

9. The osteokinematic motion of extension is defined as movement of limb segment surfaces _______ . a.

Anterior – away from each other c.

Anterior – towards each other b. Posterior – away from each other d.

Lateral – away from each other

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10. Which of the following motions does not conform to the definition of that motion? a.

Knee extension c.

Shoulder flexion b. Hip lateral rotation d.

Elbow extension 11. An individual sitting on a high stool swinging their feet is an example of: a.

Closed kinetic chain c.

Open kinetic chain b. Contralateral movement d.

Anatomical position 12. When measuring range of motion, the anatomical position is what degree position? a.

180 c.

90 b. 0 d.

120 13. The vertical axis passes through the plane: a.

Front to back – sagittal b. Side to side – horizontal

c. d.

Side to side – frontal Superior to inferior – horizontal

14. The biceps brachii muscle is _______ to the skin and ________ to bone. a. Superior, inferior c.

Deep, superficial b. Caudal, cranial d.

Proximal, distal 15. Within which plane, and about which axis, does trunk lateral flexion occur? a.

Frontal – sagittal c.

Sagittal – frontal b. Horizontal – vertical d.

Frontal – horizontal 16. The osteokinematic motion of abduction is defined as movement of a limb segment _______ the midline. a.

Away from c.

Toward b. Superior to d.

Inferior to 17. In how many planes does a triaxial joint have motion? a.

4 c.

2 b. 3 d.

1 18. Which motions typically occur in the sagittal plane? a.

Abduction-adduction c.

Horizontal abduction-adduction b. Protraction-retraction d.

Flexion-extension 19. The right hand is ____________ to the left hand and __________ to the right foot. a.

Medial, lateral c.

Contralateral, ipsilateral b. Proximal, distal d.

Ventral, dorsal 20. Within which plane, and about which axis, do medial and lateral rotation occur? a.

Frontal – vertical c.

Horizontal – sagittal b. Horizontal – vertical d.

Sagittal – frontal

CHAPTER 1 Basic Information Answer Section 1.

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Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

C D B C B D C D A A C B D C A A B D C B

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CHAPTER 2 Biomechanics Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1.

Motion created by forces that incorporates factors of time, space, and mass of a moving system is described by which term? a.

Osteokinematics c.

Mechanics b.

Biomechanics d.

Kinematics 2. a. b.

Shear forces occurring within a joint are: Rolling c.

Gliding d.

3. a. b.

A force that is not applied perpendicular to a limb segment produces a rotatory force and: Bending c.

Traction or compression Force couple d.

Shear or torsion

4. a. b.

A scalar quantity describes what characteristic(s) of an object?

Velocity c.

Direction Distance d.

Magnitude

5.

A moment arm (MA) is the perpendicular distance between the application of a force and the: Resistance c.

Magnitude Axis d.

Pulley

a. b.

6.

Traction Compression

a. b.

Putting a wheelchair in motion, the individual must overcome which of Newton’s laws of motion?

Law of action-reaction c.

Law of inertia Law of acceleration d.

None of the above

7. a. b.

When an object bends, which force occurs on the convex side?

Linear c.

Compression Traction d.

Concurrent

8. a. b.

A force that pushes body segments together creates: Traction c.

Distraction Mobility d.

Compression

9. a. b.

A vector describes: Speed and scalar Area and mass

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c. d.

Mass and volume Magnitude and direction

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10. a. b.

11. a. b. c. d.

The upward force a supporting surface exerts on an individual when the individual pushes down on the supporting surface is termed: Ground reaction force c.

Approximation Counter force d.

Friction An individual is performing a push-up, and in the up position only the balls of his feet and his palm and fingers are in contact with the floor. What area is the base of support (BOS)?

Area under balls of feet to top of head Surface of body in contact with BOS in down position Area between balls of feet to palms Only area of balls of feet and palms

12.

What is the effect of moving the line of gravity (LOG) to the edge of the base of support (BOS)? a.

Increased stability c.

No change in mobility b.

Increased mobility d.

Decreased stability 13. a. b.

The vector that represents the sum of the magnitude and directions of each individual vector is the: Resultant force c.

Parallel force Linear force d.

Curvilinear force

14. a. b.

Increasing the length of the force arm results in: Less resistance for the force to move c.

Less force needed to move resistance More resistance for the force to move d.

More force needed to move resistance

15. a. b.

Forces in the same plane and in the same or opposite directions are: Parallel forces c.

Perpendicular forces Angular forces d.

Concurrent forces

16. a. b. c. d.

Stability is increased by: Increasing the base of support (BOS) and raising the center of mass (COM) Narrowing the BOS and lowering the COM Increasing the BOS and lowering the COM Narrowing the BOS and raising the COM

17. a. b.

When resistance is between the axis and the force, which class of lever is created?

First c.

Third Second d.

None

18. a. b.

Which motion do torsional forces create in a bone?

Traction c.

Compression Twisting d.

Rotation

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19. a. b. c. d.

A force couple is when muscles act together to produce: Clockwise or counterclockwise rotation Clockwise or perpendicular rotation Counterclockwise or perpendicular rotation None of the above

20.

When muscle tendons pass under a tuberosity of a bone resulting in a change in direction of the tendon, the tuberosity is acting as a/an: Inclined plane c.

Lever Axle d.

Pulley

a. b.

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CHAPTER 2 Biomechanics Answer Section 1.

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ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D

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CHAPTER 3 Skeletal System Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which type of bone is the dense, hard outer shell of a bone? a.

Compact bone c.

Cancellous bone b.

Periosteum d.

Axial bone 2. Which of the following is not present in adult bone? a.

Metaphysis c. b.

Medullary canal d.

Epiphyseal plate Epiphysis

3. Which of the following are short bones? a.

Phalanges b.

Carpals

Metacarpals Metatarsals

c. d.

4. Which term is defined as a rounded projection? a.

Meatus c. b.

Sinus d.

Eminence Head

5. The trabecular patterns of cancellous bone develop in response to: a.

Imposition of stress through a bone c.

Lack of blood supply b.

Lack of force acting on bone d.

Additional compact bone development 6. Where are osteoclasts located? a.

Periosteum b.

Epiphyseal plate

c. d.

Endosteum Metaphysis

7. The axial skeleton consists of: a.

Head b.

Neck

c. d.

Trunk All of the above

8. The appendicular skeleton consists primarily of which type of bone? a.

Long c.

Short b.

Flat d.

Irregular 9. The difference between a tubercle and a tuberosity is: a.

Location c. b.

Shape d.

Size All of the above

10. Which type of bones are mainly responsible for the production of blood? a.

Long c.

Short b.

Flat d.

Irregular

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11. Which type of bone is not part of the upper extremity appendicular skeleton? a.

Short c.

Flat b.

Irregular d.

Long 12. What is the function of sesamoid bones? a.

Protect tendons from excessive wear b.

Improve muscle function

c. d.

Change the angle of insertion All of the above

13. Wolff’s law may have a role in which of the following? a.

Osteoporosis c.

Osgood-Schlatter disease b.

Osteomyelitis d.

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis 14. Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system? a.

Provide shape and support c.

Manufacture blood b.

Protect vital organs d.

All of the above 15. Which type of bone fracture is typical of fractures occurring in children? a.

Compression c.

Comminuted b.

Greenstick d.

Spontaneous 16. Which part of bone contains pain receptors? a.

Endosteum b.

Epiphysis

c. d.

Periosteum Diaphysis

17. Inorganic components of bone provide: a.

Hardness and strength b.

Elasticity and flexibility

c. d.

Components for blood production Trabeculae

18. Which term is defined as a hollow or depression in a bone? a.

Foramen c.

Head b.

Groove d.

Fossa 19. Which bone structure is where growth of bone occurs? a.

Medullary canal c.

Epiphyseal plate b.

Diaphysis d.

Periosteum 20. An epicondyle is: a.

A large condyle b.

A prominence above a condyle

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c. d.

A large, flat projection Similar to a crest

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CHAPTER 3 SKELETAL SYSTEM Answer Section 1.

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Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

A C B D A C D A C B B D A D B C A D C B

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3

CHAPTER 4 ARTICULAR SYTEM AND ARTHROKINEMATICS Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Movement of adjacent joint surfaces is termed: a.

Osteokinematic motion b.

Linear motion

c. d.

Arthrokinematic motion Angular motion

2. Ligaments: a.

Are nonelastic b.

Connect muscles to bone

c. d.

Are hyaline cartilage All of the above

3. During knee extension in an open kinetic chain, roll and glide occur in the: a.

Same direction c.

Parallel direction b.

Opposite direction d.

Perpendicular direction 4. An example of a fibrous joint is: a.

Proximal tibiofibular joint b.

Costosternal joint

c. d.

Suture of the skull Proximal distal radioulnar joint

5. When performing osteokinematic flexion of the shoulder, the arthrokinematic glide is in the ____________ as the roll. a.

Same direction c.

Concurrent direction b.

Opposite direction d.

Perpendicular direction 6. Which structure connects muscle to bone? a.

Aponeurosis b.

Ligament

c. d.

Capsule Labrum

7. Synovial fluid provides: a.

Blood supply to synovial membrane b.

Resistance to arthrokinematic motions

c. d.

Nutrients to articular cartilage All of the above

8. A condyloid joint: a.

Allows motion in two planes b.

Is a synovial joint

c. d.

Is a biaxial joint All of the above

9. Another term used to indicate diarthrodial joints is: a.

Fibrous c. b.

Synarthrodial d.

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Synovial Cartilaginous

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10. Which type of cartilage is articular cartilage? a.

Hyaline b.

Fibrocartilage

c. d.

11. A hinge joint is also called which type of joint? a.

Nonaxial c. b.

Biaxial d.

Elastic cartilage Dense cartilage Triaxial Uniaxial

12. The arthrokinematic motion of spin is defined as: a.

One joint surface moving parallel to the plane of an adjacent joint surface b.

Rotation of a single point of one joint surface on the adjacent joint surface c.

One joint surface rolling and gliding on an adjacent joint surface d.

One part of a joint rolling on an adjacent joint surface 13. Which type of joint provides the most mobility? a.

Cartilaginous c. b.

Uniaxial d.

Synovial Fibrous

14. A purpose of a bursa is to: a.

Reduce friction b.

Separate bones

c. d.

Change the angle of muscle insertion Provide mobility of tendons

15. A triaxial joint: a.

Is the elbow b.

Allows two arthrokinematic motions

c. d.

Is stable Allows motion in three planes

16. The closed pack position of a joint: a.

Has the greatest joint play b.

Provides stability

c. d.

Has the least joint congruency Provides mobility

17. The labrum of the hip is composed of: a.

Fibrocartilage b.

Elastic cartilage

c. d.

Hyaline cartilage Sternocartilage

18. Nonaxial joint motion is: a.

An arc b.

Spin

c. d.

Angular Gliding

19. A firm end feel is produced by: a.

Soft tissue approximation b.

Ligaments

c. d.

Pain Bone

20. Diarthrodial joints contain: a.

Capsule b.

Ligament

c. d.

Synovial membrane All of the above

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CHAPTER 4 Articular System and Arthrokinematics Answer Section 1.

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Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

C A B C B A C D C A D B C A D B A D B D

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CHAPTER 5 NERVOUS SYSTEM Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Lower motor neurons are located in the: a.

Cerebrum b.

Posterior root

c. d.

Anterior horn Brainstem

2. Axons of efferent neurons: a.

Exit the spinal cord b.

Carry sensory information to the spinal cord c.

Ascend the spinal cord to the brainstem d.

Form the posterior columns of the spinal cord 3. Afferent neurons are located in the: a.

Brainstem b.

Cerebellum

c. d.

4. The terminal nerves of the brachial plexus serve the: a.

Lower extremity c. b.

Upper extremity d.

Anterior horn cell Dorsal root ganglion Trunk Head and neck

5. How many axons does a typical cell body (neuron) have? a.

3 c.

1 b.

2 d.

0 6. The sensory receptors in muscles that respond to stretch are the: a.

Golgi tendon organs c.

Pacinian corpuscles b.

Muscle spindles d.

Myofibrils 7. The lateral corticospinal tract transmits: a.

Motor impulses from the brain to spinal cord b.

Motor impulses from the right side of the brain to the right anterior horn c.

Sensory information from the spinal cord to the brain d.

Sensory information from the brain to the dorsal root 8. Peripheral nerves transmit sensory information to: a.

Sensory receptors in the periphery c. b.

The anterior horn cell d.

Sensory receptors from the anterior root The dorsal root ganglion

9. The femoral nerve innervates hip: a.

Extensors b.

Flexors

Abductors Adductors

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c. d.

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10. A synapse is a small gap that is the junction between an axon and: a.

The brainstem c.

An interneuron b.

An anterior root d.

A spinal nerve 11. Protection of the central nervous system (CNS) is provided by: a.

Bone c.

Meninges b.

Cerebrospinal fluid d.

All of the above 12. The foramen magnum is continuous with the: a.

Vertebral foramen b.

Pelvic fossa

c. d.

Intervertebral foramen All of the above

13. The radial nerve primarily innervates which muscles of the upper extremity? a.

Flexors c.

Abductors b.

Extensors d.

Adductors 14. Which lobe of the brain is responsible for movement and personality? a.

Parietal c.

Temporal b.

Occipital d.

Frontal 15. The superficial layer of the meninges is the: a.

Dura b.

Pia

c. d.

Arachnoid None of the above

16. When myelin surrounds dendrites and axons, they appear: a.

Gray c.

White b.

Pink d.

Black 17. An area of the skin innervated by specific levels of the spinal cord is termed a: a.

Myotome c.

Neurotome b.

Dermatome d.

None of the above 18. Which layer of the meninges contains blood vessels? a.

Pia c. b.

Arachnoid d.

Dura All of the above

19. What is the primary function of the occipital lobe? a.

Movement c. b.

Speech d.

Hearing Vision

20. The function of the nodes of Ranvier is to: a.

Protect nerve fibers b.

Shorten nerve fibers

Speed up impulse conduction Block impulse conduction

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c. d.

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CHAPTER 5 NERVOUS SYSTEM Answer Section 1.

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Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

C A D B C B A D B C D A B D A C B A D C

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CHAPTER 6 MUSCULAR SYSTEM Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which characteristic of muscle is a muscle’s ability to respond to stimulus by generating a muscle contraction? a.

Contractility c.

Irritability b.

Extensibility d.

Elasticity 2. Type I muscle fibers: a.

Have rich blood supply b.

Appear red

c. d.

Are less prone to fatigue All of the above

3. Tenodesis of the finger flexors is because of : a.

Passive insufficiency of finger extensors b.

Passive insufficiency of finger flexors

c. d.

Active insufficiency of wrist extensors Active insufficiency of wrist flexors

4. Which one of the following factors determines that a muscle is the agonist? a.

Line of pull c.

Muscle shape b.

Fiber orientation d.

Number of sarcomeres 5. A muscle that is at its normal resting length is at its: a.

Maximal length c. b.

Shortest length d.

Optimal length Mid-length

6. A muscle’s origin is typically considered to be the attachment that is: a.

Largest c.

Distal b.

Smallest d.

Proximal 7. When two or more muscles are acting together to produce a desired motion, they are called: a.

Synergists c.

Force couples b.

Antagonists d.

All of the above 8. When a two-joint muscle contracts, motion may be limited by: a.

Active insufficiency of the antagonist c.

Passive insufficiency of the agonist b.

Active insufficiency of the agonist d.

Passive insufficiency of the synergists 9. The amount of force a muscle can produce is related to: a.

Cross-sectional area c.

Length–tension relationship b.

Number of muscle fibers d.

All of the above

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10. Passive insufficiency occurs when a two-joint muscle cannot: a.

Shorten over all joints spanned simultaneously b.

Lengthen over all joints spanned simultaneously c.

Allow the antagonist to lengthen over all the joints spanned d.

None of the above 11. Actin and myosin filaments bond during muscle contraction to: a.

Stretch actin filaments c.

Move actin filaments b.

Shorten myosin filaments d.

Stabilize actin filaments 12. Which type of contraction produces force but no motion? a.

Isometric c.

Eccentric b.

Concentric d.

Isokinetic 13. Muscle undergoing adaptive lengthening responds by: a.

Reducing the amount of surrounding connective tissue b.

Adding sarcomeres c.

Limiting the number of actin–myosin bonds d.

Lengthening the tendons 14. During muscle contraction, all sarcomeres in a given muscle fiber: a.

Are stabilized in place b.

Form one sarcomere c.

Change length simultaneously d.

That are proximal shorten and that are distal lengthen 15. During a concentric contraction, the insertion typically: a.

Moves toward the origin c.

Does not move b.

Moves away from the origin d.

None of the above 16. Triangular-shaped muscles are: a.

Long and thin b.

Broad at both attachments

c. d.

The same shape over the full length Fan-shaped

17. To stretch a multijoint muscle: a.

Lengthen it over each joint it spans individually c.

Shorten it over one joint and lengthen it over all the joints it spans b.

Lengthen it over all the joints it spans simultaneously d.

Shorten it over all the joints it spans simultaneously 18. A fascicle is a: a.

Collection of sarcomeres b.

Bundle of connective tissue

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c. d.

Bundle of muscle fibers Bundle of nerve fibers

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19. The angle of insertion of a muscle: a.

Changes through the range of motion (ROM) b.

Contributes to compression or traction through a joint c.

Determines the amount of force producing osteokinematic motion d.

All of the above 20. During which type of contraction does a muscle lengthen? a.

Eccentric c.

Isokinetic b.

Concentric d.

Isometric

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CHAPTER 6 MUSCULAR SYSTEM Answer Section 1.

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Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

C D B A C D A B D B C A B C A D B C D A

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Page 4 of 4

CHAPTER 7 CIRCULATORY SYSTEM Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Pulmonary arteries transport blood from the: a.

Right ventricle to the lungs b.

Right ventricle to the body

c. d.

Left ventricle to the body Left ventricle to the lungs

2. The vena cavae empty into the: a.

Left atrium b.

Right atrium

c. d.

Left ventricle Right ventricle

3. The circle of Willis is supplied by the: a.

Middle cerebral artery b.

Anterior cerebral artery

c. d.

Posterior cerebral artery All of the above

4. The higher number when taking a blood pressure: a.

Is the pressure when no sound is heard b.

Occurs during diastole c.

Reflects the state of contraction of the systemic arteries d.

Reflects the size of the right atrium 5. Diffusion occurs: a.

When molecules move from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration b.

When molecules move from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration c.

Only in the lungs d.

Only in the heart 6. The first heart sound is caused by: a.

Opening of the semilunar valves c. b.

Opening of the atrioventricular (AV) values

Closure of the semilunar valves d. Closure of the AV valves

7. Capillary beds consist of: a.

Only venules b.

Both venules and arterioles

Only arterioles None of the above

c. d.

8. The fluid in the lymphatic system is rich in protein and is called: a.

Plasma c.

Lymph b.

Interstitial fluid d.

Deoxygenated blood 9. Automaticity occurs in: a.

Cardiac muscle b.

Muscles of the intestines

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c. d.

Lungs Skeletal muscle

Page 1 of 3

10. An anastomosis: a.

Joins arteries b.

Provides alternative circulation

c. d.

Is often located in the brain All of the above

11. The largest part of the heart is the: a.

Left ventricle b.

Right ventricle

c. d.

Left atrium Right atrium

c.

Detecting and initiating response to

d.

Initiating the inflammatory process

13. Coronary arteries branch from the: a.

Descending aorta b.

Ascending aorta

c. d.

Brachiocephalic trunk Carotid artery

14. Lymph nodes are: a.

Only in the appendicular skeleton b.

Adjunct to blood vessels

c. d.

Kidney shaped Storage sites for bacteria

12. The function of the lymphatic system includes: a.

Returning blood to the right atrium infection b.

Producing red blood cells

15. During the resting phase of the heart, blood flows into the: a.

Pulmonary arteries c.

Left ventricle and right atrium b.

Ascending aorta d.

Left and right ventricles and atriums 16. The valve between the right atrium and left ventricle is the: a.

Tricuspid valve c.

Mitral valve b.

Bicuspid valve d.

Semilunar valve 17. When the external iliac artery passes under the inguinal ligament, it is renamed the: a.

Popliteal artery c.

Brachial artery b.

Femoral artery d.

Dorsalis pedis artery 18. Contraction of the ventricles closes the: a.

Semilunar valve b.

Aortic valve

c. d.

19. When transport of lymph is obstructed, the result is: a.

Swelling proximal to the sentinel node c. b.

Shrinkage of lymph nodes d.

Pulmonary valve Atrioventricular (AV) valves Edema distal to the area of blockage Decreased limb volume

20. The subclavian artery passes under the clavicle, where it is renamed the: a.

Brachial artery c.

Basilic artery b.

Axillary artery d.

Carotid artery

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CHAPTER 7 CIRCULATORY SYSTEM Answer Section 1.

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Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

A B D C A D B C A D A C B C D A B D C B

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CHAPTER 8 HEAD AND TEMPOROMANDIBULAR JOINT Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which bones comprise the temporomandibular joint? a.

Mandible and temporal bones c. b.

Maxilla and frontal bones d.

Mandible and maxilla bones Mandible and parietal bones

2. Components of which bones comprise the zygomatic arch? a.

Zygomatic and sphenoid c.

Temporal and zygomatic b.

Temporal and sphenoid d.

Temporal and parietal 3. The sphenomandibular ligament is attached to the: a.

Sphenoid process and condyle of mandible b.

Mandible and greater wing of sphenoid c.

Neck of mandible and articular tubercle of temporal bone d.

Spine of sphenoid and ramus of mandible 4. The convex portion of the temporomandibular joint is the: a.

Temporal fossa c.

Angle of the mandible b.

Mandibular fossa d.

Condyle of the mandible 5. The temporal, parietal, frontal, and sphenoid bones combine to form the: a.

Face c.

Temporal fossa b.

Cranium d.

Mandibular fossa 6. Temporomandibular joint protrusion and retraction occur within which plane? a.

Horizontal c.

Frontal b.

Sagittal d.

All of the above 7. The action of the right masseter muscle is: a.

Elevation of the mandible b.

Lateral deviation to the right

c. d.

Protrusion of the mandible Lateral deviation to the left

8. The ramus of the mandible is the: a.

Anterior horizontal portion b.

Rounded projection on the superior border c.

Vertical portion between the body and the condyle d.

Posterior angle between the body and condyle

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9. Which arthrokinematic motions (side and motion) occur during lateral deviation of the mandible to the right? a.

Right spin, left glide c.

Right roll, left glide b.

Right glide, left roll d.

Right roll and glide, left spin 10. The tendon of the temporalis muscle passes deep to the: a.

Masseter c.

Ramus of the mandible b.

Zygomatic arch d.

Articular tubercle of the temporal bone 11. Which cranial nerve innervates the sternohyoid muscle? a.

V c.

X b.

VII d.

XII 12. The insertion of the medial pterygoid muscle is the: a.

Neck of the mandible, articular disk, and joint capsule b.

Ramus and angle of mandible c.

Zygomatic arch d.

Coronoid process and ramus of mandible 13. During mandibular depression, the articular disk moves: a.

Anteriorly c.

Laterally to the left b.

Posteriorly d.

Laterally to the right 14. Which facial muscle elevates the eyebrows? a.

Levator labii superioris b.

Corrugator supercilli

c. d.

Levator anguli oris Frontalis

15. The facial bones are: a.

Sesamoid bones b.

Short bones

c. d.

Irregular bones Flat bones

16. The sternohyoid muscle: a.

Deviates the hyoid to the opposite side b.

Depresses the hyoid and larynx

c. d.

Protrudes the hyoid Elevates the hyoid and larynx

17. Which cranial nerve innervates the temporalis muscle? a.

Trochlear c.

Facial b.

Hypoglossal d.

Trigeminal 18. The condyles of the occipital bone articulate with the: a.

Atlas c. b.

Mandible d.

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Maxilla Axis

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19. In addition to the sternocleidomastoid muscle, which muscle attaches to the mastoid process? a.

Stylohyoid c.

Masseter b.

Digastric d.

Temporalis 20. The thyroid cartilage is: a.

The attachment for the lateral pterygoid b.

The smallest of the cartilages of the larynx c.

Inferior to the hyoid bone d.

Spiral in shape

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CHAPTER HEAD AND TEMPOROMANDIBULAR JOINT Answer Section 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

A C D D C A B C A B D B A D C B D A B C

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CHAPTER 9 NECK AND TRUNK Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. How many cervical vertebrae are there? a.

5 b.

6

c. d.

7 8

2. How many true ribs are there? a.

2 b.

3

c. d.

7 12

3. The posterior longitudinal ligament is located: a.

Posteriorly on the vertebral bodies b.

Posteriorly on the border of the vertebral canal c.

On the tips of the spinous processes d.

None of the above 4. What is the shape of the lumbar curve? a.

Concave b.

Scoliosis

c. d.

Kyphotic Lordotic

5. What are the origin (O) and insertion (I) of the scalene muscles? a.

O: Vertebral bodies; I: ribs b.

O: Transverse processes; I: ribs c.

O: Spinous processes; I: Vertebral bodies d.

O: Vertebral bodies; I: Clavicle 6. The interspinal ligament limits: a.

Flexion b.

Extension

c. d.

Rotation Lateral bending

7. The costovertebral joint is composed of the: a.

Tubercle of rib with body of vertebra b.

Base of rib with spinous process

c. d.

Head of rib with body of vertebra Tubercle of rib with transverse process

8. Motion of the thoracic region of the vertebral column primarily occurs in which plane? a.

Transverse c.

Sagittal b.

Horizontal d.

Frontal 9. The right external oblique and the left internal oblique contracting together produce: a.

Flexion and rotation to the right c.

Flexion and lateral bending to the right b.

Flexion and rotation to the left d.

Flexion

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10. Which ligament prevents posterior displacement of the dens? a.

Transverse c.

Interspinal ligament b.

Ligamentum nuchae d.

Ligamentum flavum 11. Which muscle elevates the pelvis? a.

Rectus femoris b.

Quadratus lumborum

c. d.

Erector spinae Transverse abdominis

12. Vertebral column motion is determined primarily by the orientation of the: a.

Sternocostal joints c.

Transverse processes b.

Costovertebral joints d.

Intervertebral facet joints 13. Which erector spinae muscle group is most medial? a.

Intertransversarii c. b.

Spinalis d.

Longissimus Iliocostalis

14. The dens is located on the: a.

Sternum b.

Seventh cervical vertebra

c. d.

Axis Atlas

15. Joints between the bodies of vertebra are: a.

Suture b.

Synovial

c. d.

Cartilaginous Fibrous

16. Which muscle is partially innervated by the accessory nerve (cranial nerve [CN]) XI? a.

Scalenes c.

Suboccipital b.

Sternocleidomastoid d.

Prevertebral 17. The diaphragm is innervated by which cervical levels? a.

C3–C5 c.

C4–C5 b.

C2–C6 d.

C6–C7 18. Which motion occurs at the atlantoaxial joint? a.

Extension b.

Lateral bending

c. d.

Flexion Rotation

19. Which muscle inserts on the linea alba? a.

Transverse abdominis b.

Quadratus lumborum

c. d.

Erector spinae Rectus abdominus

20. The nucleus pulposus is the: a.

Bursa of the lumbosacral joint b.

Cushion for the symphysis pubis

c. d.

Inner part of the intervertebral disk Outer part of the intervertebral disk

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CHAPTER 9 NECK AND TRUNK Answer Section 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

C C A D B A C D B A B D B C C B A D A C

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CHAPTER 10 PELVIS Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Nutation of the pelvis is rotation of the: a.

Innominate anteriorly on the sacrum b.

Superior aspect of the sacrum anteriorly

c. d.

Innominate laterally on the sacrum Inferior aspect of the sacrum anteriorly

2. The sacrum is: a.

Five fused vertebrae b.

Wedge shaped

c. d.

Part of three joints All of the above

3. Right lateral pelvis tilt places the right hip in: a.

Abduction b.

Adduction

c. d.

Flexion Extension

4. Rotation of the innominate bone posteriorly on the sacrum is: a.

Counternutation c.

Extension b.

Nutation d.

None of the above 5. The acetabulum, the proximal portion of the hip joint: a.

Is part of the sacrum c.

Is concave b.

Permits motion in two planes d.

Is convex 6. Which muscle has an attachment on the iliac fossa? a.

Rectus abdominis c. b.

Internal oblique d.

Transverses abdominis Iliopsoas

7. Which type of joint is the pubic symphysis? a.

Synovial b.

Cartilaginous

Diarthrodial Fibrous

c. d.

8. Pelvic elevation is produced by a force couple of the quadratus lumborum and: a.

Hip abductors on the opposite side c.

Hip adductors on the opposite side b.

Hip abductors on the same side d.

Hip adductors on the same side 9. The inguinal ligament: a.

Does not support a joint c. b.

Divides the axial and appendicular skeletons

Is superficial to the femoral artery d. All of the above

10. The lumbosacral angle is normally approximately: a.

0 degrees c. b.

20 degrees d.

40 degrees 60 degrees

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11. Which osteokinematic motion of the lumbosacral joint has the greatest amount of motion? a.

Rotation c.

Lateral bending to the right b.

Flexion/extension d.

Lateral bending to the left 12. An increased lumbosacral angle increases the: a.

Traction force b.

Compression force

c. d.

Shear force Rotatory force

13. Lateral pelvic shift moves the body’s center of mass: a.

To the side of the shift c. b.

To the side opposite the shift d.

Anteriorly Posteriorly

14. The iliolumbar ligament limits: a.

Lateral bending b.

Extension

Flexion Rotation

c. d.

15. The sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments create the: a.

Foramen of the sacrum c.

Greater sciatic foramen b.

Greater sciatic notch d.

Obturator foramen 16. When the iliac crests are level and the anterior superior iliac spines and pubic symphysis are in the same frontal plane, the pelvic position is: a.

Anterior pelvic tilt c.

Posterior pelvic tilt b.

Neutral d.

Pelvic shift 17. The innominate bone is composed of the: a.

Ilium, ischium, and pubis b.

Ischium, pubis, and sacrum

c. d.

Ilium ischium, and sacrum Pubis and sacrum

18. The anterior longitudinal ligament restricts which motion at the lumbosacral joint? a.

Rotation c.

Extension b.

Lateral bending d.

Flexion 19. When the pelvis is tilted anteriorly, the hip is in increased: a.

Flexion c.

Medial rotation b.

Extension d.

Adduction 20. Anterior pelvic tilt is produced by lumbar trunk extensors and hip: a.

Rotators c.

Extensors b.

Adductors d.

Flexors

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CHAPTER 10 PELVIS Answer Section 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

B D A B C D B A D C B C A D C B A C A D

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CHAPTER 11 RESPIRATORY SYSTERM Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Ventilation is the process of: a.

Gas exchange b.

Moving air in and out of the lungs c.

Increasing pressure to move air into the lungs d.

Decreasing pressure to move air out of the lungs 2. The thoracic cage: a.

Is wider side to side b.

Is bound anteriorly by the sternum

c. d.

Contains the thoracic cavity All of the above

3. The anterior joints of the thoracic cage are the: a.

Costotransverse b.

Costochondral

c. d.

Costovertebral None of the above

4. Inhalation moves the rib cage: a.

Upward and outward b.

Upward and inward

c. d.

Downward and outward Downward and inward

5. During exhalation the ribs move as which type and position of handle? a.

Mid-position of a bucket handle c.

Down position of a bucket handle b.

Up position of a pump handle d.

Mid-position of a pump handle 6. Exhalation moves air out of the lungs because the: a.

Size of the thoracic cage decreases c. b.

Intrathoracic pressure increases d.

Diaphragm ascends All of the above

7. The upper respiratory tract is composed of the: a.

Nasal cavity, oral cavity, and larynx b.

Trachea, mainstem bronchi, lobar bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli c.

Nasal cavity, oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx d.

Trachea, pharynx, mainstem bronchi, and alveoli 8. The left mainstem bronchi splits into two lobar bronchi, whereas the left mainstem bronchi splits into three lobar bronchi. Why? a.

The right lung has fewer alveoli so needs more air supply b.

The right lung has three parts to maintain the position of the mediastinum c.

The left lung lobes are very large so there is only room for two d.

The left lung is smaller, allowing space for the heart

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9. Gas exchange occurs in the: a.

Alveoli b.

Lobar bronchi

c. d.

Bronchioles Mainstem bronchi

10. The functions of the nasal cavity include: a.

Warming air b.

Filtering air

c. d.

Moistening air All of the above

11. The pleura: a.

Encases each lung b.

Lines the pharynx

c. d.

Lines the bronchioles Encases the heart

12. Intrathoracic volume and intrathoracic pressure are: a.

Directly proportional c. b.

Inversely proportional d.

Always the same Not relevant to one another

13. When the diaphragm relaxes, it moves: a.

Downward decreasing lung volume b.

Downward increasing intrathoracic pressure c.

Upward decreasing lung volume d.

Upward decreasing intrathoracic pressure 14. Quiet inhalation is produced by contraction of the: a.

Diaphragm and internal intercostals c. b.

Diaphragm and external intercostals d.

Diaphragm Internal and external intercostals

15. The effectiveness of forced inhalation and forced exhalation is increased by: a.

Placing the upper extremities in a closed kinetic chain b.

Use of chest breathing only c.

Use of the Valsalva maneuver d.

Placing the upper extremities in an open kinetic chain 16. The insertion of the diaphragm is the: a.

Lower ribs and sternum b.

Vertebral bodies and xiphoid process

c. d.

Central tendon None of the above

17. The internal intercostals assist during: a.

Forced exhalation b.

Quiet exhalation

c. d.

Coughing All of the above

18. The transverse abdominis is an accessory muscle of respiration during: a.

Quiet exhalation c.

Quiet inhalation b.

Forced exhalation d.

Forced inhalation

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19. Which cranial nerve innervates the diaphragm? a.

Phrenic b.

Fascial

c. d.

20. Pursed-lip breathing is used by individuals with: a.

Hyperventilation c. b.

Emphysema d.

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Trigeminal Trochlear Bronchitis None of the above

Page 3 of 4

CHAPTER RESPIRATORY SYSTERM Answer Section 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

B D B A C D C D A D A B C C A C D B A B

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CHAPTER 12 SHOULDER GIRDLE Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following is not part of the shoulder girdle? a.

Clavicle c.

Sternum b.

Humerus d.

Scapula 2. The plane of the scapula is: a.

30 degrees forward of the frontal plane b.

45 degrees forward of the frontal plane

c. d.

30 degrees backward of the frontal plane 45 degrees backward of the frontal plane

3. When performing scapular elevation, the scapula moves through much more motion than does the clavicle at the sternoclavicular joint. Why? a.

A tight capsule at the sternoclavicular joint limits motion b.

Small angular motion at the axis produces a large arc of motion at the opposite end of a long lever c.

The clavicle is a short lever and the scapula is at the far end of the lever d.

Scapulothoracic joint motion is not limited by ligaments 4. In which plane do scapular protraction and retraction occur? a.

Vertical c.

Sagittal b.

Horizontal d.

Frontal 5. Scapular tilt is when the: a.

Axillary border slides anteriorly b.

Superior angle angles posteriorly c.

Inferior angle protrudes posteriorly d.

Vertebral boarder is not snug against the thoracic cage 6. During shoulder joint abduction, for every 2 degrees of abduction, the scapula moves a.

1 degree c.

3 degrees b.

2 degrees d.

4 degrees 7. Which of the bony landmarks of the scapula is on the anterior surface? a.

Spine c.

Coracoid process b.

Superior angle d.

Acromion process 8. The glenoid fossa of the scapula articulates with the: a.

Sternum c. b.

First rib d.

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Humerus Clavicle

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9. During scapular elevation and depression, which arthrokinematic motions occur at the sternoclavicular joint? a.

Spin and roll c.

Roll and glide in the same direction b.

Spin and glide d.

Roll and glide in opposite directions 10. Which type of joint is the acromioclavicular joint? a.

Fibrocartilage joint c. b.

Synovial joint d.

Chondrocartilage joint Fibrosus joint

11. Which motion of the clavicle does the costoclavicular ligament limit? a.

Elevation c.

Protraction b.

Depression d.

Upward rotation 12. Which motion of the humerus does the coracoacromial ligament limit? a.

Abduction/adduction c.

Medial and lateral rotation b.

Inferior motion of the head d.

Superior motion of the head 13. The upper trapezius muscle inserts on the: a.

Spine of the scapula b.

Clavicle and acromion

c. d.

Medial boarder of the scapula Superior angle of the scapula

14. The innervation of the trapezius muscle is the: a.

Long thoracic nerve b.

Dorsal scapular nerve

c. d.

Spinal accessory nerve Phrenic nerve

15. Contraction of the levator scapula muscle produces: a.

Scapular elevation and downward rotation c. b.

Scapular elevation and upward rotation d.

Scapular retraction Scapular upward rotation

16. The rhomboid muscles have their origin on which spinous processes? a.

C3–C7 c.

C7–T5 b.

C5–T2 d.

C8–T4 17. The insertion of the serratus anterior muscle is the: a.

Posterior vertebral boarder of the scapula c. b.

Anterior vertebral boarder of the scapula d.

First through eighth ribs Coracoid process

18. The line of pull of the pectoralis minor muscle is: a.

Diagonal c. b.

Rotatory d.

Horizontal Vertical

19. In a closed kinetic chain, which of the following is an accessory muscle of inhalation? a.

Rhomboids c.

Lower trapezius b.

Serratus anterior d.

Pectoralis minor

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20. Which muscles form a force couple to produce scapular upward rotation? a.

Upper and lower trapezius and serratus anterior b.

Rhomboids and serratus anterior c.

Levator scapula, lower trapezius, and serratus anterior d.

Pectoralis minor and serratus anterior

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CHAPTER 12 SHOULDER GIRDLE Answer Section 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

B A B D C A C C D B A D B C A C B D D A

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CHAPTER 13 SHOULDER JOINT Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The glenohumeral joint is a: a.

Plane joint b.

Hinge joint

c. d.

Ball-and-socket joint Pivot joint

2. What is considered the normal range of motion of shoulder extension? a.

0 to 60 degrees c.

0 to 100 degrees b.

0 to 80 degrees d.

0 to 120 degrees 3. Within which plane, and about which axis, do horizontal abduction/adduction of the shoulder occur? a.

Frontal plane, sagittal axis c.

Sagittal plane, frontal axis b.

Horizontal plane, vertical axis d.

Frontal plane, vertical axis 4. During horizontal abduction/adduction of the shoulder, the arthrokinematic motions of roll and glide occur in the: a.

Same direction c.

Perpendicular to each other b.

Opposite directions d.

Only spin occurs 5. The coracoid process of the scapula is the attachment for the: a.

Biceps brachii c.

Coracobrachialis b.

Pectoralis minor d.

All of the above 6. The glenoid labrum is: a.

Fibrocartilage b.

Ligament

c. d.

Fascia Aponeurosis

7. The bicipital groove: a.

Contains the long head of the biceps brachii b.

Is the attachment for the latissimus dorsi c.

Is covered by the transverse humeral ligament d.

All of the above 8. The infraglenoid tubercle is: a.

Inferior to the greater tubercle b.

The attachment for the long head of the biceps brachii c.

On the inferior lip of the glenoid fossa d.

The attachment for the brachialis

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9. In the sitting position, extending the shoulder from 120 degrees of flexion to 0 degrees is performed using which type of contraction? a.

Concentric c.

Isometric b.

Eccentric d.

Isokinetic 10. The deltoid muscle is innervated by which nerve? a.

Axillary c. b.

Median d.

Long thoracic None of the above

11. Which portion of the deltoid muscle has its origin on the acromion process? a.

Anterior c.

Posterior b.

Middle d.

All of the above 12. In a closed kinetic chain, the pectoralis major muscle: a.

Horizontally abducts the shoulder b.

Joins with the latissimus dorsi to form a force couple c.

Is an accessory muscle of respiration d.

Provides traction through the shoulder joint 13. The line of pull of the coracobrachialis muscle is: a.

Transverse c. b.

Rotatory d.

Horizontal Vertical

14. Horizontal adduction is performed by the: a.

Clavicular portion of the pectoralis major c. b.

Anterior deltoid d.

Sternal portion of the pectoralis major All of the above

15. The shape of the latissimus muscle is: a.

Triangular b.

Pennate

Strap None of the above

c. d.

16. Which muscle is a medial rotator of the glenohumeral joint? a.

Infraspinous c.

Posterior deltoid b.

Teres minor d.

Latissimus dorsi 17. The end feel for motions of the shoulder joint is: a.

Empty c. b.

Soft d.

Firm Hard

18. Which of the SITS muscles inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus? a.

Subscapularis c.

Infraspinatus b.

Teres minor d.

Supraspinatus

19. When the shoulder is fully extended and the forearm fully pronated, an individual is unable to achieve full elbow extension because of: a.

Active insufficiency of the biceps brachii b.

Active insufficiency of the triceps brachii c.

Passive insufficiency of the biceps brachii d.

Passive insufficiency of the triceps brachii 20. To perform shoulder abduction, the SITS muscles and the deltoid act as a: a.

First-class lever c.

Pulley b.

Force couple d.

Antagonist

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CHAPTER 13 SHOULDER JOINT Answer Section 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

C A B B D A D C B A B C D D A D C A C B

CHAPTER 14 ELBOW AND FOREARM Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The elbow joint is the articulation between the: a.

Humerus and ulna b.

Humerus and radius

c. d.

Humerus, ulna, and radius Ulna and radius

2. Which type of joint is the elbow? a.

Ball-and-socket b.

Hinge

c. d.

Condyloid Pivot

3. The normal range of motion of elbow flexion is: a.

0 to 150 degrees c. b.

0 to 160 degrees d.

0 to 170 degrees 0 to 180 degrees

4. The normal end feel of elbow extension is: a.

Empty b.

Soft

Firm Hard

c. d.

5. Why do the arthrokinematic motions of roll and glide occur in the same direction during flexion and extension of the elbow in an open kinetic chain? a.

Convex surface moves on concave surface b.

Concave surface moves on concave surface c.

Concave surface moves on convex surface d.

Convex surface moves on convex surface 6. The carrying angle of the elbow is a valgus position because the: a.

Ulna is longer than the radius c.

Radius is longer than the ulna b.

Medial aspect of the distal humerus extends more distally than the lateral aspect Lateral aspect of the distal humerus extends more distally than the medial aspect

d.

7. Which arthrokinematic motion(s) occur(s) at the humeroradial joint during pronation and supination? a.

Roll c.

Spin b.

Glide d.

Roll and glide 8. Which ligament has both insertions on the ulna? a.

Annular c. b.

Interosseus d.

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Medial collateral Lateral collateral

Page 1 of 4

9. Sitting with the shoulder fully extended and forearm supinated, an individual is unable to complete elbow extension. The most likely explanation is: a.

Passive insufficiency of the biceps c.

Passive insufficiency of the triceps b.

Active insufficiency of the biceps d.

Active insufficiency of the triceps 10. Which elbow flexor is innervated by the radial nerve? a.

Biceps brachii c. b.

Brachialis d.

Brachioradialis Pronator teres

11. When the elbow is fully extended, the line of pull of the biceps brachii causes which force through the elbow joint? a.

Traction c.

Shear b.

Approximation d.

None of the above 12. An individual is lowering a cup of coffee from their mouth to the table. Which type of contraction is being performed by which muscle group? a.

Concentric, elbow extensors c.

Concentric, elbow flexors b.

Eccentric, elbow extensors d.

Eccentric, elbow flexors 13. An individual is lowering a cup of coffee from their mouth to the table. Identify the class of lever this activity represents. a.

First c.

Third b.

Second d.

Fourth 14. What is the action of the brachialis muscle? a.

Flexion b.

Extension

c. d.

Flexion and supination Flexion and pronation

15. The origin of the medial head of the triceps brachii muscle is the: a.

Infraglenoid tubercle c.

Supraglenoid tubercle b.

Posterior surface of humerus d.

Anterior surface of the humerus 16. The origin of the pronator quadratus muscle is the: a.

Humerus c. b.

Radius d.

Ulna Humerus and ulna

17. An individual is performing push-ups. During the up motion, which type of muscle contraction is performed by which muscle? a.

Eccentric biceps, brachii c.

Eccentric, triceps brachii b.

Concentric biceps, brachii d.

Concentric, triceps brachii 18. An individual is performing pull-ups. For the biceps brachii muscle, which class of lever does the up motion of a pull-up represent? a.

First class c.

Third class b.

Second class d.

Fourth class

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Page 2 of 4

19. Because of its fusiform shape, the biceps brachii is capable of producing: a.

Multiple spurts of low force c.

Sustained contraction b.

Minimal force d.

Large forces 20. The lateral collateral ligament limits which motion of the elbow? a.

Varus c.

Flexion b.

Valgus d.

Supination

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CHAPTER 14 ELBOW AND FOREARM Answer Section 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

A B A D C B C A D C B D B A B C D C D A

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Page 4 of 4

CHAPTER 15 WRIST JOINT Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The wrist joint is the articulation of the: a.

Radius and carpal bones b.

Ulna and carpal bones

c. d.

Radius and ulna Radius, ulna, and carpal bones

2. The end feel for wrist flexion and extension motions is: a.

Empty c.

Firm b.

Soft d.

Hard 3. The normal range of motion of wrist flexion is: a.

0 to 70 degrees b.

0 to 80 degrees

c. d.

0 to 90 degrees 0 to 100 degrees

4. The arthrokinematic motions during wrist extension are roll and glide and occur in the: a.

Opposite directions c.

Perpendicular to each other b.

Same direction d.

Only glide occurs 5. Which nerve innervates the wrist extensor muscles? a.

Musculocutaneous c. b.

Ulnar d.

Medial Radial

6. Which bones are the insertions for muscles that produce wrist motion? a.

Proximal row of carpals c.

Metacarpals b.

Distal row of carpals d.

Phalanges 7. The range of motion of ulnar deviation compared with radial deviation is: a.

Greater c.

The same b.

Less d.

None of the above 8. Which of the following is one of the proximal rows of carpal bones? a.

Hamate c.

Capitate b.

Trapezium d.

Lunate 9. What is the shape of the radiocarpal joint? a.

Hinge b.

Condyloid

c. d.

Plane Ball-and-socket

10. The articular disk is attached to the radius but is primarily between the: a.

Ulna and trapezium c.

Ulna and triquetrum b.

Radius and lunate d.

Radius and ulna

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Page 1 of 3

11. Which wrist muscle has its origin on the lateral supracondylar ridge? a.

Palmaris longus c.

Extensor carpi radialis brevis b.

Extensor carpi ulnaris d.

Extensor carpi radialis longus 12. Motion at the midcarpal joint is mostly: a.

Roll b.

Glide

c. d.

Spin Flexion

14. The common flexor tendon is on the: a.

Medial condyle of the humerus b.

Lateral condyle of the humerus

c. d.

Olecranon process Styloid process of the ulna

15. The line of pull of most wrist muscles is: a.

Horizontal b.

Vertical

c. d.

Transverse Perpendicular

13. The function of the extensor retinaculum is to: a.

Maintain the articular disk in position b.

Limit excessive flexion c.

Prevent bow-stringing of extensor tendons d.

Protect tendons from excessive wear

16. Which two muscles insert on the base of the fifth metacarpal? a.

Flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi radialis b.

Flexor carpi ulnaris and palmaris longus c.

Extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi radialis brevis d.

Flexor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi ulnaris 17. The location of the insertion of the extensor carpi radialis brevis limits its contribution to: a.

Radial deviation c.

Extension b.

Flexion d.

Circumduction 18. The extensor carpi radialis longus and the flexor carpi radialis act as a force couple to produce: a.

Ulnar deviation c.

Flexion b.

Radial deviation d.

Extension 19. The extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis and the extensor carpi ulnaris produce wrist extension without deviation by acting as: a.

A force couple c.

Synergists b.

Muscles of co-contraction d.

Antagonists 20. The flexor carpi radialis produces which motion(s)? a.

Flexion c. b.

Extension d.

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Flexion with ulnar deviation Flexion with radial deviation

Page 2 of 3

CHAPTER 15 WRIST JOINT Answer Section 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

A C B A D C A D B C D B C A B D A B C D

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CHAPTER 16 HAND Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The carpometacarpal (CMC) joint of the thumb is which type of joint? a.

Condyloid c.

Saddle b.

Hinge d.

Pivot 2. Flexion/extension of all thumb joints occur within which plane and about which axis? a.

Sagittal plane, frontal axis c.

Horizontal plane, vertical axis b.

Frontal plane, sagittal axis d.

Frontal plane, vertical axis 3. Normal range of motion of flexion of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints of digits 2 to 5 is: a.

0 to 20 degrees c.

0 to 80 degrees b.

0 to 45 degrees d.

0 to 90 degrees 4. Normal range of motion of extension of the interphalangeal (IP) joint of the thumb is: a.

0 degrees c.

0 to 40 degrees b.

0 to 20 degrees d.

0 to 60 degrees 5. Arthrokinematic motions during metacarpophalangeal (MCP) abduction of digits 2 to 5 of roll and glide occur in the same direction because the: a.

Concave phalange moves on the convex metacarpal b.

Convex phalange moves on the concave metacarpal c.

Concave phalange moves on the concave metacarpal d.

Convex phalange moves on the convex metacarpal 6. The end feel of motion of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint is: a.

Empty c.

Firm b.

Soft d.

Hard 7. Which bone is the keystone of the proximal transverse arch? a.

Capitate c.

Radius b.

Lunate d.

Triquetrum 8. Which ligament turns the transverse arches into the carpal tunnel? a.

Flexor retinaculum c.

Horizontal carpal ligament b.

Palmar carpal ligament d.

Transverse carpal ligament 9. Why is the web space between the thumb and first finger important? a.

Gives shape to the hand c.

Makes donning gloves easier b.

Allows power grasps of large objects d.

Positions the thumb

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Page 1 of 3

10. Which of the following inserts on the distal phalange of the fingers? a.

Flexor digitorum superficialis c.

Flexor digitorum profundus b.

Abductor pollicis longus d.

Extensor pollicis brevis 11. The origin of the extensor digitorum is the: a.

Lateral epicondyle of the humerus c. b.

Middle of the ulnar and interosseus membrane

Distal radius d. Distal ulna

12. The insertion of the lumbricals is the: a.

Distal phalange b.

Tendon of the extensor digitorum c.

Tendon of the flexor digitorum profundus d.

Proximal phalange 13. The median nerve innervates the muscles of the: a.

Deep palmar layer c. b.

Hypothenar eminence d.

Thenar eminence Superficial dorsal layer

14. Which of the following is a muscle of the thenar eminence? a.

Adductor pollicis brevis c.

Flexor pollicis brevis b.

Opponens pollicis d.

All of the above 15. Wrist extension may produce finger flexion when the finger: a.

Flexors are passively insufficient c.

Extensors are passively insufficient b.

Flexors are actively insufficient d.

All of the above 16. Wrist flexion may limit the strength of cylindrical grasp because of: a.

Passive insufficiency of finger flexors c.

Active insufficiency of finger flexors b.

Passive insufficiency of thenar muscles d.

Active insufficiency of finger extensors 17. Power grips include: a.

Pad to pad b.

Hook

c. d.

Side to side Lumbrical

18. Which nerve passes through the carpal tunnel? a.

Median b.

Ulnar

c. d.

Musculocutaneous Radial

19. The functional position of the hand used when splinting it includes slight: a.

Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) flexion c.

Interphalangeal (IP) flexion b.

Wrist extension d.

All of the above 20. Which grips include opposition of the thumb? a.

Lumbrical b.

Cylindrical Copyright © 2022 F.A. Davis Company

c. d.

Spherical All of the above Page 2 of 3

CHAPTER 16 HAND Answer Section 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

C B D B A C A D B C A B C D A C B A D D

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Page 3 of 3

CHAPTER 17 HIP JOINT Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The hip joint is: a.

The articulation of the axial and appendicular skeletons b.

A ball-and-socket joint c.

A synovial joint d.

All of the above 2. Normal range of motion of hip lateral rotation is: a.

0 to 25 degrees c. b.

0 to 35 degrees d.

0 to 45 degrees 0 to 55 degrees

3. The end feel for hip flexion is: a.

Empty b.

Soft

Firm Hard

c. d.

4. Which arthrokinematic motion(s) occur(s) during hip medial rotation? a.

Spin and roll c.

Roll and glide b.

Glide d.

Roll 5. The normal adult angle of inclination of the femoral head and neck to the shaft is: a.

125 degrees c.

100 degrees b.

150 degrees d.

80 degrees 6. Normal femoral torsion places the head and neck in which orientation with respect to the shaft of the femur? a.

Posterior c.

Superior b.

Anterior d.

Inferior 7. The linea aspera is a longitudinal crest or ridge on which aspect of the femur? a.

Posterior c.

Medial b.

Anterior d.

Lateral 8. On which aspect of the femur is the lesser trochanter? a.

Distal medial c. b.

Proximal lateral d.

Posterior medial Anterior lateral

9. Which hip ligament limits hip extension and abduction? a.

Ligamentum teres c.

Ischiofemoral b.

Iliofemoral d.

Pubofemoral

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Page 1 of 4

10. The insertion of the iliopsoas is the: a.

Greater trochanter b.

Lesser trochanter

c. d.

Linea aspera Medial condyle

11. The origin of the rectus femoris is the: a.

Iliac notch b.

Iliac fossa

c. d.

Anterior superior iliac spine Anterior inferior iliac spine

12. The origin of the semimembranosus is the: a.

Ischial tuberosity b.

Greater trochanter

c. d.

Medial condyle of tibia Anterior femur

13. Posterior pelvic tilt is produced by a force couple of the: a.

Iliopsoas and erector spinae b.

Right and left gluteus medius and minimus c.

Hamstrings and rectus abdominis d.

Gluteus medius and quadratus lumborum 14. Standing on the right leg only and elevating the pelvis on the left is the result of contraction of which muscles? a.

Left gluteus medius and right quadratus lumborum b.

Right gluteus medius and left quadratus lumborum c.

Left hamstrings and right gluteus medius d.

Right and left gluteus medius 15. Which hip muscles would be unable to contract when the obturator nerve is severed? a.

Adductors c.

Flexors b.

Abductors d.

Extensors 16. An individual long-sitting (hip flexion and knee extension) with their back against a wall is unable to fully extend their knees. This is most likely an example of: a.

Active insufficiency of the rectus femoris c.

Active insufficiency of the hamstrings b.

Passive insufficiency of the rectus femoris d.

Passive insufficiency of the hamstrings 17. An individual is lying on their left side and raising their right lower extremity toward the ceiling.

This activity presents which class of lever? a.

First c.

Third b.

Second d.

Fourth 18. An individual is lying on their left side with the right lower extremity raised toward the ceiling.

The right lower extremity is lowered to rest on the left leg. This activity is performed by which type of muscle contraction? a.

Concentric c.

Isometric b.

Eccentric d.

Isokinetic

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Page 2 of 4

19. An individual is descending stairs. Which left hip muscles control the motion, and using which type of contraction, as the right lower extremity is lowered to the next stair? a.

Extensors, eccentric c.

Adductors, eccentric b.

Extensors, concentric d.

Adductors, concentric 20. Which structures pass through the adductor hiatus of the adductor magnus? a.

Sciatic nerve and femoral artery b.

Common peroneal nerve and femoral artery c.

Popliteal artery and vein d.

Femoral artery and vein

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Page 3 of 4

CHAPTER 17 HIP JOINT Answer Section 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

D C B C A B A C D B D A C B A D C B A D

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Page 4 of 4

CHAPTER 18 KNEE JOINT Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Normal range of motion of knee flexion is: a.

0 to 100 degrees b.

0 to 125 degrees

c. d.

0 to 140 degrees 0 to 150 degrees

2. End feel for knee extension is: a.

Empty b.

Soft

c. d.

Firm Hard

3. Which arthrokinematic motions occur during closed kinetic chain knee flexion and in which direction? a.

Roll and glide, opposite c.

Roll and glide, same b.

Spin and glide, opposite d.

Spin and glide, same 4. Which ligament limits knee adduction? a.

Medial collateral b.

Lateral collateral

c. d.

Anterior cruciate Posterior cruciate

5. Which ligament limits anterior displacement of the femur on the tibia? a.

Medial collateral c.

Anterior cruciate b.

Lateral collateral d.

Posterior cruciate 6. The Q angle is larger in women because: a.

They have a wider pelvis b.

They have a larger pelvic opening

c. d.

Their tibial tuberosity is more medial All of the above

7. The largest sesamoid bone is the: a.

Cuboid b.

Patella

c. d.

Lunate Pisiform

8. Which ligament is attached to the medial meniscus? a.

Medical collateral c. b.

Lateral collateral d.

Anterior cruciate Posterior cruciate

9. What causes rotation of the knee joint? a.

Soleus b.

Short head of biceps femoris c.

Size difference between tibial plateaus d.

Size difference between femoral condyles

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Page 1 of 3

10. During terminal knee extension in a closed kinetic chain, in which direction does the femur rotate? a.

Medial rotation c.

Anterior b.

Lateral rotation d.

Posterior 11. The patella improves function of the quadriceps because it: a.

Changes the angle of pull c.

Increases the force arm b.

Acts as a pulley d.

All of the above 12. Which position of the lower extremity makes the rectus femoris actively insufficient? a.

Hip flexion and knee flexion c.

Hip flexion and knee extension b.

Hip extension and knee extension d.

Hip extension and knee flexion 13. What is the common insertion of the semitendinosus, sartorius, and gracilis? a.

Tibial tuberosity c.

Lateral tibial condyle b.

Pes anserine d.

Condylar fossa 14. Severing the femoral nerve will result in paralysis of the: a.

Hamstrings c.

Gastrocnemius b.

Quadriceps d.

Adductors 15. The vastus intermedius is: a.

Deep to the rectus femoris b.

Attached to the anterior femur

c. d.

A knee extensor All of the above

16. The action of the gastrocnemius is: a.

Knee extension and ankle eversion b.

Knee extension and ankle inversion

c. d.

Knee flexion and ankle plantarflexion Knee flexion and ankle dorsiflexion

17. The origin of the popliteus is the: a.

Posterior lateral condyle of the femur b.

Posterior medial condyle of the femur

c. d.

Posterior lateral condyle of the tibia Posterior medial condyle of the tibia

18. The quadriceps perform which type of contraction when moving from standing to sitting? a.

Isokinetic c.

Eccentric b.

Isometric d.

Concentric 19. Knee flexion in an open kinetic chain presents which class of lever? a.

First c.

Second b.

Third d.

Fourth 20. When an individual has genu valgum, the distal tibia is in which position with respect to the femur? a.

Anterior c.

Medial b.

Posterior d.

Lateral

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Page 2 of 3

CHAPTER 18 KNEE JOINT Answer Section 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

C C A B D A B A D A D C B B D C A C B D

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Page 3 of 3

CHAPTER 19 LEG, ANKLE, AND FOOT Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The ankle joint is composed of the: a.

Fibula and talus b.

Tibia and talus

c. d.

2. Normal range of motion of ankle dorsiflexion is: a.

0 to 20 degrees c. b.

0 to 30 degrees d.

Fibula and tibia Fibula, tibia, and talus 0 to 40 degrees 0 to 50 degrees

3. The end feel of ankle dorsiflexion and plantarflexion is: a.

Empty c.

Firm b.

Soft d.

Hard 4. The ankle joint shape is a: a.

Ball and socket b.

Hinge

c. d.

Condyloid Plane

5. During dorsiflexion in an open kinetic chain, which arthrokinematic motion(s) occur(s) and in which direction(s)? a.

Roll anteriorly and glide posteriorly c.

Roll posteriorly and glide anteriorly b.

Spin and glide posteriorly d.

Spin and roll anteriorly 6. In a closed kinetic chain, an individual sways forward and holds that position. Identify the force, joint, resistance, and class of lever. a.

F: body weight, R: plantar flexors, A: ankle, first class b.

F: plantar flexors, R: body weight, A: ankle, first class c.

F: body weight, R: dorsiflexors, A: ankle, second class d.

F: dorsiflexors, R: body weight, A: subtalar, second class 7. Which ankle and foot motions occur at the subtalar joint? a.

Dorsiflexion/plantar flexion c.

Inversion/eversion b.

Abduction/adduction d.

Supination/pronation 8. In a closed kinetic chain, with the ankle in plantar flexion and the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joints extended, what is the function of the longitudinal arches and the plantar aponeurosis? a.

Supporting the ankle joint c.

Unlocking the keystones b.

Making the foot stable d.

All of the above

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9. The sustentaculum tali is on which tarsal bone? a.

Lateral cuneiform c. b.

Navicular d.

Cuboid Calcaneus

10. Which bone is the keystone of the lateral longitudinal arch? a.

Lateral cuneiform c.

Cuboid b.

Navicular d.

Talus 11. What is/are the function(s) of the interosseus membrane of the leg? a.

Attachment for muscles b.

Transmit ground reaction forces proximally c.

Maintain the positional relationship between the tibia and fibula d.

All of the above 12. What is the function of the fibula as part of the ankle joint? a.

Weight-bearing c. Stabilize the tibia b.

Prevent lateral displacement of the talus d.

Limit eversion 13. The keystone of the medial longitudinal arch is the: a.

Talus c. b.

Cuboid d.

Navicular Medial cuneiform

14. Which aspect of the ankle is supported by the deltoid ligament? a.

Anterior c.

Medial b.

Posterior d.

Lateral 15. Which nerve innervates the gastrocnemius and soleus? a.

Deep fibular c.

Superficial fibular b.

Tibial d.

Obturator 16. Severing the deep fibular nerve as it splits from the common fibular nerve results in loss of: a.

Dorsiflexion c.

Extension of the four lateral toes b.

Extension of the great toe d.

All of the above 17. What is the origin of the tibialis anterior? a.

Tibia and fibula b.

Fibula and interosseous membrane

c. d.

Tibia and interosseous membrane None of the above

18. What is the function of the quadratus plantae because of its attachment to the flexor digitorum longus on the plantar surface of the foot? a.

Stabilizing the longitudinal arch c.

Combining forces b.

Stabilizing the transverse arch d.

Changing the line of pull

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19. Which are the stirrup muscles of the foot? a.

Fibularis brevis and tibialis posterior b.

Fibularis longus and tibialis anterior

c. d.

Fibularis brevis and tibialis anterior Fibularis longus and tibialis posterior

20. The tibialis posterior passes under the: a.

Medial malleolus b.

Sustentaculum tali

c. d.

Tuberosity of the navicular Lateral malleolus

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Page 3 of 4

CHAPTER 19 LEG, ANKLE, AND FOOT Answer Section 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

D A C B A A C B D C D B A C B D C D B A

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CHAPTER 20 POSTURE Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Antigravity muscles are generally: a.

Flexors b.

Extensors

c. d.

Abductors Rotators

2. Proper alignment of body segments in any posture serves to: a.

Reduce stress on ligaments and muscles c.

Reduce energy requirements b.

Decrease the possibility of creating a bony deformity d.

All of the above 3. Posture alignment is built from the: a.

Top down b.

Bottom up

c. d.

Pelvis None of the above

4. An increase in the thoracic kyphosis places increased compression on which structure? a.

Vertebral arch c.

Vertebral bodies b.

Transverse processes of vertebrae d.

Intervertebral facet joints 5. An increase in lumbar lordosis increases which force on the anterior longitudinal ligament? a.

Traction c.

Horizontal b.

Compression d.

Perpendicular 6. Pes cavus is best observed in which postural observation view? a.

Superior c.

Posterior b.

Lateral d.

Anterior 7. Genu varum is best observed in which postural observation view? a.

Medial/lateral c.

Anterior/posterior b.

Superior d.

None of the above 8. When using a plumb line for observation of an individual’s posture, it is aligned to which body part? a.

Spinal column c.

Shoulder girdle b.

Feet d.

Nose 9. When observing posture from a lateral view, the plumb line is expected to be: a.

Slightly posterior to the patella c.

Through the tip of the acromion b.

Through the greater trochanter d.

All of the above

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10. When observing posture from the posterior view, the plumb line is expected to be: a.

Over the spinous processes c.

Equidistant between the posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) b.

Equidistant between the knees d.

All of the above 11. When positioning an individual in supine position, alignment should be: a.

Shoulders parallel to pelvis c.

Head flexed b.

Hips externally rotated d.

Feet plantar flexed 12. When placing an individual in a side-lying position, the uppermost lower extremity is: a.

Over the lowermost lower extremity c.

Flexed at the hip and knee b.

Extended and adducted at the hip d.

None of the above 13. The neutral position of the pelvis is when the: a.

Iliac crests are in the same sagittal plane b.

Posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) and ischial tuberosities are in the same horizontal plane c.

Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis are in same frontal plane d.

None of the above 14. When performing postural observation from a posterior view, an observation is made that the upper trunk is shifted to the left and the left shoulder is lower than the right shoulder. A possible cause is: a.

Scoliosis c.

Lordosis in the lumbar spine b.

Kyphosis in the thoracic spine d.

Lateral flexion of the head and neck 15. When performing a postural observation using an anterior view, the observation is made that the right anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) is lower than the left ASIS. A possible cause is: a.

Scoliosis c.

Short left lower extremity b.

Short right lower extremity d.

Plantar flexion contraction on the right 16. A posterior pelvic tilt is best observed from which view? a.

Lateral c.

Posterior b.

Anterior d.

All of the above 17. Which posture change would accompany left genu valgum? a.

Pes cavus on the left c.

Lower anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) on the left b.

Pes planus on the right d.

Lower ASIS on the right 18. When performing a postural observation using a lateral view, the observation is made that the right shoulder girdle is anterior to the left shoulder girdle. Which trunk motion would cause that position? a.

Rotation c.

Flexion b.

Extension d.

None of the above

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19. When performing a posture observation in sitting, the lower extremities should be: a.

Supported c.

Neutral rotation at the hip b.

Thighs parallel to the base of support (BOS) d. All of the above 20. When arranging a sitting posture for working at a desk, the upper extremities should be positioned such that the: a.

Shoulders are in 45 degrees flexion c.

Elbows are flexed to 100 degrees b.

Forearms are supported d.

All of the above

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CHAPTER 19 POSTURE Answer Section 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

B D B C A D C B D D A C C A B A C A D B

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CHAPTER 21 GAIT Multiple Choice Select the one best choice that completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is/are the task(s) of gait? a.

Weight acceptance b.

Single-leg support

c. d.

Single-leg advancement All of the above

2. Stride length is the: a.

Horizontal distance between the initial contact of one foot and the next initial contact of the same foot b.

Side-to-side distance between the feet when walking c.

Horizontal distance between the initial contact of one foot and initial contact of the other foot d.

None of the above 3. A gait cycle is the sequence of movements of: a.

Both legs completing all phases of gait b.

One leg completing all phases of gait c.

Initial contact of one leg to terminal swing of the opposite leg d.

None of the above 4. The function of the swing phase of the right lower extremity during gait is: a.

Weight transfer c.

Limb advancement b.

Single-leg support d.

All of the above 5. During pre-swing, the ankle plantar flexes to: a.

Shorten the leg in preparation of the swing phase b.

Flex the knee to shorten the leg so it clears the floor during mid-swing c.

Push the leg to achieve pre-swing d.

Slow down the movement of the tibia 6. Lateral pelvic shift to the stance leg: a.

Maintains the center of gravity (COG) over the base of support (BOS) during single-leg stance b.

Is greatest at mid-stance d.

All of the above 7. During the swing phase, the pelvis rotates toward the: a.

Swing leg c. b.

Stance leg d.

c.

Occurs

Backward None of the above

8. Between initial contact and weight acceptance, which ankle muscles are contracting and which type of contraction is occurring? a.

Dorsiflexors, eccentric c.

Plantar flexors, eccentric Copyright © 2022 F.A. Davis Company

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b.

Dorsiflexors, concentric

d.

Plantar flexors, concentric

9. Between mid-stance and terminal stance, which ankle muscles are contracting and which type of contraction is occurring? a.

Dorsiflexors, eccentric c.

Plantar flexors, eccentric b.

Dorsiflexors, concentric d.

Plantar flexors, concentric 10. From initial contact to mid-stance, what is the effect of line of gravity (LOG) on the knee and, if necessary, which muscles are countering the effect? a.

Anterior to the knee, no muscle needed c.

Anterior to the knee, hamstrings b.

Posterior to the knee, hamstrings d.

Posterior to the knee, quadriceps 11. Gait observation is best performed by observing from the: a.

Side c.

Back b.

Front d.

All of the above 12. Gait observation is best performed by observing: a.

All joints simultaneously b.

One joint through its complete cycle c.

The stance of one leg and immediately the stance of the other leg for easy comparison d.

The swing phase first 13. “Hip hiking” is a gait compensation used when which of the following conditions exist? a.

Inability to flex the knee of the swing lower extremity b.

Inability to flex the knee of the stance lower extremity c.

Weakness of the quadratus lumborum on the side of the swing lower extremity d.

Weakness of the quadratus lumborum on the side of the stance lower extremity 14. At terminal stance the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joints are in: a.

30 degrees extension c.

10 degrees flexion b.

20 degrees extension d.

5 degrees flexion 15. What is the maximum knee flexion and in which subphase is it achieved? a.

40 degrees at pre-swing c.

60 degrees at initial swing b.

40 degrees at terminal swing d.

60 degrees at mid-swing 16. Swing of the upper extremities during gait assists with: a.

Weight advancement c.

Rotation of the swing leg b.

Counter-rotation d.

Moving the line of gravity (LOG) away from the base of support (BOS) 17. Weakness of ankle dorsiflexors and toe extensors can contribute to: a.

Lack of achieving foot flat after initial contact c. Falls b.

Lack of push during terminal swing d.

Short stride length of that extremity 18. Uncompensated weakness of the stance-leg hip abductors results in: Copyright © 2022 F.A. Davis Company

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a. b.

Lateral pelvic tilt on the swing-leg side Lateral pelvic shift on the stance side

c. d.

Pelvic elevation of the stance side Pelvic elevation on the swing side

19. Taking multiple steps in place prior to initiating gait is which type of deviation? a.

Trendelenburg gait c.

Steppage gait b.

Festinating gait d.

Foot slap gait 20. A fused ankle results in: a.

No change in the gait b.

Narrow step width

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c. d.

Longer step length on that side Short step length on the opposite side

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CHAPTER 20 GAIT Answer Section 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans: Ans:

D A B C C D B A C D D B A A C B C A B D

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