TEST BANK for Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It. 11th Edn by Martin & Pear.

Chapter 1. Introduction Multiple Choice Questions On Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. A behavioral deficit is: * a) too little of a particular type of behavior b) too much of a particular type of behavior c) an appropriate behavior occurring to the wrong stimulus d) an appropriate behavior occurring at the wrong time or place 2. A behavioral excess is: * a) too much of a particular type of behavior b) too little of a particular type of behavior c) an appropriate behavior occurring to the wrong stimulus d) an appropriate behavior occurring at the wrong time or place 3. Which of the following is an example of behavior? a) hair color b) the color of someone’s eyes c) the clothes someone is wearing *d) dressing in the morning 4. In behavior modification, creativity and intelligence refer to: a) inner mental processes * b) ways of behaving c) causes of behavior d) major sources of abnormality 5. In behavior modification, the term “environment” refers to: a) the neighborhood in which a person is raised b) the natural habitat of an organism * c) the specific physical variables in one’s immediate surroundings d) the general situation where one happens to be 6. * 7.

*

A child does not pronounce words clearly and does not interact with other children.

These are examples of: a) behavioral excesses b) behavioral abnormalities c) behavioral deficits d) behavioral characteristics Behavior modifiers stress the importance of defining problems in terms of specific behavioral deficits or behavioral excesses because: a) therapists can then focus on the individual’s problem behaviors rather than on his or her strengths b) it is behavior that causes concern, and there are specific procedures now available to change behavior c) labeling an individual implies that a particular treatment program will be helpful d) labeling an individual is useful for quickly providing general information about how that individual might perform

8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of behavior modification? a) It defines problems in terms of behavior. b) Its treatment procedures and techniques are ways of rearranging an individual’s environment. c) Its techniques draw extensively from the principles of operant and Pavlovian conditioning. * d) It emphasizes the use of summary labels for classifying individuals.

9. Which of the following is an example of covert behavior? * a) a skier thinking, “I hope I don’t fall” b) a pitcher throwing a ball c) a student drinking coffee d) a child talking to her dog in the backyard 10. Which of the following is an example of overt behavior? a) feelings of nervousness * b) yelling at someone c) a boy on a date thinking, “I like this girl” d) imagining a beautiful sunset

11. Which of the following is an example of an outcome of behavior? a) throwing a baseball b) lifting a heavy weight * c) scoring a goal in ice hockey d) standing at the free throw line in basketball 12. Behavior therapy was first used to refer to: a) behavior modification in which there is typically an attempt to analyze or clearly demonstrate controlling variables b) the scientific study of laws that govern the behavior of human beings and other animals * c) Joseph Wolpe’s behavioral treatment for specific phobias d) behavior modification that focuses on overt behaviors that are of social significance 13. Behavior modifiers are cautious about using summary labels to refer to individuals or their actions because: a) the label for the behavior is often used as a pseudo-explanation for the behavior b) labels can negatively affect the way an individual might be treated c) labeling may influence us to focus on an individual’s problem behaviors rather than on his or her strengths * d) all of the above 14. The people, objects, and events that make up a person’s environment are called: * a) stimuli b) conditioned stimuli c) unconditioned stimuli d) reinforcing stimuli 15. Which of the following is not a characteristic of behavior modification? a) Its treatment procedures are ways of altering an individual’s environment. b) Its methods and rationales can be described precisely. * c) Its techniques stem primarily from cognitive psychology. d) Its techniques are often applied by individuals in everyday life.

16. Behavioral assessment seeks to: a) determine the underlying mental disturbance responsible for behavioral symptoms b) identify the type of mental disorder assumed to underlie particular patterns of abnormal behavior * c) identify potential controlling variables of problem behaviors, and select behavioral treatment d) determine the necessary intelligence level of potential clients as a prerequisite to behavior modification programs 17. Which of the following is not a misconception about behavior modification? a) Behavior modifiers only deal with the observable and they don’t deal with the thoughts and feelings of clients. * b) Behavior modification involves the systematic application of learning principles to improve covert and overt behaviors. c) Behavior modification involves the use of drugs, psychosurgery, and electroconvulsive therapy. d) Behavior modification only changes symptoms; it doesn’t get at the underlying problems.

18. Which of the following is an example of cognitive behavior? a) a child reading out loud for a parent b) a baseball player talking to her coach * c) a person on a hot day imagining that he is sitting at the ocean d) a student writing with a pen 19. Behaviors to be improved in a behavior modification program are frequently called: a) overt behaviors b) covert behaviors c) cognitive behaviors * d) target behaviors

20. Behavior Analysis refers to: a) behavior modification in which there is typically an attempt to analyze or clearly demonstrate controlling variables * b) the scientific study of laws that govern the behavior of human beings and other animals c) behavioral treatment carried out on dysfunctional behavior d) behavior modification that focuses on overt behaviors that are of social significance 21.

*

involves the systematic application of learning principles and techniques to assess and improve individuals’ covert and overt behaviors in order to enhance their daily functioning. a) Behavioral assessment b) Behavior analysis c) Behavior modification d) Cognitive behavior therapy

22. Classical conditioning was developed by: a) B.F. Skinner c) Joseph Wolpe

* b) Ivan Pavlov d) Aaron Beck

23. In the 1950s, ____________ developed a behavioral treatment for specific phobias. a) Hans Eyesenck b) Aaron Beck c) Albert Ellis *d) Joseph Wolpe 24. The term “cognitive therapy” was used by ___________ to refer to strategies for recognizing maladaptive thinking and replacing it with adaptive thinking. * a) Beck b) Ellis c) Wolpe d) Skinner

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T

25. Behavior modification accepts changes in a behavior as the indicator of the extent to which a problem is being helped.

F

26. One of the defining characteristics of behavior modification is that it does not emphasize scientific demonstration that an intervention was responsible for a particular behavior change.

T

27. Behavior is, essentially, anything a person does or says.

F

28. Behavior modifiers deal only with observable behavior, and discount subjective events such as thoughts and feelings.

F

29. The color of a person’s eyes is an example of behavior.

T

30. Studying for a course is an example of a behavior.

F

31. Remembering the feelings of your first kiss is an example of overt behavior.

T

32. Thinking “I hope I pass this course” while sitting in class, is an example of covert behavior.

F

33. To a behavior modifier, intelligence is something that you were born with, a sort of “inherited capacity for learning.”

T

34. Hyperactivity is a label for certain behaviors.

T

35. According to the authors of the text, the term behavior modification has a broader meaning than the term behavior therapy.

F

36. A teenager frequently interrupts conversations between his parents. That’s an example of a behavioral deficit.

T

37. A golfer often thinks negatively just before important shots. That’s an example of a behavioral excess.

F

38. Behavior modification can only be applied by experts, and not by individuals in everyday life.

T

39. Environmental events that impinge on one’s sense receptors and that can affect behavior are called stimuli.

F

40. Cognitive behavior is another term for overt behavior.

T

41. Behavior analysis refers to the scientific study of laws that govern the behavior of human beings and other animals.

F

42. The term behavior therapy is typically used to refer to behavior modification where there is an attempt to clearly demonstrate controlling variables of the behavior of concern.

T

43. Characteristics of behavior that can be measured are called dimensions of behavior.

T

44. In 1960 the British psychologist Hans Eysenck used the term “behavior therapy” to refer to the treatment procedure developed by Joseph Wolpe.

F

45. In a landmark experiment in 1920, Mary Cover Jones demonstrated Pavlovian

conditioning of a fear response in an 11 month-old infant.

F

46. Strategies for recognizing maladaptive thinking and replacing it with adaptive thinking were referred to by Beck as behavior therapy.

T

47. The terms behavior therapy and cognitive behavior therapy are often used interchangeably.

Multiple Choice Question on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 48. Behavior modifiers made little use of the first three DSMs because: a) they were based primarily on research rather than on Freud’s theory b) individual disorders were based on categories of problem behaviors c) they used a multidimensional recording system * d) they were based on Freud’s theory of abnormal behavior

True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F

49. To avoid problems associated with labeling, in the case of autism, for example, we should describe the client as an autistic child rather than as a child with autism.

Chapter 2. Areas of Application: An Overview Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. PSI stands for: *

a) popular standards of instruction c) personalized system of instruction

b) personalized systems of information d) personalized students’ instruction

2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of behavioral approaches to university teaching? a) It identifies the instructional goals for a course in the form of study questions. b) It has frequent tests in which students are required to demonstrate their knowledge to the answers of study questions. c) Students are given detailed information at the beginning of a course about what is expected of them on tests and assignments to achieve various letter grades * d) It emphasizes multiple-choice items and examinations as an objective scoring strategy ideally suited for large classes.

3. Studies with clinical populations have shown behavior therapy to be: a) significantly inferior to the alternative treatment to which it was compared, which was usually some form of verbal psychotherapy * b) demonstrably superior to other forms of psychotherapy in certain problem areas (e.g., phobias) c) used as the main mode of therapy for treating adults by approximately 60% of practicing therapists d) used about as often as psychodynamic therapy in the treatment of children by pediatric psychologists 4. The characteristics of impaired communication, impaired social behavior, and repetitive self- stimulatory behaviors during the first few years after birth are shown by individuals diagnosed as: a) moderately developmentally disabled b) schizophrenic c) severely intellectually disabled * d) autistic 5. A broad interdisciplinary field concerned with the links between health, illness, and behavior is referred to as: a) health psychology b) stress management * c) behavioral medicine d) behavioral health 6. Organizational behavior management refers to: * a) the application of behavior modification techniques to individual or group performance within an organizational setting b) an emphasis on the use of non-professionals in human service programs c) use of behavior modification to help individuals adhere to a healthy lifestyle d) seeking out intervention strategies at the organizational level rather than at the individual level 7. Behavior modifiers have begun to pay more attention to issues of race, gender, ethnicity, and sexual orientation because: a) the Association of Behavior Analysis is now an international organization b) culturally diverse individuals now make up 30% of the American population * c) these variables can influence the effectiveness of treatment d) there are no dangers of overgeneralizing about any particular cultural group

8. Which of the following is not a general area in which behavior modification has been applied in behavioral sport psychology? a) Teaching new athletic skills * b) Selecting athletes for Olympic programs on the basis of those with the personality most suited to sacrifice and dedication to winning c) Motivating practice and fitness training d) Helping athletes to cope with pressure at major competitions 9. In the 1960s and 70s, ___________ developed early intensive behavioral treatment programs for children with autism. a) B.F. Skinner * b) Ivar Lovaas c) Fred Keller d) Joseph Pear 10. The American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities now prefers the term to refer to individuals characterized by significant limitations in intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior? * a) intellectual disability b) mental retardation c) developmental disability d) mentally handicapped 11. Which of the following is not a sub-area of the application of behavioral principles in health psychology? a) establishing treatment compliance b) promotion of healthy living c) stress management * d) psychological testing of personality disorders 12. “Applications to socially significant problems in unstructured community settings where the behavior of individuals is not considered deviant in the traditional sense” is the definition of: a) organizational behavior management b) health psychology * c) behavior community psychology d) behavior therapy 13. PSI (Personalized System of Instruction) was developed by: a) Lovaas b) Bellack *c) Keller d) Skinner 14. Helping the elderly to function independently during old age is part of the field referred to as: * a) gerontology b) behavioral medicine c) behavioral community psychology d) behavior management 15. The study of how psychological factors can influence or cause illness, and how people can be encouraged to practice healthy behavior so as to prevent health problems, is referred to as: a) Cognitive behavior therapy b) Stress therapy c) Treatment compliance * d) Health Psychology

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin)

T 16. Behavior modification has been successfully applied within each of the following areas: education, social work, rehabilitation medicine, industry, and sports.

T 17. Personalized System of Instruction, or PSI, was developed by Fred Keller and his colleagues.

T 18. Behavioral sport psychology has been defined as the use of behavior analysis principles and techniques to enhance the performance and satisfaction of athletes and others associated with sports.

F 19. Many studies have demonstrated that there are psychological problems (e.g., anxiety disorders, depression, habit disorders) for which specific behavioral procedures have been demonstrated to be about equally effective with other forms of psychotherapy.

T 20. One of the areas of health psychology involves the use of behavior modification procedures to directly treat certain diseases that were previously thought to require medical treatment.

F 21. The application of behavior modification techniques to individual or group performance within an organizational setting defines the area referred to as community behavioral psychology.

T 22. Littering, recycling, energy conservation, and job skills training are all sub-areas that have been dealt with successfully by behavior modification in the area of behavioral community psychology.

F 23. Issues of race, gender, ethnicity, and sexual orientation are variables that do not influence the effectiveness of behavioral treatment.

T 24. CAPSI stands for Computer-Aided Personalized System of Instruction.

T 25. The person who initially developed behavioral treatments for children with autism is Ivar Lovaas.

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer)

26. A common strategy for delivering early intensive behavioral intervention with children with autism is referred to as: a) behavior management b) developmental teaching * c) discrete-trials teaching d) behavior analysis

Chapter 3. Defining, Measuring, and Recording Target Behavior Multiple Choice Questions on Text 1. A “screening phase” is another name for: * a) an intake phase c) a treatment phase

(Note: * indicates the correct answer)

b) a follow-up phase d) a baseline phase

2. The phase used to determine if a particular agency is the appropriate one to deal with an individual’s behavior and what behaviors should be baselined if this agency is the appropriate one is called the: a) intervention phase b) follow-up phase * c) screening phase d) validation phase 3. A preprogram assessment phase is another name for: a) intake phase b) defining the target behavior phase c) screening phase * d) baseline phase 4. When a behavior modifier relies on a verbal description of the behavior of a client through interviews and/or formal questionnaires, we can say s/he is using a(n) assessment procedure. a) direct * b) indirect c) intellectual d) psychodiagnostic 5. Which of the following is most likely to use an indirect assessment procedure? a) a teacher working with a student b) a coach working with an athlete c) a parent working with a child * d) a professional therapist working with a client 6. With the aid of a therapist, a client may be encouraged to describe a situation in which a problem behavior has occurred in the past and to reenact the occurrence of the problem behavior in that situation. This procedure is known as: * a) role-playing b) behavioral reenactment c) modeling d) symbolic modeling 7. Questionnaires, client self-monitoring, role-playing, information from consulting professionals, and interviews with the client and significant others are the main types of assessment procedures. a) psychological * b) indirect c) psychodiagnostic d) direct 8. A questionnaire that asks significant others or professionals involved with a client to indicate on a checklist the frequency and/or quality of certain behaviors that the client may emit is called a: a) life-history questionnaire b) problem checklist c) survey schedule * d) third-party rating scale 9. The behaviors to be improved in a behavior modification program are frequently called: a) behavioral goals b) baseline behaviors * c) target behaviors d) client objectives

10. Which of the following is not one of the advantages of indirect assessment procedures? * a) They require that observers be appropriately trained. b) They are convenient. c) They don’t require a substantial amount of time to complete. d) They provide information about covert behaviors.

11. The main advantage of direct assessment procedures over indirect assessment procedures is that the former: a) are cheaper b) can be used to provide information about covert behaviors c) are convenient * d) are likely to be more accurate 12. Which of the following is not one of the reasons for recording accurate data during the baseline and throughout a behavioral program? a) It helps to decide initially if the behavior modifier is the appropriate one to design a program. b) It helps the behavior modifier to identify the best treatment strategy. * c) It enables the behavior modifier to refer the problem to the appropriate agency. d) It helps the behavior modifier to decide if the program is producing desired results.

13. If displaying data on an individual’s behavior influences that individual to improve apart from any further treatment program, this process is referred to as: * a) reactivity b) a successful baseline c) self-monitoring d) recording and graphing 14. Which of the following is not a goal of behavioral assessment? a) to identify behavioral excesses or deficits b) to evaluate the effects of interventions c) to identify causes of current problem behaviors * d) to diagnosis or classify individuals 15. The amount of time that a particular behavior lasts or continues on a particular instance is called the: a) timing of a response * b) duration of a response c) latency of a response d) frequency of a response 16. The amount of time it takes until an individual initiates a response after the presentation of a particular stimulus is called the: a) frequency of a response b) duration of a response c) time-sampling of a response * d) latency of a response 17. The time between the question, “What time is it?” and the answer given by someone, “Two o’clock” is the: * a) latency of a response b) frequency of a response c) duration of a response d) timing of a response 18. Recording every instance of a particular behavior during a specified time segment is the definition of a(n) recording system. a) interval b) time-sampling c) fixed-duration * d) continuous 19. The counting of every instance that a person swears during a 1-hour interval is an example of a(n) recording system. * a) continuous b) time-sampling c) fixed-duration d) interval 20.

When an observation period is divided into equal segments of relatively short duration and the occurrence or nonoccurrence of a specific behavior is recorded a maximum of once per segment, we say that a(n) recording system is in effect. a) fixed-duration b) fixed-interval c) time-sampling * d) interval

21. If the in-seat behavior of a child in a classroom is recorded in ten-second segments

successively throughout a one-hour period, the recording system that is being used is called a(n) recording system. a) fixed-interval b) time-sampling * c) interval d) fixed-duration 22.

If a parent checks whether or not a child is watching TV by observing the child for a few seconds each hour on the hour throughout a day, that parent is using a(n) recording system. a) fixed-interval * b) time-sampling c) interval d) continuous

23. When would one select a continuous recording system over an interval recording system? a) when the main concern is percent of appropriate responses b) when successive responses can be of variable duration * c) when successive responses are quite similar in duration d) when instances of behavior can be of long duration 24. The amount of agreement between independent observers on the occurrence of specific instances of a particular behavior is referred to as: a) independent reliability b) observer reliability c) independent observer reliability * d) interobserver reliability 25. An acceptable IOA in a behavior modification program is: * a) 80–100% b) 75–100% c) 90–100% d) anything over 70% 26. The formula for computing IOA on data collected from partial-interval recording is: a) disagreements divided by the total number of intervals, multiplied by 100% b) disagreements divided by agreements + disagreements on the occurrence of a behavior, multiplied by 100% * c) agreements divided by agreements + disagreements on the occurrence of a behavior, multiplied by 100% d) agreements divided by disagreements on the occurrence of a behavior, multiplied by 100%

True/False Questions on Main Text ((Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 27. The only differences between a training program, a therapy program, and an intervention strategy are the settings and clients for which they are used.

F 28. A direct assessment procedure is one which typically relies on a verbal description of the problem behavior emitted by the client.

T 29. A preprogram assessment phase, a treatment phase, and a follow-up phase are three of the minimal components of a behavior modification program.

F 30. A screening or intake assessment is another name for a baseline phase.

F 31. Behavioral assessment views test performance as a sign of an enduring intrapsychic trait.

T 32. Behavioral assessment assumes that covert behaviors are like overt behaviors in terms of their controlling variables.

F 33. An interval recording system is one in which the observation period is scored as occurring or not occurring during very brief observation intervals, each of which is separated by some longer period of time.

F

34. Sport-specific behavioral checklists, like traditional psychological tests, have norms.

T 35. Sport-specific behavioral checklists provide information for designing effective interventions for improving athletic performance.

T 36. When the observational method affects the behaviors being observed, we say that the observation is obtrusive.

F 37. It is not acceptable to include agreement on blank intervals in computing an IOR when one is interested in decreasing a behavior and having agreement that the behavior did not occur.

Chapter 4. Doing Behavior Modification Research Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. A baseline phase, a treatment phase, a return to baseline phase, and a return to the treatment phase are the components of the: a) multi-element design b) multiple-baseline design c) changing criterion design * d) reversal-replication design 2. In research terminology, the measure of behavior is referred to as: a) independent variable *b) dependent variable c) uncontrolled variable d) controlled variable 3. The baseline phase of the reversal-replication design should continue until the pattern of performance is or until it shows a trend in the direction that predicted when treatment is introduced. a) increasing; the same as b) decreasing; opposite to * c) stable; opposite to d) decreasing; the same as 4. Which of the following is a limitation of the ABAB design: a) the observed behavior might not be independent b) the treatment might lead to improvement across situations *c) behavioral trapping may prevent a reversal to baseline d) the treatments might interact 5. A(n) design calls for the introduction of the treatment sequentially across two or more behaviors. * a) multiple-baseline across behaviors b) ABAB c) multiple-baseline across treatments d) ABAC 6. Baseline of self-abusive behavior is taken in a session room and on a ward. Treatment for self-abuse is then introduced in the session room, and baseline is continued on the ward.

Then, treatment is applied in the session room and the ward. This is a(n) design. a) ABAB b) multiple-baseline across behaviors c) ABAC * d) multiple-baseline across situations 7. A design calls for treatment to be introduced on a particular behavior sequentially across two or more individuals. * a) multiple-baseline across people b) multi-element c) multiple-baseline across behaviors d) sequential-introduction 8. In a multi-element design, two separate treatments are applied to the behavior in: a) a reversal-replication sequence b) sequential order * c) randomly alternating sessions d) a single session 9. Another name for a multi-element design is design. * a) alternating-treatments b) multiple-baseline c) reversal-replication d) changing-criterion 10. A potential problem with the design is that one of the treatments may produce an effect either because of a contrast to the other treatment in alternating sessions or because of generalization of treatments across conditions. a) multiple-baseline * b) multi-element c) reversal-replication d) changing criterion 11. One aspect of is to examine the extent to which target behaviors identified for treatment programs are really the most important for the client and/or society. a) reliability assessment b) external validation c) internal validation * d) social validation

12. Which of the following is not an aspect of social validation? * a) examining the extent to which the treatment programs are really responsible for improvement in target behaviors; b) determining the acceptability to the client of the particular procedures used; c) determining the extent to which the target behaviors are important to the client; d) ensuring that the clients and/or their caregivers are satisfied with the results.

13. Which of the following is not one of the scientific criteria used to evaluate whether or not a treatment was responsible for producing a reliable effect on the dependent variable? a) the immediacy of an observed effect b) the size of an observed effect * c) the extent to which an observed effect is socially validated d) the number of times that an effect is replicated 14. Evaluating the practical importance of behavior change to the client and following the implementation of a behavior modification program, is referred to as: a) scientific analysis * b) social validation c) external validation d) subjective validation 15. Baseline data are collected on the name calling, swearing, and spitting behavior of a child towards other children. A treatment program is then introduced sequentially on the name calling behavior, then the swearing behavior, and finally the spitting behavior. This is a(n) design: a) alternating treatments * b) multiple-baseline across behaviors c) multiple-baseline across situations d) changing criterion 16. In randomly alternating sessions, a child’s swearing behavior at nursery school is either reprimanded or ignored. This is a design. * a) multi-element b) multiple-baseline across behaviors c) changing criterion d) multiple-baseline across situations 17. Evaluating how a client feels about the treatment procedures used in a behavior modification program provides an assessment of: a) scientific analysis b) external validation * c) social validation d) subjective evaluation 18. Over time, successive changes are introduced in the behavioral requirement for treatment, and the effects of these changes are observed on the treated behavior. This is a design. a) multi-element * b) changing criterion c) multiple-baseline across behaviors d) multiple-baseline across situations 19. The extent to which the treatment or independent variable was in fact responsible for any observed changes in the dependent variable is referred to as: a) social validity b) external validity * c) internal validity d) concurrent validity 20. The extent to which findings can be generalized to other behaviors, individuals, settings, or treatments is referred to as: a) social validity * b) external validity c) internal validity d) concurrent validity

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 21. The treatment program is referred to as the dependent variable and the behavior being treated is referred to as the independent variable.

T 22. A baseline phase should continue until the pattern of performance is stable or until it

shows a trend in the direction opposite to that predicted for treatment.

F 23. In a reversal-replication design, two replications of each phase are necessary to draw a valid conclusion.

T 24. An advantage of multiple-baseline designs over the ABAB design is that the former does not require a reversal to baseline conditions.

F 25. A limitation of the multiple-baseline across situations design is that the subjects may influence each other prior to treatment.

T 26. It is possible to use the alternating treatments design to study topographically different forms of the behavior.

F 27. An alternating-treatments design is also referred to as a changing-criterion design F 28. Judgments about the clinical or applied importance of behavior change are referred to as judgments of external validity.

T 29. A study is said to have internal validity if it demonstrates that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable.

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer)

30. Which of the following is not one of the reasons that single-case designs are more popular than control group designs among behavior modifiers? a) Single-case designs typically provide potentially valuable information on individual variation in performance. * b) Single-case designs are based on assumptions about the distribution of the dependent variable in the population. c) Single-case designs require only a few individuals with the same performance problem in order to evaluate an intervention. d) In single-case designs, all of the clients receive the treatment at one time or another.

31. Which of the following is not commonly used in behavior modification research? a) reversal-replication design b) multiple-baseline design across subjects * c) control group design d) multiple-baseline design across behaviors

Chapter 5. Respondent (Classical, Pavlovian) Conditioning of Reflexive Behavior Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. That behavior can be modified by its consequences is the basic tenet of: a) respondent conditioning b) respondent extinction * c) operant conditioning d) aversion therapy 2.

If a stimulus (that does not elicit a particular response) is closely followed in time by a second stimulus that elicits a particular response, then the first stimulus will come to elicit the response that was elicited by the second stimulus. This is the definition of the principle of: a) positive reinforcement b) operant conditioning

c) counterconditioning

* d) respondent conditioning

3.

If a conditioned stimulus (CS) is presented without further pairings with the unconditioned stimulus, the CS will gradually lose its capacity to elicit the conditioned response. This is the definition of: a) respondent conditioning * b) respondent extinction c) counterconditioning d) operant extinction

4. *

A stimulus that elicits a response without prior learning or conditioning is called a(n): a) unconditioned stimulus b) discriminative stimulus c) conditioned stimulus d) establishing stimulus

5. *

When a person salivates at the sight of food, the response of salivating is classified as a(n): a) conditioned response b) conditioned reflex c) unconditioned response d) unconditioned reflex

6.

Over several meals, classical music is played at the dinner table. Eventually, classical music is played without pairing it with food, and the person who ate at that dinner table begins salivating. In this example, the sound of classical music became a: a) conditioned stimulus b) conditioned reflex c) conditioned response d) conditioned reinforcer

*

7.

Respondent conditioning procedures may have been used to treat: a) chronic constipation b) nocturnal enuresis c) fear *d) all of the above

8.

In Pavlovian conditioning, the CS acquires greater ability to elicit a CR if: a) the CS is occasionally paired with the US b) the CS follows the US by a few seconds c) the CS is always paired with the US d) the CS is occasionally paired with a strong US

*

9.

A new response is conditioned to the conditioned stimulus at the same time that the former conditioned response is being extinguished. This process is called: a) respondent extinction b) operant extinction c) aversion therapy * d) counterconditioning

10. A conditioned stimulus (e.g., the sound of a bell) is no longer followed by the taste of food.

After several trials, the conditioned response of salivating no longer occurs at the sound of the bell. This is referred to as ? a) spontaneous recovery b) respondent conditioning * c) respondent extinction d) response generalization 11. When you open the cupboard door to get cat food, your cats come running to the kitchen, where they are typically fed. This illustrates the effect of: a) respondent conditioning * b) operant conditioning c) counterconditioning d) modeling 12. When food is presented to a dog, the dog salivates. We would say that the stimulus has the response. a) evoked b) emitted c) cued * d) elicited 13. In Pavlovian conditioning, the CS acquires greater ability to elicit a CR if: a) the CS consistently follows the US by a few seconds b) the CS is occasionally paired with the US * c) the CS consistently precedes the US by a few seconds d) the CS is occasionally paired with a strong US 14. If an organism has been conditioned so that a particular CS elicits a CR, and then a similar stimulus elicits that CR, the latter is referred to as: a) Respondent stimulus discrimination * b) Respondent stimulus generalization c) Counterconditioning d) Respondent extinction 15. The loud barking of a dog causes a child to experience fear. If sight of the dog now elicits fear, then the sight of the dog is called a , and the fear is called the . a) US, CR b) CS, UR c) US, UR * d) CS, CR 16. Suppose that an adult has a chronic problem with constipation. During treatment, each morning the adult inserts a suppository, reads the morning paper, and in a few minutes experiences a bowel movement. After a month of this procedure, the bowel movement occurs after reading the paper. In this example, the CS is: * a) reading the paper b) the bowel movement to the suppository c) the suppository d) the bowel movement to reading the paper 17. For children who suffer from enuresis (chronic bedwetting), the pressure from a full bladder when the child is asleep is not sufficient to cause the child to awaken. An apparatus is wired to the child’s bed such that when the child urinates during the night, a tone sounds to awaken the child. Eventually the child learns to awaken to pressure on the bladder, and can then urinate in the toilet. In this example, the CR is: a) awakening to the tone b) urinating in the bed c) urinating in the toilet * d) awakening to pressure on the bladder 18. The fear of attempting a double axel jump by a young figure skater was treated with: a) respondent extinction b) operant conditioning * c) counterconditioning d) respondent stimulus generalization 19. Behaviors that are elicited by prior stimuli and are not affected by their consequences are called:

*

a) operant behaviors b) respondent behaviors c) unconditioned behaviors d) conditioned behaviors

20. A stimulus-response relationship in which a stimulus automatically elicits a response apart from any prior learning defines a) a conditioned reflex b) operant conditioning c) respondent conditioning * d) an unconditioned reflex 21. Respondent conditioning will develop more quickly and strongly when: * a) the CS or US or both are intense rather than weak b) the CS follows the US by about a half a second, rather than preceding it c) both the CS and the US are weak rather than intense d) the CS is paired with the US just once rather than many times

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 22. A conditioned response may be eliminated more effectively if a new response is conditioned to the conditioned stimulus at the same time that the former conditioned response is being extinguished.

F 23. Behaviors that are controlled by their consequences are called respondent behaviors.

F 24. A conditioned stimulus is said to evoke a conditioned response.

T 25. A stimulus that elicits a response without prior learning is called an unconditioned stimulus.

F 26. Stronger conditioning occurs if the CS just follows the US by up to a few seconds, rather than by preceding the US. T 27. When several neutral stimuli precede a US, the stimulus that is most consistently associated with the US is the one most likely to become a strong CS.

True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 28. It is possible to demonstrate that a neutral stimulus like saccharine can be conditioned to suppress immune system functioning through Pavlovian conditioning procedures.

Chapter 6. Increasing a Behavior with Positive Reinforcement Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer)

1. A positive reinforcer is defined as: a) an event which, when presented immediately following a behavior, causes the behavior to decrease in frequency b) an event which is preferred by a subject c) an event which the subject finds rewarding * d) an event which, when presented immediately following a behavior, causes the behavior to increase in frequency 2. The principle of positive reinforcement states that: a) if, in a given situation, an individual is given a choice of two or more items, the item chosen will be the positive reinforcer * b) if, in a given situation, somebody does something that is immediately followed by a positive reinforcer, then that person is more likely to do the same thing again c) if, in a given situation, an individual is positively reinforced, then that individual will select that situation in future opportunities d) a reinforcer can be used to strengthen behavior 3. The best way to determine if something is reinforcing is to: a) ask the individual what they prefer for a reinforcer b) watch others perform the same behavior and find out what reinforces them and then use that with the individual of concern * c) conduct an experimental test in which you present an item following some behavior on several trials to see if the frequency of that behavior increases d) provide a choice situation in which the “something” is presented along with known reinforcers to see if it will be chosen by the subject instead of the known reinforcers 4. In training programs in which reinforcers are dispensed frequently, it’s best to use a small amount of the reinforcer on any one trial in order to: a) let the client know that there’s more to come * b) minimize satiation and maximize the number of trials in a training session c) ensure that the program is cost-effective d) prevent the client from becoming greedy 5. *

developed the principle that states: For any pair of responses, the more probable one will reinforce the less probable one. a) Skinner b) Michael c) Premack d) Pavlov

6. Unprogrammed reinforcers that occur in the normal course of everyday living are called: * a) natural reinforcers b) arbitrary reinforcers c) contrived reinforcers d) rewards 7. If a response increases in frequency because of its immediate reinforcing consequences, this is known as: * a) the direct-acting effects of positive reinforcement b) a functional response-reinforcer relationship c) the indirect-acting effects of positive reinforcement d) natural reinforcement 8. A parent tells a child, “If you pick up the toys in your room, then I’ll take you to buy your favorite ice cream after dinner.” This is an example of: a) direct acting reinforcement b) the Premack principle c) a natural reinforcer * d) indirect acting reinforcement

9. Which of the following is not one of the reasons for explaining a reinforcement program to the individual whose behavior is to be reinforced? a) Instructions may speed up the learning process for individuals who already understand them. * b) Instructions increase the effects of deprivation for making a reinforcer more effective. c) Instructions may influence an individual to work for delayed reinforcement. d) Instructions about reinforcement programs may help to teach individuals (such as young children) to follow instructions.

10. Eating is reinforced by the taste of food. This is an example of: a) indirect acting reinforcement b) arbitrary reinforcement * c) natural reinforcement d) the Premack principle 11. A coach of young hockey players always has a scrimmage at the end of each practice, something that the players really enjoy. This is an example of: * a) noncontingent reinforcement b) direct acting reinforcement c) contingent reinforcement d) indirect acting reinforcement 12. Giving a person salty foods, or depriving that person of water are examples of: a) discriminative stimuli b) unconditioned stimuli c) direct-acting reinforcers * d) motivating operations 13. Behaviors that operate on the environment to generate consequences, and are in turn influenced by those consequences, are called: a) behaviors b) respondent behaviors c) reflexive behavior * d) operant behaviors 14. Strengthening a response by adding an event immediately following that response is referred to as: * a) positive reinforcement b) negative reinforcement c) escape conditioning d) the Premack principle 15. Events or conditions that temporarily alter the effectiveness of a reinforcer, and increase the frequency of behavior reinforced by that reinforcer, are called: a) positive reinforcers b) direct-acting events c) indirect-acting events * d) motivating operations 16. If a reinforcer is presented at a particular time, irrespective of the preceding behavior, we say that the reinforcer is: * a) noncontingent b) contingent c) direct-acting d) indirect-acting 17. When a behavior must occur before a reinforcer will be presented, we say that the reinforcer is upon that behavior. a) noncontingent * b) contingent c) direct-acting d) indirect-acting

18. When reinforcers are manipulated deliberately in a behavior modification program, we say that they are reinforcers. a) direct-acting b) indirect-acting c) natural * d) programmed 19. Behaviors that act on the environment to generate consequences and are in turn influenced by those consequences, are called behaviors. * a) operant b) reflexive c) covert d) overt 20. The principle of states that there are certain stimuli whose removal immediately after the occurrence of a response will strengthen that response. a) positive reinforcement b) non-contingent reinforcement * c) negative reinforcement d) motivating operations 21. A behavior that is strengthened because it accidently precedes a reinforcer, even though it did not actually produce the reinforcer, is called: a) operant behavior * b) superstitious behavior c) respondent behavior d) reflexive behavior

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 22. Technically speaking, a stimulus is defined as a reinforcer only by its effects on behavior.

F 23. Explaining a reinforcement program to a client is necessary before a reinforcer can be used to increase the frequency of a particular behavior of that client.

F 24. Natural reinforcers are those deliberately presented following a particular behavior in a training program.

T 25. The terms positive reinforcement and reinforcement are often used interchangeably.

T 26. Consumable, activity, manipulative, possessional, and social are categories of reinforcers.

F 27. Giving a child her favorite candy following a desirable behavior is an example of a motivating operation.

T 28. Food deprivation is a type of motivating operation.

F 29. The increased frequency of a response because of its immediate reinforcing consequences is referred to as the indirect-acting effect of reinforcement.

T 30. When a behavior must occur before a reinforcer will be presented, we say that the reinforcer is contingent upon that behavior.

F 31. Unprogrammed reinforcers that occur in the normal course of everyday living are called arbitrary reinforcers.

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer)

32. Persons with developmental disabilities learn certain discriminations better when the correct response reveals a reinforcer hidden inside a container, rather than when a reinforcer is simply handed to the individual for a correct response. Martin and Pear

suggest that such a contingency should be described as:

33. Suppose that a single occurrence of a consequence produces a large change in the behavior that preceded that consequence. This is a clue that the results are due to: * a) indirect-acting reinforcement b) direct-acting reinforcement c) the Premack principle d) response disequilibrium 34. Suppose that a critical response precedes the reinforcer by more than 30 seconds. This is a clue that the results are due to: a) the Premack principle b) direct-acting reinforcement * c) indirect-acting reinforcement d) response disequilibrium

True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin)

T 35. A behavior change is likely due to indirect acting effects of positive reinforcement if the behavior that is measured shows some increase in strength prior to the first occurrence of the consequence.

T 36. Animals can learn even though they are not able to verbalize an understanding or an awareness of their behavior.

Chapter 7. Increasing Behavior with Conditioned Reinforcement Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer)

1. A stimulus which is not originally reinforcing but which acquires reinforcing power through association with a stimulus that is reinforcing is called: * a) a conditioned reinforcer b) a conditioned stimulus c) a natural reinforcer d) a back-up reinforcer 2. A dollar bill may not be reinforcing for a young child who has had no experience with money. However, after the dollar bill is paired with a variety of back-up reinforcers while making various purchases in the store, the dollar bill becomes a powerful reinforcer. This is an example of the development of a: a) extrinsic reinforcer * b) generalized conditioned reinforcer c) simple conditioned reinforcer d) primary reinforcer 3. A reinforcer for which tokens can be exchanged in order to maintain their reinforcing power is called a(n): a) secondary reinforcer b) conditioned reinforcer * c) back-up reinforcer d) primary reinforcer 4. Stimuli which are reinforcing without prior learning are called: a) conditioned reinforcers b) back-up reinforcers c) intrinsic reinforcers * d) primary reinforcers 5. For someone who has not eaten for several hours, food would be a as it is naturally reinforcing in and of itself. * a) primary b) conditioned c) back-up d) secondary

reinforcer,

6. Conditioned reinforcers that can be accumulated and exchanged for other reinforcers are known as: a) adventitious reinforcers * b) tokens c) back-up reinforcers d) extrinsic reinforcers 7. Which of the following is a stimulus that is a conditioned reinforcer (i.e., associated with more powerful reinforcers) but is not a token? a) gold stars on an improvement chart b) coupons for food products * c) the sight of a loved one d) money 8. In a behavior modification token system, tokens can be exchanged for more powerful reinforcers called: a) extrinsic reinforcers b) primary reinforcers c) intrinsic reinforcers * d) back-up reinforcers 9. A stimulus which is not originally punishing but which acquires punishing power through association with a stimulus that is punishing is called a(n): * a) conditioned punisher b) warning stimulus c) unconditioned punisher d) conditioned stimulus 10. A reinforcer that is based on a number of different back-up reinforcers is called a(n): a) natural reinforcer * b) generalized reinforcer c) intrinsic reinforcer d) extrinsic reinforcer 11. At the end of a poker game, poker chips that you have obtained can be exchanged for money. In this case, money can best be described as a(n): * a) back-up reinforcer b) unconditioned reinforcer c) natural reinforcer d) conditioned reinforcer

12. In Erin’s program, the time on Facebook or YouTube are examples of: a) tokens * b) back-up reinforcers c) unconditioned reinforcers d) intrinsic reinforcers 13. Which of the following is most likely to be a primary reinforcer? a) a toy b) money * c) a candy bar

d) poker chips

14. Which of the following is a conditioned reinforcer? a) a drink of water b) a candy bar c) warmth from a fireplace

*d) money

15. Praise is best referred to as a(n): a) natural reinforcer c) intrinsic reinforcer

* b) generalized reinforcer d) back-up reinforcer

16. Conditioned reinforcers that can be accumulated and exchanged for other reinforcers are called: a) backup reinforcers * b) tokens c) natural reinforcers d) intrinsic reinforcers

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 17. Back-up reinforcers are stimuli that are naturally reinforcing in and of themselves, such as food for someone who has not eaten for several hours.

F 18. A primary reinforcer is a reinforcer that is based on a number of different back-up reinforcers.

T 19. A conditioned reinforcer that is a generalized reinforcer is more effective than one that is not.

T 20. Conditioned reinforcers that can be accumulated and exchanged for other reinforcers are called tokens.

T 21. A stimulus that is paired with punishment becomes a conditioned punisher.

True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin)

T 22. Automatic conditioned reinforcement enables us to explain why babies babble a great deal, even when no adults are around.

F 23. Research shows that, although the smell and taste that occurs while smoking cigarettes are paired with the reinforcing effects of nicotine in the bloodstream, the smell and taste of cigarettes do not become conditioned reinforcers for regular smokers.

Chapter 8. Decreasing a Behavior with Operant Extinction Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer)

1. If, in a given situation, an individual emits a previously reinforced response that is not followed by the usual reinforcing consequence, then that person: * a) is less likely to do the same thing again in that situation b) will stop emitting that behavior immediately in that situation c) is more likely to do the same thing again in that situation d) will become very aggressive in that situation 2. When observing an undesirable behavior prior to introducing an extinction program, you would take into account: * a) events that may be reinforcing the behavior b) ways to minimize the number of trials for the extinction program c) punishers that may be used to decrease the behavior that is to be extinguished d) how to implement the program without the client’s knowledge 3. An extinction program may fail because: a) spontaneous recovery did not occur * b) a desirable alternative behavior was not appropriately strengthened c) instructions were not given to the client prior to the program d) prior to the extinction program, the behavior was on a continuous rather than an intermittent schedule of reinforcement 4. The reappearance of an extinguished behavior following a rest is called: a) intermittent reinforcement b) an extinction burst * c) spontaneous recovery d) indirect reinforcement 5. It is important to consider the setting in which extinction will be carried out in order to: a) capitalize on use of instructions * b) minimize the influence of alternative reinforcers on the undesirable behavior c) put the undesirable behavior on intermittent reinforcement before introducing extinction d) minimize spontaneous recovery 6. Which of the following is not a potential problem of an extinction program? a) The behavior may get worse before it gets better. b) The program may produce aggression by the person whose behavior is being extinguished. c) Spontaneous recovery may occur. * d) Other reinforced behaviors will also decrease in frequency.

7. It is important to consider the setting in which extinction will be carried out in order to: a) capitalize on use of instructions b) put the undesirable behavior on intermittent reinforcement before introducing extinction * c) maximize the chances of the behavior modifier persisting with the program d) minimize spontaneous recovery 8. A behavior is likely to extinguish very slowly if: * a) that behavior was reinforced intermittently prior to the extinction program b) that behavior was reinforced continuously prior to the extinction program c) an alternative desirable behavior is reinforced d) there is no aggression as a side-effect 9. If you tell someone to stop eating candies, and the person stops, that is an example of: a) extinction b) the Premack principle * c) instructional control over behavior d) indirect-acting reinforcement

10. If a parent ignores the behavior of a child, that is an example of extinction if: a) the child listens to the parent * b) the parent’s attention was reinforcing the child’s behavior c) the child is obedient d) the child’s behavior was annoying to the parent 11. Behavior that extinguishes slowly is said to be: a) reinforced intermittently b) showing spontaneous recovery * c) resistant to extinction d) exhibiting extinction bursts 12. An increase in responding during extinction is commonly referred to as: * a) an extinction burst b) spontaneous recovery c) an establishing operation d) a pitfall of extinction 13. Extinction and forgetting are similar in that both involve: a) weakening a behavior as a function of that behavior being emitted without being reinforced b) weakening a behavior as a function of time following that behavior c) weakening a behavior as a function of intermittent reinforcement * d) weakening of behavior 14. Suppose that, following instances of a child swearing, the parents said to the child, “You have just lost 25 cents of your weekly allowance.” This is an example of: a) extinction c) reprimand punishment b) forgetting * d) response cost punishment

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 15. An example of extinction is when you tell someone to stop smoking cigarettes, and the person stops.

T 16. A possible reason for the failure of an extinction program is that the undesirable behavior is receiving reinforcement from another source.

F 17. Ignoring the behavior of a person is always an example of extinction.

T 18. Extinction may be quicker after continuous reinforcement than after intermittent reinforcement.

T 19. If a behavior is not reinforced at least once in awhile, it will gradually extinguish.

F 20. Research has shown that extinction can be successfully applied in any setting.

F 21. Behavior that has been reinforced on a continuous reinforcement schedule is more persistent during extinction than behavior that has been reinforced on an intermittent reinforcement schedule.

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 22. Unauthorized reinforcement provided for a behavior being subjected to an extinction program is the definition of: a) continuous reinforcement b) functional reinforcement * c) bootleg reinforcement d) intrinsic reinforcement 23. After Susie appeared to display frequent tantrums that usually led to adult attention, the treatment program involved giving Susie adult attention once every 30 seconds regardless of Susie’s behavior. This treatment program would be referred to as:

*

a) Intermittent reinforcement b) Extinction c) Noncontingent reinforcement d) Bootleg reinforcement

Chapter 9. Getting a New Behavior to Occur With Shaping Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1.

Shaping is referred to as the method of: a) intermittent reinforcement * b) successive approximations c) contingency adjustment d) self-instruction

2.

The form or spatial configuration of a behavior is referred to as: a) latency of behavior b) amount of behavior c) frequency of behavior * d) topography of behavior

3.

The procedure used for developing a new behavior by successively reinforcing closer approximations and extinguishing preceding approximations to achieve a final desired behavior is called: a) intermittent reinforcement * b) shaping c) fading d) discrimination training

4.

Shaping is a procedure that involves two basic principles, namely: a) intermittent reinforcement and extinction b) continuous reinforcement and instructions c) positive reinforcement and extinction d) reinforcer sampling and Premack principle

*

5. *

A guideline for effective application of shaping is to: a) never move to a new approximation until the student has mastered the previous approximation b) overtrain at each approximation to ensure mastery c) reinforce each approximation about 4 times before moving on to the next approximation d) make each approximation somewhat difficult to avoid boredom

6.

Which of the following is not one of the three stages of a shaping program? a) specify the final desired behavior b) identify a starting response to work toward the final desired behavior c) extinguish behaviors that interfere with the shaping program d) reinforce the starting response, and then closer and closer approximations to the final desired behavior

*

7.

A child is reinforced for saying “wa-wa,” then “watah,” and finally, “water.” In this example, has been shaped. a) frequency *b) topography c) amount d) intensity

8.

Across several golf practices, a golfer is reinforced for hitting five shots, then seven shots, then ten shots, and then fifteen shots. This is an example of shaping. a) topography b) duration c) intensity * d) frequency

9. Across several practices, a swimmer is reinforced for starting more and more quickly to the sound of the starter’s pistol. This is an example of shaping. a) duration b) intensity * c) latency d) topography

10. Shaping would not be the procedure of choice for: a) changing the topography of a behavior * b) linking a series of responses together c) increasing the frequency of a behavior d) decreasing the latency of a behavior

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 11. Another name for shaping is the method of spontaneous recovery.

T 12. In starting a shaping procedure, it’s difficult to know if you have enough successive approximations, so you simply give it your best guess and then try out the program.

F 13. Although it is necessary to avoid under-reinforcement at any step in a shaping program, it is not necessary to worry about reinforcing too many times at any step.

T 14. The time between the occurrence of a stimulus and the beginning of a response is referred to as latency.

F 15. Gradually lengthening the time of studying before taking a break would be an example of frequency shaping.

T 16. The intensity of a response refers to the physical effect the response has on the environment.

F 17. The amount of a particular behavior refers to either its frequency or its intensity.

True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 18. Shaping appears to be useful in modifying not only external behavior but also internal behavior.

F 19. Research has demonstrated that it is not possible to use shaping to influence animals to engage in behavior that is harmful to them.

Chapter 10. Developing Behavioral Persistence with Schedules of Reinforcement Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: *indicates the correct answer) 1. When reinforcement occurs after some but not all responses, a(n) of reinforcement is being used. a) continuous b) duration c) interval * d) intermittent

schedule

2. Each time you turn on the TV, a picture appears. This is an example of: a) fixed-ratio reinforcement b) variable-ratio reinforcement * c) continuous reinforcement d) fixed-interval reinforcement 3. During piece-rate pay in a sewing factory, a worker is paid $10.00 for every ten pairs of pants. This is an example of: * a) a fixed-ratio schedule b) a fixed-interval schedule c) continuous reinforcement d) a fixed-duration schedule 4. A pause after reinforcement followed by a high rate of responding until the next reinforcement is the characteristic effect of: a) FI schedule b) VI schedule * c) FR schedule d) FR/LH schedule 5. “Reinforcement occurring after a variable number of responses, where the number varies around some mean value” defines the schedule. * a) variable-ratio b) variable-interval c) variable-ratio-with-limited-hold d) variable-interval-with-limited-hold 6. The advantage of VR over FR in training programs is that: a) reinforcement occurs after a certain number of responses are emitted b) a reinforcer is no longer presented following each response c) the VR generates longer pauses and a steady rate of responding * d) the VR generates less pausing and can maintain a high rate with fewer reinforcements 7. “Reinforcement contingent on the first response occurring after a fixed period of time” is the definition of a(n) schedule. a) FR b) VR * c) FI d) FD 8. “Reinforcement contingent on the first response occurring within a limited period of time following the expiration of a fixed interval of time” is the definition of: * a) FI/LH b) FR/LH c) VR/LH d) VI/LH 9. An FI/LH is similar to a simple FI schedule, procedurally, in that in both FI and FI/LH: a) long pauses occur at the beginning of the interval followed by steady responding b) reinforcement remains available for only a limited period of time * c) reinforcement is programmed to occur after the first response after a fixed period of time d) reinforcement occurs after a certain number of responses are emitted

10. A fairly steady or uniform rate of responding between reinforcements is a characteristic effect of: *

a) an intermittent schedule c) a VI schedule

b) an FR schedule d) an FI schedule

11. When reinforcement that is contingent on the first response occurs within a limited period of time following another interval of time, which varies around some mean value, a(n) schedule is in effect. * a) variable interval with limited hold b) fixed interval with limited hold c) variable interval d) fixed interval 12. A characteristic effect of a VI/LH schedule is: a) intermittent responding with very little pausing * b) steady responding with very little pausing c) very occasional responding with very frequent pausing d) steady responding with no pausing 13. A practical advantage of a VI/LH schedule over an FI/LH schedule is that on a VI/LH schedule: a) the behavior is not influenced by outside distractors b) there are very frequent although small pauses spread uniformly throughout the interval c) it is easy to monitor the amount of time spent producing the desirable behavior * d) there is little or no pausing at the beginning of each interval 14. When reinforcement occurs after the behavior has been engaged in for a continuous period of time, where the specified time varies around some mean value, there is a(n) schedule in effect. a) VR * b) VD c) FR d) VD/LH 15. At home, checking the clothes dryer for dry clothes will eventually be reinforced by the clothes being dry. This would be an approximation of a schedule. a) fixed-ratio * b) variable-interval c) variable-interval-with-limited-hold d) variable-duration 16. A child pounds pegs into a peg board and is reinforced by getting the pegs level with the board. This is an approximation of a schedule. a) fixed-duration b) fixed-ratio c) variable-interval * d) variable-ratio 17. If parents reinforce their child’s practicing of a musical instrument by allowing the child a certain amount of TV time following a fixed amount of practice, this is an approximation of a(n) schedule. * a) FD b) FI c) FI/LH d) VI/LH 18. The statement “The time devoted to an activity in a concurrent situation is proportional to the rate of reinforcement of that activity relative to the rates of reinforcement on the other concurrent activities,” describes: a) performance on a VI/LH b) the concurrent schedule law c) the rate of reinforcement law * d) the matching law

19. The response chosen in a concurrent schedule depends on: a) the relative immediacy of reinforcement b) the relative magnitude of reinforcement c) the relative response effort * d) all of the above 20. The behavior of hitchhiking (thumbing to obtain a ride) is reinforced on: a) a VR * b) a VI/LH c) a VD d) a VI 21. In a procedure, a distinct stimulus is presented prior to an opportunity for a response to occur and be followed by a reinforcement, and the next response cannot occur until another stimulus is presented, and so on. a) free operant b) reinforcement * c) discrete trials d) natural reinforcement

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 22. A fixed-duration schedule would be a very good schedule for reinforcing study behavior.

T 23. The inconsistent use of extinction often results in highly persistent undesirable behavior.

T 24. The behavior of repeatedly dialing a telephone to call a friend whose line is busy is reinforced on an approximation of a VI/LH schedule.

F 25. A teacher might suggest that those students who remain in their desks continuously for a half-hour interval will be allowed ten minutes to read a book of their choice. This is an approximation of VI/LH in a training program.

T 26. In both VD and FD schedules, reinforcement is contingent on engaging in the behavior for a continuous time period.

F 27. A door-to-door salesperson is reinforced on a VI schedule in that a sale is made after some unpredictable number of responses.

T 28. Catching a ride on a bus at a bus stop on a regular city route is probably reinforced on an approximation of an FI/LH schedule.

F 29. Limited hold in an FI/LH schedule can be exemplified by the amount of time a passenger waits at a bus stop for a bus to arrive.

F 30. A VI/LH would not be used to teach students to sit at their desks, as it would generate sitting down and standing up at a high rate.

Multiple Choice Question on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 31. Who wrote the classic authoritative work on schedules of reinforcement? a) Martin and Pear b) Keller and Skinner c) Keller and Watson * d) Ferster and Skinner

True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin)

T 32. It appears that the presence of rule-governed behavior in humans influences them to make interpretations about schedules of reinforcement that generate behavior patterns that are different from those caused by the same schedules when applied to animals.

F 33. Students are likely to complete less class work and make fewer correct responses when reinforced according to a fixed page condition than a fixed time condition.

T 34. Humans often do not show decreased response rates and pauses in responding where animals typically do on certain schedules of reinforcement.

F 35. Preverbal infants show quite different response patterns on certain schedules of reinforcement than do animals on those same schedules.

T 36. Schedules of reinforcement can help us in understanding the causes of pathological gambling that some might attribute to “inner compulsions.”

Chapter 11. Responding at the Right Time and Place: Operant Stimulus Discrimination and Stimulus Generalization Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. A is defined as any physical event or object in one’s immediate surroundings that impinge on one’s sensory receptors and that can affect a behavior. * a) stimulus b) positive reinforcer c) discriminative stimulus d) natural reinforcer 2. A (n) is that which is correlated with the availability of reinforcement for a particular response. a) conditioned stimulus * b) discriminative stimulus c) warning stimulus d) controlling stimulus 3. When a particular behavior is likely to occur in the presence of a particular stimulus and not others, we say that exists. a) behavior persistence b) stimulus generalization * c) stimulus control d) stimulus discrimination training 4. Reinforcing a response in the presence of a particular stimulus and extinguishing that response in the presence of some other stimulus is known as: a) an intermittent schedule b) a shaping procedure c) a reinforcer sampling procedure * d) stimulus discrimination training 5. If a child is reinforced for swearing in front of other kids, but not for swearing in the presence of his parents, we would say that the parents are for swearing. * a) an S∆ b) a reinforcer c) an SD d) a punisher 6. A stimulus that is correlated with the availability of reinforcement for a response is known as: a) a cue b) a controlling stimulus * c) an SD d) an S∆ 7. When two people are eating dinner, the request by one person to pass the salt would be a(n) for the other person to pass the salt. a) S∆ b) controlling stimulus * c) SD d) effective SD 8. A stimulus that is correlated with extinction trials for a particular response is known as: a) an SD b) a controlling stimulus c) a cue * d) an S∆ 9. An “Out of Order” sign on a vending machine is a(n) for the response of putting in money. * a) S∆ b) ineffective SD c) SD d) controlling stimulus

10. Which of the following questions are you not likely to ask yourself when you are considering the selection of a stimulus to be set up as an SD for the behavior of another person? a) Can the stimulus be presented primarily on occasions on which the response should occur? b) Is there a high probability that the person will attend to it? * c) Are there a wide variety of reinforcers available that are sufficiently different from one another? d) Is the stimulus sufficiently different from other stimuli on more than one dimension?

11. What do the authors mean by “an error in discrimination training”? a) failing to respond to the S∆ b) not responding at all c) responding to the SD * d) responding to the S∆ 12. In the case of a man who inadvertently enters the women’s washroom, the printed sign on the door “Women” is a(n) for the response of entering, on the part of the man. * a) ineffective S∆ b) effective S∆ c) effective SD d) ineffective SD 13. If a child’s swearing when playing with friends in the street increases as a function of the friends’ natural reactions, then swearing exemplifies: * a) contingency-shaped behavior b) rule-governed behavior c) extrinsic reinforcement d) intrinsic motivation 14. The people, objects, and events currently present in one’s surroundings that can be detected by one’s sense receptors are referred to as: a) SDs * b) stimuli c) S∆s d) antecedents 15. The procedure by which we learn to emit a specific behavior in the presence of some stimuli and not in the presence of other stimuli is called: a) shaping b) stimulus control training * c) stimulus discrimination learning d) contextual control training 16. If a father were to tell his 16-year-old son, “You can use the family car on Saturday if you mow the lawn on Friday,” and if the son mows the lawn on Friday, we would describe the son’s lawn-mowing as: a) contingency shaped behavior b) intrinsically motivated behavior * c) rule-governed behavior d) self-managed behavior 17. When behavior becomes more probable in the presence of one stimulus or situation as a result of having been reinforced in the presence of another stimulus or situation, we say that has occurred. * a) stimulus generalization b) stimulus discrimination c) response generalization d) stimulus control 18. If teaching a child to say “red” in the presence of red objects increases the chances that the child will also say “red” to pink objects, we say that has occurred. a) response generalization * b) stimulus generalization c) stimulus control d) stimulus discrimination 19. Recognizing objects that are red and discriminating them from objects that are green is an example of: * a) conceptual behavior b) response generalization c) a stimulus class d) stimulus generalization 20. A child learns that a small green Volkswagen and a large white limousine are both cars,

because they share some common features, even though they are very different in many respects. This represents: a) stimulus generalization due to considerable physical similarity b) stimulus generalization due to stimulus equivalence classes c) stimulus generalization due to behavioral momentum * d) stimulus generalization involving a stimulus common-element class 21. As a result of learning to match a golf ball to a golf club, and a golf club to a golf bag, a child is now able to match a golf bag to a golf ball without specific training to do so. In this example, the golf ball, the golf club, and the golf bag constitute a(n): a) stimulus class * b) stimulus equivalence class c) stimulus common-element class d) response class

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 22. When a particular behavior is likely to occur in the presence of a particular stimulus and not others, we say that stimulus generalization exists.

T 23.

A man walking toward a door with his arms full of purchases is typically an SD for another person to open the door for him.

F 24.

An Out of Order sign on a vending machine is an SD for the response of putting in the money.

T 25.

An apple, a banana, and a grape are members of a stimulus-equivalence class called food.

F 26.

A stimulus common-element class is made up of stimuli that are physically different but functionally similar.

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 27. As a result of learning to match A to B and B to C, an individual can now match A to C without specific training. This is called: a) stimulus equivalence * b) transitivity c) reflexivity d) symmetry 28. When the general setting alters the manner in which an individual responds to a particular stimulus, then has been demonstrated. a) stimulus control b) stimulus equivalence * c) contextual control d) stimulus discrimination

True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 29. Stimulus equivalence requires the demonstration of reflexivity, symmetry, and transitivity.

F 30. Contextual control refers to a situation where a single stimulus controls a single response in all settings or contexts.

Chapter 12. Changing the Control of a Behavior with Fading Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. *

The gradual change, on successive trials, of a stimulus that controls a response so that the response eventually occurs to a partially changed or completely new stimulus, is known as: a) fading b) stimulus discrimination training c) shaping d) SD - S∆ training

2.

If a parent tries to teach a child to hold a pencil and make a line on a piece of paper by physically guiding the child’s hand, and if over successive trials the physical guidance is gradually lessened to the point where the child will be able to draw a line without any help whatsoever, the parent is using: a) an extinction procedure * b) a fading procedure c) SD - S∆ training d) stimulus discrimination training

3.

Which of the following is not an advantage of establishing stimulus control without errors? a) Errors consume valuable time. b) If an error occurs once, it tends to occur many times even though it is being extinguished. c) Establishing a mastery criterion without errors leads to increased generalization. d) The absence of reinforcement when errors are being extinguished often produces emotional side effects.

*

4.

A stimulus that you want to eventually control a target behavior is called a(n): a) effective stimulus b) training stimulus c) starting stimulus * d) final target stimulus

5.

The initial stimulus that reliably evokes the desired behavior at the start of a fading program is known as the: a) effective stimulus *b) starting stimulus c) discriminative stimulus d) target stimulus

6.

George teaches his dog to bring him the morning newspaper by first reinforcing the dog for sniffing at the paper, then for picking it up in its mouth, then for carrying it a few steps, and finally for bringing it all the way to him. George’s procedure exemplifies: a) fading b) stimulus discrimination training c) intermittent reinforcement * d) none of the above

7.

When a teacher alters the characteristics of the SD or the S∆ to make them more noticeable and therefore easier to discriminate during discrimination training with a child, the teacher is using a(n): a) extra-stimulus prompt b) physical prompt c) within-stimulus prompt d) modelling prompt

* 8.

Which of the following is not a major category of prompts? a) verbal prompts * b) psychological prompts c) gestural prompts d) physical prompts

9.

The procedure in which the response remains the same over trials while the controlling stimulus is gradually changed is called: a) method of successive approximation b) shaping c) stimulus discrimination training * d) fading

10. Susan praises her child for saying “please” before being given a treat and for saying “thank you” after receiving the treat. Susan’s procedure exemplifies: * a) stimulus discrimination training b) extinction c) fading d) intermittent reinforcement

11. When a teacher demonstrates a correct behavior, the teacher is using a(n): a) physical prompt b) environmental prompt c) verbal prompt * d) modelling prompt 12. While teaching a child to obtain the appropriate colored object when the teacher said either “blue” or “green,” the teacher’s pointing to the correct object on a trial would be an example of: a) a physical prompt b) an environmental prompt * c) a gestural prompt d) a modeling prompt 13. When teaching a child the correct position of the knife, fork, and spoon at a place setting at a dinner table, the teacher initially draws the location of the utensils on a place mat, and then fades out the drawing over trials. The drawing on the place mat is a(n): * a) extra-stimulus prompt b) within-stimulus prompt c) physical prompt d) time-delay prompt

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 14. It is advantageous to establish stimulus control without errors because errors consume valuable time.

F 15. In fading, the response gradually changes, while the general stimulus situation remains essentially the same.

T 16. Movements a teacher makes without touching the student in order to evoke a desired behavior are called “gestural” prompts.

F 17. No more than 4 reinforced trials should occur at any given fading step before the stimuli of that particular step are changed.

T 18. Fading is a gradual change on successive trials of a stimulus that controls a response, so that the response eventually occurs to a partially changed or completely new stimuli.

F 19. Another name for errorless learning is shaping.

T 20. Any characteristic of a stimulus that can be measured on some continuum is referred to as a dimension of a stimulus.

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 21. The method of removing prompts in which a starting stimulus that reliably evokes the response is gradually changed until the response is evoked by the final desired stimulus is known as the method of: a) increasing assistance * b) decreasing assistance c) graduated guidance d) time delay 22. The method of removing prompts in which the time interval between the final desired stimulus and the starting stimulus is gradually increased from a very small starting value is called the method of: a) increasing time b) decreasing time c) graduated guidance * d) time delay

Chapter 13. Getting a New Sequence of Behaviors to Occur with Behavior Chaining Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. A sequence of SDs and Rs in which each R produces the SD for the next R with the entire sequence followed by a reinforcer is referred to as: * a) a behavioral chain b) shaping c) fading d) stimulus discrimination training 2.

You pour a cup of coffee. You add sugar and then cream. You stir the coffee and then take a sip. The taste of the coffee with the cream and sugar is the reinforcer. This is an example of: a) fading b) shaping c) a stimulus discrimination * d) a stimulus-response chain

3.

In a behavioral chain, a given stimulus is both: a) an S∆ and a generalized reinforcer b) an SD and a conditioned reinforcer c) a stimulus and a target stimulus d) a primary reinforcer and a conditioned reinforcer

*

4.

A chaining method in which the client is required to attempt each of the steps in the chain from the beginning to the end on each trial is referred to as: a) forward chaining * b) total task presentation chaining c) pure part chaining d) backward chaining

5.

When the initial step of a sequence is taught first, then the first and second steps are taught and linked together, then the first three steps, and so on until the entire chain is acquired, this process describes: a) pure part chaining * b) forward chaining c) backward chaining d) total task presentation chaining

6.

Which of the chaining methods requires the trainer to spend less time in partial assembly or disassembly to prepare the task for training? a) forward chaining b) backward chaining c) total task presentation chaining d) pure part chaining

* 7.

In behavior. a) shaping c) chaining

, the end result of the procedure is some new stimulus control of a particular * b) fading d) prompting

8.

When the goal of a program is to develop some new behavior along some physical dimension such as force, form, or duration, one should use: a) fading * b) shaping c) chaining d) prompting

9.

With , the terminal behavior is a new sequence of responses, with a “clear-cut” stimulus signalling the end of each response and the start of the next. a) fading b) shaping c) chaining d) prompting

*

10. The process of breaking a task down into smaller steps or component responses to facilitate training refers to: a) forward chaining b) motivating operation c) pure part chaining * d) task analysis 11. A teacher gradually withdraws her physical guidance that was used to help a nursery school child learn to trace the letter “A.” Eventually the child can trace the letter by herself. This is an example of: a) chaining b) shaping c) prompting * d) fading 12. Always having a readily available conditioned reinforcer to strengthen each new response that is added to the sequence in the chain is a theoretical advantage of: a) forward chaining * b) backward chaining c) total task presentation chaining d) pure part chaining 13. In backward chaining, the response that is closest to the main reinforcer: a) is slowly faded in b) is conditioned last * c) is conditioned first d) is slowly faded out

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 14. A behavioral chain is called a chain because it consists of stimulus-response “links” that are connected or “chained” together.

T 15. After many trials, the stimulus that occurs immediately following each step in a chain eventually becomes both a conditioned reinforcer for the response that produced that stimulus and an SD for the following response.

F 16. The authors recommend backward chaining as the preferred chaining procedure because it appears to focus on teaching response topography and response sequence simultaneously.

T 17. You should begin training a behavioral chain by providing whatever assistance is necessary for the client to perform each of the steps on every trial.

F 18. Feeding a person very salty food, which would establish water as a reinforcer and also evoke behavior such as asking for a drink (that has been reinforced by receipt of water), is an example of forward chaining.

F 19. An adventitious chain is one in which each response component of the chain is necessary for reinforcement.

True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 20. In a long behavioral chain, the stimuli at the beginning of the chain begin to take on the properties of S s, and their quality of being SDs decreases.

Chapter 14. Differential Reinforcement Procedures to Decrease Behavior Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. You are likely to reinforce (by answering pleasantly and with interest) an acquaintance who telephones you if such calls occur at a reasonably low rate, but not if they occur at such a high rate that you feel hassled. You friend is being reinforced on a(n): * a) DRL schedule b) DRO schedule c) DRA schedule d) DRI schedule 2. Reinforcement is given at the end of a session, provided that the number of responses during that session do not exceed some specified limit. This is the definition of: * a) limited-responding DRL b) interval DRL c) spaced-responding DRL d) limited-hold DRL 3. When the session is divided into intervals and reinforcement is given at the end of each interval in which the number of responses do not exceed some specified limit, then a(n) schedule is being applied. a) VI/LH b) spaced-responding DRO c) DRA * d) limited-responding DRL 4. Reinforcement is given immediately after a response during a session, provided that that response is separated from the preceding response by some minimal time period.

This refers to a(n): a) FI/LH b) limited-responding DRL c) VI/LH * d) spaced-responding DRL 5. On a(n) schedule of reinforcement, responding too soon means that the time interval will recycle so that a reinforced response must occur a minimum of a specified interval of time following a preceding response. a) limited-responding DRL b) interval DRL * c) spaced-responding DRL d) limited-hold DRL 6. On a(n) schedule of reinforcement, responding by the individual before the time interval has passed has no programmed consequences. a) spaced-responding DRL * b) FI c) limited-responding DRL d) FD 7. It would be appropriate to use a DRL schedule of reinforcement when a behavior: * a) occurs at greater than the desired rate b) does not occur c) occurs at very low rates d) is harmful to the client or others 8. On a(n) schedule of reinforcement, a reinforcer is presented if a specified period of time passes and a particular behavior does not occur during that time. a) DRA b) DRI c) DRL * d) DRO 9. Jack works at a job where he is paid by the hour. Jack is being reinforced on a schedule. a) fixed-ratio b) fixed-interval * c) fixed-duration d) variable-interval 10. An individual is reinforced if a target response does not occur throughout a particular interval, and each response typically “resets” the interval back to zero. This refers to a(n) schedule. a) DRI * b) DRO c) DRA d) spaced-responding DRL

11. A is a schedule for decreasing a response by reinforcing an alternative response that is incompatible with the response to be eliminated. a) DRO b) DRA * c) DRI d) spaced-responding DRL 12. When Suzie plays the slot machines in Las Vegas, her gambling behavior is reinforced on a schedule. a) variable-interval b) variable-duration c) fixed-ratio * d) variable-ratio 13. A student who studies frequently in order to do well on unannounced pop quizzes in one of her courses is showing the effects of: a) a VI schedule b) a VR schedule * c) a VI/LH schedule d) a VD schedule 14. A procedure that involves extinction of a problem behavior, combined with reinforcing a behavior that is topographically dissimilar to, but not necessarily incompatible with the problem behavior is known as a: a) DRL schedule * b) DRA schedule c) DRO schedule d) DRI schedule

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin)

F 15. Limited-responding DRL is useful when two conditions hold: (a) some of the behavior is tolerable, but (b) the behavior must also be engaged in for a fixed period of time.

T 16. Spaced-responding DRL is useful when the behavior you want to reduce is actually desirable, provided it does not occur at too high a rate.

T 17. The “O” in DRO stands for other responding.

F 18. DRL works to the disadvantage of people who are ignorant of its effects by inadvertently reinforcing behavior that is highly undesirable and harmful to others.

T 19. DRA refers to a schedule in which a behavior that is different from, but not necessarily incompatible with, the problem behavior is reinforced and the problem behavior is extinguished.

True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 20.

In the program in which Tommy could earn extra playtime at the end of the day for having three or fewer talkouts during class, Tommy’s talkouts may have decreased because the teacher immediately reinforced Tommy for working without talking.

F 21.

In the program in which Tommy could earn extra playtime at the end of the day for having three or fewer talkouts during class, Tommy’s talkouts decreased because of the direct-acting effects of reinforcement of free play at the end of the day when he didn’t talk out.

Chapter 15. Decreasing Behavior with Punishment Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1.

An event which, when presented immediately following a behavior, causes the behavior to decrease in frequency, is referred to as a(n): a) SD * b) punisher c) primary reinforcer d) natural reinforcer

2.

Punishers that activate pain receptors or other sense receptors that typically evoke feelings of discomfort are included in the category of: a) physical punishment b) time-outs c) reprimands d) response cost

*

3. *

Placing a child in a relatively barren room for a brief period of time is an example of: a) physical punishment b) reprimands c) time-out d) response cost

4.

Strong negative verbal stimuli make up the category of: a) physical punishment b) response cost c) time-out * d) reprimands

5.

A traffic ticket is an example of: a) physical punishment c) time-out

b) reprimands * d) response cost

6.

A stimulus that was not originally punishing, but that acquired punishing power through association with other punishers is the definition of: a) an S∆ * b) a conditioned punisher c) a reprimand d) a non-exclusionary time-out

7.

Removing the individual for a short time from the situation in which reinforcement is occurring is classified as: a) non-exclusionary time-out b) response cost c) exclusionary time-out d) negative reinforcement

* 8.

Introducing into the situation a stimulus associated with less reinforcement is referred to as: a) response cost b) exclusionary time-out c) negative reinforcement * d) non-exclusionary time-out

9.

If a teacher is unable to detect most instances of a behavior to be punished, then the teacher should have serious doubts about the value of implementing a punishment procedure because: a) the student seems to get used to the punisher and can put up with more of it b) intermittent punishment is less effective than continuous punishment c) you cannot apply an experimental test to this type of situation to detect all instances of the undesirable behavior d) this increases the likelihood that the punisher will become a positive reinforcer

*

10. Parents with good intentions might say to their child, “That was good, but...” and then proceed to explain how the behavior could have been even better. Although they hope to be instructional, they are probably unintentionally applying: a) shaping b) positive reinforcement * c) punishment d) fading 11. In non-exclusionary time-out, the individual is: a) taken away to a time-out area b) ignored while still in the problem situation * c) timed out in the problem situation d) removed from reinforcement 12. As a consequence of coming home later than an agreed-upon curfew, a teenager loses the privilege of driving the family car for one week. This exemplifies: a) negative reinforcement b) time-out c) physical punishment * d) response cost 13. Punishment is the same as: a) negative reinforcement c) avoidance conditioning

b) escape conditioning * d) none of the above

14. To increase an operant behavior, you can: a) punish it * b) negatively reinforce it c) withhold reinforcement following the behavior d) positively reinforce an incompatible behavior 15. When many of us were children, we learned that asking our parents for treats when they were in a bad mood usually led to a reprimand. The parental behaviors characteristic of “being in a bad mood” would be referred to as a(n): a) SD b) S∆ c) CS * d) SDp 16. The view that, in some cases, it is desirable to use quicker-acting punishment procedures to decrease problem behavior rather than slower-acting procedures involving positive reinforcement of alternative behavior, is referred to as the position. a) freedom from harm * b) right to effective treatment c) functional communication d) positive behavior support

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 17. The principle of punishment states: If, in a given situation, somebody does something that is immediately followed by the withdrawal of a punisher, then that person is less likely to do the same thing again when he or she next encounters a similar situation.

T 18. A factor influencing the effectiveness of punishment consists of minimizing the causes of the response to be punished. This is typically done by eliminating the SDs that prompt the undesirable behavior and eliminating reinforcement contingencies that have been maintaining it.

F 19. A common example of response cost that is applied as a punishment by parents to their children is sending children to their room as a punisher for undesirable behavior emitted elsewhere in the house.

T 20. Response cost involves removal of a specified amount of a reinforcer contingent upon a response.

F 21. An SD is a stimulus in the presence of which a response will be punished.

T 22. An S∆ is a stimulus in the presence of which a response will not be reinforced.

F 23. The “right to effective treatment” position is that non-aversive methods for eliminating unacceptable behavior are always at least as effective as punishment, and that there is never any justification for using pain-inducing punishment.

T 24. A procedure called “functional communication training “ is one in which children with developmental disabilities are taught a simple communicative response as an alternative to self-abuse in order to obtain staff attention.

True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 25. A recent review of trends in time-out research concluded that more research was needed to evaluate the relative efficacy of exclusionary vs. nonexclusionary time-out.

F 26. A positive punisher is a stimulus that when presented contingent on a response decreases the frequency of that response. Therefore response cost is a positive punisher.

Chapter 16. Establishing Behavior by Escape and Avoidance Conditioning Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. * 2. *

3. *

Both escape conditioning and the punishment procedure employ: a) differential reinforcement b) exclusionary time-outs c) aversive events d) negative reinforcement Which procedures both increase the likelihood of the target response? a) punishment and escape conditioning b) positive reinforcement and escape conditioning c) positive reinforcement and punishment d) punishment and avoidance conditioning Another name for “conditioned aversive stimulus” is: a) S∆ b) natural punisher c) warning stimulus d) extrinsic punisher

4. *

Why do individuals reinforce the undesirable behavior of others? a) the undesirable behavior is an aversive event which reinforcement terminates (for a while) b) these individuals are reinforced by other individuals’ failures c) we learn more from our mistakes than from our successes d) the undesirable behavior is undergoing shaping

5.

If you use escape conditioning to change a behavior, the behavior is likely to . a) remain the same b) completely stop c) decrease * d) increase

6.

One of the results of avoidance conditioning is that: a) it easily generalizes to other situations b) responding decreases very slowly when the backup aversive stimulus may no longer be forthcoming c) the results last only for a short time d) the aversive stimulus must be presented before the avoidance response will occur

*

7. *

When an aversive stimulus is presented after a response and the response decreases in frequency, this procedure is called: a) response cost b) negative reinforcement c) punishment d) all of the above

8.

Suppose that a parent says to a child, “Clean your room or you can’t watch TV,” and the child cleans his room. This is an example of: a) contingency shaped behavior b) Sidman avoidance conditioning c) punishment * d) rule-governed behavior

9.

A type of avoidance conditioning that includes a warning stimulus that signals a forthcoming aversive stimulus is referred to as: a) Sidman avoidance conditioning b) non-discriminated avoidance conditioning c) discriminated avoidance conditioning d) rule-governed avoidance conditioning

*

10. A child screams loudly in a restaurant, causing some embarrassment for the parent. The parent gives the child an extra dessert, and the child is quiet. The parent’s behavior of giving the extra dessert has been influenced by: a) avoidance conditioning * b) escape conditioning c) Sidman avoidance conditioning d) punishment 11. In a state where it is the law to wear seatbelts while driving, a person does not “buckle-up” when starting for work in the morning. But when that person sees a police car just ahead, the person quickly buckles up. That person’s “buckling-up” behavior has been influenced by: * a) avoidance conditioning b) escape conditioning c) Sidman avoidance conditioning d) punishment 12. Another name for escape conditioning is: a) punishment * b) negative reinforcement c) discriminated avoidance conditioning d) Sidman escape conditioning 13. Escape conditioning and positive reinforcement are similar in that: a) both involve aversive events b) both involve reinforcers * c) both lead to an increase in the likelihood of behavior d) both cause fear as a side effect

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 14. In avoidance conditioning, the response prevents or postpones the aversive stimulus rather than removing it.

F 15. Conditioned aversive stimulus is another name for response cost.

F 16. In escape conditioning, the aversive stimulus is not present prior to the occurrence of the response, and the response prevents (or postpones) the aversive stimulus rather than removing it.

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 17. An avoidance schedule in which occasional aversive events are postponed by the emission of a response and in which no warning stimulus signals the impending occurrence of an aversive event is referred to as: * a) Sidman avoidance conditioning b) passive avoidance conditioning c) escape conditioning d) negative reinforcement 18. In a city where frequent, unpredictable rain showers occur, carrying an umbrella to work each morning, even though the sky is clear, might be an example of: a) negative reinforcement b) passive avoidance conditioning * c) Sidman avoidance conditioning d) escape conditioning

Chapter 17. Respondent and Operant Conditioning Together Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1.

*

A child is approached by a dog and is knocked down, which causes fear. The next time the child sees a dog, the child experiences fear, which subsides when the child runs away from the dog. The child’s fear of the sight of the dog was caused by: a) operant conditioning b) escape conditioning c) respondent conditioning d) avoidance conditioning

2.

A child is approached by a dog and is knocked down, which causes fear. The next time the child sees a dog, the child experiences fear, which subsides when the child runs away from the dog. The child’s running away from the dog is maintained by: a) operant conditioning * b) escape conditioning c) respondent conditioning d) avoidance conditioning

3.

The child hears the bell (which rings continuously) of an ice cream wagon, goes out to the street and buys ice cream, bites the ice cream, and salivates. The sound of the bell will become a(n) for the response of salivation. a) CS b) US c) CR d) SD

* 4.

The child hears the bell (which rings continuously) of an ice cream wagon, goes out to the street and buys ice cream, bites the ice cream, and salivates. The sound of the bell will become a(n) for going to the street to buy ice cream. a) CS b) US c) CR *d) SD

5.

The autonomic reaction that you feel inside during the experience of an emotion is influenced by: a) operant conditioning * b) respondent conditioning c) avoidance conditioning d) escape conditioning

6.

The way that you learn to express an emotion is influenced by: a) avoidance conditioning b) respondent conditioning c) operant conditioning d) escape conditioning

* 7.

The way that you become aware of and describe your emotions is influenced by: a) avoidance conditioning b) respondent conditioning c) escape conditioning * d) operant conditioning

8.

Suppose, on seeing the host at a party, you think to yourself, “He has a big nose.” This would be an example of: a) operant thinking b) respondent thinking c) conditioned seeing d) conditioned sensing

*

9. *

Suppose, on a warm summer day, you close your eyes and imagine that you are at the beach, and you visualize a good looking person in a bathing suit. This is an example of: a) operant thinking b) operant feelings c) respondent thinking d) respondent feelings

10. The emotion called joy (or happiness) is caused by: a) presentation of aversive stimuli b) withdrawal of aversive stimuli * c) presentation of reinforcers d) withdrawal of reinforcers

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin)

F 11. The respondent component of emotions involves that part of our nervous system referred to as the somatic nervous system.

F 12. In studies of newborn infants, flinging out the arms sideways is a CR to a loud sound.

T 13. For most of us, an imminent deadline that we have not yet responded to is a CS for anxiety.

T 14. The feeling component of our emotions is controlled by respondent conditioning.

T 15. In studies of newborn infants, gagging occurs when the back of the mouth is touched.

F 16. In studies of newborn infants, the eye being touched is a CS for blinking.

T 17. Withdrawal of reinforcers causes the emotion called anger.

F 18. Withdrawal of punishing events causes an emotion called anxiety.

F 19. Conditioned sensing involves the operant component of thinking.

T 20. Conditioned seeing involves the respondent component of thinking.

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer)

21. A form of aversion therapy in which an undesirable reinforcer is repeatedly paired with an aversive event is referred to as: a) thought stopping b) conditioned sensing c) aversive conditioning * d) covert sensitization 22. The procedure of covert sensitization was developed by: * a) Cautella b) Skinner c) Bandura

d) Pavlov

Chapter 18. Transferring Behavior to New Settings and Making It Last: Generality of Behavior Change Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. When behavior becomes more probable in the presence of one stimulus or situation as a result of having been reinforced in the presence of another stimulus or situation, we say that has occurred. * a) stimulus generalization b) response generalization c) stimulus discrimination d) stimulus control 2. If teaching a child to say “dog” in the presence of a small brown dog increases the chances that the child will also say “dog” to small black dogs and large white dogs, we say that has occurred. a) response generalization b) stimulus control * c) stimulus generalization d) stimulus discrimination 3. When the probability of the behavior is different in the presence of two different stimuli or situations, is occurring. a) stimulus generalization * b) stimulus discrimination c) stimulus shaping d) stimulus satiation 4. When a behavior becomes more probable in the presence of a stimulus or situation as a result of a similar behavior having been strengthened in the presence of that stimulus or situation, has occurred. a) stimulus generalization b) stimulus shaping c) stimulus discrimination * d) response generalization 5. Which of the following is not a tactic for programming stimulus generalization? a) making the training situation as similar as possible to the test situation, and if possible, training in the test situation b) programming common stimuli by developing the target behavior to stimuli that are present in both training and test situations * c) training sufficient response exemplars d) training sufficient stimulus exemplars 6. Training sufficient response exemplars, and varying the responses that are acceptable during training to increase the probability of a variety of responses occurring in the test situation are two tactics for: a) recruiting natural communities of reinforcement b) programming behavior maintenance c) stimulus discrimination training * d) programming response generalization 7. Which of the following behaviors is not a tactic for programming behavior maintenance? * a) varying the acceptable behaviors during training to increase the probability of a variety of behaviors occurring in the test situation b) teaching people in the natural environment to maintain the target behavior of the subject; c) deliberately reinforcing the target behavior in the test situation on an intermittent schedule of reinforcement d) ensuring that the target behavior comes under the control of reinforcers in the natural environment 8. Developing a behavior that comes under the control of natural contingencies of reinforcement so that the behavior will persist after the training contingencies are withdrawn is called: a) recruiting reinforcement b) behavioral persistence * c) behavioral trapping d) behavior control

9. If a behavior is maintained in the natural environment because the subject has been explicitly taught how to obtain reinforcement from individuals (after emitting the target behavior), we say that has occurred. a) response generalization b) behavioral trapping c) stimulus generalization * d) recruiting reinforcement 10. A child who calls all four-legged animals “dogs” is exhibiting a) stimulus equivalence b) response generalization * c) stimulus generalization d) response maintenance

.

11. After learning to call her dog “Doggie,” a baby also refers to her dog as “Dogged,” “Dada,” and “Diggy.” The child is exhibiting . a) stimulus discrimination * b) response generalization c) stimulus generalization d) stimulus equivalence 12. If a child is taught to say “dog” when viewing different dogs, then the child is likely to generalize and refer to any variety of dog as a “dog”. This would be an example of: * a) training sufficient stimulus exemplars b) training sufficient response exemplars c) response generalization d) behavior maintenance 13. Within a behavioral approach, a set of stimuli that have some physical characteristic in common is referred to as: a) a response class * b) a common-element stimulus class c) a mental representation of objects d) a behavioral trap 14. An infant learns to say “doggy” to a large dog. Later, the infant sees a different kind of dog and says “doggy.” This represents stimulus generalization due to: a) conceptual learning b) stimulus equivalence training * c) physical similarity d) a behavioral trap 15. A child learns that a tiny Chihuahua and a large German Shepherd are both dogs, because they share some common features, even though they are very different in many respects.

This represents: a) stimulus generalization due to physical similarity b) stimulus generalization due to equivalence classes c) stimulus generalization due to high-probability instructions * d) stimulus generalization due to a stimulus common-element class 16. If a CS is presented without further pairings with a US, the CS will lose its ability to elicit the CR. This is known as: a) operant extinction * b) respondent extinction c) counterconditioning d) behavioral momentum 17. One can heat water by placing a tin of it over a campfire, plugging in an electric kettle, or placing a hot rock into a can of water. These alternatives constitute: a) a stimulus equivalence class b) functionally equivalent stimuli c) a concept * d) functionally equivalent responses 18. Adding “ed” to the ends of verbs to indicate past tense illustrates: a) stimulus generalization due to conceptual learning * b) response generalization due to sharing a common characteristic c) response generalization due to equivalence classes d) stimulus generalization due to equivalence classes 19. Suppose that a child is typically noncompliant when asked to do a particular task. The teacher therefore asks the child to perform three tasks in succession that the child likes to do, and then asks the child to perform the task on which he is noncompliant. As a result of this procedure, the child performs all four tasks. This illustrates:

a) response generalization c) stimulus generalization

* b) high-probability instructions d) behavior maintenance

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 20.

In stimulus generalization, an individual makes a different response to two different stimuli, whereas in stimulus discrimination, an individual makes the same response to two different stimuli.

T 21.

Stimulus generalization refers to the transfer of a particular behavior to different stimuli, whereas response generalization refers to transfer between responses in a particular setting.

F 22.

Making the training situation as different as possible from target situations is a tactic for programming stimulus generalization.

True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 23.

Children with developmental disabilities show the same amount of stimulus generalization when trained with pictures of objects as when trained with the actual objects.

Chapter 19. Antecedent Control: Rules and Goals Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. On Monday, a parent says to a child, “If you clean your room each Saturday morning, I’ll give you two dollars.” The next Saturday, the child cleans his room. This illustrates an example of: a) a functional response-reinforcer relationship b) natural reinforcement * c) rule-governed behavior d) contingency-shaped behavior 2. If you tell someone to stop eating candies and the person stops, then that would be an example of: a) extinction b) spontaneous recovery c) contingency-shaped behavior * d) rule-governed behavior 3. A behavior that has been gradually strengthened by the direct-acting effects of reinforcement is said to be: * a) contingency shaped b) stimulus controlled c) rule-governed d) instinctive 4. Rule-governed control over behavior is especially effective when: a) rapid behavior change is desirable b) a specific behavior will lead to immediate and severe punishment c) natural consequences for that behavior are delayed * d) all of the above 5. A parent says to a child, “If you study for an hour each night this week you can watch the late movie on Friday night.” This example involves a(n): * a) indirect-acting reinforcer b) direct-acting reinforcer c) natural reinforcer d) unconditioned reinforcer 6. Very few people follow the rule “Always wear a helmet when riding a bicycle in order to avoid brain damage from a serious accident” because: a) there are not enough police officers to adequately enforce it b) the consequences are very delayed c) the consequences are only cumulatively significant * d) the consequences are highly improbable 7. Few people follow the rule “Floss your teeth everyday to prevent tooth decay” because: * a) the consequences of a single such action are too small to be noticed and are only of cumulative significance b) the consequences for doing so are highly improbable c) the consequences for doing so are very delayed d) there are no consequences for doing so 8. A description of a three-term contingency is referred to as a(n): a) partial rule b) rule-governed behavior c) contingency shaped behavior * d) rule 9. The partial rule “drive slowly” identifies the: a) antecedent b) antecedent and behavior * c) behavior d) consequence 10. A rule is less likely to be followed if it identifies: a) a specific behavior b) a deadline c) a probable consequence * d) a small consequence

11. Which of the following is not accurate? * a) “Do your best” goals are more effective than challenging goals. b) Specific goals are more effective than vague goals. c) Public goals are more effective than private goals. d) Goal-setting is more effective if deadlines are included.

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 12.

Rules that do not contain deadlines are about as effective as rules that do contain deadlines.

T 13.

Use of goals to influence performance capitalizes on rule-governed control over behavior.

F 14.

“Do your best” goals are more effective than specific challenging goals.

T 15.

Public goals are more effective than private goals.

True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 16.

Exercising just before going to bed is a recommendation of behavioral sleep therapy.

T 17.

A recommendation of behavioral treatment for insomnia is that one should not consume caffeine or alcohol late in the evening.

F 18.

A recommendation of behavioral treatment for insomnia is that one should go to bed at the same time each evening, even if you don’t feel sleepy.

T 19. A recommendation of behavioral treatment for insomnia is that one should get up at the same time each morning, regardless of the time that you went to bed.

Chapter 20. Antecedent Control: Modeling, Guidance, and Situational Inducement Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. Which of the following procedures would you probably use if you wanted to decrease an excessive behavior? * a) operant extinction b) respondent extinction c) shaping d) fading 2. A behavioral technique in which a client rehearses particular behaviors in a practice setting to increase the likelihood that the client will follow those behaviors in the real world is called: a) symbolic modeling b) generalized imitation * c) role-playing d) participant modeling 3. Presenting physical contact to guide someone through appropriate behavior is called: a) gestural prompting b) participant modeling c) modeling * d) physical guidance 4. The term involves influencing a particular behavior by using situations and occasions that already exert control over the behavior. * a) situational inducement b) participant modeling c) rule-governed behavior d) generalized imitation 5. Which of the following is not an example of antecedent control: a) modeling * b) positive reinforcement c) physical guidance d) situational inducement 6. Which of the following is not a proposed category of situational inducement? a) relocating people * b) counterconditioning c) moving the activity to a new location d) changing the time of the activity 7. It is said that the famous writer Victor Hugo controlled his work habits in his study by having his servant take his clothes away and not bring them back until the end of the day.

This is an example of: a) counterconditioning b) response cost c) symbolic modeling * d) situational inducement 8. According to the proposed guidelines for the use of instruction, modeling, and physical guidance, what behavioral principle is used with all three procedures? * a) positive reinforcement b) shaping c) response cost d) fading 9. A parent tells a child, “If you clean your room every night before you go to bed this week, I’ll take you to a movie on Saturday,” and the child complies. This exemplifies: a) situational inducement b) environmental prompting c) contingency-shaped behavior * d) rule-governed behavior 10. If after having been reinforced for imitating a number of behaviors, an individual imitates a completely new behavior the first time that behavior is modeled, we say that has occurred. a) novel generalization b) participant modeling c) symbolic modeling * d) generalized imitation.

11. Which of the following is not likely to influence the effectiveness of modeling as a behavior modification technique? a) arrange for peers to be models * b) counterconditioning c) show the behavior and its effects d) use multiple models

12. In order to “get up the energy” to follow her usual exercise routine on a Saturday afternoon, the exercise buff places some dumbbells in the center of the den (where she usually exercises) and turns on the TV to the local fitness channel. Which category of situational inducement is the exerciser practicing? a) relocate people * b) rearrange the existing surroundings c) move the activity to a new location d) change the time of the activity 13. After many interruptions while trying to write the behavior modification text at the university, Martin and Pear began working at one of their homes. Which category of situational inducement did they apply? a) relocate people b) rearrange the existing surroundings * c) move the activity to a new location d) change the time of the activity 14. Which of the following is not a strategy to be followed to influence the effectiveness of modelling? a) arrange for peers to be models * b) arrange for the modelled behavior to be seen to be ineffective c) use multiple models d) combine modelling with rules 15. A procedure in which a client practices particular behaviors in a practice setting to increase the likelihood that those behaviors will occur appropriately in the real world is called: a) contingency shaping b) rule-governed control c) modeling *d) behavioral rehearsal 16. Which of the following is not typically a component of BST? a) instructions b) rehearsal c) modeling *d) shaping

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 17.

Stimulus discrimination and fading are two procedures used to get a desired behavior to occur in the presence of appropriate stimuli.

F 18.

To stop drinking, an alcoholic surrounds himself with members of Alcoholics Anonymous and stops seeing his old drinking buddies. This is an example of symbolic modeling.

F 19.

Punishment is an important antecedent control procedure.

True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 20.

From a behavioral point of view, imitative learning is considered to be innate in higher species.

T 21.

Other people’s actions may become SDs for engaging in similar actions because the response of imitating often results in reinforcement. This is one process by which imitative behavior is learned.

Chapter 21. Antecedent Control: Motivation Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: *indicates the correct answer) 1. According to Suzie’s teacher, “Suzie is a good student because she is highly motivated.” This is an example of view of motivation: a) a behavioral b) Michael’s * c) a traditional d) Skinner’s 2. Events that temporarily alter the effectiveness of consequences as reinforcers or punishers are called: a) establishing operations * b) motivating operations c) abolishing operations d) reinforcing operations 3. Feeding a person salty food increases the reinforcing value of water for that person. Feeding someone salty food would therefore be an example of a(n): a) UMAO b) CMAO c) CMEO * d) UMEO 4. With unconditioned motivating operations: * a) the value-altering effect is innate and the behavior altering effect is learned b) the value-altering effect is learned and the behavior altering effect is innate c) both the value-altering and behavior altering effects are innate d) both the value-altering and behavior altering effects are learned 5. With conditioned motivating operations: a) the value-altering effect is innate and the behavior altering effect is learned b) the value-altering effect is learned and the behavior altering effect is innate c) both the value-altering and behavior altering effects are innate * d) both the value-altering and behavior altering effects are learned 6. A parent tells his teenage daughter that she can earn points for mowing the lawn, and when a certain number of points have been earned, she can exchange them for use of the family car. The description of the points program is a(n): a) UMEO * b) CMEO c) UMAO d) CMAO 7. After eating a big meal, food is no longer a reinforcer. Food satiation is an example of a(n): a) UMEO b) CMEO * c) UMAO d) CMAO 8. A child comes home from school and is hungry. The parent tells the child that there are fresh cookies in the cupboard, and the child can have one. This instruction from the parent is an example of a(n): a) CMAO b) S∆ c) CMEO * d) SD 9. Suppose that you have a MasterCard and a Visa and you typically use the MasterCard because it gives you AirMile points for each person. Suppose further that MasterCard terminates their AirMiles program and you switch to Visa. The announcement of the termination of the AirMiles program would be an example of a(n) for using the MasterCard: a) CMEO b) SD * c) CMAO d) S∆ 10. A parent says “water,” and the child mimics “water.” The response of the child is an example of a(n): a) tact b) mand c) intraverbal * d) echoic

11. A child goes into the kitchen and asks a parent for a glass of milk. The request by the child is an example of a(n): * a) mand b) echoic c) tact d) intraverbal 12. A parent points to a dog and asks the child, “What’s that?” and the child replies, “dog.”

The reply by the child is an example of a(n): a) echoic * b) tact c) mand d) intraverbal 13. Observations indicate that a person with severe developmental disabilities engages in excessive scratching due to reactions by well-meaning staff. By way of treatment, the staff provides attention to the individual every ten seconds and scratching decreases. The treatment program would be described as a(n) for staff attention. a) UMAO b) UMEO * c) CMAO d) CMEO

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T

14. A conceptual limitation of the traditional view of motivation is that it involves circular reasoning.

F 15. The behavioral view of motivation conceptualizes motivation as some “thing” within us that causes our actions.

T

16. Motivating operations are events that temporarily alter the effects of consequences as reinforcers or punishers.

F

17. A motivating abolishing operation increases the effectiveness of a consequence as a reinforcer.

T

18. A motivating establishing operation increases the effectiveness of a consequence as a punisher.

F

19. With unconditioned motivating operations, the value-altering effect is learned.

T

20. With conditioned motivating operations, both the value-altering effect and the behavioraltering effect are learned.

Multiple Choice Question on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer)

21. A policeman asks a child, “Where do you live?” and the child correctly tells the policeman the address. The response by the child would be referred to as a(n): a) mand * b) intraverbal c) echoic d) tact

True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F

22. A typical MO is likely to affect one behavior, and a given behavior is likely to be affected by one MO.

T

23. Ingestion of drugs functions as a motivating operation.

T

24. A child’s response “juice” to a parent’s question “What do you want?” is an example of an intraverbal.

Chapter 22. Functional Assessment of Problem Behavior Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer)

1. Searching for variables that might be responsible for causing a problem behavior is referred to as a: a) descriptive analysis * b) functional assessment c) psychodiagnostic assessment d) behavioral assessment 2. Carefully observing the antecedent and immediate consequences of a problem behavior in its natural settings is referred to as a(n): * a) observational assessment b) functional analysis c) psychodiagnostic assessment d) behavioral assessment 3. Each time that training staff place demands on a nonverbal developmentally disabled child, the child throws a tantrum and the staff “back off.” In this example, the child’s tantruming is likely being maintained by: a) external sensory reinforcement * b) escape conditioning c) internal sensory reinforcement d) behavioral chaining 4. Practicing a reaction that is incompatible with a nervous reaction is a component of: * a) counterconditioning b) DRO c) avoidance conditioning d) behavioral trapping 5. The broadly inclusive assessment approach of including medical and nutritional information along with behavioral assessments is referred to as: a) functional analysis * b) behavioral diagnostics c) descriptive analysis d) psychodiagnostic assessment 6. Just before displaying a particular problem behavior, a developmentally disabled child typically looks at a caregiver and smiles. These indicators suggest that the problem behavior is maintained by: a) self-stimulation b) external sensory positive reinforcement * c) attention from others d) escape from demands 7. A developmentally disabled child frequently shows a problem behavior even though it has no apparent effect on other individuals or the external environment. This is an indicator that the problem behavior is maintained by: a) attention from others * b) internal sensory reinforcement c) external sensory reinforcement d) escape from demands 8. A developmentally disabled child frequently shows a problem behavior that produces an effect on the external environment, and that appears undiminished even though there are no apparent social consequences. These are indicators that the problem behavior is maintained by: a) attention from others b) escape from demands c) internal sensory positive reinforcement * d) external sensory positive reinforcement 9. A problem behavior consistently occurs in a certain situation or in the presence of certain stimuli, and is never followed by any clearly identifiable consequence. These are indicators that the problem behavior is: * a) an elicited respondent b) maintained by social positive reinforcement c) maintained by external sensory positive reinforcement d) maintained by escape from demands 10. A developmentally disabled child frequently scratches herself when smiling, when upset, when interacting with others, when alone, and whether or not demands are placed on her.

But when she is required to wear thin rubber gloves throughout the day, scratching gradually decreases to zero. The principle or procedure responsible for her improvement might best be described as: a) respondent extinction b) negative reinforcement c) counterconditioning * d) operant extinction 11. At a restaurant, a child asks his parents for an extra dessert. The parents say no. The child begins to cry, and the parents then buy the child the extra dessert. In this instance, the child’s crying behavior has been influenced by: a) social negative reinforcement * b) external positive reinforcement c) escape from demands d) internal sensory positive reinforcement 12. Experimentally assessing the effects of potentially controlling variables on the problem behavior of an individual is referred to as a(n): * a) functional analysis b) descriptive assessment c) observational assessment d) questionnaire analysis 13. A nonverbal child who repeatedly removes her shoes because they squeeze her toes too tightly is being influenced by: a) social positive reinforcement b) external sensory positive reinforcement c) internal sensory positive reinforcement * d) nonsocial negative reinforcement

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 14. When a teacher is concerned with decreasing a student’s undesirable finger snapping behavior in class, she/he should first identify the IQ of the student.

T 15. It is important to consider the causes of undesirable behavior because it may lead one to appropriately conclude that other specialists should deal with the problem.

True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) T

16. A broad meaning of functional analysis is finding a relationship between examples of two variables, called an independent variable and a dependent variable.

F

17. The topography of a behavior typically tells us a lot about the controlling variables of that behavior.

Chapter 23. Planning, Applying, and Evaluating a Behavioral Program Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. Assume that you are a professional behavior modifier. Under which of the following conditions would you treat a behavior problem that had been referred to you? * a) Once the behavioral goal is reached, it would be easily generalized and maintained. b) The problem is one that would appear to be unmanageable. c) The problem appears to have a medical cause. d) The problem was referred primarily for the benefit of the client’s family.

2. Assume that you are a professional behavior modifier. Under which of the following conditions would you not treat a behavior problem that had been referred to you? a) The problem appears to be important to the client. b) Once the target behavior has been achieved, it might be generalized and maintained. * c) There are individuals who will hinder the program, and who can’t be controlled. d) The problem can be specified in terms of specific behaviors.

3. A behavior modifier might evaluate the ease with which a problem behavior might be changed by determining: a) whether or not the problem behavior has a medical cause b) if the problem has been referred primarily for the benefit of the client c) if the problem can be reduced to a specific set of behaviors that can be counted, timed, or measured * d) if the problem behavior has been occurring for a short time, under narrow stimulus control, and with few instances of intermittent reinforcement 4. A behavior modifier might determine whether or not a client’s behavior might be easily generalized and maintained by assessing: a) whether or not the problem has a medical cause * b) whether or not there are reinforcers and/or people in the natural environment to maintain the desired behavior c) if the problem can be reduced to a specific set of behaviors that can be counted, timed, or measured d) if the problem behavior has been occurring for a short time and under narrow stimulus control 5. Training in a test situation, varying the training conditions, programming common stimuli, and training sufficient stimulus exemplars are four important aspects of: * a) programming stimulus generalization b) programming response generalization c) programming stimulus discrimination d) programming maintenance 6. After a program has been implemented, there are a number of things that can be done to determine whether it is producing satisfactory results. Which of the following is not one of those steps? a) consult the behavioral journals and experienced behavior modifiers concerning related cases b) monitor the data * c) sign a behavioral contract with the client d) consult people who must deal with the behavioral handicap 7. To ensure that the therapist is responsible or accountable to the client, it is recommended that: a) an impartial third person monitor the program * b) the therapist and client sign a treatment contract c) the therapist be supervised by someone with more experience

d) the client should explain the program to a friend 8. Considering the sequential steps for designing and implementing a treatment program following baseline assessment, and supposing that you have identified the target behaviors and defined the goal, which question would you not be addressing at this time? a) Is the description precise? * b) Is the treatment cost-effective? c) Is the goal in the best interest of the client? d) Has the client been given all possible information about the goal?

9. Varying the acceptable responses during training is a strategy for programming: a) stimulus generalization * b) response generalization c) stimulus discrimination d) behavior maintenance 10. If a behavior modifier is examining the possibility of capitalizing on antecedent control in the design of a behavior modification program, which of the following would the behavior modifier not consider using? a) rules b) modelling c) situational inducement * d) positive reinforcement 11. If you are considering strategies for decreasing a behavioral excess, which of the following would you not consider: a) removing SDs for the problem behavior * b) negative reinforcement c) punishment d) DRO, DRI, or DRA 12. A clear statement of what behaviors of what individuals will produce what reinforcers, and who will deliver those reinforcers, is referred to as a: a) treatment contract b) three-term contingency statement * c) behavioral contract d) psychology contract

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 13. A behavior modifier should only accept those referrals for which he/she has appropriate training and adequate time to carry out an effective program.

F 14. When designing a behavior modification program, it is unnecessary to assess whether the behaviors of concern can be counted, timed, or measured in some way.

T 15. The nature of a behavior problem and the frequency with which it occurs will influence the assessment procedure selected by the behavior modifier.

F 16. When attempting to decrease a problem behavior, the behavior modifier should first determine whether or not punishment can be used.

T 17.

When designing a behavior modification program, one of the first concerns of the behavior modifier should be to assess whether or not it is possible to capitalize on existing stimulus control.

F 18. When selecting SDs in a behavior modification program, it is important for the behavior modifier to select stimuli that are similar to other stimuli on more than one dimension.

T 19. When designing a behavior modification program, the behavior modifier must include

strategies to program generality of behavior change.

True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 20. For a number of reasons, the decision as to whether or not you should accept the responsibility of designing a behavioral program might be influenced, in part, by whether or not you live in an urban or a rural setting.

F 21. The availability of significant others is often important to implementing a behavioral program, but not typically valuable for programming generality.

Chapter 24. Token Economies Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. The fact that they can be given immediately after a desirable behavior occurs and cashed in at a later time for a back-up reinforcer is one of the major advantages to using: a) unconditioned reinforcers b) intrinsic reinforcers c) extrinsic reinforcers * d) token reinforcers 2. Deciding on the type of token to be used depends mainly on the type of: a) reinforcement schedule b) response-reinforcer relationship * c) client d) setting 3. Tokens should have the following two characteristics. They should be: * a) easy to handle and attractive b) warm and soft c) flexible and easy to wash d) durable and luminous 4. In a token economy, taking away tokens following problem behavior is an example of _______ punishment: a) physical * b) response-cost c) time-out d) reprimand 5. Which of the following is not a typical source of help for managing a token economy: a) volunteers b) people assigned to work with the participants * c) psychologists d) members of the token economy itself 6. Which of the following is not one of the considerations for deciding on the token price of each backup reinforcer in a token economy: a) supply and demand for the backup reinforcers b) monetary cost of the backup reinforcers c) the therapeutic value of the backup reinforcers * d) the size of the backup reinforcers 7. According to Stainback et al., how many tokens should you have for each student in a group when starting a token economy? a) approximately 20 * b) approximately 100 c) 60–80 d) it depends on the reinforcement schedule being used 8. According to Stainback et al., during the first few days of a token economy, store time for normal children should be held: a) once a week b) every hour of every day for the first week * c) once or twice a day for the first three or four days d) before morning recess, before lunch, before afternoon recess, and before the end of the day 9.

*

and are two general methods of weaning clients from tokens when transferring behavior to the natural environment. a) Stimulus fading; stimulus shaping b) Gradually fading staff participation; gradually eliminating experimenter supervision c) Stimulus withdrawal; programming for generalization d) Gradually eliminating tokens; gradually decreasing token value

10. Gradually making the schedule of token delivery more and more intermittent or gradually decreasing the number of behaviors that earn tokens are two ways of: a) testing for social validity * b) weaning a client from tokens when transferring behavior to the natural environment c) testing for internal validity d) selecting back-up reinforcers for a client being weaned from tokens 11. The Achievement Place group home token economy was initially developed for:

*

a) children with autism b) persons with intellectual disabilities c) persons with severe mental health problems d) pre-delinquent youth

12. Which of the following is not one of the initial steps in setting up a token economy? * a) programming generality to the natural environment b) deciding on the target behaviors c) taking baselines d) selecting backup reinforcers 13. Which of the following is not a feature of the teaching family model for treating predelinquent youth? * a) a governing system in which married couples make all of the decisions regarding daily living rules for the pre-delinquent youth b) a token economy in which participants earn points for appropriate behavior and cash them in for privileges c) an emphasis on normalization d) ongoing evaluation of the performance of the participants

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 14. One should obtain baseline data on the specific target behaviors before initiating a token economy.

T 15. Before and during implementation of a token economy, one must decide how staff in the token economy will be supervised.

F 16. To ensure generalization to the natural environment, a client should not be told why he/she is receiving a token.

F 17. A guideline for identifying behaviors which no longer require token reinforcement is to identify those behaviors that have received continuous reinforcement under the token economy.

True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 18. In a sheltered workshop program for individuals with developmental disabilities, Rae et al. (1990) taught the workers with developmental disabilities to self-administer tokens for appropriate on-task performance.

F 19. Recent studies indicate that the recidivism rates of pre-delinquents who had been in token programs using the teaching family model is about the same as pre-delinquents who had been in traditional programs.

T 20. In classroom mini-economies, teachers use play money to teach children basic principles of economics and personal finances.

Chapter 25. Helping an Individual to Develop Self-Control Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. Emitting a controlling behavior to effect a change in a behavior to be controlled is the model of self-management originally proposed by: a) Mager b) Premack c) Goldiamond * d) Skinner 2. Many self-control problems are caused by: a) a lack of willpower b) temptations that are too strong to resist * c) immediate reinforcement for the problem behavior vs. delayed reinforcement for alternative self-control behavior d) lack of reinforcement for showing self-control 3. A teenager who wants to go out with friends tells his parents that his homework is finished even though it is not, and the teenager is allowed to go out. This behavioral excess of lying occurs because: a) the controlling consequences are highly improbable * b) of immediate reinforcers versus delayed punishers for the behavioral excess c) the consequences are only cumulatively significant d) of immediate small punishers versus delayed larger punishers 4. Which of the following is not one of the steps proposed by Mager for clarifying a vague “fuzzy” goal? * a) Make a commitment to change. b) Write out the goal. c) Make a list of the things that you should say or do that clearly indicate that you’ve met the goal. d) Given a number of people with the same goal, indicate how you would decide who had met the goal and who hadn’t.

5. A commitment to change refers to: a) the willpower needed to change b) clear identification of a self-control goal c) a high frequency of thoughts about the benefits of changing * d) a rule that you state that it is important to change your behavior, that you will work toward doing so and that you recognize the benefits of doing so 6. Which of the following is not a major class of antecedent stimuli that control our behavior? a) instructions * b) reinforcers c) modeling d) other people 7. Which of the following is not one of the strategies recommended for managing consequences in a self-control program? a) Eliminate certain reinforcers that may strengthen a problem behavior that you would like to decrease. * b) Provide reinforcement for showing increased willpower. c) Self-record and self-graph the target behavior. d) Arrange for reinforcers to be earned for showing improvement.

8. In the Simek and O’Brien study, a novice golfer had to sink four consecutive putts before going to the next step. This exemplifies: * a) mastery criterion b) willpower c) self-control d) a behavioral contract 9. A clear written statement of what behaviors of which individuals will produce what reinforcers and who will deliver those reinforcers defines: a) mastery criterion b) a commitment to change

*

c) a behavioral contract

d) the Premack Principle

10. Which of the following is not a cause of relapse in self-control programs? a) unavoidable setback situations b) counterproductive self-talk * c) incorporating everyday rewards into the program d) trying too much too soon 11. Many people are aware of the health hazards of being overweight, and yet many people have difficulty resisting an extra dessert. That is because: * a) the consequences of a single such action are too small to be noticed and are only of cumulative significance b) the consequences for doing so are highly probable c) the consequences for doing so are very delayed d) there are no consequences for doing so 12. Many people play racquetball without wearing protective goggles. This is because: a) the negative consequences are very delayed b) they want to look macho * c) the negative consequences are highly improbable d) the negative consequences are only cumulatively significant 13. Consider the self-control problem of eating too many sweets. This is likely due to: a) immediate reinforcers (for problem behavior) vs. delayed reinforcers (for alternative behavior) b) immediate reinforcers vs. delayed punishers for a behavior * c) immediate reinforcers vs. cumulatively significant punishers for a behavior d) immediate small punishers for a behavior vs. reinforcers that are cumulatively significant 14. A behavioral model of self-control involves: a) controlling the controlling behavior * b) emitting a controlling behavior to effect a change in a behavior to be controlled c) emitting a controlled behavior through self-reinforcement d) reinforcing yourself for having self-control 15. In a behavioral model of self-control, an individual emits controlling behavior that manages antecedents or consequences for a behavior to be controlled. But what controls the controlling behavior? a) lots of willpower * b) natural consequences in the society in which we live c) lots of commitment d) our religious beliefs 16. Which of the following is not one of the steps in a self-control program? a) specify the problem and set goals * b) select delayed reinforcers c) make a commitment to change d) take data and analyze causes

17. Which of the following is not a major class of antecedent stimuli that control our behavior? a) physical guidance b) our immediate surroundings c) the time of day * d) willpower 18. Causes of relapse in situations include: a) avoidable setback situations b) overreaction to occasional setbacks c) counterproductive self-talk * d) all of the above

True/False Questions on (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 19. In behavior modification, self-control refers to some sort of force within us that makes it possible to show self-restraint.

T 20. Some self-control problems occur because of the influence of immediate small reinforcers for problem behaviors as compared to delayed stronger reinforcers for desirable behaviors.

F 21. The first step in a self-control program is to decide how to use self-reinforcement.

T 22. A mastery criterion is a performance requirement for practicing a skill such that if the criterion is met the skill has been learned.

T 23. For many self-control problems, the immediate reinforcement for consumption of harmful substances wins out over the unnoticeable and immediate negative effects that are only cumulatively significant.

F 24. Many self-control problems occur because individuals lack will power.

T 25. Both a commitment to change and knowledge of change techniques are important for self-modification.

F 26. There is no evidence that recording and graphing a behavior is all that’s needed to bring about improvement.

T 27. A strategy for manipulating consequences in a self-control program is to eliminate certain reinforcers that may inadvertently strengthen an undesirable behavior.

F 28. There is no evidence that people who have mastered some behavior modification principles can use them to control their own behavior without having to see a therapist.

T 29. With a behavioral model of self-control, an individual must behave in some way that arranges the environment to manage his or her own subsequent behavior.

Multiple Choice Question on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 30. Reinforcing a child for stating what s/he intends to do and then for later doing that behavior is referred to as: a) rule-governed behavior b) self-control training c) contingency-shaped behavior * d) correspondence training

True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 31. Teaching a group of children to state they were going to play in a certain designated area before actually playing in that area is referred to as correspondence training.

F 32. Self-help manuals are more effective with the control of smoking and overeating than they are for overcoming depression and anxiety.

Chapter 26. Behavioral Approaches to Behavior Therapy: Cognitive Restructuring, Self-Directed Coping Methods, and Mindfulness and Acceptance Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. Believing, thinking, and perceiving are three things that describe: * a) cognitive processes b) respondent thinking c) self-control d) operant thinking 2. When the words “blue sky” are repeatedly paired with actually looking at and seeing a blue sky, the words “blue sky” come to elicit the activity of “seeing” or “imagining” a blue sky.

This is an example of: a) operant thinking * b) respondent thinking c) positive thinking d) cognitive thinking 3. Beck labeled his therapeutic approach as: a) operant therapy * c) cognitive therapy

b) respondent therapy d) behavior therapy

4. Which of the following involves teaching clients to counteract irrational negative selfstatements with more positive and realistic statements? a) problem-solving therapy * b) rational-emotive therapy c) thought-stopping therapy d) behavior therapy 5. Who developed rational-emotive behavior therapy? a) Aaron Beck b) Donald Meichenbaum c) Albert Bandura * d) Albert Ellis 6. Thinking in absolute terms, such as assuming that one is a failure for getting any grade less than an “A,” is an example of what Beck called: a) rational-emotive thinking b) irrational thinking * c) dichotomous thinking d) arbitrary inference 7. Drawing a conclusion on the basis of inadequate evidence, such as misinterpreting a frown on the face of a passerby to mean that the passerby is expressing disapproval, is an example of what Beck called: a) dichotomous thinking * c) arbitrary inference b) irrational thinking d) irrational inference 8. If a client believes that everyone he meets turns away from him in disgust, a therapist may help him to devise a system for judging other people’s facial expressions and body language so that the client can objectively determine whether or not his beliefs are indeed accurate.

This is one of the techniques used in: a) behavior therapy b) thought-stopping therapy c) rational-emotive therapy * d) Beck’s cognitive therapy 9. What two approaches assume that a client’s difficulty is caused by some type of inappropriate thought pattern and the problem may stem from the client’s tendency to exaggerate unpleasant things? * a) Beck’s cognitive therapy and Ellis’s REBT b) Ellis’s RET and Meichenbaum’s self-instructional approach c) Beck’s cognitive therapy and Meichenbaum’s self-instructional approach d) Ellis’s cognitive therapy and Beck’s RET 10. A client uses stimuli produced both by a stressful situation and by his own behavior in that situation as SDs for instructing himself to engage in appropriate coping behavior. This is an example of: a) Ellis’s rational-emotive therapy

*

b) Meichenbaum’s self-instructional therapy c) Beck’s cognitive therapy d) Wolpe’s thought-stopping therapy

11. Approaches that focus on substituting rational thoughts and appraisal of information for irrational or dysfunctional thinking are referred to as: * a) cognitive restructuring b) situational inducement c) contingency shaping d) problem solving 12. When you arrive at a party, you think to yourself, “I’m glad lots of people are dancing, I hate to just sit around.” This is an example of: * a) operant thinking b) respondent thinking c) positive thinking d) cognitive thinking 13. Therapeutic approaches that incorporate concepts of “mindfulness” and “acceptance” are part of what is referred to as the wave of behavioral approaches to therapy: a) first b) second * c) third d) fourth 14. Regarding the cognitive restructuring component of Beck’s cognitive therapy, an increasing amount of research suggests that: * a) it is not an effective ingredient of Beck’s therapy for treating panic disorder b) it is an important component of Beck’s therapy for treating depression c) it is an important component for treating obsessive-compulsive disorder d) it is an important component for treating agoraphobia 15. A type of behavior therapy originally developed for treating borderline personality disorder is known as: a) acceptance and commitment therapy b) cognitive restructuring behavior * c) dialectical behavior therapy d) problem-solving therapy 16. A client who believes that everyone he meets turns away from him in disgust learns to say to himself, “I’ll watch their facial expressions and body language, and then I can prove to myself that they’re not disgusted with me,” and then follows this guide. An applied behavior analyst would refer to this as an example of: a) rational-emotive therapy b) contingency-shaped behavior c) Beck’s cognitive therapy * d) rule-governed behavior 17. In cases where cognitive restructuring is effective, it may be because the therapist teaches the client to rehearse rules that identify specific behaviors that are likely to be maintained in the natural environment. This is interpretation. a) Beck’s b) Ellis’s * c) a behavioral d) a cognitive

18.

approach is to teach the client to use internal stimuli as SDs for engaging in appropriate self-instruction, counteract negative self-statements in the presence of the stressful situation, self-instruct the steps for taking appropriate action, and make self- reinforcing statements after successful coping. a) Beck’s * b) Meichenbaum’s c) Ellis’s d) D’Zurilla’s

19. Self-instruction and problem-solving methods are likely to be effective when they capitalize on that leads to effective consequences. a) contingency-shaped behavior b) cognitive restructuring c) rational thinking * d) rule-governed behavior 20. The awareness, observation and description of one’s covert and overt behaviors as they occur in a non-judgmental way is referred to as: a) cognitive restructuring b) rational thinking * c) mindfulness d) acceptance and commitment therapy 21.

procedures are used to teach individuals that they can feel their feelings and think their thoughts even though they may be aversive, and still take constructive action to pursue one’s values and life goals. a) Mindfulness b) Cognitive therapy c) Stress inoculation * d) Acceptance

22. An approach to therapy that involves teaching clients that past attempts to control troublesome thoughts and emotions have not been successful, that mindfulness and acceptance exercises can teach the client to experience and non-judgmentally embrace thoughts and emotions, and that in spite of troublesome thoughts and emotions, clients can be encouraged to identify life values and to take steps to pursue them, is referred to as: * a) acceptance and commitment therapy b) cognitive therapy c) cognitive restructuring d) problem solving therapy

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 23. Someone deciding, by privately reviewing the pros and cons of each, whether to watch TV or read a book on a particular occasion is showing respondent thinking.

T 24. Martin and Pear believe that, except for being more difficult to “get at,” private behavior is the same as public behavior, i.e., the principles and procedures applicable to private behavior are fundamentally the same as those that apply to public behavior.

F 25. Dialectical Behavior therapy basically involves teaching clients to counteract irrational self- statements with more positive and realistic statements.

F 26. One difference between Meichenbaum’s self-instructional approach and Ellis’s RET is that Ellis’s approach emphasizes coping with negative emotions rather than completely eliminating them.

T 27. CBT assumes that troublesome thoughts constitute the primary cause of disturbing emotions, whereas ACT considers thoughts and emotions simply as responses.

F 28. A major focus of ACT is the use of cognitive restructuring to directly change troublesome thoughts.

T 29. With CBT, a primary purpose of behavioral homework assignments is to help the client overcome distorted thinking.

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 30. Thought stopping is likely to be an effective strategy for decreasing persistent, obsessive thoughts provided that it is combined with: a) Ellis’s rational emotive therapy b) Beck’s cognitive therapy c) Meichenbaum’s self-instructional training * d) a strategy for increasing desirable alternative thoughts 31. Acceptance and commitment therapy is based on an approach to the understanding of human language and cognition referred to as: a) cognitive theory b) rational emotive theory * c) relational frame theory d) stimulus-equivalence theory 32. If you have learned that two nickels equals a dime, then you will know that a dime also equals two nickels. In relational frame theory, this is referred to as: * a) bi-directionality b) combinatorial entailment c) transformation of stimulus functions d) stimulus equivalence 33. If a child learns that a dime is worth more than a nickel and a quarter is worth more than a dime, then the child will know that a quarter is worth more than a nickel. In relational frame theory, this is referred to as: a) bi-directionality * b) combinatorial entailment c) transformation of stimulus functions d) stimulus equivalence

Chapter 27. Psychological Disorders Treated by Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. An intense fear of going out in public or leaving one’s home is referred to as: * a) agoraphobia b) a simple phobia c) panic disorder d) a social phobia 2. A persistent fear of heights is referred to as a(n): a) social phobia * b) specific phobia c) panic disorder d) obsessive compulsive disorder 3. A procedure for overcoming a simple phobia that tries to get the client into the presence of the feared stimulus very early during therapy, and to maintain exposure for long periods of time, is referred to as: a) systematic desensitization b) participant modelling * c) flooding d) implosive therapy 4. Systematic desensitization was developed by: a) John Watson b) Albert Bandura c) B. F. Skinner * d) Joseph Wolpe 5. When an individual desensitizes a fear in real life rather than in his or her own imagination, is being used. a) systematic desensitization * b) in vivo desensitization c) covert sensitization d) participant modeling 6. For what general type of problem is systematic desensitization used? a) treating alcoholism b) to treat high blood pressure * c) to overcome phobias d) to treat enuresis 7. A procedure for overcoming phobias in which the therapist models graded approaches to the feared stimulus is known as: a) flooding b) cognitive therapy c) systematic desensitization * d) participant modeling 8. A list of fear-producing situations arranged from those that cause least the fear to those that cause the most fear is called a(n): * a) fear hierarchy b) suds scale c) mastery hierarchy d) anxiety scale 9. Agoraphobia is a type of: a) personality disorder c) obsessive-compulsive disorder

* b) anxiety disorder d) depressive disorder

10. A behavioral component of the treatment of panic disorder with agoraphobia is: * a) exposure to the feared stimuli b) thought-stopping c) self-instructional training d) reality checking

11. A person who constantly worries and feels anxious over things, events and potential events that most people would consider trivial or unimportant would likely be diagnosed as having a(n): * *

a) simple phobia c) generalized anxiety disorder

b) obsessive-compulsive disorder d) panic disorder

12. An obsessive-compulsive disorder is a disorder in which: a) the client is bothered either by unwanted thoughts, or unwanted repetitive actions, or both b) extreme anxiety or panic attacks occur for which no consistent antecedent stimulus can be readily identified c) the client is debilitated by stress, either because the stressful events in their life are too numerous, or because they are unable to cope with stressful events d) one’s characteristic mode of interacting with others is extremely maladaptive or dysfunctional 13. Which of the following types of treatment work best with obsessive-compulsive disorders? a) flooding in imagination of the feared situation in order to elicit the obsessivecompulsive behavior b) cognitive restructuring c) exposure to the feared situation in order to elicit the obsessive-compulsive behavior * d) exposure to the feared situation while preventing the compulsive behavior from occurring 14. An extraordinary stressful or traumatic event, such as being physically or sexually abused, being in a serious traffic accident, or witnessing a catastrophic event, can cause impaired functioning such that the individual would likely be diagnosed as having a(n): a) generalized anxiety disorder b) simple phobia c) depression * d) post-traumatic stress disorder 15. Evidence indicates that a treatment for depression with strong research support is: a) cognitive restructuring * b) behavioral activation c) Ellis’s rational emotive therapy d) Meichenbaum’s cognitive therapy 16. Behavioral couple therapy typically involves the following stages: a) experiential/sensory awareness exercises, communication and problem-solving training, and programming for generalization * b) instigation of positive exchanges, communication and problem-solving training, and programming for generalization c) cognitive therapy, anxiety control, and problem-solving training d) insight therapy, communication and problem-solving training, and programming for generalization 17. Suppose that a client, just before going to bed each night, feels very anxious about the possibility of someone breaking into the apartment. These thoughts are typically followed by checking the doors and windows several times to ensure that they are locked. This client is suffering from a(n): a) personality disorder b) anxiety disorder * c) obsessive-compulsive disorder d) simple phobia 18. A successful program for helping problem drinkers to learn to drink in moderation was developed by: a) Ferster and Skinner b) LoPiccollo and Freidman c) Bellack and Herson * d) Sobell and Sobell 19. Which of the following is not a part of the successful program developed by Sobell and

*

Sobell for teaching problem drinkers to drink in moderation? a) use of goal-setting to drink in moderation b) control of triggers for drinking c) self-monitoring of consequences of drinking behaviors d) aversion therapy to make alcohol aversive

20. Which type of treatment does the Division 12 website list for the treatment of obesity? a) family-based treatment b) interpersonal psychotherapy c) cognitive restructuring * d) behavioral-weightloss treatment psycholtherapy 21. If an individual exhibits a high frequency of certain behaviors, such as nailbiting, hair twirling, lip biting, etc., and seeks treatment for the problem, then the behavior would be referred to as a(n): a) anxiety disorder * b) habit disorder c) simple phobia d) panic disorder 22. Which of the following would be classified as habit disorders? a) obesity, nervous habits, muscle tics b) anxiety, muscle tics, and stuttering * c) nervous habits, muscle tics, and stuttering d) alcohol drinking, muscle tics, and nervous habits 23. The habit reversal procedure typically includes: * a) awareness training, competing response training, and a motivational strategy b) awareness training, competing response training, and desensitization c) competing response training, a motivational strategy, and cognitive restructuring d) cognitive restructuring, awareness training, and desensitization

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 24. Self-monitoring, cognitive restructuring, and reducing eating rate are all major components of contemporary strategies for treating obesity.

T 25. Therapies that have proved to be effective in scientifically conducted clinical trials are referred to as empirically supported therapies.

T 26. Systematic desensitization is considered an exposure-based therapy because it exposes the client to the feared stimulus or stimuli.

F 27. Cognitive restructuring would be classified as an exposure-based therapy.

F 28. An effective treatment for generalized anxiety disorder is exposure-based therapy carried out in vivo.

Multiple Choice Question on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer)

29. The presentation of fear-producing stimuli with a head-mounted display that provides a computer generated view of stimuli is referred to as: a) in vivo therapy * b) virtual reality therapy c) computer therapy d) technology therapy

True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: correct answer indicated in left margin) T 30. Contingency management has been used to effectively treat heroin-use and nicotine-use disorders.

Chapter 28. Giving It All Some Perspective: A Brief History Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. The introductory psychology text titled Principles of Psychology, which discussed traditional topics in psychology primarily in terms of operant conditioning principles, was written by: a) Skinner * b) Keller and Schoenfeld c) Wolpe d) Pavlov 2. Skinner’s text Science and Human Behavior (1953): a) describes the results of experiments on the lever-pressing behavior of rats, and outlines basic principles of operant conditioning * b) suggests how basic behavioral principles influence the behavior of people in all kinds of everyday situations c) provides data regarding the generalization of basic behavioral principles to human behavior d) was an introductory psychology text written from the Pavlovian perspective 3. Which of the following is a basic operant research journal? * a) Journal of the Experimental Analysis of Behavior b) Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis c) Journal of Behavior Therapy and Experimental Psychiatry d) Journal of Experimental Psychology 4. The publications of the early 1960s within the operant orientation seem to have been characterized by which two features? a) Much of it was done with very resistant populations, and many of the applications took place in natural, everyday settings. * b) Much of it was done with very resistant populations, and many of the applications took place in highly controlled settings. c) Much of it was limited to populations that had already received successful input from traditional psychology, and was mostly applied in highly controlled settings. d) Much of it was limited to populations that had already received successful input from traditional psychology, and was mostly applied in natural, everyday settings.

5. Who developed systematic desensitization? a) Eysenck b) Beck c) Hull

* d) Wolpe

6. Which of the following best characterizes the social learning theory of behavior modification? a) It is based on respondent conditioning and has developed applications to a variety of phobic and neurotic disorders. b) It is based on the work of Beck, Ellis, and others and emphasizes the individual’s interpretations of what is happening around them. * c) It emphasizes the social contexts in which behavior is acquired and maintained, and stresses cognitive influences on behavior. d) It is based on the work of B. F. Skinner and emphasizes the application of operant principles.

7. Which current conceptual model of behavior modification is often referred to as “applied behavior analysis”? * a) the operant conditioning orientation b) the Hullian and Wolpean orientation c) social learning theory d) cognitive behavior modification

8.

*

is the term used most often for behavioral treatments carried out in the natural environment and special training settings; is the term used most often to refer to behavioral treatments conducted in the therapist’s office. a) Behavior therapy; behavior modification b) Cognitive behavior modification; behavior modification c) Behavior modification; behavior therapy d) Behavior modification; applied behavior analysis

9. Which of the following statements incorrectly represents behavior modification? a) Behavior modification has been applied to a wide variety of complex behavior. b) Behavior modification has been applied in numerous settings, including both clinical and nonclinical environments. * c) Behavior modification is effective, but only for some limited types of problems. d) Behavior modification has been applied to treat problems that appear to have medical causes.

10. *

adopted the conditioned reflex as the unit of habit and argued that most complex activities were due to respondent conditioning. a) Watson b) Skinner c) Keller d) Wolpe

11. The principle of states that if a response that is incompatible with fear or anxiety can be made to occur to a stimulus that normally produces fear or anxiety, then that stimulus will cease to elicit the fear reaction. a) systematic desensitization b) respondent extinction c) reality checking * d) reciprocal inhibition 12. The most influential of the social learning theorists has been: a) Skinner * b) Bandura c) Wolpe d) Lazarus 13. According to Martin and Pear, the term that has the broadest meaning is: a) behavior therapy b) social learning theory c) applied behavior analysis * d) behavior modification 14. One of the first published behavior modification demonstrations of the 1950s that concerned practical, applied problems was reported by: a) Skinner b) Ullmann and Krasner c) Eysenck * d) Ayllon and Michael 15. The influential book Case Studies in Behavior Modification was edited by: a) Skinner * b) Ullmann and Krasner c) Eysenck d) Ayllon and Michael 16. During the 1950s, an individual who was instrumental in criticizing Freudian psychoanalysis and advocating learning procedures as alternatives was: * a) Eysenck b) Wolpe c) Skinner d) Keller 17. In a publication in 1920, and described a demonstration of Pavlovian conditioning of a fear response in an 11-month-old infant: a) Ullmann and Kranser b) Ayllon and Michael * c) Watson and Rayner d) Keller and Skinner 18. The first behavior therapy journal, founded in 1963 by Hans Eysenck, was called: a) Journal of Behavior Therapy and Experimental Psychiatry * b) Behavior Research and Therapy

c) Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis d) Behavior Modification

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 19. Many of the early reports of experiments in the operant tradition in the 1950s demonstrated that consequences influence human behavior.

F 20. The book Case Studies in Behavior Modification was strictly within the operant tradition.

T 21. Eysenck criticized traditional Freudian psychoanalytical treatments, advocated behavior therapy procedures as an alternative, and he helped popularize systematic desensitization.

F 22. The term “behavior therapy,” rather than the term “behavior modification,” tends to be used by behavior specialists in schools and homes.

F 23. Skinner published the text Principles of Psychology (1950).

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 24. During the 1960s and 1970s, most of the major books and research papers in behavior modification and behavior therapy were based on developments in: a) England b) South Africa * c) the United States d) Canada 25. The psychologist who established the first operant conditioning course in Brazil in 1961 was: a) Freud *b) Keller c) Skinner d) Wolpe 26. Who developed PSI, a behavior modification approach to university teaching? a) Skinner b) Ullmann and Krasner c) Fuller * d) Keller 27.

developed an influential learning theory that meshed together operant and respondent conditioning into a theory that did not distinguish between the two types of conditioning. a) Skinner * b) Hull c) Guthrie d) Keller

28. A book that translated Freudian psychodynamic concepts into the language of Hull’s learning theory, and that had an influence in the early days of behavior modification, was written by . a) Ullman and Krasner b) Ayllon and Michael c) Wolpe and Guthrie *d) Dollard and Miller

Chapter 29. Ethical Issues Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer)

1. Behavior modification is based on the following two propositions: a) Behavior can be controlled, and it is always ethically appropriate to do so. b) Behavior can be partially controlled, and it is always ethically appropriate to do so. * c) Behavior can be controlled, and it is desirable to do so in order to achieve certain objectives. d) Behavior can be partially controlled, and it is desirable to do so in order to achieve certain objectives.

2. From a behavioral point of view, the term “ethics” refers to: * a) certain standards of behavior that are developed by a culture and that promote the survival of that culture b) the influence the controllee has on the controller by virtue of access to suitable reinforcers c) the degree of aversiveness involved in a given intervention d) a set of moral values adhered to by a culture 3. Consider the following ethical principle: “Psychologists recognize the boundaries of their particular competencies and the limitations of their expertise.” To the extent that psychologists practice this ethical guideline, they are illustrating: a) contingency shaped behavior b) responsible behavior c) moral behavior * d) rule-governed behavior 4. Countercontrol may be defined as: a) the amount of control a therapist can exert over a client in a therapeutic relationship by virtue of access to suitable reinforcers * b) the amount of control a controlee can exert over the controller by virtue of access to suitable reinforcers c) the amount of control exerted over behavior by an intervention d) the amount of control exerted over behavior by extraneous variables 5. People have learned to react negatively to all overt attempts to control behavior because: a) they are inherently free and therefore behavioral control is aversive b) they wish to maintain their freedom and dignity * c) of their experiences with others who have used their power for their own benefit d) the actions of religious leaders illustrates that one should not attempt to control the behavior of others 6. A primary conclusion of a commission of APA concerning ethical issues in behavior modification was that persons engaged in any type of psychological intervention should: a) have a minimum of three years supervised clinical experience b) have a Ph.D. in psychology from a recognized university * c) subscribe to and follow the ethics codes and standards of their professions d) be a member of the American Psychological Association 7. Which of the following is not a recommended characteristic of target behaviors selected for clients? a) They should emphasize teaching functional, age-appropriate skills. * b) They should be in the best interests of the client’s caretakers. c) They should focus on teaching skills that promote independent functioning. d) They should emphasize skills that will enable the client to pursue preferred activities.

8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an intervention that is least intrusive or restrictive? * a) It emphasizes wisely-used aversive control. b) It emphasizes use of positive reinforcement. c) It maximizes choices and freedom of movement for the client. d) It emphasizes use of natural reinforcers versus contrived reinforcers.

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 9. All social help professions are involved in the control of behavior.

F 10. The doctrine of free will is a valid criticism of attempts to develop a technology of behavior.

F 11. Behavior modifiers must confine themselves to a small number of methods that are appropriate only for very simple behavior problems.

T 12. Even if a particular behavior modification procedure produces undesirable effects, that does not refute behavior modification.

Multiple Choice Question on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 13. In his book Beyond Freedom and Dignity, Skinner argued that: * a) the concept of “freedom” prevents us from recognizing how our behavior is controlled by positive reinforcers b) to be free, we need to improve bringing our behavior under self-control c) in order to achieve dignity for all, we need to improve the way that our behavior is controlled d) we need to decrease the amount of control exerted over us by various levels of government

True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 14. Behavior modification should always be used to maintain the status quo in social relationships.

T 15. Prilleltensky has argued that psychology has too readily accepted the status quo rather than questioning whether the status quo is the best for human welfare.