No.

>

1 The magnitude of a star is a measure of its...

A

absolute brightness.

B

relative brightness.

C diameter.

D semi-diameter.

No.

>

2 The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing North is 46° 23.9' and the declination is 9° 15'.0 S. Calculate the observer's latitude.

A

37° 08.9' N

B

37° 08.9' S

C 55° 38.9' S

D 64° 23.2' S

No.

>

3 The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing South is 54° and the declination is 4° S. Calculate the observer's latitude.

A

50° N

B

58° N

C 50° S

D 58° S

Page 1 of 583

No.

>

4 Given that the True Zenith Distance is 36째 22.0' and that the Calculated Zenith Distance is 36째 24.8', find and name the intercept, with respect to the direction of the observed body.

A

2.8' Away

B

4.0' Away

C 2.8' Towards

D 4.0' Towards

No.

>

5 Which one of the following errors of the sextant would you be unable to adjust or minimise?

A

Perpendicularity.

B

Centering.

C Side.

D Index.

No.

6 The earth is said to be in "aphelion" on approximately...

A

1st January.

B

21st January.

C 21st June.

>

D 4th July.

Page 2 of 583

No.

7 From those listed, how can the index error be detected in a marine sextant?

A B

>

Clamp the index somewhere on the arc; hold the sextant horizontally with the arc away and look at the arc and its reflection in the index glass. Clamp the index at zero; hold the sextant horizontally and observe true and reflected horizon through the telescope.

C Clamp the index at zero; hold the sextant vertically and observe true and reflected image of a star through the telescope. D Clamp the index somewhere on the arc; hold the sextant vertically and observe the sun (using shades) through the telescope.

No.

>

8 The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing North is 6° 57.4' and the declination is 21° 28'.4 S. Calculate the observer's latitude.

A

28° 25.8' N

B

14° 31.0' N

C 28° 25.8' S

D 14° 31.0' S

No.

>

9 A first observation of the Sun was taken at 0815 Local Time. If the vessel is steaming at 14 knots, how far should the position line be moved along the couse made good to find the position at 1200? A

48.3 miles

B

49 miles

C 52.5 miles

D 56 miles

Page 3 of 583

No. 10 Stars tabulated in the nautical almanac which have a negative magnitude (e.g.-1.4)...

>

A

should only be used for navigation in exceptional circumstances.

B

are only visible in the southern hemisphere.

C are very bright.

D are only visible with the aid of the sextant telescope.

No. 11 The earth rotates around the sun approximately every...

>

A

360 days.

B

365 days.

C 366 days.

D 367 days.

No. 12 A position line drawn in the direction 045°/225° could correspond to an azimuth of the observed body of...

>

A

155° True

B

045° True

C 315° True

D 325° True

Page 4 of 583

No. 13 The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing South is 6° 57.4' and the declination is 14° 36'.2 S. Calculate the observer's latitude.

>

A

21° 33.6' N

B

07° 38.8' S

C 07° 38.8' N

D 21° 33.6' S

No. 14 The times of civil twilight are tabulated in the Nautical Almanac. These times are...

>

A

the LMT when the sun's centre reaches 12° below the visible horizon before sunrise and after sunset.

B

the LMT when the sun's centre reaches 6° below the visible horizon before sunrise and after sunset.

C the LAT when the sun's centre reaches 12° below the visible horizon before sunrise and after sunset. D the LAT when the sun's centre reaches 6° below the visible horizon before sunrise and after sunset.

No. 15 Sidereal hour angle is defined as the angular distance of an hour circle...

>

A

west of the First Point of Aries.

B

west of the observer's meridian.

C west of the prime (Greenwich) meridian.

D east of a reference hour circle.

Page 5 of 583

No. 16 Which one of the following errors of the sextant would you attempt to remove?

A

Centering error.

B

C Prismatic error.

>

D Perpendicularity.

No. 17 A position line drawn in the direction 070°/250° could correspond to an azimuth of the observed body of...

A

050° True

B

070° True

C 250° True

>

D 160° True

No. 18 If a ship is in 150°E longitude and the equation of time is +6 minutes, what is the GMT of noon at the ship?

>

A

O154

B

O206

C 2154

D 2206

Page 6 of 583

No. 19 The summer solstice in the northern hemisphere is approximately on...

>

A

1st June.

B

21st June.

C 1st July.

D 21st July.

No. 20 Given that the true altitude is 57° 24.9' calculate the True Zenith Distance

>

A

46° 20.2'

B

57° 24.9'

C 32° 35.1'

D 55° 53.6'

No. 21 The index error of a marine sextant read as 35° 25'.3 is known to be 2' off the arc. Find the observed altitude.

>

A

35° 25.3'

B

35° 27.3'

C 35° 23.3'

D 35° 29.3'

Page 7 of 583

No. 22 If a star has a northerly declination and the observer is in north latitude, which of the statements listed is true?

>

A

The star will be above the horizon for more than 12 hours.

B

The star must be circumpolar.

C The star will be above the horizon for less than 12 hours.

D The bearing of the star must be south when on the meridian.

No. 23 A first observation of the Sun was taken at 0815 Local Time. If the vessel is steaming at 12 knots, how far should the position line be moved along the couse made good to find the position at 1200. >

A

45 miles

B

36 miles

C 48 miles

D 42 miles

No. 24 If a ship is in 90째E longitude and the equation of time is -4 minutes, what is the GMT of noon at the ship?

>

A

O556

B

O604

C 1756

D 1804

Page 8 of 583

No. 25 Given that the True Zenith Distance is 64째 44.0' and that the Calculated Zenith Distance is 64째 53.0', find and name the intercept, with respect to the direction of the observed body.

A

9.0' Away

B

11.0' Away

C 2.8' Towards

>

D 9.0' Towards

No. 26 Which error exists when the axis of the telescope of a sextant is not parallel to the plane of the instrument?

>

A

Collimation.

B

Side.

C Prismatic.

D Parallelism.

No. 27 The times of sunrise and sunset are tabulated in the Nautical Almanac. These times are...

>

A

the LMT when the upper limb is on the visible horizon for an observer at sea level.

B

the LAT when the upper limb is on the visible horizon for an observer at sea level.

C the LMT when the lower limb is on the visible horizon for an observer at sea level. D the LAT when the lower limb is on the visible horizon for an observer at sea level.

Page 9 of 583

No. 28 Given that the True Zenith Distance is 17째 44.0' and that the Calculated Zenith Distance is 17째 46.0', find and name the intercept, with respect to the direction of the observed body.

>

A

2.0' Away

B

4.0' Away

C 2.0' Towards

D 4.0' Towards

No. 29 Which of the statements listed about the first point of Aries is true?

>

A

It is a fixed point in space.

B

It moves slowly westwards.

C It moves slowly eastwards.

D It rotates on the celestial sphere once each year.

No. 30 The declination of a celestial body is the...

>

A

angle, measured at the centre of the earth, between the observer and the body.

B

angle, measured at the centre of the earth, between the body and the ecliptic.

C arc of the celestial meridian between the equinoctial and the parallel of declination passing through the body. D arc of the celestial meridian between the ecliptic and the parallel of declination passing through the body.

Page 10 of 583

No. 31 Given that the True Zenith Distance is 36° 24.8' and that the Calculated Zenith Distance is 36° 22.0', find and name the intercept, with respect to the direction of the observed body.

>

A

2.8' Away

B

4.0' Away

C 2.8' Towards

D 4.0' Towards

No. 32 The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing South is 15° 23.6' and the declination is 22° 19.5' N. Calculate the observer's latitude.

A

6° 55.9' N

B

6° 55.9' S

C 17° 43.1' N

>

D 37° 43.1' N

No. 33 A position line drawn in the direction 150°/330° could correspond to an azimuth of the observed body of...

>

A

240° True

B

230° True

C 250° True

D 150° True

Page 11 of 583

No. 34 At the winter solstice, the sun will not rise at all in higher latitudes than...

>

A

23.5°

B

66.5°

C 72.5°

D 90°

No. 35 For a circumpolar star, which, from those listed, is NOT true?

>

A

The declination and latitude of the observer must be the same name (both north or both south).

B

The LHA of the star will always be less than 90°.

C The polar distance of the star must be less than the observer's latitude. D The star is above the horizon for 24 hours of the day.

No. 36 What do you call the error in the observed altitude of the sun, which results from the observer being on the surface of the earth not at its centre?

>

A

Dip.

B

Semi-diameter.

C Parallax.

D Refraction.

Page 12 of 583

No. 37 The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing South is 15° and the declination is 22° N. Calculate the observer's latitude.

A

7° N

B

37° S

C 7° S

>

D 37° N

No. 38 A first observation of the Sun was taken at 0915 Local Time. If the vessel is steaming at 16 knots, how far should the position line be moved along the couse made good to find the position at 1200?

>

A

48 miles

B

44 miles

C 50 miles

D 51 miles

No. 39 At the summer solstice, the altitude of the sun at noon to an observer at the pole would be...

>

A

B

23.5°

C 66.5°

D 90°

Page 13 of 583

No. 40 If a ship is in 30째W longitude and the equation of time is -4 minutes, what is the GMT of noon at the ship?

>

A

O956

B

1004

C 1356

D 1404

No. 41 Which of the statements listed is true in relation to the magnitude of stars?

>

A

A 1st magnitude star is 100 times brighter than a 6th magnitude star.

B

A 6th magnitude star is 100 times brighter than a 1st magnitude star.

C A 1st magnitude star is 6 times brighter than a 6th magnitude star. D A 6th magnitude star is 6 times brighter than a 1st magnitude star.

No. 42 The sun is at the first point of Aries on the celestial sphere at approximately...

>

A

21st March.

B

21st June.

C 21st September.

D 21st December.

Page 14 of 583

No. 43 The plane of the index mirror of the sextant is at an angle of 20° to the plane of the horizon mirror. What is the reading on the arc?

A

60°

B

80°

C 20°

>

D 40°

No. 44 Given that the true altitude is 46° 20.2' calculate the True Zenith Distance.

>

A

43° 39.8'

B

72° 16.0'

C 34° 06.4'

D 46° 20.2'

No. 45 The true altitude of Canopus is 64° 52'.4. Find the true zenith distance.

>

A

15° 07.6'

B

25° 07.6'

C 25° 06.7'

D 15° 06.7'

Page 15 of 583

No. 46 To an observer in longitude 65°W, the LHA of a star is 48°. If the SHA of the star is 217°, what is the GHA of Aries?

>

A

104°

B

160°

C 256°

D 304°

No. 47 The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing North is 6° and the declination is 16° N. Calculate the observer's latitude.

>

A

10° N

B

10° S

C 22° N

D 22° S

No. 48 A position line drawn in the direction 085°/265° could correspond to an azimuth of the observed body of...

>

A

355° True

B

085° True

C 005° True

D 265° True

Page 16 of 583

No. 49 If the Azimuth of a body is found to be 305° True, the position line would be drawn through the Intercept Terminal Position in a direction of...

>

A

085°/265°

B

095°/275°

C 035°/215°

D 075°/255°

No. 50 The true altitude of Arcturus is 42° 28'.4. Find the true zenith distance.

>

A

47° 31.6'

B

57° 31.6'

C 47° 36.1'

D 46° 31.6'

No. 51 To an observer at the south pole, at the beginning of September...

>

A

the sun will be above the horizon throughout the day.

B

there will be a period of twilight for a few hours only around noon.

C there will be twilight throughout the day.

D the sun will rise for a short period around noon.

Page 17 of 583

No. 52 The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing North is 39° 14.3' and the declination is 17° 22'.1 N. Calculate the observer's latitude.

>

A

21° 52.2' S

B

24° 52.2' S

C 56° 36.4' N

D 56° 36.4' S

No. 53 The moon spins on its axis approximately every...

>

A

1 day.

B

7 days.

C 28 days.

D 1 year.

No. 54 The path of the earth's rotation around the sun, relative to the plane of the equator, is...

A

parallel.

B

at right angles.

C at an angle of 5°.

>

D at an angle of 23.5°.

Page 18 of 583

No. 55 What is the "error of perpendicularity" on a marine sextant?

>

A

When the index mirror and the horizon glass/mirror are not parallel at all times.

B

When the telescope collar is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant.

C When the index mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant. D When the horizon glass/mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant.

No. 56 After all the adjustments have been made to the sextant, any remaining error is called...

>

A

index error.

B

personal error.

C instrument error.

D summation error.

No. 57 Latitude on the terrestrial sphere is comparable with what on the celestial sphere?

>

A

Declination.

B

Celestial meridian.

C Altitude.

D Celestial hour circle.

Page 19 of 583

No. 58 If the Azimuth of a body is found to be 222° True, the position line would be drawn through the Intercept Terminal Position in a direction of...

>

A

122°/322°

B

132°/312°

C 112°/292°

D 042°/222°

No. 59 To an observer in longitude 164°E, the LHA of the sun is 26°. What is the GHA of the sun?

A

138°

B

170°

C 190°

>

D 222°

No. 60 When the index mirror and the horizon mirror of the sextant are parallel, the sextant should read...

>

A

90°

B

60°

C 0°

D 120°

Page 20 of 583

No. 61 The path of the moon's rotation around the earth, relative to the plane of the earth's rotation around the sun, is...

>

A

parallel.

B

at right angles.

C at an angle of 5°.

D at an angle of 23.5°.

No. 62 The true altitude of the suns lower limb is 74° 45'.4. Find the true zenith distance.

A

14° 14.6'

B

16° 14.6'

C 25° 14.6'

>

D 15° 14.6'

No. 63 The correction for atmospheric refraction as applied to the observed altitude of a body...

>

A

increases with altitude.

B

depends only on atmospheric conditions, and is independent of altitude.

C decreases with altitude.

D is negligible and can be ignored.

Page 21 of 583

No. 64 What is "side error" on a marine sextant?

A

When the index mirror and the horizon glass/mirror are not parallel at all times.

B

When the telescope collar is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant.

C When the index mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant. >

D When the horizon glass/mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant.

No. 65 The index error of a marine sextant read as 48° 25'.3 is known to be 5' on the arc. Find the observed altitude.

>

A

48° 20.3'

B

48° 30.3'

C 48° 25 .3'

D 48° 35.3'

No. 66 If the GHA of the sun is 173° and the LHA is 358°, what is the longitude?

A

5°E

B

5°W

C 175°E

>

D 175°W

Page 22 of 583

No. 67 To an observer in longitude 75°W, the LHA of the sun is 327°. What is the GHA of the sun?

>

A

042°

B

108°

C 252°

D 318°

No. 68 To an observer in longitude 172°E, the LHA of a star is 315°. If the SHA of the star is 036°, what is the GHA of Aries?

>

A

091°

B

107°

C 127°

D 143°

No. 69 The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing North is 6° 57.4' and the declination is 16° 25'.4 N. Calculate the observer's latitude.

>

A

09° 28.0' N

B

09° 28.0' S

C 23° 22.8' N

D 23° 22.8' S

Page 23 of 583

No. 70 The magnitude of a star which can only just be seen with the naked eye on a clear, dark night is...

A

1st magnitude.

B

3rd magnitude.

C 4th magnitude.

>

D 6th magnitude.

No. 71 The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing South is 31° 30' and the declination is 16° 25'.4 N. Calculate the observer's latitude.

A

15° 04.6' N

B

16° 25.4' N

C 15° 04.6' S

>

D 47° 55.4' N

No. 72 If the Azimuth of a body is found to be 069° True, the position line would be drawn through the Intercept Terminal Position in a direction of...

A

149°/329°

B

169°/349°

C 069°/249°

>

D 159°/339°

Page 24 of 583

No. 73 The sidereal hour angle of a celestial body is the...

>

A

arc of the equinoctial (measured westwards from the first point of Aries) to the celestial meridian through the body.

B

arc of the equinoctial (measured eastwards from the first point of Aries) to the celestial meridian through the body.

C angle at the celestial pole between the meridian through Greenwich and the meridian through the body (measured westwards). D angle at the celestial pole between the meridian through Greenwich and the meridian through the body (measured eastwards). No. 74 What is the angle between the ecliptic and the equinoctial?

>

A

0째

B

23.5째

C 66.5째

D 90째

No. 75 From those listed, how can the error of perpendicularity be detected in a marine sextant?

>

A B

Clamp the index somewhere on the arc; hold the sextant horizontally with the arc away and look at the arc and its reflection in the index glass. Clamp the index at zero; hold the sextant horizontally and observe true and reflected horizon through the telescope.

C Clamp the index at zero; hold the sextant vertically and observe true and reflected image of the horizon through the telescope. D Clamp the index somewhere on the arc; hold the sextant vertically and observe the sun (using shades) through the telescope.

Page 25 of 583

No. 76 If the GHA of the sun is 315° and the LHA is 36°, what is the longitude?

>

A

9°E

B

59°W

C 81°E

D 121°W

No. 77 The value of the "equation of time" is...

>

A

between zero and about 17 minutes.

B

between zero and about 30 minutes.

C dependent upon the observer's longitude.

D dependent upon the observer's latitude.

No. 78 The summer solstice in the southern hemisphere is approximately on...

A

1st January.

B

21st January.

C 1st December.

>

D 21st December.

Page 26 of 583

No. 79 A position line drawn in the direction 095°/275° could correspond to an azimuth of the observed body of...

>

A

355° True

B

005° True

C 095° True

D 275° True

No. 80 The earth spins on its axis approximately every...

>

A

23 hours.

B

23.5 hours.

C 24 hours.

D 24.5 hours.

No. 81 The first point of Aries is the point on the celestial sphere where...

>

A

the sun crosses the ecliptic when going from south to north.

B

the sun crosses the equinoctial when going from north to south.

C the ecliptic cuts the equinoctial on the sun's apparent path from south to north. D the prime meridian cuts the equinoctial.

Page 27 of 583

No. 82 What would you adjust in an attempt to eliminate index error of a sextant?

>

A

The telescope.

B

The horizon glass.

C The tangent screw.

D Nothing; the sextant should be sent ashore for re-calibration.

No. 83 The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing South is 54° 28'.6 and the declination is 4° 28'.4 S. Calculate the observer's latitude.

>

A

50° 00.2' N

B

58° 57.0' N

C 50° 00.0' N

D 58° 28.6' N

No. 84 The earth is said to be in "perihelion" on approximately...

>

A

1st January.

B

21st January.

C 21st June.

D 4th July.

Page 28 of 583

No. 85 The "equation of time" is...

>

A

the formula for calculating the time of noon.

B

the formula for determining local time from Greenwich time.

C the interval between apparent time and mean time.

D the difference between a lunar day and a solar day.

No. 86 Given that the true altitude is 61° 47.9' calculate the True Zenith Distance

>

A

46° 20.2'

B

28° 12.1'

C 43° 39.8'

D 32° 35.1'

No. 87 Given that the true altitude is 17° 44.0' calculate the True Zenith Distance.

A

32° 35.1'

B

43° 39.8'

C 34° 06.4'

>

D 72° 16.0'

Page 29 of 583

No. 88 What is the "error of collimation" on a marine sextant?

>

A

When the telescope and/or mirrors causes distortion.

B

When the telescope is not parallel to the plane of the sextant.

C When the arc has been incorrectly graduated or has been damaged. D When the vernier or micrometer scals are incorrect.

No. 89 The moon rotates around the earth approximately every...

>

A

1 day.

B

7 days.

C 28 days.

D 1 year.

No. 90 If the Azimuth of a body is found to be 355° True, the position line would be drawn through the Intercept Terminal Position in a direction of...

>

A

085°/265°

B

095°/275°

C 355°/175°

D 075°/255°

Page 30 of 583

No. 91 At sunrise and sunset, the effect of atmospheric refraction is to...

A

reduce the sun's apparent horizontal diameter.

B

make the sun appear to change altitude more slowly.

C make the sun appear smaller overall.

>

D reduce the sun's apparent vertical diameter.

No. 92 The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing North is 6° and the declination is 21° S. Calculate the observer's latitude.

>

A

27° N

B

15° N

C 27° S

D 15° S

No. 93 You are on watch at night and you stop the main engines. What changes would you make to your navigational lights?

A

Switch the steaming lights off

B

Switch on three vertical red lights

C Switch on two vertical red lights and switch off all other navigational lights. >

D Switch on two vertical red lights and switch off steaming lights.

Page 31 of 583

No. 94 You see a two flag signal on a ship close-by. What publication would you consult to discover its meaning?

>

A

B

Mariner's Handbook.

C International Code of Signals.

D Nautical Almanac

No. 95 Why should the largest scale chart available be used for navigational purposes?

>

A

Because it uses larger symbols.

B

Because it uses better colour.

C Because it shows more accurate information.

D Because the brightest lights are shown.

No. 96 Which is the more accurate means of position fixing?

>

A

B

C Two visual bearings.

D A visual bearing and a radar range.

Page 32 of 583

No. 97 You expect to sight land at 2100. By 2120 no land has been sighted, the visibility is good. What action would you take?

>

A

Keep looking out.

B

Call the master.

C Stop engines.

D Alter course.

No. 98 A vessel is under pilotage approaching a European port. Who is responsible for the safe navigation of the vessel?

>

A

The pilot.

B

The master and duty officers.

C The traffic controller.

D The pilot and the master together.

No. 99 Where would you find information about a vessel reporting system for a port which you are about to enter?

>

A

Mariner's Handbook.

B

International Code of Signals.

D Ocean Passages for the World.

Page 33 of 583

No. 100 Your vessel is carrying a full cargo of scrap steel. Which item of bridge equipment is likely to be unreliable?

A

The satellite navigator.

B

The echo sounder..

C The gyro compass.

>

D The magnetic compass.

No. 101 What time is used for the ship's course recorder?

>

A

Local time

B

Ship's time

C GMT

No. 102 Which of the following options would be considered "good seamanship"?

>

A

Using radar when proceeding at full speed in fog.

B

Sounding a fog signal when in clear weather, but approaching a fog bank.

C Using deck and accommodation lights to indicate the presence of your ship in poor visibility. D Proceeding on the port side of a narrow channel to take advantage of a favourable current.

Page 34 of 583

No. 103 When must a passage plan be prepared?

>

A

B

Before the voyage commences

C Whenever requested by a pilot

D Any of the other options

No. 104 What should a passage plan include?

>

A

The plan should include the first 72 hours of the sea voyage.

B

The plan should include the entire voyage from berth to berth.

C The plan should cover the first half of the sea voyage.

D The OOW decides what to include in the passage plan.

No. 105 Find the distance (departure) to the nearest whole mile between initial position 50째 00' N 178째 00' W and 50째 00' N 179째 00' E

>

A

116 miles

B

138 miles

C 180 miles

D 39 miles

Page 35 of 583

No. 106 Calculate the distance (to the nearest mile) along the great circle between position 49° 18' N 123° 08' W and 33° 52' S 151° 12' E.

A

1684 miles

B

3969 miles

C 5726 miles

>

D 6746 miles

No. 107 On the Beaufort scale, force 7 is described as a.....

>

A

fresh breeze.

B

strong breeze.

C near gale.

D gale.

No. 108 A vessel in initial position 40° 30' N 179° 00' W steams due east for 240 miles. Calculate the new longitude to the nearest minute.

>

A

175° 44' E

B

173° 44' W

C 175° 00' W

D 175° 44'W

Page 36 of 583

No. 109 Calculate (using plane sailing) the distance to the nearest mile between initial position 52° 00' N 04° 00' E and 52° 20' N 02° 26' E

>

A

20 miles

B

58 miles

C 61 miles

D 71 miles

No. 110 What is the main factor which can make actual tidal heights and times different from the predicted heights and times?

>

A

Barometric pressure.

B

Wind.

C Past weather.

D Local effects.

No. 111 Two vessels are in latitude 62° 18' N. The longitude of one vessel is 16° 42' E and of the other is 4° 33' E. How far, to the nearest whole mile, are the vessels apart?

>

A

339 miles

B

729 miles

C 1275 miles

D 1568 miles

Page 37 of 583

No. 112 A vessel left 42°44'S, 16°24'W, and steamed on a course of 142°T for 261 miles. Using plane sailing or traverse table, find its DR position at the end of this run.

>

A

46°10'S, 12°39'W

B

46°10'S, 13°43'W

C 46°10'S, 19°05'W

D 46°10'S, 20°09'W

No. 113 Calculate (using plane sailing) the distance to the nearest mile between initial position 50° 00' S 02° 00' W and 51° 20' S 01° 25' W

A

80 miles

B

22 miles

C 35 miles

>

D 83 miles

No. 114 In an area with very high atmospheric pressure, the tides will....

>

A

be lower than predicted.

B

be higher than predicted.

C be unchanged.

D show a longer running flood period.

Page 38 of 583

No. 115 A ship steers the following courses and distances: 080° T for 42 miles 201° T for 36 miles 145° T for 27 miles 045° T for 45 miles Calculate (using plane sailing) the course and distance made A 009° T 150 miles B

081° T 81 miles

C 099° T 150 miles

>

D 099° T 81 miles

No. 116 Find the distance (departure) to the nearest whole mile between initial position 48° 14' N 04° 50' W and 48° 14' N 01° 22' E.

>

A

278 miles

B

248 miles

C 372 miles

D 276 miles

No. 117 The period of a semidiurnal tide is approximately.....

A

half a solar day.

B

half a sidereal day.

C a lunar day.

>

D half a lunar day.

Page 39 of 583

No. 118 What is the definition of the "luminous range" of a light?

>

A

The maximum theoretical range of visibility of a light, determined from the heights of observer and the light.

B

The maximum distance at which a light may be seen in clear weather.

C The maximum distance at which a light may be seen, under prevailing meteorological conditions. D The maximum distance at which an observer at sea level can observe the light under standard meteorological conditions.

No. 119 Calculate the difference in latitude between the following two positions: 35° 20' N 20° 35' W and 50° 00' N 20° 35' W

>

A

14° 40'

B

14° 20'

C 24° 40'

D 14° 45'

No. 120 From the following, what would be the maximum effect of barometric pressure on tidal heights?

>

A

0.1 metres.

B

0.3 metres.

C 1.0 metres.

D 2.0 metres.

Page 40 of 583

No. 121 On the Beaufort scale, force 3 is described as a....

>

A

light breeze.

B

gentle breeze.

C moderate breeze.

D fresh breeze.

No. 122 A vessel steamed 210 miles on a course of 295°T. The departure point was 35°30'N. What latitude do you arrive at?

A

36°58'S

B

36°30'S

C 35°58'N

>

D 36°58'N

No. 123 The commonest use of the ABC tables is to find the azimuth of a celestial body. These tables can also be used to....

>

A

determine course and distance run.

B

pre-compute true altitudes.

C find the initial course in a great circle sailing calculation.

D solve terrestrial triangles for plane sailing calculations.

Page 41 of 583

No. 124 A ship steers the following courses and distances: 180° T for 22 miles 290° T for 73 miles 159° T for 68 miles 270° T for 16 miles Calculate (using plane sailing) the course and distance made > A 225° T 85 miles B

225° T 179 miles

C 315° T 85 miles

D 315° T 179 miles

No. 125 The technique used in radar pilotage for continuously monitoring a vessel's position is called...

>

A

cross indexing.

B

stabilisation.

C parallel indexing.

D ranging.

No. 126 Calculate (using plane sailing) the distance to the nearest mile between initial position 50° 50' N 02° 00' W and 50° 00' N 01° 25' W.

>

A

55 miles

B

50 miles

C 61 miles

D 65 miles

Page 42 of 583

No. 127 From those listed, the best land target to use for a radar bearing is....

>

A

a sloping foreshore.

B

C an isolated feature.

D a coastal indentation.

No. 128 A vessel in latitude 54° 23' S longitude 16° 18' E steams on a course of 270° T until in longitude 8° 43' W. How far has she steamed to the nearest mile?

>

A

435 miles

B

472 miles

C 874 miles

D 913 miles

No. 129 In 45°34'N, a ship sails due east from 164°10'E to 170°20'E. How far has the vessel traveled?

>

A

259 miles

B

264 miles

C 378 miles

D 530 miles

Page 43 of 583

No. 130 Calculate (using plane sailing) the true course to steer between initial position 50° 50' N 02° 00' W and 50° 00' N 01° 25' W

>

A

156°

B

204°

C 024°

D 336°

No. 131 A vessel in initial position 60° 00' N steams due east for 240 miles. Calculate the difference in longitude to the nearest minute.

>

A

2° 00'

B

8° 00'

C 3° 28'

D 6° 00'

No. 132 What is true of the tide at an amphidromic point?

A

The tidal range is maximum.

B

Only spring tides occur.

C Co-range lines converge.

>

D The tidal range is zero.

Page 44 of 583

No. 133 When the moon is in opposition, the tide is....

>

A

a neap tide.

B

a spring tide.

C a flood tide.

D an ebb tide.

No. 134 By sailing due east for a distance of 245 miles, a vessel changed her longitude by 7°25'. What latitude was the vessel in?

A

33°24'

B

28°50'

C 35°17'

>

D 56°36'

No. 135 Calculate the initial course (to the nearest degree) to steer along the great circle between position 45° 36' N 8° 46' W and 12° 18' N 79° 24' W

>

A

185° T

B

256° T

C 265° T

D 275° T

Page 45 of 583

No. 136 A composite great circle route is not as short a distance as a great circle route, but it is sometimes used instead. Why?

>

A

It is the "least time" route.

B

It avoids high latitudes where ice may be found.

C It avoids areas of heavy traffic.

D It minimises the number of course changes.

No. 137 What is the definition of the "geographic range" of a light?

>

A

The maximum distance at which a light may be seen under existing visibility conditions.

B

The maximum distance at which a light may be seen, limited only by the curvature of the earth, in perfect visibility.

C The maximum distance at which an observer at sea level can observe a light under standard meteorological conditions. D The maximum distance at which a light may be seen, limited only by its candlepower.

No. 138 Which publication gives the information needed to make a safe approach to a foreign port?

>

A

Sailing Directions.

B

Notices to Mariners.

C "World Ports".

D "Ocean Routes of the World".

Page 46 of 583

No. 139 A vessel is on the equator and steams on a course of 000°T for 1410 miles. What is her new latitude?

>

A

23° 30' N

B

23° 30' S

C 14° 10' N

D 14° 10' S

No. 140 Calculate the distance (to the nearest mile) along the great circle between position 45° 36' N 8° 46' W and 12° 18' N 79° 24' W

A

3549 miles

B

3764 miles

C 3926 miles

>

D 4064 miles

No. 141 A position line on a chart is defined as a line...

>

A

joining any two positions.

B

passing through some stated position.

C somewhere on which the observer is situated.

D drawn from the ship to a desired destination position.

Page 47 of 583

No. 142 How should tidal predictions be made for stretches of coastline between Secondary Ports?

>

A

By interpolating between the predictions for the nearest ports on either side.

B

By using the nearest port predictions.

C By using a co-tidal line chart.

D Such predictions should not be made.

No. 143 Great circles appear as straight lines on.....

A

Mercator charts.

B

orthomorphic charts.

C transverse Mercator charts.

>

D gnomonic charts.

No. 144 Spring tides normally occur...

>

A

B

Page 48 of 583

No. 145 6A vessel steers 043째T for a distance of 524 miles. Find the difference in latitude (to the nearest whole minute) and the departure (to the nearest whole mile).

>

A

Difference in latitude 338' and departure 315 miles

B

Difference in latitude 383' and departure 357 miles

C Difference in latitude 286' and departure 312 miles

D Difference in latitude 242' and departure 226 miles

No. 146 When tides are classed as being diurnal, there will be.....

>

A

two high waters and one low water each tidal day.

B

two high waters and two low waters each tidal day.

C one high water and one low water each tidal day.

D one high water and two low waters each tidal day.

No. 147 Secondary Ports associated with Standard Ports are classed in that way because.....

A

the high and low water times coincide.

B

the high and low water heights are similar.

C they are secondary in importance.

>

D the tidal curves are similar.

Page 49 of 583

No. 148 The shortest distance between two points on the earth's surface is....

>

A

an arc of a small circle.

B

a loxodrome.

C an arc of a great circle.

D a para-angular course.

No. 149 The vertex of a great circle is the point at which it....

>

A

cuts the equator.

B

passes through the Greenwich meridian.

C comes nearest to the pole.

D runs north/south.

No. 150 A chart suitable for inshore navigation, for entering bays and harbours, would have a scale of....

>

A

1:600,000 and smaller

B

1:150,000 to 1:600,000

C 1:50,000 to 1:150,000

D 1:100,000 to 1:500,000

Page 50 of 583

No. 151 Which statement is true of a position line on a chart?

>

A

It can be a straight or a curved line.

B

It must be a straight line.

C It must be a curved line.

D It must be part of the circumference of a circle.

No. 152 The use of radar ranges is preferred to radar bearings for position fixing because...

>

A

they are more accurate.

B

they are quicker to take.

C they are easier to take.

D suitable targets are easier to identify.

No. 153 A vessel in initial position 50° 00' N 02° 00' W then steams on a course of 045° for 6 hours at a constant speed of 14 knots. Calculate (using plane sailing) the final latitude.

>

A

50° 59' N

B

49° 01' N

C 50° 00' N

D 51° 59' N

Page 51 of 583

No. 154 A vessel steers a course of 007°T for a distance of 391 miles. Find the difference of latitude (to the nearest whole minute) and the departure (to the nearest whole mile).

>

A

Difference in latitude 388' and departure 55 miles.

B

Difference in latitude 405' and departure 20 miles.

C Difference in latitude 388' and departure 48 miles.

D Difference in latitude 90' and departure 11 miles.

No. 155 Calculate the initial course (to the nearest degree) to steer along the great circle between position 34° 22' S 115° 08' E and 11° 51' S 51° 16' E.

>

A

185° T

B

265° T

C 275° T

D 355° T

No. 156 Calculate (using plane sailing) the true course to steer to the nearest degree between initial position 32° 46' S 178° 00' E and 32° 00' S 179° 50' W

>

A

023°

B

067°

C 113°

D 293°

Page 52 of 583

No. 157 When the sun and moon are in near conjunction or opposition the tides are called....

>

A

neap.

B

diurnal.

C spring.

D full.

No. 158 You see a Notice to Mariners numbered 3234(T). What does the (T) tell you about this notice?

>

A

It applies only to Tank vessels.

B

It refers to a Temporary situation.

C It announces a new Type of chart.

D It concerns a Traffic scheme.

No. 159 In an anticyclone in the northern hemisphere, the surface wind circulation is...

>

A

clockwise, with the wind blowing across the isobars at an angle towards the lower pressure.

B

anticlockwise, with the wind blowing across the isobars at an angle towards the high pressure centre.

C clockwise, with the wind blowing across the isobars at an angle towards the high pressure centre. D anticlockwise, with the wind blowing across the isobars at an angle towards the lower pressure.

Page 53 of 583

No. 160 When the moon is in quadrature, the tide is....

>

A

a neap tide.

B

a spring tide.

C an ebb tide.

D a flood tide.

No. 161 You are planning a passage across the North Atlantic. The chart most useful for evaluating Ocean Currents and weather probabilities is a.....

A

Mercator Chart.

B

Gnomonic Chart.

C Transverse Mercator Chart.

>

D Routeing Chart.

No. 162 You see a Notice to Mariners numbered 3235(P). What does the (P) tell you about this notice?

A

It is a Permanent change.

B

It should be treated with caution; the information has not been checked and could be Poor.

C It concerns a Privately maintained aid to navigation.

>

D It is a Preliminary notice.

Page 54 of 583

No. 163 Calculate (using plane sailing) the true course to steer to the nearest degree between initial position 16° 52' S 08° 51' W and 12° 46' S 11° 23' W

>

A

031°

B

221°

C 329°

D 346°

No. 164 How are Secondary Ports chosen to be linked with a particular Standard Port?

>

A

The Standard Port is the nearest one to the Secondary Port.

B

The Standard Port is the nearest one with similar tidal characteristics.

C The times of high and low water are very close for the Standard and Secondary Ports. D The heights of high and low water are very close for the Standard and Secondary Ports.

No. 165 A vessel left 42°30'N, 24°25'W, and steamed 245 miles on a course of 050°T. Use plane sailing to find the arrival position

>

A

39°53'N, 20°07'W

B

45°07'N, 20°07'W

C 45°38'N, 21°08'W

D 39°53'N, 28°35'W

Page 55 of 583

No. 166 When choosing objects for position fixing by radar ranges you should, if possible, avoid....

>

A

gently sloping land features.

B

large prominent features.

C steep-faced features.

D small isolated features.

No. 167 A vessel in initial position 38° 46' S 111° 31' E then steams on a course of 056° for 393 miles. Calculate (using plane sailing) the final latitude to the nearest minute.

>

A

32° 13' S

B

35° 06' S

C 42° 26' S

D 45° 19' S

No. 168 A vessel in initial position 40° 30' N 179° 00' E steams due east for 240 miles. Calculate the new longitude to the nearest minute.

>

A

175° 44' W

B

173° 44' E

C 177° 00' W

D 173° 44'W

Page 56 of 583

No. 169 Find the difference in longitude between initial position 50° 00' N 02° 00' W and 50° 00' N 01° 25' W

>

A

35' W

B

35' E

C 25' W

D 25'E

No. 170 What is the definition of the "nominal" range of a light?

>

A

the maximum theoretical range of visibility of a light, determined from the heights of observer and the light.

B

the maximum distance at which a light may be seen in clear weather.

C the maximum distance at which a light may be seen, under prevailing meteorological conditions. D the maximum distance at which an observer at sea level can observe the light under limited meteorological conditions.

No. 171 A ship steers 030°T for 120 miles. Find the difference of latitude (to the nearest whole minute) and the departure (to the nearest whole mile).

>

A

Difference of latitude 104' and departure 60 miles.

B

Difference of latitude 60' and departure 104 miles

C Difference of latitude 60' and departure 60 miles.

D 69 miles difference of latitude 69' and departure 60 miles.

Page 57 of 583

No. 172 Find the distance (departure) to the nearest whole mile between initial position 56째 00' N 01째 10' E and 56째 00' N 01째 25' W.

>

A

129 miles

B

155 miles

C 87 miles

D 80 miles

No. 173 What is the usual datum for a port or area from which predicted tidal heights are calculated?

>

A

The lowest astronomical tide level.

B

The mean low water springs level.

C The average low water level in that locality.

D The lowest recorded water level in that locality.

No. 174 The chart abbreviation "Al Fl WR 60 secs" indicates...

>

A

a white flash followed immediately by a red flash every 60 seconds.

B

a white flash every 60 seconds followed by a red flash 60 seconds later.

C a white flash every 30 seconds followed by a red flash 30 seconds later. D a white flash followed immediately by a red flash every 60 seconds then a red flash followed immediately by a white flash every 60 seconds.

Page 58 of 583

No. 175 At 1130, at apparent noon, the vessel's observed position is 48°56'N, 33°47'W. If the course is 016°T at 18kts, find the 1200 position by plane sailing or traverse tables.

>

A

49°04'.7N, 33°50'.8W

B

49°04'.7N, 33°43'.2W

C 49°04'.7N, 33°49'.5W

D 49°04'.7N, 33°44'.5W

No. 176 Calculate (using plane sailing) the true course to steer to the nearest degree between initial position 52° 00' N 04° 00' E and 52° 20' N 02° 26' E

>

A

071°

B

109°

C 289°

D 251°

No. 177 A vessel in initial position 60° 00' N 04° 00' E steams due west for 240 miles. Calculate the new longitude to the nearest minute.

>

A

2° 00' E

B

8° 00' W

C 4° 00' W

D 12° 00'W

Page 59 of 583

No. 178 Charted depths are always measured below....

>

A

chart datum.

B

mean sea level.

C mean low water neaps.

D mean low water springs.

No. 179 Find the distance (departure) to the nearest whole mile) between position 40° 29' S 120° 13' W and 40° 29' S 118° 53' W.

>

A

45 miles

B

51 miles

C 61 miles

D 80 miles

No. 180 Calculate the distance (to the nearest mile) along the great circle between position 42° 55' S 48° 18' W and 18° 18' S 11° 38' W

>

A

2200 miles

B

2370 miles

C 2540 miles

D 2723 miles

Page 60 of 583

No. 181 A vessel in initial position 38° 06' S 06° 50' W then steams on a course of 222° for 24 hours at a constant speed of 14 knots. Calculate (using plane sailing) the final longitude to the nearest minute. >

A

11° 45' W

B

10° 35' W

C 01° 55' W

D 12° 45' W

No. 182 Calculate the difference in latitude between the following two positions: 54° 35' N 02° 00' W and 50° 00' N 02° 00' W

A

4° 53'

B

2° 00'

C 4° 00'

>

D 4° 35'

No. 183 A vessel steamed 175 miles due east along the parallel of 48°25'N. If the longitude of the departure point was 8°19'W, find the final longitude.

>

A

6°19'W

B

3°55'W

C 12°43'W

D 4°25'W

Page 61 of 583

No. 184 Find the difference in longitude between initial position 49° 55' N 02° 50' W and 49° 55' N 01° 22' E

>

A

4° 12' W

B

1° 28' W

C 4° 12' E

D 1° 28' E

No. 185 What is a "Storm Surge" of tide?

>

A

Raising the sea level due to very low barometric pressure.

B

Raising the sea level due to long waves caused by strong winds blowing along a coast.

C Raising the sea level due to very heavy precipitation in storms.

D The whirlpool effect caused by winds circulating in a tight spiral round a deep depression.

No. 186 Find the initial great circle course to the nearest whole degree, from 14°48'N, 78°18'W, to 37°54'N, 11°12'W.

>

A

061°

B

055°

C 305°

D 035°

Page 62 of 583

No. 187 A vessel in initial position 38° 46' S 111° 31' E then steams on a course of 056° for 393 miles.Calculate (using plane sailing) the final longitude to the nearest minute.

A

104° 43' E

B

106° 06' E

C 116° 56' E

>

D 118° 19' E

No. 188 "What symbol on a navigational chart would be shown for a sea bottom of clay?"

>

A

Cy

B

C

C Cl

D cy

No. 189 On the Beaufort scale, force 5 is described as a....

A

light breeze.

B

gentle breeze.

C moderate breeze.

>

D fresh breeze.

Page 63 of 583

No. 190 Find the distance (departure) to the nearest whole mile between initial position 50° 00' N 02° 00' W and 50° 00' N 01° 26' W

>

A

22 miles

B

35 miles

C 27 miles

D 26 miles

No. 191 During a 24hr run, a vessel changes latitude 244 miles to the north and makes a departure of 145 miles to the west. Use plane sailing to find the course and distance made good.

>

A

301°/473 miles

B

329°/285 miles

C 149°/211 miles

D 239°/289 miles

No. 192 Calculate (using plane sailing) the distance to the nearest mile between initial position 50° 00' N 178° 00' W and 52° 00' N 179° 30' E

>

A

153 miles

B

94 miles

C 120 miles

D 187 miles

Page 64 of 583

No. 193 Calculate (using plane sailing) the distance between initial position 32° 46' S 178° 00' E and 32° 00' S 179° 50' W

>

A

46 miles

B

130 miles

C 119 miles

D 132 miles

No. 194 Which of the following statements is true of a great circle?

>

A

It maintains the same compass direction all along its length.

B

It intersects all meridians at the same angle.

C It intersects succeeding meridians at different angles.

D It always cuts the equator at 90°.

No. 195 A vessel is in 22° N and steams on a course of 000°T until it is in latitude 38° 14'N. What distance has she steamed?

>

A

914 miles

B

974 miles

C 2294 miles

D 3614 miles

Page 65 of 583

No. 196 A vessel in initial position 50° 00' N 02° 00' W then steams on a course of 045° for 6 hours at a constant speed of 14 knots. Calculate (using plane sailing) the final longitude to the nearest minute. A

00° 57' W

B

03° 03' W

C 01° 01' W

>

D 00° 27' W

No. 197 Calculate (using plane sailing) the true course to steer to the nearest degree between initial position 49° 55' N 02° 50' W and 49° 05' N 01° 22' E

>

A

107°

B

073°

C 253°

D 287°

No. 198 Which of these would be described as "wind veering"?

>

A

A shift from W to NW.

B

A shift from SE to E.

C A shift from WNW to WSW.

D A shift from SW to SSW.

Page 66 of 583

No. 199 On the chart, to find the course to steer to make good a course, allowing for current and leeway, the current and leeway would be applied....

>

A

current, and then leeway, at the end of the run.

B

leeway first, at the start of the run, and then the current.

C current first, at the start of the run, and then leeway.

D leeway, and then current, at the end of the run.

No. 200 The most appropriate chart for navigating when approaching a harbour is....

A

a gnomonic chart.

B

a small scale chart.

C a harbour plan.

>

D a large scale chart.

No. 201 Morning stars give a position 42°30'N, 24°25'W, and evening stars give a position 44°07'N, 20°07'W. By plane sailing or traverse table, find the course and distance made good.

A

332.6° x 206.2 miles

B

027.4° x 220 miles

C 297.4° x 215.5 miles

>

D 062.6° x 211.3 miles

Page 67 of 583

No. 202 Find the new longitude (to the nearest minute) if a vessel in latitude 54° 23' S longitude 16° 18' E steams on a course of 270° T for 874 miles.

A

1° 44' W

B

1° 44' E

C 8° 43' E

>

D 8° 43' W

No. 203 How is distance measured on a Mercator chart?

>

A

On the scale drawing at the bottom of the chart.

B

On the scale of meridional parts.

C On the latitude scale.

D On the longitude scale.

No. 204 Calculate (using plane sailing) the distance to the nearest mile between initial position 49° 55' N 02° 50' W and 49° 05' N 01° 22' E

>

A

564 miles

B

171 miles

C 164 miles

D 323 miles

Page 68 of 583

No. 205 From those listed, which would be the preferred method of position fixing for greatest accuracy and certainty of position?

A

B

>

D Taking a radar range and visual bearing.

No. 206 Calculate the difference in latitude between the following two positions: 05° 20' N 20° 35' W and 01° 25' S 20° 35' W.

>

A

06° 15'

B

03° 55'

C 06° 45'

D 4° 55'

No. 207 A light giving 4 flashes, which has sectors showing two different colours, could have an abbreviated description....

A

F(4)WR 15s 15m 12.10M

B

fl 15s 15m 12.10M

C F WR 15s 15m

>

D Fl(4)WR 15s 15m 12.10M

Page 69 of 583

No. 208 Find the difference in longitude between initial position 50° 00' N 178° 00' W and 50° 00' N 179° 00' E.

>

A

3° 00' W

B

3° 00' E

C 2° 00' W

D 2° 00' E

No. 209 From those listed, the best land target to use for radar ranging is a.....

A

target such as a lighthouse.

B

small rock.

C low-lying point.

>

D cliff face.

No. 210 A ship steers the following courses & distances: 135° T for 30 miles 260° T for 54 miles 169° T for 42 miles A current set 306°T for 9 miles during the passage.Calculate(using plane sailing) the course & distance A 155° T 126 miles B

>

155° T 74 miles

C 205° T 74 miles

D 205° T 126 miles

Page 70 of 583

No. 211 In which publication can information on ship reporting be found?

>

A

ALRS

B

Ship Routeing

C IAMSAR

D SOPEP Manual

No. 212 The vertical distance between the sea bed and the deepest part of the keel is known as the ......

>

A

underkeel clearance.

B

draft.

C depth.

D sounding.

No. 213 What is a routeing measure aimed at the separation of opposing streams of traffic by establishing traffic lanes called?

>

A

Traffic separation scheme

B

Traffic Lane

C Separation Zone

D Recommended route

Page 71 of 583

No. 214 How often are chart corrections published?

>

A

Weekly

B

Monthly

C Yearly

D Annually

No. 215 What is the vertical distance on a given day between the water surface at high and low water called?

>

A

Range of tides

B

Height of tide

C Highest astronomical tide

D Lowest astronomical tide.

No. 216 The best position fix is obtained when the bearings of two objects are......

>

A

90 degrees apart.

B

45 degrees apart.

C 180 degrees apart.

D 135 degrees apart.

Page 72 of 583

No. 217 What are sailing directions also known as?

>

A

Pilot books

B

Guide to port entry

C Routeing charts

D Passage planning charts

No. 218 When selecting the maximum distance at which a landfall light would be visible, which of the following should be selected?

>

A

lesser of the two (geographical & nominal range)

B

geographical range

C nominal range

D greater of the two (geographical & nominal range)

No. 219 Where is the title of the navigation chart printed?

>

A

In some convenient, conspicuous place, where it does not hinder navigation or the use of it.

B

Always at the center of the chart.

C Where the sea areas are located.

D Always at the bottom left hand margin.

Page 73 of 583

No. 220 What does this figure indicate on a navigation chart?

>

A

West cardinal buoy

B

East cardinal buoy

C North cardinal buoy

D South cardinal buoy

No. 221 On a navigational chart, what does this figure indicate?

>

A

Windmill

B

Wind-motor

C Chimney

D Pillar

No. 222 What is the east - west distance between two points called?

>

A

Departure

B

D'long

C D'lat

D DMP

Page 74 of 583

No. 223 When using great circle sailing the saving in distance is the most when......

>

A

the course is E-W ,nearer to the poles.

B

at the equator.

C the course is N-S.

D the course is one of the inter-cardinal headings.

No. 224 On a navigational chart, how is the probable direction of the predominant direction of sea surface current indicated?

>

A

Letter a

B

Letter b

C Letter c

D Letter d

No. 225 On which side of this buoy should you pass?

>

A

South

B

North

C East

D West

Page 75 of 583

No. 226 Under soundings marked on the chart, the nature of the sea bottom is also indicated. What does Sh indicate?

>

A

Shells

B

Corals

C Soft mud

D Shingle

No. 227 What charts are used for coasting, pilotage waters and plotting waypoints?

>

A

Large scale

B

Small scale

C Routeing

D Instructional

No. 228 In which publication can information on VTS be found?

>

A

ALRS

B

Tide Tables

C Routeing Charts

D Chart Catalogues

Page 76 of 583

No. 229 Where can you find the symbols and abbreviations used on the Admiralty charts?

>

A

Chart 5011

B

Chart 5022

C Chart catalogue

D Notices to mariners

No. 230 Who publishes the chart catalogue?

>

A

Hydrographer to the Navy

B

IMO

C ICS

D HMSO

No. 231 A navigational position line is a part of a ......

>

A

position circle.

B

small circle.

C segment.

D All of the other options.

Page 77 of 583

No. 232 On a navigational chart, what does this figure indicate?

>

A

Sector lights

B

C Direction lights

D All of the other options

No. 233 What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called?

>

A

The date line

B

The Greenwich meridian

C The Equator

D A rhumb line

No. 234 What is the meaning of the symbol Cl on a navigational chart?

>

A

Clay

B

Coral

C Cloud

D Cill

Page 78 of 583

No. 235 Where will you find a comprehensive list of navigation charts with the title and number for various parts of the world?

>

A

Chart catalogue

B

Chart 5011

C Chart folio

D Sailing directions

No. 236 The direction towards which a tidal stream runs is called ......

>

A

set

B

drift

C current

D leeway

No. 237 In what direction does the axis of the gyro-compass wheel point?

>

A

True North

B

Magnetic North

C North Relative

D Compass North

Page 79 of 583

No. 238 How often is a chart catalogue published?

>

A

Annually

B

Monthly

C Twice a year

D Weekly

No. 239 The correct order to follow when planning a passage is ......

>

A

appraise, plan, monitor, execute

B

plan, appraise, monitor, execute

C plan, monitor, appraise, execute

D plan, monitor, execute, appraise.

No. 240 What charts are used for plotting Great Circle courses?

>

A

Gnomonic

B

Instructional

C Routeing

D Passage planning

Page 80 of 583

No. 241 Which error in the echo sounder is illustrated in the diagram?

>

A

Pythagoras

B

Multiple error

C Velocity error

D False bottom echoes

No. 242 Distance on a chart is measured using ......

>

A

latitude scale.

B

longitude scale.

C any uniform scale.

D none of the given options.

No. 243 The relationship between the distance on the earth and the length by which that distance is shown on the navigation chart is called the ......

>

A

natural scale.

B

actual scale.

C calculated scale.

D variable scale.

Page 81 of 583

No. 244 What does this chart symbol mean?

A

Direction of Prevailing Wind

B

Direction of Traffic Lane

C Direction of Tidal Stream

>

D Direction of Buoyage

No. 245 Loran C range using ground waves is...â&#x20AC;Ś

>

A

only a little over line of sight.

B

approximately 100 miles.

C about 700 to 1000 miles.

D about 3000 to 4000 miles.

No. 246 To provide accurate target bearings the radar beam must be...

>

A

wide in the horizontal plane

B

narrow in the horizontal plane

C narrow in the vertical plane

D wide in the vertical plane

Page 82 of 583

No. 247 Sound waves will travel through...

>

A

gases, liquids and solids

B

gases and liquids only

C a vacuum, gases, liquids and solids

D a vacuum, liquids and solids

No. 248 When you are using a Loran C receiver, you switch on the control labelled "extended range". This has the effect of......

>

A

increasing the likelihood of skywave contamination.

B

C Introducing pulse integration.

D utilizing transmissions from adjacent chains.

No. 249 Which type of log can measure sideways movement as well as ship's speed?

>

A

Pitometer log

B

Patent log

C Doppler log

D Sonar log

Page 83 of 583

No. 250 Differential GPS is...

>

A

A system using a reference station which transmits corrections to the position obtained from GPS.

B

The system of satellite position fixing in use prior to the current system.

C the system by which the difference of distance is measured from different satellites. D a shore-based system, using a chain of stations comparing Loran and GPS.

No. 251 The GPS system uses...

A

B

>

No. 252 In a hyperbolic navigation system, accuracy of a position line is greatest...

A

near to where the difference of distance is greatest.

B

near to one of the stations.

C near the baseline extension.

>

D near the perpendicular to the baseline.

Page 84 of 583

No. 253 When you are using a standard echo sounder in the Red Sea, the indicated depth is 50m. The true depth...

A

is 50m.

B

Is probably less than 50m.

C Could be more or less than 50m.

>

D is probably more than 50m.

No. 254 With the Loran C system, signal "blink" is used to advise users...

>

A

of the possibility of skywave contamination of the signals.

B

of some system fault.

C of sudden ionospheric disturbances.

D to tune to VHF channel 16 as a distress message has been picked up in the area.

No. 255 The frequency of a radio wave is...

>

A

the number of wavelengths which pass a given point in one second

B

the speed which a radio wave passes a given point.

C the distance from the crest of one wave to the next crest.

D the number of metres of wavelength per second.

Page 85 of 583

No. 256 Will snow fall reduce the ability of the radar to detect targets?

A

No

B

Yes, but only with 'S' band radars

C Yes, but only with old radars which do not have a visibility compensator >

D Yes

No. 257 Why do you have to take note of the chart datum before plotting a GPS position?

>

A

Because the GPS satellites transmit signals using a number of different datum points.

B

Because the GPS receiver is set up to receive only to one datum.

C Because different charts are produced from many different datum or reference points. D Because of "continental drift" - the movement of land masses over time.

No. 258 Which type of log is operated by the water moving past a magnetic coil?

>

A

Pitometer log.

B

Patent log.

C Electromagnetic log.

D Doppler log.

Page 86 of 583

No. 259 The detection range of surface targets is decreased when radar waves touch the earth's surface at a point closer than the standard radar horizon. What type of refraction is this?

>

A

Sub refraction

B

Normal refraction

C Super refraction

D Ducting

No. 260 Which of the following is NOT necessarily the case when two radio signals are "in phase"?

>

A

One signal has the same frequency as the other.

B

One signal has the same amplitude as the other.

C Both signals are travelling at the same speed.

D Both signals have the same wavelength.

No. 261 Which of these radar range scales would you use in a congested channel?

>

A

12 miles

B

24 miles

C 1 to 6 miles

D 18 miles

Page 87 of 583

No. 262 Which of the following would NOT be a cause of possible aeration, causing problems to the echo sounder?

A

The ship pounding and pitching heavily.

B

Going astern.

C Overboard discharges.

>

D The tide rising and falling.

No. 263 Radio signals travel at approximately a speed of...

>

A

3 million metres per second.

B

30 million metres per second.

C 300 million metres per second.

D 3000 million metres per second.

No. 264 The number of cycles of a radio wave which pass a fixed point in a given time is called the...

>

A

speed.

B

amplitude.

C frequency.

D wavelength.

Page 88 of 583

No. 265 On the paper of a chart recording echo sounder, what may cause a broad line just below the zero of the scale?

>

A

Multiple echoes

B

Cross noise

C Second trace echoes

D Density, temperature or salinity variation

No. 266 What control on the radar is used to control the amplification of echoes received?

A

Focus

B

Differentiator

C Brilliance

>

D Gain

No. 267 Frequency, velocity and wavelength of radio signals are linked by the formulaâ&#x20AC;Ś

>

A

frequency = velocity divided by wavelength.

B

velocity = frequency divided by wavelength.

C wavelength = frequency multiplied by velocity.

D frequency = velocity multiplied by wavelength.

Page 89 of 583

No. 268 Which of these is true concerning the maximum distance of reception of the ground wave of a radio signal?

A

The longer the wavelength, the shorter the distance.

B

The higher the frequency, the longer the distance.

C The lower the amplitude the longer the distance.

>

D The lower the frequency, the longer the distance.

No. 269 Why, in the GPS system, can position on the Earth's surface not be determined simply by measuring the distance from two satellites?

>

A

Because of possible clock error in the ship's receiver.

B

Because the distance is too great for accurate distance measurement.

C Because the two satellites transmit on the same frequency.

D Because three position lines are always needed for a good "fix".

No. 270 How many satellites need to be "in view" In order to fix the position on the sea surface by the GPS system?

>

A

1

B

2

C 3

D 4

Page 90 of 583

No. 271 The accuracy of a Loran C position depends upon...

A

the accuracy of measuring the time delays between signals.

B

the angle between the Loran lines of position.

C the position of the ship in relation to the baseline.

>

D all of the other options.

No. 272 The GPS system uses satellites which...

A

are geostationary, but distributed around the Earth.

B

are on polar orbits, separated by longitude.

C are on orbits parallel to the equator and distributed to near the poles. >

D circle the Earth approximately twice each day in a precise orbit.

No. 273 Adjacent Loran C chains overlap, but do not interfere with each other, because they transmit......

>

A

at different frequencies.

B

in different time slots.

C at different group repetition intervals.

D pulse modulated signals.

Page 91 of 583

No. 274 What is the name given to unwanted radial lines that sometimes appear on the radar screen?

>

A

Starring

B

Spoking

C Ranging

D Racking

No. 275 The speed of sound in water is highest in....

>

A

warm, highly saline water

B

warm, fresh water

C cold, fresh water

D cold, highly saline water

No. 276 With regard to radio signals, sky waves are...

>

A

signals reflected from the ionosphere back to Earth.

B

any signals received from beyond "line of sight".

C signals "bounced" off the cloud layers to maximise distance.

D signals reflected from the Moon or Sun back to Earth.

Page 92 of 583

No. 277 Which control on the radar is used to suppress echoes from the sea?

>

A

Tuning.

B

Gain.

C Anti-clutter.

D Differentiator.

No. 278 The main source of error in a GPS position would be from......

>

A

Satellite clock error.

B

C relativity error.

D There is no error with GPS.

No. 279 Successive reflection of the sound energy between a rocky sea-bed and the ship's bottom may cause......

>

A

cross noise.

B

second trace echoes.

C Multiple echoes.

D a zero mark.

Page 93 of 583

No. 280 A Loran C system uses...

A

the phase difference between signals from two stations to determine a position line.

B

two stations transmitting at the same time to determine a position line.

C the difference in the number of pulses received from two stations to determine a position line. >

D the time difference between signals from two stations to determine a position line.

No. 281 What is the approximate speed of sound in sea water?

>

A

1500 metres per second.

B

3000 metres per second.

C 3 million metres per second.

D 300 million metres per second.

No. 282 What measures may be taken to minimise dangers from blind spots on a radar screen?

>

A

Frequent change of PRF from low to high and vice versa.

B

Frequent change of gain, by increasing or decreasing.

C Frequent change of sea clutter by increasing and decreasing.

D Frequent tuning of the radar set.

Page 94 of 583

No. 283 Which type of log is operated by measuring the shift of frequency of the returned echo?

A

Pitometer log

B

Patent log

C Electromagnetic log

>

D Doppler log

No. 284 The wavelength of a radio wave is the distance...

>

A

from the beginning of the wave to the position where it next crosses the zero or baseline.

B

from the beginning of one cycle to the beginning of the next.

C from the crest of the wave to the lowest point.

D from 0째 to 180째 on the plotted graph.

No. 285 The speed of sound in water depends upon......

>

A

temperature, salinity and pressure

B

Temperature only

C salinity and temperature only

D temperature and pressure only

Page 95 of 583

No. 286 When obtaining a fix by radar, which is most accurate?

>

A

A fix obtained by cross bearings.

B

A fix obtained by bearing and range.

C The intersection of the arcs obtained using the ranges from the objects as radii. D All of the other options are equally accurate.

No. 287 What is the definition of a hyperbola?

>

A

A line on the Earth's surface whose plane cuts the centre of the Earth.

B

A line on the Earth's surface, which is an equal distance from a satellite.

C A line joining all points where the difference in distance from two places is the same. D A line joining all points which are an equal distance from two places.

No. 288 The GPS system uses radio signals which are...

>

A

sky waves.

B

line of sight from satellite to ship.

C ground waves.

D bounced from satellite to Earth and back to satellite.

Page 96 of 583

No. 289 In a modern echo sounder, the sonic or ultrasonic sound waves are produced electrically by means of......

>

A

a transmitter.

B

a transducer.

C a transceiver.

D an amplifier.

No. 290 Which of these is NOT a source of error in the GPS system?

A

Poor satellite geometry.

B

C Ionosphere and troposphere delays.

>

D Phase shift in the signals from the satellites.

No. 291 Which of the following are NOT true concerning GPS?

>

A

Accurate timing is the key to measuring distance to satellites.

B

Satellite signals are accurate because they have atomic clocks on board.

C The system is designed so that 6 satellites are visible at any given time, anywhere in the world. D Receiver clocks don't have to be perfect because a fourth satellite range measurement is taken to cancel clock range.

Page 97 of 583

No. 292 Which type of log is operated by water pressure acting on a bellows?

>

A

Pitometer log

B

Patent log

C Doppler log

D Sonar log

No. 293 In an echo sounder, what converts the electrical signal into sound?

>

A

The transducer

B

The signal generator

C The modulator

D The amplifier

No. 294 When you are using an echo sounder, the problem of aeration is likely to occur when going astern, but is likely to be worst when the vessel is......

>

A

B

at light draft.

C in shallow water.

D in deep water.

Page 98 of 583

No. 295 How often should the magnetic compass error be checked ?

>

A

Once a day.

B

Once a watch and after a major course alteration.

C Twice a day.

D After each major alteration of course.

No. 296 The "magnetic variation" is the angle between...

>

A

the geographic meridian and compass north.

B

the geographic and magnetic meridians.

C the magnetic meridian and compass north.

D the vessel's head by gyro and the vessel's head by standard compass.

No. 297 Magnetic variation changes its value with...

A

the vessel's trim or heel.

B

the location of the compass within the vessel.

C the change in direction of the vessel's heading.

>

D the vessel's position on the earth.

Page 99 of 583

No. 298 When soft iron is induced by the earth's magnetism.....

>

A

there are no poles to consider as the magnetism dies when the induction ceases.

B

there is said to be a red pole at the end directed towards the north.

C there is said to be a blue pole at the end directed towards the north. D the poles are said to be distributed throughout the iron.

No. 299 If a ship has permanent magnetism with a blue pole to port, the deviation caused will be...

>

A

zero on north and south, west on easterly, east on westerly courses.

B

zero on north and south, east on easterly, west on westerly courses.

C zero on east and west, west on northerly, east on southerly courses. D zero on east and west, east on northerly, west on southerly courses.

No. 300 The deviation of a compass produced by a disturbing magnet varies...

A

inversely with the distance from the magnet.

B

inversely with the square of the distance from the magnet.

C directly with the distance from the magnet.

>

D inversely with the cube of the distance from the magnet.

Page 100 of 583

No. 301 Latitude error means that, in the northern hemisphere, the north end of a gyro compass (damped in tilt) settles...

>

A

to the east of the meridian and above the horizontal.

B

to the west of the meridian and above the horizontal.

C to the east of the meridian and below the horizontal.

D to the west of the meridian and below the horizontal.

No. 302 Damping in tilt in a gyro compass produces...

>

A

a settling position exactly on the meridian.

B

an error which varies with latitude.

C an error which is constant.

D an error which varies with longitude.

No. 303 Heeling error is at its maximum when the courses are...

>

A

north or south.

B

east or west.

C NE, SE, SW or NW.

D any course - the effects are independent of the course.

Page 101 of 583

No. 304 Who is authorised to carry out repairs to a ship's magnetic compass?

>

A

B

The Master only.

C Any officer with a Master's certificate of competency.

D Any officer with a deck certificate of competency.

No. 305 The principle of a fibre-optic "gyro" compass relies on...

>

A

a fibre-optic aerial, which detects signals from a satellite and computes the direction of north.

B

three fibre-optic rings, mounted on a platform, which sense the rotations of the platform due to ship and earth movement.

C two fibre-optic sensors, which measure the accelerations of the ship and compares these to the movement of the earth. D a spinning fibre-optic wheel, which operates like a conventional gyro, but is much lighter.

No. 306 A gyro compass on a high-speed craft often takes time to settle correctly when altering course. What causes this problem?

>

A

The change in the (large) value of the latitude course and speed error when altering course.

B

The accelerations of high speed craft, producing additional errors.

C The vibrations caused by light displacement ships at high speed. D The unsteadiness of high-speed craft, due to heel when altering course at high speed.

Page 102 of 583

No. 307 Latitude , course and speed error of a gyro compass...

A

applies only to gyros which are damped in tilt.

B

applies only to gyros which are damped in azimuth.

C does not occur in a properly set up gyro compass.

>

D applies to all gyro compasses.

No. 308 From those listed, which of the statements about magnetic variation is true?

>

A

The value of variation at a particular place is always the same.

B

The value of variation varies according to the magnetic influences of the ship.

C The value of variation at a place changes slowly.

D The value of variation is due to the combined influences of the ship and the earth.

No. 309 How many degrees are there in each point of the compass?

>

A

15

B

11.25

C 17.5

D 12

Page 103 of 583

No. 310 In what direction (approximately) does the axis of the gyro compass wheel point?

>

A

True North

B

Magnetic North

C East/West

D North Relative

No. 311 Free gyroscopes are turned into gyro compasses by utilising...

>

A

gravity.

B

the spin of the earth.

C the torque of the wheel.

D the rate of spin of the wheel.

No. 312 Compass error is...

>

A

the angle between the heading by gyro and the heading by standard compass.

B

the angle between magnetic and true north.

C the angle between magnetic compass and true north.

D the angle between magnetic and compass north.

Page 104 of 583

No. 313 What is meant by "retentive magnetism" with regard to a ship's magnetic compass?

A >

B

The compass needle retains induced magnetism if the ship has been heading in the same direction for a considerable period. The ship retains induced magnetism if the ship has been heading in the same direction for a considerable period.

C The compass retains a "magnetic memory" of the previous course when the ship changes to a new one. D The correctors retain magnetism from magnetic objects placed near to the compass.

No. 314 What is the main advantage of a liquid compass over a dry card compass?

>

A

It is steadier than a dry card compass.

B

It is more easily adjusted than a dry card compass.

C It has a slower period of oscillation than a dry card compass.

D It is more accurate than a dry card compass.

No. 315 From those listed, which of the statements about magnetic variation is NOT true?

>

A

Variation is the angle between the true and magnetic meridians at any place.

B

Variation can be any value between 180째E and 180째W.

C Variation is at its maximum value at the magnetic equator.

D Variation is due to the true and magnetic poles not being in the same place.

Page 105 of 583

No. 316 Curves on charts showing values of equal variation are called...

>

A

isogonic.

B

isobaric.

C isothermal.

D isopharic.

No. 317 If the axis of a free gyroscope on the equator is horizontal, the northerly end of the spin axis will...

>

A

drift west and tilt up.

B

tilt up if to the east of the meridian.

C tilt up if to the west of the meridian.

D drift east and tilt up.

No. 318 When a force is applied at right angles to the spin axis of a free gyroscope, the axis moves...

>

A

at 90째 to the torque in the opposite direction to the spin.

B

at 180째 to the torque in the opposite direction to the spin.

C at 90째 to the torque in the direction of the spin.

D at 90째 to the torque in the direction of the spin.

Page 106 of 583

No. 319 If a ship is built in a yard while heading south, the poles of permanent magnetism will be...

>

A

if built in the northern hemisphere, red to the bow, but built in the southern hemisphere blue to the bow.

B

red to the bow and blue to the stern.

C blue to the bow and red to the stern.

D if built in the northern hemisphere, blue to the bow, but built in the southern hemisphere red to the bow.

No. 320 A ship which has discharged cargo using electromagnets does not necessarily have to have the magnetic compass readjusted. Why not?

>

A

Because any induced magnetism will probably decay fairly quickly.

B

Because, unless the cargo hold is within 3 metres of the compass, no effect will be felt.

C Because electromagnetic cargo gear is especially designed not to affect ships' compasses. D Because the correctors compensate for any such effects.

No. 321 If a ship has permanent magnetism with a blue pole forward, the deviation caused will be...

>

A

zero on north and south, west on easterly, east on westerly courses.

B

zero on north and south, east on easterly, west on westerly courses.

C zero on east and west, west on northerly, east on southerly courses. D zero on east and west, east on northerly, west on southerly courses.

Page 107 of 583

No. 322 If a ship is built in a yard while heading east, the poles of permanent magnetism will be...

>

A

if built in the northern hemisphere, red to port, if built in the southern hemisphere blue to port.

B

red to port and blue to starboard.

C blue to port and red to starboard.

D if built in the northern hemisphere, blue to port, if built in the southern hemisphere red to port.

No. 323 How many points of the compass are there?

>

A

40

B

24

C 32

D 36

No. 324 The effect of gravity control makes the axis of the gyroscope...

>

A

move clockwise around a central position in an ellipse.

B

move anticlockwise around a central position in an ellipse.

C move anticlockwise around a central position in a circle.

D move clockwise around a central position in an ellipse.

Page 108 of 583

No. 325 From those listed, which is NOT a way of destroying magnetism?

>

A

Heating the magnet.

B

Placing another magnet next to it with unlike poles together.

C Subjecting the magnet to violent shocks.

D Applying alternating current to the magnet.

No. 326 Who is legally responsible for the maintenance of the ship's magnetic compass?

>

A

An officer especially trained for that role.

B

Each officer of the watch shares that responsibility.

C The owner and Master jointly.

D The compass adjuster nominated by the company.

No. 327 A magnetic compass is subject, if certain objects are placed nearby, to interference which may affect the heading shown. From those listed, which is NOT likely to do so?

>

A

Coins (money).

B

A mobile phone.

C A lap-top computer.

Page 109 of 583

No. 328 If a ship is built in a yard while heading north, the poles of permanent magnetism will be...

>

A

if built in the northern hemisphere, red to the bow, if built in the southern hemisphere blue to the bow.

B

red to the bow and blue to the stern.

C blue to the bow and red to the stern.

D if built in the northern hemisphere, blue to the bow, if built in the southern hemisphere red to the bow.

No. 329 The gyro course is 332° and the gyro error is 2° High. What is the true course?

>

A

330°

B

332°

C 334°

D It could be any of the other options.

No. 330 How is a ship's permanent magnetism acquired during building?

>

A

By the sum of all the magnetic forces of the individual components.

B

By the insertion of permanent magnets into the structure, to offset the inducing forces.

C By the hammering and heating processes while heading in the same direction in the building yard. D By the designers who ensure that the magnetic effects are within limits imposed under the class of the ship.

Page 110 of 583

No. 331 Variation values change for a particular place because...

A

the magnetic poles are not in the same positions as the geographic poles.

B

the angle between the magnetic meridian and the meridian at the place varies according to the heading of the ship.

C ionospheric changes cause the magnetic poles to move in a random fashion. >

D the magnetic poles are moving their positions in relation to the geographic poles.

No. 332 The ship's magnetic compass should be adjusted following certain circumstances. From those listed, which is NOT one of those circumstances?

A

When it appears unreliable.

B

When major structural repairs have been carried out.

C When electrical equipment is installed in the vicinity of the compass. >

D When a new Master joins the ship.

No. 333 From those listed, which is NOT a reason for having the standard magnetic compass high up and on the centreline in the ship?

>

A

In order to reduce the chance of damage.

B

To enable an all-round view of the horizon for taking bearings.

C To keep it away from most other sources of magnetism.

D So that induced magnetism is balanced as evenly as possible.

Page 111 of 583

No. 334 The proces of turning a gravity controlled gyroscope into a compass is called...

A

precession.

B

torque.

C tilting.

>

D damping.

No. 335 With reference to magnetism, soft iron...

>

A

means that it can change its polarity without change of position.

B

is iron which retains its magnetism when the inducing field is removed.

C cannot be magnetised.

D can only be magnetised by a strong inducing field.

No. 336 The vertical force of the earth's magnetism....

>

A

causes deviation of the magnetic compass.

B

influences the values of variation.

C does not cause deviation of the magnetic compass.

D can be used to calculate the value of variation.

Page 112 of 583

No. 337 Precession in relation to a free gyroscope is...

A

the change of direction of the spin axis when a force is applied in the direction of the axis.

B

the rate of change of direction of the spin axis due to the rotation of the earth.

C the rate of change of direction and tilt of the spin axis due to the rotation of the earth. >

D the change of direction of the spin axis when a force is applied at right angles to the axis.

No. 338 From those listed, which of the statements about the dip of a magnet is true?

>

A

At the magnetic equator, the dip is zero and the directive force greatest.

B

At the magnetic equator, the dip is maximum and the directive force the least.

C At the magnetic poles, the dip is least and the directive force is the greatest. D At the magnetic poles, the dip is least and the directive force is reduced.

No. 339 Gaussin Error of the magnetic compass is caused by...

>

A

the ship swinging quickly from one course to another.

B

the ship being on the same heading for a long period.

C external magnetic influences, such as from magnetic mines.

D internal magnetic influences, such as electrical equipment near the compass.

Page 113 of 583

No. 340 If a ship has permanent magnetism with a red pole forward, the deviation caused will be...

>

A

zero on north and south, west on easterly, east on westerly courses.

B

zero on north and south, east on easterly, west on westerly courses.

C zero on east and west, west on northerly, east on southerly courses. D zero on east and west, east on northerly, west on southerly courses.

No. 341 Gaussin or Retentive error...

A

can be calculated and allowed for when setting courses.

B

can only be approximately calculated by undertaking a swing of the compass.

C is uncertain in size, but only affects the compass for a very short period. >

D is uncertain in size and may take several hours to clear.

No. 342 If the axis of a free gyroscope in a north latitude is horizontal and pointed to the east of north of the meridian, it will...

>

A

drift east and tilt up.

B

drift west and tilt up.

C drift east and tilt down.

D drift west and tilt down.

Page 114 of 583

No. 343 Damping in azimuth in a gyro compass produces...

>

A

a settling position exactly on the meridian.

B

an error which varies with latitude.

C an error which is constant.

D an error which varies with longitude.

No. 344 The magnetic equator is...

>

A

coincident with the earth's equator.

B

parallel to the earth's equator, but moves north and south with the seasons.

C the line joining places where the dip is zero.

D the line joining places where the directive force is least.

No. 345 Magnetic compass deviation changes with....

>

A

speed.

B

draught.

D longitude.

Page 115 of 583

No. 346 A free gyroscope is said to have "three degres of freedom". From those listed, which is NOT one of these?

>

A

Latitude axis.

B

Spin axis.

C Altitude axis.

D Azimuth axis.

No. 347 The magnetic force exerted at any point in the magnetic field varies...

>

A

inversely with the distance from the magnet.

B

inversely with the square of the distance from the magnet.

C directly with the distance from the magnet.

D inversely with the cube of the distance from the magnet.

No. 348 All gyro compasses, when on the equator, should have...

>

A

an easterly error.

B

a westerly error.

C no latitude error.

D an error depending upon the course.

Page 116 of 583

No. 349 From those listed, which are "soft iron" correctors?

A

The heeling error correctors.

B

The fore and aft correctors.

C The athwartship correctors.

>

D The spheres.

No. 350 The effect of Gaussin or Retentive error when a ship alters course is to produce a..

>

A

westerly error if she swings to starboard and vice versa.

B

easterly error if she swings to starboard and vice versa.

C westerly error in the northern hemisphere and vice versa.

D easterly error in the northern hemisphere and vice versa.

No. 351 The ship's magnetic compass should be especially checked for error following certain circumstances. From those listed, which is NOT one of those circumstances?

>

A

After carrying cargoes with magnetic properties.

B

After using electromagnetic lifting appliances to load or discharge.

C If the ship has visited an area with a large value of variation.

D If the ship has been laid up for a period.

Page 117 of 583

No. 352 With reference to magnetism, hard iron...

>

A

means that it can change its polarity without change of position.

B

is iron which retains its magnetism when the inducing field is removed.

C cannot be magnetised.

D can only be magnetised by a permanent field.

No. 353 Where do you find a note of the annual rate of change in the magnetic variation at a place?

>

A

In the Nautical Ephemeris.

B

In the compass rose of the charts for the area.

C In the latest Notices to Mariners.

D In Local Notices to Mariners.

No. 354 If a ship has permanent magnetism with a red pole to port, the deviation caused will be...

A

zero on north and south, west on easterly, east on westerly courses.

B

zero on north and south, east on easterly, west on westerly courses.

C zero on east and west, west on northerly, east on southerly courses. >

D zero on east and west, east on northerly, west on southerly courses.

Page 118 of 583

No. 355 The gyro course is 165° and the gyro error is 3° Low. What is the true course?

>

A

162°

B

165°

C 168°

D It could be any of the other options.

No. 356 Gyroscopic inertia means that the spin axis of a free gyroscope...

A

always points to true north.

B

always points to the Pole Star.

C points to the same place on earth, unless a force is applied.

>

D points in the same direction in space, unless a force is applied.

No. 357 Leading lights are in line bearing 126°T. If the gyro error is 2°

No. 367 To convert a magnetic course to a true course, it is necessary to apply ....

>

A

variation.

B

deviation.

C compass error.

D none of the other options.

No. 368 If Var= 8W and Dev =4W, What is the compass error?

>

A

12 W

B

4W

C 4E

D 12E

No. 369 If the true transit bearing of two leading lights is read off the chart and the compass bearing of the two lights, when in transit, is taken, then the difference between the two bearings so obtained is the ...... >

A

compass error.

B

deviation.

C variation.

D magnetic bearing.

Page 123 of 583

No. 370 Magnetic compass - Var = 7W ; Dev = 12E ; What is the compass error?

>

A

5E

B

5W

C 19E

D 19W

No. 371 If ship's head by compass was 045 ( C ), What is the true course if the variation is 5W and the deviation is 9.5 W?

>

A

030.5 ( T )

B

054.5 ( T )

C 059.5 ( T )

D 050 ( T )

No. 372 Magnetic Compass - If var =6E ; dev =3W, What is the compass error?

>

A

3E

B

3W

C 9E

D 9W

Page 124 of 583

No. 373 Which of these is the correct pressure sequence associated with a weather " cold front "?

>

A

In advance - steady ; during the passage - sudden rise ; in the rear - fall.

B

None of these are correct.

C In advance - fall ; during the passage - sudden rise ; in the rear - rise continues more slowly. D In advance - sudden fall; during the passage - sudden rise; in the rear - steady.

No. 374 Tropical revolving storms are accompanied by ......

>

A

heavy rain sometimes with thunder and lightning.

B

dense fog.

C slight wind and heavy rain.

D very cold air and sometimes hail.

No. 375 Which of these is the correct weather sequence associated with a "warm front"?

>

A

In advance - continuous rain; during the passage - rain almost or completely stops; in the rear - mainly cloudy and slight rain.

B

In advance - no rain; during the passage - continuous rain; in the rear - drizzle.

C In advance - drizzle; during the passage - no rain; in the rear continuous rain. D In advance - showers; during the passage - thunderstorms / in the rear - clear skies.

Page 125 of 583

No. 376 Frontal depressions move in families, each depression following its predecessor but in ......

>

A

a slightly higher latitude.

B

the same latitude.

C a slightly lower latitude.

D a much higher latitude.

No. 377 The cause of ice accumulation on a ship is due to freezing of sea spray at a temperature below ......

A

0 degrees C.

B

+2 degrees C.

C - 2 degrees C.

>

D -5 degrees C.

No. 378 On the Beaufort scale, hurricane force corresponds to wind ......

>

A

force 8.

B

force 10.

C force 12.

D force 14.

Page 126 of 583

No. 379 On the Beaufort scale, storm force corresponds to wind ......

>

A

force 10 and above.

B

force 8 and above.

C force 12 and above.

D force 6 and above.

No. 380 Wind force 10 correspond to wind speed of ......

>

A

48 - 55 knots.

B

56 - 63 knots.

C 34 - 40 knots.

D 28 - 33 knots.

No. 381 An occluded depression tends to move ....

>

A

slowly and irregularly.

B

fast and irregularly.

C fast.

D slowly.

Page 127 of 583

No. 382 In what latitude do tropical revolving storms generally originate?

>

A

0 to 25 degrees.

B

25 to 35 degrees.

C 35 to 50 degrees.

D 50 to 65 degrees.

No. 383 If a meteorological depression has a large warm sector, it has a tendency to ......

>

A

weaken.

B

remain unchanged.

C deepen.

D move fast.

No. 384 Which of these is the correct sequence of visibility associated with a weather "cold front"?

>

A

In advance - very good ; during the passage - moderate in showers ; at the rear - usually poor.

B

In advance - usually poor ; during the passage - first bad than good ; in the rear - usually very good except in showers.

C In advance - very poor ; during the passage - bad ; in the rear - moderate. D In advance - very good ; during the passage - very poor ; in the rear - moderate.

Page 128 of 583

No. 385 What is the common name for hurricanes, typhoons or cyclones?

A

Tropical depressions.

B

Inter tropical convergence zones.

C Monsoons.

>

D Tropical revolving storms.

No. 386 Which of these is the correct pressure sequence associated with a weather "warm front"?

>

A

In advance - steady ; during the passage - steady fall ; in the rear - increase.

B

In advance - steady fall ; during the passage - fall ceases ; in the rear - little change or slow fall.

C In advance - increase ; during the passage - steady ; in the rear - decrease. D In advance - sharply falling ; during the passage - rise and fall ; in the rear - slowly rising.

No. 387 In a tropical revolving storm, "the eye" is a small central region of......

A

comparatively strong winds and heavy clouds.

B

very strong winds and no clouds.

C no winds and heavy rain.

>

D comparatively light winds and little clouds.

Page 129 of 583

No. 388 The eye of a tropical revolving storm is an area with light wind but with seas that are....

>

A

very high from the North or South.

B

very high and confused.

C moderate and confused.

D very high from the East or West.

No. 389 Wind force 5 corresponds to a wind speed of ....

>

A

10 - 14 knots.

B

17 - 21 knots.

C 30 - 34 knots.

D 25 - 29 knots.

No. 390 South Westerlies are the general surface wind in which of the following latitudes?

>

A

0 - 30 degrees.

B

30 - 40 degrees.

C 40 - 60 degrees.

D 60 - 90 degrees.

Page 130 of 583

No. 391 Fast moving high clouds are an indication of ....

>

A

B

good weather to come.

C rainy weather to come.

D unchanged weather.

No. 392 A falling barometer is an indication of ....

>

A

good weather to come.

B

C no change in weather.

D rainy weather to come.

No. 393 Which of these is the correct sequence of weather associated with a "cold front"?

A

In advance - heavy rain ; during the passage - no rain ; in the rear - no rain.

B

In advance - no rain ; during the passage - moderate rain ; in the rear - heavy rain.

C In advance - clear skies ; during the passage - thunderstorms, often with hail ; in the rear - steady drizzle with cloudy skies. >

D In advance - usually some rain and perhaps thunder ; during the passage - rain, often heavy ; in the rear - heavy rain for a short period than fair .

Page 131 of 583

No. 394 Which of these are "high clouds"?

>

A

Altocumulus, altostratus.

B

Nimbostratus, stratus, stratocumulus.

C Cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus.

D Cumulonimbus.

No. 395 The direction of the centre of a storm may be found by Buys Ballot's law, namely face the wind and ....

A >

B

the centre of the storm is to your left if you are in Northern hemisphere and to your right if you are in Southern hemisphere. in the Northern hemisphere the centre of the storm will bear 8 to 12 points to the right.

C the center of the storm will be ahead about a point to the right.

D the center of the storm will be right behind you about a point on your left.

No. 396 In meteorology, isotherms are lines joining places having the same ....

>

A

pressure.

B

humidity.

C temperature.

D iceberg density.

Page 132 of 583

No. 397 You are 10 to 60 nautical miles away from the centre of a tropical revolving storm. What barometric changes would you expect?

>

A

No change.

B

Slight Increase.

C Rapid fall.

D Rapid Increase.

No. 398 Which of these are "low clouds"?

>

A

Nimbostratus, stratus, stratocumulus.

B

Altocumulus, altostratus.

C Cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus.

D Megastratus.

No. 399 What weather phenomenon can cause a reduction of radar range due to attenuation?

A

Rough seas.

B

Fog.

C Mist.

>

D Rain & snow.

Page 133 of 583

No. 400 In meteorology, isobars are lines joining places having the same ......

>

A

pressure.

B

temperature.

C humidity

D iceberg density.

No. 401 Steaming South at 10 knots, you estimate the wind speed from the surface as 15 knots. Smoke from the funnel is going away to port directly to abeam. What is the approximate true direction of the wind? >

A

WNW

B

NNW

C SSW

D WSW

No. 402 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 4", if you were at position 5, you would expect...

>

A

strong SW winds, showers.

B

strong NE winds, showers.

C light SW winds, good visibility.

D light NE winds, good visibility.

Page 134 of 583

No. 409 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 2" for 1200 May 15th, Westerly winds are being experienced in which of the following?

>

A

Position A.

B

Position C.

C Position D.

D Position F.

No. 410 With which type of cloud is continuous rain usually associated?

A

Altocumulus.

B

Stratocumulus.

C Altostratus.

>

D Nimbostratus.

No. 411 During which month do most tropical storms form in the northern hemisphere?

>

A

May

B

August

C September

D December

Page 137 of 583

No. 412 In the northern hemisphere, which direction will the wind be from just before a warm front arrives?

>

A

SSW

B

WNW

C ESE

D SSE

No. 413 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 4", a typical value for the low pressure would be...

>

A

960 mb

B

980 mb

C 1005 mb

D 1010 mb

No. 414 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 4", a typical value for the high pressure would be...

A

1005 mb

B

1010 mb

C 1015 mb

>

D 1025 mb

Page 138 of 583

No. 415 Cumulus clouds are...

>

A

thick layered clouds covering the whole sky.

B

flat based clouds which grow upwards and frequently have "cauliflower" tops.

C thin and often causing a circular halo around the Sun or Moon.

D elongated bands of cloud extending across the sky.

No. 416 What wind speeds are likely when a weather forecast predicts an imminent Force 8 gale?

A

Over 10 knots

B

Over 14 knots

C Over 24 knots

>

D Over 34 knots

No. 417 On a synoptic weather chart, what level of air pressure would be represented by the figure 113?

>

A

11.30 mb

B

113.0 mb

C 1011.3 mb

D 1130.0 mb

Page 139 of 583

No. 418 In which direction does the Coriolis force deflect winds in the southern hemisphere?

>

A

To the left

B

To the right

C Clockwise

D Anticlockwise

No. 419 A typical value for a high pressure centre in the North Atlantic is...

>

A

1050mb

B

1030mb

C 1010mb

D 990mb

No. 420 What is the name given to an elongated area of low pressure extending outwards from a depression?

>

A

A wedge.

B

A trough.

C A ridge.

D A col.

Page 140 of 583

No. 421 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 3", estimate the pressure at position C.

>

A

1018 mb

B

1019 mb

C 1020 mb

D 1021 mb

No. 422 Which one of these is most characteristic of cold air?

>

A

Its lightness

B

Its denseness

C Its fast-moving nature

D The way it often remains stationary

No. 423 When a marine thermometer is used to take air temperatures, it should be hung...

A

in the wheelhouse.

B

in a sheltered position to leeward.

C exposed to the weather.

>

D in a screen sited to windward.

Page 141 of 583

No. 424 At what altitude do altostratus clouds generally form?

>

A

500 - 2000m

B

2000 - 4500m

C 4500 - 11000m

D above 11000m

No. 425 In the northern hemisphere, which direction will the wind normally be from just before a cold front arrives?

A

SSW

B

WNW

C ESE

>

D SSE

No. 426 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 3", in which of the following positions will the wind be lightest?

>

A

Position 1.

B

Position 3.

C Position 4.

D Position 5.

Page 142 of 583

No. 427 Tropical maritime air is usually:

>

A

Cold, dry and stable

B

Cold, wet and stable

C Warm, dry and stable

D Warm, moist and unstable

No. 428 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 3", estimate the pressure gradient between positions C and D. Use the distance scale on the map.

>

A

3 mb in 100 miles.

B

4 mb in 100 miles.

C 5 mb in 100 miles.

D 6 mb in 100 miles.

No. 429 What is normally the safest angle for a vessel to steer into steep waves?

>

A

25째

B

45째

C 60째

D 85째

Page 143 of 583

No. 430 In the northern hemisphere, which is the most dangerous part of a storm in relation to the direction in which it is moving?

>

A

Its right hand side

B

Its left hand side

C Its eye

D Its tail

No. 431 A barograph is an instrument which records continuous...

>

A

temperature and humidity.

B

temperature and dewpoint.

C pressure and pressure tendency.

D pressure and temperature.

No. 432 What corrections must be applied to a mercury barometer?

>

A

Height and instrument error.

B

Temperature, height, and latitude.

C Height, temperature and instrument error.

D No corrections are necessary.

Page 144 of 583

No. 433 What is the most important way of using air pressure measurements to predict bad weather is coming?

>

A

Noticing when the pressure reading hits 1000 mb

B

Noticing a steady, rapid fall in air pressure

C Noticing a steady rise in air pressure

D Noticing the air pressure level hasnâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t changed by more than 1 mb in 24 hours

No. 434 An anticyclone is an area of....

>

A

high pressure, descending air, and light winds.

B

high pressure, ascending air, and strong winds.

C high pressure, ascending air, and light winds.

D low pressure, descending air, and light winds.

No. 435 The visual range corresponding to the term "moderate visibility" used in weather bulletins is...

A

1 to 2 nautical miles.

B

0.5 to 1 nautical mile.

C 5 to 7 nautical miles.

>

D 2 to 5 nautical miles.

Page 145 of 583

No. 436 Which of the following is NOT true with regard to a summer anticyclone?

>

A

Winds circulate anticlockwise in the Northern hemisphere.

B

Winds are generally light.

C In coastal areas, sea breezes may occur by day.

D Precipitation, if it occurs, is likely to be light drizzle.

No. 437 If you see the term 'falling quickly' in a weather forecast, what does this mean the air pressure has done?

>

A

It has fallen by between 0.1 - 1.5 mb in the last three hours

B

It has fallen by between 1.5 - 3.6 mb in the last three hours

C It has fallen by between 3.6 - 6 mb in the last three hours

D It has fallen by between 6 - 8 mb in the last three hours

No. 438 Above what speed does a tropical depression have to travel to become classed as a tropical storm?

>

A

55 kph

B

62 kph

C 74 kph

D 83 kph

Page 146 of 583

No. 439 Which of those listed is NOT classified as precipitation?

A

Drizzle.

B

Hail.

C Snow.

>

D Ice.

No. 440 From those listed, which is the highest cloud?

>

A

Altocumulus.

B

Cirrus.

C Stratus.

D Cumulus.

No. 441 If you are facing into the wind in the southern hemisphere, where would an area of low pressure lie?

A

In front of you

B

Behind you

>

Page 147 of 583

No. 442 Which type of cloud is associated with thunderstorms?

>

A

Stratus.

B

Cirrus.

C Cumulonimbus.

D Altostratus.

No. 443 The three forms in which water can exist in the atmosphere are as a solid, a liquid and...

>

A

a gas.

B

ice.

C water droplets.

D clouds.

No. 444 Which of these is not a meteorological classification of an air mass?

>

A

Tropical maritime

B

Polar continental

C Tropical continental

D Equatorial maritime

Page 148 of 583

No. 451 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 2" for 1200 May 15th, what is the predominant weather system over the UK at 1200 June 26th?

>

A

A trough.

B

A col.

C An anticyclone.

D A ridge.

No. 452 What is normally the air pressure at sea level?

>

A

13 mb

B

103 mb

C 1013 mb

D 1310 mb

No. 453 In temperate latitudes, an air temperature of 25 degrees Celsius represents....

>

A

a warm summer's day.

B

a hot summer's day.

C a cool winter's day.

D a cold winter's day.

Page 151 of 583

No. 454 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 3", estimate the wind direction at position 3.

>

A

NW

B

NNE

C SSW

D Variable

No. 455 The temperature of the wet bulb thermometer falls according to the rate of...

>

A

relative humidity.

B

condensation.

C evaporation.

D dew point.

No. 456 What is the minimum sea water temperature necessary for a hurricane to develop?

>

A

7째

B

17째

C 26째

D 37째

Page 152 of 583

No. 457 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 3", the forecast states "the low pressure system to the NW of the British Isles is moving slowly SE." How would you expect the wind to change at position X? >

A

To WSW, increase to 35 knots.

B

To ESE, decrease in strength.

D To NE, increase to 35 knots.

No. 458 What distance must visibility be reduced to before water vapour is classed as fog?

A

500m

B

1000m

C 1500m

>

D 2 km

No. 459 In which direction do jet streams normally travel?

>

A

West to east

B

East to west

C North to south

D South to north

Page 153 of 583

No. 460 What is 'ice blink'?

>

A

Temporary damage to the eyes caused by looking for too long at ice

B

A glare on the horizon perhaps indicating ice ahead

C The icing up of a vessel's superstructure

D Small lumps of ice moving together

No. 461 Which of these pressures would be described as "average" in temperate latitudes?

>

A

990mb

B

1000mb

C 1010mb

D 1020mb

No. 462 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 2" for 1200 May 15th, on passage up the English Channel, a vessel will probably experience...

A

thunderstorms.

B

Continuous rain.

C showers.

>

D fog or poor visibility.

Page 154 of 583

No. 463 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 3", what is the forecast wind direction and strength at position Z?

>

A

NE 35 knots.

B

SW 35 knots.

C NE force 3 to 4.

D SW force 3 to 4.

No. 464 What is a growler?

A

A Canadian term for a hurricane

B

An instrument for measuring sound distance in fog

C An unexpected large wave

>

D A small iceberg

No. 465 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 4", if you were at position 1, you would expect...

>

A

fine weather at present, but deteriorating

B

low clouds and rain, but improving over the next few hours

C light winds, clear skies, but rain and stronger winds expected

D thunderstorms now, becoming brighter and then showers

Page 155 of 583

No. 466 In the Beaufort weather notation, what is the meaning of the symbol RR?

>

A

Rain.

B

Heavy rain.

C Continuous heavy rain.

D Continuous rain.

No. 467 n isallobar is...

>

A

a method of measuring the pressure of the atmosphere.

B

a method used by meteorologists to forecast the weather.

C a line on a weather map through positions having the same pressure tendency. D a line on a weather map through positions having the same atmospheric pressure.

No. 468 Arctic air is usually:

A

Cold and dry

B

Cold and wet

C Temperate and wet

>

D Freezing and sharp

Page 156 of 583

No. 469 The most accurate sea surface temperature would be obtained from a....

>

A

water sample obtained in a metal bucket.

B

water sample obtained in an insulated bucket.

C thermometer in the engine room intake pipe.

D thermometer lowered overside in a bucket.

No. 470 What do tightly spaced isobars indicate?

>

A

Strong winds

B

Light winds

C No wind at all

D Occasional gusts of wind

No. 471 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 1" for 0700 July 4th, identify the predominant pressure system over the UK.

>

A

A depression.

B

A secondary depression.

C A trough.

D A col.

Page 157 of 583

No. 472 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 2" for 1200 May 15th, at position D, the winds can be expected to...

A

veer Westerly and strengthen.

B

veer Easterly and strengthen.

C back Easterly and weaken.

>

D be affected by sea breezes.

No. 473 What does 'soon' mean in a weather forecast?

>

A

Within 6 hours of the warning being given

B

Within 6 -12 hours of the warning being given

C Within 12 -16 hours of the warning being given

D Within 16 - 24 hours of the warning being given

No. 474 How does a current flowing in the same direction as the wind affect the sea wave length and height?

>

A

It decreases wave length and wave height.

B

It increases wave length, and decreases wave height.

C It increases wave length and height.

D It decreases wave length and increases wave height.

Page 158 of 583

No. 475 In the Northern hemisphere, the wind at sea level rotates around a depression in...

>

A

an anticlockwise direction parallel to the isobars.

B

a clockwise direction parallel to the isobars.

C an anticlockwise direction at a small angle to the isobars inwards towards the centre. D a clockwise direction at a small angle to the isobars outwards away from the centre.

No. 476 What is the biggest cause of high waves forming?

>

A

Depth of sea

B

Distance from nearest land

C Wind

D Latitude

No. 477 Buys Ballot's Law says that if a seafarer faces the wind in the southern hemisphere then the area of low pressure will be:

>

A

B

Directly behind

C To the left

D To the right

Page 159 of 583

No. 478 An isobar is...

A

a method of measuring the pressure of the atmosphere.

B

a method used by meteorologists to forecast the weather.

C a line on a weather map through positions having the same pressure gradient. >

D a line on a weather map through positions having the same atmospheric pressure.

No. 479 After allowing for latitude daytime variation, what sort of fall in air pressure might indicate an approaching storm?

>

A

1 mb in one hour

B

1 mb in three hours

C 3 mb in three hours

D 3 mb in 24 hours

No. 480 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 2" for 1200 May 15th, the predominant weather system at position G is...

>

A

a deep depression.

B

a weak low.

C a col.

D a ridge.

Page 160 of 583

No. 481 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 1" for 0700 July 4th, what is the pressure system over the UK most likely do over the next 12 hours?

>

A

Remain stationary.

B

Move eastwards.

C Move southwards.

D Move northwards.

No. 482 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 4", the line at position 2 is called

>

A

the cold front.

B

the warm front.

C the warm sector.

D the cold sector.

No. 483 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 1" for 0700 July 4th, if you are on passage through the Dover Straits, the wind can be expected to...

>

A

Veer SW

B

Back SW

C Veer NW

D Back NW

Page 161 of 583

No. 484 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 2" for 1200 May 15th, the pressure system over the UK will probably, in the next 12 hours......

>

A

move rapidly Eastwards.

B

remain stationary.

No. 485 Showery precipitation is most likely to be produced by...

>

A

cirrus type clouds.

B

cumulus or cumulonimbus clouds.

C stratus clouds.

D nimbostratus clouds.

No. 486 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 3", in which of the following positions will the wind be strongest?

A

Position 1.

B

Position 2.

C Position 4.

>

D Position 5.

Page 162 of 583

No. 487 Sea fog is likely to form when the wind changes direction to bring air from a...

A

warm area of sea over a cold land.

B

cold area of sea over a warm area of sea.

C cold land over a warm sea.

>

D warm land over a cold area of sea.

No. 488 With which type of cloud is hail usually associated?

A

Cirrus.

B

Altocumulus.

C Stratus.

>

D Cumulonimbus.

No. 489 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 4", if you were at position 2, you would expect...

>

A

the wind to veer to the West, visibility to improve.

B

the wind to back to Easterly and become lighter.

C poor visibility and continuous rain for a while.

D showers followed by thunderstorms.

Page 163 of 583

No. 490 What level of visibility does 'poor' indicate in a weather forecast?

>

A

Between 5 - 8 nautical miles

B

Between 2 - 5 nautical miles

C Between 1000 - 2000m

D Less than 1000m

No. 491 How reliable are official wave forecasts considered to be?

>

A

50%

B

70%

C 80%

D Almost 100%

No. 492 What is an isobar?

>

A

A contour line of constant wind speed

B

A contour line of constant altitude

C A contour line of constant air pressure

D A contour line of constant visibility

Page 164 of 583

No. 493 Referring to the weather map "Metmap 4", the line at position 4 is probably...

>

A

the trailing part of the cold front of a previous low.

B

the likely direction of movement of the low system.

C a frontal trough.

D a ridge of higher pressure.

No. 494 Where, in a warm sector depression, are fog patches and light drizzle most likely to occur?

A

In the side of the depression away from the fronts.

B

On passage of the cold front.

C After the passage of the cold front.

>

D In the warm sector of the depression.

No. 495 Which of these cities is one of the three key weather information collecting centres?

>

A

Tokyo

B

Melbourne

C London

D Cape Town

Page 165 of 583

No. 496 If the atmosphere contains less water vapour than it is capable of holding at that temperature, it is said to be...

>

A

wet.

B

dry.

C saturated.

D unsaturated.

No. 497 Sea waves will increase in height in certain conditions. From those listed, which is NOT one of those conditions?

A

When they travel against a current.

B

When they approach a coastline.

C When they come into shallower water.

>

D When they travel with a current.

No. 498 A depression is formed when:

>

A

Polar continental air meets polar sea air

B

Warm, damp air meets cold, dry air

C Any two air masses meet

D Two masses of tropical continental air meet

Page 166 of 583

No. 499 On this weather routeing chart, what does the upper figure indicate?

>

A

The number of observations.

B

The percentage frequency of variables winds.

C The number of observed calms.

D None of the other options.

No. 500 On this weather routeing chart, what is the wind speed indicated by the arrow?

>

A

4 kts

B

3 kts

C 5 kts

D 7 kts

No. 501 On this weather routeing chart, what is indicated?

>

A

Radio calling in point, way or reporting point showing direction of vessels movement.

B

Ramark.

C

D Coast radio station providing range and bearing from stations on request.

Page 167 of 583

No. 502 What is rain accompanied by snow called?

>

A

Sleet.

B

Snow flakes.

C Ice pellets.

D Hail.

No. 503 On this weather routeing chart, what does this figure indicate?

>

A

Pipeline

B

Telegraph line

C Power transmission line

No. 504 What is the quantity of water vapour present in the atmosphere called?

>

A

Humidity

B

Relative humidity

C Absolute humidity

D Dew point

Page 168 of 583

No. 505 On weather routeing charts how are iceberg limits presented?

>

A

letter a

B

letter b

C letter c

D letter d

No. 506 On this weather routeing chart, what does this figure indicate?

>

A

Single Occulting

B

Single flashing

C Group quick

D Composite group flashing

No. 507 Assuming a forecast wind of say, 30 kts, with the maximum wind duration and maximum fetch, what would be the value of the significant wave height?

>

A

4.9

B

4

C 3

D 3.9

Page 169 of 583

No. 511 Meteorology - what does the figure indicate?

>

A

Warm occlusion

B

Cold occlusion

C Warm front

D Cold front

No. 512 In which area will the isobars be spaced closest, given the wind speeds indicated?

>

A

40kts

B

20kts

C 30kts

D 10kts

No. 513 A squall line of sharp changes of wind, is very often associated with ......

>

A

cold front.

B

warm front.

C occluded front.

D warn front.

Page 171 of 583

No. 514 Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth?

>

A

Troposphere

B

Stratosphere

C Mesosphere

D Ionosphere

No. 515 What is water content of the atmosphere (usually expressed as a percentage) known as?

>

A

Humidity

B

Dew

C Fog

D Mist

No. 516 In what direction does the wind blow around a cyclonic storm in the northern hemisphere?

>

A

Anti-clockwise

B

Clockwise

C Towards the pole

D Towards the equator

Page 172 of 583

No. 517 If the distance between two consecutive isobars (drawn at intervals of 4mb) is found to be 100 n.m. and the latitude is 50 deg, what is the geostrophic wind speed?

>

A

30 kts

B

15 kts

C 60 kts

D 120 kts

No. 518 If an observer is facing the wind in the northern hemisphere, where does the low pressure lie?

>

A

To the right

B

To the left

D Behind

No. 519 On this weather routeing chart, what does the lower figure represent?

>

A

The percentage frequency of currents having a rate of less than Â˝ knot

B

The number. of observations

C The mean resultant

D The strongest current experienced

Page 173 of 583

No. 523 What instrument is used for measuring the velocity of the wind?

>

A

Anemometer

B

Barometer

C Tachometer

D Hydrometer

No. 524 What type of clouds are shown in the picture?

>

A

Stratocumulus

B

Cumulus

C Stratus

D Cirrus

No. 525 When told to rig a pilot ladder, which side do you choose?

>

A

The weather side

B

Close to the stern

C The lee side

D Either side

Page 175 of 583

No. 529 What is the meaning of the light signal being shown?

A

Vessel shall NOT proceed.

B

Vessel may proceed. TWO WAY TRAFFIC.

C EMERGENCY - All vessels to stop or divert according to instructions. >

D A vessel may only proceed when given a specific order, except if navigating outside the main channel.

No. 530 What is the meaning of the light signal being shown?

>

A

Vessels shall NOT proceed.

B

Vessels shall NOT proceed except if navigating outside the main channel.

C A vessel may only proceed when given a specific order.

D Vessels may proceed. TWO WAY TRAFFIC.

No. 531 What is the meaning of the light signal being shown?

>

A

Vessel may proceed. TWO WAY TRAFFIC.

B

Vessel may proceed. ONE WAY TRAFFIC.

C Vessel shall NOT proceed.

D Vessel shall NOT proceed except if navigating outside the main channel.

Page 177 of 583

ipts_4.bmp

No. 532 What is the meaning of the light signal being shown?

>

A

Vessel shall NOT proceed.

B

Vessel shall NOT proceed except if navigating outside the main channel.

C Vessel may proceed. ONE WAY TRAFFIC.

D A vessel may only proceed when given a specific order, except those navigating outside the main channel.

No. 533 Which of following items should be checked before a ship sails?

A

That cargo is stowed safely

B

That all moveable objects are secured

C All bridge equipment, main engine, auxiliary systems and the steering system >

D All of the other options

No. 534 The OOW has, during the pre-departure check of the bridge equipment, found an error in the weather facsimile. What should he do?

A

Record the error in the log book

B

Advise the master after the vessel has departed

C Call the attention of the 2nd Engineer on the fault

>

D Advise the master as soon as possible before the vessel's departure

Page 178 of 583

ipts_7.bmp

No. 535 What is the duty of a pilot?

>

A

To be responsible for the vessel's navigation as long as he is on board

B

To assist in planning the sea voyage

C To direct the navigation of the ship in a certain area

D To relieve the OOW of his duty to monitor the navigation of the ship

No. 536 At the commencement of a sea voyage the Master, a Pilot, the OOW and 2 ratings are present on the bridge. Who is in charge?

>

A

The Master can designate either the Pilot or the OOW to be in charge

B

Always the Master

C Always the Pilot whenever he is on board

D Either the Pilot or the Master in accordance with the owner's instructions

No. 537 The captain of a vessel has 2 years of experience as a captain and the pilot directing the navigation has 20 years of experience. Who is in charge ?

>

A

Always the officer with the longest sea experience

B

The Pilot

C The master

D Depends on Port Authority's decision

Page 179 of 583

No. 538 The pilot gives the helmsman an order which the OOW believe to be incorrect. What should he do?

>

A

Record it in the log book

B

The pilot is in control of the vessel so he cannot question the action of the pilot

C Ask the pilot to clarify the reason for the order. If still in doubt he should consult the master and take action if the master is not present D Keep quiet in order not to disturb the pilot

No. 539 What is a pilot boarding card?

>

A

A card certifying that the pilot is licensed

B

A card that the pilot should sign to record his presence onboard

C A list of the vessel's essential particulars which is given to the pilot D A card given by the Port Authorities to the pilot

No. 540 Should the OOW, who is escorting the pilot to the pilot ladder, be equipped with a walkie-talkie for communication with the bridge?

A

It's not necessary

B

Yes, but only if visibility is restricted

C It's up to the pilot to decide

>

D Always

Page 180 of 583

No. 541 Who has the responsibility for the watch during a sea voyage if the master comes on to the bridge?

>

A

The master automatically assumes the responsibility for the watch

B

The master can only take over the watch responsibility if he tells the OOW that he is taking over

C The master and the OOW will share the responsibility whenever the master is on the bridge D The two persons shall consult each other as required

No. 542 How often should a position fix be taken during a sea voyage if the ship is in open coastal waters?

>

A

Just before the change of watch

B

Twice a watch

C At least every 30 minutes

D Only when the visibility drops

No. 543 What chart should be used when navigating?

>

A

The largest scale chart onboard for the area which is properly corrected

B

Any chart which shows the area which the vessel is passing through

C The largest scale chart on board for the concerned area

D The chart which covers the largest part of the passage

Page 181 of 583

No. 544 What is a safe interval between position fixes?

A

Before the vessel is due to alter course

B

When the weather changes

C So that the vessel cannot be set into danger if the last two fixes were incorrect >

D So that the vessel cannot be set appreciably off course, or into danger by the effects of wind, tide or current

No. 545 When two ships are on reciprocal courses, what is meant by the "approaching vessel's relative speed"?

>

A

The sum of the speed of the two vessels

B

The speed of the faster vessel

C The difference in speed between the two vessels

D The speed of the slower vessel

No. 546 Which of the listed tasks have priority over the other?

>

A

Maintaining the track comes before collision avoidance

B

Navigating comes before controlling the vessel's track

C Collision avoidance comes before maintaining course and track D The master decides which task has preference

Page 182 of 583

No. 547 Two ships approach each other on reciprocal courses, one with a speed of 22 knots, the other with 15 knots. What is their relative speed?

A

22 knots

B

15 knots

C 7 knots

>

D 37 knots

No. 548 An OOW, on duty in coastal waters, notices that he becomes too busy to be able to take a fix. What should he do?

A

Slow down the vessel

B

Leave the fix until later

C Ask the lookout to check for other vessels while he takes a fix

>

D Call the master to assist him

No. 549 If two vessels approach each other on a collision course, what is meant by "the critical period"?

>

A

The period when action to prevent a collision has to be taken

B

The period before collision takes place

C The period after which it is too late to avoid a collision

D The period when neither vessel has noticed the other

Page 183 of 583

No. 550 When underway, what is the principal threat to the ship?

>

A

To have an engine breakdown

B

To have a collision with another ship

D To be late due to bad weather

No. 551 Why is it important for the OOW to move around the bridge?

A

To be able to view all the instruments on the bridge

B

To be able to see what the lookout is doing

C To be able to check the fire alarm system frequently

>

D To be able to obtain a clear view of the surrounding area

No. 552 When at anchor, what should the OOW do if the vessel appears to be dragging her anchor?

>

A

Ask the chief engineer to start the engine

B

Ask the bosun to check the anchor

C Call the master at once

D Any of the other options

Page 184 of 583

No. 553 How should the anchor be positioned when a ship is due to anchor in a river with a strong current?

>

A

It should be properly secured to prevent damage..

B

It should be lowered to just below the water level.

C It should be lowered to just above the water level.

D It should be ready to drop at any time from it's normal secured position. released the

Lowered to the water level so when the brake is anchor cable will run free at a very short notice.

No. 554 Apart from ensuring navigational safety at anchorage, what should the OOW do?

>

A

Have all bridge equipment cleaned.

B

Check that the engineer on watch is in the engine room.

C Monitor the VHF for orders for the vessel.

D Direct the lookout to do maintenance work.

No. 555 What is the best way to monitor the risk of collision in poor visibility?

>

A

Post an extra lookout.

B

Monitor the radar display and post a lookout.

C Take more satellite fixes..

D Arrange for hand steering.

Page 185 of 583

No. 556 Will snow fall reduce the ability of the radar to detect targets?

A

No.

B

Yes, but only with 'S' band radars.

C Yes, but only with old radars which do not have a visibility compensator. >

D Yes.

No. 557 The International Regulations for Prevention of Collision at Sea includes......

>

A

instructions for the use of the radio in fog.

B

instructions for keeping the radar log.

C instructions on action to take while plotting a ship by radar.

D rules for the proper use of navigational aids.

No. 558 You need to anchor a ship in 80 meters of open water. How much chain should you use?

>

A

6 shackles.

B

11 shackles.

C 8 shackles.

D 5 shackles.

Page 186 of 583

No. 559 When using a buoy as an aid to navigation, which of the following should always be considered?

>

A

The buoy may not be in its charted position.

B

If the light is showing its correct characteristic it is in its right position.

C If no radio navigation warning has been issued concerning the buoy, it can be assumed to be in its correct position. D The buoy is nearly always well anchored and can be considered to be in its charted position.

No. 560 When watchkeepers are inadequately rested, it calls for changes to routine watchkeeping periods. Who is responsible for making such changes?

>

A

The master

B

The watch keeper involved

C All the watchkeepers

D The navigating officer

No. 561 If the OOW is in doubt as to the Pilot's actions or intentions, what must he do?

>

A

Seek clarification from the Pilot , notify the master and take corrective action

B

Avoid taking any action

C Ask the Pilot to leave the bridge

D Call the master and wait for him to take action

Page 187 of 583

No. 562 Who is responsible for the safety of the vessel when the pilot is on board?

>

A

The master

B

The pilot

C The OOW

D The port authorities

No. 563 If a helmsman is given an order "starboard 10" , what must he do?

>

A

He must repeat the order before putting the wheel on stbd 10

B

He must put the wheel on stbd 10 and then report

C He must repeat the order , wait for a reconfirmation from the OOW and then put the wheel on stbd 10 D All of the other options are appropriate

No. 564 Which of these factors must be taken into account when deciding the composition of a navigational watch?

>

A

All of the other options.

B

Whether the ship is fitted with automatic steering.

C The weather conditions, visibility and whether there is daylight or darkness. D The proximity of navigational hazards, which may make it necessary for the officer in charge to carry out additional navigational duties.

Page 188 of 583

No. 565 Which of the following would not be included as part of control testing by the deck OOW, prior to departure?

>

A

Testing of ship's cranes

B

Testing of engine telegraph and it's auto recorder

C Synchronising clocks

D Checking communication between Bridge and Engine control room

No. 566 When may the OOW on the bridge manoeuvre the engines?

>

A

Whenever he needs to

B

Only on orders from the master

C Only after informing the master

D When approaching port

No. 567 When may positions marked on the navigation chart be erased?

>

A

At the end of the voyage

B

Once the vessel is on the next chart

C After the day has elapsed

D Once the vessel is on the next course

Page 189 of 583

No. 568 Which of the following should not used for collision avoidance?

>

A

B

C ARPA

D Sound/Light Signalling

No. 569 What additional lights does a vessel constrained by its draught have to show?

>

A

Red and white lights in a vertical line.

B

Red, white, red lights in a vertical line.

C Three red lights in a vertical line.

D Two red lights in a vertical line.

No. 570 If another ship does not appear to be taking sufficient action to avoid a collision, what should you do according to the Collision Regulations?

>

A

Alter course.

B

Sound 5 short and rapid blasts on the whistle.

C Call it up on VHF.

D Stand On.

Page 190 of 583

No. 571 A fishing vessel is showing a basket and a single cone apex upwards? In which direction do the nets lie?

>

A

Astern.

B

C From the basket towards the cone.

D From the cone towards the basket.

No. 572 You are heading west and observe a north cardinal buoy dead ahead. What action do you take?

>

A

Alter course to port.

B

Alter course to starboard.

C Wait until you can see a port hand buoy.

D Wait until you can see a starboard hand buoy.

No. 573 Power-driven vessel 'A' sees power-driven vessel 'B' as shown here at 3 miles range. What must vessel 'A' do?

A

Reduce speed and monitor the compass bearing of 'B'.

B

If necessary, reduce speed or stop.

C Sound one short blast and alter course to starboard.

D Keep her course and speed and carefully watch02 32.8192 119610.02 0 0 10.02 46.241 r 0 ading west and obse19610.02

D

>

D

B s1e1su/w2p6omt749t 7 8k3h80.02 Tjiven ve8s8s8s8s8s8s8s8s8s8s8st'iven . 87Pu7t7edinh00.0carAc6 0ve8s.elDCsc10.0aw3 0 52Pheo0carAc6 0 01178114.4701by2 16g 1t2'0g58/MCIa /ch0ower-driven ve8sc10.0aw3 o1 6ro8efyTm5 7Acl1 6ro8e0.02 0 0 10.0,1 range. What 0href1e810.02 0 0 10.02 68./P </MCID 15 >BDCBT/TT2 1 Tf0.0005 Tc -0.g14.4Tj.r.02 0 0 10.02 17.9997 3brboaTj.r.02 0 0 10.02 17.r.02 0 0 ul857Acl1 6ro8e0.02 0 0 10.0,1 aTj.r.02 0 0 10.02 17.robse19610.02 0 0 1067 Tmrm7Acl1 6ro8e0.02 0 0.7aT/TT2l0 1067 Tmrm7Ac6 s .o.02 0 rDe. (B.02 3/ch0owe. rvessel 'A' 'iv 70891.9014 352.4981 Tm( -0.g14M0l42 0 0 10.02 68.9845 114.477 Tm(Keep0lfb.cD6j3miven ve8sc10.0aw3 o ab .7 Tm.r82 >BDCBT/e7 0.0aw3 )Tj72 Tm(C )Tj10.02 0 0 11178114.4701by2 /ch00/ch6u78181op ..ch6e.8d.6ge1rod careGr38g6814 7xt530.02 0 0 10.0,9lfb.c10.0,9l5Gr3rblf1n watch02 32.8192 11961048- i1.r.02 0 0 ul857Acl1 6ro8/MCID 15 >BDCBT/TT2 1 Tf0.0005 T.7Gi.9hd6h63 ol..90 15 >BDC1 l 'A' .1Powehessel7d84ew608 132.3601 cm/Im1 DoQEMC/P </MCI4 2lDo692i 2h0 15 >BDC1 l 'A' .r7.9997 3brboaTj.r.02 0 0 71careGrwatch00 10.ie 132c)Tj3BDCBT/e7 0.s35p6/r 3brba ..90 15 C4832c83e7 0.s35p6/r 3brba ..90 F0 002 6DT/TT2/MCID 13 > 1 TfI>BDC1 l 'A' .r7.9997 eGrwatch07 Tmrm7Ac6 s h gs'A' .4el7ib9610l'A' 36rTB/MCID otch07 Tmrm7Accrc eGrwatch07 Tmrm7Ac6 s h gs'A' .4el9th a32 0 0/3 7ch07 Tmrm7Ac6 0 0 10.0,1 aTj.r.02 0831r.4>> 1 T. 77 6

No. 574 What kind of vessel may sound a fog signal consisting of four short blasts?

>

A

A vessel being towed.

B

A vessel engaged on pilotage duty.

C A vessel constrained by her draught.

D A fishing vessel..

No. 575 What could a vessel do to highlight a danger to another vessel, especially at night ?

>

A

Show a square flag and a black ball in a vertical line one over the other.

B

Direct a search light in the direction of the danger.

C Sound three short blasts on the whistle.

D Fire a rocket throwing red stars.

No. 576 What could be the fog signal of a vessel aground in a channel?

A

Four strokes on the bell, sounded in the same manner as 'four bells' to indicate time.

B

A blast of from three to five seconds on the whistle.

C Three distinct blasts followed by a rapid ringing of the bell.

>

D A rapid ringing of the bell and three separate and distinct strokes on the bell immediately before and after ringing of the bell.

Page 192 of 583

No. 577 Which of the following is a vessel "not under command"?

A

A vessel engaged in underwater operations.

B

A tug engaged in a towing operation.

C A sailing vessel becalmed.

>

D A power driven vessel with main engine failure.

No. 578 You see a vessel displaying a black cylinder on her starboard yardarm. At night, what lights would the same vessel be showing, in addition to those for a power-driven vessel underway? A

Two all-round red lights in a vertical line.

B

Three all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper and lower red and the middle one white.

C Two all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper one red and the lower one white. >

D Three all-round red lights in a vertical line.

No. 579 Referring to Annex II of the Collision Regulations; additional signals for fishing vessels in close proximity. What does the signal "one white light over one red light" mean?

>

A

I am shooting nets.

B

I am hauling nets.

C My nets are fast on an obstruction.

D I am engaged in pair trawling.

Page 193 of 583

No. 580 What is a power-driven vessel?

>

A

Any vessel which is self-propelled.

B

Any vessel propelled by an internal combustion engine.

C Any vessel propelled by machinery.

D Any vessel other than a vessel propelled by sails.

No. 581 If a vessel is being towed alongside on the starboard side of the towing vessel, what lights should it show?

>

A

Starboard sidelight and sternlight.

B

Sidelights and sternlight.

C Sidelights only.

D Starboard sidelight only.

No. 582 What is the duration of a "'short blast" on the whistle?

>

A

One second.

B

Two seconds.

C Three seconds.

D Four seconds.

Page 194 of 583

No. 583 In the Collision Regulations, the Government of any State can make provision for special rules allowing the use of additional whistle signals between which vessels?

>

A

Warships and vessels sailing under convoy.

B

Tugs and their tows.

C Pilot vessels and vessels requiring pilots.

D All of the other options.

No. 584 Which of the following vessels may use inshore traffic zones in all circumstances?

>

A

Vessels not under command and vessels restricted in their ability to manoeuvre.

B

Vessels less than 20 metres in length and sailing vessels.

C Vessels towing which are severely restricted in their ability to manoeuvre. D All of the other options.

No. 585 When should a sailing vessel keep out of the way of a power driven vessel?

>

A

When both vessels are crossing.

B

When the power driven vessel is overtaking..

C When the sailing vessel is overtaking.

D When both vessels are meeting end on.

Page 195 of 583

No. 586 At night, in addition to her sidelights, what else must a sailing vessel show?

>

A

A white light.

B

C A stern light.

D A white light in the direction of an approaching vessel.

No. 587 You sight a vessel bearing 3 points abaft the starboard beam. Sometime later, it is bearing 3 points forward of the starboard beam. Which of the following circumstances apply?

>

A

Two vessels with the same speed and course.

B

Two power-driven vessels meeting.

C A vessel overtaking situation.

D Two power-driven vessels crossing with no risk of collision.

No. 588 What is the duration of a prolonged blast?

>

A

6-8 seconds

B

4-6 seconds

C more than 8 seconds

D 2-4 seconds

Page 196 of 583

No. 589 When proceeding in a narrow channel, you hear a vessel astern sound two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts. What does this signal indicate?

>

A

The other vessel intends to overtake you on your starboard side.

B

The other vessel intends to overtake you on your port side.

C The other vessel intends to follow you to port.

D The other vessel wishes to attract your attention.

No. 590 When is a vessel " UNDERWAY "?

>

A

When she is not at anchor or made fast to the shore

B

When she is moving through the water

C When the main engine is running

D When she is aground

No. 591 At night you notice, in addition to other lights, two yellow lights in a vertical line which flash alternately every second. What does this indicate?

>

A

A fishing vessel hampered by her purse seine gear..

B

A dredger showing the side on which a vessel can pass.

C A towing vessel's light seen from abaft the beam.

D An air cushion vehicle operating in the non-displacement mode.

Page 197 of 583

No. 592 You have another vessel on your port bow in clear visibility, but with a moderate sea and swell. Which of the following would normally give greatest accuracy in determining if risk of collision exists?

>

A

Observation of the radar bearing and range

B

Observation of the compass bearing over a period of time

C Observation of the radar range

D Observation of the radar bearing

No. 593 When should a vessel not under command display the sternlight?

>

A

When another vessel is overtaking

B

When making way through the water

C When unable to get out of the way of other vessels

D When underway

No. 594 At sea during the day, you see a vessel displaying two black cones with their points together. What does this indicate?

>

A

A vessel engaged in fishing

B

A vessel engaged in a towing operation which is unable to deviate from her course

C A vessel of less than 50 metres in length at anchor

D A vessel aground

Page 198 of 583

No. 595 When two whistles are fitted on a vessel and are placed more than 100m apart, what is the usual arrangement for giving manoeuvring and warning signals ?

A

The forward whistle shall sound before the after whistle

B

The after whistle shall sound before the forward whistle

C They are sounded simultaneously

>

D Only one of the whistles is sounded

No. 596 Your power-driven vessel is fitted with radar and is underway in poor visibility. At what speed should you proceed?

A

Sea speed if there are no targets showing on the radar

B

Sea speed only if in open waters

C Sea speed with the engines on standby, keeping a close radar watch >

D A safe speed

No. 597 To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply?

>

A

Those adopted by the International Maritime Organization

B

Those set up by local authorities

C Those defined on navigational charts

D All of the other options

Page 199 of 583

No. 598 How should a vessel cross a traffic separation lane?

>

A

At a speed and heading that will cause the least encounters with vessels within the lane

B

On a heading that will cause her to spend the LEAST TIME in the lane

C On a HEADING as nearly as practical at right angles to the direction of traffic flow D On heading so that her TRACK will be as nearly as practicable at right angles to the direction of traffic flow

No. 599 What do these lights indicate?

>

A

A power-driven vessel of less than 20 metres in length underway.

B

A power-driven vessel of less than 12 metres in length underway.

C A power-driven vessel engaged in trawling.

D Power-driven pilot vessel on pilotage duty and underway.

No. 600 What do these lights indicate?

>

A

A power-driven vessel underway.

B

A power-driven vessel underway when towing and the length of the tow exceeds 200m.

C A pushing vessel and a vessel pushed ahead as a composite unit. D A vessel being towed..

Page 200 of 583

No. 601 In what situation would you expect a vessel to show these lights?

>

A

When on pilotage duty

B

When unable to manoeuvre

C When towing

D When not under command

No. 602 What do these lights indicate?

q431.bmp

A

A power-driven vessel engaged in towing unable to deviate from her course.

B

A vessel engaged in trawling using pelagic gear.

C A vessel engaged in minesweeping.

>

D A vessel engaged in underwater operations not making way through the water or at anchor.

No. 603 At sea you sight a tug displaying this signal. What should you do?

>

A

Keep well clear as she is towing a dracone.

B

Keep well clear as the tug is restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.

C Give assistance as the tug is in distress.

D Keep well clear as she is escorting a submersible vessel.

Page 201 of 583

q432.bmp

No. 604 What do these lights indicate?

>

A

A power driven vessel underway.

B

A pilot vessel at anchor.

C A fishing vessel at anchor.

D A fishing vessel stopped in the water.

No. 605 What is the fog signal of this vessel?

>

A

One prolonged blast followed by two short blast on the whistle.

B

Four strokes on the bell, sounded in the same manner as bells' to indicate time.

C A rapid ringing of the bell for about 5 seconds repeated every minute. D A rapid ringing of the bell and also one short, one long and one short blast in succession.

No. 606 You are underway on a tanker and observe the lights illustrated on a steady bearing and at decreasing range on the PORT bow. What do you do?

>

A

Maintain course and speed keeping a careful watch on the bearing of the other vessel.

B

Alter course to STARBOARD and sound ONE short blast.

C Alter course to PORT and sound two short blasts.

D Stand on to see if the other vessel takes any action.

Page 202 of 583

No. 607 Does this signal indicate that the vessel is......

>

A

at anchor.

B

fishing.

C underway and making way through the water.

D underway, but stopped.

No. 608 The white light shown must be so fixed as to show an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon. What is the size of this arc?

A

135 deg. (12 points of the compass)

B

112 1/2 deg. (10 points of the compass)

C 360 deg. (32 points of the compass)

>

D 225 deg. (20 points of the compass)

No. 609 What do these lights indicate?

>

A

A vessel towing a barge

B

A power-driven vessel of over 50m in length

C A power-driven vessel of under 50m

D A dredger indicating the clear side free from obstructions

Page 203 of 583

No. 610 Power-driven vessels 'A' and 'B' are in sight of one another. Which of the following statements is correct?

>

A

Both vessels should alter course to starboard. No whistles signals need be sounded.

B

'A' and 'B' should alter course to starboard, each sounding one short blast on the whistle.

C 'A' should blow one blast and alter course to starboard.

D 'A' and 'B' should blow one blast and wait for a response before altering course.

No. 611 The lights shown indicate a vessel......

A

towing another vessel astern, length of tow exceeding 200m.

B

towing a vessel made fast alongside.

C towing more than one vessel astern.

>

D towing, tow of less than 200m in length, unable to deviate from her course.

No. 612 What do these lights show?

>

A

A vessel over 50 metres in length engaged in trawling.

B

A vessel engaged in trawling with her outlying gear extending more than 150 metres into the seaway.

C A vessel under 50 metres in length engaged in trawling.

D A vessel engaged in trawling and at anchor.

Page 204 of 583

No. 613 At night, you are power-driven vessel 'A' approaching power-driven vessel 'B' as shown. Occasionally you see both white masthead lights and the green side light of vessel 'B'. Which of the following is true? A

Both are equally responsible for keeping clear.

B

This is a case of special circumstances and I would contact 'B'.

C Vessel 'B' must keep clear of you ( vessel 'A' ).

>

D I ( vessel 'A' ) must keep clear of vessel 'B'.

No. 614 What light or lights must be carried by a group of three barges in a line being pushed ahead of a tug as shown here?

A

Red and green sidelights on each barge.

B

Red and green sidelights at the forward end of the leading barge and white all-round light on each barge.

C A white all-round light at the forward end of the barge.

>

D Red and green sidelights at the forward end of the leading barge.

No. 615 In open waters, you see the lights ( shown in the picture ) right ahead at medium range. What do you do?

>

A

Sound one short blast and alter course to starboard.

B

Keep out of the way of the other vessel.

C Sound two short blasts and alter course to port.

D Reduce speed or stop and wait for the other vessel to pass.

Page 205 of 583

No. 616 Which of the following is NOT a vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre?

A

A vessel servicing a navigation buoy.

B

A tanker underway refueling a warship.

C A minesweeper engaged in minesweeping operations.

>

D A loaded VLCC navigating in a fairway.

No. 617 What is the arc (angle) of visibility of a masthead light?

>

A

225 degrees

B

180 degrees

C 210 degrees

D 270 degrees

No. 618 What is the arc (angle) of visibility of a sternlight?

>

A

150 degrees

B

135 degrees

C 120 degrees

D 270 degrees

Page 206 of 583

No. 619 When taking action to avoid collision under Rule 8, you should avoid.....

>

A

any reduction in speed.

B

a succession of small alterations of speed or course.

C stopping or reversing engines.

D making an alteration of course or speed too early.

No. 620 If you hear a fog signal forward of the beam, Rule 19 states that you must......

>

A

make a substantial course alteration.

B

C reduce to minimum steerage way.

D attempt to make radio contact.

No. 621 When two power driven vessels are meeting on reciprocal courses ......

>

A

each shall alter course to starboard.

B

each shall alter course to port.

C one shall alter course to starboard.

D one shall alter course to port and the other to starboard.

Page 207 of 583

No. 622 When two power-driven vessels, in sight of each other, are crossing so as to involve risk of collision, avoiding action must be taken by ......

>

A

both vessels altering course to starboard.

B

the vessel which has the other on her own starboard side.

C the vessel which has the other on her own port side.

D both vessels altering course to port.

No. 623 A power driven vessel observes the stern light of another power-driven vessel on a steady bearing and reducing range on the port bow. Which vessel must give way?

>

A

The observing vessel

B

The observed vessel

C No risk of collision exists

D Both masters decide

No. 624 Looking straight ahead at night you observe the masthead lights and both side lights of another vessel. What action should be taken?

>

A

Each ship shall alter course to port.

B

One ship shall alter course to starboard and the other to port.

C Each ship shall alter course to starboard.

D You stand on as the other ship will alter course.

Page 208 of 583

No. 625 This vessel is on a steady bearing, the range is 2 miles and reducing. What action should you take?

>

A

Two short blasts and alter course to port.

B

One short blast and alter course to starboard.

C Five short and rapid blasts and stand on with caution.

D Make a substantial reduction of speed.

No. 626 You observe this vessel - range 4 miles. What action should you take?

>

A

Sound one short blast and alter course to starboard..

B

Take a series of compass bearings.

C Maintain course and speed.

D Sound two short blasts and alter course to port.

No. 627 At range 2 miles and steady bearing, you sounded 5 short blasts: it is apparent that the other vessel is not taking appropriate action. What should you do?

>

A

Make a substantial reduction of speed.

B

Sound one short blast and alter to starboard.

C Sound five short and rapid blasts again and stand on with caution.. D Sound two short and rapid blasts and stand on with caution.

Page 209 of 583

No. 628 The range is 7 miles and constant. The bearing is steady. What action would you take?

A

Take a series of compass bearings.

B

Sound one short blast and alter course to starboard.

C Sound two short blasts and alter to port.

>

D Maintain course and speed.

No. 629 You observe this vessel on a steady bearing at range 3 miles. What action should you take?

>

A

Sound two short blasts and alter to port.

B

Sound one short blast and alter course to starboard.

C Sound five short and rapid blasts and stand on with caution.

D Make a substantial reduction of speed.

No. 630 On nearing a bend in a narrow channel and the way ahead is obscured, you hear a prolonged blast. What should be your response?

>

A

One short blast.

B

Two short blasts.

C One prolonged blast.

D Two prolonged blasts.

Page 210 of 583

No. 631 Is anchoring permitted in a narrow channel?

>

A

No

B

It should be avoided if at all possible

C Yes, but only near the outer limit of the fairway to starboard.

D Yes, but only for a vessel which can safely navigate within such a channel.

No. 632 When proceeding along a narrow channel a vessel should......

>

A

keep to the outer limit which lies on her port side.

B

keep to the outer limit which lies on her starboard side.

C keep to the side which lies on her port side.

D keep to the side which lies on her starboard side.

No. 633 For which types of vessel should a fishing vessel not impede the passage in a narrow channel or fairway?

A

Vessels greater than 20m. in length.

B

A vessel which can safely navigate only within such a channel.

C Sailing vessels and vessels greater than 20m. in length.

>

D Any other vessels navigating within the narrow channel or fairway.

Page 211 of 583

No. 634 A vessel which can only safely navigate within a narrow channel or fairway shall not be impeded by......

A

sailing vessels, fishing vessels, or vessels of less than 20 metres.

B

crossing vessels.

C sailing vessels or vessels of less than 20 metres.

>

D sailing vessels, fishing vessels, vessels less than 20m. or crossing vessels.

No. 635 What signal shall a vessel sound when nearing a bend or an area of narrow channels or fairway where other vessels may be obscured by an intervening obstruction?

>

A

Two short blasts.

B

One prolonged blast.

C At least five short and rapid blasts.

D Two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts.

No. 636 This vessel is on a steady bearing and the range is reducing. What action would you take?

A

Sound five short and rapid blasts and stand on with caution.

B

Make a substantial reduction of speed.

C Sound one short blast and alter course to starboard.

>

D Sound two short blasts and alter course to port.

Page 212 of 583

No. 637 This vessel is on a steady bearing, the range is 2 miles and reducing slowly. What action would you take?

>

A

Sound five short and rapid blasts and stand on with caution.

B

Make a substantial reduction of speed.

C Sound one short blast and alter course to starboard.

D Sound two short blasts and alter course to port.

No. 638 The bearing is steady. The range is 5 miles, reducing slowly. What action would you take?

>

A

Sound one short blast and alter course to starboard.

B

Make a substantial reduction of speed.

C Sound five short and rapid blasts and stand on with caution.

D Sound two short blasts and alter course to port.

No. 639 You observe this vessel on a steady bearing, range 3 miles. What action would you take?

>

A

Make a substantial reduction of speed.

B

Sound one short blast and alter course to starboard.

C Sound two short blasts and alter course to port.

D Sound five short and rapid blasts and stand on with caution.

Page 213 of 583

No. 640 This vessel is on a steady bearing, range 3 miles. What action would you take?

>

A

Make a substantial reduction of speed.

B

Sound five short and rapid blasts and stand on with caution.

C Sound two short blasts and alter course to port.

D Sound one short blast and alter course to starboard.

No. 641 A vessel shall, so far as is practicable, avoid crossing traffic separation lanes. But if obliged to do so shall cross the general direction of traffic flow .....

>

A

at as small an angle as practicable.

B

avoiding other traffic using the scheme.

C on a heading as nearly as practicable at right angles.

D making good a course as nearly as practicable at right angles.

No. 642 Which of the following shall not impede the passage of any vessel following a traffic lane in a traffic separation scheme?

>

A

A sailing vessel, fishing vessel or a vessel of less than 20 metres.

B

A vessel engaged in fishing.

C A crossing vessel.

D A sailing vessel or a vessel of less than 20 metres.

Page 214 of 583

No. 643 In a traffic separation scheme a vessel engaged in fishing shall not impede the passage of......

>

A

any vessel following a traffic lane.

B

a power driven vessel following a traffic lane.

C a vessel crossing the traffic separation scheme.

D a vessel of 20 metres or more following a traffic lane.

No. 644 In a traffic separation scheme a vessel of less than 20m. in length or a sailing vessel shall not impede the safe passage of......

>

A

any vessel following a traffic lane.

B

a power driven vessel following a traffic lane.

C a vessel crossing the traffic separation scheme.

D a vessel of 20m. or more following a traffic lane.

No. 645 A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall so far as practicable....

>

A

keep to the starboard side of the lane.

B

avoid vessels crossing the scheme.

C keep clear of the traffic separation line or separation zone.

D avoid impeding the safe passage of other vessels following the lane.

Page 215 of 583

No. 646 Inshore traffic zones shall not be used by which of the following vessels?

>

A

One that can safely use the adjacent lane within the T.S.S.

B

One that can safely use the appropriate lane within the T.S.S.

C One en route to or from a place situated within the inshore traffic zone. D Sailing vessels and vessels of less than 20m. in length.

No. 647 Vessels as far as possible should avoid anchoring......

>

A

in a traffic separation scheme or in areas near it's terminations.

B

in a traffic separation scheme.

C in a traffic separation zone.

D near the terminations of a traffic separation scheme.

No. 648 A vessel joining the general direction of traffic flow in a traffic separation scheme from either side shall do so......

>

A

at as small an angle as practicable.

B

avoiding traffic using the scheme.

C making a course as nearly as practicable at right angles.

D on a heading as nearly as practicable at right angles.

Page 216 of 583

No. 649 A vessel not using the traffic separation scheme shall......

A

only use it to avoid immediate danger.

B

if practicable only use the inshore traffic zone.

C not impede the passage of any vessel following a traffic flow.

>

D avoid it by as wide a margin as possible.

No. 650 You observe this vessel at a range of 9 miles. What action would you take?

>

A

Make a substantial reduction of speed.

B

Stand on but continue to monitor.

C Take a series of compass bearings and radar plot.

D Stand on and do not bother

No. 651 You observe this vessel at a range of 9 miles. What action would you take?

>

A

Make a substantial alteration of course to starboard.

B

Make a substantial reduction of speed.

C Make a substantial alteration of course to port.

D Stand on - with caution. The other vessel should give way.

Page 217 of 583

No. 652 You observe this vessel at a range of 9 miles. What action would you take?

A

Stand on with caution. The other vessel should give way.

B

Make a substantial reduction of speed.

C Make a substantial alteration of course to port.

>

D Take a series of compass bearings and radar plot.

No. 653 You observe this vessel at a range of 9 miles. What action would you take?

A

Make a substantial reduction of speed.

B

Make a substantial alteration of course to port.

C Stand on with caution The other vessel should give way.

>

D Take a series of compass bearings and radar plot.

No. 654 You observe this vessel at a range of 9 miles. What action would you take?

>

A

Alter course to parallel the other vessel's course.

B

Stand on - no risk of collision - continue to monitor.

C Make a substantial reduction of speed.

D Stand on with caution. The other vessel should give way.

Page 218 of 583

No. 655 You observe this vessel at a range of 9 miles. What action would you take?

>

A

Make a substantial reduction of speed.

B

Stand on - no risk of collision - continue to monitor.

C Take a series of compass bearing and radar plot.

D Alter course parallel to other vessel's course.

No. 656 You observe this vessel at a range of 9 miles. What action would you take?

A

Make a substantial reduction of speed.

B

Stand on - no risk of collision - continue to monitor.

C Stand on with caution. The other vessel should give way.

>

D Make a substantial alteration of course to port.

No. 657 You observe this vessel at a range of 9 miles. What action would you take?

>

A

Alter course parallel to other vessel's course.

B

Take a series of compass bearings and radar plot.

C Stand on - no risk of collision - continue to monitor.

D Make a substantial reduction of speed.

Page 219 of 583

No. 658 You observe this vessel at a range of 9 miles. What action would you take?

A

Stand on with caution. The other vessel should give way.

B

Make a substantial alteration of course to port.

C Stand on - no risk of collision - continue to monitor.

>

D Take a series of compass bearings and radar plot.

No. 659 You observe this vessel at a range of 9 miles. What action would you take?

>

A

Stand on - no risk of collision - continue to monitor.

B

Alter course parallel to other vessel's course.

C Take a series of compass bearings and radar plot.

D Stand on with caution. The other vessel should give way.

No. 660 You observe this vessel at a range of 9 miles. What action would you take?

A

Make a substantial reduction of speed.

B

Stand on with caution. The other vessel should give way.

C Alter course parallel to the other vessel's course.

>

D Take a series of compass bearings and radar plot.

Page 220 of 583

No. 661 You observe this vessel at a range of 9 miles. What action would you take?

>

A

Make a substantial alteration of course to port.

B

Take a series of compass bearings and radar plot.

C Stand on - no risk of collision - continue to monitor.

D Stand on with caution. The other vessel should give way.

No. 662 You observe this vessel at a range of 9 miles. What action would you take?

>

A

Make a substantial reduction of speed.

B

Make a substantial alteration of course to port.

C Take a series of compass bearings and radar plot.

D Make a substantial alteration of course to starboard.

No. 663 You observe this vessel at a range of 9 miles. What action would you take?

>

A

Take a series of compass bearings and radar plot.

B

Make a substantial alteration of course to port.

C Stand on with caution The other vessel should give way.

D Stand on - no risk of collision - continue to monitor.

Page 221 of 583

No. 664 A vessel's sidelights should be positioned above the hull, but according to the Collision Regulations what is the maximum height they can be placed?

>

A

Half the height of the forward masthead light

B

Three-quarters the height of the forward masthead light

C Any height below the forward masthead light

D One quarter the height of the forward masthead light

No. 665 You observe this vessel at a range of 9 miles. What action would you take?

>

A

Stand on - no risk of collision - continue to monitor.

B

Alter course parallel to the other vessel's course.

C Take a series of compass bearings and radar plot.

D Stand on with caution. The other vessel should give way.

No. 666 When a vessel of length 20m or more is required by the rules to carry two or three lights in a vertical line, what spacing is required between the lights?

>

A

At least 1.5 metres.

B

Not less than 4.5 metres.

C Not less than 2 metres.

D Not less than 4 metres.

Page 222 of 583

No. 667 For a power driven vessel of 110 metres in length and 20metres beam, what is the maximum height above the hull that the forward masthead light can be carried?

>

A

5 metres

B

6 metres

C 12 metres

D 9 metres

No. 668 For a power driven vessel less than 30 metres in length and 5 metres beam, at what height above the hull should the mastlight be carried?

>

A

Not less than 6 metres

B

Not less than 12 metres

C Not less than 20 metres

D Not less than 9 metres

No. 669 If a vessel of length 20metres or more is required by the rules to carry two or three lights in a vertical line, at what height above the hull (except where a towing light is required) must the lowest of these be placed? >

A

Not less than 4 metres

B

So it can be seen at a distance of 1000m

C Not less than 4.5 metres

D At least 1.5 metres

Page 223 of 583

No. 670 A vessel is at anchor and displaying two anchor lights. What is the minimum vertical distance between the forward anchor light and the after anchor light?

>

A

At least 1.5 metres.

B

Not less than 4.5 metres.

C Not less than 4 metres.

D Not less than 2 metres.

No. 671 At what minimum height above the hull should the mastlight on a power driven vessel of length 60 metres and beam 9 m be carried?

A

20 metres.

B

6 metres.

C 5 metres.

>

D 9 metres.

No. 672 A power driven vessel engaged in towing is displaying the required lights on her aftermast. How much higher must the lowest after masthead light be above the forward masthead light?

>

A

Not less than 4 metres.

B

Not less than 4.5 metres.

C Not less than 2 metres.

D Not less than 1.5 metres.

Page 224 of 583

No. 673 What is the minimum vertical separation of the mastlights on power driven vessels such that, in all normal conditions of trim, the afterlight will be seen over and separate from the forward light? >

A

So it can be seen at 1000 metres from the stem at sea level.

B

6 metres.

C 5 metres.

D 9 metres.

No. 674 At what height above the hull should the forward anchor light be placed on a vessel of 50 metres or more in length?

>

A

20 metres.

B

5 metres.

C 6 metres.

D So it can be seen at 1000 metres from the stern at sea level.

No. 675 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A power driven vessel.

B

A vessel not under command.

C A vessel constrained by draught.

D A vessel engaged in towing.

Page 225 of 583

No. 676 What is the length of the vessel shown here?

>

A

Less than 12 metres in length.

B

There is no indication of length.

C May be any length but probably 50 metres or more in length.

D Greater than 100 metres in length.

No. 677 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A power driven vessel.

B

A vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.

C A vessel engaged in towing.

D A pilot vessel.

No. 678 What is the arc of visibility of the mastlights shown by this vessel?

A

All round

B

From right ahead to 22.5 degrees forward of the beam on each side

C From right aft to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on each side

>

D From right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on each side

Page 226 of 583

No. 679 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A trawler.

B

A vessel not under command.

C A vessel engaged in fishing other than a trawler.

D A vessel constrained by draught.

No. 680 What is the range of the mastlight being displayed by this ship?

>

A

6 miles

B

3 miles

C 2 miles

D 5 miles

No. 681 What is the arc of visibility of the sidelight shown by this vessel?

A

From right aft to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on each side.

B

All round.

C From right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on each side. >

D From right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on the starboard side.

Page 227 of 583

No. 682 What is the range of visibility of the sidelights shown by this ship?

>

A

6 miles

B

3 miles

C 2 miles

D 5 miles

No. 683 What do these three red lights indicate?

A

A vessel engaged in towing.

B

A vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.

C A power driven vessel.

>

D A vessel constrained by draught.

No. 684 What is the length of the vessel shown here?

>

A

Less than 50 metres in length.

B

No indication of length.

C May be any length but probably 50 metres or more in length.

D Less than 20 metres in length.

Page 228 of 583

No. 685 What is the arc of visibility of the 3 red lights shown here?

>

A

From right aft to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on each side.

B

All round.

C From right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on each side. D From right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on the starboard side.

No. 686 What is the length of the vessel shown here?

>

A

Less than 20 metres in length.

B

Less than 12 metres in length.

C Less than 50 metres in length.

D Greater than 100 metres in length.

No. 687 What is the arc of visibility of the 3 white lights shown here?

>

A

From right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on the starboard side.

B

From right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on each side.

C From right aft to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on each side.

D All round.

Page 229 of 583

No. 688 What is the length of the vessel shown here?

A

Greater than 100 metres in length.

B

Less than 50 metres in length.

C Less than 20 metres in length.

>

D No indication of length.

No. 689 What is the arc of visibility of the red lights shown here?

>

A

All round.

B

From right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on each side.

C From right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on the starboard side. D From right aft to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on each side.

No. 690 What is the length of the vessel shown here?

>

A

Less than 12 metres in length.

B

Greater than 100 metres in length.

C Less than 50 metres in length.

D 7 metres or less in length.

Page 230 of 583

No. 691 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.

B

A pilot vessel.

C A trawler.

D A vessel engaged in fishing other than a trawler.

No. 692 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel engaged in fishing other than a trawler.

B

A vessel constrained by draught.

C A vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.

D A pilot vessel.

No. 693 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations.

B

A sailing vessel.

C A vessel at anchor.

D A vessel engaged in mine clearance.

Page 231 of 583

No. 694 What is the fog signal of this vessel?

>

A

Rapid ringing of the bell for 5 seconds every 1 minute.

B

One ( if making way ) or two ( if stopped ) prolonged blasts at intervals of 2 minutes.

C Four short blasts at 2 minute intervals.

D Bell 5 seconds followed by gong 5 seconds every 1 minute.

No. 695 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel engaged in fishing other than a trawler.

B

A vessel constrained by draught.

C A vessel engaged in towing.

D A vessel not under command.

No. 696 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A pilot vessel.

B

A trawler.

C A vessel constrained by her draught.

D A vessel not under command.

Page 232 of 583

No. 697 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A sailing vessel.

B

A vessel at anchor.

C A power driven vessel.

D A vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations.

No. 698 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel not under command.

B

A vessel constrained by draught.

C A vessel engaged in towing.

D A vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.

No. 699 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A power driven vessel.

B

A trawler.

C A vessel engaged in fishing other than a trawler.

D A vessel engaged in towing.

Page 233 of 583

No. 700 What type of vessel is shown here?

A

A vessel constrained by draught.

B

A power driven vessel.

C A vessel at anchor.

>

D A vessel engaged in mine clearance.

No. 701 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A pilot vessel.

B

A vessel not under command.

C A vessel engaged in fishing other than a trawler.

D A trawler.

No. 702 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel engaged in towing.

B

A pilot vessel.

C A vessel constrained by draught.

D A trawler.

Page 234 of 583

No. 703 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel constrained by draught.

B

A vessel engaged in towing.

C A power driven vessel.

D A vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.

No. 704 What is the length of the vessel shown here?

A

No indication of length.

B

Less than 50 metres.

C Less than 20 metres.

>

D May be any length but probably 50 metres or more.

No. 705 What is this vessel's fog signal?

>

A

Rapid ringing of the bell for 5 seconds at intervals not exceeding one minute.

B

Ringing of the bell for 5 seconds followed by the gong for 5 seconds at intervals not exceeding one minute.

C One prolonged blast followed by 2 short blasts at intervals not exceeding two minutes. D As for the type of vessel shown followed by 4 short blasts.

Page 235 of 583

No. 706 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel not under command.

B

A vessel engaged in towing.

C A power driven vessel.

D A vessel constrained by draught.

No. 707 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A trawler.

B

A vessel engaged in towing.

C A vessel engaged in fishing other than a trawler.

D A vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.

No. 708 What is the length of the vessel shown here?

>

A

No indication of length.

B

Less than 50 metres.

C May be of any length but probably 50 metres or more.

D Greater than 100 metres.

Page 236 of 583

No. 709 What information is given about the tow shown here?

A

The tow is 200 metres or more.

B

The tow is less than 200 metres.

C The vessel is hampered by tow - tow less than 200 metres.

>

D The vessel is hampered by tow - tow more than 200 metres.

No. 710 What is the length of the vessel shown here?

>

A

10 metres or less.

B

No indication of length.

C Less than 12 metres.

D Less than 50 metres.

No. 711 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.

B

A power driven vessel.

C A vessel constrained by draught.

D A pilot vessel.

Page 237 of 583

No. 712 What information is given about the tow shown here?

>

A

A vessel hampered by her tow - tow less than 200 metres

B

The tow is less than 200 metres.

C The tow is 200 metres or more.

D A vessel hampered by tow - tow more than 200 metres.

No. 713 What is the fog signal of this vessel?

>

A

One prolonged blast followed by two short blasts at intervals less than or equal to 2 minutes.

B

Ringing of bell for 5 seconds followed by the gong for 5 seconds.

C Rapid ringing of the bell for 5 seconds.

D As for the type of vessel shown followed by 4 short blasts.

No. 714 What type of vessel is shown here?

A

A trawler.

B

A power driven vessel.

C A pilot vessel.

>

D A vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.

Page 238 of 583

No. 715 What is the length of the vessel shown here?

A

No indication of length.

B

Greater than 100 metres.

C Less than 12 metres.

>

D May be of any length but probably 50 metres or more.

No. 716 What is the fog signal of this vessel?

>

A

One ( if making way ) or two ( if stopped ) prolonged blasts at intervals less than or equal to 2 minutes.

B

One prolonged blast followed by two short blasts.

C Rapid ringing of the bell for 5 secondsat intervals less than or equal to 2 minutes. D As for the type of vessel shown followed by 4 short blasts.

No. 717 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel constrained by draught.

B

A vessel not under command.

C A pilot vessel.

D A trawler.

Page 239 of 583

No. 718 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations.

B

A sailing vessel.

C A vessel constrained by draught.

D A vessel at anchor.

No. 719 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel not under command.

B

A vessel engaged in mine clearance.

C A power driven vessel.

D A vessel at anchor.

No. 720 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.

B

A vessel engaged in fishing.

C A vessel which is aground.

D A vessel engaged in towing.

Page 240 of 583

No. 721 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel constrained by draught.

B

A vessel engaged in mine clearance operations.

C A vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations.

D A vessel not under command.

No. 722 What type of vessel is shown here?

A

A vessel engaged in fishing.

B

A vessel which is aground.

C A vessel engaged in mine clearance operations.

>

D A vessel constrained by draught.

No. 723 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel constrained by her draught.

B

A vessel not under command.

C A vessel engaged in fishing.

D A vessel which is aground.

Page 241 of 583

No. 724 What type of vessel is shown here?

A

A vessel engaged in dredging underwater operations.

B

A vessel engaged in mine clearance operations.

C A vessel constrained by draught.

>

D A vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.

No. 725 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A sailing vessel.

B

Vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations.

C A power driven vessel.

D A vessel at anchor.

No. 726 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel engaged in fishing.

B

A vessel engaged in towing

C A vessel constrained by draught.

D A vessel which is aground.

Page 242 of 583

No. 727 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel engaged in fishing.

B

A vessel engaged in mine clearance operations.

C A vessel engaged in towing.

D A vessel constrained by draught.

No. 728 What type of vessel is shown here?

>

A

A vessel engaged in mine clearance operations.

B

A vessel which is aground.

C A vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations.

D A vessel engaged in towing.

No. 729 What does this shape indicate?

>

A

A vessel at anchor.

B

A vessel aground.

C A vessel engaged in fishing.

D A vessel engaged in mine clearance operations.

Page 243 of 583

No. 730 The observed vessel sounds three short blasts. What does this mean?

A

I am altering my course to starboard.

B

I am altering my course to port.

C I do not understand your intentions / actions.

>

D I am operating stern propulsion.

No. 731 Whilst proceeding along a narrow channel the vessel astern sounds two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast. What does this mean?

>

A

I intend to overtake you on your starboard side.

B

I intend to overtake you on your port side.

C I am operating stern propulsion.

D I am altering my course to port.

No. 732 This vessel is signaling two flashes at intervals. What is the meaning of this signal?

>

A

I am altering my course to port.

B

I intend to overtake you on your starboard side.

C I intend to overtake you on your port side.

D I do not understand your intentions / actions.

Page 244 of 583

No. 733 Whilst proceeding along a narrow channel, the vessel astern sounds two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts. What does this mean?

>

A

I am altering my course to starboard.

B

I am altering my course to port.

C I intend to overtake you on your port side.

D I intend to overtake you on your starboard side.

No. 734 You intend overtaking a vessel in a narrow channel and signal your intentions. The vessel ahead sounds 5 short and rapid blasts. What does this mean?

>

A

I am operating stern propulsion.

B

I do not understand your intentions/actions.

C I am altering my course to starboard.

D I am altering my course to port.

No. 735 This vessel sounds one short blast. What does this mean?

>

A

I intend to overtake you on your port side.

B

I am operating stern propulsion.

C I am altering my course to starboard.

D I am altering my course to port.

Page 245 of 583

No. 736 What signals must a vessel at anchor display?

>

A

Code flag 'A' by day and a red light at night.

B

A black ball hoisted at the bow by day and all round white lights at night.

C A large black square by day and a flashing white light at night.

D Code flag 'B' by day and a red light at night.

No. 737 If you were at the entrance to an enclosed space and you lost communication with a crewmember inside, what should you do?

A

Wait for a few minutes in case the crewmember is busy.

B

Put on a BA set and enter the enclosed space.

C Holding your breath, enter the enclosed space to see if you can spot the crewman. >

D Raise the alarm with the bridge or other officers in the area.

No. 738 Your ship unexpectedly runs aground. Which of the following actions would NOT be done as a top priority?

>

A

Put the engine on full astern.

B

Sound tanks and compartments.

C Transmit distress or urgency signal.

D Prepare survival craft.

Page 246 of 583

No. 739 Before crew members are allowed to work in an enclosed space, what tests should be made on the atmosphere?

>

A

For carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulphide, and methane.

B

For oxygen level, hydrogen and inert gas.

C For oxygen level, flammable vapour and any toxic vapours.

D For oxygen level, flammable vapour and methane.

No. 740 How often must emergency drills be held on board?

A

On departure and weekly after that.

B

Every week.

C Every two weeks.

>

D As often as necessary to ensure all are fully trained and prepared.

No. 741 Which of these, in an emergency, is the Deck Officer NOT expected to be able to operate?

>

A

The emergency bilge pump.

B

The emergency fire pump.

C The CO2 discharge into the engineroom.

D The main engine emergency fuel cut-off.

Page 247 of 583

No. 742 Your ship is in heavy weather and you have to abandon ship. If oil is to be used to provide calmer water for launching survival craft, which is the best?

>

A

Heavy fuel oil.

B

Fish, vegetable or animal oil.

C Lubricating oil.

D Marine diesel oil.

No. 743 A crew member touches some live electrical wires and collapses unconscious. What is the first thing you should do?

>

A

Find and isolate the source of the electricity.

B

Put rubber soled shoes on your feet.

C Immediately check for signs of breathing and a pulse.

D Dampen the victim with a wet towel.

No. 744 What is the most likely scenario, when passengers are carried, if there is a ship emergency at sea?

>

A

Passengers are unlikely to be able to take appropriate actions without instruction.

B

Passengers are likely to panic as soon as the emergency signal is sounded.

C Passengers will not understand what an emergency signal means. D Passengers will not know where to muster in an emergency.

Page 248 of 583

No. 745 What would be the best fire extinguishing agent in a cargo hold with a smouldering fire in a cargo of coal?

A

Steam.

B

Foam.

C Water jets.

>

D Carbon dioxide.

No. 746 If a ship is damaged and taking in water, one of the factors to bear in mind is the "Permeability" of the cargo. What does permeability mean?

>

A

The space left free after the cargo has been loaded.

B

The percentage of the cargo space available for water.

C The proportion (percentage) of the holds taken up by the cargo. D The absorption factor of the cargo.

No. 747 When acting as a watcher or lookout at a cargo hold and persons below show signs of distress, what should you do?

>

A

Try to rescue them yourself.

B

C Raise the alarm immediately.

D Don a BA set and enter the space.

Page 249 of 583

No. 748 What instruction would you give to crew members who have to jump into the sea from a sinking ship?

>

A

Wear your lifejacket, but hold it down; block off your nose and mouth, keep your feet together and jump feet first into the sea.

B

Throw your lifejacket into the sea, and dive after it, head first into the water.

No. 749 What is the top priority before the fixed gas extinguishing system is used on a fire in the engine room?

>

A

Stop all fans and engines.

B

Close down the boilers.

C Make sure that the compartment has been evacuated.

D Close all openings.

No. 750 For a fire in the hold of a dry cargo vessel, how would you discharge the carbon dioxide smothering gas into the hold?

A

Release all the bottles at the same time.

B

Release half the bottles stated for the space and after about 15 minutes release the remaining bottles.

C Release the minimum number of bottles that will be sufficient to extinguish the flames. >

D Release the initial number of bottles stated for that space and then a stated number of bottles at intervals of about 30 minutes.

Page 250 of 583

No. 751 If your ship is in collision and the ships are locked together, which of the following should NOT ALWAYS be done?

>

A

Transmit distress or urgency signal.

B

Sound tanks and assess damage.

C Go full astern to release the ships.

D Prepare survival craft for abandon ship.

No. 752 What is the temperature at which a material produces enough flammable vapour for it to ignite if exposed to an ignition source?

>

A

"The auto-ignition temperature."

B

The melting point.

C The flashpoint.

D The ignition temperature.

No. 753 You are on watch on the bridge, and you observe a red distress rocket. What is the first thing that you should do?

>

A

Call the Master.

B

Take a bearing of the rocket.

C Put the engine on stand-by.

D Summon an extra lookout.

Page 251 of 583

No. 754 What is meant by the term "self ignition temperature"?

A B

>

The lowest temperature where enough vapours are given off that they will ignite and then go out if an external ignition source is applied. The lowest temperature where enough vapours are given off that they will ignite and keep burning if an external ignition source is applied.

C The lowest temperature where the vapours given off will automatically ignite without the presence of an external ignition source. D The lowest temperature that a liquid will start giving off vapours.

No. 755 The radiotelephony alarm signal sounds, followed by morse letter B, followed by a ship's call sign. What signal is being received?

>

A

The preamble to a man overboard message.

B

An activated EPIRB.

D A message from a sunken submarine.

No. 756 In a galley fire, which of the following actions should be taken first?

>

A

Switch off the power to the galley.

B

Direct a water spray onto the smoke to reveal the exact location of the fire.

C Immediately discharge a foam extinguisher to cover hot cooking oils. D Immediately direct a water jet onto the seat of the fire to prevent the fire spreading.

Page 252 of 583

No. 757 What are the key factors in deciding the direction of your approach to a vessel in distress, a lifeboat, or survivors in the water?

>

A

The direction of the swell and the rate of drift of your ship.

B

The amount of oil and debris in the water.

C The need for a lee and the comparative rates of drift of your ship and the ship/boat/survivors. D The comparative size of your vessel and the ship/boat/survivors.

No. 758 What would be the best fire extinguishing agent in a cargo hold loaded with bales of cloth or cotton?

>

A

Water.

B

Carbon dioxide.

C High expansion foam.

D Steam smothering.

No. 759 Your ship is taking in water rapidly and it is decided to beach her. In ideal circumstances, what ground surface conditions should there be?

>

A

Soft sand/mud, gently shelving.

B

Soft sand/mud, steeply shelving.

C Firm sand, gently shelving.

D Firm sand, steeply shelving.

Page 253 of 583

No. 760 In the IAMSAR manual, OSC is the abbreviation for the...

>

A

Operational Search Chief.

B

Official Search Centre.

C On-Scene Commander.

D Operational Search Centre.

No. 761 You are rescuing survivors from an abandoned ship who are in the sea. The best method of getting them on board is...

A

putting volunteer crew members into the water to assist the survivors.

B

putting scrambling nets down the side of the ship.

C rigging gangway and pilot ladders on the side of the ship.

>

D lowering your boat(s) to take them on.

No. 762 Who controls the actions of passengers in a ship emergency?

>

A

The cabin steward responsible for the particular passenger looks after that person.

B

It is one of the specific duties of the officer on watch.

C Specific crew members will have been asigned duties for the mustering and control of passengers. D The Chief Steward (or Purser) is always responsible for all passengers.

Page 254 of 583

No. 763 How is a SART activated?

A

It has to be thrown into the sea where it will self-activate.

B

It has to be switched on by the Master when the order to abandon ship is given.

C It will be activated by the nearest coast station.

>

D It is carried into the survival craft and switched on by the occupants.

No. 764 Your propeller has dropped off in a gale two miles off Cap Finisterre with an onshore wind. What radio priority would be chosen?

>

A

Safety.

B

Distress.

C Routine.

D Safety.

No. 765 What is the first sign and symptom of a heart attack?

>

A

Sudden crushing, vice-like pain in the centre of the chest.

B

Skin may be red and loss of movement in the right arm may occur.

C Frothing at the mouth.

D "Strong and painful pulse."

Page 255 of 583

A

Urgency.

B

Distress

C Routine.

>

D Safety.

No. 767 A crew member is lost overboard in fog. What is the most suitable method of returning the ship to a reciprocal course on its original track?

>

A

A Williamson turn.

B

A double turn.

C A single turn.

D An elliptical turn.

No. 768 What would you do if you saw a person fall into a cargo hold?

>

A

Raise the alarm.

B

Get the first aid kit.

C Go to the person and try to assist as much as possible.

D Get a stretcher and rope.

Page 256 of 583

No. 769 When the "emergency stations" signal is made, what should crew members do who are not assigned to an emergency team?

>

A

Report to the Master for orders.

B

Go to the bridge and report to the officer on watch.

C Go to their survival craft stations.

D Stay in their cabins and await orders.

No. 770 In the event of fire on board, what do you think is the primary consideration of the Master?

>

A

To follow instructions as given in the emergency response manual.

B

The safety of the crew.

C To liaise with the head office and shore authorities.

D To save the ship.

No. 771 Your ship is taking in water rapidly and it is decided to beach her. In ideal circumstances, what tidal conditions should there be?

>

A

Low tide.

B

Mid or high tide.

C Rising tide.

D Tidal conditions are not important.

Page 257 of 583

No. 772 When will the low air alarm sound on a self-contained breathing apparatus?

>

A

When it is about one third full.

B

When it is empty.

C When it is about half full.

D When it contains air of insufficient oxygen concentration for breathing.

No. 773 What does SART stand for?

>

A

Semi Automatic Rescue Transmitter.

B

C Satellite Activated Rescue Telephone.

No. 774 Once a fire is contained, the Master needs to evaluate the best strategy for the next stage.This might include a number of actions. In your opinion which action does NOT belong?

>

A

Keeping the fire contained.

B

The use of fixed installations to put it out.

C Re-introducing air circulation by opening up fire dampers and other openings. D Other means of control.

Page 258 of 583

No. 775 If your ship is in collision in the waters of a foreign nation, which of the following is NOT a legal responsibility for the Master?

>

A

Render assistance to the other ship, if practicable.

B

Go as soon as possible to the nearest appropriate port to report to the Authorities.

C Inform the other vessel of the name of your ship and other details. D Enter a witnessed statement in the official log book.

No. 776 Where on board does the muster list have to be posted?

A

In each cabin of crew members.

B

It must be given to each crew member immediately after joining the ship.

C It should be displayed at the gangway.

>

D A copy must be put up in prominent places throughout the ship.

No. 777 In the IAMSAR manual, what does the term "MEDEVAC" mean?

>

A

Evacuation of a person for medical reasons.

B

C MEDiterranean Emergency Visual Airlift Communications system. D Emergency procedure for medical reasons.

Page 259 of 583

No. 778 What action should be taken immediately after a fire has been extinguished?

>

A

Hold a de-briefing of the incident with all officers and fire fighters present.

B

Establish a continuous watch at the fire area against re-ignition and remove any smouldering material.

C Report the incident to the vessel operator and flag state authorities. D Write a non-conformance report in compliance with chapter 9 of the International Safety Management Code.

No. 779 RCC is the recognised abbreviation for a....

A

B

>

D Rescue Co-ordination Centre.

No. 780 Your propeller has dropped off in the NE-bound lane off Cap Griz Nez, Dover Strait. What radio priority would be chosen?

>

A

Urgency.

B

Safety.

C Distress.

D Routine.

Page 260 of 583

No. 781 While underway, a collision with another ship looks inevitable. If you, as officer of the watch, are able to turn the ship, where is the "best" position to collide?

>

A

Directly on the bow.

B

C A glancing blow, quarter to quarter or bow to quarter.

D On the stern, aft of the after peak bulkhead.

No. 782 Your ship is taking in water rapidly and it is decided to beach her. Precautions could be taken before beaching, if sufficient time. Which of the following should NOT be done?

>

A

All ballast tanks pumped out.

B

Engineers warned to switch to high level water intake.

C All watertight doors closed.

D Sound the general alarm.

No. 783 If firing a line to another ship using a rocket line-throwing apparatus, which of the following is NOT correct?

>

A

Aim cross wind, slightly down wind to allow for wind effect.

B

Aim cross wind, slightly up wind to allow for wind effect.

C Aim directly down wind.

D Aim directly up wind.

Page 261 of 583

No. 784 What do the words "spontaneously combustible" mean?

>

A

When the substance burns it becomes very hot.

B

The substance is very difficult to set alight, even when it is very hot.

C The substance can catch fire by itself without an external source of heat or ignition. D When this substance burns, it burns completely and does not leave any residue or ash.

No. 785 A person wearing a lifejacket is being recovered from the water, having fallen overboard. From the following, which would be the first action to take?

A

Throw a rope with a bowline loop, or a lifebuoy.

B

Float a liferaft down wind to the person.

C Launch a rescue boat.

>

D Any of these options, depending upon the actual circumstances.

No. 786 You are officer of the watch while the ship is at anchor. Another ship is bearing down on you and you fear that a collision might occur. From the following, what is the best immediate action? A

Let out more cable.

B

Slip the anchor.

C Warn the engineroom and manoeuvre using helm and engine.

>

D Sound the whistle and shine a searchlight on to the approaching ship.

Page 262 of 583

No. 787 The crew and passengers have abandoned ship in a number of boats and liferafts. Which is the best strategy?

A

Tie liferafts to lifeboats to form a number of independent groups.

B

Take as many persons on to liferafts as possible.

C Take as many persons on to lifeboats as possible.

>

D Use a motor lifeboat to "gather" all craft into one group.

No. 788 What can be done when a vessel experiences synchronous rolling during rough weather?

>

A

Alter course

B

Alter speed

C Maintain course and speed

D Lower the GM of the vessel

No. 789 If you have a main engine failure, what shapes would you exhibit?

>

A

Two black balls in a vertical line

B

A cylinder

C Ball- diamond- ball

D Single diamond

Page 263 of 583

No. 790 Which of these are distress signals?

>

A

All of the other options.

B

A gun or explosive signal fired at intervals of about one minute.

C Flames on a vessel.

D A continuous sounding with any fog- signaling apparatus.

No. 791 In the event of a man overboard, what flag would you hoist?

>

A

Flag "O"

B

Flag "U"

C

Flag " S"

D Flag " R"

No. 792 How often should emergency steering drills be carried out?

>

A

At least every 3 months

B

At least every 6 months

C At least every 9 months

D At least every 12 months

Page 264 of 583

No. 793 What is an EPIRB?

>

A

An electronic positioning instrument and receiving device.

B

A- smoke generator used to indicate the position of a ship or boat in distress.

C An electronic emergency position-indicating radio beacon.

D An emergency receiving beacon.

No. 794 What do the letters GMDSS refer to?

>

A

The "General Muster list Directions & vessel Safety Services" manual onboard ship.

B

Search and rescue services to large passenger vessels.

C The "Global Maritime Distress and Safety System."

D The mandatory International Safety Management system.

No. 795 What type of extinguishing agent would you use if you have an electrical fire?

>

A

CO2

B

Foam

C Soda acid

D Steam

Page 265 of 583

No. 796 In the case of permanent loss of power, what type of radio message would you send?

>

A

Urgency

B

Distress

C Securite

D All of the the other options

No. 797 Which of these would be the correct order to fight a fire?

>

A

Find, inform, restrict, extinguish

B

Find, restrict, inform, extinguish

C Find, restrict, extinguish, inform

D Find, extinguish, inform, restrict

No. 798 At what intervals should an EPIRB be tested, inspected and, if necessary have the source of energy replaced?

>

A

At intervals not exceeding twelve months

B

At intervals not exceeding six months

C At intervals not exceeding three months

D At the weekly mustering and boat drills

Page 266 of 583

No. 799 In which of these cases would you transmit a Distress message?

>

A

Flooding

B

Steering failure

C Main engine failure

D Electrical failure

No. 800 What type of radio messages contain important navigational or meteorological warnings?

>

A

Safety

B

Urgency

C Distress

D All of the other options

No. 801 In the event of a fire, what would be your first action?

>

A

Raise the alarm before carrying out subsequent actions

B

Attempt to fight the fire independently

C Get help from nearby and proceed to fight the fire

D Seal off the area before calling for help

Page 267 of 583

No. 802 What type of radio message would you transmit if your ship has a collision and there is grave and imminent danger?

>

A

B

Urgency message

C Safety message

D Distress relay

No. 803 When should one abandon a ship?

>

A

On verbal orders from the master.

B

On hearing the general emergency alarm signal..

C When one feels there is a threat to the ship.

D On orders from the owners.

No. 804 To which one of these actions would you give priority if you have a main engine failure?

>

A

Prepare for anchoring if in shallow waters.

B

C Inform charterers.

D Inform agents that the vessel will possibly be delayed.

Page 268 of 583

No. 805 When an emergency is clearly over, how should a Mayday message be cancelled?

>

A

B

C By broadcasting to the nearest coast station.

D There is no need to take any action.

No. 806 After a collision on the high seas, the Master of a ship sailing under its flag has several legal duties? Which answer does NOT belong in the list?

A

To render assistance to the other ship, her crew and her passengers.

B

To inform the other ship of the name of his own ship.

C To inform the other ship of the name of port of registry and the nearest port at which the ship will call. >

D To inform the other ship of the name of the ship's agents at the next port of call.

No. 807 Which flag means " I have a diver down, keep well clear at slow speed."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

Page 269 of 583

No. 808 Which flag means " Keep clear of me, I am maneuvering with difficulty."?

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

>

D Flag 4

No. 809 Which flag means " I am taking in, or discharging, or carrying dangerous goods."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

No. 810 Which flag means " Keep clear of me, I am engaged in pair trawling."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

Page 270 of 583

No. 811 Which flag means " My vessel is "healthy" and I request free pratique."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

No. 812 Which flag means " I require a tug. When made by fishing vessels operating in close proximity on the fishing grounds, it means: I am shooting my nets."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

No. 813 Which flag means " You are running into danger."?

A Flag 1 >

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

Page 271 of 583

No. 814 Which flag means? " Stop carrying out your intentions and watch for my signals."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

No. 815 Which flag means " I require assistance."?

A Flag 1 B

>

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

No. 816 Which flag means " I am operating astern propulsion."?

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

>

D Flag 4

Page 272 of 583

dnjs.bmp

No. 817 Which flag means " I wish to communicate with you."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

No. 818 Which flag means " I am disabled. Communicate with me."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

No. 819 Which flag means " I am altering my course to starboard."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

Page 273 of 583

dehk.bmp

No. 820 Which flag means " You should stop your vessel instantly."?

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

>

D Flag 4

No. 821 Which flag means " I am on fire and have dangerous cargo on board, keep well clear of me."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

No. 822 Which flag means " I have a pilot on board."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

Page 274 of 583

No. 823 Which flag means " I am altering my course to port."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

No. 824 Which flag means " I require a pilot. When made by fishing vessels operating in close proximity on the fishing grounds it means: I am hauling nets."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

No. 825 Which flag means " My vessel is stopped and making no way through the water."?

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

>

D Flag 4

Page 275 of 583

No. 826 Which flag means " Man overboard."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

No. 827 Which flag means " In harbour. All persons should report on board as the vessel is about to proceed to sea. At sea, it may be used by fishing vessels to mean: My nets have come fast upon an obstruction."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

No. 828 Which flag means " I am dragging my anchor."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

Page 276 of 583

No. 829 Which flag means " I require a medical assistance."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

No. 830 Which flag means " No ( negative )."?

>

A

Flag 1

B

Flag 2

C Flag 3

D Flag 4

No. 831 What type of vessel is this?

>

A

Any type of fishing vessel.

B

A trawler.

q438.bmp

C A vessel at anchor.

D A vessel not under command.

Page 277 of 583

No. 832 In what operations would a ship showing this flag be engaged?

A

Escorting a submerged submarine.

B

Fishing with purse seine gear.

C Minesweeping.

>

D Diving operations.

No. 833 What sort of vessel would display this day signal?

>

A

A vessel which is in distress and requesting assistance.

B

A vessel which is aground.

C A fishing vessel with gear fast to a rock and at anchor.

D A vessel engaged in underwater demolition work.

No. 834 Which is the correct day signal for a vessel engaged in hydrographic surveying?

>

A

Day signal A.

B

Day signal B.

C Day signal C.

D Day signal D.

Page 278 of 583

No. 835 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

A

Juliet

B

Uniform

C Lima

>

D Charlie

No. 836 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

Charlie

B

Delta

C Golf

D Foxtrot

No. 837 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

A

Kilo

B

Tango

C Hotel

>

D Echo

Page 279 of 583

No. 838 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

A

Charlie

B

Alfa

C Lima

>

D Foxtrot

No. 839 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

Whisky

B

Papa

C Golf

D Yankee

No. 840 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

Hotel

B

Juliet

C Xray

D Victor

Page 280 of 583

No. 841 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

Zulu

B

India

C Mike

D Papa

No. 842 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

Juliet

B

Bravo

C Lima

D Romeo

No. 843 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

A

Oscar

B

Quebec

C Sierra

>

D Kilo

Page 281 of 583

No. 844 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

Lima

B

Echo

C Alfa

D Hotel

No. 845 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

A

Whisky

B

Uniform

C Foxtrot

>

D Mike

No. 846 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

Oscar

B

India

C November

D Golf

Page 282 of 583

No. 847 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

A

Uniform

B

Yankee

C Papa

>

D Oscar

No. 848 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

A

Juliet

B

Hotel

C Alfa

>

D Papa

No. 849 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

India

B

Oscar

C Quebec

D Victor

Page 283 of 583

No. 850 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

Xray

B

Romeo

C Tango

D Zulu

No. 851 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

Sierra

B

Papa

D Whisky

No. 852 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

Golf

B

Tango

C Juliet

D Hotel

Page 284 of 583

No. 853 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

November

B

Mike

C Uniform

D Lima

No. 854 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

Victor

B

Mike

C Whisky

D Yankee

No. 855 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

A

Echo

B

Charlie

C Delta

>

D Whisky

Page 285 of 583

No. 856 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

Yankee

B

Oscar

C Xray

D Yankee

No. 857 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

Foxtrot

B

Oscar

C Yankee

D Echo

No. 858 What is the phonetic word for this flag?

>

A

Lima

B

Zulu

C Uniform

D Foxtrot

Page 286 of 583

No. 859 Which flag group means " You should keep away from me or the vessel indicated"?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

No. 860 Which flag group means " Do not pass too close to me."?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

No. 861 Which flag group means " You should proceed at slow speed when passing me or vessels making this signal."?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

Page 287 of 583

flag_ry.bmp

No. 862 Which flag group means " I require health clearance"?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

No. 863 Which flag group means Interrogative or " the significance of the previous group should be read as a question"?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

No. 864 Which flag group means " Light vessel out of position"?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

Page 288 of 583

No. 865 Which flag group means " It is not safe to fire a rocket"?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

No. 866 Which flag group means " You appear not to be complying with the traffic separation scheme"?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

No. 867 Which flag group means " I am ( or vessel indicated is ) in charge or coordinating a search"?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

Page 289 of 583

No. 868 Which flag group means " Look-out for a rocket-line"?

A

A

B

B

C C

>

D D

No. 869 Which flag group means " I am going to communicate with your station by means of the International Code of Signals"?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

No. 870 Which flag group means " I am in distress and require immediate assistance"?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

Page 290 of 583

No. 871 Which flag group means " You should proceed with great caution; Submarines are exercising in this area"?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

No. 872 Which flag group means " The groups which follow are from the International Code of Signals"?

A

A

B

B

C C

>

D D

No. 873 Which flag group means " I am calibrating radio direction finder flag_oq.bmp or adjusting compasses"?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

Page 291 of 583

No. 874 Which flag group means " The words which follow are in plain language"?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

No. 875 Which flag group means " Have you a doctor "?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

No. 876 Which flag group means " What is the name or identity signal of your vessel"?

A

A

B

B

C C

>

D D

Page 292 of 583

No. 877 Which flag group means " I am engaged in submarine survey work ( underwater operations ). Keep well clear of me at slow speed."?

A

A

B

B

C C

>

D D

No. 878 Which flag group means " I wish to communicate with you by VHF channel 16"?

>

A

A

B

B

C C

D D

No. 879 Over what length of time should a diesel powered vessel be slowed down from full sea-speed to manoeuvring speed?

>

A

10 minutes.

B

20 minutes.

C 1 hour.

D 4 hours.

Page 293 of 583

No. 880 Who is responsible for the numbers and use of tugs during mooring?

>

A

The pilot.

B

The port authority.

C The master.

D The agent.

No. 881 How should you minimize squat effect?

>

A

Decrease the speed.

B

Increase the speed.

C Transfer ballast to change the ship's trim.

D Do a zig-zag manoeuvre and reduce the speed.

No. 882 In relation to squat effect, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A

Squat results in an increase in ship's draft.

B

Squat results in a decrease in underkeel clearance.

C Squat can be a serious problem for deep draft ships.

>

D Squat results in a decrease in ship's draft.

Page 294 of 583

No. 883 You are transiting a narrow channel. What can happen in this situation?

>

A

The bow could be pulled towards the bank.

B

The stern could be pushed away from the bank.

C The bow could be pushed away from the bank.

D The stern could be pulled towards the river bank.

No. 884 What would you say about a ship which is course unstable?

>

A

She will require large rudder angles to maintain course.

B

When you apply rudder, she will continue to turn long after the rudder is returned to amidships.

C When you put rudder amidships, she will quickly return to a straight course. D When you apply rudder, she will take time before answering.

No. 885 Your engine is going astern and you gather sternway. The rudder is amidships and you are operating on a single, right-handed fixed screw. How will your ship react?

>

A

You will change heading to port.

B

You will change heading to starboard.

C You will go straight astern.

D Your stern will be pushed to starboard.

Page 295 of 583

No. 886 In which of these vessel types is "squat" likely to be most pronounced?

A

A cargo liner.

B

A supply or anchor handling vessel.

C A vessel with a very wide beam compared to length.

>

D A vessel with a high block coefficient.

No. 887 In which direction will the bow of a vessel move, with a single fixed pitch right-handed propeller which is turning astern?

>

A

To port.

B

To starboard.

C Forwards.

D Backwards.

No. 888 What is most noticeable about a ship with good course keeping stability?

A

She will maintain her course until large rudder angles are applied.

B

When you apply rudder, she will take time before answering.

C When you apply rudder, she will continue to turn for sometime after the rudder is put amidships. >

D When you put the rudder amidships, she will quickly return to a straight course.

Page 296 of 583

No. 889 You want to stop your ship as quickly as possible without too much change in the heading. What can you do to achieve this?

A

Put the engines full astern.

B

Make a complete turning circle.

C Do a zigzag manoeuvre.

>

D Use the rudder hard over both sides while reducing engine speed.

No. 890 What will be the stopping distance of your ship when proceeding at 8 knots and reversing to full astern?

A

800m.

B

2000m.

C 8 ship lengths.

>

D Check the information posted on the bridge.

No. 891 A ship turns around a point called the 'pivot point". What is the usual position of this point when the ship is at full sea speed?

>

A

Amidships.

B

At the stern.

C At about 1/4 of the ship's length from the bow.

D At about 1/4 of the ship's length from the stern.

Page 297 of 583

No. 892 A ship turns around a point called the 'pivot point". What is the position of this point when the ship is stopped in the water?

>

A

At the ship's centre of gravity.

B

Near the ship's stern.

C Outside of the ship's centre line.

D Near the ship's bow.

No. 893 Your ship is making sternway of about 1.5 knots, with rudder hard to starboard. Will this rudder position have any effect on the ship's behaviour? Choose the most complete answer.

A

Yes, it will give the stern a lift force to port.

B

No, the ship will go straight astern.

C No, the rudder will have no effect when the ship is making sternway. It should be in amidships position when going astern. >

D Yes, it will give the stern a lift force to starboard.

No. 894 Overshoot is an expression used when talking about a ship's steering ability. What does this mean?

>

A

It is the way a ship turns when the helm is put to the hard over position.

B

It is the way a ship continues to turn after counter-rudder is applied.

C It is the way a ship continues to turn when the helm is put amidship. D It is the way a ship responds when moving the helm from hard to port to hard to starboard.

Page 298 of 583

No. 895 How is shallow water effect felt by a vessel?

>

A

The vessel has a tendency to turn to starboard (for a left turning propeller).

B

The vessel has a tendency to turn to port (for a right turning propeller).

C The vessel becomes sluggish in responding to the rudder.

D The vessel responds very quickly to the rudder.

No. 896 You are performing an overtaking manoeuvre in confined waters. What should you watch out for?

>

A

The bow may be pulled towards and the stern may be pushed away from the other ship as you pass.

B

The change in speed of the other ship.

C The change in your underkeel clearance.

D The stern may be pulled towards and the bow may be pushed away from the other ship as you pass.

No. 897 Your ship is equipped with a single right-handed fixed propeller. While steaming full ahead you reverse the engine to stop the ship. How will the ship react?

>

A

You will stop in 1.5 times the ship's length.

B

You will sheer to port and stop rather quickly.

D You will continue on a straight course.

Page 299 of 583

No. 898 In ship handling terms, which of these overtaking situations is the most dangerous?

A

A small vessel overtaking a large vessel with a big difference in speed between the two vessels.

B

A small vessel overtaking a large vessel with little difference in speed between the two vessels.

C A large vessel overtaking a small vessel with a big difference in speed between the two vessels. >

D A large vessel overtaking a small vessel with little difference in speed between the two vessels.

No. 899 You are meeting another ship in confined waters. What can happen as the ships approach each other?

>

A

Initially the bows of the ships will be pushed away from each other.

B

Initially the bows of the ships will be pulled together.

C Both vessels will be affected by squat.

D There will be no effect.

No. 900 Your ship is equipped with a right handed propeller. As you go full astern from full ahead, the ship is sheering to starboard. Is there anything you can do to reduce the change in heading? A

No.

B

Put the rudder hard to port.

C Swing the rudder from side to side.

>

D Put the rudder hard to starboard.

Page 300 of 583

No. 901 How is bank effect felt by a vessel?

>

A

The vessel's bow is pushed away from the nearest bank.

B

The vessel's stern is pushed away from the nearest bank.

C The whole vessel is drawn in parallel to the nearest bank.

D The whole vessel is pushed away parallel to the nearest bank.

No. 902 In which of these vessel types is "sinkage" likely to be most pronounced?

>

A

A cargo liner.

B

A supply or anchor handling vessel.

C A vessel with a high block coefficient.

D A vessel with a very wide beam compared to length.

No. 903 In ship handling terms, what is meant by "sinkage"?

>

A

Sinkage is the deepest draft a vessel obtains aft when moving through the water.

B

Sinkage is the change of draft experienced when moving through water.

C Sinkage is the extra draft a vessel experiences when comparatively heavily loaded both ends. D Sinkage is the extra draft a vessel experiences when comparatively heavily loaded amidships.

Page 301 of 583

No. 904 You are going to leave a crowded anchorage by making a 180 degrees turn. You ship has a right handed propeller and you can turn either way. How can you make the turn using as little space as possible?

>

A

Full ahead, rudder hard to port.

B

Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard.

C Rudder hard to port, full astern. After you gain some sternway, rudder hard to starboard and full ahead. D Rudder hard to starboard, full ahead. Rudder hard to port, full astern. Repeating this maneuver until you have made the turn.

No. 905 Does a ship's trim influence her steering abilities?

>

A

Yes, a ship usually steers better if trimmed by the bow.

B

No, a ship will have the same steering ability unaffected by trim.

C Yes, a ship usually steers better if trimmed by the stern.

D No, it is usually best to have no trim at all.

No. 906 In the diagram, B represents the start of a turning circle of a power driven ship in deep water with 20 degrees starboard rudder. If the ship was in shallow water, the turning circle with the same rudder angle would be... >

A

A

B

B

C C

D none of the other options.

Page 302 of 583

No. 907 When operating with conventional screw tugs, what is the function of the "Gob" or "Gog" rope?

>

A

To reduce the chance of "girting"

B

To secure the tug to the ship

C To keep the tug at the correct place on the ship's side when pushing D To improve the bollard pull of the tug

No. 908 In the diagram of a ship's turning circle, what is point C known as?

>

A

Pivot Point

B

Centre of Flotation

C Transfer Point

No. 909 In a narrow canal, a ship proceeding at half speed ahead swings towards the port bank of the channel. As the bow approaches the bank, it would initially....

>

A

be rejected away from the bank by the pressure

B

be unaffected

C be pulled towards the bank by bank suction

D be first pulled towards the bank, then rejected away

Page 303 of 583

No. 910 The position of the pivot point when making sternway is approximately....

>

A

one quarter of the length of the ship from the stern

B

one quarter of the length of the ship from the bow

C

amidships

D one eight of the length of the ship from the stern

No. 911 In the diagram of a ship's turning circle, what is the distance B known as?

>

A

Tactical Diameter

B

Transfer

D Diameter of the turn

No. 912 What is "ship squat"?

>

A

The sinkage and change of trim caused when the ship is proceeding with a small underkeel clearance

B

Deeper draft caused by operating in fresh rather than salt water

C A requirement for ships proceeding up river under low bridges

D A slight increase in underkeel clearance

Page 304 of 583

No. 913 Your ship is on a course of 240° True. A person has fallen overboard on the port side and, after letting go smoke and light floats, in order to carry out a Williamson Turn would you.....

>

A

go hard to port until you are heading 180° True, then hard to starboard until you are on 060° True.

B

go hard to port until you are heading 195° True, then hard to starboard until you are on 060° True.

C go hard to starboard until you are heading 300° True, then hard to port until you are on 060° True. D go hard to starboard to 285° True, then hard to port until you are on 060° True.

No. 914 In the diagram of a ship's turning circle, what is the distance A known as?

>

A

B

Tactical Diameter

C Stopping Distance

D Transfer

No. 915 In terms of flashpoint, what defines if a container carrying a flammable liquid must carry this sign?

>

A

Required for a flashpoint of 55 degrees C or below.

B

Required for a flashpoint of 100 degrees C or above.

C Required for any flammable liquid regardless of the flashpoint.

D Required for a flashpoint of 80 degrees F and above.

Page 305 of 583

No. 916 During cargo operations, winch operators should....

>

A

have a clear view of the work area.

B

take orders from one controller.

D be able to communicate with one another.

No. 917 Bale capacity compared to grain capacity is....

>

A

less.

B

more.

C the same.

D dependent on the stowage factor.

No. 918 When loading vehicles as cargo, the fuel tanks should be......

>

A

empty.

B

full.

C carrying a minimum of fuel.

D open to the atmosphere.

Page 306 of 583

No. 919 Prior to preparing and cleaning holds in preparation for bulk cargo it is important to......

A

isolate fire lines.

B

increase ventilation.

C maximize the GM.

>

D consult the IMO Code of Practice.

No. 920 A cargo plan would NOT include....

A

the position of all cargo.

B

the identity of cargo discharge ports.

C the location of dangerous goods.

>

No. 921 Guideline requirements for the carriage of bulk grain state that......

>

A

following a cargo shift, the maximum heel must be no more than 12째.

B

The ship can sail with a maximum of 5째 heel.

C grain must always be overstowed.

D grain must never be overstowed.

Page 307 of 583

No. 922 Bulk grain cargo should be carried as directed under the rules of.....

>

A

the IMDG Code.

B

the SOLAS (IMO) Grain Rules.

C the ISM Code..

D the IAMSAR Manual.

No. 923 How much space would 300 tonnes of tea with a stowage factor of 3.0 take up, if it had a broken stowage factor of 10%?

>

A

90 cubic metres

B

990 cubic metres

C 330 cubic metres

D 3,330 cubic metres

No. 924 For general cargo, thorough hold preparation is required. This is mainly to ensure that.....

>

A

bilges are clean and working.

B

all dunnage is renewed.

C the next cargo is carried efficiently and safely.

D the previous cargo value is realized.

Page 308 of 583

No. 925 After a partial discharge and prior to sailing, it is important to......

>

A

secure & shore the remaining cargo.

B

thoroughly ventilate.

C redo the cargo plan.

D carry out a cargo survey.

No. 926 The cargo Stowage Factor is the......

>

A

volume per unit of weight.

B

number of types of cargo per hold.

D weight per unit.

No. 927 Which one of the following is not a primary purpose for using dunnage?

>

A

To protect cargo from the effects of sweat

B

To provide ventilation circulation

C To provide cargo segregation

D To prevent chafage on cargo

Page 309 of 583

No. 928 While loading dangerous goods, a package is dropped. Despite damaging the packaging the product can be clearly seen and is not damaged. What should be done?

A

Repair the packaging

B

Reject the package

C Make an entry in the Log Book

>

No. 929 Dangerous cargo on a pallet should be stowed......

A

below deck for'd.

B

in a secure container.

C below deck aft.

>

D on deck.

No. 930 Portable lights should be removed from cargo work areas after use. The most important reason is to......

>

A

prevent stealing.

B

reduce power consumption.

C reduce the safety hazard.

D meet SOLAS requirements.

Page 310 of 583

No. 931 When timber deck cargo has been loaded, the stowage should be such that.....

A

there is unrestricted access between stowage.

B

there is a mixture of heavy with light cargo.

C access is maintained to the hatches.

>

D there is solid stowage to prevent water from flowing on deck.

No. 932 When crew members are working in confined spaces that have been cleared of hazardous materials, ventilation should be provided......

>

A

at least every 30 minutes.

B

continuously.

C if oxygen levels fall.

D if the TLV is exceeded.

No. 933 When operating union purchase cargo lifts......

>

A

angles between married runners should never exceed 120째.

B

the safe working load relates to the single derrick limit.

C angles between married runners should exceed 90째.

D preventer guys and slewing guys must share pad eyes.

Page 311 of 583

No. 934 When planning to load a coal bulk cargo, you should......

>

A

treat it as potentially dangerous.

B

blank off the hold ventilation system.

C rig fire hoses to every hold.

D reject the cargo unless there is sufficient moisture content.

No. 935 When planning to load an iron ore bulk cargo......

>

A

no other cargo may be in the same hold.

B

there is a need to cover it once loaded.

C there may be a need to brace the adjacent structure.

D sea water flooding must be available.

No. 936 Ballast lines to deep tanks should be.....

A

flooded to keep pumps primed.

B

ultrasonically tested annually.

C flushed weekly.

>

Page 312 of 583

No. 937 Railway Iron as far as possible should be stowed.....

A

on deck.

B

athwart-ships.

C bedded on softer cargo.

>

D fore & aft.

No. 938 The IMO regulations for timber deck cargoes require.....

>

A

a taut lifeline on the ship's centreline.

B

lifelines to be rigged on the port and starboard sides.

C lifelines to be made available if required.

D lifelines to be of manila.

No. 939 When carrying refrigerated cargo, while on passage the most important monitoring is .......

A

for CO2 build up.

B

recording cargo samples daily.

C checking cargo packaging daily.

>

D checking temperature regularly.

Page 313 of 583

No. 940 Cargoes referenced within the IMDG code may be anticipated to be.....

A

a spontaneous combustion risk.

B

of a high flash point.

C needing underdeck stowage.

>

D of a hazardous nature.

No. 941 When rigging a Jumbo Derrick for a heavy lift, which of the following is standard practice?

>

A

To put winches in double gear

B

To ensure an aft trim

C To discharge ballast

D To slacken preventer backstays

No. 942 In which document will full references and details relating to dangerous goods be found?

>

A

ISM Guidelines

B

'M' Notices

C The IMDG Code

D The stowage plan

Page 314 of 583

No. 943 The weight a vessel can carry is called the......

A

B

gross tonnage.

C registered tonnage.

>

No. 944 While loading dangerous goods, the documentation is incomplete regarding stowage and classification details. The deck officer should......

>

A

request the missing details before sailing.

B

accept the cargo but make a log entry.

D reject the cargo altogether.

No. 945 The principal reason for cargo segregation is to......

>

A

maintain stability.

B

allow ventilation.

C keep apart cargo that should not be mixed.

D allow space for additional cargo.

Page 315 of 583

No. 946 Cargo containers may NOT contain:

>

A

military equipment

B

motor cars

C livestock

D dangerous cargo

No. 947 When deck cargo is loaded it is important to......

>

A

load the heaviest cargo on deck.

B

C allow for ice accretion.

D ensure that access is maintained to the hatches.

No. 948 Possible shifts of grain cargo may be controlled by......

>

A

"saucers" filled with bagged grain.

B

overstowing with heavy cargo.

C fitting canvas dividers.

D maintaining a low GM.

Page 316 of 583

No. 949 Deck cargo stowage should......

>

A

allow an unobstructed view from the Bridge.

B

not require temporary walkways.

C not be placed on dunnage.

D ensure that access is maintained to the hatches.

No. 950 Cargo containers on deck are secured......

>

A

if heavy weather is forecast.

B

up to the second stack.

C with twistlocks, rods and chains.

D only if containing cargo.

No. 951 Freeboard is the vertical distance measured from the......

>

A

waterline to the keel.

B

main deck to the waterline.

C main deck to the keel.

D top of the bulwarks to the waterline.

Page 317 of 583

No. 952 Which of the following refrigerated cargoes is not compatible for carriage in the same conditions as the others listed?

>

A

Apples

B

Butter

C Asparagus

D Pears

No. 953 What is the IMDG Code?

>

A

The International Code for the carriage of livestock

B

The International Maritime Distress Code

C The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code

D The Maritime Industry guidance document for the carriage of Dangerous Goods

No. 954 The picture shows a tackle being used to lift a load. What is the velocity ratio of this tackle as it is being used?

>

A

2

B

3

C 4

D 5

Page 318 of 583

No. 955 The bright spot which forms the trace or timebase moves across the radar screen at a speed equivalent to......

>

A

half the speed of the radar waves.

B

the speed of the radar waves.

C a continuously variable speed.

D twice the speed of the radar waves.

No. 956 The purpose of radar is to enable....

>

A

the wave-lengths of radio waves to be calculated.

B

the echoes of targets to be separated.

C the range and bearing of objects to be obtained.

D the speed of radio waves to be measured.

No. 957 A typical radar pulse length is......

>

A

5.05 to 10.25 microseconds.

B

0.05 to 1.25 microseconds.

C 10.25 to 15.05 microseconds.

D 1.23 to 5.03 microseconds.

Page 319 of 583

No. 958 Radar does not transmit continuously because it would......

>

A

prevent detection of targets.

B

cause interference to other vessels.

C reduce the life of components.

D make the equipment get very hot.

No. 959 A typical pulse repetition frequency is......

A

3000 to 6000 pulses per second.

B

6000 to 8500 pulses per second.

C 100 to 500 pulses per second.

>

D 500 to 3000 pulses per second.

No. 960 Target ranges are obtained from......

A

the pulse repetition frequency.

D the bearing marker.

Page 320 of 583

No. 961 Target echoes appear along a line called the......

>

A

timebase.

B

scanner.

C centre line.

No. 962 To provide accurate target bearings the radar beam must be......

>

A

wide in the horizontal plane.

B

narrow in the horizontal plane.

C narrow in the vertical plane.

D wide in the vertical plane.

No. 963 Accurate target bearings are obtained by......

>

A

making the radar beam wide vertically.

B

synchronizing the radar beam and the trace.

C making the radar beam wide horizontally.

D rotating the trace intermittently.

Page 321 of 583

No. 964 A complete oscillation of a radio wave is called......

A

the frequency.

B

the amplitude.

C the wavelength.

>

D a cycle.

No. 965 The horizontal distance between the adjacent crests of a radio wave is called....

>

A

the amplitude

B

the wavelength

C a cycle

D the frequency

No. 966 Half the vertical distance between the crest and the trough of a radio wave is called.....

>

A

the amplitude

B

a cycle

C the wavelength

D the frequency

Page 322 of 583

No. 967 The number of cycles of a radio wave which pass a fixed point in a given time is called the....

>

A

speed

B

amplitude

C frequency

D wavelength

No. 968 A radar with a wavelength of 3.2 cm would have a frequency of about....

>

A

6,060 MHz

B

12,450 MHz

C 9,375 MHz

D 3,245 MHz

No. 969 S-band radar has a wavelength of ....

>

A

3.1 to 3.2 cm

B

9.2 to 10 cm

C 5.0 to 5.4 cm

D 12.5 to 12.9 cm

Page 323 of 583

No. 970 Marine radar wavelengths are measured in .....

>

A

microseconds.

B

feet per second.

C centimetres.

D megahertz.

No. 971 Most commonly, ships' radars operate in the....

>

A

S- band

B

L- band

C X- band

D Q- band

No. 972 The main component of the transmitter is the....

>

A

antenna

B

power supply

C magnetron

D cathode ray tube

Page 324 of 583

No. 973 The transmitter P.R.F. is determined by the....

>

A

trigger unit

B

modulator

C magnetron

D delay line

No. 974 In addition to initiating the action of the transmitter, the trigger unit also sends a pulse to the:

>

A

scanner to start scanner rotation.

B

display to start the timebase.

C waveguide to open the T.R. cell.

D receiver to start the local oscillator.

No. 975 The transmitted pulse length is determined by the action of the....

>

A

magnetron

B

trigger unit

C modulator

D delay line

Page 325 of 583

No. 976 The transmitted frequency is determined by the design of the....

>

A

magnetron

B

T/R cell

C scanner

D waveguide

No. 977 The magnetron sends the R.F. pulses to the....

>

A

display unit

B

transmitter unit

C scanner unit

No. 978 The unit which sends returning target echoes to the receiver is the....

>

A

scanner unit

B

power supply unit

C transmitter unit

D display unit

Page 326 of 583

No. 979 The function of the waveguide is to....

>

A

block the transmitter during reception

B

generate the R.F. pulses

C conduct pulses to and from the scanner

D shape the beam in vertical plane

No. 980 The purpose of the T/R cell is to....

>

A

paint the heading marker on the display

B

D shape the beam in the horizontal plane

No. 981 The commonest type of radar scanner is the....

A

tilted parabolic cylinder

B

single cheese

C double cheese

>

D horizontal slotted waveguide

Page 327 of 583

No. 982 The display trace is caused to rotate in synchronisation with the scanner by a signal from the....

A

selsyn generator

B

duplexer

>

D scanner motor

No. 983 Incoming target echoes are detected by the....

>

A

video amplifier

B

mixer crystal

C I.F. amplifier

D local oscillator

No. 984 Signals are converted to a suitable form for the display by the....

>

A

local oscillator

B

mixer crystal

C I.F. amplifier

D video amplifier

Page 328 of 583

No. 985 The function of the local oscillator is to....

A

limit the strength of the stronger target echoes

B

carry out final amplification of the echoes

C convert the target echoes from an AC to a DC signal

>

D provide a frequency for mixing with the target signals

No. 986 Weaker echoes are converted to signals of detectable strength rqco_19.bmp by the....

A

mixer crystals

B

limiter circuit

C local oscillator

>

D I.F. amplifier

No. 987 Signals are converted to a suitable form for the display by the....

>

A

local oscillator

B

I.F. amplifier

C video amplifier

D mixer crystal

Page 329 of 583

No. 988 The purpose of the anodes in the C.R.T. is to....

>

A

cause the screen to glow when hit by electrons

B

deflect the electrons to the edge of the screen

C attract the electrons to the screen

D focus to a sharp point at the screen

No. 989 The intermediate frequency is generated by the....

>

A

mixer crystal

B

magnetron

C selsyn generator

D local oscillator

No. 990 The intensity of the electron beam in the C.R.T. is controlled by....

>

A

passing a current through the deflection coil

B

varying the potential on the grid

C a signal from the time unit

D the action of the first anode

Page 330 of 583

No. 991 A function of the deflection coils in a C.R.T. is to....

>

A

focus the electron to a sharp image

B

control the flow

C cause the electrons to form the trace

D return the electrons from the screen to the cathode

No. 992 Target echoes are received in the display unit in the form of....

>

A

an increased potential to the grid

B

a pulse from the brightening unit to the cathode

C a signal from the scanner to the deflection coil

D a current from the final anode to the screen

No. 993 The trace on the display rotates....

>

A

in synchronization with the scanner

B

at half the speed of the scanner

C at twice the speed of the scanner

D independently of the scanner

Page 331 of 583

No. 994 The electrons in the Cathode Ray Tube ( CRT) are attracted....

>

A

from the grid to the cathode

B

from the cathode to the anodes

C from the grid to the anodes

D from the anodes to the cathode

No. 995 The brilliance control of a Cathode Ray Tube ( CRT ) operates on....

>

A

the deflection coil

B

the cathode

C the anode

D the grid

No. 996 The purpose of the gain control is to adjust....

>

A

the amplification of the target echoes

B

the brightness of the display control

C the sharpness of the display focus

D the frequency of the local oscillator

Page 332 of 583

No. 997 On a radar display, this symbol identifies the....

>

A

tuning control

B

gain control

C focus control

D brilliance control

No. 998 The tuning control adjusts....

>

A

the amplification of target echoes

B

the transmitted frequency

C the frequency of the local oscillator

D the amplification of power output

No. 999 If the trace is not correctly centred, error may occur when....

>

A

measuring ranges

B

using the gain control

C measuring bearings

D using the tuning control

Page 333 of 583

No.1000 Echoes from rain can be reduced using the....

A

S.T.C. control

B

brilliance control

C tuning control

>

D differentiator control

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