Wardlaw's Perspectives in Nutrition 11th Edition by Carol Byrd-Bred TEST BANK by ACADEMIAMILL

3) Nutrients causing some signs of poor health when consumed in less than adequate amounts are called . A) essential nutrients B) nonessential nutrients C) nutritional supplements D) trace nutrients 4) Energy-yielding nutrients include A) vitamins, minerals, and water B) carbohydrates, proteins, and fats C) trace minerals and fat-soluble vitamins D) iron, vitamin C, and potassium

5) Sugars, starches, and dietary fibers are examples of A) proteins B) vitamins C) carbohydrates D) minerals

6) Which of the following are sources of carbohydrates? A) grains B) fruits C) vegetables D) All of these are sources of carbohydrates.

7) Which is NOT a complex carbohydrate? A) glycogen B) glucose C) fiber D) starch 8) Macronutrients are needed in A) larger B) smaller C) similar

quantities in the diet, as compared to micronutrients.

11) Which of the following are complex carbohydrates NOT broken down by digestive processes: A) glycogen B) enzymes C) fiber D) starches 12) Glucose is classified as a A) simple sugar B) dietary starch C) polysaccharide D) dietary fiber 13) A triglyceride is an example of a A) protein B) carbohydrate C) lipid D) vitamin

14) Lipids can be described as . A) sugars, starches, and fibers B) compounds needed in minute amounts C) mostly fats and oils D) made of building blocks called amino acids 15) The major form of lipid in foods is a(n) A) triglyceride B) amino acid C) fatty acid D) glycerol

16) The main structural material of the body is A) lipid B) carbohydrate C) protein D) minerals 17) Proteins are formed by linking together A) fatty acids B) amino acids C) glycerol D) chlorine compounds

18) Proteins can be described as . A) sugars, starches, and fibers B) mostly fats and oils C) made of building blocks called amino acids D) inorganic molecules regulating chemical reactions and comprising part of some body structures 19) The main function of vitamins is to . A) provide the main structural building blocks of the body B) provide essential fatty acids C) enable chemical reactions in the body to occur D) improve digestion processes 20) Examples of water-soluble vitamins include A) vitamins A and E B) vitamins D and K C) vitamin C and the B-vitamins D) calcium and iron

21) Which of the following is a trace mineral? A) sodium B) calcium C) iron D) potassium 22) Minerals are needed for . A) skeletal system B) functioning of the nervous system C) water balance D) All of these choices are correct. E) None of these choices are correct. 23) Which of the following is a vital component of the body, acting as a solvent, lubricant, temperature regulator, and transport medium? A) fat B) carbohydrate C) protein D) water 24) Energy obtained by the body from food is used to A) build new compounds B) move the muscles C) transmit nerve impulses D) balance ions within cells E) perform all of these functions

25) Phytochemicals are . A) available in vitamin and mineral supplements only B) essential parts of a diet C) chemicals found in plants and animal products D) plant substances that provide health benefits 26) Which of the following is the term for a food that provides health benefits beyond the vitamins and minerals it contains? A) Functional food B) Formative food C) Phytonutrient D) Probiotic 27) "The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1000 grams of water one degree Celsius" is the definition of . A) energy B) kilojoule C) kilocalorie D) physiological fuel value 4 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

28) In North America, the main sources of protein are A) rice, beans, and corn B) meat and pasta C) meat, seafood, and dairy products D) pasta, breads, and potatoes

29) About 50% of the American dietary intake of carbohydrate is derived from A) animal sources B) dietary fats and oils C) dietary starches D) dietary fiber 30) Most North Americans could improve their diets by A) eating more foods rich in vitamins A and E B) increasing sodium intake C) lowering iron and calcium intake D) eating fewer whole-grain breads

31) The psychological desire to eat certain foods and reject others is defined by: A) hunger B) the physical need for food C) appetite D) culture 32) Many factors influence food choices. Which factor relates to the knowledge, beliefs, religion, and traditions shared by a group of people? A) food marketing B) lifestyle C) education and occupation D) culture 33) Which factor(s) affect food choice? A) social needs B) food cost C) food marketing D) None of these factors affect food choice. E) All of these factors affect food choice. 34) When body systems are operating normally and nutrient stores are being maintained, an individual is said to be . A) in optimal nutritional status B) in a state of overnutrition C) experiencing undernutrition D) experiencing malnutrition 5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

35) Nutrition-related objectives of Healthy People 2020 include . A) increasing fat intake, vitamin A intake, and reducing obesity B) reducing adult obesity, increasing calcium intake, and increasing sodium intake C) increasing vegetable intake, increasing calcium intake, and reducing childhood obesity D) lowering fat intake, increasing protein intake, and increasing blood cholesterol 36) The main objective of Healthy People 2020 is to help Americans A) attain high-quality, longer lives free from preventable death and disease B) lose weight and increase vegetable intake C) by promoting intake of minerals among those age 2 years and older D) increase intake of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains 37) An environmental assessment includes studying a person's A) education and economic background B) family medical history C) usual dietary intake D) medication use 38) An evaluation of nutritional health includes A) anthropometric measurements B) dietary assessment C) biochemical assessment D) medical history E) All of these choices are correct.

39) dictate(s) the types and amounts of nutrients in food that will be transformed and reassembled into body structures and compounds. A) Essential fats B) Genes C) Energy expenditure D) Dietary choices 40) A possible explanation for a natural phenomenon is a A) law B) model C) theory D) hypothesis 41) The study of the distribution of disease in human populations is A) epidemiology B) dermatology C) statistics D) biometry

42) A study that compares matched individuals with and without a known medical condition is known as a . A) double-blind study B) matched study C) case-control study D) control group study 43) An inert substance with no biological activity or a fake medicine that is used in controlled experiments is called a . A) placebo B) blind substance C) double-blind substance D) controlled substance 44) A study that examines changes in health as people move from one country to another is called a . A) cohort study B) migrant study C) case-control study D) control group study 45) In a double-blind study, who knows which participants are getting the treatment or placebo? A) only the researchers B) only the participants C) only an independent third party D) both the researchers and participants 46) Polysaccharides are also called simple carbohydrates. 47) A micronutrient is a substance that cannot be separated into simpler substances by chemical processes. 48) The term "oil " refers to lipids that are generally liquid at room temperature. 49) Vitamins can be divided into 3 groups: water-soluble, fat-soluble, and alcohol-soluble. 50) Water-soluble vitamins are excreted more readily than fat-soluble vitamins. 51) Phytochemicals are physiologically active compounds that are considered essential nutrients. 52) Zoochemicals are physiologically active compounds found in plants. 53) A Kilocalorie measures the amount of heat energy. 54) A clinical sign of a nutrient deficiency is one that is apparent to a health-care provider, such as aches and pains. 7 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

55) Overnutrition can lead to excess stores of nutrients. 56) People in the United States today are generally more at risk for overnutrition than undernutrition. 57) A poor diet is a risk factor for the major chronic diseases seen today. 58) In the future, gene therapy may help to treat inherited diseases. 59) An animal model is a disease in laboratory animals that closely mimics a human disease. 60) In the U.S., dietary supplements are rigorously regulated by the Food and Drug Administration. 61) Supplement manufacturers must prove the supplement is safe before they can sell it in the U.S. 62) Which is NOT a characteristic of an essential nutrient? A) It has a specific biological function. B) Removing it from the diet causes a reduction in biological function. C) Adding it to a deficient diet restores body functions back to normal if it is added before permanent damage occurs. D) The body can create these nutrients on its own. 63) Which nutrients regulate body processes? A) Proteins and carbohydrates B) Carbohydrates, some lipids, and water C) Some lipids, some vitamins, and some minerals. D) All nutrients help regulate body processes. 64) Which is true about saturated fats? A) Saturated fats raise blood cholesterol. B) Saturated fats tend to be solid at room temperature. C) Many animal fats are rich in saturated fats. D) Saturated fats provide 9 kilocalories per gram. E) All of these statements are true. 65) Which is true about essential fatty acids? A) The body can make them from nonessential fatty acids. B) They help regulate blood pressure and nerve transmission. C) They are found primarily in deep-fried foods. D) They are linked to increased risk of heart disease.

66) Which element is found in protein, but not in carbohydrates? A) Nitrogen B) Carbon C) Hydrogen D) Oxygen 67) Which nutrients are organic compounds? A) water and carbohydrates B) carbohydrates and protein C) fats and minerals D) water and minerals 68) Which nutrient is an inorganic substance? A) vitamin A B) zinc C) protein D) thiamin 69) Which nutrients do NOT provide energy? A) water and carbohydrate B) minerals and vitamins C) vitamins and protein D) water, minerals, and lipids 70) Which is NOT true of water? A) It is a medium for transporting nutrients throughout the body. B) It is an organic substance. C) It is the nutrient needed in the largest quantity. D) It acts as a lubricant in the body. 71) A snack bar contains about 17 grams of carbohydrates, 1 gram of fat, and 1 gram of protein. How many kcals does it contain? A) 19 B) 43 C) 81 D) 210 72) One slice of bread contains 18 g carbohydrates, 4 g protein, and 1.5 g fat. Approximately how many kcal are in one slice? A) 24 B) 94 C) 100 D) 210

76) Which is a limitation of nutritional assessment? A) Many signs and symptoms of nutrient deficiency disease are not very specific. B) Many signs and symptoms of nutrient deficiency disease take a long time to occur. C) It is hard to link many signs and symptoms to dietary intake. D) All of these are limitations of nutritional assessment. E) None of these are limitations of nutritional assessment. 77) Major chronic diseases, such as heart disease, certain cancers, and cirrhosis of the liver, may be related to . A) eating a healthy diet B) eating a poor diet C) exercising regularly D) taking nutritional supplements 78) A potential health problem associated with high dietary fat intake is A) cataracts B) lung cancer C) colon cancer D) osteoporosis

79) A health problem most likely NOT associated with low intake of fruits and vegetables is . A) colon cancer B) liver disease C) cataracts D) lung cancer 10 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

80) What health practices would reduce the risk for chronic diseases? A) Eating a healthful diet B) Not smoking and limiting alcohol intake C) Limiting stress or adjusting the causes of the stress D) All of these choices are correct. E) None of these choices are correct. 81) A person genetically at risk for heart disease could potentially delay the onset of this disease by . A) getting regular exercise B) avoiding obesity C) eating a healthy diet D) All of these choices are correct. E) None of these choices are correct. 82) Which of the following is most likely a dependable source for up-to-date, accurate nutrition information? A) supplement manufacturer's website B) registered dietitian/nutritionist C) health food store manager D) women's magazine 83) Almost all foods that have fat contain both saturated and unsaturated fats. 84) Trans fatty acids are most commonly found in deep-fried foods, cookies, crackers, stick margarine, and shortening. 85) Cooking is more likely to destroy fat-soluble vitamins than water-soluble vitamins. 86) Omega-3 fatty acids are a type of zoochemical provided by fatty fish. 87) Clinical signs generally occur in the early stage of nutrient deficiency. 88) Family medical history is a major risk factor in the development of many nutrition-related diseases. 89) A person genetically predisposed to a diet-related disease can do little to delay the onset of the disease. 90) The study of how a person's genes interact with nutrients is termed A) genetic counseling B) nutritional genomics C) genetic metabolomics D) nutritional nucleic acid pool

91) For which of the following titles must the individual be college educated and pass a national examination administered by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics? A) medical doctor B) registered dietitian/nutritionist C) certified nutritionist D) certified nutrition therapist 92) Which of the following nutritional assessments would best be used to determine if there is a subclinical deficiency present? A) anthropometric assessment B) clinical assessment C) environmental assessment D) biochemical assessment 93) How is a placebo group used in an experiment? A) All subjects are similar. B) All subjects receive a treatment. C) Neither subjects nor researchers know who is receiving treatment. D) One group of subjects receives a treatment and the other group receives a fake treatment. 94) A critical evaluation and synthesis of research studies focusing on a specific topic that is useful for health-care providers is a(n) . A) systematic review B) peer-reviewed journal C) hypothesis D) epidemiological study 95) Which of the following can be used as a tool to help make informed healthcare decisions: A) e-Library of Evidence for Nutrition Actions B) USDA Nutrition Evidence Library C) Evidence Analysis Library D) Cochrane Collaboration E) All of the responses are correct. 96) Which of the following cannot add fat to the body? A) Alcohol B) Proteins C) Carbohydrates D) Inorganic nutrients 97) Which of the following is the least reputable source of a nutrition claim? A) Paid spokesperson B) Author affiliated with nationally recognized university C) Medical physician D) Registered dietitian 12 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 1 The Science of Nutrition 1) The science of food; the nutrients and substances therein; and their action, interaction, and balance in relation to health and disease is a definition of . A) life B) energy metabolism C) nutrition D) food science Answer: C Explanation: This is the definition of nutrition. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) The leading cause of nutrition-related death in the United States is A) heart disease B) homicide C) suicide D) diabetes

Answer: A Explanation: Heart disease is the leading cause of death in the U.S. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Demographic trends and statistics; Cardiovascular disease Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

3) Nutrients causing some signs of poor health when consumed in less than adequate amounts are called . A) essential nutrients B) nonessential nutrients C) nutritional supplements D) trace nutrients Answer: A Explanation: Some signs of poor health will eventually occur less-than-adequate essential nutrient consumption. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 4) Energy-yielding nutrients include A) vitamins, minerals, and water B) carbohydrates, proteins, and fats C) trace minerals and fat-soluble vitamins D) iron, vitamin C, and potassium

Answer: B Explanation: Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats provide energy/calories. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

5) Sugars, starches, and dietary fibers are examples of A) proteins B) vitamins C) carbohydrates D) minerals

Answer: C Explanation: Sugars, starches, and dietary fibers are types of carbohydrates. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 6) Which of the following are sources of carbohydrates? A) grains B) fruits C) vegetables D) All of these are sources of carbohydrates. Answer: D Explanation: Grains, fruits and vegetables all contain carbohydrates. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

7) Which is NOT a complex carbohydrate? A) glycogen B) glucose C) fiber D) starch Answer: B Explanation: Glucose is a simple sugar Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) Macronutrients are needed in A) larger B) smaller C) similar

quantities in the diet, as compared to micronutrients.

Answer: A Explanation: Macronutrients are needs in larger amounts (grams) as compared to micronutrients (milligrams and micrograms). Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

9) Carbohydrates can be described as . A) sugars, starches, and fibers B) compounds needed in tiny amounts C) made of building blocks called amino acids D) inorganic molecules regulating chemical reactions and comprising part of some body structures Answer: A Explanation: Sugars, starches and fibers are carbohydrates. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 10) An important function of carbohydrates is to A) supply energy B) provide amino acids C) absorb and transport vitamins D) promote growth and tissue repair

Answer: A Explanation: The main function of carbohydrates is to supply energy. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrient functions; Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

11) Which of the following are complex carbohydrates NOT broken down by digestive processes: A) glycogen B) enzymes C) fiber D) starches Answer: C Explanation: Fiber cannot be broken down by the body. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Complex Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 12) Glucose is classified as a A) simple sugar B) dietary starch C) polysaccharide D) dietary fiber

Answer: A Explanation: Glucose is a simple sugar. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

13) A triglyceride is an example of a A) protein B) carbohydrate C) lipid D) vitamin

Answer: C Explanation: A triglyceride is classified as a lipid. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Lipids Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 14) Lipids can be described as . A) sugars, starches, and fibers B) compounds needed in minute amounts C) mostly fats and oils D) made of building blocks called amino acids Answer: C Explanation: Fats and oils are lipids. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Lipids Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

15) The major form of lipid in foods is a(n) A) triglyceride B) amino acid C) fatty acid D) glycerol

Answer: A Explanation: Triglyceride is the lipid most commonly found in foods. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Lipids Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 16) The main structural material of the body is A) lipid B) carbohydrate C) protein D) minerals

Answer: C Explanation: Protein is the body's main structural material. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Proteins Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

17) Proteins are formed by linking together A) fatty acids B) amino acids C) glycerol D) chlorine compounds

Answer: B Explanation: Amino acids link to form proteins. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Proteins Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 18) Proteins can be described as . A) sugars, starches, and fibers B) mostly fats and oils C) made of building blocks called amino acids D) inorganic molecules regulating chemical reactions and comprising part of some body structures Answer: C Explanation: Proteins are made of amino acids. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Proteins Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

19) The main function of vitamins is to . A) provide the main structural building blocks of the body B) provide essential fatty acids C) enable chemical reactions in the body to occur D) improve digestion processes Answer: C Explanation: Vitamins enable chemical reactions in the body. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Vitamins Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 20) Examples of water-soluble vitamins include A) vitamins A and E B) vitamins D and K C) vitamin C and the B-vitamins D) calcium and iron

Answer: C Explanation: Water soluble vitamins include all B vitamins and vitamin C. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Vitamins Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

21) Which of the following is a trace mineral? A) sodium B) calcium C) iron D) potassium Answer: C Explanation: Iron is a trace mineral. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Minerals Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 22) Minerals are needed for . A) skeletal system B) functioning of the nervous system C) water balance D) All of these choices are correct. E) None of these choices are correct. Answer: D Explanation: Minerals are needed for skeletal system, function of nervous system, and water balance. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

23) Which of the following is a vital component of the body, acting as a solvent, lubricant, temperature regulator, and transport medium? A) fat B) carbohydrate C) protein D) water Answer: D Explanation: Water acts as a solvent, lubricant, temperature regulator and transport. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 24) Energy obtained by the body from food is used to A) build new compounds B) move the muscles C) transmit nerve impulses D) balance ions within cells E) perform all of these functions

Answer: E Explanation: Energy/calories are used to build new compounds, move muscles, transmit impulses, and balance ions. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 01.02 Use the physiological fuel values of energy-yielding nutrients to determine the total energy content (calories) in a food or diet. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

25) Phytochemicals are . A) available in vitamin and mineral supplements only B) essential parts of a diet C) chemicals found in plants and animal products D) plant substances that provide health benefits Answer: D Explanation: Phytochemicals are derived from plants and offer health benefits. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Phytochemicals Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 26) Which of the following is the term for a food that provides health benefits beyond the vitamins and minerals it contains? A) Functional food B) Formative food C) Phytonutrient D) Probiotic Answer: A Explanation: Functional foods provide health benefits beyond the vitamins and minerals they contain. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

27) "The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1000 grams of water one degree Celsius" is the definition of . A) energy B) kilojoule C) kilocalorie D) physiological fuel value Answer: C Explanation: Definition of kilocalorie. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.02 Use the physiological fuel values of energy-yielding nutrients to determine the total energy content (calories) in a food or diet. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 28) In North America, the main sources of protein are A) rice, beans, and corn B) meat and pasta C) meat, seafood, and dairy products D) pasta, breads, and potatoes

Answer: C Explanation: Meat, seafood, and dairy products provide the main sources of protein in North America. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Demographic trends and statistics Learning Objective: 01.03 Describe the major characteristics of the North American diet and the food behaviors that often need improvement. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

29) About 50% of the American dietary intake of carbohydrate is derived from A) animal sources B) dietary fats and oils C) dietary starches D) dietary fiber

Answer: C Explanation: Dietary starches compromise about 50% of American intake of carbohydrates. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Demographic trends and statistics; Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 01.03 Describe the major characteristics of the North American diet and the food behaviors that often need improvement. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 30) Most North Americans could improve their diets by A) eating more foods rich in vitamins A and E B) increasing sodium intake C) lowering iron and calcium intake D) eating fewer whole-grain breads

Answer: A Explanation: Most North Americans need more vitamin A and E, as found in statistics. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Public health and nutrition Learning Objective: 01.03 Describe the major characteristics of the North American diet and the food behaviors that often need improvement. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

31) The psychological desire to eat certain foods and reject others is defined by: A) hunger B) the physical need for food C) appetite D) culture Answer: C Explanation: Appetite is defined by a psychological desire to eat certain foods and reject others. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.04 Describe the factors that affect our food choices.; 01.03 Describe the major characteristics of the North American diet and the food behaviors that often need improvement. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 32) Many factors influence food choices. Which factor relates to the knowledge, beliefs, religion, and traditions shared by a group of people? A) food marketing B) lifestyle C) education and occupation D) culture Answer: D Explanation: Definition of culture. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Demographic trends and statistics Learning Objective: 01.04 Describe the factors that affect our food choices. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

33) Which factor(s) affect food choice? A) social needs B) food cost C) food marketing D) None of these factors affect food choice. E) All of these factors affect food choice. Answer: E Explanation: Food choice is affected by all listed factors. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.04 Describe the factors that affect our food choices. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 34) When body systems are operating normally and nutrient stores are being maintained, an individual is said to be . A) in optimal nutritional status B) in a state of overnutrition C) experiencing undernutrition D) experiencing malnutrition Answer: A Explanation: Definition of optimal nutritional status. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.05 Discuss the components and limitations of nutritional assessment. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

35) Nutrition-related objectives of Healthy People 2020 include . A) increasing fat intake, vitamin A intake, and reducing obesity B) reducing adult obesity, increasing calcium intake, and increasing sodium intake C) increasing vegetable intake, increasing calcium intake, and reducing childhood obesity D) lowering fat intake, increasing protein intake, and increasing blood cholesterol Answer: C Explanation: HP 2020 objectives include increasing vegetable intake, increasing calcium intake, and reducing sodium intake. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.04 Topic: Public health and nutrition Learning Objective: 01.06 List the attributes of lifestyles that are consistent with Healthy People 2020 goals and those that contribute to the leading causes of death in North America. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 36) The main objective of Healthy People 2020 is to help Americans A) attain high-quality, longer lives free from preventable death and disease B) lose weight and increase vegetable intake C) by promoting intake of minerals among those age 2 years and older D) increase intake of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains

Answer: A Explanation: The main objective of HP 2020 is to help Americans attain high-quality, longer lives free from preventable death and disease. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.04 Topic: Public health and nutrition Learning Objective: 01.06 List the attributes of lifestyles that are consistent with Healthy People 2020 goals and those that contribute to the leading causes of death in North America. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

37) An environmental assessment includes studying a person's A) education and economic background B) family medical history C) usual dietary intake D) medication use

Answer: A Explanation: Education and economic background are aspects of environmental assessment. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.05 Discuss the components and limitations of nutritional assessment. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 38) An evaluation of nutritional health includes A) anthropometric measurements B) dietary assessment C) biochemical assessment D) medical history E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Explanation: All answers listed are used in nutritional health evaluations. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.05 Discuss the components and limitations of nutritional assessment. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

39) dictate(s) the types and amounts of nutrients in food that will be transformed and reassembled into body structures and compounds. A) Essential fats B) Genes C) Energy expenditure D) Dietary choices Answer: B Explanation: Genes dictate the types and amounts of nutrients that will be transformed/reassembled into body structures/compounds. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutritional genomics Learning Objective: 01.07 Describe the role of genetics in the development of nutrition-related diseases. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 40) A possible explanation for a natural phenomenon is a A) law B) model C) theory D) hypothesis

Answer: D Explanation: A hypothesis would offer an explanation for natural phenomena. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.05 Topic: Scientific method Learning Objective: 01.08 Explain how the scientific method is used in developing hypotheses and theories in the field of nutrition. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

41) The study of the distribution of disease in human populations is A) epidemiology B) dermatology C) statistics D) biometry

Answer: A Explanation: Definition of epidemiology. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.05 Topic: Scientific method Learning Objective: 01.08 Explain how the scientific method is used in developing hypotheses and theories in the field of nutrition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 42) A study that compares matched individuals with and without a known medical condition is known as a . A) double-blind study B) matched study C) case-control study D) control group study Answer: C Explanation: Definition of case-control. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.05 Topic: Scientific method Learning Objective: 01.08 Explain how the scientific method is used in developing hypotheses and theories in the field of nutrition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

43) An inert substance with no biological activity or a fake medicine that is used in controlled experiments is called a . A) placebo B) blind substance C) double-blind substance D) controlled substance Answer: A Explanation: Definition of placebo. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.05 Topic: Scientific method Learning Objective: 01.08 Explain how the scientific method is used in developing hypotheses and theories in the field of nutrition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 44) A study that examines changes in health as people move from one country to another is called a . A) cohort study B) migrant study C) case-control study D) control group study Answer: B Explanation: Definition of migrant study. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.05 Topic: Scientific method Learning Objective: 01.08 Explain how the scientific method is used in developing hypotheses and theories in the field of nutrition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

45) In a double-blind study, who knows which participants are getting the treatment or placebo? A) only the researchers B) only the participants C) only an independent third party D) both the researchers and participants Answer: C Explanation: A third party is the only entity who knows which participants are getting placebo/treatment in a double-blind study. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.05 Topic: Scientific method Learning Objective: 01.08 Explain how the scientific method is used in developing hypotheses and theories in the field of nutrition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 46) Polysaccharides are also called simple carbohydrates. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Monosaccharides are simple carbohydrates. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics; Simple carbohydrates Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 47) A micronutrient is a substance that cannot be separated into simpler substances by chemical processes. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Micronutrients are vitamins and minerals. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

48) The term "oil " refers to lipids that are generally liquid at room temperature. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Oil is a lipid that is generally a liquid at room temperature. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 49) Vitamins can be divided into 3 groups: water-soluble, fat-soluble, and alcohol-soluble. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Vitamins are classified as water-soluble and fat-soluble. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 50) Water-soluble vitamins are excreted more readily than fat-soluble vitamins. Answer: TRUE Explanation: True statement. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

51) Phytochemicals are physiologically active compounds that are considered essential nutrients. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Phytochemicals are substances from plants that offer benefits but are not essential for humans to function. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Phytochemicals Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 52) Zoochemicals are physiologically active compounds found in plants. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Zoochemicals are found in animals. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Zoochemicals Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 53) A Kilocalorie measures the amount of heat energy. Answer: TRUE Explanation: True statement. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.02 Use the physiological fuel values of energy-yielding nutrients to determine the total energy content (calories) in a food or diet. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

54) A clinical sign of a nutrient deficiency is one that is apparent to a health-care provider, such as aches and pains. Answer: TRUE Explanation: True statement. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.05 Discuss the components and limitations of nutritional assessment. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 55) Overnutrition can lead to excess stores of nutrients. Answer: TRUE Explanation: True statement. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.05 Discuss the components and limitations of nutritional assessment. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 56) People in the United States today are generally more at risk for overnutrition than undernutrition. Answer: TRUE Explanation: True statement. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.03 Describe the major characteristics of the North American diet and the food behaviors that often need improvement. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

57) A poor diet is a risk factor for the major chronic diseases seen today. Answer: TRUE Explanation: True statement. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.03 Describe the major characteristics of the North American diet and the food behaviors that often need improvement. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 58) In the future, gene therapy may help to treat inherited diseases. Answer: TRUE Explanation: True statement. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutritional genomics; Biotechnology Learning Objective: 01.07 Describe the role of genetics in the development of nutrition-related diseases. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 59) An animal model is a disease in laboratory animals that closely mimics a human disease. Answer: TRUE Explanation: True statement. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.05 Topic: Scientific method Learning Objective: 01.08 Explain how the scientific method is used in developing hypotheses and theories in the field of nutrition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

60) In the U.S., dietary supplements are rigorously regulated by the Food and Drug Administration. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The USDA generally regulates supplements. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.06 Topic: Evaluating nutrition information; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 01.09 Identify reliable sources of nutrition information. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 61) Supplement manufacturers must prove the supplement is safe before they can sell it in the U.S. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Supplement manufacturers DO NOT have to prove safety or efficacy before marketing supplements in the U.S. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.06 Topic: Evaluating nutrition information; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 01.09 Identify reliable sources of nutrition information. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 62) Which is NOT a characteristic of an essential nutrient? A) It has a specific biological function. B) Removing it from the diet causes a reduction in biological function. C) Adding it to a deficient diet restores body functions back to normal if it is added before permanent damage occurs. D) The body can create these nutrients on its own. Answer: D Explanation: The body cannot create essential nutrients. They must be consumed in the diet. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

63) Which nutrients regulate body processes? A) Proteins and carbohydrates B) Carbohydrates, some lipids, and water C) Some lipids, some vitamins, and some minerals. D) All nutrients help regulate body processes. Answer: C Explanation: Some lipids, some vitamins and some minerals regulate various body processes. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 64) Which is true about saturated fats? A) Saturated fats raise blood cholesterol. B) Saturated fats tend to be solid at room temperature. C) Many animal fats are rich in saturated fats. D) Saturated fats provide 9 kilocalories per gram. E) All of these statements are true. Answer: E Explanation: All statements are true. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Triglycerides Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

65) Which is true about essential fatty acids? A) The body can make them from nonessential fatty acids. B) They help regulate blood pressure and nerve transmission. C) They are found primarily in deep-fried foods. D) They are linked to increased risk of heart disease. Answer: B Explanation: Essential fatty acids help regulate blood pressure and nerve transmission. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Triglycerides Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 66) Which element is found in protein, but not in carbohydrates? A) Nitrogen B) Carbon C) Hydrogen D) Oxygen Answer: A Explanation: Of the macronutrients, nitrogen is only found in the protein. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

67) Which nutrients are organic compounds? A) water and carbohydrates B) carbohydrates and protein C) fats and minerals D) water and minerals Answer: B Explanation: Carbohydrates and protein contain carbon and are organic. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 68) Which nutrient is an inorganic substance? A) vitamin A B) zinc C) protein D) thiamin Answer: B Explanation: Zinc is a mineral, which is inorganic and does not contain carbon. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

69) Which nutrients do NOT provide energy? A) water and carbohydrate B) minerals and vitamins C) vitamins and protein D) water, minerals, and lipids Answer: B Explanation: Micronutrients (vitamins and minerals) do not contain calories or provide energy. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 70) Which is NOT true of water? A) It is a medium for transporting nutrients throughout the body. B) It is an organic substance. C) It is the nutrient needed in the largest quantity. D) It acts as a lubricant in the body. Answer: B Explanation: Water does not contain carbon (H2O) and is not organic. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

71) A snack bar contains about 17 grams of carbohydrates, 1 gram of fat, and 1 gram of protein. How many kcals does it contain? A) 19 B) 43 C) 81 D) 210 Answer: C Explanation: 17 g carbohydrates × 4 kcal/g = 68 kcal from carbohydrates 1 g fat × 9 kcal/g = 9 kcal from fat 1 g protein × 4 kcal/g = 4 kcal from protein 68 + 9 + 4 = 81 total kcal Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 01.02 Topic: Nutrition basics; Nutrition computations Learning Objective: 01.02 Use the physiological fuel values of energy-yielding nutrients to determine the total energy content (calories) in a food or diet. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 72) One slice of bread contains 18 g carbohydrates, 4 g protein, and 1.5 g fat. Approximately how many kcal are in one slice? A) 24 B) 94 C) 100 D) 210 Answer: C Explanation: 18 g carbohydrates × 4 kcal/g = 72 kcal from carbohydrates 4 g protein × 4 kcal/g = 16 kcal from protein 1.5 g fat × 9 kcal/g = 13.5 kcal from fat 72 + 16 + 13.5 = 101.5 = about 100 total kcal Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 01.02 Topic: Nutrition basics; Nutrition computations Learning Objective: 01.02 Use the physiological fuel values of energy-yielding nutrients to determine the total energy content (calories) in a food or diet. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

73) If a total of 2000 kcal were consumed (energy came from 250 grams of carbohydrates, 66 grams of fat, and 102 grams of protein), what percentage of energy comes from carbohydrates, fat, and protein? A) 30% carbohydrate, 50% fat, and 20% protein B) 50% carbohydrate, 35% fat, and 15% protein C) 20% carbohydrate, 30% fat, and 50% protein D) 50% carbohydrate, 30% fat, and 20% protein Answer: D Explanation: 250 g carbohydrates × 4 kcal/g = 1000 kcal from carbohydrates / 2000 total kcal = 0.50 = 50% of kcal from carbohydrates 66 g fat × 9 kcal/g = 594 kcal from fat / 2000 total kcal = 0.297 = 30% of kcal from fat 102 g protein × 4 kcal/g = 408 kcal from protein / 2000 total kcal = 0.204 = 20% of kcal from protein Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 01.02 Topic: Nutrition basics; Nutrition computations Learning Objective: 01.02 Use the physiological fuel values of energy-yielding nutrients to determine the total energy content (calories) in a food or diet. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 74) Undernutrition can lead to . A) depleted nutrient stores B) possible slowdown in metabolic processes C) few symptoms in the early stages D) All of these responses are correct. Answer: D Explanation: All responses are correct. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.05 Discuss the components and limitations of nutritional assessment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

75) An example of anthropometric assessment is A) analyzing compounds in the blood B) assessing the ability to walk C) measuring skinfold thickness D) taking a medical history

Answer: C Explanation: Measuring skinfold thickness is an anthropometric assessment. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.05 Discuss the components and limitations of nutritional assessment. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 76) Which is a limitation of nutritional assessment? A) Many signs and symptoms of nutrient deficiency disease are not very specific. B) Many signs and symptoms of nutrient deficiency disease take a long time to occur. C) It is hard to link many signs and symptoms to dietary intake. D) All of these are limitations of nutritional assessment. E) None of these are limitations of nutritional assessment. Answer: D Explanation: All responses are correct. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.05 Discuss the components and limitations of nutritional assessment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

77) Major chronic diseases, such as heart disease, certain cancers, and cirrhosis of the liver, may be related to . A) eating a healthy diet B) eating a poor diet C) exercising regularly D) taking nutritional supplements Answer: B Explanation: Eating a poor diet is related to many chronic diseases. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.05 Discuss the components and limitations of nutritional assessment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 78) A potential health problem associated with high dietary fat intake is A) cataracts B) lung cancer C) colon cancer D) osteoporosis

Answer: C Explanation: High intake of dietary fat has been linked to colon cancer. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.05 Discuss the components and limitations of nutritional assessment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

79) A health problem most likely NOT associated with low intake of fruits and vegetables is . A) colon cancer B) liver disease C) cataracts D) lung cancer Answer: B Explanation: Low intake of fruits and vegetables has been linked to colon cancer, cataracts, and lung cancer. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.05 Discuss the components and limitations of nutritional assessment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 80) What health practices would reduce the risk for chronic diseases? A) Eating a healthful diet B) Not smoking and limiting alcohol intake C) Limiting stress or adjusting the causes of the stress D) All of these choices are correct. E) None of these choices are correct. Answer: D Explanation: All responses are correct. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.04 Topic: Public health and nutrition Learning Objective: 01.06 List the attributes of lifestyles that are consistent with Healthy People 2020 goals and those that contribute to the leading causes of death in North America. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

81) A person genetically at risk for heart disease could potentially delay the onset of this disease by . A) getting regular exercise B) avoiding obesity C) eating a healthy diet D) All of these choices are correct. E) None of these choices are correct. Answer: D Explanation: All responses are correct. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutritional genomics Learning Objective: 01.07 Describe the role of genetics in the development of nutrition-related diseases. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 82) Which of the following is most likely a dependable source for up-to-date, accurate nutrition information? A) supplement manufacturer's website B) registered dietitian/nutritionist C) health food store manager D) women's magazine Answer: B Explanation: A Registered Dietitian/Nutritionist is most likely the most reliable source of nutrition information from those listed. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 01.06 Topic: Evaluating nutrition information Learning Objective: 01.09 Identify reliable sources of nutrition information. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 0-1 minute 83) Almost all foods that have fat contain both saturated and unsaturated fats. Answer: TRUE Explanation: True statement. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Triglycerides Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 38 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

84) Trans fatty acids are most commonly found in deep-fried foods, cookies, crackers, stick margarine, and shortening. Answer: TRUE Explanation: True statement. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Triglycerides Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 85) Cooking is more likely to destroy fat-soluble vitamins than water-soluble vitamins. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cooking is more likely to destroy WATER-soluble vitamins. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Nutrition basics Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 86) Omega-3 fatty acids are a type of zoochemical provided by fatty fish. Answer: TRUE Explanation: True statement. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Zoochemicals Learning Objective: 01.01 Define the terms nutrition, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oils), vitamins, minerals, water, and calories. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

87) Clinical signs generally occur in the early stage of nutrient deficiency. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Clinical signs generally are delayed in appearing as a result of nutrient deficiency. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.05 Discuss the components and limitations of nutritional assessment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 88) Family medical history is a major risk factor in the development of many nutrition-related diseases. Answer: TRUE Explanation: True statement. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.05 Discuss the components and limitations of nutritional assessment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 89) A person genetically predisposed to a diet-related disease can do little to delay the onset of the disease. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A person genetically predisposed to a diet-related disease can do many things and activities to delay the onset of the disease. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutritional genomics Learning Objective: 01.07 Describe the role of genetics in the development of nutrition-related diseases. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

90) The study of how a person's genes interact with nutrients is termed A) genetic counseling B) nutritional genomics C) genetic metabolomics D) nutritional nucleic acid pool

Answer: B Explanation: Definition of nutritional genomics Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutritional genomics Learning Objective: 01.07 Describe the role of genetics in the development of nutrition-related diseases. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 91) For which of the following titles must the individual be college educated and pass a national examination administered by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics? A) medical doctor B) registered dietitian/nutritionist C) certified nutritionist D) certified nutrition therapist Answer: B Explanation: Registered Dietitian/Nutritionists require a college degree in nutrition and must pass a national exam. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.06 Topic: Evaluating nutrition information Learning Objective: 01.09 Identify reliable sources of nutrition information. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

92) Which of the following nutritional assessments would best be used to determine if there is a subclinical deficiency present? A) anthropometric assessment B) clinical assessment C) environmental assessment D) biochemical assessment Answer: D Explanation: Biochemical assessment/lab work is necessary to determine subclinical deficiency. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 01.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 01.05 Discuss the components and limitations of nutritional assessment. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 93) How is a placebo group used in an experiment? A) All subjects are similar. B) All subjects receive a treatment. C) Neither subjects nor researchers know who is receiving treatment. D) One group of subjects receives a treatment and the other group receives a fake treatment. Answer: D Explanation: A placebo is used as a fake treatment in one group when another group receives experimental treatment. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 01.05 Topic: Scientific method Learning Objective: 01.08 Explain how the scientific method is used in developing hypotheses and theories in the field of nutrition. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 0-1 minute

94) A critical evaluation and synthesis of research studies focusing on a specific topic that is useful for health-care providers is a(n) . A) systematic review B) peer-reviewed journal C) hypothesis D) epidemiological study Answer: A Explanation: Definition of systemic review. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.05 Topic: Scientific method Learning Objective: 01.08 Explain how the scientific method is used in developing hypotheses and theories in the field of nutrition. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 95) Which of the following can be used as a tool to help make informed healthcare decisions: A) e-Library of Evidence for Nutrition Actions B) USDA Nutrition Evidence Library C) Evidence Analysis Library D) Cochrane Collaboration E) All of the responses are correct. Answer: E Explanation: All of the responses are correct. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.05 Topic: Scientific method Learning Objective: 01.08 Explain how the scientific method is used in developing hypotheses and theories in the field of nutrition. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

96) Which of the following cannot add fat to the body? A) Alcohol B) Proteins C) Carbohydrates D) Inorganic nutrients Answer: D Explanation: Inorganic nutrients are referring to minerals, which do not contain calories, so therefore cannot add fat to the body. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 01.02 Topic: Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 01.02 Use the physiological fuel values of energy-yielding nutrients to determine the total energy content (calories) in a food or diet. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 97) Which of the following is the least reputable source of a nutrition claim? A) Paid spokesperson B) Author affiliated with nationally recognized university C) Medical physician D) Registered dietitian Answer: A Explanation: A paid spokesperson is likely biased. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 01.06 Topic: Evaluating nutrition information Learning Objective: 01.09 Identify reliable sources of nutrition information. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute

98) Which of the follow would be considered the best nutritional advice: A) Recommendations based on a single study. B) All carbohydrates are "bad." C) Consume more fruits and vegetables. D) Use a diet pill for quick weight loss and easy results. Answer: C Explanation: Consuming fruits and vegetables is good nutritional advice. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 01.06 Topic: Evaluating nutrition information Learning Objective: 01.09 Identify reliable sources of nutrition information. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 0-1 minute

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 2 Designing a Healthy Eating Pattern 1) Which is true about the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs)? A) They apply to people in Canada and the U.S. B) They differ by age group. C) They include Recommended Dietary Allowances and Tolerable Upper Intake Levels. D) They were created by the Food and Nutrition Board. E) All of these responses are true. 2) Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) values are for people who are A) 1 to 4 years of age B) over 4 years of age C) over 19 years of age D) of all ages 3) An Adequate Intake (AI) is set for a nutrient when A) too little research is available to establish an RDA B) the needs during pregnancy decline instead of increase C) the set RDA is not adequate enough D) the nutrient has a high potential for being toxic

4) Which Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) is set high enough to meet the needs of 97 to 98% of the population? A) Estimated Energy Requirements B) Estimated Average Requirements C) Recommended Dietary Allowances D) Dietary Reference Intakes 5) Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (ULs) are . A) the maximum daily intake level not likely to cause harmful effects B) based on intakes from only supplements and highly fortified foods C) nutrient intake goals D) set for all nutrients 6) Which Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) reflects average daily needs? A) Adequate Intakes B) Estimated Average Requirements C) Recommended Dietary Allowances D) Tolerable Upper Intake Levels

7) The AMDRs do NOT include estimates for intake of A) essential fatty acids B) essential amino acids C) carbohydrate D) fat

8) The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for nutrients are . A) the maximum amounts allowed for an average 70-kg man B) twice as high as almost everyone needs C) average requirements for a population D) designed to meet the nutrient needs of 97 to 98% of individuals in a specific life stage 9) Foods that provide a greater contribution to nutrient needs than calorie needs are said to be . A) empty calorie B) energy dense C) calorie dense D) nutrient dense 10) The nutrient standards used on Nutrition Facts panels are called A) Recommended Dietary Allowances B) Daily Values C) Estimated Average Requirements D) Adequate Intakes

11) Daily Values differ from Recommended Dietary Allowances in that Daily Values A) are used on Nutrition Facts panels B) are based on 2 sets of dietary standards C) are not gender-specific D) All of these responses are correct. 12) Daily Values are based on which sets of dietary standards? A) Reference Daily Intakes and Daily Reference Values B) Recommended Dietary Allowances and Daily Reference Values C) Reference Daily Intakes and Tolerable Upper Intake Levels D) Recommended Dietary Allowances and Reference Daily Intakes 13) Daily Reference Values are set for A) fat and cholesterol B) sodium and potassium C) carbohydrate and protein D) All of these responses are correct.

14) The reference calorie intake for calculating percent Daily Values on Nutrition Facts labels is . A) 1500 kcal B) 2000 kcal C) 2300 kcal D) 3000 kcal 15) Which dietary standard value varies with calorie intake? A) Fat B) Vitamin C C) Calcium D) Iron 16) Which is required on all food packages? A) Name and address of the food manufacturer B) Date and time of processing C) Expiration date D) Percent Daily Value for protein 17) If a can of soup provides 4 servings and has 100 kcal per serving, how many kcal are in the entire can? A) 100 B) 200 C) 400 D) 800 18) Food components that MUST be listed on the Nutrition Facts panel include A) sugars, dietary fiber, and fluoride B) sugars, dietary fiber, and calcium C) sugars, dietary fiber, and monounsaturated fat D) sugars, calcium, and B-vitamins

19) Which of the following claims are least closely regulated by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)? A) Health claims B) Structure/function claims C) Nutrient content claims D) Nutrition Facts Panel 20) To be defined as a "good" source of calcium, a food must contain A) at least 5% of the Daily Value for calcium in 1 serving of the food B) at least 10% of the Daily Value for calcium in 1 serving of the food C) at least 50% of the Daily Value for calcium in 1 serving of the food D) at least 50% of the Daily Value for calcium in 2 servings of the food

21) When vitamins and/or minerals are added to a food product in amounts in excess of at least 10% above that originally present in the product, the food is designated as . A) light or lite B) organic C) imitation D) fortified 22) Which is NOT a permitted health claim? A) Diets with enough calcium may reduce risk of osteoporosis. B) Diets low in sugar may reduce the risk of cancer. C) Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol may reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. D) None of these responses are permitted. 23) What type of claim is "calcium builds strong bones and teeth"? A) Structure/function claim B) Health claim C) Nutrient claim D) Preliminary health claim 24) For a health claim to be made about a food product, it must NOT contain more than . A) 19 g fat B) 70% carbohydrate C) 4 g saturated fat D) 120 mg cholesterol E) All of these choices are correct. 25) Factors that affect the amount of nutrients in foods include A) farming conditions B) ripeness of plants when harvested C) cooking processes D) length of time food is stored E) All of these factors affect nutrient content of foods. 26) By definition, energy-dense foods are ALL A) high in calories B) high in water C) high in fiber D) high in volume

27) Nutrient databases can be used to determine . A) a food's energy density B) a food's nutrient density C) the nutrient content of your diet D) the nutrient content of the foods in a recipe E) All of these responses are appropriate uses of nutrient databases. 4 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

28) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are designed to reduce the risk of A) cancer B) cardiovascular disease C) obesity D) All of these responses are correct.

29) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans . A) provide a scientific basis for USDA's school lunch program B) provide a scientific basis for the Food Stamp Program C) are designed to reduce the risk of "killer" diseases D) All of these choices are correct. 30) According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, those who consume alcoholic beverages should do so in moderation. Which of the following statements is true? A) A moderate intake is 1 or fewer servings per day for women. B) Beer is not considered an alcoholic beverage because it is mostly water. C) An average serving of red wine is 1.6 ounces per glass. D) To be considered an alcoholic beverage, distilled spirits must be at least 180 proof. 31) Which government agency publishes the Dietary Guidelines for Americans? A) USDA B) USDHHS C) FDA D) USDA and USDHHS E) FDA and USDA 32) MyPlate groups foods into A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

major categories.

33) Which of the following is a key behavior emphasized in MyPlate? A) Balancing calories B) Foods to increase C) Foods to reduce D) All of these responses are correct 34) According to MyPlate, a mini bagel would represent group. A) 0.50 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4

ounce(s) from the grains

35) Two cups of plain lettuce salad would equal a serving from which MyPlate food group? A) Protein B) Diary C) Vegetable D) Grain 36) MyPlate includes which food group? A) Dairy B) Vegetables C) Protein D) Fruits E) All of the responses are correct 37) What eating behavior does MyPlate specifically encourage? A) Make half your plate vegetables. B) Make half your plate grains. C) Make at least half your grains whole grains. D) Add in more empty-calorie foods. 38) What counts as one serving in the dairy group? A) 1 cup of ice cream B) 1 cup of yogurt C) 1 cup of cottage cheese D) 1 cup grated cheese 39) According to MyPlate, four ounces of processed cheese equals Dairy group. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

serving(s) from the

40) Which nutrient is contributed by the fruit group of MyPlate? A) calcium B) folate C) zinc D) protein 41) Which nutrient is best contributed by the protein foods group of MyPlate? A) iron B) folate C) vitamin C D) vitamin A

42) The MyPlate vegetable group is divided into which subgroups? A) Starchy vegetables, red and orange vegetables, and dark green vegetables B) Dark green vegetables and other vegetables C) Other vegetables, starchy vegetables, and red and yellow vegetables D) Dark green vegetables, orange vegetables, starchy vegetables, beans and peas, and other vegetables 43) Reading food labels helps consumers . A) identify amounts of salt or sodium in the product B) determine the sugar content of the product C) determine amount and kind of fat in the product D) choose foods with dietary fiber E) All of these responses are correct. 44) Mandatory labeling of foods is regulated by the A) USDHHS B) FTC C) FDA D) GAO

45) Labeling laws require that ingredients in food products be listed on the container in descending order of their . A) calories B) nutrient density C) weight D) cost 46) Under the current law on nutrition labeling, the Nutrition Facts panel must include . A) total calories from fat B) total calories from trans fat C) total calories from saturated fat D) grams of monounsaturated fat 47) If a group of people consumed an amount of protein equal to the estimated average requirement for their life stage, what percentage would receive insufficient amounts? A) 2 B) 33 C) 50 D) 98

48) What measure best describes the amounts of nutrients that should be consumed by the population? A) The Dietary Reference Intakes because they are a set of nutrient intake values for healthy people B) The Tolerable Upper Intake levels because they are the maximum daily amount of a nutrient needed that is safe for most healthy people C) The Estimated Average Requirements because they reflect the average daily amount of a nutrient that will maintain a specific function in half of the healthy people of a population D) The Recommended Dietary Allowances because they represent the daily amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of nearly all healthy people 49) If a person consumed 35% of a diet providing 2500 kcalories from protein, approximately how many grams of protein would be ingested? A) 48 B) 67 C) 165 D) 219 50) Which of the following meals represents the most nutrient-dense meal? A) medium apple, fat-free milk, turkey sandwich on whole grain bread, carrot slices B) graham crackers, fruit punch, salami sandwich on white bread, vegetable soup C) banana, pretzels with peanut butter, chicken breast wrap sandwich, diet soft drink D) chocolate chip cookies, low-fat cheese slices on rice cakes, whole milk, peanuts 51) Which of the following represents the most energy-dense meal? A) broiled fish, watermelon, green beans, water B) whole milk, peanut butter and jelly sandwich on white bread, tortilla chips C) broccoli, chicken broth, strawberries, fat-free milk D) light cream cheese on a mini bagel, vegetable soup, kiwi, salad and lemon juice dressing 52) If anticipated results are not seen after implementing various dietary changes, what is likely the recommended next step? A) Add extra meals to the diet. B) Seek the help of a registered dietician/nutritionist or physician. C) Add in supplements. D) Limit nutrient intake. 53) A food label that advertises the product as a "rich source of fiber" is an example of a(n) A) Health claim B) Structure/function claim C) Nutrient claim D) Obesity prevention claim

54) Which program on MyPlate would you use if you were looking for tips on planning healthy food choices to meet individual goals? A) The SuperTracker B) My Food-a-pedia C) The Daily Food Plan 55) The allotment for maximum sugar per day: A) is the same for all calorie ranges B) increases as calorie load increases C) decreases as calorie load increases D) is not addressed in the most recent Dietary Guidelines for Americans

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 2 Designing a Healthy Eating Pattern 1) Which is true about the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs)? A) They apply to people in Canada and the U.S. B) They differ by age group. C) They include Recommended Dietary Allowances and Tolerable Upper Intake Levels. D) They were created by the Food and Nutrition Board. E) All of these responses are true. Answer: E Explanation: All responses correct Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 02.01 Explain the purpose of the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) and its components (Estimated Average Requirements, Recommended Dietary Allowances, Adequate Intakes, Upper Levels, Estimated Energy Requirements, and Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges). Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) values are for people who are A) 1 to 4 years of age B) over 4 years of age C) over 19 years of age D) of all ages

Answer: D Explanation: DRIs are for people of all ages. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 02.01 Explain the purpose of the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) and its components (Estimated Average Requirements, Recommended Dietary Allowances, Adequate Intakes, Upper Levels, Estimated Energy Requirements, and Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges). Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

3) An Adequate Intake (AI) is set for a nutrient when A) too little research is available to establish an RDA B) the needs during pregnancy decline instead of increase C) the set RDA is not adequate enough D) the nutrient has a high potential for being toxic

Answer: A Explanation: AI is set when too little research is available to establish an RDA. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 02.01 Explain the purpose of the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) and its components (Estimated Average Requirements, Recommended Dietary Allowances, Adequate Intakes, Upper Levels, Estimated Energy Requirements, and Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges). Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 4) Which Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) is set high enough to meet the needs of 97 to 98% of the population? A) Estimated Energy Requirements B) Estimated Average Requirements C) Recommended Dietary Allowances D) Dietary Reference Intakes Answer: C Explanation: The RDA is set to meet the needs of 97-98% of the population. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 02.01 Explain the purpose of the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) and its components (Estimated Average Requirements, Recommended Dietary Allowances, Adequate Intakes, Upper Levels, Estimated Energy Requirements, and Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges). Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

5) Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (ULs) are . A) the maximum daily intake level not likely to cause harmful effects B) based on intakes from only supplements and highly fortified foods C) nutrient intake goals D) set for all nutrients Answer: A Explanation: UL is the maximum daily level not likely to cause harmful effects related to toxicity. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 02.01 Explain the purpose of the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) and its components (Estimated Average Requirements, Recommended Dietary Allowances, Adequate Intakes, Upper Levels, Estimated Energy Requirements, and Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges). Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 6) Which Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) reflects average daily needs? A) Adequate Intakes B) Estimated Average Requirements C) Recommended Dietary Allowances D) Tolerable Upper Intake Levels Answer: B Explanation: EAR reflects average daily needs. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.01 Topic: Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 02.01 Explain the purpose of the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) and its components (Estimated Average Requirements, Recommended Dietary Allowances, Adequate Intakes, Upper Levels, Estimated Energy Requirements, and Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges). Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

7) The AMDRs do NOT include estimates for intake of A) essential fatty acids B) essential amino acids C) carbohydrate D) fat

Answer: B Explanation: Essential amino acids do not have an established AMDR. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 02.01 Explain the purpose of the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) and its components (Estimated Average Requirements, Recommended Dietary Allowances, Adequate Intakes, Upper Levels, Estimated Energy Requirements, and Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges). Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for nutrients are . A) the maximum amounts allowed for an average 70-kg man B) twice as high as almost everyone needs C) average requirements for a population D) designed to meet the nutrient needs of 97 to 98% of individuals in a specific life stage Answer: D Explanation: The RDAs are designed to meet the nutrient needs of 97-98% of the population. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 02.01 Explain the purpose of the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) and its components (Estimated Average Requirements, Recommended Dietary Allowances, Adequate Intakes, Upper Levels, Estimated Energy Requirements, and Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges). Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

9) Foods that provide a greater contribution to nutrient needs than calorie needs are said to be . A) empty calorie B) energy dense C) calorie dense D) nutrient dense Answer: D Explanation: Nutrient dense foods provide more nutrient needs relative to calorie needs. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.07 Develop a healthy eating plan based on the concepts of variety, balance, moderation, nutrient density, and energy density. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 10) The nutrient standards used on Nutrition Facts panels are called A) Recommended Dietary Allowances B) Daily Values C) Estimated Average Requirements D) Adequate Intakes

Answer: B Explanation: Daily Values are used on all Nutrition Facts Panels. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.02 Compare the Daily Values to the Dietary Reference Intakes and explain how they are used on Nutrition Facts panels. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

11) Daily Values differ from Recommended Dietary Allowances in that Daily Values A) are used on Nutrition Facts panels B) are based on 2 sets of dietary standards C) are not gender-specific D) All of these responses are correct. Answer: D Explanation: All responses are correct. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.02 Compare the Daily Values to the Dietary Reference Intakes and explain how they are used on Nutrition Facts panels. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 12) Daily Values are based on which sets of dietary standards? A) Reference Daily Intakes and Daily Reference Values B) Recommended Dietary Allowances and Daily Reference Values C) Reference Daily Intakes and Tolerable Upper Intake Levels D) Recommended Dietary Allowances and Reference Daily Intakes Answer: A Explanation: DVs are based on RDAs and DRVs. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.02 Compare the Daily Values to the Dietary Reference Intakes and explain how they are used on Nutrition Facts panels. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

13) Daily Reference Values are set for A) fat and cholesterol B) sodium and potassium C) carbohydrate and protein D) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: D Explanation: DRVs are set for all of those nutrients. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.02 Compare the Daily Values to the Dietary Reference Intakes and explain how they are used on Nutrition Facts panels. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 14) The reference calorie intake for calculating percent Daily Values on Nutrition Facts labels is . A) 1500 kcal B) 2000 kcal C) 2300 kcal D) 3000 kcal Answer: B Explanation: Nutrition Facts label values are based on a 2000 kcal diet. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.02 Compare the Daily Values to the Dietary Reference Intakes and explain how they are used on Nutrition Facts panels. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

15) Which dietary standard value varies with calorie intake? A) Fat B) Vitamin C C) Calcium D) Iron Answer: A Explanation: Fat recommendations vary with caloric intake. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.02 Compare the Daily Values to the Dietary Reference Intakes and explain how they are used on Nutrition Facts panels. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 16) Which is required on all food packages? A) Name and address of the food manufacturer B) Date and time of processing C) Expiration date D) Percent Daily Value for protein Answer: A Explanation: Name/address of food manufacturer are required on a food package. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.03 Describe Nutrition Facts panels and the claims permitted on food packages. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

17) If a can of soup provides 4 servings and has 100 kcal per serving, how many kcal are in the entire can? A) 100 B) 200 C) 400 D) 800 Answer: C Explanation: 100 kcal/serving × 4 servings/can = 400 kcal/can Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.03 Describe Nutrition Facts panels and the claims permitted on food packages. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 18) Food components that MUST be listed on the Nutrition Facts panel include A) sugars, dietary fiber, and fluoride B) sugars, dietary fiber, and calcium C) sugars, dietary fiber, and monounsaturated fat D) sugars, calcium, and B-vitamins

Answer: B Explanation: Sugars, dietary fiber, and calcium are all required on the current food label. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.03 Describe Nutrition Facts panels and the claims permitted on food packages. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

19) Which of the following claims are least closely regulated by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)? A) Health claims B) Structure/function claims C) Nutrient content claims D) Nutrition Facts Panel Answer: B Explanation: Health claims, nutrient content claims and Nutrition Facts Panel are more strongly regulated by the FDA. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.03 Describe Nutrition Facts panels and the claims permitted on food packages. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 20) To be defined as a "good" source of calcium, a food must contain A) at least 5% of the Daily Value for calcium in 1 serving of the food B) at least 10% of the Daily Value for calcium in 1 serving of the food C) at least 50% of the Daily Value for calcium in 1 serving of the food D) at least 50% of the Daily Value for calcium in 2 servings of the food

Answer: B Explanation: A "Good" source is defined by "at least 10% of the DV for that nutrient in 1 serving". Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.03 Describe Nutrition Facts panels and the claims permitted on food packages. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

21) When vitamins and/or minerals are added to a food product in amounts in excess of at least 10% above that originally present in the product, the food is designated as . A) light or lite B) organic C) imitation D) fortified Answer: D Explanation: Fortified foods have at least 10% more of a nutrient than originally present in that product. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.03 Describe Nutrition Facts panels and the claims permitted on food packages. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 22) Which is NOT a permitted health claim? A) Diets with enough calcium may reduce risk of osteoporosis. B) Diets low in sugar may reduce the risk of cancer. C) Diets low in saturated fat and cholesterol may reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. D) None of these responses are permitted. Answer: B Explanation: "Diets low in sugar may reduce the risk of cancer" is not a definitively proved statement and not a permitted health claim. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.03 Describe Nutrition Facts panels and the claims permitted on food packages. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

23) What type of claim is "calcium builds strong bones and teeth"? A) Structure/function claim B) Health claim C) Nutrient claim D) Preliminary health claim Answer: A Explanation: "Calcium builds strong bones and teeth" is a structure/function claim because it explains how a nutrient effects the body. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.03 Describe Nutrition Facts panels and the claims permitted on food packages. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 24) For a health claim to be made about a food product, it must NOT contain more than A) 19 g fat B) 70% carbohydrate C) 4 g saturated fat D) 120 mg cholesterol E) All of these choices are correct. Answer: C Explanation: A product with a health claim cannot contain more than 4 g sat fat. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.03 Describe Nutrition Facts panels and the claims permitted on food packages. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

25) Factors that affect the amount of nutrients in foods include A) farming conditions B) ripeness of plants when harvested C) cooking processes D) length of time food is stored E) All of these factors affect nutrient content of foods.

Answer: E Explanation: All of the listed factors affect nutrient content. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.04 Describe the uses and limitations of the data in nutrient databases. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 26) By definition, energy-dense foods are ALL A) high in calories B) high in water C) high in fiber D) high in volume

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.03 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.04 Describe the uses and limitations of the data in nutrient databases. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 27) Nutrient databases can be used to determine . A) a food's energy density B) a food's nutrient density C) the nutrient content of your diet D) the nutrient content of the foods in a recipe E) All of these responses are appropriate uses of nutrient databases. Answer: E Explanation: All responses are correct. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.03 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.04 Describe the uses and limitations of the data in nutrient databases. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 13 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

28) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are designed to reduce the risk of A) cancer B) cardiovascular disease C) obesity D) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: D Explanation: All responses are correct. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.05 Discuss the Dietary Guidelines for Americans and the diseases they are intended to prevent or minimize. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 29) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans . A) provide a scientific basis for USDA's school lunch program B) provide a scientific basis for the Food Stamp Program C) are designed to reduce the risk of "killer" diseases D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: D Explanation: All responses are correct. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.05 Discuss the Dietary Guidelines for Americans and the diseases they are intended to prevent or minimize. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

30) According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, those who consume alcoholic beverages should do so in moderation. Which of the following statements is true? A) A moderate intake is 1 or fewer servings per day for women. B) Beer is not considered an alcoholic beverage because it is mostly water. C) An average serving of red wine is 1.6 ounces per glass. D) To be considered an alcoholic beverage, distilled spirits must be at least 180 proof. Answer: A Explanation: One alcoholic drink per day is the definition of moderation for women. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment; Alcohol Learning Objective: 02.05 Discuss the Dietary Guidelines for Americans and the diseases they are intended to prevent or minimize. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 31) Which government agency publishes the Dietary Guidelines for Americans? A) USDA B) USDHHS C) FDA D) USDA and USDHHS E) FDA and USDA Answer: D Explanation: USDA and DHHS publish the DGAs every 5 years. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.05 Discuss the Dietary Guidelines for Americans and the diseases they are intended to prevent or minimize. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

32) MyPlate groups foods into A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

major categories.

Answer: D Explanation: MyPlate has 5 categories: fruit, vegetable, protein, grain, and dairy. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.05 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.06 Discuss the MyPlate food groupings and plan a diet using this tool. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 33) Which of the following is a key behavior emphasized in MyPlate? A) Balancing calories B) Foods to increase C) Foods to reduce D) All of these responses are correct Answer: D Explanation: MyPlate emphasizes areas including all responses listed. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.05 Discuss the Dietary Guidelines for Americans and the diseases they are intended to prevent or minimize. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

34) According to MyPlate, a mini bagel would represent group. A) 0.50 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4

ounce(s) from the grains

Answer: B Explanation: A small bagel would be 1 portion/1 ounce. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.05 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.06 Discuss the MyPlate food groupings and plan a diet using this tool. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 35) Two cups of plain lettuce salad would equal a serving from which MyPlate food group? A) Protein B) Diary C) Vegetable D) Grain Answer: C Explanation: Lettuce is a vegetable and 1 serving includes 2 cups leafy vegetables. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.05 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.06 Discuss the MyPlate food groupings and plan a diet using this tool. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

36) MyPlate includes which food group? A) Dairy B) Vegetables C) Protein D) Fruits E) All of the responses are correct Answer: E Explanation: MyPlate groups include all those listed. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.05 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.06 Discuss the MyPlate food groupings and plan a diet using this tool. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 37) What eating behavior does MyPlate specifically encourage? A) Make half your plate vegetables. B) Make half your plate grains. C) Make at least half your grains whole grains. D) Add in more empty-calorie foods. Answer: C Explanation: "Make at least half your grains whole grains" is a specific recommendation of MyPlate. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.05 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.06 Discuss the MyPlate food groupings and plan a diet using this tool. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

38) What counts as one serving in the dairy group? A) 1 cup of ice cream B) 1 cup of yogurt C) 1 cup of cottage cheese D) 1 cup grated cheese Answer: B Explanation: One cup of yogurt or milk is 1 serving of dairy. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.05 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.06 Discuss the MyPlate food groupings and plan a diet using this tool. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 39) According to MyPlate, four ounces of processed cheese equals Dairy group. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

serving(s) from the

Answer: B Explanation: Two ounces of cheese is 1 serving from the Dairy group. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.05 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.06 Discuss the MyPlate food groupings and plan a diet using this tool. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 40) Which nutrient is contributed by the fruit group of MyPlate? A) calcium B) folate C) zinc D) protein Answer: B Explanation: Fruit provides a source of folate. Calcium, zinc and protein are not in fruit. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.05 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.06 Discuss the MyPlate food groupings and plan a diet using this tool. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 19 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

41) Which nutrient is best contributed by the protein foods group of MyPlate? A) iron B) folate C) vitamin C D) vitamin A Answer: A Explanation: Iron is found in many protein-rich foods. Vitamin C, vitamin A, and folate are generally plant-based. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.05 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.06 Discuss the MyPlate food groupings and plan a diet using this tool. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 42) The MyPlate vegetable group is divided into which subgroups? A) Starchy vegetables, red and orange vegetables, and dark green vegetables B) Dark green vegetables and other vegetables C) Other vegetables, starchy vegetables, and red and yellow vegetables D) Dark green vegetables, orange vegetables, starchy vegetables, beans and peas, and other vegetables Answer: D Explanation: Vegetables groups is further divided into subgroups as listed. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.05 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.06 Discuss the MyPlate food groupings and plan a diet using this tool. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

43) Reading food labels helps consumers . A) identify amounts of salt or sodium in the product B) determine the sugar content of the product C) determine amount and kind of fat in the product D) choose foods with dietary fiber E) All of these responses are correct. Answer: E Explanation: All responses are correct. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.06 Discuss the MyPlate food groupings and plan a diet using this tool. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 44) Mandatory labeling of foods is regulated by the A) USDHHS B) FTC C) FDA D) GAO

Answer: C Explanation: The FDA regulates mandatory labeling. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.03 Describe Nutrition Facts panels and the claims permitted on food packages. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

45) Labeling laws require that ingredients in food products be listed on the container in descending order of their . A) calories B) nutrient density C) weight D) cost Answer: C Explanation: Food ingredients must be listed on the label by descending weight. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.03 Describe Nutrition Facts panels and the claims permitted on food packages. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 46) Under the current law on nutrition labeling, the Nutrition Facts panel must include A) total calories from fat B) total calories from trans fat C) total calories from saturated fat D) grams of monounsaturated fat Answer: A Explanation: Total calories from fat is required on the Nutrition Facts Label. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: Food and supplement labeling Learning Objective: 02.03 Describe Nutrition Facts panels and the claims permitted on food packages. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

47) If a group of people consumed an amount of protein equal to the estimated average requirement for their life stage, what percentage would receive insufficient amounts? A) 2 B) 33 C) 50 D) 98 Answer: C Explanation: EAR represents average nutrient needs and not meant to use for individuals. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.01 Topic: Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 02.01 Explain the purpose of the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) and its components (Estimated Average Requirements, Recommended Dietary Allowances, Adequate Intakes, Upper Levels, Estimated Energy Requirements, and Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges). Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 48) What measure best describes the amounts of nutrients that should be consumed by the population? A) The Dietary Reference Intakes because they are a set of nutrient intake values for healthy people B) The Tolerable Upper Intake levels because they are the maximum daily amount of a nutrient needed that is safe for most healthy people C) The Estimated Average Requirements because they reflect the average daily amount of a nutrient that will maintain a specific function in half of the healthy people of a population D) The Recommended Dietary Allowances because they represent the daily amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of nearly all healthy people Answer: D Explanation: RDAs are meant to be extrapolated to the population. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.01 Topic: Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 02.02 Compare the Daily Values to the Dietary Reference Intakes and explain how they are used on Nutrition Facts panels. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

49) If a person consumed 35% of a diet providing 2500 kcalories from protein, approximately how many grams of protein would be ingested? A) 48 B) 67 C) 165 D) 219 Answer: D Explanation: 2500 kcal × 0.35 = 875 / 4 kcal/gram = 219 grams Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.01 Topic: Dietary requirements; Nutrition computations Learning Objective: 02.01 Explain the purpose of the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) and its components (Estimated Average Requirements, Recommended Dietary Allowances, Adequate Intakes, Upper Levels, Estimated Energy Requirements, and Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges). Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 50) Which of the following meals represents the most nutrient-dense meal? A) medium apple, fat-free milk, turkey sandwich on whole grain bread, carrot slices B) graham crackers, fruit punch, salami sandwich on white bread, vegetable soup C) banana, pretzels with peanut butter, chicken breast wrap sandwich, diet soft drink D) chocolate chip cookies, low-fat cheese slices on rice cakes, whole milk, peanuts Answer: A Explanation: All of the items listed in this response have nutrient density. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.01 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.07 Develop a healthy eating plan based on the concepts of variety, balance, moderation, nutrient density, and energy density. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute

51) Which of the following represents the most energy-dense meal? A) broiled fish, watermelon, green beans, water B) whole milk, peanut butter and jelly sandwich on white bread, tortilla chips C) broccoli, chicken broth, strawberries, fat-free milk D) light cream cheese on a mini bagel, vegetable soup, kiwi, salad and lemon juice dressing Answer: B Explanation: The items listed in this response are all energy dense and contain the most relative calories. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.01 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.07 Develop a healthy eating plan based on the concepts of variety, balance, moderation, nutrient density, and energy density. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 52) If anticipated results are not seen after implementing various dietary changes, what is likely the recommended next step? A) Add extra meals to the diet. B) Seek the help of a registered dietician/nutritionist or physician. C) Add in supplements. D) Limit nutrient intake. Answer: B Explanation: A health care professional is likely to offer the best advice after initial attempts fail. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.04 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.04 Describe the uses and limitations of the data in nutrient databases. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

53) A food label that advertises the product as a "rich source of fiber" is an example of a(n) A) Health claim B) Structure/function claim C) Nutrient claim D) Obesity prevention claim Answer: C Explanation: A nutrient claim describes the nutrient(s) in the food. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.02 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.03 Describe Nutrition Facts panels and the claims permitted on food packages. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 54) Which program on MyPlate would you use if you were looking for tips on planning healthy food choices to meet individual goals? A) The SuperTracker B) My Food-a-pedia C) The Daily Food Plan Answer: C Explanation: The Daily Food Plan tool offer health tips for the public to use. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.05 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.06 Discuss the MyPlate food groupings and plan a diet using this tool. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 55) The allotment for maximum sugar per day: A) is the same for all calorie ranges B) increases as calorie load increases C) decreases as calorie load increases D) is not addressed in the most recent Dietary Guidelines for Americans Answer: B Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.05 Topic: Nutrition monitoring and assessment Learning Objective: 02.06 Discuss the MyPlate food groupings and plan a diet using this tool. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 26 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

3) The U.S. government assistance program that provides vouchers for food purchases to lowincome pregnant women, infants, and children is . A) the Food Stamp Program B) the WIC program C) the food distribution program D) America's Second Harvest 4) The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) benefits A) only low-income women, infants, and children B) poor households that meet eligibility guidelines C) food banks and pantries in communities across the country D) seniors in adult day-care settings

5) The U.S. government agency that administers most food and nutrition assistance programs is the . A) Food and Drug Administration B) United States Department of Agriculture C) Department of Health and Human Services D) Environmental Protection Agency 6) The most common micronutrient deficiencies seen in developing countries are A) vitamin C, vitamin A, and iron B) iron, vitamin D, and calcium C) vitamin C, calcium, and iron D) vitamin A, iron, and iodine

7) The proportion of underweight children worldwide is approximately: A) 46% B) 26% C) 16% D) 6% 8) Populations disproportionately affected by food insecurity, hunger, and malnutrition include . A) young children and women B) working adults C) teenagers D) All of the responses are correct. 9) Which of the following food production methods is NOT allowed with organic foods? A) Use of synthetic fertilizers B) Use of hormones for animals C) Use of genetic engineering D) All of these choices are accurate. 10) A breakfast cereal labeled as organic must . A) have at least 70% of its ingredients meet organic standards B) have at least 95% of its ingredients meet organic standards C) be made from all natural ingredients D) contain no food additives 11) Common genetically engineered crops in the U.S. include A) soybeans, corn, and cotton B) green beans, peas, and tomatoes C) rice, wheat, and carrots D) legumes, wheat, and corn 12) Recombinant bovine somatotropin is used by some farmers to A) prevent skin infections in cattle B) increase milk production in dairy cows C) prevent mastitis (inflammation of cow udders) D) increase the amount of protein found in milk 13) Bt corn contains a protein produced by a bacterial gene. This protein A) increases the vitamin A content of the corn B) increases the protein content of the corn C) is a pesticide that kills caterpillars, a major threat to corn D) allows the corn to be tolerant to weed killers

14) The most common application of genetic engineering of foods is to A) produce meat with a lower fat content B) confer resistance to pesticides applied to kill weeds and insects C) improve vitamin A content of foods D) reduce the need for irrigation of crops

15) Which of the following statements about food irradiation is true? A) Irradiated food is radioactive. B) Irradiation can be used to destroy pathogens in foods. C) All foods in the U.S. can be legally irradiated. D) Labels that identify a food as irradiated are not required. 16) The food additives that inhibit the growth of the pathogen Clostridium botulinum are . A) sodium nitrate and sodium nitrite B) monosodium glutamate and guanosine monophosphate C) pectin and guar gum D) calcium silicate and magnesium stearate 17) An example of an incidental food additive in our food supply is . A) any additive that is a synthetic additive B) any color additive because their use is not for purposes of food safety C) bisphenol A (BPA), used to increase durability of some food and beverage containers D) monosodium glutamate, because it can also be found naturally in foods 18) Food additives are regulated by the A) United States Department of Agriculture B) Food and Drug Administration C) Environmental Protection Agency D) All of these choices are accurate.

19) Food additives, such as calcium propionate, sodium nitrate, and acetic acid, act to A) inhibit the growth of molds, fungi, and bacteria in foods B) keep foods, especially powdered mixes, free flowing C) contribute leavening gases to improve texture in baked products D) add savory flavor to foods such as soup, rice, and noodle mixes 20) FDA has limited the use of sulfites on raw vegetables and in salad bars because they . A) impart an unpleasant taste to the food B) cause adverse reactions such as shortness of breath or gastrointestinal symptoms in some individuals C) are known to promote cancer D) are used to mask the flavor of spoiled produce

21) Cross-contamination of food occurs when . A) two or more microorganisms grow in the same food B) two or more food handlers work on the same food C) a utensil contaminated with a microorganism from a previously handled food contacts a second food D) perishable foods are kept at room temperature for more than 2 hours 22) and are among the most common bacterial pathogens in the U.S. A) Shigella species, Staphylococcus aureus B) Campylobacter jejuni, Salmonella species C) Clostridium botulinum, Escherichia coli D) Vibrio vulnificus, Vibrio cholerae 23) Perishable foods should be held either below A) 32, 98 B) 51, 75 C) 181, 212 D) 41, 135

°F or above

24) The temperature danger zone for growth of pathogenic bacteria is A) 32-165°F B) 60-165°F C) 41-135°F D) 135-212°F 25) Coughing and sneezing on foods can allow A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Vibrio cholerae C) Clostridium botulinum D) hepatitis A

°F.

to contaminate the food.

26) Foods commonly contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus include A) ham and poultry B) cream-filled pastries C) egg and chicken salads D) All of these choices are accurate.

27) Improper canning of foods can result in serious foodborne illness caused by the bacterium. A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella C) Clostridium botulinum D) Listeria monocytogenes

28) The bacterium grows only in anaerobic environments. A) Escherichia coli B) Vibrio parahemolyticus C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Clostridium botulinum 29) can grow at refrigeration temperatures. A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella C) Clostridium botulinum D) Listeria monocytogenes 30) Foods that are most likely to be contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes include . A) soft cheeses and deli meats B) undercooked shellfish and water C) gravy and beef D) raw produce and eggs 31) This virus, often transmitted by infected food handlers, causes anorexia, diarrhea, fever, and liver damage. A) Norwalk virus B) Salmonella C) Hepatitis A D) Trichinella spiralis 32) Typical food sources for this parasite are wild game and pork. A) Toxoplasma gondii B) Trichinella spiralis C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Aflatoxin 33) The parasite can be spread in water supplies, water parks, and community swimming pools. A) hepatitis A B) Yersinia enterocolitica C) Toxoplasma gondii D) Cryptosporidium 34) Prions are . A) bacteria that can cause seizures and brain damage B) naturally occurring toxins formed in damaged grains and nuts C) infectious proteins associated with mad cow disease D) toxins produced in a variety of seafood

35) Mad cow disease . A) causes a fatal brain disease in cows B) is very common in the U.S. and Canada C) is caused by a parasite found in animal feed D) is easily transmitted to humans 36) Ingesting moldy food can cause disease because the mold A) invades the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract, causing diarrhea B) produces toxins that can cause kidney and liver damage C) prevents the food from being properly digested and absorbed D) produces proteins that destroy vitamins before they are absorbed 37) The dangerous aflatoxin is most likely to be found in A) moldy cheese and bread B) spoiled fruits and vegetables C) moldy peanuts and corn D) All of the responses are correct.

38) Fish and shellfish most likely to be contaminated with toxins include A) salmon and trout B) cod and haddock C) mussels and clams D) prawns and shrimp E) All of the answers are correct.

39) Sources of the ciguatera toxin that can cause gastrointestinal and neurological symptoms include . A) nutmeg, sassafras, and mace B) mushrooms and some herbal teas C) shellfish, such as mussels and clams D) tropical and subtropical fish, such as snapper and amberjack 40) In the U.S., the mandates that public water supplies be monitored regularly for microorganisms, chemicals, and various metals. A) local health department B) Environmental Protection Agency C) Food and Drug Administration D) United States Department of Agriculture 41) The last food(s) to buy when shopping in the supermarket should be A) fresh fruits and vegetables B) bread C) frozen foods D) raw poultry and eggs

in warm, soapy water before starting any food preparation.

44) Which of the following is a current food safety recommendation? A) Scrub firm produce, such as melons, under running water with a brush before slicing it. B) Clean all produce with specialized antibacterial washing products. C) Egg dishes should be cooked to a temperature of 140 degrees F. D) Avoid using wooden cutting boards. 45) To prevent foodborne illness, cooked food should be consumed right away or refrigerated or frozen within hour(s). A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 46) In general, cooking poultry and ground meat to organisms. A) 125 B) 135 C) 165 D) 85

°F is sufficient to kill pathogenic

47) Most traveler's diarrhea is caused by . A) ingesting unfamiliar spices B) parasites, especially Cryptosporidium, in the water supply C) viruses, such as hepatitis A, spread by food handlers D) bacterial infections, especially Shigella dysenteriae, from contaminated food and water 48) Sources of the heavy metal lead include A) water pipes and paint in older homes B) certain pottery and crystal food containers C) mineral and herbal supplements D) All of the answers are correct.

49) A healthy diet with plenty of A) protein B) vitamin C C) iron D) potassium

may reduce lead absorption in children.

50) The food most likely to be contaminated with dioxins, mercury, and/or polychlorinated biphenyls is . A) imported candy B) milk and other dairy products C) grain that has been stored for several months D) fish 51) Fish most likely to contain methylmercury are A) large fish, such as shark and swordfish B) shellfish C) farm-raised fish D) freshwater fish

52) Current guidelines for limiting fish to reduce methylmercury ingestion pertain to A) all persons B) pregnant, breastfeeding women, and young children C) immunosuppressed individuals only D) the elderly 53) Foods most likely to include pesticide residues are A) fruits and vegetables B) meats C) fish and shellfish D) grain products

54) Individuals who are most susceptible to adverse effects from pesticides are A) the elderly B) those who have chronic diseases C) infants and young children D) adolescents and young adults

55) A pesticide tolerance is the . A) toxicity of the pesticide in the laboratory B) number of pests that are killed by a selected dose of the pesticide C) amount of a pesticide that can be applied to a food and how much of the pesticide that is permitted to remain on the food in the marketplace D) ability of the liver to detoxify a pesticide

56) According to the Centers for Disease Control, in the U.S., the consumption of beef is a major risk factor for developing variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. 57) Public water supplies in the U.S. are a major source of infection and disease. 58) All food additives in the U.S. food supply have been thoroughly tested for safety. 59) Most foodborne illnesses are typically immediately diagnosed and treated. 60) In the U.S., food labels must indicate the presence of irradiated ingredients, except for dried seasonings. 61) Bottled water is generally safer than tap water in the U.S. 62) Thawing foods, such as chicken, on the counter overnight is a safe food handling practice. 63) Although pesticides cannot be applied to organic foods, pesticide residues may still occasionally be found on these foods. 64) Antibiotics to promote growth or prevent diseases are allowed in organically produced animals. 65) The majority of antibiotics used in the U.S. are for food animals. 66) Compared to conventionally grown fruits and vegetables, those grown with organic farming methods contain significantly higher amounts of vitamins and minerals. 67) Fully meeting vitamin and mineral requirements is best done by consuming only organic foods.

Match the term with its definition. A) Bacterium that lives in intestines of animals and humans; the consumption of undercooked eggs causes about 20% of cases B) Undercooked poultry and unpasteurized milk are sources of these bacterium. One of the leading causes of foodborne illness in the U.S. C) Anaerobic bacterium that usually causes abdominal pain and diarrhea lasting 1 day or less D) Anaerobic bacterium that produces a neurotoxin that causes muscle weakness and paralysis; can be fatal E) Bacterium that can cause premature birth and stillbirth 68) Clostridium botulinum 69) Listeria monocytogenes 70) Salmonella species 71) Campylobacter jejuni 72) Clostridium perfringens Match the term with its description. A) Used to promote growth in food animals B) By-product of various industrial processes; fish from contaminated waterways are a major source C) Products applied to agricultural products to eliminate insects, weeds, fungus, molds, and rodents D) Causes nerve damage, poor learning, and birth defects. To limit ingestion of this compound, children and pregnant and breastfeeding women are advised to avoid or limit their consumption of certain types of fish. E) A major source is from paint dust in older homes but mineral supplements and some imported foods may also be contaminated 73) Methylmercury 74) Pesticides 75) Antibiotics 76) Lead 77) Dioxins

Match the term with its description. A) A toxin found in improperly prepared pufferfish B) Parasite found in water or contaminated food C) A toxin produced by a mold D) Parasite found in raw or undercooked fish E) A parasite that causes illness lasting weeks to months. Wild game is a source. 78) Tetrodotoxin 79) Cyclospora cayetanensis 80) Anisakis 81) Trichinella spiralis 82) Mycotoxin

83) List and briefly describe 5 steps consumers can take in their homes to prevent foodborne illness. 84) List 4 steps that travelers to developing countries can take to prevent traveler's diarrhea. 85) Describe why inadequate food and nutrients can lead to disease and death, particularly in children. 86) Compare a food secure household to one with very low food security. 87) List 3 programs that may help a low-income family with children remain food secure. 88) Describe 3 physical signs or symptoms of chronic food insecurity in children. 89) Compare and contrast a genetically modified food and a conventional food. 90) Name 3 foods that are likely to be genetically modified in the U.S. 91) Describe and evaluate 3 objections to the use of genetically modified foods. 92) List 4 approved uses of food additives. For each use, give an example of a common food that contains the additive. 93) How do intentional food additives differ from incidental food additives? Give an example of each.

94) Which of the following is generally NOT a consumer concern about GM foods? A) Loss of genetic diversity B) Development of Bt-resistant insects C) Hyperactivity in children D) Addition of allergens to GM foods 95) Cloned animals are . A) genetically unique B) not genetically modified C) common in our food supply D) approved for use by the USDA 96) Which of the following is a food additive that breaks down macronutrients found in foods? A) Enzyme B) Anticaking agent C) Leavening agent D) Stabilizer 97) Why is sodium nitrite allowed to be used as a food additive? A) It is generally recognized as safe. B) It helps to prevent the growth of Clostridium botulinum. C) There is not enough credible research confirming the conversion of sodium nitrite to the carcinogenic agent nitrosamine. D) All choices are correct. 98) When a slice of fresh apple turns a brown color, this is most likely the result of A) oxidation B) dehydration C) microbial contamination D) treatment in the ripening process

99) Which of the following agency would be most appropriate to contact if you felt a local restaurant was not handling their food safely? A) Environmental Protection Agency B) State and local government C) Food and Drug Administration D) U.S. Department of Agriculture 100) Which of the following is true about bisphenol A (BPA): A) BPA is a food additive used to increase shelf life of canned foods. B) Almost all individuals in the U.S. consume BPA and excrete it in their urine. C) BPA is not considered a threat during fetal development. D) The FDA has banned use of BPA.

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 3 The Food Supply 1) Food insecurity is . A) the inability to meet food needs all of the time B) more common in developing countries than in developed countries C) associated with impaired physical and mental health in children in the U.S. D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Explanation: All responses describe food insecurity. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.01 Topic: Hunger and food insecurity Learning Objective: 03.01 Describe the health consequences of malnutrition and food insecurity for children and adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) The percentage of U.S. households considered food insecure is A) 3 B) 13 C) 23 D) 73

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.01 Topic: Demographic trends and statistics Learning Objective: 03.01 Describe the health consequences of malnutrition and food insecurity for children and adults. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

3) The U.S. government assistance program that provides vouchers for food purchases to low-income pregnant women, infants, and children is . A) the Food Stamp Program B) the WIC program C) the food distribution program D) America's Second Harvest Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.01 Topic: Community nutrition services Learning Objective: 03.03 Describe the major U.S. government programs designed to increase food security. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 4) The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) benefits A) only low-income women, infants, and children B) poor households that meet eligibility guidelines C) food banks and pantries in communities across the country D) seniors in adult day-care settings

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.01 Topic: Community nutrition services Learning Objective: 03.01 Describe the health consequences of malnutrition and food insecurity for children and adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) The U.S. government agency that administers most food and nutrition assistance programs is the . A) Food and Drug Administration B) United States Department of Agriculture C) Department of Health and Human Services D) Environmental Protection Agency Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.01 Topic: Community nutrition services Learning Objective: 03.01 Describe the health consequences of malnutrition and food insecurity for children and adults. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

6) The most common micronutrient deficiencies seen in developing countries are A) vitamin C, vitamin A, and iron B) iron, vitamin D, and calcium C) vitamin C, calcium, and iron D) vitamin A, iron, and iodine

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.01 Topic: Demographic trends and statistics Learning Objective: 03.01 Describe the health consequences of malnutrition and food insecurity for children and adults. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 7) The proportion of underweight children worldwide is approximately: A) 46% B) 26% C) 16% D) 6% Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.01 Topic: Demographic trends and statistics Learning Objective: 03.01 Describe the health consequences of malnutrition and food insecurity for children and adults. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) Populations disproportionately affected by food insecurity, hunger, and malnutrition include . A) young children and women B) working adults C) teenagers D) All of the responses are correct. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.01 Topic: Demographic trends and statistics; Hunger and food insecurity Learning Objective: 03.01 Describe the health consequences of malnutrition and food insecurity for children and adults. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 3 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

9) Which of the following food production methods is NOT allowed with organic foods? A) Use of synthetic fertilizers B) Use of hormones for animals C) Use of genetic engineering D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.02 Topic: Food production choices Learning Objective: 03.04 Describe how organic foods differ from conventionally produced foods and their potential benefits. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 10) A breakfast cereal labeled as organic must . A) have at least 70% of its ingredients meet organic standards B) have at least 95% of its ingredients meet organic standards C) be made from all natural ingredients D) contain no food additives Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.02 Topic: Food production choices Learning Objective: 03.04 Describe how organic foods differ from conventionally produced foods and their potential benefits. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

11) Common genetically engineered crops in the U.S. include A) soybeans, corn, and cotton B) green beans, peas, and tomatoes C) rice, wheat, and carrots D) legumes, wheat, and corn

Answer: A Explanation: Worldwide, 70 to 80% of soybeans and cotton and 24 to 32% of canola and corn are grown from genetically modified seeds. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.02 Topic: Food production choices; Biotechnology Learning Objective: 03.05 Discuss how genetic engineering is used in foods and the potential risks and benefits of genetically modifying foods. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 12) Recombinant bovine somatotropin is used by some farmers to A) prevent skin infections in cattle B) increase milk production in dairy cows C) prevent mastitis (inflammation of cow udders) D) increase the amount of protein found in milk

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.02 Topic: Food production choices; Biotechnology Learning Objective: 03.05 Discuss how genetic engineering is used in foods and the potential risks and benefits of genetically modifying foods. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 13) Bt corn contains a protein produced by a bacterial gene. This protein A) increases the vitamin A content of the corn B) increases the protein content of the corn C) is a pesticide that kills caterpillars, a major threat to corn D) allows the corn to be tolerant to weed killers

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.02 Topic: Food production choices; Biotechnology Learning Objective: 03.05 Discuss how genetic engineering is used in foods and the potential risks and benefits of genetically modifying foods. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Answer: B Explanation: Genetic engineering is used primarily to confer herbicide tolerance and/or insect resistance. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.02 Topic: Food production choices; Biotechnology Learning Objective: 03.05 Discuss how genetic engineering is used in foods and the potential risks and benefits of genetically modifying foods. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 15) Which of the following statements about food irradiation is true? A) Irradiated food is radioactive. B) Irradiation can be used to destroy pathogens in foods. C) All foods in the U.S. can be legally irradiated. D) Labels that identify a food as irradiated are not required. Answer: B Explanation: Irradiation is a safe method to destroy pathogens in foods. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.03 Topic: Food preservation Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

16) The food additives that inhibit the growth of the pathogen Clostridium botulinum are . A) sodium nitrate and sodium nitrite B) monosodium glutamate and guanosine monophosphate C) pectin and guar gum D) calcium silicate and magnesium stearate Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.03 Topic: Food additives; Food preservation Learning Objective: 03.06 Describe why food additives are used in most processed foods and potential concerns about their use. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 17) An example of an incidental food additive in our food supply is . A) any additive that is a synthetic additive B) any color additive because their use is not for purposes of food safety C) bisphenol A (BPA), used to increase durability of some food and beverage containers D) monosodium glutamate, because it can also be found naturally in foods Answer: C Explanation: Incidental additives (like BPA) are not intentionally added but become part of a food through some aspect of food cultivation, processing, packaging, transport, or storage. They have no function in finished products and their presence is not indicated on food ingredient labels. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.03 Topic: Food additives; Food preservation Learning Objective: 03.06 Describe why food additives are used in most processed foods and potential concerns about their use. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

18) Food additives are regulated by the A) United States Department of Agriculture B) Food and Drug Administration C) Environmental Protection Agency D) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.03 Topic: Food additives Learning Objective: 03.06 Describe why food additives are used in most processed foods and potential concerns about their use. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 19) Food additives, such as calcium propionate, sodium nitrate, and acetic acid, act to A) inhibit the growth of molds, fungi, and bacteria in foods B) keep foods, especially powdered mixes, free flowing C) contribute leavening gases to improve texture in baked products D) add savory flavor to foods such as soup, rice, and noodle mixes Answer: A Explanation: The additives listed are listed in the text as antimicrobial agents. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.03 Topic: Food additives; Food preservation Learning Objective: 03.06 Describe why food additives are used in most processed foods and potential concerns about their use. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

20) FDA has limited the use of sulfites on raw vegetables and in salad bars because they A) impart an unpleasant taste to the food B) cause adverse reactions such as shortness of breath or gastrointestinal symptoms in some individuals C) are known to promote cancer D) are used to mask the flavor of spoiled produce

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.03 Topic: Food additives; Food preservation Learning Objective: 03.06 Describe why food additives are used in most processed foods and potential concerns about their use. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 21) Cross-contamination of food occurs when . A) two or more microorganisms grow in the same food B) two or more food handlers work on the same food C) a utensil contaminated with a microorganism from a previously handled food contacts a second food D) perishable foods are kept at room temperature for more than 2 hours Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

22) and are among the most common bacterial pathogens in the U.S. A) Shigella species, Staphylococcus aureus B) Campylobacter jejuni, Salmonella species C) Clostridium botulinum, Escherichia coli D) Vibrio vulnificus, Vibrio cholerae Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 23) Perishable foods should be held either below A) 32, 98 B) 51, 75 C) 181, 212 D) 41, 135

°F or above

°F.

Answer: D Explanation: The range of temperatures is classified as the "danger zone". Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 24) The temperature danger zone for growth of pathogenic bacteria is A) 32-165°F B) 60-165°F C) 41-135°F D) 135-212°F

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 10 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

25) Coughing and sneezing on foods can allow A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Vibrio cholerae C) Clostridium botulinum D) hepatitis A

to contaminate the food.

Answer: A Explanation: Staph aureus is found on skin and in nasal passages of up to 50% of population. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices; Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 26) Foods commonly contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus include A) ham and poultry B) cream-filled pastries C) egg and chicken salads D) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

27) Improper canning of foods can result in serious foodborne illness caused by the bacterium. A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella C) Clostridium botulinum D) Listeria monocytogenes Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices; Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 28) The bacterium grows only in anaerobic environments. A) Escherichia coli B) Vibrio parahemolyticus C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Clostridium botulinum Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 29) can grow at refrigeration temperatures. A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella C) Clostridium botulinum D) Listeria monocytogenes Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 12 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

30) Foods that are most likely to be contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes include A) soft cheeses and deli meats B) undercooked shellfish and water C) gravy and beef D) raw produce and eggs Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 31) This virus, often transmitted by infected food handlers, causes anorexia, diarrhea, fever, and liver damage. A) Norwalk virus B) Salmonella C) Hepatitis A D) Trichinella spiralis Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 32) Typical food sources for this parasite are wild game and pork. A) Toxoplasma gondii B) Trichinella spiralis C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Aflatoxin Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 13 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

33) The parasite can be spread in water supplies, water parks, and community swimming pools. A) hepatitis A B) Yersinia enterocolitica C) Toxoplasma gondii D) Cryptosporidium Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 34) Prions are . A) bacteria that can cause seizures and brain damage B) naturally occurring toxins formed in damaged grains and nuts C) infectious proteins associated with mad cow disease D) toxins produced in a variety of seafood Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 35) Mad cow disease . A) causes a fatal brain disease in cows B) is very common in the U.S. and Canada C) is caused by a parasite found in animal feed D) is easily transmitted to humans Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 14 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

36) Ingesting moldy food can cause disease because the mold A) invades the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract, causing diarrhea B) produces toxins that can cause kidney and liver damage C) prevents the food from being properly digested and absorbed D) produces proteins that destroy vitamins before they are absorbed

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 37) The dangerous aflatoxin is most likely to be found in A) moldy cheese and bread B) spoiled fruits and vegetables C) moldy peanuts and corn D) All of the responses are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

38) Fish and shellfish most likely to be contaminated with toxins include A) salmon and trout B) cod and haddock C) mussels and clams D) prawns and shrimp E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 39) Sources of the ciguatera toxin that can cause gastrointestinal and neurological symptoms include . A) nutmeg, sassafras, and mace B) mushrooms and some herbal teas C) shellfish, such as mussels and clams D) tropical and subtropical fish, such as snapper and amberjack Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

40) In the U.S., the mandates that public water supplies be monitored regularly for microorganisms, chemicals, and various metals. A) local health department B) Environmental Protection Agency C) Food and Drug Administration D) United States Department of Agriculture Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 41) The last food(s) to buy when shopping in the supermarket should be A) fresh fruits and vegetables B) bread C) frozen foods D) raw poultry and eggs

Answer: D Explanation: Raw poultry and eggs should be purchased last so that they will be exposed to higher room temperature for the least amount of time until they can be refrigerated at home. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices; Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

42) Which of the following foods is least likely to cause a foodborne illness? A) Eggs, poultry, unpasteurized milk B) Raw sprouts and produce C) Bread, pasteurized milk, butter D) Deli meats, shellfish, and other seafood Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 43) Wash hands for at least A) 60 seconds B) 2 minutes C) 10 seconds D) 20 seconds

in warm, soapy water before starting any food preparation.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 44) Which of the following is a current food safety recommendation? A) Scrub firm produce, such as melons, under running water with a brush before slicing it. B) Clean all produce with specialized antibacterial washing products. C) Egg dishes should be cooked to a temperature of 140 degrees F. D) Avoid using wooden cutting boards. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

45) To prevent foodborne illness, cooked food should be consumed right away or refrigerated or frozen within hour(s). A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 46) In general, cooking poultry and ground meat to organisms. A) 125 B) 135 C) 165 D) 85

°F is sufficient to kill pathogenic

Answer: C Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 47) Most traveler's diarrhea is caused by . A) ingesting unfamiliar spices B) parasites, especially Cryptosporidium, in the water supply C) viruses, such as hepatitis A, spread by food handlers D) bacterial infections, especially Shigella dysenteriae, from contaminated food and water Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 19 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

48) Sources of the heavy metal lead include A) water pipes and paint in older homes B) certain pottery and crystal food containers C) mineral and herbal supplements D) All of the answers are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.05 Topic: Environmental contaminants Learning Objective: 03.09 Describe common environmental contaminants (heavy metals, industrial chemicals, pesticides, and antibiotics), their potential harmful effects, and how to reduce exposure to them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 49) A healthy diet with plenty of A) protein B) vitamin C C) iron D) potassium

may reduce lead absorption in children.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.05 Topic: Environmental contaminants; Public health and nutrition Learning Objective: 03.09 Describe common environmental contaminants (heavy metals, industrial chemicals, pesticides, and antibiotics), their potential harmful effects, and how to reduce exposure to them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

50) The food most likely to be contaminated with dioxins, mercury, and/or polychlorinated biphenyls is . A) imported candy B) milk and other dairy products C) grain that has been stored for several months D) fish Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.05 Topic: Environmental contaminants Learning Objective: 03.09 Describe common environmental contaminants (heavy metals, industrial chemicals, pesticides, and antibiotics), their potential harmful effects, and how to reduce exposure to them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 51) Fish most likely to contain methylmercury are A) large fish, such as shark and swordfish B) shellfish C) farm-raised fish D) freshwater fish

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.05 Topic: Environmental contaminants Learning Objective: 03.09 Describe common environmental contaminants (heavy metals, industrial chemicals, pesticides, and antibiotics), their potential harmful effects, and how to reduce exposure to them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.05 Topic: Environmental contaminants Learning Objective: 03.09 Describe common environmental contaminants (heavy metals, industrial chemicals, pesticides, and antibiotics), their potential harmful effects, and how to reduce exposure to them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 53) Foods most likely to include pesticide residues are A) fruits and vegetables B) meats C) fish and shellfish D) grain products

Answer: A Explanation: Foods most likely to include pesticide residues are fruits and vegetables. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.05 Topic: Environmental contaminants Learning Objective: 03.09 Describe common environmental contaminants (heavy metals, industrial chemicals, pesticides, and antibiotics), their potential harmful effects, and how to reduce exposure to them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

54) Individuals who are most susceptible to adverse effects from pesticides are A) the elderly B) those who have chronic diseases C) infants and young children D) adolescents and young adults

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.05 Topic: Environmental contaminants Learning Objective: 03.09 Describe common environmental contaminants (heavy metals, industrial chemicals, pesticides, and antibiotics), their potential harmful effects, and how to reduce exposure to them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 55) A pesticide tolerance is the . A) toxicity of the pesticide in the laboratory B) number of pests that are killed by a selected dose of the pesticide C) amount of a pesticide that can be applied to a food and how much of the pesticide that is permitted to remain on the food in the marketplace D) ability of the liver to detoxify a pesticide Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.05 Topic: Environmental contaminants Learning Objective: 03.09 Describe common environmental contaminants (heavy metals, industrial chemicals, pesticides, and antibiotics), their potential harmful effects, and how to reduce exposure to them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

56) According to the Centers for Disease Control, in the U.S., the consumption of beef is a major risk factor for developing variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Strict guidelines for monitoring cattle and preventing prion contamination of their feed have sharply reduced BSE worldwide. Because of this and other safeguards to the food supply, experts affirm that eating beef in the U.S. is not a risk for contracting vCJD.5 Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 57) Public water supplies in the U.S. are a major source of infection and disease. Answer: FALSE Explanation: U.S. public water is safe for consumption and health. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 58) All food additives in the U.S. food supply have been thoroughly tested for safety. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Laws require food manufacturers to carefully test and prove the safety of new additives and obtain FDA approval before they can be used in food. Some additives, however, are exempt from this approval and testing process. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.03 Topic: Food additives Learning Objective: 03.06 Describe why food additives are used in most processed foods and potential concerns about their use. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

59) Most foodborne illnesses are typically immediately diagnosed and treated. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Most cases of foodborne illness go undiagnosed because the symptoms are mild enough that the ill persons do not seek medical care. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 60) In the U.S., food labels must indicate the presence of irradiated ingredients, except for dried seasonings. Answer: TRUE Explanation: True statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.03 Topic: Food preservation Learning Objective: 03.06 Describe why food additives are used in most processed foods and potential concerns about their use. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 61) Bottled water is generally safer than tap water in the U.S. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Tap water in the US is safe to drink and generally no less safe than bottled water. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

62) Thawing foods, such as chicken, on the counter overnight is a safe food handling practice. Answer: FALSE Explanation: It is typically recommended to thaw frozen foods slowly in the refrigerator to keep them from reaching danger zone Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 63) Although pesticides cannot be applied to organic foods, pesticide residues may still occasionally be found on these foods. Answer: TRUE Explanation: True statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.05 Topic: Environmental contaminants Learning Objective: 03.09 Describe common environmental contaminants (heavy metals, industrial chemicals, pesticides, and antibiotics), their potential harmful effects, and how to reduce exposure to them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 64) Antibiotics to promote growth or prevent diseases are allowed in organically produced animals. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Synthetic pesticides, fertilizers, and hormones; antibiotics; sewage sludge (used as fertilizer); genetic engineering; and irradiation are not permitted in the production of organic foods Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.02 Topic: Food production choices Learning Objective: 03.04 Describe how organic foods differ from conventionally produced foods and their potential benefits. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

65) The majority of antibiotics used in the U.S. are for food animals. Answer: TRUE Explanation: True statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.05 Topic: Food production choices; Environmental contaminants Learning Objective: 03.09 Describe common environmental contaminants (heavy metals, industrial chemicals, pesticides, and antibiotics), their potential harmful effects, and how to reduce exposure to them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 66) Compared to conventionally grown fruits and vegetables, those grown with organic farming methods contain significantly higher amounts of vitamins and minerals. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Recent meta-analyses show few differences between organically and conventionally grown foods for most nutrients. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.02 Topic: Food production choices Learning Objective: 03.04 Describe how organic foods differ from conventionally produced foods and their potential benefits. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 67) Fully meeting vitamin and mineral requirements is best done by consuming only organic foods. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Recent meta-analyses show few differences between organically and conventionally grown foods for most nutrients. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.02 Topic: Food production choices Learning Objective: 03.04 Describe how organic foods differ from conventionally produced foods and their potential benefits. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

Match the term with its definition. A) Undercooked poultry and unpasteurized milk are sources of this bacterium. One of the leading causes of foodborne illness in the U.S. B) Anaerobic bacterium that produces a neurotoxin that causes muscle weakness and paralysis; can be fatal C) Bacterium that can cause premature birth and stillbirth D) Bacterium that lives in intestines of animals and humans; the consumption of undercooked eggs causes about 20% of cases E) Anaerobic bacterium that usually causes abdominal pain and diarrhea lasting 1 day or less 68) Clostridium botulinum Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 69) Listeria monocytogenes Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 70) Salmonella species Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 71) Campylobacter jejuni Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 28 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

72) Clostridium perfringens Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 68) B 69) C 70) D 71) A 72) E

Match the term with its description. A) Used to promote growth in food animals B) By-product of various industrial processes; fish from contaminated waterways are a major source C) Products applied to agricultural products to eliminate insects, weeds, fungus, molds, and rodents D) Causes nerve damage, poor learning, and birth defects. To limit ingestion of this compound, children and pregnant and breastfeeding women are advised to avoid or limit their consumption of certain types of fish. E) A major source is from paint dust in older homes but mineral supplements and some imported foods may also be contaminated 73) Methylmercury Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.05 Topic: Environmental contaminants Learning Objective: 03.09 Describe common environmental contaminants (heavy metals, industrial chemicals, pesticides, and antibiotics), their potential harmful effects, and how to reduce exposure to them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 74) Pesticides Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.05 Topic: Environmental contaminants Learning Objective: 03.09 Describe common environmental contaminants (heavy metals, industrial chemicals, pesticides, and antibiotics), their potential harmful effects, and how to reduce exposure to them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 75) Antibiotics Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.05 Topic: Environmental contaminants Learning Objective: 03.09 Describe common environmental contaminants (heavy metals, industrial chemicals, pesticides, and antibiotics), their potential harmful effects, and how to reduce exposure to them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

76) Lead Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.05 Topic: Environmental contaminants Learning Objective: 03.09 Describe common environmental contaminants (heavy metals, industrial chemicals, pesticides, and antibiotics), their potential harmful effects, and how to reduce exposure to them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 77) Dioxins Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.05 Topic: Environmental contaminants Learning Objective: 03.09 Describe common environmental contaminants (heavy metals, industrial chemicals, pesticides, and antibiotics), their potential harmful effects, and how to reduce exposure to them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 73) D 74) C 75) A 76) E 77) B

Match the term with its description. A) Parasite found in water or contaminated food B) Parasite found in raw or undercooked fish C) A toxin found in improperly prepared pufferfish D) A parasite that causes illness lasting weeks to months. Wild game is a source. E) A toxin produced by a mold 78) Tetrodotoxin Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 79) Cyclospora cayetanensis Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 80) Anisakis Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 81) Trichinella spiralis Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

82) Mycotoxin Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 78) C 79) A 80) B 81) D 82) E 83) List and briefly describe 5 steps consumers can take in their homes to prevent foodborne illness. Answer: To do their part, consumers need to know how to handle food safely at home. In general, foodborne illness prevention focuses on using good personal and kitchen hygiene; handling food safely by using appropriate thawing, cooking, chilling, and storage procedures; and knowing which foods pose extra risk to those more susceptible to foodborne illness. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices; Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes

84) List 4 steps that travelers to developing countries can take to prevent traveler's diarrhea. Answer: Wash your hands often, especially after using the bathroom and before eating. Eat foods that are freshly cooked and served piping hot. Avoid food from street vendors and buffets. Avoid salads and raw fruits and vegetables. Avoid raw or undercooked meat and seafood. Avoid tap water and beverages reconstituted with tap water (including ice and possibly fruit juice and milk). Bottled and sealed beverages, including soft drinks, water, beer, and wine, are generally safe. Beverages made with boiled water, such as coffee and tea, are generally safe. Travelers also can treat tap water by boiling, chemical disinfection, or filtering Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices; Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 03.08 Describe food handling practices that reduce the risk of foodborne illness. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 85) Describe why inadequate food and nutrients can lead to disease and death, particularly in children. Answer: When energy intake falls below needs, a variety of problems arise—physical and mental activity declines; growth slows or ceases altogether; muscle and fat wasting occurs; the immune system weakens, increasing susceptibility to disease; and death rates rise (Fig. 3-1). The consequences of micronutrient deficiencies can be equally devastating. For example, vitamin A deficiency, found in approximately 30% of children under age 5 in developing countries, damages the eyes and sometimes causes blindness. Vitamin A deficiency also increases vulnerability to common diseases, such as measles, diarrhea, and respiratory infections. Iodine deficiency is the world's leading cause of preventable mental retardation and brain damage. Vitamin A, iodine, iron, zinc, and folate are the micronutrients most likely to be in short supply in developing countries. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 03.01 Topic: Hunger and food insecurity Learning Objective: 03.01 Describe the health consequences of malnutrition and food insecurity for children and adults. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes

86) Compare a food secure household to one with very low food security. Answer: In the U.S., the Department of Agriculture (USDA) monitors food security, defined as "access by all people at all times to enough food for an active, healthy life." Food insecurity, or lack of this access (Table 3-1), contributes to serious health and nutritional problems for millions of people. For instance, food-insecure individuals often eat fewer servings of nutrient-dense foods, such as vegetables, milk, and meat, and consume poorer-quality diets in general. These nutrient-poor diets can impair physical and mental health status and ability to learn. Food-insecure children are more likely to have poorer general health and report more asthma, stomachaches, headaches, and colds, and they may not grow normally. Behavioral problems in school, lower educational achievement, higher rates of depression and suicidal symptoms, and increased levels of psychological distress also have been linked to food insecurity. Parents may compromise their own diets to allow children to have better diets. Food-insecure adults have a higher risk of chronic diseases, such as diabetes, and poorer management of these diseases. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 03.01 Topic: Hunger and food insecurity Learning Objective: 03.02 Differentiate food security from food insecurity in the U.S. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 3-5 minutes 87) List 3 programs that may help a low-income family with children remain food secure. Answer: SNAP, WIC, NSLP, School breakfast program, Child/Adult food care program, food distribution programs Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.01 Topic: Hunger and food insecurity Learning Objective: 03.03 Describe the major U.S. government programs designed to increase food security. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

88) Describe 3 physical signs or symptoms of chronic food insecurity in children. Answer: Food-insecure children are more likely to have poorer general health and report more asthma, stomachaches, headaches, and colds, and they may not grow normally. Behavioral problems in school, lower educational achievement, higher rates of depression and suicidal symptoms, and increased levels of psychological distress also have been linked to food insecurity. Parents may compromise their own diets to allow children to have better diets. Food-insecure adults have a higher risk of chronic diseases, such as diabetes, and poorer management of these diseases. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 03.01 Topic: Hunger and food insecurity Learning Objective: 03.01 Describe the health consequences of malnutrition and food insecurity for children and adults. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 89) Compare and contrast a genetically modified food and a conventional food. Answer: Today, genetic engineering is used primarily to confer herbicide tolerance and/or insect resistance to soy, corn, cotton, sugar beets, canola, and alfalfa. Papaya and some varieties of squash are genetically engineered to be resistant to plant viruses. More recently, scientists have developed nonbrowning apples by silencing the genes that produce the enzyme polyphenol oxidase (commonly known as PPO), which causes cut apples to turn brown. Nonbruising potatoes also have been developed. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 03.02 Topic: Biotechnology Learning Objective: 03.05 Discuss how genetic engineering is used in foods and the potential risks and benefits of genetically modifying foods. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 3-5 minutes

90) Name 3 foods that are likely to be genetically modified in the U.S. Answer: Today, genetic engineering is used primarily to confer herbicide tolerance and/or insect resistance to soy, corn, cotton, sugar beets, canola, and alfalfa. Papaya and some varieties of squash are genetically engineered to be resistant to plant viruses. More recently, scientists have developed nonbrowning apples by silencing the genes that produce the enzyme polyphenol oxidase (commonly known as PPO), which causes cut apples to turn brown. Nonbruising potatoes also have been developed. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.02 Topic: Biotechnology Learning Objective: 03.05 Discuss how genetic engineering is used in foods and the potential risks and benefits of genetically modifying foods. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

91) Describe and evaluate 3 objections to the use of genetically modified foods. Answer: Production of new allergens or toxins in GM foods Can increase in GM plants, just as they can with traditional plant breeding. Again, there is no evidence that this has occurred, but new GM plants should be scrutinized. • Development of glyphosate-resistant "superweeds." These superweeds have been found in different areas of the U.S. as well as several other countries. These weeds can reduce crop yields, and killing them requires larger applications of pesticides, raising concerns about environmental damage and higher costs for farmers. • Crossed species lines, such as inserting a gene from a fish into a grain. Consumers may find it unnatural to introduce the genes from an unrelated species into another, especially the transfer of animal genes into plants. • "Gene flow" from GM crops to plants not intended to be modified. • Development of Bt-resistant insects. This is of particular concern to organic farmers who, although they do not grow GM crops, apply Bacillus thuringiensis bacteria to crops as a biological pest management method. Bt resistance also may lead to increased pesticide use by nonorganic farmers. • Loss of genetic diversity. If GM crops are widely adopted, the use of local, indigenous, conventional seeds may decline and these plants may disappear. • Loss of cultural heritage with older, native foods. For example, in Mexico, traditional maize (corn) has a spiritual and cultural significance that is not fulfilled with GM corn. • Insufficient regulation and oversight of GM plants and animals. Some argue that more rigorous regulation, testing, and oversight are needed to assure safety and benefits for consumers. • Development of trade barriers. Regulations about GM foods vary around the world; thus, limitations of both imports and exports of foodstuffs can arise. Section: 03.02 Topic: Food production choices; Biotechnology Learning Objective: 03.05 Discuss how genetic engineering is used in foods and the potential risks and benefits of genetically modifying foods. Bloom's: Evaluate

92) List 4 approved uses of food additives. For each use, give an example of a common food that contains the additive. Answer: Type of Food Additive Improve Freshness and Safety Antimicrobial agents

Antioxidants

Examples of Additives

Examples of Use

Sodium, benzoate, sorbic acid, Inhibit growth of molds, fungi, and bacteria in beverages, baked calcium propionate goods, jams, jellies, salad dressings, processed meats Butylated hydroxyanisole Control adverse effects of oxygen and/or prevent fats from (BHA), butylated hydroxytoulene (BHT), ascorbic spoiling; used in breakfast acid, erythorbic acid, cereals, chewing gums, nuts, alpha-tocopherol, sulfites processed meats; prevent light-colored foods (sliced potatoes, white wine, fruit) from discoloring

Curing agents

Sodium nitrate, sodium nitrite

Prevent growth of Clostridium botulinum in bacon, ham, salami, hot dogs, other cured meats; contribute to pink color of cured meats Add tartness and inhibit growth Acidic agents Acetic acid, ascorbic acid, of microorganisms in foods such phosphoric acid, lactic acid as beverages, salad dressings, candies, frozen desserts, salsas, pickles, processed meats Alter Nutritional Value Thiamin, vitamin A, protein Fortification (add nutrients): Vitamins, minerals, iodine in salt; enrichment (replace nutrients lost in protein processing): thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, folic acid, iron in cereal and grain products Alternative sweeteners Aspartame, sucralose Sweeten products such as beverages, baked goods, yogurt Fat replacers Modified food starch, cellulose Reduced-fat ice cream and low-fat salad dressings Enhance Flavor or Color Salts, sugars, herbs, spices, Grape flavor in popsicles Flavors and spices flavors

Flavor enhancers

Color additives

Monosodium glutamate (MSG) Enhance existing flavor or contribute savory flavor to foods, Guanosine monophosphate such as soups, rice, noodle mixes (GMP) Beta-carotene, annatto, beet Natural colors obtained from coloring, cochineal, caramel plant, animal, or mineral sources; coloring used in many foods; exempt from FDA certification FD&C Blue #1, FD&C Blue #2,

The only human-made dyes currently certified by the Certifiable color FDA for use in foods; found in a variety of foods additives Enhance Functional Salad dressings, peanut Egg yolks, soy lecithin, butter, frozen desserts, Characteristics mono-and diglycerides Emulsifiers baking mixes, margarine Keep foods, especially Calcium silicate, ammonium powdered mixes, free Anticaking agents citrate, magnesium stearate flowing Retain moisture, flavor, and texture in foods, such as marshmallows, soft candies, Humectants Glycerol, sorbitol energy bars Add creaminess and thickness to foods, such as frozen desserts, yogurt, dairy products, salad Stabilizers, Pectin, gums (guar, carrageenan,dressings, pudding, gelatin thickeners xanthan), gelatin mixes Act on proteins, fats, or Enzymes Lactase, rennet, chymosin, carbohydrates in foods; pectinase lactase makes milk more Contribute leavening gases (mainly CO2) to improve texture of baked products, Yeast, baking soda, baking such as breads, cookies, FD&C Green #3, FD&C Red #3, FD&C Red #40, FD&C Yellow #5, FD&C Yellow #6, Citrus Red #2, Orange B

Leavening agents

powder

cakes, baking mixes

Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 03.03 Topic: Food additives Learning Objective: 03.06 Describe why food additives are used in most processed foods and potential concerns about their use. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 40 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

93) How do intentional food additives differ from incidental food additives? Give an example of each. Answer: Food additives can be classified as either intentional or incidental. Intentional food additives are purposely added to achieve a goal, such as a longer shelf life (preservative), greater nutritional value, or more appealing color or flavor. Flavors and flavor enhancers are the most commonly used group of food additives—over 2600 are in use. Examples of common food additives and their functions are given in Table 3-3. Incidental additives, also called indirect additives, are not intentionally added but become part of a food through some aspect of food cultivation, processing, packaging, transport, or storage. They have no function in finished products and their presence is not indicated on food ingredient labels. There are safety concerns about some of these incidental additives. The presence of pesticide residue and arsenic in some foods is an example (both of these environmental contaminants are discussed in Section 3.5). Another incidental additive of concern is bisphenol A (BPA). Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.03 Topic: Food additives Learning Objective: 03.06 Describe why food additives are used in most processed foods and potential concerns about their use. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 94) Which of the following is generally NOT a consumer concern about GM foods? A) Loss of genetic diversity B) Development of Bt-resistant insects C) Hyperactivity in children D) Addition of allergens to GM foods Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.02 Topic: Biotechnology Learning Objective: 03.05 Discuss how genetic engineering is used in foods and the potential risks and benefits of genetically modifying foods. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

95) Cloned animals are . A) genetically unique B) not genetically modified C) common in our food supply D) approved for use by the USDA Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.02 Topic: Biotechnology Learning Objective: 03.05 Discuss how genetic engineering is used in foods and the potential risks and benefits of genetically modifying foods. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 96) Which of the following is a food additive that breaks down macronutrients found in foods? A) Enzyme B) Anticaking agent C) Leavening agent D) Stabilizer Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.03 Topic: Food additives Learning Objective: 03.06 Describe why food additives are used in most processed foods and potential concerns about their use. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 97) Why is sodium nitrite allowed to be used as a food additive? A) It is generally recognized as safe. B) It helps to prevent the growth of Clostridium botulinum. C) There is not enough credible research confirming the conversion of sodium nitrite to the carcinogenic agent nitrosamine. D) All choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 03.03 Topic: Food additives Learning Objective: 03.06 Describe why food additives are used in most processed foods and potential concerns about their use. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 42 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

98) When a slice of fresh apple turns a brown color, this is most likely the result of A) oxidation B) dehydration C) microbial contamination D) treatment in the ripening process

Answer: A Explanation: When a cup apple is exposed to oxygen, it typically browns. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 03.03 Topic: Food preservation Learning Objective: 03.06 Describe why food additives are used in most processed foods and potential concerns about their use. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 99) Which of the following agency would be most appropriate to contact if you felt a local restaurant was not handling their food safely? A) Environmental Protection Agency B) State and local government C) Food and Drug Administration D) U.S. Department of Agriculture Answer: B Explanation: The environmental services division of a local health department or local health agency would be best to deal with food safety issues within a local restaurant. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 03.04 Topic: Food safety practices; Public health and nutrition Learning Objective: 03.03 Describe the major U.S. government programs designed to increase food security. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

100) Which of the following is true about bisphenol A (BPA): A) BPA is a food additive used to increase shelf life of canned foods. B) Almost all individuals in the U.S. consume BPA and excrete it in their urine. C) BPA is not considered a threat during fetal development. D) The FDA has banned use of BPA. Answer: B Explanation: Almost all individuals in the U.S. consume BPA and excrete it in their urine. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.03 Topic: Food additives Learning Objective: 03.06 Describe why food additives are used in most processed foods and potential concerns about their use. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 4 Human Digestion and Absorption 1) The smallest functional unit of the human body is the A) organ B) organ system C) cell D) epithelial tissue

2) Tissues are defined as . A) functional systems B) complex organs that perform one task C) a diverse collection of cells D) a collection of cells that perform a specific function 3) The 4 primary types of tissue are . A) epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous B) gastrointestinal, cardiovascular, muscle, and immune C) gastrointestinal, endocrine, nervous, and cardiovascular D) skeletal, muscle, endocrine, and cardiovascular 4) Which of the following organs is NOT part of the digestive organ system? A) pancreas B) small intestine C) kidneys D) liver 5) The layer of the GI tract wall contains glands, blood vessels, and nerves, whereas the layer is the outermost layer that protects the GI tract. A) mucosa; muscle B) serosa; submucosa C) submucosa; muscle D) submucosa; serosa 6) The breakdown of dietary starch to glucose in the small intestine is considered A) metabolism B) hormonal action C) digestion D) absorption 7) Bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) from the pancreas A) neutralize the acid contents in the stomach B) are synthesized in the pyloric sphincter C) neutralize the bile in the duodenum D) neutralize the acid contents in the duodenum

8) The sphincter that allows chyme to pass into the small intestine is known as the A) lower esophageal sphincter B) sphincter of Oddi C) pyloric sphincter D) ileocecal sphincter 9) Segmentation as a function of the GI tract involves A) peristalsis to move the food along the GI tract B) back and forth contractions that break apart the food mass C) conscious effort D) enzyme input to break apart the food mass

10) The chemical reaction sucrose + H2O → fructose + glucose is an example of a reaction. A) hydrolysis B) synthetic C) hormonal D) carboxylase 11) A circular muscle that can open and close and acts to regulate the flow of materials in one direction is referred to as . A) enterohepatic circulation B) a sphincter C) a pump D) peristalsis 12) A coordinated muscular contraction that propels food along the GI tract is called A) a sphincter B) enterohepatic circulation C) a pump D) peristalsis 13) The lower esophageal sphincter is located between the A) stomach and esophagus B) stomach and duodenum C) ileum and cecum D) sigmoid colon and anus

14) The bacteria that usually inhabit the large intestine are prevented from backing up into the ileum by the action of the . A) sphincter of Oddi B) ileocecal sphincter C) pyloric sphincter D) rectal sphincter 2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

15) Which of the following is NOT an enzyme? A) sucrase B) bile C) pepsin D) lipase 16) Most digestive enzymes are synthesized by the A) liver and large intestine B) bile and gallbladder C) kidneys and esophagus D) pancreas and small intestine

17) Gastrin, secretin, CCK, and gastric inhibitory peptide are examples of A) enzymes B) hormones C) active absorption D) None of these choices are accurate.

18) Human digestion of food begins in the a small amount of starch. A) mouth; amylase B) stomach; pepsin C) small intestine; amylase D) mouth; lipase

breaks down

, where the enzyme

19) The taste sensation umami can best be described as . A) a somewhat salty flavor derived from metal ions B) the combination of salt and sweet tastes together C) a savory or meaty taste derived from the amino acid glutamate D) the taste that arises from compounds such as caffeine and quinine 20) In the process of swallowing, food cannot normally enter the trachea because the A) tongue directs the flow of food down the esophagus and away from the trachea B) esophageal sphincter shuts off the passage to the larynx C) epiglottis covers the larynx D) trachea does not connect to the esophagus 21) Saliva contains A) an amylase B) mucus C) intrinsic factor D) an amylase and mucus

22) The salivary glands produce about cup(s) of saliva each day. Saliva is a watery fluid that contains , , and . A) 1; mucus; digestive enzymes; antibacterial substances B) 1; mucus; bile; hormones C) 4; mucus; digestive enzymes; antibacterial substances D) 4; mucus; bile; hormones 23) At the beginning of a meal, the hormone hormone controls the release of . A) pepsinogen; pepsin B) gastrin; HCl C) bile; lipase D) cholecystokinin; pancreatic enzymes

is secreted from the stomach; this

24) The major function(s) of the stomach is/are . A) the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates, especially starch B) the digestion and absorption of alcohol C) to mix ingested foods with gastric juices to form chyme D) All of these responses are correct. 25) The fluid mixture that moves from the stomach to the duodenum is called A) bolus B) chyme C) food D) None of these choices are accurate.

26) Muscular waves in the stomach mix and churn the contents of a meal with A) bile B) gastric juices C) pancreatic juices D) sodium bicarbonate

27) Heartburn is caused by . A) acid surrounding the heart muscle B) acid and other digestive enzymes within the heart muscle C) the backflow of acidic stomach contents into the esophagus D) None of these choices are accurate. 28) The stomach is protected from digesting itself by producing A) bicarbonate only when food is in the stomach B) a thick layer of mucus to coat the lining of the stomach C) hydroxyl ions to neutralize the acid D) antipepsin that destroys digestive substances

29) The gastric secretion pepsin is necessary for A) preventing peptic ulcer formation B) protein digestion C) vitamin B-12 absorption D) destruction of harmful bacteria and viruses

30) Actions of hydrochloric acid produced by the stomach include A) promoting digestion of protein B) destroying bacteria and viruses found in foods C) dissolving dietary minerals for improved absorption D) All of the responses are correct. 31) The stomach can absorb A) proteins or amino acids B) sugars, such as lactose C) alcohol D) no nutrients

32) The small intestine is divided into three segments. List them in descending order. A) ileum, jejunum, duodenum B) jejunum, ileum, duodenum C) duodenum, ileum, jejunum D) duodenum, jejunum, ileum 33) Most of the digestive processes occur in the A) mouth B) stomach C) small intestine D) large intestine

34) Which substances can be absorbed in the small intestine? A) glucose, minerals, amino acids, vitamins, alcohol B) sucrose, lactose, fats, alcohol, protein C) starch, fats, glucose, protein, alcohol D) glucose, fructose, sucrose, alcohol, protein 35) Villi are found mainly in the A) large intestine B) small intestine C) esophagus D) stomach

36) The villi found in the gastrointestinal tract . A) are finger-like projections into the lumen of the small intestine B) are covered with the brush border (microvilli) C) contain cells that produce mucus, hormones, and enzymes D) produce a large surface area for nutrient absorption E) All of these choices are correct. 37) The life span of absorptive cells in the villi is approximately A) 24 hours B) 2 to 5 days C) 8 to 10 days D) 4 to 6 weeks 38) Amino acids and glucose enter cells by A) active transport B) passive diffusion C) facilitated diffusion D) endocytosis

39) The absorptive process that requires energy in the form of ATP is A) facilitated diffusion B) active absorption C) enterohepatic circulation D) the lymphatic system 40) The secretions of the gallbladder, liver, and pancreas enter the A) ileum, by way of a common duct B) duodenum, by way of the sphincter of Oddi C) stomach, by way of a common duct D) jejunum, by way of the sphincter of Oddi 41) Bile is formed in the A) stomach; pancreas B) duodenum; kidney C) liver; gallbladder D) gallbladder; liver

and stored in the

42) Insufficient production of bile is mostly likely to impair absorption of A) starch B) fat C) protein D) sugars

43) increases the available surface area of fats for digestion and later absorption. A) Pancreatic lipase B) Lingual lipase C) Gastric lipase D) Bile 44) The main function of the liver in the digestive system is . A) producing enzymes for digestion of protein, fat, and carbohydrate B) producing the hormones that regulate digestion and absorption C) producing bile for fat digestion and absorption D) distributing nutrients to the gastrointestinal tract 45) Secretions from the pancreas include A) HCl and digestive enzymes B) sodium bicarbonate and digestive enzymes C) cholecystokinin and sodium bicarbonate D) All of these responses are correct. 46) An example of a brush border enzyme is A) sucrase B) lipase C) amylase D) bile

47) Water-soluble nutrients enter into the body by way of A) the blood B) the lymph system C) both the blood and the lymph system D) neither the blood nor the lymph system

50) Lymph . A) is like blood, since it contains mostly red blood cells B) is a fluid containing blood proteins C) recycles nutrients between the liver and the small intestine D) transports fat-soluble particles from the intestinal tract to the general circulation 51) Which of the following nutrients may be absorbed by the colon? A) minerals, such as sodium and potassium B) some vitamins synthesized by bacteria C) short-chain fatty acids D) water E) All of these answers are correct. 52) An example of a probiotic is A) bacteria in yogurt B) fiber in whole wheat bread C) calcium in milk D) digestible carbohydrates in bananas

53) Probiotics may be most useful in treating A) constipation B) diarrhea C) celiac disease D) food intolerance

54) Much of the digestion that occurs in the large intestine is caused by A) lipase B) pepsin C) saliva D) bacteria

55) Fiber and starches not digested in the small intestine may be fermented by bacteria in the large intestine to form . A) short-chain fatty acids and flatus B) long-chain fatty acids and bile C) short- and long-chain fatty acids D) simple sugars and flatus 56) An example of a prebiotic is . A) a food that contains a naturally occurring antibiotic B) cheese, because of its short-chain fatty acid content C) any food that contains organic acids and short-chain fatty acids D) inulin, a poorly digested carbohydrate found in foods such as onions, garlic, and asparagus

57) Functions of the large intestine include . A) housing bacterial flora that keep the GI tract healthy B) absorption of water and electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium C) the defecation of feces D) All of these responses are correct. 58) Which of the following dietary or nutritional factors may worsen gastroesophageal reflux disease? A) being overweight B) consuming a high-fat diet C) alcohol and caffeine consumption D) consumption of large meals E) All of these responses are correct. 59) The leading cause of peptic ulcer disease is A) consumption of spicy foods B) stress C) Helicobacter pylori infection D) alcohol consumption

62) Factors associated with gallstone formation include A) rapid weight loss B) high fiber intake C) being underweight D) None of these answers are correct.

63) A main cause of intestinal gas formation is . A) a lack of bacteria in the large intestine B) the breakdown of undigested carbohydrates by bacteria in the large intestine C) insufficient bile production for fat digestion and absorption D) All of these choices are correct.

64) Carbohydrates that may contribute to intestinal gas formation include A) lactose, fructose, and raffinose B) amylose, glucose, and starch C) sucrose, starch, and glucose D) amylose, glucose, and sucrose

65) A sensible idea for preventing constipation is to . A) use a laxative when needed B) decrease fluid intake C) include more white bread, white rice, and ice cream in the diet D) include more whole grain breads, beans, and apples in the diet 66) Celiac disease is best treated by A) medication prescribed by a physician B) a high-fiber diet C) a gluten-free diet D) an allergen-free diet

67) Gluten is best described as . A) a protein found in wheat and related grains B) a carbohydrate found in wheat and related grains C) a substance found in wheat and related grains that causes irritable bowel disease D) a medication used to treat celiac disease 68) Swollen veins in the rectum or anus are called A) hemorrhoids B) peptic ulcers C) heartburn D) irritable bowel syndrome 69) Using mineral oil as a laxative can cause A) colon cancer B) loss of water-soluble vitamins C) loss of fat-soluble vitamins D) diverticulosis

70) Which of the following digestive disorders is caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori? A) flatulence B) constipation C) diarrhea D) peptic ulcer

71) Which of the following is NOT true about inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)? A) The most common types are ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. B) It can cause inflammation and ulceration throughout the gastrointestinal tract. C) IBD is caused by a reaction to proteins in foods. D) Nutritional problems related to IBD include anemia, osteoporosis, and poor growth (in children) 72) Most of the water in the gastrointestinal tract is absorbed in the small intestine. 73) Removal of the gallbladder prevents normal digestion and absorption of dietary fat. 74) Diarrhea is most often caused by bacterial or viral infection of the GI tract. 75) Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed directly into the cardiovascular system. 76) Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is caused by bacterial pathogens. 77) A good way to treat mild constipation is to consume 25 to 35 grams of fiber each day. 78) Not eating or drinking anything at all is the best way to treat diarrhea in adults and children.

Match the term and its description. A) tube connecting the mouth and stomach B) opening of the trachea C) flap of tissue that closes off the larynx D) windpipe 79) esophagus 80) trachea 81) larynx 82) epiglottis

Match the gastrointestinal secretion with its function(s). A) delays the emptying time of the stomach B) aids in digestion and absorption of fat C) signals chief cells to produce pepsinogen and HCL D) stimulates the gallbladder and pancreas to release bile and pancreatic juice E) stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate ions 83) Gastrin 84) Gastric inhibitory peptide 85) Bile 86) Cholecystokinin 87) Secretin

Match each secretion with the organ that produces it. A) small intestine B) stomach C) pancreas D) liver 88) cholecystokinin 89) pancreatic lipase 90) bile 91) hydrochloric acid

92) Describe the major function of each organ used in the digestive process. 93) A person with a bad cold reports not being able to "taste" anything. Explain what has happened. 94) Describe the functions of 4 major hormones specific to the digestive process.

95) The hormone gastrin is made in the A) stomach; HCl B) pancreas; insulin C) small intestine; CCK D) mouth; saliva

and controls the release of

96) Explain the 3 major functions of the large intestine. 97) List the major substances absorbed in the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine. 98) Provide four suggestions for someone who commonly develops constipation. 99) In celiac disease, the protein gluten damages the intestinal villi. Describe why this damage often results in significant malabsorption and malnutrition. 100) Which structure prevents food and liquid from entering the airway? A) tongue B) epiglottis C) salivary glands D) lower esophageal sphincter 101) In what order does food pass through the organs of the GI tract? A) duodenum, stomach, colon, ileum, rectum B) ileum, jejunum, duodenum, colon, rectum C) stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, colon D) stomach, jejunum, duodenum, colon, ileum 102) What would happen to the lining of the stomach if mucus were not produced? A) The production of intrinsic factor would decrease. B) Carbohydrates could not be digested. C) Pepsinogen would not become activated. D) Cells in the stomach would not be protected from gastric juices. 103) Which of the following nutrients is NOT acted on by pancreatic juices? A) protein B) fat C) carbohydrates D) fiber 104) Which of the following foods promotes the colonization of microflora in the GI tract? A) fish B) yogurt C) poultry D) iron-rich foods

105) What will happen to fat digestion if a gallbladder is removed? A) Fats will no longer be able to be digested because of lack of bile from gallbladder. B) The pancreas will no longer produce lipase, resulting in incomplete fat digestion. C) The liver will stop producing bile and fat digestion will cease. D) Bile will be directly secreted to the small intestine, continuing fat digestion. 106) Which of the following grains should be consumed by an individual with gluten sensitivity or celiac disease? A) rye B) barley C) quinoa D) spelt 107) Diarrhea in young children is most typically caused by A) excessive fruit juices B) pathogenic microorganisms C) food poisoning D) food allergies

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 4 Human Digestion and Absorption 1) The smallest functional unit of the human body is the A) organ B) organ system C) cell D) epithelial tissue

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.01 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) Tissues are defined as . A) functional systems B) complex organs that perform one task C) a diverse collection of cells D) a collection of cells that perform a specific function Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.01 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 3) The 4 primary types of tissue are . A) epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous B) gastrointestinal, cardiovascular, muscle, and immune C) gastrointestinal, endocrine, nervous, and cardiovascular D) skeletal, muscle, endocrine, and cardiovascular Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.01 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

4) Which of the following organs is NOT part of the digestive organ system? A) pancreas B) small intestine C) kidneys D) liver Answer: C Explanation: Kidneys are part of the urinary tract. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) The

layer of the GI tract wall contains glands, blood vessels, and nerves, whereas the layer is the outermost layer that protects the GI tract. A) mucosa; muscle B) serosa; submucosa C) submucosa; muscle D) submucosa; serosa Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 6) The breakdown of dietary starch to glucose in the small intestine is considered A) metabolism B) hormonal action C) digestion D) absorption

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

7) Bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) from the pancreas A) neutralize the acid contents in the stomach B) are synthesized in the pyloric sphincter C) neutralize the bile in the duodenum D) neutralize the acid contents in the duodenum

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) The sphincter that allows chyme to pass into the small intestine is known as the A) lower esophageal sphincter B) sphincter of Oddi C) pyloric sphincter D) ileocecal sphincter

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 9) Segmentation as a function of the GI tract involves A) peristalsis to move the food along the GI tract B) back and forth contractions that break apart the food mass C) conscious effort D) enzyme input to break apart the food mass

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

10) The chemical reaction sucrose + H2O → fructose + glucose is an example of a reaction. A) hydrolysis B) synthetic C) hormonal D) carboxylase Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 11) A circular muscle that can open and close and acts to regulate the flow of materials in one direction is referred to as . A) enterohepatic circulation B) a sphincter C) a pump D) peristalsis Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

12) A coordinated muscular contraction that propels food along the GI tract is called A) a sphincter B) enterohepatic circulation C) a pump D) peristalsis

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 13) The lower esophageal sphincter is located between the A) stomach and esophagus B) stomach and duodenum C) ileum and cecum D) sigmoid colon and anus

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 14) The bacteria that usually inhabit the large intestine are prevented from backing up into the ileum by the action of the . A) sphincter of Oddi B) ileocecal sphincter C) pyloric sphincter D) rectal sphincter Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

15) Which of the following is NOT an enzyme? A) sucrase B) bile C) pepsin D) lipase Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 16) Most digestive enzymes are synthesized by the A) liver and large intestine B) bile and gallbladder C) kidneys and esophagus D) pancreas and small intestine

Answer: D Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 04.02 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 17) Gastrin, secretin, CCK, and gastric inhibitory peptide are examples of A) enzymes B) hormones C) active absorption D) None of these choices are accurate.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

18) Human digestion of food begins in the small amount of starch. A) mouth; amylase B) stomach; pepsin C) small intestine; amylase D) mouth; lipase

, where the enzyme

breaks down a

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 19) The taste sensation umami can best be described as . A) a somewhat salty flavor derived from metal ions B) the combination of salt and sweet tastes together C) a savory or meaty taste derived from the amino acid glutamate D) the taste that arises from compounds such as caffeine and quinine Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.03 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 20) In the process of swallowing, food cannot normally enter the trachea because the A) tongue directs the flow of food down the esophagus and away from the trachea B) esophageal sphincter shuts off the passage to the larynx C) epiglottis covers the larynx D) trachea does not connect to the esophagus

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

21) Saliva contains A) an amylase B) mucus C) intrinsic factor D) an amylase and mucus

Answer: D Section: 04.03 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 22) The salivary glands produce about cup(s) of saliva each day. Saliva is a watery fluid that contains , , and . A) 1; mucus; digestive enzymes; antibacterial substances B) 1; mucus; bile; hormones C) 4; mucus; digestive enzymes; antibacterial substances D) 4; mucus; bile; hormones Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 23) At the beginning of a meal, the hormone controls the release of . A) pepsinogen; pepsin B) gastrin; HCl C) bile; lipase D) cholecystokinin; pancreatic enzymes

is secreted from the stomach; this hormone

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.04 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

24) The major function(s) of the stomach is/are . A) the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates, especially starch B) the digestion and absorption of alcohol C) to mix ingested foods with gastric juices to form chyme D) All of these responses are correct. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 25) The fluid mixture that moves from the stomach to the duodenum is called A) bolus B) chyme C) food D) None of these choices are accurate.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 26) Muscular waves in the stomach mix and churn the contents of a meal with A) bile B) gastric juices C) pancreatic juices D) sodium bicarbonate

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

27) Heartburn is caused by . A) acid surrounding the heart muscle B) acid and other digestive enzymes within the heart muscle C) the backflow of acidic stomach contents into the esophagus D) None of these choices are accurate. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.04 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 28) The stomach is protected from digesting itself by producing A) bicarbonate only when food is in the stomach B) a thick layer of mucus to coat the lining of the stomach C) hydroxyl ions to neutralize the acid D) antipepsin that destroys digestive substances

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.04 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 29) The gastric secretion pepsin is necessary for A) preventing peptic ulcer formation B) protein digestion C) vitamin B-12 absorption D) destruction of harmful bacteria and viruses

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.04 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 31) The stomach can absorb A) proteins or amino acids B) sugars, such as lactose C) alcohol D) no nutrients

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 32) The small intestine is divided into three segments. List them in descending order. A) ileum, jejunum, duodenum B) jejunum, ileum, duodenum C) duodenum, ileum, jejunum D) duodenum, jejunum, ileum Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

33) Most of the digestive processes occur in the A) mouth B) stomach C) small intestine D) large intestine

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 34) Which substances can be absorbed in the small intestine? A) glucose, minerals, amino acids, vitamins, alcohol B) sucrose, lactose, fats, alcohol, protein C) starch, fats, glucose, protein, alcohol D) glucose, fructose, sucrose, alcohol, protein Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.04 Explain the processes of nutrition absorption and how nutrients enter the circulatory system. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 35) Villi are found mainly in the A) large intestine B) small intestine C) esophagus D) stomach

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

36) The villi found in the gastrointestinal tract . A) are finger-like projections into the lumen of the small intestine B) are covered with the brush border (microvilli) C) contain cells that produce mucus, hormones, and enzymes D) produce a large surface area for nutrient absorption E) All of these choices are correct. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 37) The life span of absorptive cells in the villi is approximately A) 24 hours B) 2 to 5 days C) 8 to 10 days D) 4 to 6 weeks

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 38) Amino acids and glucose enter cells by A) active transport B) passive diffusion C) facilitated diffusion D) endocytosis

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.04 Explain the processes of nutrition absorption and how nutrients enter the circulatory system. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

39) The absorptive process that requires energy in the form of ATP is A) facilitated diffusion B) active absorption C) enterohepatic circulation D) the lymphatic system

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.04 Explain the processes of nutrition absorption and how nutrients enter the circulatory system. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 40) The secretions of the gallbladder, liver, and pancreas enter the A) ileum, by way of a common duct B) duodenum, by way of the sphincter of Oddi C) stomach, by way of a common duct D) jejunum, by way of the sphincter of Oddi

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 41) Bile is formed in the A) stomach; pancreas B) duodenum; kidney C) liver; gallbladder D) gallbladder; liver

and stored in the

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

42) Insufficient production of bile is mostly likely to impair absorption of A) starch B) fat C) protein D) sugars

Answer: B Explanation: Since bile is used as an emulsifying agent to aid in the absorption of fat, bile production would impair fat absorption. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 43) increases the available surface area of fats for digestion and later absorption. A) Pancreatic lipase B) Lingual lipase C) Gastric lipase D) Bile Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 44) The main function of the liver in the digestive system is . A) producing enzymes for digestion of protein, fat, and carbohydrate B) producing the hormones that regulate digestion and absorption C) producing bile for fat digestion and absorption D) distributing nutrients to the gastrointestinal tract Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 15 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

45) Secretions from the pancreas include A) HCl and digestive enzymes B) sodium bicarbonate and digestive enzymes C) cholecystokinin and sodium bicarbonate D) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 46) An example of a brush border enzyme is A) sucrase B) lipase C) amylase D) bile

Answer: A Explanation: Sucrase breaks down sucrose. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 47) Water-soluble nutrients enter into the body by way of A) the blood B) the lymph system C) both the blood and the lymph system D) neither the blood nor the lymph system

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.06 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.04 Explain the processes of nutrition absorption and how nutrients enter the circulatory system. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 16 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

48) Most dietary fats will . A) be converted to short-chain fatty acids for absorption with other water-soluble nutrients B) enter the lymphatic system C) enter the colon and become "food" for bacteria D) be converted to bile in the lumen of the intestine Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.06 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.04 Explain the processes of nutrition absorption and how nutrients enter the circulatory system. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 49) The hepatic portal system delivers nutrients from the digestive tract to the A) heart B) liver C) kidneys D) lungs

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.06 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.04 Explain the processes of nutrition absorption and how nutrients enter the circulatory system. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 50) Lymph . A) is like blood, since it contains mostly red blood cells B) is a fluid containing blood proteins C) recycles nutrients between the liver and the small intestine D) transports fat-soluble particles from the intestinal tract to the general circulation Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.06 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.04 Explain the processes of nutrition absorption and how nutrients enter the circulatory system. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

51) Which of the following nutrients may be absorbed by the colon? A) minerals, such as sodium and potassium B) some vitamins synthesized by bacteria C) short-chain fatty acids D) water E) All of these answers are correct. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.07 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.04 Explain the processes of nutrition absorption and how nutrients enter the circulatory system. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 52) An example of a probiotic is A) bacteria in yogurt B) fiber in whole wheat bread C) calcium in milk D) digestible carbohydrates in bananas

Answer: A Explanation: Yogurt contains "live active cultures" of bacteria. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.07 Topic: Food sources; Prebiotics and probiotics Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

53) Probiotics may be most useful in treating A) constipation B) diarrhea C) celiac disease D) food intolerance

Answer: B Explanation: Probiotics would allow healthy gut bacteria to re-inhabit the gut after being upset by an episode of diarrhea. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.07 Topic: Prebiotics and probiotics Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 54) Much of the digestion that occurs in the large intestine is caused by A) lipase B) pepsin C) saliva D) bacteria

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.07 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

55) Fiber and starches not digested in the small intestine may be fermented by bacteria in the large intestine to form . A) short-chain fatty acids and flatus B) long-chain fatty acids and bile C) short- and long-chain fatty acids D) simple sugars and flatus Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.07 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 56) An example of a prebiotic is . A) a food that contains a naturally occurring antibiotic B) cheese, because of its short-chain fatty acid content C) any food that contains organic acids and short-chain fatty acids D) inulin, a poorly digested carbohydrate found in foods such as onions, garlic, and asparagus Answer: D Explanation: Prebiotics "feed" the probiotic bacteria. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.07 Topic: Food sources; Prebiotics and probiotics Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

57) Functions of the large intestine include . A) housing bacterial flora that keep the GI tract healthy B) absorption of water and electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium C) the defecation of feces D) All of these responses are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.07 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 58) Which of the following dietary or nutritional factors may worsen gastroesophageal reflux disease? A) being overweight B) consuming a high-fat diet C) alcohol and caffeine consumption D) consumption of large meals E) All of these responses are correct. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 59) The leading cause of peptic ulcer disease is A) consumption of spicy foods B) stress C) Helicobacter pylori infection D) alcohol consumption

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 21 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

60) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate recommendation for treatment of peptic ulcer disease? A) Limit heavy use of aspirin and other NSAID medications. B) Consume pepper and other strong spices to help move foods through the GI tract. C) Treat with an antibiotic under the care of a physician. D) Stop smoking and limit alcohol intake. Answer: B Explanation: Recommendations listed in Table 4-5. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 61) Gallstones are formed mainly from A) pancreatic secretions B) cholesterol C) phospholipids D) minerals

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

62) Factors associated with gallstone formation include A) rapid weight loss B) high fiber intake C) being underweight D) None of these answers are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 63) A main cause of intestinal gas formation is . A) a lack of bacteria in the large intestine B) the breakdown of undigested carbohydrates by bacteria in the large intestine C) insufficient bile production for fat digestion and absorption D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 64) Carbohydrates that may contribute to intestinal gas formation include A) lactose, fructose, and raffinose B) amylose, glucose, and starch C) sucrose, starch, and glucose D) amylose, glucose, and sucrose

65) A sensible idea for preventing constipation is to . A) use a laxative when needed B) decrease fluid intake C) include more white bread, white rice, and ice cream in the diet D) include more whole grain breads, beans, and apples in the diet Answer: D Explanation: Whole grains, beans, and fruit add more dietary fiber to the diet. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 66) Celiac disease is best treated by A) medication prescribed by a physician B) a high-fiber diet C) a gluten-free diet D) an allergen-free diet

Answer: C Explanation: Celiac disease is affected by the protein gluten, which causes an allergic reaction/response. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

67) Gluten is best described as . A) a protein found in wheat and related grains B) a carbohydrate found in wheat and related grains C) a substance found in wheat and related grains that causes irritable bowel disease D) a medication used to treat celiac disease Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 68) Swollen veins in the rectum or anus are called A) hemorrhoids B) peptic ulcers C) heartburn D) irritable bowel syndrome

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 69) Using mineral oil as a laxative can cause A) colon cancer B) loss of water-soluble vitamins C) loss of fat-soluble vitamins D) diverticulosis

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 25 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

70) Which of the following digestive disorders is caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori? A) flatulence B) constipation C) diarrhea D) peptic ulcer Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 71) Which of the following is NOT true about inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)? A) The most common types are ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. B) It can cause inflammation and ulceration throughout the gastrointestinal tract. C) IBD is caused by a reaction to proteins in foods. D) Nutritional problems related to IBD include anemia, osteoporosis, and poor growth (in children) Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 72) Most of the water in the gastrointestinal tract is absorbed in the small intestine. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.04 Explain the processes of nutrition absorption and how nutrients enter the circulatory system. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

73) Removal of the gallbladder prevents normal digestion and absorption of dietary fat. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Bile is still produced by the liver (and helps to digest fats) when the gallbladder is removed. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 74) Diarrhea is most often caused by bacterial or viral infection of the GI tract. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 75) Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed directly into the cardiovascular system. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The lymphatic system provides an alternative route into the bloodstream for large molecules that cannot be absorbed by the capillary beds. Fat-soluble nutrients (most fats and the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K) and other substances, such as some proteins, are transported in lymph. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.06 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.04 Explain the processes of nutrition absorption and how nutrients enter the circulatory system. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

76) Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is caused by bacterial pathogens. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Multiple related factors are thought to contribute to the development of IBS, including abnormal intestinal motility (leading to constipation or diarrhea), abnormal pain sensation, psychosocial distress, altered gut immunity, increased intestinal permeability, and intestinal dysbiosis. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 77) A good way to treat mild constipation is to consume 25 to 35 grams of fiber each day. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 78) Not eating or drinking anything at all is the best way to treat diarrhea in adults and children. Answer: FALSE Explanation: When suffering from diarrhea, one needs to consume fluids to avoid dehydration and replace electrolytes. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

Match the term and its description. A) tube connecting the mouth and stomach B) windpipe C) flap of tissue that closes off the larynx D) opening of the trachea 79) esophagus Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 80) trachea Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 81) larynx Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 82) epiglottis Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 79) A 80) B 81) D 82) C

Match the gastrointestinal secretion with its function(s). A) stimulates the gallbladder and pancreas to release bile and pancreatic juice B) delays the emptying time of the stomach C) aids in digestion and absorption of fat D) signals chief cells to produce pepsinogen and HCL E) stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate ions 83) Gastrin Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 84) Gastric inhibitory peptide Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 85) Bile Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 86) Cholecystokinin Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

87) Secretin Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 83) D 84) B 85) C 86) A 87) E

Match each secretion with the organ that produces it. A) small intestine B) pancreas C) liver D) stomach 88) cholecystokinin Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 89) pancreatic lipase Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 90) bile Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 91) hydrochloric acid Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 88) A 89) B 90) C 91) D 32 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

92) Describe the major function of each organ used in the digestive process. Answer: Answers will vary. Secretion

Saliva Mucus

Sites of Production

Functions

Dissolves taste-forming compounds; contains many compounds that aid swallowing, digestion, and Mouth protection of teeth Mouth, stomach, small and Protects GI tract cells, large intestines lubricates digesting food

Mouth, stomach, small intestine, pancreas

Break down carbohydrates, fats, and protein into forms small enough for absorption

Stomach Liver (stored in gallbladder)

Promotes digestion of protein, destroys microorganisms, increases solubility of minerals Aids in fat digestion (emulsifies fat)

Bicarbonate

Pancreas, small intestine

Neutralizes stomach acid when it reaches small intestine

Hormones

Stomach, small intestine, Regulate food intake, pancreas digestion, and absorption

Enzymes (amylases, lipases, proteases)

Acid (HCl) Bile

Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02; 04.03; 04.04; 04.05; 04.07 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

93) A person with a bad cold reports not being able to "taste" anything. Explain what has happened. Answer: Answers will vary. The sense of taste is enhanced by input from approximately 6 million olfactory cells in the nose, which are stimulated when we chew. Thus, it makes perfect sense that, with nasal congestion, even strong-tasting foods may have little flavor. A variety of diseases and drugs, as well as the effects of aging, can alter taste and smell sensations. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 04.03 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 3-5 minutes 94) Describe the functions of 4 major hormones specific to the digestive process. Answer: Answers will vary. Five hormones, part of the endocrine system, play key roles in this regulation: gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin (CCK), somatostatin, and glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide (Table 4-4). Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 95) The hormone gastrin is made in the A) stomach; HCl B) pancreas; insulin C) small intestine; CCK D) mouth; saliva

and controls the release of

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Learning Objective: 04.03 Describe the function of key enzymes and hormones required for digestion and absorption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

96) Explain the 3 major functions of the large intestine. Answer: Answers will vary. The large intestine performs 3 main functions. It houses gut microbiota that keep the GI tract healthy; it absorbs water and electrolytes, such as sodium and potassium; and it forms and expels feces. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.07 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

97) List the major substances absorbed in the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine. Answer: Answers will vary. Organ

Primary Nutrients Absorbed

Stomach

Alcohol (20% of total) Water (minor amount)

Small intestine

Calcium, magnesium, iron, and other minerals Glucose Amino acids Fats Vitamins Water (70% to 90% of total) Alcohol (80% of total) Bile acids

Large intestine

Sodium Potassium Some fatty acids Vitamin K and biotin (synthesized by microorganisms in the large intestine) Gases Water (10% to 30% of total)

Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.04; 04.05; 04.07 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.04 Explain the processes of nutrition absorption and how nutrients enter the circulatory system. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

98) Provide four suggestions for someone who commonly develops constipation. Answer: Answers will vary. Eating foods with plenty of fiber, such as whole-grain breads and cereals, beans, fruits, and vegetables, and drinking more fluid help treat typical cases of mild constipation. The recommended fiber intake for most adults is 25 to 38 grams per day. Fiber stimulates peristalsis by drawing water into the large intestine and helping form bulky, soft feces. The bulky fecal material stretches the peristaltic muscles; the muscles respond by constricting, causing the feces to be propelled forward. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 99) In celiac disease, the protein gluten damages the intestinal villi. Describe why this damage often results in significant malabsorption and malnutrition. Answer: Answers will vary. More info in "Expert Perspective from the Field" Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 100) Which structure prevents food and liquid from entering the airway? A) tongue B) epiglottis C) salivary glands D) lower esophageal sphincter Answer: B Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 04.03 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 37 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

101) In what order does food pass through the organs of the GI tract? A) duodenum, stomach, colon, ileum, rectum B) ileum, jejunum, duodenum, colon, rectum C) stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, colon D) stomach, jejunum, duodenum, colon, ileum Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.04; 04.05; 04.07 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 102) What would happen to the lining of the stomach if mucus were not produced? A) The production of intrinsic factor would decrease. B) Carbohydrates could not be digested. C) Pepsinogen would not become activated. D) Cells in the stomach would not be protected from gastric juices. Answer: D Explanation: Mucus protects the stomach from being damaged by HCl acid. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 04.04 Topic: Anatomy and physiology Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 103) Which of the following nutrients is NOT acted on by pancreatic juices? A) protein B) fat C) carbohydrates D) fiber Answer: D Explanation: Fiber is not able to be fully digested by the body. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 04.02 Describe how the digestive tract processes foods and propels its contents from mouth to anus. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 38 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

104) Which of the following foods promotes the colonization of microflora in the GI tract? A) fish B) yogurt C) poultry D) iron-rich foods Answer: B Explanation: Yogurt is a probiotic food, promoting healthy GI flora. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.07 Topic: Food sources Learning Objective: 04.01 Outline the basic anatomy and functions of digestive system organs. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 105) What will happen to fat digestion if a gallbladder is removed? A) Fats will no longer be able to be digested because of lack of bile from gallbladder. B) The pancreas will no longer produce lipase, resulting in incomplete fat digestion. C) The liver will stop producing bile and fat digestion will cease. D) Bile will be directly secreted to the small intestine, continuing fat digestion. Answer: D Explanation: Bile is still created by the liver after gallbladder removal, so therefore is directly excreted and not stored. This can cause problems if too much fat is eaten at once. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 04.08 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute

106) Which of the following grains should be consumed by an individual with gluten sensitivity or celiac disease? A) rye B) barley C) quinoa D) spelt Answer: C Explanation: Quinoa does not contain gluten. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.05 Identify major nutrition-related gastrointestinal disorders and typical approaches to prevention and treatment. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 107) Diarrhea in young children is most typically caused by A) excessive fruit juices B) pathogenic microorganisms C) food poisoning D) food allergies

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 04.06 Explain why diarrhea represents a serious health challenge to infants and young children around the world and how it can be prevented and treated. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 5 Carbohydrates 1) Glucose, galactose, and fructose A) are disaccharides B) are soluble fibers C) are monosaccharides D) are polysaccharides 2) Another name for glucose is A) sorbitol B) dextrose C) levulose D) maltose 3) Three important disaccharides are A) lactose, fructose, and maltose B) fructose, glucose, and galactose C) maltose, sucrose, and lactose D) sucrose, fructose, and glycogen

4) Which of the following is a noncarbohydrate component of dietary fibers? A) glycogen B) pectin C) cellulose D) lignin 5) The three elements in simple sugar are A) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen B) carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen C) carbon, hydrogen, and sulfur D) carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen 6) The enzyme sucrase breaks down sucrose into A) glucose + glucose B) lactic acid C) glucose + fructose D) glucose + maltose

7) A sugar not commonly found free in nature that combines with glucose to form the disaccharide lactose is . A) sucrose B) maltose C) fructose D) galactose 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) Humans can digest a carbohydrate if the glucose bond is A) an alpha bond B) a beta bond C) a gamma bond D) a peptide

9) Sorbitol is . A) a sugar alcohol B) absorbed and metabolized more slowly than glucose and other sugars C) used in candies and gums D) All of these choices are correct. 10) The sugar alcohol commonly used to sweeten chewing gum and candy is A) corn syrup B) dextrin C) invert sugar D) sorbitol 11) The principal sugar found in milk is A) sucrose B) lactose C) dextrose D) maltose

12) In the production of alcoholic beverages, maltose is formed from cereal grains because of the . A) germination of grains B) condensation of sugars C) fermentation of stachyose D) hydrolysis of simple sugars 13) Once absorbed, the majority of glucose is transported to A) muscle tissue B) the liver C) the pancreas D) brain cells 14) The principal function of dietary carbohydrate is to provide A) bulk in the diet B) structural material C) sweetness in foods D) energy

15) If no glucose is available from dietary carbohydrate, glucose in the blood may first be derived from . A) muscle glycogen and liver glycogen B) triglyceride breakdown C) muscle glycogen and fatty acids D) sugar alcohols 16) Dietary sugars and starches are called "protein sparing," which means . A) sugars and starches can substitute for dietary protein when it comes to body protein synthesis B) dietary protein can be used for protein synthesis and other vital processes, rather than being used as a source of energy C) sugars and starches are converted to fat, and then converted to glucose for use as blood sugar D) sugars and starches are converted by the liver to ketone bodies 17) The body is capable of making glucose from non-carbohydrate nutrients, such as protein, by a process referred to as . A) glycogenesis B) glycolysis C) gluconeogenesis D) ketosis 18) The human brain and other nerve tissues use mostly A) fructose B) protein C) ethanol D) glucose

as fuel.

19) After digestion and absorption, dietary carbohydrates may be A) used for energy B) converted to glycogen and stored in liver and muscle tissue C) synthesized into fat D) All of these choices are correct. 20) The energy value of dietary carbohydrates is A) 4 B) 7 C) 9 D) 15

kcal per gram.

21) Individuals with lactose maldigestion can usually tolerate small amounts of A) yogurt B) nonfat milk C) cheddar cheese D) All of these are often tolerated in small amounts.

22) Primary lactose maldigestion results from . A) lactase insufficiency B) drinking lactose-fortified milks C) bacteria inhabiting the small intestine D) living in such locations as Mexico, China, Africa, or the Mediterranean 23) An example of an oligosaccharide is A) maltose B) raffinose C) galactose D) glycogen 24) Much of the galactose in our diet is found in A) high-fiber foods B) dairy products C) dark green leafy vegetables D) honey and table sugar

25) Ketosis may result from . A) starvation B) a diet of less than 50-100 grams of carbohydrate per day C) untreated diabetes mellitus D) All of these choices are correct. 26) Insulin is made in the A) gallbladder B) pancreas C) liver D) small intestine

27) While suppresses gluconeogenesis, A) glucagon; insulin B) insulin; glucagon C) insulin; glucose D) cortisol; glucagon 28) Normal blood glucose levels range between A) 40 and 70 mg/dL B) 70 and 100 mg/dL C) 125 and 140 mg per 100 ml D) 200 and 300 mg/dL

increases glycogen breakdown.

29) Low blood glucose is called A) hypoglycemia; hyperglycemia B) metabolic syndrome; hyperglycemia C) hypoglycemia; polydipsia D) hyperglycemia; hypoglycemia

, whereas high blood glucose is called

30) Which combination of foods would be highest in complex carbohydrates? A) cola, potato chips, chicken-salad sandwich B) spaghetti with marinara sauce, broccoli, dinner roll, milk C) coffee, crisp bacon, fried egg, orange drink D) chipped beef and gravy 31) Food processors and manufacturers use amylopectins primarily to produce sauces and gravies for frozen foods because they . A) are easily digested B) are resistant to spoilage C) form a stable starch gel D) are sweet tasting 32) Raffinose and stachyose are indigestible oligosaccharides found in foods such as A) milk and dairy products B) cereals and grains C) fruits and vegetables D) beans and other legumes 33) The storage form of carbohydrates in plants is A) maltose B) starch C) glycogen D) ribose 34) Amylose and amylopectin contain digestibility of these starches. A) alpha B) beta C) alpha and beta D) gamma

bonds, which are responsible for the

35) The best type of fiber to eat for reducing constipation is A) glycogen B) crude fiber C) soluble fiber D) insoluble fiber

36) Which of the following is classified as an insoluble fiber? A) pectin B) mucilage C) cellulose D) gums 37) Which of the following dietary fibers are classified as soluble fibers? A) pectins and mucilages B) pectins and lignins C) hemicelluloses, cellulose, and lignins D) mucilages and cellulose 38) is defined as fiber that is added to foods and provides health benefits. A) Dietary fiber B) Functional fiber C) Bulk D) Crude fiber 39) When increasing fiber intake, always A) take a fiber supplement B) increase fluids C) use simple carbohydrates D) increase protein intake also

40) Pouches that form in the walls of the large intestine due to excessive exertion during defecation are called . A) hemorrhoids B) ulcers C) diverticula D) phytobezoars 41) During the inflammatory phase of diverticulitis, treatment includes antibiotics and a diet that is . A) lower in fiber B) higher in fiber C) lower in sugar D) higher in sugar 42) The AI for fiber for women is A) 15 g/day B) 25 g/day C) 38 g/day D) 45 g/day

43) An increased fiber intake within recommended guidelines may A) decrease risk of diabetes B) lower blood lipid levels C) decrease risk of certain cancers D) All of these choices are correct.

44) Which of the following combinations of foods would provide the most dietary fiber? A) kidney bean salad, turkey sandwich on whole wheat bread, fresh apple, milk B) ham sandwich on white bread, potato chips, iced tea C) roast beef, mashed potatoes, coffee with sugar D) cheeseburger (white bun, lettuce, mustard, catsup, slice of tomato, 3 oz ground beef, processed cheese slice), french fries, soft drink 45) Of the total day's energy intake, most dietary guidelines recommend that carbohydrates provide of energy. A) 10%-15% B) 20%-35% C) 45%-65% D) 70%-75% 46) Why is excess sugar consumption discouraged? A) It may cause dental caries. B) It may cause weight gain. C) It generally lacks dietary fiber. D) All of these choices are correct. 47) According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, consumers should limit their intake of added sugars to percent of total energy. A) 0 B) 6 C) 10 D) 25 48) Consuming more than 60 grams of fiber per day poses some health risks, such as A) decreased mineral absorption due to chemical binding by the fiber B) blockage of the intestinal tract C) decreased appetite in some individuals D) All of these choices are accurate. 49) A trade name for aspartame is A) Naturlose B) Equal C) Splenda D) Sunette

50) A person diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU) should avoid products containing . A) saccharin B) aspartame C) lactose D) sucrose 51) All persons with diabetes . A) receive insulin injections daily B) need to eat a diet that will control their blood sugar C) can skip meals if they don't feel hungry D) should drink 4 glasses of milk daily to control their blood sugar 52) Which of the following is the best source of starch? A) fresh blueberries B) whole-grain oats C) low-fat yogurt D) dark leafy greens 53) Which of the following is classified as a non-nutritive sweetener? A) sorbitol B) honey C) aspartame D) mannitol 54) Which of the following population groups is at lowest risk of type 2 diabetes? A) college students B) obese adults C) individuals of Hispanic heritage D) adults over 45 years of age 55) Usual symptoms of diabetes mellitus include A) weight change B) excessive thirst and urination C) blurred vision D) All of these choices are correct.

56) Which condition is NOT usually associated with type 2 diabetes? A) autoimmune destruction of beta cells of the pancreas B) metabolic syndrome C) age of onset usually over 40 D) obesity

57) The most common type of diabetes mellitus is A) type 1 diabetes B) type 2 diabetes C) gestational diabetes

58) Which of the following foods has the highest glycemic index? A) bananas B) apple C) baked potato D) white bread 59) Treatment for reactive hypoglycemia includes . A) administering insulin before a meal B) eating regular meals and snacks of protein and complex carbohydrates and avoiding excess simple sugar C) following a high-protein, high-fat diet D) taking supplements of vitamins and minerals 60) The focus on low-glycemic load foods can aid in the control of diabetes. 61) Soluble dietary fibers have been shown to reduce serum cholesterol. 62) Diabetic exchanges and carbohydrate counting are effective ways for diabetics to monitor daily carbohydrate intake. 63) Persons with diabetes can never eat sugar. 64) The adequate intake for dietary fiber is set at 14 g/1000 kcal. 65) High-fiber diets can impair the absorption of trace minerals. 66) The glycemic index is a ratio of the blood glucose response of a given food compared with a standard. 67) Metabolic syndrome is characterized by insulin resistance, obesity, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. 68) The RDA for carbohydrate intake is 300 g/day. 69) Sucralose is a nutritive sweetener that is approximately the same sweetness as honey. 70) The Atkins diet promotes a high-carbohydrate, low-fat diet pattern. 71) Sucrose is made up of glucose + glucose. 72) Raffinose and stachyose are examples of polysaccharides. 9 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

73) Maintaining one's ideal body weight is a good means of decreasing risk of type 2 diabetes. 74) Scientists have shown that eating a high sugar diet causes diabetes. 75) Glycogen is made of glucose units linked by beta bonds. 76) Sorbitol, mannitol, and xylitol are nutritive sweeteners used in sugarless gum and candies. 77) An adequate carbohydrate intake is important in preventing ketosis and sparing protein from use as an energy source. 78) Indigestible carbohydrates play a role in promoting bowel health and preventing obesity. 79) Indigestible carbohydrates play a role in enhancing blood glucose control. 80) Saliva contains an enzyme called maltase that aids in the breakdown of maltose in the mouth. 81) Monosaccharides are absorbed by an active absorption process. 82) Insoluble fiber is readily metabolized into acids and gases by bacteria in the large intestine. 83) Fructose is taken up by the absorptive cells of the small intestine via facilitated diffusion.

Match each type of carbohydrate with its description. A) Fructose + glucose B) Glucose + galactose C) Many glucose molecules D) Glucose + glucose 84) Maltose 85) Sucrose 86) Lactose 87) Amylose

88) Name 3 health benefits derived from increased dietary fiber intake. 89) What foods do individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) need to avoid?

90) Name 3 typical symptoms of type 1 diabetes. 91) List 3 monosaccharides. 92) List 3 disaccharides. 93) What does the term "functional fiber" mean? 94) List and explain which two primary hormones are regularly involved in maintaining normal blood glucose levels. 95) List 3 ways to decrease the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. 96) List 3 examples of non-nutritive sweeteners. 97) List 3 primary functions of carbohydrates. 98) List 3 health concerns associated with a low-fiber diet. 99) After carbohydrates are absorbed from the intestine, which of the following organs receives the absorbed carbohydrates first? A) kidneys B) liver C) pancreas D) brain 100) Which of the following foods contains the least amount of lactose per serving? A) frozen yogurt B) ice cream C) bagel D) swiss cheese 101) Which of the following organs is the first to respond to a rise in blood glucose levels? A) heart B) liver C) gallbladder D) pancreas 102) Changes in blood glucose levels will typically result in the following scenario: A) Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of insulin. B) Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of glucagon. C) Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of glycogen. D) Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of epinephrine.

103) What is stevia? A) a naturally derived sweetener from a plant B) a sugar alcohol C) a polysaccharide D) a naturally derived sweetener from a fruit

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 5 Carbohydrates 1) Glucose, galactose, and fructose A) are disaccharides B) are soluble fibers C) are monosaccharides D) are polysaccharides

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Simple carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

3) Three important disaccharides are A) lactose, fructose, and maltose B) fructose, glucose, and galactose C) maltose, sucrose, and lactose D) sucrose, fructose, and glycogen

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Simple carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 4) Which of the following is a noncarbohydrate component of dietary fibers? A) glycogen B) pectin C) cellulose D) lignin Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Complex carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) The three elements in simple sugar are A) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen B) carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen C) carbon, hydrogen, and sulfur D) carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

6) The enzyme sucrase breaks down sucrose into A) glucose + glucose B) lactic acid C) glucose + fructose D) glucose + maltose

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 05.05 Explain how carbohydrates are digested and absorbed. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 7) A sugar not commonly found free in nature that combines with glucose to form the disaccharide lactose is . A) sucrose B) maltose C) fructose D) galactose Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Simple carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) Humans can digest a carbohydrate if the glucose bond is A) an alpha bond B) a beta bond C) a gamma bond D) a peptide

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Complex carbohydrates; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 05.05 Explain how carbohydrates are digested and absorbed. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

9) Sorbitol is . A) a sugar alcohol B) absorbed and metabolized more slowly than glucose and other sugars C) used in candies and gums D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.02 Topic: Alternative sweeteners Learning Objective: 05.02 List alternative sweeteners that can be used to reduce sugar intake. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 10) The sugar alcohol commonly used to sweeten chewing gum and candy is A) corn syrup B) dextrin C) invert sugar D) sorbitol

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.02 Topic: Alternative sweeteners Learning Objective: 05.02 List alternative sweeteners that can be used to reduce sugar intake. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 11) The principal sugar found in milk is A) sucrose B) lactose C) dextrose D) maltose

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Food sources; Simple carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

12) In the production of alcoholic beverages, maltose is formed from cereal grains because of the . A) germination of grains B) condensation of sugars C) fermentation of stachyose D) hydrolysis of simple sugars Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Simple carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 13) Once absorbed, the majority of glucose is transported to A) muscle tissue B) the liver C) the pancreas D) brain cells

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 05.05 Explain how carbohydrates are digested and absorbed. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 14) The principal function of dietary carbohydrate is to provide A) bulk in the diet B) structural material C) sweetness in foods D) energy

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Carbohydrates; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 05.04 List the functions of carbohydrates in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

15) If no glucose is available from dietary carbohydrate, glucose in the blood may first be derived from . A) muscle glycogen and liver glycogen B) triglyceride breakdown C) muscle glycogen and fatty acids D) sugar alcohols Answer: A Explanation: If blood glucose is low and dietary carbohydrate is not available, glycogen breakdown is the short-term storage form of carbohydrates and is broken down to increase blood glucose. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.05 Topic: Complex carbohydrates; Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 16) Dietary sugars and starches are called "protein sparing," which means . A) sugars and starches can substitute for dietary protein when it comes to body protein synthesis B) dietary protein can be used for protein synthesis and other vital processes, rather than being used as a source of energy C) sugars and starches are converted to fat, and then converted to glucose for use as blood sugar D) sugars and starches are converted by the liver to ketone bodies Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Carbohydrates; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 05.04 List the functions of carbohydrates in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

17) The body is capable of making glucose from non-carbohydrate nutrients, such as protein, by a process referred to as . A) glycogenesis B) glycolysis C) gluconeogenesis D) ketosis Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.04 Topic: Carbohydrates; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 05.04 List the functions of carbohydrates in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 18) The human brain and other nerve tissues use mostly A) fructose B) protein C) ethanol D) glucose

as fuel.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 05.04 List the functions of carbohydrates in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 19) After digestion and absorption, dietary carbohydrates may be A) used for energy B) converted to glycogen and stored in liver and muscle tissue C) synthesized into fat D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.05 Topic: Carbohydrates; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 05.04 List the functions of carbohydrates in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

20) The energy value of dietary carbohydrates is A) 4 B) 7 C) 9 D) 15

kcal per gram.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.04 Topic: Carbohydrates; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 05.04 List the functions of carbohydrates in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 21) Individuals with lactose maldigestion can usually tolerate small amounts of A) yogurt B) nonfat milk C) cheddar cheese D) All of these are often tolerated in small amounts.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.06 Topic: Simple carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.06 Explain the cause of, effects of, and dietary treatment for lactose intolerance. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 22) Primary lactose maldigestion results from . A) lactase insufficiency B) drinking lactose-fortified milks C) bacteria inhabiting the small intestine D) living in such locations as Mexico, China, Africa, or the Mediterranean Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.06 Topic: Simple carbohydrates; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 05.06 Explain the cause of, effects of, and dietary treatment for lactose intolerance. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

23) An example of an oligosaccharide is A) maltose B) raffinose C) galactose D) glycogen

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Complex carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 24) Much of the galactose in our diet is found in A) high-fiber foods B) dairy products C) dark green leafy vegetables D) honey and table sugar

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Food sources; Simple carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 25) Ketosis may result from . A) starvation B) a diet of less than 50-100 grams of carbohydrate per day C) untreated diabetes mellitus D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.04 List the functions of carbohydrates in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

26) Insulin is made in the A) gallbladder B) pancreas C) liver D) small intestine

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.05 Explain how carbohydrates are digested and absorbed. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 27) While suppresses gluconeogenesis, A) glucagon; insulin B) insulin; glucagon C) insulin; glucose D) cortisol; glucagon

increases glycogen breakdown.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 28) Normal blood glucose levels range between A) 40 and 70 mg/dL B) 70 and 100 mg/dL C) 125 and 140 mg per 100 ml D) 200 and 300 mg/dL

29) Low blood glucose is called A) hypoglycemia; hyperglycemia B) metabolic syndrome; hyperglycemia C) hypoglycemia; polydipsia D) hyperglycemia; hypoglycemia

, whereas high blood glucose is called

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 30) Which combination of foods would be highest in complex carbohydrates? A) cola, potato chips, chicken-salad sandwich B) spaghetti with marinara sauce, broccoli, dinner roll, milk C) coffee, crisp bacon, fried egg, orange drink D) chipped beef and gravy Answer: B Explanation: The foods in this answer all contain complex carbohydrates. The other responses either have more refined, simple sugars and/or fats and proteins. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.02 Topic: Complex carbohydrates; Food sources Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

31) Food processors and manufacturers use amylopectins primarily to produce sauces and gravies for frozen foods because they . A) are easily digested B) are resistant to spoilage C) form a stable starch gel D) are sweet tasting Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Complex carbohydrates; Food sources Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 32) Raffinose and stachyose are indigestible oligosaccharides found in foods such as A) milk and dairy products B) cereals and grains C) fruits and vegetables D) beans and other legumes

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Complex carbohydrates; Food sources Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 33) The storage form of carbohydrates in plants is A) maltose B) starch C) glycogen D) ribose

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Carbohydrates; Food sources Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 12 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

34) Amylose and amylopectin contain of these starches. A) alpha B) beta C) alpha and beta D) gamma

bonds, which are responsible for the digestibility

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Complex carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 35) The best type of fiber to eat for reducing constipation is A) glycogen B) crude fiber C) soluble fiber D) insoluble fiber

Answer: D Explanation: Insoluble fiber provides bulk to feces and reduces transit time in intestines. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Complex carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.04 List the functions of carbohydrates in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

36) Which of the following is classified as an insoluble fiber? A) pectin B) mucilage C) cellulose D) gums Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Complex carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 37) Which of the following dietary fibers are classified as soluble fibers? A) pectins and mucilages B) pectins and lignins C) hemicelluloses, cellulose, and lignins D) mucilages and cellulose Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Complex carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 38) is defined as fiber that is added to foods and provides health benefits. A) Dietary fiber B) Functional fiber C) Bulk D) Crude fiber Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Complex carbohydrates; Food sources Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

39) When increasing fiber intake, always A) take a fiber supplement B) increase fluids C) use simple carbohydrates D) increase protein intake also

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.06 Topic: Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 05.03 Describe recommendations for carbohydrate intake and health risks caused by low or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 40) Pouches that form in the walls of the large intestine due to excessive exertion during defecation are called . A) hemorrhoids B) ulcers C) diverticula D) phytobezoars Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.04 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 05.03 Describe recommendations for carbohydrate intake and health risks caused by low or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 41) During the inflammatory phase of diverticulitis, treatment includes antibiotics and a diet that is . A) lower in fiber B) higher in fiber C) lower in sugar D) higher in sugar Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 05.03 Describe recommendations for carbohydrate intake and health risks caused by low or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 15 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

42) The AI for fiber for women is A) 15 g/day B) 25 g/day C) 38 g/day D) 45 g/day

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.03 Topic: Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 05.03 Describe recommendations for carbohydrate intake and health risks caused by low or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 43) An increased fiber intake within recommended guidelines may A) decrease risk of diabetes B) lower blood lipid levels C) decrease risk of certain cancers D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.03 Topic: Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 05.03 Describe recommendations for carbohydrate intake and health risks caused by low or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

44) Which of the following combinations of foods would provide the most dietary fiber? A) kidney bean salad, turkey sandwich on whole wheat bread, fresh apple, milk B) ham sandwich on white bread, potato chips, iced tea C) roast beef, mashed potatoes, coffee with sugar D) cheeseburger (white bun, lettuce, mustard, catsup, slice of tomato, 3 oz ground beef, processed cheese slice), french fries, soft drink Answer: A Explanation: Kidney beans, whole wheat bread, and apple all contain good sources of dietary fiber. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.02 Topic: Complex carbohydrates; Food sources Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 45) Of the total day's energy intake, most dietary guidelines recommend that carbohydrates provide of energy. A) 10%-15% B) 20%-35% C) 45%-65% D) 70%-75% Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.03 Topic: Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.03 Describe recommendations for carbohydrate intake and health risks caused by low or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

46) Why is excess sugar consumption discouraged? A) It may cause dental caries. B) It may cause weight gain. C) It generally lacks dietary fiber. D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.06 Topic: Simple carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.03 Describe recommendations for carbohydrate intake and health risks caused by low or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 47) According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, consumers should limit their intake of added sugars to percent of total energy. A) 0 B) 6 C) 10 D) 25 Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.03 Topic: Simple carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.03 Describe recommendations for carbohydrate intake and health risks caused by low or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 48) Consuming more than 60 grams of fiber per day poses some health risks, such as A) decreased mineral absorption due to chemical binding by the fiber B) blockage of the intestinal tract C) decreased appetite in some individuals D) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.06 Topic: Complex carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.03 Describe recommendations for carbohydrate intake and health risks caused by low or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 18 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

49) A trade name for aspartame is A) Naturlose B) Equal C) Splenda D) Sunette

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.02 Topic: Alternative sweeteners Learning Objective: 05.02 List alternative sweeteners that can be used to reduce sugar intake. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 50) A person diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU) should avoid products containing A) saccharin B) aspartame C) lactose D) sucrose Answer: B Explanation: Individuals with PKU cannot breakdown phenylalanine, which is contained in aspartame. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.02 Topic: Alternative sweeteners Learning Objective: 05.02 List alternative sweeteners that can be used to reduce sugar intake. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

51) All persons with diabetes . A) receive insulin injections daily B) need to eat a diet that will control their blood sugar C) can skip meals if they don't feel hungry D) should drink 4 glasses of milk daily to control their blood sugar Answer: B Explanation: As diabetes is a disorder where blood sugar is not regulated correctly, all individuals with diabetes must eat a diet that controls the amount of blood sugar released into their bloodstream. This is done through controlled/consistent carbohydrate intake. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 52) Which of the following is the best source of starch? A) fresh blueberries B) whole-grain oats C) low-fat yogurt D) dark leafy greens Answer: B Explanation: Oats contain carbohydrate in the form of starch. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.02 Topic: Complex carbohydrates; Food sources Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

53) Which of the following is classified as a non-nutritive sweetener? A) sorbitol B) honey C) aspartame D) mannitol Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.02 Topic: Alternative sweeteners Learning Objective: 05.02 List alternative sweeteners that can be used to reduce sugar intake. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 54) Which of the following population groups is at lowest risk of type 2 diabetes? A) college students B) obese adults C) individuals of Hispanic heritage D) adults over 45 years of age Answer: A Explanation: All other options are higher-risk groups for type 2 diabetes. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 55) Usual symptoms of diabetes mellitus include A) weight change B) excessive thirst and urination C) blurred vision D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

56) Which condition is NOT usually associated with type 2 diabetes? A) autoimmune destruction of beta cells of the pancreas B) metabolic syndrome C) age of onset usually over 40 D) obesity Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 57) The most common type of diabetes mellitus is A) type 1 diabetes B) type 2 diabetes C) gestational diabetes

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 58) Which of the following foods has the highest glycemic index? A) bananas B) apple C) baked potato D) white bread Answer: C Explanation: See GI list. Potatoes have a higher number than other options listed. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

59) Treatment for reactive hypoglycemia includes . A) administering insulin before a meal B) eating regular meals and snacks of protein and complex carbohydrates and avoiding excess simple sugar C) following a high-protein, high-fat diet D) taking supplements of vitamins and minerals Answer: B Explanation: In reactive hypoglycemia, where the blood sugar is low, an individual should consume consistent, controlled carbohydrates throughout the day in order to better regulate blood sugar levels. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 60) The focus on low-glycemic load foods can aid in the control of diabetes. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 61) Soluble dietary fibers have been shown to reduce serum cholesterol. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Complex carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.04 List the functions of carbohydrates in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

62) Diabetic exchanges and carbohydrate counting are effective ways for diabetics to monitor daily carbohydrate intake. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 63) Persons with diabetes can never eat sugar. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An individual with diabetes CAN consume sugar; however, it should be in controlled amounts, and planned in accordance with other meals and medication. Choices should also ideally be mainly from lower glycemic index foods. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 64) The adequate intake for dietary fiber is set at 14 g/1000 kcal. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.03 Topic: Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 05.03 Describe recommendations for carbohydrate intake and health risks caused by low or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

65) High-fiber diets can impair the absorption of trace minerals. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.06 Topic: Complex carbohydrates; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 05.03 Describe recommendations for carbohydrate intake and health risks caused by low or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 66) The glycemic index is a ratio of the blood glucose response of a given food compared with a standard. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 67) Metabolic syndrome is characterized by insulin resistance, obesity, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation; Cardiovascular disease Learning Objective: 05.08 Describe dietary measures to reduce the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

68) The RDA for carbohydrate intake is 300 g/day. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The RDA for carbohydrates is 130 g/day. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.03 Topic: Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.03 Describe recommendations for carbohydrate intake and health risks caused by low or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 69) Sucralose is a nutritive sweetener that is approximately the same sweetness as honey. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Sucralose is an alternative sweetener that is approximately 600 times sweeter than sucroses. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.02 Topic: Alternative sweeteners Learning Objective: 05.02 List alternative sweeteners that can be used to reduce sugar intake. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 70) The Atkins diet promotes a high-carbohydrate, low-fat diet pattern. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The Atkin's diet promotes low-carbohydrate, high-fat/protein pattern. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.03 Topic: Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.03 Describe recommendations for carbohydrate intake and health risks caused by low or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

71) Sucrose is made up of glucose + glucose. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Sucrose is made up of glucose + fructose. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Simple carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 72) Raffinose and stachyose are examples of polysaccharides. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Raffinose and stachyose are oligosaccharides. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Complex carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 73) Maintaining one's ideal body weight is a good means of decreasing risk of type 2 diabetes. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.08 Describe dietary measures to reduce the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

74) Scientists have shown that eating a high sugar diet causes diabetes. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Eating a high sugar diet alone has not been proved to directly CAUSE diabetes, although it may contribute through weight gain and other factors. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.06 Topic: Simple carbohydrates; Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.08 Describe dietary measures to reduce the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 75) Glycogen is made of glucose units linked by beta bonds. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Glycogen is made of glucose units linked by ALPHA bonds. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Complex carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 76) Sorbitol, mannitol, and xylitol are nutritive sweeteners used in sugarless gum and candies. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.02 Topic: Alternative sweeteners Learning Objective: 05.02 List alternative sweeteners that can be used to reduce sugar intake. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

77) An adequate carbohydrate intake is important in preventing ketosis and sparing protein from use as an energy source. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.04 Topic: Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 05.04 List the functions of carbohydrates in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 78) Indigestible carbohydrates play a role in promoting bowel health and preventing obesity. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.04 Topic: Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 05.04 List the functions of carbohydrates in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 79) Indigestible carbohydrates play a role in enhancing blood glucose control. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.04 Topic: Nutrient functions; Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.04 List the functions of carbohydrates in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 80) Saliva contains an enzyme called maltase that aids in the breakdown of maltose in the mouth. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Saliva contains salivary amylase. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 05.05 Explain how carbohydrates are digested and absorbed. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 29 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

81) Monosaccharides are absorbed by an active absorption process. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 05.05 Explain how carbohydrates are digested and absorbed. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 82) Insoluble fiber is readily metabolized into acids and gases by bacteria in the large intestine. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Insoluble fibers do not dissolve in water and are not metabolized by bacteria in the large intestine. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.05 Topic: Carbohydrates; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 05.05 Explain how carbohydrates are digested and absorbed. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 83) Fructose is taken up by the absorptive cells of the small intestine via facilitated diffusion. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.05 Topic: Carbohydrates; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 05.05 Explain how carbohydrates are digested and absorbed. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

Match each type of carbohydrate with its description. A) Fructose + glucose B) Glucose + glucose C) Glucose + galactose D) Many glucose molecules 84) Maltose Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 85) Sucrose Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 86) Lactose Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 87) Amylose Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 84) B 85) A 86) C 87) D 31 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

88) Name 3 health benefits derived from increased dietary fiber intake. Answer: When consumed in adequate quantities, these fibers have been shown to lower blood cholesterol levels and blood glucose levels, thereby reducing risks of cardiovascular disease and diabetes. In addition, fiber can decrease intestinal transit time, thus reducing risks of constipation and diverticular disease. Also, increases feeling of fullness and reduces obesity risk, as well as potentially other cancers and chronic diseases related to digestive tract. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Complex carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.04 List the functions of carbohydrates in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 89) What foods do individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) need to avoid? Answer: Individuals with the genetic disease phenylketonuria (PKU), which interferes with the metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine, also should avoid aspartame because of its high phenylalanine content. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.02 Topic: Alternative sweeteners Learning Objective: 05.02 List alternative sweeteners that can be used to reduce sugar intake. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 90) Name 3 typical symptoms of type 1 diabetes. Answer: In type 1 diabetes, individuals develop the classic symptoms of hyperglycemia (increased hunger, thirst, urination, and weight loss). No one symptom is diagnostic of diabetes. Other symptoms—such as unexplained weight loss, exhaustion, and blurred vision—may accompany these symptoms. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes

91) List 3 monosaccharides. Answer: glucose, fructose, galactose Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Simple carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes 92) List 3 disaccharides. Answer: sucrose, maltose, lactose Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Simple carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes 93) What does the term "functional fiber" mean? Answer: Fiber added to foods that has shown to provide health benefit Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Complex carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes

94) List and explain which two primary hormones are regularly involved in maintaining normal blood glucose levels. Answer: Insulin is a hormone produced by beta cells of the pancreas. Among other processes, insulin increases the synthesis of glycogen in the liver and the movement of glucose from the bloodstream into muscle and adipose cells. Another pancreatic hormone, called glucagon, is secreted in response to a decrease in blood glucose. It prompts the breakdown of glycogen in the liver and promotes gluconeogenesis, resulting in the release of glucose to the bloodstream and the normalization of blood glucose levels. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 3-5 minutes 95) List 3 ways to decrease the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Answer: Regular exercise, consuming lower glycemic index foods, weight control/maintain healthy weight, following the DGAs, regular screening if at risk Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.08 Describe dietary measures to reduce the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 96) List 3 examples of non-nutritive sweeteners. Answer: Non-nutritive (alternative or artificial) sweeteners provide very-low-calorie or non-caloric sugar substitutes for people with diabetes and those trying to lose (or control) body weight. Alternative sweeteners include saccharin, cyclamate, aspartame, neotame, sucralose, acesulfame-K, tagatose, stevia, and monk fruit. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.02 Topic: Alternative sweeteners Learning Objective: 05.02 List alternative sweeteners that can be used to reduce sugar intake. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes

97) List 3 primary functions of carbohydrates. Answer: Providing energy, sparing protein as an energy source, preventing ketosis Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.04 Topic: Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 05.04 List the functions of carbohydrates in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes 98) List 3 health concerns associated with a low-fiber diet. Answer: constipation/GI irregularity, GI health problems, overweight/obesity, high sugar intake, excess calorie intake, insufficient micronutrient intake. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.03 Topic: Complex carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.03 Describe recommendations for carbohydrate intake and health risks caused by low or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 99) After carbohydrates are absorbed from the intestine, which of the following organs receives the absorbed carbohydrates first? A) kidneys B) liver C) pancreas D) brain Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.05 Topic: Carbohydrates; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 05.05 Explain how carbohydrates are digested and absorbed. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

100) Which of the following foods contains the least amount of lactose per serving? A) frozen yogurt B) ice cream C) bagel D) Swiss cheese Answer: C Explanation: Bagel is not a dairy product and has no galactose or lactose. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.01 Topic: Food sources; Simple carbohydrates Learning Objective: 05.01 Identify the major types of carbohydrates and give examples of food sources for each. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 101) Which of the following organs is the first to respond to a rise in blood glucose levels? A) heart B) liver C) gallbladder D) pancreas Answer: D Explanation: Pancreas creates and releases INSULIN, which allows blood glucose to enter the cells, and therefore lowers blood glucose levels. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

102) Changes in blood glucose levels will typically result in the following scenario: A) Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of insulin. B) Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of glucagon. C) Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of glycogen. D) Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of epinephrine. Answer: B Explanation: This is the correct sequence of event and hormone response. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.06 Topic: Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 05.07 Describe the regulation of blood glucose, conditions caused by blood glucose imbalance, types of diabetes, and dietary treatments for diabetes. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 103) What is stevia? A) a naturally derived sweetener from a plant B) a sugar alcohol C) a polysaccharide D) a naturally derived sweetener from a fruit Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.02 Topic: Alternative sweeteners Learning Objective: 05.02 List alternative sweeteners that can be used to reduce sugar intake. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 6 Lipids 1) Alpha-linolenic acid and linoleic acid are classified as A) essential B) nonessential C) saturated D) trans

fatty acids.

2) Which is correct regarding trans fatty acids? A) They raise HDL and LDL cholesterol. B) They lower LDL cholesterol. C) They raise blood cholesterol and lower HDL cholesterol. D) They raise blood glucose. 3) Which of the following correctly characterizes lipids? A) They do not dissolve in water. B) They contain carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen. C) They dissolve in water. D) They are all classified as sterols. 4) In what form is most body fat stored? A) cholesterol B) phospholipids C) triglycerides D) None of these responses are correct. 5) The functions of fat include all of the following EXCEPT A) build and repair tissue B) cushion and protect vital organs C) insulate the body D) transport fat-soluble vitamins

6) All of the following are ways in which fatty acids can differ from one another EXCEPT . A) number of double bonds B) degree of saturation C) chain length D) average number of calories per gram 7) Phospholipids consist of . A) glycerol and three fatty acids B) glycerol, two fatty acids, and phosphate C) multiple chemical rings D) chylomicrons 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) Lipids with high saturated fatty acid content are generally A) solid B) liquid C) warm D) gaseous 9) Arachidonic acid is associated with A) glucose metabolism B) omega-3 fatty acid metabolism C) omega-6 fatty acid metabolism D) cholesterol metabolism

at room temperature.

10) Which of the following lipids is a precursor for estrogen and bile? A) cholesterol B) alpha-linoleic acid C) eicosinoids D) saturated fat 11) Recommendations suggest that we consume approximately 20% of our fat as monounsaturated fats. All of the following would be appropriate to use to achieve this goal EXCEPT . A) peanut oil B) canola oil C) coconut oil D) olive oil 12) Lard, butter, and cream are rich sources of A) saturated fatty acids B) monounsaturated fatty acids C) polyunsaturated fatty acids D) trans fatty acids

13) The chief contributors of saturated fatty acids in the U.S. diet include A) whole grains B) sunflower, soybean, and safflower oils C) lecithins D) animal products

14) Saturated fatty acids predominate in which of the following lipids? A) canola oil B) safflower oil C) butter D) olive oil 2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

15) Which of the following groups of foods would contribute a substantial amount of monounsaturated fatty acids to the diet? A) olive oil, peanuts, and almonds B) beef franks, bologna, and ham C) carrots, beets, and peppers D) bacon, eggs, and butter 16) Monounsaturated fatty acids . A) are liquid at room temperature B) have one double bond in the fatty acid chain C) lower cholesterol D) All of these responses are correct. 17) Fats that are liquid at room temperature can be made more solid by the process of A) saponification B) hydrogenation C) emulsification D) calcification 18) Which of the following fats and oils provides the most polyunsaturated fatty acids? A) olive oil B) butter C) soybean oil D) lard 19) Which essential fatty acid is responsible for lowering the risk of coronary heart disease? A) alpha-linolenic B) linoleic C) omega-6 fatty acids D) omega-9 fatty acids E) None of these choices are correct. 20) Lecithin is classified as a A) triglyceride B) phospholipid C) sterol D) fatty acid

21) Ergosterol is a type of sterol found in A) eggs B) meat C) plants D) None of the above are correct.

22) Cholesterol is . A) not essential in the diet; the human body can synthesize it B) not found in foods of plant origin C) an important part of human cell membranes and is necessary to make some hormones D) All of these choices are correct. 23) Mike has been told to reduce his fat intake to less than 30% of his total calories. It has been recommended to him that he consume an average of 2000 calories per day. How many grams of fat should he consume per day? A) 76 grams B) 67 grams C) 80 grams D) 93 grams 24) The 2015 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that total fat intake should not exceed of total calories and saturated fat intake be limited to of total calories. A) 20%; 1% B) 20%; 5% C) 35%; 10% D) 50%; 10% 25) In the Mediterranean Diet, the majority of fat in the diet is supplied by A) olive oil and olives B) red meat C) eggs D) dairy E) cheese

26) According to guidelines from the American Heart Association for the general population, saturated fats . A) should constitute no more than 7% of total energy in the diet B) are quite visible in foods, so they should be eliminated from the diet to reduce risk of heart disease C) are only a health risk if they come from a food that has been fried D) are only a health risk if they come from gravies, desserts, and dairy products 27) Individuals with bleeding disorders taking anticoagulants or scheduling surgery should be cautious about which supplement? A) omega-6 fatty acids B) omega-9 fatty acids C) omega-3 fatty acids D) None of these responses are correct.

28) All the following are good sources of omega-3 fatty acids EXCEPT A) walnuts B) salmon C) avocados D) flaxseed oil

29) Most experts agree that total dietary cholesterol intake should be limited to day. A) 200 B) 300 C) 400 D) 500 30) Fat digestion begins in the A) intestines B) stomach C) mouth D) liver 31) Lingual lipase breaks down A) triglycerides B) proteins C) carbohydrates D) None of these choices are correct.

mg per

32) Which lipoprotein is responsible for transporting cholesterol from the liver to tissues? A) chylomicron B) low-density lipoprotein (LDL) C) high-density lipoprotein (HDL) D) chylomicron remnant 33) A fatty acid with 10 carbons will be absorbed via the A) lymphatic system B) portal system C) kidney system D) None of the above are correct. 34) High levels of disease. A) LDL B) HDL C) total cholesterol D) triglycerides

in the blood are associated with lower risk of cardiovascular

35) Lipoproteins are important for . A) transport of fats in the blood and lymphatic system B) synthesis of triglycerides C) synthesis of adipose tissue D) None of these choices are correct. 36) Which of the following lipoproteins contains the highest proportion of protein? A) LDL B) VLDL C) HDL D) chylomicrons 37) Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) are the principal transport vehicle for blood. A) glucose B) triglycerides C) phospholipids D) cholesterol E) free fatty acids 38) LDL clearance in the plasma is mediated via the A) B-48 B) B-100 C) CII D) A 39) Oxidized LDL in the blood is picked up by the A) B100 receptor B) scavenger pathway C) B48 receptor D) No cell can pick up oxidized LDL.

in the

receptor.

40) Lipoprotein lipase functions to . A) absorb fatty acids and glycerol into the lymph B) reassemble chylomicrons into lipoproteins C) break down triglycerides from lipoproteins for transfer into cells D) break down diglycerides into cholesterol for transfer into cells 41) The pathway for LDL uptake is a means by which LDL contributes to plaque formation in blood vessels. A) receptor B) atherosclerotic C) intermediate D) scavenger 6 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

42) High-density lipoproteins function in lipid transport by . A) delivering cholesterol to target cells throughout the body B) picking up cholesterol from dying cells and other sources for delivery to other lipoproteins and the liver for disposal C) slowly carrying newly synthesized fats from the liver to various body cells D) moving newly absorbed dietary fat through the intestinal wall 43) Immediately after a meal, newly digested and absorbed dietary fats appear in the lymph, and then the blood, as a part of which of the following? A) LDL B) HDL C) chylomicrons D) cholesterol 44) Which apolipoprotein is responsible for activating lipoprotein lipase? A) Apo B-48 B) Apo C-II C) Apo C D) Apo B-100 45) Excessive intakes of saturated fatty acids tend to A) increase cholesterol deposited in arteries B) decrease cholesterol levels in the veins C) be of no concern to heart disease D) increase HDL levels in the blood 46) Excessive amounts of omega-3 fatty acids can A) impair the immune system B) cause excessive bleeding C) cause hemorrhagic stroke D) All of these choices are correct. E) None of these choices are correct.

47) Blockage of a major artery is caused by a blood clot. These clots may form when A) cholesterol plaques build up in artery walls B) HDL invades artery walls C) the dietary intake of cholesterol is less than 200 mg per day D) LDL fails to remove cholesterol from artery walls

48) Which of the following is considered a desirable blood level for total cholesterol? A) 200 mg/dl or less B) 300 mg/dl or less C) 400 mg/dl or less D) 500 mg/dl or less 7 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

49) Which of the following blood levels of LDL cholesterol would increase risk for cardiovascular disease for an otherwise healthy adult? A) 100 mg/dl or less B) 130 mg/dl or less C) 130-159 mg/dl D) over 160 mg/dl 50) Which of the following is a risk factor for heart disease? A) Total blood cholesterol level greater than 200 mg/dl B) LDL level lower than 100 mg/dl C) Vigorous physical activity D) HDL level greater than 60 mg/dl 51) All of the following are uncontrollable risk factors for heart disease EXCEPT A) gender B) age C) genetics D) hypertension

52) A stroke . A) blocks blood flow in the brain B) reduces blood flow in the heart C) reduces blood flow to the gut D) is not associated with fats or lipids 53) A diet designed to reduce elevated serum LDL cholesterol levels A) is low in saturated fats B) is reduced in dietary cholesterol C) provides adequate amounts of soluble fiber D) All of these choices are correct.

54) Trans fatty acids are now considered more atherogenic than saturated fatty acids because they . A) are unnatural and only form during fat processing B) cause excessive blood clotting C) elevate LDL levels, while decreasing HDL D) cause sudden cardiac arrest in post-menopausal women 55) Margarine is usually made by a process called , in which hydrogen atoms are added to double covalent bonds in the polyunsaturated fatty acids found in vegetable oils. A) saturation B) isomerization C) esterification D) hydrogenation 8 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

56) Since monounsaturated fats are healthier, consuming them in excessive amounts is always considered good. 57) All fat-free foods are generally healthy for you. 58) The decrease in HDL due to the decrease of estrogen in postmenopausal women plays a part in the increased risk of heart disease that occurs in older women. 59) High blood levels of HDL are protective against heart disease. 60) Americans typically eat more omega-3 fatty acids than omega-6 fatty acids. 61) Trans fatty acids raise HDL and lower LDL. 62) Plants contain cholesterol. 63) Generally dietary cholesterol is recommended not to exceed 300 milligrams per day. 64) Lecithin and bile are examples of emulsifiers.

Match the term with its description. A) Phospholipid B) Fat C) Cholesterol D) Oil E) Triglyceride 65) Comprised of glycerol and fatty acids only 66) Lipid that is solid at room temperature 67) Sterol manufactured in the body 68) Major lipid class that contains phosphorus, fatty acids, and glycerol 69) Lipid that is liquid at room temperature

Match the term with the best description. A) Produces and secretes enzymes B) Stores bile for release into small intestines C) Emulsifies fat D) Stimulates the gallbladder and pancreas to release bile and pancreatic enzymes E) Enzyme found in the mouth that breaks down triglycerides 70) Cholecystokinin 71) Bile 72) Gallbladder 73) Pancreas 74) Lingual lipase

Match the lipoprotein with its description A) HDL B) LDL C) Chylomicron D) VLDL 75) Lipoprotein that transports fat made in the liver 76) Lipoprotein with the greatest cholesterol content 77) Lipoprotein made in the GI tract from digested fat 78) Lipoprotein that delivers cholesterol back to the liver and to other lipoproteins

79) Compare and contrast the typical American diet to the Mediterranean diet. 80) How do antioxidants reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease? 81) How do the plant stanols found in some margarines lower cholesterol? 82) Why are premenopausal women at lower risk for heart disease when compared to men of the same age?

83) What is atherosclerosis and what key blood cholesterol factors are most associated with this disease? 84) Lipids with high polyunsaturated fatty acid content are generally temperature. A) solid B) liquid C) warm D) gaseous

at room

85) Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) is associated with A) glucose metabolism. B) omega-3 fatty acid metabolism. C) omega-6 fatty acid metabolism. D) cholesterol metabolism. 86) Eicosanoids are A) responsible for fat transport in the bloodstream. B) proteins that act like fat. C) part of an omega-9 fatty acid. D) substances that produce diverse hormone-like effects on the body. 87) Saturated fatty acids predominate in which of the following lipids? A) canola oil B) safflower oil C) butter D) olive oil 88) What is the role of bile acids in the digestion of lipids? 89) Evaluate the following statement: "Heart disease is more likely due to genetics than diet." 90) How many hydrogen atoms are attached to each carbon participating in a double bond? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 91) Which of the following food sources would have the softest fats at room temperature? A) lard B) butter C) chicken D) safflower

92) At room temperature, which of the following dietary lipids would turn rancid the fastest? A) lard B) peanut oil C) soybean oil D) coconut oil 93) What is a common function of plant sterols? A) raise LDL and lower HDL B) inhibit absorption of dietary cholesterol C) inhibit absorption of "bad" cholesterol D) enhance absorption of omega-3 fatty acids 94) Which of the following would be seen on a blood lipid profile of a patient who was recommended to make dietary changes to reduce his or her risk for cardiovascular disease? A) low LDL and high HDL B) low HDL and high LDL C) low VLDL and high HDL D) low LDL and low HDL

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 6 Lipids 1) Alpha-linolenic acid and linoleic acid are classified as A) essential B) nonessential C) saturated D) trans

fatty acids.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Essential fatty acids; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 06.01 Recognize the basic chemical structure of fatty acids and describe how they are named. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) Which is correct regarding trans fatty acids? A) They raise HDL and LDL cholesterol. B) They lower LDL cholesterol. C) They raise blood cholesterol and lower HDL cholesterol. D) They raise blood glucose. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.09 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 06.09 Describe dietary measures to reduce the risk of developing cardiovascular disease. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

3) Which of the following correctly characterizes lipids? A) They do not dissolve in water. B) They contain carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen. C) They dissolve in water. D) They are all classified as sterols. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Lipids Learning Objective: 06.01 Recognize the basic chemical structure of fatty acids and describe how they are named. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 4) In what form is most body fat stored? A) cholesterol B) phospholipids C) triglycerides D) None of these responses are correct. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.01 Topic: Lipids; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 06.01 Recognize the basic chemical structure of fatty acids and describe how they are named. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) The functions of fat include all of the following EXCEPT A) build and repair tissue B) cushion and protect vital organs C) insulate the body D) transport fat-soluble vitamins

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.03 Topic: Lipids; Nutrient functions; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 06.02 Explain the functions of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

6) All of the following are ways in which fatty acids can differ from one another EXCEPT . A) number of double bonds B) degree of saturation C) chain length D) average number of calories per gram Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Lipids; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 06.01 Recognize the basic chemical structure of fatty acids and describe how they are named. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 7) Phospholipids consist of . A) glycerol and three fatty acids B) glycerol, two fatty acids, and phosphate C) multiple chemical rings D) chylomicrons Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.04 Topic: Phospholipids Learning Objective: 06.02 Explain the functions of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) Lipids with high saturated fatty acid content are generally A) solid B) liquid C) warm D) gaseous

at room temperature.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Lipids; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 06.01 Recognize the basic chemical structure of fatty acids and describe how they are named. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 3 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

9) Arachidonic acid is associated with A) glucose metabolism B) omega-3 fatty acid metabolism C) omega-6 fatty acid metabolism D) cholesterol metabolism

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.01 Topic: Essential fatty acids Learning Objective: 06.02 Explain the functions of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 10) Which of the following lipids is a precursor for estrogen and bile? A) cholesterol B) alpha-linoleic acid C) eicosinoids D) saturated fat Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.05 Topic: Sterols Learning Objective: 06.02 Explain the functions of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 11) Recommendations suggest that we consume approximately 20% of our fat as monounsaturated fats. All of the following would be appropriate to use to achieve this goal EXCEPT . A) peanut oil B) canola oil C) coconut oil D) olive oil Answer: C Explanation: Coconut oil is proportionately higher in saturated fat. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 06.06 Topic: Food sources; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 06.05 Discuss the recommended intake of lipids. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 4 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

12) Lard, butter, and cream are rich sources of A) saturated fatty acids B) monounsaturated fatty acids C) polyunsaturated fatty acids D) trans fatty acids

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Food sources; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 06.04 Identify food sources of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 13) The chief contributors of saturated fatty acids in the U.S. diet include A) whole grains B) sunflower, soybean, and safflower oils C) lecithins D) animal products

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Food sources; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 06.04 Identify food sources of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 14) Saturated fatty acids predominate in which of the following lipids? A) canola oil B) safflower oil C) butter D) olive oil Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Food sources; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 06.04 Identify food sources of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

15) Which of the following groups of foods would contribute a substantial amount of monounsaturated fatty acids to the diet? A) olive oil, peanuts, and almonds B) beef franks, bologna, and ham C) carrots, beets, and peppers D) bacon, eggs, and butter Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Food sources; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 06.04 Identify food sources of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 16) Monounsaturated fatty acids . A) are liquid at room temperature B) have one double bond in the fatty acid chain C) lower cholesterol D) All of these responses are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Nutrient functions; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 06.01 Recognize the basic chemical structure of fatty acids and describe how they are named. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 17) Fats that are liquid at room temperature can be made more solid by the process of A) saponification B) hydrogenation C) emulsification D) calcification Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.01 Topic: Triglycerides Learning Objective: 06.01 Recognize the basic chemical structure of fatty acids and describe how they are named. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 6 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

18) Which of the following fats and oils provides the most polyunsaturated fatty acids? A) olive oil B) butter C) soybean oil D) lard Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Food sources; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 06.04 Identify food sources of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 19) Which essential fatty acid is responsible for lowering the risk of coronary heart disease? A) alpha-linolenic B) linoleic C) omega-6 fatty acids D) omega-9 fatty acids E) None of these choices are correct. Answer: A Explanation: Alpha-linolenic acid is an omega-3 fatty acid, which help lower the chances of having a heart attack. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.09 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease; Essential fatty acids Learning Objective: 06.09 Describe dietary measures to reduce the risk of developing cardiovascular disease. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

20) Lecithin is classified as a A) triglyceride B) phospholipid C) sterol D) fatty acid

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.04 Topic: Phospholipids Learning Objective: 06.02 Explain the functions of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 21) Ergosterol is a type of sterol found in A) eggs B) meat C) plants D) None of the above are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.05 Topic: Sterols Learning Objective: 06.04 Identify food sources of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 22) Cholesterol is . A) not essential in the diet; the human body can synthesize it B) not found in foods of plant origin C) an important part of human cell membranes and is necessary to make some hormones D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.05 Topic: Nutrient functions; Sterols Learning Objective: 06.02 Explain the functions of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

23) Mike has been told to reduce his fat intake to less than 30% of his total calories. It has been recommended to him that he consume an average of 2000 calories per day. How many grams of fat should he consume per day? A) 76 grams B) 67 grams C) 80 grams D) 93 grams Answer: B Explanation: 2000 kcal × 0.30 = 600 kcal from fat 600 kcal / 9 kcal/g = 67 g fat Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 06.06 Topic: Lipids Learning Objective: 06.05 Discuss the recommended intake of lipids. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 24) The 2015 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that total fat intake should not exceed of total calories and saturated fat intake be limited to of total calories. A) 20%; 1% B) 20%; 5% C) 35%; 10% D) 50%; 10% Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.06 Topic: Lipids Learning Objective: 06.05 Discuss the recommended intake of lipids. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

25) In the Mediterranean Diet, the majority of fat in the diet is supplied by A) olive oil and olives B) red meat C) eggs D) dairy E) cheese

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.06 Topic: Lipids Learning Objective: 06.06 Identify strategies for modifying total fat, saturated fat, and trans fat intake. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 26) According to guidelines from the American Heart Association for the general population, saturated fats . A) should constitute no more than 7% of total energy in the diet B) are quite visible in foods, so they should be eliminated from the diet to reduce risk of heart disease C) are only a health risk if they come from a food that has been fried D) are only a health risk if they come from gravies, desserts, and dairy products Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.06 Topic: Lipids Learning Objective: 06.05 Discuss the recommended intake of lipids. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

27) Individuals with bleeding disorders taking anticoagulants or scheduling surgery should be cautious about which supplement? A) omega-6 fatty acids B) omega-9 fatty acids C) omega-3 fatty acids D) None of these responses are correct. Answer: C Explanation: Omega-3s have anti-inflammatory properties that could potentially thin blood and interact with anticoagulant medicines. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 06.06 Topic: Essential fatty acids Learning Objective: 06.02 Explain the functions of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols in the body. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 28) All the following are good sources of omega-3 fatty acids EXCEPT A) walnuts B) salmon C) avocados D) flaxseed oil

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.02 Topic: Essential fatty acids; Food sources Learning Objective: 06.04 Identify food sources of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

29) Most experts agree that total dietary cholesterol intake should be limited to day. A) 200 B) 300 C) 400 D) 500

mg per

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.06 Topic: Lipids; Sterols Learning Objective: 06.05 Discuss the recommended intake of lipids. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 30) Fat digestion begins in the A) intestines B) stomach C) mouth D) liver

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.07 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 31) Lingual lipase breaks down A) triglycerides B) proteins C) carbohydrates D) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.07 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

32) Which lipoprotein is responsible for transporting cholesterol from the liver to tissues? A) chylomicron B) low-density lipoprotein (LDL) C) high-density lipoprotein (HDL) D) chylomicron remnant Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.08 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 33) A fatty acid with 10 carbons will be absorbed via the A) lymphatic system B) portal system C) kidney system D) None of the above are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.07 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 34) High levels of A) LDL B) HDL C) total cholesterol D) triglycerides

in the blood are associated with lower risk of cardiovascular disease.

Answer: B Explanation: HDL collects cholesterol from the periphery and carries it to the liver for excretion. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.08 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease; Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 13 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

35) Lipoproteins are important for . A) transport of fats in the blood and lymphatic system B) synthesis of triglycerides C) synthesis of adipose tissue D) None of these choices are correct. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.08 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 36) Which of the following lipoproteins contains the highest proportion of protein? A) LDL B) VLDL C) HDL D) chylomicrons Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.08 Topic: Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 37) Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) are the principal transport vehicle for A) glucose B) triglycerides C) phospholipids D) cholesterol E) free fatty acids

in the blood.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.08 Topic: Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 14 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

38) LDL clearance in the plasma is mediated via the A) B-48 B) B-100 C) CII D) A

receptor.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.08 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 39) Oxidized LDL in the blood is picked up by the A) B100 receptor B) scavenger pathway C) B48 receptor D) No cell can pick up oxidized LDL.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.08 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 40) Lipoprotein lipase functions to . A) absorb fatty acids and glycerol into the lymph B) reassemble chylomicrons into lipoproteins C) break down triglycerides from lipoproteins for transfer into cells D) break down diglycerides into cholesterol for transfer into cells Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.08 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

41) The pathway for LDL uptake is a means by which LDL contributes to plaque formation in blood vessels. A) receptor B) atherosclerotic C) intermediate D) scavenger Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.08 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 42) High-density lipoproteins function in lipid transport by . A) delivering cholesterol to target cells throughout the body B) picking up cholesterol from dying cells and other sources for delivery to other lipoproteins and the liver for disposal C) slowly carrying newly synthesized fats from the liver to various body cells D) moving newly absorbed dietary fat through the intestinal wall Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.08 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

43) Immediately after a meal, newly digested and absorbed dietary fats appear in the lymph, and then the blood, as a part of which of the following? A) LDL B) HDL C) chylomicrons D) cholesterol Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.08 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 44) Which apolipoprotein is responsible for activating lipoprotein lipase? A) Apo B-48 B) Apo C-II C) Apo C D) Apo B-100 Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.08 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 45) Excessive intakes of saturated fatty acids tend to A) increase cholesterol deposited in arteries B) decrease cholesterol levels in the veins C) be of no concern to heart disease D) increase HDL levels in the blood

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.09 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 06.08 Explain the relationship of dietary lipids to chronic diseases. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 17 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

46) Excessive amounts of omega-3 fatty acids can A) impair the immune system B) cause excessive bleeding C) cause hemorrhagic stroke D) All of these choices are correct. E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.09 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Essential fatty acids Learning Objective: 06.08 Explain the relationship of dietary lipids to chronic diseases. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 47) Blockage of a major artery is caused by a blood clot. These clots may form when A) cholesterol plaques build up in artery walls B) HDL invades artery walls C) the dietary intake of cholesterol is less than 200 mg per day D) LDL fails to remove cholesterol from artery walls

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.09 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Objective: 06.08 Explain the relationship of dietary lipids to chronic diseases. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 48) Which of the following is considered a desirable blood level for total cholesterol? A) 200 mg/dl or less B) 300 mg/dl or less C) 400 mg/dl or less D) 500 mg/dl or less Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.09 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease; Sterols Learning Objective: 06.08 Explain the relationship of dietary lipids to chronic diseases. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

49) Which of the following blood levels of LDL cholesterol would increase risk for cardiovascular disease for an otherwise healthy adult? A) 100 mg/dl or less B) 130 mg/dl or less C) 130-159 mg/dl D) over 160 mg/dl Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.09 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease; Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.08 Explain the relationship of dietary lipids to chronic diseases. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 50) Which of the following is a risk factor for heart disease? A) Total blood cholesterol level greater than 200 mg/dl B) LDL level lower than 100 mg/dl C) Vigorous physical activity D) HDL level greater than 60 mg/dl Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.09 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Objective: 06.08 Explain the relationship of dietary lipids to chronic diseases. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 51) All of the following are uncontrollable risk factors for heart disease EXCEPT A) gender B) age C) genetics D) hypertension

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.09 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Objective: 06.09 Describe dietary measures to reduce the risk of developing cardiovascular disease. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

52) A stroke . A) blocks blood flow in the brain B) reduces blood flow in the heart C) reduces blood flow to the gut D) is not associated with fats or lipids Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.09 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 06.08 Explain the relationship of dietary lipids to chronic diseases. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 53) A diet designed to reduce elevated serum LDL cholesterol levels A) is low in saturated fats B) is reduced in dietary cholesterol C) provides adequate amounts of soluble fiber D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 06.09 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease; Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.09 Describe dietary measures to reduce the risk of developing cardiovascular disease. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 54) Trans fatty acids are now considered more atherogenic than saturated fatty acids because they . A) are unnatural and only form during fat processing B) cause excessive blood clotting C) elevate LDL levels, while decreasing HDL D) cause sudden cardiac arrest in post-menopausal women Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.09 Topic: Lipids; Cardiovascular Disease Learning Objective: 06.08 Explain the relationship of dietary lipids to chronic diseases. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

55) Margarine is usually made by a process called , in which hydrogen atoms are added to double covalent bonds in the polyunsaturated fatty acids found in vegetable oils. A) saturation B) isomerization C) esterification D) hydrogenation Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Lipids Learning Objective: 06.01 Recognize the basic chemical structure of fatty acids and describe how they are named. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 56) Since monounsaturated fats are healthier, consuming them in excessive amounts is always considered good. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The recommendation for TOTAL fat is still 20%-35% of total kcals, including monosaturated sources. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 06.09 Topic: Lipids; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 06.08 Explain the relationship of dietary lipids to chronic diseases. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 57) All fat-free foods are generally healthy for you. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Fat-free foods may contain no fat, but can be high in sugar, kcals, and processed ingredients. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Food sources Learning Objective: 06.04 Identify food sources of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

58) The decrease in HDL due to the decrease of estrogen in postmenopausal women plays a part in the increased risk of heart disease that occurs in older women. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.09 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Objective: 06.08 Explain the relationship of dietary lipids to chronic diseases. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 59) High blood levels of HDL are protective against heart disease. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.09 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Objective: 06.08 Explain the relationship of dietary lipids to chronic diseases. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 60) Americans typically eat more omega-3 fatty acids than omega-6 fatty acids. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Americans generally consume a higher proportion of omega-6 fatty acids, as compared to omega-3s. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.06 Topic: Essential fatty acids Learning Objective: 06.05 Discuss the recommended intake of lipids. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 61) Trans fatty acids raise HDL and lower LDL. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Trans fats tend to LOWER HDL and RAISE LDL. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.09 Topic: Lipids; Cardiovascular Disease; Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.08 Explain the relationship of dietary lipids to chronic diseases. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

62) Plants contain cholesterol. Answer: FALSE Explanation: ONLY animal foods contain dietary cholesterol. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.05 Topic: Food sources; Sterols Learning Objective: 06.04 Identify food sources of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 63) Generally dietary cholesterol is recommended not to exceed 300 milligrams per day. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.06 Topic: Sterols Learning Objective: 06.05 Discuss the recommended intake of lipids. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 64) Lecithin and bile are examples of emulsifiers. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.04 Topic: Phospholipids Learning Objective: 06.03 Classify and evaluate the different fatty acids based on their health benefits or consequences. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

Match the term with its description. A) Triglyceride B) Fat C) Oil D) Phospholipid E) Cholesterol 65) Comprised of glycerol and fatty acids only Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.01 Topic: Lipids Learning Objective: 06.03 Classify and evaluate the different fatty acids based on their health benefits or consequences. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 66) Lipid that is solid at room temperature Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.01 Topic: Lipids Learning Objective: 06.03 Classify and evaluate the different fatty acids based on their health benefits or consequences. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 67) Sterol manufactured in the body Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.01 Topic: Lipids Learning Objective: 06.03 Classify and evaluate the different fatty acids based on their health benefits or consequences. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 68) Major lipid class that contains phosphorus, fatty acids, and glycerol Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.01 Topic: Lipids Learning Objective: 06.03 Classify and evaluate the different fatty acids based on their health benefits or consequences. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

69) Lipid that is liquid at room temperature Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.01 Topic: Lipids Learning Objective: 06.03 Classify and evaluate the different fatty acids based on their health benefits or consequences. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 65) A 66) B 67) E 68) D 69) C

Match the term with the best description. A) Enzyme found in the mouth that breaks down triglycerides B) Emulsifies fat C) Stimulates the gallbladder and pancreas to release bile and pancreatic enzymes D) Produces and secretes enzymes E) Stores bile for release into small intestines 70) Cholecystokinin Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.07 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 71) Bile Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.07 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 72) Gallbladder Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.07 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 73) Pancreas Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.07 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

74) Lingual lipase Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.07 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 70) C 71) B 72) E 73) D 74) A

Match the lipoprotein with its description A) VLDL B) LDL C) Chylomicron D) HDL 75) Lipoprotein that transports fat made in the liver Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.08 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 76) Lipoprotein with the greatest cholesterol content Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.08 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 77) Lipoprotein made in the GI tract from digested fat Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.08 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 78) Lipoprotein that delivers cholesterol back to the liver and to other lipoproteins Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.08 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 75) A 76) B 77) C 78) D 28 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

79) Compare and contrast the typical American diet to the Mediterranean diet. Answer: Answers will vary. The traditional Mediterranean Diet features the following: • Olive oil as the main fat (American high in sat fat) • Abundant daily intake of fruits, vegetables (especially leafy greens like purslane, which is high in omega-3 fatty acids), whole grains, beans, nuts, and seeds (American low in fruits and vegs) • An emphasis on minimally processed and, wherever possible, seasonally fresh and locally grown foods (American high in processed foods) • Daily intake of small amounts of cheese and yogurt (American high in cheese and dairy) • Weekly intake of low to moderate amounts of fish (American low in fish) • Limited use of eggs and red meat (American high in red meat and eggs) • Regular exercise (American low in activity) • Moderate drinking of wine at mealtime Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Food sources Learning Objective: 06.04 Identify food sources of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 80) How do antioxidants reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease? Answer: Answers will vary. Some of the LDL that remains in the blood becomes damaged (oxidized) by free radicals, although a diet rich in antioxidants can help reduce LDL oxidation. Oxidized LDL increases the risk of cardiovascular disease and metabolic syndrome. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.08 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease; Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

81) How do the plant stanols found in some margarines lower cholesterol? Answer: Answers will vary. Plant stanols/sterols in the daily diet help reduce cholesterol absorption in the small intestine and lower its return to the liver. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.09 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease; Sterols Learning Objective: 06.08 Explain the relationship of dietary lipids to chronic diseases. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 82) Why are premenopausal women at lower risk for heart disease when compared to men of the same age? Answer: Answers will vary. Many studies have demonstrated that the amount of HDL in the blood can closely predict the risk of cardiovascular disease. Risk increases with low HDL levels because little blood cholesterol is transported back to the liver and excreted. Women tend to have high amounts of HDL, especially before menopause, whereas low amounts are more common in men. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.09 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Objective: 06.09 Describe dietary measures to reduce the risk of developing cardiovascular disease. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 83) What is atherosclerosis and what key blood cholesterol factors are most associated with this disease? Answer: Answers will vary. Atherosclerosis, also referred to as hardening of the arteries, develops as plaque thickens in the vessel. This thickening eventually chokes off the blood supply to organs, setting the stage for a heart attack and other problems, or it breaks apart and causes a clot to form in an artery. Typically, high LDL and low HDL values are associated with higher risk. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 06.09 Topic: Lipids; Cardiovascular Disease Learning Objective: 06.09 Describe dietary measures to reduce the risk of developing cardiovascular disease. Bloom's: Analyze

84) Lipids with high polyunsaturated fatty acid content are generally temperature. A) solid B) liquid C) warm D) gaseous

at room

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Lipids Learning Objective: 06.01 Recognize the basic chemical structure of fatty acids and describe how they are named. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 85) Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) is associated with A) glucose metabolism. B) omega-3 fatty acid metabolism. C) omega-6 fatty acid metabolism. D) cholesterol metabolism. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Essential fatty acids Learning Objective: 06.02 Explain the functions of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 86) Eicosanoids are A) responsible for fat transport in the bloodstream. B) proteins that act like fat. C) part of an omega-9 fatty acid. D) substances that produce diverse hormone-like effects on the body. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.01 Topic: Essential fatty acids Learning Objective: 06.02 Explain the functions of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 31 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

87) Saturated fatty acids predominate in which of the following lipids? A) canola oil B) safflower oil C) butter D) olive oil Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.02 Topic: Lipids; Food sources Learning Objective: 06.04 Identify food sources of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 88) What is the role of bile acids in the digestion of lipids? Answer: Answers will vary. Bile emulsifies fats. That is, it breaks fat into many tiny droplets, called micelles, and forms a shell around the micelles that keeps the fat droplets suspended in the water-based intestinal contents. Emulsification increases the surface area of lipids and allows pancreatic lipase to efficiently break triglycerides into monoglycerides and free fatty acids. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.07 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 06.07 Summarize the digestion, absorption, and transport of lipids in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

89) Evaluate the following statement: "Heart disease is more likely due to genetics than diet." Answer: Answers will vary. Having a close relative who died prematurely from CVD, especially before age 50, may increase the risk. Those with the highest risk of premature CVD have genetic defects that block the removal of chylomicrons and triglycerides from the blood, reduce the liver's ability to remove LDL-cholesterol from the blood, limit the synthesis of HDL-cholesterol, or increase blood clotting. However, a genetic link does not ENSURE an individual will suffer from a similar fate. Diet and lifestyle practices that are preventative in nature are important regardless of genetic history. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 06.09 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Objective: 06.09 Describe dietary measures to reduce the risk of developing cardiovascular disease. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 3-5 minutes 90) How many hydrogen atoms are attached to each carbon participating in a double bond? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Triglycerides Learning Objective: 06.01 Recognize the basic chemical structure of fatty acids and describe how they are named. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

91) Which of the following food sources would have the softest fats at room temperature? A) lard B) butter C) chicken D) safflower Answer: D Explanation: Of the answers listed, safflower oil has the highest unsaturated percentage, lending to more liquid in consistency. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 06.01 Topic: Lipids; Food sources Learning Objective: 06.01 Recognize the basic chemical structure of fatty acids and describe how they are named. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 92) At room temperature, which of the following dietary lipids would turn rancid the fastest? A) lard B) peanut oil C) soybean oil D) coconut oil Answer: C Explanation: Typically, polyunsaturated fats turn rancid most quickly. Soybean oil is high in polyunsaturated fats. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 06.01 Topic: Lipids; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 06.01 Recognize the basic chemical structure of fatty acids and describe how they are named. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

93) What is a common function of plant sterols? A) raise LDL and lower HDL B) inhibit absorption of dietary cholesterol C) inhibit absorption of "bad" cholesterol D) enhance absorption of omega-3 fatty acids Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.05 Topic: Sterols Learning Objective: 06.02 Explain the functions of triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 94) Which of the following would be seen on a blood lipid profile of a patient who was recommended to make dietary changes to reduce his or her risk for cardiovascular disease? A) low LDL and high HDL B) low HDL and high LDL C) low VLDL and high HDL D) low LDL and low HDL Answer: B Explanation: Typically, those at higher risk for heart disease would have a high LDL value and low HDL. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 06.09 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease; Lipoproteins Learning Objective: 06.09 Describe dietary measures to reduce the risk of developing cardiovascular disease. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 7 Protein 1) The basic building blocks of protein are A) amino acids B) polypeptides C) enzymes D) hormones 2) The presence of A) carbon B) choline C) nitrogen D) hydrogen 3) Dietary proteins supply A) 4 B) 7 C) 9 D) 15

chemically distinguishes protein from carbohydrate and fat.

kcal per gram.

4) Which bodily function is NOT associated with protein? A) blood clotting B) fluid balance C) cell growth and repair D) sparing glucose for energy use as the primary source of energy 5) Over time, if protein intake does not meet the body's protein needs for building and repair of tissues, . A) skeletal muscle, heart muscle, and the liver decrease in size B) excessive body fluid begins to accumulate in the extracellular spaces C) the immune system fails to function properly D) All of these choices are accurate. 6) Which of the following foods provides all of the essential amino acids? A) wheat B) peanut butter C) navy beans D) milk 7) The side chain, or R portion, of an amino acid . A) can be synthesized if there is a source of nitrogen B) can be synthesized if caloric intake is adequate C) cannot be synthesized in sufficient quantities to meet body needs D) determines the name of the amino acid 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) Which of the following amino acids is classified as a "conditionally essential" amino acid? A) methionine B) phenylalanine C) tyrosine D) lysine 9) Foods containing all essential amino acids in the proportion needed by the body are designated as . A) incomplete proteins B) high-quantity proteins C) dispensable proteins D) complete proteins 10) Good sources of high-quality (complete) protein include all of the following EXCEPT . A) soybeans B) eggs C) whole wheat D) fish 11) When over 10 amino acids are chemically linked by peptide bonds, the resulting product is known as . A) a dipeptide B) a tripeptide C) an oligopeptide D) a polypeptide 12) Cooking an egg destroys its physiological property by A) denaturation B) emulsification C) esterification D) detoxification

13) When 2 or more plant proteins are combined to compensate for deficiencies in essential amino acid content in each protein, the proteins are called . A) nonessential proteins B) complementary proteins C) conditional proteins D) corrected proteins

14) DNA-coded instructions for protein synthesis consist of a sequence of per unit. A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 10

nucleotides

15) The nucleotide units that represent a specific amino acid in protein synthesis are called . A) blocks B) bonds C) peptides D) codons 16) The genetic disorder sickle-cell anemia produces a profound change in A) hemoglobin B) albumin C) phenylalanine D) lysine

structure.

17) The sequential order of the amino acids in the polypeptide chain is called the A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) tertiary structure D) quaternary structure 18) Worldwide, approximately A) 10% B) 35% C) 50% D) 75%

of protein comes from animal sources.

19) Protein quality is determined by all of the following EXCEPT A) the food's digestibility B) the food's cost C) the food's amino acid composition D) the food's ability to support body growth

20) Which of the following conditions would result in negative nitrogen balance? A) recovery from injury B) weight training C) pregnancy D) kwashiorkor

21) Nitrogen makes up approximately A) 8% B) 16% C) 24% D) 32%

of the weight of an amino acid.

22) The RDA for protein for most healthy adults is A) 0.5 g/kg of body weight B) 0.8 g/kg of body weight C) 1.2 g/kg of body weight D) 2.0 g/kg of body weight 23) When food proteins reach the stomach, HCl A) esterifies B) emulsifies C) transaminates D) denatures

the protein.

24) Which of the following enzymes aids in digesting polypeptides into shorter peptides and amino acids? A) lipase B) trypsin C) HCL D) lactase 25) The functions of protein include . A) providing structural support to body cells B) producing antibodies to fight infection C) contributing to acid-base balance D) All of these are functions of protein. 26) Edema in the lower extremities may appear when there is a severe lack of dietary protein because . A) sodium is retained in the body B) blood protein levels drop and fluid shifts into interstitial spaces C) blood protein levels increase and force fluid into the cells D) the kidneys cannot efficiently excrete excess fluid 27) Amino acids are required for the synthesis of A) enzymes B) neurotransmitters C) some hormones D) All of the responses are accurate.

28) A diet that is deficient in carbohydrate will ultimately force the liver and, to a lesser extent, the kidneys to . A) produce glucose from amino acids B) use fat stores to synthesize glucose C) convert glucose to glycogen in the liver D) All of the above will occur. 29) Proteins help regulate blood pH by . A) accepting and releasing hydrogen ions B) keeping the blood more acidic C) releasing ketone-forming amino acids into the blood D) pumping potassium out of the cells 30) are compounds that help to maintain acid-base balance within a narrow range. A) Antibodies B) Buffers C) Sterols D) Enzymes 31) The proteins that inactivate foreign bacteria and viruses to help prevent infections are called . A) enzymes B) hormones C) collagen D) antibodies 32) The lack of an immune response to foreign compounds entering the body is called A) allergy B) anergy C) anorexia D) allopathy 33) A high-quality protein used as a standard for measuring the quality of other proteins is . A) milk B) beef C) egg white D) soybean 34) The biological value of a food protein is a measure of . A) how much of the food one eats B) the total amount of nitrogen in the blood C) how closely it meets amino acid needs D) the weight gained by a growing rat after eating the food protein for 10 days

35) A growing child who is consuming adequate protein but only 50% of his or her energy needs will likely be in . A) nitrogen equilibrium B) positive nitrogen balance C) negative nitrogen balance 36) What would be the recommended amount of protein for a 121-pound female? A) 21 g/day B) 36 g/day C) 44 g/day D) 55 g/day 37) Judy's dietary intake provides 90 grams of protein. Her total energy intake is 2000 kcal. Approximately what percentage of her energy comes from protein? A) 8% B) 11% C) 18% D) 28% 38) Most Americans consume A) the correct amount of B) excessive amounts of C) inadequate amounts of D) poor quality

dietary protein compared to the RDA.

39) A high-protein diet is discouraged for patients with A) infection B) marasmus C) kidney disease D) kwashiorkor 40) A vegan diet may be low in A) vitamin B-12 B) iron C) calcium D) All of these responses are correct.

41) When plant proteins are compared to animal proteins, they A) usually have equal quantities of essential amino acids B) are usually superior in their array of essential amino acids C) are usually deficient in one or more essential amino acids D) are equal in quality so long as they are not overcooked

42) The recommended amount of protein as a percentage of total energy intake is A) 15% to 20% B) 20% to 30% C) 10% to 35% D) 40% to 50% 43) The major symptoms of kwashiorkor in children are A) edema and growth failure B) nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea C) increased appetite and hyperactivity D) overweight and an excess accumulation of fat

44) Kwashiorkor . A) is a disease of severely deficient protein intake B) is a childhood allergy to human breast milk C) is caused by excessive consumption of cow's milk D) develops in infants who consume contaminated, high protein infant formulas 45) Signs of protein deficiency may include A) edema B) mild to moderate weight loss C) poor resistance to infection D) All of these choices are accurate.

46) After major surgery, hospital patients may be at risk of PEM due to A) poor prior health B) low dietary intakes C) increased needs for recovery D) All of these choices are correct.

47) An example of two incomplete protein foods eaten together to produce a complete protein meal is . A) bread and butter B) red beans and rice C) cereal and milk D) hamburger with a bun 48) A vegan will eat . A) milk chocolate and quiche dishes B) dairy products, eggs, and fish C) dairy products and plant foods D) only foods from plant sources

49) A process involved in the synthesis of nonessential amino acids is called A) ketogenesis B) gluconeogenesis C) transamination D) supplementation

50) Which of the following is NOT a means of determining the protein quality of a food? A) biological value B) chemical score C) protein efficiency ratio D) complementary score 51) Marasmus is characterized by A) edema B) extreme weight loss and fat loss C) excess energy intakes D) allergy to cow's milk

52) An antibody is . A) a protein that breaks down polypeptides for digestion B) a substance that adjusts hydrogen ion concentration C) a substance that inactivates foreign proteins in the body D) the lack of an immune response to foreign substances entering the body 53) Anergy is . A) the space between body cells B) a substance that adjusts hydrogen ion concentration C) a substance that inactivates foreign proteins in the body D) the lack of an immune response to foreign substances entering the body 54) Excess protein intake can result in A) diabetes B) iron deficiency C) loss of calcium D) excess fiber intake

55) The body needs 18 different amino acids to function properly. 56) The 9 amino acids that the body cannot make are known as nonessential amino acids. 57) An individual with the genetic disease PKU has a limited ability to metabolize the essential amino acid phenylalanine. 58) Nonessential amino acids can be synthesized through a process called transamination.

59) Each strand of DNA is composed of the nucleotides adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine. 60) Vegans need to plan their diets carefully to include adequate complementary proteins that provide the needed essential amino acids. 61) Individuals who are attempting to build up their muscles need 3 times as much protein as those who are not building muscles. 62) Legumes are an excellent source of vegetable protein. 63) The Protein Digestibility Corrected Amino Acid Score (PDCAAS) is the score derived by multiplying a food's chemical score by its digestibility. 64) For the average North American, protein needs can be easily met through our typical diets without the need for supplementation. 65) During times of recovery from illness or injury, protein needs may range from 0.8 to 2.0 g/kg body weight. 66) Proteins in cow's milk and egg white are not recommended to be given to infants prior to 12 months of age as they may predispose the infant to allergies. 67) High-protein diets are often associated with increased intake of saturated fat and cholesterol in the diet. 68) Marasmus in infants commonly occurs in poverty-stricken countries. 69) An excess intake of protein, especially from protein supplements, can increase the risk of amino acid toxicity. 70) Peanuts, cow's milk, and shellfish are among foods considered to be highly allergenic. 71) Once a food allergy has developed, it persists throughout life. 72) Compared to the typical American diet, vegetarian diets are generally lower in dietary fiber. 73) Lacto-ovo-vegetarians exclude meat, poultry, fish, and eggs from their diet. 74) The enzymatic digestion of protein begins in the stomach, where proteins are broken down into shorter polypeptide chains of amino acids. 75) Protein intakes above 35% of energy intake may be associated with dehydration, amino acid imbalance, and increased risk of certain cancers. 76) Vegetarian diets are most often low in calcium, vitamin D, vitamin B-12, iron, and zinc. 9 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

77) Most animal proteins have a high biological value as their tissue amino acid composition is similar to that of human tissues. 78) Explain the difference between essential and nonessential amino acids. 79) Why do individuals with PKU need the nonessential amino acid tyrosine in their diets? 80) Suggest 3 meals that make use of the concept of complementary proteins. 81) What is a limiting amino acid? 82) Define the four levels of protein organization. 83) Explain why denaturation of a protein destroys its biological function. 84) Define and explain the importance of "protein turnover." 85) List 3 ways of evaluating food protein quality. 86) Calculate the protein needs of a healthy, 140-lb woman. 87) If Krista consumes 65 grams of protein as part of a 1900-kcal diet, what percent of her total calories are from protein? 88) List 2 circumstances in which an individual might be in positive nitrogen balance. 89) List 2 circumstances in which an individual might be in negative nitrogen balance. 90) Explain 3 functions of protein in the body. 91) Compare and contrast kwashiorkor and marasmus. 92) List 3 nutrients that are likely to be low in a vegan diet. 93) List 3 foods that are often allergenic. 94) What suggestions would you give to a mother who would like her 5-year-old child to follow a vegetarian diet? 95) Why are high-protein diets potentially harmful? 96) What suggestions would you give to athletes taking multiple amino acid supplements? 97) List 3 situations in which a North American college student might be at risk of PEM.

98) The weaker chemical bonds that form between amino acids that stabilize the structure create the structure. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary 99) What would happen to dietary protein if HCl were not being produced in sufficient quantities? A) Protein digestion would occur at a faster rate. B) Protein digestion could not fully occur because proteins could not be denatured and pepsinogen could not be converted to pepsin. C) Proteins would be digested by gastric lipase in the stomach. D) None of the choices are correct. 100) If you were cut and needed to heal the wound, which type of protein would the body produce? A) Ferritin B) Albumin C) Collagen D) Hemoglobin 101) What is the state of nitrogen balance when a person ingests 13 g of food nitrogen and loses 21 g of nitrogen? A) Equilibrium B) Positive balance C) Negative balance D) Exogenous balance 102) What would be the effect on protein digestion if insufficient amounts of gastrin were being produced? A) Too much HCL would be produced, resulting in rapid protein digestion. B) Too little HCL would be produced, resulting in insufficient protein digestion. C) Too much amylase would be produced, inhibiting the digestion of protein. D) No effect; gastrin does not play a role in the secretion of enzymes or substances related to protein digestion.

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 7 Protein 1) The basic building blocks of protein are A) amino acids B) polypeptides C) enzymes D) hormones

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: Proteins; Protein synthesis and organization Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) The presence of A) carbon B) choline C) nitrogen D) hydrogen

chemically distinguishes protein from carbohydrate and fat.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: Proteins; Protein synthesis and organization Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 3) Dietary proteins supply A) 4 B) 7 C) 9 D) 15

kcal per gram.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.06 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

4) Which bodily function is NOT associated with protein? A) blood clotting B) fluid balance C) cell growth and repair D) sparing glucose for energy use as the primary source of energy Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.06 Topic: Proteins; Nutrient Functions Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) Over time, if protein intake does not meet the body's protein needs for building and repair of tissues, . A) skeletal muscle, heart muscle, and the liver decrease in size B) excessive body fluid begins to accumulate in the extracellular spaces C) the immune system fails to function properly D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.07 Topic: Protein-calorie malnutrition Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 6) Which of the following foods provides all of the essential amino acids? A) wheat B) peanut butter C) navy beans D) milk Answer: D Explanation: Animal products, such as milk, contain all 9 essential amino acids; whereas most plant proteins do not. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.03 Topic: Essential amino acids; Food Sources Learning Objective: 07.03 Distinguish between high quality and low quality proteins and list sources of each. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

7) The side chain, or R portion, of an amino acid . A) can be synthesized if there is a source of nitrogen B) can be synthesized if caloric intake is adequate C) cannot be synthesized in sufficient quantities to meet body needs D) determines the name of the amino acid Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.01 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) Which of the following amino acids is classified as a "conditionally essential" amino acid? A) methionine B) phenylalanine C) tyrosine D) lysine Answer: C Explanation: Tyrosine becomes conditionally essential when an individual cannot process phenylalanine. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.01 Topic: Essential amino acids Learning Objective: 07.02 Define essential and nonessential amino acids and explain why adequate amounts of each of the essential amino acids are required for protein synthesis. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

9) Foods containing all essential amino acids in the proportion needed by the body are designated as . A) incomplete proteins B) high-quantity proteins C) dispensable proteins D) complete proteins Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: Proteins; Essential amino acids Learning Objective: 07.03 Distinguish between high quality and low quality proteins and list sources of each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 10) Good sources of high-quality (complete) protein include all of the following EXCEPT . A) soybeans B) eggs C) whole wheat D) fish Answer: C Explanation: Animal products contain all 9 essential amino acids (and therefore are complete proteins); whereas most plant proteins, including whole wheat products, do not. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.01 Topic: Proteins; Food Sources Learning Objective: 07.03 Distinguish between high quality and low quality proteins and list sources of each. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

11) When over 10 amino acids are chemically linked by peptide bonds, the resulting product is known as . A) a dipeptide B) a tripeptide C) an oligopeptide D) a polypeptide Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 12) Cooking an egg destroys its physiological property by A) denaturation B) emulsification C) esterification D) detoxification

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.02 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 13) When 2 or more plant proteins are combined to compensate for deficiencies in essential amino acid content in each protein, the proteins are called . A) nonessential proteins B) complementary proteins C) conditional proteins D) corrected proteins Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: Essential amino acids; Food Sources Learning Objective: 07.04 Describe how 2 low quality proteins can be complementary to each other to provide the required amounts of essential amino acids. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

14) DNA-coded instructions for protein synthesis consist of a sequence of per unit. A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 10

nucleotides

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.02 Topic: Protein synthesis and organization Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 15) The nucleotide units that represent a specific amino acid in protein synthesis are called . A) blocks B) bonds C) peptides D) codons Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.02 Topic: Protein synthesis and organization Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 16) The genetic disorder sickle-cell anemia produces a profound change in A) hemoglobin B) albumin C) phenylalanine D) lysine

structure.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.02 Topic: Protein synthesis and organization Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

17) The sequential order of the amino acids in the polypeptide chain is called the A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) tertiary structure D) quaternary structure

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.02 Topic: Protein synthesis and organization Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 18) Worldwide, approximately A) 10% B) 35% C) 50% D) 75%

of protein comes from animal sources.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.03 Topic: Food Sources; Demographic trends and stats Learning Objective: 07.03 Distinguish between high quality and low quality proteins and list sources of each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 19) Protein quality is determined by all of the following EXCEPT A) the food's digestibility B) the food's cost C) the food's amino acid composition D) the food's ability to support body growth

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.03 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.05 Explain the methods used to measure the protein quality of foods. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

20) Which of the following conditions would result in negative nitrogen balance? A) recovery from injury B) weight training C) pregnancy D) kwashiorkor Answer: D Explanation: Kwashiorkor is a form of protein malnutrition whereby the body is in negative nitrogen balance. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.04 Topic: Protein-calorie malnutrition Learning Objective: 07.08 Explain positive nitrogen balance, negative nitrogen balance, and nitrogen equilibrium and list the conditions under which they occur. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 21) Nitrogen makes up approximately A) 8% B) 16% C) 24% D) 32%

of the weight of an amino acid.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.04 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.08 Explain positive nitrogen balance, negative nitrogen balance, and nitrogen equilibrium and list the conditions under which they occur. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 22) The RDA for protein for most healthy adults is A) 0.5 g/kg of body weight B) 0.8 g/kg of body weight C) 1.2 g/kg of body weight D) 2.0 g/kg of body weight

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.04 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.07 Calculate the RDA for protein for a healthy adult with a given body weight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

23) When food proteins reach the stomach, HCl A) esterifies B) emulsifies C) transaminates D) denatures

the protein.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 07.09 Describe how protein is digested and absorbed in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 24) Which of the following enzymes aids in digesting polypeptides into shorter peptides and amino acids? A) lipase B) trypsin C) HCL D) lactase Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 07.09 Describe how protein is digested and absorbed in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 25) The functions of protein include . A) providing structural support to body cells B) producing antibodies to fight infection C) contributing to acid-base balance D) All of these are functions of protein. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.06 Topic: Proteins; Nutrient Functions Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

26) Edema in the lower extremities may appear when there is a severe lack of dietary protein because . A) sodium is retained in the body B) blood protein levels drop and fluid shifts into interstitial spaces C) blood protein levels increase and force fluid into the cells D) the kidneys cannot efficiently excrete excess fluid Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.06 Topic: Nutrient Functions Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 27) Amino acids are required for the synthesis of A) enzymes B) neurotransmitters C) some hormones D) All of the responses are accurate.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.06 Topic: Nutrient Functions Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 28) A diet that is deficient in carbohydrate will ultimately force the liver and, to a lesser extent, the kidneys to . A) produce glucose from amino acids B) use fat stores to synthesize glucose C) convert glucose to glycogen in the liver D) All of the above will occur. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.06 Topic: Nutrient Functions Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

29) Proteins help regulate blood pH by . A) accepting and releasing hydrogen ions B) keeping the blood more acidic C) releasing ketone-forming amino acids into the blood D) pumping potassium out of the cells Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.06 Topic: Nutrient Functions Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 30) are compounds that help to maintain acid-base balance within a narrow range. A) Antibodies B) Buffers C) Sterols D) Enzymes Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.06 Topic: Nutrient Functions Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 31) The proteins that inactivate foreign bacteria and viruses to help prevent infections are called . A) enzymes B) hormones C) collagen D) antibodies Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.06 Topic: Nutrient Functions Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

32) The lack of an immune response to foreign compounds entering the body is called A) allergy B) anergy C) anorexia D) allopathy Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.06 Topic: Nutrient Functions Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 33) A high-quality protein used as a standard for measuring the quality of other proteins is . A) milk B) beef C) egg white D) soybean Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.03 Topic: Proteins; Food Sources Learning Objective: 07.03 Distinguish between high quality and low quality proteins and list sources of each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 34) The biological value of a food protein is a measure of . A) how much of the food one eats B) the total amount of nitrogen in the blood C) how closely it meets amino acid needs D) the weight gained by a growing rat after eating the food protein for 10 days Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.03 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.03 Distinguish between high quality and low quality proteins and list sources of each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

35) A growing child who is consuming adequate protein but only 50% of his or her energy needs will likely be in . A) nitrogen equilibrium B) positive nitrogen balance C) negative nitrogen balance Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.04 Topic: Protein-calorie malnutrition Learning Objective: 07.08 Explain positive nitrogen balance, negative nitrogen balance, and nitrogen equilibrium and list the conditions under which they occur. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 36) What would be the recommended amount of protein for a 121-pound female? A) 21 g/day B) 36 g/day C) 44 g/day D) 55 g/day Answer: C Explanation: 121 lbs / 2.2 lbs/kg = 55 kg 55 kg × 0.8 g/kg/day = 44 g/day Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.04 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.07 Calculate the RDA for protein for a healthy adult with a given body weight. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

37) Judy's dietary intake provides 90 grams of protein. Her total energy intake is 2000 kcal. Approximately what percentage of her energy comes from protein? A) 8% B) 11% C) 18% D) 28% Answer: C Explanation: 90 g protein × 4 kcal/g = 360 kcal from protein 360 kcal from protein / 2000 total kcal = 0.18 = 18% of kcal from protein Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.04 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.07 Calculate the RDA for protein for a healthy adult with a given body weight. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 38) Most Americans consume A) the correct amount of B) excessive amounts of C) inadequate amounts of D) poor quality

dietary protein compared to the RDA.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.04 Topic: Proteins; Demographic trends and stats Learning Objective: 07.07 Calculate the RDA for protein for a healthy adult with a given body weight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

39) A high-protein diet is discouraged for patients with A) infection B) marasmus C) kidney disease D) kwashiorkor

Answer: C Explanation: The organ that processes excessive protein in the form of toxic urea is the kidney. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.07 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.11 Describe the differences between the two types of protein-energy malnutrition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 40) A vegan diet may be low in A) vitamin B-12 B) iron C) calcium D) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.08 Topic: Plant-based diets Learning Objective: 07.13 Develop a vegetarian diet plan that meets the body's protein needs. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 41) When plant proteins are compared to animal proteins, they A) usually have equal quantities of essential amino acids B) are usually superior in their array of essential amino acids C) are usually deficient in one or more essential amino acids D) are equal in quality so long as they are not overcooked

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.01 Topic: Essential amino acids; Plant-based diets Learning Objective: 07.03 Distinguish between high quality and low quality proteins and list sources of each. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

42) The recommended amount of protein as a percentage of total energy intake is A) 15% to 20% B) 20% to 30% C) 10% to 35% D) 40% to 50%

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.04 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.07 Calculate the RDA for protein for a healthy adult with a given body weight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 43) The major symptoms of kwashiorkor in children are A) edema and growth failure B) nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea C) increased appetite and hyperactivity D) overweight and an excess accumulation of fat

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.07 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Protein-calorie malnutrition Learning Objective: 07.11 Describe the differences between the two types of protein-energy malnutrition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 44) Kwashiorkor . A) is a disease of severely deficient protein intake B) is a childhood allergy to human breast milk C) is caused by excessive consumption of cow's milk D) develops in infants who consume contaminated, high protein infant formulas Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.07 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Protein-calorie malnutrition Learning Objective: 07.11 Describe the differences between the two types of protein-energy malnutrition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

45) Signs of protein deficiency may include A) edema B) mild to moderate weight loss C) poor resistance to infection D) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.07 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Protein-calorie malnutrition Learning Objective: 07.11 Describe the differences between the two types of protein-energy malnutrition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 46) After major surgery, hospital patients may be at risk of PEM due to A) poor prior health B) low dietary intakes C) increased needs for recovery D) All of these choices are correct.

47) An example of two incomplete protein foods eaten together to produce a complete protein meal is . A) bread and butter B) red beans and rice C) cereal and milk D) hamburger with a bun Answer: B Explanation: Red beans and rice are complimentary proteins, making a complete protein (with all 9 essential amino acids) together. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.01 Topic: Essential amino acids; Food Sources Learning Objective: 07.04 Describe how 2 low quality proteins can be complementary to each other to provide the required amounts of essential amino acids. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 48) A vegan will eat . A) milk chocolate and quiche dishes B) dairy products, eggs, and fish C) dairy products and plant foods D) only foods from plant sources Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.08 Topic: Plant-based diets Learning Objective: 07.13 Develop a vegetarian diet plan that meets the body's protein needs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 49) A process involved in the synthesis of nonessential amino acids is called A) ketogenesis B) gluconeogenesis C) transamination D) supplementation

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.01 Topic: Protein synthesis and organization Learning Objective: 07.02 Define essential and nonessential amino acids and explain why adequate amounts of each of the essential amino acids are required for protein synthesis. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 18 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

50) Which of the following is NOT a means of determining the protein quality of a food? A) biological value B) chemical score C) protein efficiency ratio D) complementary score Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.03 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.03 Distinguish between high quality and low quality proteins and list sources of each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 51) Marasmus is characterized by A) edema B) extreme weight loss and fat loss C) excess energy intakes D) allergy to cow's milk

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.07 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Protein-calorie malnutrition Learning Objective: 07.11 Describe the differences between the two types of protein-energy malnutrition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 52) An antibody is . A) a protein that breaks down polypeptides for digestion B) a substance that adjusts hydrogen ion concentration C) a substance that inactivates foreign proteins in the body D) the lack of an immune response to foreign substances entering the body Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.06 Topic: Nutrient Functions Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

53) Anergy is . A) the space between body cells B) a substance that adjusts hydrogen ion concentration C) a substance that inactivates foreign proteins in the body D) the lack of an immune response to foreign substances entering the body Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.06 Topic: Nutrient Functions Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 54) Excess protein intake can result in A) diabetes B) iron deficiency C) loss of calcium D) excess fiber intake

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.07 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Protein-calorie malnutrition Learning Objective: 07.11 Describe the differences between the two types of protein-energy malnutrition. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 55) The body needs 18 different amino acids to function properly. Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

56) The 9 amino acids that the body cannot make are known as nonessential amino acids. Answer: FALSE Explanation: There are 9 ESSENTIAL amino acids, which the body cannot make. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: Proteins; Essential amino acids Learning Objective: 07.02 Define essential and nonessential amino acids and explain why adequate amounts of each of the essential amino acids are required for protein synthesis. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 57) An individual with the genetic disease PKU has a limited ability to metabolize the essential amino acid phenylalanine. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: Essential amino acids Learning Objective: 07.02 Define essential and nonessential amino acids and explain why adequate amounts of each of the essential amino acids are required for protein synthesis. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 58) Nonessential amino acids can be synthesized through a process called transamination. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: Protein synthesis and organization Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 59) Each strand of DNA is composed of the nucleotides adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.02 Topic: Protein synthesis and organization Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

60) Vegans need to plan their diets carefully to include adequate complementary proteins that provide the needed essential amino acids. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.08 Topic: Plant-based diets Learning Objective: 07.13 Develop a vegetarian diet plan that meets the body's protein needs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 61) Individuals who are attempting to build up their muscles need 3 times as much protein as those who are not building muscles. Answer: FALSE Explanation: This recommendation is too high. Individuals wanting to gain muscle mass may need more than the RDA (depending on goals), but not 3 times. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.07 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 62) Legumes are an excellent source of vegetable protein. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.03 Topic: Proteins; Food Sources Learning Objective: 07.02 Define essential and nonessential amino acids and explain why adequate amounts of each of the essential amino acids are required for protein synthesis. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 63) The Protein Digestibility Corrected Amino Acid Score (PDCAAS) is the score derived by multiplying a food's chemical score by its digestibility. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.03 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.03 Distinguish between high quality and low quality proteins and list sources of each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 22 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

64) For the average North American, protein needs can be easily met through our typical diets without the need for supplementation. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.04 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.07 Calculate the RDA for protein for a healthy adult with a given body weight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 65) During times of recovery from illness or injury, protein needs may range from 0.8 to 2.0 g/kg body weight. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.04 Topic: Nutrient Functions Learning Objective: 07.06 Identify the factors that influence protein needs Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 66) Proteins in cow's milk and egg white are not recommended to be given to infants prior to 12 months of age as they may predispose the infant to allergies. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.07 Topic: Food allergies and intolerances Learning Objective: 07.12 Describe the symptoms and treatment of food allergies. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 67) High-protein diets are often associated with increased intake of saturated fat and cholesterol in the diet. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.07 Topic: Proteins; Food Sources Learning Objective: 07.11 Describe the differences between the two types of protein-energy malnutrition. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 23 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

68) Marasmus in infants commonly occurs in poverty-stricken countries. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.07 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Protein-calorie malnutrition Learning Objective: 07.11 Describe the differences between the two types of protein-energy malnutrition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 69) An excess intake of protein, especially from protein supplements, can increase the risk of amino acid toxicity. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.07 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 07.11 Describe the differences between the two types of protein-energy malnutrition. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 70) Peanuts, cow's milk, and shellfish are among foods considered to be highly allergenic. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.07 Topic: Food allergies and intolerances Learning Objective: 07.12 Describe the symptoms and treatment of food allergies. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 71) Once a food allergy has developed, it persists throughout life. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Individuals can "grow out" of food allergies. Certain allergies are also more prominent in children versus adults. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.07 Topic: Food allergies and intolerances Learning Objective: 07.12 Describe the symptoms and treatment of food allergies. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 24 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

72) Compared to the typical American diet, vegetarian diets are generally lower in dietary fiber. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Vegetarian diets are typically higher in foods with larger amounts of dietary fiber as compared to the typical American diet. These foods include higher amounts of fruits and vegetables, whole grains and legumes. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.08 Topic: Plant-based diets Learning Objective: 07.13 Develop a vegetarian diet plan that meets the body's protein needs. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 73) Lacto-ovo-vegetarians exclude meat, poultry, fish, and eggs from their diet. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Lacto-ovo-vegetarians allow dairy and eggs in their diets. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.08 Topic: Plant-based diets Learning Objective: 07.13 Develop a vegetarian diet plan that meets the body's protein needs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 74) The enzymatic digestion of protein begins in the stomach, where proteins are broken down into shorter polypeptide chains of amino acids. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 07.09 Describe how protein is digested and absorbed in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 75) Protein intakes above 35% of energy intake may be associated with dehydration, amino acid imbalance, and increased risk of certain cancers. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.07 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.11 Describe the differences between the two types of protein-energy malnutrition. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 25 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

76) Vegetarian diets are most often low in calcium, vitamin D, vitamin B-12, iron, and zinc. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.08 Topic: Plant-based diets Learning Objective: 07.13 Develop a vegetarian diet plan that meets the body's protein needs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 77) Most animal proteins have a high biological value as their tissue amino acid composition is similar to that of human tissues. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.03 Topic: Proteins; Food Sources Learning Objective: 07.03 Distinguish between high quality and low quality proteins and list sources of each. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 78) Explain the difference between essential and nonessential amino acids. Answer: Answers will vary. The body needs 20 different amino acids to function. Although all amino acids are needed for life, 11 of them do not need to be obtained from the diet. They are classified as nonessential (or dispensable) amino acids because our bodies make them, using other amino acids we consume (Table 7-1). The 9 amino acids the body cannot make are known as nutritionally essential (or indispensable) amino acids because they must be obtained from foods. Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized in the body because body cells cannot make the carbon skeleton of the amino acid, cannot attach an amino group to the carbon skeleton, or cannot do the whole process fast enough to meet the body's needs. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.01 Topic: Proteins; Essential amino acids Learning Objective: 07.02 Define essential and nonessential amino acids and explain why adequate amounts of each of the essential amino acids are required for protein synthesis. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

79) Why do individuals with PKU need the nonessential amino acid tyrosine in their diets? Answer: Answers will vary. Several nonessential amino acids may be classified as "conditionally essential" amino acids during infancy, disease, or trauma. For example, a person with the genetic disease phenylketonuria (PKU) has a limited ability to metabolize the essential amino acid phenylalanine due to a deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. This enzyme is needed to convert phenylalanine to the nonessential amino acid tyrosine. As a result, individuals with PKU cannot produce sufficient tyrosine, thereby making tyrosine a "conditionally" essential amino acid because it must be obtained from the diet. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.01 Topic: Essential amino acids Learning Objective: 07.02 Define essential and nonessential amino acids and explain why adequate amounts of each of the essential amino acids are required for protein synthesis. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes

80) Suggest 3 meals that make use of the concept of complementary proteins. Answer: Answers will vary.

Food

Primary Create a Complete Complementary Limiting Amino Protein By Combining Food Protein Acid It With Combinations

Legumes (peanuts and dry beans, such as navy, black, and kidney beans) Methionine

Grains, nuts, or seeds

Nuts and seeds (cashews, walnuts, almonds, sunflower seeds)

Lysine

Legumes

Grains (wheat, rice, oats, corn) Lysine

Legumes

Hummus and pita bread Bean burrito White beans and pasta Bean and barley stew Pinto beans and polenta Black-eyed pea croquettes Vegetarian chili with kidney beans and cashews Sesame, buckwheat, and bean bread Walnut and baked bean casserole Red beans and rice Lentil soup and cornbread Barley and black beans

Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.01 Topic: Plant-based diets; Food Sources Learning Objective: 07.13 Develop a vegetarian diet plan that meets the body's protein needs. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 3-5 minutes

81) What is a limiting amino acid? Answer: Answers will vary. The essential amino acid in smallest supply in a food or diet in relation to body needs is called the limiting amino acid because it limits the amount of protein the body can synthesize. For example, assume the letters of the alphabet represent the 20 different amino acids we need Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.02 Define essential and nonessential amino acids and explain why adequate amounts of each of the essential amino acids are required for protein synthesis. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes 82) Define the four levels of protein organization. Answer: Answers will vary. Four different levels of structure are found in proteins. The primary structure of a protein is the linear sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain. Secondary structure consists of areas in the polypeptide chain that have a specific shape stabilized by hydrogen and sulfur bonds. The 3-dimensional shape of proteins is called tertiary structure. It determines the function of the protein. Some proteins also show quaternary structure where 2 or more protein units join together to form a larger protein, such as hemoglobin, depicted in the figure Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.02 Topic: Protein synthesis and organization Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 83) Explain why denaturation of a protein destroys its biological function. Answer: Answers will vary. Protein is partly uncoiled during a denatured state. This uncoiling typically reduces or eliminates biological activity and is usually caused by treatment by heat, enzymes, acid or alkaline solutions, or agitation. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.02 Topic: Protein synthesis and organization Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Apply 29 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

84) Define and explain the importance of "protein turnover." Answer: Answers will vary. Most vital body proteins are in a constant state of breakdown, rebuilding, and repair. This process, called protein turnover, allows cells to adapt to changing circumstances. For example, when we eat more protein than necessary for health, the liver makes more enzymes to process the waste product from the resulting amino acid metabolism—namely, ammonia— into urea. Overall, protein turnover is a process by which a cell can respond to its changing environment by increasing the production of needed proteins while reducing the production of proteins not currently needed. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.02 Topic: Protein synthesis and organization Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 85) List 3 ways of evaluating food protein quality. Answer: Answers will vary. Biologic Value, Protein Efficiency Ratio, Chemical Score, Protein Digestibility Corrected Amino Acid Score Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.03 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.03 Distinguish between high quality and low quality proteins and list sources of each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes 86) Calculate the protein needs of a healthy, 140-lb woman. Answer: 140 lbs / 2.2 lbs/kg = 63.6 = 64 kg 64 kg × 0.8 g/kg/day = 51.2 = 51 g/day Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.04 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.07 Calculate the RDA for protein for a healthy adult with a given body weight. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes

87) If Krista consumes 65 grams of protein as part of a 1900-kcal diet, what percent of her total calories are from protein? Answer: 65 g protein × 4 kcal/g = 260 kcal from protein 260 kcal from protein / 1900 total kcal = 0.14 = 14% of kcal from protein Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.04 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.07 Calculate the RDA for protein for a healthy adult with a given body weight. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 88) List 2 circumstances in which an individual might be in positive nitrogen balance. Answer: Answers will vary. • Growth Pregnancy Recovery stage after illness/injury • Athletic training resulting in increased lean body mass • Increased secretion of certain hormones, such as insulin, growth hormone, and testosterone Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.04 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.08 Explain positive nitrogen balance, negative nitrogen balance, and nitrogen equilibrium and list the conditions under which they occur. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes 89) List 2 circumstances in which an individual might be in negative nitrogen balance. Answer: Answers will vary. • Inadequate intake of protein Inadequate energy intake • Conditions such as fevers, burns, and infections • Bed rest (for several days) • Deficiency of essential amino acids (e.g., poor quality protein consumed) • Increased protein loss (as in some forms of disease) Increased secretion of certain hormones, such as thyroid hormone and cortisol. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.04 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.08 Explain positive nitrogen balance, negative nitrogen balance, and nitrogen equilibrium and list the conditions under which they occur. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes 31 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

90) Explain 3 functions of protein in the body. Answer: Answers will vary. producing vital body structures, maintaining fluid balance, contributing to acid-base balance, forming hormones/enzymes/neurotransmitters, contributing to immune function, transporting nutrients, forming glucose, providing a source of energy. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.06 Topic: Nutrient Functions Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 91) Compare and contrast kwashiorkor and marasmus. Answer: Answers will vary. PEM usually occurs as either marasmus or kwashiorkor. These conditions differ in the severity of the overall energy and protein deficit and the related clinical characteristics (Fig. 7-15). Marasmus develops slowly from a severe deficiency of energy (and, in turn, protein and micronutrients). Over time, this leads to extreme weight loss, muscle and fat loss, and growth impairment. Kwashiorkor occurs more rapidly in response to a severe protein deficit, typically accompanied by underlying infections or disease. Kwashiorkor is characterized by edema, mild to moderate weight loss, growth impairment, and the development of a fatty liver (excess accumulation of fat in the liver). Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.07 Topic: Protein-calorie malnutrition Learning Objective: 07.11 Describe the differences between the two types of protein-energy malnutrition. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

92) List 3 nutrients that are likely to be low in a vegan diet. Answer: Answers will vary. The eating patterns of vegetarians can vary considerably, depending on the extent to which animal products are excluded. Vegans follow the most restrictive diet, as they eat only plant foods. Because they do not eat any animal foods, their diets may be low in high biological value protein, riboflavin, vitamin D, vitamin B-12, calcium, and zinc unless carefully planned. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.08 Topic: Plant-based diets Learning Objective: 07.13 Develop a vegetarian diet plan that meets the body's protein needs. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes 93) List 3 foods that are often allergenic. Answer: Answers will vary. The protein in any food can trigger an allergic reaction. However, 8 foods account for 90% of all food allergies: peanuts, tree nuts (e.g., walnuts and cashews), milk, eggs, fish, shellfish, soy, and wheat (Fig. 7-16). Other foods frequently identified as causing allergic reactions are meat and meat products, fruits, and cheese. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.07 Topic: Food allergies and intolerances Learning Objective: 07.12 Describe the symptoms and treatment of food allergies. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes

94) What suggestions would you give to a mother who would like her 5-year-old child to follow a vegetarian diet? Answer: Answers will vary. At the forefront of nutritional concerns for vegetarians are riboflavin, vitamins D and B-12, calcium, iron, and zinc. A major source of riboflavin, vitamin D, and calcium in the typical North American diet is milk, which is omitted from the vegan diet. However, riboflavin can be obtained from green leafy vegetables, whole-grain breads and cereals, yeast, and legumes—components of most vegan diets. Alternate sources of vitamin D include fortified foods (e.g., soy milk) and dietary supplements, as well as regular sun exposure. Calcium-fortified foods are the vegan's best option for obtaining calcium. These include fortified soy milk, fortified orange juice, calcium rich tofu (check the label), and certain ready-to-eat breakfast cereals, breads, and snacks. Green leafy vegetables also contain calcium, but it is not well absorbed. Dietary supplements provide another option for meeting calcium needs (see Part 4). It is important to read supplement labels and to plan supplement use carefully because a typical multivitamin and mineral supplement supplies only 25 to 45% of daily calcium needs. Vitamin B-12 occurs naturally only in animal foods. Plants can contain soil or microbial contaminants that provide trace amounts of vitamin B-12, but these are negligible sources of the vitamin. Therefore, vegans need to eat food fortified with vitamin B-12 or take supplements to protect against deficiency. Infants and children are at highest risk of nutrient deficiencies as a result of poorly planned vegetarian diets. However, with the use of complementary proteins and good sources of the problem nutrients discussed earlier, the energy, protein, vitamin, and mineral needs of vegetarian and vegan infants and children can be met. The most common nutritional concerns for infants and children following vegetarian and vegan diets are deficiencies of iron, vitamin B-12, vitamin D, zinc, and calcium. Vegetarian and vegan diets tend to be high in bulky, high fiber, low calorie foods that cause fullness. Although this side effect can be a welcome advantage for adults, children have a small stomach volume and relatively high nutrient needs for their size and may feel full before their energy needs are met. For this reason, the fiber content of a child's diet may need to be decreased by replacing high fiber sources with some refined grain products, fruit juices, and peeled fruit. Including concentrated sources of energy, such as fortified soy milk, nuts, dried fruits, and avocados, can help meet calorie and nutrient needs. Overall, vegetarian and vegan diets can be appropriate during infancy and childhood. However, to achieve normal growth and ensure adequate intake of all nutrients, these diets must be implemented with knowledge and, ideally, professional guidance Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.08 Topic: Plant-based diets Learning Objective: 07.13 Develop a vegetarian diet plan that meets the body's protein needs. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 3-5 minutes 34 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

95) Why are high-protein diets potentially harmful? Answer: Answers will vary. High protein diets may overburden the kidneys' capacity to excrete nitrogen wastes. Additionally, because water is needed to dilute and excrete urea, inadequate fluid intake can increase the risk of dehydration as the kidneys use body water to dispose of the urea. These concerns are greatest for people who already have impaired kidney function. A lower protein diet with adequate fluid intake is recommended for these individuals to help preserve kidney health. When excess protein is primarily from a high intake of animal proteins, the overall diet is likely to be low in plant-based foods and consequently low in fiber, some vitamins (vitamins C and E and folate), minerals (magnesium and potassium), and beneficial phyto-chemicals. Animal proteins are often rich in saturated fat and cholesterol and may be cured to create hot dogs, ham, salami, and luncheon meats. As a result, these diets can increase the risk of cardiovascular disease and cancer. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.07 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 07.11 Describe the differences between the two types of protein-energy malnutrition. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 96) What suggestions would you give to athletes taking multiple amino acid supplements? Answer: Answers will vary. Our bodies are designed to obtain amino acids from dietary sources of whole proteins. This assures a supply of amino acids in proportions needed for body functions and prevents amino acid toxicity, especially for methionine, cysteine, and histidine—the most toxic amino acids. When individual amino acid supplements are taken, chemically similar amino acids can compete for absorption, resulting in amino acid imbalances and toxicity risk. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.07 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 07.11 Describe the differences between the two types of protein-energy malnutrition. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes

97) List 3 situations in which a North American college student might be at risk of PEM. Answer: Answers will vary. Those at greatest risk are individuals living in poverty and/or isolation and those with substance abuse problems, anorexia nervosa, or debilitating diseases (e.g., AIDS or cancer). Some hospitalized patients also are at increased risk of PEM because of poor prior health, low dietary intakes, and increased protein needs for recovery from surgery, trauma, and/or disease. Malnourished patients face a much greater risk of complications and even death. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.07 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Protein-calorie malnutrition Learning Objective: 07.11 Describe the differences between the two types of protein-energy malnutrition. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 98) The weaker chemical bonds that form between amino acids that stabilize the structure create the structure. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.02 Topic: Protein synthesis and organization Learning Objective: 07.01 Describe how amino acids form proteins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

99) What would happen to dietary protein if HCl were not being produced in sufficient quantities? A) Protein digestion would occur at a faster rate. B) Protein digestion could not fully occur because proteins could not be denatured and pepsinogen could not be converted to pepsin. C) Proteins would be digested by gastric lipase in the stomach. D) None of the choices are correct. Answer: B Explanation: Stomach acid acts to denature proteins and initiate the process of digestion into absorption. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 07.09 Describe how protein is digested and absorbed in the body. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 100) If you were cut and needed to heal the wound, which type of protein would the body produce? A) Ferritin B) Albumin C) Collagen D) Hemoglobin Answer: C Explanation: The key structural proteins (collagen, actin, and myosin) make up more than a third of body protein and provide a matrix for muscle, connective tissue, and bone. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.06 Topic: Proteins; Nutrient Functions Learning Objective: 07.10 Explain the primary functions of protein in the body. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

101) What is the state of nitrogen balance when a person ingests 13 g of food nitrogen and loses 21 g of nitrogen? A) Equilibrium B) Positive balance C) Negative balance D) Exogenous balance Answer: C Explanation: In this instance, the individual would be losing more nitrogen than they ingested, therefore leading to negative balance. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.04 Topic: Proteins Learning Objective: 07.08 Explain positive nitrogen balance, negative nitrogen balance, and nitrogen equilibrium and list the conditions under which they occur. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 102) What would be the effect on protein digestion if insufficient amounts of gastrin were being produced? A) Too much HCL would be produced, resulting in rapid protein digestion. B) Too little HCL would be produced, resulting in insufficient protein digestion. C) Too much amylase would be produced, inhibiting the digestion of protein. D) No effect; gastrin does not play a role in the secretion of enzymes or substances related to protein digestion. Answer: B Explanation: Gastrin also strongly stimulates the stomach's parietal cells to produce acid, which aids in digestion and the activation of pepsin. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 07.09 Describe how protein is digested and absorbed in the body. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 8 Alcohol 1) The highest concentration of ethanol is found in A) beer B) wine C) distilled spirits D) wine coolers 2) The alcohol content of an 80-proof tequila is A) 80% B) 40% C) 20% D) 100% 3) Wine generally contains A) ≤5% B) 5%-14% C) 15%-22% D) >22%

alcohol.

4) The process of fermentation involves all of the following EXCEPT A) simple sugars, such as maltose B) yeast C) carbon dioxide D) bacteria 5) A standard serving of an alcoholic drink is defined as A) 16 oz beer B) 12 oz wine cooler C) 5 oz wine D) 3 oz hard liquor 6) A standard drink contains A) 5 B) 10 C) 14 D) 25

grams of alcohol.

7) Alcohol is absorbed in the small intestine by A) passive diffusion B) facilitated diffusion C) simple diffusion D) active transport

8) Alcohol absorption occurs in the A) stomach B) small intestine C) esophagus D) stomach and small intestine

9) The ADH pathway of alcohol metabolism converts ethanol into A) citric acid B) NADH C) acetyl-CoA D) pyruvate 10) The main organ responsible for ethanol metabolism is the A) liver B) pancreas C) small intestine D) stomach

11) When consumed in low to moderate amounts, alcohol is primarily metabolized by the pathway. A) catalase B) MEOS C) alcohol dehydrogenase D) peroxidase 12) When the MEOS pathway is induced, alcohol tolerance metabolism . A) increases; decreases B) decreases; increases C) decreases; decreases D) increases; increases

because the rate of alcohol

13) The symptoms of acetaldehyde buildup during alcohol metabolism include A) flushing B) rapid heartbeat C) hyperventilation D) All of these symptoms can occur.

14) Women absorb 30%-35% more ethanol directly from the stomach than men because women . A) have slower rates of gastric emptying B) tend to eat more food when consuming alcoholic beverages C) have lower amounts of alcohol dehydrogenase in the cells lining the stomach D) absorb all substances, including ethanol, more efficiently 2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

15) Binge drinking for a male is defined as having occasion. A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 10 16) A blood alcohol level of A) 0.05 B) 0.08 C) 0.10 D) 0.50

or more drinks on a single

is defined as legal intoxication in the U.S. and Canada.

17) What percent of North American adults consume alcohol? A) 10% B) 33% C) 70% D) 84% 18) Binge drinking on college campuses is associated with A) academic problems B) auto accidents C) sexual abuse D) All of these responses are correct.

19) The population group with the highest rate of alcohol consumption is A) elderly adults B) teenagers C) college students D) middle-aged adults

20) Moderate drinking is most accurately defined as . A) up to 1 drink per day for women and 2 drinks per day for men B) up to 7 drinks per week for women and 14 drinks per week for men C) up to 2 drinks per day for women and 3 drinks per day for men D) less than 2 drink per day for women and 4 drinks per day for men 21) Benefits of moderate alcohol consumption include lower rates of A) Alzheimer's disease B) many types of cancer C) cardiovascular disease D) All of these responses are correct.

22) Detrimental effects of excessive alcohol consumption include higher rates of A) high blood pressure and stroke B) cancers of the mouth and throat C) liver disease and liver failure D) All of these responses are correct. 23) An early sign of alcohol-induced liver damage is A) liver cirrhosis B) ascites C) jaundice D) steatosis

24) Liver cirrhosis is characterized by . A) decreased synthesis of proteins made in the liver B) abnormal retention of fluid in the abdomen C) poor nutritional status D) All of these answers are correct. 25) Alcoholism is associated with all of the following EXCEPT A) cirrhosis of the liver B) jaundice C) type I diabetes D) alcoholic hepatitis 26) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome is a alcohol abuse. A) vitamin A B) thiamin C) niacin D) vitamin B-12

deficiency disease that results from severe

27) Alcoholics often have trouble with night blindness. This can result directly from A) impaired absorption of several B-vitamins B) fluid accumulation in the eye C) damage to brain cells D) impaired absorption and transport of vitamin A 28) The recommendation for alcohol consumption during pregnancy is A) no alcohol at all B) limit to one drink per week C) to follow current guidelines for moderate drinking D) to avoid binge drinking

29) The problems of alcohol abuse and alcohol dependency . A) are very infrequent in the United States B) affect nearly 1 in 3 Americans over a lifetime C) are untreatable problems D) affect only those with other serious problems, such as poverty, unemployment, or mental health disorders 30) Which of the following is NOT a common nutritional concern in alcoholics? A) vitamin B-12 deficiency B) protein-energy malnutrition C) vitamin A toxicity D) iron deficiency 31) Medications used to treat alcohol dependence act on . A) exclusively the brain to reduce alcohol cravings B) exclusively the liver to block complete metabolism of alcohol C) the stomach to prevent alcohol absorption D) both the brain to reduce alcohol cravings and the liver to block complete metabolism of alcohol 32) The risk of developing a problem with alcohol is higher in those A) with a biological parent with alcohol problems B) who are women C) who begin drinking heavily in middle-age D) who are of Asian descent

33) When the rate of alcohol consumption exceeds the liver's metabolic capacity, blood alcohol levels increase and symptoms of intoxication develop. 34) Guidelines for safe drinking recommend that women should have no more than 2-3 drinks per day. 35) Alcohol requires no digestion. 36) Excess consumption of some alcoholic beverages can lead to deficiencies of iron and zinc. 37) Moderate alcohol intake has been associated with increased HDL cholesterol levels. 38) Excessive alcohol intake can lead to deficiencies of niacin, thiamin, vitamin B-6, vitamin B12, and folate. 39) Compared with men, women produce more alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme in the stomach. 40) Compared to men, women absorb approximately 30%-35% more unaltered alcohol from the stomach into the bloodstream. 5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

41) Extremely high blood alcohol levels can lead to respiratory failure. 42) Signs of alcohol poisoning include hypoglycemia and severe dehydration. 43) Binge drinking is associated with vandalism and suicide. 44) An 80-proof vodka or gin is 80% alcohol. 45) Because alcohol cannot be stored in the body, it has priority in metabolism over other energy sources. 46) The small intestine is the primary site for alcohol metabolism. 47) Moderate alcohol consumption is most accurately defined as no more than 7 or 14 drinks per week for women and men, respectively. 48) List 3 of the leading causes of death in North America that are associated with excessive consumption of alcohol. 49) Define what is considered excess alcohol consumption for an average man and for an average woman. 50) List 3 reasons why women are less tolerant of alcohol than men. 51) Describe 2 methods used to treat alcoholism. 52) What are 4 symptoms that might indicate that someone has a problem with alcohol? 53) How does alcohol abuse impair nutritional status? 54) Describe the health consequences to the fetus of drinking alcohol during pregnancy. 55) Describe 3 of the factors that increase the risk of developing alcohol dependency or alcohol abuse. 56) List 3 signs of alcohol abuse. 57) How does the body absorb and digest low to moderate amounts of alcohol? 58) Which of the following meals would slow the rate of absorption of alcohol the most? A) two pancakes with syrup B) bacon cheeseburger and french fries C) one cup of plain spaghetti D) baked chicken breast and baked potato 6 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

59) Which of the following individuals would show signs of alcohol intoxication the fastest? A) 25-year-old male with a normal BMI who has not eaten today B) 35-year-old female with a normal BMI who has eaten a high fat meal 1/2 hour before starting to drink C) 22-year-old female with a high BMI who has eaten a high carbohydrate meal just before ordering her first drink D) 28-year-old male with a high BMI who has had a protein shake before ordering his first drink 60) How would moderate alcohol consumption potentially benefit a 70-year-old widow who has no previous history of heart disease? A) Alcohol could stimulate her appetite to get more needed nutrients and calories. B) Alcohol could improve her production of estrogen. C) Alcohol could decrease her chances of developing type II diabetes. D) Alcohol could help her absorb more nutrients. 61) What would happen to the liver of an individual who was diagnosed with steatosis if he or she abstained from alcohol? A) He or she would progress to alcoholic hepatitis. B) He or she would progress to cirrhosis. C) He or she would progress to liver cancer. D) They would reverse his or her condition. 62) A chronic alcoholic presents with muscle twitching and cramping. He is also complaining of spasms in his muscles that he cannot seem to control. What nutrient is he likely deficient in? A) Iron B) Folate C) Magnesium D) Niacin 63) If a nursing mother consumes 1 to 2 drinks of alcohol, when is it safe to breastfeed? A) 2 hours after last drink B) 30 minutes after last drink C) 1 hour after last drink D) She should not breastfeed at all if she chooses to drink.

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 8 Alcohol 1) The highest concentration of ethanol is found in A) beer B) wine C) distilled spirits D) wine coolers

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.01 Describe the sources of alcohol (ethanol) and the calories it provides. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) The alcohol content of an 80-proof tequila is A) 80% B) 40% C) 20% D) 100%

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.01 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.01 Describe the sources of alcohol (ethanol) and the calories it provides. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 3) Wine generally contains A) ≤5% B) 5%-14% C) 15%-22% D) >22%

alcohol.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.01 Describe the sources of alcohol (ethanol) and the calories it provides. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

4) The process of fermentation involves all of the following EXCEPT A) simple sugars, such as maltose B) yeast C) carbon dioxide D) bacteria

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.01 Describe the sources of alcohol (ethanol) and the calories it provides. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) A standard serving of an alcoholic drink is defined as A) 16 oz beer B) 12 oz wine cooler C) 5 oz wine D) 3 oz hard liquor

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.02 Define the terms alcoholic drink equivalent and moderate drinking. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 6) A standard drink contains A) 5 B) 10 C) 14 D) 25

grams of alcohol.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.02 Define the terms alcoholic drink equivalent and moderate drinking. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

7) Alcohol is absorbed in the small intestine by A) passive diffusion B) facilitated diffusion C) simple diffusion D) active transport

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) Alcohol absorption occurs in the A) stomach B) small intestine C) esophagus D) stomach and small intestine

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 9) The ADH pathway of alcohol metabolism converts ethanol into A) citric acid B) NADH C) acetyl-CoA D) pyruvate

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

10) The main organ responsible for ethanol metabolism is the A) liver B) pancreas C) small intestine D) stomach

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 11) When consumed in low to moderate amounts, alcohol is primarily metabolized by the pathway. A) catalase B) MEOS C) alcohol dehydrogenase D) peroxidase Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 12) When the MEOS pathway is induced, alcohol tolerance metabolism . A) increases; decreases B) decreases; increases C) decreases; decreases D) increases; increases

because the rate of alcohol

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

13) The symptoms of acetaldehyde buildup during alcohol metabolism include A) flushing B) rapid heartbeat C) hyperventilation D) All of these symptoms can occur.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 14) Women absorb 30%-35% more ethanol directly from the stomach than men because women . A) have slower rates of gastric emptying B) tend to eat more food when consuming alcoholic beverages C) have lower amounts of alcohol dehydrogenase in the cells lining the stomach D) absorb all substances, including ethanol, more efficiently Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 15) Binge drinking for a male is defined as having A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 10

or more drinks on a single occasion.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.05 Define binge drinking and describe the problems associated with it. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

16) A blood alcohol level of A) 0.05 B) 0.08 C) 0.10 D) 0.50

is defined as legal intoxication in the U.S. and Canada.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.04 Explain how alcohol consumption affects blood alcohol concentration. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 17) What percent of North American adults consume alcohol? A) 10% B) 33% C) 70% D) 84% Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Alcohol; Demographic trends and statistics Learning Objective: 08.06 Discuss potential health risks and benefits of alcohol consumption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 18) Binge drinking on college campuses is associated with A) academic problems B) auto accidents C) sexual abuse D) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Alcohol; Demographic trends and statistics Learning Objective: 08.05 Define binge drinking and describe the problems associated with it. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

19) The population group with the highest rate of alcohol consumption is A) elderly adults B) teenagers C) college students D) middle-aged adults

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Alcohol; Demographic trends and statistics Learning Objective: 08.05 Define binge drinking and describe the problems associated with it. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 20) Moderate drinking is most accurately defined as . A) up to 1 drink per day for women and 2 drinks per day for men B) up to 7 drinks per week for women and 14 drinks per week for men C) up to 2 drinks per day for women and 3 drinks per day for men D) less than 2 drink per day for women and 4 drinks per day for men Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.06 Discuss potential health risks and benefits of alcohol consumption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 21) Benefits of moderate alcohol consumption include lower rates of A) Alzheimer's disease B) many types of cancer C) cardiovascular disease D) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.06 Discuss potential health risks and benefits of alcohol consumption. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol; Cancer Learning Objective: 08.06 Discuss potential health risks and benefits of alcohol consumption. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 23) An early sign of alcohol-induced liver damage is A) liver cirrhosis B) ascites C) jaundice D) steatosis

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.06 Discuss potential health risks and benefits of alcohol consumption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 24) Liver cirrhosis is characterized by . A) decreased synthesis of proteins made in the liver B) abnormal retention of fluid in the abdomen C) poor nutritional status D) All of these answers are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.06 Discuss potential health risks and benefits of alcohol consumption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

25) Alcoholism is associated with all of the following EXCEPT A) cirrhosis of the liver B) jaundice C) type I diabetes D) alcoholic hepatitis

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.07 Describe the effects of chronic alcohol use on the body and nutritional status. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 26) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome is a alcohol abuse. A) vitamin A B) thiamin C) niacin D) vitamin B-12

deficiency disease that results from severe

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 08.07 Describe the effects of chronic alcohol use on the body and nutritional status. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 27) Alcoholics often have trouble with night blindness. This can result directly from A) impaired absorption of several B-vitamins B) fluid accumulation in the eye C) damage to brain cells D) impaired absorption and transport of vitamin A

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 08.07 Describe the effects of chronic alcohol use on the body and nutritional status. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 9 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

28) The recommendation for alcohol consumption during pregnancy is A) no alcohol at all B) limit to one drink per week C) to follow current guidelines for moderate drinking D) to avoid binge drinking

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol; Birth defects Learning Objective: 08.06 Discuss potential health risks and benefits of alcohol consumption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 29) The problems of alcohol abuse and alcohol dependency . A) are very infrequent in the United States B) affect nearly 1 in 3 Americans over a lifetime C) are untreatable problems D) affect only those with other serious problems, such as poverty, unemployment, or mental health disorders Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.05 Topic: Alcohol; Demographic trends and statistics Learning Objective: 08.08 List the signs of an alcohol use disorder. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 30) Which of the following is NOT a common nutritional concern in alcoholics? A) vitamin B-12 deficiency B) protein-energy malnutrition C) vitamin A toxicity D) iron deficiency Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 08.07 Describe the effects of chronic alcohol use on the body and nutritional status. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 10 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

31) Medications used to treat alcohol dependence act on . A) exclusively the brain to reduce alcohol cravings B) exclusively the liver to block complete metabolism of alcohol C) the stomach to prevent alcohol absorption D) both the brain to reduce alcohol cravings and the liver to block complete metabolism of alcohol Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.05 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.08 List the signs of an alcohol use disorder. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 32) The risk of developing a problem with alcohol is higher in those A) with a biological parent with alcohol problems B) who are women C) who begin drinking heavily in middle-age D) who are of Asian descent

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.05 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.08 List the signs of an alcohol use disorder. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 33) When the rate of alcohol consumption exceeds the liver's metabolic capacity, blood alcohol levels increase and symptoms of intoxication develop. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.04 Explain how alcohol consumption affects blood alcohol concentration. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

34) Guidelines for safe drinking recommend that women should have no more than 2-3 drinks per day. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Drinking alcohol should be done sensibly and in moderation—defined as the consumption of up to 1 drink per day for women and up to 2 drinks per day for men. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.06 Discuss potential health risks and benefits of alcohol consumption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 35) Alcohol requires no digestion. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 36) Excess consumption of some alcoholic beverages can lead to deficiencies of iron and zinc. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.07 Describe the effects of chronic alcohol use on the body and nutritional status. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 37) Moderate alcohol intake has been associated with increased HDL cholesterol levels. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.06 Discuss potential health risks and benefits of alcohol consumption. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

38) Excessive alcohol intake can lead to deficiencies of niacin, thiamin, vitamin B-6, vitamin B-12, and folate. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.07 Describe the effects of chronic alcohol use on the body and nutritional status. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 39) Compared with men, women produce more alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme in the stomach. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Men produce more alcohol dehydrogenase than women. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 40) Compared to men, women absorb approximately 30%-35% more unaltered alcohol from the stomach into the bloodstream. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 41) Extremely high blood alcohol levels can lead to respiratory failure. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.06 Discuss potential health risks and benefits of alcohol consumption. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

42) Signs of alcohol poisoning include hypoglycemia and severe dehydration. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.06 Discuss potential health risks and benefits of alcohol consumption. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 43) Binge drinking is associated with vandalism and suicide. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.05 Define binge drinking and describe the problems associated with it. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 44) An 80-proof vodka or gin is 80% alcohol. Answer: FALSE Explanation: For hard liquor (distilled spirits), alcohol content is listed by "proof" rather than by percentage. The proof is twice the percentage of alcohol content. Thus, an 80-proof vodka or gin is 40% alcohol by volume. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.01 Describe the sources of alcohol (ethanol) and the calories it provides. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 45) Because alcohol cannot be stored in the body, it has priority in metabolism over other energy sources. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

46) The small intestine is the primary site for alcohol metabolism. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The liver is the main site of alcohol metabolism. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 47) Moderate alcohol consumption is most accurately defined as no more than 7 or 14 drinks per week for women and men, respectively. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Drinking alcohol should be done sensibly and in moderation—defined as the consumption of up to 1 drink per day for women and up to 2 drinks per day for men. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 08.03 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.02 Define the terms alcoholic drink equivalent and moderate drinking. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 48) List 3 of the leading causes of death in North America that are associated with excessive consumption of alcohol. Answer: Answers will vary. The excessive consumption of alcohol contributes significantly to 4 of the 10 leading causes of death in North America—heart failure, certain forms of cancer, motor vehicle and other accidents, and suicides. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.04 Explain how alcohol consumption affects blood alcohol concentration. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes

49) Define what is considered excess alcohol consumption for an average man and for an average woman. Answer: Answers will vary. In general, research shows that excess alcohol consumption, as measured by more than 1 drink per day for women and 2 drinks per day for men or as binge drinking, is on the rise. Men use alcohol at higher rates than women. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.03 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.02 Define the terms alcoholic drink equivalent and moderate drinking. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 50) List 3 reasons why women are less tolerant of alcohol than men. Answer: Answers will vary. Compared with men, women produce less of the alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme in the cells that line their stomachs—as a result, women absorb about 30% to 35% more unmetabolized alcohol from the stomach directly into the bloodstream. Another gender-related factor is that, in comparison with men, women are generally smaller in body size, have more body fat, and have less total body water. As a result, alcohol becomes more concentrated in the blood and body tissues of a woman than in a similar-size man because alcohol can be diluted by water, but not by adipose tissue. For these reasons, a woman becomes intoxicated on less alcohol than a similar-size man. Other factors that can affect alcohol metabolism include the alcohol content of the beverage, the amount of alcohol consumed, and the individual's usual alcohol intake. As described earlier, individuals who drink large amounts of alcohol regularly are able to metabolize alcohol more rapidly and have a greater tolerance to alcohol. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

51) Describe 2 methods used to treat alcoholism. Answer: Answers will vary. The treatment of an AUD typically involves behavioral therapy, along with medication. Behavioral therapy is usually facilitated by a psychologist, social worker, or counselor. Important goals of counseling are to identify triggers for alcohol consumption and ways to compensate for the loss of pleasure from drinking. Total abstinence must be the ultimate objective because, for most alcoholics, there is no such thing as safe and controlled social drinking. Because other mental health disorders often go hand in hand with AUDs, these conditions must be treated as well for successful outcomes. Three medications are approved in the U.S. to treat AUDs. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.05 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.08 List the signs of an alcohol use disorder. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes 52) What are 4 symptoms that might indicate that someone has a problem with alcohol? Answer: Answers will vary. Alcohol use disorders (formerly known by the terms alcohol abuse and alcohol dependence) are common mental health disorders that pose serious risks for many individuals. In addition to the multiple health problems previously described, persons with an alcohol use disorder (AUD) may experience deteriorating personal relationships, financial burdens, and frequent absences or poor performance in the workplace, school, or other settings. The criteria for diagnosing an AUD are shown in Table 8-5. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.05 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.08 List the signs of an alcohol use disorder. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes

53) How does alcohol abuse impair nutritional status? Answer: Answers will vary. Individuals who abuse alcohol often have poor nutritional status and are at risk of developing nutrient deficiencies for a variety of reasons. Alcohol, a poor source of nutrients, may replace food in the diet. For instance, if a person were to use beer as a nutrient source, he or she would need to consume daily 40 to 55 bottles (12 oz each) to meet protein needs and 65 bottles for thiamin needs. When an individual relies on alcohol for the majority of his or her energy needs, protein-energy malnutrition develops. The symptoms of protein-energy malnutrition with alcoholism are similar to those seen in individuals with kwashiorkor (see Chapter 7). In addition to protein deficiencies, deficiencies of vitamins and minerals can result in further complications. These deficiencies are usually the result of decreased intake, impaired absorption, altered metabolism, and alcohol-related tissue damage in the GI tract, liver, and pancreas. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.07 Describe the effects of chronic alcohol use on the body and nutritional status. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 54) Describe the health consequences to the fetus of drinking alcohol during pregnancy. Answer: Answers will vary. If a woman chooses to drink during pregnancy, she may cause serious harm to her developing offspring. Alcohol slows nutrient and oxygen delivery to the fetus, thereby retarding growth and development. Alcohol also may displace nutrient dense foods in the mother's diet. Although the most severe damage occurs during the first 12 to 16 weeks of pregnancy, when organs are undergoing major developmental steps, consuming alcohol at any time during pregnancy can cause lifelong damage. The alcohol-related health consequences are known collectively as fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASD). An individual with an FASD may experience a range of effects, including facial malformation (Fig. 8-8), growth retardation (including a smaller than normal brain), birth defects, lifelong learning disabilities, a short attention span, and hyperactivity. The most serious FASD is known as fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). Individuals with FAS have facial malformations, growth deficits, and central nervous system problems. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol; Birth defects Learning Objective: 08.06 Discuss potential health risks and benefits of alcohol consumption. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 18 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

55) Describe 3 of the factors that increase the risk of developing alcohol dependency or alcohol abuse. Answer: Answers will vary. Genetic tendency, male (higher than rates for females), age of onset of drinking habit, ethnicity, mental health status. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.05 Topic: Alcohol; Demographic trends and statistics Learning Objective: 08.08 List the signs of an alcohol use disorder. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 56) List 3 signs of alcohol abuse. Answer: Answers will vary. Alcohol use disorders (formerly known by the terms alcohol abuse and alcohol dependence) are common mental health disorders that pose serious risks for many individuals. In addition to the multiple health problems previously described, persons with an alcohol use disorder (AUD) may experience deteriorating personal relationships, financial burdens, and frequent absences or poor performance in the workplace, school, or other settings. The criteria for diagnosing an AUD are shown in Table 8-5. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.05 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.08 List the signs of an alcohol use disorder. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes

57) How does the body absorb and digest low to moderate amounts of alcohol? Answer: Answers will vary. Alcohol, unlike most carbohydrate, protein, and fat molecules, requires no digestion. It also does not need specific transport mechanisms or receptors to enter cells. Therefore, it is absorbed rapidly throughout the digestive tract by simple diffusion. The stomach absorbs about 20% of ingested alcohol, with the remainder being absorbed in the duodenum and jejunum. When food is consumed with alcohol, absorption is slowed. Larger meals with a high fat content leave the stomach more slowly, thereby slowing the absorption of any alcohol consumed. In contrast, alcohol consumed on an empty stomach is absorbed quickly from the stomach and small intestine into the bloodstream. Alcohol is readily dispersed throughout the body because alcohol is found wherever water is distributed in the body. Alcohol moves easily through the cell membranes; however, as it does, it damages proteins in the membranes. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 58) Which of the following meals would slow the rate of absorption of alcohol the most? A) two pancakes with syrup B) bacon cheeseburger and french fries C) one cup of plain spaghetti D) baked chicken breast and baked potato Answer: B Explanation: A bacon cheeseburger and french fries contain the most calories and fat of all listed options. This would comparatively slow the absorption of the alcohol the most. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute

59) Which of the following individuals would show signs of alcohol intoxication the fastest? A) 25-year-old male with a normal BMI who has not eaten today B) 35-year-old female with a normal BMI who has eaten a high fat meal 1/2 hour before starting to drink C) 22-year-old female with a high BMI who has eaten a high carbohydrate meal just before ordering her first drink D) 28-year-old male with a high BMI who has had a protein shake before ordering his first drink Answer: A Explanation: Having an empty stomach would cause the alcohol to be absorbed the fastest, and potentially lead to alcohol intoxication. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 08.02 Topic: Alcohol; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 08.03 Outline the process of alcohol absorption, transport, and metabolism. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 60) How would moderate alcohol consumption potentially benefit a 70-year-old widow who has no previous history of heart disease? A) Alcohol could stimulate her appetite to get more needed nutrients and calories. B) Alcohol could improve her production of estrogen. C) Alcohol could decrease her chances of developing type II diabetes. D) Alcohol could help her absorb more nutrients. Answer: A Explanation: Drinking small amounts of alcohol at a meal or in a social setting may help stimulate the appetite. However, drinking larger amounts of alcohol can dull the appetite, and healthy foods may be displaced by alcoholic beverages. Heavy drinkers often have poor diets and nutritional status. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol; Mental health Learning Objective: 08.06 Discuss potential health risks and benefits of alcohol consumption. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute

61) What would happen to the liver of an individual who was diagnosed with steatosis if he or she abstained from alcohol? A) He or she would progress to alcoholic hepatitis. B) He or she would progress to cirrhosis. C) He or she would progress to liver cancer. D) They would reverse his or her condition. Answer: D Explanation: Steatosis is reversible. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.07 Describe the effects of chronic alcohol use on the body and nutritional status. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 62) A chronic alcoholic presents with muscle twitching and cramping. He is also complaining of spasms in his muscles that he cannot seem to control. What nutrient is he likely deficient in? A) Iron B) Folate C) Magnesium D) Niacin Answer: C Explanation: One of the classic symptoms of magnesium deficiency is tetany, a condition characterized by muscle twitches, cramps, spasms, and seizures. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.07 Describe the effects of chronic alcohol use on the body and nutritional status. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

63) If a nursing mother consumes 1 to 2 drinks of alcohol, when is it safe to breastfeed? A) 2 hours after last drink B) 30 minutes after last drink C) 1 hour after last drink D) She should not breastfeed at all if she chooses to drink. Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 08.04 Topic: Alcohol Learning Objective: 08.04 Explain how alcohol consumption affects blood alcohol concentration. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 9 Energy Metabolism 1) All the chemical and physical processes involved in maintaining life are referred to as . A) anabolism B) catabolism C) homeostasis D) metabolism 2) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) . A) transports oxygen in various metabolic pathways B) picks up and delivers hydrogens to acceptor molecules C) is another form of ATP D) is a form of lactic acid 3) The energy currency the body uses is A) NAD B) FAD C) TCA D) ATP

4) Flavin adenine dinucleotide is a coenzyme form of the vitamin A) pantothenic acid B) niacin C) thiamin D) riboflavin

5) Photosynthesis occurs in plants and uses energy from the sun to A) produce organic compounds from carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen B) produce energy-yielding compounds C) heat the environment D) make plants turn yellow 6) All the energy available to humans has its origins in A) carbon dioxide and water B) the oxygen we breathe C) foods and beverages D) the sun's solar energy 7) When a compound is oxidized, it A) loses B) gains C) transforms D) creates

one or more electrons.

8) When a compound is reduced, it A) loses B) gains C) transforms D) creates

one or more electrons.

9) Oxidation-reduction reactions in the body are controlled by A) light and dark cycles B) enzymes C) fluid balance D) protein consumption

10) If oxygen is present, metabolism is considered to be A) active B) anaerobic C) aerobic D) inactive 11) In the absence of oxygen, A) active B) anaerobic C) aerobic D) inactive

respiration will occur.

12) Glycolysis is a process involving A) synthesis of fatty acids B) reactions that convert glucose to glycogen C) reactions that convert glucose to pyruvate D) reactions that convert glycogen to protein 13) Glycolysis begins with A) pyruvate; water B) pyruvate; glucose C) glucose; pyruvate D) pyruvate; acetyl-CoA

and ends with

14) When muscle tissue is exercising under anaerobic conditions, the production of important because it ensures a continuous supply of NAD+. A) glucose-6-phosphate B) pyruvate C) lactate D) glycogen

17) Under anaerobic conditions, how many net ATP are synthesized from one glucose molecule? A) 1 ATP B) 2 ATP C) 4 ATP D) 2 GTP E) None of these choices are correct. 18) How many molecules of lactate are produced from one molecule of glucose during metabolism? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 19) The citric acid cycle is also known as the A) urea cycle B) Krebs cycle C) menstrual cycle D) aerobic pathway

20) The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA . A) requires the addition of CO2 B) occurs in the mitochondria of the cell and is irreversible C) occurs in the nucleus of the cell D) is needed for red blood cell production 21) The common pathway for the oxidation of glucose and fatty acids is A) glycolysis B) the Cori cycle C) the citric acid cycle D) ketosis

22) During the end reaction of the electron transport chain, oxygen becomes A) reduced to water (H2O) B) oxidized to carbon dioxide C) NADH D) FADH2 23) The major end products of the electron transport chain are A) water and ATP B) glucose and amino acids C) dietary fiber and ammonia D) carbon, nitrogen, and hydrogen

24) Cytochromes . A) are produced by photosynthesis B) transport electrons in the electron transport chain C) appear in the citric acid cycle D) are responsible for beta-oxidation of fatty acids 25) Carnitine . A) is a dietary essential, especially for athletes B) shuttles NADH across the mitochondrial membrane C) shuttles oxaloacetate from the mitochondria to the cytosol D) shuttles fatty acids from the cytosol into the mitochondria 26) The synthesis of fatty acids occurs in the acids occurs in the of the cell. A) mitochondria; cytosol B) nucleus; cytosol C) cytosol; mitochondria D) cytosol; lysosome

of the cell and the breakdown of fatty

27) In which compartment of the cell does the Krebs cycle and fatty acid oxidation take place? A) cell membrane B) mitochondria C) nucleus D) cytosol 28) In fatty acid synthesis, the "starting" molecule is A) glycerol B) acetyl-CoA C) ATP D) pyruvate

29) After a person has fasted for more than a few days, the brain adapts to using some of its fuel needs. A) glycerol B) ketones C) fatty acids D) amino acids 30) Ketones are produced from A) cholesterol B) hormones C) amino acids D) acetyl-CoA

for

31) Ketosis increases with . A) fasting B) a low-carbohydrate diet C) uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus D) All of these choices are correct. 32) When there is excess glucose and amino acids in the liver, and no more ATP needs to be synthesized, these energy-rich nutrients are converted to . A) triglycerides B) pyruvate C) NAD+ D) FAD 33) Before protein becomes an energy source, the molecule. A) COOH B) CH3 C) NH2 D) CO2

must be removed from the

34) In most cases the starting material for gluconeogenesis is A) oxaloacetate B) phosphoenolpyruvate C) carnitine D) All of these choices are correct. 35) Gluconeogenesis is the process whereby the body A) converts glucose to its storage form B) retrieves stored glucose from the liver C) lowers the glucose level of the blood D) produces glucose from amino acid and glycerol molecules

36) When the carbon skeleton of an amino acid is oxidized for energy, the amino group is removed and sent to the liver to produce . A) ammonia B) protein C) urea D) albumin 37) Amino acids (or parts of their carbon skeletons) that can be converted to pyruvate or enter the citric acid cycle directly are called . A) glucogenic amino acids B) ketogenic amino acids C) essential amino acids D) non-essential amino acids 38) Amino acids that become acetyl-CoA as a result of deamination are designated ketogenic amino acids because . A) they can become parts of the glucose molecule B) they cannot become part of the glucose molecule C) they interfere with metabolism of fatty acids D) all amino acids are interchangeable through the citric acid cycle 39) Which of the following pathways is the major way in which alcohol is metabolized? A) pyruvate dehydrogenase pathway B) ethanol dehydrogenase pathway C) lactate dehydrogenase pathway D) alcohol dehydrogenase pathway 40) Where does alcohol metabolism predominantly occur in the body? A) intestines B) liver C) kidney D) lungs 41) When excessive amounts of alcohol are consumed, which system oxidizes the excess alcohol? A) beta oxidizing system B) mitochondrial oxidizing system C) alcohol oxidizing system D) microsomal ethanol oxidizing system

42) After a period of prolonged fasting (starving), the brain changes its fuel requirements . A) and uses amino acids directly B) and starts to use glycerol as the primary source of energy C) and starts to use ketones and spares protein D) and glycogen becomes the primary source of energy 43) Fasting or starvation accelerates A) gluconeogenesis B) ketone production C) body protein breakdown D) body fat breakdown E) All of these choices are correct.

44) In the body, excess amino acids are . A) burned as fuel or stored as fat B) stored by the body in the form that they were consumed C) of no concern to health status D) directly converted into lean muscle mass 45) In the metabolism of amino acids for energy, the amine group is A) stored in the liver B) converted to glucose C) excreted as urea D) burned for energy

46) Typical fatty acids cannot be converted to glucose because . A) they lack sufficient energy B) they enter the citric acid cycle at acetyl-CoA and can never reform pyruvate C) they can only be synthesized from amino acid skeletons, not fatty acid skeletons D) they enter the citric acid cycle as propionyl-CoA 47) Metabolism is regulated by . A) hormones such as insulin B) the presence and activity of enzymes C) ATP levels in the individual cells D) All of these choices are correct. 48) Glycolysis is the process by which . A) fatty acids break apart to form acetyl-CoA B) glucose breaks apart to form pyruvate C) amino groups move from a donor to an acceptor D) NADH + H+ and FADH2 are converted to NAD+ and FAD, donating electrons and hydrogen ions to oxygen E) energy derived from NADH + H+ and FADH2 is used to generate ATP 7 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

49) Transamination is the process by which . A) fatty acids break apart to form acetyl-CoA B) glucose breaks apart to form pyruvate C) amino groups are transferred from a donor to an acceptor D) NADH + H+ and FADH2 are converted to NAD+ and FAD, donating electrons and hydrogen ions to oxygen E) energy derived from NADH + H+ and FADH2 is used to generate ATP 50) Beta-oxidation is the process by which . A) fatty acids break apart to form acetyl-CoA B) glucose breaks apart to form pyruvate C) amino groups move from a donor to an acceptor D) NADH + H+ and FADH2 are converted to NAD+ and FAD, donating electrons and hydrogen ions to oxygen E) energy derived from NADH + H+ and FADH2 is used to generate ATP 51) Electron transport is the process by which . A) fatty acids break apart to form acetyl-CoA B) glucose breaks apart to form pyruvate C) amino groups move from a donor to an acceptor D) NADH + H+ and FADH2 are converted to NAD+ and FAD, donating electrons and hydrogen ions to oxygen E) energy derived from NADH + H+ and FADH2 is used to generate ATP 52) Oxidative phosphorylation is the process by which . A) fatty acids break apart to form acetyl-CoA B) glucose breaks apart to form pyruvate C) amino groups move from a donor to an acceptor D) NADH + H+ and FADH2 are converted to NAD+ and FAD, donating electrons and hydrogen ions to oxygen E) energy derived from NADH + H+ and FADH2 is used to generate ATP 53) Anabolic metabolism refers to pathways that build larger, more complex compounds. 54) Catabolic metabolism refers to pathways that break down compounds to smaller, simpler units. 55) The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is irreversible. 56) Gluconeogenesis takes place in both the cytosol and the mitochondria. 57) Beta oxidation takes place in the mitochondria. 58) The kidney is the major organ that regulates metabolism. 8 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

59) Diabetic ketoacidosis is a result of a lack of the actions associated with insulin. 60) Ketone bodies are products of incomplete oxidation of fatty acids. 61) The body can make glucose from all fatty acids. 62) During an overnight fast, the primary fuel for the brain and central nervous system is amino acids. 63) High amounts of ketones in the blood show that the body is using protein as a fuel source. 64) The electron transport chain takes place in the cytosol. Match the term with its definition. A) electron transport chain B) gluconeogenesis C) glycolysis D) beta-oxidation E) ketosis 65) Formation of excess ketone bodies 66) Breakdown of fat to acetyl-CoA 67) Breakdown of glucose to pyruvate 68) Synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources 69) Electrons are transferred back and forth to make ATP

Match the term with its definition. A) lipolysis B) deamination C) cytochromes D) carnitine E) lipogenesis 70) Carrier of fatty acids across mitochondrial membrane 71) Breakdown of triglycerides 72) Removal of amine group from an amino acid 73) Compounds that transfer electrons 74) Synthesis of fat

75) Explain why typical fatty acids cannot participate in gluconeogenesis. 76) Explain the meaning of the phrase "fat burns in the flame of carbohydrates" in regards to how carbohydrates help in fat metabolism. 77) Differentiate between aerobic and anaerobic metabolism and state how many ATP are produced from glucose in each process. 78) Why do fats yield more energy per gram than proteins or carbohydrates? 79) Explain why some people think that consuming carnitine pills will help them lose weight, and why it may be helpful for others. 80) Name and briefly describe the 4 stages of aerobic respiration of glucose. 81) Explain what happens to ketone levels in the body after prolonged starvation. 82) Explain why individuals with type 1 diabetes can suffer serious complications during ketosis. 83) Why is the mitochondrion called the powerhouse of the cell? 84) Describe one inborn error of metabolism, discussing the metabolic process it affects, the consequences of the disease, and its treatment. 85) Using metabolic terms, explain how the MEOS system is different from the alcohol dehydrogenase pathway for metabolism of alcohol. 10 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

86) Name two characteristics of inborn errors of metabolism. 87) Which portion of cellular respiration benefits from the Cori cycle? A) citric acid cycle B) anaerobic glycolysis C) transition reaction D) aerobic glycolysis 88) A patient presents with low copper. Which portion of cellular respiration would suffer? A) glycolysis B) citric acid cycle C) transition reaction D) electron transport chain 89) How would metabolism be affected if a patient's liver were not working efficiently? A) He or she could not effectively absorb nutrients. B) Nutrient interconversions and storage would not efficiently occur. C) Digestive enzymes could not be produced. D) There would be no effect on metabolism. 90) During which phase of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP produced? A) glycolysis B) transition reaction C) citric acid cycle D) electron transport chain 91) Which of the following molecules would be used to produce 2 additional molecules of ATP if needed? A) NADH B) FADH2 C) Oxaloacetate D) GTP 92) What would be the effect of high concentrations of ATP? A) catabolic reactions to produce more energy B) anabolic reactions to synthesize more products C) catabolic reactions to synthesize more products D) anabolic reactions to produce more energy

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 9 Energy Metabolism 1) All the chemical and physical processes involved in maintaining life are referred to as . A) anabolism B) catabolism C) homeostasis D) metabolism Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.01 Characterize the properties of metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) . A) transports oxygen in various metabolic pathways B) picks up and delivers hydrogens to acceptor molecules C) is another form of ATP D) is a form of lactic acid Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Metabolism; Coenzymes and cofactors Learning Objective: 09.02 Describe oxidation and reduction reactions. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

3) The energy currency the body uses is A) NAD B) FAD C) TCA D) ATP

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.01 Characterize the properties of metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 4) Flavin adenine dinucleotide is a coenzyme form of the vitamin A) pantothenic acid B) niacin C) thiamin D) riboflavin

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Coenzymes and cofactors; Vitamins Learning Objective: 09.01 Characterize the properties of metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) Photosynthesis occurs in plants and uses energy from the sun to A) produce organic compounds from carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen B) produce energy-yielding compounds C) heat the environment D) make plants turn yellow

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.01 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.01 Characterize the properties of metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

6) All the energy available to humans has its origins in A) carbon dioxide and water B) the oxygen we breathe C) foods and beverages D) the sun's solar energy

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.01 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.01 Characterize the properties of metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 7) When a compound is oxidized, it A) loses B) gains C) transforms D) creates

one or more electrons.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.02 Describe oxidation and reduction reactions. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) When a compound is reduced, it A) loses B) gains C) transforms D) creates

one or more electrons.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.02 Describe oxidation and reduction reactions. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

9) Oxidation-reduction reactions in the body are controlled by A) light and dark cycles B) enzymes C) fluid balance D) protein consumption

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.02 Describe oxidation and reduction reactions. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 10) If oxygen is present, metabolism is considered to be A) active B) anaerobic C) aerobic D) inactive

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.01 Characterize the properties of metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 11) In the absence of oxygen, A) active B) anaerobic C) aerobic D) inactive

respiration will occur.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.01 Characterize the properties of metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 13) Glycolysis begins with A) pyruvate; water B) pyruvate; glucose C) glucose; pyruvate D) pyruvate; acetyl-CoA

and ends with

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 14) When muscle tissue is exercising under anaerobic conditions, the production of important because it ensures a continuous supply of NAD+. A) glucose-6-phosphate B) pyruvate C) lactate D) glycogen

15) In metabolism, glucose is degraded to CO2 and water. The carbon dioxide is produced in . A) the red blood cells B) the citric acid cycle C) glycolysis D) the electron transport chain Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 16) Red blood cells undergo anaerobic metabolism, which means that they produce A) plasma B) iron C) lactate D) clots

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 17) Under anaerobic conditions, how many net ATP are synthesized from one glucose molecule? A) 1 ATP B) 2 ATP C) 4 ATP D) 2 GTP E) None of these choices are correct. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 6 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

18) How many molecules of lactate are produced from one molecule of glucose during metabolism? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 19) The citric acid cycle is also known as the A) urea cycle B) Krebs cycle C) menstrual cycle D) aerobic pathway

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 20) The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA . A) requires the addition of CO2 B) occurs in the mitochondria of the cell and is irreversible C) occurs in the nucleus of the cell D) is needed for red blood cell production Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 7 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

21) The common pathway for the oxidation of glucose and fatty acids is A) glycolysis B) the Cori cycle C) the citric acid cycle D) ketosis

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates.; 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 22) During the end reaction of the electron transport chain, oxygen becomes A) reduced to water (H2O) B) oxidized to carbon dioxide C) NADH D) FADH2

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 23) The major end products of the electron transport chain are A) water and ATP B) glucose and amino acids C) dietary fiber and ammonia D) carbon, nitrogen, and hydrogen

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 8 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

24) Cytochromes . A) are produced by photosynthesis B) transport electrons in the electron transport chain C) appear in the citric acid cycle D) are responsible for beta-oxidation of fatty acids Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 25) Carnitine . A) is a dietary essential, especially for athletes B) shuttles NADH across the mitochondrial membrane C) shuttles oxaloacetate from the mitochondria to the cytosol D) shuttles fatty acids from the cytosol into the mitochondria Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Metabolism; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 26) The synthesis of fatty acids occurs in the acids occurs in the of the cell. A) mitochondria; cytosol B) nucleus; cytosol C) cytosol; mitochondria D) cytosol; lysosome

of the cell and the breakdown of fatty

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03; 09.07 Topic: Metabolism; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.08 Summarize how fed and fasted states affect metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 9 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

27) In which compartment of the cell does the Krebs cycle and fatty acid oxidation take place? A) cell membrane B) mitochondria C) nucleus D) cytosol Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Metabolism; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 28) In fatty acid synthesis, the "starting" molecule is A) glycerol B) acetyl-CoA C) ATP D) pyruvate

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.07 Topic: Metabolism; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.08 Summarize how fed and fasted states affect metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 29) After a person has fasted for more than a few days, the brain adapts to using some of its fuel needs. A) glycerol B) ketones C) fatty acids D) amino acids

for

30) Ketones are produced from A) cholesterol B) hormones C) amino acids D) acetyl-CoA

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Metabolism; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 31) Ketosis increases with . A) fasting B) a low-carbohydrate diet C) uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03 Topic: Metabolism; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.08 Summarize how fed and fasted states affect metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 32) When there is excess glucose and amino acids in the liver, and no more ATP needs to be synthesized, these energy-rich nutrients are converted to . A) triglycerides B) pyruvate C) NAD+ D) FAD Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.07 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 09.08 Summarize how fed and fasted states affect metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

33) Before protein becomes an energy source, the molecule. A) COOH B) CH3

must be removed from the

C) NH2 D) CO2 Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins Learning Objective: 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 34) In most cases the starting material for gluconeogenesis is A) oxaloacetate B) phosphoenolpyruvate C) carnitine D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.06 Illustrate the process of gluconeogenesis. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 35) Gluconeogenesis is the process whereby the body A) converts glucose to its storage form B) retrieves stored glucose from the liver C) lowers the glucose level of the blood D) produces glucose from amino acid and glycerol molecules

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.06 Illustrate the process of gluconeogenesis. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

36) When the carbon skeleton of an amino acid is oxidized for energy, the amino group is removed and sent to the liver to produce . A) ammonia B) protein C) urea D) albumin Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins Learning Objective: 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 37) Amino acids (or parts of their carbon skeletons) that can be converted to pyruvate or enter the citric acid cycle directly are called . A) glucogenic amino acids B) ketogenic amino acids C) essential amino acids D) non-essential amino acids Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins Learning Objective: 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

38) Amino acids that become acetyl-CoA as a result of deamination are designated ketogenic amino acids because . A) they can become parts of the glucose molecule B) they cannot become part of the glucose molecule C) they interfere with metabolism of fatty acids D) all amino acids are interchangeable through the citric acid cycle Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins Learning Objective: 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 39) Which of the following pathways is the major way in which alcohol is metabolized? A) pyruvate dehydrogenase pathway B) ethanol dehydrogenase pathway C) lactate dehydrogenase pathway D) alcohol dehydrogenase pathway Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.05 Topic: Metabolism; Alcohol Learning Objective: 09.07 Discuss how the body metabolizes alcohol. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 40) Where does alcohol metabolism predominantly occur in the body? A) intestines B) liver C) kidney D) lungs Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.05 Topic: Metabolism; Alcohol Learning Objective: 09.07 Discuss how the body metabolizes alcohol. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

41) When excessive amounts of alcohol are consumed, which system oxidizes the excess alcohol? A) beta oxidizing system B) mitochondrial oxidizing system C) alcohol oxidizing system D) microsomal ethanol oxidizing system Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.05 Topic: Metabolism; Alcohol Learning Objective: 09.07 Discuss how the body metabolizes alcohol. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 42) After a period of prolonged fasting (starving), the brain changes its fuel requirements . A) and uses amino acids directly B) and starts to use glycerol as the primary source of energy C) and starts to use ketones and spares protein D) and glycogen becomes the primary source of energy Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.07 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 09.08 Summarize how fed and fasted states affect metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 43) Fasting or starvation accelerates A) gluconeogenesis B) ketone production C) body protein breakdown D) body fat breakdown E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.07 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins Learning Objective: 09.08 Summarize how fed and fasted states affect metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

44) In the body, excess amino acids are . A) burned as fuel or stored as fat B) stored by the body in the form that they were consumed C) of no concern to health status D) directly converted into lean muscle mass Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04; 09.07 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins Learning Objective: 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat.; 09.08 Summarize how fed and fasted states affect metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 45) In the metabolism of amino acids for energy, the amine group is A) stored in the liver B) converted to glucose C) excreted as urea D) burned for energy

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins Learning Objective: 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

46) Typical fatty acids cannot be converted to glucose because . A) they lack sufficient energy B) they enter the citric acid cycle at acetyl-CoA and can never reform pyruvate C) they can only be synthesized from amino acid skeletons, not fatty acid skeletons D) they enter the citric acid cycle as propionyl-CoA Answer: B Explanation: Typical fatty acids cannot be turned into glucose because those with an even number of carbons—the typical form in the body—break down into acetyl-CoA molecules. Acetyl-CoA can never re-form into pyruvate; the step between pyruvate and acetyl-CoA is irreversible. The options for acetyl-CoA are forming ketones and/or combining with oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 09.03 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.06 Illustrate the process of gluconeogenesis. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 47) Metabolism is regulated by . A) hormones such as insulin B) the presence and activity of enzymes C) ATP levels in the individual cells D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.06 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.08 Summarize how fed and fasted states affect metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

48) Glycolysis is the process by which . A) fatty acids break apart to form acetyl-CoA B) glucose breaks apart to form pyruvate C) amino groups move from a donor to an acceptor D) NADH + H+ and FADH2 are converted to NAD+ and FAD, donating electrons and hydrogen ions to oxygen E) energy derived from NADH + H+ and FADH2 is used to generate ATP Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 49) Transamination is the process by which . A) fatty acids break apart to form acetyl-CoA B) glucose breaks apart to form pyruvate C) amino groups are transferred from a donor to an acceptor D) NADH + H+ and FADH2 are converted to NAD+ and FAD, donating electrons and hydrogen ions to oxygen E) energy derived from NADH + H+ and FADH2 is used to generate ATP Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins Learning Objective: 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

50) Beta-oxidation is the process by which . A) fatty acids break apart to form acetyl-CoA B) glucose breaks apart to form pyruvate C) amino groups move from a donor to an acceptor D) NADH + H+ and FADH2 are converted to NAD+ and FAD, donating electrons and hydrogen ions to oxygen E) energy derived from NADH + H+ and FADH2 is used to generate ATP Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 51) Electron transport is the process by which . A) fatty acids break apart to form acetyl-CoA B) glucose breaks apart to form pyruvate C) amino groups move from a donor to an acceptor D) NADH + H+ and FADH2 are converted to NAD+ and FAD, donating electrons and hydrogen ions to oxygen E) energy derived from NADH + H+ and FADH2 is used to generate ATP Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

52) Oxidative phosphorylation is the process by which . A) fatty acids break apart to form acetyl-CoA B) glucose breaks apart to form pyruvate C) amino groups move from a donor to an acceptor D) NADH + H+ and FADH2 are converted to NAD+ and FAD, donating electrons and hydrogen ions to oxygen E) energy derived from NADH + H+ and FADH2 is used to generate ATP Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 53) Anabolic metabolism refers to pathways that build larger, more complex compounds. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.01 Characterize the properties of metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 54) Catabolic metabolism refers to pathways that break down compounds to smaller, simpler units. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.01 Characterize the properties of metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

55) The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is irreversible. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 56) Gluconeogenesis takes place in both the cytosol and the mitochondria. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.06 Illustrate the process of gluconeogenesis. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 57) Beta oxidation takes place in the mitochondria. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 58) The kidney is the major organ that regulates metabolism. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The liver is the major organ that regulates metabolism. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.06 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.08 Summarize how fed and fasted states affect metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

59) Diabetic ketoacidosis is a result of a lack of the actions associated with insulin. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03 Topic: Metabolism; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 60) Ketone bodies are products of incomplete oxidation of fatty acids. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Metabolism; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 61) The body can make glucose from all fatty acids. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Typical fatty acids cannot be turned into glucose because those with an even number of carbons—the typical form in the body—break down into acetyl- CoA molecules. Acetyl-CoA can never re-form into pyruvate; the step between pyruvate and acetyl-CoA is irreversible. The options for acetyl-CoA are forming ketones and/or combining with oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle. At the end of 1 cycle, no carbons from acetyl-CoA are left to turn into glucose; it is impossible to convert typical fatty acids into glucose. The glycerol portion of a triglyceride is the part that can become glucose. Glycerol enters the glycolysis pathway and can follow the gluconeogenesis pathway from glyceraldehyde 3phosphate to glucose. Glucose yield from glycerol is insignificant. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.06 Illustrate the process of gluconeogenesis. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

62) During an overnight fast, the primary fuel for the brain and central nervous system is amino acids. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 09.07 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.08 Summarize how fed and fasted states affect metabolism. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 63) High amounts of ketones in the blood show that the body is using protein as a fuel source. Answer: FALSE Explanation: High amounts of ketones in the blood show that the body is using fat as a fuel source. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03; 09.07 Topic: Metabolism; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.08 Summarize how fed and fasted states affect metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 64) The electron transport chain takes place in the cytosol. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The ETC takes place in the mitochondria. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

Match the term with its definition. A) beta-oxidation B) electron transport chain C) ketosis D) glycolysis E) gluconeogenesis 65) Formation of excess ketone bodies Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02; 09.03; 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates.; 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 66) Breakdown of fat to acetyl-CoA Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02; 09.03; 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates.; 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 67) Breakdown of glucose to pyruvate Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02; 09.03; 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates.; 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

68) Synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02; 09.03; 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates.; 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 69) Electrons are transferred back and forth to make ATP Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02; 09.03; 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates.; 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 65) C 66) A 67) D 68) E 69) B

Match the term with its definition. A) cytochromes B) carnitine C) lipogenesis D) deamination E) lipolysis 70) Carrier of fatty acids across mitochondrial membrane Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02; 09.03; 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates.; 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 71) Breakdown of triglycerides Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02; 09.03; 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates.; 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 72) Removal of amine group from an amino acid Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02; 09.03; 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates.; 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

73) Compounds that transfer electrons Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02; 09.03; 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates.; 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 74) Synthesis of fat Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02; 09.03; 09.04 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates.; 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 70) B 71) E 72) D 73) A 74) C 75) Explain why typical fatty acids cannot participate in gluconeogenesis. Answer: Answers will vary. Typical fatty acids cannot be turned into glucose because those with an even number of carbons—the typical form in the body—break down into acetyl- CoA molecules. Acetyl-CoA can never re-form into pyruvate; the step between pyruvate and acetyl-CoA is irreversible. The options for acetyl-CoA are forming ketones and/or combining with oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle. At the end of 1 cycle, no carbons from acetyl-CoA are left to turn into glucose; it is impossible to convert typical fatty acids into glucose. The glycerol portion of a triglyceride is the part that can become glucose. Glycerol enters the glycolysis pathway and can follow the gluconeogenesis pathway from glyceraldehyde 3phosphate to glucose. Glucose yield from glycerol is insignificant. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry; Triglycerides Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats. Bloom's: Understand 27 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

76) Explain the meaning of the phrase "fat burns in the flame of carbohydrates" in regards to how carbohydrates help in fat metabolism. Answer: Answers will vary. In addition to its role in energy production, the citric acid cycle provides compounds that leave the cycle and are used for other pathways. This results in a slowing of the cycle, as eventually not enough oxaloacetate is formed to combine with the acetyl-CoA entering the cycle. Cells are able to compensate for this by synthesizing additional oxaloacetate. One potential source of this additional oxaloacetate is pyruvate (Fig. 9-14). Thus, as fatty acids create acetyl-CoA, carbohydrates (e.g., glucose) are needed to keep the concentration of pyruvate high enough to resupply oxaloacetate to the citric acid cycle. Overall, the entire pathway for fatty acid oxidation works better when carbohydrate is available. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 77) Differentiate between aerobic and anaerobic metabolism and state how many ATP are produced from glucose in each process. Answer: Answers will vary. When oxygen is readily available, cellular respiration may be aerobic. When oxygen is not present, anaerobic pathways are used. Aerobic respiration is far more efficient than anaerobic metabolism at producing ATP. As an example, the aerobic respiration of a single molecule of glucose will result in a net gain of 30 to 32 ATP. In contrast, the anaerobic metabolism of a single molecule of glucose is limited to a net gain of 2 ATP. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.01 Characterize the properties of metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes

78) Why do fats yield more energy per gram than proteins or carbohydrates? Answer: Answers will vary. Glucose carbons exist in a more oxidized state than fat; as a result, fats yield more energy than carbohydrates (9 kcal/g versus 4 kcal/g). Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates.; 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 79) Explain why some people think that consuming carnitine pills will help them lose weight, and why it may be helpful for others. Answer: Answers will vary. Carnitine helps shuttle free fatty acids in the cytosol into mitochondria. Carnitine is a popular nutritional supplement. In healthy people, cells produce the carnitine needed, and carnitine supplements provide no benefit. In patients hospitalized with acute illnesses, however, carnitine synthesis may be inadequate. These patients may need to have carnitine added to their intravenous feeding (total parenteral nutrition) solutions. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 09.03 Topic: Metabolism; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 3-5 minutes

80) Name and briefly describe the 4 stages of aerobic respiration of glucose. Answer: Answers will vary. Stage 1: Glycolysis. In this pathway, glucose (a 6-carbon compound) is oxidized and forms 2 molecules of the 3-carbon compound pyruvate, produces NADH + H+, and generates a net of 2 molecules of ATP. Glycolysis occurs in the cytosol of cells. Stage 2: Transition reaction. The transition reaction converts 2 molecules of the 3-carbon pyruvate from glycolysis into 2 molecules of the 2-carbon molecule acetyl-CoA (Fig. 9-6). The transition reaction also produces NADH + H+ and releases carbon dioxide (CO2) as a waste product. The transition reaction is given this name because these molecules are transitioning from the cytosol into the mitochondria of cells where this reaction occurs. Stage 3: Citric acid cycle. In this pathway, acetyl-CoA enters the citric acid cycle, resulting in the production of NADH + H+, FADH2, and ATP. Carbon dioxide is released as a waste product. Like the transition reaction, the citric acid cycle takes place within the mitochondria of cells. Stage 4: Electron transport chain. The NADH + H+ produced by stages 1 through 3 of cellular respiration and FADH2 produced in stage 3 enter the electron transport chain, where NADH + H+ is oxidized to NAD+ and FADH2 is oxidized to FAD. At the end of the electron transport chain, oxygen is combined with hydrogen ions (H+) and electrons to form water. The electron transport chain takes place within the mitochondria of cells. Most ATP is produced in the electron transport chain; thus, the mitochondria are the cell's major energy-producing organelles. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02; 09.03; 09.04; 09.05 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry; Proteins Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates.; 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.05 Discuss how ATP production from protein differs from catabolism of carbohydrate and fat. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes

81) Explain what happens to ketone levels in the body after prolonged starvation. Answer: Answers will vary. When a person is in a state of semistarvation or fasting, the amount of glucose in the body falls, so insulin production falls. This fall in blood insulin then causes fatty acids to flood into the bloodstream and eventually form ketone bodies in the liver. The heart, muscles, and some parts of the kidneys then use ketone bodies for fuel. After a few days of ketosis, the brain also begins to metabolize ketone bodies for energy. Therefore, ketone levels rise during this period of time. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03; 09.07 Topic: Metabolism; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.08 Summarize how fed and fasted states affect metabolism. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 82) Explain why individuals with type 1 diabetes can suffer serious complications during ketosis. Answer: Answers will vary. In type 1 diabetes, little to no insulin is produced. This lack of insulin does not allow for normal carbohydrate and fat metabolism. Without sufficient insulin, cells cannot readily utilize glucose, resulting in rapid lipolysis and the excess production of ketone bodies. If the concentration of ketone bodies rises too high in the blood, they spill into the urine, pulling the electrolytes sodium and potassium with them. Eventually, severe ion imbalances occur in the body. The blood also becomes more acidic because 2 of the 3 forms of ketone bodies contain acid groups. The resulting condition, known as diabetic ketoacidosis, can induce coma or death if not treated immediately, such as with insulin, electrolytes, and fluids (see Chapter 5). Ketoacidosis usually occurs only in ketosis caused by uncontrolled type 1 diabetes; in fasting, blood concentrations of ketone bodies typically do not rise high enough to cause the problem. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 09.03; 09.07 Topic: Metabolism; Lipids; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.04 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from fats.; 09.08 Summarize how fed and fasted states affect metabolism. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes

83) Why is the mitochondrion called the powerhouse of the cell? Answer: Answers will vary. Many cellular processes that create energy and other functions, including gluconeogenesis, fatty acid oxidation, and glycolysis/the electric transport chain in aerobic respiration, all occur in the mitochondria. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 84) Describe one inborn error of metabolism, discussing the metabolic process it affects, the consequences of the disease, and its treatment. Answer: Answers will vary. Inborn errors of metabolism occur when a person inherits a defective gene coding for a specific enzyme from both parents. Both parents are likely to be carriers of the defective gene—that is, they have 1 healthy gene and 1 defective gene for the enzyme in their chromosomes. When each parent donates the defective form of the gene to the offspring, the offspring has 2 defective copies of the gene and therefore little or no activity of the enzyme that the gene normally would produce. If a person has a defective gene, he or she produces a defective protein based on the instructions contained in that defective gene. See "CLINICAL PERSPECTIVE" for possible answers to this question specifically. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 09.07 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.09 Describe common inborn errors of metabolism. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes

85) Using metabolic terms, explain how the MEOS system is different from the alcohol dehydrogenase pathway for metabolism of alcohol. Answer: Answers will vary. The MEOS differs in several ways from the ADH pathway. First, the MEOS uses potential energy (in the form of NADPH + H+, another niacin coenzyme), rather than yielding potential energy (as NADH + H+ in the ADH pathway) in the conversion of alcohol to acetaldehyde. This use of energy may, in part, explain why individuals who consume large amounts of alcohol do not gain as much weight as might be expected from the amount of alcohol-derived energy they consume. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 09.05 Topic: Metabolism; Alcohol Learning Objective: 09.07 Discuss how the body metabolizes alcohol. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 3-5 minutes 86) Name two characteristics of inborn errors of metabolism. Answer: Answers will vary. They appear soon after birth. Such a disorder is suspected when otherwise physically well children develop a loss of appetite, vomiting, dehydration, physical weakness, or developmental delays soon after birth. For some of these conditions, infants are screened for the potential to have a specific inborn error of metabolism. • They are very specific, involving only 1 or a few enzymes. These enzymes usually participate in catabolic pathways (in which compounds are degraded). • No cure is possible, but typically the disorders can be controlled. The type of control depends on the inborn error—control might include reducing intake of the substance the individual is unable to metabolize normally, taking pharmacological doses of vitamins, and replacing a compound that cannot be synthesized. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.07 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.09 Describe common inborn errors of metabolism. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes

87) Which portion of cellular respiration benefits from the Cori cycle? A) citric acid cycle B) anaerobic glycolysis C) transition reaction D) aerobic glycolysis Answer: B Explanation: Even though muscle cells have mitochondria, during high intensity exercise they rely heavily on anaerobic glycolysis to quickly produce ATP. Anaerobic glycolysis causes lactate accumulations and NAD+ regeneration, both of which allow anaerobic glycolysis to continue in the muscle. The lactate generated is transported from the muscles to the liver, where it is converted to glucose, which can then be returned to the muscles. This process is known as the Cori cycle. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 88) A patient presents with low copper. Which portion of cellular respiration would suffer? A) glycolysis B) citric acid cycle C) transition reaction D) electron transport chain Answer: A Explanation: Copper plays a role in the electron transport chain, during glycolysis in aerobic respiration. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Carbohydrates; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

89) How would metabolism be affected if a patient's liver were not working efficiently? A) He or she could not effectively absorb nutrients. B) Nutrient interconversions and storage would not efficiently occur. C) Digestive enzymes could not be produced. D) There would be no effect on metabolism. Answer: B Explanation: Liver is the major organ of metabolism, involved in converting nutrients to energy, among other processes. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 09.07 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.08 Summarize how fed and fasted states affect metabolism. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 0-1 minute 90) During which phase of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP produced? A) glycolysis B) transition reaction C) citric acid cycle D) electron transport chain Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 91) Which of the following molecules would be used to produce 2 additional molecules of ATP if needed? A) NADH B) FADH2 C) Oxaloacetate D) GTP Answer: D Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 09.02 Topic: Metabolism; Nutritional biochemistry Learning Objective: 09.03 Illustrate the metabolic pathways involved in ATP production from carbohydrates. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 35 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

92) What would be the effect of high concentrations of ATP? A) catabolic reactions to produce more energy B) anabolic reactions to synthesize more products C) catabolic reactions to synthesize more products D) anabolic reactions to produce more energy Answer: B Explanation: High amounts of ATP would yield building reactions in the body. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 09.07 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 09.08 Summarize how fed and fasted states affect metabolism. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 10 Energy Balance, Weight Control, & Eating Disorders 1) When the diet contains more energy than is expended, the excess energy A) is stored as fat in adipose tissue B) is stored in muscle tissue C) decreases nitrogen balance D) is excreted in the urine

2) When energy intake is greater than energy output, body weight generally A) remains the same B) increases C) decreases D) None of these choices are correct.

3) For most adults, the greatest portion of their energy expenditure is for A) physical activity B) basal metabolism C) thermic effect of food D) None of these choices are correct.

4) The body's total daily energy expenditure includes . A) basal metabolic rate, thermal effect of food, and effects of physical activity B) basal metabolic rate, height, and weight C) body mass index, food intake, and number of hours a person sleeps D) None of these choices are correct. 5) All the following are true statements about basal metabolism except . A) it supports the work that goes on in the body all the time B) it is the amount of calories you need to sustain life C) it includes involuntary activities necessary to sustain life D) it accounts for the smallest component of the average person's daily energy expenditure 6) Compared to men, the basal metabolic rate of women is typically A) lower B) higher C) no different

7) The energy spent in maintaining all involuntary processes in the body at rest, awake, and in a non-absorptive state is called . A) resting metabolism B) thermogenesis C) thermic effect D) basal metabolism 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) A factor that can decrease BMR is A) consuming a very low-energy diet B) having a high fever C) long endurance exercise D) being pregnant

9) The best predictor of your basal metabolic rate is A) the rate of nutrient absorption B) what you had for breakfast C) your lean body mass D) environmental temperature

10) Of the following males, who would most likely have the lowest BMR? A) 60-year-old B) 16-year-old C) 46-year-old D) 76-year-old 11) The thermic effect of food accounts for approximately day. A) 5% to 10% B) 11% to 15% C) 16% to 20% D) 50% 12) Consumption of a very-low-calorie diet A) increases BMR by about 10% to 20% B) increases BMR by about 40% to 50% C) decreases BMR by about 10% to 20% D) decreases BMR by about 40% to 50%

of energy consumed each

13) To calculate estimated energy needs using the equations developed by the Food and Nutrition Board, one needs information about the individual's . A) age B) weight C) height D) gender E) All of these choices are accurate. 14) A young man weighs 150 pounds. A rough estimate of his basal metabolic rate would be . A) 1469 kcal per day B) 68 kcal per hour C) 2500 kcal per day D) 61 kcal per hour 2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

15) The ratio of body weight to height is represented as A) body composition B) basal metabolic rate C) bioelectrical impedance D) body mass index

18) A man weighs 154 pounds and is 70 inches tall. His BMI is A) 15 B) 20 C) 22 D) 25 19) A body mass index of 40 represents A) no health risk B) possible health risk C) a high risk for health problems D) a value that is not on the nomogram

20) Underwater weighing assesses body composition based on the principle that A) lean body tissue is more dense than adipose tissue B) adipose tissue is more dense than lean body tissue C) adipose tissue is composed of mostly water D) body fluids are not being weighed using this method

21) Bioelectrical impedance assesses body composition based on the principle that . A) atomic nuclei behave like magnets when an external magnetic field is applied across the body B) adipose tissue is more dense than lean body tissue C) electrical conductivity is greater in lean tissue than in adipose tissue D) fat-free mass is proportional to total body potassium

22) Which of the following techniques for measuring body composition makes use of small exposures to radiation? A) MRI B) DEXA C) TOBEC D) BIA 23) Lee Brown is a 23-year-old college student. Which of these would indicate that he is at greater risk for chronic diseases associated with obesity? A) BMI of 22 B) BMI of 27 C) 41-inch waist D) 38-inch waist 24) A "thrifty metabolism" is a genetic predisposition that A) causes a person to expend higher-than-average energy at rest B) enables a person to store fat readily C) enables a person to expend fat readily D) None of these choices are accurate.

25) The set-point theory proposes that . A) body temperature determines how many calories are burned B) humans have a genetically predetermined body weight or body fat C) metabolism can be reset at different stages of life D) None of these choices are accurate. 26) Before recommending treatment for obesity, the health professional should A) assess current health status B) take a family history of obesity-related disease C) determine fat distribution in the patient D) All of these choices are accurate.

27) A healthy weight for an individual should not be based exclusively on weight, but on . A) total amount of body fat B) location of body fat C) presence or absence of weight-related medical problems D) All of these responses are correct 28) The success (attain and maintain reduced weight for 3 to 5 years) of non-surgical commercial weight reduction programs has been reported to be approximately for adults. A) 40% B) 5% C) 25% D) 0% 4 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

29) Based on results of long-term studies, people on weight-reduction diets should limit . A) high-fat foods B) high-fiber foods C) high-protein foods D) high-mineral foods 30) Approximately how many calories are calculated to be in one pound of fat? A) 2500 B) 3500 C) 4500 D) 5500 31) The major goal for weight reduction in the treatment of obesity is the loss of A) weight B) body fat C) body water D) body protein

32) A daily deficit of 400 to 500 kcal should theoretically result in a loss of approximately of body fat per week. A) 0.25 pound B) 1 pound C) 3 pounds D) 4 pounds 33) A weight-reduction program should be considered successful only when the weight loss . A) exceeds 10% of starting weight B) is maintained C) results in a BMI of below 25 D) All of these choices are correct. 34) A sound program for weight reduction should include A) control of total energy intake B) increased physical activity C) modification of food habits D) All of these choices are correct. 35) An example of an appropriate weight-loss strategy would be a A) food plan that meets the nutritional needs of the patient B) diet based on readily obtainable foods C) plan that encourages increased physical activity D) All of these choices are accurate.

36) Physical activity is MOST likely to lead to successful weight loss if it A) is performed at high intensity B) is performed regularly C) leads to significant loss of body water D) causes muscle soreness

37) Keeping tempting snack foods stashed in the cupboards or freezer instead of leaving them in plain view, which may trigger unnecessary eating, is an example of . A) cognitive restructuring B) chain-breaking C) self-monitoring D) stimulus control 38) Kevin wants to treat himself to a hot fudge sundae whenever he has a stressful day. He decides that a more appropriate response to a stressful day would be a brisk walk. Which of the following behavior modification techniques has he used? A) cognitive restructuring B) self-monitoring C) contingency management D) stimulus control 39) By keeping a detailed food diary, the individual who is trying to lose weight can discover . A) emotions that lead to poor eating habits B) social influences affecting eating and food choices C) external cues that lead to overeating D) All of these choices are accurate. 40) All of the following are useful behavior modification principles for weight control EXCEPT . A) eliminating a reward system for weight loss B) working out with a friend C) recording eating behaviors to identify situations that contribute to overeating D) shopping from a grocery list 41) The best way to handle a situation in which you "go off" your meal plan for weight loss is to . A) go ahead and eat anything you want B) skip eating tomorrow C) assume lapses will occur and re-establish the program but feel guilty D) learn from the experience by identifying triggers so that a repeat can be avoided

42) Maintenance of weight loss can be fostered by A) eating breakfast B) having a regular exercise plan C) self-monitoring D) All of these responses are correct.

43) The highest rate of weight-loss success and maintenance among people with morbid obesity is seen with . A) very-low-calorie diets (VLCDs) B) jaw wiring C) gastroplasty D) commercial weight-loss programs 44) The primary intent of gastroplasty is to A) speed transit time B) limit stomach volume C) prevent snacking D) alter the absorption of the small intestine

45) A fad diet for weight loss . A) can result in quick weight loss B) usually fails because habits are not changed C) may be nutritionally inadequate D) All of these choices are correct. 46) A weight-loss program is likely a fad diet if it . A) recommends expensive, unproven nutrient supplements B) promotes quick weight loss C) guarantees weight-loss success for everyone D) All of these choices are accurate. 47) Eating disorders frequently co-occur with which of the following psychological disorders? A) depression B) substance abuse C) anxiety disorders D) All of these choices are accurate. 48) Anorexia nervosa can be defined as A) compulsive eating B) purging C) hyperactivity D) psychological denial of appetite

49) A condition of self-induced semi-starvation is called A) bulimia B) anorexia nervosa C) kwashiorkor D) baryophobia

50) The semi-starvation of anorexia nervosa results in many physiological changes, such as . A) decreased basal metabolism B) lanugo C) iron-deficiency anemia D) dry, scaly, cold skin E) All of these choices are accurate. 51) Anorexic individuals have trouble maintaining normal body temperature because of . A) loss of body fat as insulation B) lack of appropriate clothing as the person tries to show off his/her extreme thinness C) increased synthesis of the thyroid hormone D) wearing baggy clothes 52) Lanugo is . A) a consequence of iron deficiency B) the body's response to increased synthesis of thyroid hormones to compensate for less kcals C) fine, downy hair covering the body to compensate for lack of adequate body fat insulation D) cessation of the menstrual cycle 53) The most successful treatment for anorexia nervosa involves . A) isolation from the family and forced tube feeding B) dietary counseling on an outpatient basis by a registered dietitian C) inpatient psychological, nutritional, and medical therapy, often involving the whole family D) use of diuretics 54) Bulimic patients often have a problem with . A) recognizing nutritious food choices B) eating enough food to maintain a healthy body weight C) experiencing no feelings of guilt after bingeing D) an inability to control responses to impulse and desire 55) One essential difference between anorexia and bulimia . A) is age of onset. Bulimia begins in early childhood B) is gender. Men are far more likely to suffer from anorexia nervosa when they enter their teens C) is that anorexic patients are much more secretive, while bulimia patients are much more open about their eating disorder D) is that the bulimic turns to food during a crisis or problem, whereas the anorexic turns away from food 8 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

56) To counteract the binge, the bulimic patient may A) induce vomiting B) take laxatives C) over-exercise D) All of these choices are accurate. 57) Repeated self-induced vomiting may cause A) tears in the esophagus B) stomach ulcers C) electrolyte imbalances D) tooth demineralization E) All of these choices are correct.

58) The greatest health risk from frequent vomiting due to bulimia nervosa is A) potassium imbalance B) constipation C) lanugo D) swollen glands

59) Eating disorders not otherwise specified . A) are not really an eating disorder but more of a perception of having one B) occur when a person can't decide whether to become an anorexic or bulimic C) refers to a broad category that can include symptoms from both anorexia and bulimia D) None of the answers are correct. 60) Negative energy balance results from an energy deficit and the result is weight loss. 61) The part of our energy expenditure that we have the most direct control over is voluntary physical activity. 62) As cholecystokinin secretion increases, appetite increases. 63) Chewing contributes to satiety. 64) Hunger signals change even while we eat. 65) Stomach distention contributes to satiety. 66) Metabolism of protein may promote satiety by decreasing the secretion of a hormone called ghrelin. 67) Being classified as overweight according to BMI does not necessarily equate to excess health risks if a person makes wise food choices and exercises.

68) Women carry more body fat than men for reproductive purposes. 69) According to studies, identical twins raised in different environments tend to have different weight gain patterns. 70) Genes account for up to 20% of weight differences between people. 71) Environmental factors are important influences on what we eat. 72) Eating breakfast has been shown to be a good strategy for losing weight. 73) Setting a weight-loss goal of 10 pounds in six weeks is reasonable and attainable if the individual is fully committed to such efforts. 74) Exercise leads to development of more lean tissue, which reduces basal metabolism. 75) In treating morbid obesity with gastroplasty, the volume of the stomach is reduced to approximately 30 milliliters. 76) A VLCD may only supply 400 to 800 kcal per day. 77) Fad diets rarely lead to lasting weight loss or positive changes in eating and exercise habits. 78) Treating physical and emotional problems early could help prevent eating disorders.

Match the term with its description. A) Fat cells, adipose tissue B) All involuntary activity C) BMI > 30 D) Muscles, liver, kidney, etc. E) A method for evaluating health risk 79) Basal metabolism 80) Obesity 81) Fat tissue 82) Body Mass Index 83) Lean tissue

Match the term with an example. A) Separating the act of watching a movie with the act of eating buttered popcorn and sliced cheese B) Taking the route home from work that does not go past a favorite fast food establishment C) Planning to work out with an aerobics DVD if bad weather prevents outdoor exercise D) Keeping a record of diet and activity habits to identify patterns that contribute to obesity E) Taking a jog with a friend instead of raiding the refrigerator after a stressful final exam 84) Chain-breaking 85) Stimulus control 86) Cognitive restructuring 87) Contingency management 88) Self-monitoring

89) How does leptin affect appetite and is it involved in the development of obesity? 90) Explain how hunger signals change several hours after eating. 91) Explain the difference between hunger and appetite and discuss if a craving for chocolate is a sign of hunger? 92) What everyday physical activities can help increase energy output? 93) What are the advantages and disadvantages of skinfold measurements as a technique for assessing body composition? 94) Which body fat measurements are considered the most accurate and why? 95) Describe two genetic disorders/diseases that can cause weight disturbances. 96) Name the three important components of a successful weight-management program. 97) What usually happens when someone resumes their normal lifestyle after having followed a fad diet? 98) Compare and contrast anorexia nervosa and bulimia. In what ways are they similar? In what ways are they different? 99) Explain how psychological therapy can help in the treatment of a patient with an eating disorder? 11 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

100) Someone you know is suspected of having an eating disorder. What are some of the steps you can take to help this person? 101) Ghrelin is a protein that increases appetite. 102) Which of the following represents a BMI range considered to be healthy for most adult men and women? A) 10-14 B) 15-18 C) 19-24 D) 25-30 103) The thermic effect of food represents A) the BMR minus the energy used in physical activity B) the decrease in food energy due to cooking C) the increase in energy expenditure associated with the body's digestion of food D) the body's storage of food as fat for insulation 104) Which of the following genetic disorders would cause a person to have limited fat stores? A) Marfan syndrome B) Hypothyroidism C) Ovarian cysts D) Prader-Willi syndrome 105) Why is BMI not the best indicator of overfat? 106) Sally has had a rough day at work. Before she decided to lose weight, she would have normally gone straight to the freezer and eaten a large bowl of ice cream. Now, she recognizes that stress is a trigger for her to overeat so she deals with her stressors in other manners. What strategy is Sally using to control her problem behavior? A) chain-breaking B) cognitive restructuring C) contingency management D) self-monitoring 107) What would be the best food option for underweight individuals to add to their diet to increase their weight in a healthy manner? A) cheeseburger B) pizza C) whole grain bread with turkey D) salad with ranch dressing 108) Describe the differences between disordered eating and an eating disorder. 12 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.01 Describe energy balance and its relationship to energy intake and expenditure. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) When energy intake is greater than energy output, body weight generally A) remains the same B) increases C) decreases D) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.01 Describe energy balance and its relationship to energy intake and expenditure. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

3) For most adults, the greatest portion of their energy expenditure is for A) physical activity B) basal metabolism C) thermic effect of food D) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Weight management strategies; Metabolism Learning Objective: 10.01 Describe energy balance and its relationship to energy intake and expenditure. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 4) The body's total daily energy expenditure includes . A) basal metabolic rate, thermal effect of food, and effects of physical activity B) basal metabolic rate, height, and weight C) body mass index, food intake, and number of hours a person sleeps D) None of these choices are correct. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Weight management strategies; Metabolism Learning Objective: 10.01 Describe energy balance and its relationship to energy intake and expenditure. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) All the following are true statements about basal metabolism except . A) it supports the work that goes on in the body all the time B) it is the amount of calories you need to sustain life C) it includes involuntary activities necessary to sustain life D) it accounts for the smallest component of the average person's daily energy expenditure Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Weight management strategies; Metabolism Learning Objective: 10.02 Evaluate the different methods used to measure energy expenditure by the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

6) Compared to men, the basal metabolic rate of women is typically A) lower B) higher C) no different

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.02 Evaluate the different methods used to measure energy expenditure by the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 7) The energy spent in maintaining all involuntary processes in the body at rest, awake, and in a non-absorptive state is called . A) resting metabolism B) thermogenesis C) thermic effect D) basal metabolism Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Weight management strategies; Metabolism Learning Objective: 10.02 Evaluate the different methods used to measure energy expenditure by the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) A factor that can decrease BMR is A) consuming a very low-energy diet B) having a high fever C) long endurance exercise D) being pregnant

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.02 Evaluate the different methods used to measure energy expenditure by the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

9) The best predictor of your basal metabolic rate is A) the rate of nutrient absorption B) what you had for breakfast C) your lean body mass D) environmental temperature

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Body composition and weight status; Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.01 Describe energy balance and its relationship to energy intake and expenditure. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 10) Of the following males, who would most likely have the lowest BMR? A) 60-year-old B) 16-year-old C) 46-year-old D) 76-year-old Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Body composition and weight status; Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.01 Describe energy balance and its relationship to energy intake and expenditure. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 11) The thermic effect of food accounts for approximately day. A) 5% to 10% B) 11% to 15% C) 16% to 20% D) 50%

of energy consumed each

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.01 Describe energy balance and its relationship to energy intake and expenditure. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 4 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

12) Consumption of a very-low-calorie diet A) increases BMR by about 10% to 20% B) increases BMR by about 40% to 50% C) decreases BMR by about 10% to 20% D) decreases BMR by about 40% to 50%

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.01 Describe energy balance and its relationship to energy intake and expenditure. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 13) To calculate estimated energy needs using the equations developed by the Food and Nutrition Board, one needs information about the individual's . A) age B) weight C) height D) gender E) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.02 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.02 Evaluate the different methods used to measure energy expenditure by the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

14) A young man weighs 150 pounds. A rough estimate of his basal metabolic rate would be . A) 1469 kcal per day B) 68 kcal per hour C) 2500 kcal per day D) 61 kcal per hour Answer: B Explanation: 150 lbs / 2.2 lbs/kg = 68 kg × 1.0 kcal/kg/hr = 68 kcal/hr 68 kcal/hr × 24 hr/day = 1632 kcal/day Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 10.01 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.01 Describe energy balance and its relationship to energy intake and expenditure. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 15) The ratio of body weight to height is represented as A) body composition B) basal metabolic rate C) bioelectrical impedance D) body mass index

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

16) Hunger can be defined as . A) starvation B) a physiological drive to find and eat food C) a sensation caused by distension of the stomach and small intestine D) a psychological drive to eat Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.03 Topic: Hunger and appetite Learning Objective: 10.03 Explain internal and external regulation of hunger, appetite, and satiety. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 17) Satiety is largely regulated by the A) pituitary gland B) cerebral cortex C) hypothalamus D) liver

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.03 Topic: Hunger and appetite Learning Objective: 10.03 Explain internal and external regulation of hunger, appetite, and satiety. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 18) A man weighs 154 pounds and is 70 inches tall. His BMI is A) 15 B) 20 C) 22 D) 25

Answer: C Explanation: (154 lb × 703) / (70 in)2 = 108,262 / 4900 = 22 Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 7 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

19) A body mass index of 40 represents A) no health risk B) possible health risk C) a high risk for health problems D) a value that is not on the nomogram

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 20) Underwater weighing assesses body composition based on the principle that A) lean body tissue is more dense than adipose tissue B) adipose tissue is more dense than lean body tissue C) adipose tissue is composed of mostly water D) body fluids are not being weighed using this method

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 21) Bioelectrical impedance assesses body composition based on the principle that . A) atomic nuclei behave like magnets when an external magnetic field is applied across the body B) adipose tissue is more dense than lean body tissue C) electrical conductivity is greater in lean tissue than in adipose tissue D) fat-free mass is proportional to total body potassium Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

22) Which of the following techniques for measuring body composition makes use of small exposures to radiation? A) MRI B) DEXA C) TOBEC D) BIA Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 23) Lee Brown is a 23-year-old college student. Which of these would indicate that he is at greater risk for chronic diseases associated with obesity? A) BMI of 22 B) BMI of 27 C) 41-inch waist D) 38-inch waist Answer: C Explanation: A waist circumference of over 40 inches is considered at risk. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

24) A "thrifty metabolism" is a genetic predisposition that A) causes a person to expend higher-than-average energy at rest B) enables a person to store fat readily C) enables a person to expend fat readily D) None of these choices are accurate.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.05 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.05 Explain the impact of genetics and environment on body weight and composition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 25) The set-point theory proposes that . A) body temperature determines how many calories are burned B) humans have a genetically predetermined body weight or body fat C) metabolism can be reset at different stages of life D) None of these choices are accurate. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.05 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.05 Explain the impact of genetics and environment on body weight and composition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 26) Before recommending treatment for obesity, the health professional should A) assess current health status B) take a family history of obesity-related disease C) determine fat distribution in the patient D) All of these choices are accurate.

27) A healthy weight for an individual should not be based exclusively on weight, but on . A) total amount of body fat B) location of body fat C) presence or absence of weight-related medical problems D) All of these responses are correct Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Body composition and weight status; Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 28) The success (attain and maintain reduced weight for 3 to 5 years) of non-surgical commercial weight reduction programs has been reported to be approximately for adults. A) 40% B) 5% C) 25% D) 0% Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Body composition and weight status; Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 29) Based on results of long-term studies, people on weight-reduction diets should limit A) high-fat foods B) high-fiber foods C) high-protein foods D) high-mineral foods Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 11 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

30) Approximately how many calories are calculated to be in one pound of fat? A) 2500 B) 3500 C) 4500 D) 5500 Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 31) The major goal for weight reduction in the treatment of obesity is the loss of A) weight B) body fat C) body water D) body protein

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Body composition and weight status; Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 32) A daily deficit of 400 to 500 kcal should theoretically result in a loss of approximately of body fat per week. A) 0.25 pound B) 1 pound C) 3 pounds D) 4 pounds Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 12 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

33) A weight-reduction program should be considered successful only when the weight loss . A) exceeds 10% of starting weight B) is maintained C) results in a BMI of below 25 D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 34) A sound program for weight reduction should include A) control of total energy intake B) increased physical activity C) modification of food habits D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 35) An example of an appropriate weight-loss strategy would be a A) food plan that meets the nutritional needs of the patient B) diet based on readily obtainable foods C) plan that encourages increased physical activity D) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 13 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 37) Keeping tempting snack foods stashed in the cupboards or freezer instead of leaving them in plain view, which may trigger unnecessary eating, is an example of . A) cognitive restructuring B) chain-breaking C) self-monitoring D) stimulus control Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

38) Kevin wants to treat himself to a hot fudge sundae whenever he has a stressful day. He decides that a more appropriate response to a stressful day would be a brisk walk. Which of the following behavior modification techniques has he used? A) cognitive restructuring B) self-monitoring C) contingency management D) stimulus control Answer: A Explanation: Kevin restructured his way of dealing with stress to walk instead of eating high-calorie foods. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 39) By keeping a detailed food diary, the individual who is trying to lose weight can discover . A) emotions that lead to poor eating habits B) social influences affecting eating and food choices C) external cues that lead to overeating D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

40) All of the following are useful behavior modification principles for weight control EXCEPT . A) eliminating a reward system for weight loss B) working out with a friend C) recording eating behaviors to identify situations that contribute to overeating D) shopping from a grocery list Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 41) The best way to handle a situation in which you "go off" your meal plan for weight loss is to . A) go ahead and eat anything you want B) skip eating tomorrow C) assume lapses will occur and re-establish the program but feel guilty D) learn from the experience by identifying triggers so that a repeat can be avoided Answer: D Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 42) Maintenance of weight loss can be fostered by A) eating breakfast B) having a regular exercise plan C) self-monitoring D) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 16 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

43) The highest rate of weight-loss success and maintenance among people with morbid obesity is seen with . A) very-low-calorie diets (VLCDs) B) jaw wiring C) gastroplasty D) commercial weight-loss programs Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.07 Topic: Bariatric surgery; Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.08 Evaluate weight loss programs to determine whether they are safe and likely to result in long-term weight loss. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 44) The primary intent of gastroplasty is to A) speed transit time B) limit stomach volume C) prevent snacking D) alter the absorption of the small intestine

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.07 Topic: Bariatric surgery; Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.08 Evaluate weight loss programs to determine whether they are safe and likely to result in long-term weight loss. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 45) A fad diet for weight loss . A) can result in quick weight loss B) usually fails because habits are not changed C) may be nutritionally inadequate D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.07 Topic: Fad diets Learning Objective: 10.07 Discuss the characteristics of fad diets. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 17 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

46) A weight-loss program is likely a fad diet if it . A) recommends expensive, unproven nutrient supplements B) promotes quick weight loss C) guarantees weight-loss success for everyone D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.07 Topic: Fad diets Learning Objective: 10.07 Discuss the characteristics of fad diets. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 47) Eating disorders frequently co-occur with which of the following psychological disorders? A) depression B) substance abuse C) anxiety disorders D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.08 Topic: Anorexia nervosa; Binge-eating disorder; Bulimia nervosa; Other eating disorders; Mental health Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 48) Anorexia nervosa can be defined as A) compulsive eating B) purging C) hyperactivity D) psychological denial of appetite

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.08 Topic: Anorexia nervosa Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

49) A condition of self-induced semi-starvation is called A) bulimia B) anorexia nervosa C) kwashiorkor D) baryophobia

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.08 Topic: Anorexia nervosa Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 50) The semi-starvation of anorexia nervosa results in many physiological changes, such as . A) decreased basal metabolism B) lanugo C) iron-deficiency anemia D) dry, scaly, cold skin E) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.08 Topic: Anorexia nervosa Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 51) Anorexic individuals have trouble maintaining normal body temperature because of . A) loss of body fat as insulation B) lack of appropriate clothing as the person tries to show off his/her extreme thinness C) increased synthesis of the thyroid hormone D) wearing baggy clothes Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.08 Topic: Anorexia nervosa Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

52) Lanugo is . A) a consequence of iron deficiency B) the body's response to increased synthesis of thyroid hormones to compensate for less kcals C) fine, downy hair covering the body to compensate for lack of adequate body fat insulation D) cessation of the menstrual cycle Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.08 Topic: Anorexia nervosa Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 53) The most successful treatment for anorexia nervosa involves . A) isolation from the family and forced tube feeding B) dietary counseling on an outpatient basis by a registered dietitian C) inpatient psychological, nutritional, and medical therapy, often involving the whole family D) use of diuretics Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.08 Topic: Anorexia nervosa Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 54) Bulimic patients often have a problem with . A) recognizing nutritious food choices B) eating enough food to maintain a healthy body weight C) experiencing no feelings of guilt after bingeing D) an inability to control responses to impulse and desire Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.08 Topic: Bulimia nervosa Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

55) One essential difference between anorexia and bulimia . A) is age of onset. Bulimia begins in early childhood B) is gender. Men are far more likely to suffer from anorexia nervosa when they enter their teens C) is that anorexic patients are much more secretive, while bulimia patients are much more open about their eating disorder D) is that the bulimic turns to food during a crisis or problem, whereas the anorexic turns away from food Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.08 Topic: Anorexia nervosa; Bulimia nervosa Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 56) To counteract the binge, the bulimic patient may A) induce vomiting B) take laxatives C) over-exercise D) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.08 Topic: Bulimia nervosa Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 57) Repeated self-induced vomiting may cause A) tears in the esophagus B) stomach ulcers C) electrolyte imbalances D) tooth demineralization E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.08 Topic: Bulimia nervosa Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

58) The greatest health risk from frequent vomiting due to bulimia nervosa is A) potassium imbalance B) constipation C) lanugo D) swollen glands

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.08 Topic: Bulimia nervosa Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 59) Eating disorders not otherwise specified . A) are not really an eating disorder but more of a perception of having one B) occur when a person can't decide whether to become an anorexic or bulimic C) refers to a broad category that can include symptoms from both anorexia and bulimia D) None of the answers are correct. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.08 Topic: Other eating disorders Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 60) Negative energy balance results from an energy deficit and the result is weight loss. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.01 Describe energy balance and its relationship to energy intake and expenditure. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

61) The part of our energy expenditure that we have the most direct control over is voluntary physical activity. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 62) As cholecystokinin secretion increases, appetite increases. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Endorphins, the body's natural painkillers, and hormones, such as cortisol and ghrelin, stimulate appetite and increase food intake. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.03 Topic: Hunger and appetite Learning Objective: 10.03 Explain internal and external regulation of hunger, appetite, and satiety. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 63) Chewing contributes to satiety. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.03 Topic: Hunger and appetite Learning Objective: 10.03 Explain internal and external regulation of hunger, appetite, and satiety. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 64) Hunger signals change even while we eat. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.03 Topic: Hunger and appetite Learning Objective: 10.03 Explain internal and external regulation of hunger, appetite, and satiety. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 23 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

65) Stomach distention contributes to satiety. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.03 Topic: Hunger and appetite Learning Objective: 10.03 Explain internal and external regulation of hunger, appetite, and satiety. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 66) Metabolism of protein may promote satiety by decreasing the secretion of a hormone called ghrelin. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.03 Topic: Hunger and appetite Learning Objective: 10.03 Explain internal and external regulation of hunger, appetite, and satiety. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 67) Being classified as overweight according to BMI does not necessarily equate to excess health risks if a person makes wise food choices and exercises. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 68) Women carry more body fat than men for reproductive purposes. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 24 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

69) According to studies, identical twins raised in different environments tend to have different weight gain patterns. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Studies of identical twins provide some insight into the contribution of nature (genetics) to body weight. Even when identical twins are raised apart, they tend to show similar weight gain patterns, both in overall weight and in body fat distribution. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.05 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.05 Explain the impact of genetics and environment on body weight and composition. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 70) Genes account for up to 20% of weight differences between people. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Research suggests that genes account for up to 40% to 70% of weight differences between people. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.05 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.05 Explain the impact of genetics and environment on body weight and composition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 71) Environmental factors are important influences on what we eat. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.05 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.05 Explain the impact of genetics and environment on body weight and composition. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

72) Eating breakfast has been shown to be a good strategy for losing weight. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 73) Setting a weight-loss goal of 10 pounds in six weeks is reasonable and attainable if the individual is fully committed to such efforts. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 74) Exercise leads to development of more lean tissue, which reduces basal metabolism. Answer: FALSE Explanation: More lean tissue would increase basal metabolism. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

75) In treating morbid obesity with gastroplasty, the volume of the stomach is reduced to approximately 30 milliliters. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.07 Topic: Bariatric surgery; Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.08 Evaluate weight loss programs to determine whether they are safe and likely to result in long-term weight loss. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 76) A VLCD may only supply 400 to 800 kcal per day. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.07 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.08 Evaluate weight loss programs to determine whether they are safe and likely to result in long-term weight loss. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 77) Fad diets rarely lead to lasting weight loss or positive changes in eating and exercise habits. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.07 Topic: Fad diets Learning Objective: 10.07 Discuss the characteristics of fad diets. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 78) Treating physical and emotional problems early could help prevent eating disorders. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.08 Topic: Mental health Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

Match the term with its description. A) Muscles, liver, kidney, etc. B) All involuntary activity C) BMI > 30 D) A method for evaluating health risk E) Fat cells, adipose tissue 79) Basal metabolism Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01; 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status; Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.01 Describe energy balance and its relationship to energy intake and expenditure.; 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 80) Obesity Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01; 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status; Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.01 Describe energy balance and its relationship to energy intake and expenditure.; 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 81) Fat tissue Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01; 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status; Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.01 Describe energy balance and its relationship to energy intake and expenditure.; 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

82) Body Mass Index Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01; 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status; Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.01 Describe energy balance and its relationship to energy intake and expenditure.; 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 83) Lean tissue Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01; 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status; Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.01 Describe energy balance and its relationship to energy intake and expenditure.; 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 79) B 80) C 81) E 82) D 83) A

Match the term with an example. A) Keeping a record of diet and activity habits to identify patterns that contribute to obesity B) Taking the route home from work that does not go past a favorite fast food establishment C) Separating the act of watching a movie with the act of eating buttered popcorn and sliced cheese D) Planning to work out with an aerobics DVD if bad weather prevents outdoor exercise E) Taking a jog with a friend instead of raiding the refrigerator after a stressful final exam 84) Chain-breaking Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 85) Stimulus control Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 86) Cognitive restructuring Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 87) Contingency management Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

88) Self-monitoring Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 84) C 85) B 86) E 87) D 88) A 89) How does leptin affect appetite and is it involved in the development of obesity? Answer: Answers will vary. Leptin is a protein made by adipose tissue; it functions as a hormone to reduce food intake, thus decreasing body fat. The obesity gene (ob gene) codes for the synthesis of leptin. When the ob gene is functioning normally, leptin is made and signals satiety. However, when there is a mutation in the ob gene and leptin is not made in sufficient quantities, the desire to eat is increased dramatically, metabolic rate declines (which reduces energy output), and weight gain occurs. Because treating people with leptin doesn't cause significant weight loss, experts suggest that, instead of protecting against obesity, leptin may be more important for signaling low body fat stores and setting in motion adaptations that promote energy conservation, delaying the effects of starvation. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 10.03 Topic: Hunger and appetite Learning Objective: 10.03 Explain internal and external regulation of hunger, appetite, and satiety. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes

90) Explain how hunger signals change several hours after eating. Answer: Answers will vary. Several hours after eating, concentrations of macronutrients in the blood begin to fall and the body starts using energy from body stores. This change causes feelings of satiety to diminish, and feeding signals begin to dominate again. Endorphins, the body's natural painkillers, and hormones, such as cortisol and ghrelin, stimulate appetite and increase food intake. As you can see, the regulation of food intake and satiety is complex and involves body cells (brain, adipose tissue, stomach, intestines, liver, and other organs), hormones (e.g., cholecystokinin and ghrelin), neurotransmitters (e.g., serotonin), dietary components, and social customs. This system is not perfect, however; your body weight can increase (or decrease) over time if you are not careful to balance your energy intake with your energy output. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.03 Topic: Hunger and appetite Learning Objective: 10.03 Explain internal and external regulation of hunger, appetite, and satiety. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

91) Explain the difference between hunger and appetite and discuss if a craving for chocolate is a sign of hunger? Answer: Answers will vary. Hunger, the physiological drive to find and eat food, is controlled primarily by internal body mechanisms, such as organs, hormones, hormonelike factors, and the nervous system. Appetite, the psychological drive to eat, is affected mostly by external factors that encourage us to eat, such as social custom, time of day, mood (e.g., feeling sad or happy), memories of pleasant tastes, and the sight of a tempting dessert. Internal and external signals that drive hunger and appetite generally operate simultaneously and lead us to decide whether to reject or eat a food. For example, external signals can cause cephalic phase responses by the body—that is, saliva flows and digestive hormones and insulin are released in response to seeing, smelling, and initially tasting food. These physiological responses encourage eating and prepare the body for the meal. Although hunger and appetite are closely intertwined, they don't always coincide. Almost everyone has encountered a mouthwatering dessert and devoured it, even on a full stomach. Alternately, there are times when we are hungry but have no appetite for the food being served. Where food is ample, appetite—not hunger— mostly triggers eating. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 10.03 Topic: Hunger and appetite Learning Objective: 10.03 Explain internal and external regulation of hunger, appetite, and satiety. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes

92) What everyday physical activities can help increase energy output? Answer: Answers will vary. Table 10-5 Approximate Energy Costs of Various Activities

Activity

kcal/kg per Hour

Aerobics-heavy

8.0

Dressing/showering

1.6

Running or jogging (10 mph)

13.2

Aerobics-medium

5.0

Driving

1.7

Downhill skiing (10 mph)

8.8

Aerobics-light

3.0

Eating (sitting)

1.4

Sleeping

1.2

Backpacking

9.0

Food shopping

3.6

Swimming (.25 mph)

4.4

Basketball-vigorous

10.0

Football-touch

7.0

Tennis

6.1

Cycling (5.5 mph)

3.0

Golf

3.6

Volleyball

5.1

Bowling

3.9

Horseback riding

5.1

Walking (2.5 mph)

3.0

Calisthenics-heavy

8.0

Jogging-medium

9.0

Walking (3.75 mph)

4.4

Calisthenics-light

4.0

Jogging-slow

7.0

Water skiing

7.0

Canoeing (2.5 mph)

3.3

Ice skating (10 mph)

5.8

Weight lifting-heavy

9.0

Cleaning

3.6

Lying down

1.3

Weight lifting-light

4.0

Cooking

2.8

Racquetball-social

8.0

Window cleaning

3.5

Cycling (13 mph)

9.7

Roller skating

5.1

Writing (sitting)

1.7

Activity

kcal/kg per Hour

Activity

kcaUkg per Hour

The values refer to total energy expenditure, including that needed to perform the physical activity plus that needed for basal metabolism. The thermic effect of food, and thennogenesis. Example: For a 150 lb person who played tennis for 1.5 hours 15016/2.2= 68 kg 68 kg × 6.1 kcalthr × 1.5 hr = 622 kcal expenditure Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. 34 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes 93) What are the advantages and disadvantages of skinfold measurements as a technique for assessing body composition? Answer: Answers will vary. Skinfold thickness is a common anthropometric method to estimate total body fat content. Technicians use calipers to measure the fat layer directly under the skin at multiple sites and then enter those values into a mathematical formula (Fig. 10-11). The accuracy of this method is good (3 to 4% error margin) when performed by a trained technician. Advantages are that it can be fairly non-invasive way to measure body fat, but a disadvantage is that an unskilled technician can perform a bad measure. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 3-5 minutes

94) Which body fat measurements are considered the most accurate and why? Answer: Answers will vary. To measure body fat content accurately using typical methods, both body weight and body volume must be measured. Body weight is easy to measure. Of the typical methods used to estimate body volume, underwater weighing is 1 of the most accurate (2 to 3% error margin). This technique determines body volume by measuring body weight when under water and body weight in air and entering these values into a mathematical formula that accounts for the differences in the relative densities of fat tissue and lean tissue (Fig. 10-9). Air displacement, another method for determining body volume, measures the space a person takes up inside a small chamber, such as the BodPod® (Fig. 10-10). This method also has a 2% to 3% error margin and is an accurate alternative to underwater weighing. Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) is considered the most accurate way to determine body fat (1% to 4% error margin), but the equipment is very expensive and not widely available. The usual whole-body scan requires about 5 to 20 minutes and the dose of radiation is less than a chest X-ray. This method can estimate body fat, fat-free soft tissue, and bone minerals. Thus, obesity, osteoporosis, and other health conditions can be investigated using DXA. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 3-5 minutes 95) Describe two genetic disorders/diseases that can cause weight disturbances. Answer: Answers will vary. Body weight and fatness can be affected by certain diseases, hormonal abnormalities, rare genetic disorders, and psychological disturbances. For instance, cancer, AIDS, hyperthyroidism, Marfan syndrome, and anorexia nervosa tend to cause a person to have limited fat stores. A very small percentage of obesity cases are caused by brain tumors, ovarian cysts, hypothyroidism, and congenital syndromes, such as Prader-Willi syndrome. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.05 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.05 Explain the impact of genetics and environment on body weight and composition. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

96) Name the three important components of a successful weight-management program. Answer: Answers will vary. The key to weight loss and maintenance can be thought of as a triangle, in which the 3 corners consist of 1 controlling energy intake, 2 performing regular physical activity, and 3 controlling problem behaviors. The 3 corners of the triangle support each other—without 1 corner, the triangle becomes incomplete. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.06 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes 97) What usually happens when someone resumes their normal lifestyle after having followed a fad diet? Answer: Answers will vary. Weight gain typically results after an individual ends a fad diet. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.07 Topic: Fad diets Learning Objective: 10.07 Discuss the characteristics of fad diets. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

98) Compare and contrast anorexia nervosa and bulimia. In what ways are they similar? In what ways are they different? Answer: Answers will vary. Table 10-8 Typical Characteristics of Those with Eating Disorders Anorexia Nervosa

Bulimia Nervosa

• Rigid dieting, causing dramatic weight • Secretive binge eating; generally not loss, generally to less than 85% of what overeating in front of others would be expected for one's age (or BMI of 17.5 or less) • False body perception—thinking "I'm too fat; " even when extremely underweight; relentless pursuit of control

• Eating when depressed or under stress

• Rituals involving food, excessive exercise, and other aspects of life

• Bingeing on a large amount of food, followed by fasting, laxative or diuretic abuse, self-induced vomiting, or excessive exercise (at least weekly for 3 months)

• Maintenance of rigid control in lifestyle; security found in control and order

• Shame, embarrassment, deceit, and depression; low self-esteem and guilt (especially after a binge)

• Feeling of panic after a small weight gain; intense fear of gaining weight

• Fluctuating weight (+10 lb or 5 kg) resulting from alternate bingeing and fasting

• Feelings of purity, power, and • Loss of control; fear of not being able superiority through maintenance of strict to stop eating discipline and self-denial • Preoccupation with food, its preparation, and observing another person eat

• Perfectionism, "people please?"; food as the only comfort/escape in an otherwise carefully controlled and regulated life

• Helplessness in the presence of food

• Erosion of teeth; swollen glands from vomiting

• Typically lack of menstrual periods after what should be the age of puberty

• Purchase of syrup of ipecac, a compound sold in pharmacies that induces vomiting

• Some binge eat and purge

Binge Eating Disorder • Same characteristics as bulimia nervosa without purging • Eats faster than normal • Eats even when full or not hungry • Feels unpleasantly full after binge eating • Eats alone to hide binge eating from others

People who exhibit only a few of these characteristics may be at risk but probably do not have a disorder. They should, however, reflect on their eating habits and related concerns and take appropriate action, such as seeking a careful evaluation by a physician. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.08 Topic: Anorexia nervosa; Bulimia nervosa; Mental health Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

99) Explain how psychological therapy can help in the treatment of a patient with an eating disorder? Answer: Answers will vary. Once the physical problems of anorexic patients are addressed, the treatment focus shifts to the underlying emotional problems of the disorder. To heal, these patients must reject the sense of accomplishment they associate with an emaciated body and begin to accept themselves at a healthy body weight. Establishing a strong relationship with either a therapist or another supportive person is especially important to recovery. A key aspect of psychological treatment is showing affected individuals how to regain control of other facets of their lives and cope with tough situations. As eating evolves into a normal routine, they can return to previously neglected activities. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.08 Topic: Anorexia nervosa; Bulimia nervosa; Mental health Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

100) Someone you know is suspected of having an eating disorder. What are some of the steps you can take to help this person? Answer: Answers will vary. The following are some ways that caregivers and health professionals can help growing children and adolescents avoid eating disorders: Discourage restrictive dieting, meal skipping, and fasting (except for religious reasons). Encourage children to eat only when hungry. Promote good nutrition and regular physical activity in school and at home. Promote regularly eating meals as a family unit. Provide information about normal changes that occur during puberty. Correct misconceptions about nutrition, healthy body weight, and approaches to weight loss. Carefully phrase any weight-related recommendations and comments. Don't overemphasize numbers on a scale. Instead, primarily promote healthful eating irrespective of body weight. Increase self-acceptance and appreciation of the power and pleasure emerging from one's body. Encourage coaches to be sensitive to weight and body image issues among athletes. Emphasize that thinness is not necessarily associated with better athletic performance. Enhance tolerance for diversity in body weight and shape. Encourage normal expression of emotions. Build respectful environments and supportive relationships. Provide adolescents with an appropriate, but not unlimited, degree of independence, choice, responsibility, and self-accountability for their actions. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 10.08 Topic: Anorexia nervosa; Bulimia nervosa Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 41 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

101) Ghrelin is a protein that increases appetite. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.03 Topic: Hunger and appetite Learning Objective: 10.03 Explain internal and external regulation of hunger, appetite, and satiety. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 102) Which of the following represents a BMI range considered to be healthy for most adult men and women? A) 10-14 B) 15-18 C) 19-24 D) 25-30 Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 103) The thermic effect of food represents A) the BMR minus the energy used in physical activity B) the decrease in food energy due to cooking C) the increase in energy expenditure associated with the body's digestion of food D) the body's storage of food as fat for insulation Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.02 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 10.02 Evaluate the different methods used to measure energy expenditure by the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

104) Which of the following genetic disorders would cause a person to have limited fat stores? A) Marfan syndrome B) Hypothyroidism C) Ovarian cysts D) Prader-Willi syndrome Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.05 Topic: Metabolism Learning Objective: 10.05 Explain the impact of genetics and environment on body weight and composition. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 105) Why is BMI not the best indicator of overfat? Answer: Many men (especially athletes) have a BMI greater than 25 because of extra muscle tissue. Adults less than 5 feet tall may have a high BMI but are not overweight or overfat. For this reason, BMI alone should not be used to diagnose overweight or obesity. Still, overfat and overweight conditions generally appear together. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 10.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 10.04 Describe the methods used for assessing body composition and determining whether body weight and composition are healthy. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 3-5 minutes 106) Sally has had a rough day at work. Before she decided to lose weight, she would have normally gone straight to the freezer and eaten a large bowl of ice cream. Now, she recognizes that stress is a trigger for her to overeat so she deals with her stressors in other manners. What strategy is Sally using to control her problem behavior? A) chain-breaking B) cognitive restructuring C) contingency management D) self-monitoring Answer: B Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 10.06 Topic: Body composition and weight status; Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.06 Outline the key components of programs designed to treat overweight, obesity, and underweight. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 43 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

107) What would be the best food option for underweight individuals to add to their diet to increase their weight in a healthy manner? A) cheeseburger B) pizza C) whole grain bread with turkey D) salad with ranch dressing Answer: C Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 10.07 Topic: Weight management strategies Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 0-1 minute 108) Describe the differences between disordered eating and an eating disorder. Answer: Answers will vary. Disordered eating can be defined as mild and short-term changes in eating patterns that occur in response to a stressful event, an illness, or a desire to modify the diet for health and/or personal appearance reasons. The problem may be no more than a bad habit, a style of eating adapted from friends or family members, or an aspect of preparing for athletic competition. Although disordered eating can lead to changes in body weight and certain nutritional problems, it rarely requires in-depth professional attention. However, in today's world, given the common practice of dieting, skipping meals, eating at odd times, and having hectic jobs and schedules, it may not be obvious when disordered eating stops and an eating disorder begins. Disordered eating can escalate into physiological changes associated with sustained food restriction, binge eating, purging, and fluctuations in weight that interfere with everyday activities. It also involves emotional and cognitive changes that affect how people perceive and experience their bodies, such as feelings of distress or extreme concern about body shape or weight. Eating disorders frequently co-occur with other psychological disorders, such as depression, substance abuse, and anxiety disorders. Eating disorders are not due to a failure of will power or behavior; rather, they are real, treatable medical illnesses that require complex professional intervention that must go beyond nutritional therapy. Without treatment, eating disorders can cause serious physical health complications, including heart conditions and kidney failure, which may even lead to death. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.08 Topic: Other eating disorders Learning Objective: 10.09 Describe the different eating disorders. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 44 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 11 Nutrition, Exercise, and Sports 1) Which of the following are benefits of regular and consistent exercise? A) enhanced heart function B) improved balance C) better sleep habits D) reduced stress E) All of these responses are correct. 2) In order for an individual to maintain a regular exercise regimen it helps most if A) the exercise works only the lower legs B) the exercise is built into a daily routine C) you sweat profusely D) you have a membership to a gym

3) According to the Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans substantial health benefits occur when adults engage . A) in occasional physical activity B) in 150 minutes of moderate intensity exercise each week C) in 75 minutes of moderate intensity exercise each week D) None of these responses are correct. 4) The benefit(s) of participating in different types of exercise is/are . A) strengthening a variety of muscle groups B) reducing the chances of injury C) promoting activities that are more interesting and thus more likely to be continued D) All of these responses are correct. 5) The Borg Scale of Perceived Exertion is used to determine A) flexibility B) muscle strength C) exercise intensity D) All of these responses are correct.

6) Energy for muscle contraction is most directly supplied by A) amino acids B) creatine C) phosphocreatine D) ATP

7) The amount of ATP stored in a muscle cell can keep a muscle active for about A) 1-2 seconds B) 10-30 seconds C) 1-3 minutes D) 1-3 hours 8) Phosphocreatine (PCr) is an energy-rich compound found in A) adipose B) liver C) kidney D) muscle

tissue.

9) At very high intensities of exercise, most of the energy the body uses is supplied by . A) muscle glycogen B) intramuscular fat C) blood glucose D) muscle protein 10) When plenty of oxygen is available in the muscles, the condition is referred to as A) anaerobic B) aerobic C) VO2max D) glycolytic

11) When conditions in the exercising muscle are anaerobic, metabolism of glucose results in . A) the formation of lactate B) production of 28 to 30 ATP C) transfer of electrons and hydrogen ions to oxygen D) None of these responses are correct. 12) When glucose is broken down in an atmosphere where oxygen supply is limited, a 3-carbon compound known as accumulates in the muscle. A) phosphocreatine B) lactate C) glycogen D) protein 13) The lactate that is made during high intensity exercise is eventually released in the bloodstream and taken up by the and used as an energy source. A) heart B) liver C) muscles D) All of the choices are correct. 2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

14) When an athlete's maximal performance is desired, carbohydrates are a more efficient fuel than fat because . A) more ATP is produced per unit of oxygen consumed B) we consume more carbohydrate than fat or protein C) carbohydrate is oxidized more rapidly than fatty acids D) muscles get used to using carbohydrate as a fuel 15) Anaerobic glycolysis can supply energy to muscle tissue for A) 10 to 30 seconds B) 30 seconds to 2 minutes C) 2 to 5 minutes D) up to 30 minutes

16) The main disadvantage of anaerobic glycolysis in high-intensity muscle contractions is that . A) the heart muscle "soaks up" most of the lactic acid for its energy needs B) ATP production cannot be sustained for long events C) the production of excessive amounts of CO2 and H2O interferes with exercise D) ATP is needed for digestion 17) Lactate from anaerobic glycolysis is transported by the blood to the liver, where it will be . A) resynthesized to glucose B) converted to sucrose or maltose C) converted to cholesterol for disposal from the body D) converted to urea for disposal by the kidneys 18) The site of greatest energy production in a muscle cell is the A) nucleus B) ribosomes C) mitochondria D) cytoplasm 19) The only fuel that can be used in anaerobic glycolysis is A) fatty acids B) amino acids C) alcohol D) glucose

20) Other than phosphocreatine breakdown, the fastest way to supply ATP to exercising muscle is . A) aerobic glycolysis B) anaerobic glycolysis C) to consume an energy gel D) to break down fat stores in muscle and convert fatty acids to glucose 21) In low-intensity exercise, aerobic metabolism of glucose will result in A) lactic acid B) lipogenesis C) carbon dioxide and water D) glucose, fatty acids, and amino acid skeletons

22) In high-intensity exercise, such as sprinting, the predominant fuel for exercise is A) fat B) protein C) carbohydrates D) vitamins

23) During the aerobic pathway of carbohydrate metabolism, . A) glucose is metabolized with the aid of CO2 B) fatty acids become the predominant fuel C) ATP is formed slowly, but muscular activity can be sustained for many hours D) ATP is formed quickly, for use in very short bursts 24) Glucose is stored in muscle tissue as A) triglycerides B) glycogen C) protein D) phosphocreatine (PCr)

27) supply about 3% to 15% of energy needs for endurance events. A) Proteins B) Carbohydrates C) Fats D) Vitamins 28) of one's general energy needs are fueled by proteins. A) Five percent B) Fifteen percent C) Fifty percent D) Seventy percent 29) An adaptation that occurs with exercise, besides improvement in fitness is A) increased bone density B) better eyesight C) increased constipation D) increased morbidity 30) Prolonged, low intensity exercise uses mainly A) white B) Type IIX C) Type IIA D) Type I 31) A response called hypertrophy occurs when A) more ATP is released from the cell B) a person exercises for half an hour per week C) muscles enlarge after being made to work repeatedly D) All of these choices are correct.

muscle fibers.

32) Variables that determine an athlete's energy needs include A) body composition B) training or competition C) body size D) All of these responses are correct. E) None of these responses are correct.

33) When exercise duration approaches several hours per day, recommended carbohydrate needs for athletes increase up to . A) 3 grams carbohydrate per kg body weight B) 5 grams carbohydrate per kg body weight C) 10 grams carbohydrate per kg body weight D) 20 grams carbohydrate per kg body weight

34) The dietary regimen to maximize muscle glycogen stores for later energy usage is called . A) carbohydrate synthesis B) glycogen synthesis C) carbohydrate loading D) energy loading 35) For athletes who compete in continuous, intense aerobic events lasting for 90 to 120 minutes (or shorter events repeated in 24 hours), . A) carbohydrate-loading may benefit performance B) carnitine supplements have proven to improve the use of fatty acids as muscle fuel C) large doses of bicarbonate counter the acid production in the stomach D) all caffeine-containing foods and beverages should be avoided for at least 2 to 4 days before the competition 36) Which of the foods below constitutes the best choice when attempting carbohydrate loading before endurance events? A) orange juice B) french fries C) spaghetti D) sausage 37) "Hitting the wall" is a term to describe . A) someone is training for a marathon B) someone has essentially run out of available carbohydrates for energy C) someone is so tired that he or she must stop to and rest for 10 to 15 minutes before continuing the sport D) None of these responses are correct. 38) During muscle-building regimens, how much protein is generally recommended for athletes consume? A) 0.8 g/kg B) 1.0 - 1.2 g/kg C) 1.2 - 1.7 g/kg D) 2.0 - 2.4 g/kg 39) Many athletes, particularly female and young athletes, may need to increase their intake of to help increase red blood cell production. A) vitamin C B) vitamin A C) calcium D) iron

40) Taking iron supplements has been found to benefit athletes . A) only if they are anemic B) in rare cases when they have experienced a cessation of the menstrual cycle C) who are experiencing early symptoms of osteoporosis D) by increasing the bulk of muscle 41) Which of the following is NOT a part of the female athlete triad? A) amenorrhea B) bone loss/osteoporosis C) type 2 diabetes D) energy deficit/disordered eating 42) A weight loss of 2% or more of body weight by dehydration carries some risk of A) increased body temperature B) reduced blood volume C) decreased performance D) All of these choices are correct. 43) For every pound of weight lost during an athletic event, consumed immediately thereafter. A) 1/2 cup B) 1 cup C) 1½ cups D) 3 cups 44) Fluids should be consumed A) before B) during C) after D) All of these choices are correct.

of water should be

an athletic event.

45) One advantage of sports drinks is taste. In addition, they . A) are quick replacements for carbohydrates B) increase fluid consumption C) replace important minerals such as sodium, potassium, and chloride D) All of these choices are correct. 46) Hyponatremia can be a condition that is caused by A) overconsumption of water B) overconsumption of sodium C) underconsumption of water D) underconsumption of potassium

47) A pre-event meal eaten 1 to 2 hours before competition should be A) low in fat B) low in fluid C) high in dietary fiber D) All of these choices are accurate. 48) An example of a food to avoid in a pre-game meal is A) hot dogs B) spaghetti C) low-fat milk D) All of these foods should be avoided.

49) Recommendations for restoration of muscle glycogen include grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight are consumed 30 minutes after exercise and again 2 hours after exercise. A) 0.5 - 0.75 B) 1.0 - 1.5 C) 3.0 - 4.0 D) None of these responses are correct. 50) Anabolic steroids are . A) synthetic versions of growth hormone B) synthetic forms of cortisol, which increases glucose production C) synthetic versions of male sex hormones D) synthetic versions of thyroxine 51) Which substance is considered to be a proven ergogenic aid that increases athletic performance? A) salt tablets B) bee pollen C) carnitine D) coenzyme Q-10 E) None of these substances have been proven to increase athletic performance. 52) The best exercise can be considered one that an individual wants to continue to do. 53) Exercise should be fun in order to promote continuity. 54) A good way to determine the intensity of exercise is to measure the amount of oxygen a person consumes. 55) Warm-up and cool-down should be parts of your exercise routine. 56) Glycogen is the primary source of glucose for ATP production in muscles during intense activity that lasts for less than 2 minutes. 8 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

57) Carbohydrate is more efficient than fat or protein in the amount of ATP produced per unit of oxygen consumed. 58) Slow, steady aerobic activity uses mostly fat as an energy source. 59) Amino acids can be used as a primary fuel for muscles. 60) Athletes need to consume over 500 grams of protein supplements a day to build muscle. 61) Carbohydrate loading should be exclusively used by strength-trained athletes. 62) During exercise, athletes should always be consuming massive amounts of water. 63) Thirst is an excellent indicator of fluid needs during exercise. 64) College wrestlers can best enhance their strength by dehydration.

Match the term and its description. A) Ions that conduct an electrical current B) Producing energy without oxygen C) Producing energy with oxygen D) Rating of exercise intensity E) Work-enhancing 65) Electrolytes 66) Aerobic 67) Perceived exertion 68) Anaerobic 69) Ergogenic

Match the characteristic of a good exercise program with its description. A) Amount of time exercise is performed B) Performing different types of activity C) Number of times activity is performed D) Type of exercise performed E) Effort spent during the exercise 70) Duration 71) Frequency 72) Mode 73) Intensity 74) Variety

Match the term and its definition. A) Internal body temperature > 104°F B) Muscle cramping, large sweat loss C) First stage of heat-related illness D) Insufficient fluid intake, resulting in poor performance and risk of heat-related illness 75) Heat cramps 76) Heat exhaustion 77) Heat stroke 78) Dehydration

79) What are the basic components of an exercise program? 80) Before initiating a new fitness program, what are two important considerations for the beginner? 81) Describe how the intensity of exercise affects glycogen utilization. 82) Contrast the protein requirements for an endurance athlete to requirements for a strengthtrained athlete.

83) Why is a high intake of protein for athletes discouraged? 84) Design a diet for an endurance athlete who wants to carbohydrate load. 85) Compare the traditional carbohydrate loading diet to the modified method. 86) What athletes can benefit from carbohydrate loading? Why? 87) How would your diet plan for a football player differ from that of a marathon runner? 88) How would you convince a football coach that a sports drink would be better than water for his high school athletes during two-a-day practices? 89) List 5 symptoms of heatstroke, and explain how it can occur. 90) Lance Armstrong, who was a triathlete and road racing cyclist, likely has more muscle fibers. A) Type I B) Type IIA C) Type IIX D) He would have equal amounts of all muscle fiber types. 91) Your roommate tells you he wants to put on more muscle mass. He plans to do this by adding in strength-training exercises and protein shakes to his diet. What advice could you offer him? A) Higher amounts of protein will add muscle mass faster, so add in as much as you possibly can. B) Going over 0.8 g/kg will have no benefit for muscle building during the training period. C) Intakes of up to 1.7 g/kg are acceptable during muscle mass gain, but going over this amount can lead to dehydration and insufficient carbohydrate intake. D) Try to stay as low as possible in your intake as proteins have no benefit for muscle mass gain or energy usage. 92) Which of the following athletes would have the highest requirements for proteins? A) 120 lb female triathlete B) 120 lb female trying to increase her muscle mass C) 180 lb sedentary male D) 180 lb male football player 93) You are at an athletic event and you notice that one of the participants is not feeling well. He is starting to not be able to walk and appears to be confused and irritated. What heat-related condition is he likely suffering from? A) Heat exhaustion B) Heat cramps C) Heat stroke D) None of the answers are correct. 11 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 11 Nutrition, Exercise, and Sports 1) Which of the following are benefits of regular and consistent exercise? A) enhanced heart function B) improved balance C) better sleep habits D) reduced stress E) All of these responses are correct. Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.01 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.01 Explain the benefits of physical activity. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) In order for an individual to maintain a regular exercise regimen it helps most if A) the exercise works only the lower legs B) the exercise is built into a daily routine C) you sweat profusely D) you have a membership to a gym

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.02 Design a fitness plan. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 3) According to the Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans substantial health benefits occur when adults engage . A) in occasional physical activity B) in 150 minutes of moderate intensity exercise each week C) in 75 minutes of moderate intensity exercise each week D) None of these responses are correct. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.01 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.01 Explain the benefits of physical activity. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

4) The benefit(s) of participating in different types of exercise is/are . A) strengthening a variety of muscle groups B) reducing the chances of injury C) promoting activities that are more interesting and thus more likely to be continued D) All of these responses are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.01 Explain the benefits of physical activity. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) The Borg Scale of Perceived Exertion is used to determine A) flexibility B) muscle strength C) exercise intensity D) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.02 Design a fitness plan. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 6) Energy for muscle contraction is most directly supplied by A) amino acids B) creatine C) phosphocreatine D) ATP

7) The amount of ATP stored in a muscle cell can keep a muscle active for about A) 1-2 seconds B) 10-30 seconds C) 1-3 minutes D) 1-3 hours

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) Phosphocreatine (PCr) is an energy-rich compound found in A) adipose B) liver C) kidney D) muscle

tissue.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 9) At very high intensities of exercise, most of the energy the body uses is supplied by . A) muscle glycogen B) intramuscular fat C) blood glucose D) muscle protein Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

10) When plenty of oxygen is available in the muscles, the condition is referred to as A) anaerobic B) aerobic C) VO2max D) glycolytic

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 11) When conditions in the exercising muscle are anaerobic, metabolism of glucose results in . A) the formation of lactate B) production of 28 to 30 ATP C) transfer of electrons and hydrogen ions to oxygen D) None of these responses are correct. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 12) When glucose is broken down in an atmosphere where oxygen supply is limited, a 3-carbon compound known as accumulates in the muscle. A) phosphocreatine B) lactate C) glycogen D) protein Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

13) The lactate that is made during high intensity exercise is eventually released in the bloodstream and taken up by the and used as an energy source. A) heart B) liver C) muscles D) All of the choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 14) When an athlete's maximal performance is desired, carbohydrates are a more efficient fuel than fat because . A) more ATP is produced per unit of oxygen consumed B) we consume more carbohydrate than fat or protein C) carbohydrate is oxidized more rapidly than fatty acids D) muscles get used to using carbohydrate as a fuel Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 15) Anaerobic glycolysis can supply energy to muscle tissue for A) 10 to 30 seconds B) 30 seconds to 2 minutes C) 2 to 5 minutes D) up to 30 minutes

16) The main disadvantage of anaerobic glycolysis in high-intensity muscle contractions is that . A) the heart muscle "soaks up" most of the lactic acid for its energy needs B) ATP production cannot be sustained for long events C) the production of excessive amounts of CO2 and H2O interferes with exercise D) ATP is needed for digestion Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 17) Lactate from anaerobic glycolysis is transported by the blood to the liver, where it will be . A) resynthesized to glucose B) converted to sucrose or maltose C) converted to cholesterol for disposal from the body D) converted to urea for disposal by the kidneys Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 18) The site of greatest energy production in a muscle cell is the A) nucleus B) ribosomes C) mitochondria D) cytoplasm

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

19) The only fuel that can be used in anaerobic glycolysis is A) fatty acids B) amino acids C) alcohol D) glucose

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 20) Other than phosphocreatine breakdown, the fastest way to supply ATP to exercising muscle is . A) aerobic glycolysis B) anaerobic glycolysis C) to consume an energy gel D) to break down fat stores in muscle and convert fatty acids to glucose Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 21) In low-intensity exercise, aerobic metabolism of glucose will result in A) lactic acid B) lipogenesis C) carbon dioxide and water D) glucose, fatty acids, and amino acid skeletons

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

22) In high-intensity exercise, such as sprinting, the predominant fuel for exercise is A) fat B) protein C) carbohydrates D) vitamins

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Carbohydrates; Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 23) During the aerobic pathway of carbohydrate metabolism, . A) glucose is metabolized with the aid of CO2 B) fatty acids become the predominant fuel C) ATP is formed slowly, but muscular activity can be sustained for many hours D) ATP is formed quickly, for use in very short bursts Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Carbohydrates; Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 24) Glucose is stored in muscle tissue as A) triglycerides B) glycogen C) protein D) phosphocreatine (PCr)

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Carbohydrates; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

25) In order to build up maximum stores of muscle glycogen for long-distance marathons, one should consume a diet. A) high-carbohydrate B) high-protein C) high-fat D) high-energy Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Carbohydrates; Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 26) The majority of stored energy in the body is in the form of A) glucose B) ATP C) amino acids D) triglycerides

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Lipids; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 27) supply about 3% to 15% of energy needs for endurance events. A) Proteins B) Carbohydrates C) Fats D) Vitamins Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Proteins; Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

28) of one's general energy needs are fueled by proteins. A) Five percent B) Fifteen percent C) Fifty percent D) Seventy percent Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Proteins; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 29) An adaptation that occurs with exercise, besides improvement in fitness is A) increased bone density B) better eyesight C) increased constipation D) increased morbidity

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.04 Topic: Bone and joint health; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.04 Describe the metabolic adaptations that occur with physical activity. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 30) Prolonged, low intensity exercise uses mainly A) white B) Type IIX C) Type IIA D) Type I

muscle fibers.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.04 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.04 Describe the metabolic adaptations that occur with physical activity. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

31) A response called hypertrophy occurs when A) more ATP is released from the cell B) a person exercises for half an hour per week C) muscles enlarge after being made to work repeatedly D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.04 Describe the metabolic adaptations that occur with physical activity. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 32) Variables that determine an athlete's energy needs include A) body composition B) training or competition C) body size D) All of these responses are correct. E) None of these responses are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.05 Topic: Body composition and weight status; Sports nutrition Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 33) When exercise duration approaches several hours per day, recommended carbohydrate needs for athletes increase up to . A) 3 grams carbohydrate per kg body weight B) 5 grams carbohydrate per kg body weight C) 10 grams carbohydrate per kg body weight D) 20 grams carbohydrate per kg body weight Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.05 Topic: Carbohydrates; Dietary requirements; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 11 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

34) The dietary regimen to maximize muscle glycogen stores for later energy usage is called . A) carbohydrate synthesis B) glycogen synthesis C) carbohydrate loading D) energy loading Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.05 Topic: Carbohydrates; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 35) For athletes who compete in continuous, intense aerobic events lasting for 90 to 120 minutes (or shorter events repeated in 24 hours), . A) carbohydrate-loading may benefit performance B) carnitine supplements have proven to improve the use of fatty acids as muscle fuel C) large doses of bicarbonate counter the acid production in the stomach D) all caffeine-containing foods and beverages should be avoided for at least 2 to 4 days before the competition Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.05 Topic: Carbohydrates; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

36) Which of the foods below constitutes the best choice when attempting carbohydrate loading before endurance events? A) orange juice B) french fries C) spaghetti D) sausage Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.05 Topic: Carbohydrates; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 37) "Hitting the wall" is a term to describe . A) someone is training for a marathon B) someone has essentially run out of available carbohydrates for energy C) someone is so tired that he or she must stop to and rest for 10 to 15 minutes before continuing the sport D) None of these responses are correct. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Carbohydrates; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 38) During muscle-building regimens, how much protein is generally recommended for athletes consume? A) 0.8 g/kg B) 1.0 - 1.2 g/kg C) 1.2 - 1.7 g/kg D) 2.0 - 2.4 g/kg Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.05 Topic: Proteins; Sports nutrition; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 13 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

39) Many athletes, particularly female and young athletes, may need to increase their intake of to help increase red blood cell production. A) vitamin C B) vitamin A C) calcium D) iron Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.05 Topic: Sports nutrition; Minerals Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 40) Taking iron supplements has been found to benefit athletes . A) only if they are anemic B) in rare cases when they have experienced a cessation of the menstrual cycle C) who are experiencing early symptoms of osteoporosis D) by increasing the bulk of muscle Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.05 Topic: Sports nutrition; Minerals Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 41) Which of the following is NOT a part of the female athlete triad? A) amenorrhea B) bone loss/osteoporosis C) type 2 diabetes D) energy deficit/disordered eating Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.05 Topic: Sports nutrition; Other eating disorders Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 14 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

42) A weight loss of 2% or more of body weight by dehydration carries some risk of A) increased body temperature B) reduced blood volume C) decreased performance D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.06 Topic: Water; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 43) For every pound of weight lost during an athletic event, consumed immediately thereafter. A) 1/2 cup B) 1 cup C) 1½ cups D) 3 cups

of water should be

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.06 Topic: Sports nutrition; Water; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 44) Fluids should be consumed A) before B) during C) after D) All of these choices are correct.

an athletic event.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.06 Topic: Sports nutrition; Water; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 15 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

45) One advantage of sports drinks is taste. In addition, they . A) are quick replacements for carbohydrates B) increase fluid consumption C) replace important minerals such as sodium, potassium, and chloride D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.06 Topic: Sports nutrition; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 46) Hyponatremia can be a condition that is caused by A) overconsumption of water B) overconsumption of sodium C) underconsumption of water D) underconsumption of potassium

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.06 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

47) A pre-event meal eaten 1 to 2 hours before competition should be A) low in fat B) low in fluid C) high in dietary fiber D) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: A Explanation: A high-fat meal should not be consumed close to competition time due to potential digestive delay and related problems. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 11.07 Topic: Sports nutrition Learning Objective: 11.07 Describe how the composition of food or fluid consumed before, during, and after exercise training sessions can affect performance. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 48) An example of a food to avoid in a pre-game meal is A) hot dogs B) spaghetti C) low-fat milk D) All of these foods should be avoided.

Answer: A Explanation: Hot dogs contain no carbohydrates (needed for energy) and are also high in fat (not recommended pre-game). Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 11.07 Topic: Sports nutrition; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.07 Describe how the composition of food or fluid consumed before, during, and after exercise training sessions can affect performance. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

49) Recommendations for restoration of muscle glycogen include grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight are consumed 30 minutes after exercise and again 2 hours after exercise. A) 0.5 - 0.75 B) 1.0 - 1.5 C) 3.0 - 4.0 D) None of these responses are correct. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.07 Topic: Carbohydrates; Sports nutrition Learning Objective: 11.07 Describe how the composition of food or fluid consumed before, during, and after exercise training sessions can affect performance. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 50) Anabolic steroids are . A) synthetic versions of growth hormone B) synthetic forms of cortisol, which increases glucose production C) synthetic versions of male sex hormones D) synthetic versions of thyroxine Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.08 Topic: Ergogenic aids Learning Objective: 11.08 Explain the role of ergogenic aids and describe their effect on athletic performance. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

51) Which substance is considered to be a proven ergogenic aid that increases athletic performance? A) salt tablets B) bee pollen C) carnitine D) coenzyme Q-10 E) None of these substances have been proven to increase athletic performance. Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.08 Topic: Ergogenic aids Learning Objective: 11.08 Explain the role of ergogenic aids and describe their effect on athletic performance. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 52) The best exercise can be considered one that an individual wants to continue to do. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.02 Design a fitness plan. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 53) Exercise should be fun in order to promote continuity. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.02 Design a fitness plan. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

54) A good way to determine the intensity of exercise is to measure the amount of oxygen a person consumes. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.02 Design a fitness plan. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 55) Warm-up and cool-down should be parts of your exercise routine. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.02 Design a fitness plan. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 56) Glycogen is the primary source of glucose for ATP production in muscles during intense activity that lasts for less than 2 minutes. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Carbohydrates; Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 57) Carbohydrate is more efficient than fat or protein in the amount of ATP produced per unit of oxygen consumed. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Carbohydrates; Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 20 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

58) Slow, steady aerobic activity uses mostly fat as an energy source. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Lipids; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 59) Amino acids can be used as a primary fuel for muscles. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Carbohydrates are used as a primary fuel for muscles. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Proteins; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 60) Athletes need to consume over 500 grams of protein supplements a day to build muscle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: This recommendation is much too high for daily protein consumption. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.05 Topic: Proteins; Sports nutrition; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 61) Carbohydrate loading should be exclusively used by strength-trained athletes. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Carbohydrate loading is typically utilized by endurance athletes. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.05 Topic: Carbohydrates; Sports nutrition Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 21 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

62) During exercise, athletes should always be consuming massive amounts of water. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Too much water consumed during exercise can actually be problematic and cause immediate distention/discomfort and possibly overhydration if over-consumed. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.06 Topic: Water; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 63) Thirst is an excellent indicator of fluid needs during exercise. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Thirst is not a reliable indicator of hydration needs for very active individuals. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.06 Topic: Water; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 64) College wrestlers can best enhance their strength by dehydration. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Dehydration can cause loss of endurance, focus, and strength and should never be recommended. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 11.06 Topic: Sports nutrition; Water; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

Match the term and its description. A) Rating of exercise intensity B) Producing energy without oxygen C) Ions that conduct an electrical current D) Producing energy with oxygen E) Work-enhancing 65) Electrolytes Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02; 11.03; 11.06; 11.08 Topic: Ergogenic aids; Water; Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia.; 11.02 Design a fitness plan.; 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel.; 11.08 Explain the role of ergogenic aids and describe their effect on athletic performance. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 66) Aerobic Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02; 11.03; 11.06; 11.08 Topic: Ergogenic aids; Water; Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia.; 11.02 Design a fitness plan.; 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel.; 11.08 Explain the role of ergogenic aids and describe their effect on athletic performance. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 67) Perceived exertion Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02; 11.03; 11.06; 11.08 Topic: Ergogenic aids; Water; Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia.; 11.02 Design a fitness plan.; 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel.; 11.08 Explain the role of ergogenic aids and describe their effect on athletic performance. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

68) Anaerobic Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02; 11.03; 11.06; 11.08 Topic: Ergogenic aids; Water; Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia.; 11.02 Design a fitness plan.; 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel.; 11.08 Explain the role of ergogenic aids and describe their effect on athletic performance. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 69) Ergogenic Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02; 11.03; 11.06; 11.08 Topic: Ergogenic aids; Water; Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia.; 11.02 Design a fitness plan.; 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel.; 11.08 Explain the role of ergogenic aids and describe their effect on athletic performance. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 65) C 66) D 67) A 68) B 69) E

Match the characteristic of a good exercise program with its description. A) Amount of time exercise is performed B) Type of exercise performed C) Number of times activity is performed D) Effort spent during the exercise E) Performing different types of activity 70) Duration Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.02 Design a fitness plan. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 71) Frequency Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.02 Design a fitness plan. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 72) Mode Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.02 Design a fitness plan. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 73) Intensity Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.02 Design a fitness plan. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

74) Variety Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.02 Design a fitness plan. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 70) A 71) C 72) B 73) D 74) E

Match the term and its definition. A) First stage of heat-related illness B) Internal body temperature > 104°F C) Muscle cramping, large sweat loss D) Insufficient fluid intake, resulting in poor performance and risk of heat-related illness 75) Heat cramps Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.06 Topic: Water; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 76) Heat exhaustion Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.06 Topic: Water; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 77) Heat stroke Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.06 Topic: Water; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 78) Dehydration Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.06 Topic: Water; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 75) C 76) A 77) B 78) D

79) What are the basic components of an exercise program? Answer: A good fitness program meets a person's needs—the ideal program for an individual may not be right for another. The first step in designing a fitness program is to define goals. Some may want a program that trains them for athletic competition; others may want to lose weight or just increase their stamina or improve their balance. Different goals mean different fitness programs. To reach goals, fitness program planning should consider the mode, duration, frequency, intensity, and progression of exercise, as well as consistency and variety. Also, a good fitness program must help individuals achieve and maintain fitness. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.02 Design a fitness plan. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes 80) Before initiating a new fitness program, what are two important considerations for the beginner? Answer: To stick with an exercise program, experts recommend the following: Start slowly. Vary activities; make exercise fun. Include friends and others. Set specific attainable goals and monitor progress. Set aside a specific time each day for exercise; build it into daily routines, but make it convenient. Reward yourself for being successful in keeping up with your goals. Don't worry about occasional setbacks; focus on long-term benefits to your health Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.02 Design a fitness plan. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

81) Describe how the intensity of exercise affects glycogen utilization. Answer: Glycogen is broken down to glucose, which can be metabolized by both the anaerobic and aerobic pathways. Liver glycogen is used to maintain blood glucose levels, whereas muscle glycogen supplies the glucose to the working muscle. Glycogen is, in fact, the primary source of glucose for ATP production in muscle cells during fairly intense activities that last for less than about 2 hours. In short events (e.g., less than 30 minutes or so), muscles rely primarily on muscle glycogen stores for carbohydrate fuel. Muscles do not take up much blood glucose during short-term exercise because the action of insulin, which increases glucose uptake by muscles, is blunted by other hormones, such as epinephrine and glucagon during exercise. As exercise time increases, muscle glycogen stores decline and the muscles begin to take up blood glucose to use as an energy source. The depletion of glycogen in the muscles contributes to fatigue, whereas the depletion of glycogen in the liver leads to a fall in blood glucose. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 11.03 Topic: Carbohydrates; Physical activity and exercise; Metabolism Learning Objective: 11.03 Explain the function of ATP and PCr as muscle fuel. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 3-5 minutes 82) Contrast the protein requirements for an endurance athlete to requirements for a strengthtrained athlete. Answer: Although amino acids derived from protein can fuel muscles, their contribution is relatively small compared with that of carbohydrate and fat. As a rough guide, only about 5% of the body's general energy needs, as well as the typical energy needs of exercising muscles, is supplied by amino acid metabolism. However, proteins can contribute to energy needs in endurance exercise, perhaps as much as 15%, especially as glycogen stores in the muscle are exhausted. Endurance exercise is when protein is most likely to make its most significant contribution as a fuel source—but, even then, it provides limited energy, with estimates ranging from 3 to 15%. In contrast, protein is used least in resistance exercise (e.g., weight lifting) Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.05 Topic: Dietary requirements; Proteins; Sports nutrition Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

83) Why is a high intake of protein for athletes discouraged? Answer: Consuming more protein than the body needs or can use will not lead to greater muscle mass. Eating high carbohydrate, moderate protein foods immediately after a weight training workout can enhance the anabolic effect of the activity. This most likely increases blood concentrations of insulin and growth hormone and contributes to protein synthesis. Remember, it is impossible to increase muscle mass simply by eating protein; putting physical strain on muscle through strength training or other physical activity is needed, as is adequate protein intake to support growth and recovery. Protein intakes above recommendations result in an increased use of amino acids for energy needs and has disadvantages, such as insufficient carbohydrate intake and increased urine production, which may interfere with body hydration. No advantages, such as an increase in muscle protein synthesis, are seen. Despite marketing claims, protein supplements are an expensive and unnecessary part of a fitness plan. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.05 Topic: Dietary requirements; Proteins; Sports nutrition Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 84) Design a diet for an endurance athlete who wants to carbohydrate load. Answer: WILL VARY depending on chosen athlete… The classic method of carbohydrate loading depleted muscle glycogen stores with 3 days of heavy training and a very low carbohydrate diet. This was followed by 3 days of high carbohydrate intake and rest to promote muscle glycogen synthesis. This classic method often left athletes exhausted and prone to injuries during the first 3 days. A modified method tapers off training intensity and duration on consecutive days after a bout of glycogen-depleting exercise 6 days before competition. During the first 3 days of tapering, the athlete consumes a normal mixed diet, followed by a high carbohydrate diet 3 days before competition. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 11.05 Topic: Sports nutrition Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes

85) Compare the traditional carbohydrate loading diet to the modified method. Answer: The classic method of carbohydrate loading depleted muscle glycogen stores with 3 days of heavy training and a very low carbohydrate diet. This was followed by 3 days of high carbohydrate intake and rest to promote muscle glycogen synthesis. This classic method often left athletes exhausted and prone to injuries during the first 3 days. A modified method tapers off training intensity and duration on consecutive days after a bout of glycogen-depleting exercise 6 days before competition. During the first 3 days of tapering, the athlete consumes a normal mixed diet, followed by a high carbohydrate diet 3 days before competition. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.05 Topic: Carbohydrates; Sports nutrition Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 86) What athletes can benefit from carbohydrate loading? Why? Answer: Appropriate Activities for Carbohydrate Loading Marathons Long-distance swimming Cross-country skiing 30-kilometer runs Triathlons Tournament-play basketball Soccer Cycling time trials Long-distance canoe racing Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.05 Topic: Carbohydrates; Sports nutrition Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

87) How would your diet plan for a football player differ from that of a marathon runner? Answer: Athletes need varying amounts of food energy, depending on their body size, their body composition, and the type of training or competition. A petite gymnast may need only 1800 kcal/day to sustain normal daily activities without losing body weight; a tall, muscular swimmer may need 4000 kcal/day. If an athlete experiences daily fatigue and/or weight loss, the first consideration should be whether that person is consuming enough food. Up to 6 meals per day may be needed, including 1 before each workout. Monitoring body weight is an easy way to assess the adequacy of calorie intake. Athletes should strive to maintain weight during competition and training. Generally, if athletes are losing weight, then energy intake is inadequate; however, if athletes are gaining weight, then energy intake is too high. If an athlete needs to lose weight, his or her food intake should be lowered by 200 to 500 kcal per day. This slight reduction will allow the athlete to continue to train and compete yet will create a calorie deficit so that weight loss can be achieved. Reducing fat intake is the best way to cut calories and not affect performance. On the other hand, if an athlete needs to gain weight, increasing food intake by 500 to 700 kcal/ day will eventually achieve that goal. The extra calories should come from a healthy balance of carbohydrate, protein, and fat; exercise needs to be maintained to make sure this gain is mostly in the form of lean muscle mass. In general, both athletes should focus on clean unprocessed foods. The calorie levels would depend on weight goals and current status. The football player (focusing on strength), would require a high calorie load, with focus on 1-1.7g/kg protein, while the marathoner would focus on 1.7g/kg protein with a very high carbohydrate intake as well. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 11.05 Topic: Carbohydrates; Dietary requirements; Lipids; Proteins; Sports nutrition; Water Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes

88) How would you convince a football coach that a sports drink would be better than water for his high school athletes during two-a-day practices? Answer: When exercise extends beyond 1 hour, sports drinks can offer several advantages over water alone—even more so in hot weather (Fig. 11-14): Carbohydrates in sports drinks supply glucose to muscles as they become depleted of glycogen, thus enhancing performance. Electrolytes in sports drinks help maintain blood volume, enhance the absorption of water and carbohydrates from the intestines, and stimulate thirst. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 11.06 Topic: Water; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 89) List 5 symptoms of heatstroke, and explain how it can occur. Answer: Left unchecked, heat exhaustion can rapidly progress to heatstroke. Heatstroke can occur when the internal body temperature reaches 104°F or higher. Exertional heatstroke results from high blood flow to exercising muscles, which overloads the body's cooling capacity. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, irritability, poor coordination, seizures, hot and dry skin, rapid heart rate, vomiting, diarrhea, and coma. If heatstroke is left untreated, circulatory collapse, nervous system damage, and death are likely. The death rate from heatstroke is approximately 10%. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.06 Topic: Heat-related illness; Water; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.06 Describe the fluid needs of athletes and how to avoid dehydration and hyponatremia. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

90) Lance Armstrong, who was a triathlete and road racing cyclist, likely has more muscle fibers. A) Type I B) Type IIA C) Type IIX D) He would have equal amounts of all muscle fiber types. Answer: A Explanation: Prolonged exercise requires type I muscle fibers, and an endurance athlete would benefit from high numbers of type I. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 11.04 Topic: Body composition and weight status; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.04 Describe the metabolic adaptations that occur with physical activity. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 91) Your roommate tells you he wants to put on more muscle mass. He plans to do this by adding in strength-training exercises and protein shakes to his diet. What advice could you offer him? A) Higher amounts of protein will add muscle mass faster, so add in as much as you possibly can. B) Going over 0.8 g/kg will have no benefit for muscle building during the training period. C) Intakes of up to 1.7 g/kg are acceptable during muscle mass gain, but going over this amount can lead to dehydration and insufficient carbohydrate intake. D) Try to stay as low as possible in your intake as proteins have no benefit for muscle mass gain or energy usage. Answer: C Explanation: Up to 1.7 g/kg is recommended for those attempting to gain muscle mass. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 11.05 Topic: Proteins; Sports nutrition Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 3-5 minutes

92) Which of the following athletes would have the highest requirements for proteins? A) 120 lb female triathlete B) 120 lb female trying to increase her muscle mass C) 180 lb sedentary male D) 180 lb male football player Answer: D Explanation: Of the individuals listed, a 180 lb male football player likely has the most muscle mass and goals of strength building. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 11.05 Topic: Dietary supplements; Proteins; Sports nutrition Learning Objective: 11.05 Apply the principles of sports nutrition to create diet plans for athletes. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 0-1 minute 93) You are at an athletic event and you notice that one of the participants is not feeling well. He is starting to not be able to walk and appears to be confused and irritated. What heat-related condition is he likely suffering from? A) Heat exhaustion B) Heat cramps C) Heat stroke D) None of the answers are correct. Answer: C Explanation: The symptoms listed are those related to heat stroke. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 11.06 Topic: Heat-related illness; Water; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.07 Describe how the composition of food or fluid consumed before, during, and after exercise training sessions can affect performance. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

94) Sarah has designed a fitness program that includes aerobic exercise, resistance exercise, and flexibility exercise. What characteristic of a well-designed fitness program was Sarah most concerned about when she designed her program? A) Duration B) Intensity C) Progression D) Mode Answer: D Explanation: Mode is defined by type of exercise, of which this program has diverse types included. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 11.02 Design a fitness plan. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 12 Fat-Soluble Vitamins 1) Which of the following does NOT describe a vitamin? A) They are essential organic substances. B) They are classified as either fat- or water-soluble. C) They are needed in relatively small amounts. D) They provide a rich source of energy. 2) Excess amounts of most water-soluble vitamins are A) stored in the adipose tissue. B) readily excreted. C) stored in the liver. D) often toxic. 3) Excess amounts of most fat-soluble vitamins are A) stored in the liver or adipose tissue. B) excreted via the kidneys. C) stored in the pancreas. D) All of the choices are correct. 4) Nutrients most likely to cause toxicity if consumed in excessive amounts include A) vitamin B-12 and vitamin K. B) vitamin D and riboflavin. C) vitamin A and vitamin D. D) vitamin A and vitamin E. 5) Beta-carotene A) can be converted to vitamin A in the body. B) can be converted to vitamin E in the body. C) is classified as a retinoid. D) is toxic when consumed in excess amounts. 6) A deficiency of vitamin A often results in A) scurvy. B) night blindness. C) insufficient blood clotting. D) microcytic anemia. 7) After absorption, the fat-soluble vitamins are distributed to body cells by A) free fatty acids. B) lipases. C) mucopolysaccharides. D) lipoproteins. 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) Some scientists believe that the vitamin D recommendation should be much higher than currently set. 9) When consumed in recommended amounts, approximately are absorbed. A) 1%-5% B) 5%-20% C) 10%-35% D) 40%-90%

of fat-soluble vitamins

10) Beta-carotene is also called A) provitamin A. B) retinal or retinol. C) calcitriol. D) rhodopsin. 11) In the intestinal cells, A) vitamin A, as retinal, is converted to beta-carotene. B) carotenes are split by an intestinal enzyme to form vitamin A. C) excess vitamin A is carried to the kidney for excretion. D) All of these choices are correct. 12) A leading cause of blindness in the world today (excluding accidents) is a dietary deficiency of A) vitamin A. B) vitamin D. C) vitamin E. D) vitamin K. 13) Retinal, retinol, and retinoic acid are all forms of A) vitamin A. B) vitamin K. C) vitamin D. D) vitamin E. 14) Rhodopsin, the visual pigment in the retina of the eye, is regenerated when opsin combines with A) retinoic acid. B) 11-cis-retinal. C) 13-cis-retinol. D) beta-carotene.

15) Of the following, the best source of preformed vitamin A is A) fried liver. B) sautéed spinach. C) fresh mango. D) cheddar cheese. 16) Of the following, the best source of provitamin A is A) fried liver. B) baked sweet potato. C) fresh bananas. D) soybeans. 17) The yellow-orange coloring of carotenoid-rich dark green vegetables is masked by the pigment A) lycopene. B) chlorophyll. C) beta-carotene. D) alpha-carotene. 18) Mucus-forming cells in the body deteriorate and can no longer produce mucus when there is a deficiency of A) vitamin D. B) beta-carotene. C) vitamin K. D) vitamin A. 19) When viewing items at night or in very dim light, light strikes the retina of the eyes A) and causes the retinal to change from its cis form to its trans form. B) and splits the rhodopsin into opsin and all-trans-retinal. C) to trigger an electrical signal along the optic nerve. D) All of these choices are accurate. 20) A deficiency of vitamin A can lead to development of a condition called A) xerophthalmia. B) osteomalacia. C) jaundice. D) scurvy. 21) Vitamin A deficiency is characterized by the A) inability to produce insulin. B) failure to form blood clots. C) inability to adapt quickly to changes in light intensity. D) production of excessive amounts of collagen.

22) The biochemical functions of vitamin A include all of the following EXCEPT: A) controlling vision in dim and bright light. B) development and maintenance of mucus-forming cells. C) cell differentiation. D) coenzyme synthesis. 23) Which statement correctly describes vitamin A? A) Vitamin A is carried from the liver by retinol-binding protein and transthyretin in the blood. B) Nearly all cells have vitamin-A binding retinoid receptors. C) Within a cell, vitamin A is involved in gene expression and cell differentiation. D) All of the choices are correct. 24) Vitamin A supplements are not necessary for most adult Americans as they typically have significant reserves in A) the eye. B) the skin. C) the kidney. D) the liver. 25) The current RDA for vitamin A is expressed in A) Beta Carotene International Units (BCIU). B) Retinol Activity Equivalents (RAE). C) Alpha-Tocopherol Equivalents (ATE). D) None of these answers are correct. 26) In North America, specific population groups at increased risk of vitamin A deficiency include all of the following EXCEPT A) college-aged diabetics. B) alcoholics with liver disease. C) those with GI diseases that prevent fat absorption. D) low birth weight, premature infants. 27) The most likely cause of a vitamin A toxicity would be A) consuming large amounts of dark green and yellow vegetables. B) eating sautéed liver and onions twice a week. C) consuming high levels of vitamin A supplements. D) drinking carrot juice twice a day. 28) Vitamin A toxicity is known to cause all of the following EXCEPT A) birth defects. B) permanent damage to the liver. C) kidney disease. D) death.

29) What vitamin would most likely lead to death in both deficient and toxic levels? A) vitamin A B) vitamin C C) vitamin E D) vitamin B-12 30) A potential danger of using oral Accutane for acne is that it A) can cause spontaneous abortion and birth defects. B) can cause blindness if used for over a year. C) may lead to atherosclerosis. D) can lead to osteomalacia. 31) Children eating large amounts of carrots can develop A) hyperactivity. B) hypercarotenemia. C) hyperglycemia. D) vitamin A toxicity. 32) A derivative of vitamin A, 13-cis-retinoic acid (Accutane), is used to A) prevent xerophthalmia. B) treat serious cases of acne. C) treat hypercarotenemia. D) prevent skin cancer. 33) Vitamin D deficiency can result in poorly mineralized bone. The resulting disease is called A) osteoporosis. B) osteomalacia. C) osteoarthritis. D) osteopenia. 34) Healthy, light-skinned individuals can make sufficient vitamin D to meet the body's needs with about of sun exposure on their face, arms, and hands 2 or 3 times per week. A) 15 minutes B) 10 minutes C) 5 minutes D) 2 minutes 35) The nutrient that can be considered both a vitamin and a hormone is vitamin A) E. B) K. C) D. D) A.

36) Vitamin D is sometimes called the sunshine vitamin because A) it is available in fresh orange juice. B) exposure to sunlight converts a precursor form to vitamin D. C) it can be destroyed by exposure to sunlight. D) it is the yellow-orange color of the sun. 37) The main active form of vitamin D in the body is A) calcitriol. B) retinal. C) cholecalciferol. D) calcitonin. 38) Vitamin D is involved in the regulation of body levels of A) cholesterol. B) calcium. C) prothrombin. D) potassium. 39) Functions of vitamin D include A) prevention of scurvy. B) antioxidant activity. C) glucose regulation. D) absorption of calcium. 40) As calcitriol, vitamin D functions in calcium and bone metabolism by A) reducing calcium excretion by the kidney. B) regulating calcium and phosphorus absorption through the intestinal wall. C) regulating the levels of calcium and phosphorus in bones. D) All of these choices are accurate. 41) Calcitriol is the A) precursor to vitamin D that is activated by sunlight. B) plant source of vitamin D. C) animal food source of vitamin D. D) biologically active form of vitamin D. 42) Vitamin D deficiency in adults is called A) osteoporosis. B) osteomalacia. C) rickets. D) hypocalcemia.

43) In children, bowed legs, an enlarged head, rib cage, and knee joints, and a deformed pelvis are symptoms of A) rickets. B) xerophthalmia. C) osteopenia. D) None of the choices are correct. 44) A reliable food source of vitamin D is A) yellow-orange colored fruits. B) dark green leafy vegetables. C) whole grain breads. D) fortified milk. 45) As calcium levels in the blood drop below normal, synthesis of calcitriol. A) calcitonin B) thyroid hormone C) parathyroid hormone D) secretin

is released to increase the

46) Vitamin D synthesis in the skin is affected by all of the following EXCEPT A) use of sunscreen. B) skin color. C) geographic location. D) All of these factors can affect vitamin D synthesis. 47) Individuals at increased risk of vitamin D deficiency include all of the following EXCEPT A) elderly adults living in nursing homes. B) dark-skinned children with limited outdoor activity. C) young adults who eat high amounts of fatty fish and fish oils. D) individuals with diseases of fat-malabsorption. 48) Which of the following is NOT a function of vitamin D? A) Maintaining phosphorus homeostasis B) Regulating cell cycle activity C) Promoting antioxidant activity D) Increasing immunity against infections 49) Excess intake of vitamin D A) is readily excreted. B) can cause hypercalcemia. C) can cause rickets. D) can cause osteomalacia.

50) Vitamin E is a family of compounds comprised of the A) 4 tocopherols. B) 4 tocotrienols. C) 4 triglycerides. D) 4 tocopherols and 4 tocotrienols. 51) Vitamin E functions to A) protect cell membranes from destruction by various reducing agents. B) protect phospholipids in cell membranes from damage by free radicals. C) accept electrons, thus neutralizing the action of free radicals. D) All of these choices are accurate. 52) A primary function of vitamin E is to serve as A) a coenzyme. B) an antioxidant. C) a hormone. D) a peroxide. 53) Which of the following is NOT involved in antioxidant defense? A) glutathione peroxidase B) superoxide dismutase C) catalase D) hydrogen peroxide 54) The most nutrient-dense sources of vitamin E are A) refined grains and cereal products. B) orange-colored fruits. C) vegetable oils. D) animal fats. 55) Vitamin E is carried to the liver and other tissues by A) albumin. B) hemoglobin. C) lipoproteins. D) retinol-binding proteins. 56) Of the following population groups, those at highest risk for vitamin E deficiency are A) premature infants. B) the elderly. C) athletes. D) smokers.

57) A high intake of vitamin E can A) interfere with vitamin K's blood-clotting activity. B) result in lead poisoning. C) inhibit copper absorption. D) cause atherosclerosis. 58) Which vitamin deficiency leads to hemolytic anemia? A) vitamin A B) vitamin D C) vitamin E D) vitamin K 59) Individuals taking daily aspirin or anticoagulation medications should avoid excess intakes of A) beta-carotene. B) vitamin E. C) vitamin D. D) lycopene. 60) The nutrient essential for the synthesis of blood clotting factors is vitamin A) A. B) D. C) E. D) K. 61) An important role of vitamin K is the synthesis of A) alpha-tocopherol. B) rhodopsin. C) calcitriol. D) prothrombin. 62) A nutrient synthesized by bacteria in the large intestine is vitamin A) E. B) D. C) A. D) K. 63) The family of compounds known as vitamin K includes A) phylloquinones and menaquinones. B) tocopherols and tocotrienols. C) retinol, retinal, and retinoic acid. D) cholecalciferol and calcitriol.

64) Vitamin K deficiency is most likely to result from A) insufficient sunlight. B) kidney disease. C) insufficient intake of dairy products. D) antibiotic therapy. 65) Antibiotics and intestinal diseases can interfere with absorption of vitamin A) A. B) C. C) E. D) K. 66) The most nutrient-dense food sources of vitamin K are A) green leafy vegetables. B) whole grain breads and cereals. C) nuts and seeds. D) oysters and shellfish. 67) Newborns usually receive an injection of vitamin deficiency until the gastrointestinal tract has matured. A) A B) D C) B D) K

to protect them against

68) An Upper Level (UL) has been set for vitamin K to protect against the significant risk of toxicity. 69) When taken in megadoses, vitamins may have actions similar to some prescription drugs. 70) Natural vitamins are usually superior to synthetic vitamins. 71) People who smoke likely need more vitamin E than nonsmokers. 72) One means of detecting a vitamin K deficiency is to measure how quickly prothrombin in the blood can form a clot. 73) Dietary supplements are tightly regulated by the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA). 74) Vegans may require supplements of calcium, zinc, iron, and vitamin B-12 to prevent deficiencies. 75) Individuals with lactose intolerance or milk allergies may need calcium and vitamin D supplements. 10 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

76) Supplement manufacturers can make unproven claims with regard to conditions that are not diseases. 77) Dietary supplements can fully compensate for nutritionally poor diets. 78) Megadoses of vitamins are consistently proven to be useful in preventing nutritional deficiencies and decreasing disease risk. 79) Retinoids play a role in embryonic development and cell differentiation. 80) Carotenoid supplementation has been effective in decreasing the risk of lung cancer in smokers. 81) Vitamin A deficiency can result in development of xerophthalmia in membranes of the eye. 82) Vitamin D must be hydroxylated in the liver and kidney to become biologically active. 83) Kidney disease and liver disease increase the risk of vitamin D deficiency. 84) The fat-soluble vitamins all have hormone-like activity. 85) The RDA for vitamin E was established to prevent hemolysis of red blood cell membranes. 86) List 3 differences between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins. 87) How does the USP label on a nutrient supplement help the consumer? 88) List 3 symptoms noted in persons with vitamin A deficiency. 89) List 3 functions of vitamin A. 90) Why do some scientists suggest that the DRI and UL for vitamin D be increased? 91) List 3 symptoms of vitamin A toxicity. 92) Why should individuals on anticoagulation medication avoid excess vitamin E? 93) Why does vitamin K not have an established UL? 94) What supplements might you recommend for a 23-year-old female vegan? 95) List three food sources rich in vitamin D. 96) What trace mineral aids in vitamin E function?

97) A patient presents with excessive bruising. After finding out that the patient dislikes vegetables, especially green leafy vegetables, you start to consider a vitamin deficiency is the cause of bruising. Which of the following vitamins is the patient most likely deficient in? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin D C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin K 98) A patient presents with severe fatigue. The patient appears pale and he complains of not being able to catch his breath when going up a flight of stairs. The patient also admits to being a smoker. Which of the following vitamin is the patient most likely deficient in? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin D C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin K 99) A relative complains of not being able to see very well at night when driving. She has also had dry skin and several colds over the last year. Which of the following vitamins is your relative most likely deficient in? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin D C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin K 100) Of the following, who is most likely to benefit from a vitamin and mineral supplement? A) 26-year-old female who is a vegan and a smoker B) 53-year-old female who has gone through menopause and has been a life-long consumer of dairy C) 45-year-old male smoker who is otherwise healthy D) 10-year-old male with no known medical conditions 101) When purchasing supplements, why should superfluous ingredients be avoided? A) They are always toxic. B) They always interfere with the absorption of vitamins and minerals. C) They are not needed, and they add expense to the supplement. D) We need superfluous ingredients and should look for supplements that provide these.

3) Excess amounts of most fat-soluble vitamins are A) stored in the liver or adipose tissue. B) excreted via the kidneys. C) stored in the pancreas. D) All of the choices are correct. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.01 Define the term vitamin and list 3 characteristics of vitamins as a group. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 4) Nutrients most likely to cause toxicity if consumed in excessive amounts include A) vitamin B-12 and vitamin K. B) vitamin D and riboflavin. C) vitamin A and vitamin D. D) vitamin A and vitamin E. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.01 Define the term vitamin and list 3 characteristics of vitamins as a group. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) Beta-carotene A) can be converted to vitamin A in the body. B) can be converted to vitamin E in the body. C) is classified as a retinoid. D) is toxic when consumed in excess amounts. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.01 Define the term vitamin and list 3 characteristics of vitamins as a group. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

6) A deficiency of vitamin A often results in A) scurvy. B) night blindness. C) insufficient blood clotting. D) microcytic anemia. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 7) After absorption, the fat-soluble vitamins are distributed to body cells by A) free fatty acids. B) lipases. C) mucopolysaccharides. D) lipoproteins. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.01 Define the term vitamin and list 3 characteristics of vitamins as a group. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) Some scientists believe that the vitamin D recommendation should be much higher than currently set. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.03 Topic: Vitamins; Dietary Requirements Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

9) When consumed in recommended amounts, approximately are absorbed. A) 1%-5% B) 5%-20% C) 10%-35% D) 40%-90%

of fat-soluble vitamins

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.01 Define the term vitamin and list 3 characteristics of vitamins as a group. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 10) Beta-carotene is also called A) provitamin A. B) retinal or retinol. C) calcitriol. D) rhodopsin. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 11) In the intestinal cells, A) vitamin A, as retinal, is converted to beta-carotene. B) carotenes are split by an intestinal enzyme to form vitamin A. C) excess vitamin A is carried to the kidney for excretion. D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

12) A leading cause of blindness in the world today (excluding accidents) is a dietary deficiency of A) vitamin A. B) vitamin D. C) vitamin E. D) vitamin K. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Birth defects; Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 13) Retinal, retinol, and retinoic acid are all forms of A) vitamin A. B) vitamin K. C) vitamin D. D) vitamin E. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 14) Rhodopsin, the visual pigment in the retina of the eye, is regenerated when opsin combines with A) retinoic acid. B) 11-cis-retinal. C) 13-cis-retinol. D) beta-carotene. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

15) Of the following, the best source of preformed vitamin A is A) fried liver. B) sautéed spinach. C) fresh mango. D) cheddar cheese. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Food sources; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.03 List 3 important food sources for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 16) Of the following, the best source of provitamin A is A) fried liver. B) baked sweet potato. C) fresh bananas. D) soybeans. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Food sources; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.03 List 3 important food sources for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 17) The yellow-orange coloring of carotenoid-rich dark green vegetables is masked by the pigment A) lycopene. B) chlorophyll. C) beta-carotene. D) alpha-carotene. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: Food sources; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.03 List 3 important food sources for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

18) Mucus-forming cells in the body deteriorate and can no longer produce mucus when there is a deficiency of A) vitamin D. B) beta-carotene. C) vitamin K. D) vitamin A. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.03 List 3 important food sources for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 19) When viewing items at night or in very dim light, light strikes the retina of the eyes A) and causes the retinal to change from its cis form to its trans form. B) and splits the rhodopsin into opsin and all-trans-retinal. C) to trigger an electrical signal along the optic nerve. D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 20) A deficiency of vitamin A can lead to development of a condition called A) xerophthalmia. B) osteomalacia. C) jaundice. D) scurvy. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

21) Vitamin A deficiency is characterized by the A) inability to produce insulin. B) failure to form blood clots. C) inability to adapt quickly to changes in light intensity. D) production of excessive amounts of collagen. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 22) The biochemical functions of vitamin A include all of the following EXCEPT: A) controlling vision in dim and bright light. B) development and maintenance of mucus-forming cells. C) cell differentiation. D) coenzyme synthesis. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 23) Which statement correctly describes vitamin A? A) Vitamin A is carried from the liver by retinol-binding protein and transthyretin in the blood. B) Nearly all cells have vitamin-A binding retinoid receptors. C) Within a cell, vitamin A is involved in gene expression and cell differentiation. D) All of the choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

24) Vitamin A supplements are not necessary for most adult Americans as they typically have significant reserves in A) the eye. B) the skin. C) the kidney. D) the liver. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Dietary supplements; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.03 List 3 important food sources for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 25) The current RDA for vitamin A is expressed in A) Beta Carotene International Units (BCIU). B) Retinol Activity Equivalents (RAE). C) Alpha-Tocopherol Equivalents (ATE). D) None of these answers are correct. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.03 List 3 important food sources for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 26) In North America, specific population groups at increased risk of vitamin A deficiency include all of the following EXCEPT A) college-aged diabetics. B) alcoholics with liver disease. C) those with GI diseases that prevent fat absorption. D) low birth weight, premature infants. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

27) The most likely cause of a vitamin A toxicity would be A) consuming large amounts of dark green and yellow vegetables. B) eating sautéed liver and onions twice a week. C) consuming high levels of vitamin A supplements. D) drinking carrot juice twice a day. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Dietary supplements; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.06 Describe the toxicity symptoms caused by excess consumption of certain fat-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 28) Vitamin A toxicity is known to cause all of the following EXCEPT A) birth defects. B) permanent damage to the liver. C) kidney disease. D) death. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.06 Describe the toxicity symptoms caused by excess consumption of certain fat-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 29) What vitamin would most likely lead to death in both deficient and toxic levels? A) vitamin A B) vitamin C C) vitamin E D) vitamin B-12 Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur.; 12.06 Describe the toxicity symptoms caused by excess consumption of certain fat-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 10 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

30) A potential danger of using oral Accutane for acne is that it A) can cause spontaneous abortion and birth defects. B) can cause blindness if used for over a year. C) may lead to atherosclerosis. D) can lead to osteomalacia. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.06 Describe the toxicity symptoms caused by excess consumption of certain fat-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 31) Children eating large amounts of carrots can develop A) hyperactivity. B) hypercarotenemia. C) hyperglycemia. D) vitamin A toxicity. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.06 Describe the toxicity symptoms caused by excess consumption of certain fat-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 32) A derivative of vitamin A, 13-cis-retinoic acid (Accutane), is used to A) prevent xerophthalmia. B) treat serious cases of acne. C) treat hypercarotenemia. D) prevent skin cancer. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

33) Vitamin D deficiency can result in poorly mineralized bone. The resulting disease is called A) osteoporosis. B) osteomalacia. C) osteoarthritis. D) osteopenia. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.03 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 34) Healthy, light-skinned individuals can make sufficient vitamin D to meet the body's needs with about of sun exposure on their face, arms, and hands 2 or 3 times per week. A) 15 minutes B) 10 minutes C) 5 minutes D) 2 minutes Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 35) The nutrient that can be considered both a vitamin and a hormone is vitamin A) E. B) K. C) D. D) A. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.03 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

36) Vitamin D is sometimes called the sunshine vitamin because A) it is available in fresh orange juice. B) exposure to sunlight converts a precursor form to vitamin D. C) it can be destroyed by exposure to sunlight. D) it is the yellow-orange color of the sun. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.03 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 37) The main active form of vitamin D in the body is A) calcitriol. B) retinal. C) cholecalciferol. D) calcitonin. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.03 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 38) Vitamin D is involved in the regulation of body levels of A) cholesterol. B) calcium. C) prothrombin. D) potassium. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.03 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

39) Functions of vitamin D include A) prevention of scurvy. B) antioxidant activity. C) glucose regulation. D) absorption of calcium. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.03 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 40) As calcitriol, vitamin D functions in calcium and bone metabolism by A) reducing calcium excretion by the kidney. B) regulating calcium and phosphorus absorption through the intestinal wall. C) regulating the levels of calcium and phosphorus in bones. D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 41) Calcitriol is the A) precursor to vitamin D that is activated by sunlight. B) plant source of vitamin D. C) animal food source of vitamin D. D) biologically active form of vitamin D. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.03 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

42) Vitamin D deficiency in adults is called A) osteoporosis. B) osteomalacia. C) rickets. D) hypocalcemia. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.03 Topic: Bone and joint health; Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 43) In children, bowed legs, an enlarged head, rib cage, and knee joints, and a deformed pelvis are symptoms of A) rickets. B) xerophthalmia. C) osteopenia. D) None of the choices are correct. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.03 Topic: Bone and joint health; Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 44) A reliable food source of vitamin D is A) yellow-orange colored fruits. B) dark green leafy vegetables. C) whole grain breads. D) fortified milk. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.03 Topic: Food sources; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.03 List 3 important food sources for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

45) As calcium levels in the blood drop below normal, synthesis of calcitriol. A) calcitonin B) thyroid hormone C) parathyroid hormone D) secretin

is released to increase the

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 46) Vitamin D synthesis in the skin is affected by all of the following EXCEPT A) use of sunscreen. B) skin color. C) geographic location. D) All of these factors can affect vitamin D synthesis. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.03 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.03 List 3 important food sources for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 47) Individuals at increased risk of vitamin D deficiency include all of the following EXCEPT A) elderly adults living in nursing homes. B) dark-skinned children with limited outdoor activity. C) young adults who eat high amounts of fatty fish and fish oils. D) individuals with diseases of fat-malabsorption. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

48) Which of the following is NOT a function of vitamin D? A) Maintaining phosphorus homeostasis B) Regulating cell cycle activity C) Promoting antioxidant activity D) Increasing immunity against infections Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.03 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 49) Excess intake of vitamin D A) is readily excreted. B) can cause hypercalcemia. C) can cause rickets. D) can cause osteomalacia. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.06 Describe the toxicity symptoms caused by excess consumption of certain fat-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 50) Vitamin E is a family of compounds comprised of the A) 4 tocopherols. B) 4 tocotrienols. C) 4 triglycerides. D) 4 tocopherols and 4 tocotrienols. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.04 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

51) Vitamin E functions to A) protect cell membranes from destruction by various reducing agents. B) protect phospholipids in cell membranes from damage by free radicals. C) accept electrons, thus neutralizing the action of free radicals. D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.04 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 52) A primary function of vitamin E is to serve as A) a coenzyme. B) an antioxidant. C) a hormone. D) a peroxide. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 53) Which of the following is NOT involved in antioxidant defense? A) glutathione peroxidase B) superoxide dismutase C) catalase D) hydrogen peroxide Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

54) The most nutrient-dense sources of vitamin E are A) refined grains and cereal products. B) orange-colored fruits. C) vegetable oils. D) animal fats. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: Food sources; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.03 List 3 important food sources for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 55) Vitamin E is carried to the liver and other tissues by A) albumin. B) hemoglobin. C) lipoproteins. D) retinol-binding proteins. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 56) Of the following population groups, those at highest risk for vitamin E deficiency are A) premature infants. B) the elderly. C) athletes. D) smokers. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

57) A high intake of vitamin E can A) interfere with vitamin K's blood-clotting activity. B) result in lead poisoning. C) inhibit copper absorption. D) cause atherosclerosis. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.06 Describe the toxicity symptoms caused by excess consumption of certain fat-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 58) Which vitamin deficiency leads to hemolytic anemia? A) vitamin A B) vitamin D C) vitamin E D) vitamin K Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 59) Individuals taking daily aspirin or anticoagulation medications should avoid excess intakes of A) beta-carotene. B) vitamin E. C) vitamin D. D) lycopene. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.06 Describe the toxicity symptoms caused by excess consumption of certain fat-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

60) The nutrient essential for the synthesis of blood clotting factors is vitamin A) A. B) D. C) E. D) K. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.05 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 61) An important role of vitamin K is the synthesis of A) alpha-tocopherol. B) rhodopsin. C) calcitriol. D) prothrombin. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.05 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 62) A nutrient synthesized by bacteria in the large intestine is vitamin A) E. B) D. C) A. D) K. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.05 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.03 List 3 important food sources for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

63) The family of compounds known as vitamin K includes A) phylloquinones and menaquinones. B) tocopherols and tocotrienols. C) retinol, retinal, and retinoic acid. D) cholecalciferol and calcitriol. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.05 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 64) Vitamin K deficiency is most likely to result from A) insufficient sunlight. B) kidney disease. C) insufficient intake of dairy products. D) antibiotic therapy. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 65) Antibiotics and intestinal diseases can interfere with absorption of vitamin A) A. B) C. C) E. D) K. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Digestion, absorption, and transport; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

66) The most nutrient-dense food sources of vitamin K are A) green leafy vegetables. B) whole grain breads and cereals. C) nuts and seeds. D) oysters and shellfish. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.05 Topic: Food sources; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.03 List 3 important food sources for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 67) Newborns usually receive an injection of vitamin until the gastrointestinal tract has matured. A) A B) D C) B D) K

to protect them against deficiency

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.05 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 68) An Upper Level (UL) has been set for vitamin K to protect against the significant risk of toxicity. Answer: FALSE Explanation: No UL is set for vitamin K because of the low risk for toxicity. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.05 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.06 Describe the toxicity symptoms caused by excess consumption of certain fat-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

69) When taken in megadoses, vitamins may have actions similar to some prescription drugs. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: Dietary supplements; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.01 Define the term vitamin and list 3 characteristics of vitamins as a group. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 70) Natural vitamins are usually superior to synthetic vitamins. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The synthetic and natural forms of most vitamins have similar characteristics. One exception, natural vitamin E, is about twice as potent as the synthetic form. In contrast, synthetic folic acid is almost twice as potent as the natural form. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: Dietary supplements; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.01 Define the term vitamin and list 3 characteristics of vitamins as a group. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 71) People who smoke likely need more vitamin E than nonsmokers. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.04 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

72) One means of detecting a vitamin K deficiency is to measure how quickly prothrombin in the blood can form a clot. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 12.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 73) Dietary supplements are tightly regulated by the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA). Answer: FALSE Explanation: The DSHEA legislation does regulate dietary supplements, but due to this legislation the FDA does not closely monitor dietary supplements unless there is evidence that a supplement is dangerous or is marketed with an illegal claim. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.06 Topic: Dietary supplements; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.07 Evaluate the use of vitamin and mineral supplements with respect to their potential benefits and risks to health. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 74) Vegans may require supplements of calcium, zinc, iron, and vitamin B-12 to prevent deficiencies. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.06 Topic: Dietary supplements; Vitamins; Plant-based diets Learning Objective: 12.07 Evaluate the use of vitamin and mineral supplements with respect to their potential benefits and risks to health. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

75) Individuals with lactose intolerance or milk allergies may need calcium and vitamin D supplements. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.06 Topic: Dietary supplements; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.07 Evaluate the use of vitamin and mineral supplements with respect to their potential benefits and risks to health. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 76) Supplement manufacturers can make unproven claims with regard to conditions that are not diseases. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.06 Topic: Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 12.07 Evaluate the use of vitamin and mineral supplements with respect to their potential benefits and risks to health. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 77) Dietary supplements can fully compensate for nutritionally poor diets. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Although dietary supplements can replace specific nutrients lacking in a diet, they cannot fully correct a nutritionally poor diet. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.06 Topic: Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 12.07 Evaluate the use of vitamin and mineral supplements with respect to their potential benefits and risks to health. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

78) Megadoses of vitamins are consistently proven to be useful in preventing nutritional deficiencies and decreasing disease risk. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Any claimed benefits for the use of vitamin supplements, especially intakes above the Upper Level (if set), should be viewed critically because many unproved claims are continually being made. For example, Vitamin A is thought to interfere with the absorption of vitamin K from the small intestine, whereas large doses of vitamin E can lead to a decrease in vitamin K– dependent clotting factors and increased bleeding tendency. In either case, megadose supplements of these vitamins increase the risk of vitamin K deficiency and bleeding, as noted in earlier discussions of the Upper Levels of the vitamins. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.06 Topic: Dietary supplements; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.07 Evaluate the use of vitamin and mineral supplements with respect to their potential benefits and risks to health. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 79) Retinoids play a role in embryonic development and cell differentiation. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 80) Carotenoid supplementation has been effective in decreasing the risk of lung cancer in smokers. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Carotenoid supplementation has not been shown to decrease incidence of lung cancer in smokers. The pigment lycopene has been associated with decreased risk of prostate cancer in some studies, but not confirmed to be directly linked to the carotenoid. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Dietary supplements; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

81) Vitamin A deficiency can result in development of xerophthalmia in membranes of the eye. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 82) Vitamin D must be hydroxylated in the liver and kidney to become biologically active. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.03 List 3 important food sources for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 83) Kidney disease and liver disease increase the risk of vitamin D deficiency. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

84) The fat-soluble vitamins all have hormone-like activity. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Only the fat-soluble vitamin D has hormone-like activity. Because a dietary source is not required if synthesis is adequate to meet needs, the vitamin is more correctly classified as a "conditional" vitamin, or prohormone (a precursor of an active hormone). In the absence of UV-light exposure, an adequate dietary intake of vitamin D is essential to prevent the deficiency diseases rickets and osteomalacia and to provide for cellular needs. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 85) The RDA for vitamin E was established to prevent hemolysis of red blood cell membranes. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

86) List 3 differences between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins. Answer: Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed along with dietary fat. Thus, adequate absorption of fat-soluble vitamins depends on efficient use of bile and pancreatic lipase in the small intestine to digest dietary fat and adequate intestinal absorption (Fig. 12-1). Under optimal conditions, about 40% to 90% of the fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed when they're consumed in recommended amounts. In contrast, absorption of B-vitamins and vitamin C typically ranges from 90% to 100% and occurs in the small intestine independent of dietary fat. In contrast to the fat-soluble vitamins, water-soluble vitamins are delivered directly to the bloodstream and distributed throughout the body. With the exception of vitamin K, fat-soluble vitamins are not readily excreted from the body. Instead, they are often stored in the liver and/or adipose tissue. In contrast, most water-soluble vitamins are excreted from the body quite rapidly, resulting in limited stores. Although the toxic effects of an excessive intake of any vitamin is theoretically possible, toxicity from the fat-soluble vitamins A and D is the most likely to occur. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.02 Classify the vitamins according to whether they are fat soluble or water soluble. Bloom's: Remember; Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 87) How does the USP label on a nutrient supplement help the consumer? Answer: To aid consumers in purchasing supplements meeting acceptable standards, the U.S. Pharmacopeia (USP) designation may be listed on products that meet established USP standards for strength, quality, purity, packaging, labeling, solubility, and storage life. However, because the USP labeling of dietary supplements is voluntary, many manufacturers use their own standards for manufacturing and quality control. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.06 Topic: Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 12.07 Evaluate the use of vitamin and mineral supplements with respect to their potential benefits and risks to health. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

88) List 3 symptoms noted in persons with vitamin A deficiency. Answer: Poor growth, night blindness, total blindness, dry skin, xerophthalmia, hyperkeratosis, impaired immune function Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes 89) List 3 functions of vitamin A. Answer: Vision in dim light and color vision, cell differentiation, bone growth, immunity, reproduction. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes 90) Why do some scientists suggest that the DRI and UL for vitamin D be increased? Answer: To support the diverse functions of vitamin D, some researchers estimate that the body requires approximately 3000 to 4000 IU (75–100 μg) of vitamin D daily to maintain optimal blood levels of 25–OH vitamin D3. However, typical inputs from UV exposure (2000 IU), food sources (150–200 IU), and dietary supplements (200 IU) often provide 2400 IU daily or less for the average individual. Thus, an oral intake of approximately 1000 to 4000 IU daily might be necessary to maintain optimal vitamin D status in people who have limited sun exposure. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 12.01 Topic: Dietary supplements; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.01 Define the term vitamin and list 3 characteristics of vitamins as a group. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 3-5 minutes

91) List 3 symptoms of vitamin A toxicity. Answer: Headache, vomiting, double vision, dry mucous membranes, bone and joint pain, liver damage, hemorrhage, coma, spontaneous abortions, birth defects; Upper Level is 3000 μg of preformed vitamin A. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes 92) Why should individuals on anticoagulation medication avoid excess vitamin E? Answer: Excessive intakes of vitamin A and vitamin E negatively affect the actions of vitamin K. Vitamin A is thought to interfere with the absorption of vitamin K from the small intestine, whereas large doses of vitamin E can lead to a decrease in vitamin K–dependent clotting factors and increased bleeding tendency. In either case, megadose supplements of these vitamins increase the risk of vitamin K deficiency and bleeding, as noted in earlier discussions of the Upper Levels of the vitamins. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.06 Describe the toxicity symptoms caused by excess consumption of certain fat-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 93) Why does vitamin K not have an established UL? Answer: To date, no Upper Level has been set for vitamin K. Although vitamin K can be stored in the liver and bone, storage is limited. Vitamin K also is more readily excreted than other fat-soluble vitamins. When used in its natural forms of phylloquinones or menaquinones, increased amounts of vitamin K have not caused harmful effects. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.05 Topic: Vitamins; Dietary Requirements Learning Objective: 12.06 Describe the toxicity symptoms caused by excess consumption of certain fat-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

94) What supplements might you recommend for a 23-year-old female vegan? Answer: Vegans may require calcium, iron, zinc, vitamin D, and vitamin B-12 supplements to prevent deficiencies. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 12.06 Topic: Dietary supplements; Plant-based diets Learning Objective: 12.07 Evaluate the use of vitamin and mineral supplements with respect to their potential benefits and risks to health. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 95) List three food sources rich in vitamin D. Answer: Vitamin D–fortified milk, fish oils, oily fish. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: Food sources; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.03 List 3 important food sources for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 96) What trace mineral aids in vitamin E function? Answer: By eliminating these peroxides, glutathione peroxidase helps vitamin E reduce oxidative damage to cells. The activity of glutathione peroxidase depends on the mineral selenium (the functional part of this enzyme). Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.04 Topic: Nutrient functions; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.04 List the major functions for each fat-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 3-5 minutes

97) A patient presents with excessive bruising. After finding out that the patient dislikes vegetables, especially green leafy vegetables, you start to consider a vitamin deficiency is the cause of bruising. Which of the following vitamins is the patient most likely deficient in? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin D C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin K Answer: D Explanation: Vitamin K is high in green leafy vegetables, and deficiency symptoms include hemorrhage due to poor blood clotting (a function of vitamin K). Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 12.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 98) A patient presents with severe fatigue. The patient appears pale and he complains of not being able to catch his breath when going up a flight of stairs. The patient also admits to being a smoker. Which of the following vitamin is the patient most likely deficient in? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin D C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin K Answer: C Explanation: Individuals at greatest risk of deficiency are those with fat malabsorption conditions, such as cystic fibrosis or Crohn disease, smokers, and preterm infants. Smokers are at increased risk of deficiency because the oxidative stress and lipid peroxidation caused by cigarette smoke increase vitamin E needs. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 12.04 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

99) A relative complains of not being able to see very well at night when driving. She has also had dry skin and several colds over the last year. Which of the following vitamins is your relative most likely deficient in? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin D C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin K Answer: A Explanation: Vitamin A deficiency results in many changes in the eye. When the retinol in the blood is insufficient to replace the retinal lost during the visual cycle, the rods in the retina regenerate rhodopsin more slowly. The resulting night blindness is a common early symptom of vitamin A deficiency. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 12.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Vitamins Learning Objective: 12.05 Describe the deficiency symptoms for each fat-soluble vitamin and state the conditions in which deficiencies are likely to occur. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 100) Of the following, who is most likely to benefit from a vitamin and mineral supplement? A) 26-year-old female who is a vegan and a smoker B) 53-year-old female who has gone through menopause and has been a life-long consumer of dairy C) 45-year-old male smoker who is otherwise healthy D) 10-year-old male with no known medical conditions Answer: A Explanation: Vegans and smoker are both population groups with potential higher risk of vitamin deficiencies. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 12.06 Topic: Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 12.07 Evaluate the use of vitamin and mineral supplements with respect to their potential benefits and risks to health. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute

101) When purchasing supplements, why should superfluous ingredients be avoided? A) They are always toxic. B) They always interfere with the absorption of vitamins and minerals. C) They are not needed, and they add expense to the supplement. D) We need superfluous ingredients and should look for supplements that provide these. Answer: C Explanation: Superfluous ingredients would not be proven to aid the body and would provide no benefit. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 12.06 Topic: Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 12.07 Evaluate the use of vitamin and mineral supplements with respect to their potential benefits and risks to health. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 13 Water-Soluble Vitamins 1) Most B-vitamins function as A) fat-soluble vitamins. B) coenzymes. C) antibodies. D) sources of energy. 2) In which of the following metabolic pathways are coenzymes required? A) glycolysis B) citric acid cycle C) beta-oxidation D) electron transport chain E) All of these answers are correct. 3) In general, excess amounts of water-soluble vitamins are excreted via the A) kidneys. B) intestine. C) lungs. D) skin. 4) Nutritionally, the difference between brown rice and white rice is A) the presence of bran and germ layers in the brown rice, which have most of the nutrients. B) negligible. There is a little more thiamin in white rice than brown rice. C) fiber content. White rice has more fiber. D) there is more thiamin and fiber in white rice. 5) The nutrients added to enriched grains typically include A) all of the B vitamins. B) vitamin C, pantothenic acid, folic acid, and zinc. C) thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, folic acid, and iron. D) vitamin B-6, folic acid, vitamin B-12, and iron. 6) The vitamin that prevents beriberi is A) vitamin B-12. B) riboflavin. C) niacin. D) thiamin. 7) Thiamin pyrophosphate (TPP), the coenzyme form of thiamin, is A) essential for the various oxidation-reduction reactions of the electron transport system. B) essential for the addition of two carbon fragments to fatty acids. C) essential for the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate. D) not really needed because our contemporary diets are low in carbohydrate. 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) Thiamin should typically be given to an alcoholic patient who has A) pellagra. B) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. C) pernicious anemia. D) scurvy. 9) A nutrient-dense source of thiamin is A) citrus fruits. B) milk and milk products. C) pork and pork products. D) leafy green vegetables. 10) The best food sources of thiamin in the average diet are A) pork products, whole or enriched grains and cereals, and legumes. B) root vegetables and cheddar-type cheese. C) whole grains and fresh fruit. D) ham and vegetables of the cabbage family. 11) A deficiency of thiamin that affects the cardiovascular, muscular, nervous, and gastrointestinal systems is called A) megaloblastic anemia. B) pellagra. C) scurvy. D) beriberi. 12) The coenzyme form of riboflavin is A) TPP. B) ATP. C) FAD. D) NAD. 13) Riboflavin coenzymes function in a variety of metabolic pathways, such as A) beta-oxidation of fatty acids. B) the citric acid cycle. C) the electron transport chain. D) All of these choices are accurate. 14) Which of the following foods represents the most nutrient-dense source of riboflavin? A) low-fat milk B) applesauce C) whole wheat bread D) green leafy vegetables

15) The B-vitamin most easily destroyed by exposure to light is A) biotin. B) niacin. C) riboflavin. D) thiamin. 16) A painful, red, inflamed tongue is called A) glossitis. B) cheilosis. C) stomatitis. D) anemia. 17) In the average U.S. diet, a quarter of the riboflavin comes from one food group, the A) fruit group. B) vegetable group. C) milk group. D) grains group. E) meat & beans group. 18) To protect riboflavin from destruction by sunlight, milk and milk products are packaged in A) clear glass bottles. B) paper and opaque plastic cartons. C) clear plastic bottles and cartons. D) any kind of container. 19) One specific cause of fatigue and anemia in adolescent girls with low dairy product intake is deficiency of . A) vitamin C B) calcium C) lactose D) riboflavin 20) The riboflavin coenzymes have A) antioxidant B) chelating C) oxidation and reduction D) single carbon group transfer

functions in cellular metabolism.

21) An excess intake of riboflavin either from diet or supplements is mainly A) excreted in the urine. B) excreted in bile and feces. C) stored in all body cells. D) stored in the liver.

22) Niacin can be obtained from foods as the vitamin itself (preformed niacin) or be synthesized in small amounts A) from the B vitamin riboflavin. B) from the essential amino acid tryptophan. C) by bacteria in the large intestine. D) All of the choices are correct. 23) A characteristic symptom of niacin deficiency is A) cracks at the corners of the mouth. B) a purple-red tongue. C) severe edema. D) inflammation of the skin after exposure to the sun. 24) The coenzyme forms of niacin include A) nicotinic acid and nicotinamide. B) FAD and FMN. C) NAD and NADP. D) ATP and FAD. 25) Niacin is necessary in the diet to prevent the disease called A) pernicious anemia. B) beriberi. C) scurvy. D) pellagra. 26) The fact that the amino acid tryptophan can be converted to niacin by the body explains why A) diets high in protein could prevent or cure pellagra. B) corn-based diets prevent pellagra. C) gelatin cures pellagra. D) alcoholics sometimes develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. 27) Bright yellow urine usually is indicative that someone is supplementing with A) niacin. B) vitamin A. C) vitamin K. D) riboflavin. 28) Flushing of the face and skin can result from pharmacological doses of A) vitamin B-6. B) thiamin. C) folate. D) niacin.

29) The nutrient sometimes prescribed by physicians to increase HDL-cholesterol and lower triglyceride levels is A) thiamin. B) folic acid. C) niacin. D) None of these choices are accurate. 30) Important contributors to niacin intake in the American diet are A) poultry, meat, and fish. B) citrus fruits, kiwi, and bananas. C) milk, cheese, and yogurt. D) spinach, kale, and broccoli. 31) Thiamin, niacin, and riboflavin work together in important biochemical pathways that A) synthesize collagen. B) control the visual process. C) promote absorption of calcium. D) release energy from carbohydrate, fat, and protein. 32) A diet that provides 75 g protein per day can contribute tryptophan. A) 25 B) 7.5 C) 12.5 D) <5

mg niacin from

33) The niacin coenzyme is reduced (NAD+ → NADH + H+) during A) glycolysis. B) the pyruvate decarboxylation reaction. C) the citric acid cycle. D) All of these choices are accurate. 34) Which of the foods listed below has the lowest niacin bioavailability? A) wheat B) corn C) almonds D) spinach 35) An essential component of coenzyme A is A) biotin. B) pantothenic acid. C) thiamin. D) vitamin C.

36) Which of the following B-vitamins is found in the widest variety of foods (i.e., different food groups such as vegetables, grains, meat)? A) vitamin C B) vitamin B-12 C) pantothenic acid D) All of these choices are accurate. 37) Biotin is needed for A) gluconeogenesis. B) glutathione reductase. C) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide. D) None of these answers are correct. 38) Biochemical reactions that add CO2 to compounds often require A) folic acid. B) thiamin. C) biotin. D) vitamin B-12. 39) The protein in raw egg whites that can bind biotin is called A) avidin. B) salmonella. C) casein. D) keratin. 40) A high intake of raw egg whites (>12 per day) can inhibit absorption of A) folate. B) vitamin B-12. C) pantothenic acid. D) biotin. 41) Those most likely to experience a biotin deficiency are A) adolescents with low energy and, thus, low biotin intake. B) alcoholics with impaired biotin absorption. C) infants lacking an enzyme required for biotin absorption. D) All of these choices are accurate. 42) Pyridoxal, pyridoxine, and pyridoxamine are three forms of A) vitamin B-12. B) vitamin P. C) folic acid. D) vitamin B-6.

43) Pyridoxal phosphate A) participates in reactions that synthesize dispensable amino acids. B) participates in reactions that synthesize indispensable amino acids. C) prevents premenstrual syndrome. D) is a natural oral contraceptive. 44) Neurotransmitter synthesis requires the vitamin B-6 coenzyme. Which of the following is classified as a neurotransmitter? A) norepinephrine B) gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) C) serotonin D) All of these choices are accurate. 45) The best food sources of vitamin B-6 are A) meats, fish, and poultry. B) milk and dairy products. C) carrots, celery, and squash. D) enriched breads and cereals. 46) Symptoms of vitamin B-6 deficiency include A) depression, confusion, and convulsions. B) microcytic anemia. C) dermatitis. D) All of these choices are accurate. 47) Irreversible nerve damage may be caused by excessive intake of A) vitamin B-12 B) vitamin B-6 C) tryptophan D) vitamin C

supplements.

48) In addition to its role in amino acid metabolism, vitamin B-6 is also required for A) fatty acid metabolism. B) the release of glucose from glycogen. C) the electron transport chain. D) glycolysis. 49) Research shows that supplemental vitamin B-6 is most likely to aid those experiencing A) nausea associated with pregnancy. B) pellagra. C) premenstrual syndrome. D) depression.

50) Red blood cells turn over every A) 20 minutes. B) 20 hours. C) 2 months. D) 120 days. 51) To calculate the DFE for the diet, multiply total synthetic folic acid intake by that value to the total food folate. A) 1.7 B) 2.5 C) 4.0 D) None of these choices are accurate.

; add

52) In a dietary deficiency of folate, there are decreasing numbers of mature red blood cells to carry the oxygen from the lungs to the tissues. This condition is known as A) achlorhydria. B) megaloblastic anemia. C) ariboflavinosis. D) hemorrhagic disease. 53) A biochemical function of THFA (tetrahydrofolate) is A) transfer of NH2 groups from amino acids to CO2 to form urea. B) transfer of hydrogens and electrons through the various energy-yielding pathways. C) removal of CO2 from various intermediates in the citric acid cycle. D) accepting or donating single-carbon molecules in various metabolic pathways. 54) A major role of folate in cellular metabolism is the A) synthesis of steroid hormones. B) conversion of polyunsaturated fatty acids to saturated fatty acids. C) formation of glucose from galactose and fructose. D) synthesis of purine and pyrimidine bases in RNA and DNA. 55) The cells most sensitive to a deficiency of dietary folate are cells that A) have a short life span and rapid turnover rate. B) have to last a lifetime. C) function in the immune system. D) are classified as phagocytes. 56) are very large immature red blood cells, which are formed as a result of folate deficiency. A) Erythrocytes B) Megaloblasts C) Lymphocytes D) Platelets 8 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

57) A defect in the formation of the neural tube during early fetal development can occur from a lack of A) biotin. B) folate. C) vitamin B-6. D) choline. 58) Folate in foods can be destroyed by A) food processing and preparation. B) ultraviolet light. C) oxidation. D) All of these choices are accurate. 59) Good sources of folate include A) enriched cereals and grains. B) leafy green vegetables. C) oranges. D) dried beans. E) All of these choices are accurate. 60) It is very difficult to consume excess folic acid from nonprescription vitamin supplements because A) folic acid is never included in over-the-counter nutrient supplements. B) the FDA limits the amount of folic acid in supplements to 400 micrograms per capsule. C) folic acid in pill form imparts an unpleasant taste so that no one would ever attempt to take extra amounts. D) absorption of the vitamin is age-related. As we get older we automatically adjust the amount we absorb to more than the maximum level. 61) Which group of individuals has the highest requirement for folate? A) infants B) adolescent males C) pregnant women D) the elderly 62) Which group of individuals is advised to consume 400 micrograms of folic acid daily from supplements and/or fortified foods? A) infants B) the elderly C) athletes D) women capable of becoming pregnant

63) Vitamin B-12 is supplied mostly in A) fruits and vegetables. B) cereal grains. C) foods of animal origin. D) None of these answers are correct. 64) Persons who smoke have a documented increased need for A) vitamin B-12. B) vitamin C. C) folate. D) biotin. 65) Intrinsic factor is produced by the A) beta-cells of the pancreas. B) salivary glands. C) parietal cells of the stomach. D) enterocytes of the small intestine. 66) Vitamin B-12 is absorbed in the A) stomach. B) duodenum. C) jejunum. D) ileum. 67) For vitamin B-12 to be absorbed, it must be attached to A) an incomplete protein. B) intrinsic factor. C) bile. D) the protein portion of its final coenzyme form. 68) The B-vitamin that can have significant stores in the liver is A) niacin. B) folate. C) biotin. D) vitamin B-12. 69) Individuals most likely to experience poor vitamin B-12 status are A) elderly adults, due to atrophic gastritis. B) infants, due to low vitamin B-12 content in breast milk. C) athletes, due to high vitamin B-12 requirements. D) pregnant women, due to high vitamin B-12 requirements.

70) Pernicious anemia is treated most often by A) a diet high in milk and dairy products. B) regular intramuscular injection of vitamin B-12. C) oral supplementation of iron. D) eating liver three times a week. 71) A major role of vitamin B-12 in cellular metabolism is A) transfer of a methyl group to the amino acid homocysteine, forming the amino acid methionine. B) transfer of a methyl group to the pyrimidine uracil, forming the pyrimidine thymine. C) in transamination reactions, allowing the synthesis of nonessential amino acids. D) as an electron acceptor, allowing function of the electron transport chain. 72) Megaloblastic anemia develops as a result of deficiencies of A) thiamin; riboflavin. B) vitamin B-6; folate. C) folate; vitamin B-12. D) vitamin K; folate. E) All of these choices are accurate.

and

73) Which of the following factors can interfere with the absorption of vitamin B-12? A) surgical removal of the stomach B) defective R-protein synthesis C) infections of the ileum or surgical removal of the ileum D) All of these choices are accurate. 74) A strict vegan diet may lack A) vitamin B-12. B) vitamin C. C) vitamin A. D) niacin. 75) Vitamin B-12 is found in which of the following foods? A) orange juice B) dark green leafy vegetables C) seed oils D) chicken 76) Supplements of the water-soluble vitamins toxicity symptoms. A) thiamin; riboflavin B) vitamin B-12; pantothenic acid C) vitamin B-6; vitamin C D) biotin; vitamin B-12

and

are most likely to cause

77) Formation and maintenance of collagen require A) thiamin. B) vitamin C. C) riboflavin. D) folate. 78) Ingestion of vitamin C during meals can modestly improve absorption of A) beta-carotene B) nonheme iron C) vitamin B-12 D) folate

79) The primary function of vitamin C in cellular metabolism is to A) synthesize collagen. B) add hydroxyl groups to the amino acid proline. C) act as nonspecific reducing agent (electron donor). D) maintain iron in its reduced form in the formation of collagen. 80) Which meal contains the highest amount of vitamin C? A) hamburger sandwich, french fries, and cola B) meat loaf, mashed potatoes and gravy, and diet cola C) baked fish with lemon, broccoli, cole slaw, and strawberries D) roast beef, carrots, noodles, and coffee 81) The first symptom of scurvy is A) iron-deficiency anemia. B) sudden hair loss. C) pinpoint hemorrhages around hair follicles. D) nerve degeneration. 82) Physiological changes associated with scurvy (hemorrhages, joint pain, fractures) are caused by A) defective collagen synthesis. B) inadequate production of the hormone thyroxine. C) failure to synthesize neurotransmitters. D) impaired function of the citric acid cycle. 83) Which group of foods (in their natural unfortified state) provides substantial amounts of vitamin C? A) citrus fruits and vegetables B) milk and dairy products C) beef, poultry, seafood D) breads and cereals

84) Factors such as heat, iron, copper, and oxygen A) enhance the stability of vitamin C in foods. B) destroy vitamin C in foods. C) have no effect on vitamin C. D) convert vitamin C from its inactive to active form. 85) The RDA for vitamin C is currently increased by A) 10 B) 60 C) 35 D) 1000 86) The amino acids and strong connective tissue. A) proline; lysine B) glutamic acid; alanine C) threonine; methionine D) methionine; homocysteine

mg/day for smokers.

are hydroxylated with the aid of vitamin C to form

87) At intakes of supplemental vitamin C greater than 2 g/day, adverse effects, including , may occur. A) blood in the urine and muscle weakness B) masking of a vitamin B-12 deficiency C) gastrointestinal bloating and diarrhea D) All of these choices are accurate. 88) Rich sources of choline are A) enriched cereals and grains. B) fats and oils. C) meats, eggs, and dairy products. D) fruits and vegetables. 89) Large doses of riboflavin are generally nontoxic. 90) Large doses of vitamin C in supplement form are known to prevent, cure, or diminish the symptoms of the common cold. 91) Supplemental vitamin B-6, vitamin B-12, and folic acid can reduce blood levels of homocysteine, but have not been definitively proven to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. 92) A good way to reduce risk of cardiovascular disease is to take supplements of vitamin B-6, vitamin B-12, folic acid, and vitamin C. 93) Although not classified as vitamins, ingestion of the substances taurine and carnitine is required for good health. 13 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Match the water-soluble vitamin with its deficiency disease or disorder. A) Folate B) Niacin C) Thiamin D) Vitamin C E) Vitamin B-12 94) Pellagra 95) Pernicious anemia 96) Neural tube defect 97) Scurvy 98) Beriberi

Match the water-soluble vitamin with its function in cellular metabolism. A) Folate B) Biotin C) Vitamin C D) Pantothenic acid E) Thiamin F) Riboflavin 99) Functions in the exchange of single carbon groups 100) Is a part of the molecule acetyl CoA 101) Removes carbon dioxide from compounds such as pyruvate 102) Participates in oxidation and reduction reactions in energy metabolism 103) Adds carbon dioxide to compounds such as pyruvate 104) Donates electrons to iron and copper metal ions

Match the water-soluble vitamin with its coenzyme form(s). A) FAD, FMN B) NAD, NADP C) TPP D) PLP E) CoA F) THFA 105) Folic Acid 106) Riboflavin 107) Thiamin 108) Pantothenic Acid 109) Vitamin B-6 110) Niacin

111) Describe the symptoms of thiamin deficiency. 112) Name the 4 Ds of pellagra. What causes pellagra? How is the consumption of corn related to pellagra? 113) Why are paper and opaque plastic containers used for milk, milk products, and cereals? 114) Describe why good folate status is especially important for young women. 115) Describe how vitamin C, iron, and copper interact to allow metalloenzyme function to proceed. 116) Discuss the roles of thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and pantothenic acid in energy metabolism. 117) Which of the following water-soluble vitamins can be a part of lecithin? A) thiamin B) niacin C) choline D) vitamin C

118) A patient presents with diarrhea. They have no signs and symptoms of a foodborne illness. What is the likely cause of the problem? A) too high intake of niacin B) too low intake of riboflavin C) too high intake of vitamin C D) too low intake of biotin 119) A relative has been told she has too high triglyceride levels and too low HDL levels. Which of the following may help reverse these values? A) pantothenic acid B) nicotinic acid C) vitamin B-12 D) vitamin C 120) A friend has been complaining of skin issues: redness, inflammation, and soreness. Which of the following would you NOT suspect is contributing to his condition? A) niacin deficiency B) biotin deficiency C) vitamin B-6 deficiency D) vitamin B-12 deficiency 121) You have a friend that smokes. Which of the following nutrients would you recommend that she gets more of? A) vitamin C B) pantothenic acid C) taurine D) thiamin

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 13 Water-Soluble Vitamins 1) Most B-vitamins function as A) fat-soluble vitamins. B) coenzymes. C) antibodies. D) sources of energy. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) In which of the following metabolic pathways are coenzymes required? A) glycolysis B) citric acid cycle C) beta-oxidation D) electron transport chain E) All of these answers are correct. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.01 Topic: Vitamins; Coenzymes and cofactors; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

3) In general, excess amounts of water-soluble vitamins are excreted via the A) kidneys. B) intestine. C) lungs. D) skin. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 13.01 Identify the water-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 4) Nutritionally, the difference between brown rice and white rice is A) the presence of bran and germ layers in the brown rice, which have most of the nutrients. B) negligible. There is a little more thiamin in white rice than brown rice. C) fiber content. White rice has more fiber. D) there is more thiamin and fiber in white rice. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.01 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) The nutrients added to enriched grains typically include A) all of the B vitamins. B) vitamin C, pantothenic acid, folic acid, and zinc. C) thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, folic acid, and iron. D) vitamin B-6, folic acid, vitamin B-12, and iron. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

6) The vitamin that prevents beriberi is A) vitamin B-12. B) riboflavin. C) niacin. D) thiamin. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 7) Thiamin pyrophosphate (TPP), the coenzyme form of thiamin, is A) essential for the various oxidation-reduction reactions of the electron transport system. B) essential for the addition of two carbon fragments to fatty acids. C) essential for the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate. D) not really needed because our contemporary diets are low in carbohydrate. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02 Topic: Vitamins; Coenzymes and cofactors; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) Thiamin should typically be given to an alcoholic patient who has A) pellagra. B) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. C) pernicious anemia. D) scurvy. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.02 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

9) A nutrient-dense source of thiamin is A) citrus fruits. B) milk and milk products. C) pork and pork products. D) leafy green vegetables. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.02 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 10) The best food sources of thiamin in the average diet are A) pork products, whole or enriched grains and cereals, and legumes. B) root vegetables and cheddar-type cheese. C) whole grains and fresh fruit. D) ham and vegetables of the cabbage family. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.02 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 11) A deficiency of thiamin that affects the cardiovascular, muscular, nervous, and gastrointestinal systems is called A) megaloblastic anemia. B) pellagra. C) scurvy. D) beriberi. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

12) The coenzyme form of riboflavin is A) TPP. B) ATP. C) FAD. D) NAD. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.03 Topic: Vitamins; Coenzymes and cofactors; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 13) Riboflavin coenzymes function in a variety of metabolic pathways, such as A) beta-oxidation of fatty acids. B) the citric acid cycle. C) the electron transport chain. D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.03 Topic: Vitamins; Coenzymes and cofactors; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 14) Which of the following foods represents the most nutrient-dense source of riboflavin? A) low-fat milk B) applesauce C) whole wheat bread D) green leafy vegetables Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.03 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

15) The B-vitamin most easily destroyed by exposure to light is A) biotin. B) niacin. C) riboflavin. D) thiamin. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.03 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 13.01 Identify the water-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 16) A painful, red, inflamed tongue is called A) glossitis. B) cheilosis. C) stomatitis. D) anemia. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.03 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 17) In the average U.S. diet, a quarter of the riboflavin comes from one food group, the A) fruit group. B) vegetable group. C) milk group. D) grains group. E) meat & beans group. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.03 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

18) To protect riboflavin from destruction by sunlight, milk and milk products are packaged in A) clear glass bottles. B) paper and opaque plastic cartons. C) clear plastic bottles and cartons. D) any kind of container. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.03 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 19) One specific cause of fatigue and anemia in adolescent girls with low dairy product intake is deficiency of . A) vitamin C B) calcium C) lactose D) riboflavin Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.03 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 20) The riboflavin coenzymes have A) antioxidant B) chelating C) oxidation and reduction D) single carbon group transfer

functions in cellular metabolism.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.03 Topic: Vitamins; Coenzymes and cofactors; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 7 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

21) An excess intake of riboflavin either from diet or supplements is mainly A) excreted in the urine. B) excreted in bile and feces. C) stored in all body cells. D) stored in the liver. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.03 Topic: Vitamins; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 13.03 Describe how each water-soluble vitamin is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 22) Niacin can be obtained from foods as the vitamin itself (preformed niacin) or be synthesized in small amounts A) from the B vitamin riboflavin. B) from the essential amino acid tryptophan. C) by bacteria in the large intestine. D) All of the choices are correct. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.04 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 23) A characteristic symptom of niacin deficiency is A) cracks at the corners of the mouth. B) a purple-red tongue. C) severe edema. D) inflammation of the skin after exposure to the sun. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

24) The coenzyme forms of niacin include A) nicotinic acid and nicotinamide. B) FAD and FMN. C) NAD and NADP. D) ATP and FAD. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.04 Topic: Vitamins; Coenzymes and cofactors Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 25) Niacin is necessary in the diet to prevent the disease called A) pernicious anemia. B) beriberi. C) scurvy. D) pellagra. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 26) The fact that the amino acid tryptophan can be converted to niacin by the body explains why A) diets high in protein could prevent or cure pellagra. B) corn-based diets prevent pellagra. C) gelatin cures pellagra. D) alcoholics sometimes develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. Answer: A Explanation: Pellagra is a deficiency of niacin, and the protein tryptophan can be converted into niacin. Therefore, sufficient tryptophan from a high-protein diet could provide the niacin to cure pellagra. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.04 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 9 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

27) Bright yellow urine usually is indicative that someone is supplementing with A) niacin. B) vitamin A. C) vitamin K. D) riboflavin. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.03 Topic: Vitamins; Supplements Learning Objective: 13.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain water-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 28) Flushing of the face and skin can result from pharmacological doses of A) vitamin B-6. B) thiamin. C) folate. D) niacin. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Vitamins; Supplements Learning Objective: 13.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain water-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 29) The nutrient sometimes prescribed by physicians to increase HDL-cholesterol and lower triglyceride levels is A) thiamin. B) folic acid. C) niacin. D) None of these choices are accurate. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.04 Topic: Vitamins; Cardiovascular Disease; Nutrient functions; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 10 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

30) Important contributors to niacin intake in the American diet are A) poultry, meat, and fish. B) citrus fruits, kiwi, and bananas. C) milk, cheese, and yogurt. D) spinach, kale, and broccoli. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 31) Thiamin, niacin, and riboflavin work together in important biochemical pathways that A) synthesize collagen. B) control the visual process. C) promote absorption of calcium. D) release energy from carbohydrate, fat, and protein. Answer: D Explanation: These B vitamins are coenzymes in energy production. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.01 Topic: Vitamins; Coenzymes and cofactors Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

32) A diet that provides 75 g protein per day can contribute A) 25 B) 7.5 C) 12.5 D) <5

mg niacin from tryptophan.

Answer: C Explanation: Protein is about 1% tryptophan, so 1 g of protein provides 10 mg of tryptophan. The overall contribution of dietary protein to niacin can be roughly estimated as shown in the following example of a diet containing 90 g of protein. 1 g protein yields 10 mg tryptophan 60 mg tryptophan yields 1 mg niacin 90 g protein × 10 mg tryptophan/g protein = 900 mg tryptophan 900 mg tryptophan = 60 mg tryptophan/mg niacin = 15 mg niacin A "shortcut" for this calculation is to divide protein intake (in grams) by 6. In the previous example, 90 g protein/6 yields 15 mg niacin. 75 g protein × 10 mg tryptophan/g protein = 750 mg tryptophan 750 mg tryptophan / 60 mg tryptophan/mg niacin = 12.5 mg niacin Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.04 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources; Proteins Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 33) The niacin coenzyme is reduced (NAD+ → NADH + H+) during A) glycolysis. B) the pyruvate decarboxylation reaction. C) the citric acid cycle. D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Vitamins; Coenzymes and cofactors Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

34) Which of the foods listed below has the lowest niacin bioavailability? A) wheat B) corn C) almonds D) spinach Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 35) An essential component of coenzyme A is A) biotin. B) pantothenic acid. C) thiamin. D) vitamin C. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.05 Topic: Vitamins; Coenzymes and cofactors Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 36) Which of the following B-vitamins is found in the widest variety of foods (i.e., different food groups such as vegetables, grains, meat)? A) vitamin C B) vitamin B-12 C) pantothenic acid D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.05 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

37) Biotin is needed for A) gluconeogenesis. B) glutathione reductase. C) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide. D) None of these answers are correct. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.06 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 38) Biochemical reactions that add CO2 to compounds often require A) folic acid. B) thiamin. C) biotin. D) vitamin B-12. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.06 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 39) The protein in raw egg whites that can bind biotin is called A) avidin. B) salmonella. C) casein. D) keratin. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

40) A high intake of raw egg whites (>12 per day) can inhibit absorption of A) folate. B) vitamin B-12. C) pantothenic acid. D) biotin. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.06 Topic: Vitamins; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 13.03 Describe how each water-soluble vitamin is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 41) Those most likely to experience a biotin deficiency are A) adolescents with low energy and, thus, low biotin intake. B) alcoholics with impaired biotin absorption. C) infants lacking an enzyme required for biotin absorption. D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.06 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 42) Pyridoxal, pyridoxine, and pyridoxamine are three forms of A) vitamin B-12. B) vitamin P. C) folic acid. D) vitamin B-6. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.07 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 13.01 Identify the water-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

43) Pyridoxal phosphate A) participates in reactions that synthesize dispensable amino acids. B) participates in reactions that synthesize indispensable amino acids. C) prevents premenstrual syndrome. D) is a natural oral contraceptive. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.07 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 44) Neurotransmitter synthesis requires the vitamin B-6 coenzyme. Which of the following is classified as a neurotransmitter? A) norepinephrine B) gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) C) serotonin D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.07 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 45) The best food sources of vitamin B-6 are A) meats, fish, and poultry. B) milk and dairy products. C) carrots, celery, and squash. D) enriched breads and cereals. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.07 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

46) Symptoms of vitamin B-6 deficiency include A) depression, confusion, and convulsions. B) microcytic anemia. C) dermatitis. D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.07 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 47) Irreversible nerve damage may be caused by excessive intake of A) vitamin B-12 B) vitamin B-6 C) tryptophan D) vitamin C

supplements.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.07 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 13.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain water-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 48) In addition to its role in amino acid metabolism, vitamin B-6 is also required for A) fatty acid metabolism. B) the release of glucose from glycogen. C) the electron transport chain. D) glycolysis. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.07 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

49) Research shows that supplemental vitamin B-6 is most likely to aid those experiencing A) nausea associated with pregnancy. B) pellagra. C) premenstrual syndrome. D) depression. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.07 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 50) Red blood cells turn over every A) 20 minutes. B) 20 hours. C) 2 months. D) 120 days. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 51) To calculate the DFE for the diet, multiply total synthetic folic acid intake by that value to the total food folate. A) 1.7 B) 2.5 C) 4.0 D) None of these choices are accurate.

; add

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

52) In a dietary deficiency of folate, there are decreasing numbers of mature red blood cells to carry the oxygen from the lungs to the tissues. This condition is known as A) achlorhydria. B) megaloblastic anemia. C) ariboflavinosis. D) hemorrhagic disease. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 53) A biochemical function of THFA (tetrahydrofolate) is A) transfer of NH2 groups from amino acids to CO2 to form urea. B) transfer of hydrogens and electrons through the various energy-yielding pathways. C) removal of CO2 from various intermediates in the citric acid cycle. D) accepting or donating single-carbon molecules in various metabolic pathways. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 54) A major role of folate in cellular metabolism is the A) synthesis of steroid hormones. B) conversion of polyunsaturated fatty acids to saturated fatty acids. C) formation of glucose from galactose and fructose. D) synthesis of purine and pyrimidine bases in RNA and DNA. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 19 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

55) The cells most sensitive to a deficiency of dietary folate are cells that A) have a short life span and rapid turnover rate. B) have to last a lifetime. C) function in the immune system. D) are classified as phagocytes. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 56) are very large immature red blood cells, which are formed as a result of folate deficiency. A) Erythrocytes B) Megaloblasts C) Lymphocytes D) Platelets Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

57) A defect in the formation of the neural tube during early fetal development can occur from a lack of A) biotin. B) folate. C) vitamin B-6. D) choline. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Birth defects; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 58) Folate in foods can be destroyed by A) food processing and preparation. B) ultraviolet light. C) oxidation. D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 59) Good sources of folate include A) enriched cereals and grains. B) leafy green vegetables. C) oranges. D) dried beans. E) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 21 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

60) It is very difficult to consume excess folic acid from nonprescription vitamin supplements because A) folic acid is never included in over-the-counter nutrient supplements. B) the FDA limits the amount of folic acid in supplements to 400 micrograms per capsule. C) folic acid in pill form imparts an unpleasant taste so that no one would ever attempt to take extra amounts. D) absorption of the vitamin is age-related. As we get older we automatically adjust the amount we absorb to more than the maximum level. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 13.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain water-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 61) Which group of individuals has the highest requirement for folate? A) infants B) adolescent males C) pregnant women D) the elderly Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

62) Which group of individuals is advised to consume 400 micrograms of folic acid daily from supplements and/or fortified foods? A) infants B) the elderly C) athletes D) women capable of becoming pregnant Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 63) Vitamin B-12 is supplied mostly in A) fruits and vegetables. B) cereal grains. C) foods of animal origin. D) None of these answers are correct. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.09 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 64) Persons who smoke have a documented increased need for A) vitamin B-12. B) vitamin C. C) folate. D) biotin. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

65) Intrinsic factor is produced by the A) beta-cells of the pancreas. B) salivary glands. C) parietal cells of the stomach. D) enterocytes of the small intestine. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.09 Topic: Vitamins; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 13.03 Describe how each water-soluble vitamin is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 66) Vitamin B-12 is absorbed in the A) stomach. B) duodenum. C) jejunum. D) ileum. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.09 Topic: Vitamins; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 13.03 Describe how each water-soluble vitamin is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 67) For vitamin B-12 to be absorbed, it must be attached to A) an incomplete protein. B) intrinsic factor. C) bile. D) the protein portion of its final coenzyme form. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.09 Topic: Vitamins; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 13.03 Describe how each water-soluble vitamin is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

68) The B-vitamin that can have significant stores in the liver is A) niacin. B) folate. C) biotin. D) vitamin B-12. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.09 Topic: Vitamins; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 13.03 Describe how each water-soluble vitamin is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 69) Individuals most likely to experience poor vitamin B-12 status are A) elderly adults, due to atrophic gastritis. B) infants, due to low vitamin B-12 content in breast milk. C) athletes, due to high vitamin B-12 requirements. D) pregnant women, due to high vitamin B-12 requirements. Answer: A Explanation: B-12 requires intrinsic factor to be absorbed, which is created in the stomach. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.09 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 70) Pernicious anemia is treated most often by A) a diet high in milk and dairy products. B) regular intramuscular injection of vitamin B-12. C) oral supplementation of iron. D) eating liver three times a week. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.09 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 25 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

71) A major role of vitamin B-12 in cellular metabolism is A) transfer of a methyl group to the amino acid homocysteine, forming the amino acid methionine. B) transfer of a methyl group to the pyrimidine uracil, forming the pyrimidine thymine. C) in transamination reactions, allowing the synthesis of nonessential amino acids. D) as an electron acceptor, allowing function of the electron transport chain. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.09 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 72) Megaloblastic anemia develops as a result of deficiencies of A) thiamin; riboflavin. B) vitamin B-6; folate. C) folate; vitamin B-12. D) vitamin K; folate. E) All of these choices are accurate.

and

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.08; 13.09 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

73) Which of the following factors can interfere with the absorption of vitamin B-12? A) surgical removal of the stomach B) defective R-protein synthesis C) infections of the ileum or surgical removal of the ileum D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Explanation: The stomach would prevent adequate intrinsic factor for B-12 absorption; In the stomach, the free vitamin B-12 binds to R-protein, which originates in the salivary glands. The ileum is the site of B-12 absorption. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.09 Topic: Vitamins; Digestion, absorption, and transport Learning Objective: 13.03 Describe how each water-soluble vitamin is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 74) A strict vegan diet may lack A) vitamin B-12. B) vitamin C. C) vitamin A. D) niacin. Answer: A Explanation: B-12 is found in animal products, and vegans do not consume animal products. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.09 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources; Plant-based diets Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 75) Vitamin B-12 is found in which of the following foods? A) orange juice B) dark green leafy vegetables C) seed oils D) chicken Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.09 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 27 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

76) Supplements of the water-soluble vitamins toxicity symptoms. A) thiamin; riboflavin B) vitamin B-12; pantothenic acid C) vitamin B-6; vitamin C D) biotin; vitamin B-12

and

are most likely to cause

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.07; 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain water-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 77) Formation and maintenance of collagen require A) thiamin. B) vitamin C. C) riboflavin. D) folate. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 78) Ingestion of vitamin C during meals can modestly improve absorption of A) beta-carotene B) nonheme iron C) vitamin B-12 D) folate

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 28 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

79) The primary function of vitamin C in cellular metabolism is to A) synthesize collagen. B) add hydroxyl groups to the amino acid proline. C) act as nonspecific reducing agent (electron donor). D) maintain iron in its reduced form in the formation of collagen. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 80) Which meal contains the highest amount of vitamin C? A) hamburger sandwich, french fries, and cola B) meat loaf, mashed potatoes and gravy, and diet cola C) baked fish with lemon, broccoli, cole slaw, and strawberries D) roast beef, carrots, noodles, and coffee Answer: C Explanation: This option has the most C-rich fruits and vegetables. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 81) The first symptom of scurvy is A) iron-deficiency anemia. B) sudden hair loss. C) pinpoint hemorrhages around hair follicles. D) nerve degeneration. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 29 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

82) Physiological changes associated with scurvy (hemorrhages, joint pain, fractures) are caused by A) defective collagen synthesis. B) inadequate production of the hormone thyroxine. C) failure to synthesize neurotransmitters. D) impaired function of the citric acid cycle. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 83) Which group of foods (in their natural unfortified state) provides substantial amounts of vitamin C? A) citrus fruits and vegetables B) milk and dairy products C) beef, poultry, seafood D) breads and cereals Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 84) Factors such as heat, iron, copper, and oxygen A) enhance the stability of vitamin C in foods. B) destroy vitamin C in foods. C) have no effect on vitamin C. D) convert vitamin C from its inactive to active form. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

85) The RDA for vitamin C is currently increased by A) 10 B) 60 C) 35 D) 1000

mg/day for smokers.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 13.01 Identify the water-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 86) The amino acids and strong connective tissue. A) proline; lysine B) glutamic acid; alanine C) threonine; methionine D) methionine; homocysteine

are hydroxylated with the aid of vitamin C to form

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 87) At intakes of supplemental vitamin C greater than 2 g/day, adverse effects, including , may occur. A) blood in the urine and muscle weakness B) masking of a vitamin B-12 deficiency C) gastrointestinal bloating and diarrhea D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain water-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 31 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

88) Rich sources of choline are A) enriched cereals and grains. B) fats and oils. C) meats, eggs, and dairy products. D) fruits and vegetables. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.10 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 89) Large doses of riboflavin are generally nontoxic. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.03 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain water-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 90) Large doses of vitamin C in supplement form are known to prevent, cure, or diminish the symptoms of the common cold. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Almost 40 studies suggest that any beneficial effect of vitamin C supplementation is very modest, perhaps reducing cold duration by 1 day per year in adults. For individuals exposed to extreme physical stress, such as marathon runners and cross-country skiers, vitamin C supplementation reduced the risk of contracting a cold after the physical stress. Despite its popularity, supplemental vitamin C cannot be recommended to prevent or treat common colds in most individuals. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

91) Supplemental vitamin B-6, vitamin B-12, and folic acid can reduce blood levels of homocysteine, but have not been definitively proven to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.07; 13.08; 13.09 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 92) A good way to reduce risk of cardiovascular disease is to take supplements of vitamin B-6, vitamin B-12, folic acid, and vitamin C. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Supplemental vitamin B-6, vitamin B-12, and folic acid can reduce blood levels of homocysteine, but have not been definitively proven to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.07; 13.08; 13.09; 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Cardiovascular Disease; Nutrient functions; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 93) Although not classified as vitamins, ingestion of the substances taurine and carnitine is required for good health. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Taurine and carnitine are not vitamins or REQUIRED for consumption for optimal health. The body can synthesize these. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.12 Topic: Vitamin-like compounds Learning Objective: 13.06 Distinguish between vitamins and nonvitamins, such as carnitine and taurine. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

Match the water-soluble vitamin with its deficiency disease or disorder. A) Vitamin C B) Thiamin C) Folate D) Niacin E) Vitamin B-12 94) Pellagra Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02; 13.04; 13.08; 13.09; 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 95) Pernicious anemia Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02; 13.04; 13.08; 13.09; 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 96) Neural tube defect Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02; 13.04; 13.08; 13.09; 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 97) Scurvy Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02; 13.04; 13.08; 13.09; 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

98) Beriberi Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02; 13.04; 13.08; 13.09; 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 94) D 95) E 96) C 97) A 98) B

Match the water-soluble vitamin with its function in cellular metabolism. A) Biotin B) Riboflavin C) Pantothenic acid D) Folate E) Vitamin C F) Thiamin 99) Functions in the exchange of single carbon groups Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02; 13.03; 13.06; 13.05; 13.08; 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 100) Is a part of the molecule acetyl CoA Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02; 13.03; 13.06; 13.05; 13.08; 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 101) Removes carbon dioxide from compounds such as pyruvate Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02; 13.03; 13.06; 13.05; 13.08; 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 102) Participates in oxidation and reduction reactions in energy metabolism Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02; 13.03; 13.06; 13.05; 13.08; 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 36 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

103) Adds carbon dioxide to compounds such as pyruvate Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02; 13.03; 13.06; 13.05; 13.08; 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 104) Donates electrons to iron and copper metal ions Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02; 13.03; 13.06; 13.05; 13.08; 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 99) D 100) C 101) F 102) B 103) A 104) E

Match the water-soluble vitamin with its coenzyme form(s). A) PLP B) CoA C) NAD, NADP D) TPP E) FAD, FMN F) THFA 105) Folic Acid Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01; 13.02; 13.03; 13.04; 13.05; 13.07; 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Coenzymes and cofactors Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 106) Riboflavin Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01; 13.02; 13.03; 13.04; 13.05; 13.07; 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Coenzymes and cofactors Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 107) Thiamin Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01; 13.02; 13.03; 13.04; 13.05; 13.07; 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Coenzymes and cofactors Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 108) Pantothenic Acid Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01; 13.02; 13.03; 13.04; 13.05; 13.07; 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Coenzymes and cofactors Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 38 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

109) Vitamin B-6 Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01; 13.02; 13.03; 13.04; 13.05; 13.07; 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Coenzymes and cofactors Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 110) Niacin Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01; 13.02; 13.03; 13.04; 13.05; 13.07; 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Coenzymes and cofactors Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 105) F 106) E 107) D 108) B 109) A 110) C 111) Describe the symptoms of thiamin deficiency. Answer: Beriberi: anorexia, weight loss, weakness, peripheral neuropathy; Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.02 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

112) Name the 4 Ds of pellagra. What causes pellagra? How is the consumption of corn related to pellagra? Answer: diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia (death) Pellagra is a deficiency of niacin. Corn is deficient in niacin, and therefore a non-fortified corn-based diet can lead to this deficiency. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.04 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes 113) Why are paper and opaque plastic containers used for milk, milk products, and cereals? Answer: Milk products are good sources of riboflavin. Plastic and cardboard containers protect the riboflavin from UV radiation, which causes riboflavin to break down. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.03 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 13.01 Identify the water-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 114) Describe why good folate status is especially important for young women. Answer: Adequate folate is necessary for DNA synthesis. For women of child-bearing age, pregnancy is a concern, as Pregnancy greatly increases the need for this vitamin (the RDA is 600 μg DFE/day) because of the increased rate of cell division, and thus of DNA synthesis, in the mother's body and that of her developing offspring. Prenatal care often includes prenatal multivitamin and mineral supplements fortified with folate to compensate for the extra needs associated with pregnancy. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.08 Topic: Vitamins; Birth defects; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

115) Describe how vitamin C, iron, and copper interact to allow metalloenzyme function to proceed. Answer: As an electron donor, vitamin C has a cofactor role for several metalloenzymes and has antioxidant defense functions. Metalloenzymes contain metals, such as iron, copper, or zinc (usually as an ion), as a part of their structures. When a metalloenzyme catalyzes a reaction, the metal ion becomes oxidized. For example, reduced iron (ferrous, Fe2+) is converted to its oxidized form (ferric, Fe3+) during enzymatic activity. Ascorbic acid, by donating an electron to the oxidized iron, keeps the iron in its reduced ferrous form. This, in turn, allows enzymatic action to continue. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 116) Discuss the roles of thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and pantothenic acid in energy metabolism. Answer: Thiamin acts as a coenzyme in carbohydrate metabolism and energy release. The riboflavin coenzymes are involved in many reactions in various metabolic pathways. They are critical for energy metabolism and are involved in the formation of other compounds, including other B-vitamins and antioxidants. Niacin acts as a coenzyme in numerous oxidation-reduction reactions in energy metabolism, synthesis, and breakdown of fatty acids. Pantothenic acid is part of acyl carrier protein (ACP), a compound used in many biosynthetic reactions, and coenzyme A (CoA), which is used throughout the body in energy metabolism. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.02; 13.03; 13.04; 13.05 Topic: Vitamins; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

117) Which of the following water-soluble vitamins can be a part of lecithin? A) thiamin B) niacin C) choline D) vitamin C Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.10 Topic: Vitamins; Food sources Learning Objective: 13.02 List important food sources for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 118) A patient presents with diarrhea. They have no signs and symptoms of a foodborne illness. What is the likely cause of the problem? A) too high intake of niacin B) too low intake of riboflavin C) too high intake of vitamin C D) too low intake of biotin Answer: C Explanation: Megadosing vitamin C has been shown to cause potential GI upset and diarrhea. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain water-soluble vitamins. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

119) A relative has been told she has too high triglyceride levels and too low HDL levels. Which of the following may help reverse these values? A) pantothenic acid B) nicotinic acid C) vitamin B-12 D) vitamin C Answer: A Explanation: High-dose niacin has been used for many years to increase HDL-cholesterol and lower LDL-cholesterol and triglyceride levels with the aim of reducing the risk of stroke and heart attack. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.04 Topic: Vitamins; Cardiovascular Disease; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 120) A friend has been complaining of skin issues: redness, inflammation, and soreness. Which of the following would you NOT suspect is contributing to his condition? A) niacin deficiency B) biotin deficiency C) vitamin B-6 deficiency D) vitamin B-12 deficiency Answer: D Explanation: Dermatitis can be a deficiency symptom for all B vitamins listed EXCEPT B-12. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.06; 13.04; 13.07 Topic: Vitamins; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

121) You have a friend that smokes. Which of the following nutrients would you recommend that she gets more of? A) vitamin C B) pantothenic acid C) taurine D) thiamin Answer: A Explanation: The DRI for vitamin C is increased for smokers specifically. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.11 Topic: Vitamins Learning Objective: 13.04 List the major functions of and deficiency symptoms for each water-soluble vitamin. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

lbs are

5) Which of the following fluids is classified as extracellular fluid? A) tears B) gastrointestinal fluid C) blood plasma D) lymph E) All of these choices are accurate. 6) Which compartment contains the greatest amount of body fluid? A) intracellular compartment B) extracellular compartment C) Both compartments contain the same amount of water. 7) About 73% of lean muscle tissue is A) protein. B) water. C) calcium. D) sodium. 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) The force that develops when two solutions, each with a different concentration of solutes, are separated by a semipermeable membrane is A) systolic pressure. B) diastolic pressure. C) osmotic pressure. D) atmospheric pressure. 9) The major cation in the intracellular fluid is extracellular fluid is . A) sodium; phosphate B) potassium; chloride C) sodium; chloride D) potassium; phosphate

, whereas the major anion in the

10) Minerals most involved in fluid balance are A) calcium and magnesium. B) copper and iron. C) calcium and phosphorus. D) sodium and potassium. 11) The sodium-potassium pump uses energy to move A) potassium ions out of the cell. B) sodium ions out of the cell. C) water out of the cell. D) water into the cell. 12) The body's temperature regulation mechanism depends on A) drinking enough water to remove heat by way of the urine. B) water within the body absorbing heat energy, and on the evaporation of perspiration removing heat energy. C) water being delivered to the lungs, where the heat energy will be exhaled as water vapor. D) excretion of body wastes. 13) Compared to dry environments, evaporation of sweat is resulting in body cooling. A) reduced; more B) reduced; less C) increased; more D) increased; less

in humid environments,

14) The consumption of a high-protein, high-sodium diet will tend to concentration of the urine. A) have no effect on B) increase C) decrease

ion

15) Urea is a major body waste from A) the catabolism of amino acids. B) the action of the sodium-potassium pump. C) intracellular fluid. D) the excretion of minerals by the kidney. 16) The AI recommendation for total water intake is A) 1 liter per kcal expended. B) 12.4 liters per day. C) 8 cups for adult males and 6 cups for adult females. D) 15 cups for adult males and 11 cups for adult females. 17) Extra water losses from heavy sweating or diarrhea will typically result in A) increased urine output. B) decreased urine output. C) no change in urine output. D) decreased water loss from the lungs. 18) Typical daily urine output in a healthy individual is within the range of A) 400 - 600 milliliters. B) 1 - 2 liters. C) 2 - 4 liters. D) 3 - 5 liters. E) 600 - 1000 milliliters. 19) Which of the following foods has the highest percent of total weight as water? A) lettuce B) bread C) cheese D) steak 20) Who should be concerned about dehydration? A) The child who is ill with fever or diarrhea B) The athlete participating in a vigorous sport C) The traveler on a long airplane flight D) The elderly man hospitalized for a broken hip E) All of these choices are accurate.

21) When blood osmolality increases, the kidney to increase water retention. A) antidiuretic hormone B) renin C) angiotensin II D) insulin

is released by the posterior pituitary and acts on

22) Consumption of inhibits the action of antidiuretic hormone, causing increased urinary output. A) one or two cups of coffee B) alcoholic beverages C) high-sodium foods D) high-sugar beverages 23) Renin, released from the kidney as a result of a decrease in blood pressure, acts on produced in the liver. This triggers a series of reactions that culminate in the production of in the adrenal glands. A) angiotensin II; renin B) aldosterone; angiotensin C) angiotensinogen; aldosterone D) antidiuretic hormone; osmosis 24) As dehydration progresses and blood volume decreases, blood pressure will heart rate will . A) increase; increase B) remain the same; decrease C) decrease; decrease D) decrease; increase

and

25) Drinking too much water can result in dilution of sodium in the blood, a condition known as . A) hypernatremia B) hyperkalemia C) hyponatremia D) ADH syndrome 26) Water intoxication is associated with A) headache and blurred vision. B) muscle cramps and convulsions. C) hyponatremia. D) All of these answers are correct.

27) ADH A) is a pituitary hormone that decreases water excretion. B) is minerals deposited into bone that give strength and rigidity. C) is an adrenal hormone that causes sodium reabsorption. D) is a protein-calcium complex that influences enzyme activity in cells. E) is an enzyme in kidneys formed in response to low blood pressure. 28) Aldosterone A) is a pituitary hormone that decreases water excretion. B) is minerals deposited into bone that give strength and rigidity. C) is an adrenal hormone that increases sodium reabsorption in the kidney. D) is a protein-calcium complex that influences enzyme activity in cells. E) is an enzyme in kidneys formed in response to low blood pressure. 29) Aldosterone increases A) potassium retention by the kidneys. B) water excretion by the kidneys. C) sodium retention by the kidneys. D) sodium absorption by the intestinal villi. 30) Renin A) is a pituitary hormone that decreases water excretion. B) is minerals deposited into bone that give strength and rigidity. C) is an adrenal hormone that causes sodium reabsorption. D) is a protein-calcium complex that influences enzyme activity in cells. E) is an enzyme in kidneys formed in response to low blood pressure. 31) When we obtain calcium from a dietary supplement, the absorption of magnesium and copper from food may be reduced because A) calcium interferes with the digestion of trace minerals. B) magnesium and copper both have the same valence as the calcium, so there is competition for absorption sites. C) excess calcium can destroy the villi of the intestinal tract. D) excess calcium means the magnesium and copper cannot be solubilized in water. 32) Phytic acid binds minerals so that they cannot be absorbed. Phytic acid is found mainly in A) leafy, green vegetables, such as spinach. B) milk and dairy products. C) cereal grain fibers. D) liver and other organ meats. 33) Oxalic acid binds minerals so they cannot be absorbed. Oxalic acid is found in A) some leafy, green vegetables, such as spinach. B) milk and dairy products. C) cereal grain fibers. D) liver and other organ meats. 5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

sodium.

39) One teaspoon of salt contains about A) 3400 mg B) 1000 mg C) 2300 mg D) 6000 mg

of sodium.

40) According to FDA labeling rules, the Daily Value for sodium is listed as A) 1500 mg per day. B) 4 grams per day. C) 2.4 grams per day. D) 200 mg per day.

41) Which of the following dairy products has the highest sodium content? A) American cheese, 2 oz B) cheddar cheese, 2 oz C) lowfat milk, 1 cup D) The sodium content does not differ among these 3 foods. 42) In a healthy person, sodium consumed in excess of body needs is predominantly A) stored in the liver. B) excreted by the kidneys. C) metabolized in cells. D) excreted in the feces. 43) A positively charged ion located in the intracellular fluid is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) phosphate. D) chloride. 44) Which of the following situations is/are life threatening? A) hypokalemia B) hyperkalemia C) hypokalemia and hyperkalemia D) neither hypokalemia nor hyperkalemia 45) A meal of dried apricots, whole grain cereals, legumes, and liver provides an abundance of A) potassium. B) fiber. C) beta carotene. D) vitamin A. E) All of these choices are accurate. 46) Which of the following groups would be most at risk for potassium deficiency? A) infants and young children B) pregnant women C) patients taking diuretics D) breastfeeding mothers 47) An ample intake of potassium-rich foods may help protect against A) hypertension. B) osteoporosis. C) gastric ulcers. D) diabetes.

48) Salt substitutes often contain A) sodium bicarbonate. B) potassium chloride. C) calcium carbonate. D) magnesium sulfate. 49) The body regulates its potassium content by A) absorbing more or less potassium from the gastrointestinal tract. B) excreting more or less potassium in the urine. C) storing more or less potassium in the liver. D) storing more or less potassium in the bone. 50) Chloride is A) the main anion in extracellular fluid. B) an intracellular fluid ion. C) a positively charged ion. D) converted to chlorine in the intestinal tract. 51) Most of our dietary chloride comes from A) fresh fruits. B) vegetables. C) meat. D) seed oils. E) table salt. 52) In the U.S., dietary intakes of the major minerals recommendations. A) sodium; phosphorus B) calcium; phosphorus C) sodium; potassium D) potassium; calcium

and

often fall short of

53) Joe Smith, age 52, has a blood pressure of 145 mm Hg over 95 mm Hg. This is considered A) normal blood pressure. B) low blood pressure. C) hypertension, or high blood pressure. D) None of these choices are accurate. 54) Which of the following blood pressures is considered prehypertension? A) 130 mm Hg over 85 mm Hg B) 118 mm Hg over 82 mg Hg C) 142 mm Hg over 95 mm Hg D) 145 mm Hg over 105 mm Hg

55) Factors that can contribute to an increased risk of high blood pressure include A) advanced age. B) African American race. C) BMI over 30. D) type 2 diabetes. E) All of these choices are accurate. 56) The organs that are most likely to be damaged because of hypertension are the A) liver, pancreas, gastrointestinal tract, and lungs. B) heart, brain, kidney, and eye. C) liver, heart, pancreas, and kidney. D) brain, eye, heart, lungs. 57) A diet that contains an average of 4,000 mg sodium and 1,500 mg potassium daily is likely to A) decrease the risk of hypertension. B) decrease the risk of stroke C) increase the risk of hypertension. D) have no effect on blood pressure. 58) A strategy that has been proven to prevent or reduce high blood pressure in women is to A) consume a daily calcium supplement of 1,000 mg. B) consume a multi-vitamin mineral supplement. C) eliminate all caffeine-containing beverages from the diet. D) limit alcohol consumption to no more than 1 drink per day. 59) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the DASH diet? A) It is rich in the minerals magnesium, potassium, and calcium. B) It is high in fiber. C) It contains 8-10 servings of fruits and vegetables per day. D) It is low in protein. 60) The mineral found in the body in the most abundance is A) phosphorus. B) iron. C) calcium. D) sodium. 61) The 250 mg of calcium found in a cup of spinach A) is the only source of calcium for a vegan. B) has low bioavailability because the calcium is bound to oxalic acid. C) is poorly absorbed unless the spinach is cooked. D) has low bioavailability because the calcium is bound to phytic acid.

62) Individuals advised to consume calcium supplements should consume A) about 2,000 mg in a single dose each day. B) only calcium citrate as other calcium salts are poorly absorbed. C) an amount of no more than 500 mg. D) the calcium supplement at the same time as other mineral supplements. 63) Absorption of dietary calcium in the duodenum is aided by A) consumption of lactose. B) acidic environment. C) 1, 25 (OH)2 vitamin D. D) All of these choices are accurate. 64) Which of the following population groups typically has the highest rate of calcium absorption? A) postmenopausal women B) pregnant women C) premenopausal women (not pregnant or lactating) D) athletes in training 65) Measuring blood calcium levels is not an accurate indicator of total body calcium because A) calcium in the blood reflects only the most recent dietary intake of calcium. B) there are no reliable tests for measuring blood calcium. C) blood calcium levels vary according to the intake of other positive ions (e.g., sodium, potassium, and magnesium). D) blood calcium levels are strictly controlled by hormones and do not reflect total body stores. 66) Which factor(s) limit(s) absorption of dietary calcium? A) phytic acid B) chronic diarrhea C) tannins in tea D) vitamin D deficiency E) All of these choices are accurate. 67) Parathyroid hormone elevates blood calcium levels by A) increasing the synthesis of 1,25 (OH)2 vitamin D. B) reducing calcium excretion by the kidneys. C) increasing bone resorption by osteoclast activity. D) All of the choices are accurate. 68) The most nutrient-dense food source of calcium with high bioavailability is A) leafy green vegetables. B) fish fillets. C) milk and dairy products. D) cereal grains. E) meats. 10 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

69) Which of the following foods provides the greatest amount of calcium per serving? A) 1 cup of yogurt B) 1 slice of American cheese C) 3 oz. canned salmon with bones D) 1 cup cooked spinach 70) Assuming that milk is an adolescent's only source of dietary calcium, how much milk must he/she drink every day to meet the RDA for calcium? A) 1-2 cups B) 2-3 cups C) 3-4 cups D) 4-5 cups 71) The two life stage groups with the highest RDAs for calcium are A) children; adolescents B) infants; children C) adolescents; adults over age 50 D) infants; adolescents

and

72) The very dense outer surface of bone is called A) osteoclastic bone. B) osteoblastic bone. C) trabecular bone. D) cortical bone. 73) At the end of long bones, inside the spinal vertebrae, and inside the flat bones of the pelvis is a spongy type of bone known as A) osteoclastic bone. B) osteoblastic bone. C) trabecular bone. D) compact bone. 74) replacement after menopause greatly reduces bone loss in women. A) Calcium B) Calcitriol C) Estrogen D) Calcitonin 75) In addition to its role in bone development and maintenance, calcium is also required for A) blood clotting, transmitting nerve impulses, and muscle contraction. B) regulating potassium excretion, normal kidney function, and regulating intracellular water content. C) phospholipid synthesis, muscle contraction, and formation of DNA and RNA. D) blood clotting, magnesium absorption, and insulin release from the pancreas. 11 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

76) The bones most likely to be affected by the disease osteoporosis include the A) ankle, shoulder, and neck. B) hip, thigh, and ankle. C) hip, wrist, and vertebrae in the spine. D) wrist, forearm, and neck. E) All of these are correct as all bones are affected equally by osteoporosis. 77) Risk factors for osteoporosis include A) overweight and obesity. B) amenorrhea. C) African American race. D) high levels of physical activity. 78) Phosphorus absorption is promoted by the hormone A) calcitonin. B) 1, 25 (OH)2 vitamin D. C) cholecalciferol. D) aldosterone. 79) The RDA for adults for phosphorus is A) the same as calcium. B) twice the amount of calcium. C) 700 mg/d. D) 200 mg/d. 80) Good food sources of phosphorus include A) fruits and vegetables. B) nuts and oils. C) dairy products, meats, and cereals. D) dairy products and leafy green vegetables. 81) The richest dietary sources of magnesium are A) animal products, e.g., beef and milk. B) plant products, e.g., green vegetables, beans, whole grains. C) fats and oils. D) bottled waters. 82) Magnesium deficiency is most often caused by A) excessive intakes of sodium and potassium. B) low dietary intake of magnesium. C) GI disorders that cause prolonged diarrhea or vomiting. D) osteopenia or osteoporosis.

83) Over half of the body's magnesium is found in the A) heart. B) liver. C) bones. D) brain. 84) High amounts of A) magnesium B) sodium C) calcium D) potassium

, especially from supplements, can cause diarrhea.

85) Most of our dietary sulfur is supplied by A) protein-rich foods. B) carbohydrates. C) vitamins. D) lipids. 86) Which of the following major minerals does NOT have a DRI? A) sulfur B) calcium C) phosphorus D) magnesium 87) Thirst is a reliable signal to prevent dehydration in older adults. 88) A person cannot drink too much water; the kidneys and sweat glands make water excretion quick and efficient, protecting the body from overhydration. 89) The more dense a bone is, the more brittle it will be. 90) Too much dietary sodium, rather than too little dietary sodium, is a major nutritional problem today. 91) Bone health is easily determined by a measurement of blood calcium level. 92) An individual who consumes one cup of coffee in the morning should drink an additional 2 cups of fluid to compensate for caffeine-induced fluid loss. 93) Plant foods are good sources of the minerals potassium and magnesium. 94) The main cause of high blood potassium and potassium toxicity is kidney failure.

Match the term with its description. A) High blood potassium B) Enzyme formed in the kidneys in response to low blood pressure C) Hormone secreted by the pituitary gland that signals the kidneys to decrease water excretion D) Low blood sodium E) Hormone secreted by the adrenal glands that acts on the kidneys to increase sodium retention 95) Aldosterone 96) Hyponatremia 97) ADH 98) Renin 99) Hyperkalemia

Match the term with its description. A) A compound composed of calcium and phosphate that is deposited into the bone protein matrix to give it strength and rigidity B) Biochemically active bone cells that are the most numerous and that increase in number when bone becomes more dense C) The bone-building cells that produce collagen and add minerals D) The outer dense shell of bone that makes up most skeletal mass E) The surface bone cells that dissolve bone, releasing calcium and phosphorus to the bloodstream

100) Osteoclast 101) Osteocyte 102) Osteoblast 103) Hydroxyapatite 104) Cortical bone

105) List at least five symptoms of dehydration. 106) Describe 3 ways you can reduce your sodium intake when eating out. 107) List and briefly describe five risk factors leading to osteoporosis. 108) List 6 foods to limit and 6 foods to encourage on a low-sodium diet. 109) Compare and contrast the characteristics of a high-sodium diet to that of a high-potassium diet. 110) Describe two of the physiologic processes that contribute to primary hypertension. 111) Describe several actions an individual can take to prevent hypertension. 112) Describe the nutritional characteristics of the DASH diet. Which food groups are emphasized? 113) Explain how the kidneys maintain fluid balance. 114) If deficient, which of the following minerals would have the least affect on bone health? A) phosphorus B) calcium C) magnesium D) chloride 115) If deficient, which of the following minerals would have the least effect on blood pressure? A) potassium B) sodium C) calcium D) magnesium 116) A friend is complaining of constipation. In addition to lifestyles changes, which mineral could help relieve your friend's constipation? A) sodium B) magnesium C) sulfur D) chloride 117) What will be the effect of an increase of parathyroid hormone? A) Osteoblast activity increases, resulting in an increase in blood calcium. B) Osteoclast activity increases, resulting in an increase in blood calcium. C) Osteoblast activity increases, resulting in a decrease in blood calcium. D) Osteoclast activity increases, resulting in a decrease in blood calcium.

118) What will be the effect of an increase of calcitonin? A) Osteoblast activity will increase, resulting in an increase in blood calcium. B) Osteoclast activity will increase, resulting in an increase in blood calcium. C) Osteoblast activity will increase, resulting in a decrease in blood calcium. D) Osteoclast activity will increase, resulting in a decrease in blood calcium.

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 14 Water and Major Minerals 1) Which of the following about water is NOT true? A) Each water molecule forms a maximum of 2 hydrogen bonds. B) Water is incompressible, so it functions well as a lubricant. C) Water is formed in the body when protein, carbohydrate, and fat are oxidized. D) Water in the body helps resist body temperature change. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Nutrient functions; Water Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) The human body has more of this substance (by weight) than any other substance. A) protein B) glycogen C) fat D) water Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 3) When a semipermeable membrane separates two bodies of fluid, A) water can pass through the membrane. B) dissolved particles can pass through the membrane. C) water cannot pass through the membrane. D) None of these choices are accurate. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

4) In an adult of normal body composition weighing 165 lb, approximately water. A) 91 B) 55 C) 37 D) 16

lbs are

Answer: A Explanation: 165 × 0.55 = 91 (because a normal adult body is 55% water) Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) Which of the following fluids is classified as extracellular fluid? A) tears B) gastrointestinal fluid C) blood plasma D) lymph E) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

6) Which compartment contains the greatest amount of body fluid? A) intracellular compartment B) extracellular compartment C) Both compartments contain the same amount of water. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 7) About 73% of lean muscle tissue is A) protein. B) water. C) calcium. D) sodium. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) The force that develops when two solutions, each with a different concentration of solutes, are separated by a semipermeable membrane is A) systolic pressure. B) diastolic pressure. C) osmotic pressure. D) atmospheric pressure. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

9) The major cation in the intracellular fluid is extracellular fluid is . A) sodium; phosphate B) potassium; chloride C) sodium; chloride D) potassium; phosphate

, whereas the major anion in the

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01 Topic: Minerals; Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 10) Minerals most involved in fluid balance are A) calcium and magnesium. B) copper and iron. C) calcium and phosphorus. D) sodium and potassium. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01 Topic: Minerals; Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 11) The sodium-potassium pump uses energy to move A) potassium ions out of the cell. B) sodium ions out of the cell. C) water out of the cell. D) water into the cell. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01 Topic: Minerals; Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 4 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

12) The body's temperature regulation mechanism depends on A) drinking enough water to remove heat by way of the urine. B) water within the body absorbing heat energy, and on the evaporation of perspiration removing heat energy. C) water being delivered to the lungs, where the heat energy will be exhaled as water vapor. D) excretion of body wastes. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Nutrient functions; Water Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 13) Compared to dry environments, evaporation of sweat is resulting in body cooling. A) reduced; more B) reduced; less C) increased; more D) increased; less

in humid environments,

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.02 Discuss how both dehydration and water intoxication develop and how to prevent them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 14) The consumption of a high-protein, high-sodium diet will tend to concentration of the urine. A) have no effect on B) increase C) decrease

ion

Answer: B Explanation: Excess sodium is excreted in the urine. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.01 Topic: Nutrient functions; Water Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

15) Urea is a major body waste from A) the catabolism of amino acids. B) the action of the sodium-potassium pump. C) intracellular fluid. D) the excretion of minerals by the kidney. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01 Topic: Nutrient functions; Water; Protein Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 16) The AI recommendation for total water intake is A) 1 liter per kcal expended. B) 12.4 liters per day. C) 8 cups for adult males and 6 cups for adult females. D) 15 cups for adult males and 11 cups for adult females. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01 Topic: Water; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 14.02 Discuss how both dehydration and water intoxication develop and how to prevent them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 17) Extra water losses from heavy sweating or diarrhea will typically result in A) increased urine output. B) decreased urine output. C) no change in urine output. D) decreased water loss from the lungs. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.02 Discuss how both dehydration and water intoxication develop and how to prevent them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

18) Typical daily urine output in a healthy individual is within the range of A) 400 - 600 milliliters. B) 1 - 2 liters. C) 2 - 4 liters. D) 3 - 5 liters. E) 600 - 1000 milliliters. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 19) Which of the following foods has the highest percent of total weight as water? A) lettuce B) bread C) cheese D) steak Answer: A Explanation: Fruits and vegetables tend to have a higher percentage of water, as compared to grains and meat, and fats. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.01 Topic: Food sources; Water Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

20) Who should be concerned about dehydration? A) The child who is ill with fever or diarrhea B) The athlete participating in a vigorous sport C) The traveler on a long airplane flight D) The elderly man hospitalized for a broken hip E) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.02 Discuss how both dehydration and water intoxication develop and how to prevent them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 21) When blood osmolality increases, the kidney to increase water retention. A) antidiuretic hormone B) renin C) angiotensin II D) insulin

is released by the posterior pituitary and acts on

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

22) Consumption of inhibits the action of antidiuretic hormone, causing increased urinary output. A) one or two cups of coffee B) alcoholic beverages C) high-sodium foods D) high-sugar beverages Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Water; Alcohol Learning Objective: 14.02 Discuss how both dehydration and water intoxication develop and how to prevent them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 23) Renin, released from the kidney as a result of a decrease in blood pressure, acts on produced in the liver. This triggers a series of reactions that culminate in the production of in the adrenal glands. A) angiotensin II; renin B) aldosterone; angiotensin C) angiotensinogen; aldosterone D) antidiuretic hormone; osmosis Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

24) As dehydration progresses and blood volume decreases, blood pressure will heart rate will . A) increase; increase B) remain the same; decrease C) decrease; decrease D) decrease; increase

and

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.02 Discuss how both dehydration and water intoxication develop and how to prevent them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 25) Drinking too much water can result in dilution of sodium in the blood, a condition known as . A) hypernatremia B) hyperkalemia C) hyponatremia D) ADH syndrome Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Water Learning Objective: 14.02 Discuss how both dehydration and water intoxication develop and how to prevent them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 26) Water intoxication is associated with A) headache and blurred vision. B) muscle cramps and convulsions. C) hyponatremia. D) All of these answers are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Water Learning Objective: 14.02 Discuss how both dehydration and water intoxication develop and how to prevent them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 10 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

29) Aldosterone increases A) potassium retention by the kidneys. B) water excretion by the kidneys. C) sodium retention by the kidneys. D) sodium absorption by the intestinal villi. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 30) Renin A) is a pituitary hormone that decreases water excretion. B) is minerals deposited into bone that give strength and rigidity. C) is an adrenal hormone that causes sodium reabsorption. D) is a protein-calcium complex that influences enzyme activity in cells. E) is an enzyme in kidneys formed in response to low blood pressure. Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

31) When we obtain calcium from a dietary supplement, the absorption of magnesium and copper from food may be reduced because A) calcium interferes with the digestion of trace minerals. B) magnesium and copper both have the same valence as the calcium, so there is competition for absorption sites. C) excess calcium can destroy the villi of the intestinal tract. D) excess calcium means the magnesium and copper cannot be solubilized in water. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.02 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 32) Phytic acid binds minerals so that they cannot be absorbed. Phytic acid is found mainly in A) leafy, green vegetables, such as spinach. B) milk and dairy products. C) cereal grain fibers. D) liver and other organ meats. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.02 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 33) Oxalic acid binds minerals so they cannot be absorbed. Oxalic acid is found in A) some leafy, green vegetables, such as spinach. B) milk and dairy products. C) cereal grain fibers. D) liver and other organ meats. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

34) Which of the following individuals is least likely to benefit from a diet containing less than 1500 mg sodium per day? A) A 65-year-old Hispanic male in good health B) A 35-year-old African American female C) A 40-year-old white male with diabetes and chronic kidney disease D) A healthy Asian female college student Answer: D Explanation: A lower sodium diet is generally recommended for: individuals over 50, African Americans, and those with chronic disease and/or high risk factors. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.03 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 35) Sodium A) acts as the principal positively charged ion in the intracellular fluid. B) transmits electrical impulses through nerve cells. C) promotes glycolysis. D) releases energy from ATP. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 36) Most sodium consumed is from A) table salt added at home. B) naturally occurring sodium in foods. C) tap water and medications. D) processed foods and those purchased at restaurants. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 14 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

37) Some North Americans are called "sodium sensitive." For these people, high sodium intake contributes to A) stomach cancer. B) hypertension. C) gastrointestinal upsets. D) serious fluid imbalances. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 38) Table salt is A) 20% B) 30% C) 40% D) 60%

sodium.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 39) One teaspoon of salt contains about A) 3400 mg B) 1000 mg C) 2300 mg D) 6000 mg

of sodium.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

40) According to FDA labeling rules, the Daily Value for sodium is listed as A) 1500 mg per day. B) 4 grams per day. C) 2.4 grams per day. D) 200 mg per day. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Minerals; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 41) Which of the following dairy products has the highest sodium content? A) American cheese, 2 oz B) cheddar cheese, 2 oz C) lowfat milk, 1 cup D) The sodium content does not differ among these 3 foods. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 42) In a healthy person, sodium consumed in excess of body needs is predominantly A) stored in the liver. B) excreted by the kidneys. C) metabolized in cells. D) excreted in the feces. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

43) A positively charged ion located in the intracellular fluid is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) phosphate. D) chloride. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.04 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 44) Which of the following situations is/are life threatening? A) hypokalemia B) hyperkalemia C) hypokalemia and hyperkalemia D) neither hypokalemia nor hyperkalemia Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 45) A meal of dried apricots, whole grain cereals, legumes, and liver provides an abundance of A) potassium. B) fiber. C) beta carotene. D) vitamin A. E) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

46) Which of the following groups would be most at risk for potassium deficiency? A) infants and young children B) pregnant women C) patients taking diuretics D) breastfeeding mothers Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 47) An ample intake of potassium-rich foods may help protect against A) hypertension. B) osteoporosis. C) gastric ulcers. D) diabetes. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 48) Salt substitutes often contain A) sodium bicarbonate. B) potassium chloride. C) calcium carbonate. D) magnesium sulfate. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.04 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

49) The body regulates its potassium content by A) absorbing more or less potassium from the gastrointestinal tract. B) excreting more or less potassium in the urine. C) storing more or less potassium in the liver. D) storing more or less potassium in the bone. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 50) Chloride is A) the main anion in extracellular fluid. B) an intracellular fluid ion. C) a positively charged ion. D) converted to chlorine in the intestinal tract. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.05 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 51) Most of our dietary chloride comes from A) fresh fruits. B) vegetables. C) meat. D) seed oils. E) table salt. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.05 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

52) In the U.S., dietary intakes of the major minerals recommendations. A) sodium; phosphorus B) calcium; phosphorus C) sodium; potassium D) potassium; calcium

and

often fall short of

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.04; 14.06 Topic: Minerals; Demographic trends and stats Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 53) Joe Smith, age 52, has a blood pressure of 145 mm Hg over 95 mm Hg. This is considered A) normal blood pressure. B) low blood pressure. C) hypertension, or high blood pressure. D) None of these choices are accurate. Answer: C Explanation: Hypertension is defined as BP over 140/90. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.05 Topic: Cardiovascular disease Learning Objective: 14.06 Explain the role of nutrition in the prevention and treatment of hypertension. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 54) Which of the following blood pressures is considered prehypertension? A) 130 mm Hg over 85 mm Hg B) 118 mm Hg over 82 mg Hg C) 142 mm Hg over 95 mm Hg D) 145 mm Hg over 105 mm Hg Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.05 Topic: Cardiovascular disease Learning Objective: 14.06 Explain the role of nutrition in the prevention and treatment of hypertension. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 20 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

55) Factors that can contribute to an increased risk of high blood pressure include A) advanced age. B) African American race. C) BMI over 30. D) type 2 diabetes. E) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.05 Topic: Cardiovascular disease Learning Objective: 14.06 Explain the role of nutrition in the prevention and treatment of hypertension. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 56) The organs that are most likely to be damaged because of hypertension are the A) liver, pancreas, gastrointestinal tract, and lungs. B) heart, brain, kidney, and eye. C) liver, heart, pancreas, and kidney. D) brain, eye, heart, lungs. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.05 Topic: Cardiovascular disease Learning Objective: 14.06 Explain the role of nutrition in the prevention and treatment of hypertension. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

57) A diet that contains an average of 4,000 mg sodium and 1,500 mg potassium daily is likely to A) decrease the risk of hypertension. B) decrease the risk of stroke C) increase the risk of hypertension. D) have no effect on blood pressure. Answer: C Explanation: High sodium intake and low potassium intake can all potentially increase BP and risk of hypertension. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals; Cardiovascular disease Learning Objective: 14.06 Explain the role of nutrition in the prevention and treatment of hypertension. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 58) A strategy that has been proven to prevent or reduce high blood pressure in women is to A) consume a daily calcium supplement of 1,000 mg. B) consume a multi-vitamin mineral supplement. C) eliminate all caffeine-containing beverages from the diet. D) limit alcohol consumption to no more than 1 drink per day. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.05 Topic: Cardiovascular disease; Alcohol Learning Objective: 14.06 Explain the role of nutrition in the prevention and treatment of hypertension. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 59) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the DASH diet? A) It is rich in the minerals magnesium, potassium, and calcium. B) It is high in fiber. C) It contains 8-10 servings of fruits and vegetables per day. D) It is low in protein. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.05 Topic: Minerals; Cardiovascular disease Learning Objective: 14.06 Explain the role of nutrition in the prevention and treatment of hypertension. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 22 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

60) The mineral found in the body in the most abundance is A) phosphorus. B) iron. C) calcium. D) sodium. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.06 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 61) The 250 mg of calcium found in a cup of spinach A) is the only source of calcium for a vegan. B) has low bioavailability because the calcium is bound to oxalic acid. C) is poorly absorbed unless the spinach is cooked. D) has low bioavailability because the calcium is bound to phytic acid. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.06 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 62) Individuals advised to consume calcium supplements should consume A) about 2,000 mg in a single dose each day. B) only calcium citrate as other calcium salts are poorly absorbed. C) an amount of no more than 500 mg. D) the calcium supplement at the same time as other mineral supplements. Answer: C Explanation: The body cannot absorb more than about 500 mg of calcium at once. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.06 Topic: Food sources; Minerals; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

63) Absorption of dietary calcium in the duodenum is aided by A) consumption of lactose. B) acidic environment. C) 1, 25 (OH)2 vitamin D. D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.06 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 64) Which of the following population groups typically has the highest rate of calcium absorption? A) postmenopausal women B) pregnant women C) premenopausal women (not pregnant or lactating) D) athletes in training Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.06 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.07 Estimate and evaluate the adequacy of dietary calcium intake. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 65) Measuring blood calcium levels is not an accurate indicator of total body calcium because A) calcium in the blood reflects only the most recent dietary intake of calcium. B) there are no reliable tests for measuring blood calcium. C) blood calcium levels vary according to the intake of other positive ions (e.g., sodium, potassium, and magnesium). D) blood calcium levels are strictly controlled by hormones and do not reflect total body stores. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.06 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 14.07 Estimate and evaluate the adequacy of dietary calcium intake. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

66) Which factor(s) limit(s) absorption of dietary calcium? A) phytic acid B) chronic diarrhea C) tannins in tea D) vitamin D deficiency E) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.02; 14.06 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.07 Estimate and evaluate the adequacy of dietary calcium intake. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 67) Parathyroid hormone elevates blood calcium levels by A) increasing the synthesis of 1,25 (OH)2 vitamin D. B) reducing calcium excretion by the kidneys. C) increasing bone resorption by osteoclast activity. D) All of the choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.06 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 14.07 Estimate and evaluate the adequacy of dietary calcium intake. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 68) The most nutrient-dense food source of calcium with high bioavailability is A) leafy green vegetables. B) fish fillets. C) milk and dairy products. D) cereal grains. E) meats. Answer: C Explanation: Dairy contains high amounts of calcium and no binders, and therefore is highly bioavailable. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.06 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 25 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

69) Which of the following foods provides the greatest amount of calcium per serving? A) 1 cup of yogurt B) 1 slice of American cheese C) 3 oz. canned salmon with bones D) 1 cup cooked spinach Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.06 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 70) Assuming that milk is an adolescent's only source of dietary calcium, how much milk must he/she drink every day to meet the RDA for calcium? A) 1-2 cups B) 2-3 cups C) 3-4 cups D) 4-5 cups Answer: D Explanation: If the RDA for adolescents is 1300 mg, and a cup of milk contains approximately 300 mg of calcium, an individual would need approximately 4 to 5 cups to meet the RDA for calcium. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.06 Topic: Food sources; Minerals; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals.; 14.07 Estimate and evaluate the adequacy of dietary calcium intake. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 71) The two life stage groups with the highest RDAs for calcium are A) children; adolescents B) infants; children C) adolescents; adults over age 50 D) infants; adolescents

and

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.06 Topic: Minerals; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 14.07 Estimate and evaluate the adequacy of dietary calcium intake. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 26 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

72) The very dense outer surface of bone is called A) osteoclastic bone. B) osteoblastic bone. C) trabecular bone. D) cortical bone. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.06 Topic: Bone and joint health Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 73) At the end of long bones, inside the spinal vertebrae, and inside the flat bones of the pelvis is a spongy type of bone known as A) osteoclastic bone. B) osteoblastic bone. C) trabecular bone. D) compact bone. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.06 Topic: Bone and joint health Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 74) replacement after menopause greatly reduces bone loss in women. A) Calcium B) Calcitriol C) Estrogen D) Calcitonin Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.06 Topic: Bone and joint health Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 27 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

75) In addition to its role in bone development and maintenance, calcium is also required for A) blood clotting, transmitting nerve impulses, and muscle contraction. B) regulating potassium excretion, normal kidney function, and regulating intracellular water content. C) phospholipid synthesis, muscle contraction, and formation of DNA and RNA. D) blood clotting, magnesium absorption, and insulin release from the pancreas. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.04; 14.06 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 76) The bones most likely to be affected by the disease osteoporosis include the A) ankle, shoulder, and neck. B) hip, thigh, and ankle. C) hip, wrist, and vertebrae in the spine. D) wrist, forearm, and neck. E) All of these are correct as all bones are affected equally by osteoporosis. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.06 Topic: Bone and joint health Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 77) Risk factors for osteoporosis include A) overweight and obesity. B) amenorrhea. C) African American race. D) high levels of physical activity. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.06 Topic: Bone and joint health Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 28 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

78) Phosphorus absorption is promoted by the hormone A) calcitonin. B) 1, 25 (OH)2 vitamin D. C) cholecalciferol. D) aldosterone. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.07 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 79) The RDA for adults for phosphorus is A) the same as calcium. B) twice the amount of calcium. C) 700 mg/d. D) 200 mg/d. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.07 Topic: Minerals; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 80) Good food sources of phosphorus include A) fruits and vegetables. B) nuts and oils. C) dairy products, meats, and cereals. D) dairy products and leafy green vegetables. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.07 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

81) The richest dietary sources of magnesium are A) animal products, e.g., beef and milk. B) plant products, e.g., green vegetables, beans, whole grains. C) fats and oils. D) bottled waters. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.08 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 82) Magnesium deficiency is most often caused by A) excessive intakes of sodium and potassium. B) low dietary intake of magnesium. C) GI disorders that cause prolonged diarrhea or vomiting. D) osteopenia or osteoporosis. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.08 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 83) Over half of the body's magnesium is found in the A) heart. B) liver. C) bones. D) brain. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.08 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

84) High amounts of A) magnesium B) sodium C) calcium D) potassium

, especially from supplements, can cause diarrhea.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.08 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 85) Most of our dietary sulfur is supplied by A) protein-rich foods. B) carbohydrates. C) vitamins. D) lipids. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.09 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 86) Which of the following major minerals does NOT have a DRI? A) sulfur B) calcium C) phosphorus D) magnesium Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.09 Topic: Minerals; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

87) Thirst is a reliable signal to prevent dehydration in older adults. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Thirst is not a reliable indicator of thirst in older individuals. Thirst sensation reduces as an individual ages. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.02 Discuss how both dehydration and water intoxication develop and how to prevent them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 88) A person cannot drink too much water; the kidneys and sweat glands make water excretion quick and efficient, protecting the body from overhydration. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Drinking too much water too rapidly can be as dangerous as drinking too little. In rare instances, it can cause a condition called water intoxication. Water intoxication develops when the kidneys cannot remove water fast enough to keep pace with water intake. As a result, water accumulates in the blood and dilutes the sodium in the serum. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.02 Discuss how both dehydration and water intoxication develop and how to prevent them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 89) The more dense a bone is, the more brittle it will be. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The more dense a bone is, the stronger it will be. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.06 Topic: Bone and joint health Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

90) Too much dietary sodium, rather than too little dietary sodium, is a major nutritional problem today. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Minerals; Demographic trends and stats Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 91) Bone health is easily determined by a measurement of blood calcium level. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Measuring blood calcium levels is not an accurate indicator of total body calcium because blood calcium levels vary according to the intake of other positive ions (e.g., sodium, potassium, and magnesium). Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.06 Topic: Bone and joint health; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 92) An individual who consumes one cup of coffee in the morning should drink an additional 2 cups of fluid to compensate for caffeine-induced fluid loss. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Although caffeine is a mild diuretic, intakes up to 500 mg per day (the amount in about 4.5 cups of brewed coffee) do not cause dehydration or water imbalance in most people. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.02 Discuss how both dehydration and water intoxication develop and how to prevent them. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

93) Plant foods are good sources of the minerals potassium and magnesium. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04; 14.08 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 94) The main cause of high blood potassium and potassium toxicity is kidney failure. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

Match the term with its description. A) Hormone secreted by the adrenal glands that acts on the kidneys to increase sodium retention B) Enzyme formed in the kidneys in response to low blood pressure C) Hormone secreted by the pituitary gland that signals the kidneys to decrease water excretion D) High blood potassium E) Low blood sodium 95) Aldosterone Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01; 14.04; 14.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals; Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body.; 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body.; 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 96) Hyponatremia Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01; 14.04; 14.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals; Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body.; 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body.; 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 97) ADH Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01; 14.04; 14.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals; Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body.; 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body.; 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

98) Renin Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01; 14.04; 14.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals; Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body.; 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body.; 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 99) Hyperkalemia Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01; 14.04; 14.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals; Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body.; 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body.; 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 95) A 96) E 97) C 98) B 99) D

Match the term with its description. A) The bone-building cells that produce collagen and add minerals B) Biochemically active bone cells that are the most numerous and that increase in number when bone becomes more dense C) The surface bone cells that dissolve bone, releasing calcium and phosphorus to the bloodstream D) A compound composed of calcium and phosphate that is deposited into the bone protein matrix to give it strength and rigidity E) The outer dense shell of bone that makes up most skeletal mass 100) Osteoclast Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.06 Topic: Bone and joint health Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 101) Osteocyte Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.06 Topic: Bone and joint health Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 102) Osteoblast Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.06 Topic: Bone and joint health Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 103) Hydroxyapatite Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.06 Topic: Bone and joint health Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 37 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

104) Cortical bone Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.06 Topic: Bone and joint health Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Answers: 100) C 101) B 102) A 103) D 104) E 105) List at least five symptoms of dehydration. Answer: The signs of mild to moderate dehydration include dry mouth and skin, fatigue and muscle weakness, decreased urine output, deep yellow (concentrated) urine, headache, and dizziness. As dehydration progresses, solute concentrations in the blood rise, blood pressure decreases, and heart rate increases due to low blood volume. If fluid losses continue, kidney failure, seizures, delirium, and coma can occur. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.02 Discuss how both dehydration and water intoxication develop and how to prevent them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes

106) Describe 3 ways you can reduce your sodium intake when eating out. Answer: Choose fresh vegetables Ask for low-sodium items Choose unprocessed foods Choose These Foods More Often Grains: whole grains or enriched breads and cereals, plain rice, pasta Vegetables: fresh and frozen plain (no sauce) vegetables Fruits: fresh, canned, and frozen fruits Dairy: low-fat milk, yogurt Meats and substitutes: fresh or frozen lean meats, poultry, fish, shellfish, unsalted lean pork, eggs, tuna or salmon canned without added salt, canned and drained meat and poultry, unsalted nuts or seeds, dried peas, beans, lentils Entrées: prepared from fresh ingredients or those labeled reduced sodium Snack items: unsalted crackers, popcorn, pretzels, breadsticks Seasonings and condiments: fresh and dried herbs, lemon juice, low sodium seasoning products Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.03 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes

107) List and briefly describe five risk factors leading to osteoporosis. Answer: History of osteoporotic fracture in a 1st-degree relative (i.e., parent or sibling) Small, thin skeletal frame Advancing age Too little estrogen in women, caused by menopause, especially in Caucasian and Asian women Amenorrhea (cessation of normal menstrual periods), indicating low estrogen Oophorectomy (removal of ovaries), resulting in low estrogen Smoking, which can have direct toxic effects on bone and impair absorption and metabolism of bone-forming nutrients; smokers also are likely to be less physically active Low intake of calcium, vitamin D, and other nutrients Excessive intake of coffee, cola, or other caffeinated beverages Low physical activity Three or more drinks (alcohol) per day Presence of other diseases (e.g., cystic fibrosis, anorexia nervosa, type 1 diabetes mellitus, inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatoid arthritis, celiac disease, multiple sclerosis, or epilepsy) that can impair absorption, metabolism, and utilization of bone-forming nutrients; in some cases, nutrient excretion may be increased Chronic use of some medications, including corticosteroids (used to treat many inflammatory and autoimmune diseases), anticonvulsants, and proton pump inhibitors (used to treat GERD, see Chapter 4) Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.06 Topic: Bone and joint health; Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes

108) List 6 foods to limit and 6 foods to encourage on a low-sodium diet. Answer: Choose These Foods More Often Grains: whole grains or enriched breads and cereals, plain rice, pasta Vegetables: fresh and frozen plain (no sauce) vegetables

Choose These Foods Less Often Packaged rice and pasta mixes

Canned vegetables (read the labels), tomato and pasta sauces, frozen vegetables with sauce Fruits: fresh, canned, and frozen fruits Commercial fruit pies, turnovers Dairy: low-fat milk, yogurt Cheeses, especially processed Meats and substitutes: fresh or frozen lean Salted nuts; frozen breaded meat, fish, meats, poultry, fish, shellfish, unsalted and poultry; processed meats, such as lean pork, eggs, tuna or salmon canned luncheon meats, bologna, salami, hot without added salt, canned and drained dogs, bacon, ham, beef jerky meat and poultry, unsalted nuts or seeds, dried peas, beans, lentils Entrées: prepared from fresh ingredients orInstant and canned soups, frozen those labeled reduced sodium entrées and dinners, pizza, many fast food items Snack items: unsalted crackers, popcorn, Salted crackers, popcorn, chips pretzels, breadsticks Salt added during cooking, bouillon Seasonings and condiments: fresh and dried herbs, lemon juice, low sodium cubes, seasoning salts, soy sauce, seasoning products teriyaki sauce, barbeque sauces, pickles, olives, bottled salad dressing Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.03 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.03 Identify food sources of water and major minerals. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes

109) Compare and contrast the characteristics of a high-sodium diet to that of a high-potassium diet. Answer: Diets high in potassium and low in sodium offer the most protection against high blood pressure. Such diets are consistent with the DASH Diet and recommendations from the Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2015–2020. Many individuals can approximate the AI for potassium (4700 mg) by adding an additional 1500 mg of potassium to their daily diets. One banana, 1/2 cup of beans, and 1 sweet or white baked potato easily provide this added potassium. On the other hand, low potassium and high sodium diets, which many people eat today, are more likely to result in high blood pressure. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.03; 14.04 Topic: Minerals; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes 110) Describe two of the physiologic processes that contribute to primary hypertension. Answer: Primary hypertension develops over a period of years in response to changes in the arteries, kidneys, and sodium/ potassium balance. As we age, our arteries tend to narrow and become more rigid through a process called arteriosclerosis. Additionally, endothelial cells that line the arteries often release vasoconstrictors, substances that cause the arteries to constrict, in response to arterial damage, poor blood flow, stress, and other factors. Although these events alone can result in increased blood pressure, their additive effects on kidney function increase arterial pressure. In response to this, the kidney releases more renin, causing the formation of additional angiotensin II enzyme (see Fig. 14-9). Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that triggers the kidney's retention of sodium and water. Diets high in sodium and low in potassium worsen these physiological changes. Over time, the result is elevation of blood pressure. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals; Cardiovascular disease Learning Objective: 14.06 Explain the role of nutrition in the prevention and treatment of hypertension. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes

111) Describe several actions an individual can take to prevent hypertension. Answer: A healthy lifestyle is the cornerstone for prevention and treatment of high blood pressure and its complications. Maintaining a healthy weight and healthy eating patterns, engaging in regular physical activity, and limiting alcohol intake can help keep blood pressure normal throughout life. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.05 Topic: Minerals; Cardiovascular disease Learning Objective: 14.05 Discuss the problems with low and high intakes of major minerals and how to avoid inadequate or excessive intakes. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes 112) Describe the nutritional characteristics of the DASH diet. Which food groups are emphasized? Answer: The DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) Diet was designed to test the effect of a diet low in saturated fat, total fat, and cholesterol and high in fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy products on blood pressure. The diet is rich in magnesium, potassium, calcium, protein, and fiber (see Table 14-9). In fact, the amounts of magnesium, potassium, calcium, and fiber greatly exceed typical intakes, but without using nutritional supplements. Food Group Grains* Vegetables Fruits Fat free or low-fat milk and milk products Lean meats, poultry, and fish Nuts, seeds, and legumes Fats and oils Sweets and added sugars

Daily Servings 6–8 4–5 4–5 2–3 6 or less 4–5 per week 2–3 5 or less per week

Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.05 Topic: Food sources; Minerals; Cardiovascular disease Learning Objective: 14.06 Explain the role of nutrition in the prevention and treatment of hypertension. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes

113) Explain how the kidneys maintain fluid balance. Answer: In response to increased osmotic pressure from inadequate water intake, the pituitary gland releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH signals the kidneys to retain water, thus reducing urine output (Fig. 14-8). At the same time, falling blood pressure initiates another sequence of events—highly sensitive pressure receptors in the kidneys trigger the release of the enzyme renin (Fig. 14-9). Renin, in turn, activates angiotensinogen (a circulating blood protein made in the liver), forming angiotensin I. In the lungs, angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II, which, among other effects, causes the constriction of blood vessels and release of the hormone aldosterone by the adrenal glands. Aldosterone signals the kidneys to retain more sodium and chloride, and therefore more water. (Remember, water always follows electrolytes.) Thus, low blood pressure, through this roundabout sequence, causes the kidneys to increase water conservation in the body. There is, however, a limit to how concentrated urine can become. Eventually, if sufficient fluid is not consumed, dehydration and ill effects ensue. When water intake exceeds that needed to excrete waste via the urine and replace insensible losses, the kidneys are able to decrease their reabsorption of water. With this, urine volume increases and the urine becomes more dilute. In rare cases, urinary excretion cannot match high water intake, and water intoxication occurs. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.01 Topic: Water Learning Objective: 14.01 Describe the factors that influence water balance and how it is maintained in the body. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes 114) If deficient, which of the following minerals would have the least affect on bone health? A) phosphorus B) calcium C) magnesium D) chloride Answer: D Explanation: Phosphorus, calcium and magnesium all play important roles in bone health. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.06; 14.07; 14.08 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

115) If deficient, which of the following minerals would have the least effect on blood pressure? A) potassium B) sodium C) calcium D) magnesium Answer: B Explanation: Excess sodium can cause hypertension, but deficiency of sodium does not cause the reverse effect. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.04; 14.06; 14.08 Topic: Minerals; Cardiovascular disease Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body.; 14.06 Explain the role of nutrition in the prevention and treatment of hypertension. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 116) A friend is complaining of constipation. In addition to lifestyles changes, which mineral could help relieve your friend's constipation? A) sodium B) magnesium C) sulfur D) chloride Answer: B Explanation: High amounts of Mg can cause bowel changes, and possibly even diarrhea. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.08 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 14.04 Explain the functions of water and major minerals in the body. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

117) What will be the effect of an increase of parathyroid hormone? A) Osteoblast activity increases, resulting in an increase in blood calcium. B) Osteoclast activity increases, resulting in an increase in blood calcium. C) Osteoblast activity increases, resulting in a decrease in blood calcium. D) Osteoclast activity increases, resulting in a decrease in blood calcium. Answer: B Explanation: Blood parathyroid hormone and calcitonin are key hormones for controlling blood calcium levels. When blood calcium level is low, the parathyroid glands release parathyroid hormone (PTH) 1. PTH acts on bone 2 to release calcium ions into the bloodstream and kidneys 3 to conserve calcium and form calcitriol, which promotes absorption of calcium in the small intestine Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.06 Topic: Bone and joint health Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 118) What will be the effect of an increase of calcitonin? A) Osteoblast activity will increase, resulting in an increase in blood calcium. B) Osteoclast activity will increase, resulting in an increase in blood calcium. C) Osteoblast activity will increase, resulting in a decrease in blood calcium. D) Osteoclast activity will increase, resulting in a decrease in blood calcium. Answer: C Explanation: When blood calcium levels are too high, calcitonin is released from the thyroid gland 5. Calcitonin acts on bone 6 to limit release of calcium to the blood and on the kidney 7 to increase calcium excretion in the urine. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.06 Topic: Bone and joint health Learning Objective: 14.08 Describe the role of nutrition in bone health and in the prevention of osteoporosis. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 15 Trace Minerals 1) The richest sources of iron in the diet are A) fruits and vegetables. B) nuts and seeds. C) meats and seafood. D) breads and pastries. 2) Most of the iron in the body is found as a part of A) ferritin. B) albumin. C) hemosiderin. D) hemoglobin. 3) Excess intake of zinc supplements can reduce absorption of A) selenium. B) calcium. C) copper. D) iodine. 4) Which type of dietary iron is most efficiently absorbed? A) non-heme iron B) elemental iron C) heme iron D) All these forms of iron are absorbed equally. 5) Athletes commonly believe that the trace mineral strength despite lack of research evidence. A) chromium B) zinc C) manganese D) selenium

helps improve muscle mass and

6) Which nutrient increases the absorption of non-heme iron by reducing ferric iron (Fe3+) to ferrous iron (Fe2+)? A) vitamin A B) vitamin C C) vitamin E D) vitamin D 7) Phytic acid and oxalic acid A) increase B) decrease C) do not have any effect on

the absorption of dietary iron.

8) Which of the following factors increases iron absorption? A) high intakes of zinc B) high stores of iron C) low gastric acidity D) increased need for iron 9) Which of the following foods is a good source of non-heme iron? A) eggs B) spinach C) grilled chicken D) clams 10) Approximately diets. A) 1%-3% B) 14%-18% C) 55%-65% D) 90%-99%

of dietary iron is absorbed each day from typical Westernized

11) The proteins oxidize ferrous iron to ferric iron to allow iron to be transported to body cells. A) hemosiderin and ferritin B) heme and non-heme C) hephaestin and ceruloplasmin D) ferritin and albumin 12) Iron is stored in the liver as A) hephaestin. B) heparin. C) ceruloplasmin. D) ferritin. 13) Hemoglobin, cytochromes, and myoglobin all contain A) selenium. B) zinc. C) iron. D) iodine. 14) Ceruloplasmin is: A) a zinc-containing enzyme in the intestinal wall. B) a copper-containing enzyme that oxidizes Fe2+ to Fe3+. C) the storage form of iron in the liver. D) a component of the electron transport system. 2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

15) The hemoglobin molecule: A) contains 4 heme compounds. B) carries oxygen from the lungs to the tissues. C) decreases during iron deficiency anemia. D) All of these choices are accurate. 16) When body cells need more iron, the number of transferrin receptors on the cell surface A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains unchanged. 17) Approximately A) 10% B) 25% C) 75% D) 90%

of iron used each day is recovered and recycled.

18) Ferritin and hemosiderin are A) storage forms of iron. B) zinc-containing proteins. C) protein carriers of selenium in the blood. D) iodine-containing enzymes. 19) A low serum concentration of hemoglobin is most often associated with a deficiency of A) zinc. B) iodine. C) copper. D) iron. 20) The transport of iron out of the intestinal cell for incorporation into serum transferrin is aided by the protein A) insulin. B) myoglobin. C) ferroportin. D) thyroxine. 21) Iron-deficiency anemia often causes symptoms of A) fatigue. B) night blindness. C) dental decay. D) dermatitis.

22) Which of the following population groups is at highest risk of iron-deficiency anemia? A) post-menopausal women B) weight-training athletes C) premature infants D) male college students 23) In iron-deficiency anemia, the red blood cells are usually classified as A) macrocytic and normochromic. B) microcytic and hypochromic. C) normocytic and hyperchromic. D) megaloblastic. 24) A major factor contributing to the decline in iron deficiency anemia among poor preschool children in the U.S. is A) better nutrition education of parents, so that foods children need are actually being served. B) the federal Food Stamp Program (now called SNAP). C) the nationwide system of food pantries and soup kitchens. D) the Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) that distributes iron-fortified formulas and cereals. 25) Which population group is considered at low risk for iron-deficiency anemia? A) pregnant women B) infants and preschool children C) vegans D) middle-aged businessmen 26) Hemochromatosis is A) a form of anemia common in female athletes. B) a genetic condition causing excess absorption of dietary iron. C) a type of erythrocyte that carries extra iron. D) a genetic form of iron deficiency. 27) Iron plays a role in all of the following functions EXCEPT A) immune function. B) oxygen transport. C) cognitive development. D) synthesis of thyroid hormones. 28) Dietary zinc absorption is increased by A) phytic acid. B) zinc deficiency. C) ferritin status. D) the amount of vitamin C in the diet.

29) When large doses of zinc are consumed, the excess is excreted primarily via A) the sweat. B) the urine. C) the feces. D) expired air. 30) A dietary deficiency of development in humans. A) copper B) iodine C) selenium D) zinc

is associated with retarded growth and inadequate sexual

31) Zinc can induce the synthesis of metallothionein, which A) is the primary protein carrier of zinc in the blood. B) can hinder the absorption of zinc from the intestinal cell. C) is the storage form of zinc in the liver. D) is a zinc-containing enzyme in the antioxidant defense network. 32) The RDA for zinc for adults is A) 11 grams for men and 8 grams for women. B) 15 grams for both men and women. C) 11 mg for men and 8 mg for women. D) 15 mg for both men and women. 33) Which group of foods would provide the most bioavailable zinc? A) refined breads and cereals B) oysters and other seafood C) spinach and leafy greens D) black-eyed peas and lentils 34) Which of the following is a symptom of zinc deficiency? A) megaloblastic anemia B) increased taste sensitivity C) poor wound healing D) cretinism 35) Zinc functions as a part of A) immune function. B) antioxidant defense. C) DNA and RNA synthesis. D) Zinc is involved in all of these functions.

in the liver and brain.

39) The mineral that partly "spares" the antioxidant vitamin E is A) copper. B) selenium. C) chromium. D) iodide. 40) The amount of selenium in foods most commonly A) is consistently high in plant-based foods. B) will depend on the total amount of other minerals in the food. C) depends on the type of water used to irrigate crops. D) depends on the amount of selenium in the soil where crops are grown. 41) The richest sources of copper are generally A) oranges and melons. B) refined grains and pastries. C) nuts and dark chocolate. D) dark leafy greens. 42) A deficiency of dietary iodine is characterized by A) osteoporosis. B) goiter. C) dental caries. D) decreased glucose tolerance.

43) Cretinism may form as a consequence of a severe prenatal deficiency of A) chromium. B) selenium. C) copper. D) iodine. 44) In a situation where there is an insufficient intake of dietary iodide, the thyroid-stimulating hormone promotes the enlargement of the thyroid gland. This condition is called A) Graves' disease. B) goiter. C) hyperparathyroidism. D) Wilson's disease. 45) Iodide in the blood is trapped by the A) pancreas and incorporated into insulin. B) adrenal glands and incorporated into aldosterone. C) pituitary gland and incorporated into calcitonin. D) thyroid gland and incorporated into thyroxine. 46) The most dependable and abundant source of iodide in the American diet is A) saltwater fish. B) dark leafy greens. C) enriched cereal grains. D) fortified salt. 47) Goitrogenic foods that can inhibit iodide metabolism include A) cabbage, broccoli, and cauliflower. B) yogurt, buttermilk, and cheese. C) oranges and grapefruit. D) beef, poultry, and fish. 48) Excessive fluoride exposure during tooth development can cause A) glucose intolerance. B) mottling of the teeth. C) dermatitis. D) bleeding of the gums. 49) The fluoridation of public drinking water is A) responsible for reduction in dental caries in children. B) an effective means of providing dietary selenium. C) potentially toxic if an individual drinks 64 oz or more of municipal water per day. D) mandatory in all states in the U.S.

50) The role of hydroxyfluorapatite is to A) enhance insulin sensitivity and prevent diabetes. B) prevent dental caries. C) improve the rate of growth in children. D) prevent the development of anemia. 51) Fluoride is typically provided by sources such as A) toothpaste. B) fluoride treatments by the dentist. C) municipal drinking water. D) All of these choices are accurate. 52) In humans, impaired glucose tolerance and weight loss have been associated with a dietary deficiency of A) selenium. B) manganese. C) molybdenum. D) chromium. 53) Which of the following is NOT classified as an ultratrace mineral? A) arsenic B) boron C) selenium D) vanadium 54) Which of the following is associated with selenium deficiency? A) Wilson's disease B) Keshan disease C) Graves' disease D) Lou Gehrig's disease 55) Which of the following enzymes contains selenium? A) glutathione peroxidase B) superoxide dismutase C) lysyl oxidase D) pancrease 56) Which of the following has been associated with a decreased risk of cancer? A) low intakes of calcium B) high intakes of nitrates C) adequate intake of vitamin D D) low intakes of lycopene

57) Which of the following is the leading type of cancer in males and females in North America? A) brain B) liver C) lung D) colon 58) Which may increase cancer risk? A) viruses B) radiation C) saturated fat D) All of these factors may increase cancer risk. 59) Dietary heme iron is obtained mainly from plant-based foods. 60) Ferritin is a key iron-binding protein in the intestinal mucosa that prevents it from entering the bloodstream. 61) In the U.S., accidental iron overdose is the leading cause of poisoning in young children less than 6 years of age. 62) High intakes of polyphenols, meat protein factor, and manganese aid in the absorption of non-heme iron. 63) Copper plays a role in connective tissue formation as a component of lysyl oxidase. 64) In the United States, salt can be purchased either with or without added iodine. 65) Copper absorption is the primary means of regulating copper balance. 66) Manganese plays a role in antioxidant defense as a part of the superoxide dismutase enzyme system. 67) Whole grains, nuts, legumes, and tea are the best sources of manganese. 68) Approximately 90% of dietary manganese is absorbed and then transported by transferrin to the liver. 69) Adequate selenium intake may lower risk of prostate, lung, and other cancers. 70) Cancers can metastasize to distant parts of the body via the blood or lymph to form invasive tumors. 71) Molybdenum functions as a cofactor for several enzymes in human metabolism. 72) The ultratrace mineral boron does not yet have an established UL. 9 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

73) All community water systems in the United States are currently fluoridated. 74) Zinc supplementation is a scientifically proven means of preventing the common cold. 75) Marginal deficiencies of zinc and copper may be of concern in some population groups in the U.S. even if they do not result in physical symptoms. 76) Zinc is transported in the blood to tissues by the proteins albumin and alpha-2 macroglobulin. 77) Iodine deficiency and iron deficiency are the most common mineral deficiencies worldwide. 78) Manganese deficiency and toxicity rarely have been reported in humans. 79) List 2 characteristics of trace minerals. 80) How does vitamin C increase the absorption of iron? 81) List 2 food sources for zinc. 82) Describe 2 functions of iron. 83) List 2 food sources for manganese. 84) List 3 population groups at risk for iron deficiency. 85) Describe the symptoms of iodine deficiency. 86) What trace mineral toxicity causes tooth mottling and how? 87) List 3 factors that can increase iron absorption. 88) Explain why a deficiency of selenium can impair iodine metabolism. 89) Why are children at risk of iron toxicity? 90) List 2 proteins that transport oxygen in the body and describe which mineral is essential for these proteins to function. 91) Describe how fluoride works to prevent dental caries. 92) What population areas are at increased risk of iodine deficiency? 93) Why is fluoride not always classified as an essential trace mineral?

94) What suggestions would you provide to a client to decrease cancer risk? 95) What dietary suggestions would you provide to a vegan to prevent iron deficiency? 96) Should individuals with a family history of cancer take selenium supplements? Explain your answer. 97) Excess iodine intakes may increase the risk of A) hyperthyroidism. B) anemia. C) dermatitis. D) osteomalacia. 98) Design a general diet that would be cancer preventative. 99) Why is obesity specifically linked to an increased risk of breast cancer but not all cancers? 100) Which of the following nutrients have all been linked to a possible decreased risk in the development of cancer? A) vitamin E, vitamin C, selenium, vitamin D B) saturated fat, sodium, chloride, manganese C) protein, cholesterol, vitamin A, folate D) vitamin B-12, vitamin B-6, biotin, fluoride 101) Processed food is a good source of iodine because of the high amount of salt found in processed food. 102) A friend has been complaining of fatigue with activity and has been getting sick a lot lately. She has recently cut out all meat and animal products in an effort to decrease her fat intake. Which of the following minerals is your friend most likely to be deficient in that is causing her symptoms? A) iron B) iodine C) manganese D) sodium

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 15 Trace Minerals 1) The richest sources of iron in the diet are A) fruits and vegetables. B) nuts and seeds. C) meats and seafood. D) breads and pastries. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.02 List 3 important food sources for each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) Most of the iron in the body is found as a part of A) ferritin. B) albumin. C) hemosiderin. D) hemoglobin. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 3) Excess intake of zinc supplements can reduce absorption of A) selenium. B) calcium. C) copper. D) iodine. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

4) Which type of dietary iron is most efficiently absorbed? A) non-heme iron B) elemental iron C) heme iron D) All these forms of iron are absorbed equally. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) Athletes commonly believe that the trace mineral strength despite lack of research evidence. A) chromium B) zinc C) manganese D) selenium

helps improve muscle mass and

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.07 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

6) Which nutrient increases the absorption of non-heme iron by reducing ferric iron (Fe3+) to ferrous iron (Fe2+)? A) vitamin A B) vitamin C C) vitamin E D) vitamin D Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 7) Phytic acid and oxalic acid A) increase B) decrease C) do not have any effect on

the absorption of dietary iron.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) Which of the following factors increases iron absorption? A) high intakes of zinc B) high stores of iron C) low gastric acidity D) increased need for iron Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

9) Which of the following foods is a good source of non-heme iron? A) eggs B) spinach C) grilled chicken D) clams Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.02 List 3 important food sources for each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 10) Approximately A) 1%-3% B) 14%-18% C) 55%-65% D) 90%-99%

of dietary iron is absorbed each day from typical Westernized diets.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 11) The proteins oxidize ferrous iron to ferric iron to allow iron to be transported to body cells. A) hemosiderin and ferritin B) heme and non-heme C) hephaestin and ceruloplasmin D) ferritin and albumin Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

12) Iron is stored in the liver as A) hephaestin. B) heparin. C) ceruloplasmin. D) ferritin. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 13) Hemoglobin, cytochromes, and myoglobin all contain A) selenium. B) zinc. C) iron. D) iodine. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 14) Ceruloplasmin is: A) a zinc-containing enzyme in the intestinal wall. B) a copper-containing enzyme that oxidizes Fe2+ to Fe3+. C) the storage form of iron in the liver. D) a component of the electron transport system. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.03 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

15) The hemoglobin molecule: A) contains 4 heme compounds. B) carries oxygen from the lungs to the tissues. C) decreases during iron deficiency anemia. D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 16) When body cells need more iron, the number of transferrin receptors on the cell surface A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains unchanged. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 17) Approximately A) 10% B) 25% C) 75% D) 90%

of iron used each day is recovered and recycled.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

18) Ferritin and hemosiderin are A) storage forms of iron. B) zinc-containing proteins. C) protein carriers of selenium in the blood. D) iodine-containing enzymes. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 19) A low serum concentration of hemoglobin is most often associated with a deficiency of A) zinc. B) iodine. C) copper. D) iron. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 20) The transport of iron out of the intestinal cell for incorporation into serum transferrin is aided by the protein A) insulin. B) myoglobin. C) ferroportin. D) thyroxine. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

21) Iron-deficiency anemia often causes symptoms of A) fatigue. B) night blindness. C) dental decay. D) dermatitis. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 22) Which of the following population groups is at highest risk of iron-deficiency anemia? A) post-menopausal women B) weight-training athletes C) premature infants D) male college students Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 23) In iron-deficiency anemia, the red blood cells are usually classified as A) macrocytic and normochromic. B) microcytic and hypochromic. C) normocytic and hyperchromic. D) megaloblastic. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

24) A major factor contributing to the decline in iron deficiency anemia among poor preschool children in the U.S. is A) better nutrition education of parents, so that foods children need are actually being served. B) the federal Food Stamp Program (now called SNAP). C) the nationwide system of food pantries and soup kitchens. D) the Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) that distributes iron-fortified formulas and cereals. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals; Public health and nutrition Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 25) Which population group is considered at low risk for iron-deficiency anemia? A) pregnant women B) infants and preschool children C) vegans D) middle-aged businessmen Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 26) Hemochromatosis is A) a form of anemia common in female athletes. B) a genetic condition causing excess absorption of dietary iron. C) a type of erythrocyte that carries extra iron. D) a genetic form of iron deficiency. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 15.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain trace minerals. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

27) Iron plays a role in all of the following functions EXCEPT A) immune function. B) oxygen transport. C) cognitive development. D) synthesis of thyroid hormones. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 28) Dietary zinc absorption is increased by A) phytic acid. B) zinc deficiency. C) ferritin status. D) the amount of vitamin C in the diet. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 29) When large doses of zinc are consumed, the excess is excreted primarily via A) the sweat. B) the urine. C) the feces. D) expired air. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

30) A dietary deficiency of development in humans. A) copper B) iodine C) selenium D) zinc

is associated with retarded growth and inadequate sexual

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 31) Zinc can induce the synthesis of metallothionein, which A) is the primary protein carrier of zinc in the blood. B) can hinder the absorption of zinc from the intestinal cell. C) is the storage form of zinc in the liver. D) is a zinc-containing enzyme in the antioxidant defense network. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 32) The RDA for zinc for adults is A) 11 grams for men and 8 grams for women. B) 15 grams for both men and women. C) 11 mg for men and 8 mg for women. D) 15 mg for both men and women. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Minerals; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

33) Which group of foods would provide the most bioavailable zinc? A) refined breads and cereals B) oysters and other seafood C) spinach and leafy greens D) black-eyed peas and lentils Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.02 List 3 important food sources for each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 34) Which of the following is a symptom of zinc deficiency? A) megaloblastic anemia B) increased taste sensitivity C) poor wound healing D) cretinism Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 35) Zinc functions as a part of A) immune function. B) antioxidant defense. C) DNA and RNA synthesis. D) Zinc is involved in all of these functions. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

36) The enzyme superoxide dismutase contains both copper and zinc. The function of this enzyme is A) to decrease serum cholesterol levels. B) to protect an individual from developing night blindness. C) to act as a scavenger of free radicals, thus protecting the lipid components of the cell. D) to prevent GI reflux and symptoms of heartburn. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 37) The symptoms of copper deficiency in humans include all of the following EXCEPT A) anemia. B) thyroid disorders. C) decreased white blood cell counts. D) bone loss (osteopenia). Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.03 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 38) Individuals with Wilson's disease overaccumulate A) iodine B) selenium C) copper D) manganese

in the liver and brain.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.03 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain trace minerals. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

39) The mineral that partly "spares" the antioxidant vitamin E is A) copper. B) selenium. C) chromium. D) iodide. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.06 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 40) The amount of selenium in foods most commonly A) is consistently high in plant-based foods. B) will depend on the total amount of other minerals in the food. C) depends on the type of water used to irrigate crops. D) depends on the amount of selenium in the soil where crops are grown. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.06 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.02 List 3 important food sources for each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 41) The richest sources of copper are generally A) oranges and melons. B) refined grains and pastries. C) nuts and dark chocolate. D) dark leafy greens. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.03 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.02 List 3 important food sources for each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

42) A deficiency of dietary iodine is characterized by A) osteoporosis. B) goiter. C) dental caries. D) decreased glucose tolerance. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 43) Cretinism may form as a consequence of a severe prenatal deficiency of A) chromium. B) selenium. C) copper. D) iodine. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 44) In a situation where there is an insufficient intake of dietary iodide, the thyroid-stimulating hormone promotes the enlargement of the thyroid gland. This condition is called A) Graves' disease. B) goiter. C) hyperparathyroidism. D) Wilson's disease. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

45) Iodide in the blood is trapped by the A) pancreas and incorporated into insulin. B) adrenal glands and incorporated into aldosterone. C) pituitary gland and incorporated into calcitonin. D) thyroid gland and incorporated into thyroxine. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.05 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 46) The most dependable and abundant source of iodide in the American diet is A) saltwater fish. B) dark leafy greens. C) enriched cereal grains. D) fortified salt. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.05 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.02 List 3 important food sources for each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 47) Goitrogenic foods that can inhibit iodide metabolism include A) cabbage, broccoli, and cauliflower. B) yogurt, buttermilk, and cheese. C) oranges and grapefruit. D) beef, poultry, and fish. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.05 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

48) Excessive fluoride exposure during tooth development can cause A) glucose intolerance. B) mottling of the teeth. C) dermatitis. D) bleeding of the gums. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.08 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 49) The fluoridation of public drinking water is A) responsible for reduction in dental caries in children. B) an effective means of providing dietary selenium. C) potentially toxic if an individual drinks 64 oz or more of municipal water per day. D) mandatory in all states in the U.S. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.08 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 50) The role of hydroxyfluorapatite is to A) enhance insulin sensitivity and prevent diabetes. B) prevent dental caries. C) improve the rate of growth in children. D) prevent the development of anemia. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.08 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

51) Fluoride is typically provided by sources such as A) toothpaste. B) fluoride treatments by the dentist. C) municipal drinking water. D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.08 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.02 List 3 important food sources for each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 52) In humans, impaired glucose tolerance and weight loss have been associated with a dietary deficiency of A) selenium. B) manganese. C) molybdenum. D) chromium. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.07 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 53) Which of the following is NOT classified as an ultratrace mineral? A) arsenic B) boron C) selenium D) vanadium Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.09 Topic: Minerals Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

54) Which of the following is associated with selenium deficiency? A) Wilson's disease B) Keshan disease C) Graves' disease D) Lou Gehrig's disease Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.06 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 55) Which of the following enzymes contains selenium? A) glutathione peroxidase B) superoxide dismutase C) lysyl oxidase D) pancrease Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.06 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 56) Which of the following has been associated with a decreased risk of cancer? A) low intakes of calcium B) high intakes of nitrates C) adequate intake of vitamin D D) low intakes of lycopene Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.09 Topic: Cancer; Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.06 Describe the development of cancer and the effects of genetic, environmental, and dietary factors on the risk of developing cancer. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

57) Which of the following is the leading type of cancer in males and females in North America? A) brain B) liver C) lung D) colon Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.09 Topic: Cancer Learning Objective: 15.06 Describe the development of cancer and the effects of genetic, environmental, and dietary factors on the risk of developing cancer. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 58) Which may increase cancer risk? A) viruses B) radiation C) saturated fat D) All of these factors may increase cancer risk. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.09 Topic: Cancer Learning Objective: 15.06 Describe the development of cancer and the effects of genetic, environmental, and dietary factors on the risk of developing cancer. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 59) Dietary heme iron is obtained mainly from plant-based foods. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In animal flesh (beef, pork, seafood, and poultry), most of the iron is present as hemoglobin and myoglobin, which collectively is called heme iron. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.02 List 3 important food sources for each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

60) Ferritin is a key iron-binding protein in the intestinal mucosa that prevents it from entering the bloodstream. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 61) In the U.S., accidental iron overdose is the leading cause of poisoning in young children less than 6 years of age. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

62) High intakes of polyphenols, meat protein factor, and manganese aid in the absorption of non-heme iron. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Factors That Increase Absorption High body demand for red blood cells (blood loss, high altitude, physical training, pregnancy, anemia) Low body stores of iron Heme iron in food Meat protein factor (MPF)

Vitamin C intake Gastric acidity

Factors That Decrease Absorption Low need for iron (high level of storage iron)

Phytic acid in whole grains and legumes Oxalic acid in leafy vegetables Polyphenols in tea, coffee, red wine, and oregano Reduced gastric acidity Excessive intake of other minerals (zinc, manganese, calcium)

Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.04 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 63) Copper plays a role in connective tissue formation as a component of lysyl oxidase. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.03 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

64) In the United States, salt can be purchased either with or without added iodine. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.05 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.02 List 3 important food sources for each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 65) Copper absorption is the primary means of regulating copper balance. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.03 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 66) Manganese plays a role in antioxidant defense as a part of the superoxide dismutase enzyme system. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.04 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 67) Whole grains, nuts, legumes, and tea are the best sources of manganese. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.04 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.02 List 3 important food sources for each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 23 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

68) Approximately 90% of dietary manganese is absorbed and then transported by transferrin to the liver. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Approximately 5% to 10% of the manganese in food is absorbed. Manganese is absorbed in the small intestine via simple diffusion and active transport. Following absorption, most manganese is bound to alpha-2-macroglobulin for transport to the liver and then transported via transferrin, alpha-2-macroglobulin, or albumin to other tissues, such as the pancreas, kidneys, and bone. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.04 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 69) Adequate selenium intake may lower risk of prostate, lung, and other cancers. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.06 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 70) Cancers can metastasize to distant parts of the body via the blood or lymph to form invasive tumors. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.09 Topic: Cancer Learning Objective: 15.06 Describe the development of cancer and the effects of genetic, environmental, and dietary factors on the risk of developing cancer. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

71) Molybdenum functions as a cofactor for several enzymes in human metabolism. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.09 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 72) The ultratrace mineral boron does not yet have an established UL. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Boron's UL is 20 mg. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.09 Topic: Minerals; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 15.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain trace minerals. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 73) All community water systems in the United States are currently fluoridated. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Today, in North America, the major source of fluoride is fluoridated water. Adding fluoride to the public water supply adjusts the fluoride level to 0.7 ppm or 0.7 mg/liter; this concentration is considered safe and optimal for the prevention of dental caries. However, not all public or private water sources are fluoridated (Fig. 15-20). Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.08 Topic: Food sources; Minerals; Public health and nutrition Learning Objective: 15.02 List 3 important food sources for each trace mineral. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

74) Zinc supplementation is a scientifically proven means of preventing the common cold. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Zinc also may play a role in shortening the duration of common colds in healthy people, when used within the first 24 hours of the onset of symptoms. However, more research is needed, particularly considering the side effects of nausea and bad taste reported with the use of zinc lozenges. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 75) Marginal deficiencies of zinc and copper may be of concern in some population groups in the U.S. even if they do not result in physical symptoms. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02; 15.03 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 76) Zinc is transported in the blood to tissues by the proteins albumin and alpha-2 macroglobulin. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

77) Iodine deficiency and iron deficiency are the most common mineral deficiencies worldwide. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01; 15.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 78) Manganese deficiency and toxicity rarely have been reported in humans. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.04 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals.; 15.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain trace minerals. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 79) List 2 characteristics of trace minerals. Answer: TRACE MINERALS ARE ESSENTIAL, INORGANIC substances needed in small quantities in the diet (less than 100 mg daily) and are found in relatively minute amounts in the body (less than 5 g). In fact, all of them combined make up less than 1% of the minerals in the body. Nevertheless, trace minerals are essential for normal development, function, and overall health. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes

80) How does vitamin C increase the absorption of iron? Answer: Vitamin C provides an electron to Fe3+ (ferric iron) to yield Fe2+ (ferrous iron), which then forms a soluble complex with vitamin C. Ferrous iron is better absorbed than ferric iron because it more readily crosses the mucosal layer of the small intestine and reaches the brush border of the intestinal absorptive cells. Heme iron does not need to undergo this reduction reaction because the iron in heme is already in the more soluble ferrous form. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes 81) List 2 food sources for zinc. Answer: Protein rich meat and seafood are usually good sources of zinc (Fig. 15-8). North Americans obtain about 70% of their dietary zinc from animal-based foods, such as beef, lamb, and pork. Plant-based foods, such as nuts, beans, wheat germ, and whole grains, also contribute. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.02 List 3 important food sources for each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes 82) Describe 2 functions of iron. Answer: Iron—Functional component of hemoglobin and other key compounds used in respiration; immune function; cognitive development; energy metabolism Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 15.01 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes

83) List 2 food sources for manganese. Answer: Nuts; tea; legumes; whole-grain cereals Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.04 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.02 List 3 important food sources for each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes 84) List 3 population groups at risk for iron deficiency. Answer: Infants; preschool children; women in childbearing years Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes 85) Describe the symptoms of iodine deficiency. Answer: When iodine availability decreases and plasma levels of T4 hormone drop, the pituitary gland secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone. In response to increased TSH levels, the thyroid gland enlarges in an attempt to increase its efficiency at trapping iodine. The characteristic enlargement of the thyroid gland that occurs is called a goiter. This early adaptive response allows the thyroid gland to temporarily maintain thyroid hormone synthesis. Although a goiter is a painless condition, it can cause pressure on the esophagus and trachea and impair their function. If the underlying iodine deficiency is not corrected, decreased T4 synthesis, slowed metabolism, and more serious complications can develop. Iodine deficiency is of particular concern during pregnancy because of the adverse effects it can have on the developing offspring. These include congenital abnormalities, low birth weight, neurological disorders, impaired mental function, poor physical development, and death. The resulting restriction of brain development and growth, called cretinism (Fig. 15-15), is characterized by severe mental retardation, loss of hearing and speech abilities, short stature, and muscle spasticity. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes 29 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

86) What trace mineral toxicity causes tooth mottling and how? Answer: In the early 1930s, it was observed that individuals living in the southwestern U.S., where the water naturally contained high concentrations of fluoride, had fewer dental caries (cavities). Many people in these areas also had small spots on their teeth (known as mottling or fluorosis) due to excess fluoride (Fig. 15-19). Although discolored, the mottled teeth were virtually free of dental caries. This discovery led to research studies confirming this mineral's ability to reduce cavities and the start of controlled water fluoridation in parts of the U.S . Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.08 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain trace minerals. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes 87) List 3 factors that can increase iron absorption. Answer: Factors That Increase Absorption High body demand for red blood cells (blood loss, high altitude, physical training, pregnancy, anemia) Low body stores of iron Heme iron in food Meat protein factor (MPF) Vitamin C intake Gastric acidity Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes

88) Explain why a deficiency of selenium can impair iodine metabolism. Answer: Iodine is an essential component of the thyroid hormones thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). Most of the circulating thyroid hormone in the body is in the form of T4. Within body cells, T4 loses an iodine molecule and is converted to T3, the active form of the hormone. The enzymes involved in this conversion (called deiodinase enzymes) require the trace mineral selenium. Thus, a selenium deficiency can limit the activity of deiodinase enzymes, resulting in decreased T3 levels. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 15.06; 15.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes 89) Why are children at risk of iron toxicity? Answer: Young children also are at risk because they are growing fast and typically have low intakes of iron-rich meat and high intakes of iron-poor cow's milk. One in 4 children in the U.S. ages 12 to 23 months has intakes below the RDA, increasing the risk of iron deficiency. In the U.S., iron-fortified formulas and cereals provided by the Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) to children from limited-resource families who are at nutritional risk have been instrumental in decreasing rates of iron deficiency anemia. However, in less developed countries, many young children are iron deficient because iron supplementation programs frequently are not available. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes

90) List 2 proteins that transport oxygen in the body and describe which mineral is essential for these proteins to function. Answer: Iron is an essential part of 2 proteins, hemoglobin and myoglobin, that are involved in the transport and metabolism of oxygen. Hemoglobin, which is found in erythrocytes (red blood cells), is composed of 4 iron-containing heme compounds that each bind 1 molecule of oxygen (Fig. 15-3). As a component of hemoglobin, iron carries oxygen in the blood from the lungs to all tissues of the body. It also transports carbon dioxide back to the lungs for expiration. Because the body produces approximately 200 billion erythrocytes each day, much of the body's iron is contained in hemoglobin. If the oxygen-carrying capacity of erythrocytes declines, the kidneys produce the hormone erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells (Fig. 15-4). This, in turn, increases the body's need for iron to support hemoglobin production. Iron has a similar oxygen-carrying role in myoglobin, a protein in muscle cells. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Digestion, absorption, and transport; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.03 Describe how each trace mineral is absorbed, transported, stored, and excreted. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes 91) Describe how fluoride works to prevent dental caries. Answer: Fluoride works in several ways to prevent caries. During the development of teeth and bones, fluoride forms hydroxyfluorapatite crystals. These crystals provide greater resistance (than typical hydroxyapatite crystals) to bacteria and acids in the mouth that can erode tooth enamel. Fluoride in the blood contributes to fluoride in the saliva, which promotes the remineralization of enamel lesions and reduces the net loss of minerals from tooth enamel. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 15.08 Topic: Cancer; Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.05 Describe the toxicity symptoms from the excess consumption of certain trace minerals. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 1-3 minutes

92) What population areas are at increased risk of iodine deficiency? Answer: Descriptions of goiter have been documented for many centuries in China and other parts of the world. Prior to World War I, goiter was very common in the Great Lakes region of the U.S., where the soil and lake waters are very low in iodine. Cretinism also was common in parts of the U.S. Today, approximately one-third of the world's population remains at risk of iodine deficiency. Many countries in the world still have iodine-deficient areas (Fig. 15-16). A higher incidence of iodine deficiency disorders occurs in areas of Asia, Africa, the Middle East, and Europe. The discovery in the early 1920s, by scientists in the U.S. and Switzerland, that iodine can prevent the development of goiter resulted in the fortification of table salt in the U.S. and many other countries. Using a small amount of iodized salt has eradicated endemic iodine deficiency in these areas. Unfortunately, approximately 30% of households worldwide still do not have access to iodized salt. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes 93) Why is fluoride not always classified as an essential trace mineral? Answer: Fluoride, the ionic form of fluorine, may not be an essential nutrient because all basic body functions can occur without it. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 15.08 Topic: Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes

94) What suggestions would you provide to a client to decrease cancer risk? Answer: Many experts believe that environmental factors, such as exposure to radiation, chemicals, and air and water pollutants; smoking; lack of physical activity; obesity; and diet play a greater role in cancer initiation and development. For the U.S., estimates are that one-fourth to one-third of cancers are due to poor diet, physical inactivity, overweight, and obesity and another one-third are caused by tobacco use. The menu in Table 15-7 provides an example of a dietary plan to decrease cancer risk. Various dietary factors have been associated with cancer. Evidence supports overall benefits of foods, not dietary supplements. The following list provides a summary of factors likely related to risk of cancer. Much of the evidence is based on epidemiological Fruits and vegetables. Diets low in fruits and vegetables (rich sources of phytochemicals and antioxidant nutrients, such as selenium, vitamin C, and vitamin E) have been associated with an increased incidence of certain cancers. Fruit and vegetable intake also may contribute to a decreased risk for some cancers by replacing energy dense foods and helping maintain a healthy weight. • Excessive energy intake and obesity. Excessive energy intake and obesity have been associated with an increased risk of breast, colorectal, and other cancers. This relationship may occur because obesity increases the production of hormones such as estrogen and insulin. Additionally, cancer cells may multiply more readily when excess energy is available to support their growth. Obesity also may contribute to cancer recurrence and reduce survival rates. • Meat. High intakes of meats, especially red meat and grilled meat, are associated with an increased risk of colorectal, kidney, pancreatic, and stomach cancers. The saturated fat content of red meat, and the production of polyaromatic hydrocarbons (e.g., benzopyrene) when meats are charbroiled, may increase the risk of cancers. Nitrosamine compounds found in processed meats such as sausage, hot dogs, and bacon also may increase cancer risk. *Fried foods. In addition to increasing calories, fried foods also contain acrylamide, which can increase cancer risk. Acrylamide is not naturally found in these foods but is produced when potatoes and other starches are fried at high temperatures. • Whole grains and fiber. Increased intake of dietary fiber from whole grains is associated with a decreased risk of developing colorectal cancer. Diets containing more whole grains and fewer refined grains improve weight control. • Alcohol. Excess alcohol intake increases the risk of cancers of the mouth, throat, esophagus, breast, and colon. Alcohol abuse also severely damages the liver and other tissues in the body, which may predispose them to cancer development. • Vitamin D and calcium. Evidence is inconsistent on whether adequate intakes of calcium and vitamin D decrease the risk of colorectal cancer. Calcium may bind free fatty acids and bile acids in the colon and prevent them from interacting with potential cancer cells. Vitamin D may inhibit the progression of cancer growth from malignant polyps in the colon. More research is needed. Difficulty: 3 Hard 34 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Section: 15.09 Topic: Cancer; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 15.06 Describe the development of cancer and the effects of genetic, environmental, and dietary factors on the risk of developing cancer. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes 95) What dietary suggestions would you provide to a vegan to prevent iron deficiency? Answer: Polyphenols, such as the tannins found in tea, and related substances in coffee are known to reduce nonheme iron absorption. Therefore, individuals trying to rebuild iron stores are advised to reduce coffee and tea consumption, particularly at mealtimes. Excessive intakes of other minerals, such as zinc, manganese, and calcium, may interfere with nonheme iron absorption. Because of these potential mineral-mineral interactions, individuals with high iron needs should avoid taking iron supplements with foods or supplements containing significant amounts of these minerals. Vitamin C, or other organic acids, in the diet also increases nonheme iron absorption. Vitamin C provides an electron to Fe3+ (ferric iron) to yield Fe2+ (ferrous iron), which then forms a soluble complex with vitamin C. Ferrous iron is better absorbed than ferric iron because it more readily crosses the mucosal layer of the small intestine and reaches the brush border of the intestinal absorptive cells. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 15.01 Topic: Food sources; Minerals; Plant-based diets Learning Objective: 15.02 List 3 important food sources for each trace mineral. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes

96) Should individuals with a family history of cancer take selenium supplements? Explain your answer. Answer: Diets low in fruits and vegetables (rich sources of phytochemicals and antioxidant nutrients, such as selenium, vitamin C, and vitamin E) have been associated with an increased incidence of certain cancers. Selenium acts as a cofactor for glutathione peroxidase, which prevents the oxidative destruction of cell membranes by hydrogen peroxide and free radicals. Selenium also aids in the conversion of the thyroid hormone T4 to T3. The selenium content of the soil in an area greatly affects the amount of selenium in the foods from that area. In general meat, eggs, seafood, grains, and seeds are the best sources of selenium. In areas where the soil lacks selenium, deficiencies are more prevalent. Selenium deficiency increases the risk of Keshan disease and possibly certain cancers. Because selenium has a narrower range of safety for intake than most other trace minerals, selenium supplementation can cause symptoms of toxicity at lower levels of intake. However, research evidence does not suggest selenium, alone, PREVENTS cancer. Therefore, in advising an individual about supplements, it is important to understand that selenium supplements alone will not likely prevent cancer. An individual should assess his/her overall diet and determine needs for supplementation if selenium is deficient. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 15.06; 15.09 Topic: Cancer; Minerals; Nutrient functions Learning Objective: 15.01 Discuss the major functions of each trace mineral.; 15.06 Describe the development of cancer and the effects of genetic, environmental, and dietary factors on the risk of developing cancer. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 1-3 minutes 97) Excess iodine intakes may increase the risk of A) hyperthyroidism. B) anemia. C) dermatitis. D) osteomalacia. Answer: A Explanation: Although hypothyroidism is the most common result of iodine toxicity, excess iodine intakes also may increase the risk of hyperthyroidism, autoimmune thyroid disease, and thyroid cancer. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 15.01 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 36 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

98) Design a general diet that would be cancer preventative. Answer: Breakfast 4 oz calcium-fortified orange juice

1 cup fresh blueberries

1 slice whole-wheat toast, jelly, 1 cup ready-to-eat whole-grain breakfast cereal soft margarine Hot green tea 1 cup 1% milk Lunch 1 cup unsweetened ice tea Sandwich: 1/2 cup curried chicken salad served on 1 whole-wheat bagel Fresh fruit cup with strawberries, melon, grapes, apple Assorted raw vegetables: carrots, celery, broccoli, cucumber, green pepper 1 cup yogurt Snack 1/4 cup mixed nuts and raisins 4 oz apple-blueberry juice Dinner 3 oz grilled salmon (or other fish)

Fresh garden salad with low-fat Italian dressing

Baked potato topped with shredded mozzarella 1 whole-wheat dinner roll cheese (¼ cup) and green onions 1 scoop sherbet with fresh Roasted corn on the cob, soft margarine raspberries Hot raspberry tea Snack 6 oz cranberry juice 2 cups popcorn Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 15.06; 15.09 Topic: Cancer; Nutrient functions; Dietary requirements Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes

99) Why is obesity specifically linked to an increased risk of breast cancer but not all cancers? Answer: This relationship may occur because obesity increases the production of hormones such as estrogen and insulin. Additionally, cancer cells may multiply more readily when excess energy is available to support their growth. Obesity also may contribute to cancer recurrence and reduce survival rates. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 15.09 Topic: Cancer Learning Objective: 15.06 Describe the development of cancer and the effects of genetic, environmental, and dietary factors on the risk of developing cancer. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes 100) Which of the following nutrients have all been linked to a possible decreased risk in the development of cancer? A) vitamin E, vitamin C, selenium, vitamin D B) saturated fat, sodium, chloride, manganese C) protein, cholesterol, vitamin A, folate D) vitamin B-12, vitamin B-6, biotin, fluoride Answer: A Explanation: Diets low in fruits and vegetables (rich sources of phytochemicals and antioxidant nutrients, such as selenium, vitamin C, and vitamin E) have been associated with an increased incidence of certain cancers. Vitamin D may inhibit the progression of cancer growth from malignant polyps in the colon. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 15.09 Topic: Cancer Learning Objective: 15.06 Describe the development of cancer and the effects of genetic, environmental, and dietary factors on the risk of developing cancer. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

101) Processed food is a good source of iodine because of the high amount of salt found in processed food. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The salt used in processed foods and specialty salts, such as kosher and sea salts, is not iodized. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.05 Topic: Food sources; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.02 List 3 important food sources for each trace mineral. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 102) A friend has been complaining of fatigue with activity and has been getting sick a lot lately. She has recently cut out all meat and animal products in an effort to decrease her fat intake. Which of the following minerals is your friend most likely to be deficient in that is causing her symptoms? A) iron B) iodine C) manganese D) sodium Answer: A Explanation: Mineral — Iron Major Functions — Functional component of hemoglobin and other key compounds used in respiration; immune function; cognitive development; energy metabolism Deficiency Symptoms — Fatigue on exertion; poor immune function; anemia Individuals at Risk — Infants; preschool children; women in childbearing years Adult RDA or Adequate Intake — Males: 8 mg Females: 18 mg Good Dietary Sources — Meats; seafood; enriched breads; fortified cereals; eggs Toxicity Symptoms — Gastrointestinal upset; Upper Level is 45 mg/day Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 15.05 Topic: Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 15.04 Describe the deficiency symptoms of trace minerals. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 16 Nutritional Aspects of Pregnancy and Breastfeeding 1) A characteristic of a favorable pregnancy outcome is A) a gestation period longer than 37 weeks B) a live, healthy infant C) an infant who weighs at least 5.5 pounds D) All of these are characteristics of a successful pregnancy. 2) A low birth weight infant weighs A) less than 7.5 pounds B) less than 7 pounds C) less than 6 pounds D) less than 5.5 pounds

3) The most appropriate time to focus on nutrition in regards to a healthy pregnancy is . A) throughout childbearing years B) immediately after conception C) during the first trimester D) during the second trimester 4) Infants born after 37 weeks' gestation and weighing less than 5.5 pounds are labeled . A) healthy birth weight B) premature C) large for gestational age D) small for gestational age 5) A small-for-gestational-age (SGA) infant A) weighs less than 5.5 pounds B) is likely to have nutritional complications C) is likely to have medical complications D) All of these choices are correct.

6) During the first two weeks after conception, the developing offspring is known as A) a zygote B) an embryo C) a fetus D) an ovum

7) After the eighth week of pregnancy, the developing offspring is known as A) a zygote B) an embryo C) a fetus D) an ovum

8) On average, a full-term infant at birth . A) weighs 5 to 6 pounds and is about 18 inches long B) weighs 7 to 8 pounds and is about 20 inches long C) weighs 8 to 9 pounds and is about 26 inches long D) weighs 9 to 10 pounds and is about 22 inches long 9) About 1 in pregnancies results in a spontaneous abortion, often before a woman even realizes she is pregnant. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 10) Maternal nutrient deficiencies or exposure to toxins can cause A) toxic levels of nutrient stores B) high birth weight C) abnormal organ function D) longer than normal gestation period 11) Excessive calorie intake during pregnancy can result in a fetus that A) has a high birth weight B) suffers from cretinism C) has decreased bone density D) has thyroid disorders

in the fetus.

12) Serious fetal malformations may occur when pregnant women consume very large doses of vitamin . A) K B) C C) B-12 D) A 13) Neural tube defects may occur when women consume too little pregnant. A) iron B) calcium C) folate D) zinc

before becoming

14) The fetus receives most nourishment through A) the placenta B) amniotic fluid C) antibodies D) meconium

15) Which of the following is NOT true about the placenta? A) It provides nourishment to the zygote. B) It synthesizes fatty acids, cholesterol, and glycogen. C) It produces hormones that affect the mother and fetus. D) It grows throughout pregnancy. 16) The fetus accumulates most of its body fat and mineral stores A) during the first trimester B) during the second trimester C) during the third trimester D) at any time during development

17) During the second trimester, a pregnant woman needs an average of an additional kcal per day. A) 100 B) 350 C) 450 D) 500 18) For pregnant woman, the RDA for protein increases by A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 50% 19) Severe zinc deficiencies during pregnancy can cause A) premature birth B) fetal growth retardation C) birth defects D) All of these are effects of zinc deficiencies during pregnancy. 20) An increased requirement for synthesis of red blood cells. A) vitamin E B) vitamin K C) folate D) calcium

over pre-pregnancy needs.

during pregnancy is partly due to its role in the

21) Maternal iron deficiency anemia can cause A) premature birth B) infant death C) labor complications D) All of these are effects of iron deficiency.

22) Physiological anemia that occurs during pregnancy . A) is the same as iron deficiency anemia B) is caused by insufficient intake of vitamin B-12 C) occurs because the plasma expands more than the number of red blood cells D) signals grave danger for the mother 23) The practice of eating non-food substances, such as clay or laundry starch, during pregnancy is called . A) hyperemesis B) pica C) pregnancy-induced hunger D) diuresis 24) Daily during pregnancy, women should try to . A) drink 3 cups of milk or milk products B) restrict nuts and dairy to prevent allergies for the newborn C) minimize intake of strong-tasting vegetables to 1 serving D) restrict their protein intake 25) Under what condition(s) is/are the use of nutrient supplements advisable? A) adolescent pregnancy B) multiple fetuses C) poverty D) inadequate maternal diet E) All of these choices are accurate. 26) A pregnant woman who is a vegan likely needs to take A) vitamin E and riboflavin B) calcium and iron C) protein and vitamin A D) thiamin and vitamin C

nutrient supplements.

27) The RDA for iron during pregnancy increases greatly. To reach this level the pregnant woman may . A) need to take a prenatal iron supplement B) need to double or triple the number of multivitamin-mineral tablets taken every day C) need to avoid cooking in iron cookware D) need to decrease her intake of vitamin C-rich fruits and vegetables which would lower the bioavailability of iron 4 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

28) Which condition increases the risk of a poor pregnancy outcome? A) young maternal age B) fasting during pregnancy C) food contaminants D) eating disorders E) All of these responses are correct. 29) An infant's birth weight is closely related to A) the length of gestation B) the mother's pre-pregnancy weight C) the weight the mother gains during pregnancy D) All of these choices are correct. 30) Obese pregnant women have an increased risk for A) low blood pressure B) gestational diabetes C) ketosis D) inadequate placenta development

31) Women who begin pregnancy underweight have an increased risk for A) high blood pressure B) gestational diabetes C) ketosis D) poor nutrient stores

32) Adolescents often have smaller babies than mature women. They are advised to gain more weight during pregnancy to . A) provide calories needed for the infant to be larger than normal at birth B) avoid ketosis C) meet both the fetal and mother's growth needs D) All of these choices are accurate. 33) For the best pregnancy outcome, overweight women (BMI > 26 to 29) should A) not gain any weight during pregnancy B) gain slightly more weight than women who begin pregnancy at a healthy weight C) gain about 15 to 25 pounds during pregnancy D) lose at least 4 or 5 pounds during pregnancy

34) Which component of weight gain accounts for the greatest amount of increased weight during pregnancy? A) Infant B) Placenta C) Amniotic fluid D) Breast tissue E) Maternal blood supply 5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

35) Women who begin pregnancy at a normal BMI should gain about pregnancy. A) 15 B) 15 to 25 C) 25 to 35 D) 28 to 40 36) Women who begin pregnancy at a low BMI should gain about pregnancy. A) 15 to 25 B) 25 to 35 C) 28 to 40 D) 45 to 55

pounds during

37) Which of these conditions indicates that a woman needs to pay particular attention to the quality of her diet during pregnancy? A) eating disorders B) phenylketonuria C) diabetes D) All of these choices are correct. 38) Which of the following factors may deplete a woman's nutrient stores? A) numerous previous pregnancies B) preterm births C) pregnancies after age 35 D) pregnancies more than 3 years apart 39) Pregnancy-induced hypertension . A) is a normal and expected condition seen during pregnancy B) occurs because of the increase in maternal plasma that occurs during pregnancy C) can develop into a deadly condition called eclampsia D) is also called hemodilution E) None of these choices are correct. 40) A characteristic of preeclampsia is A) intense hunger B) low blood pressure C) strong feelings of thirst D) blurred vision and headaches

41) Gestational diabetes . A) is a normal and expected condition seen during pregnancy. B) can develop into a deadly condition called eclampsia. C) is most common in women with a family history of diabetes. D) All of these choices are correct. 6 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

42) To keep gestational diabetes under control, recommendations for pregnant women include . A) regular exercise B) eating high glycemic load carbohydrates through the day C) taking chromium supplements D) All of these choices are correct. 43) A maternal practice that can be harmful to the fetus is A) a low-carbohydrate diet B) fasting C) smoking D) All of these choices are accurate.

44) WIC serves low-income . A) children up to the age of 5 B) newborns and infants C) pregnant & breastfeeding mothers D) All of these choices are accurate. 45) WIC aims to provide . A) nutrition education B) nutritional care C) nutritious food D) All of these choices are accurate. 46) Participation in WIC is associated with A) fewer infant deaths B) lower birth weights C) higher medical costs after birth D) All of these choices are accurate.

47) The bacterium Listeria monocytogenes can be fatal to the developing fetus. What foods are possible sources of this bacterium and should be avoided by pregnant women? A) Pasteurized milk B) Yogurt C) Brie and blue-veined cheeses D) All of these choices are accurate. 48) Heavy caffeine intake during pregnancy may A) decrease iron absorption B) increase risk for spontaneous abortion C) increase risk for low birth weight D) All of these choices are accurate.

49) Exposure to alcohol during fetal life may cause A) inadequate prenatal and infant growth B) physical deformities C) mental retardation D) All of these choices are correct.

50) Decreased learning capacity in childhood has been linked to exposure to fetal life. A) excessive calcium B) alcohol C) inadequate vitamin C D) inadequate vitamin D

during

51) To avoid constipation, pregnant women should increase intake of A) milk and dairy products B) whole-grain bread, bran, and fruits C) sugars and starches D) lean meat, poultry, and fish 52) Edema during late pregnancy is a problem if A) hypertension is detected B) excess protein is found in the urine C) extreme fluid retention occurs D) All of these choices are correct. E) None of these choices are correct.

53) To reduce heartburn symptoms, pregnant women should A) exercise right after meals B) eat larger meals in the morning C) limit caffeine and chocolate intake D) All of these choices are correct.

54) To minimize nausea during pregnancy, pregnant women should A) wear strong perfume B) drink a large glass of cool water before getting out of bed in the morning C) breathe warm, moist air D) None of these responses are accurate. 55) The ability to produce milk is affected by the hormone A) prolactin B) estrogen C) progesterone D) insulin E) thyroxine

56) The let-down reflex in breastfeeding is controlled by the hormone A) oxytocin B) prolactin C) estrogen D) progesterone E) secretin 57) The let-down reflex is inhibited by A) feeling confident and relaxed B) nervous tension and fatigue C) a sleepy baby D) All of these responses are correct.

58) The first fluid secreted by the mother's breast after giving birth is called A) colostrum B) prolactin C) lactalbumin D) mature milk

59) A factor in human milk that helps prevent the growth of some harmful bacteria in an infant's intestinal tract is . A) lactase B) albumin C) intrinsic factor D) Lactobacillus bifidus factor 60) Compared to pregnancy, the RDA for nutrients changes during lactation . A) only for energy B) only for protein and energy C) for many nutrients, but not proportionately for all nutrients D) None of these responses are correct; nutrient needs during lactation are the same as during pregnancy. 61) Average additional dietary energy requirements for lactation are approximately kcal per day. A) 100 - 200 B) 250 - 350 C) 400 - 500 D) 550 - 650 62) To produce human milk, a lactating woman needs A) 100 - 200 extra kcal per day above pre-pregnancy needs B) twice as much dietary protein as needed during pregnancy C) additional fluid daily D) twice as much dietary iron as needed during pregnancy E) All of these choices are accurate.

63) A benefit of breastfeeding for mothers is A) reduced risk for ovarian cancer B) less postpartum bleeding C) postpartum weight loss D) All of these responses are correct.

64) Women are more likely to choose to breastfeed their infants if they A) know the advantages of breastfeeding B) have a supportive partner C) deliver babies in a hospital that supports breastfeeding D) All of these choices are correct.

65) Consuming alcohol while breastfeeding . A) is recommended to help mothers relax B) increases milk output C) may cause babies to have disrupted sleep patterns D) may cause babies to drink more milk 66) Preterm infants are born before 37 weeks of gestation. 67) Poor maternal nutrient intakes are linked with low birth weights. 68) A developing offspring's cells have separated into a stack of 3 layers (mesoderm, endoderm, and ectoderm) when the zygote stage ends. 69) Most critical period for fetal/embryonic development occur during the second trimester of pregnancy. 70) The placenta's size and ability to support fetal growth depend on the mother's nutritional status. 71) Low birth weight infants have a greater risk for chronic disease in adult life. 72) Insufficient intake of protein during pregnancy is very common in the U.S. 73) Compared to a nonpregnant woman, a pregnant woman needs additional calories and additional amounts of a few critical micronutrients. 74) Megadoses of prenatal vitamin and mineral supplements are dangerous for the mother, but not the fetus. 75) Regular exercise can help control gestational diabetes. 76) Pregnant women should generally gain the most proportional weight during the first trimester. . 10 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

77) Insufficient weight gain in the last trimester of pregnancy increases the risk for fetal growth retardation. 78) Insufficient prenatal care increases the risk of delivering a low birth weight baby. 79) Eclampsia can cause maternal and fetal death. 80) Hormones synthesized by the placenta decrease the efficiency of insulin. 81) Uncontrolled gestational diabetes can cause the fetus to be born with a low birth weight. 82) Herbal products offer a safe way to treat disease in pregnant women. 83) Smokers secrete nicotine in their breast milk. 84) Breast size is an indicator of successful breastfeeding. 85) Which of the following would you recommend to a friend that is having difficulties breastfeeding her baby? A) Drink alcohol. This will have a relaxing effect. B) Find a relaxing environment to breastfeed your baby. C) Consume more milk. The excess milk will be converted into breastmilk. D) Decrease calorie intake. This will help with the production of more milk. 86) Your sister is pregnant and is very uncomfortable. She is experiencing heartburn daily and is looking for some relief. In your nutrition class, you just learned about heartburn during pregnancy. What advice can you offer her? A) Eat smaller meals more frequently to decrease the volume of food in the stomach. B) Do not lie down after eating to avoid the effects of gravity. C) Talk to her doctor about using antacids for relief. D) All of these choices could give her some relief. 87) Your friend just told you she is pregnant. She is concerned about the amount of weight she will gain during her pregnancy and is looking for some advice so that she and her baby can be healthy. Her pre-pregnancy weight was 155 pounds and she is 5'5" tall. Based on her prepregnancy weight, how much weight should your friend gain during her pregnancy? A) 11 to 20 lbs B) 15 to 25 lbs C) 25 to 35 lbs D) 28 to 40 lbs

88) Which of the following exercises would be most appropriate to continue to perform during a healthy pregnancy? A) kickboxing B) zumba C) swimming D) jogging 89) Design an appropriate exercise program for a healthy, pregnant female. Explain the benefits of this program and why this program is associated with the least possible risks. 90) Explain why breastfeeding is beneficial to the mother.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) A low birth weight infant weighs A) less than 7.5 pounds B) less than 7 pounds C) less than 6 pounds D) less than 5.5 pounds

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 3) The most appropriate time to focus on nutrition in regards to a healthy pregnancy is A) throughout childbearing years B) immediately after conception C) during the first trimester D) during the second trimester Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy; Women's health Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

4) Infants born after 37 weeks' gestation and weighing less than 5.5 pounds are labeled A) healthy birth weight B) premature C) large for gestational age D) small for gestational age

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) A small-for-gestational-age (SGA) infant A) weighs less than 5.5 pounds B) is likely to have nutritional complications C) is likely to have medical complications D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 6) During the first two weeks after conception, the developing offspring is known as A) a zygote B) an embryo C) a fetus D) an ovum

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

7) After the eighth week of pregnancy, the developing offspring is known as A) a zygote B) an embryo C) a fetus D) an ovum

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) On average, a full-term infant at birth . A) weighs 5 to 6 pounds and is about 18 inches long B) weighs 7 to 8 pounds and is about 20 inches long C) weighs 8 to 9 pounds and is about 26 inches long D) weighs 9 to 10 pounds and is about 22 inches long Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 9) About 1 in pregnancies results in a spontaneous abortion, often before a woman even realizes she is pregnant. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

10) Maternal nutrient deficiencies or exposure to toxins can cause A) toxic levels of nutrient stores B) high birth weight C) abnormal organ function D) longer than normal gestation period

in the fetus.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy; Birth defects Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 11) Excessive calorie intake during pregnancy can result in a fetus that A) has a high birth weight B) suffers from cretinism C) has decreased bone density D) has thyroid disorders

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 12) Serious fetal malformations may occur when pregnant women consume very large doses of vitamin . A) K B) C C) B-12 D) A Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

13) Neural tube defects may occur when women consume too little pregnant. A) iron B) calcium C) folate D) zinc

before becoming

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 14) The fetus receives most nourishment through A) the placenta B) amniotic fluid C) antibodies D) meconium

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 15) Which of the following is NOT true about the placenta? A) It provides nourishment to the zygote. B) It synthesizes fatty acids, cholesterol, and glycogen. C) It produces hormones that affect the mother and fetus. D) It grows throughout pregnancy. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.02 List major physiological changes that occur in the body during pregnancy and describe how nutrient needs are altered. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

16) The fetus accumulates most of its body fat and mineral stores A) during the first trimester B) during the second trimester C) during the third trimester D) at any time during development

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.02 List major physiological changes that occur in the body during pregnancy and describe how nutrient needs are altered. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 17) During the second trimester, a pregnant woman needs an average of an additional kcal per day. A) 100 B) 350 C) 450 D) 500 Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.02 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 16.02 List major physiological changes that occur in the body during pregnancy and describe how nutrient needs are altered. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 18) For pregnant woman, the RDA for protein increases by A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 50%

over pre-pregnancy needs.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.02 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 16.02 List major physiological changes that occur in the body during pregnancy and describe how nutrient needs are altered. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 6 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

19) Severe zinc deficiencies during pregnancy can cause A) premature birth B) fetal growth retardation C) birth defects D) All of these are effects of zinc deficiencies during pregnancy.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.02 Topic: Pregnancy; Birth defects; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the special nutritional needs of pregnant and lactating women, summarize factors that put them at risk for nutrient deficiencies, and plan a nutritious diet for them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 20) An increased requirement for synthesis of red blood cells. A) vitamin E B) vitamin K C) folate D) calcium

during pregnancy is partly due to its role in the

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.02 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 16.02 List major physiological changes that occur in the body during pregnancy and describe how nutrient needs are altered. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

21) Maternal iron deficiency anemia can cause A) premature birth B) infant death C) labor complications D) All of these are effects of iron deficiency.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.02 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the special nutritional needs of pregnant and lactating women, summarize factors that put them at risk for nutrient deficiencies, and plan a nutritious diet for them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 22) Physiological anemia that occurs during pregnancy . A) is the same as iron deficiency anemia B) is caused by insufficient intake of vitamin B-12 C) occurs because the plasma expands more than the number of red blood cells D) signals grave danger for the mother Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.02 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.02 List major physiological changes that occur in the body during pregnancy and describe how nutrient needs are altered. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 23) The practice of eating non-food substances, such as clay or laundry starch, during pregnancy is called . A) hyperemesis B) pica C) pregnancy-induced hunger D) diuresis Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.02 Topic: Pregnancy; Other eating disorders Learning Objective: 16.02 List major physiological changes that occur in the body during pregnancy and describe how nutrient needs are altered. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

24) Daily during pregnancy, women should try to . A) drink 3 cups of milk or milk products B) restrict nuts and dairy to prevent allergies for the newborn C) minimize intake of strong-tasting vegetables to 1 serving D) restrict their protein intake Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.03 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the special nutritional needs of pregnant and lactating women, summarize factors that put them at risk for nutrient deficiencies, and plan a nutritious diet for them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 25) Under what condition(s) is/are the use of nutrient supplements advisable? A) adolescent pregnancy B) multiple fetuses C) poverty D) inadequate maternal diet E) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.03 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the special nutritional needs of pregnant and lactating women, summarize factors that put them at risk for nutrient deficiencies, and plan a nutritious diet for them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

26) A pregnant woman who is a vegan likely needs to take A) vitamin E and riboflavin B) calcium and iron C) protein and vitamin A D) thiamin and vitamin C

nutrient supplements.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.03 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the special nutritional needs of pregnant and lactating women, summarize factors that put them at risk for nutrient deficiencies, and plan a nutritious diet for them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 27) The RDA for iron during pregnancy increases greatly. To reach this level the pregnant woman may . A) need to take a prenatal iron supplement B) need to double or triple the number of multivitamin-mineral tablets taken every day C) need to avoid cooking in iron cookware D) need to decrease her intake of vitamin C-rich fruits and vegetables which would lower the bioavailability of iron Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.03 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary requirements; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the special nutritional needs of pregnant and lactating women, summarize factors that put them at risk for nutrient deficiencies, and plan a nutritious diet for them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

28) Which condition increases the risk of a poor pregnancy outcome? A) young maternal age B) fasting during pregnancy C) food contaminants D) eating disorders E) All of these responses are correct. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.04 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 29) An infant's birth weight is closely related to A) the length of gestation B) the mother's pre-pregnancy weight C) the weight the mother gains during pregnancy D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.04 Topic: Pregnancy; Infancy Learning Objective: 16.02 List major physiological changes that occur in the body during pregnancy and describe how nutrient needs are altered. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 30) Obese pregnant women have an increased risk for A) low blood pressure B) gestational diabetes C) ketosis D) inadequate placenta development

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.04 Topic: Pregnancy; Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 11 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

31) Women who begin pregnancy underweight have an increased risk for A) high blood pressure B) gestational diabetes C) ketosis D) poor nutrient stores

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.04 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.03 Specify the optimal weight gain during pregnancy for adult women. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 32) Adolescents often have smaller babies than mature women. They are advised to gain more weight during pregnancy to . A) provide calories needed for the infant to be larger than normal at birth B) avoid ketosis C) meet both the fetal and mother's growth needs D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.04 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.03 Specify the optimal weight gain during pregnancy for adult women. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 33) For the best pregnancy outcome, overweight women (BMI > 26 to 29) should A) not gain any weight during pregnancy B) gain slightly more weight than women who begin pregnancy at a healthy weight C) gain about 15 to 25 pounds during pregnancy D) lose at least 4 or 5 pounds during pregnancy

34) Which component of weight gain accounts for the greatest amount of increased weight during pregnancy? A) Infant B) Placenta C) Amniotic fluid D) Breast tissue E) Maternal blood supply Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.04 Topic: Pregnancy; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 16.03 Specify the optimal weight gain during pregnancy for adult women. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 35) Women who begin pregnancy at a normal BMI should gain about pregnancy. A) 15 B) 15 to 25 C) 25 to 35 D) 28 to 40

pounds during

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.04 Topic: Pregnancy; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 16.03 Specify the optimal weight gain during pregnancy for adult women. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 36) Women who begin pregnancy at a low BMI should gain about pregnancy. A) 15 to 25 B) 25 to 35 C) 28 to 40 D) 45 to 55

pounds during

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.04 Topic: Pregnancy; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 16.03 Specify the optimal weight gain during pregnancy for adult women. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 13 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

37) Which of these conditions indicates that a woman needs to pay particular attention to the quality of her diet during pregnancy? A) eating disorders B) phenylketonuria C) diabetes D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 38) Which of the following factors may deplete a woman's nutrient stores? A) numerous previous pregnancies B) preterm births C) pregnancies after age 35 D) pregnancies more than 3 years apart Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 39) Pregnancy-induced hypertension . A) is a normal and expected condition seen during pregnancy B) occurs because of the increase in maternal plasma that occurs during pregnancy C) can develop into a deadly condition called eclampsia D) is also called hemodilution E) None of these choices are correct. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 14 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

40) A characteristic of preeclampsia is A) intense hunger B) low blood pressure C) strong feelings of thirst D) blurred vision and headaches

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 41) Gestational diabetes . A) is a normal and expected condition seen during pregnancy. B) can develop into a deadly condition called eclampsia. C) is most common in women with a family history of diabetes. D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 42) To keep gestational diabetes under control, recommendations for pregnant women include . A) regular exercise B) eating high glycemic load carbohydrates through the day C) taking chromium supplements D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy; Physical activity and exercise; Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 15 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

43) A maternal practice that can be harmful to the fetus is A) a low-carbohydrate diet B) fasting C) smoking D) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.07 List substances and practices to avoid during pregnancy and lactation and describe why they are harmful. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 44) WIC serves low-income . A) children up to the age of 5 B) newborns and infants C) pregnant & breastfeeding mothers D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy; Community nutrition services; Infancy Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 45) WIC aims to provide . A) nutrition education B) nutritional care C) nutritious food D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy; Community nutrition services Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 16 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

46) Participation in WIC is associated with A) fewer infant deaths B) lower birth weights C) higher medical costs after birth D) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy; Community nutrition services Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 47) The bacterium Listeria monocytogenes can be fatal to the developing fetus. What foods are possible sources of this bacterium and should be avoided by pregnant women? A) Pasteurized milk B) Yogurt C) Brie and blue-veined cheeses D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy; Foodborne illness Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 48) Heavy caffeine intake during pregnancy may A) decrease iron absorption B) increase risk for spontaneous abortion C) increase risk for low birth weight D) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 17 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

49) Exposure to alcohol during fetal life may cause A) inadequate prenatal and infant growth B) physical deformities C) mental retardation D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy; Alcohol; Birth defects Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 50) Decreased learning capacity in childhood has been linked to exposure to life. A) excessive calcium B) alcohol C) inadequate vitamin C D) inadequate vitamin D

during fetal

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy; Alcohol Learning Objective: 16.07 List substances and practices to avoid during pregnancy and lactation and describe why they are harmful. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 51) To avoid constipation, pregnant women should increase intake of A) milk and dairy products B) whole-grain bread, bran, and fruits C) sugars and starches D) lean meat, poultry, and fish

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary requirements; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 16.02 List major physiological changes that occur in the body during pregnancy and describe how nutrient needs are altered. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 18 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

52) Edema during late pregnancy is a problem if A) hypertension is detected B) excess protein is found in the urine C) extreme fluid retention occurs D) All of these choices are correct. E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 53) To reduce heartburn symptoms, pregnant women should A) exercise right after meals B) eat larger meals in the morning C) limit caffeine and chocolate intake D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy; Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 54) To minimize nausea during pregnancy, pregnant women should A) wear strong perfume B) drink a large glass of cool water before getting out of bed in the morning C) breathe warm, moist air D) None of these responses are accurate.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.07 List substances and practices to avoid during pregnancy and lactation and describe why they are harmful. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 19 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

55) The ability to produce milk is affected by the hormone A) prolactin B) estrogen C) progesterone D) insulin E) thyroxine

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.06 Topic: Lactation Learning Objective: 16.08 Describe the physiological process of breastfeeding. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 57) The let-down reflex is inhibited by A) feeling confident and relaxed B) nervous tension and fatigue C) a sleepy baby D) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.06 Topic: Lactation Learning Objective: 16.08 Describe the physiological process of breastfeeding. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

58) The first fluid secreted by the mother's breast after giving birth is called A) colostrum B) prolactin C) lactalbumin D) mature milk

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.06 Topic: Lactation Learning Objective: 16.08 Describe the physiological process of breastfeeding. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 59) A factor in human milk that helps prevent the growth of some harmful bacteria in an infant's intestinal tract is . A) lactase B) albumin C) intrinsic factor D) Lactobacillus bifidus factor Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.06 Topic: Lactation Learning Objective: 16.08 Describe the physiological process of breastfeeding. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 60) Compared to pregnancy, the RDA for nutrients changes during lactation . A) only for energy B) only for protein and energy C) for many nutrients, but not proportionately for all nutrients D) None of these responses are correct; nutrient needs during lactation are the same as during pregnancy. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.06 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary requirements; Lactation Learning Objective: 16.05 Identify nutrients that often need to be supplemented during pregnancy and lactation and explain the reason for each. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

61) Average additional dietary energy requirements for lactation are approximately per day. A) 100 - 200 B) 250 - 350 C) 400 - 500 D) 550 - 650

kcal

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.07 Topic: Dietary requirements; Lactation Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the special nutritional needs of pregnant and lactating women, summarize factors that put them at risk for nutrient deficiencies, and plan a nutritious diet for them. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 62) To produce human milk, a lactating woman needs A) 100 - 200 extra kcal per day above pre-pregnancy needs B) twice as much dietary protein as needed during pregnancy C) additional fluid daily D) twice as much dietary iron as needed during pregnancy E) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.07 Topic: Dietary requirements; Lactation Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the special nutritional needs of pregnant and lactating women, summarize factors that put them at risk for nutrient deficiencies, and plan a nutritious diet for them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

63) A benefit of breastfeeding for mothers is A) reduced risk for ovarian cancer B) less postpartum bleeding C) postpartum weight loss D) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.08 Topic: Lactation; Women's health Learning Objective: 16.08 Describe the physiological process of breastfeeding. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 64) Women are more likely to choose to breastfeed their infants if they A) know the advantages of breastfeeding B) have a supportive partner C) deliver babies in a hospital that supports breastfeeding D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.08 Topic: Lactation Learning Objective: 16.08 Describe the physiological process of breastfeeding. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 65) Consuming alcohol while breastfeeding . A) is recommended to help mothers relax B) increases milk output C) may cause babies to have disrupted sleep patterns D) may cause babies to drink more milk Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.08 Topic: Alcohol; Lactation Learning Objective: 16.07 List substances and practices to avoid during pregnancy and lactation and describe why they are harmful. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

66) Preterm infants are born before 37 weeks of gestation. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy; Infancy Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 67) Poor maternal nutrient intakes are linked with low birth weights. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 68) A developing offspring's cells have separated into a stack of 3 layers (mesoderm, endoderm, and ectoderm) when the zygote stage ends. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 69) Most critical period for fetal/embryonic development occur during the second trimester of pregnancy. Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy; Birth defects Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 24 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

70) The placenta's size and ability to support fetal growth depend on the mother's nutritional status. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 71) Low birth weight infants have a greater risk for chronic disease in adult life. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 16.01 Describe the factors that predict a successful pregnancy outcome. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 72) Insufficient intake of protein during pregnancy is very common in the U.S. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Protein intake is sufficient before and during pregnancy in the U.S., since most Americans regularly consume above the RDA. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.02 Topic: Dietary requirements; Demographic trends and stats Learning Objective: 16.02 List major physiological changes that occur in the body during pregnancy and describe how nutrient needs are altered. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

73) Compared to a nonpregnant woman, a pregnant woman needs additional calories and additional amounts of a few critical micronutrients. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In just 9 months or so, a mother's body provides all the calories and nutrients needed to produce an infant 5000 times larger than the fertilized egg. To accomplish this, a pregnant woman needs additional calories and more of almost every nutrient than a nonpregnant woman. The extra calories and nutrients support the growth and development of the fetus, placenta, and mother's body, as well as increased maternal metabolism. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.02 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 16.02 List major physiological changes that occur in the body during pregnancy and describe how nutrient needs are altered. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 74) Megadoses of prenatal vitamin and mineral supplements are dangerous for the mother, but not the fetus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: It is important not to exceed the recommended dose because megadoses of vitamin and mineral supplements can be dangerous for both the pregnant woman and the fetus. For example, iron, zinc, selenium, and vitamins A, B-6, C, and D can exert toxic effects when taken in large doses. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 16.07 List substances and practices to avoid during pregnancy and lactation and describe why they are harmful. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 75) Regular exercise can help control gestational diabetes. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy; Physical activity and exercise; Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 26 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

76) Pregnant women should generally gain the most proportional weight during the first trimester. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Few, if any, of these extra calories are needed during the 1st trimester of pregnancy, when the developing offspring gains little weight. During the 2nd trimester, a daily increase of about 350 calories is recommended. And in the 3rd trimester, a daily increase of approximately 450 calories is recommended. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.04 Topic: Pregnancy; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 16.03 Specify the optimal weight gain during pregnancy for adult women. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 77) Insufficient weight gain in the last trimester of pregnancy increases the risk for fetal growth retardation. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.04 Topic: Pregnancy; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 16.03 Specify the optimal weight gain during pregnancy for adult women. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 78) Insufficient prenatal care increases the risk of delivering a low birth weight baby. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.04 Topic: Pregnancy; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 16.03 Specify the optimal weight gain during pregnancy for adult women. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

79) Eclampsia can cause maternal and fetal death. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the special nutritional needs of pregnant and lactating women, summarize factors that put them at risk for nutrient deficiencies, and plan a nutritious diet for them. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 80) Hormones synthesized by the placenta decrease the efficiency of insulin. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy; Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 81) Uncontrolled gestational diabetes can cause the fetus to be born with a low birth weight. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Untreated gestational diabetes can severely deplete fetal iron stores. In addition, uncontrolled diabetes can cause the fetus to grow quite large. The oversupply of glucose from maternal circulation signals the fetus to increase insulin production, which causes fetal tissues to readily use glucose for growth. Another threat is that the infant may have low blood glucose at birth because of the tendency to produce extra insulin, which began during gestation. Other concerns are the potential for preterm delivery and increased risk of birth trauma and malformations. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy; Blood glucose regulation Learning Objective: 16.06 Discuss nutrition-related problems that can occur during pregnancy and suggest techniques for coping with these problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

82) Herbal products offer a safe way to treat disease in pregnant women. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Alcohol, drugs, herbal and botanical products, and smoking are lifestyle choices that increase the risk of a poor pregnancy outcome. A woman should avoid substances that can harm the developing offspring, especially during the 1st trimester. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 16.07 List substances and practices to avoid during pregnancy and lactation and describe why they are harmful. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 83) Smokers secrete nicotine in their breast milk. Answer: TRUE Explanation: TRUE statement Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.08 Topic: Lactation Learning Objective: 16.07 List substances and practices to avoid during pregnancy and lactation and describe why they are harmful. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 84) Breast size is an indicator of successful breastfeeding. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Women with small breasts can produce all the milk their babies need; there is no relationship between breast size and quantity of milk produced. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.08 Topic: Lactation Learning Objective: 16.08 Describe the physiological process of breastfeeding. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

85) Which of the following would you recommend to a friend that is having difficulties breastfeeding her baby? A) Drink alcohol. This will have a relaxing effect. B) Find a relaxing environment to breastfeed your baby. C) Consume more milk. The excess milk will be converted into breastmilk. D) Decrease calorie intake. This will help with the production of more milk. Answer: B Explanation: Tension and anxiety can prevent oxytocin from controlling the letdown reflex to release milk from the breast. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 16.07 Topic: Lactation Learning Objective: 16.07 List substances and practices to avoid during pregnancy and lactation and describe why they are harmful. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 86) Your sister is pregnant and is very uncomfortable. She is experiencing heartburn daily and is looking for some relief. In your nutrition class, you just learned about heartburn during pregnancy. What advice can you offer her? A) Eat smaller meals more frequently to decrease the volume of food in the stomach. B) Do not lie down after eating to avoid the effects of gravity. C) Talk to her doctor about using antacids for relief. D) All of these choices could give her some relief. Answer: D Explanation: These are all recommendations to alleviate heartburn. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 16.05 Topic: Pregnancy; Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 16.02 List major physiological changes that occur in the body during pregnancy and describe how nutrient needs are altered. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

87) Your friend just told you she is pregnant. She is concerned about the amount of weight she will gain during her pregnancy and is looking for some advice so that she and her baby can be healthy. Her pre-pregnancy weight was 155 pounds and she is 5'5" tall. Based on her pre-pregnancy weight, how much weight should your friend gain during her pregnancy? A) 11 to 20 lbs B) 15 to 25 lbs C) 25 to 35 lbs D) 28 to 40 lbs Answer: B Explanation: This woman's BMI is 26 (70.45 kg/2.7 m); therefore her recommended weight gain would be for an overweight individual, which is 15-25. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 16.04 Topic: Pregnancy; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 16.03 Specify the optimal weight gain during pregnancy for adult women. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 88) Which of the following exercises would be most appropriate to continue to perform during a healthy pregnancy? A) kickboxing B) zumba C) swimming D) jogging Answer: C Explanation: Swimming would be the likely least intense and aerobically jarring exercise of those listed. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 16.03 Topic: Pregnancy; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 16.07 List substances and practices to avoid during pregnancy and lactation and describe why they are harmful. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute

89) Design an appropriate exercise program for a healthy, pregnant female. Explain the benefits of this program and why this program is associated with the least possible risks. Answer: A low or moderate intensity exercise program can offer physical and psychological benefits to a woman experiencing a normal, healthy pregnancy. Benefits include improved cardiovascular function, an easier and less complicated labor, and an improved attitude and mental state. Exercise also can help prevent or treat gestational diabetes. Infants born to women who exercise tend to be leaner and more neurologically mature than babies born to nonexercisers. Women with high risk pregnancies, such as those experiencing premature labor contractions, may need to restrict their physical activity. Exercise moderately for about 30 minutes daily on most days of the week. • Drink plenty of liquids to maintain normal fluid and electrolyte balance and avoid dehydration. • Keep heart rate below 140 beats per minute to maintain adequate blood (and oxygen) flow to the fetus. • Include a cool-down period at the end of exercise sessions so that heart rate can gradually return to normal. After about the 4th month, avoid exercises that are done while lying down because the enlarged uterus compresses blood vessels and cuts down blood flow to the fetus. • Avoid deep flexing (e.g., deep knee bends), joint extensions (e.g., leg stretches), and activities that jar the joints (e.g., jumping) because connective tissue that has become more elastic to facilitate normal childbirth can be damaged if overstressed in exercise. • Prevent increases in body temperature by not exercising in hot, humid weather or engaging in strenuous activities for more than 15 minutes. High body temperatures can damage enzymes that regulate fetal development. • Stop exercising immediately if discomfort occurs—aches and pains are a warning that something may be wrong. • Avoid strenuous or endurance activities because they can cause lower than normal birth weights. • Avoid activities that could cause abdominal trauma (e.g., horseback riding, martial arts), that involve rapid shifts in balance or body position that may cause accidental falls (e.g., basketball, skiing, hockey), or that compress the uterus (e.g., scuba diving). • Avoid becoming overly tired. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 16.03 Topic: Pregnancy; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 16.07 List substances and practices to avoid during pregnancy and lactation and describe why they are harmful. Bloom's: Evaluate

90) Explain why breastfeeding is beneficial to the mother. Answer: Earlier recovery from pregnancy due to the action of hormones that promote a quicker return of the uterus to its prepregnancy state Decreased risk of ovarian and premenopausal breast cancer Potential for quicker return to prepregnancy weight Potential for delayed ovulation and therefore reduced chances of pregnancy (a short-term benefit, however) Potential bone remineralization to levels exceeding those before lactation Less postpartum bleeding Reduced risk of type 2 diabetes among women with no history of gestational diabetes Reduced risk of Metabolic Syndrome later in life Reduced risk of rheumatoid arthritis if the mother breastfeeds for more than 12 months during her lifetime Decreased feelings of depression in postpartum period after childbirth Lower household food costs (extra food for a breastfeeding mother is less expensive than infant formula) Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.08 Topic: Lactation; Women's health Learning Objective: 16.08 Describe the physiological process of breastfeeding. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 17 Nutrition during the Growing Years 1) During the first year of life, the infant increases in length by birth. A) 20 B) 33 C) 50 D) 100

% over what it was at

2) According to present-day growth charts, the average infant will double its birth weight at about months of age and will triple its birth weight at about months. A) 4 to 6; 12 B) 2 to 3; 6 C) 10; 12 to 18 D) 12; 18 3) An infant's birth weight generally A) increases very little B) doubles C) triples D) quadruples

during the first year of life.

4) When adolescence ends, females generally have A) one-third B) half C) two-thirds D) four-fifths 5) When adolescence ends, males generally have A) one-third B) half C) two-thirds D) four-fifths

as much lean body mass as males.

as much body fat as females.

6) Throughout the adolescent years, both males and females gain about height. A) 5 B) 15 C) 25 D) 35

% of their adult

7) When adolescence ends, on average both males and females weigh when they entered this life stage. A) 10 to 25 B) 25 to 45 C) 45 to 85 D) 75 to 105 8) By the age of about A) 2 to 3 B) 5 to 6 C) 8 to 9 D) 11 to 13

% more than

years, body water levels are similar to those of adults.

9) Changes in height and weight in children are used to indicate A) the effectiveness of the caregiver B) long-term effects of nutrition C) energy intake D) the child's genetic potential for development

10) Over time, measurements of height, weight, and head circumference A) are used to assess an infant's growth and development B) are used to compare an infant's growth to others of the same age and gender C) are used by pediatricians to look for health problems D) All of these choices are accurate. 11) A child is diagnosed as obese when A) BMI-for-age reaches the 85th percentile B) stature-for-age reaches the 95th percentile C) BMI-for-age reaches the 95th percentile D) weight-for-age reaches the 90th percentile

12) A child is considered underweight when . A) BMI-for-age drops below the 25th percentile B) weight-for-age drops below the 10th percentile C) BMI-for-age drops below the 5th percentile D) stature-for-age drops below the 25th percentile and weight-for-age drops below the 10th percentile 13) Which is a good indicator of long-term (versus recent) nutritional status? A) Stature-for-age B) BMI-for-age C) Head circumference-for-age D) All of these are good indicators of recent nutritional status.

14) Infants and children who do not grow at the expected rate for several months are more than likely experiencing . A) epiphyseal growth B) failure to thrive C) physical depression D) poor socialization 15) Which is true about growth in height? A) It cannot occur after the epiphyses fuse. B) It cannot occur before the epiphyses fuse. C) The epiphyses are not related to growth in height. 16) Growth plates at the end of long bones are called A) calcification B) osteoporosis C) rickets D) epiphyses

17) What could cause failure to thrive in an infant? A) physical problems B) poor infant-parent interactions C) inborn errors of metabolism D) All of these choices are correct. E) None of these choices are correct. 18) Except for pregnancy and lactation, the total quantities of nutrients and calories needed during are greater than any other stage of the life cycle. A) infancy B) childhood C) adolescence D) All of these responses are correct. 19) Newborns need about A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 100

calories per pound of body weight each day.

20) Total calorie needs peak for females at about age A) 3 to 4 years B) 6 to 7 years C) 11 to 13 years D) 15 to 16 years

21) The high metabolic rate of infants results from A) the large surface area of the infant's body B) the calories needed to digest food C) the physical activity of the infant D) All of these choices are accurate. 22) The protein needs of an infant are about adults'. A) one-fourth B) half C) twice D) three times

as much per pound of body weight as

23) In developing countries, inadequate intake of growth, childhood illness, and death. A) carbohydrate B) protein C) fat D) vitamin A

is a primary contributor to stunted

24) What percent of calories should total fat make up in an infant's diet? A) 20% or less B) 20% to 30% C) 40% to 55% D) 50% to 75% 25) The primary carbohydrate in the diet of most infants is A) sucrose B) glucose C) lactose D) maltose

26) High-protein diets are not good for infants . A) unless they are highly digestible proteins B) because they are hypoallergenic C) because the infant's kidneys cannot clear large amounts of urea every day D) All of these choices are accurate. 27) About how much protein should an 18-pound (i.e., 8.2 kg), 10-month-old baby consume each day? A) 8 grams B) 24 grams C) 12 grams D) 32 grams

28) About how much protein should a 24-pound (i.e., 11.0 kg), 2-year-old be consuming each day? A) 12 grams B) 28 grams C) 38 grams D) 50 grams 29) Why do infants have a greater need for water than older humans? A) Infants have a high body surface area. B) Infants have a greater proportion of body water. C) Infants' kidneys are not as efficient. D) All of these responses are correct. E) None of these responses are correct. 30) When is an infant likely to need supplemental water? A) when the infant has a fever B) when the infant has diarrhea C) when the weather is hot D) All of these choices are correct. E) None of these choices are correct; an infant never needs supplemental water. 31) An infant may suffer from water intoxication when A) overfed water instead of formula B) the weather is hot C) infant formula powder is underdiluted D) the infant has a fever 32) Infant iron stores are typically exhausted by their diet. A) 0 to 2 months B) 4 to 6 months C) 7 to 8 months D) 10 to 12 months

of age and need to be replaced by

33) Why are adolescents at risk for iron deficiency anemia? A) Blood volume is expanding. B) Menstruation begins in females. C) Lean body mass increases in males. D) All of these choices are accurate. 34) Fluoride supplements should generally be given to . A) breastfed infants beginning at 1 month old B) infants after 6 months of age if the home's water supply is not fluoridated C) all children until they begin using fluoride-containing toothpaste D) None of these choices are accurate. 5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

35) Which infants have special vitamin needs? A) Infants at birth need vitamin K. B) Breastfed infants may need iron supplements. C) Breastfed infants whose mothers are vegans generally need vitamin B-12 supplements. D) All of these choices are accurate. 36) It is best to avoid serving cow's milk until the infant reaches the age of A) 6 months B) 10 months C) 12 months D) 18 months

37) With the possible exception(s) of , human milk provides sufficient amounts of all the nutrients needed during the first 6 months of life. A) vitamin D B) iron C) fluoride D) All of these choices are accurate. E) None of these choices are accurate. 38) Which protein in human milk increases iron absorption? A) casein B) lactalbumin C) lactoferrin D) bifidus factor 39) Compared to foremilk, hind milk has A) more fat B) more protein C) fewer calories D) All of these choices are correct.

40) Which is NOT true about the fat in human milk? A) The type of fatty acids in human milk depends on the mother's diet. B) The fats in human milk are provided by the mother's diet and are synthesized in the breast. C) Human milk is low in cholesterol and linoleic acid. D) Human milk contains omega-3 fatty acids to support brain and eye development. 41) If human milk or infant formula is not available, can provide a safe, nutritious alternative for infants. A) sweetened condensed milk B) soy drinks C) evaporated milk D) All of these are healthy alternatives to human milk or infant formula. E) None of these are healthy alternatives to human milk or infant formula. 6 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

42) Why is cow's milk not recommended for infants? A) Its calcium content is too low. B) Its vitamin E content is too high. C) Its protein content is too high. D) Its vitamin C content is too high. E) All of these responses are accurate. 43) An advantage to infants of being breastfed is . A) reduced risk for food allergies B) enhanced visual acuity and learning ability C) reduced risk for crooked teeth D) reduced risk for diarrhea E) All of these are advantages of breastfeeding for the infant. 44) What are signs that an infant has had enough to eat? A) becoming playful B) falling asleep C) turning head away or not paying attention D) All of these choices are accurate. 45) How can you tell a breastfed infant is receiving adequate nourishment? A) The infant has 6 or more wet diapers daily. B) Weight gain is normal according to growth charts. C) The infant has 1 to 2 bowel movements daily that look like lumpy mustard. D) All of these answers are correct. 46) A baby should generally be burped . A) every 2 to 3 minutes during feeding B) after giving 1 to 2 ounces of formula C) at the beginning of the feeding D) when the baby begins to spit up a bit of milk 47) The time to introduce solid foods to an infant's diet depends on his or her A) nutritional needs B) physiological capabilities C) physical abilities D) All of these responses are correct.

49) Introducing solid foods to an infant's diet before the infant needs them can A) potentially strain the young infant's organs B) help the child sleep through the night C) help the child walk at a younger age D) help the child achieve optimal height

50) By age 1 year, the calories provided from human milk or formula should be calories provided by solid food. A) twice as high as B) equal to C) half as many as D) one-third as high as 51) The first solid food usually introduced to the infant's diet is A) cow's milk B) strained fruits C) pureed meats D) iron-fortified infant cereals

the

52) When a new food is introduced, the amount that should be served is about A) 1 teaspoon B) 2 tablespoons C) 1/4 cup D) 1/3 cup

53) When serving a food for the first time to an infant, . A) the food should be a single-ingredient (not mixed) food item B) wait several days before serving another new food C) expect the baby to eat only a few bites D) All of these responses are correct. 54) Which cereal is least likely to cause allergies in infants? A) rice B) wheat C) barley D) oats 55) When are many babies ready for finger foods? A) 1 month of age B) 3 months of age C) 6 months of age D) 9 months of age

56) What is wrong with giving juice in a bottle or propping up a bottle of formula for the child to drink at bedtime? A) There is nothing wrong with this practice. It helps the child grow developmentally. B) Sugar bathes the teeth, bacteria grow, acids are produced from sugar, and acids dissolve tooth enamel. C) It is best for an infant to be held when drinking from a bottle for the sense of security that it provides. D) Often, the contents of the bottle spoil, which can lead to gastrointestinal upsets. 57) It is recommended that honey not be given to infants because it A) is high in energy B) may contain Salmonella C) may contain Clostridium botulinum spores D) is too sweet

58) For normal-weight children, reduced-fat milk is recommended to be introduced into a child's diet . A) after 5 years of age B) after 4 years of age C) after 2 years of age D) after 6 months of age 59) Which food on this list is NOT appropriate for an infant less than one year old? A) egg yolk B) honey C) orange juice D) cooked and strained vegetables 60) Which of these foods pose a choking hazard for infants and children? A) popcorn B) peanut butter C) nuts D) grapes E) All of these foods pose choking hazards. 61) A child who exhibits signs of may be suffering from undernutrition. A) fatigue B) increased susceptibility to infection C) underweight D) All of these are signs of undernutrition. 62) An appropriate serving size of carrots for a 3-year-old is approximately A) 3 teaspoons B) 3 tablespoons C) 1/3 cup D) 2/3 cup

63) Which foods are typically NOT likely to appeal to preschool children? A) thick beef stew B) creamy tuna casserole C) spicy chicken D) All of these choices are correct. 64) To help children develop good nutritional habits, . A) limit the number of new foods they are offered B) let children make some choices about the food they eat C) serve new foods at the end of the meal when the child is not hungry D) be certain children finish all the food they are served 65) The preschool years are typically characterized by A) a slower growth rate B) a decreased appetite C) changes in eating behavior D) All of these choices are accurate.

66) What do preschool children typically like to eat? A) familiar foods B) foods served at comfortable temperatures C) mild flavors D) crisp-textured foods E) All of these choices are accurate. 67) To get a child to try a new food, . A) offer food rewards, such as a favorite dessert B) add sugar or butter to the food C) employ the "one bite" rule D) All of these choices are accurate. 68) Which is NOT a common mealtime challenge with preschoolers? A) picky eating B) food jags C) refusing to eat D) pica 69) Which food-related behaviors can negatively affect the quality of adolescents' diets? A) meal skipping B) snacking C) eating out D) All of these choices are correct.

70) What is a typical nutritional problem of adolescent girls? A) Not drinking milk B) Iron deficiency anemia C) Frequent dieting D) All of these choices are correct. 71) Constipation in many children is often caused by: A) drinking too much water. B) drinking too much milk. C) eating too many snacks. D) All of these choices are correct. 72) A typical sign of dehydration in an infant is A) no or few tears when crying B) severe drooling C) ear aches D) All of these are signs of dehydration.

73) A baby that sleeps with a bottle filled with formula has an increased risk for A) ear infections B) diarrhea C) allergies D) colic

74) What factor(s) contributes to childhood obesity? A) Increased levels of "screen time" B) Genetics C) High-fat, high-energy snacks D) Little physical activity E) All of these choices are correct. 75) What is the recommended treatment for childhood obesity? A) Increase physical activity. B) Decrease intake of high-fat, high-energy foods. C) Modify problem behaviors, such as snacking while watching TV. D) All of these choices are correct. 76) Iron deficiency anemia is most likely to occur A) between birth and age 3 months B) between the ages of 12 and 24 months C) between the ages of 3 to 5 years D) after the child starts school

77) Instead of a double cheeseburger from a fast food restaurant for lunch, the hungry adolescent could make a healthier choice by choosing instead. A) french fries and fruit juice B) a hot dog and cola C) a grilled chicken sandwich with lettuce and tomato D) fried chicken and creamy potato salad E) None of these choices are correct. 78) Menarche is . A) cell division B) cell growth C) the onset of menses D) the excretion of lipids, waxes, and triglycerides E) excessive restlessness 79) One-third of all growth in a lifetime occurs during adolescence. 80) Per pound of body weight, nutrient needs during adolescence are higher than during any other stage of the lifecycle. 81) Adolescence begins with the onset of puberty. 82) The growth percentile curve a child follows depends ONLY on his/her genetic potential. 83) "Catch up" growth is possible after the epiphyses have closed. 84) More amino acids are considered essential for adults than for infants. 85) Teens in the U.S. tend to consume far more calcium than needed. 86) In the U.S., infant formula standards are set to match the nutrient composition of human milk as closely as possible. 87) Breastfed infants have a reduced risk of obesity and ear infections, as compared to formulafed infants. 88) Infant formula should be prepared with cold water. 89) Infant formulas can be heated safely in the microwave oven. 90) Adding too much water to infant formula can be dangerous to the infant. 91) An infant's nutrient stores are exhausted by the time the infant has gained 3 pounds. 92) Bribing children to eat a new food is a good way to help them discover new foods. 12 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

93) To help children keep their weight under control, they should receive no more than 3 meals daily. 94) Serving new foods in a calm, supportive setting can help children to accept new foods. 95) The physical changes of adolescence can cause teens to be dissatisfied with their bodies. 96) Substance use can negatively affect teenagers' diets. 97) Babies with colic should not be breastfed. 98) In children, gastroesophageal reflux is most common after age 2 years. 99) Milk allergies seldom last beyond 3 years of age. 100) Acne is strongly linked with intake of fatty foods like pizza and chocolate. 101) A female who becomes pregnant within 2 years of menarche is at a higher nutritional risk than one who becomes pregnant later. 102) Children should be screened for elevated blood cholesterol if their families have histories of early development of heart disease. 103) Why should leftover formula always be discarded? 104) Leftover infant formula should always be discarded because it is contaminated by bacteria and enzymes from the baby. 105) Children with autism frequently have unusual eating behaviors. 106) Children with autism often have reduced sensitivity to food taste, smell, color, and/or texture. 107) Your friend is concerned that her son is gaining too much weight. Before seeking advice from her son's pediatrician, she wants you to give her your opinion because she knows you are taking a nutrition class. You learn from her that her son is 3' 10" and currently weighs 60 lbs. You also remember that he just had his 6th birthday. How would you classify her son after calculating his BMI? A) underweight B) normal weight C) overweight D) obese 108) List suggested recommendations for lifestyle modifications for an obese 10-year-old child.

109) Describe why young children are at a higher risk for developing iron deficiency anemia. What modifications can be made to help decrease their risk? 110) Explain why infants need more calories per unit of body weight than adults. 111) Discuss specific recommendations for supplements in children, if any.

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 17 Nutrition during the Growing Years 1) During the first year of life, the infant increases in length by birth. A) 20 B) 33 C) 50 D) 100

% over what it was at

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) According to present-day growth charts, the average infant will double its birth weight at about months of age and will triple its birth weight at about months. A) 4 to 6; 12 B) 2 to 3; 6 C) 10; 12 to 18 D) 12; 18 Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

3) An infant's birth weight generally A) increases very little B) doubles C) triples D) quadruples

during the first year of life.

as much lean body mass as males.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) When adolescence ends, males generally have A) one-third B) half C) two-thirds D) four-fifths

as much body fat as females.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

6) Throughout the adolescent years, both males and females gain about height. A) 5 B) 15 C) 25 D) 35

% of their adult

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 7) When adolescence ends, on average both males and females weigh they entered this life stage. A) 10 to 25 B) 25 to 45 C) 45 to 85 D) 75 to 105

% more than when

8) By the age of about A) 2 to 3 B) 5 to 6 C) 8 to 9 D) 11 to 13

years, body water levels are similar to those of adults.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 9) Changes in height and weight in children are used to indicate A) the effectiveness of the caregiver B) long-term effects of nutrition C) energy intake D) the child's genetic potential for development

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.02 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 10) Over time, measurements of height, weight, and head circumference A) are used to assess an infant's growth and development B) are used to compare an infant's growth to others of the same age and gender C) are used by pediatricians to look for health problems D) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.02 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

11) A child is diagnosed as obese when A) BMI-for-age reaches the 85th percentile B) stature-for-age reaches the 95th percentile C) BMI-for-age reaches the 95th percentile D) weight-for-age reaches the 90th percentile

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.02 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 12) A child is considered underweight when . A) BMI-for-age drops below the 25th percentile B) weight-for-age drops below the 10th percentile C) BMI-for-age drops below the 5th percentile D) stature-for-age drops below the 25th percentile and weight-for-age drops below the 10th percentile Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.02 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 13) Which is a good indicator of long-term (versus recent) nutritional status? A) Stature-for-age B) BMI-for-age C) Head circumference-for-age D) All of these are good indicators of recent nutritional status. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.02 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

14) Infants and children who do not grow at the expected rate for several months are more than likely experiencing . A) epiphyseal growth B) failure to thrive C) physical depression D) poor socialization Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.02 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 15) Which is true about growth in height? A) It cannot occur after the epiphyses fuse. B) It cannot occur before the epiphyses fuse. C) The epiphyses are not related to growth in height. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.02 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 16) Growth plates at the end of long bones are called A) calcification B) osteoporosis C) rickets D) epiphyses

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.02 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

17) What could cause failure to thrive in an infant? A) physical problems B) poor infant-parent interactions C) inborn errors of metabolism D) All of these choices are correct. E) None of these choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.02 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 18) Except for pregnancy and lactation, the total quantities of nutrients and calories needed during are greater than any other stage of the life cycle. A) infancy B) childhood C) adolescence D) All of these responses are correct. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 19) Newborns need about A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 100

calories per pound of body weight each day.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 7 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

20) Total calorie needs peak for females at about age A) 3 to 4 years B) 6 to 7 years C) 11 to 13 years D) 15 to 16 years

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 21) The high metabolic rate of infants results from A) the large surface area of the infant's body B) the calories needed to digest food C) the physical activity of the infant D) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 22) The protein needs of an infant are about adults'. A) one-fourth B) half C) twice D) three times

as much per pound of body weight as

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

23) In developing countries, inadequate intake of growth, childhood illness, and death. A) carbohydrate B) protein C) fat D) vitamin A

is a primary contributor to stunted

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 24) What percent of calories should total fat make up in an infant's diet? A) 20% or less B) 20% to 30% C) 40% to 55% D) 50% to 75% Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 25) The primary carbohydrate in the diet of most infants is A) sucrose B) glucose C) lactose D) maltose

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 9 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

26) High-protein diets are not good for infants . A) unless they are highly digestible proteins B) because they are hypoallergenic C) because the infant's kidneys cannot clear large amounts of urea every day D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 27) About how much protein should an 18-pound (i.e., 8.2 kg), 10-month-old baby consume each day? A) 8 grams B) 24 grams C) 12 grams D) 32 grams Answer: C Explanation: 8.2 kg × 1.5 g/kg = 12.75 g. Recommendations for infancy are 1.5 g protein/kg body weight Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 17.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

28) About how much protein should a 24-pound (i.e., 11.0 kg), 2-year-old be consuming each day? A) 12 grams B) 28 grams C) 38 grams D) 50 grams Answer: A Explanation: 11 kg × 1.1 g/kg = 12.1 g. Recommendations for 1-3 year-olds are 1.1 g protein/ kg body weight. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 17.03 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 29) Why do infants have a greater need for water than older humans? A) Infants have a high body surface area. B) Infants have a greater proportion of body water. C) Infants' kidneys are not as efficient. D) All of these responses are correct. E) None of these responses are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy; Water Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

30) When is an infant likely to need supplemental water? A) when the infant has a fever B) when the infant has diarrhea C) when the weather is hot D) All of these choices are correct. E) None of these choices are correct; an infant never needs supplemental water. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy; Water Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 31) An infant may suffer from water intoxication when A) overfed water instead of formula B) the weather is hot C) infant formula powder is underdiluted D) the infant has a fever

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy; Water Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 32) Infant iron stores are typically exhausted by diet. A) 0 to 2 months B) 4 to 6 months C) 7 to 8 months D) 10 to 12 months

of age and need to be replaced by their

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Infancy; Minerals Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 12 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

33) Why are adolescents at risk for iron deficiency anemia? A) Blood volume is expanding. B) Menstruation begins in females. C) Lean body mass increases in males. D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.03 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Dietary requirements; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 34) Fluoride supplements should generally be given to . A) breastfed infants beginning at 1 month old B) infants after 6 months of age if the home's water supply is not fluoridated C) all children until they begin using fluoride-containing toothpaste D) None of these choices are accurate. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy; Minerals Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 35) Which infants have special vitamin needs? A) Infants at birth need vitamin K. B) Breastfed infants may need iron supplements. C) Breastfed infants whose mothers are vegans generally need vitamin B-12 supplements. D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy; Vitamins Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 13 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

36) It is best to avoid serving cow's milk until the infant reaches the age of A) 6 months B) 10 months C) 12 months D) 18 months

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 37) With the possible exception(s) of , human milk provides sufficient amounts of all the nutrients needed during the first 6 months of life. A) vitamin D B) iron C) fluoride D) All of these choices are accurate. E) None of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Infancy; Lactation Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 38) Which protein in human milk increases iron absorption? A) casein B) lactalbumin C) lactoferrin D) bifidus factor Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Infancy; Lactation Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

39) Compared to foremilk, hind milk has A) more fat B) more protein C) fewer calories D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Infancy; Lactation Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 40) Which is NOT true about the fat in human milk? A) The type of fatty acids in human milk depends on the mother's diet. B) The fats in human milk are provided by the mother's diet and are synthesized in the breast. C) Human milk is low in cholesterol and linoleic acid. D) Human milk contains omega-3 fatty acids to support brain and eye development. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Infancy; Lactation Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 41) If human milk or infant formula is not available, can provide a safe, nutritious alternative for infants. A) sweetened condensed milk B) soy drinks C) evaporated milk D) All of these are healthy alternatives to human milk or infant formula. E) None of these are healthy alternatives to human milk or infant formula. Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy; Lactation Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

42) Why is cow's milk not recommended for infants? A) Its calcium content is too low. B) Its vitamin E content is too high. C) Its protein content is too high. D) Its vitamin C content is too high. E) All of these responses are accurate. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 43) An advantage to infants of being breastfed is . A) reduced risk for food allergies B) enhanced visual acuity and learning ability C) reduced risk for crooked teeth D) reduced risk for diarrhea E) All of these are advantages of breastfeeding for the infant. Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Food allergies and intolerances; Oral health; Infancy; Lactation Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 44) What are signs that an infant has had enough to eat? A) becoming playful B) falling asleep C) turning head away or not paying attention D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

45) How can you tell a breastfed infant is receiving adequate nourishment? A) The infant has 6 or more wet diapers daily. B) Weight gain is normal according to growth charts. C) The infant has 1 to 2 bowel movements daily that look like lumpy mustard. D) All of these answers are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 46) A baby should generally be burped . A) every 2 to 3 minutes during feeding B) after giving 1 to 2 ounces of formula C) at the beginning of the feeding D) when the baby begins to spit up a bit of milk Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 47) The time to introduce solid foods to an infant's diet depends on his or her A) nutritional needs B) physiological capabilities C) physical abilities D) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.04 Explain the rationale—from the standpoints of both nutrition and physical development—for the delay in feeding infants solid foods until 4 to 6 months of age. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

48) Which is NOT a sign that an infant may be ready for solid foods? A) The infant can sit alone with support. B) The extrusion reflex is strong. C) The infant can make a chewing motion. D) The infant demands to be fed 8 to 10 times daily. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.04 Explain the rationale—from the standpoints of both nutrition and physical development—for the delay in feeding infants solid foods until 4 to 6 months of age. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 49) Introducing solid foods to an infant's diet before the infant needs them can A) potentially strain the young infant's organs B) help the child sleep through the night C) help the child walk at a younger age D) help the child achieve optimal height

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.05 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.04 Explain the rationale—from the standpoints of both nutrition and physical development—for the delay in feeding infants solid foods until 4 to 6 months of age. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 50) By age 1 year, the calories provided from human milk or formula should be calories provided by solid food. A) twice as high as B) equal to C) half as many as D) one-third as high as

the

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.04 Explain the rationale—from the standpoints of both nutrition and physical development—for the delay in feeding infants solid foods until 4 to 6 months of age. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 18 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

51) The first solid food usually introduced to the infant's diet is A) cow's milk B) strained fruits C) pureed meats D) iron-fortified infant cereals

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.04 Explain the rationale—from the standpoints of both nutrition and physical development—for the delay in feeding infants solid foods until 4 to 6 months of age. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 52) When a new food is introduced, the amount that should be served is about A) 1 teaspoon B) 2 tablespoons C) 1/4 cup D) 1/3 cup

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.05 Describe the recommended rate and sequence for introducing solid foods into an infant's diet. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 53) When serving a food for the first time to an infant, . A) the food should be a single-ingredient (not mixed) food item B) wait several days before serving another new food C) expect the baby to eat only a few bites D) All of these responses are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.05 Describe the recommended rate and sequence for introducing solid foods into an infant's diet. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

54) Which cereal is least likely to cause allergies in infants? A) rice B) wheat C) barley D) oats Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Food allergies and intolerances; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.05 Describe the recommended rate and sequence for introducing solid foods into an infant's diet. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 55) When are many babies ready for finger foods? A) 1 month of age B) 3 months of age C) 6 months of age D) 9 months of age Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.05 Describe the recommended rate and sequence for introducing solid foods into an infant's diet. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

56) What is wrong with giving juice in a bottle or propping up a bottle of formula for the child to drink at bedtime? A) There is nothing wrong with this practice. It helps the child grow developmentally. B) Sugar bathes the teeth, bacteria grow, acids are produced from sugar, and acids dissolve tooth enamel. C) It is best for an infant to be held when drinking from a bottle for the sense of security that it provides. D) Often, the contents of the bottle spoil, which can lead to gastrointestinal upsets. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.05 Topic: Oral health; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.05 Describe the recommended rate and sequence for introducing solid foods into an infant's diet. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 57) It is recommended that honey not be given to infants because it A) is high in energy B) may contain Salmonella C) may contain Clostridium botulinum spores D) is too sweet

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.05 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.05 Describe the recommended rate and sequence for introducing solid foods into an infant's diet. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

58) For normal-weight children, reduced-fat milk is recommended to be introduced into a child's diet . A) after 5 years of age B) after 4 years of age C) after 2 years of age D) after 6 months of age Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 17.05 Describe the recommended rate and sequence for introducing solid foods into an infant's diet. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 59) Which food on this list is NOT appropriate for an infant less than one year old? A) egg yolk B) honey C) orange juice D) cooked and strained vegetables Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.05 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.05 Describe the recommended rate and sequence for introducing solid foods into an infant's diet. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 60) Which of these foods pose a choking hazard for infants and children? A) popcorn B) peanut butter C) nuts D) grapes E) All of these foods pose choking hazards. Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.05 Describe the recommended rate and sequence for introducing solid foods into an infant's diet. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 22 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

61) A child who exhibits signs of may be suffering from undernutrition. A) fatigue B) increased susceptibility to infection C) underweight D) All of these are signs of undernutrition. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.08 Describe the nutrition-related problems that may occur during the growing years and their impact on future health. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 62) An appropriate serving size of carrots for a 3-year-old is approximately A) 3 teaspoons B) 3 tablespoons C) 1/3 cup D) 2/3 cup

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 17.07 Plan nutritious diets for infants, children, and adolescents using MyPlate. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

63) Which foods are typically NOT likely to appeal to preschool children? A) thick beef stew B) creamy tuna casserole C) spicy chicken D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: D Explanation: Children tend to like foods with crisp textures and mild flavors, as well as familiar foods. Because their taste buds are more sensitive than those of adults, preschool children often refuse to eat strongly flavored foods. In addition, young children are especially sensitive to hot-temperature foods and tend to reject them. Children also may object to having foods mixed, as in stews and casseroles, even if they like the ingredients separately. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.06 Discuss the factors that affect the food intake of children and adolescents. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 64) To help children develop good nutritional habits, . A) limit the number of new foods they are offered B) let children make some choices about the food they eat C) serve new foods at the end of the meal when the child is not hungry D) be certain children finish all the food they are served Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.06 Discuss the factors that affect the food intake of children and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

65) The preschool years are typically characterized by A) a slower growth rate B) a decreased appetite C) changes in eating behavior D) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.06 Discuss the factors that affect the food intake of children and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 66) What do preschool children typically like to eat? A) familiar foods B) foods served at comfortable temperatures C) mild flavors D) crisp-textured foods E) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: E Explanation: Children tend to like foods with crisp textures and mild flavors, as well as familiar foods. Because their taste buds are more sensitive than those of adults, preschool children often refuse to eat strongly flavored foods. In addition, young children are especially sensitive to hot-temperature foods and tend to reject them. Children also may object to having foods mixed, as in stews and casseroles, even if they like the ingredients separately. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.06 Discuss the factors that affect the food intake of children and adolescents. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

67) To get a child to try a new food, . A) offer food rewards, such as a favorite dessert B) add sugar or butter to the food C) employ the "one bite" rule D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.06 Discuss the factors that affect the food intake of children and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 68) Which is NOT a common mealtime challenge with preschoolers? A) picky eating B) food jags C) refusing to eat D) pica Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.06 Discuss the factors that affect the food intake of children and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 69) Which food-related behaviors can negatively affect the quality of adolescents' diets? A) meal skipping B) snacking C) eating out D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.07 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.06 Discuss the factors that affect the food intake of children and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

70) What is a typical nutritional problem of adolescent girls? A) Not drinking milk B) Iron deficiency anemia C) Frequent dieting D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.07 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.08 Describe the nutrition-related problems that may occur during the growing years and their impact on future health. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 71) Constipation in many children is often caused by: A) drinking too much water. B) drinking too much milk. C) eating too many snacks. D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.08 Describe the nutrition-related problems that may occur during the growing years and their impact on future health. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 72) A typical sign of dehydration in an infant is A) no or few tears when crying B) severe drooling C) ear aches D) All of these are signs of dehydration.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy; Water Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

73) A baby that sleeps with a bottle filled with formula has an increased risk for A) ear infections B) diarrhea C) allergies D) colic

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 74) What factor(s) contributes to childhood obesity? A) Increased levels of "screen time" B) Genetics C) High-fat, high-energy snacks D) Little physical activity E) All of these choices are correct. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Body composition and weight status; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 17.08 Describe the nutrition-related problems that may occur during the growing years and their impact on future health. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 75) What is the recommended treatment for childhood obesity? A) Increase physical activity. B) Decrease intake of high-fat, high-energy foods. C) Modify problem behaviors, such as snacking while watching TV. D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 17.08 Describe the nutrition-related problems that may occur during the growing years and their impact on future health. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 28 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

76) Iron deficiency anemia is most likely to occur A) between birth and age 3 months B) between the ages of 12 and 24 months C) between the ages of 3 to 5 years D) after the child starts school

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 77) Instead of a double cheeseburger from a fast food restaurant for lunch, the hungry adolescent could make a healthier choice by choosing instead. A) french fries and fruit juice B) a hot dog and cola C) a grilled chicken sandwich with lettuce and tomato D) fried chicken and creamy potato salad E) None of these choices are correct. Answer: C Explanation: A grilled chicken sandwich with vegetables provides more nutrient density. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 17.07 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.07 Plan nutritious diets for infants, children, and adolescents using MyPlate. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute

78) Menarche is . A) cell division B) cell growth C) the onset of menses D) the excretion of lipids, waxes, and triglycerides E) excessive restlessness Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.07 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 79) One-third of all growth in a lifetime occurs during adolescence. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 80) Per pound of body weight, nutrient needs during adolescence are higher than during any other stage of the lifecycle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Nutrient needs are highest proportionately per pound of body weight during infancy. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

81) Adolescence begins with the onset of puberty. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 82) The growth percentile curve a child follows depends ONLY on his/her genetic potential. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The percentile curve a specific child follows depends on dietary intake and genetic potential. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.02 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 83) "Catch up" growth is possible after the epiphyses have closed. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Growth in height ceases when the growth plates at the ends of the bones, called epiphyses, fuse. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.02 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

84) More amino acids are considered essential for adults than for infants. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Young infants need all the essential amino acids that adults do, as well as some others that are also considered essential for infants. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy; Essential amino acids Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 85) Teens in the U.S. tend to consume far more calcium than needed. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Drinking soft drinks in place of milk causes many teenagers to have inadequate calcium intake. This practice is linked to decreased bone mass and increased bone fractures in this age group. Figure 2-3 in Chapter 2 shows the stark contrast between milk and soft drinks with respect to calcium and other nutrients. If dairy products are not consumed, alternative calcium sources need to be included in the diet. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 86) In the U.S., infant formula standards are set to match the nutrient composition of human milk as closely as possible. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

87) Breastfed infants have a reduced risk of obesity and ear infections, as compared to formula-fed infants. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 88) Infant formula should be prepared with cold water. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 89) Infant formulas can be heated safely in the microwave oven. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Infant formula and human milk fed from a bottle should not be heated in a microwave oven because hot spots may develop, which can burn the infant's mouth and esophagus. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 90) Adding too much water to infant formula can be dangerous to the infant. Answer: TRUE Explanation: It is important to prepare formula by exactly following instructions on the label of powdered and concentrated formulas—adding too much or too little water can be very dangerous for infants. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 33 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

91) An infant's nutrient stores are exhausted by the time the infant has gained 3 pounds. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The nutrient stores a baby had at birth are exhausted by the time an infant has doubled his or her birth weight and weighs at least 13 pounds. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 17.05 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.04 Explain the rationale—from the standpoints of both nutrition and physical development—for the delay in feeding infants solid foods until 4 to 6 months of age. Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute 92) Bribing children to eat a new food is a good way to help them discover new foods. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Bribing children with food, like dessert, also teaches them that food is an appropriate reward. At the other end of the spectrum lie parents who are so excessively concerned that their children will become obese that they restrict their children's food intake. In some cases, caregivers restrict food intake so severely that the children become underweight and fail to thrive. Pressuring a child to eat more or less than is desired tells the child not to trust his or her own hunger and satiety signals—this can lead to a lifetime battle with weight problems. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.05 Describe the recommended rate and sequence for introducing solid foods into an infant's diet. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

93) To help children keep their weight under control, they should receive no more than 3 meals daily. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Children have small stomachs. Offering them 6 or so small meals succeeds better than limiting them to 3 meals each day. Sticking to 3 meals a day offers no special nutritional advantages; it's just a social custom. When we eat isn't nearly as important as what we eat. Frequent meals and snacks help children meet their nutrient and calorie needs, as well as keep their blood glucose levels high enough to support the activity of their rapidly developing brain and nervous system. Breakfast and snacks are especially important. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 17.07 Plan nutritious diets for infants, children, and adolescents using MyPlate. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 94) Serving new foods in a calm, supportive setting can help children to accept new foods. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.06 Discuss the factors that affect the food intake of children and adolescents. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 95) The physical changes of adolescence can cause teens to be dissatisfied with their bodies. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.07 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 17.06 Discuss the factors that affect the food intake of children and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

96) Substance use can negatively affect teenagers' diets. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.07 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.06 Discuss the factors that affect the food intake of children and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 97) Babies with colic should not be breastfed. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Breastfeeding of colicky infants should continue. Mothers can try decreasing or stopping their consumption of milk and milk products, caffeine, chocolate, and strongly flavored vegetables to see if it helps reduce colic. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.08 Describe the nutrition-related problems that may occur during the growing years and their impact on future health. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 98) In children, gastroesophageal reflux is most common after age 2 years. Answer: FALSE Explanation: GERD typically develops before age 2 to 3 months and usually resolves on its own by the time an infant is 12 months old. Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Infancy Learning Objective: 17.08 Describe the nutrition-related problems that may occur during the growing years and their impact on future health. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

99) Milk allergies seldom last beyond 3 years of age. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Food allergies and intolerances; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.08 Describe the nutrition-related problems that may occur during the growing years and their impact on future health. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 100) Acne is strongly linked with intake of fatty foods like pizza and chocolate. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Although it's popularly believed that eating nuts, chocolate, and pizza can make acne worse, scientific studies have failed to show a strong link between any dietary factor and acne. Actually, acne develops when excess oily secretions block glands in the skin. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.07 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.08 Describe the nutrition-related problems that may occur during the growing years and their impact on future health. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 101) A female who becomes pregnant within 2 years of menarche is at a higher nutritional risk than one who becomes pregnant later. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.07 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 17.08 Describe the nutrition-related problems that may occur during the growing years and their impact on future health. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

102) Children should be screened for elevated blood cholesterol if their families have histories of early development of heart disease. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Cardiovascular disease Learning Objective: 17.08 Describe the nutrition-related problems that may occur during the growing years and their impact on future health. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 103) Why should leftover formula always be discarded? Answer: Answers will vary. Discard any leftovers in the bottle—they are contaminated by bacteria and enzymes from the infant's saliva. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Infancy; Food safety practices Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 3-5 minutes 104) Leftover infant formula should always be discarded because it is contaminated by bacteria and enzymes from the baby. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Infancy; Food safety practices Learning Objective: 17.03 Compare the nutritional qualities of human milk and infant formula. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 105) Children with autism frequently have unusual eating behaviors. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.06 Discuss the factors that affect the food intake of children and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 38 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

106) Children with autism often have reduced sensitivity to food taste, smell, color, and/or texture. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Food taste, smell, color, and/or texture may cause hypersensitive children to restrict or avoid certain foods or groups of foods and be unwilling to try new foods. Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence Learning Objective: 17.06 Discuss the factors that affect the food intake of children and adolescents. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 107) Your friend is concerned that her son is gaining too much weight. Before seeking advice from her son's pediatrician, she wants you to give her your opinion because she knows you are taking a nutrition class. You learn from her that her son is 3' 10" and currently weighs 60 lbs. You also remember that he just had his 6th birthday. How would you classify her son after calculating his BMI? A) underweight B) normal weight C) overweight D) obese Answer: D Explanation: On the BMI growth chart, he is falling above 95th percentile. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 17.02 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 17.01 Describe normal growth and development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence and the effect of nutrition on growth and development. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute

108) List suggested recommendations for lifestyle modifications for an obese 10-year-old child. Answer: Answers will vary. The 1st step is to assess how much physical activity he or she engages in. If a child spends much free time in sedentary activities, more physical activities should be encouraged. Both the U.S. government and health professionals recommend 60 minutes or more of moderate to intense physical activity per day for children and adolescents. An overall active lifestyle will help children not only attain a healthy body weight but also keep a healthy body weight later in life and reduce the risk of obesity-related diseases. An increase in physical activity won't just happen; parents and other caregivers need to plan for it. Two good ideas are getting the family together for a brisk walk after dinner and finding an after-school sport the child enjoys. Foods should include a focus on vegetables, fruits, lean proteins, and whole grains, with less refined sugars and processed foods. Obese children often need to find a new way to relate to foods, especially snack foods. An important family rule might be that children are allowed to eat only while sitting at the dining table or in the kitchen. This rule can stop mindless snacking in front of the television and make all family members more conscious of when they are eating. It also might be helpful to put portions of snack foods on plates rather than to allow unlimited amounts of snacks, as often happens when children eat directly from a full box of crackers or cookies. Obese children also need support, admiration, and encouragement to bring their weight under control. A child's self-esteem is extremely fragile. Obesity itself often affects the child's psyche and mental outlook (e.g., depression). Humiliation doesn't work; it only makes the child feel worse. Resorting to a weight loss diet is usually not necessary. Children have an advantage over adults in dealing with obesity; their bodies can use stored energy for growth. Thus, if weight gain can be moderated, their normal increases in height can help bring weight under control. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Body composition and weight status Learning Objective: 17.07 Plan nutritious diets for infants, children, and adolescents using MyPlate. Bloom's: Create Est Time: 3-5 minutes

109) Describe why young children are at a higher risk for developing iron deficiency anemia. What modifications can be made to help decrease their risk? Answer: Answers will vary. Children 1 to 2 years old are particularly vulnerable to iron deficiency anemia because their diets often are dominated by milk, a low-iron food, and most are no longer receiving iron-fortified formula. In addition, they typically do not like meat or have difficulty chewing it. In some cases, intestinal parasites contribute to iron deficiency. Iron-fortified cereal and easily chewed meats (e.g., ground beef) can help children boost iron intake; serving iron-rich food with vitamin C-rich food increases the absorption of this mineral. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Dietary requirements; Deficiency and toxicity diseases Learning Objective: 17.07 Plan nutritious diets for infants, children, and adolescents using MyPlate.; 17.08 Describe the nutrition-related problems that may occur during the growing years and their impact on future health. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 3-5 minutes 110) Explain why infants need more calories per unit of body weight than adults. Answer: Answers will vary. All of the changes that occur during the growing years influence energy and nutrient intakes and needs, but growth rate has the greatest effect. The faster the growth rate, the greater the nutrient and calorie needs per pound of body weight. Thus, the greatest needs, pound for pound, occur during infancy, when growth is at its peak velocity. Although calorie and nutrient needs per pound of body weight steadily decline after infancy, the total quantity of calories and nutrients needed rises throughout childhood because the body grows larger. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 17.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Infancy Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 3-5 minutes

111) Discuss specific recommendations for supplements in children, if any. Answer: Answers will vary. With the exception of a vitamin K supplement for newborns, an iron supplement for breastfed infants, a vitamin B-12 supplement for breastfed infants of vegan mothers, a vitamin D supplement for some infants, and a fluoride supplement for infants, children, and teens with an unfluoridated water supply, routine nutrient supplementation is not needed by healthy children and teens. However, supplements may be recommended for children and teens who are poor eaters, vegans, pregnant, on programs to manage obesity, and/or deprived, neglected, or abused. The American Academy of Pediatrics suggests that these children and teens may benefit from a children's multivitamin and mineral supplement not exceeding 100% of the RDA or Adequate Intakes. Still, supplements are not a substitute for a healthy diet. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 17.03; 17.06 Topic: Childhood and adolescence; Dietary requirements; Dietary supplements Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the calorie and nutrient needs of infants, children, and adolescents. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 3-5 minutes

Perspectives in Nutrition, 11e (Byrd) Chapter 18 Nutrition throughout Adulthood 1) During adulthood, nutrients are used primarily A) to maintain the body B) to support physical growth C) for anabolic conditioning D) for storage purposes 2) After age A) 25 B) 30 C) 35 D) 55 3) Starting around age A) 30 B) 40 C) 50 D) 70

or so, the rate of cell breakdown begins to exceed the rate of cell renewal.

, organ size and efficiency begin to decrease.

4) Which is NOT a current hypothesis about the cause of aging? A) Blood concentrations of hormones change. B) Cells can divide about 50 times, and then they die. C) The immune system becomes less able to recognize and destroy foreign substances. D) Connective tissue stiffens and reduces flexibility. E) All of these are current hypotheses about the cause of aging. 5) Age-related degenerative changes can be minimized, prevented, or reversed by A) exercising regularly B) getting enough sleep C) avoiding excessive exposure to sunlight D) eating nutritiously E) All of these responses are correct.

6) Which is a typical example of usual aging? A) increasing body fatness B) maintenance of lean body mass C) maintenance of bone mass D) All of these responses are correct. 7) Compression of morbidity can be defined as . A) having the greatest number of healthy years and the fewest number of years with illness B) representing a low death rate from chronic diseases C) having a longer life D) postponing illness until such time as there is an adequate treatment or cure 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) Which determines the rate of aging? A) genetics B) lifestyle C) environment D) All of these choices are accurate. 9) Which aspect(s) of the environment influence(s) the rate of aging? A) income and education B) quality of housing and autonomy C) access to health care and nutritious food D) psychosocial support and protection from climactic extremes E) All of these responses are correct. 10) According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, a goal for adults is to A) limit intake of added sugars and emphasize vegetables in the diet B) keep body weight in a healthy range C) follow a healthy eating pattern across the lifespan D) All of these responses are correct. 11) In adulthood, a nutritious diet can help to A) delay onset of disease B) recover more quickly from disease C) increase mental, physical, and social well-being D) A nutritious diet can do all of these things.

12) The diets of adults tend to be higher than recommended for A) vitamin D B) calcium C) fat D) zinc E) fiber 13) The diets of adults tend to be lower than recommended for A) vitamin D B) zinc C) magnesium D) folate E) All of these responses are correct. 14) The largest group of adults at risk for nutrient deficiencies is A) women B) pregnant women C) individuals with a low-income D) older adults living in long-term care facilities

15) The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) for adults take into consideration all of the following aging-related changes, EXCEPT . A) body composition B) metabolism C) organ function D) DRIs take into account all of these things. 16) Calorie needs decline after age 30 years or so because A) basal metabolism declines B) the body becomes more efficient in using energy C) thrifty metabolism begins D) All of these responses are correct.

17) Which of the following groups may NOT receive sufficient protein? A) adults with limited budgets B) adults with chewing problems C) adults who are lactose intolerant D) All of these choices are correct. 18) A diet rich in dietary fiber may help adults to A) reduce risk of osteoporosis B) reduce risk of heart disease C) raise blood cholesterol levels D) reduce the risk of dementia

19) Low fluid intake in older adults may be caused by A) less intense feelings of thirst B) chronic disease C) certain medications D) reduced ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine E) All of these responses are correct.

22) Insufficient intakes of delayed wound healing. A) magnesium B) zinc C) folate D) vitamin B-12

by adults may contribute to loss of taste sensations and

23) Inadequate intake of confusion. A) magnesium B) zinc C) folate D) vitamin B-12

in adults may contribute to loss of bone strength and mental

24) Elevated blood concentrations of neurological decline in some elderly adults. A) zinc B) homocysteine C) vitamin E D) vitamin D

are associated with increased risk for stroke and

25) Intakes of have been associated with reduced risk for age-related macular degeneration and cataracts. A) vitamin E B) folate C) niacin D) both lutein and zeaxanthin 26) A major problem afflicting the elderly gastrointestinal tract is A) increased lactase synthesis B) constipation C) increased HCl production D) increased synthesis of intrinsic factor 27) A change in muscle that typically occurs in adulthood is A) increased elasticity B) bloating of muscle cells C) loss of muscle strength D) hypertrophy of muscle cells 28) Physical activity is associated with A) improved sleep B) reduced risk for falling C) positive mental outlook D) better mobility E) All of these responses are correct.

29) To preserve bone mass, adults should A) not smoke B) consume adequate vitamin D C) consume adequate calcium D) All of these recommendations are correct.

30) To protect the cardiovascular system, adults should A) not smoke B) eat low-carbohydrate diets C) avoid vigorous exercise D) All of these choices are correct. 31) To prevent constipation, older adults should A) limit highly sweetened foods B) increase dietary fiber and fluids C) regularly take laxatives D) All of these choices are accurate.

32) An age-related change in the nervous system that can adversely affect nutritional status is . A) decreased taste perception B) hearing loss C) vision loss D) All of these changes can impact nutritional status. 33) During the adult years, A) undernutrition B) overnutrition C) excessive iron intake D) obesity E) All of these choices are correct.

can adversely affect the immune system.

34) Long-term use of aspirin or aspirin-like medications can deplete A) iron B) calcium C) vitamin K D) thiamin 35) Many elderly people avoid social contact because they A) are experiencing hearing loss B) have trouble seeing, so they avoid going out C) have problems with urinary incontinence D) All of these choices are accurate.

reserves.

36) Which is true of the Congregate Meal program? A) It is administered by the USDA. B) It is part of the Older Americans Act. C) Anyone age 52 or older can participate. D) All of these responses are accurate. 37) Which U.S. government program distributes surplus agricultural products? A) Commodity Supplemental Food Program B) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) C) Child and Adult Care Food Program D) Senior Farmers' Market Nutrition Program 38) Which is true about the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)? A) It provides nutrition education. B) It provides a means to purchase food-producing plants. C) It provides a means to buy hot meals in group homes. D) It supplements food budgets of low-income households. E) All of these responses are correct. 39) Warning signs of Alzheimer's disease include A) personality changes B) language problems C) reduced job performance D) faulty judgment E) All of these are signs of Alzheimer's disease.

40) To relieve the symptoms of arthritis, older adults with the condition are all advised to: A) follow a special restrictive diet B) restrict certain inflammatory foods C) take megadoses of certain nutrient supplements D) All of these responses are accurate. E) None of these responses are accurate. 41) Which domain of complementary and alternative medicine involves using foods and special diets? A) energy medicine B) alternative medical systems C) biological based practices D) mind-body interventions 42) Which is an example of a mind-body intervention? A) Hypnosis B) Biofeedback C) Yoga D) All of these are examples of mind-body interventions. 6 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

43) Which is NOT an example of energy medicine? A) High-calorie diets B) Pulsed fields C) Magnetic fields D) Electrical currents 44) In complementary and alternative medicine, a manipulative practice is A) massage B) Reiki therapy C) chiropractic manipulation D) All of these examples are correct. E) None of these examples are correct. 45) An alternative medical practice system is A) Ayurveda B) naturopathy C) homeopathy D) acupuncture E) All of these responses are correct.

46) A rational approach for someone wanting to try complementary and alternative medicine is to . A) take advice from a trusted friend B) keep a record of symptoms and practices followed C) try at least 2 complementary and alternative medical practices at once D) All of these approaches are rational. 47) Which is true about herbs? A) There is little regulation regarding herbal supplements in the U.S. B) There have been no cases of adverse effects of using herbal supplements. C) Herbal supplements are more effective than medicines. D) Herbal supplements are as rigorously tested as prescription medications in the U.S. E) All of these responses are true. 48) What food and nutrition service program(s) does the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and Administration on Aging provide for older adults? A) Commodity Supplemental Food program B) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance program C) Senior Farmers' Market Nutrition program D) Child and Adult Care Food program E) All of the above.

49) Which strength training recommendation(s), as suggested by the National Institutes on Aging, is/are appropriate for older adults? A) Exercise at least 2 days per week. B) Stretch after completing all exercises. C) Perform exercises that involve major muscle groups. D) All of the choices are appropriate strength training recommendations. 50) An older relative has recently been placed on anticoagulant medications. Her doctor did not make any dietary recommendations. Which of the following foods would you suggest that your relative avoid until further discussing her medication with her doctor? A) oranges B) whole grain bread C) spinach D) milk 51) Which of the following foods would be recommended for an elderly person who has periodontal disease? A) carrots B) chicken breast C) canned apricots D) brown rice 52) Compare and contrast the benefits of Congregate Meals versus Meals on Wheels for older adults. 53) A friend was recently prescribed corticosteroids for an inflammatory reaction he is having. He knows that you are taking a nutrition class and has asked you for advice on any drug-nutrient interactions that you may have learned in your class. Which of the following foods would you suggest he increase during the time he is taking this medication? A) low-fat milk B) spinach C) pork D) salmon 54) You have an older relative who is complaining of fatigue. You learn that she is taking aspirin on a daily basis to prevent a heart attack. What condition do you suspect your relative may have? A) osteoporosis B) Alzheimer disease C) iron deficiency anemia D) gout

55) A friend has recently been diagnosed with hypertension and has been prescribed Lasix to help treat her condition. This doctor did not recommend any dietary changes. Which of the following foods would you suggest that your friend increase until she can discuss her medications with her doctor? A) any processed foods B) beans C) diet soft-drinks D) oranges 56) A friend has been drinking more than the usual amount of alcohol. You are concerned about the effects alcohol has. Which of the following herbal remedies do you feel comfortable suggesting for your friend to supplement with, based on your knowledge of the harmful effects of alcohol? A) saw palmetta B) milk thistle C) melatonin D) black cohosh 57) You have been experiencing low back pain for about a week. You do not think that it is necessary to see your medical doctor for this condition, as you have had no injuries to the area. Which of the following CAM practitioners do you feel would be most beneficial to see for relief? A) aromatherapist B) chiropractor C) hypnotist D) ayurvedic practitioner

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Dietary requirements Learning Objective: 18.03 Explain how the basic concepts that underlie the Dietary Guidelines for Americans relate to adult health. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 2) After age A) 25 B) 30 C) 35 D) 55

or so, the rate of cell breakdown begins to exceed the rate of cell renewal.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.01 Describe the hypotheses about the causes of aging. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 3) Starting around age A) 30 B) 40 C) 50 D) 70

, organ size and efficiency begin to decrease.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.01 Describe the hypotheses about the causes of aging. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

4) Which is NOT a current hypothesis about the cause of aging? A) Blood concentrations of hormones change. B) Cells can divide about 50 times, and then they die. C) The immune system becomes less able to recognize and destroy foreign substances. D) Connective tissue stiffens and reduces flexibility. E) All of these are current hypotheses about the cause of aging. Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.01 Describe the hypotheses about the causes of aging. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 5) Age-related degenerative changes can be minimized, prevented, or reversed by A) exercising regularly B) getting enough sleep C) avoiding excessive exposure to sunlight D) eating nutritiously E) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.01 Topic: Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.02 Discuss the factors that affect the rate of aging. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 6) Which is a typical example of usual aging? A) increasing body fatness B) maintenance of lean body mass C) maintenance of bone mass D) All of these responses are correct. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.01 Topic: Body composition and weight status; Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.01 Describe the hypotheses about the causes of aging. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

7) Compression of morbidity can be defined as . A) having the greatest number of healthy years and the fewest number of years with illness B) representing a low death rate from chronic diseases C) having a longer life D) postponing illness until such time as there is an adequate treatment or cure Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.01 Describe the hypotheses about the causes of aging. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 8) Which determines the rate of aging? A) genetics B) lifestyle C) environment D) All of these choices are accurate. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.02 Discuss the factors that affect the rate of aging. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 9) Which aspect(s) of the environment influence(s) the rate of aging? A) income and education B) quality of housing and autonomy C) access to health care and nutritious food D) psychosocial support and protection from climactic extremes E) All of these responses are correct. Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.02 Discuss the factors that affect the rate of aging. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

10) According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, a goal for adults is to A) limit intake of added sugars and emphasize vegetables in the diet B) keep body weight in a healthy range C) follow a healthy eating pattern across the lifespan D) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Dietary requirements; Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.03 Explain how the basic concepts that underlie the Dietary Guidelines for Americans relate to adult health. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 11) In adulthood, a nutritious diet can help to A) delay onset of disease B) recover more quickly from disease C) increase mental, physical, and social well-being D) A nutritious diet can do all of these things.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Dietary requirements; Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.03 Explain how the basic concepts that underlie the Dietary Guidelines for Americans relate to adult health. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 12) The diets of adults tend to be higher than recommended for A) vitamin D B) calcium C) fat D) zinc E) fiber

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Dietary requirements; Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.04 Compare the dietary intake of adults with the current recommendations. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 4 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

13) The diets of adults tend to be lower than recommended for A) vitamin D B) zinc C) magnesium D) folate E) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Dietary requirements; Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.04 Compare the dietary intake of adults with the current recommendations. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 14) The largest group of adults at risk for nutrient deficiencies is A) women B) pregnant women C) individuals with a low-income D) older adults living in long-term care facilities

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Dietary requirements; Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

15) The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) for adults take into consideration all of the following aging-related changes, EXCEPT . A) body composition B) metabolism C) organ function D) DRIs take into account all of these things. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Dietary requirements; Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.04 Compare the dietary intake of adults with the current recommendations. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 16) Calorie needs decline after age 30 years or so because A) basal metabolism declines B) the body becomes more efficient in using energy C) thrifty metabolism begins D) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Dietary requirements; Metabolism Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 17) Which of the following groups may NOT receive sufficient protein? A) adults with limited budgets B) adults with chewing problems C) adults who are lactose intolerant D) All of these choices are correct. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Public health and nutrition Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 6 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

18) A diet rich in dietary fiber may help adults to A) reduce risk of osteoporosis B) reduce risk of heart disease C) raise blood cholesterol levels D) reduce the risk of dementia

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease; Dietary requirements; Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.07 Identify nutrition-related health issues of the adult years and describe the prevention and treatment of these health problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 19) Low fluid intake in older adults may be caused by A) less intense feelings of thirst B) chronic disease C) certain medications D) reduced ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine E) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Dietary requirements; Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

20) Why is vitamin D a nutrient of particular concern in older adults? A) Permeability of the intestine to dietary vitamin D increases as the intestine ages, which increases risk for toxicity. B) Vitamin D synthesis in the skin slows with age. C) The kidneys accelerate the conversion of vitamin D to its active form, which increases the risk for toxicity. D) None of these responses are accurate. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Dietary requirements; Older adulthood; Vitamins Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 21) A common cause of iron deficiency anemia in adulthood is A) bleeding ulcers B) use of aspirin C) bleeding hemorrhoids D) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Dietary requirements; Older adulthood; Deficiency and toxicity diseases; Minerals Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

22) Insufficient intakes of delayed wound healing. A) magnesium B) zinc C) folate D) vitamin B-12

by adults may contribute to loss of taste sensations and

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Dietary requirements; Older adulthood; Minerals Learning Objective: 18.07 Identify nutrition-related health issues of the adult years and describe the prevention and treatment of these health problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 23) Inadequate intake of confusion. A) magnesium B) zinc C) folate D) vitamin B-12

in adults may contribute to loss of bone strength and mental

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Bone and joint health; Dietary requirements; Mental health; Older adulthood; Minerals Learning Objective: 18.07 Identify nutrition-related health issues of the adult years and describe the prevention and treatment of these health problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

24) Elevated blood concentrations of neurological decline in some elderly adults. A) zinc B) homocysteine C) vitamin E D) vitamin D

are associated with increased risk for stroke and

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease; Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.07 Identify nutrition-related health issues of the adult years and describe the prevention and treatment of these health problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 25) Intakes of have been associated with reduced risk for age-related macular degeneration and cataracts. A) vitamin E B) folate C) niacin D) both lutein and zeaxanthin Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Dietary requirements; Older adulthood; Vitamins Learning Objective: 18.07 Identify nutrition-related health issues of the adult years and describe the prevention and treatment of these health problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 26) A major problem afflicting the elderly gastrointestinal tract is A) increased lactase synthesis B) constipation C) increased HCl production D) increased synthesis of intrinsic factor

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Dietary requirements; Older adulthood; Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 18.07 Identify nutrition-related health issues of the adult years and describe the prevention and treatment of these health problems. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 10 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

27) A change in muscle that typically occurs in adulthood is A) increased elasticity B) bloating of muscle cells C) loss of muscle strength D) hypertrophy of muscle cells

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.03 Topic: Body composition and weight status; Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 28) Physical activity is associated with A) improved sleep B) reduced risk for falling C) positive mental outlook D) better mobility E) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 29) To preserve bone mass, adults should A) not smoke B) consume adequate vitamin D C) consume adequate calcium D) All of these recommendations are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Bone and joint health Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 11 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

30) To protect the cardiovascular system, adults should A) not smoke B) eat low-carbohydrate diets C) avoid vigorous exercise D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 31) To prevent constipation, older adults should A) limit highly sweetened foods B) increase dietary fiber and fluids C) regularly take laxatives D) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Older adulthood; Digestive disorders Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 32) An age-related change in the nervous system that can adversely affect nutritional status is . A) decreased taste perception B) hearing loss C) vision loss D) All of these changes can impact nutritional status. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Nervous system; Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 12 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

33) During the adult years, A) undernutrition B) overnutrition C) excessive iron intake D) obesity E) All of these choices are correct.

can adversely affect the immune system.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 34) Long-term use of aspirin or aspirin-like medications can deplete A) iron B) calcium C) vitamin K D) thiamin

reserves.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Older adulthood; Pharmacology Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 35) Many elderly people avoid social contact because they A) are experiencing hearing loss B) have trouble seeing, so they avoid going out C) have problems with urinary incontinence D) All of these choices are accurate.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 13 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

36) Which is true of the Congregate Meal program? A) It is administered by the USDA. B) It is part of the Older Americans Act. C) Anyone age 52 or older can participate. D) All of these responses are accurate. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.04 Topic: Community nutrition services Learning Objective: 18.06 Describe community nutrition services for older persons. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 37) Which U.S. government program distributes surplus agricultural products? A) Commodity Supplemental Food Program B) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) C) Child and Adult Care Food Program D) Senior Farmers' Market Nutrition Program Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.04 Topic: Community nutrition services; Public health and nutrition Learning Objective: 18.06 Describe community nutrition services for older persons. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 38) Which is true about the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)? A) It provides nutrition education. B) It provides a means to purchase food-producing plants. C) It provides a means to buy hot meals in group homes. D) It supplements food budgets of low-income households. E) All of these responses are correct. Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.04 Topic: Community nutrition services Learning Objective: 18.06 Describe community nutrition services for older persons. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

39) Warning signs of Alzheimer's disease include A) personality changes B) language problems C) reduced job performance D) faulty judgment E) All of these are signs of Alzheimer's disease.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.05 Topic: Mental health; Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.07 Identify nutrition-related health issues of the adult years and describe the prevention and treatment of these health problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 40) To relieve the symptoms of arthritis, older adults with the condition are all advised to: A) follow a special restrictive diet B) restrict certain inflammatory foods C) take megadoses of certain nutrient supplements D) All of these responses are accurate. E) None of these responses are accurate. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.05 Topic: Bone and joint health; Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.07 Identify nutrition-related health issues of the adult years and describe the prevention and treatment of these health problems. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

41) Which domain of complementary and alternative medicine involves using foods and special diets? A) energy medicine B) alternative medical systems C) biological based practices D) mind-body interventions Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.05 Topic: Complementary and alternative medicine Learning Objective: 18.08 List the potential benefits and risks associated with the use of complementary and alternative medicine practices. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 42) Which is an example of a mind-body intervention? A) Hypnosis B) Biofeedback C) Yoga D) All of these are examples of mind-body interventions. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.05 Topic: Complementary and alternative medicine Learning Objective: 18.08 List the potential benefits and risks associated with the use of complementary and alternative medicine practices. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 43) Which is NOT an example of energy medicine? A) High-calorie diets B) Pulsed fields C) Magnetic fields D) Electrical currents Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.05 Topic: Complementary and alternative medicine Learning Objective: 18.08 List the potential benefits and risks associated with the use of complementary and alternative medicine practices. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 16 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

44) In complementary and alternative medicine, a manipulative practice is A) massage B) Reiki therapy C) chiropractic manipulation D) All of these examples are correct. E) None of these examples are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.05 Topic: Complementary and alternative medicine Learning Objective: 18.08 List the potential benefits and risks associated with the use of complementary and alternative medicine practices. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 45) An alternative medical practice system is A) Ayurveda B) naturopathy C) homeopathy D) acupuncture E) All of these responses are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.05 Topic: Complementary and alternative medicine Learning Objective: 18.08 List the potential benefits and risks associated with the use of complementary and alternative medicine practices. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

46) A rational approach for someone wanting to try complementary and alternative medicine is to . A) take advice from a trusted friend B) keep a record of symptoms and practices followed C) try at least 2 complementary and alternative medical practices at once D) All of these approaches are rational. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.05 Topic: Complementary and alternative medicine Learning Objective: 18.08 List the potential benefits and risks associated with the use of complementary and alternative medicine practices. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute 47) Which is true about herbs? A) There is little regulation regarding herbal supplements in the U.S. B) There have been no cases of adverse effects of using herbal supplements. C) Herbal supplements are more effective than medicines. D) Herbal supplements are as rigorously tested as prescription medications in the U.S. E) All of these responses are true. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.05 Topic: Complementary and alternative medicine Learning Objective: 18.08 List the potential benefits and risks associated with the use of complementary and alternative medicine practices. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute

48) What food and nutrition service program(s) does the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and Administration on Aging provide for older adults? A) Commodity Supplemental Food program B) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance program C) Senior Farmers' Market Nutrition program D) Child and Adult Care Food program E) All of the above. Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.04 Topic: Community nutrition services Learning Objective: 18.06 Describe community nutrition services for older persons. Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute 49) Which strength training recommendation(s), as suggested by the National Institutes on Aging, is/are appropriate for older adults? A) Exercise at least 2 days per week. B) Stretch after completing all exercises. C) Perform exercises that involve major muscle groups. D) All of the choices are appropriate strength training recommendations. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Older adulthood; Physical activity and exercise Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute

50) An older relative has recently been placed on anticoagulant medications. Her doctor did not make any dietary recommendations. Which of the following foods would you suggest that your relative avoid until further discussing her medication with her doctor? A) oranges B) whole grain bread C) spinach D) milk Answer: C Explanation: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which may interact with the anticoagulant. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 18.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Older adulthood; Pharmacology Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 0-1 minute 51) Which of the following foods would be recommended for an elderly person who has periodontal disease? A) carrots B) chicken breast C) canned apricots D) brown rice Answer: C Explanation: This choice would allow the least amount of chewing. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 18.03 Topic: Older adulthood; Oral health Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute

52) Compare and contrast the benefits of Congregate Meals versus Meals on Wheels for older adults. Answer: Answers will vary. The Elderly Nutrition Program, an important aspect of the Older Americans Act, provides nutrition services through the Congregate Meal Program and Home Delivered Meal Program (often referred to as Meals on Wheels). Anyone age 60 or older can participate; however, priority usually is given to those with the greatest economic, social, and health needs. Both meal programs can help older people obtain some of the food needed for good health. Each meal meets at least one-third of the daily recommendations. The social aspect of the Congregate Meal Program provides opportunities for socialization that often improve appetite and general outlook on life. These programs also may provide shopping assistance, counseling, nutrition education, and referral to other social, rehabilitative, and transportation services. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 18.04 Topic: Community nutrition services Learning Objective: 18.06 Describe community nutrition services for older persons. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 3-5 minutes 53) A friend was recently prescribed corticosteroids for an inflammatory reaction he is having. He knows that you are taking a nutrition class and has asked you for advice on any drug-nutrient interactions that you may have learned in your class. Which of the following foods would you suggest he increase during the time he is taking this medication? A) low-fat milk B) spinach C) pork D) salmon Answer: A Explanation: Corticosteroids can lead to poor utilization of calcium, found in low-fat milk…so higher intake would be a good practice. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 18.03 Topic: Bone and joint health; Dietary requirements; Older adulthood Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute

54) You have an older relative who is complaining of fatigue. You learn that she is taking aspirin on a daily basis to prevent a heart attack. What condition do you suspect your relative may have? A) osteoporosis B) Alzheimer disease C) iron deficiency anemia D) gout Answer: C Explanation: Aspirin therapy can potentially lead to anemia from blood loss due to affect on iron. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 18.03 Topic: Older adulthood; Pharmacology Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 0-1 minute 55) A friend has recently been diagnosed with hypertension and has been prescribed Lasix to help treat her condition. This doctor did not recommend any dietary changes. Which of the following foods would you suggest that your friend increase until she can discuss her medications with her doctor? A) any processed foods B) beans C) diet soft-drinks D) oranges Answer: B Explanation: Lasix is a medication that is a potassium-wasting diuretic. Beans are high in potassium. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 18.03 Topic: Dietary requirements; Pharmacology Learning Objective: 18.05 Discuss the effects of physical, physiological, psychosocial, and economic factors on the food intake and nutrient needs of adults. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 0-1 minute

56) A friend has been drinking more than the usual amount of alcohol. You are concerned about the effects alcohol has. Which of the following herbal remedies do you feel comfortable suggesting for your friend to supplement with, based on your knowledge of the harmful effects of alcohol? A) saw palmetta B) milk thistle C) melatonin D) black cohosh Answer: B Explanation: Milk thistle: May have a protective effect on the liver, thought to be due in part to its ability to prevent toxins from contaminating liver cell membranes. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 18.05 Topic: Alcohol; Complementary and alternative medicine Learning Objective: 18.08 List the potential benefits and risks associated with the use of complementary and alternative medicine practices. Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute 57) You have been experiencing low back pain for about a week. You do not think that it is necessary to see your medical doctor for this condition, as you have had no injuries to the area. Which of the following CAM practitioners do you feel would be most beneficial to see for relief? A) aromatherapist B) chiropractor C) hypnotist D) ayurvedic practitioner Answer: B Explanation: A chiropractor may be able to alleviate some spinal pain. Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 18.05 Topic: Complementary and alternative medicine Learning Objective: 18.08 List the potential benefits and risks associated with the use of complementary and alternative medicine practices. Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 0-1 minute