TEST BANK for The Life Span, Human Development for Helping Professionals 5th Edition Patricia Broder

Test Bank to Accompany

The Life Span: Human Development for Helping Professionals Fifth Edition Patricia C. Broderick Pamela Blewitt

Prepared by Raye Lakey,

Table of Contents Chapter Questions Chapter 1 Organizing Themes in Development 1 Chapter 2 Genetics, Epigenetics, and the Brain: The Fundamentals of Behavioral Development 11 Chapter 3 Cognitive Development in the Early Years 19 Chapter 4 Emotional and Social Development in the Early Years 27 Chapter 5 The Emerging Self and Socialization in the Early Years 34 Chapter 6 Realms of Cognition in Middle Childhood 43 Chapter 7 Self and Moral Development: Middle Childhood Through Early Adolescence 51 Chapter 8 Gender and Peer Relationships: Middle Childhood Through Early Adolescence 59 Chapter 9 Physical, Cognitive, and Identity Development in Adolescence 68 Chapter 10 The Social World of Adolescence 76 Chapter 11 Physical and Cognitive Development in Young Adulthood 82 Chapter 12 Socioemotional and Vocational Development in Young Adulthood 90 Chapter 13 Middle Adulthood: Cognitive, Personality, and Social Development 99 Chapter 14 Living Well: Stress, Coping, and Life Satisfaction in Adulthood 108 Chapter 15 Gains and Losses in Late Adulthood 116 Answer Keys Chapter 1 answers ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- 124 Chapter 2 answers ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- 128 Chapter 3 answers ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- 133 Chapter 4 answers ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- 137 Chapter 5 answers ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- 141 Chapter 6 answers ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- 146 Chapter 7 answers ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- 150 Chapter 8 answers ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- 154 Chapter 9 answers ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- 160 Chapter 10 answers --------------------------------------------------------------------------- 165 Chapter 11 answers --------------------------------------------------------------------------- 169 Chapter 12 answers --------------------------------------------------------------------------- 175 Chapter 13 answers --------------------------------------------------------------------------- 180 Chapter 14 answers --------------------------------------------------------------------------- 185 Chapter 15 answers --------------------------------------------------------------------------- 191

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Chapter 1 Organizing Themes in Development Multiple Choice Questions 1.

Dr. Jones encountered a problem with a new client in therapy. Using the model of reflective practice described in Chapter 1, what is the sequence of steps he should use in order to work with this client effectively? a.

Reflect on what has worked best in his own personal experience and apply that knowledge to the client’s problem. b.

Reflect on well-established theories; apply the theoretical knowledge to the individual's case; and then test out new ways of thinking about the problem if prior theory does not suffice. c.

Apply experience-based knowledge first, and then use theory-based knowledge. d.

First test out any method by subjecting it to rigorous scientific experimentation and then apply it for use with the client.

2.

Theories of development differ from opinion primarily because a. they provide a complete picture of development. b. they have been proven to be true. c. they are based on scientific research. d. they are more abstract than opinions.

3.

Which of the following terms is most closely associated with stage theory of development? a.

Gradual transformation b.

Instability c.

Incrementality d.

Discontinuity

4.

Which of the following helpers is most likely to have an implicit “incrementalist” belief about intelligence? a.

A counselor who recommends a strategy of academic skill building for a client who is experiencing academic problems. b.

A therapist who helps the client adjust to the limitations of his academic ability. c.

A school counselor who bases the decision about which career information to provide on the client’s intelligence test results. d.

A counselor who develops a program to track elementary school-aged children in classes that reflect their academic achievement.

5.

Stage theories of development typically describe ____________ changes in behavior, cognition, or social relationships. a. quantitative b. incremental c. qualitative d. cumulative 1

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6.

Sigmund Freud developed a psychoanalytic theory about three aspects of adult personality. According to Freud, which of these aspects is the last to emerge during development? a.

Id b.

Ego c.

Superego d.

Autonomy

7.

Based on Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages, what is the positive outcome of the industry versus inferiority stage that typically occurs between the ages of 6 and 12? a.

Fidelity b.

Willpower c.

Competence d.

Purpose

8.

Jean Piaget’s cognitive development theory is based on stages of reasoning and understanding ability (cognition). Which stage describes the cognition of children during most of their years of schooling from elementary through middle school (typically ages 7 through 12)? a.

Operational b.

Concrete operational c.

Sensorimotor d.

Formal operational

9.

Theoretical models that portray development as a continuous process emphasize which of the following? a.

Stages of change b.

Steps on a ladder of change c.

Incremental change d.

Periods of stability

10.

A child at school performs a behavior such as being the quietest one in her group. This behavior, an operant, is followed by something that makes the child feel rewarded—being selected to go to recess first. The reward is also called which of the following? a.

Reinforcement b.

Respondent c.

Conditioned stimulus d.

Conditioned response

11.

Mrs. Washington is conducting her weekly group counseling session for single young adults. Karen, a lonely young professional woman, talks about feeling abandoned by her boyfriend. The other group members listen patiently and respond empathically. Mrs. Washington reflects Karen’s feeling with concern and sensitivity. What would operant learning theory predict about Karen’s behavior in the next group session? a.

Karen will be embarrassed about her past self-disclosures and feel anxious about speaking up.

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b. c. d.

Karen will not self-disclose because she fears the group will lose patience.

Karen will not self-disclose because her problems have been resolved.

Karen will speak openly because she has previously received attention and support.

12.

Mrs. Washington is conducting her weekly group counseling session for single young adults. Karen, a lonely young professional woman, talks about feeling abandoned by her boyfriend. The other group members listen patiently and respond empathically. Mrs. Washington reflects Karen’s feeling with concern and sensitivity. What would social learning theorists predict about the behavior of others in the group in the next session? a.

Group members will be encouraged to self-disclose after observing the positive way Karen’s self-disclosure was received. b.

Group members will be discouraged from self-disclosing because they do not want to imitate Karen’s example. c.

Karen’s behavior will have no effect on other members of the group. d.

Group members will scapegoat Karen for her self-absorption.

13.

Using Erikson’s developmental theory as a framework, which of the following statements is an accurate representation of his ideas? a.

An individual cannot progress to a later stage unless the earlier stage has been resolved successfully and completely. b.

Successful progression through the stages of development depends upon effective resolution of the Oedipal crisis. c.

Successful resolution of a psychosocial crisis at each stage depends upon having more positive than negative experiences in the area of major concern. d.

Highly intelligent individuals can skip specific stages and make progress at a faster rate than other people.

14.

Which one of the following theorists emphasized continuity in development? a.

Sigmund Freud b.

Albert Bandura c.

Erik Erikson d.

Jean Piaget

15.

Models of development based on assumptions that change typically occurs in shifts between periods of relative stability and periods of disequilibrium are called a. incremental models. b. stage models. c. multidimensional model. d. information-processing models.

16.

Models of development based on the assumption that change occurs as a continuous process are called a. incremental models. b. stage models. c. multidimensional models.

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d.

information-processing models.

17.

In Bronfenbrenner’s multidimensional model of development, what aspect of the environment has the most immediate influence on a child’s development? a.

Microsystem b.

Mesosystem c.

Exosystem d.

Macrosystem

18.

According to life span developmental theory, which of the following individuals has the greatest need for resources supplied by their culture in order to maintain a high level of functioning? a.

A young adult b.

A young child c.

A retired individual d.

An adolescent

19.

Models of development based on the assumption that change occurs as a function of reciprocal influences, both from within the person and from the external environment are called a. incremental models. b. stage models. c. multidimensional models. d. information-processing models.

20.

In Bronfenbrenner’s model, proximal processes refer to a. independent changes in mental processes. b. favorable developmental conditions that are more likely to exist in one particular stage of development than in another. c. reciprocal interactions between an organism and its immediate environment. d. indirect influences on an organism.

21.

What is the current assumption of modern multidimensional theories about the role of nature versus nurture in development? a.

Environment influences development more than heredity. b.

Heredity influences development more than environment. c.

Heredity and environment are interdependent. d.

Heredity and environment independently influence development.

22.

Juan, a 7-month-old infant, lives in a city where the availability of high quality child care is very limited. His mother is forced to leave Juan in the care of a young woman who also cares for five other infants and toddlers in her small apartment. According to Bronfenbrenner’s theory, which of the following influences on Juan’s development represents an example of a proximal process? a.

The quality of care-giving Juan receives in day care b.

Juan’s genetic inheritance c.

State legislation regarding licensing of day care providers d.

Juan’s cultural and economic background 4

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23.

Juan, a 7-month-old infant, lives in a city where the availability of high quality child care is very limited. His mother is forced to leave Juan in the care of a young woman who also cares for five other infants and toddlers in her small apartment. Which of the following influences represents an example of a distal process? a.

The sensitivity of Juan’s caregiver b.

Governmental policies and subsidies for child care that apply in the city c.

The quality of care-giving provided by Juan’s mother d.

The quality and characteristics of the apartment complex in which Juan and his mother reside

24.

Seven-month-old Juan and his mother live in a small rented apartment in a large city. Affordable, high quality child care centers are very hard to find in her neighborhood. Which level of the environment, according to Bronfenbrenner’s model, is limiting her access to high quality day care in her community? a.

Macrosystem b.

Exosystem c.

Microsystem d.

Mesosystem

25.

Contemporary developmentalists focus on which question concerning nature and nurture? a.

Is nature the most important determinant of developmental change? b.

Is nurture the most important determinant of developmental change? c.

How do we explain the mechanisms by which nature and nurture interact to affect development? d.

Why is nurture most influential at certain developmental periods?

26.

A kitten whose eyes are covered during the first months of its life loses the ability to see clearly in ways that would have been possible without the loss of early visual stimulation. This effect remains despite later attempts to remediate the loss. This is an example of which of the following? a.

Behavior genetics b.

Critical period c.

Plasticity d.

Visual demand

27.

According to neuroscientists, at what period of development are our brains static? a.

Our brains are static during the infancy period of development. b.

Our brains aren’t static during any period of development. c.

Our brains are static throughout adulthood. d.

Our brains are static during the aging period (approximately from age 50).

28.

Much of the social science research that shaped developmental theories in the past has been done on a narrow sample of people. Which set of descriptors best identifies the narrow sampling? a.

Western, diverse levels of education and diverse economic strata 5

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b. c. d.

World-wide, culturally diverse, young, and poorly educated World-wide, well-educated, wealthy, and industrialized Western, educated, industrialized, rich, and democratic

29.

Developmental scientists are interested in the role of culture in development.

According to their findings, which of the following cultural groups is most likely to focus holistically on interrelationships rather than analytically? a.

Cultural groups in the Western hemisphere b.

Cultural groups in Europe c.

Cultural groups in North America d.

Cultural groups in the Eastern hemisphere

30.

A group of people characterized by shared traditions, attitudes, values, and beliefs handed down from one generation to another constitute ______________. a. a socioeconomic group. b. a racial group. c. an ethnic group. d. a cohort.

31.

The measure of social status that combines aspects of education background, income, and occupation is called a. socioeconomic status. b. social standing. c. social class. d. economic class.

32.

Helping professions have established standards for good practice. Which helping professions emphasize the importance of learning about diverse cultures and applying culturally appropriate care? a.

Psychology, nursing, and social work b.

Nursing and social work c.

Only social work d.

Psychology and social work

33.

Developmental psychopathology is a relatively new field that integrates work from disciplines such as developmental, clinical, and abnormal psychology. In this field, which of the following approaches to life span development is emphasized? a.

Stage theories of development b.

Behavioral theories of development c.

Multidimensional theories of development d.

The role of environment in development

34.

Which of the following is most likely to view development in terms of stages rather than incremental changes? a.

Learning theories in the behaviorist tradition b.

Piaget’s cognitive development theory c.

Information processing theories 6

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d.

Social learning theories

35.

Helping professionals are encouraged to integrate their knowledge of theories and empirical data with their own beliefs, experiences, and assumptions. This model or concept is called a. theoretical application. b. reflective practice. c. technical application. d. theory-driven hypothesis.

36.

When does the human brain exhibit plasticity? a.

During infancy and early childhood b.

Throughout life c.

Throughout adolescence d.

During adulthood

37.

Most learning theories and information processing theories take a similar theoretical approach to development. How do they typically view development? a.

As a series of stages b.

As a process based on heredity c.

As a process based on environmental change d.

As a continuous process

38.

Which one of the following developmental theorists takes the most multidimensional approach, incorporating relationships among complex interacting causes for change (both external and internal) in biological, psychological, social and cultural dimensions? a.

Urie Bronfenbrenner b.

Jean Piaget c.

B. F. Skinner d.

Erik Erikson

39.

Keisha is a 35-year-old African-American woman who is depressed. Her presenting concerns include marital distress, the imminent possibility of losing her job, overeating, and chain-smoking. As you listen to her story, you begin to construct a picture of her developmental history. Which of these explanations would someone using a stage theory of development be most likely to offer for Keisha’s problems? a.

Keisha’s difficulties most likely developed through the interaction of her family experiences and societal conditions like poverty and racism. b.

Keisha’s problems are most likely related to insufficient emotional gratification during infancy when oral needs are paramount. c.

Keisha’s problems are most likely related to lack of appropriate models of effective marital communication. d.

Keisha has experienced reward from her eating and smoking habits, and so she seeks these rewards in stressful situations.

40.

Keisha is a 35-year-old African-American woman who is depressed. Her presenting concerns include marital distress, the imminent possibility of losing 7

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her job, overeating, and chain-smoking. As you listen to her story, you begin to construct a picture of her developmental history. Which of these explanations would someone using an incrementalist developmental perspective be most likely to offer for how Keisha’s problems have developed? a.

Keisha’s difficulties most likely developed through the interaction of her family experiences and societal conditions like poverty and racism. b.

Keisha’s problems are most likely related to insufficient emotional gratification during infancy when oral needs are paramount. c.

Keisha’s problems are most likely related to lack of appropriate models of effective marital communication. d.

Keisha has experienced reward from her eating and smoking habits, and so she seeks these rewards in stressful situations.

41.

Keisha is a 35-year-old African-American woman who is depressed. Her presenting concerns include marital distress, the imminent possibility of losing her job, overeating, and chain-smoking. As you listen to her story, you begin to construct a picture of her developmental history. Which of these explanations would someone using a multidimensional perspective be most likely to offer for Keisha’s problems difficulties? a.

Keisha’s difficulties most likely developed through the interaction of her family experiences and societal conditions like poverty and racism. b.

Keisha’s problems are most likely related to insufficient emotional gratification during infancy when oral needs are paramount. c.

Keisha’s problems are most likely related to lack of appropriate models of effective marital communication. d.

Keisha has experienced reward from her eating and smoking habits, and so she seeks these rewards in stressful situations.

42.

In lifespan developmental theories, significant developmental changes are thought to be largely complete by a. the age of 18. b. the age of 30. c. the age of 50. d. death.

43.

The idea that children’s development is affected by biological factors, and that biological factors are also affected by the environment and experience, is part of a. developmental stage theories. b. incremental developmental theories. c. social learning theories. d. multidimensional systems theories.

44.

An attempt to forestall the development of problems by promoting health and wellness in the general population is called a. tertiary prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. primary prevention. d. mediation.

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45.

Counselors apply multidimensional models most explicitly in their work with clients when they a. recognize the primary importance of genetic influences on behavior. b. consider levels of influence on the individual and select interventions that are targeted to more than one level. c. pay close attention to the stage of development that characterizes the client. d. understand that client’s developmental tasks must be met in each stage of development.

46.

When clinicians assess a client’s presenting problem(s) in order to plan for treatment, which of the following approaches to diagnosis reflects a developmental viewpoint? a.

Consider those issues in a client’s life which result from multifinality. b.

Count the number of symptoms currently manifested in order to reach a specific diagnosis. c.

Assess the person’s level of symptomology on a checklist and assign a diagnosis only when a certain percentile has been reached. d.

Assess the nature of the problem by considering the person’s unique history, interpersonal context, and challenges in the extrapersonal environment.

47.

Gisela is a 6-year-old Peruvian girl who lives with her family on a farm in a rural village. She often helps her father take produce to a market to sell. She does not know how to read, but she understands the cost of items and can make change without errors. Sophie is a 6-year-old who lives in the US. She is in the 1st grade, is making great progress in learning to read and write, and is gaining skill in computer use. What is the best way to explain the development of these two children? a.

The progression of cognitive development is not universal; it is different for children in different cultures. b.

The processes involved in cognitive development are similar across cultures, but the specific kinds of knowledge acquired may differ depending upon children’s culture. c.

The content of children’s knowledge is similar across cultures, but the processes involved in cognitive development differ depending upon children’s culture. d.

Cognitive development is the same for all children, regardless of culture.

48.

Guidelines for the application of developmental research in helping professions include a. keeping abreast of issues in the field and taking a multidimensional view of the influences on an individual. b. always assessing the developmental stage of each client. c. giving developmental theories an equal weight with your personal opinions. d. recognizing that developmental stage limits therapeutic progress.

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49.

The scientific usage of the word theory is best described as a. a proposed explanation whose status is conjectural and untested. b. a personal opinion that is part of one’s worldview. c. a tested and supported explanation that synthesizes a large body of information to account for known facts or phenomena. d. an explanation of facts or phenomena that fits with an individual’s best assessment of a situation.

Essay Questions (Chapter 1) 50.

Compare and contrast stage, incremental, and multidimensional models of development. What specific contributions does each perspective make to our knowledge of development?

51.

Create a case scenario using an example of a helping professional that describes the process of reflective practice.

52.

Explain why having a working knowledge of development or a “developmental template” is useful to helping professionals.

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Chapter 2 Genetics, Epigenetics, and the Brain: The Fundamentals of Behavioral Development Multiple Choice Questions 1.

In a male zygote, what is the chromosome configuration? a.

23 matched pairs b.

23 matched pairs and one unmatched pair c.

22 matched pairs and one unmatched pair d.

46 matched chromosomes

2.

When environmental factors influence how hereditary material functions, this set of processes (involved in controlling genetic expression) is called a. epigenesis. b. translation. c. transcription. d. mitosis.

3.

Coded sections of DNA that help cells construct the proteins that influence physical and psychological characteristics are called a. chromosomes. b. genes. c. histones. d. zygotes.

4.

Identical twins can have which of the following? a.

Diverse heredities b.

Dizygotic origin c.

Identical phenotypes d.

The same genotype

5.

During which period of prenatal development do most of the body’s structures and organ systems form? a.

Period of the fetus b.

Period of the zygote c.

Period of the embryo d.

Period of 4 weeks prior to full term

6.

The genes at matching locations on a pair of chromosomes may be identical or slightly different forms of the same gene. If they are different, they are called a.

Phenotypes b.

Alleles c.

Receptors d.

Genotypes

7.

Typical prenatal development depends on which of the following? a.

The genome to code in the absence of environmental inputs b.

The genome to code and the environment to provide inputs 11

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c. d.

Properly timed gene expression without environmental inputs Environmental inputs and deregulated genetic coding

8.

Many inherited disorders result from defective alleles. Which of the following genetic combinations is most likely to result in a disorder such as sickle-cell anemia? a.

Recessive, defective alleles from both parents b.

A defective, recessive allele from the mother c.

A defective, recessive allele from the father d.

One normal allele and one recessive allele from each parent

9.

Down syndrome is a common disorder. Which of the following circumstances results in Down syndrome? a.

Defective, recessive alleles b.

Defective, dominant alleles c.

Insufficient number of chromosomes d.

Extra chromosome

10.

The damaging effects of teratogens are the result of a. genetic mutations. b. coaction of genes and environment. c. dominant, defective alleles. d. coaction of genetic and chromosomal abnormalities.

11.

A child who is born with a small head, widely spaced eyes, a flattened nasal bridge and is characterized by growth retardation, and cognitive deficits may be suffering from the effects of a. hemophilia. b. sickle-cell anemia. c. fetal alcohol syndrome. d.

Down syndrome.

12.

How long can the consequences of prenatal malnutrition affect an individual? a.

Until birth b.

Through infancy c.

Throughout life d.

Until nutrition is balanced

13.

Neurons in the brain are fascinating structures with various parts, and some of the parts receive messages from other neurons. What do we call the branchlike projections that receive messages? a.

Axons b.

Neurotransmitters c.

Synaptic gaps d.

Dendrites

14.

What part of the brain is the largest, including the hypothalamus, thalamus, cerebrum, and limbic system structures? a.

Midbrain 12

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b. c. d.

Hindbrain Forebrain Cerebellum

15.

After birth, neurons reproduce at a rapid rate. When does the brain stop producing new neurons? a.

The brain stops producing neurons during adolescence. b.

The brain stops producing neurons after infancy. c.

The brain produces neurons throughout the lifespan. d.

The brain stops producing neurons in early adulthood.

16.

What type of neural growth occurs as a direct result of exposure to more individualized kinds of environmental events? a.

Experience-dependent b.

Experience-expectant c.

Adult neural stem cell generation d.

Synaptogenesis after age 12

17.

Over the last century, researchers have held various views of stress and adaptation. Which of the following alters physiological functions temporarily as the body deals with an acute stressor? a.

Allostasis b.

Homeostasis c.

General adaptation syndrome d.

Set-point model

18.

When the amygdala jumpstarts stress-related networks peripheral to the central nervous system, what part of the body releases the chemicals such as adrenaline that produce energizing effects? a.

Parasympathetic nervous system b.

Central nervous system c.

Heart d.

Sympathetic nervous system

19.

Which of the following does the body release to help put an end to the stress response? a.

Epinephrine (adrenaline) b.

Cytokines c.

Cortisol d.

Dopamine

20.

Complete the following analogy: genotype is to phenotype as a. gene is to chromosome b.

DNA is to RNA c. code is to expression d. night is to day

21.

Brown eye-color alleles are dominant over blue eye-color alleles, which are recessive. Jenna has brown eyes. Her husband, Bill, has blue eyes. Jenna and 13

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Bill are the biological parents of James, who has blue eyes. What eye-color gene alleles must Jenna have? a.

Bb (one brown and one blue allele) b.

BB (two brown alleles) c. bb (two blue alleles) d.

BBB (three brown alleles) 22.

Brown eye-color alleles are dominant over blue eye-color alleles, which are recessive. Jenna has brown eyes. Her husband, Bill, has blue eyes. Jenna and Bill are the biological parents of James, who has blue eyes. Jenna would be described as ____________ of the allele for blue eyes. a. having the phenotype b. being a regulator c. having the genotype d. being a carrier

23.

Recessive, defective gene alleles can cause hereditary disorders. It is estimated that most people carry ______________ recessive, defective alleles in their genotypes. a. zero b. three to five c. hundreds of d. thousands of

24.

The epigenome is the full set of factors, from the cell to the outside world, that controls the expression of a. hereditary material. b. recessive genes. c. the zygote. d. histones.

25.

One epigenetic change that can affect the expression of a gene is methylation, which is a. the subtraction of an organic molecule from DNA b. the addition of an organic molecule to DNA c. the addition of RNA to DNA d. the effect of hormones on DNA

26.

In one animal study of the influence of genes on behavior, offspring of rats with genes for low stress reactivity were reared by unrelated mother rats with genes for high stress reactivity. This is an example of a. a survey study. b. a cross-fostering study. c. a longitudinal study. d. a comparative study.

27.

In one study, young rats exposed to stress vocalized their anxiety. Their mothers, alerted to this distress, responded with diligent caregiving behavior 14

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that altered the development of the hippocampus. Which of the following processes or principles does this example demonstrate? a.

Dominant-recessive gene relationships b.

Active gene effects c.

The role of regulator genes in behavior genetics d.

Epigenesis 28.

Which of the following statements is true about the effects of teratogens on the developing fetus? a.

Any given teratogen usually has the same effect regardless of when in prenatal development exposure occurs. b.

The kind of damage done depends on the stage of development during exposure. c.

A teratogen will usually have the same effect regardless of how much exposure the fetus has to that teratogen. d.

Ancient Greeks believed in teratogens, but modern science has been unable to identify any.

29.

When she was pregnant with Joey, Joey’s mother had a poor diet because food was in short supply in her war-torn country. The war ended after Joey was born, and his middle-class mother was able to provide him with adequate nutritious food throughout his childhood. Which of the following outcomes is the most likely for Joey? a.

Joey may show few, if any, long term negative effects from his prenatal deprivation. b.

Joey will probably experience serious long-term cognitive deficits. c.

Joey will probably experience serious long-term emotional deficits, but not cognitive problems. d.

Joey is at greater risk of serious ongoing health problems than youngsters who have adequate prenatal nutrition.

30.

The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis (HPA axis) plays a significant role in a. the human response to stress. b.

X-linked recessive diseases. c. determining the sex of a fetus. d. determining eye color.

31.

Which of the following is an accurate description of the long-term effects of chronic stress on the body? a.

The ability of the immune system to fight infection and ward off disease is compromised. b.

There are no effects on the immune system, and only short term effects on the cardiovascular system. c.

There are no effects on the cardiovascular system, but long term effects on the skeletal muscles. d.

There are no lasting effects on the body – when the stress ends all physical systems return to normal.

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32.

Ms. Dawson recently gave birth to twins, a girl and a boy. Which of the following statements about them must be true? a.

They share 100 per cent of their genes. b.

They are monozygotic. c.

They are dizygotic. d.

They originated from a single zygote.

33.

There are 46 of these in the nuclei of human cells; they are composed of deoxyribonucleic acid. a.

Teratogens b.

Zygotes c.

Chromosomes d.

Genes

34.

Which of the following is the best example of neuroplasticity? a.

Cells from the hippocampus are instrumental in encoding memories. b.

The 3-year-old’s brain is approximately three-fourths of its adult size. c.

Fetal brains grow quickly, increasing in weight over the course of pregnancy. d.

Neurons that are transplanted from the auditory cortex to the visual cortex begin to perceive light.

35.

Neurons communicate with each other a. by means of chemicals that are present in the spaces between them. b. by means of dendrites touching other dendrites. c. by means of electrical impulses that radiate out of the myelin sheath. d. by means of connections with glial cells.

36.

Myelinization is the process which involves a. neurons migrating to the temporal lobes. b. separating the left and right hemispheres of the cortex. c. coating the axon with a fatty sheath that improves conduction of electrical impulses. d. development of the nuclei of the brain.

37.

Which of the following is true with respect to the impact of nurture on the fetus’ developing brain? a.

Fetal brain development is almost totally dependent upon the fetus’ genetic inheritance because it has no environmental experience in the womb. b.

The development of the lower, primitive areas of the brain depend upon nature but the higher levels depend upon nurture. c.

Mothers can advance the fetus’ intelligence significantly by speaking out loud in foreign languages during pregnancy. d.

The establishment of some synaptic connections in the fetal brain depends upon environmental input, like sound.

38.

Most postnatal brain growth depends upon the proliferation of a. synapses.

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b. c. d.

myelination. neurotransmitters. glial cells.

39.

If you look at the karyotypes of person A and person B and discover that they look alike, what can you infer is the same about these two people? a.

Their parents b.

Their sex c.

Their height d.

Their blood type

40.

Sally, age 28, recently married John, age 45. They would like to have a child, but they are concerned that they may be at high risk to have a child with a chromosomal abnormality, like Down syndrome, because of John’s age. What is their genetic counselor likely to tell them? a.

They are at higher than average risk for some chromosomal disorders because of John’s age, but not for Down syndrome. b.

They are at higher than average risk for chromosomal disorders of all sorts because of John’s age. c.

There is no relationship between parents’ age and chromosomal disorders in their offspring. d.

The risk of any chromosomal disorder in a child is only related to the mother’s age, not to the father’s age.

41.

Symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) include a. addiction to alcohol. b. blindness and shortened limbs. c. flipper arms. d. widely spaced eyes and flattened nose.

42.

Children who suffer severe protein and calorie shortages at any age may experience stunted growth, a protuberant belly, and extreme apathy. This severe starvation syndrome is called a. lowest observable effect. b. kwashiorkor. c.

Huntington’s disease. d. proximo-distal development.

43.

Of the following, which is the most accurate example of coaction? a.

Genes that are related to a specific disorder may be expressed phenotypically only in a certain kind of environment. b.

Genes for a disorder that are on the X-chromosome will only be expressed in females. c.

The environment and the genes have an equal influence on a disorder. d.

Genes will have a greater influence on the development of a disorder when the genes are dominant.

44.

Robert and Nadine both have been laid off. The couple has inadequate access to food or health care. When they realize that Nadine is pregnant, they feel 17

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desperate, and they talk to a social worker at a local clinic about their situation.

The social worker is able to provide them with referrals to a food outlet, but she is unable to find a prenatal care clinic that provides free services in their neighborhood. Considering the effects of multiple risk factors, what is the most likely potential value of the social worker’s efforts? a.

Risk factors are reduced, so their unborn child is likely to be better off even with the limited help the social worker provided. b.

Their unborn child is not likely to be benefited by eliminating only one risk factor. c.

The unborn child might have been benefited if prenatal care were found, but improving prenatal nutrition does not reduce risks. d.

The health care and stress factors of the parents will only be important after the child is born.

45.

Massage therapy for infants has been very successful in promoting weight gain and social interaction, and in decreasing distress in low birth weight infants.

Based upon developmental research, what is the best explanation for this? a.

Infants’ bodies take in more nutrients when they are touched as they nurse. b.

Touch is the best developed sense at birth and therefore the most effective avenue for soothing and regulating the newborn. c.

When the infant is massaged, its attachment to the caregiver is strengthened. d.

Crying and other distress is reduced because the infant is paying attention to the person giving the massage.

Essay Questions (Chapter 2) 46.

Genes have their effects on the proteins and enzymes produced by the cell. Yet, there appear to be genetic influences on behavior. Take some example of a behavior or a behavioral disorder, and explain how genes operating at a cellular level could have any effect at the behavioral level.

47.

Explain why it is important for a helping professional to be aware of the coaction of genes and environment. Be sure to include a definition and examples of coaction.

48.

There are several principles that govern the effects of teratogens on the developing fetus. Describe these principles, giving examples.

49.

What advice could you provide a pregnant teenager that might help her assure the good health of her baby?

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Chapter 3 Cognitive Development in the Early Years Multiple Choice Questions 1.

Which of the following widely held assumptions about children’s cognitive development was derived from Jean Piaget? a.

Children are blank slates receiving knowledge. b.

Knowledge is funneled into children. c.

Children passively absorb information. d.

Children construct their knowledge.

2.

Piaget’s research with babies helped him theorize about infant cognition by focusing primarily on their a. babbling patterns with other children. b. motor interactions with the environment. c. eating habits and intake quantities. d.

DNA, blood type, and hereditary markers.

3.

For babies with normally developing motor, visual, and auditory processes, at what age do they typically begin walking alone? a.

Around 18-20 months b.

Around 8 months c.

Around 5-6 months d.

Around 12 months

4.

Piaget’s hidden object test was designed to assess which of the following? a.

Habituation b.

Dishabituation c.

Object permanence d.

Preferential response to objects

5.

Researchers are discovering new ways to assess the memory of infants. Based on their studies, recognition skills are first detected at what age? a.

In the sixth month b.

As early as three months c.

Birth d.

Within weeks after birth

6.

The set of cognitive processes involved in intentionally controlling our own behavior, determining what we pay attention to, setting goals, and choosing our responses to stimuli is called what? a.

Representational thought b.

Adaptations c.

Assimilations d.

Executive functions

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7.

In Piaget’s work with children, he established that a child’s process of assimilating new information involves modifying what the child already knows to make the new information fit. This aspect of adaptation is known as what? a.

Executive function b.

Intersensory integration c.

Accommodation d.

Intermodal perception

8.

According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, what did he call the stage children typically experience during the preschool years, beginning around the age of 2? a.

Preoperational b.

Sensorimotor c.

Adaptation d.

Self-regulation

9.

At approximately what age are children first able to tell stories with a beginning, middle, and end as well as conversing with multiple people simultaneously? a.

3 to 4 years b.

4 to 5 years c.

2 to 3 years d.

6 to 7 years

10.

Piaget’s number conservation task provides supporting evidence of what characteristic of preoperational thought? a.

Agency b.

Cognitive flexibility c.

Accommodation d.

Centration

11.

Which of the following skills or abilities is most closely associated with a child’s theory of mind? a.

Accommodation b.

Centration c.

Perspective taking d.

Habitation

12.

Russian psychologist Lev Vygotsky investigated children’s cognitive growth.

What was the emphasis of his central theory of cognitive development? a.

Progression of stages of development b.

Level of education and economic status of a child’s parents c.

Role of culture and society d.

Rate of development of a child’s language skills

13.

Vygotsky believed that parents and other more advanced thinkers of a culture promoted cognitive development of children or novice learners. What term is used to define this type of help that promotes learning? a.

Elaborating 20

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b. c. d.

Orienting Duplicating Scaffolding

14.

When a child attempts a task and is unable to do it alone, but succeeds with the help of a person skilled in the task, the child is working in his or her a. area of representational thought. b. zone of proximal development. c. preoperational stage. d. zone of scaffolding.

15.

Vygotsky and Luria believed that egocentric or private speech was the precursor to what? a.

Self-regulation b.

Adaptation c.

Accommodation d.

Egocentrism

16.

As children learn a language, what aspect of language do they learn first? a.

The phonology of the language b.

The semantics of the language c.

The syntax of the language d.

The pragmatics of the language

17.

The incidence rate of autism and autistic spectrum disorders is rising. Longterm epidemiological research at the University of California-Davis continues to investigate the cause, and their study focuses on which of the following? a.

Genetic and environmental factors b.

Pediatric vaccines c.

Type of parenting d.

Parent-child relationships

18.

Among our contemporary ideas about children’s development, which of the following seems to be directly influenced by Vygotskian theory? a.

Our practices should be based on stages of development. b.

Our views on the topic focus on heredity and genetic influences. c.

Our ideas on the topic are shaped by our culture. d.

Our research on the topic emphasizes preoperational development.

19.

Which of the following statements is most accurate with regard to Piaget’s theory? a.

Piaget firmly believed that children who were at a particular stage of cognitive development had the same level of understanding in all areas, such as understanding causality, morality, agency, etc. b.

Piaget believed that children’s progress through the stages could vary. For example, very intelligent children could skip a stage. c.

Piaget believed in the dynamic quality of stages and understood that children in the same stage could vary greatly in their specific understanding of causality, morality, and so forth.

21

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d.

Piaget believed that children could vary in their understanding of morality but that their understanding of causality was the same for all children within a particular stage

20.

Mrs. Harmon, the mother of 18-month-old Bryce, is concerned that Bryce has not learned to speak very well. He has a limited vocabulary and seems content to point to the things he wants. Based on her reading of several child development books, Mrs. Harmon believes that Bryce should have progressed further in language learning. Mrs. Harmon fears that Bryce is not keeping up developmentally. Based on your understanding of the timing of developmental stages, what would be your best advice? a.

Don’t pay attention to developmental milestones and treat each child as an individual. b.

Since Bryce appears developmentally delayed, he should be referred immediately for a speech and language evaluation. c.

Developmental stages can be useful guidelines, but there is a range of normal development within stages. d.

Mrs. Harmon should use exercises such as flashcards with Bryce to increase his knowledge of vocabulary.

21.

Research using habituation and preferential response paradigms has provided us with much of what we know about the infant’s perceptual abilities. The habituation paradigm takes advantage of a. baby’s ability to form habits b. the absence of an orientation response in infants c. baby’s ability to report their own reactions d. baby’s tendency to orient to new stimulation

22.

Ms. Hernandez is working with 4-year-old Peter, who is afraid of the dark. He believes monsters like he has seen on TV come out at night. Ms. Hernandez patiently explains that there are no real monsters, but to no avail. Peter still refuses to go to sleep. What might Piaget propose as the reason for this treatment failure? a.

Ms. Hernandez has not challenged Peter’s irrational beliefs in a way that gets his attention. b.

Peter, at 4 years old, still has difficulty understanding that monsters are not real because he sees monsters on TV. c.

Peter can understand what Ms. Hernandez is telling him, but he has difficulty expressing his feelings about it. d.

Peter’s parents have not done enough explaining about the true nature of TV monsters so that he can better understand.

23.

Ms. Hernandez is working with 4-year-old Peter, who is afraid of the dark. He believes monsters come out at night like he has seen on TV. Ms. Hernandez patiently explains that there are no real monsters, but to no avail. Peter still refuses to go to sleep. What Piagetian idea helps to explain why Peter does not understand the truth about the unreality of TV monsters? a.

Peter assimilates the information that monsters are not real and accommodates the true information into his schema about monsters.

22

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b. c.

d.

Peter fails to assimilate the idea that monsters are not real.

Peter may assimilate the information about monsters, but he lacks the knowledge structures needed to accommodate the new information into his existing framework.

Peter accommodates the information that monsters are not real but fails to assimilate it into his existing schema about monsters.

24.

Which of the following statements does not reflect contemporary critiques of Piagetian theory that have experimental support? a.

Progress in intellectual development is often domain-specific. b.

Preschoolers may be capable of more advanced cognitive tasks than Piaget had specified. c.

Infants may have a rudimentary understanding of object permanence earlier in infancy than Piaget suspected. d.

Infants frequently have the ability to mentally represent objects at birth.

25.

Which of the following research techniques is an appropriate method for studying cognitive development of individuals during the sensorimotor period? a.

Habituation paradigm b.

Survey method c.

Semi-structured interview d.

Conservation of matter tasks

26.

Normally developing motor and visual milestones for a 4-month-old include a. crawling, scribbling with a crayon, interpreting facial expressions. b. sitting without support, playing with simple toys, 20/20 vision. c. rolling over, reaching for objects, visual tracking moving objects. d. standing with support, reaching for objects, visual preference for faces

27.

In a number conservation task a set of discrete items is laid out in two rows.

First the items in the two rows are laid out in exactly the same way, and then the items in one row are moved farther apart. Typically, 3- and 4-year-olds a. recognize that the rows have the same number when they are arranged identically, but believe there are more items when they are farther apart. b. have no trouble with simple number conservation tasks like this, but make mistakes with more abstract math problems. c. can easily decenter from the number of objects to consider the spacing of items at the same time. d. realize that number of items is conserved when they are moved around, because they take into account all the relevant observations at once.

28.

Developmentalists study what infants and children understand about other people’s intentions, desires, beliefs, feelings, and so on. This field of study is referred to as a. cognitive development. b. theory of mind. c. concrete operational thought d. preoperational thought.

23

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29.

Which cognitive achievement underlies a baby’s ability to form an attachment to a specific adult, like a parent or other caregiver? a.

Conservation b.

Object permanence c.

Code switching d.

Agency

30.

Jacinta, the mother of a 10-month-old baby boy, is concerned about her son’s increasing fussiness when she leaves him with his babysitter each morning.

Whose opinion of the situation is most consistent with what you have learned about infant cognitive development? a.

Jacinta’s sister, who believes the baby has been spoiled by too much attention and now has difficulty separating. b.

Jacinta’s mother, who believes the baby must have a physical problem that is causing him to be clingy. c.

Manuel, the baby’s father, who believes the boy must not like his babysitter. d.

Jacinta’s neighbor, who says her children went through this stage and Jacinta should try to be understanding and maintain a consistent environment.

31.

Jacinta, the mother of a 10-month-old baby boy, is concerned about her son’s increasing fussiness when she leaves him with his babysitter each morning.

Which explanation of his behavior is most likely to be accurate? a.

He is showing separation distress because his recognition memory is improving during this period. b.

He is showing separation distress because his recall memory is improving during this period. c.

He is showing lack of habituation to his caregiver which suggests the need to seek out a new babysitter. d.

He is showing increased willfulness suggesting the need for greater discipline from his parents.

32.

Sam is at home with his two children, 3-year-old Daria and 6-week-old Keith.

Sam is reading a story to Daria when baby Keith wakes up and screams for his bottle. Daria gets very upset when Sam leaves her to tend to the baby. Sam tries to explain to his daughter that her baby brother can’t wait, but Daria continues to insist. Sam is concerned that Daria is not accepting her new baby brother.

Based on your understanding of preschoolers’ cognitive development, what would you tell Sam? a.

Daria is probably exhibiting normal cognitive egocentrism because she cannot fully understand the needs of another person yet. b.

Daria is probably exhibiting a stress response that suggests the family may need some counseling. c.

Daria is probably exhibiting separation distress which is normal for children her age. d.

Daria is probably exhibiting a failure to show empathy and needs more training in this area.

24

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33.

The ability to use language to communicate effectively by using well-organized narratives primarily depends upon the development of ____________ skill. a. phonological b. semantic c. pragmatic d. syntactic

34.

According to Vygotsky, language is one product of shared understanding among members of a social group and may be considered a ____________ that facilitates learning and thinking. a. scaffold b. tool or sign c. culture d. developmental line

35.

Vygotsky pointed out that children do not independently construct a definition for each a word they learn, but rather they learn the meanings that the surrounding culture has ascribed to each word. This central concept in Vygotsky’s theory is called a. scaffolding. b. operational thought. c. tools and signs. d. mediated learning.

36.

Which of the following is the best example of the concept of a child’s zone of proximal development? a.

Sherri works on her algebra homework for two hours without being able to answer a single question correctly. b.

Jeff makes a note of the homework assignment for his last period class and completes it while riding home on the school bus. c.

Cindy explains to her younger sister how to solve a problem in math by organizing the information in a new way. Her younger sister can then complete her homework. d.

A mother shows her 8-month-old infant flashcards of words in different languages while she repeats each word on the card.

37.

Vygotsky believed that egocentric or private speech (talking aloud to self) played an important role in cognitive development by a. enabling young children to express and understand their emotions. b. helping organize young children’s thinking, as a precursor to selfregulation. c. scaffolding young children’s zone of proximal development. d. revealing children’s idiosyncratic thinking.

38.

One important lesson helping professionals can take from Piaget’s and Vygotsky’s work is that a. children must be expected to make independent progress, and not to be supported by adults in every task.

25

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b. c. d.

understanding how young clients think can help in structuring interventions that build effectively on existing knowledge and meanings. stages of cognitive development proceed regularly, and are not altered by individual experiences. language learning is not necessary for children to make progress in problem solving.

39.

The general consensus is that disorders of the autism spectrum a. are not related to any detectable brain growth abnormalities. b. are directly caused by pediatric vaccines containing thimerosal. c. are neurobiological in nature and have high family concordance rates. d. cannot be reliably diagnosed because there is too much variation.

40.

A counselor tries to use sports’ metaphors with her clients in order to help them gain insight into their behavior. Certain clients lack the background knowledge about sports to understand her messages, so they fail to demonstrate any increased understanding about themselves or their problems. This primarily describes a failure of a. assimilation. b. accommodation c. intrinsic motivation d. accepting new information

Essay Questions (Chapter 3) 41.

Parents wish to locate a program for their toddler and preschool children that is developmentally appropriate. What elements would you advise these parents to look for in the programs they observe?

42.

Compare and contrast the theories of Piaget and Vygotsky. In what ways are they similar and in what ways are they different?

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Chapter 4 Emotional and Social Development in the Early Years Multiple Choice Questions 1.

Researchers do not agree on the question of what emotions are. However, they seem to agree that emotions serve functions in all of the following areas EXCEPT: a. survival. b. intelligence quotient. c. motivation of behavior. d. communication.

2.

Some researchers emphasize the ability to recognize emotions (your own emotions and the emotions of others), to understand their meanings, to integrate this information with other kinds of cognition, and to manage or regulate emotions. This combination of abilities is called what? a.

Cognitive development b.

Emotional intelligence c.

Stages of emotion d.

Emotion schemas

3.

According to Izard, the expressive behaviors of infants reveal basic emotions that include joy/happiness, interest, sadness, anger, disgust, and what other emotion? a.

Fear b.

Pride c.

Confusion d.

Shame

4.

Which of the following illustrates that infants have natural strategies for coping with their emotions? a.

Negative affect system b.

Positive affect system c.

Still-face paradigm d.

Baseline episode

5.

Based on research, at what age do children begin to exhibit evidence of emotion regulation? a.

Around the age of three b.

Around the age of two c.

Around one year of age d.

Young infancy

6.

An infant encounters a new situation and turns to her mom to get emotional information from her mom’s facial expressions or vocal expressions. The infant uses this emotional information from Mom to shape her actions or response to the new situation. This is an example of what? a.

Self-directed coping behavior 27

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b. c. d.

Attachment Emotion schemas Social referencing

7.

Infants’ early relationships with caregivers are believed to lay the groundwork for the child’s interactions with others. What other aspect of the child’s future is believed to be shaped by these early relationships? a.

Self-concept b.

Intelligence c.

Cognitive development d.

Social referencing

8.

The attachment system between an infant and caregiver serves three purposes including which of the following? a.

Cognitive stimulation b.

Behavior control c.

Protection d.

Social adjustment

9.

What type of attachment exists between a mother and child if the child does not cry when separated from her mother and does not pay attention to her mother when they are reunited? a.

Avoidant—insecurely attached b.

Anxious ambivalent—insecurely attached c.

Securely attached d.

Situational—securely attached

10.

If a mother responds promptly to her baby’s crying and baby’s other signals, shows sensitivity and consistency, and holds the baby often, what quality of attachment is most likely to develop between mother and baby? a.

Avoidant b.

Anxious c.

Disoriented d.

Secure

11.

Which of the following hormones (enhanced during pregnancy, labor, and lactation) is closely associated with bonding and responsive caregiving? a.

Growth hormone b.

Oxytocin c.

Insulin d.

Histamine

12.

Researchers have specified sets of behavioral skills that foster social bonding between parent and infant. Which set of dyadic skills is present from birth? a.

Attachment b.

Intuitive parenting system c.

Recognition system d.

Orienting system 28

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13.

In studies that compare the behavioral traits of babies with different temperaments, which group is likely to exhibit the most placidity? a.

Easy babies b.

Slow-to-warm babies c.

Difficult babies d.

Reactive babies

14.

In studies of temperamental traits and the development of attachment, which group of infants seems more susceptible to environmental influences and therefore benefits more from positive parenting? a.

Infants with high regularity b.

Reactive, difficult infants c.

Easy, adaptable infants d.

Infants with more positive mood

15.

In answering questions about infant attachments to fathers, studies have compared attachment quality for mothers and fathers. In general, these studies show which of the following? a.

Significant differences in quality of attachment b.

No relationship between quality of attachment to mothers and fathers c.

Similar quality of attachment d.

Stronger attachments to fathers

16.

Which of the following is identified as a contextual risk factor in an infant’s attachment status? a.

A parent working outside the home b.

Presence of a grandparent in the home c.

Presence of older siblings d.

Parental arguing and conflict

17.

When abused or maltreated children grow up and become abusive parents, this destructive pattern is called what? a.

Social referencing b.

Proximity maintenance c.

Intergenerational transmission d.

Separation anxiety

18.

The Phineas Gage matrix identifies a syndrome caused by damage to the frontal lobe region. This damage diminishes an individual’s emotional intensity and results in a. greater tendency to plan and make rational decisions. b. better perspective taking ability. c. lesser tendency to plan and make rational decisions. d. greater happiness.

19.

Izard and others have found that at birth or soon after, infants’ facial expressions display which of the following emotions? a.

Shame b.

Guilt 29

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c. d.

Pride Interest

20.

Beginning in the first hours after birth, caregivers interact with infants in ways that enhance positive affect and attention, such as a. smiling and high-pitched vocalizations. b. keeping a still face to sooth the baby. c. waiting to respond to the baby’s cries. d. playing peek-a-boo with the baby.

21.

When Tamara responds to the crying of her 4-month-old baby, Jessie, she tries to figure out what has caused the baby’s distress (hunger, wet diaper, etc.) while making soothing sounds and holding the baby. Tamara’s actions are ____________ Jessie’s developing emotion regulation abilities. a. blocking b. irrelevant to c. scaffolding d. disorganizing

22.

The still-face paradigm has been used primarily to study a. emotion regulation in infants. b. mother-infant attachment. c. the effects of disciplinary style on self-control. d. temperament.

23.

Bea is the mother of 4-month-old Alex. She has been depressed since Alex’s birth and is frequently withdrawn. Because of Bea’s depression, we can expect that Alex, in comparison to other 4-month-olds, will display a. less self-regulation. b. more active face-to-face interactions. c. less crying and distress. d. more fearfulness and turning away.

24.

Bea is the mother of 4-month-old Alex. She has been depressed since Alex’s birth and is frequently withdrawn. Brain research indicates that, in comparison to other infants his age, Alex will have a. brain activation patterns like those of fearful and inhibited children. b. nothing unusual about his brain activation patterns. c. brain activation patterns indicating overall reduced activity. d. more rapid brain development.

25.

Increased levels of the hormone oxytocin play an important role in early social bonding by a. lowering infant dopamine levels. b. promoting engagement with the infant. c. increasing infant stress responsivity. d. regulating infant’s uneven hormonal and behavioral states.

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26.

In Bowlby’s attachment theory, which of the following represents a primary outcome of the formation of attachments in infancy? a.

A working model of self, of others, and of relationships. b.

Basic trust in others, but not a sense of self or of relationships. c.

A sense of the power structure of a family. d.

A belief in God.

27.

In a study of attachment formation by Ainsworth and her colleagues (1978), some mothers were less responsive to their babies’ signals than others. One group of mothers seemed to be reluctant to hold their babies, showed less warmth and affection than other mothers, and were more rejecting and angry.

When their babies were tested in the strange situation test, the children tended to fit which category of attachment? a.

Securely attached b.

Anxious ambivalent c.

Avoidant d.

Disorganized/disoriented

28.

Some babies produce contradictory behaviors in the strange situation test, both showing some signs of approaching the mother when stressed but then avoiding the mother when she approaches. Such unusual behavior has been found to be associated with what kind of caregiving on the part of the mother? a.

Warm, responsive, sensitive caregiving b.

Abusive caregiving c.

Inconsistent caregiving, sometimes sensitive and sometimes not d.

Low warmth in caregiving

29.

At 10 months of age, Suzie is very active, responds intensely to stimulation, avoids new stimulation, and tends to be irritable and fussy. Her temperament would be labeled a. resilient. b. easy. c. slow-to-warm. d. difficult.

30.

At 10 months of age, Suzie is very active, responds intensely to stimulation, avoids new stimulation, and tends to be irritable and fussy. Suzie’s mother, Anne, wants to be a good caregiver, but Suzie’s fussiness and intensity have made her feel like a failure. Anne sometimes finds herself withdrawing from Suzie and not responding when Suzie cries, because she feels like it will do no good. What advice should Anne’s counselor give her? a.

Anne has been too responsive to the baby’s crying. She needs to refuse to go to the baby when it cries to teach Suzie to be more independent. b.

Anne is not responsible for her baby’s fussiness. Some babies are needier and more negative than others. In the long run, continuing to be responsive to crying will help Suzie regulate her emotions. c.

It really doesn’t matter what Anne does. Of course Suzie needs to be fed, diapered, and so on, but Anne’s responsiveness will not affect whether Suzie cries a lot or a little.

31

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d.

Anne’s counselor should not advise on this matter.

31.

Which of the following is a true statement about the stability of infant attachments? a.

Secure attachments are more likely to change than insecure attachments. b.

If attachments fail to form by the end of infancy they will never successfully form. c.

Changes in family stressors that lead to changes in caregiving quality can lead to shifts in attachment quality. d.

Caregiver interventions cannot change infant attachment quality.

32.

Which of the following is true about breastfeeding as compared to bottlefeeding? a.

Breastfeeding guarantees that the infant will be securely attached to the mother. b.

Breast milk contains beneficial antibodies and growth hormones not contained in formulas. c.

Breastfeeding has no real advantages because modern formulas have all of the ingredients of breast milk. d.

Breastfeeding is associated with less secure attachments.

33.

Phillipa’s husband, Manuel, is worried about her plan to return to full-time employment when their baby is 6 months old. He is afraid that there will be a negative effect on the baby’s attachment to her mother. Phillipa suggests that she and Manuel discuss the pros and cons of day care with a counselor. What would a well-informed counselor advise this couple? a.

If Phillipa continues to provide sensitive, responsive care when she is with the baby, and if the day care is good quality, then the baby should still form a secure attachment to Phillipa. b.

No matter how good the mothers’ care or the day care is, leaving the baby in day care each day will put the baby at high risk for forming an insecure attachment to her mother. c.

As long as the day care quality is good, even if Phillipa is too tired and busy to be responsive and sensitive, the baby should form a secure attachment to her mother. d.

There is no reliable information available to counselors that would help them to advise this couple.

34.

The term rhythmicity, in regard to infants, refers to a. their ability to coordinate their actions, like looking and smiling, with those of a caregiver. b. their tendency to sway in synchrony with music. c. the production of cooing sounds in synchrony with music. d. their biological regularity, as in how regularly they sleep or eat.

35.

A counselor works with Mrs. Jacobs, who has a 1-month-old daughter. Mrs. Jacobs finds her daughter intense, demanding and hard to soothe. Most likely, this is because a. her baby has formed an insecure attachment with her mother.

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b. c. d.

her baby has a significant medical problem her baby has been spoiled by too much attention. her baby has a more difficult temperament.

36.

The following statements apply to the definition and description of reactive attachment disorder EXCEPT: a.

These children have experienced grossly pathological care in the early years. b.

This is one of the most researched disorders with clear treatment protocols. c.

These children fail to show attachment behaviors either organized or disorganized. d.

These children exhibit indiscriminant social behavior regardless of circumstances.

37.

Studies suggest a dose-response relationship between early, more extensive, and cumulative care that is associated with which behavior at school age? a. depression at school age b. academic achievement in elementary school c. aggression and neediness at school age d. sociability with peers at school age

38.

Counselors who work with young children to enhance their mental health should take an active role in a. providing support and information for parents. b. creating therapeutic experiences for the child that teach self-monitoring. c. providing the child with group exposure to other children of the same age. d. becoming an attachment figure for the young child.

Essay Questions (Chapter 4) 39.

Discuss the possible role of maternal depression in the development of emotion regulation in infants.

40.

Explain the significance of infant’s attachment to her caregivers.

41.

Discuss at least three reasons why attachment theory and research has special significance for helping professionals.

42.

Explain the cultural contributions to the development of attachments. What role does culture play in this process?

33 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

Chapter 5 The Emerging Self and Socialization in the Early Years Multiple Choice Questions 1.

What term do current writers use (in place of self) to represent the various aspects of self, incorporating such ideas as self-concept, self-regulation, and self-esteem? a.

Inner-self b.

Inner-being c.

Self-representation d.

Self-system

2.

In the classic representation of the “I-Me” distinction, which of the following characteristics applies to the I-Self? a.

Sense of self as known by others b.

Sense of objective self-awareness c.

Sense of self as object of others’ observations d.

Sense of subjective self-awareness

3.

According to recent views, the “Me” includes the material self, social self, and spiritual self. These aspects of self are defined by which term? a.

Self-concept b.

Self-esteem c.

Self-advocacy d.

Self-efficacy

4.

Babies don’t enter the world with a concept of self. Which of the following is an early indication that a young child’s self-awareness is emerging? a.

Pre-self b.

Self-recognition c.

Social referencing d.

Secure attachment

5.

At what age does a child seem to exhibit the phase of self-development that includes self-recognition, early self-esteem, and feelings of autonomy? a.

0-6 months b.

15-24 months c.

24-36 months d.

After the age of 3

6.

After young children show signs of self-recognition, they exhibit selfevaluation. This evaluative aspect of self is distinctly identified by which of the following terms? a.

Self-concept b.

Self-regulation c.

Self-esteem d.

Self-identity 34

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7.

Two cognitive and emotional advances must emerge (in tandem with objective self-awareness) before young children have the capacity for behavior regulation. One of those advances is emotional response to wrongdoing. What is the other? a.

Secure attachment b.

Social referencing c.

Sense of body permanence d.

Representational thought

8.

Labels for parenting styles are based on parents’ combined responsiveness and demandingness. What parenting style is characterized by a positive emotional climate, two-way communication, and parenting that is both highly responsive and highly demanding? a.

Authoritative b.

Authoritarian c.

Neglecting-uninvolved d.

Permissive

9.

Children who are conflicted and exhibit both anger and anxiety, have low selfesteem, show compliance with authorities (though perhaps a lack of selfregulation), and display poor social skills are likely receiving what type of parenting? a.

Neglecting-uninvolved b.

Authoritative c.

Authoritarian d.

Child-centered

10.

Researchers discuss three categories associated with parental methods of control to enforce their demands. Which of these categories has proven to be the most effective way to promote the internalization of rules and result in the child’s self-regulation of behavior? a.

Power assertion b.

Power withdrawal c.

Induction d.

Love withdrawal

11.

The use of time-out as a method of control with toddlers and preschoolers involves which of the following? a.

Love withdrawal b.

Power assertion c.

Fear d.

Neglect

12.

Children with easy temperaments and children with difficult temperaments respond differently to parenting strategies and are affected differently by parent behaviors. These differences in children demonstrate which of the following? a.

Authoritarian reaction b.

Differential susceptibility c.

Personal autonomy 35

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d.

Positive self-esteem

13.

Researchers have identified cultural structures and values that are relevant to parenting. For which of the following cultural groups is independence the traditional value orientation? a.

European American b.

Latino American c.

Native American d.

African American

14.

Which cultural group’s value orientation and traditional values influence parenting to be permissive and maintain patriarchal as well as matriarchal structures? a.

Asian American b.

African American c.

Latino American d.

Native American

15.

When parents practice the minimum sufficiency principle, which of the following are parents most likely to do in promoting children’s internalization of rules? a.

Use harsh power assertion b.

Use mild power assertion c.

Use a permissive approach d.

Avoid the induction approach

16.

In parenting, which of the following levels of emotional arousal is associated with positive steps toward a child’s internalization of rules? a.

Intense arousal b.

Anxious arousal c.

Warmth with no emotional arousal d.

Nonresponsive arousal

17.

Which of the following is most likely to effect compliance with fearless children? a.

Warmth of their relationship to the parent b.

Gentle discipline c.

Harsh discipline d.

Intensity of the parent’s power assertion

18.

Avoidant children, feeling that emotional expression can be dangerous, become responsible for their own emotion regulation without help from a caregiver. In extreme cases, these children provide emotional care for their caregiver. What term identifies this pattern? a.

Compulsive self-sufficiency b.

Compulsive caregiving c.

Externalization d.

Internalization 36

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19.

Connor’s behavior is described as impulsive and sometimes aggressive. He has low self-esteem and often seems to be in a negative mood. Connor exhibits high levels of both externalizing problems and internalizing problems. The parents of children like Connor typically use which style of parenting? a.

Authoritarian b.

Permissive c.

Authoritative d.

Neglecting-uninvolved

20.

Annette is a warm and affectionate mother to her sons, Jason and Keith. When she comes home from her job, she likes to spend time playing with them, preparing their favorite foods, and letting them watch their favorite TV shows.

She describes herself as a “soft touch” when it comes to her children. Lately she has been hearing complaints about 6-year-old Jason’s behavior in school.

Annette thinks the teacher is being too hard on her son. She does not want anything to affect the good relationship she has with her children. Which style best describes Annette’s parenting? a.

Authoritarian b.

Authoritative c.

Permissive d.

Neglecting-uninvolved

21.

Recent research on the self-system supports the idea that the nature of the self is which of the following? a.

Multidimensional b.

Bidimensional c.

Unidimensional d.

Non-dimensional

22.

Becky is struggling to learn her alphabet letters. Her kindergarten teacher, frustrated by failed attempts to teach her, says to Becky, “All the other girls and boys can write most of the letters and you can’t even say their names.” The teacher believes she is motivating the child to work harder by comparing Becky to the others. Which of the following predictions is most consistent with Cooley’s theory of self-development? a.

Becky will develop a sense of agency because she is more motivated to compete with her peers. b.

Becky will not develop a sense of agency because she is not given adequate support. c.

Becky will work harder to develop her sense of self-esteem. d.

Becky will incorporate her teacher’s negative evaluations into her construction of her own sense of self.

23.

Marie has a 2½-year-old daughter. The babysitter has been calling her daughter “naughty” and “a bad girl” when the child is uncooperative. The babysitter says that the little girl doesn’t understand what she is saying so it doesn’t matter.

Marie is unsure about what to do. Based upon information presented in this chapter, what would you say to Marie?

37

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a. b. c. d.

Marie should not worry about what the babysitter is doing because her daughter is too young to understand.

Marie should tell her daughter that what the babysitter says about her is untrue.

Marie should tell her daughter that she is loved to make up for what the babysitter says.

Marie should find some way to stop this before these labels become part of her daughter’s developing self-understanding.

24.

Alex is 22 months of age. He knows that he should not play with his food at the dinner table, but he sometimes plays anyway. His parents can usually redirect his behavior with simple reminders about what he should be doing. What is happening cognitively to help him grow in self-control? a.

With repeated experience, Alex is constructing representations of standards for everyday behavior that serve as guidelines for behavior. b.

Alex knows that he will be embarrassed if he gets caught playing with his food. c.

Alex can decenter sufficiently to understand that he needs to focus on his food in order to stay healthy. d.

Alex is now less cognitively egocentric and can see his mother’s perspective.

25.

Juan is a fearless 4-year-old and one of the most active children in his day care center. He eagerly climbs the playground equipment and seems to have little fear of getting hurt. Juan often wanders away from his mother in stores, preferring to explore the interesting sights rather than waiting patiently by her side. Juan’s mother is exasperated with his behavior and fears for his safety.

Based on research, what advice could you give her? a.

She should spank him because this is the only type of discipline he understands at his age. b.

She should use gentle discipline so that he is not frightened by her. c.

She should maintain a secure attachment with him and avoid being too gentle or too harsh. d.

She should remember that Juan will be less likely to comply if she is too warm.

26.

Sasha, a 3-year-old girl, was having difficulty settling down at bedtime. She ran around her house, trying to make her parents catch her before getting into bed.

Sasha’s behavior awakened her baby sister, asleep in the next room. John, Sasha’s father, felt pushed to his limit and he screamed at Sasha to stop and threatened her with a spanking. His loud voice made the young girl cry and run to her bed. John’s actions appear to elicit ____________ in Sasha. a. mild anxiety b. intense anxiety c. mild aggression d. intense aggression

27.

Sasha, a 3-year-old girl, was having difficulty settling down at bedtime. She ran around her house, trying to make her parents catch her before getting into bed.

38

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Sasha’s behavior awakened her baby sister, asleep in the next room. John, Sasha’s father, felt pushed to his limit and he screamed at Sasha to stop and threatened her with a spanking. His loud voice made the young girl cry and run to her bed. How would you explain Sasha’s compliance? a.

Sasha complied because she was afraid. b.

Sasha complied because she didn’t want to wake up her baby sister. c.

Sasha complied because it was the right thing to do. d.

Sasha complied because she understood her father’s position.

28.

Sasha, a 3-year-old girl, was having difficulty settling down at bedtime. She ran around her house, trying to make her parents catch her before getting into bed.

Sasha’s behavior awakened her baby sister, asleep in the next room. John, Sasha’s father, felt pushed to his limit and he screamed at Sasha to stop and threatened her with a spanking. His loud voice made the young girl cry and run to her bed. What is Sasha most likely to learn from repeated experiences like this one? a.

Sasha will associate bedtime with threats and avoid going to bed even more. b.

Sasha will focus on the reason why it is not a good idea to make a lot of noise. c.

Sasha will come to believe that her father prefers her baby sister. d.

Sasha will learn how angry her father gets when she refuses to do what he wants.

29.

Sasha, a 3-year-old girl, was having difficulty settling down at bedtime. She ran around her house, trying to make her parents catch her before getting into bed.

Sasha’s behavior awakened her baby sister, asleep in the next room. John, Sasha’s father, felt pushed to his limit and he screamed at Sasha to stop and threatened her with a spanking. In this example, which of the following statements is true with regard to internalization of standards? a.

Sasha’s father supported her internalization of rules of behavior because he exerted his authority. b.

Sasha’s father did not support her internalization of rules of behavior because she only complied out of fear. c.

Sasha’s father supported her internalization of rules because he considered the needs of her baby sister. d.

Sasha’s father did not support her internalization of rules because she was too young to understand what rules are.

30.

Sasha, a 3-year-old girl, was having difficulty settling down at bedtime. She ran around her house, trying to make her parents catch her before getting into bed.

Sasha’s behavior awakened her baby sister, asleep in the next room. John, Sasha’s father, felt pushed to his limit and he screamed at Sasha to stop and threatened her with a spanking. Which type of discipline did Sasha’s father use? a.

Induction b.

Power assertion c.

Withdrawal of love d.

Rule-giving 39

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31.

The internalization of rules and standards of behavior is most closely associated with the development of a. self-concept. b. attachment. c. intelligence. d. conscience.

32.

Parents who give reasons for the rules they set in ways their children can understand are using what disciplinary approach? a.

Induction b.

Power assertion c.

Withdrawal of love d.

Permissiveness

33.

Which of the following discipline methods is most likely to generate both immediate compliance and very high levels of anxiety? a.

Induction b.

Power assertion c.

Withdrawal of love d.

Neglectfulness

34.

Based on Crittendon’s view, infants who have avoidant attachment classifications actively avoid or block out perceptions that arouse their feelings because they have experienced which pattern of learning or conditioning? a.

Intermittent reinforcement for displays of emotion b.

Intermittent punishment for displays of emotion c.

Predictable reinforcement for displays of emotion d.

Predictable punishment for displays of emotion

35.

Surya wants 8-year-old Leila to start her homework. Leila doesn’t want to turn off the TV. Surya raises her voice and threatens to take away Leila’s TV privileges for a week if she doesn’t comply. Surya enters the room and commands Leila to obey. Leila begins to wail, saying that the homework is too hard and that she never understands it anyway. At this point the phone rings.

Surya gets absorbed in the call. Thirty minutes later, Leila is still watching TV and another battle ensues. Surya, exhausted from the struggle, takes her to bed.

This scenario is an example of which phenomenon? a.

Patterson’s view of coercive interaction b.

Maccoby’s view of authoritative parenting c.

Crittendon’s view of attachment d.

Mead’s view of factors that shape the self-system

36.

Surya wants 8-year-old Leila to start her homework. Leila doesn’t want to turn off the TV. Surya raises her voice and threatens to take away Leila’s TV privileges for a week if she doesn’t comply. Surya enters the room and commands Leila to obey. Leila begins to wail, saying that the homework is too hard and that she never understands it anyway. At this point the phone rings.

Surya gets absorbed in the call. Thirty minutes later, Leila is still watching TV 40

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and another battle ensues. Surya, exhausted from the struggle, takes her to bed.

Which behavior is most likely to increase next time? a.

Doing homework b.

Losing TV privileges c.

Parent’s involvement with homework d.

TV viewing 37.

Surya wants 8-year-old Leila to start her homework. Leila doesn’t want to turn off the TV. Surya raises her voice and threatens to take away Leila’s TV privileges for a week if she doesn’t comply. Surya enters the room and commands Leila to obey. Leila begins to wail, saying that the homework is too hard and that she never understands it anyway. At this point the phone rings.

Surya gets absorbed in the call. Thirty minutes later, Leila is still watching TV and another battle ensues. Surya, exhausted from the struggle, takes Leila to bed. Which of the following best illustrates the negative reinforcement cycle that is operating in this example? a.

Leila is more likely to continue the conflict when Surya raises her voice. b.

Leila is allowed to watch TV longer if she keeps arguing with her mother. c.

Surya is more likely to gain compliance when she threatens Leila. d.

Leila is more likely to do her homework if she understands the material.

38.

A counselor is leading a parents’ group when the topic of spanking as a disciplinary technique is raised. Based on research, what is the most accurate statement the counselor can offer? a.

Spanking is one of a variety of effective techniques for teaching prosocial skills to children. b.

Spanking should be used with young children for potentially dangerous kinds of misbehavior like running across a street because it is the only thing they understand under the circumstances. c.

Spanking is the best way to discipline young children but only when it is accompanied by a hug or some show of affection afterward. d.

Spanking may gain immediate compliance, but it does not aid development of self-regulation and may increase a child’s aggressiveness.

39.

For counselors who work with families that include children of different ages, which of the following statements is true? a.

Parents should consistently enforce a limited number of rules regardless of the age of the child. b.

Parents need to treat all children in the family the same way (e.g., granting privileges, etc.) or they risk sending the message that they favor one child over another. c.

Parents need to be flexible as children get older and adjust their rules and expectations to developmentally changing competencies and needs. d.

Parents can relax their control of older children because these children have passed the critical period of the preschool years when learning rules is most important.

41 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

Essay Questions (Chapter 5) 40.

Based on research, present the pros and cons of corporal punishment as a disciplinary method.

41.

Why might the effectiveness of corporal punishment vary from one cultural group to another? What questions remain to be answered about the relationship between culture and disciplinary style?

42.

Discuss the relationship between child temperament and parent disciplinary style.

43.

Create a case study of a family with two children who are showing behavior problems. Outline the steps you would take as a counselor to treat this family while paying particular attention to the developmental needs of the children.

42 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

Chapter 6 Realms of Cognition in Middle Childhood Multiple Choice Questions 1.

During middle childhood, the brain continues to grow and develop. One change during this development is the increased coordination between the left and right sides of the body. Which of the following events most directly accounts for this increased coordination? a.

Increase in gray matter in the brain b.

Myelination of the corpus callosum c.

Decrease in white matter in the brain d.

The child’s experiences

2.

Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), which negatively affects children’s school performance, is linked to atypical variations in brain development. What is the incidence of ADHD among school-age children? a.

Less than 1% b.

5-10% c.

2-3% d.

More than 15%

3.

Jean Piaget and other researchers have studied cognitive development in middle childhood from different theoretical traditions. What label did Piaget use to describe this stage of cognitive development? a.

Adaptation b.

Assimilation c.

Formal operations d.

Concrete operations

4.

What cognitive ability do children develop in middle childhood that empowers or enables them to answer conservation questions correctly (like those posed by Piaget) and to think reversibly? a.

Ability to count b.

Ability of metacognition c.

Ability to think abstractly d.

Ability to decenter

5.

In the information processing approach to cognitive development, the brain’s cognitive functioning is compared to what? a.

Gaming on a digital device b.

Learning a computer programming language c.

Computer processing of information d.

Wiring configurations for computer hardware

6.

Information processing theories of cognitive development focus on what? a.

Physiological changes in the brain b.

Mechanics of thinking c.

Relationships between cognitive and physiological achievements 43

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d.

Stages of cognitive development

7.

Some theorists combine Piaget’s stages of cognitive development with information processing theories. What are these theorists called? a.

Neo-information theorists b.

Dual processing theorists c.

NeoPiagetians d.

NeoStage theorists

8.

What type of memory has the same unchanging capacity at different ages of development? a.

Short-term memory b.

Sensory memory c.

Working memory d.

Procedural memory

9.

What allows us to hold information in working memory and use it for periods of time longer than 15 to 30 seconds? a.

Rehearsal b.

Retrieval c.

Recognition d.

Metacognition

10.

When a child remembers the factual information that one pound equals sixteen ounces, what type of knowledge is the child retrieving from memory? a.

Episodic b.

Procedural c.

Semantic d.

Sensory

11.

When a child has repeated experiences with one kind of event, such as going to a ball game several times or going to the doctor several times, the child begins to form a schematic representation of the features of the event—the order in which things occur, where and when they occur. Such an episodic representation is called what? a.

Procedural information b.

A script c.

A sensory input d.

Nondeclarative information

12.

Among cognitive changes that benefit memory during a child’s development, which one plays the big part in making it easier for children to learn more depth in a domain of knowledge? a.

Increase in the child’s processing speed b.

Increase in the child’s logical thinking skills c.

Increase in the child’s knowledge base d.

Increase in the child’s language skills

44 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

13.

In criminal cases involving children’s eyewitness testimony, interviewers should avoid using guided imagery. Why? a.

It mirrors stereotype induction. b.

It typically involves inducements. c.

It causes confusion between reality and fantasy. d.

It draws upon the child’s prior knowledge.

14.

Piaget’s seriation task demonstrates which one of the cognitive changes that benefits memory with age? a.

Processing speed b.

Knowledge base c.

Metacognitive skills d.

Logical thinking skills

15.

If children learn and practice a memory strategy to boost memory but then forget to use it when it would be beneficial, what inconsistency are they exhibiting? a.

Production deficiency b.

Selective attention c.

Utilization deficiency d.

Inhibitory control

16.

Elementary school teachers often ask students to engage in self-testing and other self-monitoring activities that help them think about their own thinking.

Such activities are designed to promote which type of cognitive skills that improve memory? a.

Language skills b.

Metacognitive skills c.

Narrative skills d.

Processing speed

17.

Children’s repeated interactions with others enhance their ability to decenter and to interpret others’ thoughts, feelings, and desires. This ability to consider another’s point of view is called what? a.

Perspective taking b.

Rehearsal c.

Metacognition d.

A script

18.

At approximately what age do children begin to demonstrate Selman’s second stage of friendship and learn that the needs and perspectives of other persons must be considered carefully? a.

5 b.

8 c.

11 d.

14

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19.

Based on Selman’s work, what term is used to identify a child whose interpersonal orientation is manifested in aggressive or manipulative behaviors toward a friend? a.

Reorienting b.

Disorienting c.

Self-transforming d.

Other-transforming

20.

Stanley is 7 years old. His parents are quite concerned about his school progress. Although he has begun to learn to read, he reverses some letters when he writes. Based on research, Stanley’s school counselor should tell his parents that a. brain development can be quite uneven in childhood and as a result, it is not unusual for children to show poor performance in isolated skills. b.

Stanley almost certainly has a serious learning disorder that requires immediate intervention. c. if a child shows normal progress in other reading related skills, like Stanley does, the child is probably faking the letter reversals in a bid for attention. d.

Stanley needs glasses.

21.

Piaget’s description of the differences between preoperational thought and concrete operational thought includes which of the following? a.

Preoperational thought is reversible, but concrete operational thought is not. b.

Preoperational thought is fast, but concrete operational thought is slow. c.

Preoperational thought occurs in the frontal lobes, but concrete operational thought occurs in the corpus callosum. d.

Preoperational thought is centered, but concrete operational thought is decentered.

22.

Which of the following is a difference between working memory and long-term memory? a.

Problem solving and making inferences is something we do in long-term memory, not in working memory. b.

Working memory retains information even longer than long-term memory. c.

Working memory has a limited capacity whereas long-term memory has almost unlimited capacity. d.

Working memory and long-term memory are the same thing.

23.

Carla, a bright, energetic 7-year-old, has lost four gloves during the past few weeks. Her mother is annoyed at the need to keep replacing gloves. Carla notices that her little brother is amused that Carla is in trouble, and she formulates the theory that her brother is stealing the gloves just to get her into trouble. Carla is convinced that she is right. She refuses to entertain her mother’s suggestion that Carla is often so distracted that she does not keep track of her possessions. Carla is displaying a form of a. egocentrism.

46

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b. c. d.

formal operational thought. reversibility. domain specific knowledge.

24.

Our knowledge of an event in our own lives, such as a family vacation, is a type of a. episodic knowledge. b. semantic knowledge. c. nondeclarative knowledge. d. procedural knowledge.

25.

When Sammy had to learn the names of all the planets, as well as their relative sizes, he made up sentences to help him remember. For example, “Eartha ate the Mars candy bar” helped him remember that Earth is larger than Mars.

Sammy was using a memory strategy called a. selective attention. b. rehearsal. c. organization. d. elaboration.

26.

Imagine that you are counseling a 6th grader on how to improve her study skills so that she will remember more information on tests. Not only do you teach her some memory strategies, you also encourage her to engage in self-testing so that she will begin self- monitoring, that is, keeping track of how well she is remembering new material. What kind of skill is this type of self-monitoring? a.

A metacognitive skill b.

A preoperational skill c.

A declarative memory d.

A social cognitive skill

27.

Which of the following is true about strategies children use to help them solve math problems? a.

Children always abandon less efficient strategies when they discover more efficient strategies. b.

Only children who have formal schooling learn to use strategies. c.

Flawed strategies, or “bugs,” are typical only of children who lack formal schooling. d.

Children occasionally use less efficient strategies after learning more efficient strategies.

28.

Five-year-old Brennan was questioned by police about a babysitter (Ginger) who was suspected of abusing Brennan’s older sister. To encourage Brennan to reveal what he knew about Ginger, a police interviewer referred to the babysitter as a “nasty lady who does some strange things.” These interviewer remarks are an example of a. guided imagery. b. stereotype induction. c. working memory. d. egocentrism.

47

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29.

NeoPiagetians are described as which of the following? a.

Psychologists who abandoned Piaget’s model in favor of information processing theories b.

Theorists who apply Piaget’s concepts to therapeutic interventions c.

Cognitive developmental theorists who incorporate ideas from Piaget and from information processing approaches d.

Cognitive developmental theorists who dismiss the ideas of information processing approaches and argue for a return to Piaget’s original theoretical work

30.

Jenna, a 10-year-old, has a mental structure, or schema, about what typically happens when you go out to eat in a restaurant. Her schema indicates that a host or hostess first leads you to a table, then a waiter or waitress comes to take your order, and so on. This kind of mental structure is called a. a semantic memory. b. a procedural memory. c. a rehearsal. d. a script.

31.

Dylan, a 9-year-old, is manipulative in his interactions with his friends. He does not use physical aggression, but he often tries threats and scare tactics to get what he wants. Dylan’s interpersonal orientation would be described as a. other-transforming. b. reciprocal. c. mature for his age. d. self-transforming.

32.

Selman describes stages in the development of both perspective taking skill and of friendship. Suppose that David understands that his friend Mike has a different perspective from his own, but David cannot yet judge how his own behavior is likely to be viewed by his friend. David is most likely in which of Selman’s stages? a.

Stage 0: undifferentiated/egocentric b.

Stage 1: differentiated/subjective c.

Stage 2: reciprocal/self-reflective d.

Stage 3: mutual/third-person

33.

Jamie, a boy scout, has practiced tying a particular kind of knot dozens of times, and he does it quickly and efficiently. But when he tries to explain how to do it to a younger member of his troop, he can’t put it into words, he can only show the other boy how to do it. Jamie’s knowledge of knot tying is an example of a. declarative knowledge. b. autobiographical knowledge. c. semantic knowledge. d. procedural knowledge.

34.

Eight-year-old Marquita has spent a great deal of time learning basic addition facts. When she solves a complex addition problem in school, she pulls these 48

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facts out of memory. Marquita is using a ____________ strategy to help her solve addition problems. a. retrieval b. reversible c. production d. counting on 35.

Before using cognitive therapies with children, which of the following is an important area of cognitive ability that clinicians should assess in their young clients? a.

Long-term memory b.

Episodic memory c.

Nondeclarative knowledge d.

Metacognitive skill

36.

Wayne is taking a digit span test. When he hears this series of digits, 3 9 4 2 6 1 2, he realizes the digits match the ages of people in his family; his mother is 39, his father is 42, his little sister is 6, and he is 12. He decides to remember the series of four ages rather than try to recall each digit separately. Wayne is using a strategy called a. elaboration. b. chunking. c. seriation. d. self-transforming.

37.

Jeremy, a 2nd grader, is in the counselor’s office because he hit another boy on the playground. He tells the counselor that he knew the other boy was about to hit him first. He was just “getting back” at the other student. The counselor tries to help Jeremy control his aggressive behavior by explaining that the other boy didn’t intend to hurt him. Given what you have learned about social development, which of the following is your best recommendation for the counselor? a.

Jeremy needs to be punished for his behavior, because no amount of talking will do any good at his age. b.

The counselor should call Jeremy’s parents and they should resolve the problem because they are the primary socializing agents. c.

Jeremy probably doesn’t have a good understanding of another person’s intentions at this age. The counselor should assess the quality of Jeremy’s perspective-taking and structure the intervention accordingly. d.

The counselor’s approach is a good one because most children can infer the intentions and take the perspective of others around this time.

38.

For counselors who work with abused and maltreated children, which of the following statements draws an appropriate conclusion from research on social cognition and friendships? a.

Counselors should employ group counseling because abused children can relate best to other maltreated children.

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b.

c. d.

Individual classroom accommodations are most helpful because these children typically lag behind their peers academically and this help will do most to bolster their self-esteem.

The counselor needs to serve as the attachment figure so that these children can form an attachment and develop empathy for others.

Counselors should pay attention to the social world of these maltreated children, because those who can make a best friend have a good chance of improving their self-esteem.

Essay Questions (Chapter 6) 39.

Kuhn (2000) wrote that “to study memories is to study much of …cognition and cognitive development.” Explain this statement and illustrate your points by using examples of the factors that contribute to memory improvement with age.

40.

Describe how the concept of egocentrism relates to cognitive development in middle childhood and to the typical progress of friendship development (level of social interactions).

41.

Imagine that you are working with 10-year-old Devyn who is having trouble making friends. His parents and teachers indicate that Devyn is “generous to a fault,” often giving up what he wants in order to please others. Based on Selman’s ideas about friendship development, explain whether this child is more or less mature than the boys who bully him, and describe an approach for helping Devyn with his friendship skills.

50 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

Chapter 7 Self and Moral Development: Middle Childhood Through Early Adolescence Multiple Choice Questions 1.

Based on the model of the structure of self-concept by Marsh and Shavelson, the non-academic self is divided into three areas: social, emotional, and a.

Relational b.

Spiritual c.

Intellectual d.

Physical

2.

Developmentalists’ definition of self-concept includes all of the following descriptors EXCEPT: a.

Multifaceted b.

Hierarchical structure c.

Dynamic and changing d.

Unidimensional

3.

Based on Harter’s view of the domains of self-concept, when does scholastic or academic competence emerge as a domain or dimension of self-concept? a.

Adolescence b.

College years c.

Middle to late childhood d.

Early childhood

4.

According to many studies, which domain of self-concept correlates highly with overall self-esteem from late childhood through adulthood? a.

Peer acceptance b.

Athletic competence c.

Physical appearance d.

Physical competence

5.

Which child’s self-concept is boosted most by demonstrating high competence in musical performance? a.

A child who demonstrates no natural musical competence b.

A child who demonstrates natural musical competence c.

A child who thinks musical performance is insignificant d.

A child who thinks musical performance is very important

6.

What process are children using when they observe the performance of others and use it as a standard for judging their own abilities? a.

Self-enhancing bias b.

Self-defamation c.

Social comparison d.

Social aspiration

7.

Children use various strategies to protect their self-esteem. Who is likely to exhibit the highest level of self-protection?

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a. b. c. d.

Child who is highly successful academically Child with high self-esteem Child with low self-esteem Child who is highly successful athletically

8.

Based on studies of boys and girls in late childhood, what begins to happen to their self-esteem at this age? a.

Self-esteem declines for both boys and girls b.

Self-esteem declines for girls but not boys c.

Self-esteem climbs moderately for girls d.

Self-esteem climbs for both girls and boys

9.

Based on current studies, Black Americans have slightly higher global selfesteem than White Americans. In maintaining their self-esteem, individuals in historically marginalized groups do all of the following EXCEPT: a.

Attribute negative feedback to prejudice b.

Base self-concept on domains in which White Americans excel c.

Make social comparisons within their own group d.

Base self-concept on domains in which members of their group excel

10.

Children’s developing self-concepts differ on the basis of cultural values and emphases. North American children are more likely than children from Eastern cultures to incorporate which of the following elements in their self-concepts? a.

Characteristics of parents b.

Self-criticism c.

Independence d.

Relationships

11.

Cultures that emphasize the needs of the group over individual needs, who value social relationships more than personal goals, and who see failure as a step toward self-improvement are defined by what label? a.

Individualistic b.

Conventionalist c.

Moralistic d.

Collectivist

12.

Morality is an important domain of self-concept that involves the capacity to distinguish right from wrong and the capacity to choose to do right. The elements of morality include all of the following EXCEPT: a.

Sociability b.

Emotions c.

Behaviors d.

Cognitions

13.

Current research, contrary to Freud’s predictions (in his psychoanalytic theory of moral development), indicates that signs of moral development begin to emerge at what age? a.

By one year b.

Toddler age 52

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c. d.

3 to 4 years of age By middle childhood

14.

In Piaget’s stages of moral development, what is the stage in which individuals strictly adhere to rules and believe rule violations are always punished? a.

Premoral period of morality b.

Autonomous morality c.

Conventional morality d.

Heteronomous morality

15.

Kohlberg focused on the individual’s reasoning about moral issues. The stages in his preconventional level of moral development included the following beliefs EXCEPT: a.

Child obeys rules to avoid punishment. b.

Child questions authority because authority may not be right. c.

Child interprets rules literally and no judgment is involved. d.

Child follows rules to serve her own interests.

16.

One aspect of prosocial behavior is defined as follows: a child exhibits “feeling with” another person, recognizing the emotional need of the other, and experiencing what the other is assumed to be feeling. This definition specifically applies to which of the following? a.

Altruism b.

Sympathy c.

Empathy d.

Self-sacrifice

17.

Which of the following characteristics is most closely linked to children who exhibit prosocial or helping behaviors? a.

High social anxiety b.

Low social anxiety c.

Hedonistic perspective d.

Low needs-oriented reasoning

18.

What style of parenting seems to be most effective in fostering internalization of standards and values that lead to prosocial behavior in children? a.

Permissive b.

Strong power assertion c.

Authoritarian d.

Authoritative

19.

In the social information-processing model, a child encodes cues and interprets the cues. An aggressive child is likely to exhibit which of the following styles of attribution in the process of interpreting cues? a.

Hostile attribution b.

Prosocial attribution c.

Positive intent attribution d.

Altruistic causal attribution 53

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20.

Tim is doing poorly in math. Although he knows he’s not a very good math student, it does not concern him greatly. He spends most of his time after school playing hockey, a sport at which he excels. Tim’s 5th grade math teacher tries to motivate him to stay after school for tutoring, but Tim doesn’t want to miss hockey practice. Furthermore, he reasons, two of his teammates have even lower marks in math than he does. Which of the following statements about Tim’s self-concept is most accurate? a.

Tim’s self-concept is low because thinks poorly of himself in math. b.

Time’s self-concept depends on his academic view of self. c.

Tim’s self-concept reflects understanding of his strengths and weaknesses. d.

Tim’s self-concept is undifferentiated because of his age.

21.

Tim is doing poorly in math. Although he knows he’s not a very good math student, it does not concern him greatly. He spends most of his time after school playing hockey, a sport at which he excels. Tim’s 5th grade math teacher tries to motivate him to stay after school for tutoring, but Tim doesn’t want to miss hockey practice. Furthermore, he reasons, two of his teammates have even lower marks in math than he does. Which of the following statements about Tim’s self-esteem is most accurate? a.

Tim’s global self-esteem is likely to be high because he excels in an area of importance to him. b.

Tim’s global self-esteem is likely to be low because he is failing in an important academic area. c.

Tim’s global self-esteem is higher in the academic area than in the nonacademic area. d.

Tim’s global self-esteem is higher in the non-academic area than in the academic area.

22.

Tim is doing poorly in math. Although he knows he’s not a very good math student, it does not concern him greatly. He spends most of his time after school playing hockey, a sport at which he excels. Tim’s 5th grade math teacher tries to motivate him to stay after school for tutoring, but Tim doesn’t want to miss hockey practice. Furthermore, he reasons, two of his teammates have even lower marks in math than he does. Which process seems to enhance or protect Tim’s self-esteem? a.

Tim’s self-criticism b.

Tim’s self-monitoring of his performance c.

Tim’s perspective-taking skills d.

Tim’s downward social comparison

23.

People are generally motivated to evaluate themselves favorably in relation to others. Researchers refer to this tendency as which of the following? a.

Self-comparison bias b.

Positive appraisal c.

Social comparison d.

Self-enhancing bias

24.

One factor that promotes higher self-esteem among minority group members is 54

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a. b. c. d.

a strong and positive racial or ethnic identity. being a member of a smaller, rather than a larger, social group. making social comparisons to members of other cultural groups. incorporating reflected appraisals in construction of self.

25.

According to many, evidence points to a strong association between global selfesteem and what domain? a.

Academic self-concept b.

Social self-concept c.

Athletic self-concept d.

Physical appearance

26.

As Selena and her friends are walking home after school they approach a corner store and see bags of candy and snacks on open shelves outside the front door.

A young clerk is also outside waiting for customers. As they get closer, they see the clerk go inside the store. Selena’s friends encourage her to take a bag of candy, but she refuses. How would an individual in Kohlberg’s preconventional stage of moral reasoning explain Selena’s behavior? a.

Selena didn’t take the candy because she might get caught. b.

Selena didn’t take the candy because it belonged to someone else. c.

Selena didn’t take the candy because stealing violates standards of justice. d.

Selena didn’t take the candy because stealing violates the social contract.

27.

As Selena and her friends are walking home after school they approach a corner store and see bags of candy and snacks on open shelves outside the front door.

A young clerk is also outside waiting for customers. As they get closer, they see the clerk go inside the store. Selena’s friends encourage her to take a bag of candy, but she refuses. How would an individual in Kohlberg’s conventional stage of moral reasoning explain Selena’s behavior? a.

Selena didn’t take the candy because she might get caught. b.

Selena didn’t take the candy because it belonged to someone else. c.

Selena didn’t take the candy because stealing violates standards of justice. d.

Selena didn’t take the candy because stealing violates the social contract.

28.

As Selena and her friends are walking home after school they approach a corner store and see bags of candy and snacks on open shelves outside the front door.

A young clerk is also outside waiting for customers. As they get closer, they see the clerk go inside the store. Selena’s friends encourage her to take a bag of candy, but she refuses. How would Freud’s theory explain Selena’s behavior? a.

Selena identifies with her mother who taught her that stealing is wrong. b.

Selena identifies with her father who taught her that stealing is wrong. c.

Selena has not developed an adequate superego because of her age, so she conforms to authority. d.

Selena has not developed an adequate superego because of her gender, so she conforms to authority.

29.

As Selena and her friends are walking home after school they approach a corner store and see bags of candy and snacks on open shelves outside the front door.

A young clerk is also outside waiting for customers. As they get closer, they see 55

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the clerk go inside the store. Selena’s friends encourage her to take a bag of candy, but she refuses. According to Gilligan’s theory, how would Selena, if she were an adult, most likely explain why she chose not to steal? a.

Selena would explain that her mother taught her that stealing is wrong. b.

Selena would explain that it is important to conform to authority. c.

Selena would explain that she does not steal because she believes in universal laws of justice. d.

Selena would explain that she does not steal because stealing is wrong and because she would care about bringing harm to the shop owner.

30.

Billy’s babysitter takes him to the park every day where he can play with other preschoolers. When Billy falls or gets hurt, his babysitter soothes him until he feels better. One day Dwayne, another preschool child, falls from the swings.

Billy looks concerned and rushes over to help. Then Billy tells his babysitter that Dwayne got hurt. According to research, Billy’s prosocial behavior is strongly related to Billy’s experience with a. empathy and sympathy. b. guilt. c. anxiety. d. pain.

31.

Mr. Sanderson is a 1st grade teacher. He believes in fostering children’s tolerance for others, encouraging fairness, and promoting cooperative behavior.

One of his classroom jobs involves leading the lunch line to the school cafeteria, a coveted role among the students. Vanessa has been line leader of the week. It is now the last day of the week and Mr. Sanderson asks Vanessa to allow Jeremy, a brand new student, a chance to lead the line. Mr. Sanderson is upset with Vanessa when she refuses because he feels she is not being kind.

What is the best explanation for Vanessa’s behavior at this age? a.

Vanessa is at the premoral stage and is unconcerned about other children. b.

Vanessa can engage in needs-based reasoning but may still have difficulty weighing the needs of others against her own. c.

Vanessa recognizes her duty to share, but she doesn’t like the new student. d.

Vanessa can’t engage in needs-based reasoning so she is unaware that she is being selfish.

32.

Which of the following is a temperamental characteristic associated with prosocial behavior? a.

Low social anxiety b.

Popularity among peers c.

Coherent self-concept d.

Intelligence

33.

Peter, an aggressive 11-year-old, is referred to the counselor because of a recent episode of fighting on the bus. When asked to explain what happened, Peter said he had to sit next to a girl who was laughing with her friend across the aisle 56

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about the “stupid kids in school.” Enraged by this, Peter pushed her head into the window. What is the most likely explanation for Peter’s aggressive reaction? a.

Peter dislikes girls and was agitated by the girls’ conversation. b.

Peter mimicked aggressive behavior he learned at home. c.

Peter attributed hostile intentions to the girls’ comments. d.

Peter typically acts first and thinks later.

34.

Peter, an aggressive 11-year-old, is referred to the counselor because of a recent episode of fighting on the bus. When asked to explain what happened, Peter said he had to sit next to a girl who was laughing with her friend across the aisle about the “stupid kids in school.” Enraged by this, Peter pushed her head into the window. Where is the error in Peter’s social information processing about this situation? a.

Peter interpreted cues incorrectly and assumed the girls’ comments were referring to him. b.

Peter did not clarify his goals in the situation but thought the girls should know not to insult the other kids. c.

Peter did not encode the social information into long-term memory. d.

Peter did not evaluate the girls’ comments against what he knows to be true about other students on the bus.

35.

The ability to restrain or redirect a strong impulse in order to perform a lesspreferred response is called a. emotional reactivity. b. positive regulation. c. conscience-oriented behavior. d. effortful control.

36.

A counselor is concerned about a client’s self-esteem. Which of the following provides a research-based rationale for concern? a.

High levels of self-esteem increase the risk of mental health problems. b.

Low levels of self-esteem cause people to act incompetently. c.

Low levels of self-esteem are related to negative attributions about self and to depression. d.

High levels of self-esteem contribute to hypervigilance and perceived need to protect oneself.

Essay Questions (Chapter 7) 37.

What is character education? If character education principles are incorporated in schools, how might students benefit?

38.

What advice would you give to parents who want to develop prosocial behaviors in their children?

39.

Develop a case study that reflects the development of an aggressive disorder.

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40.

Write a response to a parent who believes that constantly comparing her child to other more accomplished or talented children is a good way to motivate her child to achieve more and become stronger.

58 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

Chapter 8 Gender and Peer Relationships: Middle Childhood Through Early Adolescence Multiple Choice Questions 1.

After conception, which of the following characteristics applies to zygotes carrying the XY chromosome pair? a.

The Y chromosome is larger than the X b.

The Y chromosome carries the SRY gene c.

Metabolic rate is slower than XX chromosome pairs d.

Prenatal growth is slower than XX chromosome pairs

2.

Indifferent reproductive structures exist for all fetuses, but at some point these structures differentiate. When do male external genitalia develop? a.

By the second month b.

In the third week c.

In the fifth month d.

By the third month

3.

What is the birth ratio of males to females? a.

Equal number of males and females b.

105 males to 100 females c.

110 females to 100 males d.

4 females to 5 males

4.

Children learn that acting or dressing like the other gender does not change their gender. What aspect of gender identity formation involves recognizing this permanence of gender category membership? a.

Gender stability b.

Gender allegiance c.

Gender constancy d.

Gender roles

5.

What do research studies show about the role of gender identity among White children compared to minority (Black and Hispanic) children in the U.S.? a.

Gender identity has greater impact on social adjustment for White children. b.

Gender identity has greater impact on social adjustment for minority children. c.

White children feel more pressure for gender conformity. d.

Hispanic males feel less pressure for gender conformity.

6.

What is the sex chromosome configuration for children who have the condition called congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)? a.

YY b.

XY c.

XX d.

XXY 59

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7.

Which of the following statements presents a sex stereotype (not supported by evidence from studies)? a.

Females exhibit more emotional expressiveness. b.

Males exhibit more satisfaction with their gender assignment. c.

Females exhibit more relational aggression (exclusion from group). d.

Males are more competent at analytical tasks.

8.

Based on many meta-analyses that assess the effects of sex differences, which of the following “real” sex differences (in traits or qualities) applies to boys more than girls? a.

Collaborative discourse style b.

Verbal achievement (reading, spelling, language tests) c.

Satisfaction with one’s gender assignment d.

Preference for gender-typed toys

9.

Which of the following statements applies to the way children in middle childhood spend their time? a.

They spend most of their time in mixed-gender interactions. b.

They spend three times more time with same-sex peers. c.

They spend 11 times more time with same-sex peers. d.

They are indifferent about gender of peers with whom they interact.

10.

In comparing the group play of boys and girls during elementary school years, what characterizes the group play of girls more than the group play of boys. a.

Activities that show narrower interests b.

Competitive group play c.

Clearly structured hierarchical group play d.

Group size of two or three

11.

At puberty, hormonal changes and hormonal differences between boys and girls may cause some behavioral differences that emerge at about that time. Which of the following behavior changes is seen more in girls than in boys? a.

Greater increase in depressive symptoms b.

Greater increase in aggressive behavior c.

Greater increase in delinquent behavior d.

Greater increase in dominance seeking

12.

Social learning theorists suggest that the differential treatment of boys and girls (by parents and other adults) influences children’s sex-type behaviors. What does the evidence show? a.

Parents interact more with their sons than with their daughters. b.

Parents provide more encouragement for sons to achieve than daughters. c.

In many ways, boys and girls don’t appear to be treated differently. d.

Parents show more warmth and responsiveness to their daughters.

13.

Studies show that same-sex peers have a socializing influence on children to the extent that children showing the most gender-related behaviors spent the most time in same-gender groups. What is the label for this phenomenon? a.

Multidimensional theory 60

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b. c. d.

Social dosage effect Social identity pressure Socially-generated roles

14.

According to the multidimensional theory proposed by Bussey and Bandura, three categories of variables interact reciprocally to help shape gender role development (including gender behavior differences). These three categories of variables include the following EXCEPT: a.

Ancestral influences b.

Personal influences c.

Behavioral influences d.

Environmental influences

15.

What factor or characteristic in a cultural environment is known to reduce differences in gendered behavior? a.

Male domination b.

Egalitarianism c.

Industrialization d.

Urbanization

16.

Using sociometric techniques to define a child’s social status, how is an individual’s social impact computed? a.

Adding the positive nominations awarded by peers b.

Combining positive and negative nominations by peers c.

Adding the negative nominations awarded by peers d.

Subtracting negative nominations from positive nominations by peers

17.

Based on sociometric categories, which students receive few positive and few negative nominations? a.

Controversial children b.

Rejected children c.

Neglected children d.

Average children

18.

Much research has focused on children who are rejected by peers. What type of social behavior is most predictive of rejection by peers? a.

Inactivity or lethargy b.

Apathy c.

Lack of interaction d.

Aggression

19.

One major force that motivates the development of distinct cliques is the need to establish an identity. What is the other major motivating force? a.

The need to help others b.

The need to dominate c.

The need to belong d.

The need to compete

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20.

Tiffany is 3 years old. She knows that she is a girl, and she expects to be a girl tomorrow, but she does not understand that her gender is permanent. She believes that cutting her hair short could change her gender. Tiffany has ___________ but not ____________. a. gender constancy / gender stability b. gender stability / gender constancy c. gender constancy / gender identity c. gender identity / gender stability

21.

Biological females with two X chromosomes are sometimes born with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH), which causes their external genitalia to appear more like those of a male. They may be misidentified at birth and raised as males. If the correct identification is not made before age 3, physicians often advise parents to continue raising the child as a boy, because the child’s gender identity may be difficult to change after age 3. The experiences of CAH girls and other gender atypical children have helped demonstrate that a. social assignment is a powerful influence on gender identity. b. genes are the most powerful influence on gender identity. c. biology has no influence on gender identity. d. boys are more highly valued than girls.

22.

When data are examined and compared from a large number of different studies on the same question, such as “are there sex differences in nurturing tendencies,” the report is called a a. collaborative discourse. b. social dosage effect. c. meta-analysis. d. sociometric analysis.

23.

With regard to differences between males and females in math skills, which of the following is correct? a.

Males on the average do somewhat better than females in all areas of math skill testing. b.

These differences have changed historically, and there is now little difference before grade 12. c.

Boys are on the average better than girls on math computations in elementary school and early adolescence. d.

Girls are on the average better than boys on math problem solving after puberty.

24.

Males are less likely to survive than females, both before and after birth. One important reason is that a. males have more dominant, defective alleles than females. b. males are more vulnerable to disorders caused by X-linked recessive alleles than females. c. males have two Y chromosomes. d. most societies value males less than females and provide males with less protection.

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25.

Beliefs about sex differences sometimes are supported by research and sometimes are not. Which of the following gender stereotypes is NOT supported by most research studies? a.

Males tend to be more physically aggressive than females. b.

Sex differences are usually small, with lots of overlap between the sexes. c.

Males tend to exhibit more dominance seeking than females. d.

Females tend to be more sociable and prosocial than males.

26.

When elementary school children are free to choose whomever they wish to play with, the most consistent finding is that they will choose a. same sex playmates. b. opposite sex playmates. c. either same sex or opposite sex playmates equally often. d. playmates they believe their teachers or parents wish for them to play with.

27.

Which of the following DOES NOT represent a rule that governs borderwork (mixed-gender interactions during middle childhood)? a.

Contact is okay if it is accidental. b.

Contact is okay if it is required by an adult. c.

Contact is okay if children are accompanied by someone of their own gender. d.

Contact is okay if you share the same interest in an activity.

28.

Which of the following is more typical of boys’ sex-segregated groups than of girls’ sex-segregated groups? a.

Boys negotiate more in their groups. b.

Boys engage in more rough-and-tumble play in their groups. c.

Boys switch leadership roles more often when they play in groups. d.

Boys’ groups tend to be smaller than girls’ groups.

29.

By middle childhood, boys’ choices of companions tend to be based on shared interests, whereas girls’ choices of companions tend to be based more on a. looks. b. social class. c. personality. d. parents’ choices.

30.

As a toddler, Joey loved to “dance” with his mother and his sisters, twirling around the house to music. By age 5, Joey refused to dance anymore, saying that dancing was for girls. His mother felt that he really wanted to dance but that he just wouldn’t. How would a cognitive theorist explain Joey’s attitude toward dancing? a.

Joey was forced to stop dancing by the taunting of his male friends. b.

Joey is intrinsically motivated to engage in behaviors that he believes are consistent with his gender. c.

Joey now identifies with his father and will only do things his father does. d.

Joey secretly hates his mother and wishes to punish her.

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31.

As a toddler, Joey loved to “dance” with his mother and his sisters, twirling around the house to music. By age 5, Joey refused to dance anymore, saying that dancing was for girls. His mother felt that he really wanted to dance but that he just wouldn’t. How would a psychoanalytic (Freudian) theorist explain Joey’s attitude toward dancing? a.

Joey was forced to stop dancing by the taunting of his male friends. b.

Joey is intrinsically motivated to engage in behaviors that he believes are consistent with his gender. c.

Joey now identifies with his father and will only do things his father does. d.

Joey secretly hates his mother and wishes to punish her.

32.

Research indicates that sex role development usually proceeds normally in single parent families as well as in the more traditional dual parent families.

These findings are not consistent with predictions from what type of theory about how sex differences develop? a.

Cognitive theories b.

Psychoanalytic (Freudian) theories c.

Social learning theories d.

Biological theories

33.

Research indicates that mothers talk more to girls, that parents talk more about emotions to girls, that parents put more pressure on boys to suppress crying, and that teachers are more disapproving of girls than of boys when they are highly active. Which of the following theories argues that these modeling and rewarding processes are the most important influences on sex differences in behavior? a.

Information processing theories b.

Psychoanalytic (Freudian) theories c.

Social learning theories d.

Behavioral genetics theories

34.

Recent research indicates that children who spend more time in same-gender groups show greater increases in gender-related behaviors over time than children who spend less time in same-gender groups. This process is referred to as the a. social competence process. b. degrouping effect. c. social impact process. d. social dosage effect.

35.

In adolescence and early adulthood, males and females begin to spend more time in mixed-gender groups. Studies of who has more influence on the outcome of problem solving in mixed-gender groups indicate that a. females have an advantage because they have learned to negotiate in their single-gender groups. b. males have an advantage because they have learned to negotiate in their single-gender groups. c. females have a disadvantage because males do less turn-taking and are more domineering.

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d.

males have a disadvantage because females are more skilled at expressing agreement.

36.

In the Primary Mental Health Project begun in 1958 in Monroe County, New York, 1st graders were evaluated in a variety of ways in order to determine which early risk factor might predict later maladjustment. Of all the assessments done on those first graders, which one was the best predictor of mental health problems later? a.

Teachers’ assessments of classroom conduct b.

Personality tests c.

School attendance records d.

Nomination by peers for negative roles in a class play

37.

Social skills training programs are interventions in which children are taught specific, discrete behaviors that can facilitate effective social interactions, like making eye contact and asking appropriate questions. Assessments of these interventions indicate that they have modest success in improving peer acceptance. Which of these is the best description of a major shortcoming of these intervention programs? a.

Socially unskilled children are already perceived in biased ways by peers, and that perception is not being addressed by the intervention. b.

Social skills are not the problem. Children who experience low peer acceptance usually already have adequate social skills. c.

These programs are introduced too late. Social skills training must be done much earlier than middle childhood to have any real effect. d.

Socially unskilled children are not capable of learning these basic skills, because their problems stem from a difficult temperament.

38.

The term degrouping refers to a. a strategy for solving math problems that boys often learn but girls do not. b. a trend in middle adolescence for cliques to decline in importance. c. a therapeutic intervention that requires children or adolescents to mix with members of a different crowd from their usual one. d. the rejection of a crowd member for violating the norms of the group.

39.

One way to assess children’s status among their peers is to ask each child in a classroom to choose which other children he or she would most like to sit next to or to do various things with, and which other children he or she would least like to do these things with. This technique is called a. meta-analysis. b. social dosage technique. c. resilience assessment. d. sociometry.

40.

A child’s social preference score is based on ____________, and their social impact scores are based on ____________. a. positive nominations / positive plus negative nominations b. positive nominations / negative nominations c. neutral nominations / positive nominations 65

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d.

peer evaluations / teacher evaluations

41.

In an assessment of peer relationships, Fred was rarely selected by classmates as someone to play with or to do a class project with. But Fred was also rarely selected as someone whom classmates would refuse to play with. Fred is an example of a. a neglected child. b. a rejected child. c. a controversial child. d. an average child.

42.

In an assessment of peer relationships, Fred was rarely selected by classmates as someone to play with or to do a class project with. But Fred was also rarely selected as someone whom classmates would refuse to play with. Children like Fred seem to be a. actively disliked by other children. b. more aggressive than other children. c. choosing not to participate very actively in peer activities. d. at high risk for later mental health problems.

43.

One gender-related characteristic of peer evaluations is that a. boys are more likely than girls to be rejected for gender-nonconfroming behavior. b. girls are more likely than boys to be rejected for gender-nonconfroming behavior. c. whether or not children behave in gender-nonconforming ways seems to have no effect on peer evaluations. d. gender-nonconforming behavior leads to equally strong rejection for both boys and for girls.

44.

Counselors need to recognize that girls’ antisocial behavior in late childhood a. is likely to include non-confrontational relational aggressive behaviors. b. has not been linked to later anxiety and depression. c. is unlikely to have long-term negative consequences. d. is a result of particular challenges faced by girls.

45.

Counselors working with school-age children and adolescents need to recognize that gender identity continues to develop in these years. Among the important findings from recent research is that girls tend to feel a. more content with their gender than boys. b. more pressure to conform to gender stereotypes than boys. c. less content with their gender than boys. d. the same degree of pressure to conform to gender stereotypes as boys.

Essay Questions (Chapter 8) 46.

Children tend to segregate into single gender play and friendship groups.

Explain how such sex segregation might influence the development of sex differences during childhood. Provide clear examples of how this might work.

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47.

Describe at least two theories of how parenting might influence the development of sex differences in childhood. Discuss the evidence for and against these theories.

48

Suzanna is considered weird by her 3rd grade classmates. She seems to have few social skills. On a sociometric analysis, Suzanna received no positive nominations from her classmates, and very few negative nominations. Explain what this sociometric assessment is and what it means. Outline what might be an effective therapeutic approach in Suzanna’s case.

49.

Counseling young boys requires sensitivity to society’s “boy code” and may require special strategies for putting boys at ease in the counseling context.

What is the boy code? What strategies might be especially helpful for overcoming this code?

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Chapter 9 Physical, Cognitive, and Identity Development in Adolescence Multiple Choice Questions 1.

What chemical or chemicals are responsible for sending a signal that triggers the beginnings of puberty? a.

Adrenalin b.

Cytokines c.

Kisspeptin d.

Androgens

2.

Hormones promote maturation of primary and secondary sexual characteristics.

Which of the following is a primary sexual characteristic? a.

Growth spurt in males and females b.

Ovaries in females c.

Deeper voice in males d.

Enlarged breasts in females

3.

Based on studies of children in the U.S., menarche and spermarche occur earlier today than in children even 20 years ago. Which one of the following groups of children reaches these maturation milestones earliest? a.

African American b.

Caucasian c.

Hispanic American d.

Asian American

4.

During the adolescent growth spurt, internal and external changes occur differently for boys and girls (sexual dimorphism). What aspect of the growth spurt typically applies to girls more than boys? a.

Size of heart and lungs increases more in one gender b.

On average, one gender gains about 42 pounds c.

Begins 2 years earlier in one gender d.

Broader shoulders and thicker bones in one gender

5.

Different regions of the brain develop at different rates during adolescence.

Which area matures faster than the others? a.

Neural circuitry b.

Planning and control function c.

Prefrontal cortex d.

Limbic system

6.

When adolescents are found guilty of criminal activity, sentencing may involve weighing the individual’s culpability and mitigating guilt. Researchers Steinberg and Scott argue that developmentally adolescents are less culpable on the basis of which of the following? a.

Fully formed characteristic behavior b.

Fully formed identity c.

Less vulnerability to compelling circumstances 68

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d.

Diminished capacity in reasoning

7.

Studies show gender differences in both depressed mood and clinical depression during adolescence. What is the gender difference in rates of major depression for 12- to 19-year-olds? a.

Rates slightly higher for males b.

Rates around twice as high for females c.

Rates slightly higher for females d.

Rates as much as triple for females

8.

How does early maturation tend to affect boys? a.

More socially awkward than younger-maturing boys b.

Moodier than early-maturing girls c.

Some of the same disadvantages as girls d.

Disadvantaged in socially approved activities such as athletics

9.

In dealing with stressors during adolescence, which of the following is the most likely effect of the rumination coping style? a.

Direct attention externally b.

Decrease emotional reactivity c.

Increase intensity of depressed mood d.

Distract from focus on the problem

10.

According to statistics, high school adolescents from what race/ethnicity and what gender report the highest rate of intercourse? a.

Black females b.

Black males c.

Hispanic males d.

White females

11.

In a recent survey questioning high school students across the U.S. about the type of sexual contact in which they engaged, what percentage reported having no sexual contact? a.

Under 30% b.

Over 50% c.

About 35% d.

About 45%

12.

Current evidence lends strongest support to which of the following influences on sexual orientation? a.

Environmental conditions after birth b.

Modeling of sexual orientation by adults c.

Freud’s view of parenting patterns d.

Genetic influence and prenatal hormones

13.

Characteristics that distinguish formal operational thought from lower levels of thinking include the following EXCEPT: a.

Ability to coordinate multiple relationships b.

Cognitive processing that can be difficult even for adults 69

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c. d.

Ability to understand concrete elements of algebra Ability to focus on abstractions

14.

Adolescents may be capable of constructing ideals—ideal self, ideal society, and ideal family system. This ability likely contributes to which of the following? a.

Self-critical attitudes b.

Greater decentering c.

Increased capacity to forgive d.

Greater acceptance of what is real

15.

Metacognitive skills advance during adolescence. Which of the following illustrates a negative side of improved metacognitive skill? a.

Less introspection b.

Focus on others c.

Imaginary audience d.

More objectivity in evaluating beliefs

16.

Which identity status is characterized by making commitments without exploration of alternatives and perhaps adopting a choice dictated by culture or family? a.

Identity achievement b.

Moratorium c.

Foreclosure d.

Diffusion

17.

Research into the personal and cognitive characteristics of each identity status provides additional insights. Which identity status group seems to lack trust in their ability to choose a meaningful path in life, may not feel they need to choose a path, and seems to lack optimism about their future? a.

Achievement b.

Diffusion c.

Moratorium d.

Foreclosure

18.

When parents engage in racial/ethnic socialization practices, some of the practices that help children develop a strong ethnic identity also lead to positive increases in identity, self-esteem, academic achievement, and less antisocial behavior. Based on some studies, which of the following practices is most likely to deliver mixed results (rather than the positive increases)? a.

Participating in activities that reflect a shared heritage b.

Preparing children for egalitarian relationships with different groups c.

Teaching cultural values and participating in cultural activities d.

Preparing children for experiences of discrimination

19.

Studies of racial or ethnic identity development by Rogers and Meltzoff (2017) suggest that as children enter adolescence, their view of race/ethnicity as an aspect of self-definition is typically which of the following? a.

Racial/ethnic identity is the most important feature of self-identification 70

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b. c. d.

Racial/ethnic identity is not as important as other features Racial/ethnic identity is dominated by a sense of cultural oppression Racial/ethnic identity has been explored and accepted

20.

Pubertal processes begin when certain changes occur in the endocrine system.

Which of the following explains the beginning of this process? a.

Sexual development comes under the control of the thyroid. b.

The pituitary stimulates other glands to release hormones into the bloodstream. c.

The adrenal gland influences the growth of secondary sex characteristics. d.

The hypothalamus controls the development of secondary sex characteristics.

21.

Yvonne is an early-maturing 13-year-old 8th grader who is a new student in an urban middle school. Last month she moved into the area with her mother and her three siblings. The family moved to be nearer to Yvonne’s grandparents after the breakup of her parents’ relationship. Yvonne is tall for her age and is bothered by the looks and sexual comments about her breasts from boys in her school. She has not been able to make friends at the new school. What does this example illustrate about the ease of the adolescent transition for early-maturing girls like Yvonne? a.

Early-maturing girls are more likely to be admired by others and have higher self-esteem than late-maturing girls. b.

Early-maturing girls are more likely to be rejected by girls who are less mature. c.

Early-maturing girls are more confident about their sexuality than latematuring girls. d.

Early-maturing girls are neither more confident nor more likely to be r ejected than late-maturing girls

22.

Allie’s 8th grade academic work is a little more advanced than what she is used to. She is having a hard time keeping up, particularly in science, which is her first period course. The teacher moves very fast, despite the fact that most of the students look glassy-eyed from too little sleep. What is a puberty-related biological explanation for the students’ behavior in science class? a.

Sexual dimorphism b.

Early menarche c.

Androgen imbalance d.

Delayed phase preference

23.

A coping style that has been linked to higher levels of depression among adolescent girls and women is a. rumination. b. distraction. c. support seeking. d. denying a problem exists.

24.

Dennis is a 17-year-old who comes to a counselor because he feels sexually attracted to males, which is at odds with his religious beliefs. Although he has 71

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felt this way for a long time, he is still struggling to understand why. Based on information presented in the textbook, which of the following explanations is supported by research? a.

Homosexual orientation usually results from being reared by one or two parents of the same sex as the child. b.

Homosexual orientation results from being exposed to early sexual abuse. c.

Homosexual orientation is at least partly determined by heredity. d.

Homosexual orientation is a personal choice made by the individual.

25.

What does Savin-Williams (2005) argue about the nature of sexual orientation? a.

Sexual orientation is a fluid concept for some teens. b.

Sexual orientation is determined in utero. c.

Sexual orientation is determined earlier for boys than for girls. d.

Homosexuality might be fostered if children have homosexual teachers.

26.

Which of the following is NOT an illustration of formal operational thought? a.

Alyssa classifies information about the main branches of the US government by drawing a diagram of various departments within each branch. b.

Cody generates all the possible combinations of numbers from a seven digit telephone number. c.

Cai writes a paper discussing how satire used in a popular comic strip promotes deeper thinking. d.

Farouk creates a story about a society that is free from war, suffering, and death.

27.

Studies show that formal operational thinking is a. easily grasped by all students by the time they enter high school. b. easily grasped by average students by the time they enter college. c. demonstrated by all normal adults. d. sometimes difficult even for adults.

28.

Which of the following is the best example of a characteristic form of adolescent egocentrism? a.

Fourteen-year-old Breanna believes that her pastor is hypocritical because he lives in a nice house. She thinks it should be sold to feed the poor. b.

Fourteen-year-old Erika buys gifts for other members of her family based on what she likes to receive rather than considering their preferences. c.

Fourteen-year-old Derek can’t understand the concept of probability when his math teacher introduces statistics. d.

Fourteen-year-old Jordan believes he is a superior student despite having a learning disability.

29.

It’s a typical day for Tessa, a counselor who works with teenagers. Mark explains to her that he came to school high on drugs because he can get away with it. He believes his teachers are clueless when it comes to spotting kids on drugs. Elkind is most likely to use which of the following labels for Mark’s self-focused view? a.

Personal audience 72

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b. c. d.

Imaginary fable Invincibility fable Personal egocentrism

30.

Tessa, a counselor who works with teenagers, meets with Olivia, who attempted suicide after her boyfriend broke up with her. Olivia says she feels that there is no choice but for her to end her life. Ronnie believes that she is destined to die young. This will make her boyfriend mourn for her forever. How would Elkind describe Olivia’s view of the world? a.

Personal audience b.

Personal fable c.

Imaginary audience d.

Invincibility fable

31.

Which of the following elements is most closely associated with the concept of the imaginary audience? a.

A sense of invulnerability b.

A sense of pride c.

A sense of destiny d.

A sense of shame

32.

Which of the following most accurately reflects Erikson’s view of identity? a.

Identity begins to develop in adolescence and must be fully resolved before the next stage of psychosocial development can begin. b.

People must go through a traumatic crisis in order to have a solid identity. c.

One’s identity provides the answer to the question “Who am I?” d.

Identity provides a foundation for making mature commitments to adult roles and belief systems.

33.

James Marcia studied Erikson’s work and saw embedded in Erikson’s views the notion of two processes in identity formation. What are those two processes? a.

Foreclosure and achievement b.

Exploration and commitment c.

Exploration and moratorium d.

Diffusion and commitment

34.

Rasheed is a 19-year-old college student whose family is making financial sacrifices to pay for his education. So far, his grade point average is not high enough to allow him entrance into the pre-med program, the course of study he intends to pursue. He also works part time as a youth counselor, a job he really likes. He is considering changing his major to education. According to Marcia’s categories of identity status, which category would you assign to Rasheed with regard to his vocational identity? a.

Diffusion b.

Moratorium c.

Foreclosed d.

Achieved

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35.

Beth comes from a working class family. Since her father is disabled and unemployed, Beth needed to take a full-time job right after high school to help her mother provide for two younger children. Fortunately, she got a job as a receptionist in her uncle’s real estate business. The secretarial skills she learned in high school help pay the family’s bills. According to Marcia’s categories of identity status, which placement would you assign to Beth with regard to her vocational identity? a.

Diffusion b.

Moratorium c.

Foreclosed d.

Achieved

36.

Colin is applying for the pre-med major. Colin worked in the health science area for several years before returning to college. He is very serious about doing well in school. According to Marcia’s categories of identity status, which placement would you assign to Colin with regard to his vocational identity? a.

Diffusion b.

Moratorium c.

Foreclosed d.

Achieved

37.

Based on studies of racial, ethnic, or sexual identity formation, researchers conclude which of the following? a.

Realizing the significance of race, ethnicity or sexual orientation plays a critical role. b.

A phase of active involvement in one’s cultural group is essential. c.

Individuals must turn against the values of the dominant culture before their identity can form. d.

Most individuals remain in diffusion and do not reach moratorium or achievement.

38.

When working with youth whose racial or ethnic heritage is biracial or multiracial, counselors are likely to find that a. the majority of adolescents identify with the minority category of their racial or ethnic identity. b. the majority of adolescents identify as White. c. about half of adolescents identify with no racial or ethnic category. d. adolescents shift identity back and forth depending on the circumstances, rarely settling on one or the other for long.

Essay Questions (Chapter 9) 39.

Give three examples of different types of adolescent egocentrism that might be apparent in a counseling situation with an adolescent.

40.

Describe the characteristics of formal operational thinking and give an example of a real-life (non-academic) task or situation that requires formal operational reasoning.

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41.

As a clinician, you are asked to evaluate a 14-year-old boy’s competence to stand trial as an adult. What data from developmental research are relevant, and how do you make the decision systematically?

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Chapter 10 The Social World of Adolescence Multiple Choice Questions 1.

Based on studies of adolescents in the U.S. and many other countries of the world, when do they experience the steepest decline in their willingness to endorse (1) the idea that they are obligated to obey their parents, and (2) the legitimacy of their parents’ claims to authority? a.

Preadolescence b.

Early adolescence c.

Middle adolescence d.

Late adolescence

2.

Studies show that peer influence rises and declines during adolescence. At what point does resistance to peer influence typically begin to rise? a.

Around the age of 13 b.

Middle adolescence c.

Late adolescence d.

Around the age of 18

3.

Data on peer affiliation show the power and influence of adolescent crowd membership. The percentage of high school students in the U.S. who belong to crowds characterized by high academic achievement is approximately which of the following? a.

15% b.

10% c.

5% d.

2%

4.

In the U.S., which crowds are characterized as “moderately achievement oriented and may engage in some illicit behavior,” such as drug use? a.

Average crowds b.

Crowds representing students from ethnic groups c.

Populars and jocks d.

Alienated crowds

5.

Research findings show that group dynamics explain some of adolescents’ behavior. They often choose to participate in shared norms, roles, and expectations. This process is identified by what term? a.

Crowd pleasing b.

Peer attribution c.

Peer selection d.

Individual autonomy

6.

Across cultures teens seem to agree that some aspects of parental control are legitimate. Which of the following areas causes the greatest conflict between adolescents and their parents? a.

Political issues 76

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b. c. d.

Conventional rules Moral issues Personal issues

7.

According to research, what dimension of parenting is most closely tied to adolescents’ self-confidence and social competence? a.

Parent responsiveness b.

Parent demandingness c.

Parent permissiveness d.

Parent dismissiveness

8.

The decline of academic interest and motivation during early adolescence may be attributed in part to changes in instruction practices from elementary school to middle and junior high schools. Which one of the following instructional practices is identified as a probable culprit? a.

A decrease in competitive grading practices b.

An increase in cooperative activities c.

More opportunities for student decision making d.

An increase in whole-group lectures

9.

In studies of middle school students, which of the following instructional practices enhanced student academic achievement? a.

Criticism of students when they showed lack of motivation b.

Teachers’ negative feedback to students about errors c.

Teachers’ high expectations for their students’ learning d.

Authoritarian classroom control

10.

According to the 2010 Kaiser Family Foundation’s large-scale study, 3rd to 12th graders’ time spent in daily media consumption is most accurately described as which of the following? a.

Less than a typical school day b.

Comparable to a typical adult’s work day c.

Twice as much as most kids sleep in 24 hours d.

The same as the time spent on homework

11.

Numerous studies have been conducted to determine whether there is a relationship between playing violent video games and aggressive behavior.

According to studies, what are the effects of playing violent video games? a.

No increases in aggressive behavior b.

Increases in aggressive behavior across cultures c.

Increases in aggressive behavior of youth in Canada but not in the U.S. d.

Increases in aggressive behavior of youth in the U.S. but not in Japan

12.

Risky behavior in adolescence represents a dichotomy of positive and negative aspects and effects. Which of the following is viewed as a positive aspect or effect? a.

Increasing the levels of positive self-concept b.

Creating a maturity gap c.

Limiting self-determination 77

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d.

Promoting individuation

13.

Research indicates that peer influence is greatest for which of the following age groups? a.

4th grade b.

6th grade c.

9th grade d.

Influence of peers does not change from 4th through 9th grades.

14.

When Marla, age 14, decides that she is a good writer because she gets better grades than her friend Jenna on stories she writes for English, she is demonstrating the use of ____________ as part of identity formation. a. attribute substitution with peers b. susceptibility to peer influence c. emotional autonomy from peers d. social comparison with peers

15.

What percentage of adolescents typically are part of a “popular” crowd in American high schools? a.

20 percent b.

40 percent c.

60 percent d.

Less than 5 percent

16.

“Popular” crowds in American high schools typically exhibit which of the following characteristics? a.

Heavy drug use and delinquent behavior b.

Some drug use or other illicit behavior c.

High academic achievement d.

Strong ties with teachers

17.

The dimension of parenting style called parental responsiveness can usefully be broken into two characteristics: acceptance (affection, involvement, concern) and a. monitoring. b. authority. c. democracy. d. demandingness.

18.

Juan, age 15, is Hispanic. Based on research about ethnicity and academics, what would you expect Juan’s attitudes to be regarding academic achievement? a.

He is just as likely as other teens to believe that getting a good education is helpful for future success, but is not as likely to believe that failure in school will limit his future job options. b.

He is just as likely as other teens to believe that getting a good education is helpful for future success, and also that failure in school will limit his future job options. c.

He is unlikely to believe that getting a good education will have any effect on his future job options or success in life.

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d.

He is more likely to believe that getting a good education doesn’t matter and that his job options are limited even if he succeeds academically.

19.

Active parental monitoring is associated with which of the following outcomes among adolescents? a.

More drug use but less involvement in other criminal activity b.

More deviant behavior, particularly smoking and drug use c.

Higher rates of gang membership d.

No effect on delinquency outcomes

20.

Jasmine, age 16, has just begun an after-school and weekend job at which she expects to work about 20-25 hours a week. She plans to use her earnings to buy clothes, gas for her car, and to fund outings with friends. Based on research, which of the following is the most likely outcome of Jasmine’s part-time employment? a.

Her grades will improve. b.

She will be more reliable and less likely to engage in delinquent behavior. c.

She will leave high school with substantial savings. d.

Her work time will negatively affect her school achievement.

21.

Experimentation with risky behaviors such as smoking and drinking in adolescence is considered to be which of the following? a.

Not typical of this age group and often a sign of mental health problems b.

Typical of this age group and statistically normative c.

Expected and acceptable in the eyes of most parents d.

Declining significantly an indicative of a ‘fast life’ strategy

22.

Which of the following descriptions characterizes the changes in American society’s attitudes toward adolescent risky behavior from the 1920s to today? a.

In the 1920s it was not seen as a serious problem, whereas today risky behavior is seen as a serious problem. b.

In the 1920s risky behavior was seen as a problem that could be addressed by social programs, like community activities for adolescents, whereas today we tend to see the problem as within the individual. c.

In the 1920s risky behavior was seen as a problem of the individual who needs treatment, whereas today we tend to see the problem as one that can be addressed by social programs. d.

In the 1920s there was greater concern about risky behavior than there is today, because risky behavior is much rarer now.

23.

Based on research, what advice should counselors give parents about how much to be involved in their adolescents’ school life? a.

Avoid attending school activities and functions such as sporting events. b.

Remain uninvolved in adolescents’ homework and school performance. c.

Express expectations for academic achievement as it relates to future goals. d.

Allow adolescents to determine the value of their education.

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24.

The parents of Abe, age 14, are concerned about his watching violent movies and playing violent video games with his friends. Research-based data indicate which of the following? a.

Media portrayals of violence are not related to teenage aggressive behavior. b.

Exposure to media violence is related to teenage aggressive behavior. c.

Exposure to media violence seems to teach teenagers to favor nonviolence. d.

Viewing violent movies is related to aggression, but playing violent video games is not.

25.

Sabrina and Bethany are both members of the same crowd in high school. What does this mean? a.

They spend a great deal of time together. b.

They are best friends. c.

They share interests, attitudes, and behaviors. d.

They will not be able to make friends outside their own crowd.

26.

Participation in after-school activities sponsored by school or community organizations is a. unrelated to academic achievement. b. detrimental to academic achievement. c. positively related to academic achievement. d. positively related to social competence but negatively related to academic achievement.

27.

Some parents of adolescents are going through their own “perilous transition.”

What proportion of American parents report strong feelings of powerlessness, rejection, and personal regret when their children become adolescents? a.

Less than 5% b.

About 40% c.

More than 60% d.

Almost 80%

28.

Which of the following is most likely to increase adolescents’ disclosure of information to parents? a.

Psychological control that helps the adolescent face consequences of risky behavior b.

Hands-off approach that communicates trust in adolescent judgment c.

Monitoring of adolescent activities and phone calls d.

Warm, supporting parental relationship with the adolescent

29.

For an adolescent engaging in risky behavior (e.g., alcohol use), one strategy that counselors can use is to introduce dissonance into the discussion. Before a counselor can do so effectively, she must a. provide factual data on the risks of alcohol use. b. interview the teen about his or her beliefs about risky behavior. c. establish a reward system for good behavior. d. determine the extent of the adolescent’s participation in deviant behavior.

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30.

To understand parent-teen conflicts, it can be helpful for the counselor to understand the parents’ and teen’s views of parental control. For example, teens often consider some aspects of parental control legitimate but not others. Teens perceive which domain to be OFF LIMITS to parental control? a.

Moral issues b.

Social-conventional behaviors c.

Cultural norms d.

Personal matters

Essay Questions (Chapter 10) 31.

Mr. and Mrs. Brown have consulted you about their 13-year-old daughter, Joanne. She is not doing as well academically as she always did in elementary school. She seems to be involved with a popular crowd that is quickly moving into sexual experimentation and drug use. Describe the options that Mr. and Mrs. Brown have for helping their daughter navigate her early adolescence, based on available research.

32.

Identify and describe three main reasons that adolescents engage in reckless or risky behavior.

33.

What is the leading cause of mortality among adolescents? Identify some of the risk factors associated with this cause of death and explain our limitations in predicting outcomes and providing effective treatments.

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Chapter 11 Physical and Cognitive Development in Young Adulthood Multiple Choice Questions 1.

Scholars may disagree about the age or point in time when an individual reaches adulthood. Viewing adulthood in the U.S. from a current sociological perspective, which of the following conclusions is accurate? a.

Reaching adulthood is based on marker events such as getting married. b.

Individuals reach adulthood later today than in earlier points in history. c.

Completing one’s education and entering the workforce marks adulthood. d.

Adulthood begins when brain development is complete.

2.

According to Arnett’s research with young people in the U.S., when do most individuals perceive that they have reached adult status? a.

18 to 20 years of age b.

20 to 22 years of age c.

Around the age of 24 d.

Late 20s to early 30s

3.

According to respondents in Arnett’s research with young people in the U.S., the two most important qualifications for reaching adult status include which one of the following? a.

Being responsible for the outcomes of your actions b.

Accepting decisions made by others on your behalf c.

Taking steps toward financial independence d.

Becoming a parent

4.

Many scholars refer to the period from about 18 to 30 as young adulthood, but Arnett views the period between ages 18 and 25 as a distinct stage of life that he calls a. post adolescence. b. adolescent extension. c. emerging adulthood. d. late adolescence.

5.

Globalization appears to be largely responsible for spreading which of the following aspects of emerging adulthood? a.

Career stability b.

Early identification of a career path c.

Extended self-exploration d.

Early attainment of financial autonomy

6.

During emerging adulthood, African Americans in particular are likely to experience (in college and the workplace) which of the following? a.

Decrease in incidence of discrimination b.

Early identity achievement status c.

Decrease in ethnic diversity of their environment d.

Increase in identity issues 82

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7.

During adolescence, the use of substances is higher among Whites than among African Americans, but the pattern reverses in adulthood (higher use among African Americans). This differential pattern reverses with suicide rates. For White males, suicide rates rise through adulthood; for Black males, suicide rates peak in early adulthood and then drop. What sociological term defines these patterns? a.

Minority dilemma b.

Crossover effect c.

Subculture divide d.

Racial paradox

8.

in the U.S., the nature of an extended period of transition during the early years of young adulthood is characterized by which of the following? a.

Rejection of social norms and values b.

Questioning of peer influences c.

Examination of childhood indulgences d.

Exploration of potential adult identities

9.

During what period of physical development do all of the body’s biological systems reach their peak potential? a.

Age 18-21 b.

Age 22-25 c.

Age 18-30 d.

Age 25-40

10.

What percentage of young adults in the U.S. transition to college after high school? a.

Around 70% b.

More than 65% c.

Just over 50% d.

Fewer than 50%

11.

Stage theorists, borrowing from Piaget’s work, propose a fifth stage of cognitive development that emerges in adulthood, and it is called what? a.

Postadolescent stage of logic b.

Abstractism c.

Postformal stage d.

Structural stage

12.

Schaie’s theory, emphasizing the new roles, needs, and responsibilities of adulthood, identifies several stages of adult cognitive development. What label is used for the stage of cognitive development most individuals experience as young adults? a.

Acquisition stage b.

Responsible stage c.

Achieving stage d.

Ill-defined stage 83

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13.

William Perry’s theory of intellectual and ethical development defines nine positions, beginning with which one of the following? a.

Multiplicity b.

Postskeptical rationalism c.

Relativism d.

Strict dualism

14.

According to Perry’s theory, what position in intellectual development is marked by rejection of the idea of an absolute truth, acceptance of authority figures as colleagues, and a belief that ideas can be evaluated on the basis of evidence? a.

Position 2, multiplicity (prelegitimate) b.

Position 3, early multiplicity c.

Position 4, late multiplicity d.

Position 5, contextual relativism

15.

Kitchener and her associates proposed a seven-stage theory that examines the emergence of yet another type of development—stage one being “knowledge limited to single concrete instances.” What is the focus of their seven-stage theory? a.

Development of moral judgment b.

Development of argumentation c.

Development of problem analysis d.

Development of reflective judgment

16.

What logical thinking error is exhibited when a person refutes well-documented evidence by countering with information about one exception to the wellfounded premise? a.

The “person who” fallacy b.

Externalizing behavior c.

Internalizing behavior d.

Generalization error

17.

In light of the complex, ill-structured, unpredictable and uncontrollable problems individuals face in adulthood, what type of thinking is considered to be more sophisticated for problem solving? a.

Dualistic b.

Oppositional c.

Transitional d.

Relativistic

18.

Some studies indicate that reflective judgment is enhanced by all of the following EXCEPT: a.

Higher education b.

Environmental pressures c.

Training in reasoning skills d.

Modeling and practice of reasoning skills

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19.

Agnes and Paul, both 19 years of age, got married right after their high school graduation in 1945. Their first child was born a year later, when they were 20.

Agnes, like most other young women she knew, stayed home to raise her children. Paul found a good job at a nearby food processing plant. Given their generation, which of the following best defines this couple’s stage of life at the age of 20? a.

Agnes and Paul were enmeshed adults because they were still relatively young and not completely autonomous. b.

Agnes and Paul were adults because they were married and had a child. c.

Agnes and Paul were not adults because they were not 21 years of age. d.

Agnes and Paul belong in the category called “youth,” because they continued to explore possibilities.

20.

How do sociologists classify actions like entry into marriage and becoming a parent? a.

As social constructions b.

As dualistic decisions c.

As adult rituals d.

As marker events

21.

Arnett’s research suggests that young adults today believe that qualifications for adulthood is determined a. by the timing of achievements, such as marriage and parenthood. b. on the basis of reaching a certain age. c. on the basis of their parents’ definition of adulthood. d. on the basis of taking responsibility and making independent decisions.

22.

Studies of brain activity during the early adult years suggest which of the following? a.

Slowing of executive functions b.

Decrease in flexibility c.

Decrease in learning ability d.

Increase in inhibitory control

23.

Which of the following is the best example of fifth-stage thinking? a.

Josh evaluates arguments of those who favor and those who oppose the death penalty and finds both arguments unconvincing. b.

Trevor solves a complicated equation in abstract mathematics. c.

Carrie listens with great empathy and concern to her counseling client. d.

Kendra learns about three different religions and recognizes their consistency and appeal.

24.

Donna runs a day care center. After many years of hard work, the business has grown and provides a steady income. Donna’s daughter, Elaine, has asked Donna to give her a loan for a down payment on a business of her own. In order to provide this loan, Donna would have to cut expenses at the day care center, including reducing staff by at least two employees. Based on what you know about Donna, what is her stage of cognitive development according to Schaie’s view of adult adjustment?

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a. b. c. d.

The fifth stage of cognitive development.

The executive stage The achieving stage The acquisition stage

25.

Donna runs a day care center. After many years of hard work, the business has grown and provides a steady income. Donna’s daughter, Elaine, has asked Donna to give her a loan for a down payment on a business of her own. In order to provide this loan, Donna would have to cut expenses at the day care center, including reducing staff by at least two employees. What is the primary characteristic that points to a particular stage of cognitive functioning in Donna’s case? a.

She must consider how her decision will affect many people. b.

She is working to earn an income and acquire more assets. c.

She considers what has given her life meaning and purpose. d.

She focuses on her personal needs and goals.

26.

Donna runs a day care center. After many years of hard work, the business has grown and provides a steady income. Donna’s daughter, Elaine, has asked Donna to give her a loan for a down payment on a business of her own. In order to provide this loan, Donna would have to cut expenses at the day care center, including reducing staff by at least two employees. Based on what you know about Elaine, what is her stage of cognitive development according to Schaie’s view of adult adjustment? a.

The fifth stage of cognitive development b.

The acquisition stage c.

The achieving stage d.

The executive stage

27.

Donna runs a day care center. After many years of hard work, the business has grown and provides a steady income. Donna’s daughter, Elaine, has asked Donna to give her a loan for a down payment on a business of her own. In order to provide this loan, Donna would have to cut expenses at the day care center, including reducing staff by at least two employees. What is the primary characteristic that points to a particular stage of cognitive functioning in Elaine’s case? a.

She tries to decide how to make a living for herself. b.

She focuses her concerns on other people in her life for whom she is responsible. c.

She has developed logical thinking abilities. d.

She lets others take the consequences for her decisions.

28.

Which of the following individuals is most likely in the reorganizational stage according to Schaie’s view of adult adjustment? a.

A 20-year-old carpenter’s apprentice b.

A 25-year-old single mother c.

A 45-year-old businessman d.

A 62-year-old truck driver 86

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29.

Which of these most closely aligns with the definition of relativistic thought according to Perry’s views? a.

In relativistic thinking, every person has a right to his or her own opinion and no one should openly reject another’s ideas. b.

Relativistic thinking involves recognizing that one view is as valid as another. c.

Relativistic thinking is a stage that supersedes the ability to see inherent contradictions. d.

Relativistic thinking implies comparing merits of different perspectives and finding convincing elements in multiple views.

30.

Perry’s theory holds that the college experience fosters cognitive development because a. students build on the cognitive skills they developed in high school. b. students confront diverse beliefs and arrive at personal commitments. c. students learn from professors who embody intellectual authority. d. students learn to value their own opinions and values from their background.

31.

Doug, Diana, Tyrone, Nidia and Louis all have different viewpoints on the evolution versus creationism debate. According to Perry’s scheme, Doug’s thinking is dualistic (Position 1). Which of the following statements would be most illustrative of Doug’s viewpoint? a.

God created the world. There is no other possibility. b.

I believe that God created the world, but others don’t agree with me. c.

I believe parts of both ideas can be true. d.

It doesn’t matter which one you believe in.

32.

Doug, Diana, Tyrone, Nidia and Louis all have different viewpoints on the evolution versus creationism debate. Diana is operating at Position 2 (multiplicity pre-legitimate). Which of the following statements would be most illustrative of Diana’s viewpoint? a.

It doesn’t matter which one you believe. b.

I believe that God created the world, there is simply no other possibility. c.

I don’t believe that God created the world because it’s not possible. d.

I’m not sure yet, but my professor will be able to clarify positions for me.

33.

Doug, Diana, Tyrone, Nidia and Louis all have different viewpoints on the evolution versus creationism debate. Tyrone reasons in Position 3 (early multiplicity). Which of the following statements would be most illustrative of Tyrone’s viewpoint? a.

God created the world. I don’t know anything about evolution. b.

I believe God created the world. My professor disagrees but she isn’t always right. c.

Evolution is the right answer because it’s scientific. d.

It doesn’t matter which one you believe.

34.

Doug, Diana, Tyrone, Nidia and Louis all have different viewpoints on the evolution versus creationism debate. Nidia is at Position 4 (late multiplicity).

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Which of the following statements would be most illustrative of Nidia’s viewpoint? a.

Life was created through evolution. There is no other possible answer. b.

I believe that God created the world, but others don’t agree with me. c.

I believe you should choose to make a commitment to what you believe. d.

It doesn’t matter which idea you believe, because even experts disagree.

35.

Doug, Diana, Tyrone, Nidia and Louis all have different viewpoints on the evolution versus creationism debate. Louis displays contextual relativism in his thinking (Position 5). Which of the following statements would be most illustrative of Louis’s viewpoint? a.

It doesn’t matter which idea you believe because nobody’s ideas are certain. b.

Although we don’t know for certain, I understand the way scientists look at the question. c.

Both creationism and evolution are right. d.

I believe what my teachers taught me.

36.

Jane is a new therapist who works with couples and families. Her decision was motivated by her sister Melinda’s experience of spousal abuse. When Jane meets with her supervisor to review cases, he points out that Jane takes sides with her female clients when they cry or describe intense conflicts with their husbands. She believes her supervisor is blind to the signs of abuse. According to Kitchener’s theory, on what assumption is Jane operating? a.

Determination of abuse is difficult to ascertain and must be tested in each situation. b.

Determination of abuse should only be reached after consultation with expert supervisors. c.

Determination of abuse can be made if one has some personal experience. d.

Determination of abuse should be based on the context.

37.

Jane is a new therapist who works with couples and families. Her decision was motivated by her sister Melinda’s experience of spousal abuse. When Jane meets with her supervisor to review cases, he points out that Jane takes sides with her female clients when they cry or describe intense conflicts with their husbands. She believes her supervisor is blind to the signs of abuse. What critical thinking pitfall do Jane’s reactions show? a.

Over-reliance on the vividness effect b.

Over-reliance on the idiosyncrasy effect c.

Over-reliance on probabilistic thinking d.

Over-reliance on the placebo effect

38.

One traditional role of counselors is to help people make decisions. Young adult clients who are still dualistic thinkers may have which of the following problems in this process? a.

They may believe there are too many solutions to consider. b.

They may believe that problems have no solution. c.

They may become anxious if there is uncertainty about the best solution. d.

They may come to a foreclosed decision before exploring options.

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39.

A counselor helping a young adult client with procrastination must recognize that this problem can have many sources. In young adulthood, one common developmental source is a. relativistic thinking. b. actuarial prediction. c. poor self-management skills. d. the personal fable.

40.

Counselors should know that the period between the ages of 15 and 24 is a. a time when good mental health is at its peak, with the lowest rates of depression or other major mental health problems. b. the time of highest prevalence rate for depression across the life span. c. a time that is not significantly different from any other time of adulthood with regard to depression, but when clients may face many transitions. d. a time when most learning processes slow down significantly.

Essay Questions (Chapter 11) 41.

Using Perry’s theory, describe what processes help individuals move from dualistic to relativistic thinking.

42.

List three pitfalls counselors need to avoid in their decision making with clients. Give examples of each.

43.

Theorists like Sinnott describe a fifth cognitive stage often called post-formal thought, whereas theorists like Schaie argue that there isn’t a new stage of thought in adulthood but rather new kinds of problems to solve. Describe the differences between these perspectives.

44.

Discuss how and why interpersonal therapy (IPT) may be useful in helping young adults who are suffering from depression. Consider what role development is assigned in the generation of depression in this therapeutic approach, what role context plays, and what the IPT therapist’s view of enduring cognitive structures in the young adult’s depression may be.

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Chapter 12 Socioemotional and Vocational Development in Young Adulthood Multiple Choice Questions 1.

From a developmental perspective, what does it take to be happy and welladjusted in young adulthood? a.

Intimacy and parenthood b.

Wealth and relationships c.

Intimacy and generativity d.

Confidence and financial stability

2.

Which body of predictive research examines the quality of one’s attachment to a caregiver in infancy in comparison to the quality of that same individual’s caregiving as a parent? a.

Converging attachment theory b.

Peer/romantic partner tradition c.

Systemic attachment d.

Nuclear family tradition

3.

What primary methodology is used to create a working model of an adult’s attachments (from attachment to a caregiver in infancy to quality of adult relationships) and categorize an individual’s attachment style as either secure or insecure? a.

“Strange situation test” b.

Quality of attachment inventory c.

Adult Attachment Interview (AAI) d.

Records of family counseling

4.

What four main attachment styles are identified for classifying the quality of adult attachments? a.

Active, passive, indifferent, withdrawn b.

Secure, insecure, incomplete, passive c.

Attached, detached, indifferent, insecure d.

Autonomous, dismissive, preoccupied, unresolved

5.

What attachment style includes individuals who are able to come to terms with their difficult past, realistically reflect on the insecure attachments associated with early adversity, and, yet, nurture secure attachments with their own children? a.

Dismissing b.

Consistently secure c.

Earned secure d.

Unresolved

6.

During attachment interviews, which attachment style is most likely to be characterized by egocentric responses, highly emotional memories, and confusion about early relationships? a.

“Cannot classify” group 90

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b. c. d.

Earned secure Dismissing Preoccupied

7.

According to research studies of late adolescence and early adulthood, who typically satisfies the needs for a safe haven and a secure base during this period of development? a.

Mothers b.

Romantic partners c.

Grandparents d.

Fathers

8.

According to Bartholomew’s typology of attachment orientation, what is the description of individuals who have internalized a negative model of themselves and a negative model of others? a.

Fearful b.

Preoccupied c.

Dismissing d.

Indifferent

9.

Researchers suggest that placing people into quadrants (as in Bartholomew’s typology) poses which of the following problems? a.

Overemphasis on the dimension of avoidance in typecasting b.

Overuse of attachment scales for identifying typologies c.

Overemphasis on the dimension of anxiety in typecasting d.

Failure to represent the continuum of individual differences

10.

Based on studies of young adults’ partner selections, which of the following patterns is most common? a.

Avoidant partner pairs with avoidant partner b.

Secure adult pairs with secure partner c.

Anxious partner pairs with anxious partner d.

Secure adult pairs with avoidant partner

11.

In relationships, what attachment style is more controlling and more likely to be characterized by mistrust in the relationship? a.

Highly independent b.

Highly secure c.

Highly avoidant d.

Highly anxious

12.

In studies about conflict situations, Simpson and colleagues found what type of partner to react with negative emotions, display high levels of stress, feel more hostility and anger toward his partner, and expect his partner to fail in meeting his needs under stress? a.

Avoidant b.

Compromising c.

Ambivalent d.

Interdependent 91

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13.

According to multiple research studies and theories, career success and satisfaction in young adulthood depend heavily on which of the following? a.

Working hours compatible with an individual’s desired lifestyle b.

Supportive employer and good relationships with coworkers c.

Good fit between job demands and individual’s characteristics d.

Supportive friends and adequate compensation

14.

According to Holland’s theory, individuals have developed a modal personal orientation by early adulthood. Holland identifies six personality types that can also be used for rating which of the following? a.

Vocational environments b.

Employer capabilities c.

Coworker relationships d.

Attitude orientation

15.

A theorist named Super presents the idea of a vocational self-concept. In his stage approach, what stage of vocational self-concept development involves trying out and sometimes reevaluating work experiences in search for the match between vocational self-concept and job settings? a.

Growth stage b.

Establishment stage c.

Exploratory stage d.

Maintenance stage

16.

In the United States (at all levels of education), what is the trend in the level of income young adults are earning? a.

The same for the past two decades b.

Slowly rising level of income c.

Declining level of income d.

Dramatically rising level of income

17.

Which of the following factors continues to be more powerful than the others as a predictor of vocational interests? a.

Marital status b.

Race c.

Gender d.

Ethnicity

18.

Which of the following is most likely to have a negative effect on one’s selfefficacy in the workplace? a.

Acceptance of challenges b.

Mastery orientation c.

Incremental view of intelligence d.

Stereotype threat

19.

Based on longitudinal studies, when does generative accomplishment peak? a.

Post-retirement b.

Midlife 92

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c. d.

Early adulthood Late adolescence

20.

Ms. S. and her infant just participated in an attachment study. First, researchers interviewed Ms. S. to determine how she represented her attachment relationship with her own early caregivers. Second, the researchers assessed the quality of her baby’s attachment to Ms. S. They are seeking to identify relationships between a parent’s working model of attachment and the quality of the attachment the infants form with them. This attachment study is part of which research tradition? a.

The nuclear family tradition b.

The peer/romantic partner tradition c.

The generativity tradition d.

The intimacy tradition

21.

When Ms. S completed the attachment interview assessing her own relationship to her early caregivers, she provided answers that were coherent and collaborative, and she acknowledged the importance of attachment-related experiences in her development. Her attachment status would most likely be categorized as a. autonomous. b. dismissing. c. preoccupied. d. unresolved.

22.

Ms. J. participated in an attachment interview assessing her relationship to her early caregivers. Her transcript revealed lapses in logical thinking, especially when she talked about traumatic memories. She would most likely be categorized as a. autonomous. b. dismissing. c. preoccupied. d. unresolved.

23.

When a parent is classified as “dismissive” on the basis of an attachment interview assessing the parent’s attachment to early caregivers, that parent’s baby is most likely to have an attachment to the parent that is classified as a. secure. b. anxious. c. disorganized/disoriented. d. avoidant.

24.

Becky was part of an infant attachment study when she was a baby, participating in a strange situation test with her mother. Later, as a young adult, Becky participated in an attachment interview assessing her adult representation of her attachment to her mother. Based on other studies of this kind, which of the following findings is likely? a.

Becky’s infant attachment status will be unrelated to her adult attachment category.

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b. c. d.

Becky’s infant attachment status is likely to be predictive of her adult attachment category.

Attachment theorists predict that the two attachment assessments will be related to each other, but no longitudinal research exists yet.

Attachment theorists predict that the two attachment assessments will not be related to each other, but no research exists yet.

25.

Hazan and Zeifman (1999) asked children and adolescents age 6 to 17 questions about attachment needs. They found that peers met some attachment needs during childhood or early adolescence, but that peers did not fulfill other attachment needs unless they became romantic partners. Which of the following attachment needs shifted from parents to peers even for the youngest children in this study? a.

Proximity maintenance b.

Safe haven c.

Separation distress d.

Secure base

26.

In a dimensional analysis of adult attachment style (as opposed to a simple set of attachment categories), the focus is on the degree to which a certain tendency is exhibited. What two continuous dimensions or tendencies seem to characterize most attachment scales? a.

Intimacy and tolerance b.

Avoidance and anxiety c.

Passion and avoidance d.

Approach-avoidance and intimacy

27.

According to research on adult partner selection, secure individuals tend to select ____________ individuals as partners. a. avoidant b. anxious c. secure d. insecure

28.

Andrea is an adult with an anxious attachment style. Based on studies, she is LEAST likely to select a romantic partner who has ____________ attachment style. a. an avoidant b. an anxious c. a secure d. an intimate

29.

Andrea is an adult with an anxious attachment style. Consistent with her attachment style, what is most likely to be true of Andrea’s romantic relationship? a.

She is likely to report a lack of trust in her relationship. b.

Her romantic relationship is likely to be less stable than relationships of women with other kinds of attachment styles.

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c. d.

She is likely to feel less dependent on her relationship than women with other kinds of attachment styles.

She is likely to report greater trust in her partner than women with other kinds of attachment styles.

30.

In a study of relationship satisfaction and stability over a 3-year period, which of the following types of partnerships was most vulnerable to break up? a.

Anxious man with secure woman b.

Avoidant man with secure woman c.

Anxious man with avoidant woman d.

Avoidant man with anxious woman

31.

In studies of problem discussion and conflict management between partners, individuals with which type of attachment style are most likely to report feeling hostile and angry after a discussion session? a.

Avoidant b.

Ambivalent c.

Secure d.

There are no differences.

32.

According to Holland’s description of modal personal orientations, Danielle has an “enterprising” style. She is sociable, domineering, energetic, ambitious, talkative, optimistic, and assertive. According to Holland’s theory of career development, Danielle’s career counselor should a. work with Danielle to change her style, especially her domineering and assertive characteristics. b. work with Danielle to recognize her style and help her match her career choice to her existing style. c. encourage Danielle to recognize that she will probably have very few career opportunities. d. encourage Danielle to explore other personal orientations before she settles on a career.

33.

In Super’s developmental approach to career satisfaction, he argues that an individual’s vocational self-concept evolves over time. What is the career development stage that usually characterizes adolescents and young adults? a.

The growth stage b.

The establishment stage c.

The exploratory stage d.

The maintenance stage

34.

Research on job satisfaction indicates which of the following? a.

Job satisfaction is more closely related to monetary compensation than to any other variable. b.

Job satisfaction is most closely related to sociability, with sociable individuals more likely to be satisfied with any job. c.

How well personality characteristics match the demands of a job is an important ingredient in job satisfaction.

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d.

Job satisfaction actually has nothing to do with how well personality characteristics match the demands of the job.

35.

Hillary is a 19-year-old college freshman. If she is typical of most college students today, which of the following is her most important reason for attending college? a.

To get a better job b.

To find a spouse c.

To work on self-development d.

To construct a philosophy of life

36.

When the life goals of college and noncollege young adults are compared, which of the following is true? a.

Noncollege youth tend to rank good pay and opportunities for advancement in their work to be lower priorities than college youth. b.

Noncollege youth tend to rank “making a meaningful contribution” in their work to be a lower priority than college youth. c.

Noncollege and college youth both rank good pay and opportunities for advancement in their work as important goals. d.

Noncollege youth focus much more on family concerns whereas college youth focus much more on work concerns.

37.

Which of the following is the MOST important factor in helping young adults avoid a slide into poverty? a.

Education b.

Religion c.

Family size d.

Avoiding delinquency

38.

Janet and her twin brother Harris are 22 years old, and they are both looking for jobs following college graduation. If Janet and Harris are typical of women and men in general, which of the following criteria will play a stronger role in Janet’s job choice than in Harris’s job choice? a.

Matching her personality and interests to the job demands b.

Opportunities for professional advancement c.

Income and prestige d.

Opportunities for relationships with other people and altruism

39.

Current research indicates that in the last 50 years, gender differences in career development have a. disappeared entirely. b. intensified, with women today more often choosing to be full time homemakers. c. changed in some ways, but remained the same in others, particularly in that women still give greater priority to their role as caregiver, and men still give greater priority to their role as breadwinner. d. changed in some ways, particularly in that men now typically share equally in housework and child care when both a husband and wife have careers.

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40.

Karina, a college student, has a strong mastery orientation. We can expect Karina to hold which of the following views of intelligence? a.

Entity theory b.

Generativity theory c.

Information processing theory d.

Incremental theory

41.

Karina and her friend Joanna began their college careers at a competitive ivy league school, and they both had high grade point averages and high test scores in high school. Yet, both of them are having a hard time getting good grades as freshmen. They find the amount of reading and the performance requirements to be so demanding that each of them has had D grades on exams. Now in their second semester, Karina is digging in, working harder, and starting to have more success, while Joanna seems discouraged and is considering giving up.

Which of the following is most likely true of Joanna? a.

She entered college with the expectation of failure. b.

She exhibits a helpless pattern. c.

She has an incremental view of intelligence. d.

She has a strong mastery orientation.

42.

When individuals’ performance is affected by stereotype threat, this means that a. they belong to a group for whom there are some negative stereotypes. b. they are angry at other people for holding a negative stereotype about them. c. they have been directly threatened by others for challenging stereotypes. d. they either believe a negative stereotype about themselves or they fear that others will judge them based on the stereotype.

43.

For helping professionals who assume an attachment perspective in their therapeutic approach to clients, what is expected to be the primary mechanism of change? a.

Teaching clients to think differently about their early attachment experience. b.

Establishing a therapeutic bond that functions as a secure base. c.

Confronting emotional memories. d.

Challenging the client’s assumptions about attachment.

44.

Counselors who use attachment based family therapy (ABFT) with troubled adolescents and their families a. require that all sessions include both parents and the adolescent. b. have individual alliance building sessions with parents and with the adolescent to provide safe haven and empathy. c. have individual alliance building sessions with the adolescent to combat parental authority. d. have individual alliance building sessions with the parents but not with the adolescent to encourage respect for parental authority.

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Essay Questions (Chapter 12) 45.

Explain Erikson’s concept of generativity. Which aspects of generativity seem to emerge in early adulthood and which aspects emerge in middle adulthood?

What evidence is there for this developmental change?

46.

Attachment theory, originally formulated to explain infant-caregiver relationships, has been applied to understanding adult-adult relationships.

Outline three ways in which this application can be useful to helping professionals.

47.

Bandura’s notion of self-efficacy beliefs (closely related to Erikson’s sense of industry and Dweck’s mastery orientation), has been described as a useful target for clinical intervention. Describe the four major ways that Bussey and Bandura (1999) have suggested for promoting a client’s self-efficacy beliefs. Provide examples to illustrate how each might work.

48.

Consider the similarities and differences between contemporary men and women with regard to their career choices, expectations, desires, and trajectories. In what ways are they the same and in what ways different? How have gender differences changed over the last half century with regard to career issues?

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Chapter 13 Middle Adulthood: Cognitive, Personality, and Social Development Multiple Choice Questions 1.

Based on 21st century data, which one of the following groups has the longest life expectancy in the United States? a.

White males b.

Black males c.

Hispanic females d.

Black females

2.

For helping professionals, which of the following provides the best overarching framework for understanding how development in middle adulthood connects to childhood as well as old age? a.

Darwinian theories b.

Life span developmental theory c.

Intrapersonal and interpersonal models d.

Identity development models

3.

Though all three adaptive processes occur across the life span, adapting to life changes during middle adulthood primarily involves which kind of adaptive functioning? a.

Growth b.

Maintenance c.

Regeneration d.

Regulation of loss

4.

The Five Factor Model (Big 5), which represents the most basic dimensions of personality, includes all of the following traits EXCEPT: a.

Confidence b.

Extraversion c.

Openness to experience d.

Agreeableness

5.

Though personality traits are largely stable after age 30, what basic dimensions of personality tend to increase during middle adulthood? a.

Neuroticism and conscientiousness b.

Conscientiousness and agreeableness c.

Extraversion and openness to experience d.

Confidence and openness to experience

6.

Among the physical changes occurring in adults, which of the following is most likely to begin in the 30s? a.

Erectile dysfunction b.

Increase in the production of estrogen c.

Menopause d.

Decline in sensitivity to high-frequency sounds 99

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7.

According to longitudinal studies, what level of stability (if any) is found in personality traits across the life span? a.

No stability b.

Low level of stability c.

Moderate level of stability d.

High level of stability

8.

What kind of intelligence relates to the efficiency of processes like reasoning and mechanical functions? a.

Intrapersonal intelligence b.

Crystalized intelligence c.

Fluid intelligence d.

Digital intelligence

9.

Among the following cognitive abilities or processes, which one is maintained (while the others decline) as we age? a.

Working memory b.

Semantic memory c.

Processing speed d.

Inhibitory control

10.

In theorizing about changes in adulthood, Schaie emphasizes the shift in family roles and the intellectual skills allocated for these various roles. What do most other theorists emphasize in their examination of life-course changes? a.

Brain structure: changes in neuron production and pruning b.

Personality: changes in self-concept and self-expression c.

Changes in cognitive skills and intelligence d.

Changes in physical strength and limitations

11.

According to developmental theorist Vaillant, when do individuals experience a stage of career consolidation? a.

Young adulthood b.

During all stages of adulthood c.

Early middle adulthood d.

Late adulthood

12.

Research that takes a life-course perspective involves examination of developmental influences related to historical events. What are these historygraded events called? a.

Cohort effects b.

Socioeconomic positions c.

Nonnormative events d.

Virtual landscape factors

13.

Which of the following approaches does Gottman use in assessing marriages and predicting their stability? a.

Application of maintenance hypothesis b.

Intrapersonal knowledge profiles c.

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d.

Ratio of positive and negative factors

14.

According to Gottman, what are the “four horsemen of the apocalypse” that do the most damage to relationships? a.

Stress, negativity, conflict, and hostility b.

Envy, dishonesty, injustice, and indifference c.

Contempt, criticism, defensiveness, and stonewalling d.

Addiction, abuse, job loss, and betrayal

15.

During what phases of children’s development is family life typically the calmest? a.

Adolescence b.

Toddler years c.

Infancy d.

Middle childhood

16.

In comparing leadership styles of men and women in leadership roles, what difference do researchers find? a.

Women likely to be more interpersonal b.

Men likely to be more task-oriented c.

Women more likely to be democratic d.

Men more likely to be compromising

17.

Based on research about the narratives adults produce when they’re asked to tell about their life stories, which of the following descriptions applies to adults who are low in generativity? a.

Telling life stories with redemption themes b.

Being guided by a compelling, stable ideology c.

Conveying a progressive structure to one’s life d.

Telling life stories with “contamination” sequences

18.

Which of the following assumptions distinguishes life span developmental approaches to human development from other developmental approaches? a.

Development is shaped by the interplay of nature and nurture. b.

Cultural influences are more important in adult development than in child development. c.

Development across the life span is primarily a process of unfolding maturation. d.

Adaptation continues from birth to death.

19.

Peggy, a 62-year-old woman, has been unable to work for the past year because of a back injury that she sustained at her job as a cafeteria worker. Her adult son, Brian, lives close enough for her to babysit his two young children on a regular basis. Peggy’s 35-year-old daughter, Linda, lives in another part of the state and recently had a new baby boy named Luke. Linda has asked her mother to move in with her to help care for her newborn. Based upon the life span development model, for which of the following individuals is growth the most characteristic mode of adaptation? a.

Peggy 101

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b. c. d.

Luke Linda Brian

20.

Peggy, a 62-year-old woman, has been unable to work for the past year because of a back injury that she sustained at her job as a cafeteria worker. Her adult son, Brian, lives close enough for her to babysit his two young children on a regular basis. Peggy’s 35-year-old daughter, Linda, lives in another part of the state and recently had a new baby boy named Luke. Linda has asked her mother to move in with her to help care for her newborn. Based upon the life span development model, for which of the following individuals is maintenance the most characteristic mode of adaptation? a.

Peggy b.

Linda c.

None of these individuals d.

Luke

21.

Peggy, a 62-year-old woman, has been unable to work for the past year because of a back injury that she sustained at her job as a cafeteria worker. Her adult son, Brian, lives close enough for her to babysit his two young children on a regular basis. Peggy’s 35-year-old daughter, Linda, lives in another part of the state and recently had a new baby boy named Luke. Linda has asked her mother to move in with her to help care for her newborn. Based upon the life span development model, for which of the following individuals is regulation of loss the primary mode of adaptation? a.

Peggy b.

Luke c.

Brian d.

Linda

22.

Genaro is a 55-year-old truck driver who developed anxiety attacks after a recent accident that left him with a serious back injury. Because of his anxiety, he has stopped going to physical therapy. He is considering whether he can return to truck driving, whether he can afford to retire, or if he will need to explore options for a new career. Which of the following would be an example of growth in adapting to these circumstances? a.

Returning to physical therapy so that he can go back to his job as a truck driver b.

Coming to terms with his injury and adjusting to his limitations c.

Returning directly to his job as a truck driver d.

Seeking counseling to help him deal with anxiety and learn about new career options

23.

Genaro is a 55-year-old truck driver who developed anxiety attacks after a recent accident that left him with a serious back injury. Because of his anxiety, he has stopped going to physical therapy. He is considering whether he can return to truck driving, whether he can afford to retire, or if he will need to explore options for a new career. Which of the following would be an example of maintenance in adapting to his circumstances?

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a. b. c. d.

Returning to physical therapy so that he can go back to his job as a truck driver Coming to terms with his injury and the loss of his job and income Reading books on late-life career changes so that he can understand his options Starting a business from home so that he can earn enough money to supplement a limited pension income

24.

Genaro is a 55-year-old truck driver who developed anxiety attacks after a recent accident that left him with a serious back injury. Because of his anxiety, he has stopped going to physical therapy. He is considering whether he can return to truck driving, whether he can afford to retire, or if he will need to explore options for a new career. Which of the following would be an example of regulating loss in adapting to his circumstances? a.

Returning to physical therapy so that he can go back to his job as a truck driver b.

Coming to terms with his injury and the loss of his job and income c.

Making financial decisions that will allow him to retire early d.

Starting a support group for others suffering from anxiety in his church community

25.

The “Big Five” personality traits are a. conscientiousness, agreeableness, aggressiveness, neuroticism and introversion. b. warmth, neuroticism, conscientiousness, introversion and extroversion. c. sociability, openness, neuroticism, agreeableness and aggressiveness. d. agreeableness, neuroticism, openness, extraversion and conscientiousness.

26.

Cross-cultural research findings indicate that a. age-related changes in personality traits differ across different cultural groups. b. age-related changes in personality traits are consistent across different cultural groups. c. age-graded changes in personality traits do not exist in more collectivistic cultures. d. age-graded changes in personality traits do not exist in more individualistic cultures.

27.

Mark, a 47-year-old man, is very shy. He has difficulty interacting with others because he feels awkward and does not easily express his thoughts and feelings.

He is a relatively successful artist who lives alone in a rural Southern state.

Mark also remembers being very shy as a child. Which of the following is NOT a likely explanation for the continuity of Mark’s personality over his life span? a.

Mark’s early temperamental shyness was influenced by his genes. b.

Mark’s parents did not try to make him more outgoing. c.

Mark selected a job which reinforced his temperamental characteristics.

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d.

Mark’s early temperament and his later personality traits are moderately correlated.

28.

Which of the following physical changes is most likely to be experienced by adults in their 40s? a.

It will take longer than before for eyes to adapt to changes in light. b.

They will acquire a serious disability. c.

The ability to hear normal speech sounds will noticeably decline. d.

Their body will produce more elastin as they age.

29.

According to Erikson’s theory, which developmental task is central to the middle adulthood stage of life? a.

Ego integrity b.

Intimacy c.

Autonomy d.

Generativity

30.

According to Erikson and Vaillant, which of the following statements best captures the psychological state that is typical of midlife? a.

Feeling content with a career niche that provides economic security b.

Striving to find a way to use one’s talent to give meaning to life and to the lives of other people c.

A focus on maintaining a sense of self-esteem by achieving recognition for work d.

Struggling with intimacy as one becomes a marital partner or parent

31.

Fluid intelligence is to ____________ as crystallized intelligence is to ____________. a. working memory / executive functions b. pragmatics / mechanics c. metacognition / working memory d. mechanics / pragmatics

32.

Sonya is a successful therapist with three adult children. She is 50 years old and in relatively good health. Sonya has some minor aches and stiff joints, mostly stemming from an old knee injury she suffered while playing sports in college.

She and her husband reside on the West coast near Sonya’s elderly father. Her younger daughter is still in middle school. Her two older children live in different states, and her oldest son has been diagnosed with HIV. Sonya tries to bring the family together as often as she can, but it is usually only once or twice a year. She is involved in her community and is a generous donor to programs that support research on AIDS. Which of the following could be considered a nonnormative event in Sonya’s life? a.

Her children’s move to other states b.

Her son’s diagnosis of HIV 104

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c. d.

Her physical limitations Her generation’s approach to community involvement

33.

Sonya is a successful therapist with three adult children. She is 50 years old and in relatively good health. Sonya has some minor aches and stiff joints, mostly stemming from an old knee injury she suffered while playing sports in college.

She and her husband reside on the West coast near Sonya’s elderly father. Her younger daughter is still in middle school. Her two older children live in different states, and her oldest son has been diagnosed with HIV. Sonya tries to bring the family together as often as she can, but it is usually only once or twice a year. She is involved in her community and is a generous donor to programs that support research on AIDS. Which of the following describes Sonya or her life stage? a.

She is in the second honeymoon stage. b.

She is in the sandwich generation. c.

She is in the ego-integration stage. d.

She is in the individualistic stage.

34.

Research on mate selection indicates that people choose mates on the basis of all of the following characteristics EXCEPT a. physical attractiveness. b. homogamy. c. compatibility. d. agency.

35.

Chen and Anne come to counseling because they are on the brink of a divorce.

After five years of marriage, Anne sees Chen as a highly controlling individual who micromanages their bank account and continues to escalate their conflict.

Chen considers Anne’s spending extravagant and blames her family background for creating her lack of responsibility. From Anne’s perspective, what theory about marriage would explain the relationship failure? a.

Intrapersonal theory b.

Steady state theory c.

Social exchange theory d.

Homeostatic theory

36.

Chen and Anne come to counseling because they are on the brink of a divorce.

After five years of marriage, Anne sees Chen as a highly controlling individual who micromanages their bank account and continues to escalate their conflict.

Chen considers Anne’s spending extravagant and blames her family background for creating her lack of responsibility. From Chen’s perspective, what theory about marriage would explain the relationship failure? a.

Intrapersonal theory b.

Steady state theory c.

Social exchange theory d.

Homeostatic theory

37.

Based upon research about marital relationships conducted by Gottman, what feature of a relationship best predicts the demise of a relationship?

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a. b. c. d.

Homeostatic steady state Negative affect reciprocity Disillusionment Childlessness

38.

In Gottman’s (1999) research, which of the following “four horsemen of the apocalypse” behaviors is particularly destructive and perhaps most predictive of relationship failure? a.

Criticism b.

Defensiveness c.

Contempt d.

Stonewalling

39.

Based on research, which adolescent and early adult personality characteristics foreshadow high levels of generativity in middle adulthood? a.

Extraversion and agreeableness b.

Agreeableness and openness c.

Strong power and achievement needs d.

Needs for recognition and prestige

40.

According to Carter and McGoldrick, one of the second-order changes in the family in the launching period is a. differentiating the self from one’s family of origin. b. maintaining couple functioning in the face of physiological decline. c. opening the boundaries to allow adolescent children to move in and out of the system. d. renegotiating the marital system as a dyad.

41.

Janine is a 45-year-old accountant who has considerable experience in working as a consultant with firms who are undergoing mergers and acquisitions.

Recently one of the firms she successfully helped offered her a position as Vice President. She has never managed a major corporate division before. Based on what you know about women leaders, what would you predict about her leadership style? a.

She will probably be agentic and democratic. b.

She will probably be agentic and autocratic. c.

She will probably have difficulty being agentic, but will be democratic. d.

Leadership style is unrelated to gender.

42.

Joe, a 52-year-old, lost his job when the plant he managed was closed, and his overall life satisfaction plummeted. After 9 months out of work, Joe was fortunate to find another, similar position. What can we expect for Joe now? a.

Joe’s overall life satisfaction will now return to the baseline he experienced before the job loss. b.

Joe’s overall life satisfaction will rise but will not return to baseline. c.

Joe’s overall life satisfaction will continue to fall. d.

Joe’s overall life satisfaction will not change in relation to job loss or reemployment.

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Essay Questions (Chapter 13) 43.

Relationships are complex, interdependent and changing. Identify effective therapeutic principles for understanding relationships and describe the basic goals most therapeutic approaches try to accomplish.

44.

Compare and contrast Erikson’s view of midlife with that of Vaillant.

45.

Describe sources of stability and sources of change in adult life.

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Chapter 14 Living Well: Stress, Coping, and Life Satisfaction in Adulthood Multiple Choice Questions 1.

In research studies, the term subjective well-being (SWB) is often used synonymously with which of the following terms? a.

Fulfillment b.

Happiness c.

Physical and mental health d.

Physical and mental activity

2.

In addition to overall life satisfaction, what other factors are commonly incorporated in measurements of SWB (subjective well-being)? a.

Rating of generative achievement and of rank among peers b.

Level of adequacy and of comfort in one’s physical environment c.

Breadth and depth of social interactions and work satisfaction d.

Frequency of positive and of negative affective experiences

3.

From the mid-1950s through the 1990s, Americans’ per capita income and standard of living rose steadily and the rates of depression also rose. These concurrent effects are labeled which of the following? a.

Wealth phenomenon b.

Unbalanced well-being c.

American paradox d.

Negative affectivity

4.

Material gain is seen as a source of well-being, yet rising incomes don’t bring happiness and are often accompanied by depression or other health issues.

Based on analyses, which of the following factors may help to explain this inverted outcome? a.

Hedonic treadmill of wealth addiction b.

Increased reliance on supportive relationships c.

Transitional imbalance from “normal” life to elevated status d.

Inability of the wealthy to relate to friends

5.

In what ways do personality traits correlate with measures of subjective wellbeing (SWB)? a.

Extroversion correlates negatively b.

Introversion correlates positively c.

Conscientiousness correlates positively d.

Neuroticism correlates positively

6.

What does research show about social relationships and their effect on life satisfaction? a.

Social relationships only mask depression. b.

Life satisfaction is unchanged by quantity and quality of social relationships. c.

The happiest people have good social relationships.

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d.

Wealth has greater positive influence on life satisfaction than friendships.

7.

What is the correlation between work (generativity) and well-being? a.

Studies show no correlation between work or generativity and well-being. b.

Generativity in work settings has a negative effect on well-being. c.

Generativity in nonwork settings has a negative effect on well-being. d.

Generativity in work and nonwork settings correlates with well-being.

8.

Which one of the following terms is defined as an individual’s “personal expressiveness” and feeling a sense of purpose, growth, and mastery? a.

Explicit well-being b.

Eudaemonic well-being c.

Hedonic well-being d.

Personally-controlled well-being

9.

Ryff and her colleagues identified six elements that fundamentally support psychological well-being, and they include all of the following EXCEPT: a.

Social status b.

Autonomy c.

Life purpose d.

Self-acceptance

10.

According to self-determination theory, what psychological needs should be fulfilled for an individual to have life satisfaction? a.

Creativity, generosity, and security b.

Autonomy, competence, and relatedness c.

Dignity, security, and peace d.

Intrinsic motivation, love, and support

11.

In terms of psychological well-being, self-realization is best interpreted as which of the following? a.

Coming to grips with one’s limitations b.

Learning from one’s life experiences c.

Finding one’s true meaning or value d.

Achieving congruence between personality and behavior

12.

Based on studies of religiosity and personality, Piedmont and colleagues suggest a sixth personality trait (in addition to the BIG 5 from the five factor model of personality). What is this sixth personality trait? a.

Connectivity b.

Spiritual esteem c.

Naturalism d.

Spiritual transcendence

13.

According to information gleaned from global studies of five dimensions of well-being, which country is called “chronically happy” and ranked highest (among 89 countries) in the dimensions of “well-being” and “low negative feelings”? a.

Costa Rica 109

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b. c. d.

Denmark New Zealand United States

14.

Many individuals struggle with highly challenging life circumstances (such as a debilitating accident or the death of a loved one) and emerge with improvements in psychological functioning. What term identifies this phenomenon? a.

Kindling-sensitization b.

Role strain c.

Post-traumatic growth d.

Stressor predispositions

15.

During stressful events or chronic stress situations, the body responds in the following ways EXCEPT: a.

Decrease in cortisol production b.

Use of energy reserves for immediate fight-flight-freeze response c.

Out-of-control inflammatory processes d.

Depression of immune system functioning

16.

Coping with stressors encompasses processes that need to accommodate or address which of the following? a.

Repression and avoidance of the stressors b.

Changing the situation and ending the stress c.

Decision making and anxiety management d.

Seeking the right support and finding the right response

17.

Psychological resilience factors serve a protective function in the face of hardship and loss. The conservation of resources (COR) theory supports the development of these resilience factors that include which one of the following? a.

Submitting to the goals of others b.

General sense of self-efficacy c.

Adapting to self-reliance without social support d.

Embracing sadness with passive coping skills

18.

The brain can be seen as the gatekeeper to stress with separate neurobiological systems linked to different emotional experiences and subsequent emotional responses. What type of response is associated with the behavioral-inhibition system? a.

Confidence, determination, and engagement b.

Positive affectivity c.

Joy, enthusiasm, and alertness d.

Withdrawal and avoidance

19.

Brenda and Louise are twin sisters who each married 20 years ago. Brenda and her husband run a small piano tuning business. They have had a small, loyal customer base, and their modest but adequate income has not changed over time. Louise and her husband each work for a corporation, and their incomes have steadily increased over the last 20 years allowing them to increase their 110

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standard of living. Assuming that Brenda and Louise began their married lives equally happy, and based on their income histories alone, what would you predict about the subjective well-being of Brenda and Louise today? a.

Louise is probably happier than Brenda. b.

Brenda is probably happier than Louise. c.

Louise and Brenda are probably still about equally happy. d.

There is no way to assess relative happiness.

20.

Daniel is very extraverted. He admits that he is not comfortable unless surrounded by other people, and he energetically pursues activities that require the company of others. His cousin Bill, about the same age, is very introverted.

Bill is self-reflective and prefers more solitary pursuits. Based on these personality characteristics alone, what can you predict about the subjective well-being of Daniel and Bill? a.

Daniel is probably happier than Bill. b.

Bill is probably happier than Daniel. c.

Daniel and Bill are probably equally happy. d.

Personality has no bearing on subjective well-being.

21.

Daniel is very extraverted. He admits that he is not comfortable unless surrounded by other people, and he energetically pursues activities that require the company of others. His cousin Bill, about the same age, is very introverted.

Bill is self-reflective and prefers more solitary pursuits. Regardless of their personality characteristics, which of the following hypothetical situations is likely to contribute most to their long-term happiness? a.

They are good friends who are willing to help each other in difficult times. b.

They bought a lottery ticket together and were lucky enough to win a huge jackpot. c.

They both have jobs that require very little effort. d.

They both have very few responsibilities and are careful to avoid committing themselves to any community service.

22.

Which of the following tends to assure that work experiences will be linked to positive well-being? a.

Feeling that one is making competent progress toward challenging goals b.

Feeling less generative c.

Workplace characteristics that remove personal control d.

Having few workplace relationships

23.

Marquita sees the universe as a product of intelligent planning. She believes that the creation of the universe, of life, and of human beings has a purpose even if that purpose is not accessible to her. Marquita’s philosophy of the universe and its underlying plan is an example of a. situational meaning. b. global meaning. c. eudaemonic well-being. d. psychological well-being.

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24.

At 50 years old, Andrew is an important source of support for his younger sister who has a serious disability. As a computer engineer, Andrew has made a practice of designing computer devices that help his sister and others in her situation interact with the wider world. Andrew sees his work as important in the lives of other people. Andrew’s view of his life is an example of a. materialism. b. global meaning. c. hedonic well-being. d. situational meaning.

25.

One thing that both Eastern and Western religions share is that they promote a. a belief in reincarnation. b. the regulation of negative or destructive emotions. c. the cultivation of strong positive emotions. d. the practice of elaborate public rituals.

26.

Sylvia and Joanne are both members of a support group for new widows. Sylvia has been deeply religious for most of her adult life. She prays daily and attends weekly services. Joanne is not religious, but she has engaged in daily mindful meditation practice for many years. Both women seem equally devastated by the unexpected deaths of their husbands. What can you predict about how they will recover from their losses? a.

Sylvia will recover more happiness more quickly than Joanne will. b.

Joanne will recover more happiness more quickly than Sylvia will. c.

Sylvia and Joanne are both likely to benefit from their daily contemplative practices. d.

Religiosity has no bearing on recovery from loss.

27.

Evan is 52 years old. Recently, he has been reflecting on the unfathomable complexity of ultimate truth and appreciating that even if we have faith in such a truth, it is unknowable. These reflections suggest that Evan has reached which of Fowler’s stages of faith development? a.

Stage 3: Synthetic-conventional b.

Stage 4: Individuative-reflective c.

Stage 5: Conjunctive d.

Stage 6: Universalizing

28.

Anna is a 44-year-old divorced mother of two teenagers. Anna’s father, who lives alone in a nearby suburb, has recently been diagnosed with lung cancer.

Anna needs to take her father to and from medical appointments while she tries to manage the demands of her own full-time job. She goes to the employee assistance counselor at work for help in coping with the demands of her situation. The counselor understands that the demands on Anna are too great given her available resources, a phenomenon called a. role buffering. b. role confusion. c. role strain. d. role multiplicity.

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29.

Anna must care for children as well as a sick loved one on a day-to-day basis.

She also needs to keep her job. This situation places her under considerable stress. This type of stress is referred to as a. daily hassles. b. behavioral sensitization. c. life events. d. role changes.

30.

Tyrone is a 35-year-old advertising executive. Lately, he has been experiencing some physical symptoms, like shortness of breath and difficulty sleeping. He explains to a counselor that he has been having more difficulty dealing with his work and family responsibilities. A comprehensive intake interview reveals that Tyrone’s mother suffered from a diagnosed affective disorder. This piece of information might indicate the presence of a. a diathesis. b. a low allostatic load. c. a protective factor. d. a recessive allele.

31.

Jason experienced the death of a close relative due to an act of violence. He comes to counseling to get help dealing with the grief and pain of this experience. After some time, Jason adjusts, and he demonstrates improvements in psychological functioning that exceed his level of adjustment prior to this traumatic event. This is an example of a. posttraumatic stress disorder. b. recovered wellness. c. post-traumatic growth. d. post-traumatic reversal of function.

32.

Psychological stressors operate on the immune system in much the same way as a. cytokines. b. sleep. c. endorphins. d. infectious agents.

33.

The two types of stress management presented by Lazarus and Folkman are a. problem-focused and emotion-focused. b. one-dimensional and two-dimensional. c. management and reduction. d. sensitizing and blunting.

34.

The extent to which a person experiences nervousness, fear, anger, sadness, contempt, and guilt is called a. kindling-sensitization. b. behavioral inhibition. c. negative affectivity. d. negative heritability.

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35.

Laboratory studies have provided evidence for which of the following statements with regard to emotional reactivity? a.

Positive affectivity is related to higher levels of left prefrontal cortical activity. b.

Positive affectivity is related to higher levels of temporal lobe activity. c.

Positive affectivity is related to lower levels of prefrontal cortical activity. d.

Positive affectivity is related to reduction in psychoneuroimmune interactions.

36.

Ernest is 42 years old and has been out of work for two months. He lost his position as a program manager when his company merged with another larger company. He made a great deal of money during his time as manager and saved quite a bit, so finances are not an immediate concern. He has not been actively looking for work, and he feels sluggish, sleeps much more than he did in the past, and spends most of his time watching TV. Based on conservation of resources theory, how would you interpret his behavior? a.

Ernest is waiting for the right opportunity to come along and there is nothing problematic about this strategy. b.

Ernest is experiencing the effects of loss of status following the termination. c.

The stressful event probably triggered an underlying vulnerability to depression. d.

Ernest will probably soon function at an even higher level following the traumatic incident.

37.

A positive emotional style a. is a trait inherited by only some individuals. b. is a state of mind that depends upon environmental circumstances. c. can be cultivated by everyone. d. is a characteristic that is present in everyone in childhood but that people lose in adulthood because of various pressures.

38.

Researchers believe that the key characteristic that explains the therapeutic benefits of cognitive therapy is a. mentally disputing irrational thinking. b. replacing dysfunctional thinking with more functional thoughts. c. keeping a record of negative automatic thoughts. d. decentering oneself from one’s negative thoughts.

39.

Intentionally paying attention to one’s present experience without judgment is a definition for a. stress management. b. mindfulness. c. relaxation. d. coping.

Essay Questions (Chapter 14) 114 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

40.

Beverly is a slim, beautiful woman of 60. She has two grown children and one grandchild who is cared for by a full-time nanny. Beverly lives in a spacious suburban home on a large, multi-acre lot, and she employs a housekeeper and groundskeeper part-time to take care of the house and yard. She believes that she is fortunate to live such an affluent lifestyle, but recently she has been more and more overcome by feelings of sadness. She has thought about seeking counseling but feels foolish and guilty, as though she has no right to her feelings. Beverly’s distress seems to illustrate “the American paradox.” Explain the American paradox and identify some possible sources of the paradox in Beverly’s life.

41.

Based on research findings, discuss the role religiosity plays in well-being.

42.

Explain the nature of stress and its effects on the body-mind. Identify approaches to stress management that incorporate advances in the science of mind-body medicine.

43.

Lennox is a 36-year-old man who feels mildly to moderately depressed and anxious much of the time, despite the fact that circumstances in his life are going smoothly. He comes to a counselor because he feels he is heading for a depressive episode. Using the kindling-sensitization model, what explanation can you give for his experience?

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Chapter 15 Gains and Losses in Late Adulthood Multiple Choice Questions 1.

Common physical changes in old age include sensory deficits and osteoarthritis (pain, stiffness, and swelling of joints resulting in reduced movement). By age 65, what is the frequency of osteoarthritis? a.

25% of women and men b.

30% of women and men c.

Half of women and 40% of men d.

More than half of all aging adults

2.

As people age and experience declines in fluid intelligence, what effects provide evidence of this cognitive change? a.

Slower processing speed b.

Increased inhibitory functions c.

Declines in pragmatics d.

Loss of factual knowledge

3.

Dementia affects millions of adults worldwide, with 60% of those cases experiencing which type of dementia? a.

Frontotemporal dementia b.

Vascular dementia c.

Dementia with protein build-up (Lewy bodies) d.

Alzheimer’s disease

4.

In the prodromal period or early stages of dementia, which one of the following procedures provides the greatest benefit for reducing symptoms? a.

Pharmaceutical treatments b.

Transitioning to full-care facility c.

Surgical procedures to remove plaques in the brain d.

Daily exercise and cognitive stimulation

5.

In old age, what autobiographical memories are adults most likely to recall as “flashbulb memories” or personally relevant recollections? a.

Memories from childhood b.

Memories from young adulthood c.

Memories of grandparenting experiences d.

Memories that are most recent

6.

Based on a study spanning 26 countries, what traits (positive or negative) are associated with age stereotyping of elderly people across all cultures? a.

Unpatriotic, liberal, and fateful b.

Quick-thinking, witty, and coherent c.

Less active, impulsive, extroverted d.

Uncaring, self-centered, and negligent grandparent

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7.

The key processes used by aging adults to help them cope with aging and loss include the following EXCEPT: a.

Compensation b.

Familiarization c.

Optimization d.

Selection

8.

Aging adults take different approaches or pathways to retirement and use varying strategies. Based on work by Schlossberg, which of the following common strategies is most likely to result in depression following retirement? a.

Continuers b.

Easy gliders c.

Searchers d.

Retreaters

9.

Adjusting to retirement occurs in stages, according to Atchley. Which of the stages of retirement involves finding a functional path that achieves selective optimization with compensation? a.

Stage 1, honeymoon b.

Stage 2, Disenchantment c.

Stage 3, reorientation d.

Stage 4, stability

10.

In studies that measure six dimensions of well-being from interviews of adults in different age groups, the analysis shows older adults scoring higher (than younger groups) on which dimension? a.

Positive relationships b.

Environmental mastery c.

Autonomy d.

Self-acceptance

11.

Among the culturally diverse proverbs about anger, what do the wise Lakota (Sioux) say about “force, no matter how concealed”? a.

Lacks direction b.

Is inescapable c.

Always wins d.

Begets resistance

12.

According to researchers in Germany, five criteria are associated with being a wise person. In this typology, what is the first criterion for a wise person? a.

Procedural knowledge about making decisions b.

Ability to view challenges from another’s perspective c.

Factual knowledge about life, human nature, relationships d.

Recognition of the certainty of answers to life’s messy problems

13.

What changes in social relationships typically occur during old age? a.

The number of less close social partners increases. b.

Aging adults in Western cultures become less selective about social partners.

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c. d.

Aging adults in Eastern cultures become less selective about social partners.

The number of very close social partners remains the same.

14.

Based on findings from research studies, retaining as many social connections as possible in old age is important for the following reasons EXCEPT: a.

Help to prevent onset of dementia b.

Prevent sensory deficits c.

Promote recovery after an illness d.

Enhance cognitive resilience

15.

In the United States, what portion of the current population lives beyond the age of 65? a.

58% b.

64% c.

73% d.

80%

16.

The core principles for end-of-life care include steps toward compassionate care of the dying. These principles, adopted by many specialties of medicine, include each of the following steps EXCEPT: a.

Managing psychological, social, and spiritual/religious problems b.

Providing treatment even when the patient refuses treatment c.

Sensitivity and respect for the wishes of the patient and family d.

Providing access to palliative care and hospice care

17.

The philosophy of hospice care is compatible with which of the following ideas about dying? a.

Withhold information about patient conditions and offer comfort. b.

Manage patient symptoms and let them maintain control of their care. c.

Continue all efforts to cure patients until their dying breath. d.

Encourage patients to adopt religion or maintain religious ties.

18.

According to studies of bereaving individuals, what method of coping with loss is highly related to depression? a.

Reappraising the loss to find benefit b.

Finding meaning in the experience of loss c.

Ruminating to make sense of the inexplicable d.

Deactivating or suppressing emotional systems

19.

In the dual-process model of grieving, what aspect of the process seems to provide balance by working parallel with the process of confronting the painful reality of death? a.

Restoration focused activities b.

Loss focused activities c.

Emotion focused rumination d.

Approach mode of coping

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20.

Mary, age 82, keeps insisting that someone has been sneaking into her apartment and turning on her stove when she isn’t looking. Her family has noticed that Mary has been more and more forgetful lately, and now she has begun rambling in her speech and using many word substitutions, like “horse” for “dog.” Mary is likely suffering from a. osteoarthritis. b. negative stereotyping. c. diabetes. d.

Alzheimer’s disease.

21.

Henry, at 79, has always enjoyed relatively good health. However, he has recently begun feeling like he is slowing down and has reported to his doctor that he is doing poorly, although his doctor can find no specific cause. When Henry participated in a research study at a local university where his intellectual functioning was tested, his score had dropped dramatically since his last testing session a year earlier. Henry has the signs of a. diabetes. b. terminal drop. c. osteoarthritis. d. double effect.

22.

“The reminiscence bump” refers to a. the large number of stereotypes about older people rambling on about their lives. b. the large number of autobiographical memories that are retained from the late adolescent through early adult period. c. the large number of autobiographical memories that are retained from the most recent past, even for elderly people. d. the increase in medical expenses experienced by most people after age 65.

23.

How is the gender of an elderly person linked to whether or not others have negative, stereotyped expectations of that person? a.

Gender of the elderly person has no effect. b.

Elderly men are more likely to be seen in a negative way. c.

Elderly women are more likely to be seen in a negative way. d.

Elderly women are more likely to be seen in a positive way.

24.

When Jeanine, a successful surgeon, began to suffer from arthritis in her hands, she stopped doing surgery, continuing only the consulting portion of her medical practice, and accepted a position as Dean of the medical school at the university hospital where she had her practice. Narrowing her medical practice to consulting work represents an example of a. selection. b. optimization. c. compensation. d. giving up.

25.

When Jeanine, a successful surgeon, began to suffer from arthritis in her hands, she stopped doing surgery, continuing only the consulting portion of her 119

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medical practice, and accepted a position as Dean of the medical school at the university hospital where she had her practice. Shifting her attention to administration and teaching in her position as Dean after the onset of arthritis represents an example of a. selection. b. reduction. c. compensation. d. giving up.

26.

In self-determination theory, which of the following is considered one of the basic psychological needs that motivates our adaptation or coping efforts at any age? a.

Autonomy b.

Optimization c.

Avoidance d.

Generativity

27.

Several factors at preretirement are strong predictors of positive attitudes toward retirement later, including a. religiosity. b. feeling confident in relationships with friends. c. number of close relatives, especially children. d. mandatory retirement age.

28.

Research on the use of control strategies indicates that flexibility in adjusting one’s goals a. is more characteristic of 20-year-olds than 60-year-olds. b. is less characteristic of 20-year-olds than 60-year-olds. c. does not change across the life span. d. has no effect on happiness or well-being.

29.

When Francesca, age 62, discovered that her retirement plan had suffered losses in the stock market, she realized she would not be able to retire within the next year as she had expected to do. Francesca began to spend a great deal of time ruminating about her situation, especially about how sad she was that this problem had arisen after she had worked so hard all of her life. Which of the following is an accurate description of Francesca’s coping at this point? a.

She is using a problem-focused mechanism. b.

She is using an emotion-focused mechanism. c.

She is using a primary control strategy. d.

She is using no coping strategy.

30.

When Francesca, age 62, discovered that her retirement plan had suffered losses in the stock market, she realized that she would not be able to retired within the next year as she had expected to do. After she learned of her predicament, Francesca met with a financial consultant provided by her company, and she has decided to postpone her retirement by just two years. She hopes that the economy will improve and the additional years of work will help her to achieve 120

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her financial goals. Which of the following is an accurate description of Francesca’s coping at this point? a.

She is using a problem-focused mechanism. b.

She is using an emotion-focused mechanism. c.

She is using a primary control strategy. d.

She is just being practical, she is not using a copy strategy.

31.

Training in some professions is more likely to foster wisdom than training in other professions. Which of the following is one of the professions that seem to benefit wisdom development? a.

Clinical psychology b.

Economics c.

Mathematics d.

Business management

32.

How do the attitudes toward death among elderly people compare to the attitudes of younger age groups? a.

Elderly people report more anxiety about death than middle-aged adults. b.

Elderly people report less anxiety about death than middle-aged adults. c.

Elderly people are less realistic about its inevitability than middle-aged adults are. d.

There are no differences between the elderly and other age groups in regard to attitudes toward death.

33.

Which of the following are aspects of palliative care? a.

Pain management and emotional care b.

Life-sustaining treatments c.

Nursing-centered care d.

Physician-assisted suicide

34.

In end-of-life-care, the “double effect” refers to a. aa counseling care provided for both the dying individual and caregivers. b. injection of a medication by someone other than the dying individual to cause immediate death. c. medication that is given to relieve pain even when this may also result in death. d. a patient’s written statement indicating his wishes for end-of-life care.

35.

One theory about grief and mourning after the loss of a loved one is that bereaved individuals eventually reorganize their grief, discovering ways to hold on to the memory of the deceased and integrate that memory into their current life and new attachments. This idea is attributable to the work of a.

Freud. b.

Kubler-Ross. c.

Dame Cicely Saunders. d.

Bowlby.

36.

In several studies of the benefits of searching for meaning in the loss of a loved one, which individuals were likely to show the most distress in the long run?

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a. b. c. d.

Those who were able to find some meaning in the loss without the benefit of religion Those who did not initiate a search for meaning Those who tried but failed to find meaning in their loss Those who began with no religious faith

37.

Which of the following describes a typical stage progression in retirement, according to Atchley? a.

Honeymoon, stability, reorientation, disenchantment, termination b.

Honeymoon, disenchantment, reorientation, stability, termination c.

Disenchantment, honeymoon, stability, termination, reorientation d.

There is no typical sequence for the stages of retirement

38.

Heckhausen found in a study of young, middle-aged, and elderly adults that elderly people had fewer aspirations regarding work, finances, and family and more aspirations related to health, community, and leisure pursuits than young adults. These age-related shifts in aspirations illustrate a. increasing use of primary control strategies with age. b. increasing use of secondary control strategies with age. c. fewer needs for autonomy in old age. d. disenchantment.

39.

In Erikson’s concept of the final stage of life, achievement of integrity can be construed as “a gift of courage and caring for the generations that follow” because a. death comes to be seen as a natural stage of life, not something to be feared. b. integrity includes providing for the financial security of the next generation. c. integrity means making certain that no financial or other burdens are passed on to the next generation. d. integrity means expressing religious commitment at the end of life.

Essay Questions (Chapter 15) 40.

Explain the three combined processes of successful development called “selective optimization with compensation.” Provide a clear example of this process at work and specify which aspects of your example illustrate selection, optimization, and compensation.

41.

What is a dual-process model of the grief process? Explain why the available research indicates that a complex model of this sort is needed.

42.

In counseling elderly clients, success depends on being flexible and making accommodations that meet their specific needs. Discuss three ways in which flexibility is needed and explain why.

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ANSWERS

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Chapter 1 Organizing Themes in Development Answers to Multiple Choice Questions Question Number

Answer

1

b

2 3

c d

4

a

5 6 7 8 9 10

c c c b c a

11

d

12

a

13

c

14 15 16 17 18 19

b b a a c c

20

c

21 22

c a

23

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25

c

26

b

Answer Content Reflect on well-established theories; apply the theoretical knowledge to the individual's case; and then test out new ways of thinking about the problem if prior theory does not suffice. they are based on scientific research.

Discontinuity A counselor who recommends a strategy of academic skill building for a client who is experiencing academic problems. qualitative Superego Competence Concrete operational Incremental change Reinforcement Karen will speak openly because she has previously received attention and support.

Group members will be encouraged to self-disclose after observing the positive way Karen’s self-disclosure was received.

Successful resolution of a psychosocial crisis at each stage depends upon having more positive than negative experiences in the area of major concern.

Albert Bandura stage models. incremental models.

Microsystem A retired individual multidimensional models. reciprocal interactions between an organism and its immediate environment.

Heredity and environment are interdependent.

The quality of care-giving Juan receives in day care Governmental policies and subsidies for child care that apply in the city Exosystem How do we explain the mechanisms by which nature and nurture interact to affect development?

Critical period 124

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27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38

b d d b a a c b b b d a

39

b

40

c

41

a

42 43 44

d d c

45

b

46

d

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b

48

a

49

c

Our brains aren’t static during any period of development.

Western, educated, industrialized, rich, and democratic Cultural groups in the Eastern hemisphere a racial group socioeconomic status.

Psychology, nursing, and social work Multidimensional theories of development Piaget’s cognitive development theory reflective practice.

Throughout life As a continuous process Urie Bronfenbrenner Keisha’s problems are most likely related to insufficient emotional gratification during infancy when oral needs are paramount.

Keisha’s problems are most likely related to lack of appropriate models of effective marital communication.

Keisha’s difficulties most likely developed through the interaction of her family experiences and societal conditions like poverty and racism. death. multidimensional systems theories. primary prevention. consider levels of influence on the individual and select interventions that are targeted to more than one level.

Assess the nature of the problem by considering the person’s unique history, interpersonal context, and challenges in the extrapersonal environment.

The processes involved in cognitive development are similar across cultures, but the specific kinds of knowledge acquired may differ depending upon children’s culture. keeping abreast of issues in the field and taking a multidimensional view of the influences on an individual. a tested and supported explanation that synthesizes a large body of information to account for known facts or phenomena.

Suggested Answers for Essay Questions (Chapter 1) 50.

Compare and contrast stage, incremental, and multidimensional models of development. What specific contributions does each perspective make to our knowledge of development?

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Stage, incremental, and multidimensional models of development are similar in that they attempt to explain a wide variety and breadth of behaviors. Stage theories, such as Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, characterize development as a discontinuous process, whereas, incremental theories view change as a continuous process. Metaphorically, stage theories, conceptualize change as resembling a staircase. In contrast, incremental theories view change as more like a steadily rising slope. Stage theories are useful for addressing issues related to developmental readiness to learn. They also help us understand limitations associated with trying to accelerate an individual’s capacity to learn and mature. Stage theories focus on qualitative differences in mental processes and behavior, compared to incremental theories that emphasize quantitative changes.

Incremental theories are based on the assumption that developmental change is not marked by major reorganizations that affect many behaviors at once, as in stage theories. Rather, change is gradual and steady and specific to particular mental activities or behaviors. Incremental theories also differ from stage theories in the kinds of processes they assume to underlie psychological change, such as the kinds of processes involved in learning. For example, social learning theory and most information processing theories are among the incremental models available to explain development and how knowledge is acquired.

In the multidimensional model, development is considered to be the result of many causal components that impact all domains of development from cognitive to social.

According to this model there are different layers and levels of interacting causes for behavior change: physical, biological, social, psychological and cultural. Changes at one level cause and are influenced by what happens at other levels. Thus, the relationships among causes are reciprocal. Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological model is a good example of a multidimensional model because it specifies how the following different levels of environment influence a person’s development: • Microsystem: immediate environment where proximal processes are played out.

For example family, school, neighborhood.

• Mesosystem: full set of relationships among the microsystems. For example, parental involvement in school affects the child’s education.

• Exosystem: includes settings that may not directly interact with the child but will influence the child indirectly. The teacher’s family life influences the teacher and thereby influences the child.

• Macrosystem: the customs and character of the larger culture that help shape the microsystem. For example, cultural attitudes toward senior citizens would influence the structure of the family and interactions with grandparents.

51.

Create a case scenario using an example of a helping professional that describes the process of reflective practice.

An experienced counselor is working with a young adolescent who recently lost her best friend in a car accident. The counselor is an experienced grief counselor and knows what type of therapeutic techniques to guide the client through such a loss. The counselor has recently experienced the pain of losing a close family member. She is 126 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

very self-aware of her own feelings and when to self-disclose appropriate information to her client about her own grieving process. The counselor carefully self-monitors her own emotions related to death and dying and is able to appropriately share her life experiences with her client. The counselor has mastered reflective practice, which is a creative method of mastering the knowledge and skills base pertinent to one’s profession, but goes beyond rote technical applications to generate new kinds of understanding and strategies of action. Her counseling approach involves problemsolving strategies that depend on a deep understanding in fundamental knowledge germane to the field. A common challenge for counselors is that they come to the process with a base of personal life experiences and views, which can influence their ability to be objective. The best way for counselors to avoid misapplication of their personal views is through self-monitoring – being aware of their personal theories and recognizing that they are only one of a set of possibilities.

A robust research-practice relationship offers benefits to both parties. Researchers need the input of clinicians to help identify important questions, to provide access to research participants, and to learn what works in the real world to alleviate suffering.

Helping professionals understand that they can benefit from scientific advances by improving the quality and delivery of the care they provide.

52.

Explain why having a working knowledge of development or a “developmental template” is useful to helping professionals.

The value of developmental knowledge to helping professionals cannot be underestimated because it brings an important perspective to practice. This unique perspective includes some elements: a sensitivity to the fact that persons grow and change over time and that their capacities and concerns also shift over the life course; a recognition of the influence of culture and environment over time; an appreciation for scientific knowledge about development; and a commitment to applying this knowledge to improve the lives of people across the lifespan.

Use of research-based developmental knowledge as a kind of metatheory helps practitioners clarify complex mechanisms underlying human growth and change and sets the stage for effective prevention and intervention of problems. Developmentallysensitive research can identify periods within the life span and intra-individual variables that present opportunities for maximal receptivity to certain interventions.

A developmental approach to mental health treatment also leads to personalized care because it emphasizes individual and cultural differences. Culturally competent practice is now considered the standard for performance across many helping professions.

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Chapter 2 Genetics, Epigenetics, and the Brain: The Fundamentals of Behavioral Development Answers to Multiple Choice Questions

Question Number 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27

Answer c a b d c b b a d b c c d c c a a d c c a d b a b b d

28

b

29

a

30

a

31

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32

c

Answer Content 22 matched pairs and one unmatched pair epigenesis. genes.

The same genotype Period of the embryo Alleles The genome to code and the environment to provide inputs Recessive, defective alleles from both parents Extra chromosome coaction of genes and environment. fetal alcohol syndrome.

Throughout life Dendrites Forebrain The brain produces neurons throughout the lifespan.

Experience-dependent Allostasis Sympathetic nervous system Cortisol code is to expression Bb (one brown and one blue allele) being a carrier three to five hereditary material. the addition of an organic molecule to DNA a cross-fostering study.

Epigenesis The kind of damage done depends on the stage of development during exposure.

Joey may show few, if any, long term negative effects from his prenatal deprivation. the human response to stress.

The ability of the immune system to fight infection and ward off disease is compromised.

They are dizygotic.

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33

c

34

d

35

a

36

c

37

d

38 39

a b

40

b

41 42

d b

43

a

44

a

45

b

Chromosomes Neurons that are transplanted from the auditory cortex to the visual cortex begin to perceive light. by means of chemicals that are present in the spaces between them. coating the axon with a fatty sheath that improves conduction of electrical impulses.

The establishment of some synaptic connections in the fetal brain depends upon environmental input, like sound. synapses.

Their sex They are at higher than average risk for chromosomal disorders of all sorts because of John’s age. widely spaced eyes and flattened nose. kwashiorkor.

Genes that are related to a specific disorder may be expressed phenotypically only in a certain kind of environment.

Risk factors are reduced, so their unborn child is likely to be better off even with the limited help the social worker provided.

Touch is the best developed sense at birth and therefore the most effective avenue for soothing and regulating the newborn.

Suggested Answers to Essay Questions (Chapter 2) 46.

Genes have their effects on the proteins and enzymes produced by the cell. Yet, there appear to be genetic influences on behavior. Take some example of a behavior or a behavioral disorder, and explain how genes operating at a cellular level could have any effect at the behavioral level.

One thing we have learned from molecular genetics to date is that complex human behaviors or behavioral tendencies are not often likely to be traced to the impact of a single gene or pair of gene alleles. As noted in the text book, most influences on behavior seem to be polygenic. A number of genes, if they are defective, can influence the development of mental retardation. In many cases, the defective genes seem to result from the absence of cell parts. For example, let us consider the effect on a child’s intellectual functioning. In the disorder called phenylketonuria (PKU), children are missing an important enzyme. Without the enzyme, an ingredient in food called phenylalanine cannot be metabolized. Unless the victim’s diet is severely restricted, phenylalanine soon accumulates in the body and causes mental retardation.

This example shows that a single missing cell product disrupts intellectual functioning. However, no single cell product is responsible for normal intelligence; rather, it is the result of the combined impact of a large number of genes and their products.

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A different but related area of study to molecular genetics is behavior genetics.

Behavioral genetics seeks to explain how much of a difference is due to genetic influences if a behavior or characteristic varies from one person to another. Behavior geneticists look for heredity explanations in such complex activities as television watching, work attitudes, shyness, cigarette smoking, and criminality. Caspi and his colleagues (2002) studied people with a range of variations in the “MAOA” gene.

This gene provides the cell with a template for production of the MAOA enzyme, a protein that metabolizes a number of important brain chemicals called neurotransmitters, like serotonin and dopamine. (You’ll learn more about neurotransmitters later in this chapter.) Its effect is to inactivate these neurotransmitters, a normal process in neurological functioning. Apparently, while these neurotransmitters are critical to normal brain function, too much of them is a problem. Animals become extremely aggressive if the MAOA gene is deleted so that the enzyme cannot be produced. In humans, different alleles of the MAOA gene result in different amounts of MAOA enzyme production. Could alleles that cause low levels of production increase aggression and antisocial behavior in humans? Most research has suggested no such relationship.

47.

Explain why it is important for a helping professional to be aware of the coaction of genes and environment. Be sure to include a definition and examples of coaction.

Heredity and environment are engaged from the very beginning in an intricate dance, a process called coaction, so that neither one ever causes any outcome on its own.

Gottlieb (e.g., 1992, 2003) emphasizes coaction in his epigenetic model of development, a multidimensional theory. He expands the concept of epigenesis, describing it as the emergence of structural and functional properties and competencies as a function of the coaction of hereditary and environmental factors, with these factors having reciprocal effects.

The principle of coaction operates at every level of the developmental drama—with genes and environment in constant communication. For some teratogens, such as nicotine, researchers have identified specific genes, and gene alleles, that can increase or decrease the effects of prenatal exposure. This is, of course, an illustration of coaction.

48.

There are several principles that govern the effects of teratogens on the developing fetus. Describe these principles, giving examples.

Environmental substances and agents that can harm the developing fetus are called teratogens. risk factors are more likely to cause problems the more numerous they are.

The developing organism can often correct for the impact of one risk factor, but the greater the number the less likely such a correction can be made. The negative effects of teratogens can be amplified when the fetus or infant is exposed to more than one.

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Often, pregnant women who drink also smoke. They are also more likely to be poor, so that it is fairly common that their babies have been exposed to multiple risks.

Teratogenic damage depends on when in development exposure occurs. In the first few months, the structure of major organ systems is formed. Brain structures could show unusual and/or insufficient development if a fetus is exposed to a teratogen like alcohol in the first trimester. If the exposure occurs in the last trimester, obvious structural anomalies are not as likely, but brain and other organ functions are still in jeopardy, so that processes such as learning and behavior regulation, vision and hearing are still vulnerable.

When food sources are short on protein or essential vitamins and minerals during prenatal and early postnatal development, an infant’s physical, socioemotional, and intellectual development can be compromised, and epigenetic alterations seem to be at the root of these developmental problems. For example, researchers provided nutritional supplements to pregnant women whose socioeconomic circumstances indicated that they were likely to experience inadequate diets. At age 1, the babies whose mothers received a protein supplement during pregnancy performed better on measures of play behavior and perceptual habituation (which is correlated with later intelligence) than those whose mothers received a high-calorie liquid or no supplement at all.

Not all fetuses are equally susceptible to a teratogen’s effects. Both the mother’s and the baby’s genes play a role in sensitivity or resistance to a teratogen. For example, FASD is slightly more prevalent among boys than girls.

Larger amounts of a teratogenic agent and longer periods of exposure generally have greater effects than smaller doses and shorter periods. Alcohol’s effects are dose dependent. Mothers who drink more days per week increase their babies’ chances of FAS. Mothers’ binge drinking seems to be especially harmful, although no “safe” dose has been found for alcohol.

49.

What advice could you provide a pregnant teenager that might help her assure the good health of her baby?

Pregnant women need to monitor their stress levels. Maternal stress increases the risk of a wide range of negative outcomes, from miscarriage to low birth weight to postnatal neural and behavioral dysregulation, such as learning problems and increased anxiety levels.

Pregnant women need to understand the dangers associated with the ingestion of certain drugs and alcohol particularly during the early stages of pregnancy.

Teratogens impact fetal development by modifying intra-cellular and intercellular activity in the placenta and in the fetus. Teratogens may sometimes actually cause mutations in coded DNA (Bishop, Witt, & Sloane, 1997). But more often they seem to operate by making epigenetic modifications to DNA and thereby altering gene expression. For example, changes in methylation patterns (both methylation of some 131 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

genes and de-methylation of others) have been found in FASD children for clusters of genes that are important for neuro-development and behavior.

Pregnant women need to understand the importance of good nutrition during pregnancy. When food sources are short on protein or essential vitamins and minerals during prenatal and early postnatal development, an infant’s physical, socioemotional, and intellectual development can be compromised.

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Chapter 3 Cognitive Development in the Early Years Answers to Multiple Choice Questions Question Number

Answer

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

d b d c c d c a b d c c d b a a a c

19

c

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Answer Content Children construct their knowledge. motor interactions with the environment.

Around 12 months Object permanence Birth Executive functions Accommodation Preoperational 4 to 5 years Centration Perspective taking Role of culture and society Scaffolding zone of proximal development.

Self-regulation The phonology of the language Genetic and environmental factors Our ideas on the topic are shaped by our culture.

Piaget believed in the dynamic quality of stages and understood that children in the same stage could vary greatly in their specific understanding of causality, morality, and so forth.

Developmental stages can be useful guidelines, but there is a range of normal development within stages. baby’s tendency to orient to new stimulation Peter, at 4 years old, still has difficulty understanding that monsters are not real because he sees monsters on TV. Peter may assimilate the information about monsters, but he lacks the knowledge structures needed to accommodate the new information into his existing framework.

Infants frequently have the ability to mentally represent objects at birth.

Habituation paradigm rolling over, reaching for objects, visual tracking moving objects.

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recognize that the rows have the same number when they are arranged identically, but believe there are more items when they are farther apart. theory of mind.

Object permanence Jacinta’s neighbor, who says her children went through this stage and Jacinta should try to be understanding and maintain a consistent environment.

He is showing separation distress because his recognition memory is improving during this period.

Daria is probably exhibiting normal cognitive egocentrism because she cannot fully understand the needs of another person yet. pragmatic tool or sign mediated learning.

Cindy explains to her younger sister how to solve a problem in math by organizing the information in a new way. Her younger sister can then complete her homework. helping organize young children’s thinking, as a precursor to self-regulation. understanding how young clients think can help in structuring interventions that build effectively on existing knowledge and meanings. are neurobiological in nature and have high family concordance rates. accommodation

Suggested Answers to Essay Questions (Chapter 3) 41.

Parents wish to locate a program for their toddler and preschool children that is developmentally appropriate. What elements would you advise these parents to look for in the programs they observe?

Quality teacher–child interactions: Effective teacher–child interactions are marked by enthusiasm, respect, and mutual enjoyment, without displays of anger, aggression, or harshness. Teachers encourage and support child–child interactions that have the same high quality. Teachers are sensitive and responsive to children’s emotional cues. Their conversation is elaborative, tuned in to children’s level of understanding, with feedback that helps children to more fully develop their conceptual knowledge. Most teacher–child interactions are one-to-one or with small groups. Children’s interests guide these interactions, and children are directly involved in planning daily activities and longer term projects. Activities foster practical opportunities for learning letters, phonemes, numbers, and facts about science, geography, and so on without drilling or rote 134 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

practice (see Hamre & Pianta, 2007). Play, including exploratory, pretend, and physical (rough and tumble) play, is encouraged and supported. Play is encouraged as the medium through which children naturally learn.

Structural elements: Teachers’ education. Look for teachers with bachelors’ degrees and preparation in child development and early childhood education.

Teacher–child ratios. For 3-year-olds, maximum teacher–child ratios of 9:1 are recommended, with total class size not exceeding 18. For 4-year-olds, the recommended teacher–child maximum is 10:1, with no more than 20 children per group.

A variety of equipment and materials. Material choices provide children with a range of opportunities to develop skills and knowledge, and they make it possible for children’s interests and planning to play an important role in the curriculum. Children should have access to lots of books, art and writing supplies, opportunities to play with water, sand, and other media, blocks and other building toys, as well as a range of toys and materials that support pretend play.

General characteristics. Parents should be welcome to make an appointment to visit a classroom. Look for at least two teachers in each classroom. NIEER suggests looking for “safe spaces with children comfortable and engaged in what they are doing, not easily distracted or wandering aimlessly; children seem happy, not distressed, bored or crying; adults are caring, . . . responsive to children’s needs and requests, and involved (emphasis added) in what children are doing” (Frede, 2008). Check the teacher turnover rate if possible.

42.

Compare and contrast the theories of Piaget and Vygotsky. In what ways are they similar and in what ways are they different?

Theories of Piaget and Vygotsky have had a major impact on education and the field of psychology in large measure because of their applicability to the teaching–learning process.

Both theorists were sensitive to the role of outside influence (including teachers) on the developing learner. The frequent characterizations of Piaget as concerned only with individual cognitive development and of Vygotsky as concerned only with social influences on learning are both inaccurate. Piaget noted that the relationships between the individual and her social environment are essential to cognitive development (Piaget, 1977), as we have seen in his view of the development of perspective taking.

Piaget’s view of the role of teachers in cognitive development is also similar to Vygotsky’s. For his part, Vygotsky posited two kinds of “developmental lines” that accounted for cognitive development, one that was “sociohistorical” or cultural, and one that was “natural,” coming from within the infant (Vygotsky, 1931/1981).

Despite differences in their emphases, both Piaget and Vygotsky can be described as concerned with the interpenetration of the individual mind and society in the formation of thought.

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One difference between Piaget’s and Vygotsky’s ideas concerns the role of egocentric or private speech in cognitive development. Piaget originally stated that the egocentric speech of the child (talking aloud to the self, with no apparent communicative function) serves no useful purpose and simply disappears with the growth of more mature language use. Vygotsky, who used the term “private speech,” had a different idea. To him and his colleague Alexander Luria, private speech serves an eminently useful purpose in human development (Vygotsky & Luria, 1930). It is construed as the precursor to problem solving, planning ability, and self-regulation— what you will recognize as aspects of, or products of, executive functions. From this perspective, private speech eventually becomes internalized or transformed into inner speech, the kind of internal dialogue that facilitates thinking. Vygotsky believed that this speech was actually directing children’s thoughts and keeping them focused on the task at hand. How do children come to use speech this way? Vygotsky argued that adults’ verbal guidance (scaffolding) during joint activities such as problem solving, negotiating, and planning leads eventually to the child using speech to guide her own actions.

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Chapter 4 Emotional and Social Development in the Early Years Answers to Multiple Choice Questions Question Answer Number 1 b 2 b 3 a 4 c 5 d 6 d 7 a 8 c 9 a 10 d 11 b 12 d 13 a 14 b 15 c 16 d 17 c 18 c 19 d 20 a 21 c 22 a 23 d 24

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Answer Content intelligence quotient.

Emotional intelligence Fear Still-face paradigm Young infancy Social referencing Self-concept Protection Avoidant—insecurely attached Secure Oxytocin Orienting system Easy babies Reactive, difficult infants Similar quality of attachment Parental arguing and conflict Intergenerational transmission lesser tendency to plan and make rational decisions.

Interest smiling and high-pitched vocalizations. scaffolding emotion regulation in infants. more fearfulness and turning away. brain activation patterns like those of fearful and inhibited children. promoting engagement with the infant.

A working model of self, of others, and of relationships.

Avoidant Abusive caregiving difficult.

Anne is not responsible for her baby’s fussiness. Some babies are needier and more negative than others. In the long run, continuing to be responsive to crying will help Suzie regulate her emotions.

Changes in family stressors that lead to changes in caregiving quality can lead to shifts in attachment quality.

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Breast milk contains beneficial antibodies and growth hormones not contained in formulas.

If Phillipa continues to provide sensitive, responsive care when she is with the baby, and if the day care is good quality, then the baby should still form a secure attachment to Phillipa. their biological regularity, as in how regularly they sleep or eat. her baby has a more difficult temperament.

This is one of the most researched disorders with clear treatment protocols. aggression and neediness at school age providing support and information for parents.

Suggested Answers to Essay Questions (Chapter 4) 39.

Discuss the possible role of maternal depression in the development of emotion regulation in infants.

Depressed mothers show high rates of intrusive or neglectful caregiving patterns.

Neglectful (withdrawn) caregivers typically show a pattern of under-stimulation marked by reduced eye contact, infrequent holding, nonresponsiveness, less positive and more negative affect. Intrusive (over-stimulating) caregivers display more anger, irritability, coerciveness, and poorly timed responses. They fail to take their cues from the baby and often interfere with infant exploration. A baby needs help regulating his emotions and learning the predictability that characterizes well-coordinated interactions that make him feel safe and loved. Unfortunately, the depressed caregiver is unable to provide the kind of help that is needed. Both patterns can thwart babies’ efforts to establish predictable contact, leading to more negative emotional periods for the infant. Infants may develop increased levels of withdrawal or distress in an effort to regulate the lack of synchrony.

40.

Explain the significance of an infant’s attachment to her caregivers.

Secure early attachments are said to pave the way for later psychosocial developments. Erikson and Bowlby portrayed the trusting, secure infant as one who is fortified with positive attitudes toward self and others. He enters new relationships with an expectation that his needs will be respected and with a willingness to respect the needs of others. His security helps him face new challenges; he trusts in the future.

Does early attachment quality predict later psychosocial functioning? In a classic study, Sroufe and his colleagues followed a large sample of Minneapolis children longitudinally, beginning with two assessments of infant–mother attachment status in the strange situation at 12 and 18 months (e.g., Vaughn, Egeland, Sroufe, & Waters, 1979; see Sroufe et al., 2005). Even though attachment security was usually stable 138 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

after 12 months, it did change for about 1/3 of the dyads. Most of the change was from insecure to secure, as inexperienced mothers gained confidence and skill.

Children whose attachment status was stable from the first to the second assessment were later evaluated on a variety of interpersonal and cognitive dimensions, and differences were found between the insecurely and securely attached children on many measures. For example, when the children were 4 years old, 40 of them participated in a summer nursery school program at the University of Minnesota (Sroufe, Fox, & Pancake, 1983). Teachers, who knew nothing about the earlier attachment ratings, ranked the children each day on characteristics related to autonomy, such as attention seeking, extreme reliance on the teacher, involvement with teachers at the expense of peers, and so on. The children who had been securely attached as toddlers were more often seen by teachers as direct and appropriate in their dependency behaviors, seeking help when they realistically needed it but functioning independently in other situations. Insecurely attached children were more likely to act helpless, to act out for attention, or in some cases to passively avoid seeking help when they genuinely needed it.

In assessments at later ages, the children in the Minneapolis project showed other continuities as well. In a summer camp at age 10, for example, securely attached children tended to be more self-confident, to have more friends, to have better social skills, and so on. By age 16, securely attached children were more likely to trust a best friend, and by age 20 to 21, they were better able to resolve conflicts with a romantic partner. Many longitudinal studies, though not all, have found similar continuities.

41.

Discuss at least three reasons why attachment theory and research has special significance for helping professionals.

The attachments that develop between infants and their caregivers are embedded in a system of overlapping contexts: the parents’ relationship, sibling interactions, extended family processes, parents’ work, extra-familial child care, the neighborhood, and the larger community. All of these contexts can affect infants’ emotional wellbeing and their attachment security. Sometimes contextual influences are indirect, and their effects are filtered through parents’ caregiving. For example, a father is not as likely to be a responsive caregiver, and therefore is less likely to foster a secure attachment with his infant if he and his wife are often in conflict. But factors beyond caregiving can also have direct effects on infant emotional functioning.

From the attachment perspective, the parent is a co-regulator of emotions, the child’s ally on the road to self-regulation. Cooperation and synchrony in relationship builds biological regulation of neuroendocrine systems and greater emotional control.

Unfortunately, infants and children under age 5 are more likely to be exposed to negative experiences that can reduce their emotional well-being and feelings of security than any other age. These experiences include traumatizing events such as maltreatment, accidents, marital conflict, and family violence. Poor and minority children are especially likely to have such experiences, along with exposure to community violence and many types of deprivation, such as homelessness. Many 139 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

studies document the problematic effects of childhood adversity on long-term physical and mental health, even when a child’s circumstances improve after the early years. These children typically form disorganized attachments and the maltreatment leaves hidden scars that can persist throughout life including impairments to cognition, memory, and attention; depression and addiction; potential damage to brain and other organs; higher reactivity for new stress; imbalance in immune responses and chronic inflammation and more.

Infants’ attachment security is one of the most important protective factors for moderating the long-term impact of adversity. Infants who are securely attached have more capacity to regulate their stress reactions than those who are insecurely attached.

They are also less likely to suffer long-term negative physical and behavioral health problems. For example, one study focused on adults who had experienced poor socioeconomic environments early in life. If they had warm early relationships with their mothers, they were less likely to suffer from the chronic inflammatory processes that typically plague adults from similar early life environments but who do not have the benefit of such relationships.

42.

Explain the cultural contributions to the development of attachments. What role does culture play in this process?

Across cultures, there are differences in the proportion of infants who are categorized as securely or insecurely attached. There are substantial cross-cultural differences in specific caregiving practices, such as how much face-to-face interaction adults have with infants, but across cultures, the connection between sensitive caregiving (especially responsiveness to distress) and security of attachment has been corroborated.

It appears from the available research that the tenets of attachment theory apply universally. Yet differences in cultural context contribute in meaningful ways to the kinds of attachments that are likely to develop. If different degrees of dependency are valued (or devalued) in different ways in different cultures, perhaps the working models of self and other spawned by attachment relationships have different meanings and consequences in different cultures as well. For example, an ambivalent attachment pattern in Korea may be more adaptive and have more positive impact on a child’s future development than it would in North America.

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Chapter 5 The Emerging Self and Socialization in the Early Years Answers to Multiple Choice Questions

Question Answer Number 1 d 2 d 3 a 4 b 5 b 6 c 7 d 8 a 9 c 10 c 11 b 12 b 13 a 14 d 15 b 16 b 17 a 18 b 19 d 20 c 21 a 22

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Answer Content Self-system Sense of subjective self-awareness Self-concept Self-recognition 15-24 months Self-esteem Representational thought Authoritative Authoritarian Induction Power assertion Differential susceptibility European American Native American Use mild power assertion Anxious arousal Warmth of their relationship to the parent Compulsive caregiving Neglecting-uninvolved Permissive Multidimensional Becky will incorporate her teacher’s negative evaluations into her construction of her own sense of self.

Marie should find some way to stop this before these labels become part of her daughter’s developing selfunderstanding.

With repeated experience, Alex is constructing representations of standards for everyday behavior that serve as guidelines for behavior.

She should maintain a secure attachment with him and avoid being too gentle or too harsh. intense anxiety Sasha complied because she was afraid.

Sasha will learn how angry her father gets when she refuses to do what he wants.

Sasha’s father did not support her internalization of rules of behavior because she only complied out of fear.

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Power assertion conscience.

Induction Withdrawal of love Predictable punishment for displays of emotion Patterson’s view of coercive interaction TV viewing Leila is allowed to watch TV longer if she keeps arguing with her mother.

Spanking may gain immediate compliance, but it does not aid development of self-regulation and may increase a child’s aggressiveness.

Parents need to be flexible as children get older and adjust their rules and expectations to developmentally changing competencies and needs.

Suggested Answers to Essay Questions (Chapter 5) 40.

Based on research, present the pros and cons of corporal punishment as a disciplinary method.

Pros (qualified) The pros of corporal punishment are qualified comments rather than actual pros.

Corporal punishment enjoys wide support in the United States according to recent surveys. In large numbers, women (65%) and men (76%) agree that children sometimes need “a good, hard spanking” (Child Trends, 2015, p. 2). An analysis of responses to an on-line survey about spanking showed that over 70% disagreed with professional advice from the American Academy of Pediatrics (1998) that spanking should not be used under any circumstance.

In some cultures harsh practices are normative, and parents may combine high levels of warmth with corporal punishment. Normativeness and parental warmth appear to moderate the link between corporal punishments and aggression, but not change the direction of effects.

Cons Current research is blurring what was once considered a bright line between corporal punishment and abuse, painting a picture of a slippery slope between mild corporal punishment and harsher forms of discipline (Gershoff, 2008). This may be the reality, unfortunately, because most of the corporal punishment meted out by adults is not done in a particularly calm, loving, or reflective way (Holden, Williamson & Holland, 2014). The use and severity of corporal punishment tend to escalate over time, and most episodes of physical abuse occur in the context of child discipline.

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Meta-analysis of data from 75 studies indicates spanking had deleterious effects on 13 domains and not a single beneficial effect on child wellbeing, even when considered separately from abuse. The 13 domains include moral internalization, child aggression, child antisocial behavior, child externalizing behavior, child mental health problems, negative parent-child relationship, child impaired cognitive ability, child (and into adulthood) low self-esteem, physical abuse as an adult, antisocial behavior and mental health problems in adulthood. Meta-message: spanking children is not associated with better behavior over time” (Gershoff et al., 2012, p. 843).

Conclusive evidence demonstrates that corporal punishment does pose a public health problem of significant proportions, yet long-held assumptions are slow to shift.

Research attempts to change people’s beliefs about the acceptability of corporal punishment have experimented with creative ways to use empirical knowledge in the service of altering preconceptions.

41.

Why might the effectiveness of corporal punishment vary from one cultural group to another?

Culture dynamically shapes values, self-regulation and behavior, and cultures could not continue to exist without some means of transmitting their values and worldviews to younger members. Some underlying cultural structures and values that are particularly salient for parenting have been identified. These structures and values may help to explain observed differences in parenting practices, such as discipline, across cultures.

Some studies of power assertive discipline have shown culture-specific differences. In European-American samples, there is a linear relationship between amount and harshness of physical discipline and children’s aggressive behavior. The more severe the punishment, the more aggressive children are likely to be. For African-American children, researchers have not always found the same relationship, or as strong a relationship, between corporal punishment and children’s aggression.

One way to account for these differences among U.S. subgroups is that normativeness reduces negative impact. In other words, if children expect to be disciplined in a certain way, such as by spanking, because most parents in their community or ethnic group use this technique, then they may perceive spanking as normal, and possibly even as a manifestation of their parents’ concern for them. Gershoff and her colleagues (2010) found some evidence that children’s’ perception of the normativeness of punishment moderated outcomes in a sample of families from China, India, Italy, Kenya, the Philippines, and Thailand. Remember that a moderating influence would affect how strongly certain types of disciplinary techniques were associated with adverse outcomes. Normativeness diminished the deleterious outcomes of yelling and corporal punishment, but only by a bit. These particular forms of discipline were always related to greater levels of aggression in all cultural groups, despite this moderation.

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Another explanation may be that the long-term effects of punishment are moderated by the warmth, affection and responsiveness of the parent who is doling out the discipline.

42.

Discuss the relationship between child temperament and parent disciplinary style.

Children show differential susceptibility to different rearing approaches, depending on their early temperament characteristics (e.g., Belsky & Pluess, 2013). Difficult, negatively reactive infants are often more affected by sensitive and insensitive parenting than infants with easy temperaments. We see similar interactive patterns as children get older. Children who have difficult temperaments are more likely than children with easy temperaments to show inappropriate levels of aggression with peers and/or adults (e.g., Streit, Carlo, Ispa, & Palermo, 2017). But how aggressive they become is more closely linked to parents’ disciplinary and interactive style than it is for children with easy temperaments. For youngsters with difficult temperaments, insensitive, negative parent behaviors (e.g., frowning, criticizing, yelling, being physically intrusive) appear to increase proneness to aggression, whereas sensitive, positive discipline (e.g., being affectionate, praising, using distraction) decreases proneness to aggression. For youngsters with easy temperaments, even those who seem prone to aggression, parenting differences do not have as much effect as they do for children with difficult temperaments.

43.

Create a case study of a family with a child who is showing behavior problems.

Outline the steps you would take as a counselor to treat this family while paying particular attention to the developmental needs of the child.

A father takes his two daughters for family counseling after their mother suddenly left the family and stated she wanted a new and independent life. The father was most concerned about his 12-year-old daughter who frequently showed positive affect and avoided talking about her mother or even acknowledging her mother’s existence. The daughter seemed to inhibit her feelings and the father was concerned about her “false affect.”

A highly defended or “false self” (Kernberg, 1976; Miller, 1981; Winnicott, 1965) may result from the inhibition of affect because the child distorts or mistrusts the evidence of her feelings. This situation effectively reduces the information that the young child can access in constructing the self and in learning about the world. The message the child encodes is that feeling anger or distress is unacceptable and should be avoided because the expression of these feelings distances the caregiver, emotionally if not physically. The child views the self as able to communicate with caregivers only if her own emotional needs are kept in check. Positive aspects of the self may be expressed, but negative aspects, such as emotional neediness, need to be repressed.

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In this case, the counselor may find it useful to explore the extent to which the daughter is exhibiting an emotionally constricted sense of self. The counselor could work with the father to help him see that his daughter may appear to be positive and self-reliant, but there are costs associated with her inability to regulate and express her true emotions. The counselor could help the father take steps to ensure that his daughter’s self-worth is based on her own appraisals and does not rely on the appraisals of others. The counselor can work with the family to discuss the issue of compulsive caregiving. The 12-year-old daughter may be at risk of engaging in compulsive caregiving in which she begins to emotionally take care of her father. The counselor should encourage the father to find appropriate ways to meet his own emotional needs, to use an authoritative parenting style with his children, and to guide his children to express emotions in healthy, balanced ways.

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Chapter 6 Realms of Cognition in Middle Childhood Answers to Multiple Choice Questions Question Answer Number 1 b 2 b 3 d 4 d 5 c 6 b 7 c 8 b 9 a 10 c 11 b 12 c 13 c 14 d 15 a 16 b 17 a 18 b 19 d 20

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Answer Content Myelination of the corpus callosum 5-10% Concrete operations Ability to decenter Computer processing of information Mechanics of thinking NeoPiagetians Sensory memory Rehearsal Semantic A script Increase in the child’s knowledge base It causes confusion between reality and fantasy.

Logical thinking skills Production deficiency Metacognitive skills Perspective taking 8 Other-transforming brain development can be quite uneven in childhood and as a result, it is not unusual for children to show poor performance in isolated skills.

Preoperational thought is centered, but concrete operational thought is decentered.

Working memory has a limited capacity whereas longterm memory has almost unlimited capacity. egocentrism. episodic knowledge. elaboration.

A metacognitive skill Children occasionally use less efficient strategies after learning more efficient strategies. stereotype induction.

Cognitive developmental theorists who incorporate ideas from Piaget and from information processing approaches a script. other-transforming.

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Stage 1: differentiated/subjective procedural knowledge. retrieval Metacognitive skill chunking.

Jeremy probably doesn’t have a good understanding of another person’s intentions at this age. The counselor should assess the quality of Jeremy’s perspective-taking and structure the intervention accordingly.

Counselors should pay attention to the social world of these maltreated children, because those who can make a best friend have a good chance of improving their selfesteem.

Suggested Answers to Essay Questions (Chapter 6) 39.

Kuhn (2000) wrote that “to study memories is to study much of …cognition and cognitive development.” Explain this statement and illustrate your points by using examples of the factors that contribute to memory improvement with age.

Memory improves in middle childhood as seen in expansion of working memory and capacity for learning and for retrieving information from long term memory. There could literally be, somehow, more “room” in the older child’s working memory (Cowan, 2016). But many other cognitive changes seem to contribute and may actually be more important. These changes include: • Faster processing speed: research supports the idea that practice can accelerate information processing and processing speed can increase with physical maturation.

• Increases in breadth and depth of knowledge: experiences and learning opportunities help children expand their knowledge based in various domains.

• Advanced logical thinking: ability to understand more of their experiences helps children remember more about events. (Example: seriation task) • Greater facility with language: children are better able to represent information in words and especially mark improvements in narrative skill (the ability to tell a coherent story).

• Use of memory strategies: strategies are “potentially conscious activities a person may voluntarily carry out” to remember something such as the use of selective attention, elaboration, and organization.

• Greater metacognitive skills: knowledge of their own mental processes and the ability to reflect on those processes helps children use self-monitoring and understanding of what they can and cannot accomplish cognitively.

40.

Describe how the concept of egocentrism relates to cognitive development in middle childhood and to the typical progress of friendship development (level of social interactions).

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Egocentrism diminishes somewhat during middle childhood. The cognitively complex skill of perspective taking develops gradually as children mature, much in the same way that other cognitive abilities change and improve. Very young children seem trapped in their own perspective; Piaget called it preoperational egocentrism. He theorized that the ability to decenter, to hold in mind more than one piece of information at a time, helps children become less egocentric. This is an ongoing aspect of development.

Egocentrism – being unable to see or understand things from a different perspective – is a trap that all of us fall into sometimes, an inevitable part of the human condition.

Even when we are aware of the likelihood that someone else has a different perspective, being able to “read” and understand others’ mental states is difficult and sometimes impossible. Social relationships, and especially friendships, are important contexts for developing the necessary skills.

Consider the middle childhood years on the basis of Selman’s stages of friendship and levels of perspective-taking skills. In Stage 1, the “Differentiated/Subjective” stage, children from about 5 to about 9 come to understand that others have viewpoints that are different from their own, but they are generally not able to coordinate these perspectives simultaneously. In other words, they can’t maintain their own perspective and that of someone else at the same time. So even though they understand that their peers have different points of view, they still may act as though their own perspective or that of an “authority” is correct. They are able to understand, for example, that they can be the subject of another’s thoughts, but they generally do not have the capacity to judge how their behavior is being evaluated by that other person.

On the psychological level, friendship is still largely a one-way proposition. The child at Stage 1 may understand his own psychological perspective but may fail to do the same for his friend (representative of a level of egocentrism). In other words, friendships may be defined by the behavioral and psychological rewards they provide for the individual child and not in terms of the mutual satisfaction afforded both members of the dyad.

41.

Imagine that you are working with 10-year-old Devyn who is having trouble making friends. His parents and teachers indicate that Devyn is “generous to a fault,” often giving up what he wants in order to please others. Based on Selman’s ideas about friendship development, explain whether this child is more or less mature than the boys who bully him, and describe an approach for helping Devyn with his friendship skills.

To sustain friendships, friends must be able to coordinate both individuals’ needs and resolve the inevitable conflicts that arise in ways that are mutually agreeable. Any imbalance, such as too much coercion from one partner (other-transforming) and too little assertiveness from the other (self-transforming), can undermine the friendship in the long run. In other words, ineffective management of the dysynchrony between the 148 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

needs of the individual and the needs of the pair puts the friendship at risk. Both extremes, self-transforming and other-transforming social interaction styles, demonstrate immature behaviors.

Friendship skills are behavioral skills, such as appropriate assertiveness, good communication, and conflict resolution that maintain and enhance friendships. Devyn may benefit from assertiveness training as well as the other friendship skills. Rather than giving up things he wants in order to please others, Devyn can learn to stand up for himself and exercise greater assertiveness. By the age of 10, Devyn is expected to be functioning at stage 2 of Selman’s stages of friendship and perspective-taking skills. Children become more cognizant of the perspectives of others and learn to put themselves in another’s place as a way of evaluating intentions and actions. Devyn can learn to understand the motives of other children’s actions and replace his own concerns for acceptance with better communication and social interaction skills.

Increased interactions with parents, siblings, and peers should help Devyn develop these skills. Devyn is likely to benefit from a program that incorporates social and emotional learning (SEL)—knowledge, attitudes, and skills necessary to understand and manage emotions, set and achieve positive goals, feel and show empathy for others, establish and maintain positive relationships, and make responsible decisions.

Such programs help children develop prosocial attitudes and behaviors.

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Chapter 7

Self and Moral Development: Middle Childhood Through Early Adolescence Answers to Multiple Choice Questions Question Answer Number 1 d 2 d 3 c 4 c 5 d 6 c 7 c 8 a 9

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Answer Content Physical Unidimensional Middle to late childhood Physical appearance A child who thinks musical performance is very important Social comparison Child with low self-esteem Self-esteem declines for both boys and girls Base self-concept on domains in which White Americans excel Independence Collectivist Sociability Toddler age Heteronomous morality Child questions authority because authority may not be right.

Empathy Low social anxiety Authoritative Hostile attribution Tim’s self-concept reflects understanding of his strengths and weaknesses.

Tim’s global self-esteem is likely to be high because he excels in an area of importance to him.

Tim’s downward social comparison Self-enhancing bias a strong and positive racial or ethnic identity.

Physical appearance Selena didn’t take the candy because she might get caught.

Selena didn’t take the candy because it belonged to someone else.

Selena identifies with her mother who taught her that stealing is wrong.

Selena would explain that she does not steal because stealing is wrong and because she would care about bringing harm to the shop owner.

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empathy and sympathy.

Vanessa can engage in needs-based reasoning but may still have difficulty weighing the needs of others against her own.

Low social anxiety Peter attributed hostile intentions to the girls’ comments.

Peter interpreted cues incorrectly and assumed the girls’ comments were referring to him. effortful control.

Low levels of self-esteem are related to negative attributions about self and to depression.

Suggested Answers to Essay Questions (Chapter 7) 37.

What is character education? If character education principles are incorporated in schools, how might students benefit?

A program of character education incorporates eleven principles that offer useful guidance for developmentally appropriate education at every level, given that most children excel when opportunities to develop competence and character are provided within a supportive environment. In ideal form, the program provides these benefits for students: 1. A foundation of core values such as respect, perseverance, honesty 2. Character discussions that emphasize caring about and acting on core values 3. An intentional and proactive approach that infuses CE into all aspects of school life 4. A caring school community with supportive relationships 5. Opportunities for students to engage in projects and activities that promote inschool common good 6. Meaningful and challenging academic curriculum that meets needs of diverse students 7. Self-motivation with emphasis on personal honor, integrity, and positive comments 8. School staff who model core values, engage in continuing education about caring, and create a collaborative environment 9. Shared leadership in planning, implementing, and supporting CE initiatives 10. Parent, family, and community involvement in character-building efforts 11. Continued improvement in CE efforts based on assessment data

38.

What advice would you give to parents who want to develop prosocial behaviors in their children?

Prosocial or altruistic tendencies are different from one child to another, and individual differences tend to be somewhat stable across age. In other words, a child 151 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

who shows prosocial inclinations as a preschooler is somewhat more likely than other children to produce prosocial behavior in grade school.

Sharing, comforting a friend, helping a neighbor carry her groceries, collecting canned goods for victims of a flood—all are examples of simple prosocial behaviors that we might see from a child. You can probably see that whereas behaviors such as these benefit others, they can be motivated in many ways, and they could even provide some social reward to the benefactor. Sharing, for example, can help a child maintain a pleasant interaction.

For parents who want to develop prosocial behaviors in their children, they might think of actions that benefit someone else. Factors that influence the development of prosocial action in children include showing empathy and sympathy. Both empathy and sympathy seem to propel some prosocial acts from the time that toddlers begin to clearly differentiate self from other. Reasoning about other people’s needs (needsbased reasoning) contributes to prosocial behavior by helping children weigh their own personal needs against those of others. Children’s temperament and personality also influence their tendencies to exhibit prosocial behaviors. Parents are advised to use an authoritative parenting style with warmth and the appropriate amount of power assertion to guide children in the development of prosocial behaviors. Children with low social anxiety find it easier to engage in prosocial behavior than children who exhibit high social anxiety. Parents need to consider the individual child’s responsiveness.

Additionally, parents need to model prosocial behavior and express happiness after engaging in prosocial behavior. They also need to provide children with opportunities for prosocial action seems to help encourage a commitment to altruistic action.

Eisenberg calls this “the foot in the door effect” (Eisenberg et al., 2015). For example, Eisenberg, Cialdini, McCreath, and Shell (1987) found that starting in middle childhood, children who are encouraged to donate in one context are more likely to engage in helping behavior later in another context. This was mostly true for children who valued being consistent. It may be that once children begin to form a stable selfconcept, they are more likely to value consistency, and that practicing prosocial behavior then fosters further prosocial activities as children seek to maintain a coherent self-concept.

39.

Develop a case study that reflects the development of an aggressive disorder.

Tyler started playing soccer at age 6. From the beginning he showed great talent as a future soccer player. He also demonstrated highly competitive behaviors and attitudes by age 8. By age 10 he was known to tease his teammates about their soccer errors.

By the age of 16 he had become quite mean to others on the soccer field. In addition to taunting other players, he frequently engaged in fights with his own teammates and opponents. In addition, he taunted, teased, and made inappropriate comments to his teammates off the soccer field. On the field, if he believed someone was going to beat him out for the ball, he acted aggressively to the other player with the intent of doing physical harm to the other person. For some time Tyler’s teammates just ignored him, but later they began to complain to the soccer coach about Tyler’s behavior. In 152 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

addition to his antisocial behaviors on the soccer field and in school, Tyler began to engage in some risky activities including substance abuse, cheating on school exams, lying, and vandalism of school property. Of greatest concern is that it seems Tyler has a disregard for the harm he might cause others.

Although we have a limited amount of information, we can see that Tyler’s propensity to aggression and conduct problems seems serious. We question whether his behaviors warrant a diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) or conduct disorder (CD). In making a diagnosis, a trained mental health professional would consider the nature, duration, and severity of Tyler’s symptoms. Tyler needs an intervention program that will help him develop prosocial skills such as feelings of empathy and sympathy, and foster improvements in emotion regulation and effortful control. A counselor would also consider the role of social cognition (especially perspective-taking skill) in Tyler’s aggressive and externalizing behaviors. Tyler also needs help to understand how his own hostile attributions result in aggression.

40.

Write a response to a parent who believes that constantly comparing her child to other more accomplished or talented children is a good way to motivate her child to achieve more and become stronger.

As children grow, social comparison processes contribute to the construction of the self-concept. As children get older and their perspective taking skills improve, peer assessments, peer acceptance, and social comparisons become more and more important. The construction of self-concept is a social process, and any social process is conditioned by culture. The judgments, beliefs, values, and expectations of others— parents, teachers, and peers—strongly influence self-esteem. The child is already making his own social comparisons and trying to manage the values others place on his talents and accomplishments. The additional verbalized comparisons of a parent magnify the pressure and contribute to low feelings of self-worth.

A child needs to be viewed as an individual and encouraged to build on his worth as a person. Parents make a mistake by emphasizing comparisons. Warm, supportive parenting predicts high self-esteem as children mature. Viewing self in a positive light rather than being compared in a negative light contributes to high self-esteem. A child is more likely to be motivated to achieve more and become stronger by parenting that contributes to high self-esteem.

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Chapter 8 Gender and Peer Relationships: Middle Childhood Through Early Adolescence Answers to Multiple Choice Questions Question Answer Number 1 b 2 d 3 b 4 c 5

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Answer Content The Y chromosome carries the SRY gene By the third month 105 males to 100 females Gender constancy Gender identity has greater impact on social adjustment for White children.

XX Males are more competent at analytical tasks.

Satisfaction with one’s gender assignment They spend 11 times more time with same-sex peers.

Group size of two or three Greater increase in depressive symptoms In many ways, boys and girls don’t appear to be treated differently.

Social dosage effect Ancestral influences Egalitarianism Combining positive and negative nominations by peers Neglected children Aggression The need to belong gender stability / gender constancy social assignment is a powerful influence on gender identity. meta-analysis.

These differences have changed historically, and there is now little difference before grade 12. males are more vulnerable to disorders caused by X-linked recessive alleles than females.

Females tend to be more sociable and prosocial than males. same sex playmates.

Contact is okay if you share the same interest in an activity.

Boys engage in more rough-and-tumble play in their groups. personality.

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Joey is intrinsically motivated to engage in behaviors that he believes are consistent with his gender.

Joey now identifies with his father and will only do things his father does.

Psychoanalytic (Freudian) theories Social learning theories social dosage effect. females have a disadvantage because males do less turntaking and are more domineering.

Nomination by peers for negative roles in a class play Socially unskilled children are already perceived in biased ways by peers, and that perception is not being addressed by the intervention. a trend in middle adolescence for cliques to decline in importance. sociometry. positive nominations / positive plus negative nominations a neglected child. choosing not to participate very actively in peer activities. boys are more likely than girls to be rejected for gendernonconfroming behavior. is likely to include non-confrontational relational aggressive behaviors. less content with their gender than boys.

Suggested Answers to Essay Questions (Chapter 8) 46.

Children tend to segregate into single-gender play groups. Explain how such sex segregation might influence the development of sex differences during childhood.

Provide clear examples of how this might work.

Perhaps more important than the small gender differences in laboratory measures of behavior, is that boys and girls spend their time differently: boys more often with boys, and girls with girls. Gender segregation begins as early as 2½ years old for girls and 3 years old for boys and increases with age. In their segregated groups, girls and boys behave differently. For example, boys are more active and engage in more aggressive play when they are with boys than with girls or adults. Girls’ play and talk is more cooperative or collaborative, whereas boys’ play and talk is more competitive and domineering.

When children segregate by gender, other behaviors also tend to diverge. For example, suppose that Carissa and Duane, both 6 years old, are equally active when they play alone on the playground. They climb on the jungle gym with about average vigor for children their age, and they are more inclined to skip and jog from place to place than either to walk or to run full tilt. When Carissa plays with her girlfriends, 155 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

her activity level stays about the same. But when Duane plays with a group of boys, he is notably more active than when he plays alone: He moves more vigorously on the jungle gym or runs with greater intensity. “Boys are stimulated to high levels of activity by other boys” (Maccoby, 1998).

Children do somewhat different things in their same-gender groups. Perhaps most notable is that boys’ play in groups is more physical and more aggressive than girls’ play. This is true in all primate species, across cultures, and from the earliest ages that youngsters play together. (Ruble, Martin, & Berenbaum, 2006) When Carissa and her friends ride the wheeled vehicles in the play yard of their after-school child care center, they ride around carefully to avoid hitting each other. But when Duane and his friends are in the drivers’ seats, their favorite thing to do is ram into each other—the harder the better (e.g., Dunn & Morgan, 1987; Fabes et al., 2003).

Good-natured physical roughness is called rough-and-tumble play, an almost exclusive property of boys’ play with boys. Most boys are not consistently aggressive across situations. That is, physical aggressiveness is not so much a personality trait that you see when a child is in any situation—with adults, girls, or boys—although it can be for some children. More typically, it emerges when boys are with boys. Thus, it becomes an important defining feature of boys’ social groups, which differ in specific ways from girls’ social groups. Boys often use rough-and-tumble play to help establish dominance hierarchies within their groups, with more dominant boys less likely to back down and less often aggressed against. Generally, boys play in larger groups than do girls, who are more likely to play in twos and threes, and the boys’ groups are more clearly structured hierarchically. Although girls’ groups usually have their more and less dominant members, the rankings are not very stable, and leadership does not depend on toughness as much as on other leadership qualities, such as social skill (Maccoby, 1998; Martin & Fabes, 2001).

47.

Describe at least two theories of how parenting might influence the development of sex differences in childhood. Discuss the evidence for and against these theories.

Freud’s psychoanalytic theory is that traditional family structure—mother as primary caregiver, father as her sexual partner and a strong presence in the home—should be necessary for children to experience normal gender role development. Yet, gender role development is not impeded in children who come from single-parent homes, nor even in children who come from homes where both parents are the same gender (e.g., Farr et al., 2017; Golombok & Tasker, 1996; Patterson, 2004).

Freud argued that at about age 3, children begin to have vague sexual needs that impact how they relate differently to their mothers and fathers. In brief, boys experience attraction to their mothers and competition with their fathers that motivates them to identify with and imitate their fathers while girls similarly identify with and imitate their mothers. Thus, both boys and girls become gender-typed in their behavior and form a superego. Although many aspects of Freud’s tale of sexual desire, competition, and fear in young children have become deeply embedded in our culture, efforts to validate the theory have been unsuccessful.

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Social learning theorists argue that many parents and other adults influence children’s gender-typed behaviors, both by modeling such behaviors and by differential treatment of boys and girls that teaches them to behave in gendered ways.

What evidence is there that adults actually do behave differently toward children based on gender? First, we should note that in many ways, boys and girls are not treated differently. Meta-analyses indicate no differences in how much parents interact with their sons and daughters, in how much parents encourage them to achieve, in how much parents encourage help seeking, in how much warmth or responsiveness parents show, or in how effectively parents communicate or reason with them (e.g., Lytton & Romney, 1991; Mesman & Groeneveld, 2017).

However, there are some important differences in parental behaviors. In what have been dubbed “Baby X” studies, adult participants interact with a baby they do not know (e.g., Seavey, Katz, & Zalk, 1975). When participants think they are interacting with a boy, they are more likely to handle the baby in active ways, such as bouncing; when they think the baby is a girl, they handle it more gently. Participants more often describe boys as big and strong, but they use terms like sweet and pretty more often with girls. Mothers are gentler in handling their infant girls compared to boys (FaustoSterling et al., 2017). As children get older, mothers talk more, use more supportive speech, and discuss emotions more frequently with their daughters (e.g., Dunn, Bretherton, & Munn, 1987; Leaper, Anderson, & Sanders, 1998). Also when discussing emotions with their children, both mothers and fathers convey genderstereotypical messages that boys experience more anger whereas girls experience more happiness and sadness (Van der Pol et al., 2015). Across cultures, girls are more often asked to help with infant sibling care, although across many cultures both boys and girls are recruited to care for young children (Best, 2010). There are other parental differences as well, with fathers more likely than mothers to have different expectations of their sons than their daughters (Endendjik et al., 2014). Fathers are more likely to be disapproving of gender non-conformity in their sons than in their daughters, more likely to roughhouse with their sons, and more likely to be negative or confrontational with them (Maccoby, 1998).

48.

Suzanna is considered weird by her 3rd grade classmates. She seems to have few social skills. On a sociometric analysis, Suzanna received no positive nominations from her classmates, and very few negative nominations. Explain what this sociometric assessment is and what it means. Outline what might be an effective therapeutic approach in Suzanna’s case.

Sociometry is the classic method of assessing social competence on the basis of classmates’ nominations for positive or negative roles in a hypothetical class play.

The number of positive nominations a child receives is the child’s social preference score. The combined number of positive and negative nominations a child receives is the child’s social impact score.

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Suzanna’s social preference score is zero, and her social impact score is low with few negative nominations. Suzanna’s sociometric status appears to be neglected. Children in the neglected group are similar to those in the average group in their ability to have friendships and are as likely as other children to have a best friend. They may have a few close friends and may engage more fully in activities in other contexts, or they may simply prefer spending time alone. Therefore, even though this group has certain sociometrically distinctive characteristics, neglected children are similar to average children in many respects. Being neglected, as distinct from being in the rejectedwithdrawn subgroup, which also incurs high levels of peer neglect, does not seem to be associated with developmental problems.

Perhaps the most important clinical consideration that follows from recent research in the peer relations field is that interventions need to be directed simultaneously to multiple targets. In addition to teaching Suzanna the social skills she is lacking, interventions need to be couched in a context that provides opportunities for peers to interact with her successfully and change their biased behavior toward her. In essence, treat the system.

49.

Counseling young boys requires sensitivity to society’s “boy code” and may require special strategies for putting boys at ease in the counseling context. What is the boy code? What strategies might be especially helpful for overcoming this code?

Some authors, who provide clinical insights into the particular challenges faced by boys, argue that the “boy code” that is enforced in the masculine socialization process works like a gender straitjacket. Just as some girls’ voices may be suppressed in certain contexts, they argue that some boys also go unheard (see Box 8.3). The boy code requires learning that feelings of fear, weakness, and vulnerability should be suppressed to appear brave and powerful. Although we may be primed to notice symptoms of depression in girls because they fit our conceptions of what depressed behavior looks like, we may miss the cues in boys. Adults need to avoid shaming boys for expressions of vulnerability and to provide them with the time and safety they need to open up. We should not take boys’ stoicism as a given.

Evidence from many studies that have examined gender differences in behavior demonstrates that for most characteristics there is actually very little gender difference. Therefore, we need to remember that girls and boys have many similar qualities and needs. Feelings, either good or bad, should not be off-limits because one happens to be a boy or a girl. Counselors can help by examining their own schemas or constructions about what it means to be male and female. That way, we will not selectively attend to information that fits our schema while we discount other important information. For healthy development, both genders need safe spaces in which to exercise their power and to express their vulnerabilities.

Although boy babies are on average more active and intense in their reactions than girls, there is little consistent evidence of difference in emotion or emotional expression in the first two years (Blakemore, Barenboim, & Liben, 2009). By 3 to 4 years old, some differences in emotional expression are emerging, at least in U. S. 158 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

samples, with boys beginning to hide feelings of sadness and fear more than girls (Kyratzis, 2001) and with girls beginning to hide feelings of pride more than boys (see Else-Quest, Higgins, Allison, & Morton, 2012). Way (2011) points out that learning to hide emotions linked with vulnerability, as boys seem more likely to do, can be an impediment to friendship and intimacy, even though friendship is as important to males as it is to females.

Pollack (1998) and Kindlon and Thompson (1990) make the case that boys need support if they are to preserve their emotional lives in a culture that undermines and constrains the expression of emotion among males. Too often, the only messages boys hear are those that advise them to be strong, competitive, and unemotional. The authors of the textbook emphasize that this state of affairs is supported by multiple systems, from peer groups to adults, that do not take kindly to expressions of male vulnerability.

Boys may feel especially ill at ease in the culture of psychotherapy where emotional expression is often de rigueur. For counselors who work with young male clients, Kiselica (2003) offers some practical guidelines for making psychotherapy “malefriendly.” Several of his suggestions are listed below.

• Be flexible about where to meet and how long to hold sessions.

• Display magazines or other reading material in your office that may be interest to boys, such as sports magazines.

• Avoid face-to-face seating arrangements in favor of a side-by-side setup; offer a snack before starting the counseling session.

• Become acquainted with contemporary teenage slang or be honest enough to ask what the boy’s words mean if you are not familiar with the vocabulary.

• Pay attention to the boy’s cues regarding pacing the session; be mindful of the boy’s comfort level with respect to sensitive topics.

• Avoid asking too many questions; take the heat off from time to time by focusing on more practical problems like making a team or finding a job.

• Support autonomy strivings and motivation to continue therapy by scheduling appointments directly with the male client, if possible.

• Use appropriate humor and self-disclosure to facilitate engagement.

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Chapter 9 Physical, Cognitive, and Identity Development in Adolescence Answers to Multiple Choice Questions Question Answer Number 1 c 2 b 3 a 4 c 5 d 6 d 7 d 8 c 9 c 10 b 11 d 12 d 13 c 14 a 15 c 16 c 17 b 18 d 19 b 20

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Answer Content Kisspeptin Ovaries in females African American Begins 2 years earlier in one gender Limbic system Diminished capacity in reasoning Rates as much as triple for females Some of the same disadvantages as girls Increase intensity of depressed mood Black males About 45% Genetic influence and prenatal hormones Ability to understand concrete elements of algebra Self-critical attitudes Imaginary audience Foreclosure Diffusion Preparing children for experiences of discrimination Racial/ethnic identity is not as important as other features The pituitary stimulates other glands to release hormones into the bloodstream.

Early-maturing girls are more likely to be rejected by girls who are less mature.

Delayed phase preference rumination.

Homosexual orientation is at least partly determined by heredity.

Sexual orientation is a fluid concept for some teens.

Alyssa classifies information about the main branches of the US government by drawing a diagram of various departments within each branch. sometimes difficult even for adults.

Fourteen-year-old Breanna believes that her pastor is hypocritical because he lives in a nice house. She thinks it should be sold to feed the poor.

Invincibility fable Personal fable 160

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A sense of shame Identity provides a foundation for making mature commitments to adult roles and belief systems.

Exploration and commitment Moratorium Foreclosed Achieved Realizing the significance of race, ethnicity or sexual orientation plays a critical role. the majority of adolescents identify with the minority category of their racial or ethnic identity.

Suggested Answers to Essay Questions (Chapter 9) 39.

Give three examples of different types of adolescent egocentrism that might be apparent in a counseling situation with an adolescent.

The self-evaluation and self-monitoring that come with improved metacognitive skill may contribute to self-focused forms of egocentrism that seem to emerge at adolescence. These include imaginary audience, personal fable, and invincibility fable as defined by Elkind.

Imaginary Audience An adolescent may come into a session acting overly self-conscious. The evidence might be seen in her movements as she enters, her uncertainty as she speaks, and the negative content of her assessment of herself. She may feel that everyone around her is focused on all aspects of her appearance and functioning. This extreme overestimation of others’ awareness of her (imaginary audience) is likely to become a stifling factor in her classroom performance, social behaviors, relationships, and selfesteem.

Personal Fable An adolescent may be discussing concerns during a counseling session and reveal that he sees himself as having a special destiny to fulfill—something only he can achieve.

He may go on to describe how his peers and his generation need to hear the message he has for them, perhaps a message of warning about economic changes and the need to prepare for a dystopian future. His self-focused fantasizing (personal fable) may blind him from seeing the reality of actions by others and evidences that must be considered in order to view the world rationally.

Invincibility Fable An adolescent may begin counseling after failing a drug test for an athletic competition. She may talk convincingly with the counselor about her intentions of staying clean, but inwardly know she will continue her risky drug habits with the personal assurance she’ll figure out ways to get around getting caught. She may have convinced herself that drugs do her no harm, and she may argue that she could never 161 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

do anything that might harm someone else or cause trouble. She may further reveal her sense of invincibility by stating that she is too intelligent and too competent to let drugs interfere with performance or abilities in any way.

40.

Describe the characteristics of formal operational thinking and give an example of a real-life (non-academic) task or situation that requires formal operational reasoning.

Characteristics of formal operational thought: • Focuses not on specific contents but on relationships governing contents • Involves coordinating multiple relationships • Can be difficult even for adults (easier to deal with concrete features) The processes involved in identity achievement can illustrate the use of formal operational thinking. For example, in making a decision about a career path, an individual must think about his own skills, experiences, and interests. These contents must be weighed in light of opportunities, economic resources, concerns for those who depend on him now, and how to deal with their expectations. He needs to coordinate these relationships with his own future goals regarding marriage and family, lifestyle, and level of commitment to other priorities. In other words, he is coordinating many abstract relationships as he navigates a career pathway.

41.

As a clinician, you are asked to evaluate a 14-year-old boy’s competence to stand trial as an adult. What data from developmental research are relevant, and how do you make the decision systematically?

1) A clinician considers the question, “Are teens as fully culpable as adults?”

Examine three sources of mitigation in adult criminal law.

The first is diminished capacity, which could be due to mental illness, emotional distress, intellectual impairment, or “susceptibility to influence or domination” (p.

1011).

The second, compelling circumstances, occurs when an individual faces such pressure that even an ordinary, reasonable person could be expected to give in, such as acting in the face of extreme need or under threat of injury.

The third, uncharacteristic behavior, is when the crime represents uncharacteristic behavior on the part of the perpetrator, as in the case of a first offense or when the crime is “aberrant in light of the defendant’s established character traits and respect for the law’s values” (p. 1011).

Steinberg (2017; Schulman & Steinberg, 2016; Steinberg & Scott, 2003) argues that if we look at the developmental evidence, adolescents should be considered less culpable on the basis of all three sources of mitigation.

Diminished Capacity 162 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

First, their cognitive and psychosocial development is likely to affect their choices in ways not characteristic of adults. In essence, their decision making tends to be immature (or we could say impaired) in comparison to adults’, suggesting diminished capacity. Reasoning ability improves throughout adolescence into adulthood. By midadolescence, many youngsters do well on tests of formal logic if they are given hypothetical problems that have logical solutions under conditions of low emotional arousal (like the scientific problem solving described in this chapter). But as you will see in Chapter 11, teens do not perform as well as young adults on the more ambiguous problems of real life, especially when they are emotionally invested in an issue (Blanchard-Fields, 1986). In addition, teens’ decisions in real-life situations may be influenced by their psychosocial immaturity and lack of experience. As you will see in Chapter 10, adolescents are particularly susceptible to peer influence, they are high risk takers, and their self-control is not fully developed. Their capacity or tendency to think about future consequences is beginning to develop but is quite limited. Teens heavily weigh short-term gains in their decision making and tend to discount long-term considerations (e.g., Halpern-Felsher & Cauffman, 2001). When they are asked to imagine themselves or their circumstances in the future, teens use a much shorter time frame than adults do (e.g., Nurmi, 1991).

Adolescent characteristics that suggest diminished capacity from a legal standpoint appear to be linked to immature, and changing, neurological processes. The teen brain shows gradual maturing of precisely those regions that affect long-term planning, judgment, decision making, regulation of emotion, impulse control, and the evaluation of risk and reward.

Compelling Circumstances Not only could adolescents be considered less culpable than adults on the basis of diminished capacity, but they are also more vulnerable to compelling circumstances.

As Steinberg and Scott (2003) argue, “ordinary adolescents may respond adversely to external pressures that adults are able to resist” (p. 1014). For many of the reasons already indicated, they may be more easily provoked to aggressive responses by perceived threats. Their emotional lability and intensity seems to make many situations more stressful for adolescents than for adults. Also, their need for peer support and approval makes them especially susceptible to peer influence, whether in the form of direct pressure or as a result of the adolescent’s own concern for fitting in.

Uncharacteristic Behaviors Finally, adolescents’ criminal actions may well qualify as uncharacteristic behaviors on the grounds that a teen’s character and identity is relatively unformed. Identity formation is a major developmental task in adolescence and can involve assessment and reassessment of every aspect of the developing self, including the moral self.

Teens who are immersed in this process often experiment with (or “try on”) behaviors that are potentially dangerous, like drug use or antisocial acts, but for most adolescents this delinquent activity is relatively short-lived. It is referred to as “adolescence limited” behavior (see Chapter 10).

2) A clinician also considers questions about the 14-year-old’s competence to stand trial.

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The same characteristics that may mitigate adolescents’ culpability raise questions about their competence to be processed in the system of justice designed for adults. In this system, a criminal defendant must be competent to stand trial, meaning that she must be able to assist her counsel in preparing her defense, understand the court proceedings well enough to participate, and be capable of making decisions about her rights, like whether or not to waive a jury trial or to accept a plea bargain. A research consortium, the MacArthur Research Network on Adolescent Development and Juvenile Justice, is undertaking studies that are designed to assess the degree to which teens have these capabilities.

The results support the conclusion that juveniles from 11 to 15 are significantly less competent than young adults to stand trial, whereas 16- to 17-year-olds are not significantly different from young adults. Substantially more young teens showed impairments in understanding or reasoning about court-related matters in comparison to young adults. Only age and intelligence were significant predictors of competence—neither gender, ethnicity, current status as an offender, nor socioeconomic status was important.

A similar pattern was obtained on the measures of decision making. Younger teens, ages 11 through 15, were significantly more likely to make decisions based on what authorities dictated. “Thus, compared with older adolescents and young adults, adolescents aged 15 and younger are more likely to recommend confessing to the police rather than remaining silent and accepting a plea bargain offered by a prosecutor rather than going to trial” (Steinberg et al., 2003, p. 10). The researchers looked at what considerations were involved in making these decisions and found that compared to older adolescents and adults, younger juveniles often failed to identify or to adequately evaluate risks or to take into account the long-range, as opposed to short-term, consequences of their choices.

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Chapter 10 The Social World of Adolescence Answers to Multiple Choice Questions Question Answer Number 1 b 2 b 3 c 4 c 5 c 6 d 7 a 8 d 9 c 10 b 11 b 12 d 13 b 14 d 15 a 16 b 17 c 18

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Answer Content Early adolescence Middle adolescence 5% Populars and jocks Peer selection Personal issues Parent responsiveness An increase in whole-group lectures Teachers’ high expectations for their students’ learning Comparable to a typical adult’s work day Increases in aggressive behavior across cultures Promoting individuation 6th grade social comparison with peers 20 percent Some drug use or other illicit behavior democracy.

He is just as likely as other teens to believe that getting a good education is helpful for future success, but is not as likely to believe that failure in school will limit his future job options.

No effect on delinquency outcomes Her work time will negatively affect her school achievement.

Typical of this age group and statistically normative In the 1920s risky behavior was seen as a problem that could be addressed by social programs, like community activities for adolescents, whereas today we tend to see the problem as within the individual.

Express expectations for academic achievement as it relates to future goals.

Exposure to media violence is related to teenage aggressive behavior.

They share interests, attitudes, and behaviors. positively related to academic achievement.

About 40% Warm, supporting parental relationship with the adolescent 165

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interview the teen about his or her beliefs about risky behavior.

Personal matters

Suggested Answers to Essay Questions (Chapter 10) 31.

Mr. and Mrs. Brown have consulted you about their 13-year-old daughter, Joanne.

She is not doing as well academically as she always did in elementary school. She seems to be involved with a popular crowd that is quickly moving into sexual experimentation and drug use. Based on available research, describe the options Mr. and Mrs. Brown have for helping their daughter navigate her early adolescence.

Adolescence is the life stage characterized by the highest overall level of risk taking.

Some risk taking is a healthy expression of autonomy in the service of identity development. Some risky pathways lead in less adaptive directions. Based on research, the following ideas draw from developmental knowledge to help youth and their families. Mr. and Mrs. Brown might do the following: 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

Practice authoritative parenting and maintain connections with their daughter.

Support their daughter and accept her in ways that maintain a warm and supportive relationship.

Get professional help and support to deal with their own perilous transition as their daughter navigates adolescence.

Avoid reactive behavior and harsh punishment, coercion, criticism, and other forms of psychological control. Such parent behaviors are likely to foster greater secrecy by the daughter.

Develop good relationships with school personnel. Be aware of resources, extracurricular activities, and other positive outlets provided by the school.

Call for changes in the broader societal context and in the more immediate family and school environment to exert influence on peer groups.

See Table 10.4 for selected family therapies for adolescents.

32.

Identify and describe three main reasons that adolescents engage in reckless or risky behavior.

Risk taking is a developmentally appropriate propensity as it serves autonomy-related goals. Contravention of adult norms by experimentation with deviant behaviors has always been part of the adolescent experience and is, in fact, statistically normative.

Most adolescents will take risks, especially in the context of potentially rewarding outcomes, but they also learn from these adventures because of executive functions that continue to increase over the course of adolescence. Some adolescents engage in risky behavior without thinking, manifesting an underlying trait impulsivity that may continue from childhood and culminate in adoption of risky lifestyles.

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Behaviors traditionally considered deviant are increasingly becoming part of the experimental repertoire of teens who are considered well adjusted. Hersch (1998) closely followed the activities of adolescents in a suburban high school for several years. She got to know the students well, becoming an “insider” in the world of adolescents, and was able to document the escalation of dangerous pursuits as a normal part of contemporary adolescent life. “Behaviors once at the fringe of adolescent rebelliousness have not only permeated the mainstream culture of high school but are seeping into the fabric of middle school” (p. 156).

Peers affect adolescents’ risky behavior. We know that teenagers are more likely to take risks when they are in the company of their peers (Gardner & Steinberg, 2005), but why is this the case? What power do peers exert, and how do they do it? A very careful look at peer influence processes on one risky behavior, smoking, can provide a window into this process. Liu and her colleagues (Liu, Zhao, Chen, Falk, & Albarracín, 2017) reviewed 75 carefully done longitudinal studies from sixteen different countries to explore how peers affect smoking initiation and maintenance.

Countries were evenly representative of those with more individualistic (e.g. U.S.) and more collectivist (e.g. Middle East) orientations. The findings reveal some key relationships. Adolescents were about twice as likely to begin smoking (initiation) if their friends smoked. Friends provide opportunity, models and means for risk-taking.

Cognitive features like adolescent egocentrism also play a role in risky behavior by supporting the fiction that risky behavior is exciting but not potentially catastrophic.

Arnett (1992) implicates adolescents’ weaknesses in reasoning about probability, a kind of formal operational thinking, as particularly important here.

It appears that some teens put themselves at risk because they are responding to triggers that cue big, short-term rewards; they do not do a cost/benefit analysis. This is what you would expect if the emotional system is activated without benefit of control from the cognitive system. However, even when adolescents feel vulnerable and do engage the cognitive control system, their approach to evaluating risk may keep them from being as risk averse as they should be. Reyna and Farley (2006) suggest that when probability analyses are new to adolescents, they are likely to do cost/benefit assessments that favor risk taking, just as Arnett suggests. They often perceive the relative costs, which are usually low probability, as well worth the potential rewards.

33.

What is the leading cause of mortality among adolescents? Identify some of the risk factors associated with this cause of death and explain our limitations in predicting outcomes and providing effective treatments.

Suicide is the leading cause of mortality among young people (CDC, 2014).

Researchers are concerned with the constellation of suicidal thoughts and behaviors (STB) because of their potential to lead to actual suicide. Despite the very real risk STBs presents, comparatively little is known about most effective treatments for youth.

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A thorough meta-analysis of 50 years of research on risks for suicidal thoughts and behaviors produced disappointing results (Franklin et al, 2017). After exhaustive analysis, the authors of the report conclude that available studies do not allow for conclusive evidence about the predictive power of risk factors because of deficiencies in the studies thus far.

Individuals who have suicidal ideation or behavior are depressed, depression is not, in itself, a strong and independent predictor of suicide. Many people, although suffering from depression, do not show suicidal ideation or behaviors. More accurate prediction probably depends on combining large numbers of factors, including depression. It is most likely that suicide is the endpoint of a number of different pathways (equifinality) that are unique to different groups, like women, youth, the elderly, patients with mental disorders, veterans, etc. Each of these groups might share certain risk profiles in combination with individual characteristics that could, once identified, predict suicide with greater precision. Because of extreme emotional volatility of individuals with suicidal inclinations, it may also be more useful to assess risks like hopelessness as ‘states’ (over minutes, hours, or days) rather than as traits.

Risks for suicidal attempts include: prior nonsuicidal self-injury, prior suicide attempt, certain mental health diagnoses and prior psychiatric hospitalization. Risks for actual suicide include: prior psychiatric hospitalization, prior suicide attempt, prior suicide ideation, lower SES and stressful life events. There may be a new risk for suicide unknown to prior generations that is shaping our understanding of this serious social problem (Twenge et al, 2017). The sharp uptick in use of electronic communication among youth may be affecting their wellbeing during a sensitive period of development. Teenagers who spend more time on screen activities were significantly more likely to report more depressive symptoms and suicide-related behavior than those whose time was spent on nonscreen activities.

More research is warranted to find profiles or algorithms that are more reliable than symptom lists. Those risk factors identified by expert consensus at present should be maintained as practice guidelines. The fact that more research is needed does not obviate the need to pay attention to risk factors, however imperfect they might be.

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Chapter 11 Physical and Cognitive Development in Young Adulthood Answers to Multiple Choice Questions Question Number

Answer

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Answer Content Individuals reach adulthood later today than in earlier points in history.

Late 20s to early 30s Being responsible for the outcomes of your actions emerging adulthood.

Extended self-exploration Increase in identity issues Crossover effect Exploration of potential adult identities Age 18-30 More than 65% Postformal stage Achieving stage Strict dualism Position 5, contextual relativism Development of reflective judgment The “person who” fallacy Relativistic Environmental pressures Agnes and Paul were adults because they were married and had a child.

As marker events on the basis of taking responsibility and making independent decisions.

Increase in inhibitory control Kendra learns about three different religions and recognizes their consistency and appeal.

The executive stage She must consider how her decision will affect many people.

The achieving stage She tries to decide how to make a living for herself.

A 62-year-old truck driver Relativistic thinking implies comparing merits of different perspectives and finding convincing elements in multiple views.

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students confront diverse beliefs and arrive at personal commitments.

God created the world. There is no other possibility.

I’m not sure yet, but my professor will be able to clarify positions for me.

I believe God created the world. My professor disagrees but she isn’t always right.

It doesn’t matter which idea you believe, because even experts disagree.

Although we don’t know for certain, I understand the way scientists look at the question Determination of abuse can be made if one has some personal experience.

Over-reliance on the vividness effect They may become anxious if there is uncertainty about the best solution. poor self-management skills. the time of highest prevalence rate for depression across the life span.

Suggested Answers to Essay Questions (Chapter 11) 41.

Using Perry’s theory, describe what processes help individuals move from dualistic to relativistic thinking.

Using many of Piaget’s ideas, Perry proposed a stage-based theory that depicts the typical intellectual and ethical transitions experienced by students in higher education settings, from absolute adherence to authority to beliefs founded on personal commitment. Perry’s theory examines the changes that occur over time in the structure of young adults’ knowledge, or, put another way, the changes in their expectations and assumptions about the world.

Perry constructed a sequence of nine “positions,” or stages, ranging from extreme dualistic thinking to high levels of personally committed beliefs. What happens in between is the stuff of intellectual growth during the college years. Few students, if any, enter college at the first position, and few leave having achieved the ninth position. Like Piaget’s theory, Perry’s is a theory of continual movement and transition. Students “rest” for a time at each of the positions, but the dynamic clearly moves forward.

From Perry’s perspective, the experience of a liberal arts college education accelerates the growth process, particularly in a society that values pluralism, because students are invariably confronted with diversity of thought, values, and beliefs.

Guiding individuals to construct meaningful interpretations of textual information also helps them move toward relativism. Some researchers have used Perry’s 170 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

framework to explore the connection between students’ beliefs about knowledge and their approach to learning. For example, in an early study, Ryan (1984) found that relativists were more successful in their college classes because they tended to use more constructivist approaches to studying course material. They paid attention to context, constructed meaningful interpretations of textual information, and summarized main ideas. Dualists were more likely to focus on memorization of factual information, in keeping with their belief in “right” versus “wrong” information.

Helping individuals see that life is full of ill-structured problems for which there are no simple right and wrong solutions promotes the process.

Presenting information that is inconsistent with the individual’s current views and suggesting that they focus on understanding ideas also guides the process.

Encouraging individuals to see the whole problem or issue rather than overanalyzing specific parts is another strategy for moving toward relativistic thinking. Dualists take a more narrow view of problem-solving tasks, breaking them down into unrelated, discrete parts and ignoring some important aspects. Relativists are more likely to consider the whole problem, processing and taking into account all of its components before attempting a solution.

42.

List three decision-making pitfalls counselors need to recognize. Give examples of each.

The “person who” fallacy: refuting a well-documented finding by calling on knowledge of a person who is an exception Example: An individual might refute the correlation between regular exercise and well-being by citing a case of someone who exercised regularly and had a heart attack.

The vividness effect: allowing salient or vivid facts to attract our attention regardless of their actual value as evidence Example: An individual values the testimonial of a celebrity in choosing a treatment rather than weighing the value of empirical evidence that provides conflicting data.

The placebo effect: the tendency for someone to improve with attention or in the course of time, no matter what the medical or psychological intervention.

Example: An individual takes sugar pills believing they are antidepressants and claims to be cured of depression in several weeks.

43.

Theorists like Sinnott describe a fifth cognitive stage often called post-formal thought, whereas theorists like Schaie argue that there isn’t a new stage of thought in adulthood but rather new kinds of problems to solve. Describe the differences between these perspectives.

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Logical thinking appears to change beginning in young adulthood. Theorists and researchers disagree as to the nature of the change. Some propose that a more advanced kind of thinking, postformal or fifth-stage thinking, emerges. Others argue that the formal operational abilities of the adolescent period represent the most advanced form of thinking for humans but that adults learn to apply this kind of thinking to the more ill-defined or ill-structured problems that adults face. As part of this process, they may also gain better understanding of the limits of their own problem-solving abilities. That is, they may grow in metacognitive understanding.

Theorists who argue that there is a stage of postformal thought suggest that it may not reach full development until middle adulthood, but its emergence begins in young adulthood. Most theorists, such as Sinnott, describe postformal thought as relativistic.

The same reality can be described within several different truth systems, all of which are valid from one perspective or within some context. The postformal thinker recognizes the validity of different truth systems. She may make a subjective commitment to one in some situations or seek a compromise in other situations.

Schaie argues against a new kind of adult thinking. Rather, he argues that at different times of adult life people face different kinds of problems, and different skills are brought to bear on those problems. He describes seven stages in adults’ intellectual functioning, with each new stage a result of shifts in the challenges people face.

Perry’s stage theory of intellectual and ethical development in the college years describes a sequence of steps in the movement from more absolutist or dualistic thinking. Kitchener provides a seven-stage theory of the development of relativistic thinking, calling it reflective judgment.

The end product of this advanced form of thinking is virtually the same (relativistic) whether it is viewed as a fifth cognitive stage (postformal thought) or stages in the developmental transition from dualism to relativism.

44.

Discuss how and why interpersonal therapy (IPT) may be useful in helping young adults who are suffering from depression. Consider the role of development in the generation of depression in this therapeutic approach, the role of context, and the IPT therapist’s view of enduring cognitive structures in the young adult’s depression.

There are effective treatments for some individuals who suffer from depressive disorders. These include pharmacological, cognitive-behavioral (CBT), interpersonal (IPT), and mindfulness-based cognitive (MBCT) therapies.

In young adulthood, the foundations of interpersonal therapy may have particular relevance for development, insofar as the struggle involved in making normal life transitions is one of the primary factors assumed to cause the disorder. Interpersonal therapy (Klerman, Weissman, Rounsaville, & Chevron, 1984; Weissman, Makowitz, & Klerman, 2000) assumes that depression is affected by and affects interpersonal 172 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

relationships, and aspects of the depressed person’s social network are of primary importance in understanding and treating the disorder.

The theoretical foundations of the interpersonal approach derive from the work of Sullivan (1953) and Meyer (1957), among others, who emphasized the here and now social contexts of the depressed individual over causes of depression that were intrapsychic and rooted in the distant past. While IPT does not dismiss the cognitive processes that support depression, irrational, distorted thinking is not the primary focus of treatment. Therapeutic change is purported to come via several interpersonal processes: social support, stress reduction in areas of interpersonal functioning and development of emotion regulation and interpersonal skills (Lipsitz & Markowitz, 2013). The causes of depression are presumed to be four broadly defined interpersonal situations: grief, role disputes (conflicts with significant others), life changes/role transitions, and significant interpersonal deficits. Using a time-limited approach (roughly up to 20 sessions) and functioning as a supportive ally, the therapist assesses symptoms, connects depression to one of the four major problematic areas, and assigns the client a “sick role” (Parsons, 1951). Assigning a sick role legitimizes the client’s needs for support from others who may be included in the therapeutic process, temporarily frees the client from unmanageable responsibility, and allows the person to focus on recovery during the restricted period of therapy. During the intermediate stage of therapy, the therapist takes a moderately directive role and helps clients make real changes in relationships and renegotiate their roles in interpersonal contexts. In the case of difficult role transitions, such as the transition to adulthood, clients are helped to mourn the old “adolescent” role by reviewing what was good and bad about it, clarify feelings about the new role, and explore opportunities that the new role offers. When anxieties about one’s ability to manage the new life stage successfully surface, expectations about what “being an adult” might be are discussed and readjusted if necessary. Sources of social support are identified and recruited and incentives for taking on new developmental challenges are created. The final stage of therapy acknowledges termination as a loss but also focuses on sustaining the gains made in therapy in the post-therapy social environment. Some techniques used in IPT include those common to supportive psychotherapies: questioning, clarification, support of emotional expression, behavior change strategies, and development of a strong therapeutic alliance. IPT has also been adapted for use with younger depressed adolescents (Mufson, Moreau, Weissman, & Klerman, 1993).

A key point in the interpersonal conceptualization of depression is its transactional emphasis. Unfortunately, it has been repeatedly demonstrated that depressed people suffer more frequent rejection from others than do nondepressed counterparts (Segrin & Abramson, 1994) and thus need to exert more effort and display more skill in order to overcome this social tendency. However, the life events that may have precipitated depression in vulnerable individuals in the first place, such as a move to a new school, reduction in contact with family and friends, and increased maturity demands, can produce symptoms (chronic fatigue, poor concentration, indecisiveness, sad mood, anhedonia, etc.) that make engaging in positive social interactions an enormous effort (Coyne, 1999). The vicious cycle is obvious. Regardless of theoretical bent, it is very important for helpers to pay serious attention to the environmental contexts that sustain depression. As Coyne warns, “depressed individuals’ statements about themselves and their relationships get interpreted as enduring cognitive structures, a 173 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

sociotropic trait, or working model of relationships, and these reified entities are then given causal priority over any interpersonal processes” (1999, p. 368). Even though IPT is an individual approach to counseling, including significant others in some manner in treatment can be done.

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Chapter 12 Socioemotional and Vocational Development in Young Adulthood Answers to Multiple Choice Questions Question Answer Number 1 c 2 d 3 c 4 d 5 c 6 d 7 b 8 a 9

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Answer Content Intimacy and generativity Nuclear family tradition Adult Attachment Interview (AAI) Autonomous, dismissive, preoccupied, unresolved Earned secure Preoccupied Romantic partners Fearful Failure to represent the continuum of individual differences Secure adult pairs with secure partner Highly anxious Ambivalent Good fit between job demands and individual’s characteristics Vocational environments Establishment stage Declining level of income Gender Stereotype threat Midlife The nuclear family tradition autonomous. unresolved. avoidant.

Becky’s infant attachment status is likely to be predictive of her adult attachment category.

Proximity maintenance Avoidance and anxiety secure an anxious She is likely to report a lack of trust in her relationship.

Anxious man with avoidant woman Ambivalent work with Danielle to recognize her style and help her match her career choice to her existing style.

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The exploratory stage How well personality characteristics match the demands of a job is an important ingredient in job satisfaction.

To get a better job Noncollege and college youth both rank good pay and opportunities for advancement in their work as important goals.

Education Opportunities for relationships with other people and altruism changed in some ways, but remained the same in others, particularly in that women still give greater priority to their role as caregiver, and men still give greater priority to their role as breadwinner.

Incremental theory She exhibits a helpless pattern. they either believe a negative stereotype about themselves or they fear that others will judge them based on the stereotype.

Establishing a therapeutic bond that functions as a secure base. have individual alliance building sessions with parents and with the adolescent to provide safe haven and empathy.

Suggested Answers to Essay Questions (Chapter 12) 45.

Explain Erikson’s concept of generativity. Which aspects of generativity seem to emerge in early adulthood and which aspects emerge in middle adulthood? What evidence is there for this developmental change?

For Erikson (e.g., 1950/1963), both intimacy (love) and generativity (work) are arenas for expressing and developing the self, dominating the concerns of adults in their young and middle years. True intimacy and generativity require achieving an adult identity and are part of its further enrichment and evolution. Generativity is a motive or need that can be filled through one’s vocation or avocations, through child rearing, or through community service. It includes productivity and creativity (Erikson, 1950/1963). Generativity is also a trait that people can be described as having when they are contributing members of society. “It is about generating: creating and producing things, people, and outcomes that are aimed at benefiting, in some sense, the next generation, and even the next” (McAdams, Hart, & Maruna, 1998). For most adults, achieving generativity is central to their belief in the meaningfulness of their lives. Erikson considered young adults to be especially driven by needs for intimacy, middle adults by needs for generativity. Modern research suggests that both are powerful influences on behavior throughout adulthood, although intimacy needs may predominate early and generativity needs later.

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46.

Attachment theory, originally formulated to explain infant-caregiver relationships, has been applied to understanding adult-adult relationships. Outline three ways in which this application can be useful to helping professionals.

Attachment theory has provided a framework for understanding many kinds of individual differences in adults’ behavior: how they react to bereavement and loss (Schenck, Eberle, & Rings, 2016); how they react to stress in general (Simpson & Rholes, 2012); their religious practices (Granqvist & Kirkpatrick, 2016); social information processing (Dykas & Cassidy, 2011); and conflict resolution.

Among helping professionals, attachment theory has been used to explain conflict resolution in interpersonal relationships (Rholes, Kohn, & Simpson, 2014), family dysfunction (Wiebe & Johnson, 2017), and psychopathology (Stovall-McClough & Dozier, 2016), and it provides a basis for therapeutic interventions (Berlin, Zeanah, & Lieberman, 2016; Josephs, 2018 ).

Chapter 12 focuses on the use of attachment patterns to understand an individual’s behaviors and relationships with her primary caregivers, her own children, and her romantic partners.

47.

Bandura’s notion of self-efficacy beliefs (closely related to Erikson’s sense of industry and Dweck’s mastery orientation), has been described as a useful target for clinical intervention. Describe the four major ways that Bussey and Bandura (1999) have suggested for promoting a client’s self-efficacy beliefs. Provide examples to illustrate how each might work.

Bussey and Bandura (1999) describe four major ways to instill a strong sense of selfefficacy.

1.

Construct and try out graded mastery experiences that are tailored to the individual’s level of ability and that maximize the chances of success. To do this effectively, helpers need to listen to clients explain why they try or don’t try certain activities and what they think are their roadblocks to success. In relation to career counseling, Betz (2004) suggests asking clients what they would choose to do if they could do “anything,” what skills they need to improve their career opportunities, and what they feel is standing in the way of improving their skills. These kinds of questions can reveal something about how clients view their own capabilities and limitations and thus provide a guide for selecting specific corrective experiences.

2.

Discuss or provide models who demonstrate success in an area of difficulty for the client. Successful models encourage individuals to believe in their own capacity for success and provide skills and know-how to the motivated observer. Keeping with the previous example, the counselor could ask the client to shadow an engineering student for a day as well as a practicing engineer.

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3.

4.

A third way to enhance self-efficacy is to apply social persuasion. This might be done by challenging erroneous beliefs about lack of ability, making attributions for failure to lack of effort (incremental) rather than lack of ability (fixed), and providing support as well as realistic, helpful suggestions for improvement. A client may respond to a simple test that proves hard work toward a goal overcomes a perceived obstacle such as perceived inability.

Finally, attempt to reduce coexisting factors that lower self-efficacy, such as stress, depression, or features of the environment, like restricted opportunity structure, whenever possible. A counselor might encourage a client to volunteer to do something that would set the stage for a supervisor to see more of his capabilities (while proving to himself that he has some control over his environment and has greater self-efficacy than he believed). By means of these processes, clients revise versions of their expectancies, which can lead to changes in behavior.

48.

Consider the similarities and differences between contemporary men and women with regard to their career choices, expectations, desires, and trajectories. In what ways are they the same and in what ways different? How have gender differences changed over the last half century with regard to career issues?

Many work-related gender differences have diminished, and some have even disappeared or reversed. Women now often choose majors in college that traditionally were the preserve of men, such as premed and business. Women earn as many or more graduate degrees as men. Half of all MDs are now earned by women, as well as the majority of doctoral degrees overall. Women constitute nearly half of the employed labor force, and in 2013, women filled about 51% of executive, administrative, and managerial positions in the United States, more than doubling their representation in these kinds of jobs over recent decades (U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, 2014). Still, the representation of women in various jobs within these categories is often linked to gender traditions. Women are particularly underrepresented in STEM fields that are math intensive, (Simon, Wagner, & Killion, 2017). They are over-represented in fields that involve primarily caregiving, such as nursing, social work, education, and child care (U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, 2014). Historical changes favoring greater gender equity have occurred even in these fields, however. For example, women earn nearly one third of the PhDs in mathematics today (as compared to about 6% in 1960); males are entering fields such as nursing and child care in increasing numbers as well.

Gender continues to be a powerful predictor of vocational interests, more so than other individual differences, such as race or ethnicity (Morris, 2016). Although men and women use most of the same criteria to evaluate potential careers (they try to match their interests, and they carefully consider professional advancement and income opportunities), women are more likely than men to consider relationships with people (opportunity for and kinds of) and altruistic concerns as important factors in selecting a career. A greater focus on relational/social elements of career choice may help explain why women with exceptional math ability are more likely to choose paths to social and health science careers than careers in the physical sciences. It is 178 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

also interesting to note that women with outstanding math skills also tend to have outstanding verbal skills, whereas that is less likely to be true for men. As a result, such women may see themselves as having a wider range of good career options (Wang, Eccles, & Kenny, 2013).

Gender differences in career choice are also influenced at least in part by gender-role beliefs and life style preferences (McDonald, 2018). Both men and women anticipate that marriage and parenting will be important to their lives, for example, but men give greater priority to their role as breadwinner in the family, and women give greater priority to their role as caregiver. Overall, women seem more concerned with worklife balance.

Despite some improvements, old habits do die hard. Women, for example, still make less money than men (U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, 2016). Unsurprisingly, researchers find that one contribution to earnings differences is the degree to which people endorse gendered separation of roles. In fact, women who endorse this view tend to earn less than other women, and men who endorse this view tend to earn more than other men (Judge & Livingston, 2008). “Overall, . . . although gender role attitudes are becoming less traditional for men and for women, traditional gender role orientation continues to exacerbate the gender wage gap” (Judge & Livingston, p.

994). Organizational structures, possibly constructed and maintained to build in certain privileges for select groups, are slow to change. Research has demonstrated that women in male-dominated occupations are not viewed as favorably as men, despite comparable skills. Their work is evaluated more negatively than men’s, and they face more exclusion from the kinds of informal networks and social activities that often pave the way for advancement in the workplace (Eagly & JohannesenSchmidt, 2001; Pringle et al., 2017). Clearly, both traditional gender roles and the realities of secular change are influencing career patterns for both women and men.

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Chapter 13 Middle Adulthood: Cognitive, Personality, and Social Development Answers to Multiple Choice Questions Question Answer Number 1 c 2 b 3 b 4 a 5 b 6 d 7 d 8 c 9 b 10 b 11 c 12 a 13 d 14 c 15 d 16 c 17 d 18 d 19 b 20 b 21 a 22

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Answer Content Hispanic females Life span developmental theory Maintenance Confidence Conscientiousness and agreeableness Decline in sensitivity to high-frequency sounds High level of stability Fluid intelligence Semantic memory Personality: changes in self-concept and self-expression Early middle adulthood Cohort effects Ratio of positive and negative factors Contempt, criticism, defensiveness, and stonewalling Middle childhood Women more likely to be democratic Telling life stories with “contamination” sequences Adaptation continues from birth to death.

Luke Linda Peggy Seeking counseling to help him deal with anxiety and learn about new career options Returning to physical therapy so that he can go back to his job as a truck driver Coming to terms with his injury and the loss of his job and income agreeableness, neuroticism, openness, extraversion and conscientiousness. age-related changes in personality traits are consistent across different cultural groups.

Mark’s parents did not try to make him more outgoing.

It will take longer than before for eyes to adapt to changes in light.

Generativity Striving to find a way to use one’s talent to give meaning to life and to the lives of other people mechanics / pragmatics 180

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32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41

b b d c a b c c d a

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Her son’s diagnosis of HIV She is in the sandwich generation. agency.

Social exchange theory Intrapersonal theory Negative affect reciprocity Contempt Strong power and achievement needs renegotiating the marital system as a dyad.

She will probably be agentic and democratic.

Joe’s overall life satisfaction will rise but will not return to baseline.

Suggested Answers to Essay Questions (Chapter 13) 43.

Relationships are complex, interdependent and changing. Identify effective therapeutic principles for understanding relationships and describe the basic goals most therapeutic approaches try to accomplish.

1. First, it’s important to help couples shift the way they see the presenting problem.

Therapists can facilitate movement from a personal/one-sided view to a systems perspective. Interestingly, the content of couples’ problem discussions remains remarkably stable over time. Fully 69% of the time, couples’ arguments are about a problem that has existed in the relationship for a long time (Gottman, 1999; Gottman & Silver, 2015). These “perpetual problems,” which have to do with partners’ personalities, may be expressed in the partners’ different behavioral styles or ways of approaching issues such as money, sex, or in-laws. As we have learned, there is evidence for continuity in many temperamental characteristics, and they constitute relatively stable features of individuals’ behavior and cognition throughout their life span. Based on his work, Gottman (1999) suggests that therapists “encourage couples to think of these relationship problems as inevitable, much the way we learn to deal with chronic physical ailments as we get older. We keep trying to make things a little better all the time, but we learn to live with these problems and manage our world so as to minimize them. . . . So it is in all relationships” (p. 57).

2. The second goal, across modalities, is to help couples reduce the amount of emotional distress and negativity in their relationships, especially when there is conflict. Emotions such as anger are highly arousing and can escalate into a cascade of negative feelings that shut down real communication. Gottman (1994) describes in precise detail how these escalating emotions affect interaction: “From the data gathered in our lab, we’ve seen how quickly discussions fall apart as soon as one spouse’s heart rate begins to soar. Because physical responses are such an accurate barometer of your ability to communicate at a particular moment, tracking your arousal level during intense conversation will help keep your discussions on track as well. (p. 176)” 181 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

This requires that each person be aware of his or her own physiological and emotional reactions. This as a multi-step process in actual practice: becoming aware of one’s reactivity and taking steps toward regulating it effectively. Awareness can be fostered by helping clients learn to take their pulse rate as a measure of physiological arousal, to learn to ask for and take time-outs, and to engage in relaxation activities in order to return to baseline levels of arousal, a process that takes an average of 20 minutes after becoming aroused.

3. Next, therapists across modalities help clients manage, understand and express emotions. Emotional suppression intensifies problematic interaction patterns and over-reactivity can lead to aggression. Partners can become trapped in destructive patterns of relating that create persistent distress . In the demand–withdraw pattern,( Eldridge & Christensen,, 2002) a very common communication pattern, one partner withdraws to escape the demands of the other and, as a result, demands escalate and withdrawal is reinforced. Most couple therapists, regardless of orientation, know to set clear limits on hostile and aggressive displays in therapy sessions to guard against further erosion of the partnership. Counselors are often called upon to help couples work on empathy-building, particularly when their attachment relationship is weakened due to neglect, injury, or prolonged conflict. Sometimes old wounds reemerge in the present and need to be readdressed. Success in relationships often depends upon “the wounded partner being able to express deep hurts and losses and the other partner staying emotionally engaged and actively responding to these emotions with compassion and comfort” (Johnson, 2003, p. 373). Browning’s (1998) empathy-expansion procedure helps partners address a long-standing relationship hurt through a specific process facilitated by the therapist. Through a sequence of steps, the counselor coaches one partner to recognize and apologize for the injury that has been causing the impasse. The goal is to enhance empathic responding and to give the aggrieved partner real validation for his or her pain. Clearly, this is most appropriate for couples who are motivated to put past hurts behind them and who are willing to “do whatever it takes” to mend the relationship.

4. Improving couple communication is the fourth principle. The emphasis on improving communication has a long-established history in marital therapy and in relationship education (Halford, Markman, Kline, & Stanley, 2003). The goal of such interventions is generally to help couples express their feelings and disagreements in ways the other can understand. What is critical here appears to be reducing the tendency to come out swinging when conflicts arise. Called “harsh startups” by Gottman and Silver (1999), a conversation about a problem that starts with criticism, contempt, or sarcasm is likely to become an argument that deteriorates quickly. This speedy buildup of emotional negativity results in feelings of being flooded and can lead one or both partners to protect themselves by stonewalling. Taking a “softer” approach when addressing potentially difficult issues can reduce defensive responding and maintain a more positive state.

5. Finally, teaching couples to focus on positive aspects of the relationship and to practice relationship maintenance skills on a regular basis is the final goal.

Relationship maintenance refers to those actions and interactions that sustain the desired quality of relationship or repair a relationship once there is a rupture. Simply stated, relationships tend to flourish when the psychological atmosphere is positive, 182 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

and they tend to deteriorate when it becomes negative. In the intimate world of close relationships, individuals do not need so much for their partners to solve their problems as for their partners to see and validate what they’re going through. It appears that relationship satisfaction is not only related to how conflicts are resolved but also to the quality of the emotional connection constructed bit by bit though the mundane interchanges that fill couples’ lives. These aspects of a relationship appear to be amenable to therapeutic intervention, whereas, many cultural, contextual, historical and personality variables are not amenable to intervention. Maintenance skills, however, offer couples the possibility of relationship change.

44.

Compare and contrast Erikson’s view of midlife with that of Vaillant.

Erikson and Valliant are stage theorists who focus on the exploration and commitment toward life tasks people face throughout the lifespan. Both Erikson and Vaillant suggest that certain life tasks occur in relatively predictable sequence.

Initially people deal with intimacy needs and later shift to generativity needs. Vaillant suggests that middle adulthood unfolds in two stages (early middle adulthood and late middle adulthood).

Erikson (e.g., 1950/1963) describes three stages in self-development in adulthood, based on the kinds of life tasks that become most important to people as they find themselves fully matured and facing the fact that this is the one life that they have to live. Very briefly, in young adulthood, intimacy (vs. isolation) is one’s quest: finding a way to validate and expand her own sense of self by committing to a shared life with others. In middle adulthood, generativity (vs. stagnation) becomes most important, giving one’s own life purpose by producing and building for the next generation, through work, community service, or child rearing. By old age, establishing ego integrity (vs. despair) becomes life’s task. Ideally, a process of life review helps the elderly adult to develop a sense that her own life is “something that had to be,” that she has lived a life that has order, meaning, and dignity.

Vaillant (1993; 2012) suggests that two more adult life stages should be added to Erikson’s scheme, reflecting that forming deep bonds, becoming productive, and finding meaning in one’s life are recurring themes throughout adulthood. In one’s mid-20s, career consolidation (vs. self-absorption) is a key focus of self-development.

In this phase of life, in addition to ongoing intimacy concerns, making a commitment to work that brings personal satisfaction, regardless of its other rewards, rather than just having a job, becomes important. The most positive development for this period is that such a commitment emerges as an important part of one’s identity.

Vaillant also described a stage that comes near the end of Erikson’s generativity stage, in late middle adulthood. This he called the keeper of meaning (vs. rigidity) stage, when the adult expands her generative concerns beyond just making a productive contribution, in order to actually preserve something that is part of the culture. In this sense, adults seek ways to establish the meaningfulness of the work or contributions they have made.

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45.

Describe sources of stability and sources of change in adult life.

Longitudinal studies have found substantial stability in personality characteristics across the life span (McAdams & Olson, 2010; Roberts, Walton, & Viechtbauer, 2006). In the 1980s, researchers recognized that the thousands of words referring to personality characteristics could be reliably boiled down to five, what McCrae and Costa called the Five Factor or Big 5 model of personality (Costa & McCrae, 2017; McCrae & Costa, 2008). These five traits represent the most basic dimensions of personality: neuroticism (N) or emotional stability, extraversion (E), openness (O), agreeableness (A), and conscientiousness (C).

As multidimensional models of development predict, personality features are shaped by both biological and socio-contextual circumstances. The transactional interplay between individual and context is what sculpts personality. Viewed from this perspective, personality or trait consistency will be highest if other variables, in addition to biology, provide support or scaffolding for that consistency. Another possible explanation for continuity is that certain kinds of personality styles show more consistency than others. Generally, people who possess resilient characteristics tend to be more stable and consistent throughout life.

There are many changes to which an adult must adapt. Some changes may be strongly age determined or age graded, such as physical changes that come more or less inevitably with time. Some changes are more a function of historical circumstance and are called history-graded changes. These include events that we share with our whole cohort, like living through the Great Depression or the Iraq War. Some circumstances that affect people’s lives can be unique to cultural groups. Finally, there are changes that apply specifically to our own lives. These are nonnormative changes, often accidents of fate, like being in a train wreck or winning the lottery.

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Chapter 14 Living Well: Stress, Coping, and Life Satisfaction in Adulthood Answers to Multiple Choice Questions Question Answer Number 1 b 2

d

3 4 5 6

c a c c

7

d

8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

b a b c d b c a c b d c a

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c c a a c

Answer Content Happiness Frequency of positive and of negative affective experiences American paradox Hedonic treadmill of wealth addiction Conscientiousness correlates positively The happiest people have good social relationships.

Generativity in work and nonwork settings correlates with well-being.

Eudaemonic well-being Social status Autonomy, competence, and relatedness Finding one’s true meaning or value Spiritual transcendence Denmark Post-traumatic growth Decrease in cortisol production Decision making and anxiety management General sense of self-efficacy Withdrawal and avoidance Louise and Brenda are probably still about equally happy.

Daniel is probably happier than Bill.

They are good friends who are willing to help each other in difficult times.

Feeling that one is making competent progress toward challenging goals psychological well-being. situational meaning. the regulation of negative or destructive emotions.

Sylvia and Joanne are both likely to benefit from their daily contemplative practices.

Stage 5: Conjunctive role strain. daily hassles. a diathesis. post-traumatic growth.

185

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32 33 34

d a c

35

a

36

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37 38 39

c d b

infectious agents. problem-focused and emotion-focused. negative affectivity.

Positive affectivity is related to higher levels of left prefrontal cortical activity.

Ernest is experiencing the effects of loss of status following the termination. can be cultivated by everyone. decentering oneself from one’s negative thoughts. mindfulness.

Suggested Answers to Essay Questions (Chapter 14) 40.

Beverly is a slim, beautiful woman of 60. She has two grown children and one grandchild who is cared for by a full-time nanny. Beverly lives in a spacious suburban home on a large, multi-acre lot, and she employs a housekeeper and groundskeeper part-time to take care of the house and yard. She believes that she is fortunate to live such an affluent lifestyle, but recently she has been more and more overcome by feelings of sadness. She has thought about seeking counseling but feels foolish and guilty, as though she has no right to her feelings. Beverly’s distress seems to illustrate “the American paradox.” Explain the American paradox and identify some possible sources of the paradox in Beverly’s life.

The American paradox, which characterizes many wealthy nations, is that as income and standard of living have increased steadily in recent decades, so have emotional problems such as depression. There may be several reasons, among which are that pursuit of material gain may put many people on a hedonic treadmill. Because they expect more money to make them happier, when it doesn’t they feel compelled to further pursue material gain. Also, the lifestyles made possible by affluence tend to reduce the need for support from others, limiting opportunities for others to demonstrate genuine friendship. When monetary wealth can’t create a “perfect” life, people may blame themselves, fostering depression. While having wealth is protective against some negative consequences, like homelessness, it does not add to one’s subjective feeling of happiness after a certain point.

Social relationships appear to be essential to well-being. Giving and receiving social support are both important. Having friends, confidants, and marriage partners are all linked to well-being. Beverly may not have a significant support group with a spouse or life partner and strong social connections with friends.

Work also is linked to life-satisfaction. Beverly may lack purpose and a sense of generativity. People who feel generative report more well-being. Making progress toward goals and having opportunities to exercise skills is associated with wellbeing, particularly when balanced with needs for relatedness.

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Affluent people are able to make choices and control much of their lives, but when they are not able to control events or people, they may blame themselves, experience depression, confusion, or guilt. Beverly may be experiencing aspects of life that seem beyond her control or aspects that money can’t fix.

41.

Based on research findings, discuss the role religiosity plays in well-being.

Large representative studies show that religion increases SWB for people in the United States, even after their life circumstances are taken into account (Lim, 2015).

Across the world’s four major religions, Hinduism, Christianity, Buddhism, and Islam, adherents tended to report higher SWB in each of its three dimensions compared to nonreligious counterparts.

Diener and colleagues (2011) showed that economic development and security contribute to religiosity both at individual and societal levels. In countries where life circumstances were more difficult, levels of religiosity tended to be high and being religious added to SWB. Nonreligious individuals in religious societies tended to report the least SWB, especially in terms of social support and positive affect. An inverse relationship was found for relatively advantaged countries where, in general, level of need was low and security was high. In these societies, organized religion was rated as less important to overall happiness.

In addition to life satisfaction and meaning, religious affiliation has been associated with better health outcomes, such as reduced coronary disease, lower blood pressure, less suicidality and lower overall mortality (Masters & Hooker, 2013). Bailey’s (1998) work with Christian-identified groups in Great Britain distinguished between explicit (church-attending Christian) and implicit (non-church attending) groups in order to assess whether religiosity provided some of these advantages to both groups.

Both Eastern and Western religions and philosophies prescribe regulation of negative or destructive emotions, like anger and envy. Some religious movements (e.g., charismatic movements) also emphasize cultivating strong positive emotions, but others foster moderation of all emotional reactions (Emmons & Paloutzian, 2003). after many kinds of negative life experiences—divorce, unemployment, death of a child, and so on—religious people seem to recover more happiness more quickly than the nonreligious (e.g., Ellison, 1991). These benefits are more likely to accrue to people who are active religious participants (attending services, praying, meditating) than to those who describe themselves as pro-religious but are not active practitioners (Berthold & Ruch,2014).

Another important reason why religious belief benefits people may be that religious communities provide their members with social support, a critical ingredient in wellbeing (Myers, 2000). The role of religion in fostering hope and optimism may also be important.

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It should be noted that religions, like all human institutions, also have their darker side. Although some religious doctrines and practices foster positive feelings, such as hope and compassion, others foster emotions and attitudes, such as guilt and fear of retribution, which can be harmful in excess. Some religious doctrines and beliefs encourage a distrust or intolerance of others, especially outgroup members, or promote retribution or revenge against those who are construed as evil or guilty (Chatters, 2000). For some individuals, religion engenders profound personal struggles and doubts about beliefs and practices that can lead to depression, anxiety and health problems (Ellison & Lee, 2010). Current evidence suggests that only positive elements of religious doctrine are correlated with well-being (Pargament, Smith, Koenig, & Perez, 1998).

42.

Explain the nature of stress and its effects on the body-mind. Identify approaches to stress management that incorporate advances in the science of mind-body medicine.

Stressors engage the body’s autonomic nervous system, activating the HPA axis, causing the release of hormones into the bloodstream, and preparing the body to respond to the perceived attack. Although this process serves us well in emergency situations or in relatively short hormonal bursts, there are costs associated with chronic activation of the system (McEwen et al, 2015; Sapolsky, 1992). For example, during the acute phase of the body’s stress response, immune system functioning is depressed. Energy reserves need to be devoted to the immediate fight-flight-freeze response and any alternative expenditure of energy, such as that required for reproductive system functions, is suppressed in service of the more immediate need.

If homeostasis does not resume following the acute stress-response phase, the ill effects of chronic stress result. Chronically increased levels of cortisol, the body’s primary stress hormone, are linked to cardiovascular decline in middle-aged and older adults (e.g., Hawkley & Caccioppi, 2007). High levels of cortisol can also dysregulate immune functions and reduce the body’s capacity to protect itself against disease.

Another immune system process, inflammation, is also affected when the body confronts chronic stressors (Kiecolt-Glaser, Derry, & Fagundes, 2015; Stein, Naudé, & Berk, 2018). Chronic stress exposure increases cortisol production, but also desensitizes the immune cells’ ability to respond to cortisol’s instructions to inhibit inflammatory processes. Consequently, high concentrations of proinflammatory cytokines, which are related to maladaptive inflammation, go unchecked. Many disease conditions, such as cardiovascular disease, allergies, rheumatoid arthritis, and other autoimmune disorders, have been associated with unregulated inflammatory processes (Kemeny, 2003; Steptoe, Willemsen, Owen, Flower, & Mohamed-Ali, 2001).

Maier and Watkins (1998) conclude from their review of research that psychological stressors, such as traumatic environmental events, operate on the body in much the same way as infectious agents. The effects on the body can include some combination of fever, increased sleep, reduction in eating and drinking, reduced exploration and activity, reduced aggression, reduction in social interaction, cognitive alterations, increased pain sensitivity, increased HPA activity, and depressed mood. Certain types 188 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

of depression are likely associated with hyperactivation of the immune response, even though the precise direction of these effects is still unclear. The important point in this discussion is the establishment of the connection between emotional experiences and the dysregulation of body mechanisms (like immune system functioning).

Evidence has clearly supported the existence of bidirectional communication processes between the brain and the immune systems in relation to stressors, be they psychological or physical (Pert, 1997; Sternberg, 2001). What may be most important to remember in all this is that the brain is the central organ of stress management.

A general sense of self-efficacy (Bandura, 1989), optimism (Schier & Carver, 1985), self-esteem (Rosenberg, 1979), personal control over important goals (Seligman, 1975), and social support (Sarason & Sarason, 1985) are among the characteristics that are associated with greater physical and emotional health and effective coping.

In general, strengthening emotion regulation, reducing the anxiety induced by threats, and cultivating positive emotions are increasingly viewed as antidotes to stress and health-compromising emotional states like anger and hostility (e.g., Goleman, 2003; Lyubomirsky, King, & Diener, 2005; Hölzel et al., 2011; Srivastava, McGonigal, Richards, Butler, & Gross, 2006). Some suggest that such emotion-related skills can be shifted from temporary states to more permanent traits with practice (Goleman & Davidson, 2017).

One of the most promising approaches to cultivating the skills of emotion regulation and wellbeing is meditation. Meditation is a means of mental training and refers to a “family of complex emotional and attentional regulatory training regimes developed for various ends, including the cultivation of well-being and emotional balance” (Lutz, Slagter, Dunne, & Davidson, 2008, p. 163). While there are many ways to train the mind, through yoga, Qigong, reflection, prayer, etc. mindfulness meditation is a form of training that has been researched extensively in recent years.

Because the brain is our gatekeeper for stress, improving its ability to respond to events in a more regulated, less reactive way could reduce the harmful impact of a stress-system on overdrive. It is also reasonable to conclude that practicing a positive emotional style may serve as an antidote, buffering the effects of stress. Mindfulness and positive emotions, states of mind that can be practiced, promote recovery from stress.

43.

Lennox is a 36-year-old man who feels mildly to moderately depressed and anxious much of the time, despite the fact that circumstances in his life are going smoothly. He comes to a counselor because he feels he is heading for a depressive episode. Using the kindling-sensitization model, what explanation can you give for his experience?

A psychological model that has been useful in explaining how cumulative stressors create vulnerability is called kindling-behavioral sensitization. This model has contributed to understanding mechanisms of drug addiction, epilepsy, and affective disorders (Post, 1985, 2007, 2016). Think of ‘sensitization’ as increasing reactivity 189 Copyright © 2020, 2015, 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All Rights Reserved

such that, after multiple, intermittent doses of something like a drug, a stressor, or some emotional experience, a chemical memory of the exposure remains. Chronic exposure is more likely to produce tolerance or lower sensitivity. Intermittent exposure, however, results in sensitization, a gradual increases in sensitivity to stressful triggers resulting in progressive illness severity or illness incidence, even in the absence of a trigger.

Research has now advanced beyond theoretical formulations to clarify what these processes look like at the cellular level. We now know that there are multiple pathways for epigenetic modifications. Certain experiences, like substandard early caregiving, can alter genes related to stress system functioning by silencing or dampening genes’ expression (See Chapter 2). Many genetic markers can be affected, and various types of genetic modifications are presently being studied. One process, methylation, has been associated with development of depression and PTSD after trauma (Zovkic & Sweatt, 2013). An initial episode of depression may be triggered by stressful life events (Dohrenwend & Dohrenwend, 1974), which leaves residual neurological changes in neurotransmitters, receptors, etc. that render him more reactive to stressors. Following this experience of sensitization, subsequent episodes of depression can occur spontaneously or with very little external provocation (Kendler, Thornton & Gardner, 2001).

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Chapter 15 Gains and Losses in Late Adulthood Answers to Multiple Choice Questions Question Answer Number 1 c 2 a 3 d 4 d 5 b 6 c 7 b 8 d 9 d 10 a 11 d 12 c 13

d

14 15

b d

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18 19 20 21

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a c a b b b a a

Answer Content Half of women and 40% of men Slower processing speed Alzheimer’s disease Daily exercise and cognitive stimulation Memories from young adulthood Less active, impulsive, extroverted Familiarization Retreaters Stage 4, stability Positive relationships Begets resistance Factual knowledge about life, human nature, relationships The number of very close social partners remains the same.

Prevent sensory deficits 80% Providing treatment even when the patient refuses treatment Manage patient symptoms and let them maintain control of their care.

Ruminating to make sense of the inexplicable Restoration focused activities osteoarthritis. terminal drop. the large number of autobiographical memories that are retained from the late adolescent through early adult period.

Elderly women are more likely to be seen in a negative way. selection. compensation.

Autonomy feeling confident in relationships with friends. is less characteristic of 20-year-olds than 60-year-olds.

She is using an emotion-focused mechanism.

She is using a problem-focused mechanism.

Clinical psychology 191

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32

b

33

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c

35 36

d c

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39

a

Elderly people report less anxiety about death than middleaged adults.

Pain management and emotional care medication that is given to relieve pain even when this may also result in death.

Bowlby.

Those who tried but failed to find meaning in their loss Honeymoon, disenchantment, reorientation, stability, termination increasing use of secondary control strategies with age. death comes to be seen as a natural stage of life, not something to be feared.

Suggested Answers to Essay Questions (Chapter 15) 40.

Explain the three combined processes of successful development called “selective optimization with compensation.” Provide a clear example of this process at work and specify which aspects of your example illustrate selection, optimization, and compensation.

Baltes and colleagues refer to “selective optimization with compensation” to describe how aging adults adapt to, or cope with, the increasing losses they encounter. The model includes three combined and cumulative processes of successful coping. The first process, selection, involves the narrowing of our goals and limiting the domains in which we expend effort. For example, at age 62 a person may start to alter her career goals and reconsider the legacy she hopes to leave in her field. The second process, optimization, involves finding ways to enhance the achievement of remaining goals or finding environments that are enhancing. For example, a man may leave the home he has lived in for decades in order to be closer to his children. The final process, compensation, occurs when a loss of some kind prevents the use of one means to an end and we compensate by finding another means. For example, a man who has enjoyed running in midlife finds that a knee replacement at age 67 requires replacing running with bicycle riding. We can see in the model (Baltes et al., 2006) that goals and means to goals play a prominent role in understanding how people learn to navigate the three processes of selection, optimization, and compensation.

The following survey questions demonstrate how Baltes and colleagues measure “selective optimization with compensation” in their research: o Selection- “When I think about what I want in life, I commit myself to one or two.” o Optimization- “When things aren’t going so well, I accept help from others”. o Compensation- “When things don’t go as well as they used to, I keep trying other ways until I can achieve the same result I used to.”

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41.

What is a dual-process model of the grief process? Explain why the available research indicates that a complex model of this sort is needed.

An integrated perspective on grief is needed. As research in the area of grief increases, more sophisticated models of grieving have been developed (Rubin, Witztum, & Malkinson, 2017). One such model that weaves together some of the theoretical and empirical threads described above is the dual-process model proposed by Stroebe and Schut (1999; 2010). This conceptualization depicts an interplay of stressors and coping strategies within a flexible, oscillating framework.

Specifically, the authors propose that bereaved individuals simultaneously engage in two kinds of coping mechanisms, approach and avoidance, that wax and wane over the course of grieving.

Approach tendencies are reflected in activities synonymous with grief work: confronting the painful reality of death, expressing sadness, and gradually desensitizing oneself to the reminders of loss. Approach tendencies can be tolerated for only so long. They are loss focused and can lead to rumination or excessive preoccupation and, often, great distress.

According to the dual-process model, the loss-focused work of grieving is balanced by parallel activities that are restoration focused. This type of coping strategy is directed toward handling the practical tasks that need to be done to carry on with daily life. For example, a widow might experience intense periods of grief during which she focuses on memories of her life with her deceased spouse; however, she might also have dependent children who need care. Attending to their needs serves as a distraction, mitigating the periods of loss-related distress. Both loss and restoration coping strategies are part of the grieving process, and Stroebe and Schut view their dynamic oscillation as a healthy regulatory mechanism. Bereaved individuals go back and forth between emotion-focused (loss-oriented) and problem-focused (restorationoriented) modes of coping. This approach-avoidance interplay protects bereaved individuals from the exacting extremes of unrelieved distress or rigid mental suppression. In general, there is more loss-oriented coping early in the grieving process and more restoration-oriented coping at later points. Traditional conceptions of abnormal grief can be viewed as “disturbances of oscillation” (Stroebe & Schut, 2010, p. 285), either overly loss oriented or excessively avoidant. Figure 15.7 presents a diagram of the dual-process model of coping.

42.

In counseling elderly clients, success depends on being flexible and making accommodations that meet their specific needs. Discuss three ways in which flexibility is needed and explain why.

Myers and Harper (2004) offer useful suggestions for clinicians who work with older clients. In general, helpers who work with this population may be younger than their clients. Consequently, more time and sensitivity are required to build rapport with individuals who may be less comfortable with sharing feelings or with asking questions of “authority” figures.

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Younger professionals also need to be prepared to deal nondefensively with older clients who might view them as unable to understand the lived experience of old age.

Lengthening the sessions in individual counseling and increasing the number of sessions for support groups or other group therapy formats is more important in reducing relapse for older clients than for younger ones.

Psychological treatments should be modified as well. Many typical counseling approaches can be accommodated to meet the needs of older clients (Gellis & Kenaley, 2008; Kennedy, & Tanenbaum, 2000). Some of these modifications are summarized in Table 15.6.

Helpers can seek opportunities to educate families and healthcare providers on the damaging impacts of aging stereotypes, and also can support older adult clients in advocating for their own care. Furthermore, sources of concrete information about how to cope with getting old (Butler, 2009), how to understand the perspective of elders (Pipher, 1999), and how to deal with dementia (Mace & Rabins, 1999) can help clinicians build their foundation of knowledge. Whitbourne (1989) summarizes the task: The main point that a clinician must keep foremost in mind when working with an aging client is the need to be flexible. The aging process involves multiple physical, psychological, and social demands that can all potentially impact on the individual’s ability to function. Clinicians may be called upon to perform advocacy services, environmental interventions, and interdisciplinary consultations, which they would not ordinarily regard as falling within the domain of “psychotherapy.” It is only by maintaining an open approach to the multiple needs of the aged client that the clinician can hope to bring about successful change.

The flexibility described by Whitbourne above should extend to the physical environment in which counseling is provided. For example, older clients may have physical limitations that affect their ability to sit for long periods or may need modifications to assessment procedures due to hearing or vision problems. Lyness (2004) advises medical and counseling professionals who work with an older population to screen routinely for depression and other mental health issues because mental health concerns can be the underlying cause of many other presenting problems, and can complicate assessment and treatment for comorbid conditions.

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