Test Bank For Principles of Athletic Training A Guide to Evidence-Based Clinical Practice, 18th Edition by William Prentice Chapter 1-29 Answers are at the End of Each Chapter Chapter 1
Student name:__________ 1) What establishment during the nineteenth century assisted in making athletic training as it is
known today? A) Intercollegiate and interscholastic athletics B) World War I C) Title IX D) Olympics E) Cramer products
2) Which physician authored the first major text on athletic training titled The Trainer’s Bible? A) Cramer B) Gardner C) Arnheim D) Bilik E) Prentice
3) What is the title of the monthly member magazine of the National Athletic Trainers’
Association? A) NATA News B) Athletic Training Education Journal C) Journal of Sports Medicine D) Training and Conditioning E) Journal of Athletic Training
4) Which of the following organizations is “dedicated to transforming lives and revolutionizing
the health and fitness industry”? A) American Physical Therapy Association, Sports Physical Therapy Section B) National Academy of Sports Medicine C) National Strength and Conditioning Association D) International Federation of Sports Medicine E) American College of Sports Medicine
5) What organization has the position that all secondary schools should provide the services of a
full-time, on-site, certified athletic trainers to student-athletes? A) The National Athletic Trainers Association B) American College of Sports Medicine C) American Physical Therapy Association D) NCAA E) American Academy of Pediatrics
6) Which organization adopted a policy that “called for certified athletic trainers to be employed
in all secondary-school athletic programs”? A) American Medical Association B) National Collegiate Athletic Association Committee on Competitive Safeguards and Medical Aspects of Sports C) American Orthopedic Society for Sports Medicine D) National High School Association E) American Academy of Pediatrics, Sports Committee
7) What employment setting allows the athletic trainer to address appropriate workplace
ergonomic techniques to reduce or minimize the possible risks for injury? A) military/law enforcement B) industrial/occupational C) colleges/universities D) clinics/hospitals E) performing arts/professional sports
8) Of all the professional behaviors that an athletic trainer should possess, which would best
describe the ability to adapt to the constant state of high emotional arousal and anxiety during the working day? A) Communication B) Ethical Practice C) Empathy D) Stamina and Ability to Adapt E) Sense of Humor
9) Which of the following statements is an inaccurate ethical principle based on the NATA’s
code of ethics? A) Members shall respect the rights, welfare, and dignity of all individuals. B) Members shall accept responsibility for the exercise of sound judgment. C) Members shall comply with the laws and regulations governing the practice of athletic training, National Athletic Trainers Association, NATA membership standards, and the NATA Code of Ethics. D) Members shall maintain and promote high standards in their provision of services. E) Members shall not engage in conduct that could be construed as a conflict of interest, reflects negatively on the athletic training profession, or jeopardizes a patient’s health and well-being.
10) Who determines the competencies that should be taught in entry-level education programs
that are accredited by the CAATE? A) The Professional Education Committee B) The Commission on Accreditation of Athletic Training Education (CAATE) C) The Board of Certification D) The National Athletic Trainers Association E) The Education Council
11) What would be considered an unessential duty of the team physician? A) diagnosing and treating injuries and other illnesses B) advising an athlete about health matters C) serving as an advisor to the athletic trainer D) deciding when, on medical grounds, athletes should be disqualified from participation E) serving as the medical director for an accredited athletic training program
12) Coaching is an area of specialization that is under the sports medicine “umbrella.” What
medical role can this area serve? A) The coach is directly responsible for preventing injuries. B) The coach is directly responsible for providing acute care such as CPR. C) The coach is directly responsible for acting as a First Responder. D) The coach is directly responsible for determining return to play. E) The coach is directly responsible for monitoring inclement weather.
13) What state has no regulation in regard to athletic trainers? A) Colorado B) Iowa C) California D) New York E) Florida
14) What is the name of the organization whose purpose is to provide a certification program for
entry-level athletic trainers and recertification standards for certified athletic trainers? A) BOC B) NATA C) CAATE D) CHEA E) CAAHEP
15) When an athletic trainer treats a patient using evidence they received from the current best
available evidence in professional literature it is called A) evidence-based practice. B) PICO. C) systematic reviews. D) PEDro scale. E) PROMs.
16) Which of the following types of research would be considered the most rigorous? A) anecdotal B) clinical practice guidelines C) case studies D) cohort studies E) randomized controlled trials
17) Which of the following represents what the “C” stands for in the acronym PICO? A) cause B) comparison C) care D) clinical E) critical
18) Which database currently holds the most comprehensive collection of systematic reviews for
athletic trainers? A) Scientific American Medicine B) ACP Journal Club C) The Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews D) Physiotherapy Evidence Database E) New Castle
19) Which of the following personal qualities are important for a good athletic trainer? A) empathy B) intellectual curiosity C) discipline D) sense of humor E) assertiveness F) aggressiveness
20) Please identify which patient-related outcome measures are specifically used for pain. A) Lower Extremity Functional Scale B) Neck Disability Index C) Upper Extremity Functional Index D) Numeric Pain Rating Scale E) Disablement in the Physically Active Scale F) Patient-Specific Functional Scale G) Short-form McGill Pain Questionnaire
Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 1) A
Athletic training as we know it came into existence during the late nineteenth century with the firm establishment of intercollegiate and interscholastic athletes in the United States. 2) D
Dr. S. E. Bilik, a physician who wrote the first major text in 1917 on athletic training and the care of athletic injuries called The Trainer’s Bible, was a major influence in developing the athletic trainer as a specialist in preventing and managing athletic injuries. 3) A
NATA News is a monthly magazine published for members of the National Athletic Trainers’ Association. 4) B
The National Academy of Sports Medicine is dedicated to transforming lives and revolutionizing the health and fitness industry through its unwavering commitment to deliver innovative education, solutions, and tools that produce remarkable results. 5) A
The medical delivery system for injured student-athletes needs a coordinator within the local school community who will facilitate the prevention, recognition, treatment, and reconditioning of sports-related injuries. Therefore, it is the position of the National Athletic Trainers’ Association that all secondary schools should provide the services of full-time, on-site, certified athletic trainer (ATC) to student-athletes. 6) A
The American Medical Association has “called for certified athletic trainers to be employed in all secondary-school athletic programs be used as part of a high school’s medical team.”
7) B
The athletic trainer working in an industrial or occupational setting must have a sound understanding of the principles and concepts of workplace ergonomics, including inspecting, measuring, and observing dimensions of the work space, as well as specific tasks that are performed at the work station. 8) D
Athletic training requires abundant energy, vitality, and physical/emotional stability. Every day brings new challenges and problems that must be solved. The athletic trainer must be able to adapt to new situations with ease. 9) B
In 2005, the NATA revised code of ethics. “Members shall accept responsibility for the exercise of sound judgment” was removed. 10) [A, B]
The Professional Education Committee determines the competencies that should be taught in entry-level education programs that are accredited by the CAATE. 11) E
In reference to Focus Box 1-6, serving as the medical director for an accredited athletic training program is not a listed duty for the team physician or a requirement for a CAATE-accredited athletic training program. 12) A
The coach is directly responsible for preventing injuries by seeing that athletes have undergone a preventive injury conditioning program. They must also ensure that sports equipment, especially protective equipment, is of the highest quality and is properly fitted. 13) C
As of 2023, California is the only state with no regulation for athletic trainers. 14) A
The Board of Certification’s purpose is to provide a certification program for entry-level athletic trainers and recertification standards for certified athletic trainers. 15) A
Evidence-based practice is making decisions about the clinical care of individual patients based on the current best available evidence in the professional literature. 16) E
Among the different types of research, randomized controlled trials (meta-analyses and systematic reviews) are the most rigorous. 17) B
C stands for Comparison. When developing a PICO, a comparison of the alternatives that might be used in the intervention should be completed. 18) C
The Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews currently contains the largest database and is recommended that athletic trainers begin their search of systematic reviews here. 19) [A, B, D]
Empathy, intellectual curiosity, and a sense of humor are essential qualities for a good athletic trainer. 20) [D, G]
The Numeric Pain Rating Scale & the Short-form McGill Pain Questionnaire are both outcome measures used for pain.
Student name:__________ 21) How does a clearly written mission statement influence the outcome of the strategic planning
process when establishing a system for athletic training health care? A) It helps involve all personnel within the healthcare program. B) It establishes why a healthcare program is needed. C) It focuses the direction of the healthcare program. D) It creates the goals of the healthcare program. E) It takes a critical look at the strength and weaknesses of the healthcare program.
22) What is the athletic training program’s primary purpose when performing a SWOT analysis? A) to discover overspending on supplies B) to discover weaknesses of staff skills and treatment protocols C) to discover the potential of creating a brand-new athletic training program D) to discover the program’s overall value of return based on patient treatments E) to discover the program’s overall strengths, weaknesses, opportunities for growth, and
threats to productivity
23) What is the primary purpose of creating a program policy and procedure manual for an
athletic training program? A) to establish the daily order of operations of all staff members B) to identify basic rules and principles used to control and expedite decision making C) to define the scope of practice within the athletic training program and profession D) to decide the extent to which patients will be served E) to assign proper personnel coverage for the clinic population or specific sports
24) Within the scope of an athletic training program, what should be considered when offering
medical services to members in the community? A) legality and the institution’s insurance program B) age, gender, and ethnicity of the patient C) proof of insurance for the patient D) conflict of interest to local rehabilitation facilities E) size and limitation of space within own facility
25) When deciding how to provide medical coverage for multiple athletic teams, what should the
athletic trainer put into consideration when making the decision as to which team should receive on-site coverage? A) provide for only in-season sports B) base it on distance to the athletic training room facility C) provide for athletic teams that have potential of play-off contention D) base it on potential risk and number of athletes involved E) base it on number of injuries sustained during the last year
26) Of the following examples, which of the following would contribute to practicing unhealthy
habits in an athletic setting? A) avoid drinking from a common water dispenser B) be sure to change socks after any physical activity C) share sideline towels D) avoid contact with teammates who have a contagious disease or infection E) shower after practice
27) When developing a risk management plan, what would be considered a non-relevant issue to
address? A) fire safety B) emergency action plans C) security issues D) electrical and equipment safety E) OSHA rules and regulations
28) How often should electrical equipment be reevaluated, or calibrated? A) every year B) every two years C) every three years D) every time an accredited program goes up for re-accreditation E) upon the individual manufacturer’s recommendation
29) If an athletic trainer were to open a privately owned clinic, what would be an essential factor
to consider when choosing a good location? A) Will doctors refer patients to this clinic? B) Is there a public billboard near for advertising? C) Will a local hospital help with your patient overflow? D) Is there a physical therapy business that would refer clients? E) Would an area doctor be willing to contract to hire you as a physician extender?
30) Athletic trainers are becoming more diversified with job placement. What other athletic
training duty involves providing intensive outpatient therapy for individuals injured on the job with the goal of regaining functionality and returning to work in a full duty capacity? A) ergonomic assessments B) work hardening/conditioning programs C) wellness centers D) community outreach and marketing E) corporate fitness programs
31) What is a disadvantage of using electronic medical records? A) Portability of documents allows access to multiple healthcare providers. B) Cost factors are absorbed by the physician. C) Errors are increased due to open access within an office. D) Cyber-security issues threaten patient privacy. E) They contradict the effectiveness of electronic health records.
32) What is the full meaning of the HIPAA abbreviation? A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act B) Health Insurance Process and Application Act C) Health Is Private and Accessible Act D) Having Insurance Prevents Actual Access E) Health Insurance Portability and Application Act
33) What is the Tanner Stage of maturity when a male has present: pubic hair becomes darker
and coarser, begins to curl, and spreads over the pubic region? A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4 E) Stage 5
34) Who is the best suggested medical professional that should perform a clinical examination of
heart and lung sounds on a patient during a preparticipation examination? A) student athletic trainer B) certified athletic trainer C) physician’s assistant D) nurse E) physician
35) What muscle is being assessed during the orthopedic screening if the patient is instructed to
shrug the shoulders against the examiner’s resistance? A) shoulder motion B) deltoid strength C) trapezius strength D) acromioclavicular joint stability E) bicep strength
36) Doing a toe stand and heel walk will assist in determining ROM to what structure A) gastrocnemius. B) deltoid. C) trapezius. D) cervical spine. E) hamstring muscles.
37) Please check all of the following conditions that would recommend disqualification from a
contact or collision sport. A) absence of one kidney B) atlantoaxial instability C) inguinal hernia D) absence of an ovary E) carditis F) enlarged liver G) asthma H) sickle cell I) mild hypertension J) enlarged spleen K) absence of a testicle
38) How many elements does the American Heart Association suggest are a part of the
cardiovascular screen? A) 5 elements B) 10 Elements C) 14 elements D) 19 elements E) 22 elements
39) What system was developed to track football injuries through a Web-based system that tracks
medical information and analyzes injury trends? A) National Safety Council B) Annual Survey of Football Injury Research C) National Center for Catastrophic Sports Injury Research D) NCAA Injury Surveillance System E) National Electronic Injury Surveillance System
40) What are useful steps to promote good health among athletes? A) practice good foot hygiene B) sleep a maximum of six hours a night C) shower prior to practice D) dry thoroughly and cool off before departing from the gymnasium E) avoid contact with teammates who have a contagious disease or infection F) understand the role coaches play in maintaining a healthy lifestyle and the prevention
of injuries
41) Which of the following would assist in proper cleanliness and sanitation in the athletic
training clinic? A) No food should be allowed in the clinic B) No cleated shoes should be permitted. C) Game equipment should be allowed in the facility, however, must remain on the floor. D) Athletes should make it a habit to shower after treatments E) Roughhousing and profanity should not be allowed.
42) A patient states that they have a headache following a header in soccer. Where would this go
in the SOAP note? A) subjective B) objective C) assessment D) plan E) it should go in none of these sections.
43) A patient is given a goal of running one mile in 2 weeks. Where would this go in the SOAP
note? A) B) C) D) E)
subjective objective assessment plan it should go in none of these sections.
44) During an evaluation of a patient's knee you realize they are lacking 15 degrees of knee
flexion. Where would this go in the SOAP note? A) subjective B) objective C) assessment D) plan E) it should go in none of these sections.
45) The Athletic Trainer believes that the athlete has a torn ACL based on the results of the
Lachman’s test. Where would this go in the SOAP note? A) subjective B) objective C) assessment D) plan E) it should go in none of these sections.
Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 21) C
A clearly written mission statement will help focus the direction of the program and should be an outcome of the strategic planning process. 22) E
A SWOT analysis looks at Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats underlying planning. It is a useful and effective technique in strategic planning for existing athletic health care program. 23) B
Policies are clear and accurate written statements that identify basic rules and principles used to control and expedite decision making. Procedures describe the process by which something is done. 24) A
When making the decision to allow outside group(s) or people in the community be served by the athletic training staff, legality and the institution’s insurance program must be taken into consideration when making this decision. 25) D
The athletic trainer in this difficult situation must make some decisions about where the greatest need for coverage is, based on the potential risk of a particular sport and the number of athletes involved. 26) C
To promote good health among athletes, the athletic trainer should encourage sound health habits, such as avoid using a common towel. 27) E
Addressing OSHA rules and regulations would be more appropriately discussed in the athletic training policy and procedure manual. 28) A
Electrical equipment should be reevaluated on a yearly basis and should conform to National Electrical Code guidelines. A clinic that is not in compliance with this code has no legal protection in a lawsuit.
29) A
It is essential to build a patient base. Location is a key, but knowing an area physician would refer patients to you would help. 30) B
Athletic trainers may supervise or participate in work hardening or conditioning programs that address these needs. This can also include functional capacity evaluations to determine skill deficits as measured against physical job requirements. 31) D
The downside is that the improved portability and accessibility creates security issues that potentially threaten patient privacy. Electronic medical records improve overall efficiency, reduce errors, and reduce costs. 32) A
The abbreviation for HIPAA is Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. 33) C
The Tanner approach evaluates pubic hair and genitalia development in boys and pubic hair and breast development in girls. Stage 1 indicates that puberty is not evident, and stage 5 indicates full development. 34) E
A physician should be the individual responsible for checking an athlete’s heart and lung sounds. 35) C
Performing a shoulder shrug against resistance is the manual muscle test for the trapezius. 36) A
Figure 2-8 identifies that a toe stand and heel walk will determine gastrocnemius ROM. 37) [C, D, G, H, I, K] 38) C
The 14-element cardiovascular screening checklist for congenital and genetic heart disease in young athletes is recommended by the American Heart Association. 39) D
The NCAA Injury Surveillance System (ISS) was established in 1982 primarily for the purpose of studying the incidence of football injuries. In Fall 2004, the ISS fully converted to a Web-based data-collection system that tracks medical information and analyzes injury trends.
40) [A, D, E]
There are many recommended actions that promote good health among athletes. The athletic trainer should encourage sound health habits and can disseminate this information to coaches and athletes. 41) [A, B, E]
The athletic training clinic should be used only for the prevention and care of sports injuries. Unless definite rules are established and practiced, cleanliness and sanitation become an impossible chore. 42) A
The subjective portion of the SOAP note refers to what the patient tells the athletic trainer about the injury relative to the history or what he or she felt. 43) D
The plan for treatment indicates how the injury will be managed and includes short- and longterm goals for rehabilitation. 44) B
The objective portion documents information that the athletic trainer gathers during the evaluation, such as range of motion, strength levels, patterns of pain, and so forth. 45) C
The assessment records the athletic trainer’s professional opinion about the injury based on the information obtained during the subjective and objective portions.
Student name:__________ 46) An athletic trainer decides to suture an athlete’s head wound which is against the state
practice act. What type of legal concern is this? A) act of omission B) act of commission C) misfeasance D) duty of care E) liability
47) Which of the following legal terms is synonymous with malfeasance? A) act of omission B) act of commission C) tort D) negligence E) liability
48) An athletic trainer is performing ultrasound on a patient and accidentally burns the patient by
failing to moving the ultrasound head. What type of legal concern is this? A) misfeasance B) act of omission C) act of commission D) sovereign immunity E) good Samaritan law
49) Please check all of the following things that an athletic trainer can do in order to reduce the
risk of litigation. A) create an emergency action plan that will be reviewed every 3–5 years B) keep factually accurate and timely records that at minimum document the patient’s injury C) follow the express orders of a physician at all times only when the injury is severe D) permit an injured player to participate once they look better E) use common sense when making a decision about a patient’s health and safety F) document efforts to create a safe training environment G) work to establish good working relationships with the athletes, parents, patients, clients, and coworkers H) obtain written consent from the team doctor to treat minors I) be aware of the limitations of their personal liability insurance J) only use modalities that state law permits
50) What is the full meaning for the NOCSAE abbreviation? A) National Operating Commission on Safety of Athletic Equipment B) National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment C) National Organization on Safety of Athletic Equipment D) Newly Organized Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment E) Nations Operating Commission on Safety of Athletic Equipment
51) What was developed to eliminate some of the worst practices of insurance companies and to
put the consumer back in charge of their healthcare? A) Affordable Care Act B) Managed Care C) Professional Liability insurance D) HMO E) PPO
52) What type of insurance should an athletic trainer possess in order to cover the act of
negligence in a civil case? A) catastrophic insurance B) accident insurance C) professional liability insurance D) general health insurance E) Health Maintenance Organization Insurance
53) Which of the following is an incorrect statement about catastrophic insurance? A) The medical plan benefits the NCAA offers to athletes who require a lifetime of
extensive medical care because of a permanent disability. B) Errors and omissions liability insurance evolved to offset the shotgun approach of lawsuits and to cover what is not covered by a general liability policy. C) The National Federation of State High School Associations (NFSHSA) offers a plan that provides for costs in excess of $10,000 not covered by other insurance benefits. D) The existence of these plans eliminates the need for the professional to carry personal liability insurance. E) Costs for catastrophic insurance are based on the number of sports and the number of hazardous sports offered by the institution.
54) Which third-party payer usually involves a major hospital or hospital chain and its
physicians? A) HMO B) PPO C) PHO D) Medicare E) Indemnity plans
55) Which third-party payer is a combination of the HMO and PPO plans, yet allows members to
go outside the HMO to obtain services? A) PPO B) POS C) EPO D) PHO E) TPA
56) Which third-party payer would provide financial medical assistance to an athlete who comes
from a low-income family? A) HMO B) Medicare C) Indemnity plan D) Worker compensation E) Medicaid
57) When were athletic trainers able to bill third-party payers for services rendered? A) 1990s B) 1995 C) 1996 D) early 2000s E) Athletic trainers have always been able to bill.
58) What needs to be stressed to parents if the host institution offers a secondary insurance policy
for athletes? A) Save all receipts so they can be filed with the individual’s tax records. B) Submit all bills to the primary insurance company before submitting the remainder to the host institution. C) All insurance filing will be taken care of by the host institution. D) Pay all bills up front; the host institution will reimburse the family. E) Keep all the bills until the end, then collectively file them together.
59) What action by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) in 2005 created a job
loss for athletic trainers working in clinics and hospitals or as physician extenders? A) Individual state licensure acts were revoked; Board of Certification was the only honoring professional credentialing body. B) Insurance billing codes for athletic training rehabilitation services were deleted. C) A mandate was set forth that only outcomes research practices/treatments could be eligible for reimbursement. D) Athletic trainers were no longer recognized as a qualified professional to provide therapy incident to a physician’s service. E) Reimbursement could only be offered if the patient had primary insurance coverage.
60) What type of code identifies specific medical procedures used in treating a patient? A) HCFA-1500 B) HCFA-1450 C) UB-92 D) ICD-9-CM E) CPT
61) Please check all of the items that an Athletic Trainer can bill for based on procedure codes. A) aquatic therapeutic exercise B) ultrasound C) suturing D) prosthetic training E) nutritional consultation F) counseling G) massage H) spinal manipulations I) dry needling
62) What does the Sports Medicine Licensure Clarity Act protect? A) The act protects the athlete’s ability to choose a healthcare provider. B) The act protects the right to practice athletic training. C) Ensuring that athletic trainers and other sports medicine professionals are properly
covered by malpractice insurance while traveling. D) Insuring that athletic trainers can bill for service. E) HIPPA and FERPA must be protected for all athletes.
63) Any healthcare provider who uses standard electronic transactions, such as electronic claims,
eligibility verifications, claims status inquiries, and claim attachments is required to have one of these. A) licensure B) certification C) NPI number D) CPT code E) billing code
64) When submitting documentation for billing, what needs to be included? Please check all that
apply A) B) C) D) E) F)
an impression or diagnosis monthly progress notes patient updated medical history form copies of weekly treatment records copies of their physical diagnostic test results
65) You are hosting a flag football tournament and your coach comes to you asking what type of
insurance coverage you need to cover the students at this event. What would be the most appropriate insurance? A) catastrophic insurance B) accident insurance C) professional liability insurance D) workers compensation E) capitation
66) Which of the following legal terms is synonymous with nonfeasance? A) act of omission B) act of commission C) tort D) negligence E) liability
67) In order to prove negligence, the complaint must establish which of the following things? A) A duty of care existed between the person injured and the person responsible for that
injury. B) The defendant breached this duty by conduct that fell short of the standard of care. C) The defendant caused the injury to occur. D) Personal, property or punitive damages resulted. E) The injured person was not following directions. F) The injured person did not report the incident to the athletic trainer. G) The defendant documented the incident. H) The defendant followed the emergency action plan.
68) You have an athlete who fractured their arm while playing basketball. Their insurance has
paid most of the bill; however, they still have an out of pocket expense of $1000.00. What type of policy might your institution have to pay this bill? A) accident insurance B) secondary insurance C) catastrophic insurance D) professional liability insurance E) general health insurance
Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 46) B
When an individual commits an act that is not legally his to perform, it is an act of commission. 47) B
Malfeasance can also be referred to as act of commission. 48) A
When an individual improperly does something he or she has the legal right to perform, it is labeled as misfeasance. 49) [E, F, G, I, J] 50) B
NOCSAE is the abbreviation for National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment. 51) A
The Affordable Care Act included comprehensive health insurance reforms designed to eliminate some of the worst practices of insurance companies and to essentially put consumers back in charge of their health care. 52) C
Professional liability insurance typically covers negligence in a civil case. 53) D
Even when working in a program that has good liability coverage, each person within that program who works directly with students must have his or her own personal liability insurance. 54) C
Physician Hospital Organizations (PHO) also contract directly with employers to provide services and/or contracts with a managed care organization. 55) B
The Point of Service plans allows flexibility only with certain conditions and under special circumstances. 56) E
Medicaid is funded by both the federal government and individual states, with the state responsible for handling the administration of the program; therefore, benefits vary by state. 57) E
Athletic trainers have always been able to bill third-party payers for services rendered. The 1990s and early 2000s saw a significant increase in reimbursement. 58) B
Schools with secondary policies should stress that the parents must submit all bills to their insurance company before they submit the remainder to the school. 59) D
The CMS ruling stated that they would “no longer pay for therapy ‘incident to’ a physician’s services unless the provider is a physical therapist, occupational therapist, or speech/language pathologist.” 60) E
Current Procedure Terminology Code (CPT) was first developed by the American Medical Association in 1966. Annual publications designate changes corresponding to significant updates in medical technology and practice. 61) [A, B, D, G] 62) C
The Sports Medicine Licensure Clarity Act was passed in 2017 and the NATAPAC was directly responsible for that passage. 63) C
As of 2007, any healthcare provider who uses standard electronic transactions, such as electronic claims, eligibility verifications, claims status inquiries, and claim attachments is required to have an NPI number. 64) [A, C, F] 65) B
It covers accidents on school grounds while the student is in attendance or accidents that occur in the workplace; however, the coverage is limited and often does not cover surgery or lengthy rehabilitations. 66) A
Nonfeasance can also be referred to as act of omission. 67) [A, B, C, D]
Focus Box 3-1 identifies what an athletic trainer can do to avoid claims of negligence. 68) B
Most institutions offer some type of secondary insurance coverage, which pays the remaining medical bills once the personal insurance company has made its payment. It will cover many additional charges such as deductibles, copays, or coverage limits the primary insurer does not pay for.
Student name:__________ 69) Which of the following is a common role that the athletic trainer has to fulfill when
employed in the secondary school setting? A) physical therapist B) substitute teacher C) emergency medical technician D) strength and conditioning coach E) school nurse
70) What principle of conditioning addresses an individual’s specific adaptation to imposed
demands? A) intensity B) safety C) overload D) individuality E) specificity
71) Which of the following principles of conditioning allows the program designer to address
group needs, rather than individual needs? A) overload B) minimize stress C) specificity D) progression E) consistency
72) What type of activity involves continuous movement using hopping, skipping, and bounding
activities with several different footwork drills? A) dynamic warm-up B) warm-up C) cool down D) stretching E) cardiorespiratory endurance
73) What four components coordinate together to transport oxygen throughout the body? A) heart, brain, lungs, aorta B) heart, lungs, blood vessels, blood C) heart, lungs, veins, arteries D) brain, heart, veins, arteries E) heart, blood vessels, blood, brain
74) The volume of blood being pumped out with each beat is called A) stroke volume. B) submaximal heart rate. C) aerobic capacity. D) cardiac output. E) maximum aerobic capacity.
75) How is the heart able to adapt to increased demands during exercise? A) It decreases the volume of blood being pumped out with each beat. B) The heart’s rate will plateau at a given level within 15–20 minutes. C) With high-intensity demands, heart rate and oxygen consumption are inversely
related. D) Cardiac output increases as aerobic capacity increases. E) The stroke volume will increase as the heart rate increases at a given exercise load.
76) What is known as the “ultimate usable form of energy for muscular activity”? A) O2 B) glucose C) ATP D) ADP E) fat
77) Check only the steps that contribute to the energy system of anaerobic metabolism. A) The body turns to stored glycogen as an energy source. B) A by-product, glucose, seeps out of the muscle cells into the blood to be used
elsewhere. C) ATP is rapidly metabolized to meet energy needs. D) Lactate is broken down to supply glucose, which is then metabolized within the muscle cells to generate ATP for muscle contractions without the need for oxygen. E) During sudden outbursts of activity in intensive, short-time exercise, ATP is stored to meet energy needs.
78) What is broken down to supply glucose? A) lactate B) ATP C) glycogen D) lactate E) carbohydrates
79) Which of the following activities is an example of interval training? A) swimming 25 laps for time B) sprinting the straight-aways and jogging the curves of a track C) running from home plate to second base 15 times D) cariocas on a football field for 15 minutes E) dribbling a soccer field corner-to-corner
80) What term is best identified with enlargement of a muscle caused by an increase in the size
of its cells? A) muscular strength B) power C) muscular endurance D) hypertrophy E) atrophy
81) Will a muscle hypertrophy if myofilaments also increase in both size and number? A) Yes, this supports the theory that the number of muscle fibers increases because fibers
split in response to training. B) No, this contradicts the theory that myofilament increase only occurs in males. C) Yes, this supports the theory that more blood is required to supply the muscle, thus, also increasing the number of capillaries. D) No, this contradicts the theory that the number of fibers is genetically determined and does not increase with training. E) Yes, this supports the theory that individual muscle fibers themselves increase in cross-sectional diameter.
82) Select the correct explanation of the length-tension relation in muscle based on the figure.
A) Point A is the interaction where the crossbridges between the actin and myosin
myofilaments within the sarcomere are at their maximum. B) Point B is the interaction where the crossbridges between the actin and myosin myofilaments within the sarcomere are at their maximum. C) Point C is the interaction where the crossbridges between the actin and myosin myofilaments within the sarcomere are at their maximum. D) Points A and C have the greatest amount of tension. E) Points B and C have the greatest amount of tension.
83) What determines the tension that can be generated when referring to muscular strength? A) muscle diameter B) muscle hypertrophy C) muscle length D) muscle size E) muscle endurance
84) How does an isometric muscular contraction occur? A) The muscle shortens in length as the contraction is developed to overcome or move
some resistance. B) The muscle contracts to increase tension but there is no change in the length of the muscle. C) The muscle contracts to increase tension with a change in the length of the muscle. D) The muscle contracts while being elongated but does not change in length. E) The muscle shortens in length, and then elongates.
85) Which of the following techniques of resistance training help an individual gain strength,
neuromuscular control, power, and muscle endurance? A) functional strength training B) interval training C) isometric exercise D) progressive resistance exercise E) core stability training
86) What type of exercise is demonstrated in the video? A) B) C) D) E)
isometric exercise progressive resistance exercise isokinetic exercise plyometric exercise core stability exercise
87) What type of exercise is demonstrated in the video? A) B) C) D) E)
isometric exercise progressive resistance exercise isokinetic exercise plyometric exercise core stability exercise
88) Check only the exercises that can be categorized as a functional exercise. A) front lunge balance to one-arm press B) prone cobra C) stability ball push-ups D) tandem stance on Dyna disc with trunk rotation E) stability ball diagonal rotations with weighted ball F) clean and jerk G) side-lying isolated abdominal
89) Shortening and lengthening a muscle through a complete range of motion for which of the
following types of exercise? A) eccentric exercise B) concentric exercise C) isometric exercise D) isotonic exercise E) isokinetic exercise
90) What type of exercise is demonstrated in the video? A) B) C) D) E)
isometric exercise progressive resistance exercise isokinetic exercise plyometric exercise core stability exercise
91) If you were to combine all of these activities into a series of stations that would be repeated
three times, what would it be called? A) B) C) D) E)
circuit training calisthenic strengthening exercises progressive resistive exercises isotonic strengthening plyometric exercises
92) Which of the following factors could limit flexibility? A) bony structure B) gender C) excessive fat D) hypermobility E) muscles and their tendons F) connective tissue G) skin H) height I) genetics J) length of the limb
93) What type of stretching is demonstrated in the video? A) B) C) D) E)
static stretching ballistic stretching dynamic stretching proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation stretching myofascial stretching
94) What type of stretching is demonstrated in the video? A) B) C) D) E)
static stretching ballistic stretching dynamic stretching proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation stretching myofascial stretching
95) What type of stretching is demonstrated in the video? A) B) C) D) E)
static stretching ballistic stretching dynamic stretching proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation stretching myofascial stretching
96) What instrument/machine is most commonly used to measure joint angles and range of
motion at a joint? A) tape measure B) goniometer C) dynamometer D) skin caliper E) cybex
97) A patient has a rating of perceived exertion of 19. What would be their verbal rating? A) fairly light B) very, very hard C) hard D) very, very light E) somewhat hard
98) What plateaus at 40% of the maximum heart rate? A) stroke volume B) aerobic capacity C) cardiac output D) submaximal heart rate E) anaerobic capacity
99) Which of the following is an example of high-intensity interval training? A) a soccer player running sprints B) a basketball player shooting 5 balls in 1 minute C) a cross-country runner completing 3 miles in 30 minutes D) a volleyball player completing 10 serves in 2 minutes E) a gymnast stretching before competition
100)
What causes a reflex relaxation of the muscle in response to stretch? A) muscle spindle B) golgi tendon organ C) alpha motor neurons D) type Ia nerve from muscle spindle E) substantia gelatinosa
Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 69) D
In the majority of secondary school settings, a strength and conditioning coach is not available; the responsibility for ensuring that the athlete gets fit lies with the athletic trainer and the team coaches. 70) C
Logan and Wallis identified the SAID principle, which directly relates to the principle of overload. SAID – specific adaptation to imposed demands. 71) E
The other principles of conditioning are based on the individual’s needs or physical abilities. Consistency is having a regularly scheduled basis for strength and conditioning to be effective. 72) A
A dynamic warm-up involves continuous movement using hopping, skipping, and bounding activities with several different footwork drills and patterns. 73) B
Basically, transport of oxygen throughout the body involves the coordinated function of four components: the heart, the lungs, the blood vessels, and the blood. 74) A
Stroke volume is the volume of blood being pumped out with each beat. 75) D
During exercise, cardiac output increases to approximately four times that experienced during rest in the normal individual and may increase as much as six times in the elite endurance athlete. 76) C
Energy is produced from the breakdown of nutrient foodstuffs. This energy is used to produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP). 77) [A, C]
Lactic acid is the by-product that seeps out of the muscle cells into the blood. Glycogen is broken down to supply glucose. And, during sudden bursts of activity that intense, ATP is metabolized to meet energy needs.
78) C
Glycogen is broken down to supply glucose, which is then metabolized within the muscle cells to generate ATP for muscle contractions without the need for oxygen. 79) B
“Fartlek” training is a type of interval training that puts surges into a running workout, varying the length of the surges according to individual purposes. 80) D
Hypertrophy is the enlargement of a muscle caused by an increase in the size of its cells in response to training. 81) E
A third theory to explain muscle hypertrophy is that muscle fibers are composed primarily of small protein filaments, called myofilaments, which are contractile elements in muscle. 82) B
The length of a muscle determines the tension that can be generated. By varying the length of a muscle, different tensions may be produced. 83) C
The length of the muscle determines the tension that can be generated. In addition to the position of attachment of the muscle, tendon on the arm can affect the ability of that muscle to generate force.
84) B
An isometric contraction does not have a change in muscle length even though the muscle contracts. 85) E
The concept of core stability training is essential. A core stabilization training program is designed to address the muscles in the lumbar spine, the abdomen, and around the hip and pelvis. These muscles are collectively referred to as the core. 86) A
An isometric exercise involves a muscle contraction in which the length of the muscle remains constant while tension develops toward a maximal force against an immovable resistance. 87) E
A core stabilization training program is designed to help an individual gain strength, neuromuscular control, power, and muscle endurance of the muscles in the lumbar spine, abdomen, and around the hip and pelvis. 88) [A, D, E]
Functional strengthening exercises use simultaneous movement (concentric, eccentric, and isometric contractions) in three planes on both stable and unstable surfaces. 89) D
In an isotonic exercise, the muscle shortens and lengthens through a complete range of motion. 90) D
Plyometric exercise is a technique that includes specific exercises that encompass a rapid stretch of a muscle eccentrically, followed immediately by a rapid concentric contraction of that muscle for the purpose of facilitating and developing a forceful explosive movement over a short period of time. 91) A
Circuit training consists of exercise stations that consist of various combinations of weight training, flexibility, calisthenics, and aerobic exercises. 92) [A, C, E, F, G] 93) A
Static stretching is a technique widely used and effective technique of stretching involving passively stretching a given antagonist muscle by placing it in a maximal position of stretch and holding it there for an extended time. 94) C
Dynamic stretching is controlled stretches recommended prior to beginning an activity. 95) E
Myofascial stretching stretches tight fascia and can be done manually or using a firm foam roller. 96) B
A goniometer is the simplest and most widely used instrument to measure joint angles and range of motion. 97) B
The rating of perceived exertion chart (Table 4-2) identified 19 as a very, very hard rating. 98) A
Figure 4-4 identifies that stroke volume plateaus at 40% of the maximal heart rate 99) A
Figure 4-7 identifies an example of %HRR of a soccer player running sprints. 100)
B Figure 4-23 identifies how the stretch reflex occurs.
Student name:__________ 101)
Please select only the major class of nutrients by clicking the appropriate box. A) carbohydrates B) sugars C) starches D) fiber E) fats F) proteins G) amino Acids H) vitamins I) antioxidents J) minerals K) water L) electrolytes
102)
Which of the following nutritional energy sources is needed for growth, maintenance, and repair of all body tissues? A) carbohydrates B) fats C) proteins D) vitamins E) water
103)
What vitamin when taken in excess can cause kidney stones and diarrhea? A) vitamin A B) vitamin D C) vitamin E D) vitamin K E) vitamin C
104)
What vitamin when taken in excess can cause headaches, nausea, loss of hair, dry skin, and diarrhea? A) vitamin A B) vitamin D C) vitamin E D) vitamin K E) vitamin C
105) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Which of the following vitamin(s) should not be taken on a daily basis? Vitamin A Vitamin D Thiamin Vitamin C Riboflavin A) I1 B) I1 & II C) II & IV D) III &V5 E) III, IV &V5
106)
Which of the following mineral deficiencies will produce skin problems and growth problems? A) calcium B) iron C) iodine D) zinc E) copper
107)
Which of the following mineral supplements will assist in preventing osteoporosis? A) calcium B) iron C) protein D) creatine E) herbal
108)
A patient is suffering from the following symptoms: depression, fever, vomiting, paranoid psychosis, and significant weight loss. What is the suspected supplement being ingested? A) ginseng B) echinacea C) ephedrine D) glucose E) iron
109)
Which of the following nutritional supplements has an integral role in energy metabolism and is synthesized by the kidneys, liver, and pancreas? A) calcium supplements B) iron supplements C) creatine supplements D) herbal supplements E) glucose supplements
110)
What is an advantage to utilizing ultrasound to measure the tissue thickness of muscle and intra-abdominal depth? A) Ultrasound is cheaper than skin calipers. B) Ultrasound is the gold standard. C) Ultrasound does a better job of measuring superficial fat. D) Ultrasound has the best results on individuals with a low BMI. E) Ultrasound can get at locations where calipers cannot be applied.
111)
In order to maximize glycogen resynthesis when is it recommended that a person ingests dietary carbohydrates and protein following activity? A) within the first 24 hours B) within the first 12 hours C) within the first 6 hours D) within the first 3 hours E) immediately after exercise
112)
What type of vegetarian dietary pattern consumes dairy products and eggs in the diet along with plant foods; meat, fish, and poultry are excluded? A) vegetarianism B) vegan C) lactovegetarian D) lacto-ovo-vegetarian E) semivegetarian
113)
When designing the pregame, or prevent meal, what should be excluded as a consideration? A) eating preferences of the individual athlete B) ease of digestibility of the food C) increasing coffee and tea consumption D) consumption three to four hours prior to event/game E) achieve largest possible storage of carbohydrates
114)
Please check all of the following food items that would be ideal for an afternoon pregame meal. A) coke B) steak C) green beans D) steamed vegetables E) sour cream F) baked potato G) fried fish H) lowfat-milk
115)
Which of the following items that you consume has the highest amount of calories per gram? A) carbohydrates B) protein C) fat D) alcohol E) water
116)
For an athlete competing in endurance events, what nutritional practice can maximize the amount of glycogen that can be stored? A) fat loading B) low-carbohydrate consumption C) liquid food supplementation D) muscle glycogen restoration E) glycogen supercompensation
117)
Please check all of the areas where you should check body composition utilizing skin calipers. A) the thigh B) the shoulder C) the triceps D) the biceps E) the abdomen F) the suprailiac G) the hamstring H) the calf I) the chest J) the neck
118)
Which assessment method provides one of the most accurate measurements of body composition? A) Scale measurement B) Skinfold measurement C) Hydrostatic measurement D) Bioelectrical impedance measurement E) Body Mass Index measurement
119)
Which of the following is a misrepresentation of caloric value? A) Alcohol = 7 calories / gram B) Carbohydrate = 4 calories / gram C) Fat = 9 calories / gram D) Protein = 4 calories / gram E) Sugar = 7 calories / gram
120)
What is the correct technique for measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR)? A) Fasting for 12 hours, awakening in a quiet, warm environment, and measuring O2 uptake using indirect calorimetry. B) Exhaling completely before being immersed in an underwater tank while holding the breath. C) Measuring 3–5 sites on the body using a Skinfold caliper. D) Securely holding a bioelectrical unit with both hands until the measurement is read. E) Obtaining height and weight and plugging those values into a formula.
121)
What are the recommended values for gaining one pound of muscle and for losing one pound of fat? A) 1,500 calories to gain one pound of muscle; 2,500 calories to lose one pound of fat B) 2,000 calories to gain one pound of muscle; 3,000 calories to lose one pound of fat C) 2,500 calories to gain one pound of muscle; 3,500 calories to lose one pound of fat D) 3,000 calories to gain one pound of muscle; 4,000 calories to lose one pound of fat E) 3,500 calories to gain one pound of muscle; 4,500 calories to lose one pound of fat
122)
Which eating disorder has a distorted body image and concern of weight gain, but is set apart by the lack of self-starvation practices? A) Bulimia Nervosa B) Anorexia Nervosa C) Female Athlete Triad Syndrome D) Binge-eating-purging cycle E) Anorexia Athletica
123)
Please check all of the foods that have a glycemic index greater than 70. A) sweet potato B) bagel C) nuts D) white bread E) raisins F) popcorn G) corn flakes H) yogurt I) watermelon J) whole grain cereal K) ice cream
124)
Please check the nutritional deficiencies that could occur due to a gluten-free diet. A) vitamin C B) vitamin B6 C) vitamin D D) dietary fiber E) sodium F) zinc
Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 101) 102)
[A, E, F, H, J, K] C Proteins make up the major structural component of the body and are needed for growth, maintenance, and repair of all body tissues. 103)
E An excess of vitamin C consumption can cause kidney stones and diarrhea. 104)
A An excess of vitamin A consumption can cause headaches, nausea, loss of hair, dry skin, and diarrhea. 105)
B Vitamin A and Vitamin D are fat-soluble; therefore, do not need to be taken on a daily basis. 106)
D A deficiency in zinc can cause all of the following: skin problems, delayed development, and growth problems. 107)
A Calcium is the most abundant mineral in the body and is essential for bones and teeth. Because osteoporosis is a decrease in bone density, increasing calcium intake can help. 108)
C Ephedrine is a stimulant that has been used as an ingredient in diet pills. The FDA banned the use of ephedrine as a dietary supplement. Ephedrine is also known to produce tachycardia, depression, fever, vomiting, and significant weight loss. 109)
C Creatine is a naturally occurring organic compound synthesized by the kidneys, liver, and pancreas. 110)
E An advantage of ultrasound compared with skinfold measurement is the possibility to measure obese subjects and to reach anatomical locations where calipers cannot be applied. 111)
E
It is recommended that to maximize glycogen resynthesis, both dietary carbohydrates and protein should be ingested immediately following exercise. 112)
D The practice of lactovegetarianism could compromise the ability to obtain sufficient levels of iron. 113)
C Liquid consumed should be easily absorbed and low in fat content and should not act as a laxative. Water intake should be increased, particularly if the temperature is high. 114) 115)
[C, D, F, H] C Fat has the highest amount of calories, which is 9 per gram. 116)
E Glycogen supercompensation is a high-carbohydrate diet that restores glycogen levels in muscle and the liver on the basis that stored glycogen in the muscles directly affects the endurance of that muscle. 117) 118)
[A, C, E, F, I] C Hydrostatic measurement, if done properly, is very accurate. 119)
E Sugar is a carbohydrate, thus equaling 4 calories / gram. 120)
A Basal metabolic rate is the rate at which calories are spent for sustaining the body’s vital functions such as respiration, heartbeat, circulation, and maintenance of body temperature during a 24-hour period. 121)
C To gain one pound of muscle, an excess of approximately 2,500 calories is needed; to lose one pound of fat, approximately 3,500 calories in excess of intake must be expended in activities. 122)
E Anorexia athletics is a condition specific to athletes that is characterized by several of the features common to anorexia nervosa, but without self-starvation practices. 123)
[D, F, G, I]