Test Bank For Interpersonal Skills in Organizations, 7th Edition, Suzanne de Janasz, Karen Dowd, Bet

Test Bank For Interpersonal Skills in Organizations, 7th Edition, Suzanne de Janasz, Karen Dowd, Beth Schneider Chapter 1-19 Answer are at the End of Each Chapter Chapter 1

Student name:__________ 1)

List a few ways in which self-awareness can help a person.

2)

Discuss the primary components of the Big Five model.

3)

Define attitude. How does it affect our professional life?

4)

Describe some of the most common filters that can influence our perceptions.

5)

Write a short description of the attribution theory.

6) __________ is best described as the capacity for introspection and the ability to reconcile oneself as an individual separate from the environment and other individuals.

A) Self-actualization B) Self-awareness C) Self-disclosure D) Self-isolation

7) __________ involves a person stepping back and objectively observing what influences his or her thoughts, feelings, behaviors, attitudes, and interactions.

A) Self-actualization B) Self-analysis C) Projection D) Selective perception

8) __________ describes the relatively stable set of characteristics, tendencies, and temperaments of an individual that have been formed by heredity and by social, cultural, and environmental factors.

A) Attitude B) Personality C) Efficacy D) Virtue

9) Becoming self-aware by understanding your modes of thinking primarily involves being aware of how you A) express your reaction to unexpected things that happen.

B) respond to people, stimuli, and events.

C) become aware of your core drivers and hence understand the roots of your behavior.

D) take in and make sense of information that helps you make judgments.

10) Nancy is aware that her morale is down when she is working in a large group. This is mainly because she is not confident sharing her opinions with others or opposing their ideas. She realizes that to be able to perform better she needs to tactfully communicate with her team members. Which of the following components of behavior is Nancy primarily aware of in this situation?

A) motivation B) modes of interacting C) modes of thinking D) cognition

11)

Which of the following is a primary component of the Big Five personality model?

A) uncertainty avoidance B) locus of control C) intelligence quotient D) emotional stability

12) In the Big Five personality model, __________ assesses the degree to which you are social or antisocial, outgoing or shy, assertive or passive, active or inactive, and talkative or quiet.

A) empathy B) collectivism C) extroversion D) conscientiousness

13) Jacob and Gareth are new employees in an information technology (IT) firm. Gareth is outgoing and likes to assert his authority over others. Jacob is shy and hardly socializes with his peers. Both Gareth and Jacob are punctual and hardworking. In the context of the Big Five personality traits, which of the following statements is true about this scenario?

A) Gareth is emotionally stable.

B) Jacob is an introvert.

C) Gareth ranks high on agreeableness.

D) Jacob ranks high on conscientiousness.

14) In the context of the Big Five personality traits, __________ represents the degree to which an individual is dependable, can be counted on, follows through on commitments, and keeps promises.

A) conscientiousness B) extroversion C) introversion D) altruism

15) Shenaz remains calm with her customers who are intolerant and rude toward her. She always has a positive attitude and is able to quickly find solutions to her customers' issues. In the context of the Big Five personality traits, which of the following statements is most likely true about Shenaz?

A) Shenaz ranks low on conscientiousness.

B) Shenaz is an extrovert.

C) Shenaz has a high level of intelligence quotient.

D) Shenaz is emotionally stable.

16) Rosa's coworkers have often complained that it is difficult to work with her. This is mainly because Rosa is highly rigid in nature and intolerant toward others' opinions and ideas. In the context of the Big Five personality model, which of the following does Rosa best illustrate?

A) high openness B) high conscientiousness C) low agreeableness D) low uncertainty avoidance

17) A person's low score on the __________ component of the Big Five personality model is closely associated with the fact that he or she is insecure, anxious, and short-tempered.

A) openness B) intelligence quotient C) emotional stability D) extroversion

18) Jacob, an employee at a consumer electronics company, is highly enthusiastic about learning new skills, meeting new people, and approaching work-related tasks in a novel way. In the context of the Big Five personality model, which of the following does Jacob best illustrate?

A) low agreeableness B) low conscientiousness C) high openness to experience D) high uncertainty avoidance

19) Justin's enthusiasm toward challenging projects has earned him a good reputation among his seniors at work. His coworkers agree that he is highly dependable, organized, and focused about work. In the context of the Big Five personality model, which of the following does this scenario best illustrate?

A) low agreeableness B) low collectivism C) high conscientiousness D) high uncertainty avoidance

20) The tendency to adjust our behavior relative to the changing demands of social or environmental situations is known as A) social regulation.

B) self-actualization.

C) self-monitoring.

D) social realization.

21) Sophie is highly concerned about what others think of her. She is extremely careful about freely expressing her feelings and opinions in public. She tactfully adapts her responses and interactions to suit the situation and the audience. On the basis of the given information, we can conclude that Sophie would score A) low on openness to experience.

B) high on uncertainty avoidance.

C) high on self-monitoring.

D) low on agreeableness.

22)

Which of the following statements is true of low self-monitors?

A) They are very sensitive to external cues.

B) They often hide their true selves to conform to a situation.

C) They are not at all interested in what others think.

D) They constantly adapt to meet a set of expectations.

23) __________ are best described as “settled ways of thinking about someone or something, typically reflected in a person's behavior.”

A) Morals B) Ethics C) Attitudes D) Rituals

24)

Which of the following statements is true about attitudes?

A) Attitudes can vary from situation to situation.

B) Attitudes are the most stable facets of our personality.

C) Attitudes are more difficult to influence than our behaviors or values.

D) Attitudes in people are independent of their family background.

25) __________ means making assumptions about an individual or a group based on generalized judgments rather than based on facts.

A) Projecting B) Hacking C) Stereotyping D) Bootstrapping

26) Mark's boss has shortlisted three employees—Jack, Justin, and Grace—who are eligible for a promotion. It is Mark's duty to promote any two employees from the chosen three. Mark decides not to promote Grace because he believes that women are not achievement-oriented and that they cannot completely focus on their work. Making such generalized assumptions that influence an individual's perceptions is known as A) selective perception.

B) whistleblowing.

C) stereotyping.

D) projection.

27) Josephine works as a software engineer at a large information technology company. She is working on a project that has to be completed within the next 24 hours. When her manager sends her a mail about her next project, which is to be taken up once the current project is completed, she ignores it before even reading the details specified in it. This scenario best exemplifies A) fundamental attribution error.

B) self-monitoring.

C) selective perception.

D) self-serving bias.

28) __________ is best described as attributing one's own attitudes, characteristics, or shortcomings to others.

A) Self-description B) Projection C) Selective perception D) Individualization

29) Derek always arrives late for meetings and conferences. He believes that everyone else will also take time to arrive. In this scenario, Derek's perception is primarily influenced by A) fundamental attribution error.

B) projection.

C) selective perception.

D) self-serving bias.

30) __________ is referred to as forming an opinion about how we would like an event to unfold, a situation to develop, or a person to act, think, or feel.

A) Stereotyping B) Expectation C) Projection D) Ethnocentrism

31) Judy, a college graduate, is looking for a job. Previously, she never paid attention to any job advertisements. Now, however, she keeps an eye out for job advertisements in newspapers, outside offices, and on the Internet. This is a result of a common perception filter known as A) projection.

B) stereotyping.

C) interest.

D) expectation.

32) The __________ demonstrates that individuals tend to decide that a behavior is caused by a particular characteristic or event.

A) expectancy theory B) equity theory C) two-factor theory D) attribution theory

33) Richard runs a supermarket chain. All his stores have been experiencing declining sales for the past one year. Richard blames this depletion in sales on the increasing competition in the market. Which of the following theories best explains Richard's behavior in this scenario?

A) attribution theory B) two-factor theory C) equity theory D) expectancy theory

34) Javier's friend incurred a huge loss because he invested in a stock that later crashed in the stock market. Javier believes that the loss was because of the poor decisions made by his friend rather than the external events affecting the performance of the stock. This is an example of A) the bandwagon effect.

B) a fundamental attribution error.

C) self-serving bias.

D) the recency effect.

35) Whenever Ray gets good grades, he attributes his good performance to his skills and determination. When he performs poorly, he blames it on his friends and peers. In this case, Ray's behavior best illustrates A) the bandwagon effect.

B) fundamental attribution error.

C) self-serving bias.

D) the decoy effect.

36) Stephen Covey refers to the concept of gaining self-awareness through understanding how others view us and how we are shaped by others' opinions of us as the A) glass ceiling.

B) social mirror.

C) learning curve.

D) catch-22 situation.

37) __________ is best described as the act of sharing your thoughts, feelings, and ideas with others without self-deception and without distortion.

A) Self-disclosure B) Groupthink C) Self-realization D) Stereotyping

38)

Which of the following is not an effective way of increasing self-awareness?

A) keeping your thoughts and feelings to yourself without sharing it with others B) working in a country other than your home country C) reading books on subjects that are beyond your career field D) discussing your failures with your friends

39) Self-awareness involves a capacity to monitor and control biases that potentially affect your decision making. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40)

Collectivists define themselves independent of group affiliation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41)

Managers who have low self-awareness are superior performers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) Typically, Westerners are collectivists, and people from Asian countries are individualists.

⊚ ⊚

true false

43) Patterns of behavior develop through reactions to events and actions over a period of time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) Personality traits of an individual are highly unstable; they change frequently depending on the situation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) If a person is cold and uncaring in one situation, he or she is likely to behave similarly in other situations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Individuals who score high on conscientiousness are more likely to be viewed as uncaring and disrespectful. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47)

High self-monitors are least interested in what others think of them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48)

Low self-monitors usually hide their true selves to conform to a situation.

⊚ ⊚

49)

true false

Our attitudes are easier to influence and change than our behaviors or values. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) At work, the best managers are those who augment their own perspectives with the views of others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51)

Selective perception facilitates communication with others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) Stereotyping involves attributing one's own attitudes, characteristics, or shortcomings to others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) Projecting our beliefs onto others allows them to provide us with a unique and fresh perspective. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) Self-serving bias causes us to overestimate external factors for successes and blame internal factors for failures.

⊚ ⊚

true false

55) Fundamental attribution error involves underestimating the influence of internal factors when evaluating the behavior of others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) The social mirror is based on our memory of how others have reacted toward us or treated us. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) The social mirror is designed to help you learn about yourself. Hence it is important to accept everything that others say to you as reality. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58) Self-awareness can be increased by acquiring multiple experiences in diverse situations and with diverse others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 1) Self-awareness can help a person in various ways. ● 1) It helps a person understand himself or herself in relation to others. ● 2) It helps a person develop and implement a sound selfimprovement program. ● 3) It helps a person set meaningful life and career goals. ● 4) It helps a person develop relationships with others. ● 5) It helps a person understand the value of diversity. ● 6) It helps a person manage others effectively. ● 7) It helps a person increase his or her productivity. ● 8) It helps a person increase his or her ability to contribute to organizations, peers, employers, community, and family.

2) The Big Five model is a powerful assessment that organizes numerous concepts into a "short list" of just five factors that are representative of the characteristics that can be linked with satisfaction and success. The Big Five model has five primary components: extroversion, agreeableness, emotional stability, conscientiousness, and openness to experience.

1) Extroversion assesses the degree to which you are social or antisocial, outgoing or shy, assertive or passive, active or inactive, and talkative or quiet. A person who rates high for the first traits in these pairs is extroverted, while someone who rates high for the second traits is introverted. Extroversion or introversion, in itself, is not necessarily bad, but extremes at both ends of the spectrum can be equally dysfunctional.

2) Agreeableness measures the degree to which you are friendly or reserved, cooperative or guarded, flexible or inflexible, trusting or cautious, good-natured or moody, soft-hearted or tough, and tolerant or judgmental. Those scoring high on the first element of these paired traits are viewed as agreeable and easy to work with, while those rating low are viewed as more disagreeable and difficult to work with.

3) Emotional stability measures the degree to which you are consistent in how you react to certain events, weigh options before acting, and look at a situation objectively. Those who rate high on emotional stability are viewed as generally calm, stable, having a positive attitude, able to manage their anger, secure, happy, and objective.

4) Conscientiousness represents the degree to which you are dependable, can be counted on, follow through on commitments, and keep promises. Those who rate high on conscientiousness are generally perceived to be careful, thorough, organized, persistent, achievement oriented, hardworking, and persevering. Those who score lower on this dimension are more likely to be viewed as inattentive to detail, uncaring,

disrespectful, not interested or motivated, unorganized, apt to give up easily, and lazy.

5) Openness to experience considers whether you are interested in broadening your horizons or limiting them, learning new things or sticking with what you already know, meeting new people or associating with current friends and coworkers, going to new places, or restricting yourself to known places. Individuals who score high on this factor tend to be highly intellectual, broad-minded, curious, imaginative, and cultured. Those who rate lower tend to be more narrow-minded, less interested in the outside world, and uncomfortable in unfamiliar surroundings and situations.

3) Attitudes are ―settled ways of thinking about someone or something, typically reflected in a person’s behavior.‖ As human beings, we can choose how we think and feel about a situation or event. Attitudes are derived from supervisors, parents, teachers, peers, society, and our own experiences. Attitudes are one of the less stable facets of our personality, which means they are easier to influence and change than our behaviors or values.

Strong attitudes can impact our professional and personal relationships. As a manager, it is helpful to remember how much of a role our attitude can play in our success. Our attitude can determine whether we think positively and take control of a situation or think negatively and feel helpless about our ability to change or respond to a situation. Attitude is important to being productive at work or in school.

Attitude can influence those around us. Being aware of our own attitude and making choices about which attitude to display to others is very important. Attitude can affect our job behavior as well as our interactions with others. Friends, significant others, family members, coworkers, and others are definitely influenced by our thoughts and feelings toward situations. As a manager, it is also important to recognize our employees are affected by the attitude we display toward them and toward the work that needs to get done. A manager's attitude is a large factor in how people feel about their jobs. If a manager is upbeat most of the time and supportive of his or her colleagues, employees will generally respond well and work hard to produce the desired results. On the other hand, if a manager is pessimistic and belittling toward his or her employees, staff morale will suffer and, ultimately, so will the expected outcomes.

4) Factors from a variety of sources may simultaneously impact our perception. Our past experience, belief system, family background, and personal values heavily influence our perceptions of others. Some of the more common filters that can influence our perceptions are stereotyping, selective perception, projection, expectations, and interest.

1) Stereotyping is making assumptions about an individual or a group based on generalized judgments rather than on facts. Many who stereotype others do so on the basis of observable demographic characteristics, such as race or ethnicity, gender, age, disability, religion, and sexual orientation. Rather than relying on a stereotype that is probably largely false, it is best to check your own perceptions and come to an event or meet a new person with an open mind.

2) Selective perception is interpreting information for meaning and accuracy and discarding information that is threatening or not relevant.

Selective perception serves a useful purpose, but it hinders communication with others. Rather than automatically "tuning out" information with which you disagree, keep an open mind, being open to all new views about a situation before prematurely developing your own opinion.

3) Projection is attributing one's own attitudes, characteristics, or shortcomings to others. For example, someone who cheats and lies might make the assumption that everyone cheats and lies. This validates our own perceptions of the way things are, or at least the way we think things should be. However, projecting our beliefs onto others denies them the opportunity to provide us with a unique and fresh perspective.

4) Expectations involve forming an opinion about how we would like an event to unfold, a situation to develop, or a person to act, think, or feel. We tend to perceive, select, and interpret information according to how we expect it to appear. By understanding what your expectations are and viewing a situation with a clean slate—minus preconceived

notions about what to expect—you are better able to approach situations and people and form your own opinions based on actual experience rather than on assumptions.

5) Interest is basing our activities and inputs on things that are likeable or appealing to us. We tend to focus our time and attention—consciously or subconsciously—on those things that are enjoyable and meaningful to us. The tendency to be drawn to things that interest us can be positive, in that it helps conserve our energy for the things that matter to us.

However, as you increase your own self-understanding, it is important to reach out to things that go beyond what interests you at the time. By doing this you can broaden yourself and your understanding of the things that are important and meaningful to others.

5) Attribution theory demonstrates that individuals tend to decide that a behavior is caused by a particular characteristic or event. We make these attributions or judgments about what caused the resulting behavior based on our personal observation or evaluation of the situation.

Understanding how and why you make these attributions is important because future decisions and behaviors are based more on your perception of why something happened rather than on the actual outcome. Therefore, we tend to reinforce our beliefs about ourselves and others based on the perceptions we gain from these experiences.

It is also important to evaluate whether these judgments are attributed more to internal or external factors. Attributing outcomes to controllable factors tends to be a stronger indicator of future behavior than attributing them to uncontrollable factors. Perceptions determine behavior in future situations based on the amount of personal control you believe you have over the situation.

Behavior and perception have an impact on your attributions. Selfserving bias causes us to overestimate internal factors for successes and blame external factors for failures. This may cause you to evaluate incorrectly your personal strengths and weaknesses. Another bias is fundamental attribution error, which causes individuals to overestimate the impact of internal factors and underestimate the influence of external factors when evaluating the behavior of others.

6) B 7) B 8) B 9) D 10) B 11) D 12) C 13) B

14) A 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) C 19) C 20) C 21) C 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) C 27) C 28) B 29) B 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) B 37) A 38) A 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE

44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE 51) FALSE 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE 57) FALSE 58) TRUE

Student name:__________ 1)

What is self-disclosure? What elements should it include to be effective?

2)

Why is self-disclosure important? List any five benefits of self-disclosure.

3)

Elaborate on the Johari window.

4)

Why is trust important in the work environment?

5)

What do organizational cultures associated with trust emphasize?

6) Daniel's team has been working together for two months. A member from his team, Lisa, is facing problems in balancing her work and home responsibilities. Daniel decides to share with Lisa a few incidents from his personal life that taught him how to balance his work life and family life. In this scenario, Daniel is involved in the process of A) self-description.

B) self-realization.

C) self-awareness.

D) self-disclosure.

7)

Identify a true statement about self-disclosure.

A) It improves our ability to look at the world through idealistic lenses.

B) It results in an enhanced and trusting business relationship.

C) It involves revealing information that is apparent to others.

D) It causes individuals to overestimate the influence of internal factors on other's behavior.

8) To build a strong relationship with Alva, Sam realizes that he must make himself known to her by revealing personal information. To be effective with self-disclosure, Sam should A) focus on the past rather than the present.

B) share facts rather than feelings.

C) speak openly and transparently without hidden agendas.

D) wait for Alva to take the first initiative for self-disclosure.

9) Sharing personal information about yourself that exceeds the expectations of the moment is referred to as A) self-awareness.

B) self-realization.

C) self-disclosure.

D) self-description.

10) Nancy is a new employee at a company. On her first day at work, she is introduced to a few coworkers with whom she shares some nonthreatening information such as her age, college major, and previous job. In this scenario, Nancy is involved in A) self-realization.

B) self-description.

C) self-analysis.

D) self-awareness.

11)

Which of the following is an example of self-description as opposed to self-disclosure?

A) disclosing your organization's name at a conference B) sharing your view on the nation's political system with a colleague C) expressing your spiritual beliefs to a friend D) disclosing the problems you are facing at home to a coworker

12)

Which of the following best illustrates self-disclosure as opposed to self-description?

A) expressing your views on a company's organizational culture B) giving your contact information at a conference C) providing your name and age to the personnel department of your company D) disclosing your college major to a colleague

13) In the context of self-disclosure, identify a true statement about computer-mediated communication (CMC).

A) Gender plays no role in CMC self-disclosure.

B) It provides a forum for quick self-disclosure with individuals you do not know well.

C) Revealing and obtaining personal information on the Internet does not invite legal issues.

D) It leads to clear, gentle, and premeditated communication between individuals.

14)

Which of the following is an effective practice with regard to self-disclosure?

A) revealing innermost dreams and fears to your boss on the first day of your new job B) focusing on the past rather than the present when disclosing personal information C) discussing situations as they happen instead of waiting for a few days or weeks D) focusing strictly on revealing facts instead of expressing your feelings

15) Which of the following helps us understand how well we know ourselves and how much of ourselves we let others know?

A) Johari window B) Boston Consulting Group matrix C) Ansoff Matrix D) Hierarchy of Needs Pyramid

16)

Which of the following statements outlines the basic premise of the Johari window?

A) One's personal and professional relationships can be greatly improved through understanding oneself in depth.

B) The more one shares about oneself with others, the less one develops high-quality relationships.

C) One must ignore the aspects of oneself that are "hidden" from the view of others.

D) The smaller the open area, the more productive and mutually beneficial the interpersonal relationship between individuals.

17) windowWhich of the following is true of the open area of the Johari window with respect to interpersonal relationships?

A) It shrinks vertically as the relationship builds.

B) It is relatively small at the beginning of the relationship.

C) As it decreases in size, the relationship becomes more mutually beneficial.

D) As it increases in size, the relationship becomes less productive.

18) When Naomi joined her new organization, her colleagues already knew her name, her job title, and marital status. According to the Johari window, this information about Naomi would fall under the A) blind area.

B) hidden area.

C) open area.

D) unknown area.

19) The __________ area of the Johari window denotes information about us that is apparent to others but not to ourselves.

A) blind B) unknown C) open D) hidden

20) Sandra's husband knows that Sandra fidgets with her hair when stressed. However, Sandra is unaware of her body language during such situations. With regard to Sandra's selfawareness, which section of the Johari window does this scenario best illustrate?

A) the unknown area B) the open area C) the blind area D) the hidden area

21) While giving a presentation, Clara is aware that she is nervous. However, she does not let the audience know about her nervousness. This information about Clara will be categorized under the __________ of the Johari window.

A) blind area B) hidden area C) open area D) unknown area

22)

The hidden area of the Johari window comprises information about ourselves that A) others are aware of but we are not.

B) neither we nor others know.

C) we know but others do not.

D) others agree with but we disagree with.

23) Jamie ensures that his subordinates are closely guided and instructed throughout a project. He believes that this makes him a highly responsible and emphatic manager. However, Jamie is unaware that all his team members agree he has a strong tendency to control and micromanage people around him. With regard to Jamie's self-awareness, which part of the Johari window does this scenario best illustrate?

A) The hidden area B) The blind area C) The open area D) The unknown area

24)

In the context of the Johari window, the larger the hidden area, the A) greater the information that neither you nor others know.

B) lesser the chances of your relationships developing beyond the acquaintance level.

C) lesser the chance that others will be unaware about you.

D) more the trust and communication in your interpersonal relationships.

25) It was only when Jon was fighting against leukemia did he and his family realize that he could be a strong, highly independent, and optimistic person. Before this, he was seen as a highly vulnerable individual. This information about Jon that he and the others were unaware of before the incident would fall under the __________ in the Johari window.

A) unknown area B) hidden area C) open area D) blind area

26) In the context of the Johari window, which of the following statements is true of the unknown area?

A) It contains information that we have forgotten or have intentionally suppressed.

B) It increases in size as we learn, develop, and grow.

C) It contains information that is hidden from us but we are aware about ourselves.

D) It increases in size because of our experience or exposure to different situations.

27) __________ is best described as one's faith or belief in the integrity or reliability of another person or thing.

A) Goodwill B) Trust C) Self-efficacy D) Self-judgment

28) Martha is not receptive to new ideas and is unwilling to share ideas with her coworkers.

This scenario best illustrates a lack of the __________ element of trust.

A) integrity B) sincerity C) openness D) consistency

29) Supplies Plus Inc. is the most trusted supplier of component parts in the automobile industry. Irrespective of the situation, the company has been persistently delivering its products to its customers before the specified delivery date, at the promised price, and without compromising on the quality. Which of the following elements of trust has primarily helped Supplies Plus earn the reputation of the most trusted supplier?

A) empathy B) sovereignty C) openness D) consistency

30) Which of the following elements of trust relates to your ability to honestly disclose and share your thoughts, beliefs, and feelings?

A) integrity B) equity C) loyalty D) empathy

31) Sarah, a new team member, wants her coworkers to be able to trust her. In this scenario, which of the following practices would help her?

A) being consistent and predictable in her work B) making self-flattering statements about her capabilities C) revealing confidential information about others without their permission D) participating in gossip about specific individuals

32) Gerald manages the marketing team in his company. Most of his team members are new to the organization. Which of the following practices would best help Gerald in building trust within his team?

A) facilitating self-disclosure among his team members B) encouraging his team members to focus on self-protection C) being judgmental when his team members share their ideas D) micromanaging his team members

33) Which of the following is an ineffective practice with regard to building trust within your department?

A) limiting the employee's access to information in the department B) accepting disagreements and differences of opinion within the department C) restricting the team leaders in the department from micromanaging their subordinates D) communicating openly with the employees about the changes in the department

34)

Which of the following statements is true of trust?

A) Trust is a right; it cannot be earned.

B) Trust is situation-dependent, and it evolves over time.

C) Trust is very easy to develop, but it is very difficult to destroy.

D) Trust is constant across all relationships.

35)

Which of the following actions helps to build trust with others?

A) revealing confidences shared in private to gain mutual trust B) not disclosing and sharing thoughts and feelings C) not overcommitting to the extent that promises are at risk of being broken D) focusing on making promises rather than building personal competence

36) Disclosing ourselves to an appropriate person can help us validate our perceptions of reality. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) As one self-discloses, others reciprocate, enabling one to better develop strategies for understanding and working effectively with them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38)

Unlike self-awareness, self-disclosure is not influenced by cultural rules and norms. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) We are becoming more accustomed to sharing information about ourselves in online social network communities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40)

Self-disclosure is synonymous with self-description. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Self-disclosure is revealing significant personal information about oneself that exceeds the expectations of the moment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) As organizations become less hierarchical and more team-based, the need for selfdisclosure reduces. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) If you have a low self-image, it will inhibit your willingness to self-disclose out of a fear of being judged negatively. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) The smaller the open area in the Johari window, the more productive and mutually beneficial the interpersonal relationship is likely to be. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) In the Johari window, the hidden area contains information that is known to us but unknown to others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) By preventing themselves from sharing hidden information, people can create a barrier that helps protect themselves in the long term. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) The more we understand our strengths and weaknesses and are open to others' views of us, the smaller the blind area in the Johari window. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) The unknown area in the Johari window comprises information we know about ourselves but is hidden from others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) As we practice disclosing more and more information about ourselves through shared experiences with others, the open area in the Johari window shrinks.

⊚ ⊚

true false

50) The unknown area in the Johari window becomes smaller over time as we grow, develop, and learn. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51)

Without trust in an organization, employees focus on self-protection. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52)

Trust is built up on the basis of past experience. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53)

Boasting about your capabilities is an effective way to build trust within a relationship. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) In the context of mergers, the more openly and effectively each company communicates with its employees about the changes as they occur, the better the employees adjust and move forward in their work on behalf of the newly merged organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55)

Trust is an aspect of relationships, and it varies "within persons and across relationships."

⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 2

1) Self-disclosure means making the self known to others, letting others know what you think, feel, and want. It is revealing personal information to another that results in an enhanced and trusting personal or business relationship.

Effective self-disclosure includes these elements: 1. Feelings as well as facts: When you share your feelings about or reactions to others, let them get to know the real you. Saying you have three co-workers is interesting information, but revealing the kind of relationship you have with them helps others get to know you better.

2. Greater breadth and depth over time: In order for self-disclosure to facilitate building a relationship, it has to grow gradually in depth (becoming more revealing about your feelings toward a particular issue or set of issues) and breadth (expanding the discussion to cover more issues, such as work, family, leisure, and core beliefs).

3. A focus on the present rather than the past: While sharing about your past might help explain why you behave the way you do, it is not advisable to share all your past skeletons. Doing so might feel cathartic, but it also might leave you feeling vulnerable, especially if this disclosure is not reciprocated. Stay in the present.

4. Reciprocity: To the degree possible, try to match the level of selfdisclosure offered by people with whom you become acquainted. Be careful not to overdisclose prematurely, before the relationship has had time to build familiarity and trust.

5. Transparency: When you share information either face to face or online, to the extent that you can, prepare in advance, think twice before "speaking," and provide details as appropriate to ensure those with whom you are interacting have the necessary information. Speak openly and transparently without hidden agendas. This will build trust and ensure your comments are taken as genuine.

6. Authenticity: Make sure that the way you are presenting yourself in

meetings and interactions is consistent with what people may already know about you from your online presence.

2) Self-disclosure benefits both individuals and their relationships.

Individuals who self-disclose reap psychological and physiological benefits. By self-disclosing and reciprocating others' self-disclosure, we can improve our communication and relationships with others. The following are the benefits of self-disclosure: ● 1. Sharing with others about ourselves or problems we are facing often brings an enormous sense of psychological relief. ● 2. Disclosing to an appropriate person (one who is sympathetic, supportive, trustworthy, and a good listener) can help us validate our perceptions of reality. ● 3. It can help reduce stress and tension. ● 4. It improves us physiologically. ● 5. It can result in clearer lines of communication with others. ● 6. It can lead to strengthened, enhanced relationships with people in our personal life, colleagues, and clients. ● 7. It affects team productivity. ● 8. It can create a trusting environment that is conducive to promoting long-term relationships with employees, customers, and suppliers. ● 9. It also has benefits for people globally. ● 10. When used appropriately, it can strengthen online communication.

3) The Johari window was created by Joseph Luft and Harry Ingram. It helps us understand the extent to which we know ourselves and let others know about ourselves. The basic premise of the Johari window is that we can improve both our personal and professional relationships by understanding ourselves deeply and choosing the aspects of ourselves that we consider appropriate to share with others. The Johari window is divided into four areas: 1.The open area: It contains information about ourselves that we know and even others know. The open area includes our name, level in the organization, job title, and maybe something about our personal life such as the school or college from which we graduated and our marital status.

As the size of the open area increases, the interpersonal relationship gets more productive and mutually beneficial.

2.The hidden area: It contains information about ourselves that we know but others do not know. It can include the issues we have with a job or our concerns related to finance, family, or health. In the short term, concealing hidden information can protect a person by creating a barrier.

3.The blind area: It includes information about ourselves that others know but we do not know. We can decrease this blind area by receiving feedback from others in terms of their observations of our behaviors and personalities. This will result in the open area becoming more complete.

4.The unknown area: It contains information about ourselves that both we and the others do not know. What makes this window unknown is our lack of exposure to or experience with different situations or because of our lack of ability to process difficult events that occurred in our past.

4) Trust is essential in the work environment. Clients and customers need to be able to rely on information a company and its employees provide. Subordinates need to be able to trust their managers, managers need to be able to trust senior management, and everyone needs to be able to expect consistent reactions from their co-workers and associates.

Trust is a necessary foundation for a healthy work environment. Without trust, employees may focus on self-protection—weakening their willingness to cooperate and collaborate, damaging their motivation, and thwarting innovative and productive work.

1. Individual impact: The role of trust in organizations begins at the individual level. Trust is what binds leaders and followers together. In order to build trust, communication and action must be consistent. By demonstrating consistency, integrity, and concern, and by sharing organizational information straightforwardly and accurately, a leader's trustworthy behavior can promote and foster trust.

2. Organizational impact: When organization members violate trust with stakeholders, organizations lose stakeholders' confidence. Losing confidence and integrity can lead to the eventual demise of the institution. Trust is built up on the basis of past experience. In order to regain the trust of employees, stockholders, and the general public, leaders must first prove they are trustworthy, hence regaining integrity and confidence for their organizations.

5) Organizational cultures associated with trust emphasize the following: ● 1. Depth of relationships ● 2. Understanding of roles and responsibilities ● 3. Frequent, timely, and forthright communication ● 4. Member self-esteem and self-awareness ● 5. High levels of skill competence ● 6. Clarity of shared purpose, direction, and vision ● 7. Honoring promises and commitments Organizations with low or no trust are susceptible to a range of negative employee responses, including high turnover, reduced job satisfaction, less cooperation, and increased absenteeism. These behaviors often exist in organizations going through a merger or acquisition. The more openly and effectively each company can communicate with its employees about the changes as they occur, the better the employees will be able to adjust and move forward in their work on behalf of the newly merged organization. Those companies that make information available to their employees are more successful at achieving their business goals than are those companies that keep their employees in the dark or misrepresent information to them.

6) D 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) B 11) A 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) A

16) A 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) C 23) B 24) B 25) A 26) A 27) B 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) TRUE 37) TRUE 38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE

46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE Student name:__________ 1) What is goal setting? Why is it important? List out some of the key behaviors for effective goal setting.

2) Write a SMART goal for your work group. Discuss how parts of your goal statement and objective steps comply with the criteria for developing a SMART goal.

3) Briefly describe the six stages of moral development and reasoning identified by Lawrence Kohlberg.

4)

What is an ethics test? List the four components of an ethics test.

5)

List the benefits of ethical decision making and the strategies for ethical decision making.

6) __________ is a way of identifying your work/life priorities and developing strategies for attaining personal and professional objectives.

A) Career planning B) Strategic maneuvering C) Goal setting D) Target engineering

7)

Which of the following benefits of goal setting helps individuals measure success?

A) perseverance B) purpose C) motivation D) productivity

8) Margaret has joined an insurance firm as a trainee and works with the data analytics team. Though good at her work, she lacks mathematical skills and is not well-versed with computers. In setting her goals during a performance review meeting with her manager, she states, "I need to improve my miserable computer skills and my limited mathematical ability."

Which of the following key behaviors for effective goal setting is Margaret lacking?

A) being realistic B) being positive C) taking full responsibility D) starting small

9) Ron's goal is to run the local marathon next year, even though he only jogs briefly around his neighborhood. His first attempt to run 10 miles was a failure as he was only able to complete 5 miles. Which of the following key behaviors for effective goal setting is Ron lacking?

A) being positive B) taking full responsibility C) starting small D) persevering

10) __________ are concepts or beliefs about desirable outcomes that transcend specific situations and guide an individual's selection or evaluation of behaviors and events.

A) Skills B) Traits C) Values D) Goals

11)

The desire to achieve career success and wisdom are examples of __________ values.

A) terminal B) instructive C) instrumental D) tangible

12)

Which of the following is an example of an instrumental value?

A) salvation B) prosperity C) sense of accomplishment D) compassion

13)

Which of the following statements is true of values?

A) Terminal values are the "hows" of goal setting.

B) Instrumental values are the "what's" of goal setting.

C) Tangible values are the standards of behavior by which we achieve desired ends.

D) Intangible values can be defined differently for each person.

14)

According to the SMART goal system, "A" stands for

A) assignable.

B) attainable.

C) attractive.

D) acceptable.

15) John is a sales representative with Medpharma Industries. His job involves selling medical equipment to hospitals and clinics. He sets an objective of selling more than 70 percent of his monthly target within a week. According to the SMART system, which of the following criteria for setting goal statements has John ignored in this scenario?

A) measurable B) time-bound C) realistic D) attainable

16) Amy sets herself a goal to lose 10 pounds. Which of the following criteria of the SMART system is missing in Amy's goal?

A) specificity B) time frame C) measurability D) realistic

17) Amanda wants to improve her overall health and well-being. In order to meet her objective, she begins by writing down some goal statements. In this case, which of the following statements should be used by Amanda for effective goal setting?

A) "I would like to be in better shape in a month's time."

B) "I would like to lose 10 pounds in a week's time."

C) "I would like to be in a better shape by exercising often and lowering my cholesterol levels."

D) "I would like to lose 10 pounds in two months by lowering my cholesterol by 20 points and exercising regularly."

18) Striving for performance, visualizing the outcome, and allowing for setbacks are a few strategies for A) overcoming obstacles.

B) writing effective goals.

C) clarifying values.

D) evaluating key behaviors for effective goal setting.

19) __________ are situations in which setting goals or making decisions is based largely on judgments and determinations rather than on indisputable facts.

A) Legal conflicts B) Ethical dilemmas C) Personality conflicts D) Social biases

20) Ryan, a marketing manager, needs to decide whether to hire an untrained individual from a well-known family as his new team member or a qualified individual. In this scenario, Ryan's situation may be attributed to a(n) A) personality conflict.

B) ethical dilemma.

C) legal conflict.

D) Social biases

21)

Which of the following statements is true of ethical dilemmas?

A) They ensure that there is minimal variation in the judgements exercised by managers across different cultures.

B) They involve internal mechanisms that help make sound decisions.

C) They arise when managers must choose between their own interests and those of others.

D) They arise when managers have to make decisions based on indisputable facts.

22) According to Kohlberg's stages of moral development and reasoning, each level represents a shift in an individual's __________ perspective.

A) cultural–moral B) social–cultural C) social–moral D) cognitive–cultural

23) Lucy is a manager at a software firm. She encourages her team members to cooperate with each other and tries to inculcate productive working relationships among them. She ensures that she and her team follow all organizational rules and standards because she believes that it is important to do so. In the context of Kohlberg's stages, Lucy is most likely at the __________ level of moral development.

A) postconventional B) conventional C) preconventional D) nonconventional

24) According to Kohlberg, social accord and system maintenance are part of the __________ level of moral development.

A) nonconventional B) postconventional C) conventional D) preconventional

25) According to Kohlberg's stages of moral development, which of the following is true of the postconventional level?

A) Individuals make moral judgments that are characterized by concrete, individual perspectives.

B) Individuals have a basic understanding of the need to conform to societal standards.

C) Individuals tend to identify with the rules, uphold them consistently, and behave in ways society defines as "right."

D) Individuals make ethical decisions based on personal judgments.

26) At the __________ level of Kohlberg's moral development theory, behaviors are guided by self-interest to obey the rules in order to avoid punishment.

A) postconventional B) conventional C) preconventional D) nonconventional

27) According to Kohlberg, managers encourage cooperation and productive working relationships at the __________ level of moral development.

A) postconventional B) conventional C) preconventional D) nonconventional

28) Which of the following is concerned with recognizing that an issue involves an ethical question, making an ethical judgment, and actually acting ethically?

A) ethical empowerment B) ethics test C) ethical audit D) ethical decision making

29)

Which of the following is true of ethical decision making?

A) Ethical decisions are merely a set of rules.

B) Ethics can present a different perspective and give a new dimension to organizational decision making.

C) Codes of ethics ensure that organizational ethical standards are followed.

D) Ethics guide people in making decisions that are completely based on factors that have already been specified.

30)

Which of the following is a rule of ethical thinking?

A) Think rationally, and ensure your actions involve a self-interest motive.

B) Obey and depend on the law as all actions are usually legal and ethical.

C) Think of yourself as an isolated individual, and take actions accordingly.

D) Obey moral guidelines by which you have agreed to live.

31)

__________ provide a tangible description of an organization's values and guidelines.

A) Behavioral codes B) Codes of ethics C) Ethical audits D) Ethical judgments

32) Jeff, son of a sincere marine officer, is a supply chain manager with Arizona Systems.

One of his suppliers always supplies substandard electronic chips to his company. Jeff wants to report this to the management. However, the supplier offers him a bribe to overlook this issue and continue with the procurement. Which of the following components of the ethics test should Jeff use in this scenario?

A) the test of common sense B) the "light of day" approach C) the test of one's best self D) the test of the purified idea

33) A(n) __________ is a broad-based, agreed-upon system that lets an organization consistently focus and refocus on its values and whether its performance is meeting the standards it professes.

A) ethics test B) code of ethics C) ethical audit D) ethical judgment

34) General Mills, a leather manufacturing company, has developed an organizational system for analyzing situational and environmental factors to determine if the organization is meeting its set ethical standards. This process is known as a(n) A) ethical test.

B) ethical stance.

C) code of ethics.

D) ethical audit.

35) A(n) __________ involves frameworks that employees can use to arrive at decisions about ethical actions by following a short, step-by-step list of rules.

A) code of ethics B) decision-making model C) ethical audit D) ethics test

36)

Establishing written goals seldom help individuals formalize their dreams and wishes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) Those who are most successful in business monitor their thoughts and actions and are attuned to their personal and professional goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38)

Instrumental values are the standards of behavior by which we achieve desired ends. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39)

Compassion is an example of a terminal value. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) SMART refers to a goal that is specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and has a time frame. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41)

Every goal statement should be accompanied by objectives or an action plan. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) By ensuring goal statements are SMART, individuals create a system for managing action steps and increase the likelihood that these goals will be attained. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) When individuals set their own goals, they have less amount of well-being, commitment, and organizational commitment, resulting in decreased performance and productivity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44)

Goal setting is an ongoing process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) An ethical dilemma arises when a manager must choose between his or her own interests and the interests of someone else or some other group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) The individual ethics of organizational members are one of the three factors that affect actions and behaviors within the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) According to Kohlberg, most managers and individuals function at the first level, where their thinking about right and wrong is predominantly influenced by significant others and rules and laws. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) When ethical employee behavior at all levels is valued and encouraged, organizations function more smoothly, and perhaps even more successfully. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Employees in companies with ethical guidelines are better prepared to treat customers fairly if a conflict arises. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50)

Employees in companies with ethical guidelines experience low comfort levels. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) One of the eight rules of ethical thinking is respecting the customs of other individuals.

However, this should not be done at the expense of one's own ethics. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52)

An ethics test usually does not provide one "correct" answer.

⊚ ⊚

true false

53) The ethics test of common sense is based on the question "Is this action or decision I'm getting ready to take compatible with my concept of myself at my best?" ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) An ethical audit is a framework that helps employees make decisions about ethical actions by following a short, step-by-step list of rules. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) An ethical audit is a framework that helps employees make decisions about ethical actions by following a short, step-by-step list of rules. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 1) Goal-setting theory is based on the premise that conscious goals affect action. Goal setting is a way of identifying your work/life priorities and developing strategies for attaining personal and professional objectives. The goal-setting process has several benefits such as results orientation, purpose/direction, productivity, and motivation. Some key behaviors for effective goal setting include being realistic and positive, starting small, having perseverance, and taking full responsibility.

2) Answers will vary.

Examples should be included to illustrate how the goal should be.

1.Specific—The goal should have details and be focused and incremental.

2.Measurable—The goal should be quantifiable.

3.Attainable—The goal should be believable, relevant, and should include necessary resources.

4.Realistic—The goal should be challenging yet possible.

5.Time-bound—The goal should have deadlines with a realistic time frame.

3) Lawrence Kohlberg identified six stages of moral development and reasoning, which he grouped into three major levels. Each level represents a shift in the social–moral perspective of the individual that explains how judgments affect action. Each level is also comprised of two stages. The stages of moral development are as follows: Preconventional Level Stage 1: Obedience and punishment—act to avoid consequences Stage 2: Instrumental purpose and exchange—acting in one's own interest Conventional Level Stage 3: Interpersonal accord, conformity to group norms—act to meet expectations of peers or organization Stage 4: Social accord and system maintenance—meet expectations of society as expressed in laws Postconventional Level Stage 5: Social contract—attempt to get social consensus and tolerance Stage 6: Universal ethical principles—acts are consistent with personal moral principles, seeking the greater good

4) An ethics test is a series of questions that aids employees in making well-considered judgments about a situation before making a decision.

Using this test will not provide one "correct" answer. The test provides criteria to be considered when determining if a course of action is ethical. The test has four components: 1.The test of common sense: "Does this action I am about to take make sense?"

2.The test of one's best self: "Is this action or decision I am getting ready to take compatible with my concept of myself at my best?"

3.The "light of day" approach or making something public: "How would I feel if others knew I was doing this? Would I be willing to stand in front of my family, friends, and peers and be proud to tell them what I had decided to do?"

4.The test of the purified idea: "Am I thinking this action or decision is right just because someone with appropriate authority or knowledge says it is right?"

5) Many companies today are providing ethical guidelines or codes of conduct for their employees to use when faced with a situation that is not covered by standard policies and procedures. This practice has several benefits that include customer relations, goodwill, employee satisfaction, and employee empowerment.

The strategies for ethical decision making include codes of ethics, ethics tests, ethical audits, decision-making models, and ethics training.

6) C 7) D 8) B 9) C 10) C 11) A

12) D 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) C 27) B 28) D 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) B 36) FALSE 37) TRUE 38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) TRUE 41) TRUE

42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

Describe the five components of emotional intelligence (EQ).

2)

Explain the role of managers in emotional intelligence (EQ).

3)

Discuss strategies or plans for efficient time management.

4)

Discuss types of stress.

5)

List a few strategies for dealing with stress.

6)

What is the fear of failure? How can it be overcome?

7) Marie has the ability to manage her disruptive emotions and impulses. She is conscientious and has the ability to adapt to difficult situations. Which fundamental component of emotional intelligence does Marie exhibit?

A) social skills B) motivation C) self-regulation D) empathy

8) Jason is a successful manager because he has the required zeal, commitment, and ability to remain persistent in the face of adversity. Which fundamental component of emotional intelligence does Jason exhibit?

A) self-awareness B) motivation C) empathy D) persuasion

9)

Identify a true statement about emotional quotient.

A) It involves the same part of the brain as intelligence quotient.

B) It directly affects a person's ability for analytical thinking.

C) It is of less importance than intelligence quotient.

D) It involves managing interpersonal relationships.

10)

Which of the following is a key impact of emotional quotient in leadership?

A) less impulsiveness B) less optimism C) lack of transformational leadership D) reduced likelihood of change

11)

Which of the following statements is true of time management?

A) It is helpful only in our professional lives.

B) It restricts our activities to one arena at the expense of the other.

C) It has little effect on reducing our stress levels.

D) It helps focus our energy on well-chosen activities.

12)

Which of the following statements is true of stress?

A) Distress is a form of positive stress that presents opportunity for personal growth.

B) Stress can result in physiological, psychological, and organizational responses.

C) Stress is always counterproductive and negatively impacts one's mental and physical

health.

D) Stress caused by physiological problems includes anxiety and withdrawal.

13) __________ refers to efforts taken to change perceptions and behavior when external and internal demands exceed personal resources.

A) Fear management B) Stress management C) Time management D) Work management

14) Which of the following refers to the work-related adverse reactions of people to external demands and pressures, which leads to side effects such as low morale and poor interpersonal relationships?

A) eustress B) physiological stress C) organizational stress D) psychological stress

15) Which of the following best refers to an organizational stress management program that attempts to change the intensity and type of stressors impacting employees and may include job rotation, job enrichment, employee empowerment, goal setting, and regular feedback?

A) stress management training program B) stress reduction intervention program C) employee assistance program D) health promotion program

16) Irene is a manager at a car-manufacturing company. She wants to manage her time to ensure that her projects run as effectively and smoothly as possible. Which of the following should she do to achieve her goal?

A) She should restrict her activities to one area rather than taking up multiple tasks.

B) She should constantly switch from one high priority task to another.

C) She should prioritize her tasks based on their level of importance.

D) She should continue to work hard even if she experiences burnout.

17)

Which of the following best describes the term "time famine"?

A) the effective use of time that includes performing goal-directed activities B) the feeling of having too much to do but not enough time to actually do it C) the act of deliberately delaying work that needs to be completed D) the feeling of not knowing how to pass one's time

18)

According to the 80/20 rule in time management,

A) an estimated 80 percent of results are achieved from 20 percent of focused time.

B) approximately 80 percent of work is done in nonpeak periods and 20 percent during the biological prime time.

C) about 80 percent of the available time should be expended on tasks that are urgent and 20 percent of the time should be spent on other important tasks.

D) 80 percent of the available time should be spent on time-specific activities and 20 percent of the time should be reserved for non–time-specific activities.

19) Interruptions such as answering the telephone and checking emails fall under which of the following quadrants in the time management matrix?

A) quadrant 4 B) quadrant 1 C) quadrant 3 D) quadrant 2

20) In the context of the time management matrix, most problem-solving activities and those with immediate deadlines are A) neither important nor urgent.

B) important and urgent.

C) urgent but not important.

D) important but not urgent.

21) Which of the following activities would be classified as important but not urgent in the time management matrix?

A) preparing for an upcoming event B) dealing with a crisis C) checking emails D) writing a report due in one hour

22) According to the time management matrix, which of the following tasks belongs to quadrant 1?

A) writing a report due in one hour B) preparing for an upcoming event C) worrying or being angry D) answering the telephone

23) Which of the following activities are depicted in quadrant 4 in the time management matrix?

A) activities that are important and urgent B) activities that are urgent but not important C) activities that are neither important nor urgent D) activities that are not important but are urgent

24) David is committed to spending quality time with his friends and family. Based on the time management matrix, this commitment falls under the category of __________ activities.

A) important and urgent B) important but not urgent C) urgent but not important D) neither important nor urgent

25)

Which of the following statements is true of procrastination?

A) It gives ample time to review a piece of work for accuracy.

B) It reduces stress between an employee and his or her coworkers.

C) It avoids alienating coworkers.

D) It is usually associated with avoidance behavior.

26)

Which of the following is a component of emotional intelligence?

A) impulsiveness B) self-awareness C) time management skills D) aptitude

27)

Which of the following statements is true of the different types of stress?

A) Distress uplifts one's spirits.

B) Eustress is negative in nature.

C) Distress generates productivity.

D) Eustress generates enthusiasm.

28)

Which of the following statements is true of eustress?

A) It causes time famine.

B) It is beneficial.

C) It has debilitating effects.

D) It leads to procrastination.

29) Dominique feels that stress increases her enthusiasm levels and her productivity. In this case, Dominique is experiencing A) anticipatory fear.

B) time famine.

C) eustress.

D) distress.

30) Andrea is under pressure to complete her projects on time. She loses her enthusiasm to work, and her productivity falls. Eventually, her job affects her mental well-being. In this scenario, Andrea is experiencing A) time famine.

B) eustress.

C) distress.

D) cognitive dissonance.

31)

__________ involves misreading a situation.

A) Eustress B) Time famine C) Procrastination D) Bad fear

32)

Stress management training in an organization is likely to A) encourage instances of time famine among employees.

B) teach employees to reduce eustress.

C) encourage employees to take distress.

D) teach employees stress reduction skills.

33)

Which of the following statements is true of the cognitive strategy to stress management?

A) It focuses on changing behavior to improve one's situation.

B) It includes goal planning and healthy lifestyle adjustment.

C) It primarily includes time management and problem-solving practices.

D) It influences our emotions and well-being.

34) __________ is a highly structured educational approach that primarily combines meditation and yoga exercises to help people achieve a greater sense of control, make choices with clarity and awareness, and promote healthy living.

A) Stress reduction intervention B) Mindfulness-based stress reduction C) Cognitive therapy D) Somatic training

35) Which of the following stress management strategies primarily involves engaging our ability to recall a special place or memory and invite the same positive feelings or sensations to return?

A) progressive muscle relaxation B) visualization C) guided imagery D) mindfulness-based stress reduction

36) Which of the following statements is true of fear as one of the most common barriers to interpersonal effectiveness?

A) Fear lowers the levels of self-blame and self-neglect.

B) Fear has only negative effects on people.

C) Negative fear encourages creativity and learning.

D) Anxiety is one of the distinct components of anticipatory fear.

37) In the context of anticipatory fear, __________ is a preoccupation with an anticipated threat.

A) isolation B) anxiety C) resentment D) defensiveness

38) In the context of anticipatory fear, __________ is the internal struggle to devise a strategy to escape the threat.

A) worry B) abuse C) resentment D) defensiveness

39) Which of the following terms best refers to the disposition to avoid an undertaking because of the anticipation of shame and humiliation upon failing?

A) anticipatory fear B) failure to delegate C) fear of failure D) time famine

40)

Empathy primarily deals with the ability to manage disruptive emotions and impulses. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) People who successfully apply emotional intelligence create win–win relationships and outcomes for themselves and others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) Marina is being considered for a promotion as she has strong emotional intelligence.

Having high levels of emotional intelligence implies that Marina never expresses her emotions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43)

Understanding the levels of emotional intelligence is essential for self-awareness. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) Individuals with high emotional intelligence are comparatively moodier and more pessimistic than individuals with low emotional intelligence. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) Stress caused by organizational problems is easy to manage, as the factors causing the stress are usually under our control. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) According to the "80/20" rule, an estimated 20 percent of results are achieved from 80 percent of focused time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) In the time management matrix, quadrant 2 highlights events that are not important but urgent.

⊚ ⊚

true false

48) A situation can either be considered stressful or not, depending on how one views the stressor and responds to it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49)

Eustress dampens spirits and results in debilitating effects. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) Employee assistance programs (EAPs) generally involve offering professional counseling services to employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) Stress management training (SMT) focuses on preventive courses or programs offering employees training in stress reduction skills such as mediation, relaxation procedures, and stress awareness and understanding. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) Behavioral stress management strategies typically include identification of positive selftalk and a focus on beliefs and attitudes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) Being open about thoughts and feelings, with yourself and with others, is an effective technique for reducing stress levels. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) Mindfulness-based stress reduction aims at reinforcing human capacities for relaxation, awareness, insight, and behavior change. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55)

Progressive muscle relaxation and guided imagery are stress reduction techniques. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56)

Fear of failure can be overcome by looking for the "why" and finding a solution. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) Fear, one of the most common barriers to interpersonal effectiveness, has only negative effects on people. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58)

Anxiety and worry are the two components of anticipatory fear. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59) Based on knowledge, reason, and instincts, bad fear keeps a person away from danger or harmful situations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 1) Emotional Intelligence (EQ) has five components: 1.Self-awareness—emotional awareness, accurate self-assessment, self-confidence, ability to recognize emotions and their effects on you and others.

2.Self-regulation—self-control, trustworthiness, conscientiousness, adaptability, innovation, ability to manage disruptive emotions and impulses.

3.Motivation—zeal, achievement drive, commitment, initiative, optimism, and the ability to remain persistent in the face of adversity.

4.Empathy—understanding others, service orientation, developing others, leveraging diversity, political awareness, the ability to read and respond to others' feelings.

5.Social skills—interacting smoothly, managing interpersonal relationships, handling emotional responses to others, influence, communication, the ability to build bonds with others.

2) The manager's role in EQ includes the following: 1) Assess "emotional impact" of jobs—Managers need to be aware of the emotional pressures associated with particular jobs when designing job assignments.

2) Create a positive and friendly emotional climate—Managers need to recognize that workers need a supportive environment; work should not be a cold place devoid of concern for its members.

3) Properly reward and compensate—Through appropriately developed reward and compensation systems, managers can encourage a positive emotional climate.

4) Select appropriate employees and team members—Managers need to base selection of employees and team members on their record of utilizing a positive emotional attitude.

5) Provide EQ training—Managers need to develop training to increase employee EQ and encourage positive emotional responses.

3) Students' answers will vary. Some of the strategies or plans for managing time effectively are as follows: 1) Planning and prioritizing 2) Getting in the habit of preparing "to-do" lists 3) Following the "80/20" rule 4) Planning for your time-specific activities and non–time-specific activities 5) Finding your optimal working time 6) Controlling email 7) Prioritizing tasks by level of importance 8) Organizing 9) Delegating 10) Differentiating between what's urgent and what's important 11) Avoiding postponing

4) There are two types of stress: "good" and "bad." Good stress, or eustress, is positive, presents opportunity for personal growth or satisfaction, and pushes people to higher performance. Bad stress, or distress, is negative and results in debilitating effects.

Surprisingly, too little stress can be as detrimental as too much stress.

When individuals lack any stress or pressure to perform, they may utilize minimal effort and achieve suboptimal performance. Conversely, too much stress might make it difficult to concentrate or perform effectively or efficiently. Whether a particular stress factor one is experiencing is "good" or "bad" depends largely on how one perceives the stressor and responds to it. In other words, a situation can be termed "stressful" or not depending on how one chooses to look at and handle it.

5) Some coping strategies that can be used to deal with stress are as follows: 1.Identify your stressors and stress levels.

2.Implement time management skills.

3.Learn to share and disclose.

4.Keep a journal.

5.Talk to a trusted friend, relative, coworker, or professional helper such as a resident advisor, counselor, physician, or minister.

6.Use visualization and mental imagery.

7.Try mindfulness-based stress reduction (MBSR).

6) Fear of failure refers to the disposition to avoid an undertaking because of the anticipation of shame and humiliation upon failing.

Strategies to overcome fear of failure would include the following: 1) Look at failure as an event, not as a reflection on you personally.

2) Remind yourself that everyone experiences failure.

3) Look for the "why" and find a solution.

4) Ask yourself what you learned.

5) Associate with positive people and abolish fear and failure statements.

6) Create a new environment.

7) Access new information; let adversity become advantage.

8) Create a new perspective or mindset—develop new "self-talk."

9) Take one step at a time; keep moving forward.

7) C 8) B 9) D 10) A 11) D 12) B 13) B 14) C 15) B 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) C

24) B 25) D 26) B 27) D 28) B 29) C 30) C 31) D 32) D 33) D 34) B 35) C 36) D 37) B 38) A 39) C 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE

54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

What are some of the benefits of promoting diversity in the workplace?

2) Discuss the steps an individual can take to gain awareness in relation to diversity. Provide specific examples for each step.

3)

What is prejudice? Explain with examples.

4)

Identify the differences in the ways men and women communicate.

5) Discuss the strategies that can be implemented by organizations for addressing crosscultural issues.

6) In __________ diversity, the importance or significance of someone's difference does not automatically lead to actions or reactions on the part of the individual considering the diversity or difference.

A) integrating B) valuing C) cross-cultural D) managing

7) __________ involves supervising, coordinating, and directing the differences individuals bring to an organization to create an environment that will allow employees to achieve their full potential while ensuring that strategic organizational goals are being effectively met.

A) Valuing diversity B) Managing diversity C) Affirmative action D) Strategic positioning

8)

Which of the following is a component of an individual's deep-level diversity?

A) the individual's political views B) the individual's age C) the individual's ethnicity D) the individual's disability culture

9) Which of the following would most likely be part of an individual's surface-level diversity?

A) the individual's gender B) the individual's religious background C) the individual's education D) the individual's political views

10)

Which of the following will help minimize miscommunication with diverse others?

A) educating oneself about differences by listening and reading B) using words that are exclusive rather than inclusive C) forming an opinion about another person's communication in terms of age and mannerisms D) refraining from asking questions when someone uses a different first language

11)

Which of the following is a way of building relationships with diverse others?

A) avoiding sharing information about oneself B) forming an opinion about others based on their accent C) seeking opportunities to interact with a wide variety of peers D) making derogatory comments about particular groups

12)

A diverse team will almost always have __________ than a homogeneous team.

A) more extensive external contacts B) lesser cognitive resources C) more rigid standards D) narrower vision

13) A(n) __________ values diversity of thought, encourages and rewards learning and change, and controls group processes.

A) autocratic management system B) centralized organizational structure C) open organizational culture D) bureaucratic management system

14) __________ seek to remedy past discrimination by implementing proactive steps based on race or gender to prevent current or future discrimination.

A) Equal opportunity policies B) Emancipation programs C) Integration policies D) Affirmative action programs

15) An unjustified negative attitude toward a person based on his/her membership in a particular group is A) prejudice.

B) power distance.

C) stereotyping.

D) ethnocentrism.

16) Alan does not want to lend his car to Linda, his co-worker, because he believes that all women are irresponsible drivers. Which of the following barriers to accepting diversity does this scenario illustrate?

A) backlash B) prejudice C) harassment D) pluralism

17) __________ individuals see their group-related customs or beliefs as "right" and evaluate others' beliefs or practices against this yardstick.

A) Polycentric B) Ethnocentric C) Egocentric D) Geocentric

18) At association meetings, Remo always makes a point of informing others that he received his law degree from Harvard. He believes that this gives him a distinctive edge. Remo's belief that his degree and affiliation with Harvard makes him superior to others is an example of A) prejudice.

B) ethnocentrism.

C) discrimination.

D) stereotyping.

19) Making incorrect causal attributions such as "He got what he deserved" when referring to a young man who is accidentally hit by a car while walking back home from work illustrates

A) blaming the victim.

B) discrimination.

C) harassment.

D) ethnocentrism.

20) James, an HR manager, recruits only men for most of the top positions in his organization. This attitude of James is an example of A) persuasion.

B) harassment.

C) discrimination.

D) backlash.

21) Alexia is constantly criticized by her boss at work, particularly about her sense of dressing and hairstyle. Sometimes, he even passes racist comments at her, which hurt her. In this case, Alexia is subjected to A) discrimination.

B) polyvictimization.

C) ethnocentrism.

D) harassment.

22) __________ refers to the negative reaction to members of previously underrepresented groups gaining power and influence, which leads to fear, resentment, and reverse discrimination.

A) Backlash B) Discrimination C) Harassment D) Ethnocentrism

23) In the context of gender-based differences in communication styles, men differ from women in that men A) regularly talk about their feelings.

B) get to the point of conversation without descriptive details.

C) are most likely interested in developing relationships with people.

D) use conversation to connect with another individual.

24)

Men can learn from women's managerial styles by A) using appropriate relationship building in the workplace.

B) being less subtle and ambiguous.

C) acting more assertive.

D) being more direct, especially when giving instructions.

25) What one culture considers rude, another sees as perfectly acceptable. In some cultures, it is appropriate to use a stern, direct tone in admonishing strangers or in conducting business deals. This is an example of cross-cultural diversity in terms of A) nonverbal communication.

B) social conventions.

C) semantics and connotations.

D) power distance.

26)

Which of the following traits is associated with male gender stereotypes?

A) being moody B) being superficial C) being protective D) being sensitive

27)

Which of the following statements is true about countries where power distance is high?

A) Organizations are characterized by paternalistic management.

B) Status is less important.

C) Competence is valued over seniority.

D) Distribution of power is equal between higher and lower level employees in organizations.

28)

In countries where power distance is low, A) a supreme authority maintains tight control over policies and procedure.

B) status is most important.

C) organizations are characterized by paternalistic management.

D) decision making is shared across employee levels.

29)

In __________ cultures, people are valued for their self-motivation and self-interest.

A) individualistic B) high power distance C) high uncertainty avoidance D) short-term orientation

30) According to Hofstede's dimensions of cross-cultural differences, a country in which the emphasis is on group harmony and total involvement in decision making is likely to have A) a collectivist approach.

B) a short-term orientation.

C) low uncertainty avoidance.

D) high power distance.

31) Which of the following statements is true about countries that are high in uncertainty avoidance?

A) Rules and procedures are avoided.

B) Citizens have the expectation of long-term employment.

C) There is unlimited display of emotion.

D) Entrepreneurship is encouraged.

32) Which of the following dimensions of cross-cultural differences refers to the degree to which emphasis is placed on assertiveness, relationships, and quality of life?

A) uncertainty avoidance B) masculinity versus femininity C) long-term versus short-term orientation D) individualism versus collectivism

33) According to Hofstede's dimensions of cross-cultural differences, countries that encourage employees to work collaboratively and to be less assertive about their own personal needs are considered to be more A) masculine.

B) short-term oriented.

C) long-term oriented.

D) feminine.

34) __________ implies focusing on trends toward delaying gratification, thriftiness, and persistence.

A) Collectivism B) Uncertainty avoidance C) Long-term orientation D) Power distance

35)

Which of the following groups would be better able to manage cross-cultural differences?

A) Managers committed to accepting a diversity of backgrounds and perspectives B) Employees who prefer work assignments in their home country C) Organizations that adopt a narrow, one-culture perspective D) Executives who spend most of their time with people of their own nationality

36) Which of the following is a successful strategy for managing organizational diversity effectively?

A) Ensure that diversity is a bottom-up effort.

B) Communicate organizational diversity objectives orally rather than via written statements.

C) Create a management plan that involves holding people accountable and setting objectives.

D) Practice labeling and promote the use of multiple languages to ensure collaboration.

37) Diversity can be defined as any attribute relevant to an individual that creates or reinforces a perception that he or she is different from another individual. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) An individual's personality and family situation are components of the individual's surface-level diversity.

⊚ ⊚

true false

39) Valuing diversity and managing diversity are similar phenomena as both involve actively supervising, coordinating, and directing the diversity individuals bring to an organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) Establishing superior customer service is a positive outcome of effectively managing diversity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Martha admits that she has biases and prejudices. To improve her ability to understand others, she must analyze her feelings and develop plans for changing them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) A diverse team is likely to have narrower vision and cognitive resources than does a homogeneous team. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43)

Having a diverse workforce doesn't automatically produce positive outcomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44)

Diversity is best understood and managed within an open organizational culture.

⊚ ⊚

true false

45) Equal employment opportunity ensures that employment decisions are made without regard to legally protected attributes such as race. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Affirmative action programs seek to remedy past discrimination by implementing proactive steps based on race or gender to prevent current or future discrimination. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47)

Ethnocentrism tends to be inconsistent with all individuals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) Bill, a salesperson at Windows Plus, is ethnocentric because he believes the sales division is superior to the other departments in the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Women, in contrast to men, tend to use communication to connect with others and build relationships. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50)

Unlike men, women tend to use communication to request action.

⊚ ⊚

true false

51) In countries like Australia where power distance is low, decisions will be made by superiors who have seniority and high status. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) In countries with high uncertainty avoidance, people are expressive, entrepreneurship is encouraged, and citizens change jobs frequently. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) If a country focuses on past and present values while respecting traditions and fulfilling social obligations, it is said to have a short-term orientation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) Organizations should provide transition counseling to employees and their families both before and after an assignment outside the home country as a strategy for addressing crosscultural issues. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) One successful strategy for managing organizational diversity effectively is ensuring that diversity is a bottom-up effort. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) The global mindset comprises intellectual capital, psychological capital, and social capital. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 1) Managing diversity requires developing new ways of measuring how diversity as a business competency aligns with business strategies to achieve growth, profitability, and sustainably. There are a number of benefits to promoting diversity in the workplace.

1) Improving corporate culture by unleashing creativity and performance 2) Facilitating recruitment of new employees, who prefer to work where they can expect to advance 3) Improving relationships with clients 4) Increasing understanding of cross-cultural work teams and global markets 5) Increasing employee morale, productivity, and retention 6) Expanding the global reach and cross-cultural expertise of the organization 7) Decreasing employee complaints and litigation By designing and supporting an organizational culture that maximizes the benefits of diversity, and using that culture to manage various groups of organizational members such as project teams, business startup teams, customer service response teams, the sales force, and top management, businesses can better position themselves to achieve a number of goals.

2) Answers will vary while discussing the following issues.

1) Reducing prejudices and use of stereotypes 2) Recognizing diversity, learning to value and respect difference, admitting to biases, examining stereotypes and actions, and dispelling myths about diverse others 3) Minimizing miscommunication with diverse others 4) Educating self about diverse issues, practicing effective communication, using inclusive words, avoiding explicit adjectives, being aware of connotations, and avoiding forming opinions based on appearance 5) Seeking diverse opportunities, building relationships with diverse others, seeking feedback from diverse others, encouraging candor between diverse others, building trust, and making goals to work together 3) Answers will vary. Prejudice is an unjustified negative attitude toward a person based on his or her membership in a particular group, such as not wanting to consider any college students for employment at your business because you believe they are all irresponsible, carefree partyers who will not be reliable workers based on what you have read about them or seen on TV reports, or on one experience you had with a lazy worker who happened to be a college student.

4) Although men and women are equal, they are different. According to the latest research, so too is the way in which men and women communicate. In general, the research demonstrates that women tend to use communication to connect with others; they express feelings, empathize, and build relationships. In contrast, men tend to use communication to assert their status and request action; in so doing they tend to use more direct, succinct language. Some women, however, tend to be more indirect, vague and even apologetic when they speak. This language pattern demonstrates not only how women show deference to others but also why some business associates view women as inferior to men.

5) By implementing the following strategies, organizations can improve their employees' ability to work with others from cultures different from their own.

1) Offering language training to employees 2) Encouraging employees to accept work assignments outside the home country 3) Providing transition counseling to employees and their families both before and after an assignment outside the home country 4) Providing training to help employees learn about and be sensitive to cross-cultural differences 5) Examining employment practices to ensure that the company is not intentionally or unintentionally discriminating against anyone due to his or her religion or ethnicity. For example, requiring employees to work on Saturdays precludes members of certain religions from joining the organization.

6) B 7) B 8) A 9) A

10) A 11) C 12) A 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) B 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) B 26) C 27) A 28) D 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) B 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) C 37) TRUE 38) FALSE 39) FALSE

40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

What is listening? What are the different types of listening?

2)

What are the characteristics of attentive listening?

3)

Explain the concept of selective perception with an example.

4)

List some strategies that help in developing and improving listening skills.

5)

List the components of nonverbal communication.

6)

Which of the following statements is true of sensing, a dimension of effective listening?

A) It involves hearing the words and receiving the nonverbal signals.

B) It involves understanding the meaning, interpreting the implications of a message.

C) It involves evaluating the nonverbal cues of a speaker and remembering the message.

D) It involves a listener sending the speaker verbal or nonverbal signals.

7)

Identify a true statement about attentive listening.

A) It is the most powerful level of listening and requires the largest amount of work on one's part.

B) It occurs when one is trying to absorb as much of the information presented as possible.

C) It occurs when one is genuinely interested in a speaker's point of view.

D) It involves a listener taking in the information with no or little attempt to process or enhance the messages being sent by the speaker.

8) In __________ listening, the most powerful level of listening, communication is a vibrant, two-way process that involves high levels of attentiveness, clarification, and message processing.

A) active B) passive C) attentive D) selective

9) time

The "70/30" principle states that true active listeners spend almost 70 percent of their

A) making assumptions about the messages and less than 30 percent of their time talking.

B) listening and less than 30 percent of their time talking.

C) hearing and less than 30 percent of their time listening.

D) questioning and less than 30 percent of their time listening.

10)

Which of the following is true of active listening?

A) Active listening requires that you spend 70 percent of your time talking.

B) Active listening can adversely affect an upset person.

C) Active listening shows the speaker you are concerned.

D) Active listening discourages reciprocation.

11) While listening to Ryan, Lana is taking in the information presented to her. However, she is not attempting to process the information or enhance the messages sent by Ryan. Which form of listening is Lana adopting in the given scenario?

A) assertive listening B) empathetic listening C) attentive listening D) passive listening

12) In __________ listening, a person makes assumptions about the messages being relayed by the speaker and fill in gaps with assumptions based on what he wants to hear rather than on what the speaker is actually saying.

A) active B) empathetic C) attentive D) passive

13)

Which of the following statements is true of active or empathetic listening?

A) It involves low levels of message processing.

B) It involves only 30 percent listening.

C) It involves high levels of attentiveness.

D) It requires little to no work on the part of the listener.

14) Tim is a manager at a manufacturing firm. As part of his job role, he frequently interacts with his team members to understand their concerns. Over time, he has realized that active listening is important. Which of the following is most likely a reason for his belief?

A) Active listening encourages uninterrupted, one-way communication.

B) Active listening is a quicker way of communicating than passive listening.

C) Active listening allows him to multitask and fill any gaps that arise with his assumptions.

D) Active listening invites others to listen to him and results in reciprocation.

15)

Which of the following is an advantage of the active listening process?

A) People who engage in the process of active listening encourage one-way communication.

B) Active listening can save much time as it requires listeners to spend only 30 percent of their time listening.

C) People who have been listened to actively are more likely to reciprocate.

D) Active listening allows people to concentrate on the message rather than the messenger.

16) Jeremy is a sales representative with Attach Realtor Company. He is an average performer and always falls short of his target. His manager provides him with constant guidance and advice because he has the potential to be the top performer. Jeremy treasures every applause showered on him by his manager and ignores every reproval. As a result, Jeremy does not improve his job performance. Which of the following barriers of effective active listening is exemplified by Jeremy in this scenario?

A) Rehearsing B) Selective expectation C) Selective memory D) Bias and being judgmental

17) Mark is the manager of the software testing team in Star Inc. He has a set of strong beliefs that leads to a biased outlook. Mark refuses to make an attempt to understand his team's point of view on most issues. He does not allow his team members to speak if they tend to dispute his cherished beliefs. Which of the following barriers to effective listening can be seen in the given scenario?

A) Fear of being influenced B) Partial listening and distractions C) Rehearsing D) Boredom

18) Minutes before Joe begins to speak, Ron guesses that he is about to talk about his recent vacation. As a result, Ron's mind wanders off and when his attention returns to the conversation, the latter seems to have gone on an unexpected track. In the given example, it is observed that Ron's listening is hindered most by A) emotional interference.

B) selective perception.

C) rehearsing tactics.

D) boredom.

19) When dining at a restaurant, Sue was listening to Robert's complaint about his office.

While listening, she also tried to ensure that the waiter got the next course ready. Sue listened to Robert's words, but missed the connotation, facial expressions, and the tone of his voice. Robert was upset at Sue's lack of attention. Which barrier to effective listening prevented Sue from paying attention to Robert's words?

A) boredom B) rehearsing C) fear of being influenced or persuaded D) partial listening and distractions

20) Ben pays attention only to information that reinforces his own beliefs and views. This causes a severe distortion of the original messages conveyed to him in a conversation. Ben's ineffective listening is most likely due to his A) rehearsing tactics.

B) selective memory.

C) selective perception.

D) selective expectation.

21) In the context of a conversation, __________ refers to the practice of coming up with a bulletproof rebuttal during the time when another person speaks.

A) rehearsing B) selective expectation C) selective perception D) partial listening

22)

As an active listener, being empathetic means that you

A) acknowledge the other person's feelings.

B) crack jokes and make light of a situation.

C) use direct eye contact with the speaker.

D) rehearse your response when the speaker expresses his or her opinion.

23)

Which of the following strategies should be adopted for effective active listening?

A) One should avoid direct eye contact.

B) One should not ask questions even if he or she does not understand a message completely.

C) One should not interrupt a speaker before he or she has finished.

D) One should not paraphrase a message because it always leads to misinterpretations.

24)

Nonverbal visual cues include A) tone of voice.

B) pitch.

C) speech pauses.

D) smiles.

25)

Paraverbal communication cues include A) voice volume.

B) facial expressions.

C) eye contact.

D) postural change.

26)

Which of the following statements is true of nonverbal messages?

A) Emails and text messages are examples of nonverbal communication.

B) Nonverbal messages do not contradict verbal messages.

C) Nonverbal messages primarily convey ideas rather than feelings.

D) Trust improves when your nonverbal and verbal communication are in alignment.

27)

Eye contact and body positioning form a part of A) proxemics.

B) kinesics.

C) chronemics.

D) haptics.

28)

__________ is a term to describe the way we use space in communication.

A) Haptics B) Proxemics C) Kinesics D) Chronemics

29) Rhonda's voice was unsteady while she presented her ideas for a new advertising campaign during a team meeting. This made her teammates wonder if she was uncertain or nervous. The nonverbal communication component seen in Rhonda's speech falls under the category of A) chronemics.

B) semantics.

C) proxemics.

D) paralanguage.

30) Harry is setting up his new office. He wants to make sure that the arrangement of his desk and chairs sends out an egalitarian message to the others in his office. For this to happen, he should A) arrange the chairs around his desk.

B) place the chairs on the other side of his desk, facing him.

C) place the chairs quite far from his desk, facing him.

D) make sure he is seated with his back to the door.

31)

The study of how human beings use and structure time is called A) haptics.

B) proxemics.

C) chronemics.

D) kinesics.

32)

__________ refers to the use of touch in nonverbal communication.

A) Proxemics B) Chronemics C) Haptics D) Kinesics

33)

Which of the following is true of haptics?

A) It involves sending messages through body movements and gestures.

B) It conveys messages to people based on the layout of the space or room.

C) It involves the use of space in communicating with others.

D) Its use depends on the type of relationship between people.

34)

Identify a true statement about barriers to effective nonverbal communication.

A) A number of behaviors need bright lighting and loud color scheme in the place where communication takes place.

B) A number of behaviors that prevent one from communicating effectively are in one's open area.

C) A number of behaviors need large personal space while communicating with others.

D) A number of behaviors are culturally specific—the way they are perceived is different in different cultures.

35) A boss who says he or she likes your ideas while rolling his or her eyes would lead you to believe that he or she A) lacks confidence in your suggestions.

B) is paraphrasing your ideas.

C) is reading your verbal cues.

D) is being empathetic.

36)

Listening goes beyond merely hearing what the other person says. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) Sensing involves understanding the meaning, interpreting the implications, evaluating the nonverbal cues, and remembering a message. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38)

Listening is a passive activity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) Active listening encourages further communication and has the potential to enhance relationships. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) Improving managerial listening skills raises performance levels through responsive and creative problem solving. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41)

Successful organizations foster passive listening in the corporate culture. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) Because the eye is victorious over the ear in the constant process of providing stimulation to the mind, many people do not know how to be effective listeners. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43)

Selective perception is a characteristic of active listening. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) The emotional state of both the sender and the receiver must be considered in eliminating problems in the communication process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45)

Active listening is an acquired skill. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) It is usually impossible to get immediate feedback on the way the receiver interprets nonverbal communication. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) One of the most common mistakes listeners make is forming responses before listening to the complete message of the speaker. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48)

What we say verbally is often contradicted by what we communicate nonverbally. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49)

Fifty-five percent of communication is comprised of audio codes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) Paraverbal communication cues include communication aspects such as facial expressions, eye blinks, eye contact, gaze aversion, and nodding. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) It is important to rely primarily on verbal communication to convey ideas in face-to-face communication. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52)

Haptics is the study of how humans use and structure time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53)

Proxemics refers to the use of touch. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54)

Nonverbal messages tend to be ambiguous and may need verbal clarification. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55)

Many nonverbal communication behaviors are culturally specific. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 1) Listening is a critical component of the communication process. It goes beyond merely hearing what another person is saying to constructing meaning from all the verbal and nonverbal signals the speaker is sending. Listening is the process of hearing someone speak, processing what you're hearing, and demonstrating that you understand the speaker's intent.

The different types of listening include passive listening, attentive listening, and active or empathetic listening.

2) Attentive listening occurs when you are genuinely interested in a speaker's point of view. You are aware something can be learned from the interaction. In attentive listening, you make assumptions about the messages being relayed by the speaker and fill in gaps with assumptions based on what you want to hear rather than on what the speaker is actually saying. At this level of listening, you don't check to see whether what you heard is what the speaker intended to say. Many barriers and biases can hinder this form of interaction.

3) Selective perception is a process in which you select or pay attention to only that information that adheres to or reinforces your own beliefs, views, or needs, causing severe distortion of messages. Most listeners hear what they want to hear. For example, many a manager has told a new employee that the organization gives "merit" pay increases. That new employee hears these words as "automatic" salary boosts, to which he or she feels entitled. Later, when the employee inevitably complains, the manager protests that the word "merit" means selective, and the employee will insist that to him or her the word "merit" means automatic.

4) Following are some of the strategies that can be used to become an active listener.

1.Show interest and be sincere in listening.

2.Ask questions if you don't understand completely.

3.Avoid distractions.

4.Use direct eye contact.

5.Do not interrupt.

6.Read both verbal and nonverbal messages.

7.Be empathetic.

8.Paraphrase to correct misinterpretations, reflect the literal message, and improve retention.

9.Evaluate the message after hearing all the facts.

10.Concentrate on the message as well as the messenger.

11.Give feedback to check accuracy, express your perspective, and broaden the interaction.

12.Listen with your entire body.

5) The components of nonverbal communication are as follows: 1.Kinesics involves body movement, gestures, and posture. This includes eye contact, leaning, and body positioning.

2.Paralanguage refers to the tone of voice, volume, pitch, or speech rate.

3.Environment refers to the layout of the space or room, lighting, color scheme, noise, decorations, and so on.

4.Chronemics is the study of how human beings use and structure time.

5.Proxemics is a term to describe the way we use space in communication.

6.Haptics (tactile communication) refers to the use of touch.

6) A 7) C 8) A 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) C 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) C 17) A 18) D 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) A 23) C 24) D 25) A 26) D 27) B 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) D 35) A

36) TRUE 37) FALSE 38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) TRUE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE Student name:__________ 1) Assume that you are the project manager handling a project. You have been working on the project for the last few weeks. During this time, you have had three meetings. At each one, Anthony, one of your team members, has either come late or left early. Even when he is at the meetings, it seems that his mind is elsewhere, and he rarely contributes. Everyone's inputs on the project are needed, and you are concerned that his lack of participation and preparation will affect the group's outcome. Apply the principles of assertive communication in formulating a script for approaching Anthony in this situation. Identify parts of your script that lend themselves to assertive communication.

2) Introduce the three major forms of communication with one benefit and drawback for each form.

3) Explain how noise and information overload can act as barriers to effective communication.

4)

Explain the concept of filtering. How does it act as a barrier to effective communication?

5)

Give a brief description of the three parts to developing an assertive statement.

6) When a message needs to be sent, a communicator __________ the message according to his or her own perceptions, experiences, and abilities.

A) decodes B) modulates C) encodes D) interprets

7)

Which of the following is true of communication?

A) Written communication is the most preferred form of communication for managers.

B) Focusing one's attention on a single communication at a time will decrease errors.

C) An important point to remember when communicating is that reason is synonymous with emotion.

D) Feedback is an essential component of one-way communication.

8) In a two-way communication process, __________ allows the receiver to show the sender that he or she is paying attention and clearly understands the messages being sent.

A) selective expectation B) noise C) modulation D) feedback

9)

Which of the following statements is true about oral communication?

A) It is used when it is important to engage in discussion and come to a consensus with one or more persons.

B) It is the most effective method for communicating precise or complex information.

C) It is a one-way process, and the primary focus is on the speaker.

D) It is the least preferred form of communication for managers.

10)

Which of the following is a benefit of oral communication?

A) It is the best choice when a large amount of complex information must be delivered.

B) It eliminates the need for taking minutes during a meeting or entering personal notes about follow-up actions in a day planner.

C) It enables participants to better remember the major points that were made even after the meeting concludes.

D) It provides an automatic two-way exchange and makes immediate feedback possible.

11)

Which of the following is a drawback of oral communication?

A) It cannot be used to communicate through multiple channels.

B) It is the least preferred form of communication for managers.

C) Participants easily forget the major points that are made soon after a meeting concludes.

D) The sender can share information with the receiver but cannot obtain immediate feedback.

12)

Which of the following is a drawback of written communication?

A) It is the least preferred method for sending precise or complex information.

B) It is prone to misinterpretation and inaccuracy and can result in a lengthy exchange.

C) It is not as binding as an oral recall of events.

D) It is not a cost-efficient way to send a message to a large number of individuals.

13)

Which of the following statements is true about electronic communication?

A) It is well-suited for conveying brief messages quickly to one or more people.

B) It should be the primary medium when the message that needs to be sent requires additional dialogue.

C) It is most useful when team members are working in the same location.

D) It should not be used when fast turnaround time is a necessity.

14)

Which of the following is true of electronic messages?

A) It primarily focuses on the personal aspect of communication.

B) It typically increases the quality and amount of human interaction.

C) It is not open to misinterpretation and hence can be worded in any manner.

D) It can lose the emotional aspect of a message in both content and tone.

15) Which of the following actions should Lisa avoid when she communicates via emails at office?

A) She should copy her boss on important messages that are relevant to him.

B) She should not leave her boss and significant members of her team out of the loop.

C) She should directly mail her boss's superiors if she has access to their personal email address.

D) She should send appreciative notes to people with copies to their supervisors.

16) In the course of preparing a project proposal, Barry selects his medium of communication on the basis of factors such as whether it allows for multiple cues ranging from combined visual and audio to limited visual. In this scenario, which of the following factors is Barry using to evaluate potential media choices?

A) feedback B) channel C) type of communication D) language source

17)

Face-to-face communication is considered the richest form of communication because A) it excludes noise such as visual and audio cues.

B) it is sourced from pure data and information.

C) it is highly impersonal.

D) it allows for immediate, two-way feedback.

18)

Information overload, time, emotions, and use of slang are considered A) potential barriers to communication.

B) communication tactics.

C) necessary communication components.

D) communication enhancers.

19)

Which of the following is an example of an interpersonal barrier to communication?

A) time pressure B) information overload C) inconsistent verbal cues D) physical distraction

20)

Identify an example of an organizational barrier to communication.

A) perceptions B) media selection C) semantics D) physical distraction

21) Which of the following refers to any distortion factor that blocks, disrupts, or distorts the message sent to the receiver, interfering with the communication process?

A) semantics B) noise C) crosstalk D) filter

22) Sally has recently joined a multimedia firm, and her manager, Ellen, has asked her to develop an advertising campaign for a client. Ellen considers Sally to be inexperienced and constantly questions Sally's suggestions for the campaign. At times, she rejects Sally's proposals even without hearing her out. This barrier of communication between Sally and Ellen is most likely a result of A) lack of time.

B) lack of credibility.

C) information overload.

D) filtering.

23)

Which of the following is true of multitasking?

A) Studies suggest that it causes a good deal of stress.

B) It helps reduce errors.

C) It improves the quality of communication.

D) It is opposed in all industries.

24) The intentional manipulation of information to make it more favorable to the receiver is known as A) filtering.

B) sensing.

C) encoding.

D) decoding.

25) Mike intentionally leaves out the details regarding the actual costs associated with a project so that he can get the project approved by his manager. Mike's misrepresentation illustrates __________, a barrier to effective communication.

A) information overload B) message incongruency C) filtering D) decoding

26) Which of the following forms of communication is characterized by fairness, directness, honesty, and tact and sensitivity?

A) one-way communication B) assertive communication C) passive communication D) aggressive communication

27) Mathew, a manager, tells one of his subordinates, Emily, that she is irresponsible and does not make valuable contributions to the team. Which form of communication has Mathew used in the given example?

A) passive communication B) active communication C) aggressive communication D) empathetic communication

28) Instead of confronting a person regarding a problem, if you choose to simply say nothing, you are indulging in __________ communication.

A) compassionate B) assertive C) aggressive D) passive

29) Angela noticed that the common areas of her apartment building were frequently messy and dirty, and she mentions to her friend, "I've noticed that the common areas of the apartment building are frequently messy and dirty." Which part of an assertive statement is highlighted in this statement?

A) perspective B) need C) desire D) emotion

30)

Which of the following is an effective "I" statement?

A) If you don't finish this work, then I will have to suspend you.

B) If you don't come with me, then I will go alone.

C) I feel confused when you don't give me feedback.

D) I think you are being a baby.

31) An "I" message consists of three parts: the specific behavior, the resulting feeling you experienced because of the behavior, and the A) nonverbal aspect of the message.

B) verbal response to it.

C) tangible effect on you.

D) indirect connotations of that message.

32) Individuals who ask questions and get full background information before processing what others say are __________ in nature.

A) kinesthetic B) didactic C) visual D) auditory

33) Having no hidden agenda and dealing with issues openly and in a timely manner implies that the person sending the message is A) ambitious.

B) indirect.

C) supportive.

D) straightforward.

34)

In terms of sending messages, individuals who are kinesthetic A) need to have hands-on use or personal practice to learn.

B) need to read the message or see it on paper.

C) have to hear the message to learn it.

D) have to get full background information before processing what others are saying.

35) Identify the form of communication in which an individual both speaks up for his or her rights and takes into account the rights and feelings of others.

A) assertive communication B) passive communication C) aggressive communication D) empathetic communication

36)

__________ is usually the most appropriate communication style.

A) Passive communication B) Assertive communication C) Compassionate communication D) Aggressive communication

37) Communicating effectively consists of both sending and receiving messages in ways that are both verbal and nonverbal. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38)

Sending a message to a receiver is two-way communication. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) Feedback can be verbal or nonverbal through the use of paraphrasing, questioning, nodding, gesturing, or even eye movement. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40)

Feedback is an essential component of two-way communication. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Two-way communication is mandatory for making announcements and issuing important directives that can't be challenged. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) Face-to-face communication allows us to obtain immediate feedback during a communication process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) Oral communication is the most effective method for sending precise or complex information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) One of the drawbacks of written communication is that it is far less binding than oral recall of events. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) Electronic communication should be the primary medium when the message that needs to be sent is negative.

⊚ ⊚

true false

46) Social media channels encourage spur-of-the-moment, "stream-of-consciousness" communication. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47)

Emotion is synonymous with reason. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48)

Filtering is the process of presenting information as facts without manipulating it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Filtering can make objective decision making easy because it involves sending and receiving the true message accurately. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) Frowning, crying, whispering under your breath, or simply saying nothing are all ways of demonstrating assertive communication. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51)

An element of assertive communicating involves "taking responsibility."

⊚ ⊚

52)

true false

Assertive communication avoids the use of "I statements." ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) The parts of the "I" message are the specific behavior, the resulting feeling, and the tangible effect. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) The purpose of passive communication is to keep contact lines open and show respect for others while affirming one's beliefs and preferences. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) The purpose of aggressive behavior is to win or dominate—to prove one is right and others are wrong. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56)

Face-to-face contact is typically less effective than other types of oral communication. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) Communicating orally via a phone call, videoconference, or meeting often results in people arriving at the exchange more prepared than if they were communicating in writing.

⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 1) Scripts will vary, but they should illustrate the following elements: 1) Fairness 2) Directness 3) Tact and sensitivity 4) Honesty They should include the following three parts: 1) Their perspective/perception of the situation 2) Their feelings about the situation 3) Their wants regarding the situation or outcome The statements should take responsibility and then effectively use the "I" message.

2) Students' answers will vary.

The three major forms of communication are oral communication, written communication, and electronic communication.

One prominent benefit of oral communication (in person or via telephone, Skype, or videoconference) is that it provides an automatic two-way exchange. However, communicating orally via a phone call, video conference, or meeting often results in people arriving at the exchange less prepared than if they were communicating in writing.

Written communication is the most effective method for sending precise or complex information. However, it prevents a two-way dialogue, or results in a lengthier exchange if two-way communication is desired.

Electronic communication is effective for sending brief messages quickly to one or more persons. However, it is not appropriate when the message that needs to be sent is negative, controversial, or requires additional dialogue.

3) Noise refers to any distortion factor that blocks, disrupts, or distorts the message sent to the receiver, interfering with the communication process. These distortion factors can range from emotional states or language differences to telephone static or an inaccessible email system.Information overload occurs when the volume of information a person receives exceeds his or her capacity to process it.

Some of the behaviors that can cause information overload for the receiver of your messages are listed below: 1) Presenting too much material 2) Presenting information that is overly complex 3) Presenting information too quickly 4) Presenting at a level of difficulty that goes beyond the person's understanding 5) Not giving the person sufficient time to process the information

4) Filtering is the intentional manipulation of information to make it more favorable to the receiver. The way information is sent, the tone, and the framing of the material can greatly distort a message to serve an individual's or a group's needs. Filtering can make objective decision making difficult because the true message is never accurately sent or received. For example, a manager afraid of offending his subordinates may sugarcoat a message about the need to work overtime by leaving out information that clarifies why the work can't wait.

5) The three parts to developing an assertive statement are as follows: 1) Your perspective/perception of the situation: In your own words, what is the issue or situation as you see it?

2) Your feelings about the situation: Describe how the situation makes you feel without placing blame on others.

3) Your wants regarding the situation or outcome: Own your request for a resolution by using "I" instead of "you."

6) C 7) B 8) D 9) A 10) D 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) C 20) D

21) B 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) C 26) B 27) C 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) A 36) B 37) TRUE 38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) TRUE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE

51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE 57) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

How does inoculation theory explain the concept of persuasion?

2)

List the components required to construct and deliver a persuasive message.

3) "Framing for common ground attains three interrelated objectives." Elaborate on this statement.

4)

How can advertisers use social proof to persuade customers?

5)

How can you defend yourself against manipulation?

6)

List a few tips for effective presentations.

7)

Which of the following is true of persuasion?

A) It relies on deceit or force.

B) It is a form of influence.

C) It involves telling people what to do.

D) It requires using positional authority to get work done.

8)

For managers to be effective in persuasion, they should

A) expect their decisions to be implemented by the employees without question.

B) resort to manipulation or coercion in getting tasks done.

C) adopt a democratic approach in getting the employees to buy into their ideas.

D) dictate or directly order the employees.

9)

In today's business world, persuasion is a necessary skill because A) the work environment is becoming increasingly hierarchical.

B) more and more companies are rejecting the participative work style.

C) managers need to use unquestioned authority to ensure that work gets done.

D) increasing amount of work is being done by teams and virtual employees.

10)

Which of the following statements is true of today's work environment?

A) Organizations are becoming less flattened.

B) Employees are no longer involved in formulating strategy or implementing workplace changes.

C) Organizations are becoming more hierarchical.

D) Employees without positional authority are increasingly tasked with getting work done.

11) __________ refers to the tension that exists when individuals' beliefs do not align with their behaviors.

A) Cognitive dissonance B) Self-deception C) Defensive avoidance D) Bounded rationality

12) Jessica believes that the minimum wage paid to laborers should be the same across the globe. Her company is sending her on a business trip to one of the less developed countries. She has to negotiate with the contract manufacturers to get the lowest possible labor price based on the host country standards. This difference in her belief and behavior has put Jessica through a lot of discomfort. Which of the following does this scenario best illustrate?

A) negative reinforcement B) cognitive dissonance C) self-serving bias D) fundamental attribution error

13) Which of the following theories states that persuaders can be effective when they anticipate the objections of a persuadee and address those objections before they arise?

A) inoculation theory B) the attribution theory C) cognitive dissonance theory D) the expectancy theory

14) Because of a declining economy, the management of a company had decided to reduce its employees' salary. Before the employees could raise their objection, the management called for a meeting to help the employees understand that their pay cut was only temporary and could help avoid downsizing. As a result, the management was effective in persuading the employees to accept its decision. Which of the following persuasion theories has the company adopted in this scenario?

A) inoculation theory B) cognitive dissonance theory C) expectancy theory D) the ACE Theory

15) Stephanie is trying to convince her employer that she is eligible for a maternity leave of 12 weeks as opposed to the 10-week leave that has been granted to her. She claims that the law mandates that companies allow 12 weeks of maternity leave for its employees. According to the ACE Theory, which of the following characteristics of successful persuasion has Stephanie used in this scenario?

A) appropriateness B) effectiveness C) efficacy D) consistency

16) According to the ACE Theory, appeals to __________ demonstrate that a persuader understands the beliefs or past behaviors of similar others and presents arguments that make sense with these beliefs or behaviors.

A) consistency B) effectiveness C) agreeableness D) efficiency

17) One of Andrew's subordinates, Jennifer, has been showing low productivity at work. In an effort to persuade Jennifer to perform better, Andrew points out how Jennifer had promised to give her best at work during her job interview. He also shows her how efficient she was in her initial days at the company. According to the ACE Theory, which of the following characteristics of successful persuasion is being applied by Andrew in this scenario?

A) agreeableness B) conscientiousness C) consistency D) efficacy

18) According to the ACE Theory, __________ is the degree to which an action or idea leads to a desirable state or outcome.

A) appropriateness B) effectiveness C) agreeableness D) consistency

19) Amith is trying to convince his friend to reduce his consumption of alcohol. Amith says, "If you reduce drinking, you will be able to play sports longer and with more vigor." Which of the following components of the ACE model of persuasion does this statement best illustrate?

A) appropriateness B) consistency C) accuracy D) effectiveness

20) In the context of successful persuasion, which of the following is most likely an ineffective practice?

A) starting the persuasion process by extending an invitation to the persuadee to share his or her views B) accepting that the persuadee has agreed to a proposed idea if he or she responds with silence C) soliciting feedback from a specific person when there are more than two people involved in an interaction D) asking open-ended questions to persuadees in order to learn what makes them tick

21) Jim is at an interview for the position of a sales representative in an insurance company.

He has tactfully answered all the questions in the interview. When the interviewer asks Jim what the current tax rate is on property insurance, however, he is unable to answer. Which of the following should Jim do to build and maintain credibility?

A) He should admit that he does not have an answer.

B) He should provide a defensive response to the question he could not answer.

C) He should misrepresent facts and distract the interviewer.

D) He should invent an answer to the question because he is unprepared.

22) According to Aristotle, __________ is one of the three main elements of persuasion that involves using data, facts, and evidence in forming arguments.

A) trustworthiness B) expertise C) reason D) composure

23) The management of a company has introduced a new performance incentive scheme for its employees. Anticipating that the employees may raise objections to the change, the management calls for a meeting. In the meeting, the management highlights some of the benefits of the new incentive scheme, such as how the opportunity to earn more will enable them to spend more. Which of the following persuasion tactics is the company using?

A) The company is using "efficacy" from the ACE Theory to persuade its employees.

B) The company is using the employees' self-serving biases to their advantage.

C) The company is providing specific social proof to persuade the employees to adapt to the changes.

D) The company is creating a frame for common ground to convince the employees to accept the changes.

24) Which of the following is an ineffective practice when you want a person to buy-in to your solution?

A) isolating the person from the search for a solution B) appealing to the person's emotions and values when stating the solution C) reinforcing your persuasive appeal with words that trigger a "yes" response D) creating a frame for common ground with the person

25)

Which of the following guidelines agrees with the reciprocity/obligation rule?

A) Reciprocate by giving information, support, or gifts only when people have given you these things first.

B) Offer gifts, support, and help only when you want something from someone so that you appear generous.

C) Put across your more costly proposal first and then present a lower cost alternative when offering something.

D) Use phrases such as "no problem" when you want to respond to others' acknowledgments.

26) A salesman at a music store always begins by showing his customers high-priced instruments. When the customers refuse these, the salesman shows them the more economical models. Since the customers have turned down the first offer, they view the salesman's second offer as a concession and may feel inclined to buy the instrument. In this scenario, the salesman applies the A) cognitive dissonance approach.

B) scarcity approach.

C) rejection-then-retreat approach.

D) inoculation approach.

27) Which of the following is a form of advertisement that uses the principle of scarcity for persuasion?

A) Lowest price ever!

B) Get a complimentary gift!

C) Offer valid for two days only!

D) Number one selling product!

28) Amanda purchased a barbeque set after reading the testimonials for the product given by other users on the seller's website. Which of the following principles of persuasion does this best illustrate?

A) social proof B) scarcity C) reciprocity D) self-awareness

29) Which of the following advertising statements best illustrates the use of social proof to persuade customers?

A) Ask for a complimentary trial!

B) Get a free multipurpose mug!

C) More than a million copies sold!

D) Last 100 pieces remaining!

30) When advertisers convince people to buy their products by telling them not how good a product is but how strongly other users think so, they are using the __________ approach to persuasion.

A) consensus B) scarcity C) reciprocity D) utility

31) In the context of persuasion, in which of the following ways can an effective persuader use consensus/social proof?

A) by giving support, concession, and information freely B) by motivating people to go after that which they perceive is scarce C) by presenting the most compelling features of a product D) by sharing testimonials of similar others and experts

32)

How can advertisers use social proof to sell their product?

A) by showing how other users have benefited from their products B) by distributing free samples of their products C) by selling their products at the highest possible prices D) by presenting lower cost alternatives to their products

33) __________ involves convincing people to believe or adhere to something that is neither in their best interest nor something they would believe or do without the presence of the persuader.

A) Manipulation B) Persuasion C) Empowerment D) Self-disclosure

34)

Which of the following best illustrates manipulation?

A) A salesman uses positive feedback provided by his previous customers to persuade a potential customer to buy his product.

B) A manager highlights the possible accidents at production units to persuade employees to use certain safety measures.

C) A doctor convinces her patient to quit smoking to live a longer and a healthier life.

D) A manager convinces production workers to refrain from asking for a wage hike to keep their jobs safe.

35)

Warning signals of manipulation include

A) a war of words that seems to favor both the sides.

B) the persuader's reasoning being stronger than his or her emotional connection with the persuadee.

C) doubting the truth of what is being said.

D) the interaction between the persuader and the persuadee feeling like a competitive game.

36)

Which of the following is an ineffective way to defend yourself against manipulation?

A) asking plenty of questions before being convinced by the power of the persuader's words that he or she is right B) agreeing to resume an interaction that feels like a test of wills only when you can gain a more equal footing C) considering not just your interests but also those of others when being courted by the persuader D) basing your acceptance of a persuader on his or her ability to connect emotionally with you rather than the persuader's strength of reasoning

37) For making persuasive business presentations successful, it is best to avoid starting a presentation with a(n)

A) anecdote.

B) joke.

C) quote.

D) rhetorical question.

38)

When conducting a persuasive business presentation, summarizing A) helps focus the audience's attention on the essence of the presentation.

B) gives the impression that the speaker lacks knowledge about the subject.

C) signifies that the speaker believes the audience was distracted and inattentive.

D) involves asking the audience for feedback on the speaker's presentation style.

39)

Which of the following recommendations for an effective presentation is true?

A) Begin the presentation with a joke rather than an anecdote or a quote.

B) Avoid rhetorical questions during the presentation.

C) Use technology extensively to improve the personal connection with the audience.

D) Take questions throughout the presentation to keep it interactive.

40)

Persuasion involves directly giving orders to others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) When framing for common ground, the upfront clarification of rules increases the appearance of manipulation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) The skill of persuasion is irrelevant in a nonhierarchical environment in which employees at all levels participate in formulating strategies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) In a team-based or team-supported workplace, a higher authority frequently mandates decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) Inoculation theory suggests that people use three criteria—appropriateness, consistency, and effectiveness—to determine whether to respond to a persuader's arguments. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) According to the ACE Theory, appeals to consistency demonstrate that a persuader understands the beliefs of similar others and presents arguments that make sense or track with these beliefs or behaviors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) The most effective persuaders first share their views and opinions before listening to others' views. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47)

The way a person looks or dresses has no influence on his or her credibility.

⊚ ⊚

true false

48) Through good framing, one can create a logical structure and establish the necessary constraints for decision making. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Involving the other party in the search for a solution is an ineffective way to get his or her buy-in to the solution. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) During the persuasion process, any errors in your reasoning can give the listener reason to doubt you. This implies that you must say everything you know about the concerned subject. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) When you reinforce your persuasive appeal with words or actions that trigger a "yes" response, you are less likely to be influential. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) In the rejection-then-retreat approach, a less costly proposal is put across first and then a high-cost alternative is presented. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53)

One of the ways to make people like you is by highlighting your differences with them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) Manipulation involves convincing people to adhere to something that they would do without the presence of a persuader. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) Warning signals of manipulation include the persuader having more to gain from an exchange than the persuadee. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) A persuasive presentation requires the presenter not only to give information, but also to get the audience to accept, believe, and act on the ideas presented. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) Beginning your presentation by telling your audience the key concepts you'll be addressing will make your presentation less interesting. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58) Presenting the core of your argument at the beginning of your presentation fails to demonstrate your enthusiasm about your subject. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59) It is best to use visual aids at the beginning of your presentation when the level of your anxiety is probably the highest. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) In the context of using the reciprocity rule of persuasion, when giving, it is important to respond to others' acknowledgments with phrases like "it was nothing" or "no problem." ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) In the context of consensus/social proof as a universal form of influence, people often decide what to do based on what they see others doing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) Making an effective presentation requires one to give the impression that he or she is more style than substance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 1) A theory that underpins the concept of persuasion is inoculation theory. Borrowing from the medical field, McGuire suggested that in the same way that individuals receive a small injection of a diseaseproducing substance to increase their immunity against that disease, persuaders can be effective when they anticipate the objections of the persuadee and address those objections before they arise.

Strategies for countering objections include presenting all points (for and against) and demonstrating how what's being proposed is the right solution, or broaching controversial subjects gently and early, before your audience has the chance to raise an issue that could become contentious or divisive.

2) How one constructs and delivers his or her persuasive message depends upon one's skill in masterfully integrating the following six components: ● 1) Understanding others' motivations and needs ● 2) Establishing credibility ● 3) Framing for common ground ● 4) Engaging in joint problem solving ● 5) Supporting preferred outcome with logic and reasoning ● 6) Reinforcing with appeal to emotions and basic instincts

3) Framing for common ground involves describing one's position in ways that identify common ground and establish a collaborative tone.

Framing for common ground attains three interrelated objectives: 1) It provides a perspective we would like the other party to consider.

This relates to knowing what makes the persuadee tick.

2) It provides an open-minded way for alternatives and ideas to be compared and contrasted. The speakers can unite and work together to compete against or resolve the shared problem as opposed to competing against one another.

3) It creates a logical structure and establishes constraints for decision making. Clarifying the rules upfront reduces the appearance of arbitrariness and manipulation—one day this, the next day that—down the line. By planning and creating a framework ahead of time, you provide a manner in which you and others can collaborate in the problem-solving process.

4) People often decide what to do based on what they see others doing.

It is observed that we "view a behavior as correct in a given situation to the degree that we see others performing it." Advertisers are aware of this and persuade us to buy their products by telling us not necessarily how good a product is, but how strongly others think so (e.g., "number one selling," or "most popular model").

Conversely, we see no problem with what could be considered deviant behavior if everyone does it, as is the case in a parking garage that has been littered with unwanted flyers posted on unsuspecting drivers' cars.

An effective persuader can use consensus/social proof in several ways: ● 1) To show persuadees that similar others (those the persuadee would identify with) are doing what you are asking them to do ● 2) To show that others have benefited as a result of saying "yes" to your request ● 3) To share testimonials of similar others and experts

5) To defend yourself against manipulation the following should be done: 1) Be clear on your convictions and why you hold them. Avoid being a victim of unscrupulous manipulators by being smart when interacting with them.

2) Think substance, not appearance. Base your acceptance of a persuader on the strength of his reasoning, not simply because he has connected with you or the audience emotionally.

3) Doubt the trust of what's being said. Do ask questions of speakers before being convinced by the power of their words that they are right.

4) Know the source. Increasingly, people rely on the Internet for information and expertise. Yet much of the material readily available can't be attributed to a specific author, organization, or date. Know the source before using content in personal or professional decision making.

5) Consider the needs of others besides yourself. When being courted by a persuader, consider not just your interests but those of others who may be affected by the action or perspective being advocated.

6) When creating a persuasive presentation, it is crucial to determine the reason for giving the presentation and find the need behind the idea presented. Elements of persuasion can be useful tactics when developing effective presentations. Some other tips for effective presentation include the following: Before the Presentation: ● 1) Research your intended audience. What are their interests? Their beliefs? To what kind of presentation are they accustomed? Will they want to see your materials in advance? Will a handout or copy of the report being presented be expected? ● 2) Determine appropriate dress. Find out what's appropriate in the environment in which you'll be speaking. ● 3) Prepare your remarks. ● 4) Practice. You don't have to write out the whole speech. Make a list of the key concepts you want to address and develop "talking points" that support each of these concepts. Practice saying these points in sequence, using a natural conversational tone. ● 5) Relax. Just before the presentation, clear your head and focus on the task at hand.

During the Presentation: ● 1) Begin with an anecdote or quote. This ensures you begin with an attention-grabber that helps the audience focus on your presentation.

Avoid the use of a joke. ● 2) Give your audience an organizing framework. Begin your presentation by telling your audience the key concepts you'll be addressing. ● 3) Present the core of your argument at the beginning. This gives the audience a road map—they know where you're heading and why. ● 4) Make your session interactive. Take questions throughout. If

there's no time for audience interaction, ask one or two rhetorical questions, or begin your presentation with a question that can focus their thinking, even if a response is not expected. ● 5) Use technology, but sparingly. You want to be up on the latest cutting-edge methods—as appropriate for the message and audience— but you don't want to lose the personal connection with the audience or give the impression that you're more style than substance. ● 6) Be interesting but not necessarily entertaining. It's important to engage your audience. Making people laugh can do this. Even more effective is making them think. ● 7) Summarize. "Tell them what you told them." This helps focus the audience's attention on the essence of your presentation—the key takeaways or lessons of your message.

After the Presentation: ● 1) Evaluate. Ask yourself, and others who were present, what went well and what you can do differently in the future. It helps to debrief while your presentation is still fresh in your—and others'—minds.

Debriefing is also helpful when recycling your presentation. ● 2) Follow up. Prepare and send any materials or data you promised to the audience, and send a formal thanks to the organizer of the event at which you spoke.

7) B 8) C 9) D 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) A

14) A 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) C 26) C 27) C 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) A 33) A 34) D 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) A 39) D 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE

44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE 57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

What are the factors that have increased the need for acquiring skills in negotiation?

2) Why is negotiation a more efficient and effective way to reach a solution than either a lawsuit or arbitration?

3)

How does framing facilitate negotiation?

4) Provide examples of unethical behavior during negotiations. Discuss the ways in which you can deal with the use of unethical tactics by the other party in a negotiation.

Students' answers may vary.

Some examples of unethical behavior in negotiations are listed below: 1.Withholding information that would alter decision choices 2.Disguising information so that it is more acceptable to the other party 3.Manipulating the other party through emphasis on false deadlines 4.Making false statements about expertise or understanding about issues 5.Lying to mislead the other party 6.Using information gained through covert methods to create unfair advantage 7.Using bribes or kickbacks that are unknown to some of the negotiators involved 8.Insulting or demeaning the other party to inhibit confidence or judgment 9.Making promises that can't be fulfilled A few ways in which the use of unethical tactics by the other party in a negotiation can be dealt with are listed below.

1.Ask direct questions to reveal the truth or missing information. This may include asking specific questions about things that might be presumed to be "understood" but not communicated.

2.Inform the other party about the tactic being used. Describe it using specific examples of what was said or done and the impact it is having on you and explain that such behaviors will not be tolerated. By discussing the tactic, you remove its strength and cause its user to worry about alienating you further.

3.Request a different party with whom to continue negotiations. If your attempts to curb others' questionable tactics aren't successful, consider asking, "I'm concerned that continuing our conversation won't get us sufficiently closer to an agreement. Is there anyone else that I can speak to?"

4.End the negotiations immediately. It's better to end the negotiation without a resolution or contract than participate in a negotiation that compromises your values or reputation or causes you to be a victim.

5)

What are the advantages of involving a third party in negotiations?

6) __________ is best described as a process in which two or more people or groups share their concerns and interests to reach an agreement of mutual benefit.

A) Lobbying B) Negotiation C) Solicitation D) Merging

7) Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between arbitration and negotiation?

A) In negotiation, one set of interests is favored over the other, whereas in arbitration the primary interests of both parties are listened to and addressed.

B) In arbitration, both parties agree to a settlement reached by a third party, whereas in negotiation the principal work is performed by the two parties themselves.

C) In negotiation, the resulting solutions create "lose–lose" situations, whereas the resulting solutions in arbitration create a "win–win" situation.

D) In arbitration, less time and effort are required than in negotiation as the former actively involves an outside third party.

8)

Which of the following statements is true about integrative bargaining strategies?

A) Integrative bargaining works only when the relationship between both negotiating parties is expected to be short term.

B) In integrative bargaining, any one party achieves its primary objectives through skillful negotiation.

C) Negotiators in integrative bargaining typically take a competitive posture to dividing a fixed number of resources.

D) For integrative bargaining to work, it is necessary to have a climate that supports and promotes open communication.

9)

An integrative bargaining strategy is most appropriate to use when A) a win–lose situation exists between parties.

B) time is short.

C) the parties have a scarcity mentality.

D) both the parties are committed to preserving the relationship that exists between

them.

10) Wilson, a sales representative at a health club, tried selling a $700 membership plan to one of the club's most loyal customers. The customer agreed that she would purchase the plan at $500. Keeping in mind that the relationship with the customer was important, Wilson agreed to sell it to her for $650 along with some additional free services. Which of the following negotiation approaches does this scenario best illustrate?

A) litigation B) arbitration C) integrative bargaining D) distributive bargaining

11)

Which of the following is a feature of the distributive approach to negotiation?

A) It generates multiple creative solutions, which create a win–win situation.

B) It emphasizes the importance of continued relationship with bargaining partner.

C) It requires an open, communicative climate to be effective.

D) It takes an adversarial or competitive posture to dividing a fixed number of resources.

12) Parts Incorporated, a supplier of automobile component parts, allows its customers a 60day credit period. A leading automobile company demanded a 90-day credit period on all its purchases. The automobile company also made it clear to Parts Incorporated that if the credit period was not extended to 90 days, it would find a different supplier for its component parts.

Which of the following approaches to negotiation does this scenario best illustrate?

A) mediation B) litigation C) distributive bargaining D) integrative bargaining

13)

A distributive bargaining strategy is most appropriate to use when A) both the parties are in a win–win situation.

B) time is plenty.

C) creativity is required to solve a problem.

D) short-term goals are more important than building long-term relationships.

14)

In the first stage of a negotiation, both parties have to A) set an agenda.

B) agree on what to do if an agreement is not reached.

C) discuss what is not acceptable in the negotiation.

D) establish their BATNA.

15)

Which of the following statements accurately describes the BATNA?

A) It is a method by which we manage expectations and maximize competitiveness.

B) It is the stage in negotiation during which the terms of an agreement are formalized.

C) It is a written agreement that ensures commitment to what was negotiated.

D) It is the best outcome a negotiating party can get should the negotiation neither occur nor conclude.

16) Grace is an employee at a multinational company. Considering the inflation over the years, Grace has asked her boss to increase her monthly salary from $6000 to $8000. She has also decided that if her monthly salary is not increased as per her expectations, she will quit her job to start a restaurant. Grace's boss agrees to hike her salary by $1000 only. Which of the following would be considered as the BATNA in this negotiation?

A) Grace's decision to quit her job and start a restaurant B) Grace's rationale for demanding a salary hike, that is, the inflation over the years C) The salary demanded by Grace D) The hike Grace's boss is willing to give her

17) The sales teams of Coral Triangle Incorporated and Pengona Incorporated are planning to meet to negotiate a contract. Currently, both parties are in the process of deciding the venue for the meeting and specifying what is not acceptable in the negotiation. Also, Pengona Incorporated is preparing an agenda for how time will be allocated for different issues that have to be addressed during the negotiation. Which of the following stages of negotiation does this scenario best illustrate?

A) clarifying and justifying B) defining ground rules C) bargaining and problem solving D) screening and implementation

18) Clara and Nathan have planned to merge their companies. They have met to put forth their respective proposals and the rationale behind the proposals. Both Clara and Nathan have made their expectations from the merger and their interests obvious to each other. Which of the following stages of negotiation does this scenario best illustrate?

A) defining ground rules B) clarification and justification C) planning and preparation D) closure and implementation

19) Neville wants to purchase computers from a seller. He has determined the alternatives in case the negotiation with the seller fails. He has laid down the ground rules for the negotiation.

He has also set parameters for the negotiation process and the place of negotiation. According to the stages of the negotiation process, which of the following should Neville do next?

A) He should place an order with the seller.

B) He should change the alternatives.

C) He should clarify and justify his case to the seller.

D) He should draft the negotiation agreement in writing.

20) Sasha is negotiating the price of a brooch with a vendor. Which of the following statements best illustrates the use of promise as a verbal negotiation tactic?

A) If you lower the price by $5, I will order in bulk.

B) If you do not lower the price to $20, I will find a new supplier.

C) Lower your price by $5.

D) If you do not lower the price, I will ask my associates to stop buying from you.

21) The management at Red Century Incorporated had planned to retain the annual earnings of the company instead of declaring it as dividends to its shareholders. In order to convince the shareholders to accept the proposal, the company's management put across the decision as a means to increase the shareholders' future returns by investing in current business opportunities.

Which of the following strategies for negotiation is the management at Red Century applying in this scenario?

A) framing B) positioning C) lobbying D) soliciting

22)

Which of the following is an effective practice in a negotiation?

A) avoiding emotions altogether during the process of negotiation B) taking the attention away from the data and premises within a frame C) making statements that are "you" based rather than "I" based D) asking questions to the other party as a means to clarify communication

23) Richard, a supplier of synthetic fabrics, is in a meeting with a customer. Richard had expected the customer to quote a good price for his product, but the customer quoted an unprofitable price. In this situation, which of the following statements is most likely to be ineffective in getting Richard a good bargain?

A) Could you explain the reasons for your price quotation?

B) I am upset about the price quoted for my product.

C) You are being unfair by quoting such a low price on the product.

D) I expect a better price for my product because of its superior quality.

24) Due to a recessive economy, the management at R&S Systems Incorporated has decided to reduce its employees' salaries. This would prevent the company from going to the extent of downsizing its workforce. If the management decides to use questions in the negotiation to help the employees understand the company's viewpoints and needs, which of the following questions would be most appropriate to ask?

A) Do you feel the management's decision is fair?

B) Here is the way the management sees it, don't you all agree?

C) You wouldn't want to make the company look bad, would you?

D) What are you going to do—agree to our position, or go to court?

25) Arden is the CEO at Blue United Incorporated He has decided to hire Harry, the head of finance at a competitor's company, as the vice president for Blue United. Arden is ready to compensate Harry with a salary of $20,000 per month and additional perks for his services.

However, Harry is demanding a monthly compensation of $25,000 along with some management perks. In bargaining the salary with Harry, which of the following would be the most unmanageable question?

A) Could you explain the reasons for your demand?

B) So, you are not willing to negotiate further?

C) Do you feel the salary Blue United Incorporated is ready to pay you is unfair?

D) What do you think about our compensation proposal?

26) Which of the following types of questions is a manageable question and is most likely used to help an individual gather information and prepare the individual for additional questions?

A) close-ended questions B) loaded questions C) directive questions D) heated questions

27) Which of the following types of questions is most likely to produce defensive or angry responses in negotiations?

A) heated questions B) gauging questions C) leading questions D) directive questions

28) Two research teams at BioSure Pharmaceutical Incorporated are in a conflict over the company's scarce resources. Both teams share the same lab, tools, and sometimes even the personnel. The company's finances are also proportionately distributed among the two teams.

Due to some delay in one of the teams' work, both teams have been called for a mutual negotiation. In order to make the negotiation effective, the research teams should A) adopt a clear win–lose attitude.

B) remain objective and avoid personalizing issues.

C) get into emotional debates and personal attacks with each other.

D) criticize the working style and personality traits of each other.

29)

Which of the following is a principle of successful negotiation?

A) adopting a win–win attitude B) refraining from separating people from their problems C) focusing on the past D) setting a low BATNA

30) In a negotiation with a vendor, Paul senses that the representative of the vendor might be exaggerating his claim about a product. Which of the following would be the least effective way for Paul to respond to such behavior?

A) Make personal attacks or demean the other party to inhibit confidence B) Ask direct questions to reveal the truth or missing information C) Inform the vendor's representative that such behaviors will not be tolerated D) Request a different vendor representative with whom the negotiations could be continued

31)

Which of the following statements is true of third-party negotiators?

A) they help the negotiating parties develop criteria and solutions from an emotional perspective.

B) they take sides of the negotiating parties and dictate their actions.

C) they bring in their experience, expertise, models, and templates into negotiations.

D) they help the negotiators arrive at a solution faster as they have personal interests in the outcome of the negotiations.

32) Which of the following statements accurately brings out the disadvantage of using an arbitrator in negotiations?

A) Arbitrators have no legal power to bind both parties in a negotiation to an agreement.

B) Arbitration is less cost-effective and time-effective than litigation.

C) Neither party is involved in generating the solution that the arbitrator provides.

D) Arbitrators have vested interests in the outcome of negotiations.

33) Alan and his business partner, Fred, have decided to end their joint venture. However, both parties have issues in dividing the resources of the company. They are prepared to resolve their conflicts through a third-party negotiator, provided the third party allows them to be actively involved in generating the solution. In this scenario, which of the following types of third-party negotiators will fail to meet Alan's and Fred's criterion?

A) a mediator B) a conciliator C) a consultant D) an arbitrator

34)

Which of the following is a primary function of a conciliator in a negotiation?

A) to act as a spokesperson and advisor for any one of the negotiating parties B) to legally bind both parties to an agreement that an arbitrator drafts C) to influence the decisions of one party in favor of the other party D) to ensure that a steady flow of accurate information exists between the negotiating

parties

35) The residents of Yellowvard Avenue are collectively working to negotiate with a construction company to reduce the noise, mess, and traffic that have increased as a result of a building project in the neighborhood. Which of the following types of negotiation does this best illustrate?

A) one-on-one negotiation B) global negotiation C) virtual negotiation D) team-based negotiation

36)

Which of the following practices is best avoided in virtual negotiations?

A) meeting face-to-face once before or early in the negotiation B) being explicit about the process or the procedure to be followed in the negotiation C) focusing on the problem rather than the people involved in the negotiation D) using computer jargons and acronyms to appear more professional and efficient

37)

Which of the following statements is true of virtual negotiations?

A) In virtual negotiations, both parties incur huge costs in communicating with each

other.

B) In virtual negotiations, parties have the ability to take the time to gather data and think through their responses.

C) In virtual negotiations, there is no scope for retaining or recording what is discussed and agreed upon.

D) In virtual negotiations, the impact of nonverbal behavior on the negotiating parties is high.

38)

Negotiation occurs when all parties have both shared interests and opposed interests. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39)

Increased use of teams in the workplace has reduced the need for negotiation skills. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) Negotiators use a distributive bargaining strategy when they believe that a win–win situation exists and can be reached. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Negotiators using a distributive bargaining strategy typically take an adversarial or competitive posture to dividing a fixed number of resources. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) In integrative bargaining, the focus is on achieving immediate goals, with little or no regard for building future relationships. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) Integrative bargaining requires a great deal of creativity, problem-solving ability, and time, as well as a set of ultimate goals on which both parties can agree. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44)

The negotiation process begins with setting an agenda for negotiation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) In negotiations, it is important for both parties to learn the interests behind the stated position. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46)

The process of negotiation ends with bargaining and problem solving. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) In a negotiation, it is important to develop a frame based on both your needs and those of the other party. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48)

Emotions help negotiators behave rationally. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49)

A good rule of thumb in negotiations is to be hard on the problem and soft on the people. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50)

According to Fisher and Ury, negotiators should avoid change. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) In the context of third-party negotiators, an arbitrator controls the process but has no control over the outcome. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) In a negotiation, it is an effective practice to use a third-party negotiator who has some vested interest in the outcome of the discussions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) Third-party negotiators help negotiating parties develop criteria and solutions from an emotional perspective. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) An arbitrator does not rule on an agreement but merely ensures that a steady flow of accurate information exists between the negotiating parties. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) Procedural rules are clearer in a multiparty negotiation than in a one-on-one, traditional negotiation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) One of the obvious benefits of utilizing electronic methods of communicating is the cost savings. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) Where nonverbal communication is limited, the temptation to engage in unethical behavior decreases. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 1) Complex negotiation is a fact of life for anyone in business.

Managers need to ensure that work gets done on time and within a budget. To do this successfully, managers need to negotiate for the necessary resources. As long as resources are scarce, negotiation will always be an essential skill for businesspeople.

Another factor driving the need for negotiation skills in business is the increased use of teams in the workplace. As individuals from "competing" business units are brought together on projects, the ability to negotiate with others—both inside and outside the team—is critical for the ultimate success of the project team.

Global diversity is another factor motivating the need for acquiring skills in negotiation. As employees from a variety of countries and cultures are brought together to work on projects and joint ventures, an inevitable clash of customs and business practices results in almost constant negotiating that involves developing and modifying relationships and expectations over time.

As the court dockets fill with numerous (and often frivolous) lawsuits, the negotiation of differences has become accepted and valued as a costeffective alternative to litigation.

2) Negotiation is a more efficient and effective way to reach a solution than either a lawsuit or arbitration. In a lawsuit, the adversarial nature of the environment pits one set of interests against the other. The goal is a "win–lose" situation, where one of the parties is clearly victorious over the other. In arbitration, both parties agree to a settlement reached by a third party, which may or may not reflect the interests of the conflicting parties. Arbitration occurs outside of the courtroom; however, the parties involved are bound by the verdict—one that may or may not bring satisfaction. Verdicts resulting from arbitration often resemble "win– lose" or even "lose–lose" resolutions, where either one party is victorious or both parties must compromise so severely that the final agreement is perceived as a loss by both parties. In contrast, negotiation, when handled properly, typically results in identifying all the primary interests of both parties and generating an agreement that addresses key issues of both parties. This can result in a "win–win" solution where both parties feel their primary interests have been listened to, if not addressed.

3) Framing is beneficial in negotiation because it helps focus attention on the priorities you want to emphasize—the data and premises within the frame. It also establishes a "big picture" context for the listener to use in perceiving and sorting through various options.

Framing can also save time and words. When we use frames in negotiation, we provide a perspective that helps others understand where we are coming from and manages expectations. Frames can also provide a rationale for the evidence presented and a sequential pattern for presenting the evidence. This is done by creating a structure for organizing and presenting the evidence.

5) Bringing in a third party has several advantages. A third party offers each party a chance to "vent" in a nonthreatening environment. By venting out of earshot of the other party, you have a chance to disclose your feelings about the situation. By sorting through your emotions with a third party, you can then begin to uncover what's really important and why and address these issues in the negotiation.

Another advantage of bringing in a third party is that you and the other party can both benefit from the third party's expertise and experience.

Assuming they have helped others negotiate before you, they have models and templates to offer—ways to structure the negotiation—that can help you arrive at an agreement faster than if you were starting from scratch on your own. They won't have had the exact same situation presented to them in the past. But their experience with other cases can help them advise you on a strategy for which there is probably a successful precedent.

Lastly, bringing in a third party helps the negotiating parties organize their thoughts and develop options that may be acceptable to both parties. The negotiator won't take sides, but will offer wise counsel about the potential benefits and pitfalls of each of the alternatives being considered. Part of what enables third parties to do this successfully is that they are just that, a third party. Third parties are able to help the negotiating parties develop criteria and solutions from an untainted, and therefore unemotional, perspective. This can be invaluable when it comes time to develop an agreement that is satisfactory to both parties.

6) B 7) B 8) D 9) D 10) C 11) D

12) C 13) D 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) C 20) A 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) C 27) A 28) B 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) D 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE

42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE 57) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

Discuss task force as an ad hoc, temporary project team.

2) List the benefits of teams in the workplace.

Some of the benefits of teams in the workplace are as follows: 1.Increased creativity, problem solving, and innovation 2.Higher-quality decisions 3.Improved processes 4.Global competitiveness 5.Increased quality 6.Improved communication 7.Reduced turnover and absenteeism and increased employee morale

3)

Explain the characteristics of the norming stage of team development.

4) Discuss the characteristics associated with a high-performance team.

Most high-performance work teams possess the following characteristics: 1.Common purpose and goals: They have a clearly defined mission, purpose, and goals.

2.Intention: They are planned or structured to achieve a specific goal or address a specific challenge.

3.Clear roles: They have clarity about roles and responsibilities.

4.Communication processes: They have extensive communication mechanisms.

5.Accepting and supportive leadership: They have proactive team leaders who function more as coaches than managers.

6.Small size: They have about 6 to 10 members in the team.

7.High levels of technical and interpersonal skills: They are teams composed of members who have a breadth of both specialty and people skills.

8.Open relationships and trust: They support development of mutual trust and respect among members.

9.Accountability: They have individual and mutual accountability.

10.Reward structures: They have rewards for team accomplishments in addition to individual recognition.

5) List the capabilities that an external leader should possess to create more autonomous and independent team members.

Self-managed and virtual teams, while autonomous, still need a quality link to the organization.

Research has found that external team leaders that managed the boundary between the team and the larger organization, referred to as the ambiguous "managerial no-man's land," contributed the most to team success. External leaders that demonstrated capabilities in the following four functions and 11 behaviors created not only successful teams but more autonomous and independent team members.

1) Relating a. Being socially and politically aware b. Building team support c. Caring for team members 2) Scouting a. Seeking information from managers, peers, and specialists b. Diagnosing member behavior c. Investigating problems systematically 3) Persuading a. Obtaining external support b. Influencing the team 4) Empowering a. Delegating authority b. Exercising flexibility with team decisions c. Coaching

6)

Which of the following statements is a defining characteristic of a group?

A) It is a collection of people who work together but aren't necessarily working collectively toward the same goal.

B) It has a higher degree of cohesiveness and accomplishment than a team.

C) It is composed of three or more interdependent individuals who consciously work together to achieve a common objective.

D) It becomes a team when members demonstrate a commitment to each other rather than to the end goal.

7) A team set up by Zendon Incorporated to design a new product in the U.S. office space consists of members from the organization's marketing, finance, research and development, planning, and operations. The team derives its strength from diversity and ensures that all relevant points of view are considered. Such a team would best be described as a(n) A) self-managed team.

B) virtual team.

C) cross-functional team.

D) process improvement team.

8)

Which of the following statements is true of self-managed teams?

A) They are usually responsible for the development of new products.

B) They are given almost complete discretion over what to do to achieve their objective.

C) They are expected to coordinate their work with ongoing direction from a supervisor or manager.

D) They consist of employees who operate exclusively via face-to-face meetings.

9)

Which of the following statements is true of a task force?

A) It is more expensive to form a task force than hiring external consultants.

B) It allows management to allocate resources at will to various projects as the needs of the company change.

C) It is required to coordinate work without ongoing direction from a supervisor or manager.

D) It operates across time, space, and organizational boundaries using means other than face-to-face meetings.

10) Codex Incorporated, a software firm, formed an ad hoc project team to study the next evolutionary trend in software systems. Other teams in the firm maintain and service the existing software programs. In this scenario, the ad hoc project team is an example of a(n) A) task force.

B) cross-functional team.

C) executive team.

D) self-maintained team.

11)

Self-directed teams have become a popular concept in business today because of the A) strict hierarchical structure of organizations.

B) increasing number of managers.

C) flattening of organizational structures.

D) need for monitoring teams more closely.

12)

Which of the following is a defining characteristic of process improvement teams?

A) They are permanent and are retained even after the process being studied has been changed to the satisfaction of the management.

B) They operate across time, space, and organizational boundaries using means other than face-to-face meetings.

C) They consist of groups of employees who are responsible for a complete, selfcontained package of responsibilities that relate to a final product.

D) They focus on specific methods, operations, or procedures and are assembled with the specific goal of enhancing a particular component being studied.

13) In __________, individuals agree reluctantly with a group's decision because they are more concerned about maintaining harmony and cohesiveness than critically thinking about problems or alternative approaches.

A) risky shift B) group-hate C) free riding D) groupthink

14)

Groupthink, as a self-limiting team behavior, is more likely to occur when

A) a person expects a specific task to be done by someone else in the team.

B) a team member believes that all team activities are a waste of time because of one or two bad experiences as a team.

C) team members are more concerned with maintaining harmony than thinking critically about alternative approaches to problem solving.

D) team members want to take a risky course of action.

15)

Which of the following statements best defines group-hate?

A) It is a behavior that takes place when members who are part of a group agree to a riskier course of action than any individual would have alone.

B) It is a behavior in which individuals agree reluctantly with a group's decision to avoid promoting viewpoints outside the comfort zone of consensus thinking.

C) It is the negative view that some people have of working in groups that can influence their active participation in group work activities.

D) It is the tendency of various groups to hate each other and work in serious competition against each other.

16) The situation in which one or more members of a team slack off, hoping that others will pick up the slack, is referred to as A) free riding.

B) group-hate.

C) groupthink.

D) risky shift.

17) Lillie, a team leader, observes that some of her team members tend to participate in teamwork much less than the others. They seem uninterested and content to let others do their share of the work. In this scenario, the slacking nature of the team members best illustrates A) groupthink.

B) social loafing.

C) group-hate.

D) risky shift.

18) ________ takes place when members who are part of a group agree to a more unsafe course of action than any individual would have alone.

A) Groupthink B) Social loafing C) Group-hate D) Risky shift

19) Mark's team is extremely ambitious. Irrespective of tight deadlines, the team takes up a high-priority project that requires a heavy investment. Eventually, the team is unable to meet the project schedule. As a result, the company goes bankrupt. Which self-limiting behavior of Mark's team most likely led the company to bankruptcy?

A) risky shift B) groupthink C) group-hate D) social loafing

20) In the __________ stage of team development, members engage in behaviors such as defining the initial assignment, understanding the broad scope and objectives of a project as well as learning about the resources available to the team to complete the project.

A) norming B) storming C) forming D) performing

21) The primary role of a team leader or team member in the forming stage of team development is to

A) encourage the group to establish its mission and purpose.

B) help group members focus on the task and on personal differences.

C) encourage the group members to debrief a project.

D) make sure the team continues with its progress and maintains its cohesion and morale.

22) Which of the following statements is true of leaders during the storming stage of team development?

A) They should take sides to lead the team in one direction.

B) They should encourage the team to develop communication channels.

C) They should encourage the team to establish its mission and purpose.

D) They should help team members focus on personal differences first so that they can resolve it fast.

23)

In the storming stage of team development, the team members

A) may disband permanently or take a temporary break.

B) will not know each other, and even if they do, there is a feeling of uncertainty and tentativeness.

C) have a sense of belongingness and a sense of relief that everything will work out.

D) have feelings such as resistance to the task or approach being taken by the group and anger about roles and responsibilities.

24) Lisa's team adheres to patterns of behavior where members feel free to constructively criticize each other. This is a typical characteristic of the ________ stage of team development.

A) forming B) storming C) norming D) adjourning

25) What is the role of a team leader or a team member at the norming stage of team development?

A) To encourage team members to take on more responsibility and work together to create means acceptable for solving problems B) To encourage the team members to debrief the project C) To encourage the group to establish its mission and purpose, set up a work schedule, and establish some initial norms for working together D) To encourage the members to preserve formality and treat the other members as strangers

26) In the __________ stage of team development, teams are at a position in which they have worked through their differences, their membership is stable, the task is clear, and eyes are on the prize.

A) adjourning B) performing C) storming D) norming

27) In the performing stage of team development, the role of a team member or team leader involves A) taking sides of the majority group.

B) discussing the lessons learned that members can take with them to new projects.

C) encouraging the group to establish communication channels.

D) encouraging members to provide support to and serve as resources for each other.

28) In the __________ stage of team development, the primary task for team members is to tie up loose ends and complete final follow-up on projects.

A) norming B) storming C) adjourning D) performing

29) Which of the following is a responsibility of a team member or leader during the adjourning stage of team development?

A) to encourage the group to develop communication channels B) to encourage team members to work together to create means acceptable for solving problems C) to encourage members to provide support to and serve as resources for one another D) to encourage the team members to debrief the project

30)

At the adjourning stage of team development, team members are most likely to A) establish norms about every single policy and decision.

B) work toward establishing communication channels.

C) experience differences in leadership and work style.

D) disband permanently or take a temporary break.

31)

Identify a characteristic of high-performing teams.

A) They have limited communication mechanisms to maintain secrecy.

B) They have members with specialty skills rather than interpersonal skills.

C) They are rewarded for team accomplishments in addition to individual recognition.

D) They have a low "average of social sensitivity" in assessing and responding to the verbal and nonverbal cues of teammates.

32)

In effective teams, it is ideal for the team leader to A) openly reject any ideas and perspectives proposed by team members.

B) watch for nonverbal cues and changes in the group's dynamics.

C) discourage time-outs whenever they are a dire necessity.

D) reassign underperformers directly to a different team without one-on-one talks.

33) Mary, a mother of three children, is a sales executive with Indigo Paint House. Because of her family responsibilities, she often fails to follow through on the commitments made to her team. Which of the following types of problem team member does Mary exemplify in this scenario?

A) absentee member B) social loafer C) procrastinator D) arbitrator

34) Steve has the tendency to postpone his work and is least stressed about meeting deadlines. As a result, it becomes problematic for his team to complete projects on time. Steve best exemplifies a(n) A) procrastinator.

B) social loafer.

C) arbitrator.

D) absentee member.

35) Which of the following behaviors demonstrates the "empowering" function of an external leader?

A) delegating authority B) obtaining external support C) caring for team members D) seeking information from specialists

36)

The term "group" is synonymous with the term "team." ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) It is estimated that between 10 and 12 percent of U.S. companies use the team concept, making teamwork skills one of the least commonly required skills in the work environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38)

Cross-functional teams derive their strength from homogeneity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) Self-managed teams are expected to coordinate their work with ongoing direction from a supervisor or manager. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) Process improvement teams are permanent and are retained even after the process being studied has been changed to the satisfaction of the management. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41)

Teams are effective when tasks are complex and task interdependence is high. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42)

Teamwork results in a systematic approach to problem solving. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) As compared to traditional firms, employees in team-based organizations experience alienation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) According to Sorensen, groupthink is the negative view that some people have of working in groups that can influence their active participation in group socialization and group work activities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45)

Social loafing promotes synergy among team members. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Vivian's group is in the storming stage. As the leader, Vivian can help by taking sides in order to push the group in one direction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) Debbie's team members are learning to incorporate new methods of working together.

This implies that they are in the norming stage of team development. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48)

Teams occur naturally rather than through careful preplanning and thought. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Team leaders who function more like coaches than managers facilitate the development of more participative, motivated teams. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) High-performing teams are composed of members who have a breadth of both specialty and people skills. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51)

The best teams are ad hoc and unstructured. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52)

Focusing on both process and content is essential for teams to be effective. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53)

Teamwork is easy in teams with no interdependence or need for collaboration. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54)

Teaming is not a natural behavior for individuals raised in an individualistic society. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) The function of scouting in external leadership involves delegating authority and exercising flexibility with team decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 1) A task force is an ad hoc, temporary project team assembled to develop a product, service, or system or to solve a specific problem or set of problems. Companies are always faced with the challenge of ongoing, day-to-day work done while utilizing available resources to work on various change processes or product innovations. Often task force members are individuals who have demonstrated interest or skill in the area being examined by the task force, so the members are enthusiastic about the project and its potential. The task force process is very common in business today. It is lower in cost than hiring an outside consultant or group of contract workers and allows for management to allocate resources at will to various projects as the needs of the company and the interests of its employees change.

3) In the norming stage, members feel a new ability to express constructive criticism; they feel part of a working team and a sense of relief that everything will work out. In this stage, members attempt to achieve harmony by avoiding unnecessary conflict, acting more friendly toward and trusting of each other, and developing a sense of team unity.

Norms don't have to be established about every single decision or policy, only those that are particularly significant to team members. A team member or leader's role in this stage is to encourage team members to take on more responsibility, work together to create means acceptable for solving problems, set challenging goals, and take personal responsibility for team success. A leader sets the tone. If the leader is seen bickering with colleagues and secretly plotting political moves, team members are less likely to emulate the helpful norming behaviors and may regress to the storming stage.

6) A 7) C 8) B 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) D 14) C 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) D 28) C 29) D 30) D 31) C 32) B 33) A 34) A 35) A

36) FALSE 37) FALSE 38) FALSE 39) FALSE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

Discuss the benefits of positive conflicts.

2) Think of a conflict you have faced with an acquaintance. In that context, discuss the five conflict management strategies, and evaluate them according to achieving goals and assertiveness, maintaining relationships, and cooperation.

3) How can creating and maintaining a culture of openness help prevent organizational conflicts?

4)

Elaborate on the ways of providing diversity training to prevent organizational conflicts.

5) Why is it important to manage others' expectations to reduce the likelihood of a conflict when interacting with others in a personal or professional setting?

6)

Which of the following statements is true of conflicts?

A) Human conflict is not a normal occurrence.

B) Interaction among parties who differ in interests leads to conflict.

C) Managers should pursue all the conflicts in which employees are involved.

D) Conflicts always end in hostility and frustration.

7)

Which of the following statements is true of negative conflicts?

A) They boost esteem or purpose.

B) They lead to personality clashes.

C) They increase values clarification.

D) They decrease emotionality.

8)

According to the traditional view of conflict management, conflict is

A) viewed as a result of dysfunctional managerial behavior.

B) viewed as a natural part of human existence and is accepted as a normal part of group interaction.

C) considered not only inevitable but also necessary for maintaining a degree of tension to keep a group creative.

D) seen as a positive force for change within organizations, groups, and relationships.

9)

According to the interactionist view of managing conflict, conflict is

A) a natural part of human existence and should be accepted as a normal part of relationships.

B) a result of dysfunctional managerial behavior and therefore should be stopped at the source.

C) inevitable, and can be helpful if some degree of tension is maintained in an effort to keep a group energized and creative.

D) always bad and should be avoided at all costs.

10) Mia works in the manufacturing unit of a textile company. Andrew, the supervisor of the unit, often humiliates and demeans Mia and her coworkers. He never acknowledges or appreciates the contributions of the employees. He puts undue pressure on them and unnecessarily criticizes them. Instead of confronting Andrew, most employees have started quitting their jobs. In this scenario, identify a strategy that Mia should consider to deal with this situation.

A) She should avoid the conflict at all cost.

B) She should refrain from documenting the behavior to avoid any unpleasant situation.

C) She should complain about his behavior to everybody except him.

D) She should try to understand the reasons behind his behavior.

11)

In terms of organizational conflicts, differences between members of one group is an A) intragroup conflict.

B) intergroup conflict.

C) intrapersonal conflict.

D) interorganizational conflict.

12) The production unit of Max Corporation shares information about organizational changes through emails, but the human resources unit uses word of mouth to spread information about significant changes in the company. As a result, each unit has its own perception of the changes taking place within the organization. This often leads to potential professional conflicts. In this scenario, this situation most likely occurs because of A) differences in objectives.

B) miscommunication.

C) varied work styles.

D) limited resources.

13) The two main factors to be considered when selecting one of the five conflict management strategies are your goals and the A) varied work styles pursued by you.

B) importance of relationships to you.

C) responsibilities allocated to you.

D) resources available to you.

14) Which conflict management strategy involves choosing not to deal with issues or the people involved and retreating from the situation, hoping it either goes away or resolves itself?

A) avoidance B) accommodation C) compromise D) collaboration

15)

A compromise strategy for resolving a conflict is effective when A) give-and-take exchanges are impossible or nonexistent.

B) there are no time pressures.

C) permanent solutions have to be achieved.

D) both parties involved in the conflict are at a comparable level.

16)

Using an accommodation strategy to resolve a conflict can

A) force people to work toward achieving their goals at all costs, even if it means sacrificing the relationships involved.

B) lead to a "lose–lose" scenario where goals may not be achieved, and the relationship may not progress beyond its current state.

C) teach people to accept that they cannot get their way at all times.

D) be harmful in the long term as resentment builds up over unmet needs.

17) When achieving goals take precedence over maintaining relationships, the best strategy for conflict resolution is A) accommodating.

B) competing.

C) compromising.

D) avoiding.

18) Which conflict management strategy is the political equivalent of "win some, lose some" and is possible in a long-term relationship where there is time for give-and-take exchange?

A) accommodation B) competition C) compromise D) collaboration

19)

In the compromising strategy to resolve conflicts, a manager will

A) agree to give up part of his or her goal and part of the relationship involved to reach an agreement.

B) work to achieve his or her goals at all costs, even if it means sacrificing the relationship involved.

C) choose not to deal with the issues or the people involved.

D) arrive at a solution that brings about an "I win, you lose" situation.

20) Mary and Sue have an argument over an organizational issue. Sue does not care about her relationship with Mary and wants to win the argument at all costs. In this scenario, Sue appears to be using the ________ style of conflict management.

A) avoiding B) competing C) compromising D) accommodating

21)

As a conflict management strategy, competing is appropriate when A) an action that is vital to an organization's welfare has to be taken.

B) a solution that satisfies the objectives of all the involved parties is desired.

C) it is important to maintain the relationships involved.

D) there is plenty of time for finding an integrative solution.

22)

The collaboration strategy for conflict resolution is A) an "I win, you lose" strategy.

B) a "you win and I lose" strategy.

C) the ultimate "win–win" strategy.

D) the political equivalent of a "win some, lose some" strategy.

23) The chance to win everything and exercise one's own sense of power are gains associated with the conflict management strategy of A) compromise.

B) avoidance.

C) accommodation.

D) competition.

24) Which of the following is a gain associated with the accommodation style of conflict management?

A) a chance to contribute to the situation B) energy to focus on more important matters C) the gain of power D) heightened self-assertion and possible self-esteem

25) Anne is a manager who solely focuses on attaining her targets and winning at all costs.

Her colleagues perceive her as being stubborn and irrational. She does not hesitate to make unpleasant decisions if they benefit the organization. She is assertive with her colleagues and compels them to follow rules set by her without question. Consequently, she has alienated her colleagues at the workplace, and her actions discourage others from working with her. Under her leadership, there is a high probability of large-scale conflicts in the future. In this scenario, which conflict management strategy has been adopted by Anne?

A) the competition strategy B) the avoidance strategy C) the accommodation strategy D) the compromise strategy

26) Which of the following is the best strategy for conflict resolution when all the parties involved seriously want a win–win solution and have enough time?

A) collaboration B) accommodation C) compromise D) competition

27)

Identify the disadvantage of collaboration as a conflict management strategy.

A) incomplete comprehension of work environment B) little understanding of the needs of others C) loss of sense of autonomy D) less creativity in problem solving

28) Which of the following is a loss associated with compromise as a conflict management strategy?

A) less creative problem solving B) chance to lose everything C) little understanding of the needs of others D) possibility of conflicts recurring later

29) Not all conflicts are manageable or worth the effort needed to resolve them. Sometimes a situation worsens because too much attention is paid to issues that are better left ignored. In order to manage conflict in such cases, it is ideal to A) decide whether to engage in the conflict in the first place.

B) search for a common goal or ground.

C) threaten and to bring in a third party.

D) prepare close-ended questions.

30)

In case of a conflict, a third party should typically be brought in for mediation if A) the issues are less consequential or problematic than at first believed.

B) the issues could be better dealt with via the reinforcement technique of "extinction."

C) there are multiple satisfactory solutions.

D) one of the parties stubbornly refuses to compromise.

31) In the context of the eight-step model for resolving team conflict, which of the following should a manager do after determining the best place to deliver feedback?

A) Stick to the facts and state the impact.

B) Seek understanding and play dumb.

C) Set the context, disclose humanity, and address what the other is thinking.

D) Clarify and evaluate alternative solutions and prioritize solutions.

32) HashCorporation recruits employees from various ethnicities. In order to prevent conflicts, it prepares all its employees to recognize and understand the importance of differences among individuals and ways to manage them effectively. In this scenario, which organizational technique does HashCorporation use to avoid employee conflicts?

A) team training B) involving employees in decisions that affect them C) diversity training D) ensuring alignment of organizational systems

33) Integral Incorporated coaches its employees to recognize that conflict is normal and not necessarily bad. This helps the employees deal effectively with differing viewpoints and approaches, which can lead to innovation. Which organizational technique for preventing conflicts is being used by Integral Incorporated?

A) the compromise strategy B) avoiding difficult conversations C) offering conflict management and negotiation training D) managing others’ expectations

34) The three techniques that are particularly useful for avoiding conflicts through effective communication skills are using "I" language, paying attention to nonverbal cues, and

A) practicing the art of being silent.

B) suggesting negotiation training.

C) communicating consequences.

D) using "you" language subtly.

35) Which of the following conflict management strategies is considered dangerous if the matter under discussion requires one's attention?

A) the avoidance strategy B) the accommodation strategy C) the competing strategy D) the compromising strategy

36) Which of the following conflict management strategies is appropriate when the issue in discussion is not that important to an individual or when harmony is of greater importance to him or her than "winning" on the issue?

A) the competing strategy B) the accommodation strategy C) the compromising strategy D) the avoidance strategy

37) Which of the following conflict management strategies involves energy, commitment, and excellent skills in communication, problem solving, and negotiation?

A) the competing strategy B) the accommodation strategy C) the collaboration strategy D) the avoidance strategy

38) In the context of conflict management strategies, ________ is critical when the conflicting parties are responsible for implementing the solution to a problem.

A) competition B) compromise C) avoidance D) collaboration

39) Conflict is a form of interaction among parties who have similar interests, perceptions, goals, values, or approaches to problems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) In the human relations view of conflict, conflict was viewed as a natural and inevitable part of group interaction and relationships. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Conflict is positive when it initially increases cohesion that can in turn increase the likelihood of "groupthink." ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) Conflict is constructive when it leads to better decisions, creativity, and innovative solutions to long-standing problems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) Negative conflicts are characterized by increased communication among organizational members. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) In addition to providing tools and training that help people work through their differences, managers can help by creating a work climate that encourages the clash of ideas. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) Cultural differences challenge the communication process, as cultures differ in the meaning of certain words/phrases, importance of context, and attitude toward conflict. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46)

Differences between different subgroups of an organization lead to intragroup conflict. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47)

Conflicting values are the most easy-to-resolve source of conflict between people. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) A task-oriented manager and a frequently socializing employee encounter negligible conflict in their boss–subordinate relationship. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Research on conflict management suggests only two possible strategies based on the intersection between relationship and goal importance: collaboration and compromise. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) The avoidance conflict management strategy is best suited when issues are important, when emotions are low, or when others could resolve the conflict less effectively. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) The accommodation strategy of conflict resolution is appropriate when maintaining a relationship is less important than accomplishing a specific goal. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) The competing strategy of conflict resolution proves to be effective when unpopular decisions need to be issued. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) Differences in religious beliefs, attitudes toward diverse others, clashes in family values, or work ethic might result in interpersonal differences that surface in the work environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) When a person faces severe time restrictions, collaboration would be the most effective conflict management strategy.

⊚ ⊚

true false

55) One of the biggest sources of conflict comes from misunderstanding, misinterpreting, and guessing about others' expectations, goals, and decisions when information isn't forthcoming. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) Since employees deal with day-to-day issues and problems, they are often the best source of ideas to solve organizational conflicts. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57)

Conflict is viewed as positive when it is characterized by personality clashes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58)

Conflict is viewed as positive when it is characterized by heightened emotionality. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 1) Positive conflicts are functional and include the following benefits: 1.Increased involvement—Organizational members have the opportunity to develop goals, share ideas, and voice opinions, gaining greater insight into others and situations.

2.Increased cohesion—Members build strong bonds from learning how to resolve differences; "if we can survive this, we must have a true relationship" embodies this benefit of conflict.

3.Increased innovation and creativity—Members are encouraged to "put their ideas on the table." This can lead to more discoveries, improvements, and creative solutions.

4.Positive personal growth and change—Individuals learn about their strengths and weaknesses. Conflict of ideas challenges individuals to learn and grow by expressing their ideas and thoughts through selfdisclosure and considering others’ views.

5.Clarification of key issues—Through discussion, members reduce ambiguity and focus energy on the real sources of conflict, enabling them to then work together to target remaining issues that need to be addressed.

6.Values clarification—Members clarify who they are and what they stand for, understand who the other party is and what his or her values are, and learn when to prioritize the larger needs of the group or organization over their own needs.

2) Students' answers will vary.

The five conflict management strategies can be evaluated as follows: 1.Avoidance—It is low on goals and assertiveness and low on maintaining relationship and cooperation.

2.Accommodation—It is low on goals and assertiveness and high on relationship and cooperation.

3.Competing—It is high on goals and assertiveness and low on maintaining relationship and cooperation.

4.Compromise—It is moderate on goals and assertiveness and moderate on maintaining relationship and cooperation.

5.Collaboration—It is high on goals and assertiveness and high on maintaining relationship and cooperation.

3) Some companies like Google, BigStep, and the Marine Resources Council have adopted more informal and personalized ways of connecting with their employees. Examples include regular staff meetings, internal email newsletters, attitude surveys, community-based events, and brown-bag lunches with top managers. By exchanging information freely and keeping people informed, companies find they are able to reduce some of the conflicts that arise from lack of information. In addition, in a culture where openness is expected and rewarded, employees are encouraged to share their views.

4) As organizations have become more diverse, individuals find themselves working more and more with people who vary in terms of background, physical ability, culture, ethnicity, gender, religious beliefs, education, economic status, sexual orientation, political view, values, goals, ideas, and knowledge base. As challenging as it is for two similar people to agree, the difficulty increases exponentially with increased diversity and numbers of people working together. Recognizing this, many large companies offer diversity training as a way of ensuring that employees understand the importance of differences among individuals and how to manage them effectively. This training, offered by in-house trainers or outside consultants, helps employees know themselves and how that relates to diverse others. Exercises and discussions included in diversity training are geared toward increasing employees' ability to recognize and value differences, understand and reduce prejudice and discriminatory behavior, and utilize company resources and processes when serious issues arise.

5) Some conflicts can be avoided by letting others know what to expect about you and your limits before a problem arises. At the start of a project that involves collaboration, it can be very helpful to disclose pertinent information about your work style, preferences, expectations, and the like. This way, others are aware of differences up front and can adapt accordingly before the differences cause friction. Knowing what to expect and being able to plan ahead can remove or reduce member guesswork, stress, and conflict. Related to this is the technique of setting limits. Setting limits can help manage your boss's expectations and avoid a future conflict.

6) B 7) B 8) A

9) C 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) A 27) C 28) D 29) A 30) D 31) C 32) C 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) B 37) C 38) D

39) FALSE 40) TRUE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE 57) FALSE 58) FALSE Student name:__________ 1) Explain the three reasons underlying the fact that meetings are a source of frustration and loss of work time.

2)

List and explain the four general types of meetings.

3)

Discuss the advantages of using various technologies to facilitate virtual meetings.

4)

Write a short note on the evaluation and planning stage of the meeting process.

5) Which strategies can be implemented after or during a meeting in order to maximize a group's effectiveness?

6)

Discuss the various types of communication mechanisms for conducting virtual meetings.

7)

Which of the following statements is true of meetings?

A) They are ineffective for companies that focus on continuous process improvement.

B) They are essential for communicating simple one-way information.

C) They are important in shaping organizational norms and improving work processes.

D) They discourage an employee's need to be part of a team.

8)

Which of the following is most likely a benefit of meetings?

A) They make work simpler as one has to interact with others.

B) They help a person fulfill a need to be part of a team.

C) There is an increase in efficiency because of interpersonal dynamics between members.

D) They lead to effective time management as more people are involved in making a decision.

9)

Which of the following is a problem associated with meetings?

A) They take away productive work hours from employees.

B) They violate organizational norms and disrupt work processes.

C) They lead to the suppression rather than expression of concerns.

D) They decrease accountability and cohesiveness among colleagues.

10) When participants are gathered to create new products or services, or radically redesign existing ones, it is known as a(n) __________ meeting.

A) decision-making B) symbolic C) information-sharing D) innovation

11)

An important cause of ineffective or useless meetings is the A) act of setting rules for debate in advance.

B) practice of restricting internal meetings to 30 minutes or less.

C) lack of preparation and planning.

D) practice of following preestablished timetables.

12)

Since a meeting involves more than one person, it A) decreases the complications of interacting with others.

B) reduces the instances of redundancies of people and effort.

C) raises the potential for ineffectiveness and inefficiency.

D) takes less time to arrive at a consensus decision.

13)

The first principle in running effective meetings is A) assigning roles.

B) inviting the right people to participate.

C) clarifying the purpose.

D) picking the most appropriate communication mechanism.

14)

In the context of general types of meetings, information-sharing meetings

A) require more time than decision-making meetings.

B) are conducted to solve problems or make decisions.

C) are helpful in sharing critical information with members.

D) involve members reporting on group or individual progress.

15)

Identify a true statement about information-dissemination meetings.

A) They require full participation of all members present.

B) They are relatively short as their purpose is to share information.

C) They are used to share critical information requiring in-depth explanation.

D) They are held to recognize the contribution of team members.

16) Richard, the manager of a bank, has organized a meeting to notify the employees about the bank's new incentive system. This meeting has been called to A) share a problem.

B) disseminate information.

C) celebrate a special event.

D) make a decision.

17)

In an information-dissemination meeting, A) critical information is shared with members.

B) employees are assembled to solve a problem on the basis of available information.

C) managers share recognition for any accomplishment or a job well done.

D) awards are given and announcements are made.

18) Rohan, the manager of a new product development team, wants to hold a meeting to get an update on the individual progress of the members of his team. Which type of meeting would best support his objective?

A) an information-sharing meeting B) an information-dissemination meeting C) a social meeting D) a symbolic meeting

19) Nora, a team leader, wants to share critical information about a high-risk project with her team. She wants to ensure that every team member has a clear understanding of the project. In this scenario, Nora should typically conduct a(n) A) symbolic meeting.

B) information-dissemination meeting.

C) information-sharing meeting.

D) decision-making meeting.

20)

Problem-solving meetings A) need less time than information-sharing meetings.

B) require full participation of all members present.

C) involve celebrating a special event.

D) focus primarily on relaying information to the members.

21) Micro Inc. holds meetings when key employees or long-time employees retire. It publicly recognizes and appreciates the retirees' contributions to the company and gives them a grand farewell. In this scenario, identify the meetings held by Micro Inc.

A) an information-dissemination meeting B) a decision-making meeting C) a symbolic meeting D) an information-sharing meeting

22)

In a symbolic meeting, employees A) celebrate special events.

B) solve problems.

C) receive critical information.

D) discuss their team's progress.

23) Martha needs to have a meeting with her design team to decide on a theme and layout as well as develop a proposal for a new advertising client. Martha's objectives could be best attained through a(n) __________ meeting.

A) information-dissemination B) decision-making C) social D) information-sharing

24)

Which of the following statements is true of technologies used for virtual meetings?

A) In remote locations, teleconferencing can be accomplished using a two-way radio system or satellite connections.

B) Resource-rich organizations are the only ones that can currently afford the videoconferencing technology.

C) Web-based conferencing technologies just let users talk and view other meeting participants.

D) Electronic messaging allows for the widest audience to participate in teleconferenced, virtual meetings.

25)

Identify a true statement about virtual meetings.

A) They are expensive and unaffordable for most organizations.

B) They make it difficult to gain access to subject matter experts.

C) They have increased the influence of demographic and status differences.

D) They provide means to reach a wider pool of people.

26)

Which of the following statements is true of company "troublemakers"?

A) They have a knack for turning every issue into a power struggle.

B) They slack off, hoping that others in their team will pick up the slack.

C) Their perspective is always valuable to a team's progress.

D) They agree reluctantly with a group's decision because they are concerned about maintaining harmony and cohesiveness.

27)

A well-defined agenda A) should not be changed once fixed.

B) should ideally not include logistical information.

C) must spell out tasks and expected outcomes.

D) must avoid specifying time frames.

28) According to the meeting process flowchart, which of the following statements is true of the evaluation and planning stage of a meeting?

A) All persons share what they thought their team did well or a benefit realized from the meeting.

B) The team leader reviews decisions made and summarizes the key points discussed.

C) Operating guidelines are established to help create common expectations among members.

D) The tone of the meeting is set to give members a feel for how the meeting will be conducted.

29) Which of the following stages of the meeting process is considered the heart of the meeting?

A) the evaluation stage B) the wrap-up stage C) the preliminary stage D) the meeting kickoff stage

30) In order to have an efficient meeting, Susan establishes guidelines and assigns a timekeeper to help the members stay on task. On the basis of this information, we can conclude that Susan is in the __________ stage of the meeting process.

A) preliminary B) kickoff C) summary of accomplishments D) evaluation

31) to

In the meeting kickoff stage of a meeting, the manager typically uses operating guidelines

A) enhance the group's ability to be self-managing.

B) explain why the participants were selected and invited to the meeting.

C) review the decisions made and summarize the key points discussed.

D) determine how the meeting’s objective was accomplished.

32) During a meeting, who among the following performs the role of publicly taking notes on issues discussed, key decisions made, and action items assigned using a flip chart or whiteboard?

A) a timekeeper B) a scribe C) a meeting leader D) a facilitator

33) In a meeting, the __________ helps ensure that participation is balanced, communication is effective, and the process is smooth.

A) facilitator B) meeting leader C) recorder D) timekeeper

34) During all meetings, it is Ryan's responsibility to remind the group when it is about to exceed the agreed-upon duration allotted for a particular topic. In this scenario, Ryan is playing the role of a A) facilitator.

B) meeting leader.

C) scribe.

D) timekeeper.

35) In a meeting, the __________ is primarily tasked with keeping the discussion task oriented and in line with the agenda.

A) facilitator B) meeting leader C) recorder D) timekeeper

36) Adam conducts a team meeting. He reviews the decisions made during the meeting. He then discusses key points and, eventually, analyzes the decisions made and recaps the meeting with the help of a scribe. In this scenario, Adam is currently in the __________ stage of the meeting process.

A) meeting kickoff B) evaluation C) summary of accomplishments D) preliminary

37)

In the wrap-up stage of a meeting, the team leader A) helps the group establish operating guidelines.

B) asks members to do a process check.

C) articulates the meeting's purpose and objectives.

D) reviews decisions made and summarizes the key points discussed.

38)

A process check is done in the __________ stage of a meeting.

A) evaluation B) wrap-up C) kickoff D) preliminary

39)

For effective meetings, it is helpful to A) discourage the clash of both personalities and ideas.

B) avoid the "balanced dialogue" approach for a particular agenda item.

C) establish ground rules for debate.

D) attend to divergent issues even if it is time-consuming.

40)

Which of the following activities helps one to conduct an effective meeting?

A) writing down the cost per minute of the meeting B) avoiding preestablished timetables C) avoiding stand-up meetings D) scheduling all information-sharing meetings for 30 minutes or more

41)

An increase in team-based projects reduces the need for meetings. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) Since Cameron's team is involved in a very complex project with several deadlines, she should reduce the number of scheduled meetings. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) Meetings play a psychological role in organizations in that they help us fulfill a need to be part of a team. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) The sheer fact that by definition, meetings involve more than one person, decreases the potential for inefficiency and ineffectiveness. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) Alison should have an information dissemination meeting with her employees to share critical information about the extensive changes that have been made to the company's retirement policy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Information-sharing meetings generally require more time than decision-making meetings. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) The simplest teleconference, available on most public and private phones, is webconferencing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) The use of various technologies to facilitate virtual meetings increases the influence of demographic and status differences. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Organizational politics and need for objectivity can determine who should be invited to participate in a meeting. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) In the context of developing a plan for a meeting, a well-defined agenda includes logistical information, such as where and when the meeting will be held. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) In the context of developing a plan for a meeting, soliciting the invitees' input on potential modifications to the agenda of a meeting decreases their ownership in the meeting's purpose. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) In order to make the discussions in a meeting proactive and focused, the meeting can be considered a collection of tasks or services, namely, communicating, facilitating, and documenting. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) During a meeting, encouraging individuals to perform meeting roles facilitates selfmanagement.

⊚ ⊚

54)

true false

During a meeting, the facilitator should encourage the clash of personalities, not ideas. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) When a "balanced dialogue" approach for a particular agenda item is used and someone's time ends, it is imperative that he or she stops speaking to give everyone a fair chance to participate. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) During the wrap-up stage of a meeting, participants involve in a process check to determine whether the meeting objectives were met. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) Missing evaluation and closing remarks in meetings could have a negative impact on future meetings. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58) Meeting minutes are always the best way to send out important information about a meeting. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59)

Using subcommittee meetings are the least effective use of time and energy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) One should avoid announcing the adjournment time of a meeting right when the meeting starts. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) In the context of performing meeting roles, a facilitator keeps track of the time as it relates to the agenda and reminds the group when it is about to exceed the agreed-upon time allotment for a particular topic of discussion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) To maximize a group's effectiveness, the time between meetings should be used to meet with individual members to make sure they are clear about and committed to the goals of the team. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 12 1) Meetings are a source of frustration and loss of work time. There are several reasons for this.

1) First, there is the issue of interpersonal dynamics. An individual's uniqueness—work style, personality, preferences, values, and attitudes—often clashes with the unique traits of others. Others may have important information to offer, but if they are combative, overly analytical, or just plain critical, one might prefer they just send the needed information via interoffice mail.

2) Second, the more people involved in making a consensus decision, the more time it takes. Despite the benefit of others' input and the existence of synergy—the belief that two heads are better than one— some wonder whether the costs (individuals' time and energy) overshadow the benefits.

3) Third, there may be redundancies of people and effort.

2) The four general types of meetings are as follows: 1) Information-sharing meetings: In these meetings, several or all members share information that has been gathered or report on group or individual progress.

2) Information-dissemination meetings: In these meetings, critical information is shared with members. Typically, such information is too important for a memo and may require more in-depth explanation or discussion, as in the case of introducing a new reward system.

3) Problem-solving/decision-making meetings: In these meetings, employees or members are assembled to solve a problem or make a decision. In contrast with the information-dissemination meeting, a problem-solving meeting typically requires full participation of all members present, particularly if the outcome or disposition of the problem affects them.

4) Symbolic/social meetings: In these meetings, employees celebrate a special event or managers share recognition for a job well done.

3) Some of the advantages of using various technologies to facilitate virtual meetings are ● 1) saving time and costs, ● 2) recruiting and retaining talent, ● 3) extending opportunities, ● 4) drawing from a larger labor pool, ● 5) gaining access to subject matter experts and consultants, ● 6) providing quicker responses to changing customer requirements or managerial needs, and ● 7) reducing the influence of demographic and status differences.

4) The evaluation and planning stage of the meeting process is often missed in meetings and could negatively impact future meetings. First, determine whether the meeting objective has been met. One way to do this is with a process check, wherein members freely disclose how they felt about what was accomplished and how it was accomplished.

After the process check, plan the next meeting. While the discussion and decisions are fresh, decide what should be covered in the next meeting, as well as the logistics of when and where, and meeting roles.

Check parking lot items; can they be included in the next meeting, or captured in a section of the agenda known as "future meetings" or "future actions"? At this point, review the action items. Will there be sufficient time to complete them? Should resources be made available to the person who will take action? Bring closure to these items to ensure that members are sufficiently prepared for the next meeting.

5) Some of the strategies that can be implemented after or during a meeting to maximize a group's effectiveness are as follows: ● 1) Before the next meeting, have the minutes and next meeting agenda typed up and distributed. ● 2) As appropriate, send out checkpoint memos or emails. ● 3) Make sure members have phone, fax, and email lists of all members. ● 4) Use the time between meetings to meet with individual members. ● 5) Design a meeting summary form. ● 6) Send meeting notes to those members who could not be present. ● 7) Have subcommittee meetings if necessary. ● 8) Track progress against a milestone chart. ● 9) Keep key stakeholders informed.

6) The various types of communication mechanisms for conducting virtual meetings are as follows: ● 1) Teleconferencing ● 2) Electronic messaging or chatting ● 3) Video- and webconferencing 7) C 8) B 9) A 10) D 11) C 12) C 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) D 26) A 27) C 28) A 29) D 30) B

31) A 32) B 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) A 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE 57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE

61) FALSE 62) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

What is facilitation? Why is it important?

2)

Who is a facilitator? Discuss the contributions of a team facilitator.

3)

List the types of behaviors that are typically exhibited by a facilitator in team meetings.

4)

What are the key facilitative prevention strategies?

5) The following members are present at a meeting you are facilitating: a sidetracker, a silent member, and a griper. Which facilitative prevention and intervention strategies can you use to reduce the effect of the negative behaviors of these members and improve the effectiveness of the team meeting?

6) The set of activities carried out before, during, and after meetings to help a group achieve its own outcomes is known as

A) accommodation.

B) norming.

C) facilitation.

D) storming.

7)

Which of the following statements is true of facilitators?

A) They might have to take control of a meeting, make decisions, and give orders.

B) They focus on what a team is doing more than how the team achieves its goals.

C) They have the same responsibilities irrespective of technical requirements or goals.

D) They might have to work outside meetings to help gain sponsorship.

8) During a meeting, Ronnie's team members mainly focus on contributing to it, asking for, summarizing, and clarifying information. Given this scenario, which of the following behaviors does the team exhibit?

A) a self-oriented behavior B) a task-related behavior C) a maintenance-related behavior D) a dysfunctional behavior

9) Sheryl is a facilitator. When conflicts arise during team meetings, she attempts to reduce tension by proposing that the team take breaks and, later, come back and provide solutions to resolve the conflicts. She also encourages quiet members to participate and give their opinions.

Which of the following behaviors does Sheryl's activities reflect?

A) a self-oriented behavior B) a maintenance-related behavior C) a task-related behavior D) a dysfunctional behavior

10)

__________ behaviors relate to the process of how a group works together.

A) Maintenance-related B) Dysfunctional C) Task-related D) Self-oriented

11) In the context of the types of behaviors exhibited in team meetings, __________ involves sharing observations of group processes to ensure that hidden problems are dealt with.

A) harmonizing B) gatekeeping C) consensus testing D) diagnosing

12) Which dysfunctional behavior of a team member oppresses with personal needs and results in other members emulating this behavior and being biased against future inputs from him or her?

A) a self-seeking behavior B) a withdrawal behavior C) a blocking behavior D) a dominant behavior

13) In the context of the types of behaviors exhibited in team meetings, the gatekeeping role in facilitating balanced team participation would be an example of the __________ behavior of a facilitator.

A) self-oriented B) task-related C) maintenance-related D) dysfunctional

14) According to Schein, which of the following is an example of a task-related behavior monitored by facilitators during team meetings?

A) summarizing B) gatekeeping C) blocking D) standard setting

15)

Which of the following is a maintenance-related behavior of a facilitator?

A) blocking B) summarizing C) diagnosing D) consensus testing

16) Rachel, as a facilitator, sets norms and test limits to facilitate a team's self-management in its team meetings. Rachel's behavior is

A) self-oriented.

B) task-related.

C) maintenance-related.

D) dysfunctional.

17) When Bill, the facilitator of an R&D team, takes lead at the team meeting by asking the group to begin the meeting by proposing a specific task, Bill exhibits the task-related behavior of

A) gatekeeping.

B) diagnosing.

C) consensus testing.

D) initiating.

18) The __________ behavior of a facilitator involves checking on group position to save time and to ensure decision buy-in.

A) summarizing B) consensus-testing C) clarifying and elaborating D) diagnosing

19) According to Schein, which of the following is an example of a maintenance-related behavior monitored by facilitators during team meetings?

A) clarifying and elaborating B) standard setting C) initiating D) blocking

20) During a team meeting, Anne, the facilitator, requests Wilson, the speaker, to choose whether he wants to entertain questions during his presentation or afterwards. Which of the following facilitative prevention strategies does Anne's action best illustrate?

A) establishing ground rules B) getting agreement on process C) getting agreement on content D) suggesting a process

21) At the beginning of a meeting, Connie, the facilitator, advises the presenter to try and find potential solutions to a problem through brainstorming. This scenario best illustrates the facilitative prevention strategy of

A) getting agreement on process.

B) assuring quality of team logistics.

C) building an agenda.

D) suggesting a process.

22) Sylvie is a facilitator. She is objective and refrains from sharing her own ideas and opinions about any issue. Which facilitative prevention strategy does Sylvie exhibit?

A) getting permission to enforce the process agreements B) staying out of content C) assuring quality of team logistics D) getting agreement on process

23) A team has the option of choosing between two approaches. The facilitator suggests that the team can try both approaches and asks the team members to choose the one that they want to try first. This illustrates the facilitative intervention approach of

A) avoiding process battles.

B) enforcing process agreements.

C) playing dumb.

D) checking for agreement.

24) Ron, a facilitator, presides over a group meeting. He identifies that the group has lost track of its meeting objective and that he needs to get the group back on track again. Given this scenario, it is ideal for Ron to use the facilitative intervention strategy of

A) checking for agreement.

B) playing dumb.

C) enforcing process agreements.

D) using justifying questions.

25) Subtly or not so subtly interrupting a team’s process to help the team when difficulties or potential problems arise is known as

A) acculturation.

B) intervention.

C) benchmarking.

D) downsizing.

26) Facilitators should use __________ when the team has too narrow a focus and needs to be gently guided into another direction.

A) justifying questions B) leading questions C) hypothetical questions D) reality checks

27) Which of the following approaches can help a facilitator effectively conduct a facilitative intervention?

A) avoiding process battles B) being defensive C) discouraging questions D) talking more than the participants

28) When a team appears to be more inclined toward maintaining the status quo, which of the following facilitative intervention strategies can a facilitator use to spur creativity and innovation?

A) leading questions B) reality checks C) hypothetical questions D) process battles

29) If a team member is monopolizing the conversation in a meeting while others have been quiet, the facilitator can get others to speak by

A) using a time-out.

B) using the round robin method.

C) discouraging questions.

D) playing dumb.

30) Rhea is the facilitator of a meeting. Leon, one of the attendees, is a silent member. In order to get Leon involved in the discussion, Rhea should

A) ask him to take a break and resume the meeting after the break.

B) ignore him and continue with the meeting.

C) involve him in a one-on-one fight with others.

D) ask for his opinions, and give positive verbal and nonverbal reinforcement.

31) In the context of problem people in teams, which of the following statements is true of hecklers?

A) They are usually ill-natured individuals.

B) They lack the ability to clearly express themselves despite having ideas.

C) They can stimulate group in-fighting.

D) They are usually "know-it-all" individuals who may inhibit creativity.

32) Jane belongs to a 15-member team. She approaches Matt and tells him at length about a problem concerning one of her team members. She seeks his opinion on the matter and wants him to help her out. Which type of problem person does Jane best exemplify?

A) the silent one B) the advice seeker C) the griper D) the fighter

33) Janice always talks about irrelevant things during team meetings. She causes confusion by talking about things that are insignificant to the central subject of the meetings. In the context of problem people in teams, Janice is most likely a(n)

A) advice seeker.

B) griper.

C) drifter.

D) eager beaver.

34) Which of the following problem people is most likely to inhibit creativity and make others feel inadequate?

A) the drifter B) the know-it-all C) the overachiever D) the griper

35) Rudolph refuses to accept the decisions made by his group. He is very rigid and does not see a problem from different perspectives. In the context of problem people in teams, Rudolph is most likely a

A) drifter.

B) stand pat.

C) sidetracker.

D) smartphone junkie.

36)

During team meetings, an overachiever is most likely to ________.

A) divide the group into competitive factions B) monopolize in a genuine effort to be helpful C) spread inaccurate information among group members D) cause confusion for himself or herself as well as the group

37) Team members' varying beliefs, experiences, education, personalities, and work styles do not hinder a team's ability to get work done. ⊚ ⊚

true false

38) A facilitator is typically a neutral third party tasked with monitoring a team's process and helping improve its effectiveness.

⊚ ⊚

39)

A facilitator usually focuses more on what a team is doing than on the team's process. ⊚ ⊚

40)

true false

true false

The role of a facilitator is limited to what happens during meetings. ⊚ ⊚

true false

41) A facilitator models and teaches facilitative skills, helping the team diagnose its own processes in order to become self-facilitating. ⊚ ⊚

true false

42) In the context of behaviors exhibited in team meetings, initiating and summarizing are examples of dysfunctional behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

43) A skilled facilitator can diagnose the behavior of a group but will not be able to diagnose the behaviors of individuals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

44)

Facilitators must be knowledgeable about decision-making and problem-solving tools. ⊚ ⊚

true false

45) If a team focuses on the content of a meeting and the actions necessary to complete a task, the team exhibits maintenance-related behavior. ⊚ ⊚

46)

true false

Harmonizing and compromising are task-related behaviors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

47) Blocking, as a dysfunctional behavior, prevents consensus and could slow down a hasty decision process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

48) Facilitators will typically downplay content knowledge for fear of being perceived as nonobjective in a particular outcome. ⊚ ⊚

true false

49) Using justifying questions and leading questions are facilitative prevention strategies to improve the effectiveness of a team. ⊚ ⊚

true false

50) In the context of problem persons in team meetings, the griper is capable of turning a meeting into a grievance session. ⊚ ⊚

true false

51) The more directive a facilitator is, the more the team members come to expect such behaviors from that facilitator as opposed to developing their own facilitative skills. ⊚ ⊚

true false

52) In the context of problem people in team meetings, the heckler is a combative individual who wants to play devil's advocate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) In the context of problem people in team meetings, the eager beaver is a problem person who generally shuts out the less aggressive members of a group by monopolizing a conversation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) As a team moves through its developmental stages and the members use effective process-management skills, it is appropriate for a facilitator to be more directive.

⊚ ⊚

true false

55) Facilitators may face resistance due to a lack of familiarity with a part of the organization, despite the fact that such unfamiliarity may underlie valuable objectivity. ⊚ ⊚

56)

true false

Team facilitation is a panacea for all organizational challenges. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 13 1) Facilitation is the set of activities carried out before, during, and after meetings to help a group achieve its own outcomes. There is a need for team facilitation because team members' varying beliefs, experiences, education, personalities, and work styles can hinder a team's ability to get work done. Even with the most talented and motivated individuals, teams with contrasting viewpoints—and organizational pressure to meet deadlines—can find it impossible to find common ground or even agree upon the rules of engagement.

2) A facilitator is typically a neutral third party tasked with monitoring a team's process and helping improve its effectiveness. The facilitator focuses more on a team's process than on the content.

The responsibilities of a facilitator vary from team to team, depending on the goals, technical requirements, duration, and employee makeup of that team.

Typically a facilitator can contribute in the following ways: 1) Helps teams define its goals and objectives and access needed resources to achieve them.

2) Helps members assess their needs and skills and create plans to meet and develop them.

3) Provides processes that help members use their time efficiently.

4) Guides discussions to keep them on track.

5) Ensures that assumptions are surfaced and tested.

6) Ensures that all members' opinions are shared and considered in decision-making processes.

7) Helps to create a positive, productive, and collaborative environment.

8) Models and teaches facilitative skills, helping the team diagnose its own processes and eventually become self-facilitating.

9) Ensures individual members take responsibility for team processes and outcomes.

3) Three types of behaviors are exhibited in team meetings.

1) Task-related behaviors include the ones listed below: a. Initiating b. Giving/seeking information c. Clarifying and elaborating d. Summarizing e. Consensus testing 2) Maintenance-related behaviors include the ones listed below: a. Harmonizing and compromising b. Gatekeeping c. Diagnosing d. Standard setting 3) Dysfunctional behaviors include the ones listed below: a. Blocking b. Dominating c. Withdrawing d. Self-seeking 4) The key facilitative prevention strategies are listed below: 1) Establishing ground rules and defining roles 2) Getting agreement on process 3) Getting agreement on content/outcome 4) Staying neutral/staying out of content 5) Being positive (win–win attitude) 6) Suggesting a process 7) Educating a group 8) Getting permission to enforce process agreements 9) Getting a group to take responsibility for its actions 10) Building an agenda 11) Getting ownership of an agenda l2) Assuring quality of team logistics

5) Students' answers may vary. The answers should include some of the following ways listed below: Facilitative prevention strategies (used prior to the start of the meeting): a. Establishing ground rules b. Agreeing on process c. Being positive d. Educating the group e. Assigning roles f. Getting ownership of agenda Facilitative intervention strategies (used during the meeting): a. Sidetracker—playing dumb, using a reality check b. Silent member—encouragement, checking for agreement c. Griper—using justifying questions, not being defensive 6) C 7) D 8) B 9) B 10) A 11) D 12) A 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) B 21) D

22) B 23) A 24) B 25) B 26) B 27) A 28) C 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) B 37) FALSE 38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE

52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE Student name:__________ 1) Elaborate on the five principles of collaboration to help with the challenges associated with collaborative decision making devised by David Straus.

2)

List the guidelines for brainstorming.

3)

Describe the variations in brainstorming.

4)

Define creativity. Explain the process of creative problem solving.

5)

List the methods for generating novel ideas.

6) A process by which several possibilities are considered and prioritized, resulting in a clear choice of one option over others is known as A) benchmarking.

B) decision making.

C) delegating.

D) pattern recognition.

7)

Which of the following is a trend in today's business environment?

A) Slow decision making is seen resulting in success.

B) Business decisions are seldom being made in team environments.

C) Organizational structures have become flatter and more participative.

D) The accessibility to information has become more limited.

8)

The decision-making process should ideally begin with

A) generating a single solution or option.

B) stating clearly and specifically what you want the end result to be.

C) gathering information and researching on the issue at hand.

D) evaluating the available options based on hypothetical factors.

9) Derek is the production head at an automobile company. He is in complete charge of deciding if his company should make or buy a particular component part. Which of the following should Derek ideally do first?

A) He should research and gather information on the available vendor options in the industry.

B) He should determine the objective, stating clearly and specifically what he wants the end result to be.

C) He should decide the course of action he and his team should take to arrive at the ultimate decision for dealing with the issue.

D) He should generate as many potential alternatives or solutions as possible to help solve his problem.

10)

Which of the following is not an effective practice when making decisions?

A) using a weighted average decision-making technique to prioritize outcomes B) being nonjudgmental in generating options C) using scenario planning to evaluate available options D) considering one single alternative or solution throughout the process

11) In __________, a person becomes overwhelmed by the multiple options available and never proceeds to selecting one.

A) cognitive dissonance B) analysis paralysis C) attribution error D) causal ambiguity

12) The research team at a pharmaceutical company had to make a decision about a particular chemical drug. As every member in the team was an expert in his or her field, the team had access to a large amount of information. With numerous inputs contributed by each expert member, it became difficult for the team to arrive at a feasible solution. Which of the following does this scenario best illustrate?

A) cognitive dissonance B) analysis paralysis C) groupthink D) causal ambiguity

13) When our brain process analyzes new situations based on past experiences that seem somehow similar to the new situations, __________ occurs.

A) social loafing B) internal attribution C) pattern recognition D) causal ambiguity

14)

Which of the following statements is true of the decision-making process?

A) Managing the decision-making process is optional.

B) One need not monitor emotions such as frustration, irritation, and anger in the process.

C) One needs to ensure inclusiveness and fairness in the process.

D) Limiting oneself by anchoring to one's initial or preferred choice is advisable.

15)

Which of the following is required for successful collaborative decision making?

A) taking a stand for one fixed option B) isolating stakeholders from the decision-making process C) considering yourself and the persons involved as one unit D) relying primarily on a logical approach to decision making

16) Which of the following is one of the five principles of collaboration to help with the challenges associated with collaborative decision making devised by David Straus?

A) isolating stakeholders from the decision process B) building consensus phase by phase C) avoiding reliance on individual intuition D) taking a stand for one fixed option

17) According to Edward de Bono's Six Thinking Hats tool, the white information hat is worn for A) managing and directing the decision-making process.

B) expressing feelings and emotions about a particular idea.

C) generating creative solutions for a problem.

D) providing facts and data with no opinions.

18) According to Edward de Bono's Six Thinking Hats tool, teams wear the __________ hat to discuss the value and benefits that will come from potential changes.

A) red B) black C) orange D) yellow

19) According to Dr. Walter A. Shewhart, __________ is a cyclical process composed of four steps: Plan, Do, Check, and Act (the PDCA cycle).

A) pattern recognition B) parallel thinking C) analysis paralysis D) problem solving

20) Motocraft Industries encounters a specific issue with the ignition systems in its manufactured cars. The management appoints Richard and his team members from the research and development department to diagnose the problem and resolve it. They define and discuss the issue and recognize potential solutions for this problem. In this scenario, identify the step of the problem-solving process, as suggested by Dr. Walter A. Shewhart, that has been taken by Richard and his team members.

A) plan B) do C) check D) act

21) The management department of Mova Autos Incorporated notices a decline in the company's sales due to increasing competition. The management has been working on several alternatives to tackle the problem of low sales. One such alternative involves lowering car prices by adopting certain cost-cutting techniques. According to Dr. Walter A. Shewhart's problemsolving process, after identifying the possible solutions, what should be the next step for Mova Autos Incorporated?

A) check B) act C) prepare D) do

22) A few months ago, the management at Coral Trio Incorporated had devised an action plan to counter its increasing employee turnover. The action plan involved enriching the employees' jobs by giving them more responsibilities, increasing their salary by 10 percent, and encouraging internal promotions. Currently, the management is evaluating the action plan to determine if the employee turnover has been reduced by at least 40 percent. Identify the step of the PDCA cycle taken by Coral Trio Incorporated at present.

A) act B) check C) plan D) do

23) Which of the following statements is true of brainstorming as a problem-solving technique?

A) It focuses on critiquing of ideas.

B) It discourages the piggybacking of ideas.

C) It involves the creative generation of many ideas to solve a problem.

D) It lays stress on the quality rather than the quantity of ideas.

24) Carla is planning to use brainstorming in her next team meeting to generate new product ideas. In using brainstorming effectively, Carla should avoid A) evaluating others' ideas.

B) setting a time limit.

C) building on the ideas of others.

D) asking hypothetical questions in between.

25)

Which of the following statements is true of the round robin variation of brainstorming?

A) It helps equalize the verbal and less verbal participants.

B) It highlights the hierarchical or status differences among the participating members of a group.

C) It encourages member participation in an unstructured order to maintain an informal atmosphere.

D) It inhibits creative disagreements under all circumstances.

26)

The nominal group technique, a variation on open brainstorming, primarily helps to A) focus on the quality of ideas rather than the quantity of ideas.

B) prevent members of a team from building on the ideas of each other.

C) evaluate participants' ideas as soon as they are expressed.

D) equalize hierarchical or status differences among members of a group.

27) A few key employees of a company met to generate ideas to improve the company's efficiency. After a brainstorming session, the ideas generated were scribed on some cards and spread out on a large desk. The employees then proceeded to organize related ideas into categories and discussed the grouping till five manageable groups of ideas were created. Also, each group of ideas was given an appropriate title. Which of the following techniques of synthesizing brainstormed ideas has been applied in this scenario?

A) affinitizing B) pattern recognition C) broadbanding D) sequential differentiation

28) __________ is best described as an approach to creative problem solving that requires starting with a problem and working to move toward a solution.

A) Divergent thinking B) Lateral thinking C) Parallel thinking D) Convergent thinking

29) The management at True Ink had a problem because the employee productivity was low.

To solve this problem, the management first introduced productivity-based incentives and then it trained the employees to perform better. When the problem was not solved, the management realized that job rotation would drive the employees to perform better. In the context of strategies for increasing creativity in problem solving, this method of working toward a solution would be referred to as A) divergent thinking.

B) convergent thinking.

C) lateral thinking.

D) parallel thinking.

30) Wood Tales Incorporated, a furniture company, was facing declining sales. In a brainstorming session, the company's product development team was asked to think about how a chair would be used from the perspective of four-year-olds. After discussing, the team came up with the idea that a chair could be used as a ladder, a table, or a shoe rack if it could be dismantled and rearranged. Hence, the company was able to commercialize its multi-purpose chair. In the context of strategies for increasing creativity in problem solving, this method of seeking novel alternatives to a problem is referred to as A) convergent thinking.

B) divergent thinking.

C) reflective thinking.

D) parallel thinking.

31) Which of the following stages of creative problem solving involves gathering information, defining a problem, generating alternatives, and examining all available information?

A) preparation B) verification C) incubation D) illumination

32) Which of the following stages in creative problem solving involves engaging in subconscious mental activity in which the mind combines unrelated thoughts in pursuit of a solution?

A) preparation B) incubation C) illumination D) verification

33) Two departments in Frieda's company are fighting over scarce resources. To resolve the conflict, Frieda tries to develop strategies by comparing the conflict to a trivial fight between siblings to watch their respective favorite television shows. Which of the following strategies to creative problem solving has Frieda applied in this scenario?

A) part changing B) checkerboard C) assumption smashing D) analogy method

34) Bein Du Vin House, a wine making company, exhibits a declining sales trend. The management decides to relook at its strategies. The company identifies that its key belief has been that customers buy wine from different retail outlets just like they buy other items, like grocery. The company decides to drop this belief and make buying wine an experience for their customers. The management decides to offer free tours of the vineyard as well as the winery to customers to acquaint them with the process of wine production. In this scenario, identify the method for generating novel ideas that has been adopted by Bein Du Vin House.

A) part changing B) checklist C) assumption smashing D) checkerboard

35)

According to Carol Goman, which of the following statements is true of idea growers?

A) They send the message that any idea that "breaks the rules" is not a good idea.

B) They obliterate creativity in the present as well as in the future.

C) They discourage employees from questioning the decisions made.

D) They help continue conversations focused on creative problem solving.

36)

Good decision makers are those who base their decisions solely on their intuitions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) Changes in organizational structures, processes, technology, and the availability of data have decreased the need for members at all levels of an organization to make decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38)

Group decision making is simpler than decisions made by one or two individuals.

⊚ ⊚

true false

39) By including stakeholders in the decision-making process, you will be able to get more buy-in to solutions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) In the "Do" step of the Plan, Do, Check, and Act cycle (the PDCA cycle) of problem solving, we define and identify potential solutions for problems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) When generating ideas using brainstorming with a team, it is more important to focus on quality than on quantity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) The nominal group technique equalizes hierarchical or status differences among members of a group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) In brainstorming, scribing ideas on Post-it Notes makes it difficult to manipulate the ideas in subsequent problem-solving steps. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) The highly participative nature of brainstorming and affinitizing helps build consensus among team members on identifying problems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) Divergent thinking involves starting with a problem and working to move toward a solution. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Design thinking is a human-centered approach that identifies alternative solutions by enhancing the start of the creative problem-solving process by observing and empathizing with the users to more clearly define the problem. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47)

In the illumination stage of creative problem solving, you test to see if an idea will work. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) Creative problem solving involves moving one from a novel perspective on a situation to basic assumptions based on past experiences. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Assumption smashing helps in your lateral thinking by starting with what is familiar to you and moving to a new perspective. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50)

Idea killers send the message that any idea that "breaks the rules" will be accepted. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) The P-P-C technique applied to respond to employees' ideas stands for "Presumptions," "Precautions," and "Contributions." ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) The innovation room in organizations should be a place where criticism of others' ideas is freely allowed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) An effective way to increase individual creativity is to opt for quick, tried, and true solutions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54)

To increase individual creativity, it is important to stick to rules. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 14

1) Collaborative decision making involves identifying your and the other parties' priorities and determining the option(s) available that meet both sets of needs. This can be possible by paying careful attention to your and the others' ability to handle risks; thorough assessment of each of your primary needs and motivators; continuous, positive communication; and a willingness to be creative in generating options rather than taking a stand for one fixed option.

David Straus, prominent author and researcher, has devised five principles of collaboration to help with the challenges associated with collaborative decision making.

1) Involve relevant stakeholders: It is important to identify and find means to involve key stakeholders in the decision process. This not only includes those that are directly affected by the decision or who have relevant information or expertise on the issue, but also those who have the power to make or break the decision. Including the right stakeholders will not only improve the quality of information infused in the process, but will also gain a broader buy-in and acceptance of the decision.

2) Build consensus phase by phase: Consensus does not magically happen; it must be created throughout the decision-making process. By working through the phases of the process, group members will come to a consensus—not 100 percent agreement—but rather a decision that all members can stand behind.

3) Design a process map: As there is no right way to solve problems, a process map serves as a guide for stakeholders in working through the process. The map should take into consideration the unique issue or content associated with the task along with the needs or objectives of the organization and the members involved in the decision-making process.

The map will clarify the tools needed to steer the process.

4) Designate a process facilitator: In order to ensure a smooth process, a third-party facilitator, dedicated to focusing on the process, will help

the group continue moving forward and allow the group members to focus their energy on the task at hand.

5) Harness the power of group memory: Posting a written record of all ideas and decisions made by the group can ensure that the group avoids dysfunctional behaviors such as repetition, loss of focus, disproportionate participation levels, and disruptions by providing a visual reminder of the task and decisions involved in the process.

2) Some of the guidelines for brainstorming are as follows: 1) Articulate the theme or the question (e.g., Why are sales down?

How can we cut costs in the manufacturing area?).

2) Set a time limit (usually 5 or 10 minutes, depending on the size of the group and the complexity of the theme or question).

3) Record the ideas for everyone to see (using a flip chart or whiteboard).

4) Remember that quantity is important (generate as many ideas as possible).

5) Encourage everyone to actively participate (no benchwarmers!).

6) Accept all ideas—no evaluating (positive or negative critiquing is not permitted).

7) Piggyback or build on the ideas of others.

8) It is okay to pass, but create a process so everyone provides ideas.

3) To ensure that all members present fully participate in the ideagenerating process, facilitators can use variations on brainstorming, such as round robin, nominal group technique, and Post-it Note brainstorming.

1) In round robin brainstorming, group members participate in a structured order, for instance, starting with the person at the head of the table and moving clockwise. Using this technique helps equalize the verbal and less verbal participants but may inhibit some of the creative disagreement that comes when participants can shout out ideas as they come.

2) The nominal group technique, or NGT, is another variation on open brainstorming that ameliorates the negative impact that status differences may have on a problem-solving group. The technique "nominalizes" or equalizes hierarchical or status differences among members of a group, enabling individuals to speak out without concern for such differences or fears of being ridiculed. To brainstorm NGT style, all team members are given index cards or pads on which to write their ideas. After the theme or question is posed, each person in the group must write down as many answers to the question as they can.

3) When using the Post-it Note brainstorming variation, participants' brainstormed ideas are written on Post-it Notes—one idea per note— instead of on a flip chart. For the open method, this variation requires one scribe to record each idea on a Post-it Note and then stick it to a wall or whiteboard.

Post-it Notes can also be used in the nominal group technique; all participants are given a pad of Post-it Notes (instead of cards or slips of paper) on which to write their ideas.

4) Carol Goman, well-known creativity author and consultant, defines creativity as "bringing into existence an idea that is new to you."

There are four stages that can guide individuals and groups through the creative process: 1) Preparation: Gather information, define the problem, generate alternatives, and examine all available information.

2) Incubation: Engage in subconscious mental activity in which the mind combines unrelated thoughts in pursuit of a solution.

3) Illumination: Recognize insight and articulate a creative solution.

This is sometimes called the Aha! stage.

4) Verification: Evaluate the creative solution relative to some standard of acceptability.

In this phase, you test to see if the idea can work. You might do a reality check (pulling the creativity down to fit within constraints and boundaries), ask for feedback from others, or try a pilot project.

5) Several methods for generating novel ideas are as follows: 1) Part changing: List parts or attributes that can be changed.

2) Checkerboard: Make a grid with parts or attributes listed on the vertical and horizontal axes to find new interactions or combinations.

3) Checklist: Make lists to ensure nothing is left out or forgotten.

4) Analogy method: Fix a problem or create something new by thinking of other products, people, animals, or social units that perform similar acts to make analogies 5) Assumption smashing: Generate new ideas by dropping all assumptions about a topic or issue. Start by creating a list of the assumptions about the situation. Then, think about the situation by dropping one assumption at a time or by starting with the opposite of the assumptions.

6) B 7) C

8) B 9) B 10) D 11) B 12) B 13) C 14) C 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) D 19) D 20) A 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) A 26) D 27) A 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) B 33) D 34) C 35) D 36) FALSE 37) FALSE

38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

Define power. What are the various sources of formal and informal power?

2)

Discuss the pros and cons of politicking in organizations.

3) Why is it important to be able to read others in order to be effective in politicking? What should a person do to be effective at reading others?

4)

What is impression management? How can people use it to their advantage?

5)

What is information management? Provide tips to effectively manage information.

6) Which of the following power bases primarily comes from a person's position or managerial level in an organization?

A) informal power B) legitimate power C) expert power D) reciprocal power

7) Jack is a supervisor in the manufacturing department of a textile company. His subordinates comply with his orders solely because of his position and established authority in the organization. He can influence his team members to do only the bare minimum when it comes to meeting deadlines and maintaining their work quality and productivity. Which of the following power bases does this scenario best illustrate?

A) informal power B) legitimate power C) expert power D) reward power

8) Nancy tells her team members that they can leave early for Christmas vacation if they meet the sales target. In doing so, Nancy is primarily relying on ________ power base to motivate her team members.

A) referent B) coercive C) expert D) reward

9) Jacob is not a team lead or a manager. Yet, his co-workers comply with his suggestions because they respect and trust the knowledge and skills he has acquired through experience. This scenario best illustrates

A) referent power base.

B) expert power base.

C) reward power base.

D) position power base.

10) Stefan started as a leader of a labor union, and today he is a successful politician. His success has been attributed to his ability to influence others. His followers believe in what he represents, and they also aspire to become like him. Thus, the base of Stefan's power is A) expert power.

B) reward power.

C) referent power.

D) coercive power.

11) For which of the following power bases do employees primarily comply because they like, believe in, or want to emulate the person in power and what he or she represents?

A) legitimate power B) expert power C) referent power D) reward power

12) When managers have coercive power, their subordinates comply with their orders primarily because the subordinates A) want to avoid punishment.

B) like the qualities of the managers.

C) respect the managers' knowledge and skills.

D) want to emulate what the managers represent.

13) When a person has ________, individuals are more committed to put in all their efforts into achieving a positive result than just being compliant to the person's orders.

A) reward power B) legitimate power C) expert power D) coercive power

14) When driving, people stick to the speed limits to avoid receiving speeding tickets from the law enforcing officers. Which of the following is the source of the officers' power in this situation?

A) referent power B) expert power C) coercive power D) reward power

15) Steve has been given the charge of managing unskilled labor in the production units of his company. These workers are primarily motivated by financial incentives and other perks such as discount coupons and free movie or lunch days. In this scenario, which of the following power bases should Steve primarily use to influence the workers to improve their productivity?

A) referent power B) expert power C) reward power D) information power

16) Leona, a research scientist, has been asked to lead a product development team for six months. The members of this team are highly knowledgeable and experienced in their respective fields and quite sought after in the research and development industry for their skills. It is known that they work for a company only when they believe that their work experience can enhance their learning. In this scenario, which of the following power bases should Leona primarily use to effectively lead and manage the team?

A) referent power B) informal power C) expert power D) reward power

17) Capitalizing any training opportunity provided in your organization and volunteering for challenging projects that will allow you to showcase your skills and competencies will essentially add to your A) expert power.

B) reward power.

C) coercive power.

D) command power.

18) Which of the following is related to a person's belief regarding how much control he or she has over external events or the external environment?

A) locus of control B) span of control C) reciprocal externality D) external validity

19)

People with a strong internal locus of control will

A) stay away from organizational politics.

B) fail to be successful as an entrepreneur in their own venture.

C) most likely blame others for their failures.

D) believe that their efforts will have direct impact on external matters.

20) Which of the following strategic actions for politicking involves compromising or making concessions?

A) negotiating B) asserting C) asking for favors D) engaging one's audience

21) In the context of strategic actions for politicking, which of the following statements is true of bridging?

A) It refers to being interesting and being interested in others' goals, ideas, and perspectives.

B) It refers to presenting one's ideas in a straightforward and professional manner.

C) It refers to assessing one's needs to fit with the needs of others.

D) It refers to gaining support by listening and by building relationships.

22)

Which of the following is a characteristic of expert power?

A) It involves developing and expressing solid logical arguments to demonstrate ability and knowledge.

B) It involves inspiring others through common goals or shared purpose to build community.

C) It involves using a coach or a role model to build people skills.

D) It involves enhancing one's emotional intelligence to relate to and empathize with others.

23)

Which of the following is a characteristic of referent power?

A) It involves using networking skills in trade and professional activities.

B) It involves building skills and reputation through networking and visibility.

C) It involves building relationships with others through effective communication and use of interpersonal skills.

D) It involves volunteering for assignments to highlight and demonstrate one's skills and competencies.

24) The process by which individuals attempt to influence the reactions and images others have of them and their ideas is referred to as A) self-actualization.

B) affinition.

C) impression management.

D) perceptual mapping.

25) Gerald was attending a job interview. He wanted to ensure that the employer's perception about him was positive. So, he went to the interview dressed in his best business formals and made sure he gave the interviewer a firm handshake. This method of trying to influence a person's perception about us is known as A) perceptual mapping.

B) impression management.

C) information management.

D) perceptual selectivity.

26) Liam is meeting a business client for the first time. He wants to create a positive impression of himself on the client. Which of the following will be an effective practice in managing the client's impression of Liam?

A) Liam should arrive late to give the impression that he is busy.

B) Liam should use humor as a lead-in to substance.

C) Liam should give the impression that he is unapproachable.

D) Liam should use flattery throughout the conversation without being genuine.

27)

Individuals who high Machiavellian personalities are likely to A) use only legal means for personal gain.

B) manipulate encounters in order to gain advantage in work situations.

C) consider their workplace as nonpolitical.

D) exhibit only ethical behavior when trying to promote their position.

28)

Which of the following tips will help reduce unfair politicking within organizations?

A) Decrease communication channels.

B) Reduce task ambiguity.

C) Disperse information on a need-to-know basis.

D) Encourage an informal organizational structure.

29) Legitimate, reward, and coercive power bases always come with one's position or managerial level in an organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

30) In referent power, people comply with a person in power because they want to avoid punishment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

31) Formal power primarily comes from the qualities of a person or how others view that person. ⊚ true ⊚ false

32) Individuals who are influenced more by a person's managerial position than the person's qualities willingly accept the assignment requested and are more committed to achieving a positive result. ⊚ true ⊚ false

33) Politicking is a way to strengthen and expand your existing network of contacts within your organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

34) If you are a person with a strong external locus of control, you will see yourself as having a direct impact on or extensive control over external matters. ⊚ true ⊚ false

35) People with a weak internal locus of control will actively engage in organizational politics. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36)

To be effective in politicking, it is important to understand the power base of others.

⊚ ⊚

true false

37) Understanding an organization's chart is enough to apprehend how authority actually flows or the way in which certain practices are carried out in the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) Power has gotten a bad reputation due to the publicity around unethical power plays, but it is not power that is at issue but rather the abuse of power. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) When making a request for organizational resources, it is appropriate to show that you have thought through the impact of your request on other areas and departments within your organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40)

When managing your information, you should avoid running "to-do" and "tickler" lists. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Making printouts of sensitive emails and then removing them from your electronic inbox is an effective practice in information management. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) An effective way to manage your email is to respond to personal emails before you respond to professional emails. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) If you are a high Machiavellian, you will believe that the end is justified only when it is met through ethical means. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) Information power is the access to vital information and control over its distribution to others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) As a manager, it is important to ensure that there is no scope for politicking in the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Creating an environment that supports two-way communication will help reduce unfair politicking within organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47)

Easy accessibility to resources leads to a high degree of politicking within organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) In informal work settings, reasoning and performance-based data will be commonly used for politicking. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) It has been shown that legitimate power has more impact than referent and expert power in influencing behavior in the workplace. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) One of the best ways to reduce unfair politicking is to put careful thought into designing a compensation structure that all current and new employees understand. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51)

Person power engenders compliance as opposed to commitment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 15 1) Power is the ability to get someone to do something you want done or the ability to make things happen in the way you want.

Power that comes from one's position or managerial level in an organization is referred to as position power or formal power. Formal power can include legitimate, reward, and coercive power bases.

1) Legitimate power is based on a person holding a formal position or title. Employees comply because they accept the legitimacy of the person in charge.

2) Reward power is based on a person's ability to provide (or withhold) rewards. Others comply because they desire the rewards available from the person in power.

3) Coercive power is based on a person's ability to punish or harm.

Others comply because they want to avoid punishment.

Person power, or informal power, comes from the qualities of a person or how others view him or her. Two well-established bases of "person" power are expert power and referent power.

1) Expert power is based on a person possessing knowledge or superior skills in an area of expertise. Employees comply because they respect and trust the person's knowledge or skill.

2) Referent power is based on a person's ability to influence because of others' desire to identify or associate with him or her. Others comply because they like, believe in, or want to emulate the person and what he or she represents.

2) Politicking involves advocating for your interests in a way that meets your and your company's objectives. One who is effective at politicking in business is fully engaged in the life of the organization, understands the key issues and drivers within the organization and the industry, and exercises sound judgment when making decisions that affect the people in and resources of the organization. Politicking is important because of the complexities involved in being in business today. The global marketplace, the changing attitudes and growing diversity of employees, the intense competition for profits, the explosion of technology, the constant changes in business strategy, and the changing cast of characters who run companies are just a few of these intricacies.

Politicking is a way to strengthen and expand your existing network of contacts within your organization. It can be used to learn about available resources and how to get them allocated to objectives that support your and your employees' interests.

Entrepreneurs will need to politic in order to gain credibility as competent players in their industry while proving they are innovative enough to stand out as potential new leaders. In team situations, leaders or members who are able to politic effectively are able to more easily access resources and information to increase team effectiveness.

Developing skills in politicking enables managers to understand the changing nature of their business, obtain needed information and resources, adapt as needed, and even reduce workplace stressors.

Politicking can also be a gender issue. It was found that many women have a gender-differing attitude toward political actions and avoid or severely limit their political gamesmanship in comparison to their male counterparts. Women need to become comfortable with participating in politics. Men tend to see politicking as an influencing skill, and women need to realize that avoiding office politics can not only keep them from

becoming a highly effective leader but could also limit them from toplevel positions.

3) Effective managers who are good at influencing within their organizations know the importance of being able to "read" people, or understand others' perceptions, reactions, and motivations. To be effective in politicking, it is important to understand others quickly: their power base; their perceptions regarding their position, the situation, and organization; and their stance on the issues at hand. This requires attention to what is known (others' position, experience, previous decisions), as well as what lies beneath the surface (such as goals, values, fears).

Some tips on reading others are as follows: 1) Listen intently. Listen for what is said and how it is said, not for what you think the person should be saying. Use pauses frequently; silence often encourages a person who wants to say more.

2) Observe aggressively. Interpret others' body language and check for consistency (or lack thereof) between what's being said verbally and what's being displayed nonverbally.

3) Turn up your sensitivity. Be aware of more than simply the conversation that is taking place. Use all your senses to pick up the nuances that are occurring within and between groups of people in the room.

4) Analyze first impressions. Think about what the person is trying to present or hopes to gain before accepting what you see. If something seems inconsistent, ask.

4) Impression management is a process by which we attempt to influence the reactions and images people have of us and our ideas. We do this when we wear our best suit on a job interview or when we send a copy of a congratulatory email or note to our boss. Impression management is being used when we try to choose the right words when in a public setting or even how we may act when managing or working on a team with others. Impression management can also be used to solidify our self-concept and further validate personal values or goals.

While self-presentation not only creates a perspective for others to evaluate us on, it can be just as important for self-fulfillment and goal setting. Through impression management, we become aware of all the ways in which we convey an initial impression of who we are to others and make a conscious choice about what parts of us we want to display to others.

In the same way networking can help others take notice of your resume and invite you to an interview, impression management can get you noticed—and possibly get you the job.

Impression management is a big part of interviewing, from dressing up to create a certain impression to answering questions or asking the right questions to appear knowledgeable and competent. This can also be true in the reverse; interviewers can use impression management to portray the company in a particular light to attract a desirable candidate. Both parties should be aware of the implications resulting from impression management and attempt to use a structured process to reduce the possibilities of exaggerations. If both parties are honest in the process and it really is a true fit, it could be a win–win result. In the end, both parties will need to live up to their promises.

5) Information management involves obtaining useful information and managing the information received so that it is accessible and available as needed. The most effective managers are those who understand the importance of information and know how to access, sift through, store, and use information to their advantage. Being able to effectively organize current and emerging information that relates to your work is important in many professions.

A few tips that would help manage information are as follows: 1) Set up a simple, user-friendly file system (both print and electronic).

The system should include both specific project folders and general "resource" folders that are topical rather than pertain to a specific assignment. Resource folders might include technology, reports, or current events that may affect your organization or career. Purge these folders on a regular basis to ensure they are current. File the folders from past projects in a place separate from your active files. Limit the clutter in your active pile.

2) Glance briefly at all information that comes to you either electronically or in print. Quickly make "importance" decisions: must handle, handle if time, or discard. Decide who else should see this information and arrange for them to be copied or informed. Discard items that are not relevant or can be obtained later. Process or file the remaining items immediately. Make printouts of sensitive emails and file them in your personal files. Then remove them from your electronic inbox.

3) Refer to your project and related resource files prior to attending a meeting about the topic. These few minutes can help get you up to speed and reduce wasted time in meetings.

4) Keep written notes on all meetings attended. Date the pages and jot down key issues discussed and decisions made. Bring these notes with you to subsequent meetings to prevent having to revisit topics that have already been addressed.

5) Keep a telephone log to track phone messages received and followup calls needed or made.

6) Manage your email. Respond to professional email messages during the day, preferably during one or two blocks of time set aside for this task. Only respond to personal email after hours, or better still, maintain a separate personal account.

7) Keep running "to-do" and "tickler" lists. Maintain all "to-do" items on one master list and a separate "tickler" list to remind you of upcoming deadlines and activities. Related folders can be kept in the current file until you work on a specific "to-do" item.

6) B 7) B 8) D 9) B 10) C 11) C 12) A 13) C 14) C 15) C 16) C 17) A 18) A 19) D 20) A

21) D 22) A 23) C 24) C 25) B 26) B 27) B 28) B 29) TRUE 30) FALSE 31) FALSE 32) FALSE 33) TRUE 34) FALSE 35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) FALSE 38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE

51) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

Discuss how to develop an appropriate mindset for networking.

2)

What are the different barriers to networking?

3)

List some of the strategies for building an effective network.

4) List the different forms of mentoring that extend beyond traditional, organizational, geographical, and functional boundaries.

5)

Define the characteristics of effective mentors.

6)

List the key points proteges need to keep in mind to make mentoring work.

7) Sally is working to build her personal and professional relationships so that she can have a chain of information and contacts to help support her new accounting practice. Which of the following interpersonal skills is Sally using?

A) Monitoring B) Networking C) Coaching D) Mentoring

8)

Which of the following statements is true of networking?

A) The largest portion of a person's network consists of primary contacts.

B) Networking helps to increase effectiveness when researching a new concept, starting a new project, or developing a new product idea.

C) Networking helps to access information limited to an individual's specific functional area rather than one that is holistic.

D) Networking while on the job has no effect on an individual's access to available resources and information.

9) In the context of networking, the resources that can provide novel ideas, timely information, job opportunities, business leads, influence, and community support as a result of networking relationships are referred to as A) collateral materials.

B) social capital.

C) blind spots.

D) white spaces.

10) The notion that most of us can find a connection to anyone else in the world through six levels of contacts is referred to as the A) primary network.

B) intimate network.

C) secondary network.

D) personal network.

11) As Carl is majoring in accounting, he decides to meet his mother's friend who works for a prestigious accounting firm to take her advice on careers in the accounting field. Carl is learning about his career opportunities through a(n)

A) appraisal meeting.

B) feedback meeting.

C) information interview.

D) clarification interview.

12) In the context of expanding one's professional network, ________ is an effective technique for learning about ideal jobs or careers and involves reaching out to and asking people about their own careers and jobs.

A) co-mentoring B) informational interviewing C) peer mentoring D) social loafing

13) Better Technologies Incorporated is attempting to hire some of the best IT specialists by asking its current employees to encourage their acquaintances to join the company. This process is known as A) selective networking.

B) coercive networking.

C) peer-to-peer networking.

D) reverse networking.

14) In the context of developing an appropriate mindset for networking, which of the following questions is most likely to be asked by “other-oriented” networkers when they approach a room full of people?

A) How can I help you?

B) Who can I sell?

C) Who might be able to give me a job lead?

D) What can I get them to buy?

15) In the context of kinds of networkers, identify a question that “self-oriented” networkers will most probably ask when they approach a group of people.

A) Who in this room could use my help?

B) Who can I introduce to whom present around me?

C) How do I convince them they need me or what I offer?

D) How can I have them contact you?

16)

Which of the following can adversely affect a person's ability to network?

A) having difficulty in asking others for help B) aiming to achieve personal goals with help from others C) sharing sensitive information D) sharing competitive information

17) As a new college graduate, Peter needs to develop contacts to ensure that his goal of having his own consulting company becomes a reality in the future. Which of the following actions should Peter take to develop and maintain his network?

A) He should refrain from sharing sensitive or competitive information.

B) He must avoid analyzing every situation for possibilities.

C) He must keep his ambitions and goals under wraps.

D) He must nurture relationships with individuals present around him.

18) Owen has a networking meeting with a prospective client. Which of the following is a key thing he should do before attending this meeting?

A) He should ask for the client's business card and provide his card as well.

B) He should be prepared to share personal information with the client.

C) He should bring business cards, and optionally, copies of his resume.

D) He should be prepared to engage in praising, fawning, self-deprecation, flirting, or cuteness.

19)

Identify one of the key things to do before a networking meeting.

A) setting specific networking goals B) jotting down a few notes on the back of the concerned person's business card C) being visible, not pushy D) following up with new contacts within 48 hours

20)

One of the key things to do during a networking meeting is to A) refrain from fawning.

B) set specific networking goals.

C) start with a small circle of well-known associates and friends.

D) practice small talk—develop conversation starters.

21)

Identify one of the key things to do after a networking meeting.

A) setting specific networking goals B) jotting down a few notes on the back of the concerned person's business card C) being visible, not pushy D) allotting time in your weekly or monthly planner for networking activities

22) Identify the mentor function that deals with the aspects of the relationship that enhance a sense of competency, identity, and effectiveness in a professional role.

A) psychosocial functions B) career functions C) psychological functions D) sponsorship functions

23) In the context of the changing nature of mentoring, which of the following is true of peer mentoring?

A) It is a formal relationship that makes proteges excessively nervous.

B) It mandates that mentors learn from their younger colleagues to become technologically savvy.

C) It is a relationship between members of a group who are at equal levels.

D) It tends to provide greater levels of instrumental support than psychosocial support.

24)

Sponsorship, visibility, coaching, and protection are part of ________ of a mentor.

A) psychosocial functions B) career functions C) psychological functions D) sponsorship functions

25)

Which of the following trends has led to an increased need for mentoring?

A) tendency of workers to stick to the same company for long B) products and services being viewed as the keys to sustainable competitive advantage C) importance being given to the benefit of an organization as a whole than to individual participants D) firms considering their employees as the chief source of sustainable competitive advantage

26)

An effective mentor

A) has the ability to combine personal needs with professional demeanor when interacting with a protege.

B) does not deal with diverse groups of people.

C) does not share any information with his or her protege unless it is absolutely necessary.

D) has the ability to give honest and detailed constructive feedback.

27) Rick joined a university as a new faculty member. Karen, a tenured faculty member at the same university, recognized Rick's potential and started to help and guide him. In this scenario, Karen is most likely exhibiting the role of a(n) A) virtual mentor.

B) informal mentor.

C) process consultant.

D) information interviewer.

28)

Which of the following is true of an informal mentoring relationship?

A) They are arranged with the assistance of an external organizing force.

B) These relationships typically have a specific time frame.

C) These relationships often develop spontaneously.

D) They have one or more checkpoints for goal setting.

29)

Which of the following statements is most likely true of formal mentoring?

A) These relationships are formed when mentors and proteges have shared values.

B) These relationships have the benefit of visibility.

C) These relationships often develop spontaneously.

D) These relationships generally lack a specific time frame.

30) In the context of mentoring, ________ are a pair of close, collegial friends who are committed to facilitating each other's development and who take turns mentoring each other at particular stages of their careers/lives.

A) group mentors B) organizational mentors C) formal mentors D) reciprocal mentors

31) Diane and Benjamin work at the U.S. office of their company. Through their special mentoring relationship, Diane, a senior member of the organization, has greatly improved her technical skills, while Benjamin, the new member of the organization, has learned how to streamline his work habits to accomplish reports quicker. Their relationship best exemplifies a(n) A) group mentoring relationship.

B) formal mentoring relationship.

C) co-mentoring relationship.

D) virtual mentoring relationship.

32)

Virtual mentoring differs from traditional mentoring in that in virtual mentoring

A) proteges stand to receive less and less useful advice from their e-mentors.

B) proteges are less willing to share openly and candidly their failures as well as their successes.

C) other employees are also free to see and give their input to an e-mentor and a protege’s conversation.

D) e-proteges have a chance to think through and edit their communications.

33)

In order to make mentoring relationships work, proteges must A) make mentoring a two-way street.

B) avoid reassessing and altering their network.

C) refrain from revealing goals and ambitions.

D) stick to the advice of a single mentor rather than seeking multiple mentors.

34) Successful networking requires a philosophy of expecting information and help from others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

35)

The largest portion of a person's network consists of primary contacts. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36)

All contacts must be deliberately cultivated because they do not evolve naturally. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) The concept of "six degrees of separation" implies that most of us end up having one in every six individuals in our secondary network as a result of effective networking. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) In information interviews, the goal is to obtain a job, and not to learn from the person with whom you're speaking. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) During an information interview, the goal is to learn from the person with whom one is speaking, not to obtain a job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40)

Reverse networking has a negative effect on organizations and their hiring procedures. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Anne will be more effective at networking if she can reach her goals without any special help from others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) While networking, it is best if Conrad avoids discussing specific expectations until the trust between the parties is built. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) In the context of building an effective network, opening conversations by inquiring about people's family, occupation, hobbies, recreation, or dreams allows one to develop a rapport or relationship with a person for future reference. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) Mentoring has been traditionally defined as a long-term, developmental relationship between two individuals, a mentor and a protege. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) Offering mentoring programs is an excellent way to boost the performance and advancement rates of minorities and women, as well as to build confidence and boost morale. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Formal mentoring relationships usually have specific time frames, methods for termination, and checkpoints for goal setting. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) Peer mentoring relationships are formal and tend to provide lower levels of psychosocial support than instrumental support. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48)

One of the keys for proteges to make mentoring work is to be selective.

⊚ ⊚

true false

49) Having a mentor guarantees that you'll receive promotions and advancement opportunities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) Selecting mentors on the basis of title alone may lead to disappointment or frustration with their inability to provide the time and assistance you need. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) One of the keys for proteges to make mentoring work is to demonstrate their trustworthiness. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52)

Mentoring will fail if the environment does not support it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) A limitation for mentoring facing many organizations is a lack of sufficient female and minority role models. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 16 1) Successful networking requires a positive, cooperative mindset. It requires viewing relationships as opportunities to give to, rather than take from, others. Based on this, networkers can be of two kinds: those who are self-oriented and those who are focused on others. Effective networking should be a reciprocal process; by helping others you in turn help yourself. An appropriate blending of the two orientations can create mutually beneficial interactions and develop a long-term win–win situation.

2) People fear or avoid networking for a number of reasons: 1) Being shy/introverted, lacking in self-esteem or confidence in personal skills and abilities 2) Difficulty in asking others for help and being or feeling unable to reciprocate the favor immediately 3) Wanting to reach goals without any special help from others 4) Concern about sharing sensitive or competitive information 5) Discomfort in "bragging"

3) The following strategies can help build an effective network: 1) Organize your current network—Identify people you already know and enter their names and contact information into a database.

2) Expand your network—After assessing your network, think about how you want to expand it.

3) Nurture the relationships—Commit to spending time, one-on-one, to get to know your contacts.

4) Take charge of the situation—Make networking a conscious effort and take control over potential opportunities.

5) Ask for a strategic introduction—Reach out to your contact and explain what you want to accomplish, and then ask if your contact might be willing to introduce you at an upcoming event or electronically.

6) Be careful—In general, and especially while pursuing new or different job opportunities, be aware of your digital footprint 4) The different forms of mentoring include mentoring by peers as well as superiors; formal and informal mentoring; intra- and interorganizational mentoring; mentoring by groups; reciprocal and comentoring; multiple, simultaneous mentors; and face-to-face and virtual (electronic) mentoring.

5) The following are some of the characteristics of effective mentors: 1) Expertise and experience in their profession; successful in their professional endeavors 2) Enthusiasm and genuine interest for the profession 3) Desire and energy to help others 4) Available time to help others 5) Ability to relate to others in all types of settings 6) Good interpersonal skills; good listening skills; a high level of emotional intelligence or ability to read others and situations and act appropriately 7) Skilled in giving honest and detailed constructive feedback 8) Supportive in their work for others 9) Ability to work well with a diverse group of people 10) High yet achievable standard of performance for themselves and others 11) Worthy of emulation 12) Willingness to expose their protege to a broad-based network of professionals and to share information about organizational norms 13) Ability to separate personal needs and concerns from professional demeanor when interacting with a protege 14) Can share stories and experiences that provide a point of reference, not necessarily a model that must be followed 15) Will keep confidential information secret and protect protege as appropriate

6) The following are the keys for proteges to make mentoring work: 1) Asking for what one needs while respecting the mentor's time 2) Being mindful of the mentor's credibility and reputation 3) Being realistic and committing to regularly reassessing and altering one's network 4) Being selective 5) Making mentoring a two-way street 6) Demonstrating one's trustworthiness 7) Being willing to accept gracefully all feedback mentors are willing to provide 8) Seeking out multiple mentors 7) B 8) B 9) B 10) C 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) A 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) B

25) D 26) D 27) B 28) C 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) FALSE 35) FALSE 36) FALSE 37) FALSE 38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE

Student name:__________ 1)

List the skills and characteristics of effective coaches.

2) As a supervisor, develop a coaching strategy to help a team through its storming stage.

Include both supportive and initiating behaviors without being rigid on solutions.

3) Differentiate between coaching and counseling with regard to the following three points: objective, means and methods, and cause of the problem.

4) Develop a feedback script on a recent performance or behavior of an employee or a teammate. Dissect your script to show how it incorporates all the characteristics of effective feedback.

5)

Provide tips for preparing and leading a feedback session.

6) Who among the following are leaders who focus their energy on helping others improve their performance and achieve goals?

A) coaches B) limited partners C) whistleblowers D) facilitators

7)

Identify a true statement about good coaches.

A) They encourage personal conflicts to promote creativity.

B) They focus on the personality of the people involved.

C) They believe in blaming the person rather than the process.

D) They attend to both personnel and organizational needs.

8)

Coaches attending to both human and business needs A) stress on the individual approach rather than the team approach.

B) relate to the willingness to assign blame.

C) refrain from accepting accountability.

D) relate to a parallel style of thinking and acting.

9) The statements that indicate a coach's commitment to and backing of an employee will be included in the ________ category of supportive behavior.

A) passive B) verbal C) tangible D) active

10)

In the context of supportive behaviors used by successful coaches, active behavior A) focuses on the needs of a group of employees rather than individual employees.

B) opposes statements that indicate a coach’s commitment to and backing of employees.

C) shows a coach’s readiness to understand prior to trying to be comprehended.

D) excludes acts that signal complete listening, acknowledging, and asking questions.

11) When coaching an employee on career advancement, Pam made statements that offered help, resources, and links to other people and information. Which supportive behavior did Pam exhibit?

A) verbal B) tangible C) active D) intangible

12) Diane always clarifies her expectations and requirements from her employees and seeks to gain their commitment for action toward achieving goals. Diane's coaching style demonstrates ________ behaviors.

A) nonsupportive B) intangible C) initiating D) blame-assigning

13) Harper is a trainer at an IT firm. Besides training and coaching new employees, she also conducts regular counseling and one-on-one sessions for existing employees because she is concerned about their well-being. In this scenario, identify a supportive behavior that should be used by Harper to demonstrate her acceptance of the employees.

A) She should explore the impact and effects of employees' actions.

B) She should empathize with the employees and pay attention to their problems.

C) She should help employees understand positive and negative consequences connected to their future plans.

D) She should direct employees to plan actions around solutions and desired changes.

14) Which of the following exemplifies supportive behavior as opposed to initiating behavior?

A) clarifying leader expectations and requirements B) seeking commitment to an action plan C) showing concern over an employee's needs and objectives D) planning actions around solutions and desired changes

15) Which of the following is most likely to be included under initiating behaviors as opposed to supportive behaviors?

A) providing feedback and analysis of issues and concerns B) interacting in such a way that it provides time for an employee to air his or her feelings C) expressing the value of an employee and his or her contribution to the assigned work D) empathizing for an employee and paying attention to obstacles and problems

16) Which of the following is used to address personal or attitudinal problems rather than those related to an individual's ability?

A) punishment B) counseling C) training D) mentoring

17)

The directive method of the counseling process involves A) avoiding the usage of probing and all kinds of questioning.

B) reviewing specific problems and probable solutions.

C) being a good listener.

D) acting as a sounding board.

18) The two methods that primarily facilitate the counseling process are the severity of the problem being addressed in a session and A) the competence of the workforce.

B) the recurring problem and its gravity.

C) the manager's comfort and ability with counseling.

D) the organizational guidelines and adherence to them.

19)

Which of the following is an objective of counseling?

A) to gain positive work outcomes B) to obtain a willingness to change C) to enhance relationships D) to reinforce positive behaviors and correct negative behaviors

20)

The coaching process should begin with A) assessing the needs for coaching.

B) a situational analysis.

C) evaluation and feedback.

D) gathering information about action plans.

21) Jeff needs to coach his subordinate Derin. Jeff has conducted a situational analysis and has identified the strengths and weaknesses of Derin. He has also communicated these to Derin.

According to the coaching process, that is the next step that Derin should take?

A) She should assess the needs and goals of coaching.

B) She should determine which action plan to use.

C) She should conduct a self-assessment.

D) She should encourage Jeff to generate action plans.

22) Which of the following is an example of a nondirective approach to facilitate the counseling process?

A) discussing B) listening and supporting C) interacting D) probing and assuring

23) One of Kim's employees is having some personal problems. Kim believes that nondirective counseling would be the best tactic at this point. Kim can provide nondirective counseling by A) giving advice.

B) setting goals.

C) listening patiently.

D) providing instruction.

24) Many organizations have ________ to assist with personal and health problems ranging from mental illness, substance abuse, day care, and family issues to physical health issues and financial planning.

A) employee recreation associations B) employee assistance and wellness programs C) employee incentive programs D) employee assessment centers

25) Professor Richards provided each of his students a detailed analysis of their term paper.

Which of the following functions did this feedback serve to the students?

A) It indicated their progress during an interaction.

B) It provided information regarding the student's effect on others.

C) It provided direct information on performance.

D) It provided a means to monitor behavior during interactions.

26)

Which of the following best describes constructive feedback?

A) truthful, fair, and not given as a personal attack B) supportive, untimely, and critical appreciation C) clear, biased, and has no reference to improvement D) subjective, personal, and a general solution

27) Reengineering has led to the need for senior employees to provide new team members with feedback. This situation reinforces the need for effective feedback as a result of the organizational requirement of A) electronic performance monitoring.

B) new jobs and roles.

C) self-paced learning.

D) cross-cultural training.

28) At Orbit Tours Inc., the customer service team evaluates its progress by tracking the ratings given by customers in customer satisfaction surveys. The source of such feedback is said to be A) self.

B) the stakeholders.

C) the task itself.

D) the organization itself.

29) When looking at the quality analysis report, Calvin sees that the product defect rate is 25 percent higher than acceptable standards. From which of the following sources did Calvin receive this feedback?

A) others B) the task itself C) self D) customers

30) Javier gives Stewart feedback about his poor performance in his previous project. Javier moralizes and lectures Stewart and gives judgmental feedback. He also records the feedback for future reference. At the end, Javier directs Stewart to adopt a certain course of action. In this scenario, which of the following is a potential problem with Javier’s feedback?

A) The feedback is prescriptive.

B) The feedback is descriptive.

C) The feedback is specific.

D) The feedback is nonpersonal.

31)

An effective feedback is one which is A) personal.

B) nondescriptive.

C) prescriptive.

D) documentable.

32) Stan, Mark's manager, informs Mark that he has heard that Mark has been coming in late to office quite often. The problem with Stan's feedback is that it was not A) specific.

B) documented.

C) timely.

D) purposeful.

33) When John lectures employees about what he thinks they should do, they become defensive and tune out his feedback. To avoid such reactions, John's feedback needs to be

A) nonpersonal.

B) interactive.

C) descriptive.

D) nonprescriptive.

34) Arthur has been having difficulties with his team. As a manager, Donna asks Arthur about his perspective on solutions to these problems. By asking questions, Donna is trying to make the feedback effective by ensuring it is A) documentable.

B) frequent.

C) interactive.

D) timely.

35) Terry was very surprised when Pat came to him and stated that there was a problem with the current week's productivity level. He was surprised because his productive levels had been the same for the past five months. The problem with Pat's feedback is that it was not A) documentable.

B) nonpersonal.

C) timely.

D) purposeful.

36)

How does asking for input help in providing feedback?

A) It discloses the intent and severity of the feedback.

B) It confirms data and perceptions of both parties.

C) It reduces one party's defensiveness and resistance.

D) It clarifies expectations and specifies next steps.

37)

Requesting feedback too frequently A) demonstrates the lack of commitment to improve.

B) leads to the concealment of blind spots.

C) reinforces positive and effective behaviors.

D) implies the lack of confidence in your abilities.

38)

Effective coaching endorses rather than diminishes people's skills and abilities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39)

Good coaches use goal setting and constructive feedback. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) As an effective managerial coach, Kevin should try to model quality rather than legislate the same. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Effective coaching sessions contain high levels of problem-solving behaviors and low levels of supportive behaviors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42)

Coaching fosters creativity and helps build a shared vision.

⊚ ⊚

true false

43) The need for counseling stems from attitudes, defensiveness, and other emotional problems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) To increase motivation, managers should avoid setting "stretch" goals for their employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) Commitment to goals will vary directly with the amount of participation and input from an employee in setting goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Problem-solving discussions are best when they focus on multiple issues rather than just one or two issues. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47)

Asking for feedback builds and enhances our self-esteem. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48)

Effective feedback provides both instruction and motivation.

⊚ ⊚

true false

49) As a manager, Stacey should avoid moralizing or giving feedback that is judgmental or prescriptive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) As a personnel manager, Tina should begin feedback sessions with negative feedback, followed by positive feedback. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51)

Feedback is best when it is a one-way monologue. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) Managers are more comfortable giving negative feedback and discussing performance weaknesses. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53)

Feedback should always be started by a superior. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54)

Constructive feedback can have positive results if handled and presented properly.

⊚ ⊚

true false

55) While receiving feedback, you should make the giver aware of your dissatisfaction through your body language. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) Requesting feedback too frequently is not advisable as it may send a message that you lack confidence in your abilities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 17 1) Effective coaches have all the following characteristics or abilities: 1) A desire to bring out the best in others' performance 2) Ability to give constructive and positive feedback 3) Honesty and trustworthiness 4) Willingness to not assign blame 5) Good communication skill 6) A parallel style of thinking and acting 7) Responsibility and accountability 8) Constructive conflict management 9) A personal level of caring 2) Students' answers may vary. Answers should include specific examples of supportive and initiating behaviors. Effective coaches and their sessions contain high levels of supportive behaviors (words or actions that denote concern or acceptance) and moderate levels of initiating or problem-solving behaviors (words or actions that encourage problem solving or resolutions). Coaches should avoid using nonsupportive behaviors (words or actions that express aggression or power).

3) The points of differences in objectives are listed below: Coaching: To reinforce positive behaviors and correct negative behaviors, to gain positive work outcomes, and enhance relationships Counseling: To facilitate understanding of behaviors and to obtain a willingness to change The points of differences in means are listed below: Coaching: Pass information, set standards, and provide insight, encouragement, direction, and guidance Counseling: Two methods: directive—assuring, probing, and questioning; nondirective—listening and supporting Employee problems stem from the points listed below: Coaching: Lack of ability, information, or understanding and incompetence Counseling: Attitudes, defensiveness, personality clashes, and other emotional problems 4) Students' answers may vary. Answers should provide examples to illustrate the characteristics listed below: 1) Specific rather than general 2) Nonpersonal 3) Work related 4) Documentable 5) Descriptive and controlled by the recipient 6) Nonprescriptive and nonjudgmental 7) Timely 8) Frequent 9) Purposeful 10) Constructive and balanced between positive and negative 11) Appropriate setting 12) Interactive and two-way interchange

5) Clarify expectations and specify next steps.

The following are some basic tips for giving feedback and ensuring that employees accept and act upon it positively for improved performance.

1) Prepare a script.

2) Examine your motives.

3) Ask for input.

4) Offer help, support, and suggestions.

5) Clarify expectations and specify next steps.

Constructive feedback can have positive results if handled and presented properly. Start the session positively, discuss what needs to change, and involve the employee in developing action steps he or she can focus on and work toward for development. This ensures ending the feedback session on a positive note.

6) A 7) D 8) D 9) B 10) C 11) B 12) C 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) B 17) B 18) C 19) B 20) B 21) B

22) B 23) C 24) B 25) C 26) A 27) B 28) C 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) D 33) D 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) D 38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) TRUE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE

52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

What is leadership? Explain the effective characteristics of a leader.

2)

What is empowerment? Explain its advantages and disadvantages.

3)

Discuss the guidelines for implementing and improving empowerment.

4)

List the six social structural characteristics that create an empowering environment.

5)

List the five stages to implementing empowerment in an organization.

6) Instead of dictating direction, effective leaders appeal to group members' values, beliefs, and emotions, motivating them to align themselves with a mission that reflects the greater good.

This observation is most closely related to the practice of A) challenging the process.

B) inspiring a shared vision.

C) enabling others to act.

D) encouraging the heart.

7) Effective leaders share information and power with their collaborators, empowering them to set and achieve cooperative goals. This observation is most closely related to the practice of A) challenging the process.

B) inspiring a shared vision.

C) enabling others to act.

D) encouraging the heart.

8) Jonna is a sales manager in Stalwart Industries. Her team is showing poor performance consistently. Which of the following methods should Jonna follow to be an effective team leader and to improve the performance of her team?

A) adopting an "apart from the group" policy B) dictating direction C) avoiding challenging the process and follow it religiously D) enabling others to act

9) Simon has realized that he should take the first step and act on his own to ensure that the organization's goals are met. Simon is practicing A) delegation.

B) self-leadership.

C) politicking.

D) self-actualization.

10)

Which of the following statements is true of leaders?

A) Leadership is limited to the person with the title of the leader.

B) Leaders move beyond the basic tasks of the day by creating a vision.

C) The power of leadership is merely designated by a formal power base designated to leaders.

D) The terms "manager" and "leader" can be used interchangeably.

11) Candace has realized that in order to make her department effective, she needs to give her team members more power. She involves them in crucial decision making and in controlling certain aspects of their tasks. Candace is using the process of

A) coaching.

B) empowerment.

C) counseling.

D) negotiation.

12)

Which of the following statements is true of a knowledge worker?

A) Extended product life cycles create a need for the knowledge worker.

B) This category of workers includes only product developers or producers.

C) Constant focus on retaining an old process, without any change, creates a need for the knowledge worker.

D) They are employees who need and use information to perform their work.

13) Which of the following is considered the most basic lower level need in Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory?

A) self-actualization B) social C) self-esteem D) physiological

14) Modifying Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, Clayton Alderfer tried to simplify the needs into three categories, namely, A) safety, relatedness, and esteem.

B) existence, social, and esteem.

C) existence, relatedness, and growth.

D) social, safety, and growth.

15)

Identify a true statement about empowerment.

A) It enhances employee reaction time and encourages decision making.

B) It increases operational costs by incorporating many layers of management, staff, and quality control.

C) It increases turnover and adversely affects the retention rate.

D) It results in lesser costs in selection and hiring and higher and consistent delivery always.

16) Ray Corporation is considering the idea of using empowerment to motivate its workforce and cope with potential problems. However, the company should be careful when doing so because empowerment

A) increases operational costs by adding multiple layers of management.

B) adversely affects employee morale.

C) results in increased costs associated with selection and hiring.

D) dramatically increases turnover rate and leads to a decline in retention.

17) In ________ involvement, an organization makes a small shift from the production line or control model, and employees are encouraged to contribute ideas.

A) process B) job C) high D) suggestion

18) The managers at Perfect Finish Furniture House give autonomy to their subordinates to design furniture. The employees can decide on the type and design of furniture based on the sales report from showrooms and display centers. They are also provided training for other associated activities such as the operation of rigging hardware and cranes. Which of the following types of empowerment is most likely exemplified in this scenario?

A) the command-and-control approach B) job involvement C) suggestion involvement D) the production line approach

19)

Employees in a high involvement organization typically

A) consider ties to customers secondary to the service being delivered.

B) have much greater voice and discretion over their work environment.

C) have very little access to resources and crucial information related to the organization.

D) refrain from taking ownership in their work unit and the organization.

20) Which of the following statements is true of the production line approach in organizations?

A) It works well when employees' ties to the customer are more important than the product or service being delivered.

B) It works where employees require time to process varying situations and generate appropriate solutions.

C) It works effectively when the primary business value is speed and efficiency.

D) It works well in business environments that are highly dynamic.

21)

The production line approach is best when

A) an organization's managers are primarily hierarchical.

B) an organization primarily uses nonroutine technology.

C) the business environment is dynamic in nature.

D) the services provided to each customer need to be customized.

22)

The production line approach works in environments where

A) employees’ ties to consumers are prioritized over the service being delivered.

B) workers are routinely able to execute many of the most important tasks using technology.

C) organizations value short-term customer relationships.

D) organizations that lack variability and complexity in terms of tasks.

23)

A Theory X manager A) is perfect for an empowerment approach.

B) holds the belief that employees enjoy work.

C) holds the belief that subordinates shirk responsibility.

D) is comfortable with higher levels of employee involvement.

24)

Unlike Theory X managers, Theory Y managers A) prefer high levels of involvement from employees.

B) are primarily hierarchical and support “top down” management.

C) tend to dictate work efforts of their subordinates.

D) assume that employees avoid responsibility.

25) Which of the following social structural characteristic helps to create an empowering environment?

A) high role ambiguity B) a narrow span of control C) sociopolitical support D) top-down command and control

26) In the context of social structural characteristics that create an empowering environment, ________ refers to a clear set of responsibilities and duties, defined guidelines, and standards for accountability.

A) low role ambiguity B) a wide span of control C) access to information D) a participative unit climate

27) In order to create an empowering environment, the HR department at Simco Corporation has clearly communicated and developed a set of responsibilities and duties for each position along with guidelines and standards for accountability. In this scenario, identify the social structural characteristic that has been developed by Simco Corporation.

A) an environment with limited access to resources B) a narrow span of control C) top-down command and control D) low role ambiguity

28) Identify the social structural characteristic that helps in creating an empowering environment through decentralization to allow for greater contribution to overall operation to avoid micromanagement.

A) low role ambiguity B) a wide span of control C) high role ambiguity D) a hierarchical structure

29) During the implementation of empowerment, setting the stage for generating and demonstrating organizational support is referred to as

A) investigation.

B) implementation.

C) preparation.

D) maturation.

30) When Team Sporting Goods was working through its process change, it provided employees with information regarding the changes that would result from implementing empowerment. This action generated and demonstrated organizational support. These actions are associated with the ________ stage of implementing empowerment.

A) investigation B) preparation C) implementation D) transition

31) Which stage of implementing empowerment primarily includes an organization evaluating its current business processes and strategies for success and weighing the current situation against preferred goals?

A) investigation B) preparation C) maturation D) implementation

32) The ________ phase of implementing empowerment marks the end of the introduction or "rollout" of a new system and starts the permanent implementation of the new system.

A) investigation B) preparation C) transition D) implementation

33) Which stage of implementing empowerment is characterized by a firmly rooted new system?

A) investigation B) implementation C) preparation D) maturation

34) While delegating tasks, Steve, a marketing manager, provided his employees with the enforceable means to obtain necessary resources to complete tasks by A) assigning responsibility.

B) establishing accountability.

C) transferring authority.

D) analyzing abilities.

35)

Which of the following is true of delegation?

A) Communication and delegation are closely associated.

B) Delegation involves “dumping” as it provides variety.

C) One-way communication is essential throughout the entire delegation process.

D) Delegation has an adverse effect on the delegatees’ level of job satisfaction.

36)

Leadership exists only where followers exist. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) Leadership is not limited to the person with the title or superior position in the situation, and the power of leadership is not merely designated by a formal power base. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) As companies focus less on team structures, require less flexibility, and become less decentralized, empowerment becomes essential in creating participative environments. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) Empowered employees are more likely to offer ideas, exercise creativity, and develop more innovative processes and products than those who are not empowered. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40)

By empowering his employees, Eric will make them less accountable for their decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Bennies' Jet Company encourages creative thinking. The company has also implemented small changes in its day-to-day activities after analyzing the ideas put forth by employees. This suggests that Bennies' is using job involvement in its approach to incorporate empowerment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) The production line approach works well when employees' ties to a customer are primary and employees perform nonroutine tasks. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43)

A Theory Y manager believes that subordinates dislike work and shirk responsibility. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) Empowerment increases operational costs by incorporating unnecessary layers of management, staff, quality control, and checking operations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) Theory Y managers, and their employees, are more comfortable with lower levels of employee involvement than Theory X managers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) To make empowerment work, managers have to believe in and want empowerment, and employees must feel empowered. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47)

The first stage to implementing empowerment is preparation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) Having a clear set of responsibilities and duties and defined guidelines help facilitate employee empowerment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) A narrow span of control is a social structural characteristic that creates an empowering environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) The transition phase marks the beginning of the introduction or "rollout" of the new system in implementing empowerment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) Less empowered managers are more likely to empower their subordinates than managers who are more empowered. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) Delegation helps to push decision making downward in the organizational hierarchy leading to a more democratic and inclusive process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53)

Managers often do not delegate because of the lack of confidence in their staff. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) Delegation is not complete without holding delegates accountable for the completion of assignments.

⊚ ⊚

55)

true false

Managers should accept only finished work as well as allow for reverse delegation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 18 1) Leadership is a process of social influence to move individual and groups toward goal achievement. Leadership involves the following: 1) Sharing a vision and engaging followers in that vision 2) The ability to move an organization to a higher level of performance by transforming vision into significant actions 3) A relationship, as opposed to the property of an individual 4) An observable, learnable, set of practices and skills 5) An integration of theory, process and practice, and the realization that what is effective in one situation may be ineffective in another The following are the effective characteristics of a leader: 1) Challenging the process 2) Inspiring a shared vision 3) Enabling others to act 4) Modeling the way 5) Encouraging the heart

2) Empowerment is the process by which a leader or manager shares his or her power with subordinates. The following are its advantages: 1) Empowerment reinforces member participation and growth.

2) People have a greater sense of achievement, improved confidence and self-esteem, and a sense of belonging.

3) It speeds up reaction time and decision making, and it provides speed and flexibility, allowing quicker response to customers.

4) Empowered employees are more likely to offer ideas, exercise creativity, and develop more innovative processes and products than those who are not.

5) Employees are more responsible, which leads to greater loyalty, trust, and quality.

6) It reduces operational costs by eliminating unnecessary layers of management, staff, quality control, and checking operations.

7) Empowerment reduces turnover and aids in retention.

The following are its disadvantages: 1) It can result in lower and inconsistent delivery.

2) Empowered employees may also make changes in their environment that improve their work unit while negatively impacting another work unit.

3) It typically comes with boundaries.

4) Some individuals cannot handle or do not want the responsibility.

5) Some managers avoid empowerment even when their organization embraces it because of fear of change and the unknown.

3) Some of the guidelines for implementing and improving empowerment include the following: 1) Walk the talk. Managers need to "practice what they preach."

2) Set high performance standards. Set standards that force others to excel, and show that you have confidence in their ability to reach them.

3) Recognize empowerment (in the structure of the organization).

Reflect empowerment in attitudes and processes within the organization.

4) Change old habits. Managers must be ready to relinquish power, and subordinates must be ready and able to accept new responsibilities.

5) Start small. Changes need to be made little by little; empowerment does not happen overnight.

6) Build trust. Managers must project confidence and be open and honest with their coworkers.

4) The six social structural characteristics include the following: 1) Low role ambiguity 2) A wide span of control 3) Sociopolitical support 4) Access to information 5) Access to resources 6) A participative unit climate

5) The five stages to implementing empowerment in an organization are as follows: 1) Investigation—analyzing whether empowerment should be implemented and in what form. In this phase, the organization evaluates its current business processes and strategies for success and weighs the current situation against preferred goals.

2) Preparation—setting the stage for generating and demonstrating organizational support. This is a crucial step. In this phase managers and employees all receive information about the desired shift, why it is occurring, the changes that will result, the training and tools that will be available to help them through the change, the benefits of the change, and information on how and when the changes will take place.

3) Implementation—assessing all current systems and adjusting to support an environment based on empowerment. In this phase job descriptions are redesigned, reporting relationships are examined, and reward systems are aligned with the changes.

4) Transition—moving from the former system to the new one. This phase marks the end of the introduction or "rollout" of the new system and starts the permanent implementation of the new system. This phase involves receiving feedback on how the new system is working and making modifications as required.

5) Maturation—the new system is firmly rooted. This phase involves maintaining the new system and continuously improving it. Constant reexamination of current processes will determine how changes or new adaptations need to be implemented to remain vital.

6) B 7) C 8) D 9) B 10) B

11) B 12) D 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) A 27) D 28) B 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) TRUE 37) TRUE 38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE

41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

What are the benefits of project management to organizations as well as individuals?

2)

Mention some of the important skills required to be an effective project manager.

3) List and explain the eight steps to managing projects. Discuss the key aspects of each step and how each is vital to the success of a project.

4)

Develop a fishbone diagram for the issue of coming late to class in the school.

5) Develop a PERT chart for a team project for work or school. Determine the critical events, and draft the network to determine the relationships and time frame for all activities.

(Students may need suggestions - holiday party, planning a social event/homecoming dance, a team research project with report, finishing a basement, building a sidewalk, etc.)

6)

Which of the following is an advantage of project management?

A) It makes it possible to have different interpretations of the phrase "on time."

B) It helps in setting different definitions of quality for the same project.

C) It helps in checking and reducing instances of procrastination.

D) It requires a manager to focus solely on long-term, rather than short-term, objectives.

7)

In project management, the

A) known steps are anticipated.

B) known steps are not accounted for in advance.

C) fixed schedule excludes any form of "slack" to account for unforeseen difficulties.

D) appointed managers encourage team members to have different interpretations of the phrase "on time."

8) In project management, by articulating the known steps in advance to complete a project and building in some slack in the schedule, _____.

A) resources can be randomly allocated B) collegiality can be kept in check C) contingencies can be predicted D) short-term objectives can be ignored

9) Which of the following will ensure that slack is built into the project schedule to accommodate the unexpected, such as incompatibility with previous hardware, heavier than usual sales, or vacations and holidays?

A) prioritizing resources B) long-term objectives C) anticipating contingencies D) consistent outputs

10)

Which of the following is true of project management?

A) It makes it possible to have different interpretations of the phrase "on time."

B) It cannot anticipate contingencies.

C) It helps individuals learn about their coworkers' jobs and styles of work.

D) It makes managers feel alone in overcoming a mountain of work at the office.

11) Which of the following is a benefit for an individual using project management techniques?

A) They reduce collegiality.

B) They ensure that long-term objectives are attained at the cost of short-term goals.

C) They help eliminate contingencies.

D) They enhance learning and job satisfaction.

12) Studies have shown that project managers with higher ________ have stronger leadership tendencies and are more successful in influencing the project outcomes.

A) groupthink tendencies B) external loci of control C) egocentrism D) emotional intelligence

13) Which of the following is a problem-solving technique that energizes a group toward identifying more creative, innovative, and better solutions than any one team member working on his or her own could have produced?

A) repatriation B) free riding C) groupthink D) brainstorming

14) Project managers often need to make use of their ________ skills, which include rewards, incentives, feedback, or reasoning to effectively manage projects.

A) communication B) persuasion C) empowerment D) delegation

15) Projects need control and consistency for accomplishing objectives while still involving all of the project members. Project managers will need to involve and give authority to members in order to gain support for initiatives, and encourage participation and responsibility. This implies that project managers should possess ________ skills.

A) communication B) persuasion and accommodation C) empowerment and delegation D) interpersonal

16) Parry is a project manager. He would risk "doing things right" instead of "doing the right things," if he skips A) considering team members' planning and organizing skills.

B) clarifying the objectives when specific tasks are assigned to a group.

C) relating the project goals to overall organizational goals and strategy.

D) clarifying the scope of the project.

17)

Which of the following is the first step to managing projects?

A) determining participants and stakeholders B) defining project objectives and scope C) establishing checkpoints D) identifying and obtaining necessary resources

18)

Which of the following is the last step to managing projects?

A) determining participants and stakeholders B) determining project measurement standards C) establishing checkpoints D) debriefing and evaluating project performance

19)

Which of the following statements is true of the fishbone diagram?

A) It is based on KJ analysis.

B) It consists of a line graph and a bar chart.

C) It determines the critical path taken to complete an activity.

D) It helps in identifying primary factors that create issues in projects.

20) Brenda's team was in the process of clarifying outcomes and deliverables in comparison to the organizational strategy and goals. The project management step they are engaged in is A) determining participants and stakeholders.

B) developing a timeline.

C) establishing checkpoints.

D) defining project objectives and scope.

21)

When determining project participants and stakeholders, a team should A) identify who will be included in the project.

B) exclusively focus on short-term objectives.

C) concentrate on the project goals forgoing all personal needs.

D) solely follow the goals of the project manager.

22) Determining group members' interests and analyzing their planning and organization skills are a part of ________ step to managing projects.

A) determining the project scope B) determining participants and stakeholders C) establishing checkpoints D) identifying and obtaining necessary resources

23) Faced with the task of planning the convention and trade show in her company, Marcia planned out all the deadlines and activities by starting with the actual convention and trade show and worked her way in reverse to the present date. From this, Marcia was able to lay out an exact plan for completing all her tasks. Marcia was using the tactic of A) stakeholding.

B) tracing.

C) backscheduling.

D) projecting.

24)

The process of backscheduling begins with

A) estimating how long it will take to complete each task in a project.

B) determining the best time to complete each task in a project.

C) identifying the individual tasks necessary to achieve the objectives of a project.

D) listing each task on a calendar, appropriately backdating each task from the project due date.

25) If employees at the manufacturing plant that supplies the components for automobiles are on strike, it will impact not only the installation of parts in cars, but also the availability of cars in the market. This illustrates the importance of A) evaluating the project on or before its completion to ensure that all the steps have been met.

B) clarifying the objectives when specific tasks are assigned.

C) determining the dependencies that exist among all the tasks involved in a project.

D) eliminating contingency planning.

26) As a project manager, Andrew is scheduling a progress meeting where members can verify project status, clarify expectations, or raise issues. Which of the following steps of project management is Andrew focusing on?

A) developing a work plan B) establishing checkpoints C) determining project measurements D) identifying and obtaining resources

27) In order to establish checkpoints and control mechanisms when managing projects, a manager should

A) restrict the visibility of a project schedule to avoid unexpected outcomes.

B) assess a project for crucial steps to be executed and add interim deadlines.

C) combine smaller tasks in a project to identify errors.

D) merge all project objectives to prevent time line slippage.

28) Potential interferences and problems can be raised and dealt with before they impact the expected outcomes by A) keeping the project plan highly visible.

B) avoiding the practice of delegation.

C) eliminating instances of contingency planning.

D) encouraging groupthink.

29) Harvey's team is developing standards in order to measure success and clarify who will be evaluating the results. They are in the stage of A) identifying and obtaining necessary resources.

B) determining how project results will be appraised.

C) debriefing and evaluating the project performance.

D) establishing checkpoints.

30) Developing an effective ongoing communication system for project management would include A) obtaining necessary resources.

B) identifying the individual tasks necessary to achieve an objective.

C) revisiting initial decisions made by a group if they are not working.

D) estimating completion time for each task.

31) Which of the following is a project management tool that describes the temporal relationships of events or tasks that unfold over time and also shows projected and actual schedules?

A) a PERT chart B) a Gantt chart C) the Nolan chart D) the Smith chart

32) Sharon's team used a chart to track all their planned activities in order to identify how well they were progressing and point out any delays or deviations from their original plan. This chart, which includes a listing of all the activities with columns for planned and actual schedules, is referred to as

A) a PERT chart.

B) the Wigmore chart.

C) a Gantt chart.

D) the Pareto chart.

33)

By adding the actual schedules on a Gantt chart, A) real-time adjustments are affected and need to be disabled.

B) the deviations in the plan can be modified by making real-time adjustments.

C) several scheduling possibilities can be shown in the same chart.

D) the past mistakes as well as future obstacles get highlighted.

34) Identify a project management tool that helps in identifying sequences of dependent activities.

A) a trading chart B) a Gantt chart C) a PERT chart D) a pie chart

35) Identify an accurate statement about a PERT (program evaluation and review technique) chart.

A) It was first developed by Henry Gantt.

B) It focuses on the shortest path or the critical path taken to complete an activity.

C) It indicates the most optimistic estimates of the time to complete a project under the best conditions.

D) It maps tasks exclusively in line and bar graphs.

36) Before beginning a new project, William wants to develop a diagram to show all the activities in the project, including their relationship with one another, the interdependence of the activities, and the projected time for each activity. William also wants to identify which activities are the most critical for completing the project on time. William should develop A) the Smith chart.

B) the Nolan chart.

C) a Gantt chart.

D) a PERT chart.

37) Jonathan wants to know the longest path taken to complete a project. He defines the activities and assigns time estimates to each activity. He also assigns cost estimates to each activity. Which of the following project management tools is Jonathan using?

A) a Pareto chart B) a program evaluation and review technique (PERT) chart C) a fishbone diagram D) a Gantt chart

38) After looking at the PERT chart for the development of a new fashion line, Quinn realized that the longest path showed that the project would take a minimum of 60 days to be completed. Quinn was able to get this information as a result of using the A) longest path method.

B) activity path method.

C) critical path method.

D) project path method.

39)

Project management begins with determining the time line or work plan. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40)

Project management involves tracking a project from its inception to completion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Project management increases one's knowledge of the complexities and interdependencies in one's organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) As the project manager for Speedo Motors' new SUV, Karen should avoid breaking the project into smaller sections or steps to avoid overwhelming her team. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) The time associated with planning a project can yield returns through reduced implementation time and costs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) Project management is the coordination of an individual's work and that of others such that organizational and project objectives can be achieved while meeting time, budget, and quality standards. ⊚ ⊚

45)

true false

In defining a project’s objectives, optional elements should be ruled out. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Clarifying project objectives with the project manager is important to guarantee that everyone's on the same page about the expected outcome. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) It is best if Jeff, a member of the product development team in Devon Incorporated, handles the design aspect of the project because he is best at design rather than attempt any other aspect of the project that he may be interested in.

⊚ ⊚

true false

48) When allocating project steps to specific team members, a manager should assign tasks that stretch but don't overextend any one team member. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49)

The first step to be taken while backscheduling is to list each task on a calendar. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) When you backschedule, you determine what happens last, next to last, next to next to last, and so on. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) It is best to try and make up budget or buy time later in a project rather than during the early stages. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52)

Plotting interdependencies of tasks can help determine delays or lags in a project. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) After setting the goal of a project, the action plan or means of getting to the end result must constantly be aligned with the original path.

⊚ ⊚

true false

54) Tracey, a team member, has noticed that her team cannot meet the planned deadlines, and the project will most likely require additional funds in order to be completed. Rather than informing her manager, Tracey should wait and hope that things turn out for the best. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) By not monitoring performance and catching problems early in a project, Larry and his team are risking marginalization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) The first step in making a Gantt chart is to reorganize the list of tasks in order from beginning to ending tasks. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) The critical path in a PERT chart represents tasks and activities that, if delayed, will cause a project to be delayed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58) The availability of electronic project management has replaced the need for human interaction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 19 1) Project management helps organizations in several ways.

1) Resources such as time, money, and personnel are appropriately allocated to the organization's numerous priorities and objectives.

2) Long-term objectives can be kept in mind while short-term objectives are being implemented.

3) Contingencies can be anticipated.

4) Project output is made more consistent.

In addition to enabling individuals to be more efficient and organized, project planning and management has other benefits for individuals.

1) Collegiality is enhanced.

2) Morale is enhanced.

3) Job satisfaction is increased.

4) Learning is enhanced.

5) Creativity and synergy are enhanced.

2) A project manager must be able to direct and oversee the operation of a project and create synergy through collaboration. Leading a project can be a complex and challenging experience. It not only requires competency in technical skills, but also well-rounded ability in all of the interpersonal fields.

The position therefore requires some important qualities that include the following: 1) Good communication skills 2) Effective persuasive techniques 3) Positive reinforcement, guidance, and correction skills 4) Effective leadership, problem-solving, and decision-making skills 5) Effective empowerment and delegation skills

3) Students' answers will differ. The answer should discuss the following eight steps to project management: 1) Define project objectives and scope—assessing goals, deciding deliverables and outcomes, relating projects to organizational goals, and clarifying everyone's expectations.

2) Determine project participants and stakeholders—include those who will participate and those affected, begin master calendar and discuss member strengths, weaknesses, and interests.

3) Develop a timeline or work plan—include all tasks, estimate completion times, identify interdependencies, and assign responsibilities.

4) Establish checkpoints and control mechanisms—set deadlines and checkpoints for review.

5) Identify and obtain necessary resources—identify and obtain the resources needed to complete a project within the specified time frame, cost parameters, or budget in order to meet quality standards.

6) Determine project measurement standards—how and who will measure, set quantifiable measurements.

7) Set up ongoing communication—meetings, progress reports, monitoring performance and providing feedback, developing records.

8) Debrief and evaluate project performance—lessons learned, feedback and means for future improvement.

4) Students' answers will differ. The answer should discuss the following eight steps to project management: 1) Define project objectives and scope—assessing goals, deciding deliverables and outcomes, relating projects to organizational goals, and clarifying everyone's expectations.

2) Determine project participants and stakeholders—include those who will participate and those affected, begin master calendar and discuss member strengths, weaknesses, and interests.

3) Develop a timeline or work plan—include all tasks, estimate completion times, identify interdependencies, and assign responsibilities.

4) Establish checkpoints and control mechanisms—set deadlines and checkpoints for review.

5) Identify and obtain necessary resources—identify and obtain the resources needed to complete a project within the specified time frame, cost parameters, or budget in order to meet quality standards.| 6) Determine project measurement standards—how and who will measure, set quantifiable measurements.

7) Set up ongoing communication—meetings, progress reports, monitoring performance and providing feedback, developing records.

8) Debrief and evaluate project performance—lessons learned, feedback and means for future improvement.

5) Students' answers will differ. The answer should include a developed PERT chart indicating the critical path. The diagram should show the project from start to finish, include relationships, paths and time estimates, along with a computation for the critical path.

6) C 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) C

11) D 12) D 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) B 18) B 19) D 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) C 25) C 26) B 27) B 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) C 33) B 34) C 35) C 36) D 37) B 38) C 39) FALSE 40) TRUE

41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE 57) TRUE 58) FALSE