Test Bank For Human Relations in Organizations Applications and Skill Building, 12th Edition, Robert

Test Bank For Human Relations in Organizations Applications and Skill Building, 12th Edition, Robert Lussier Chapter 1-12

Test Bank For Human Relations in Organizations Applications and Skill Building, 12th Edition, Robert Lussier Chapter 1-12 With Appendix (A) Answer are at the End of Each Chapter

Chapter 1 Student name:__________ 1)

What are the myths about human relations? Explain them.

2)

What is the goal of human relations? Explain the total person approach.

3)

Explain the three levels of behavior.

4)

Define performance and explain how the systems effect affects performance.

5) What is the Hawthorne effect? How did managers use the knowledge of the Hawthorne studies?

6)

What are some of the trends and challenges of human relations?

7)

What are the 10 human relations guidelines?

8) How do human relations problems occur? Explain the three alternatives to resolving a human relations problem.

9)

What are competencies? Define the three human relation skills.

10)

The term _________ means interactions among people.

11)

A(n) _____ is a group of people working to achieve one or more objectives.

12)

In the context of developing new habits, a(n) ________ involves doing a new habit.

13)

Which of the following statements is a myth about human relations?

A) People are an organization's most valuable asset.

B) Leaders are born, not made.

C) High-quality relationships are important to success.

D) A human relations course is as important as a technical course.

14)

Which of the following statements is a fact about human relations?

A) Leaders are born, not made.

B) Human relations is just common sense.

C) Technical skills are more important than human relations skills.

D) People are an organization's most valuable resource.

15)

Which of the following is an organization's most valuable resource?

A) infrastructure B) technology C) people D) land

16)

Which of the following is the most common cause of management failure?

A) technological setbacks B) lack of recreational facilities C) low wages D) faulty human relations skills

17)

Which of the following statements is a myth about human relations?

A) Human relations skills are more important than technical skills.

B) Leadership skills can be developed.

C) Effective leaders have good human relations skills.

D) Human relations is just common sense.

18) The goal of __________ is to create a win–win situation by satisfying employee needs while achieving organizational objectives.

A) human relations B) production C) zero–sum condition D) cooperative games

19) Which of the following occurs when the organization and the employees both get what they want?

A) a zero–sum situation B) a win–win situation C) high-directive–low-supportive (HD–LS) behavior D) a win–lose situation

20) The __________ realizes that an organization employs the whole individual, not just his or her job skills.

A) expectancy procedure B) personality method C) total person approach D) skill realization style

21) Which of the following is true of Robert Owen, "the real father" of personnel administration?

A) He believed that profit can be increased by increasing an employee's working hours.

B) He employed children under the age of 9, though other entrepreneurs did not hire children below 11 years of age.

C) He believed that employers should not be responsible for providing adequate food and housing to employees.

D) He taught his employees cleanliness and temperance.

22) Joseph and Steve are part of a sales team for a multinational company. They attend all project meetings together and work together on projects. They also support each other to meet the sales objectives. Identify the behavior shown by Joseph and Steve.

A) group behavior B) individual behavior C) high-directive–low-supportive (HD–LS) behavior D) high-directive–high-supportive (HD–HS) behavior

23) "Donna is allowed to go home an hour earlier than the rest of us as her babysitter leaves at four." This statement exemplifies

A) performance.

B) the total person approach.

C) the systems effect.

D) organization.

24) "Norah is a new employee who greets everyone and is hardworking." This statement exemplifies

A) performance.

B) the total person approach.

C) behavior.

D) the systems effect.

25) "The members of a marketing department are having a meeting. There is a lot of disagreement over the content of the next advertisement." This scenario best illustrates the _____ level of behavior.

A) individual B) customary C) organizational D) group

26) "The manager is developing a part-time employee work schedule for the next week and will be busy for a couple of hours." This statement best illustrates the __________ level of behavior.

A) individual B) customary C) organizational D) group

27) "The production department just set a record for the highest number of units made in an eight-hour period." This statement best illustrates the __________ level of behavior.

A) individual B) group C) organizational D) customary

28) In the context of developing new habits, which of the following terms refers to a reminder one can use to do a new habit?

A) routine B) skill-building C) cue D) reward–change

29)

Which of the following statements is true of the level two of behavior in a workplace?

A) The focus of level two is on the behavior of any one person in the organization.

B) The focus of level two is on the behavior and human relations within and between groups.

C) The focus of level two is on the organization as a whole.

D) The focus of level two is on identifying people's needs in order to understand what motivates them.

30) John wants to reduce his expenses on food and has decided to eat home-cooked meals more often. In the context of developing new habits, which of the following steps he takes would be considered a reward for the change he is making in his life?

A) writing down a grocery list to make sure his kitchen is stocked with ingredients to cook at home B) learning recipes of dishes he generally likes eating at restaurants C) ordering a take-away after making sure that he has eaten at least 10 home-cooked meals D) inviting friends over instead of meeting them at restaurants

31) Under the __________, all people in an organization are affected by at least one other person, and each person affects the whole group or organization.

A) total person approach B) zero–sum condition C) construct mechanism D) systems effect

32) Popularly called __________ and rooted in the behavioral sciences, the science of human relations was developed in the late 1940s.

A) organizational behavior B) occupational dynamics C) operational science D) scientific management

33)

Which of the following was an assumption made by scientific managers?

A) Money was not the only motivation for workers.

B) Workers always acted rationally.

C) Profit would be increased if employees worked shorter hours.

D) Food and housing were the prime motivation for workers.

34)

During the 1960s, __________ published Theory X and Theory Y.

A) Douglas McGregor B) Frederick Taylor C) Eric Berne D) Elton Mayo

35)

Elton Mayo is known as the

A) first manager-entrepreneur.

B) real father of personnel administration.

C) father of human relations.

D) father of scientific management.

36) Which of the following refers to an increase in performance caused by the special attention given to employees, rather than tangible changes in the work?

A) taylorism B) functionalism C) scientific management D) the Hawthorne effect

37) _________ integrates common business practices in the United States and Japan into one middle-ground framework appropriate for use in the United States.

A) Theory Z B) Systems theory C) Contingency theory D) Hybrid theory

38)

__________ introduced transactional analysis during the 1960s.

A) William Ouchi B) Eric Berne C) Douglas McGregor D) Peter Drucker

39) The research conducted by __________ to determine the characteristics of successful organizations was later criticized during the 1980s.

A) Eric Berne B) William Ouchi and Douglas McGregor C) Elton Mayo D) Thomas Peters and Robert Waterman

40)

Eric Berne introduced

A) sensitivity training.

B) transactional analysis.

C) the Hawthorne effect.

D) Theory Z.

41)

Who developed Theory Z?

A) Robert Owen B) Eric Berne C) William Ouchi D) Elton Mayo

42) According to the domain model of managerial education, which of the following competencies is a technical skill?

A) intrapersonal skills B) interpersonal skills C) leadership skills D) business skills

43) "We need to provide facilities to help our employees develop new skills." Which of the following challenges in the field of human relations does this statement reflect?

A) globalization B) ethics C) learning and knowledge D) diversity

44) "The new batch of executives needs to be trained on the company's social networking platform." Which of the following challenges in the field of human relations does this statement reflect?

A) crisis B) ethics C) diversity D) technology

45) "There are many Asians and Europeans working in our company." Which of the following challenges in the field of human relations does this statement reflect?

A) diversity B) ethics C) crisis D) technology

46)

Which of the following is a human relations guideline?

A) being narcissistic B) acting before one thinks C) calling people by their names D) being physically fit

47) Jonah is an engineering manager at Vroom Motors Limited. Vroom recently launched a minivan, but the minivan has technical problems in its ignition system. The company decides to recall all the minivans from the market. Jonah is trying to convince the management that his team can come up with a solution for the technical problems quickly and that the sales of the minivan would increase rapidly after the relaunch. Which of the following guidelines for effective human relations is Jonah following in this scenario?

A) thinking before acting B) being self-centered C) developing a sense of humor D) being optimistic

48)

The systems approach was developed by

A) Russell Ackoff B) Frederick Taylor C) Peter Drucker D) Eric Berne

49) Which of the following statements is most likely to make people defensive and cause arguments?

A) "You are late."

B) "You are wrong."

C) "I admit."

D) "I understand completely."

50) Aaron has started working for a new firm. There are thirty people on his floor. He is having problems remembering their names. Which of the following should Aaron do to improve his ability to recall names?

A) He should address them with titles like "Mister" or "Miss" and not worry about remembering names.

B) He should call people by their names two or three times while talking to them.

C) He should maintain a notebook with people's names and their photos.

D) He should ask them their names every time he meets them.

51) Nancy, an employee at MegaWorks Corp., has been on the job for only a week. She needs to ask the accountant some questions, but she does not remember his name. Which of the following would be most appropriate for Nancy to do before contacting the accountant?

A) She should ask someone for the accountant's name.

B) She should ask the accountant his name once again.

C) She should address the accountant with a title like "Sir." D) She should get the work done without using his name.

52) "Although there are a lot of differences in the team, Neil, the supervisor, does not seem deterred." Which of the following best describes Neil's behavior?

A) being humorous B) being genuinely interested in other people C) being indifferent to problems D) being optimistic

53) "Our supervisor, Daniel, is a great guy. He appreciates the work we do and inspires us to perform better." Which of the following best describes Daniel's behavior?

A) being positive B) being humorous C) being politically correct D) using people

54)

Which of the following statements best defines the term "psychological contract"?

A) It is the shared expectations between people.

B) It is the tendency of blaming others for one's failure.

C) It is the tendency to expect others to make the necessary changes in behavior to meet one's expectations.

D) It is the way people perceive one another during their first impressions.

55) Mathew is the chairman of the employee grievance cell in Victor Motors Company. He addresses employees' issues in the company and tries his best to resolve them. Identify the guideline for effective human relations used by Mathew in this scenario.

A) being genuinely interested in oneself B) listening to people C) acting before thinking D) being optimistic

56)

Which of the following is the best way to get what you want?

A) being self-focused B) changing the other person C) changing the situation D) helping other people get what they want and vice versa

57) Don is a quality control manager at Vittel Glass House. He shouts at his subordinates when they fail to meet his expectations. This has severely affected his relationship with his subordinates. Which of the following is a guideline for effective human relations that Don should follow in order to correct this?

A) He should think before acting.

B) He should listen to other managers.

C) He should create a win–lose situation in the company.

D) He should be genuinely interested in himself.

58)

Which of the following is the best logical choice to resolve a human relations problem?

A) changing oneself B) changing the situation C) changing the other person D) ignoring the problem

59)

__________ skill is the ability to work well with a diversity of people.

A) Internal B) Holistic C) Interpersonal D) Metaphysical

60)

_____ is the ability to influence others and work well in teams.

A) Authority B) Power C) Omnipotence D) Leadership skill

61) Which of the following is within the individual and includes characteristics such as personality, attitudes, self-concept, and integrity?

A) intrapersonal skills B) interpersonal skills C) leadership skills D) expert power

62) In your own words, explain why human relations skills are important to you. How will they help you in your career?

63) Give an example, personal if possible, of a situation in which the goal of human relations was met. Explain how the individual's needs were met and how the organizational objectives were achieved.

64) Give a specific example, personal if possible, that supports the total person approach.

Explain how an individual's job performance was affected by off-the-job problems.

65) Give two specific examples of your involvement in human relations—one positive and one negative. Also, identify the level of behavior for each example.

66) Give two specific examples of how human relations affected your performance—one positive and the other negative. Be specific in explaining the effects of human relations in both cases.

67) Give a specific example, personal if possible, of the Hawthorne effect. It could be when a teacher, coach, or boss gave you special attention that resulted in your increased performance.

68) Explain how one of the trends or challenges in the field of human relations could personally affect your human relations.

69) Do you believe that you can and will develop your human relations abilities and skills through this course? Explain your answer.

70) Which 2 of the 10 human relations guidelines need the most effort on your part? Which two need the least? Explain your answers.

71) Give a specific example of a human relations problem in which you elected to change yourself rather than the other person or situation. Be sure to identify your changed behavior.

72) In your opinion, which myth about human relations holds back the development of human relations skills more than any of the others?

73) Which person's contribution to the history of human relations do you find to be the most impressive?

74) Which one of the trends or challenges do you believe is the most relevant to the field of human relations?

75) Which one of the 10 guidelines for effective human relations do you think is the most important?

76)

How can a person resolve human relations problems?

77) Of the intrapersonal, interpersonal, and leadership skills, which one is your strongest?

Your weakest?

78)

Technical skills are more important than human relations skills. ⊚ ⊚

79)

true false

Human relations is just common sense.

⊚ ⊚

80)

Developing good human relationships is critical to personal and professional success. ⊚ ⊚

81)

true false

Leaders are born, not made. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

true false

Leadership skills are inborn and cannot be developed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) The goal of human relations is to create a win–win situation by satisfying employee needs while achieving organizational objectives. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) The total person approach realizes that an organization employs the whole person, not just his or her job skills. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85)

The focus of the first level of behavior is on the organization as a whole. ⊚ ⊚

86)

true false

Effective teamwork begins with the team and ends with individual-level outcomes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) The systems approach focuses on the whole system with an emphasis on the relationships between its parts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Businesses during the Industrial Revolution were concerned with profits, not employees, and managers viewed people only as a source of production. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) The Hawthorne effect focuses on the fact that all people in an organization are affected by at least one other person, and each person affects the whole group or organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) Transactional analysis integrates common business practices in the United States and Japan into one middle-ground framework appropriate for use in the United States. ⊚ ⊚

91)

Frederick Taylor is known as the "father of scientific management." ⊚ ⊚

92)

true false

Leadership skills are always based on one's managerial skills. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

Human relations take place at the individual, group, and organizational levels. ⊚ ⊚

94)

true false

Being right is good enough even if it hurts human relations in an organization. ⊚ ⊚

93)

true false

true false

Interpersonal skill is the ability to work well with a diversity of people. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 10) human relations 11) organization 12) routine 13) B 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) A 27) B 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) C

36) D 37) A 38) B 39) D 40) B 41) C 42) D 43) C 44) D 45) A 46) C 47) D 48) A 49) B 50) B 51) A 52) D 53) A 54) A 55) B 56) D 57) A 58) A 59) C 60) D 61) A 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE

82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE

Student name:__________ 1)

Describe the Big Five personality dimensions.

2)

How can personality profiling be used to improve our relations with other people?

3)

Describe how one can deal with extroverts and introverts.

4)

List the causes of stress. Describe how to be more effective at controlling stress.

5)

Describe the four learning styles.

6)

Describe the six biases affecting perception.

7)

Explain the primacy effect and the four-minute barrier.

8)

Briefly explain impression or image management.

9) People with a(n) __________ locus of control believe that they have little control over their performance.

10)

__________ is an emotional or physical reaction to environmental activities and events.

11) __________ is the constant lack of interest and motivation to perform one's job because of stress.

12)

Our __________ is other people's attitudes toward us.

13) Regina is an ambitious person and likes to take charge whenever her team receives a new project. She is quite competitive and is willing to confront others when required. She is also quite gregarious and has a lot of friends where she works. Which of the following Big Five personality dimensions is best reflected by Regina in this scenario?

A) surgency B) adjustment C) agreeableness D) conscientiousness

14) Which of the following statements is true of people with strong agreeable personality types?

A) They have an interest in getting ahead and leading through competing and influencing.

B) They are imaginative, intellectual, and creative.

C) They have very few friends.

D) They spend most of their time with other people.

15) The __________ personality dimension primarily focuses on traits related to being willing to change and try new things.

A) adjustment B) conscientiousness C) openness to experience D) surgency

16)

Identify the common traits of people with a strong surgency personality dimension.

A) laid-back or easygoing B) avoiding change and new things C) poor under pressure, nervous, insecure, and moody D) energetic, assertive, active, and ambitious

17) Arnold, a high school senior, does not have a lot of friends and prefers spending most of his time by himself. His classmates find it difficult to work with him on group projects. He is often described as a cold and uncompassionate person by his classmates and teachers. According to the Big Five personality dimensions, Arnold's personality is

A) low in conscientiousness.

B) high in openness to experience.

C) low in agreeableness.

D) high in adjustment.

18) Which of the following characterizes people who score high on the adjustment personality dimension?

A) energetic, assertive, active, and ambitious, with an interest in getting ahead B) cold, difficult, uncompassionate, unfriendly, and unsociable C) good under pressure, relaxed, secure, and positive D) imaginative, intellectual, open-minded, autonomous, and creative

19)

Persistence, credibility, conformity, and organization are traits of

A) weak adjustment.

B) high conscientiousness.

C) high agreeableness.

D) weak surgency.

20) Daniel is the supervisor of a team of financial analysts. He notices that one of his subordinates, Louis, does not perform well under pressure and gets nervous whenever he is given a new task. Louis tends to blame others and often speaks angrily with others in the team. What should Daniel remember to do while talking to Louis about his issues?

A) He should keep himself calm while talking to Louis.

B) He should avoid showing any concern for Louis.

C) He should refrain from being supportive toward Louis.

D) He should scold Louis for causing problems in the team.

21) Kim will complete her probation as a teller by the end of this month. Over the past 6 months, she has proved to her manager that she is responsible and dependable. She diligently adheres to the established processes and strives to maintain the bank's standards. She is also a methodical worker. Her manager has noted that she is persistent and is willing to work hard to accomplish the goals set for her. Which of the following Big Five personality dimensions is best reflected by Kim in this scenario?

A) low adjustment B) high agreeableness C) low openness to experience D) high conscientiousness

22) Joanne's colleagues praise her ability to remain calm under all circumstances. Joanne is confident about her professional skills and can perform well under pressure. Which of the following Big Five personality dimensions is best reflected by Joanne in this scenario?

A) weak surgency B) high adjustment C) weak conscientiousness D) high openness to experience

23)

Which of the following statements is true of the personality traits of narcissists?

A) They have a willingness to praise others.

B) They do not tend to get promoted to management.

C) They tend to be self-centered.

D) They support others and have effective human relations.

24)

It is best to set clear deadlines and follow up regularly with a person who is low on

A) adjustment.

B) conscientiousness.

C) openness to experience.

D) agreeableness.

25) The __________ identifies an individual's personality based on his or her four inclinations for certain ways of thinking and behaving.

A) Locus of Control Model B) Birkman Method C) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator D) Personality Assessment System

26)

A Type A personality is characterized as

A) easygoing.

B) apathetic.

C) time conscious.

D) patient.

27) __________ believe that they have little control over their performance and are closed to new experiences.

A) Externalizers B) Internalizers C) Extroverts D) Type A personalities

28) __________ is a continuum representing one's belief as to whether external or internal forces determine one's destiny.

A) Surgency B) Locus of control C) Perceptual congruence D) Conscientiousness

29)

Which of the following activities can help reduce stress?

A) eating quickly so that one has more time to finish work B) sleeping for at most seven hours every night C) eating breakfast that is high in protein and fiber D) avoiding off-the-job interests so that one does not lose focus on work

30) "In our department, there is a lot of competition and conflict." This statement best reflects stress due to

A) organizational climate.

B) management behavior.

C) leadership personality type.

D) job satisfaction.

31) Danny is a line manager for die-cast machines at Puissance Motors Limited. He yells at his subordinates for their slightest mistakes, and this has resulted in a high rate of attrition among the employees. Identify the stressor that Danny is imposing on his colleagues.

A) organizational climate.

B) management behavior.

C) high-directive–high-supportive behavior D) degree of job satisfaction

32) Victor, a sales representative with Ignis Laboratories, works for more than 60 hours a week. Nevertheless, he enjoys his work and achieves his weekly and monthly targets. This has made him a top performer in the company. Identify the stressor that Victor has successfully managed.

A) organizational climate B) management behavior C) high-directive–high-supportive behavior D) degree of job satisfaction

33) Nelson had been busy preparing for his final exams since the past few months. However, a few days before the exam, he lost the interest and motivation to study as a result of the high pressure to perform well. Which of the following did Nelson most likely experience?

A) tensile stress B) temporary burnout C) bipolar disorder D) panic attack

34) __________ is the level of one's capacity for new learning, problem solving, and decision making.

A) Surgency B) Intelligence C) Attitude D) Perception

35)

In the context of learning styles, __________ prefer to learn by doing and feeling.

A) accommodators B) divergers C) convergers D) assimilators

36)

In the context of learning styles, __________ prefer to learn by observing and feeling.

A) accommodators B) divergers C) convergers D) assimilators

37) In the context of learning styles, which of the following statements is true about accommodators?

A) They prefer dealing with technical tasks and problems.

B) They are only concerned with abstract ideas and concepts.

C) They seek practical uses for information focusing on solutions.

D) They tend to learn primarily from hands-on experience.

38) In the context of learning styles, __________ have the ability to view concrete situations from many different points of view.

A) assimilators B) convergers C) divergers D) accommodators

39)

Which of the followingstatements is a characteristic of the learning style of divergers?

A) They tend to learn primarily from hands-on experience.

B) They take their time gathering and analyzing many alternatives.

C) They tend to be more concerned with abstract ideas and concepts than with people.

D) They prefer learning by doing and thinking.

40)

In the context of learning styles, __________ prefer to learn by doing and thinking.

A) accommodators B) divergers C) convergers D) assimilators

41)

Which of the following statements is true of the learning style of convergers?

A) They act on gut feelings, relying more on other people for information than on technical analysis.

B) They have the ability to view concrete situations from many different points of view.

C) They are effective at understanding a wide range of information and putting it into a concise, logical form.

D) They prefer dealing with technical tasks and problems rather than with interpersonal issues.

42)

Which of the following statements characterizes the learning style of convergers?

A) They usually act on gut feelings.

B) They have the ability to view concrete situations from many different points of view.

C) They seek practical uses for information focusing on solutions.

D) They prefer dealing with interpersonal issues rather than with technical tasks and problems.

43) Radha is a sales executive with Omega Electricals, and she sells televisions to customers.

She studies the products she needs to sell in detail by trying to use them herself. She enjoys talking about the products with her customers but struggles to form a rapport with her colleagues.

Identify the learning style of Radha.

A) diverger B) assimilator C) accommodator D) converger

44)

In the context of learning styles, __________ prefer to learn by observing and thinking.

A) assimilators B) divergers C) accommodators D) convergers

45) Maria is a spare parts manager with Torque Engines Industries. She collects the sales data for different engine parts and integrates them. This helps her focus on the engine parts, which show a downward trend in sales. These data also help her convince the management to improve marketing strategies in order to increase sales. Which of the following is most likely Maria's learning style?

A) diverger B) assimilator C) accommodator D) converger

46) Kendall relies on his instinct to determine the designs that appeal to people. He bases his decisions on his interactions with people rather than on statistical analysis of consumer behavior.

Which of the following is most likely Kendall's learning style?

A) accommodator B) diverger C) converger D) assimilator

47) Kathy enjoys brainstorming. She gathers all the facts and analyzes a situation from multiple perspectives before making a decision. As a result, she sometimes misses opportunities.

Which of the following is most likely Kathy's preferred learning style?

A) accommodator B) diverger C) converger D) assimilator

48) Beth prefers to learn new skills on the job rather than in training sessions. Her decisions are based on instinct and not on technical analysis. Which of the following is most likely Beth's learning style?

A) accommodator B) diverger C) converger D) assimilator

49) Aken is a sales representative at Maxim Insurance Incorporated. He tends to make quick decisions based primarily on input from people without much analysis. He tends to learn primarily from hands-on experience. He often acts on gut feelings and does not spend much time on thinking about his decisions. He learns well through training sessions that involve roleplaying. Which of the following is most likely Aken's learning style?

A) accommodator B) diverger C) converger D) assimilator

50) Dennis is an accountant and likes dealing with numbers and concrete accounting processes. He is always willing to help his colleagues solve problems, even though he avoids personal interactions with them. Although Dennis enjoyed college, he believes that one really learns about accounting when one gets into the job. Which of the following is most likely Dennis's learning style?

A) accommodator B) diverger C) converger D) assimilator

51) Debra is a marketing researcher at Dale Manufacturers Incorporated. She enjoys compiling information. Debra always follows scientific procedures when conducting research.

She believes that although questionnaires are useful, watching people select products in stores provides more valuable information. Which of the following is most likely Debra's learning style?

A) accommodator B) diverger C) converger D) assimilator

52) __________ cultivates the capacity to acquire knowledge, adapt, and change with the environment to be innovative with speed.

A) The systems effect B) A survey feedback C) The organizational culture D) A learning organization

53) Alvin tells his parents, "We don't see things the same way because you are old and I am young." Which of the following perception biases does Alvin have?

A) projection B) frame of reference C) expectations D) selective exposure

54)

The term __________ refers to a person's interpretation of reality.

A) emotional intelligence B) attitude C) perception D) emotion

55)

__________ is the process of generalizing the behavior of all members of a group.

A) Rationalizing B) Internalizing C) Stereotyping D) Marginalizing

56) Mathew is a sales representative at Kaar Components Ltd. Mathew tends to hear only those pieces of information that interest him while ignoring the rest. This behavior has affected his sales, and his manager often reprimands him. Which of the following is most likely Mathew's perception bias?

A) stereotypes B) expectations C) selective exposure D) frame of reference

57) Mark, who attended a music festival where a local band performed, says, "I did not like their music much, but my friends really liked it." Identify the perception bias exemplified in Mark's statement.

A) interest B) frame of reference C) expectations D) selective exposure

58) Ashley is often inattentive when her boss is speaking to her. She says, "I often don't listen to what my boss is saying since I can predict what he is going to say." Which of the following perception biases does this statement reflect?

A) stereotypes B) frame of reference C) expectations D) selective exposure

59) The management of Delssis Incorporated announces its plan of closing down its operations in New York. The top management feels this move will help the company cut down its overhead expenses and concentrate its resources at a single location. The employees, however, think this is a negative move. Which of the following perception biases is exemplified in this scenario?

A) frame of reference B) stereotypes C) expectations D) selective exposure

60)

The term __________ refers to the degree to which people see things the same way.

A) projection B) selective exposure C) perceptual congruence D) frame of reference

61)

The __________ is the time we have to make a good impression.

A) threshold period B) four-minute barrier C) frame of reference D) six-minute sell

62)

__________ refers to the way people perceive one another during their first impressions.

A) The transition effect B) The primacy effect C) Impression management D) Selective exposure

63) The __________ is termed so because it is the average duration in which people make up their minds to continue the contact or separate during social situations.

A) one-minute barrier B) perceptual period C) four-minute sell D) transition period

64) Laura meets Cindy, the owner of a well-known advertising agency in Los Angeles, at a social gathering. Laura wants to make a good first impression so that she can intern at Cindy's firm. Which of the following, if true, would help Laura make a favorable first impression?

A) During the first four minutes of their conversation, Laura brings up a controversial topic and states her opinion on the issue.

B) Laura maintains eye contact while introducing herself to Cindy.

C) Before leaving the gathering, Laura asks Cindy for her contact details so that she can keep in touch.

D) Laura spends a long time talking to Cindy.

65)

Describe your Big Five personality profile.

66) Select a present or past boss and describe how his or her personality profile affected behavior, human relations, and performance in your department.

67) What was your stress personality type score and letter? Should you work at changing your personality type? Explain why or why not. Will you change?

68) Following the controlling stress plan, (1) identify your major stressor, (2) determine its cause and consequences, and (3) develop a plan to eliminate or decrease the stress. Identify each step in your answer.

69) Of the five ways to eliminate or decrease stress, which do you do best? Which needs the most improvement and why? What will you do, if anything, to improve in that area?

70) What is your preferred learning style? Are the characteristics of the style a good description of you? Explain. Can you change your learning style?

71) Think about the person you enjoy or have enjoyed working with the most. Identify that person's learning style. Is it the same as yours? What is it that you enjoy about the person?

72) Think about the person you dislike or have disliked working with the most. Identify that person's learning style. Is it the same as yours? What is it that you dislike about the person?

73) Give an example of when you and another person experienced the same situation but perceived it differently. Which of the six biases affecting perception was responsible for the difference in perception? Explain your answer.

74) Give examples of situations when others formed a positive and a negative first impression of you. Explain the causes (appearance, nonverbal communication, behavior) of those impressions.

75) Which area of projecting a positive image (appearance, nonverbal communication, behavior) is your strongest? Which is your weakest? Explain your answers. What will you do to project a more positive image in the future?

76) Which personality traits exhibited by others tend to irritate you? Which of your personality traits tend to irritate others? How can you improve your personality?

77) Which is a more effective measure of personality—the Big Five Model of Personality or the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator?

78) Which cause of stress do you think is the major contributor to employee stress in organizations? What can organizations do to help eliminate or reduce employee stress?

79)

What are the five components of emotional intelligence (EI)?

80) How do you know if your perception or that of others is the correct interpretation of reality?

81) Is it ethical to judge and stereotype people based on a few seconds or minutes during first impressions? How do your first impressions help and hinder your human relations?

82) People with an internal locus of control are closed to new experiences to improve performance. ⊚ ⊚

83)

true false

Locus of control is a two-dimensional personality classification method. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) According to the Big Five Model of Personality, people characterized by assertiveness, ambition, and energy are generally strong in dominance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) People strong in surgency want to be followers, and they do not like to compete or influence. ⊚ ⊚

86)

true false

A Type A personality is commonly associated with a low level of stress. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87)

Genes do not play a role in personality development. ⊚ ⊚

88)

Stress is an individual matter. ⊚ ⊚

89)

true false

Some stress helps improve performance by challenging and motivating people. ⊚ ⊚

90)

true false

true false

People with Type B personalities have more stress than people with Type A personalities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) Tight control through autocratic management tends to create less stress for the employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Exercise, nutrition, relaxation, positive thinking, and a good support system help in tackling stress.

⊚ ⊚

93)

true false

Breathing rate slows down in a person who is stressed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Today, it is generally agreed that intelligence is a product of genetics and not of the environment. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

Accommodators rely more on other people for information than on technical analysis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Assimilators tend to be more concerned with abstract ideas and concepts than with people. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

Stereotyping is our tendency to see things from a narrow focus that directly affects us. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) People sometimes selectively pick information they want to hear and ignore information they do not want to hear. This phenomenon is called frame of reference. ⊚ ⊚

99)

We perceive, select, organize, and interpret information as we expect it to appear. ⊚ ⊚

100)

true false

Selective exposure influences job selection. ⊚ ⊚

101)

true false

true false

Facial expressions convey feelings more accurately than words. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Discussing controversial topics and expressing personal views are best avoided especially during the four-minute barrier. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 9) external 10) Stress 11) Burnout 12) image 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) C 18) C 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) C 26) C 27) A 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) D 33) B 34) B

35) A 36) B 37) D 38) C 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) C 43) D 44) A 45) B 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) A 50) C 51) D 52) D 53) B 54) C 55) C 56) C 57) A 58) C 59) A 60) C 61) B 62) B 63) C 64) B

82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) FALSE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

How does management's attitude affect employee performance?

2)

Describe the methods a manager can use to shape and change employee attitudes.

3)

Describe the seven determinants of job satisfaction.

4)

Describe self-concept and how one's self-concept is formed.

5)

Describe the attribution theory in relation to self-concept.

6) Describe the four general guidelines you can implement in your daily life to improve your self-concept.

7) Describe the five spiritual principles that have been useful in personal and professional development.

8)

Compare the three levels of moral development.

9)

Discuss how ethics can be managed globally.

10)

An attitude is

A) one's perception that the cause of behavior is either internal or external.

B) a set of standards by which an individual lives.

C) your belief in your capability to perform in a specific situation.

D) a strong belief or feeling toward people, things, and situations.

11) "I must be alert so that the employees don't slacken their productivity," said Bob, the manager. Bob's attitude best reflects

A) the expectation theory.

B) Theory X. C) the Hawthorne effect.

D) Theory Y.

12) Dylan, a manager, believes in his employees and gives them a lot of freedom to do their work without much supervision from him. Dylan's attitude best reflects

A) the expectation theory.

B) Theory X. C) the halo effect.

D) Theory Y.

13) Maria, a new assistant manager, expects her employees to report to her every week with a detailed productivity report. Maria's attitude best reflects

A) the self-actualization theory.

B) Theory Y. C) Theory X. D) the halo effect.

14) Jonathan tends to look for the natural goodness in his employees, and his employees have reported high levels of job satisfaction. Jonathan's attitude best reflects

A) Theory Y. B) the expectation theory.

C) Theory X. D) the self-actualization theory.

15)

"I'm here to see that you are adhering to the schedule." This statement best reflects

A) Theory Y. B) the self-actualization theory.

C) Theory X. D) the halo effect.

16) Marion, the new supervisor, has requested the management to install surveillance cameras and voice recorders to monitor the productive hours of the employees and supervise their work closely. This shows that Marion has a

A) Theory X attitude.

B) Theory Z attitude.

C) Theory Y attitude.

D) Japanese management style.

17) Which of the following states that supervisors' attitudes and expectations of employees and how they treat them largely determine employees' performance?

A) the expectation theory B) the Pygmalion effect C) the self-actualization theory D) the halo effect

18)

What should you do when people look or act differently than you do?

A) Keep an open mind.

B) Generalize the behavior of all members of the group.

C) See things from a narrow focus that directly affects you.

D) See and hear what you want to.

19) When employees need to be made aware of their negative attitude so that they can change, their managers should

A) accentuate negative consequences.

B) make working conditions as pleasant as possible.

C) provide negative consequences.

D) give them feedback and support.

20)

Which of the following reflects a positive attitude?

A) "How many times do I have to tell you not to do it that way?"

B) "Don't ask me. I just work here."

C) "I'm an important member of our department's team."

D) "I am not to blame. The manager gave me very less time."

21) Martha has taken up a biology course as it is a prerequisite for her major. She does not like the course but has to complete it. Which of the following steps can help her change her attitude about the course?

A) She should be aware of her attitudes toward the course.

B) She should remember that what she thinks about the course is independent of how she feels about the course.

C) She should follow her instinct and realize that first impressions tend to hold true.

D) She should remember that happiness does not come from having a poor memory for our negative experiences.

22) Which of the following is a method that a manager can use to change an employee's attitudes at work?

A) accentuating positive conditions B) refraining from providing consequences and ultimatums C) using negative rather than positive reinforcement D) withholding negative feedback from employees

23)

Job satisfaction is defined as

A) a set of attitudes toward work.

B) a set of standards by which an individual lives.

C) one's overall attitude about oneself.

D) the level of one's capacity for new learning, problem solving, and decision making.

24) Derrick believes that he has worked hard over the previous quarter and generated considerable reveneue for his company. He expects to receive a promotion in the next appraisal cycle. Which of the following determinants of job satisfaction does this scenario reflect?

A) attitude toward work B) supervision C) growth and upward mobility D) the work itself

25) "I enjoy fixing cars; it is often challenging to determine what is wrong and how to fix it."

Which of the following determinants of job satisfaction does this statement reflect?

A) the work itself B) growth and upward mobility C) pay and benefits D) supervision

26) Erika, a research student, is passionate about science. She continues working in the laboratory long after all her peers leave for the day. She hopes to make a revolutionary breakthrough that can help mankind. Which of the following determinants of job satisfaction does Erika's attitude reflect?

A) pay and benefits B) the work itself C) growth and upward mobility D) supervision

27) Which of the following statements is indicative of how work itself can be a determinant of job satisfaction?

A) "I have a tight schedule as the manager is very particular about deadlines being met."

B) "I am looking forward to a promotion as I had a highly productive quarter."

C) "I enjoy dealing with the challenges in my job as they increase my knowledge."

D) "I always find that my colleagues are very cordial despite our obvious differences."

28) Rhonda loves her job and is very satisfied with her compensation. She is further motivated to perform efficiently when she hears that incentives will be given to efficient employees. Which of the following would be Rhonda's determinant for job satisfaction?

A) coworkers B) work itself C) supervision D) pay and benefits

29) Samantha loves going to work because she has made many friends at work. To which of the following determinants can her job satisfaction be attributed?

A) coworkers B) growth and mobility C) pay and benefits D) supervision

30) Jeff earns well and belongs to a good team, but he is quite dissatisfied with his boss and the critical remarks he receives despite his best efforts. To which of the following determinants can Jeff's lack of job satisfaction be attributed?

A) pay and benefits B) supervision C) coworkers D) growth and mobility

31)

Your ___________ is your overall attitude about yourself.

A) self-reflection B) self-concept C) self-efficacy D) self-awareness

32)

Identify a true statement about self-concept and its formation.

A) It is determined more by people's own behavior than by their thoughts and feelings about themselves.

B) It is strongly influenced by the attitudes and expectations of other people.

C) It is constant and remains unchanged over a person's lifetime.

D) It is fairly well developed by the time people reach their early teens.

33) Which of the following terms can be described as one's belief in one's capability to perform in a specific situation?

A) self-awareness B) self-concept C) self-efficacy D) self-reflection

34)

The self-fulfilling prophecy occurs when

A) B) C) D)

35)

you identify your strengths and areas that need improvement. your expectations affect your success or failure. you self-examine conscious thoughts and feelings. you observe others' behavior and do not know the reason for it.

___________ is one's perception of the reasons for behavior.

A) Internalization B) Attribution C) Arbitration D) Transition

36)

Which of the following statements is indicative of positive self-concept?

A) "I can never finish work on time."

B) "I can come to office on time only once in a while."

C) "It is very hard to be successful with a boss like that."

D) "I know I'll get better at this with practice."

37)

Which of the following statements is indicative of negative self-concept?

A) "I know my hard work will pay off soon."

B) "I was never meant to be promoted."

C) "I believe that it will get better with each day at work despite the deadline."

D) "Despite the bad day at work today, I am hoping to do my best tomorrow."

38)

Which of the following would help improve one's self-concept?

A) improving other people's actions and behavior B) maintaining one's choices and behaviors C) willingness to take responsibility for one's actions D) reluctance to avoid all changes to personality

39)

Which of the following is most likely to improve one's self-concept?

A) comparing oneself to others B) rejecting failure C) avoiding taking risks D) tapping into one's spirituality

40) In the context of the three-part action plan for building a positive self-concept, what should people do immediately after identifying their strengths and areas that need improvement?

A) They should create and implement a habit plan to achieve their goals.

B) They should reflect on their earlier accomplishments.

C) They should set time-bound goals and create mental images of them.

D) They should place their goals in an easily accessible location for daily review.

41) Carlos had developed a business strategy for his company. However, the strategy was unsuccessful and the company incurred significant losses. Carlos believes he is a failure and plans to quit his job. Which of the following should Carlos most likely do to improve his selfconcept?

A) generate new and better ideas B) control negative thoughts with self-talk C) compare himself with other colleagues D) get a new job where his ideas will work

42) Dana, a corporate executive, is hoping for a promotion in the next quarter. She feels that in order to be more productive and have better relationships, she should build a more positive self-concept. Which of the following is the first step Dana should take in order to accomplish this?

A) She should set short- and long-term goals and visualize them.

B) She should develop a plan and implement it.

C) She should identify her strengths and areas that need improvement.

D) She should look for scope for improvement in the initial plan.

43) After setting short- and long-term goals and visualizing them, what should the next step be in building a positive self-concept?

A) identifying strengths and areas that need improvement B) placing goals where one can review them several times each day C) starting and ending each day with positive thoughts about oneself D) developing a plan and implementing it

44) Which of the following terms is defined as a set of standards by which an individual lives?

A) spiral dynamics B) value system C) self-concept D) judgment call

45) Which of the following statements brings out the difference between values and attitudes?

A) Values and attitudes develop very differently.

B) Unlike values, attitudes about some things change.

C) Values are more stable than attitudes.

D) Society influences attitudes, not values.

46)

Value changes over the years are often a major part of what is referred to as the

A) cultural gap.

B) generation gap.

C) achievement gap.

D) gender gap.

47) Which of the following is a spiritual principle that has been useful in personal and professional development?

A) reaching actualization B) knowing others C) acting with authenticity D) staunchly following your belief system

48) Which of the following spiritual principles refers to believing that there is a source in your life that can provide guidance on important issues?

A) Act with authenticity.

B) Maintain a spiritual practice.

C) Be as trusting as you can be.

D) Know thyself.

49)

___________ refers to the moral standard of right and wrong behavior.

A) Ethics B) Attribution C) Spirituality D) Utility

50)

Identify a true statement about the conventional level of moral development.

A) Peer pressure is used to enforce group norms.

B) One seeks to balance the concerns for self with those of others and the common good.

C) Individuals tend to follow ethical principles even if they violate the law.

D) Self-interest motivates behavior to meet one's own needs.

51) Which of the following statements is true of the postconventional level of moral development?

A) Behavior is motivated by universal principles of right and wrong, regardless of the expectations of the leader or group.

B) One must be obedient to authority to avoid punishment.

C) Peer pressure is used to enforce group norms.

D) It is common for followers to copy the behavior of the leaders and group.

52)

Identify a true statement about the preconventional level of moral development.

A) Behavior of leaders and groups is commonly copied by followers.

B) Self-interest motivates behavior to meet one's own needs.

C) Peer pressure is used to enforce group norms.

D) One seeks to balance the concerns for self with those of others and the common good.

53) Which leadership style is common among people who have attained the postconventional level of moral development?

A) visionary style B) autocratic style C) laissez-faire style D) authoritarian style

54) Briana is a manager who is currently at the conventional level of moral development.

Which of the following behaviors is she likely to exhibit at this level?

A) She tries to live according to the universal principles of right and wrong.

B) She places her needs before others' needs.

C) She tries to live according to what others define as right or wrong.

D) She takes advantage of her position for personal gain.

55)

Which of the following questions is part of the Rotary International four-way test?

A) Will it benefit me in any way?

B) Will it build ethical practices?

C) Will it build goodwill and better friendship?

D) Will it result in the attribution of the blame on me?

56)

Which of the following questions is part of the Rotary International four-way test?

A) Will it benefit me in any way?

B) Will it build ethical practices?

C) Will it build goodwill and better friendship?

D) Will it result in the attribution of the blame on me?

57)

Which of the following questions is part of the Rotary International four-way test?

A) Is it fair to me?

B) Is it the truth?

C) Will it be beneficial to me?

D) Does it break any laws?

58)

Which of the following questions is part of the Rotary International four-way test?

A) Is it fair to all concerned?

B) Will it build ethical practices?

C) Does it break any laws?

D) Will it be beneficial to the one using this test?

59) ___________ calls for ethical decisions to be made based on the ethical standards of a particular country.

A) Regionalism B) Universalism C) Relativism D) Socialism

60) According to ___________, managers should make the same ethical decisions across countries.

A) nationalism B) socialism C) relativism D) universalism

61)

Describe your attitude about college in general and the specific college you are attending.

62) Give two examples of when your attitude affected your performance. One should be a positive effect and the other a negative one. Be sure to fully explain how your attitudes affected performance.

63) Give an example of when you lived up to (or down to) someone else's expectations of your performance (the Pygmalion effect). It could be a parent's, teacher's, coach's, or boss's expectations. Be specific.

64) Based on your answers in Self-Assessment Exercise 3-2, what will you do to improve your job attitude? Be specific.

65) Has job or school satisfaction affected your absenteeism? Explain your answer. For example, do you attend a class or job more if you are satisfied with it or if you are dissatisfied with it?

66) Consider a specific job you hold or have held. Measure your job satisfaction for the job by rating each of the seven determinants of job satisfaction using a scale from 1 (not satisfied) to 5 (satisfied); then add up the total points and divide by seven to get your average, or overall, job satisfaction level. Be sure to write down the seven determinants and your ratings.

67) Has job or school satisfaction affected your performance? Explain your answer. For example, compared to your work in classes or jobs that you are satisfied with, do you work as hard and produce as much for classes or jobs that you are dissatisfied with?

68)

Describe your self-concept.

69) Give an example of when you lived up to or down to your own expectations (selfefficacy leading to self-fulfilling prophecy).

70) Which of the four general guidelines to building a positive self-concept needs the least work? The most work? Explain your answer.

71) What is your attitude toward life? Do you agree with the statement, "Life sucks, then you die"?

72) Do more managers have Theory X or Theory Y attitudes today? Be sure to give examples to back up your statements.

73) Do you really believe that you can get better results with people using the Pygmalion effect—being positive and encouraging, rather than negative and threatening? Be sure to give examples to back up your statements.

74) Do you believe that most organizations really try to provide employees with job satisfaction? Give examples of what firms do to increase job satisfaction.

75)

Is having a positive self-concept really all that important?

76)

What is your view of spirituality in the workplace?

77)

Do most people behave ethically at work, or do they lie, cheat, and steal?

78)

Which method of justifying unethical behavior do you think is most commonly used?

79)

An attitude is a strong belief or feeling toward people, things, and situations. ⊚ ⊚

80)

true false

Genes, rather than thoughts and beliefs, dictate attitudes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Research indicates that employees tend to be happier in environments where Theory Y attitudes are implemented.

⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

People must be treated as high achievers in order to produce their best. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) A job satisfaction survey is the process of determining employee attitudes about the job and work environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) A person's positive or negative human relations with his or her coworkers has no effect on overall job satisfaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) In the United States, people in professional and managerial jobs and those performing nonmanual work reported less job satisfaction than those who perform manual work. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Your self-concept, also called self-esteem and self-image, is your overall attitude about yourself. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) One's thoughts and feelings about oneself have greater influence in determining one's self-concept than does one's behavior. ⊚ ⊚

88)

Self-concept, once developed, is static and unchangeable. ⊚ ⊚

89)

true false

Self-efficacy is the same as self-image. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

Comparing yourself to others can only have a negative influence on your self-concept. ⊚ ⊚

90)

true false

true false

Self-efficacy is your belief in your capability to perform in a specific situation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) You can improve your self-concept only if you are willing to take responsibility for your actions and change to improve.

⊚ ⊚

93)

If you give praise for poor performance, performance usually improves. ⊚ ⊚

94)

true false

At the conventional level of moral development, behavior is motivated by self-interest. ⊚ ⊚

98)

true false

Highly competitive and unsupervised situations decrease the odds of unethical behavior. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

Values are developed very differently from attitudes. ⊚ ⊚

96)

true false

A self-concept system is the set of standards by which an individual lives. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

true false

The higher the level of moral development, the more ethical the behavior.

⊚ ⊚

99) not.

true false

Moral character development refers to our thinking, feeling, and behaving ethically, or

⊚ ⊚

true false

100) In the context of the factors contributing to unethical behavior, ethical fading occurs when people are able to see the ethical implications of the situation or their actions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 10) D 11) B 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) A 23) A 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) C 28) D 29) A 30) B 31) B 32) B 33) C 34) B 35) B

36) D 37) B 38) C 39) D 40) C 41) B 42) C 43) D 44) B 45) C 46) B 47) C 48) C 49) A 50) A 51) A 52) B 53) A 54) D 55) C 56) C 57) B 58) A 59) C 60) D 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE

84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) FALSE 95) FALSE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

What is organizational communication? List the different types.

2)

How does cultural context become a barrier to communication?

3)

List and explain the four steps in the communication process.

4)

How do men and women differ in their conversation styles?

5)

List the steps in a message-sending process.

6)

What is feedback? How can one get feedback on messages?

7)

Explain the three parts of the message-receiving process.

8)

List four ways of improving listening skills.

9)

Describe the laissez-faire communication style.

10) ________ refers to the way in which managers design their firm to achieve the organization's mission and goals.

A) Organizational temperament B) Organizational structure C) Organizational communication D) Organizational support

11)

________ follows the chain of command and is recognized as official.

A) Vertical communication B) Informal communication C) Horizontal communication D) Grapevine communication

12) ________, often called lateral communication, is the flow of information between colleagues and peers.

A) Vertical communication B) Downward communication C) Grapevine communication D) Horizontal communication

13)

________ communication does not follow the chain of command.

A) Vertical B) Upward C) Downward D) Horizontal

14)

The grapevine is

A) also called upward communication.

B) best used for downward vertical communication.

C) the informal vehicle through which messages flow throughout an organization.

D) a useless organizational reality.

15) "I will give you the performance scores based on the quality of your files. Please send the files to me once they are completed." Identify the flow of organizational communication in this example.

A) vertical communication B) lateral communication C) horizontal communication D) grapevine communication

16) "Dharma, can I have Jones in my office in 15 minutes? Please ask him to bring the quarterly report along." Identify the flow of organizational communication in this example.

A) downward vertical communication B) upward vertical communication C) horizontal communication D) grapevine communication

17) "Hi, Sam, how are you? How did you like our new product range?" Identify the flow of organizational communication in this example.

A) downward vertical communication B) upward vertical communication C) horizontal communication D) grapevine communication

18) "Hey, Danny, did you know the new girl in HR is Jack's sister?" Identify the flow of organizational communication in this example.

A) downward vertical communication B) upward vertical communication C) horizontal communication D) grapevine communication

19) In the context of human relations and communications, which of the following statements is true?

A) The use of information and communication technology (ICT) has started declining.

B) The human brain reacts differently to in-person interactions and virtual interactions.

C) Communication tools increase the need for people to interact with each other.

D) Technical skills are more important and valued than people skills today.

20) Which of the following is an appropriate transmission channel for nonverbal communication?

A) a fax B) a memo C) a poster D) a presentation

21) The ________ consists of a sender who encodes a message and transmits it through a channel to a receiver who decodes it and may give feedback.

A) communication process B) filtering process C) reception process D) verifying process

22) In the context of the communication process, ________ is the sender's process of putting a message into a form that the receiver will understand.

A) encoding B) transmitting C) decoding D) decrypting

23) In the context of the communication process, the ________ is the physical form of the encoded information, and it is transmitted through a channel.

A) transmitter B) message C) cell phone D) receiver

24)

Which of the following is the final step of the communication process?

A) encoding B) receiving C) feedback D) decoding

25) "A charity bake sale will be organized at the cafeteria on Monday." Which of the following message transmission channels would be most appropriate for this message?

A) meeting B) telephone C) presentation D) poster

26)

In the context of gender communication differences, men differ from women in that men

A) tend to talk to emphasize status.

B) tend to want more face-to-face communications to develop close relationships.

C) spend most of their time talking about their feelings and emotions.

D) talk more about their families.

27) In the context of communication, which of the following statements is true of people from high-context cultures?

A) They prefer the use of the direct, get-down-to-business conversation style.

B) They focus on the use of precisely written legal contracts.

C) They give importance to the position, age, and seniority of parties in a conversation.

D) They focus on the actual spoken and written word.

28) Which of the following message transmission channels would be most appropriate when the personal assistant of a CEO wants to confirm the reservations for dinner at a restaurant?

A) report B) telephone C) meeting D) poster

29) "Mr. Brown is a retired old man. Do not send him an email; he doesn't use the Internet."

Which of the following communication barriers is indicated by this example?

A) information overload B) noise C) channel selection D) trust and credibility

30) "Hey, Alvin, do you get what I'm saying? Repeat to me what you are expected to do at the exact stroke of midnight." Which of the following communication barriers is indicated by this example?

A) not listening B) information overload C) channel selection D) filtering

31) "Do not smile too much. In this country, it is a sign of weakness. Look sterner." Which of the following communication barriers is indicated by this example?

A) gender B) language C) channel selection D) culture

32) "Could you lower the volume? I'm on the phone." Which of the following communication barriers is indicated by this example?

A) filtering B) noise C) channel selection D) information overload

33) In the context of communication, people from high-context cultures differ from people from low-context culturesin that people from low-context cultures

A) focus on the use of precisely written legal contracts.

B) place importance on the speaker's credibility and trust.

C) place importance on the position, age, and seniority of the speaker.

D) focus on nonverbal communication and subtle cues.

34)

Which of the following can be helpful in overcoming global barriers to communication?

A) Believe there are similarities until differences are proved.

B) Delay judgment of a person's behavior until you are sure you are being culturally sensitive.

C) As the sender, decode your message without any focus on the receiver's crosscultural differences.

D) If you are not sure what is appropriate, do as you are used to doing.

35)

Which of the following is the first step of the message-sending process?

A) developing rapport B) stating the communication objective C) checking the understanding of the message D) transmitting the message

36)

________ is a process of having the receiver restate the message in his or her own words.

A) Paraphrasing B) Encoding C) Decoding D) Reinstating

37)

Which of the following is the final step of the message-sending process?

A) stating the communication objective B) getting a commitment and follow up C) checking the understanding of the message D) transmitting the message

38)

________ is the process of verifying messages.

A) Paraphrasing B) Encoding C) Decoding D) Feedback

39) When people interrupt you to talk, which of the following should you do to improve listening skills?

A) Stop what you are doing and give them your complete attention.

B) Listen to them while you continue to do what you are doing.

C) Train your mind to focus on what they are saying as well as the work at hand.

D) Ask questions indirectly if you feel there is something missing.

40)

Which of the following is a way to improve listening skills?

A) avoiding asking direct questions if you feel there is something missing B) listening and analyzing or evaluating what is said at the same time C) repeating in your mind what the speaker is saying D) basing your conclusion on opinions and generalities

41) "Let me read it again. I had a lot on my mind when you showed it to me." Which of the following listening tips should the speaker apply in this example?

A) not assuming and interrupting B) watching for nonverbal cues C) paying attention D) avoiding distractions

42) "Can you please slow down a bit? I am jotting down some points lest I forget them."

Which of the following listening tips has the speaker applied in this example?

A) taking notes B) paying attention C) asking questions D) avoiding distractions

43) "Please give me some time to put away my laptop. We can have a conversation after that." Which of the following listening tips is the speaker working toward applying in this example?

A) evaluating after listening B) paying attention C) evaluating facts presented D) not assuming and interrupting

44) "Let me think over what you said, and I'll let you know my opinion." Which of the following listening tips does the speaker want to apply in this example?

A) conveying meaning B) evaluating after listening C) paraphrasing D) watching for nonverbal cues

45) Nathan tells Robbie that he will give him all the support he needs to help him overcome the loss of his pet. Which of the following types of response styles is Nathan using?

A) advising B) reassuring C) probing D) diverting

46) Gareth and Javier are discussing a topic. While responding to Gareth, Javier paraphrases the concepts discussed so that Gareth can analyze if Javier understood the topic. Which of the following types of response styles is Javier using?

A) reflecting B) reassuring C) advising D) probing

47)

Which of the following is an example of appropriate use of a probing response style?

A) giving advice when directly asked for it B) ensuring understanding by getting more information C) using it as a way to avoid needless arguments D) providing confidence by giving an appropriate response

48) Jonathan and Ruby are having an argument. Instead of responding directly to Ruby, Jonathan switches the topic of discussion and talks about things that are irrelevant to the argument. Which of the following response styles is Jonathan using?

A) probing B) reassuring C) advising D) diverting

49)

Which of the following best describes an autocratic communication style?

A) high task–low relationship behavior, initiating a closed presentation B) low task–low relationship behavior, responding with the necessary open presentation C) low task–high relationship behavior, responding with open elicitation, some initiation, and little presentation D) high task–high relationship behavior, using a closed presentation for the task with an open elicitation for the relationship

50) A trainer gave specific instructions for a task, and trainees were told not to consult anyone or ask questions to complete the task. Which of the following communication styles did the trainer use in this example?

A) autocratic B) participative C) consultative D) laissez-faire

51) Norma is organizing an event for her company. She has to create billboards that will be placed at different units of the firm. She needs to collaborate with a design specialist to agree on a design. Which of the following communication styles would be most appropriate when Norma communicates with the designer?

A) autocratic B) participative C) consultative D) laissez-faire

52) A supervisor has to make travel reservations for a number of delegates attending an international conference on trade and commerce. The supervisor's office engages a travel agent who will handle all details like airline bookings and flight schedules. Which of the following communication styles would be most appropriate when the supervisor communicates with the travel agent?

A) autocratic B) participative C) consultative D) laissez-faire

53) Which of the following situational communication styles demonstrates high task–high relationship behavior using a closed presentation for the task with an open elicitation for the relationship?

A) autocratic communication style B) consultative communication style C) participative communication style D) laissez-faire communication style

54)

Identify an accurate statement about the consultative communication style.

A) It is best used when there is no time to make decisions.

B) It is best used when parties accept messages without questioning the accuracy of the message.

C) The receiver initiates and controls the communication.

D) The receiver has moderate information and capability.

55) Which of the following situational communication styles is one where parties are expected to comply with the sender's message?

A) autocratic communication style B) laissez-faire communication style C) participative communication style D) consultative communication style

56)

________ is the ability to understand and relate to another's situation and feelings.

A) Emotional labor B) Situational quotient C) Empathic listening D) Conscientiousness

57)

What should a person ideally say if he or she feels like crying while receiving criticism?

A) "Can you give me some examples of the specific behavior being criticized and how to improve?"

B) "Will you give me some time to think about the criticism and we will talk later?"

C) "Let me tell you what I am going to do so we will be sure that we are in agreement."

D) "I am not sure I see it that way. Please tell me how you perceive my behavior."

58)

What should you ideally do if you blame others when getting criticism?

A) Follow up with your boss to see how you are doing.

B) Ask if you can be given some examples of how to improve.

C) Stay calm and use reflective statements for paraphrasing.

D) Take responsibility for your behavior and apologize if you did something wrong.

59)

What should a person ideally say when he or she seeks criticism?

A) "Could we talk later so that I get some time to think about the criticism?"

B) "If you cannot say anything good about someone, do not say anything at all."

C) "I will make action plans and improve my performance."

D) "I am not sure I see it that way. Please tell me how you perceive my behavior."

60) Give a specific example in which communication affected your behavior, human relations, and performance.

61) Select an organization for which you work or have worked. Is the division of labor specialized? Identify the chain of command from your job to the top of the organization. How many people are in your boss's span of management? Is authority centralized or decentralized?

How is work coordinated?

62) Draw an organization chart illustrating the departments in the organization for which you work or have worked.

63) Give a specific example of when you used vertical communication. Identify it as upward or downward.

64)

Give a specific example of when you used horizontal communication.

65) Give a specific example of a message you heard through the grapevine. How accurate was it? Was it the exact same message management sent?

66)

Give specific examples of how you use digital information technology to communicate.

67)

Which message transmission channels do you use most often at work?

68) Give at least two different barriers to communication you have experienced at work.

Explain the situation and how the barrier could have been overcome.

69)

Describe a gender communication difference you have observed at work.

70) E-mail is preferred over oral communication at work, and texting is increasingly used.

What are the pros and cons of oral versus e-mail or text communication? Which form of communication do you use more often? Which one do you prefer?

71) Many employees waste time using social media at work. Should organizations ban the use of social media for personal reasons during work hours? If so, how?

72) Which two barriers to communication do you believe are the most common in organizations today? What can firms do to help eliminate these two barriers?

73) Do men and women really converse differently? Do you speak about different things with your male and female friends and coworkers? If so, what do you talk about with men versus women?

74)

Which is preferable to you, a high-context culture or a low-context culture?

75) Many employees, including managers, complain about organizational communications.

What are some of the complaints, and how can communications be improved?

76) How often do you use paraphrasing and ask others to paraphrase to ensure mutual understanding? How effective are you at paraphrasing and asking others to paraphrase, and how can you improve your paraphrasing skills?

77) Which response style do you believe is most commonly used at work? Should the most commonly used response style be reflecting? Why or why not?

78)

Vertical communication is often called informal communication. ⊚ ⊚

79)

true false

Horizontal communication is the flow of information between colleagues and peers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) One of the organization principles used in designing an organization's structure is division of labor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Vertical communication is the flow of information both up and down the chain of command. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

High-context cultures focus on the use of direct, get-down-to-business conversation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) Feedback involves having the receiver of a message restate the message in his or her own words to see if it has been correctly understood. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) When a message does not result in communication, the most common cause is the sender's lack of getting feedback to ensure mutual understanding. ⊚ ⊚

85)

true false

The most accurate indicator of understanding is direct questioning. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Watching nonverbal behavior is an important aspect of ensuring a message was received accurately. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

A diverting response style is most appropriate when giving advice to the listener. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Participative communication style demonstrates high task–high relationship behavior, using a closed presentation for the task with an open elicitation for the relationship. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Laissez-faire communication style is characterized by low task–low relationship behavior and the receiver demonstrates a high level of information and capability. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) Consultative communication style demonstrates low task–high relationship behavior, responding with open elicitation, some initiation, and little presentation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) When you have all the information you need, the autocratic communication style may be appropriate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) In the laissez-faire communication style, both the sender and receiver have outstanding information and capability. ⊚ ⊚

93)

true false

Feelings are neither right nor wrong, but behavior is.

⊚ ⊚

94)

Emotional labor requires the expression of feeling through desired behavior. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

To listen with empathy does not mean you have to agree with the person. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

To calm emotional people, we must encourage them to be logical. ⊚ ⊚

96)

true false

true false

Reassuring statements paraphrase feelings back to the person. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 10) B 11) A 12) D 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) A 27) C 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) A 34) B 35) A

36) A 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) C 41) C 42) A 43) D 44) B 45) B 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) A 50) A 51) B 52) D 53) B 54) D 55) A 56) C 57) B 58) D 59) C 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) FALSE

84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

What is transactional analysis? Describe the three ego states of transactional analysis.

2)

Explain the three types of transactions.

3)

In the context of transactional analysis, what is stroking?

4)

Explain the source of passive behavior.

5)

What are the causes of anger and violence in a workplace?

6)

What are the ways in which an organization can prevent violence in the workplace?

7)

What are the primary reasons for conflict? What can be done to avoid conflict?

8)

Describe the five conflict management styles.

9)

State the appropriate uses of the five conflict management styles.

10)

List the steps of initiating, responding to, and mediating conflict resolutions.

11) In the __________ ego state of transactional analysis, a person controls a conversation using responses that are disapproving or disciplining, telling others what to do.

A) natural child B) critical parent C) adapted child D) adult

12) The __________ ego state uses probing responses that show curiosity, fun, fantasy, or impulsiveness.

A) sympathetic parent B) critical parent C) natural child D) adapted child

13) The __________ ego state responds with confrontational advising responses that express rebelliousness, anger, fear, anxiety, inadequacy, or procrastination.

A) sympathetic parent B) critical parent C) natural child D) adapted child

14) The __________ ego state uses reassuring responses that are protecting, permitting, and consoling.

A) sympathetic parent B) critical parent C) natural child D) adapted child

15) A manager gives merit raises to employees based on performance. An employee comes to the manager to complain about not getting a large merit raise. In which of the following ways would the employee communicate if he uses the adult ego state?

A) "I want to know why I didn't get a large merit raise."

B) "Bill got a larger merit raise than I did. Would you please explain what Bill does that I don't so that I can do better the next round?"

C) "It's your job to give objective and fair merit raises. So why didn't you do it?"

D) "You were not fair in giving me that merit raise. I'm a better worker than the two people who got the largest raises."

16) Amin gave his cell phone to a professional for it to be fixed. Once he return home with it after the service, he realized that the phone was still not working as expected. He returned to the professional and said, "What's wrong with you? Don't you know how to fix a phone?" Which of the following responses by the professional best exemplifies the adapted child ego state?

A) "It's not my fault! You did not give me enough time to fix it!"

B) "I'm sorry it happened. Shall I try fixing it again?"

C) "You must have been disappointed. What can I do to make it up to you?"

D) "Did you try using it this way? What other problem did you notice?"

17) In a(n) __________ transaction, the sender of a message gets the intended response from the receiver.

A) crossed B) ulterior C) complementary D) concealed

18) In a(n) __________ transaction, the person appears to be in one ego state, but his or her behavior comes from a different ego state.

A) crossed B) ulterior C) complementary D) concealed

19)

In a(n) __________ transaction, the sender does not get the expected response.

A) crossed B) ulterior C) complementary D) concealed

20) Allen says, "Please review these figures by Monday and give me a report." Charles replies, "I'll have it ready first thing in the morning." Which of the following transactions is this conversation an example of?

A) crossed B) complementary C) responsive D) ulterior

21) Salma says, "I need you to make a presentation for a potential client today." Ryan replies, "Why do I have to do it? Can't you get someone else to do it?" Which of the following transactions is this conversation an example of?

A) crossed B) complementary C) responsive D) ulterior

22) Mina says, "I need to set up the invigilation schedule for the upcoming exams. Could you help me?" To this, Rochelle replies, "Sure. I don't mind, but can we start with my schedule first?". Rochelle's response best illustrates

A) a natural child ego state.

B) a complementary transaction.

C) an unresponsive transaction.

D) an ulterior motive.

23) Sasha says, "I missed out on some figures, and now I have to redo the entire report."

Maya replies, "It happens to all of us at some point." Which of the following transactions is this conversation an example of?

A) crossed B) interior C) complementary D) ulterior

24)

__________ is any behavior that implies recognition of another's presence.

A) Assertiveness B) Aggressiveness C) Performance D) Stroking

25)

When people stand up for their rights without violating the rights of others, they are using

A) aggressive behavior.

B) passive behavior.

C) assertive behavior.

D) strokes.

26) Which of the following terms refers to the process of presenting one's thoughts and feelings as well as asking for what one wants in an appropriate manner?

A) normalization B) assertiveness C) passivity D) passive–aggressiveness

27) __________ behavior is an avoidance of behavior or an accommodation of the other party's wishes without standing up for one's own rights.

A) Passive B) Aggressive C) Assertive D) Hostile

28)

__________ comes primarily through the adapted child and the critical parent ego states.

A) Aggressiveness B) Assertiveness C) Passivity D) Nonassertiveness

29)

The life position of an assertive person is

A) "I'm OK—You're not OK." B) "I'm OK—You're OK." C) "I'm not OK—You're OK." D) "I'm not OK—You're not OK."

30)

__________ people project a positive image of being confident, friendly, and honest.

A) Passive B) Aggressive C) Assertive D) Hostile

31)

Which of the following phrases would a passive person most likely use?

A) "You need to know..."

B) "No, I won't be able to..."

C) "I would like..."

D) "I don't want to bother you, but..."

32) "I want that draft proposal emailed to me by tomorrow morning. I don't care if you need to work overtime tonight." Which of the following behaviors is this an example of?

A) passivity B) assertiveness C) empathy D) aggressiveness

33) Cindy did not say anything the first time Carl pushed her as they walked in the hall. On the way back, he did it again. This time, Cindy caught his eye, smiled, and said, "Carl, you should signal before crossing into my lane." Cindy's behavior can be best described as

A) aggressive.

B) passive.

C) assertive.

D) passive-aggressive.

34) "It's not really important, but I was wondering if I could talk to you about my annual raise." This is an example of a(n) __________ response.

A) aggressive B) passive C) passive-aggressive D) assertive

35) "Sure, I'll look over those numbers once again," said Sam, walking out in a huff and slamming the door. This is a case of __________ behavior.

A) aggressive B) passive C) assertive D) passive-aggressive

36) "I would prefer you keeping me informed the next time you decide to come to work late so that I may make alternate plans." This is an example of a(n) __________ response.

A) assertive B) passive C) passive-aggressive D) aggressive

37) You have been asked out on a date by a coworker you are not attracted to. In fact, you don't really like the person. Which of the following would be an appropriate assertive behavioral response for this scenario?

A) "Okay, I'll see you at 8 P.M." B) "Are you kidding me? I wouldn't go out with you."

C) "I'm sorry; I'm not interested in you."

D) "I'm sorry; I'm busy that night."

38)

In the context of a conflict situation, the first step of assertive behavior is to

A) ignore the conflict.

B) determine how to create a win–win situation.

C) identify different solutions to resolve the conflict.

D) set an objective.

39)

Which of the following helps one get rid of anger?

A) being empathic and using reflecting statements B) giving orders or ultimatums C) developing positive affirmations D) encouraging people to vent anger

40)

Which of the following helps one deal with the anger of others?

A) developing positive affirmations B) being empathic and using reflecting statements C) giving orders or ultimatums D) using an anger journal

41)

One of the primary reasons why conflict occurs is because people

A) fail to make their expectations known to others.

B) are usually aggressively pursuing their goals.

C) tend to be empathic toward their colleagues.

D) use reflecting statements to aggravate problems.

42)

Which of the following is the main reason for conflict?

A) People tend to be empathic toward their colleagues.

B) People try to find humor in difficult situations.

C) People assume that their expectations match the ones others have.

D) People use reflecting statements to aggravate problems.

43)

Which of the following is an advantage of the forcing style of conflict management?

A) maintaining relationships that were hurt through conflict resolution B) making better organizational decisions C) curbing hostility and resentment D) choosing the best solution to the conflict

44) In the _____ conflict management style, people have high concern for meeting others' and their own needs.

A) forcing B) avoiding C) accommodating D) collaborating

45) The __________ conflict management style is the only style that creates a true win–win situation for all parties.

A) accommodating B) avoiding C) collaborating D) compromising

46)

The compromising conflict management style is most appropriate when

A) the solution is clear.

B) people have enough time to address the conflict.

C) all the parties in a conflict have little interest in different solutions.

D) the issues are complex.

47) Which of the following statements is true about the collaborating conflict management style?

A) It is appropriate when time is available and when the conflict is a peer conflict.

B) It is the conflict management style where people try to postpone confrontation.

C) It attempts to satisfy the other party while neglecting one's own needs.

D) It is the worst conflict management style because it confronts the conflict aggressively.

48) Rudolph refuses to get involved in a confrontation with his supervisor. His supervisor threatens to take serious action against him, but Rudolph manages to stay away from confrontation. In the context of conflict management styles, the supervisor is most likely using the __________ conflict management style.

A) avoiding B) collaborating C) forcing D) accommodating

49) Keeping in mind uncertain economic conditions, the workers at a steel plant agree to a lower wage package in exchange for job security. Which of the following conflict management styles does this scenario reflect?

A) avoiding B) collaborating C) accommodating D) compromising

50) Three colleagues have been given the responsibility of coming up with a policy regarding Internet use during working hours. All of them have different opinions about what it should entail. Which of the following conflict management styles should ideally be used in this scenario?

A) avoiding B) collaborating C) forcing D) compromising

51) Dan regularly gives in to his employees' requests for extensions on deadlines. As a result, he often has to apologize to clients for the delays. Which of the following conflict management styles does Dan use?

A) accommodating B) collaborating C) avoiding D) forcing

52) Amanda always reaches work half an hour late. However, her boss, Jill, never confronts her about her tardiness. Which of the following conflict management styles does Jill use?

A) forcing B) collaborating C) avoiding D) compromising

53) Michelle has a packed schedule for the entire week. Her colleague asks her to help with the induction program scheduled for the company's new recruits. Michelle agrees to help inspite of her excess workload. Which of the following conflict management styles has Michelle used in this scenario?

A) collaborating B) accommodating C) avoiding D) compromising

54) Felix and Hannah have to conduct a market survey for a client. They cannot decide how to divide the work between themselves. Finally, they agree that Felix will be in charge of preparing the survey questionnaire and the presentation file, while Hannah will take care of analyzing the data and presenting the findings to the client. Which of the following conflict management styles have Felix and Hannah used in this scenario?

A) avoiding B) accommodating C) collaborating D) compromising

55)

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the forcing conflict style?

A) It results in compromised organizational decisions.

B) People can become resentful and hostile toward the forcer.

C) People can start taking advantage of the forcer.

D) It takes a long time to resolve a conflict using this style.

56)

Which of the following is an advantage of the avoiding conflict style?

A) It helps the user maintain relationships that would be hurt through conflict resolution.

B) It helps the user make decisions that are better for the organization.

C) It helps the user resolve conflicts quickly.

D) It helps the user resolve conflicts using assertive behavior.

57)

Which of the following is a step in initiating conflict resolution?

A) listening to and paraphrasing the problem using the XYZ model B) asking for, or giving, alternative solutions C) implementing one's plan persistently D) agreeing with some aspect of the complaint

58) You have been bringing in food and drinks and storing them in the refrigerator at work.

Chris, your coworker, has been taking them without asking you. You don't think it is fair for Chris to take your food and drinks. Which of the following should you say as your XYZ statement to initiate conflict resolution?

A) "Chris, you have been taking my food, and I don't get to eat it. I feel as though you are taking advantage of me."

B) "Chris, it is very rude of you to eat my food without asking."

C) "Chris, why don't you get your own food and drinks and stop having mine?"

D) "Chris, I feel you are taking advantage of me by taking my food and drinks. You need to stop it."

59) When an individual initiates a conflict resolution using a collaborative style, the last step in responding to conflict resolution is to

A) create a new plan using the XYZ model.

B) have each party state his or her complaint using the XYZ model.

C) provide alternative solutions.

D) make an agreement for change.

60) In the __________ conflict management style, people have low concern for meeting others' and their own needs.

A) forcing B) avoiding C) accommodating D) compromising

61) Some people say that because transactional analysis (TA) was developed in the 1960s, it is outdated. Do you agree, or do you believe that TA can help us understand behavior and improve human relations?

62) Give an example of a complementary transaction you experienced. Be sure to identify the ego states involved.

63) Give an example of a crossed transaction you experienced. Be sure to identify the ego states involved.

64) Give an example of an ulterior transaction you experienced. Be sure to identify the ego states involved.

65)

Identify your present or past boss's life position and use of stroking.

66) Some people intentionally use ulterior transactions to get what they want without others knowing it. Are ulterior transactions ethical?

67) Some people have negative attitudes and use negative strokes that hurt others. Is giving negative strokes unethical behavior?

68) Recall an example of when you used or observed passive-aggressive behavior. How did it affect human relations?

69) Recall an actual conflict you faced. Identify passive, aggressive, and assertive responses to the situation.

70) Select a person you know who is consistently passive. Do people take advantage of this person, such as getting them to do more work? Do you? Is it ethical to take advantage of passive people?

71) Select a person you know who is consistently aggressive. Do people let this person get his or her way? Do you? What is the best way to deal with an aggressive person? What is the best way to deal with a passive-aggressive person?

72) Select a person you know who is consistently assertive. Do people tend to respect this person, and does this person have effective human relations? Do you have effective human relations? What will you do to improve your assertiveness?

73) Recall a situation in which someone was angry with you, preferably your boss. What was the cause of the anger? Did the person display any signs of potential violence? If so, what were they? How well did the person deal with his or her anger? Give the specific tips the person did and did not follow.

74) Recall a situation in which you were angry with someone. What was the cause of your anger? Did you display any signs of potential violence? If so, what were they? How well did you deal with your anger? Give the specific tips you did and did not follow.

75) Recall an occasion of violence at school or work. Describe the situation. Were there signs that violence was coming? What can you do to help prevent violence?

76) Describe a conflict you observed in an organization, preferably an organization with which you are or were associated. Explain the conflict by the people involved and the reasons for the conflict.

77) Give an example of a conflict situation you face or have faced. Identify and explain the appropriate conflict management style to use.

78) Which conflict management style do you use most often? Why do you tend to use this conflict style? How can you become more collaborative?

79) In the natural child ego state of transactional analysis, a person responds with confrontational advising responses that express rebelliousness, pouting, anger, fear, anxiety, inadequacy, or procrastination. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) In transactional analysis, the adult ego state involves behaving rationally and in an unemotional manner. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Crossed transactions occur when a message seems to be coming from one ego state, but, in reality, it is coming from another. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

In crossed transactions, the sender of a message gets the expected response. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) Within ego states there are three different types of transactions: complementary, crossed, and ulterior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) Assertiveness is the process of expressing thoughts and feelings while getting what one wants through any possible way.

⊚ ⊚

85)

Violence is clearly aggressive behavior at the extreme level. ⊚ ⊚

86)

true false

One of the consequences of passive–aggressive behavior is emotional escalation. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

Aggressive people are demanding and try to win at any cost, even if it involves cheating. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

true false

The phrase, "No, I won’t be able to …," is an example of an aggressive phrase. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) The first step of being assertive is identifying how to create a mutually advantageous situation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90)

Workplace violence is often spontaneous. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) The advantage of the forcing conflict management style is that better organizational decisions will be made (given that the forcer is correct), rather than less effective, compromised decisions. ⊚ ⊚

92)

true false

Conflict of ideas are negative, whereas personal conflict tends to be positive. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) The collaborating conflict style user attempts to resolve the conflict through assertive give-and-take concessions. ⊚ ⊚

94)

The collaborating conflict style is appropriate when time is short. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

true false

The compromising conflict style is appropriate to use when time is short. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) The accommodating conflict style is most appropriate when there is abundant time to resolve the conflict. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Personal conflicts tend to be positive because they help improve one's problem-solving skills. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) When employees are in a conflict, the mediating manager should make them realize that it is their problem, not his. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 11) B 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) D 25) C 26) B 27) A 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) D 33) C 34) B 35) D 36) A

37) C 38) D 39) C 40) B 41) A 42) C 43) B 44) D 45) C 46) D 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) B 51) A 52) C 53) B 54) C 55) B 56) A 57) C 58) A 59) D 60) B 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE

85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) FALSE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

Discuss shared leadership in an organization.

2)

Describe leadership trait theory.

3)

Explain the Leadership Grid, and describe the five major leadership styles it identifies.

4)

Explain Fiedler's contingency leadership theory.

5)

Explain the leadership continuum developed by Tannenbaum and Schmidt.

6)

Explain normative leadership theory.

7)

Explain situational leadership developed by Paul Hersey and Kenneth Blanchard.

8)

In the context of situational supervision, what are the factors used to define a situation?

9)

Explain the five dimensions of trust.

10) __________ is the process of influencing employees to work toward the achievement of objectives.

A) Craftsmanship B) Leadership C) Internship D) Dealership

11) __________ assumes that there are distinctive physical and psychological characteristics accounting for leadership effectiveness.

A) The Big Five Model of Personality B) The Ghiselli Study C) Leadership trait theory D) Normative leadership theory

12) Which of the following did Edwin Ghiselli identify as the most important trait for effective leadership?

A) initiative B) need for occupational achievement C) decisiveness D) supervisory ability

13) Harry is a marketing manager with Purge Purification Systems. He directs his subordinates about the data to be included in their daily and weekly reports. However, he does not instruct them on the reporting method. He also encourages them to talk to him whenever they find anything difficult. In the context of the two-dimensional leadership styles developed by Ohio State University, identify the leadership behavior of Harry.

A) high structure and low consideration B) high structure and high consideration C) low structure and high consideration D) low structure and low consideration

14) "I want you to process a copy of this memo right now and then send it to the accountant."

Which quadrant of the two-dimensional leadership styles does this behavior reflect?

A) high structure and low consideration B) high structure and high consideration C) low structure and high consideration D) low structure and low consideration

15)

Which of the following statements is an assumption of behavioral leadership theories?

A) Changes in a dynamic environment require changes in leadership styles.

B) Personality traits do not affect leadership styles.

C) Good leadership is rooted in behavior.

D) Leaders are born, not made.

16) Joseph is a sales manager with Emergo Industries. He had to prepare and present the annual sales report to the management in one day, but he was least prepared. Therefore, he ordered his subordinates to prepare a presentation before the end of the day without giving them any other instructions. In the context of the two-dimensional leadership styles, which of the following is most likely to be Joseph's leadership style in this scenario?

A) high structure and low consideration B) high structure and high consideration C) low structure and high consideration D) low structure and low consideration

17) "I have outlined a plan for the event. We'll have to discuss all major considerations before you can start executing the plan. I'll check the progress daily thereon." Which quadrant of the two-dimensional leadership styles does this behavior reflect?

A) high structure and low consideration B) high structure and high consideration C) low structure and high consideration D) low structure and low consideration

18) In the context of the Leadership Grid, the __________ has low concern for both production and people.

A) impoverished manager B) sweatshop manager C) country club manager D) organized-person manager

19) In the context of the Leadership Grid, the __________ has a high concern for production and a low concern for people.

A) impoverished manager B) sweatshop manager C) country club manager D) organized-person manager

20) In the context of the Leadership Grid, the __________ has a high concern for people and a low concern for production.

A) impoverished manager B) sweatshop manager C) country club manager D) organized-person manager

21) In the context of the Leadership Grid, the __________ has balanced, medium concern for both production and people.

A) impoverished manager B) sweatshop manager C) country club manager D) organized-person manager

22) In the context of the Leadership Grid, the __________ has a high concern for both production and people.

A) team manager B) sweatshop manager C) country club manager D) organized-person manager

23) The __________, Blake and Mouton's model, identifies the ideal leadership style as having a high concern for both production and people.

A) Big Five Model of Personality B) Leadership Grid C) servant leadership theory D) two-dimensional leadership style

24) The supervisors at Proviso Inc. push for high production and do not care about the employees. In the context of the Leadership Grid, which leadership style do they use?

A) the sweatshop manager style B) the organized-person manager style C) the team manager style D) the country club manager style

25) Mathew is the chairman of Indigo Prints Inc. He motivates his employees to achieve their targets. This has enabled his company to achieve its target as well as to maintain employee satisfaction. In the context of the Leadership Grid, identify the leadership style of Mathew.

A) the sweatshop manager style B) the organized-person manager style C) the team manager style D) the country club manager style

26) Dona is the human resource manager with Consultus Incorporated She ordered her subordinates to hire ten people for the position of consultants within a period of one month. This target forced her subordinates to hire without proper evaluation of the candidates and affected their morale as well as the quality of the hired consultants. In the context of the Leadership Grid, identify the leadership style of Dona.

A) the country club manager style B) the sweatshop manager style C) the team manager style D) the impoverished manager style

27) "You have to complete all the assignments before you go on leave. You may have to extend your working hours." In the context of the Leadership Grid, which of the following leadership styles does this example reflect?

A) the country club manager B) the team manager C) the sweatshop manager D) the impoverished manager

28) "You don't look well. Go home and rest. Don't worry about anything here at work. We'll take care of it." In the context of the Leadership Grid, which of the following leadership styles does this example reflect?

A) the sweatshop manager B) the organized-person manager C) the team manager D) the country club manager

29) Which of the following factors from the Big Five model of personality are positively related to successful leadership?

A) high surgency B) low conscientiousness C) high agreeableness D) low adjustment

30) In the context of the Ohio State studies, which of the following terms refers to the extent to which a leader takes charge to plan, organize, direct, and control as an employee performs a task?

A) concern for production B) initiating structure C) stewardship D) consideration

31) Which of the following terms is used for leadership that involves using change, innovation, and entrepreneurship to achieve a vision?

A) servant leadership B) transactional leadership C) transformational leadership D) authentic leadership

32) The assumption that the appropriate leadership style varies from situation to situation is made by

A) the normative leadership theory.

B) the Ghiselli study.

C) the contingency leadership theories.

D) the leadership trait theory.

33) In the context of the contingency theory of leadership, in which of the following instances is situational favorableness the highest?

A) when the leader–member relations are good, the task is unstructured, and the leader's position power is weak B) when the leader–member relations are poor, the task is structured, and the leader's position power is strong C) when the leader–member relations are poor, the task is structured, and the leader's position power is weak D) when the leader–member relations are good, the task is structured, and the leader's position power is strong

34) Which of the following statements is a criticism of Fiedler's contingency leadership theory model?

A) The time and effort it takes to become a leader is usually greater and longer than that with the other models.

B) Some people believe that the overuse of this model leads to conflict within an individual.

C) Some people believe that a leader should change his or her style rather than the situation.

D) The overuse of this model leads to poor relationships, hostility, and resentment toward a leader.

35) "Gentlemen, I will consider all your ideas before I decide the final strategy for this project." In the context of the leadership continuum, which of the following leadership behaviors is reflected in this statement?

A) a leader who presents a tentative decision that is subject to change B) a leader who defines limits and asks the group to make a decision C) a leader who presents a problem, gets suggestions, and makes a decision D) a leader who sells a decision

36) "I am planning to reduce the duration of lunch break by 10 minutes. Does anyone have any objection to this policy?" In the context of leadership continuum, this is an example of a leadership style where

A) the leader sells a decision.

B) the leader presents ideas and invites questions.

C) the leader makes a decision and announces it.

D) the leader presents a tentative decision that is subject to change.

37) "These are the two projects that, I think, need your expertise. Which one would you choose to work on first?" In the context of the leadership continuum, this is an example of a leadership style where

A) the leader lets employees make a decision within set limits.

B) the leader presents ideas and invites questions.

C) the leader makes a decision and announces it.

D) the leader presents a tentative decision that is subject to change.

38) _____, developed by Tannenbaum and Schmidt, identifies seven leadership styles based on the use of boss-centered versus employee-centered leadership.

A) Situational leadership theory B) Normative leadership theory C) The leadership continuum D) The situational supervision model

39) _____, developed by Vroom and Yetton, is a decision-tree model that enables the user to select from five leadership styles the one that is appropriate for the situation.

A) Situational leadership B) Normative leadership theory C) The leadership continuum D) Contingency leadership theory

40) Which of the following statements is true of the normative leadership theory, developed

by Vroom and Yetton?

A) It is used to determine the level of participation in decision making.

B) It is used as a prerequisite for the promotion of candidates to leadership positions.

C) It is used to determine whether a person's leadership style is task- or relationshiporiented.

D) It is used to motivate others to help reach the organizational goals and creating a win–lose situation for the management.

41) Which of the following is a model, developed by Paul Hersey and Kenneth Blanchard, for selecting from four leadership styles the one that matches the employees' maturity level in a given circumstance?

A) the normative leadership theory B) the situational leadership C) the leadership continuum D) the contingency leadership theory

42) According to Hersey and Blanchard, which of the following denotes a telling leadership style?

A) high relationship, low task B) high task, high relationship C) high task, low relationship D) low relationship, low task

43) According to Hersey and Blanchard, which of the following denotes a delegating leadership style?

A) high relationship, low task B) high task, high relationship C) high task, low relationship D) low relationship, low task

44) According to Hersey and Blanchard, which of the following denotes a participating leadership style?

A) high relationship, low task B) high task, high relationship C) high task, low relationship D) low relationship, low task

45) Peter is the programming head of Windward Systems. He clearly defines the departmental objectivesand motivates his subordinates to achieve these objectives. He also provides training for the employees to enhance their skill sets. According to Hersey and Blanchard, which of the following is most likely to be Peter's leadership style?

A) telling B) selling C) participating D) delegating

46)

In situational leadership, a leader uses a telling style when his followers' maturity level is

A) high.

B) moderate to low.

C) low.

D) moderate to high.

47)

In situational leadership, a leader uses a selling style when his followers' maturity level is

A) high.

B) moderate to high.

C) low.

D) moderate to low.

48) In situational leadership, a leader uses a participating style when his followers' maturity level is

A) high.

B) moderate to high.

C) low.

D) moderate to low.

49) In situational leadership, a leader uses a delegating style when his followers' maturity level is

A) high.

B) moderate to high.

C) low.

D) moderate to low.

50) "Sam, make sure you reach the office no later than 8 a.m. tomorrow." In the context of the leadership continuum, which of the following leadership styles does the statement reflect?

A) laissez-faire B) participative C) consultative D) autocratic

51) In the situational supervision model, the _____ supervisory style involves high-directive– low-supportive behavior and is appropriate when interacting with low-capability employees.

A) consultative B) autocratic C) participative D) laissez-faire

52) In the situational supervision model, the _____ style involves high-directive–highsupportive behavior and is appropriate when interacting with moderate-capability employees.

A) autocratic B) consultative C) participative D) laissez-faire

53) In the context of the situational supervision model, a manager who focuses on end results, lets employees do tasks their own way, spends limited time overseeing their performance, and makes decisions in tandem with employees has a(n) _____ supervisory style.

A) autocratic B) consultative C) participative D) laissez-faire

54) In the situational supervision model, the _____ style entails low-directive–low-supportive behavior and is appropriate when interacting with outstanding employees.

A) autocratic B) consultative C) participative D) laissez-faire

55) In the context of the situational supervision model, in which of the following situations would a participative supervisory style be used?

A) when the employees are unable and/or unwilling to do a task without direction B) when the employees have moderate ability and are motivated C) when the employees are high in ability but lack self-confidence or motivation D) when the employees are very capable and highly motivated

56) You've been promoted from being an employee in one department to becoming the supervisor in another. The supervisor you are replacing did not succeed in getting much work done because he let employees make ongoing decisions. Production declined in recent months and that is why you got the job. As a situational manager, which supervisory style should you ideally use?

A) autocratic B) consultative C) participative D) laissez-faire

57) As a supervisor, you want to improve performance in your department. You give specific instructions, telling the employees what the task is and when, where, and how to perform it, as well as oversee performance at all major stages through completion. Although you already have ideas covering broad areas, you are open to suggestions from the employees. However, you have the final say. Which situational supervisory style has been used in this scenario?

A) autocratic B) consultative C) participative D) laissez-faire

58) You are considering delegating a new task to one of your best employees, Pete. However, Pete is hesitant to take on the new assignment. You are confident he can do it on his own. As a situational manager, which would be the ideal supervisory style to use in this scenario?

A) autocratic B) laissez-faire C) consultative D) participative

59)

Which of the following statements is true of identification-based trust?

A) It occurs when there is a fear of reprisal.

B) It is the most fragile since one violation or inconsistency can destroy the human relations.

C) It is based on experience dealing with the other person.

D) It occurs when there is an emotional connection.

60)

Which of the following is a good way to develop loyalty?

A) by maintaining confidences B) by practicing what you preach C) by admitting your mistakes and apologizing D) by being conscientious

61)

Give detailed reasons why leadership skills are important to a specific organization.

62)

According to Edwin Ghiselli, which are the six traits important for effective leadership?

63) There are many traits that are said to be important to leadership success. Which three traits do you believe are the most important? List in order of priority.

64) What are your views on the Leadership Grid? Recall a manager you have now or have had. Which of the five styles does or did the manager use?

65) The two-dimensional leadership styles developed at Ohio State University and the University of Michigan back in the 1940s still serve as the bases for the current contingency leadership theories. Are the task and relationship dimensions outdated?

66) The Leadership Grid states that the one best style to use in all situations is the 9, 9 team manager style, with a high concern for both people and production. Do you agree with this statement?

67) What are your views on contingency leadership theory? Do you agree with Fiedler's recommendation to change the situation rather than the leader's style?

68) What are your views on the leadership continuum? Recall a manager you have now or have had. Which of the seven styles does or did the manager use?

69) What are your views on normative leadership theory? Recall a manager you have now or have had. Which of the five styles does or did the manager use?

70) Fiedler's contingency leadership theory states that managers can't change their leadership style; they are either task- or relationship-oriented. Do you agree with this statement?

71)

Which of the five contingency leadership theories do you prefer?

72)

Which leadership theory or model do you prefer? Why?

73) What are your views on situational supervision? Recall a manager you have now or have had. Which of the four styles does or did the manager use? Would you use the model on the job?

74) Which of the four supervisory styles would you like your boss to use with you? Why would you prefer this particular style?

75)

Describe the type of leader you want to be.

76)

Give some examples of global cultural diversity that you have experienced.

77) Do you agree that integrity is at the center of trust, holding the other four dimensions together? Can competence, consistency, loyalty, and/or openness lead to trusting relationships if there is no integrity?

78) Managerial control is defined as the process of influencing employees to work toward the achievement of objectives. ⊚ ⊚

79)

true false

Effective leadership is about manipulating people to get what one wants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Contingency leadership theory assumes that there are distinctive physical and psychological characteristics accounting for leadership effectiveness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) The Leadership Grid identifies the ideal leadership style as having a high concern for both production and people. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) In the context of the Leadership Grid, a sweatshop manager has low concern for both production and people. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) In the context of the Leadership Grid, a country club manager has a high concern for people and a low concern for production. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) In the context of the Leadership Grid, an organized-person manager has a high concern for both production and people. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Contingency leadership theory, developed by Fiedler, is used to determine if a person's leadership style is task- or relationship-oriented and if the situation matches the leader's style. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Fiedler believed that one's leadership style needs to be changed according to one's situation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) The leadership continuum, developed by Tannenbaum and Schmidt, focuses on who makes the decisions.

⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Situational leadership theory, developed by Vroom and Yetton, is a decision-tree model that enables the user to select from five leadership styles the one that is appropriate for the situation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) In the context of the leadership continuum, a manager uses the autocratic style of leadership when letting employees make decisions themselves during an ongoing project. ⊚ ⊚

90)

true false

High relationship, low task is a characteristic of the participating style of leadership. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) In the context of situational leadership, if the maturity level of the followers is low, the leader uses a delegating style. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) In the context of situational leadership, if the maturity level of the followers is moderate to low, the leader uses a selling style.

⊚ ⊚

true false

93) In the context of situational supervision, a low employee capability means that employees are not motivated to perform a task and require close supervision. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) The participative style involves high-directive–high-supportive behavior and is appropriate when interacting with moderate-capability employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) In the context of situational supervision, an employee's capability depends on the specific task to be performed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Autocratic leadership styles are best suited for leaders in high-context cultures such as Norway and Finland. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Self-disclosure enhances human relations and is what takes the level of trust to the identification level.

⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 10) B 11) C 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) D 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) D 27) C 28) D 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) C

36) B 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) D 44) A 45) B 46) C 47) D 48) B 49) A 50) D 51) B 52) B 53) C 54) D 55) C 56) A 57) B 58) D 59) D 60) A 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE

83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

Explain the motivation process and the three factors affecting performance.

2)

Explain the needs hierarchy theory.

3)

Explain Herzberg's two-factor theory.

4) Describe the characteristics of people with high needs for achievement, power, and affiliation.

5)

Explain expectancy theory.

6) State the reinforcement theory and name the various types and schedules of reinforcements.

7)

List the criteria for setting objectives.

8)

What is management by objectives (MBO)? Mention its three steps.

9)

What is job enrichment? List some of the ways in which managers can enrich jobs.

10)

__________ is the internal process leading to behavior to satisfy needs.

A) Motivation B) Attrition C) Procrastination D) Insolation

11) According to the performance formula, performance = __________ × motivation × resources.

A) capital B) ability C) mobility D) labor

12) Tina and Raphael were interns at Ixita Technologies. Both of them are hardworking and dedicated. However, Tina was hired as a full-time employee after the completion of the internship but Raphael was not. This was possibly because Tina completed a certification program during the internship period but Raphael did not. In the context of the performance formula, which of the following factors most likely helped Tina get a full-time job?

A) ability B) power C) motivation D) recognition

13) "Although Norman is capable of doing very well, he doesn't seem to focus on his work."

Which of the following factors from the performance formula has been indicated as the reason for Norman's low performance?

A) ability B) motivation C) money D) resources

14) "The delay in the procurement and installation of the new server has stalled our progress." Which of the following factors from the performance formula has been indicated as the reason for low performance in this situation?

A) ability B) motivation C) resources D) creativity

15) "Dennis is trained and has all the means to complete the project, yet he seems distracted."

Which of the following factors from the performance formula has been indicated as the reason for his low performance?

A) ability B) money C) resources D) motivation

16) George is a pastry chef with BakeNeat Stores. His ice cream sandwiches are the most sought-after dessert in the town. However, he is unable to make more than 100 ice cream sandwiches per day because the machine he is using is obsolete. Identify the factor from the performance formula affecting George's performance in this scenario.

A) resources B) skill sets C) ability D) motivation

17) "I could get a better performance review if I worked harder, but it is not worth the effort."

Which of the following factors from the performance formula has been indicated as the reason for low performance in this situation?

A) ability B) money C) motivation D) resources

18) "I specialize in marketing and will not be able to work on this project as it is related to software programming." Which of the following factors from the performance formula has been indicated as the reason for low performance in this situation?

A) resources B) money C) motivation D) ability

19) "If I had that machine, I could have been just as fast as Chris is." Which of the following factors from the performance formula has been indicated as the reason for low performance in this situation?

A) resources B) money C) motivation D) ability

20) "We would be able to get more work done if the computer was working." Which of the following factors from the performance formula has been indicated as the reason for low performance in this situation?

A) money B) resources C) motivation D) ability

21) The __________ motivation theories focus on identifying people's needs in order to understand what motivates them.

A) reinforcement B) process C) content D) product

22)

Which of the following is an assumption of Maslow's theory of motivation?

A) People's primary needs are focused on ego, status, self-respect, and recognition for accomplishments.

B) Regardless of the satisfaction of lower-level needs, people will be motivated to satisfy a higher-level need.

C) People's needs are classified into two broad categories, namely physiological and social.

D) People's needs are arranged in a hierarchy, going from physiological to selfactualization.

23)

According to Maslow's theory of motivation, __________ are the highest-level needs.

A) self-actualization needs B) esteem needs C) physiological needs D) safety needs

24) According to Maslow's theory of motivation, __________ needs are the primary or basic needs.

A) self-actualization B) physiological C) esteem D) safety

25) "Our company provides good salary packages and congenial working conditions." Which of the following needs of Maslow's needs hierarchy does this statement reflect?

A) physiological needs B) self-actualization needs C) esteem needs D) safety needs

26) In the __________, Clayton Alderfer reorganizes Maslow's needs hierarchy into three levels of needs: existence (physiological and safety needs), relatedness (social needs), and growth (esteem and self-actualization needs).

A) expectancy theory B) equity theory C) reinforcement theory D) ERG theory

27) Which of the following is the major recommendation of the needs hierarchy and ERG theory?

A) Ego, status, and self-respect of employees must be primarily looked after.

B) Employees' motivational process must be dominated by legal guidelines.

C) Employees' lower-level needs must be met.

D) Employees' higher-level needs have to be satisfied to keep them motivated.

28) Veronica is a sales manager with Puissance Systems. The company management allowed her to attend a workshop on management practices by the University of Oxford to help her develop her skills and reach her full potential. In the context of the needs hierarchy, identify the level of needs best exemplified in this scenario.

A) safety needs B) social needs C) self-actualization needs D) physiological needs

29) According to Frederick Herzberg's two-factor theory, why are hygienes also called extrinsic factors?

A) because they meet employees' needs for esteem/self-actualization, growth, and achievement B) because they meet an organization's needs for its growth and expansion C) because motivation comes from the job itself D) because attempts to motivate come from outside the job itself

30)

According to two-factor theory, which of the following needs is a hygiene factor?

A) self-actualization needs B) growth needs C) esteem needs D) relatedness needs

31)

Which of the following is Herzberg's contention in his two-factor theory?

A) Providing extrinsic factors keeps people satisfied, which favorably affect productivity.

B) Providing hygiene factors keeps people from being dissatisfied, but it does not motivate people.

C) Providing intrinsic factors keeps people from being dissatisfied, but it does not motivate people.

D) Providing hygiene factors keeps people from being dissatisfied, and it motivates them to do more.

32) Isaac, a pizza delivery boy, travels almost five hours every day. The motorbike he drives is unsafe because it is rickety and old. Ideally, Isaac should be given a new motorbike. Under which of the following factors of the two-factor theory can Isaac's need be classified?

A) intrinsic B) hygiene C) motivator D) self-actualization

33) Tim wants to become a manager in two years and is focusing on his work while developing his skills. According to the two-factor theory, which of the following is a motivator for Tim?

A) extrinsic factors B) hygienes C) social needs D) self-actualization needs

34) The __________ of motivation is primarily McClelland's classification of needs as achievement, power, and affiliation.

A) ERG theory B) needs hierarchy theory C) manifest needs theory D) two-factor theory

35) Which of the following theorists believed that needs are based on personality and are developed as people interact with the environment?

A) Maslow B) Alderfer C) Herzberg D) McClelland

36) According to the manifest needs theory, people with a high need for achievement tend to be characterized as

A) being goal-oriented.

B) being feedback-averse.

C) avoiding risks and challenges.

D) seeking close relationships with others.

37) According to the manifest needs theory, people with a high need for power tend to be characterized as

A) seeking affiliation.

B) being confrontative.

C) enjoying social activities.

D) seeking feedback for their performance on tasks.

38) In the context of McClelland's manifest needs theory, which of the following statements is true of people with a high need for affiliation?

A) They seek supervision.

B) They tend to confront others.

C) They tend to have a low need for power.

D) They perform best as leaders rather than as team members.

39) Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to motivate employees with a high need for achievement?

A) assigning a whole task to them rather than just part of a task B) delegating responsibility to them for orienting and training new employees C) giving them lots of praise and recognition D) continually giving them increased responsibility for doing new things

40) Joe, an employee at Projection Inc., seeks close relationships with others. He also enjoys lots of social activities. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to motivate Joe?

A) giving him nonroutine, challenging tasks in which there are clear, attainable objectives B) letting him work as part of a team and giving him lots of praise and recognition C) letting him plan and control his job as much as possible D) trying to include him in decision making, especially when he is affected by the decision

41)

Which of the following statements is true about process motivation theories?

A) They attempt to understand how and why people are motivated.

B) They are based on the comparison of perceived inputs and outputs.

C) They state that behavior can be controlled through the use of positive or negative consequences.

D) They focus on identifying people's needs in order to understand what motivates them.

42) The __________ theory, which is Vroom's formula, states that motivation = expectancy × valence.

A) valence B) expectancy C) motivation D) equity

43) Which of the following is a difference between content motivation theories and process motivation theories?

A) Content motivation theories attempt to understand one's expectancy, whereas process motivation theories attempt to understand one's instrumentality.

B) Content motivation theories attempt to understand people with low n-Pow, whereas process motivation theories attempt to understand people with high n-Pow. C) Content motivation theories attempt to understand what motivates people, whereas process motivation theories attempt to understand how and why people are motivated.

D) Content motivation theories attempt to understand how much people want something, whereas process motivation theories attempt to understand how much motivation is required.

44)

Under Victor Vroom's expectancy theory, motivation depends on

A) the availability of resources.

B) the degree to which people's physiological needs are met.

C) the increased responsibility for doing new things.

D) how much people want something and how likely they are to get it.

45) In Vroom's formula, __________ refers to a person's perception of his or her ability (probability) to accomplish an objective.

A) expectancy B) valence C) instrumentality D) nonchalance

46) __________ refers to the perception of the relationship between performance and the outcome or reward.

A) Expectancy B) Instrumentality C) Valence D) Nonchalance

47)

Which of the following scenarios illustrates a recommendation made by equity theory?

A) Sophie, a supervisor, focuses on what people know or don't know.

B) Debra, a manager, highly rewards even those performances that require smallest inputs.

C) Daniel, a supervisor, keeps his employees' morale high by treating them fairly.

D) Maya, a manager, selects favorite subordinates based on her own perception.

48)

Which of the following statements is true of equity theory?

A) Motivation depends on how much people want something.

B) Job enrichment and job design are motivators (not hygienes).

C) People compare their inputs and outputs with those of relevant others.

D) People should focus more on behavior than needs.

49) Which of the following guidelines is useful for motivating employees using reinforcement?

A) Select a standard reward for all employees.

B) Do things to employees rather than for them.

C) Let employees figure out what is expected of them.

D) Praise employees on a daily basis.

50)

Which of the following is B. F. Skinner's contention in his reinforcement theory?

A) People's behavior is learned through experiences of positive and negative consequences.

B) People seek social equity in the rewards they receive for their performance.

C) Providing hygiene factors keeps people from being dissatisfied, but it does not motivate people.

D) Motivation depends on how much people want something and how likely they are to get it.

51) Which of the following scenarios illustrates the variable ratio schedule alternative to intermittent reinforcement?

A) The employees of Ozone Inc. are given weekly salary paychecks.

B) The employees of Invest Co. are given praises from time to time.

C) The employees of Corpora Inc. are given a bonus after producing a standard rate.

D) The employees of Nesta Corp. are given praise for excellent work.

52)

Which of the following is the first step in giving praise?

A) Encourage repeat performance.

B) Tell the person exactly what was done correctly.

C) Tell the person why the behavior is important.

D) Acknowledge by shaking hands.

53) Which of the following is the correct way of giving praise according to Ken Blanchard and Spencer Johnson's technique of one minute of praise?

A) After pausing for a moment, Robert says, "Sam, I saw your work on the new promo.

Good work." Robert maintains eye contact with Sam, smiles, and gives him a thumbs-up.

B) Robert says, "Sam, everyone's very happy with your work! Keep it up." He then pats Sam on the back.

C) Robert says, "Sam, you did a very good job on the new promotional design. It projects our company in a very good light." He then pauses for a moment and says, "Thanks, Sam. Keep it coming."

D) Robert acknowledges Sam's input and says, "Sam, no one could've done it better.

Thanks." Robert then shakes Sam's hand.

54)

Which of the following scenarios illustrates a correct criterion for setting objectives?

A) Sarah, a manager, believes that groups with assigned objectives generally outperform groups that participate in setting their objectives.

B) Clara, a supervisor, keeps her employees from observing and measuring their progress regularly for them to achieve objectives easily.

C) Marsha, a manager, gives out high incentives for objectives that are too difficult.

D) Dominique, a supervisor, believes that people will not be motivated to work for their accomplishment if they do not believe that the objectives are achievable.

55)

Which of the following objectives is set using the Douglas model?

A) to learn how to swim at the club after work B) to join yoga classes in the evenings C) to conduct a meeting on interpersonal communication D) to complete 100 pages of a novel by the end of the month

56) __________ is the process in which managers and their employees jointly set goals for the employees, periodically evaluate the performance, and reward according to the results.

A) Onboarding B) Program evaluation C) Management by objectives D) Business mapping

57) Victor is a production line manager at MotorPower Industries. He observes that his subordinates are bored because of the monotonous job in the production line. To motivate them, he asks them to redesign faulty machine components. He also ensures that the best design will be awarded, and it will be sent to the research and development department for implementation.

Identify Victor's method of motivating his subordinates.

A) job simplification B) job enlargement C) job design D) job enrichment

58) According to Herzberg, why do job enrichment and job design qualify as motivators and not hygienes?

A) because they create a win–lose situation by meeting the manager's or organization's needs B) because they meet employees' needs for esteem, self-actualization, growth, power, and achievement C) because they tell a person how to get people to do what he or she wants them to do D) because they attempt to motivate employees with factors that come from outside the job

59)

Which of the following is the first step that one should take to motivate oneself?

A) Set objectives.

B) Measure results.

C) Reinforce results.

D) Develop plans.

60) Give an example of how you have gone through the motivation process. Identify the need, motive, behavior, and satisfaction or dissatisfaction.

61) Some people have stated that the performance formula is oversimplified. Do you agree?

Can it really be used to increase performance?

62) In Self-Assessment Exercise 8-1, did you select motivators or hygienes as being important to you? Explain.

63) Explain how your personal n-Ach, n-Pow, and n-Aff affect your motivation, behavior, and performance. How can you use manifest needs theory to motivate employees?

64) Give examples of how all five of your needs in Maslow's hierarchy of needs have been or are being met.

65) Herzberg says that pay is a hygiene factor, whereas others say it is a motivator. What do you say?

66) Give an example of how expectancy theory has affected your motivation. How can you use expectancy theory to motivate employees?

67) Give an example of how equity theory has affected your motivation. How can you use equity theory to motivate employees?

68) What reinforcement type(s) and schedule(s) does/did your present/past supervisor use to motivate you? Explain each. How can you use reinforcement to motivate employees?

69) Some people say that reinforcement theory is a means of manipulating employees to do what the company wants them to do. Do you agree? Is the use of reinforcement theory ethical?

70) Does giving praise really motivate employees, or do they view it as a means of getting them to do more work?

71) Some managers say that what gets measured gets done. Do you agree? What does this have to do with setting objectives?

72)

Describe how to enrich a present or past job of yours.

73) Describe how to simplify a present or past job of yours. Does an elimination, combination, or change in sequence help simplify the job?

74) What are the advantages and disadvantages of a management by objectives (MBO) program?

75)

Which motivation theory is the best? Explain why.

76) What is your motivation theory? What are the major methods, techniques, and so on you plan to use on the job as a manager to increase motivation and performance?

77)

What is job design?

78)

Motivation is the internal process leading to behavior to satisfy needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) The process people go through to meet their needs is as follows: motive → need → satisfactionordissatisfaction → behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) In the context of the performance formula, motivation can be calculated as follows: motivation = ability + performance − resources. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81) The manifest needs theory is Maslow's theory of motivation, which is based on five needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) One of the assumptions of the needs hierarchy theory is that people's needs are arranged in order of importance, going from basic needs to more complex needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) One of the assumptions of the needs hierarchy theory is that people will be motivated to satisfy a higher-level need and a lower-level need simultaneously. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) According to the needs hierarchy theory, safe working conditions and merit-based pay raises help employees achieve self-actualization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Clayton Alderfer reorganized Maslow's needs hierarchy into three levels of needs: existence, relatedness, and growth. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) The major recommendation of needs hierarchy and ERG theory is to meet employees' higher-level needs so that they will not dominate the employees' motivational process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) The manifest needs theory of motivation is primarily McClelland's classification of needs as achievement, power, and affiliation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) The expectancy theory, which is Vroom's formula, states that Performance = Expectancy × Valence.

⊚ ⊚

true false

89) The equity theory is primarily Adams's motivation theory, which is based on the comparison of perceived inputs and outputs. ⊚ ⊚

90)

true false

Extinction is used to provide an undesirable consequence for an undesirable behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) Praise is a motivator (not a hygiene) because it meets employees' needs for esteem/selfactualization, growth, and achievement. ⊚ ⊚

92)

Objectives are general statements, but goals are specific. ⊚ ⊚

93)

true false

true false

A management by objectives (MBO) program is a motivator, not a hygiene. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Job design is the process of eliminating, combining, and/or changing the work sequence to increase performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Countries such as Denmark, Sweden, Norway, the Netherlands, and Finland prefer quality of life (relationships) over quantity of life (possessions). ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) In the context of cross-cultural differences in motivation, risk-averse countries tend to place less importance on job security needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Goal setting is less motivational to cultures in which achievement is not important and quality of life is important, such as Portugal and Chile. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) A 26) D 27) C 28) C 29) D 30) D 31) B 32) B 33) D 34) C 35) D

36) A 37) B 38) C 39) D 40) B 41) A 42) B 43) C 44) D 45) A 46) B 47) C 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) D 52) B 53) C 54) D 55) D 56) C 57) D 58) B 59) A 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE

84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

Describe the different bases of power.

2)

Describe ways of increasing different power bases.

3)

Explain the four steps of reading people.

4)

Describe the five influencing tactics.

5)

Mention appropriate uses of the influencing tactics.

6)

Describe the three primary political behaviors commonly used in organizations.

7)

Explain the common expectations of bosses.

8) Discuss the open-door policy as an effective strategy for developing relations with subordinates.

9)

Explain the steps in handling customer complaints.

10)

How are power, politics, and etiquette perceived and exercised globally?

11) __________ is a person's ability to influence others to do something they would not otherwise do.

A) Politics B) Power C) Distinction D) Acumen

12)

The use of __________ involves threats and/or punishment to influence compliance.

A) connection power B) referent power C) coercive power D) legitimate power

13)

__________ is based on a user's relationship with influential people.

A) Connection power B) Referent power C) Legitimate power D) Coercive power

14) __________ is based on a user's ability to influence others with something of value to them.

A) Connection power B) Reward power C) Referent power D) Coercive power

15) Jeremy went to a pub with some friends on a weeknight. Consequently, he got up late the next day and reported to work with a hangover. His supervisor was angry and told Jeremy that if such behavior repeats, he will have to report it to the management. In this scenario, the supervisor used __________ to influence compliance.

A) coercive power B) connection power C) reward power D) legitimate power

16) "Kenneth has joined a club where he hopes to get acquainted with many top executives from various companies." Which of the following bases of power is Kenneth trying to improve?

A) coercive power B) connection power C) reward power D) legitimate power

17) In the context of the seven bases of power, which of the following is based on a user's personal power?

A) legitimate power B) expert power C) referent power D) reward power

18) Kyle, an employee at Hercules Corporation, has shown great determination and strength under extremely challenging circumstances. His manager decides to send him and his family on a vacation on company expense to keep him going. Which of the following is being used by Kyle's manager as a way to influence Kyle?

A) coercive power B) connection power C) reward power D) legitimate power

19) "Hanna always makes the same mistake despite several warnings." Which of the following power bases would be most appropriate to use in this situation?

A) expert power B) connection power C) referent power D) coercive power

20) "Julia has performed very well this month, and her work is constantly improving." Which of the following power bases would be most appropriate in this situation?

A) reward power B) connection power C) referent power D) coercive power

21) "Mr. Hyde has assigned the Berkshire project to my team." Which of the following power bases has Mr. Hyde used in this situation?

A) coercive power B) connection power C) reward power D) legitimate power

22) Which of the following bases of power would be most appropriate for asking people to do something that is within the scope of their jobs?

A) connection power B) reward power C) legitimate power D) coercive power

23)

Most day-to-day interactions are based on

A) coercive power.

B) connection power.

C) referent power.

D) legitimate power.

24)

A person using __________ relies on personality and the relationship to gain compliance.

A) referent power B) connection power C) legitimate power D) coercive power

25) The use of __________ is particularly appropriate for people with weak, or no, position power.

A) connection power B) referent power C) legitimate power D) coercive power

26)

__________ is based on a user's skill and knowledge.

A) Information power B) Referent power C) Expert power D) Reward power

27) Harry has tremendous personality and charisma. He always stands up for his colleagues and although he does not have much position power, he is able to influence many people because he is so well liked. From the information given in this scenario, we can conclude that Harry has

A) coercive power.

B) connection power.

C) referent power.

D) information power.

28)

Which of the following bases of powers is based on personal power?

A) coercive power B) reward power C) expert power D) connection power

29)

Which of the following bases of powers is based on position power?

A) coercive power B) information power C) expert power D) referent power

30)

__________ is appropriate to use in maintaining discipline when enforcing rules.

A) Reward power B) Connection power C) Referent power D) Coercive power

31) Which of the following ways is most likely to be useful in increasing one's connection power?

A) having a management job that increases one's ability to hire and fire B) expanding one's network of contact with important managers who have power C) getting a management position that allows one to gain and control resources D) providing information and services to other departments

32)

Identify a true statement about legitimate power.

A) It can be increased by developing one's relationship with others and standing up for them.

B) It is particularly appropriate for people with weak, or no, position power.

C) It can be increased by working at gaining people's perception that one does have power.

D) It is appropriate when trying to gain or maintain control over resources.

33) Dennis and Tom are coworkers. Dennis trusts Tom as he has received a lot of help from Tom, both professionally and personally. Whenever Tom asks for help with some work, Dennis willingly obliges. This scenario best illustrates Tom's

A) legitimate power.

B) referent power.

C) reward power.

D) connection power.

34) __________ takes careful preparation and proper presentation of arguments and supporting evidence in an appropriate and compelling way.

A) Projection B) Reciprocation C) Coercion D) Persuasion

35)

As an interpersonal skill, which of the following is part of reading people?

A) putting oneself in the place of the person one wants to persuade B) getting one's own expectations right C) careful preparation and proper presentation of arguments D) focusing on a larger goal when trying to persuade

36)

When using the ingratiation tactic, one should ideally

A) do the other person a favor first and then make a request.

B) make the request if the other person is in a good mood.

C) apologize for taking the other person's time before making the request.

D) start out by making a request rather than waiting for an opportune time.

37)

Which of the following guidelines is most effective when using ingratiation?

A) explaining how potential problems and concerns will be handled B) providing evidence that your objective can be met C) complimenting the person's past related achievements D) explaining the reason your objective needs to be met

38) The __________ includes logical arguments with factual evidence to persuade the person that the behavior will result in meeting the objective.

A) ingratiation tactic B) inspirational appeal tactic C) personal appeal tactic D) rational persuasion tactic

39) Karen, the manager of a production team, has to develop a plan in order to change some aspects of a particular product. The changes have to be adopted by her subordinates and the entire team, so they need to be presented methodically. Which of the following influencing tactics would be most appropriate for Karen to use in this scenario?

A) inspirational appeal tactic B) rational persuasion tactic C) ingratiation tactic D) personal appeal tactic

40) Sam, a supervisor, needs an extra pair of hands to complete an urgent task. George, an employee in the accounts team, has worked as part of his team before and knows the job.

However, George is a moody man and always has his hands full. Which of the following influencing tactics would be most appropriate for Sam to use for persuading George?

A) inspirational appeal tactic B) legitimization tactic C) ingratiation tactic D) rational persuasion tactic

41) Which of the following is a guideline that should be followed when developing rational persuasion?

A) Explain how potential problems and concerns will be handled.

B) Link the appeal to the person's self-concept.

C) State why the person was selected for the task.

D) Acknowledge inconvenience posed by your request.

42) Which of the following is a guideline that should be utilized when developing an inspirational appeal?

A) Explain why your proposal is better than the competing ones.

B) Make your confidence and optimism that the objective can be met contagious.

C) Provide evidence that your objective can be met.

D) Explain how potential problems and concerns will be handled.

43) Dillon's team comprises of a lot of talented individuals, yet it has not performed well.

Dillon wants his team to know that it can be the best. Which of the following influencing tactics would be most appropriate for Dillon to use in this situation?

A) inspirational appeal tactic B) legitimization tactic C) ingratiation tactic D) personal appeal tactic

44) In the context of influencing tactics, which of the following statements is true of the personal appeal tactic?

A) It includes logical arguments with factual evidence to persuade a person.

B) It is especially important when one has weak power.

C) It involves complimenting a person before making a request.

D) It is used when one has the right to make a particular type of request.

45) Which of the following is a guideline that should be followed when using personal appeals?

A) Refer to precedent.

B) Link the request to a clear, appealing vision.

C) Tell the person that you are counting on him or her.

D) Explain how potential problems and concerns will be handled.

46) Which of the following is a guideline that should be followed when using the legitimization tactic?

A) Tell the person that you are counting on him or her.

B) Use nonverbal communication to bring emotions to the verbal message.

C) Link the request to a clear, appealing vision.

D) Refer to written documents.

47) Helen is working on a project that needs technical knowledge of automobiles. Her friend Brad is an automobile engineer but works for another company. In this scenario, Helen should ideally use the __________ for influencing Brad to help her.

A) inspirational appeal tactic B) legitimization tactic C) ingratiation tactic D) personal appeal tactic

48) Neil needs to take a weeklong leave from his job to appear for his college examinations.

Which of the following influencing tactics should he ideally use to make the leave request?

A) inspirational appeal tactic B) legitimization tactic C) ingratiation tactic D) personal appeal tactic

49) __________ is a tactic where one tells the individuals being influenced that they have certain characteristics to motivate them to behave in a desired manner.

A) Favoring B) Coercing C) Reciprocating D) Altercasting

50) Which of the following guidelines should one follow when using the rational persuasion tactic to influence people?

A) Ask for a favor from others.

B) Explain why an objective needs to be achieved.

C) Develop emotions and enthusiasm toward the objective.

D) Tell the person that everyone is relying on him or her.

51)

While using inspirational appeals as a tactic to influence an individual, one should

A) use the friendship with the other individual to one's advantage.

B) check for organizational documentation and precedents to support one's requests.

C) link the request to the individual's self-concept.

D) explain how their proposal is better for meeting the objective.

52) __________ involves creating obligations and debts, developing alliances, and using them to accomplish objectives.

A) Reciprocity B) Coercion C) Etiquette D) Ingratiation

53) __________ is the process of developing relationship alliances with key people for the purpose of politicking.

A) Reciprocity B) Networking C) Coercion D) Ingratiation

54) Amanda had promised her boss that her team would complete the high-priority project before the deadline. However, Amanda's team was unable to meet the target, which made her boss look bad in front of the client. Which of the following should Amanda do to reestablish a good working relationship with her boss?

A) She should explain how hard she had worked on the project.

B) She should try to cover up her mistakes.

C) She should admit her shortcomings and apologize.

D) She should try to slyly shift the blame on another team member.

55)

Which of the following is the first step in handling customer complaints?

A) asking the customer to recommend a solution and agreeing on a solution B) preventing future complaints and following up C) implementing a solution quickly D) paraphrasing the complaint and apologizing

56)

Which of the following is a characteristic of high power-distance cultures?

A) People with more power behave differently from people with less power.

B) It is unacceptable to use strong power and politics.

C) Employees are empowered and power is shared with all employees.

D) There is hardly any emphasis on social class distinction and hierarchical rank.

57) Give two examples, preferably from an organization that you work for or have worked with, of people using power. Identify the power base and describe the behavior and how it affected human relations and performance.

58) Of the many suggestions for increasing your power bases, which two are your highest priority for using on the job? Explain.

59) Give an example of when you or someone else in an organization, for which you work for or have worked with, used one of the five influencing tactics to achieve an objective. Be sure to state the tactic used.

60) Give an example of reciprocity, preferably from an organization for which you work for or have worked with. Explain the trade-off.

61) Of the 10 political behaviors in Self-Assessment Exercise 8-2, which two need the most effort on your part? Which two need the least? Explain your answers.

62) Of the five common expectations of bosses, which is your strongest area and your weakest area? Explain your answers.

63) Assume you are hired for or promoted to a management position. Will you develop a relationship with your employees based on friendship? Describe the relationship you plan to develop.

64)

Does/did your present/past boss use the open-door policy? Explain.

65) Give an example, preferably from an organization for which you work for or have worked with, of a situation in which you had good human relations with your peers. Describe how you cooperated with, competed with, and/or criticized your peers.

66) Give an example, preferably from an organization you work for or have worked with, of a situation in which you had good human relations with members of other departments. Describe how your relations affected your performance, the other departments, and the organization as a whole.

67)

Some people say that power and politics can't be used ethically. Do you agree?

68) Do you agree with the saying, "It's not what you know, it's who you know that is important"? Is it ethical to use connection power to get jobs and other things?

69) When someone tries to influence you, which influencing tactic works best and why? Why doesn't this same tactic work best for everyone?

70) How would you assess your political skill at using networking, reciprocity, and coalition building to help you get what you want? What can you do to improve?

71) Describe your relationship with your current or past boss. Did you meet the five common expectations of bosses? How can you improve your relationship with your current and/or future boss?

72) Describe your relationship with your current peers and members from other departments.

How do you cooperate with them, compete with them, and criticize them? How can you improve your relationship with your current peers and members of other departments?

73) do.

Power is a person's ability to influence others to do something they would not otherwise

⊚ ⊚

true false

74) The use of coercive power by a manager to enforce rules is inappropriate even if an employee refuses to do as requested. ⊚ ⊚

75)

true false

One does not have to take power away from others to increase one's power base. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Referent power is based on a user's ability to influence others with something of value to them. ⊚ ⊚

77)

true false

It is advisable to maximize the use of coercive power because it increases productivity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) A person using connection power relies on personality and the relationship to gain compliance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) Expert power is essential to people who have to work with people from other departments and organizations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Staying away from routine tasks in favor of more complex, hard-to-evaluate tasks is a way of increasing expert power. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) With the personal appeal tactic of influencing, you are friendly and give praise to get a person in a good mood before making your request. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) An inspirational appeal tactic generally works well with people whose learning style is more influenced by logical thinking than by feelings. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) It is necessary to develop an individual's emotions and enthusiasm when using inspirational appeals as an influencing tactic.

⊚ ⊚

true false

84) Reciprocity is primarily used to achieve a specific objective, whereas coalitions are developed for achieving ongoing objectives. ⊚ ⊚

85)

The relationship between a manager and an employee cannot be one of real friendship. ⊚ ⊚

86)

true false

true false

The open-door policy is the practice of managers being available to employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Horizontal politics are your relations with your managers and with other senior members of the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Although the same human relations skills apply to both employees and customers, dealing with customers is different from dealing with employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) In low power-distance cultures, people are less comfortable with differences in power and there is less emphasis on social class distinction and hierarchical rank. ⊚ ⊚

90)

true false

Individualistic cultures are low power-distance cultures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) B 17) C 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) C 27) C 28) C 29) A 30) D 31) C 32) C 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) B

37) C 38) D 39) B 40) C 41) A 42) B 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) D 48) B 49) D 50) B 51) C 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) A 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE

83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

What is networking? List some reasons for developing networking skills.

2)

Explain the networking process.

3)

What is a one-minute self-sell? How is it created?

4)

List the steps included in the networking interview process.

5)

How can social media help in the networking process?

6)

What is negotiating? List the steps of the negotiating process.

7)

List and explain the steps of the negotiating process.

8)

Describe negotiating planning.

9)

Discuss "agreement or no agreement" in the negotiating process.

10)

Describe the steps involved in bargaining.

11) __________ is the ongoing process of building interconnected relationships for the purpose of politicking and socializing.

A) Networking B) Amalgamation C) Conditioning D) Campaigning

12)

__________ are considered one's secondary connections.

A) Professional friends B) Coworkers C) Relatives D) Friends of friends

13)

Which of the following is a reason to develop networking skills?

A) to stagnate your career path B) to stay current in your field C) to develop a legal power base D) to enhance the use of technology

14)

Which of the following is the first step of the networking process?

A) developing a network address book B) taking an appointment and fixing up a networking interview C) performing a self-assessment and setting objectives D) creating a one-minute self-sell

15) Which of the following steps of the networking process comes immediately after a selfassessment and objective setting?

A) conducting networking interviews B) developing a network C) maintaining a network D) creating a one-minute self-sell

16)

Which of the following is a task to be performed in the networking process?

A) performing a self-assessment and setting objectives B) creating a four-minute barrier C) developing a time log D) dttending job interviews

17)

Which of the following is a reason to develop networking skills?

A) to maintain mobility B) to stagnate your career path C) to develop a legal power base D) to enhance the use of technology

18)

Which of the following is the final step of the networking process?

A) performing a self-assessment B) creating a one-minute self-sell C) maintaining the network D) setting objectives

19) Wilma, an employee at Neptune Comapny, is hardworking and talented. She keeps herself informed about the latest developments in her field and performs well in her job. She also ensures that her work is noticed by the higher management and asks her manager to mentor her.

Which of the following is the most likely objective for Wilma to develop her networking skills?

A) to get a job B) to negotiate with other people C) to advance within the organization D) to perform a self-assessment and set objectives

20) Danny has recently graduated with a degree in advertising and is looking for a job. He has posted his resume on the Internet. Which of the following should Danny do first in order to network effectively?

A) develop a network B) create a one-minute self-sell C) conduct networking interviews D) perform a self-assessment and set objectives

21) Tim recently graduated with a major in marketing. He interviewed successfully for his friend's father's company for a position that had not been advertised yet. This scenario shows that Tim used networking skills to

A) get a job.

B) perform better at his job.

C) maintain mobility in his career.

D) stay current in his field of work.

22) In the context of networking, identify a true statement about performing a selfassessment.

A) It helps in effectively communicating with one's colleagues.

B) It gives a person insight into his or her transferable skills.

C) It aids in identifying potential useful contacts for the future.

D) It allows one to negotiate his or her salary during job interviews.

23) Gregor is working on increasing his network to get a job after graduating. He has finished evaluating himself and has identified his skills and areas of expertise. He has also set some networking objectives for himself. What should be Gregor's next step in the networking process?

A) He should send out his resume to recruiters.

B) He should contact everyone within his current network.

C) He should conduct networking interviews.

D) He should create a one-minute self-sell.

24)

Which of the following is a characteristic of the one-minute self-sell?

A) It stimulates conversation by asking one's network for help in the area of support.

B) It aids in clarifying one's skills, competencies, and knowledge.

C) It is an appropriate way of asking personal help from one's secondary contacts.

D) It contains detailed information about one's achievements and education.

25)

Which of the following should be included in the one-minute self-sell?

A) take-it-or-leave-it approach B) bargaining options and tradeoffs C) an opening objective offer that is higher than you expect D) the target career you are seeking

26) The __________ is an opening statement used in networking that quickly summarizes your history and career plan and asks a question.

A) cover letter B) resume C) one-minute self-sell D) primacy effect

27)

With which of the following should a one-minute self-sell start?

A) summary of educational qualifications B) the target industry one prefers C) the target career one is seeking D) highlights of one's career to date

28) Paul is developing his one-minute self-sell. Which of the following should he use at the beginning of it?

A) the target career he is seeking B) the industry he prefers C) the highlights of his career to date D) the names of the organizations he is targeting

29)

Which of the following is the first step of the networking interview process?

A) establishing rapport—praising and reading a person B) asking prepared questions C) delivering the one-minute self-sell D) enquiring about the organization in which a person works

30)

Which of the following is the final step of the networking interview process?

A) following up with a thank-you note and status report B) asking your contacts how you might help them C) getting additional contacts for your network D) asking prepared questions

31) Homer is studying architecture and wants to intern at the city's best architectural firm. He meets his uncle Greg, who knows someone in the esteemed firm. Which of the following should Homer do first in the networking interview process?

A) ask his contacts how he might help them B) deliver his one-minute self-sell C) ask prepared questions D) establish rapport

32) Peter is in a meeting with a person who has years of experience in the field Peter is interested to work in. Which of the following should Peter do immediately after the first step of establishing rapport?

A) deliver the one-minute self-sell B) linger beyond the time offered C) praise the person D) ask for additional contacts

33) Which of the following should be done during the establishing rapport step of the networking interview process?

A) deliver the one-minute self-sell B) clearly state the purpose of the meeting C) keep the contact informed about one's job search D) ask for additional contacts

34)

Which of the following is an example of an expanded contact?

A) a member of an online networking group B) a colleague from a previous job C) one's current manager D) one's neighbor

35)

A __________ is a short-term network used to meet an objective.

A) conflict B) contract C) coalition D) confederation

36) __________ is a process in which two or more parties have something the other wants and attempt to come to an exchange agreement.

A) Servicing B) Negotiating C) Conditioning D) Coalition building

37)

Which of the following is the first step in the negotiating process?

A) bargaining B) planning C) creating an agreement D) setting objectives

38)

Which of the following is the final step in the negotiating process?

A) bargaining B) researching C) postponement D) agreement

39) Which of the following is involved in the negotiating planning step in the negotiating process?

A) letting the other party make the first offer B) focusing on obstacles, not the person C) creating urgency by postponing negotiations D) anticipating questions and preparing answers

40) Which of the following is a true statement about developing options and trade-offs during negotiating planning?

A) One should let other parties know what one has to lose.

B) If one has multiple sellers, one is in a weaker power position to get one's target price.

C) One should avoid quoting other offers and ask if the other party can beat them.

D) One should avoid asking for something in return.

41)

Which of the following should one incorporate in planning the negotiating process?

A) let the other party make the first offer B) postpone negotiations C) develop options and trade-offs D) focus on obstacles, not the person

42) Jonathan wants to buy a new motorbike and visits a dealer. After negotiating with the dealer for a while, Jonathan tells the dealer that he will buy the bike only if he gets free insurance for it. From this scenario, it can be said that Jonathan has

A) planned his best alternative to a negotiated agreement.

B) set an opening objective offer.

C) set a target objective.

D) set a specific limit objective.

43) Tim, a brilliant scientist, has received a job offer from a pharmaceutical company. Before accepting the offer, he decides to negotiate with the management regarding the benefits and compensation package. Which of the following should Tim do in order to meet his objective?

A) perform a self-assessment B) use coalitions as an influencing tactic C) create a one-minute self-sell D) develop options and trade-offs

44) "My mind is made up! If they do not offer me theft insurance, I will not buy the smartphone." Which of the following parts of negotiating planning is this an example of?

A) the best alternative to a negotiated agreement B) a specific limit objective C) a target objective D) an opening objective offer

45) "I can pay up to $5,000 for the bike, but not more than that." Which of the following parts of negotiating planning is this an example of?

A) the best alternative to a negotiated agreement B) a specific limit objective C) a target objective D) an opening objective offer

46) "If I do not get a good deal on the mortgage, I'll wait for a few months till I have more money." Which of the following parts of negotiating planning is this an example of?

A) the best alternative to a negotiated agreement B) a target objective C) a specific limit objective D) an opening objective offer

47) "I want to sell my bike for $3,000 but will initially offer it for $4,000." Which of the following aspects of negotiating planning is this an example of?

A) the best alternative to a negotiated agreement B) a specific limit objective C) a target objective D) an opening objective offer

48) "If he doesn't agree on the rent I can afford, I'll wait till the end of the month so that Jenny can move in with me." Which of the following parts of negotiating planning is this an example of?

A) the best alternative to a negotiated agreement B) a specific limit objective C) a target objective D) an opening objective offer

49)

Which of the following is the last step in the bargaining process?

A) asking for something in return for giving what the other party wants B) listening to the other party and asking questions to understand what it wants C) developing rapport with the other party D) letting the other party make the first offer

50)

Which of the following is involved in the bargaining step of the negotiating process?

A) developing options and trade-offs B) trying to quickly close a deal C) letting the other party make the first offer D) creating urgency by postponing negotiations

51) Wayne is a manager at Orange Incorporated He has a meeting with a few suppliers from Australia. Which of the following steps of bargaining should Wayne take immediately after developing a rapport with them?

A) listen and ask questions to focus on meeting the other party's need B) let the other party make the first offer C) ask for something in return D) develop options and trade-offs

52)

Which of the following does bargaining include?

A) setting a specific limit objective B) anticipating questions and objections and preparing answers C) developing options and trade-offs D) listening and asking questions to focus on meeting the other party's need

53)

Which of the following is the first step of bargaining?

A) letting the other party make the first offer B) developing rapport and focusing on obstacles, not on the person C) listening and asking questions to focus on meeting the other party's needs D) asking for something in return

54) Rita works as a manager at Pinnacle Corporation She has a meeting with a few cement suppliers. When bargaining for the best price of the product with the suppliers, which of the following steps should Rita take?

A) She should try to get the suppliers to act defensive.

B) She should open with some small talk.

C) She should get right down to business.

D) She should use negative statements if the suppliers are unfair.

55) Martha is bargaining for compensation and benefits for the new job. Which of the following should she avoid?

A) having trade-offs ready B) letting the other party make the first offer C) asking for something in return D) making the first offer

56) Dilton has a job offer from a mobile phone company. He is stalling the decision as he wants to weigh his career options. Which of the following steps should the hiring agent of the mobile phone company take to get Dilton to accept the offer?

A) ask for something in return B) opt for a best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA) C) create urgency D) set a specific limit

57) Sophia is a manager at Fabrics Incorporated She needs to meet a few suppliers and negotiate with them for a shorter delivery time. When bargaining with the suppliers, Rita should avoid

A) focusing on obstacles instead of the suppliers.

B) developing a buy-in relationship.

C) being too quick to give in.

D) bringing up the best alternative to a negotiated agreement.

58)

Which of the following should one avoid when bargaining?

A) desperation and being intimidated B) being the first to make a concession C) coming back with a larger counter trade-off D) staying within one's limit objective

59) Henry, a manager at Traders Incorporated, is confident about getting an Austrian supplier for the company. He is talking with the Austrian representatives over lunch. Which of the following should Henry avoid after the deal is made?

A) changing the subject to a personal one B) selling the deal C) leaving, if the other person does not care much about relationships D) sticking around, if the other person wants to work on the relationship

60) Which of the following statements is true about the global application of networking and negotiating?

A) Good negotiators often keep negotiations short and quick with Americans.

B) The Chinese prefer short negotiations because they like to close deals quickly.

C) The French are concerned about being liked by the other parties.

D) The Americans are known globally to be impatient and eager for quick agreement.

61)

Identify a correct statement about the global application of networking and negotiating.

A) Concessions are made and reciprocated by Russians.

B) Giving gifts is expected in China.

C) In the Swiss culture, negotiators rely more on nonverbal communications, so you have to read between the lines.

D) Arabs view concessions as a sign of weakness.

62) Which of the following do Americans tend to use to counter arguments or obstacles to closing a deal?

A) They tend to use the inspirational tactic, using emotional appeal with feelings.

B) They tend to use the rational persuasion tactic, using logical arguments with facts and figures.

C) They assert their ideas with power, more than with influencing tactics.

D) They drag out negotiations.

63) Explain how networking and/or negotiating have affected behavior, human relations, and performance where you work or have worked.

64)

Explain how you have used or will use networking to help your career.

65)

Write a networking objective.

66) This chapter lists six networking objectives. For which of these reasons (or for what other reasons) do you have to network?

67) You have heard the expression, "It's not what you know, it's who you know, that's important." Do you agree? If it is true, is it fair?

68) The first step of the networking process is to perform a self-assessment. What are your three most important accomplishments?

69) Write a one-minute self-sell to achieve your networking objective from Work Application 9.3.

70)

Give a job example of how a coalition was used to achieve an objective.

71) What are your strongest and weakest areas of networking? How will you improve your networking skills? Include two or three of the most important tips you learned that you will use.

72)

College students are poor at negotiating. Do you agree with this statement?

73) Write negotiating objectives that include limit, target, and opening objectives and a best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA).

74) What are your strongest and weakest areas of negotiating? How will you improve your negotiating skills? Include two or three of the most important tips you learned that you will use.

75) The next time you negotiate, will you actually set three—limit, target, and opening— objectives? Why or why not?

76)

In bargaining, does it really matter who makes the first offer?

77) Think of a past, present, or future negotiation situation. Describe the situation and state what you can ask for in return if you don't get your target.

78) Can the influencing process really be conducted ethically and in a way that meets the goal of human relations, or is it just manipulation?

79)

Both networking and negotiating are intrapersonal skills.

⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Among all the job search methods, networking leads to the fewest number of job opportunities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Sending out resumes and posting them on the Web are not how most people are getting jobs today. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) Networking is a learned skill that just about everyone struggles with at some time or another. ⊚ ⊚

83)

The networking process includes creating a one-minute self-sell. ⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

true false

Creating a one-minute self-sell is the first step of the networking process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) The task of conducting networking interviews can help clarify your skills, competencies, and knowledge. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) The task of self-assessment can give a person insight into his or her transferable skills and the criteria that are important to that person in a new job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) The last step in the networking process involves maintaining the network one has already built. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) One should start a one-minute self-sell by stating the target career one is seeking, the industry one prefers, and a specific function or role. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) The one-minute self-sell should start with a question to encourage two-way communication. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90)

To expand your network list, you should include people you do not know. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

One's vendors, suppliers, managers, and mentors are secondary connections. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) An informational interview is a phone call or, preferably, a face-to-face meeting or a virtual meeting that you initiate to meet objectives. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) In a networking interview, even if the other person has already heard one's one-minute self-sell, one should say it again. ⊚ ⊚

94)

A coalition is a short-term network used to meet an objective. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

true false

A postponement is part of the negotiating process.

⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Networking is a process in which two or more parties have something the other wants and attempt to come to an exchange agreement. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

Negotiating planning includes creating a one-minute self-sell. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) When one is involved with a complex deal, with trade-offs, one should be willing to be the first to make a concession. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) In the context of cultural differences in networking and negotiating, the French are known for disliking conflict and tend to negotiate agreements quickly. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Leadership is a person's ability to influence others to do something they would not otherwise do. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 11) A 12) D 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) A 25) D 26) C 27) D 28) C 29) A 30) A 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) C 36) B

37) B 38) D 39) D 40) A 41) C 42) D 43) D 44) B 45) B 46) A 47) D 48) A 49) A 50) C 51) B 52) D 53) B 54) B 55) D 56) C 57) C 58) A 59) B 60) D 61) B 62) B 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE

83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

What is teamwork? Describe the different types of teams.

2)

How does the status of team members affect team performance?

3)

Describe the different types of group roles.

4)

What supervisory styles can be used with groups based on their stages of development?

5)

Explain the areas in which meeting planning is needed.

6)

Explain the parts of a meeting.

7)

Describe six problem members and mention a way to handle each of them.

8)

Describe the three decision-making styles.

9)

How does the level of teamwork differ across cultures?

10) __________ develop spontaneously when members get together voluntarily because of similar interests.

A) Formal groups B) Functional teams C) Task teams D) Informal groups

11)

__________ are formal, ongoing teams that consist of managers and their employees.

A) Functional teams B) Informal groups C) Task teams D) Temporary groups

12) A(n) __________ is a formal, temporary team that disbands when its purpose is accomplished.

A) standing committee B) ad hoc committee C) functional team D) self-directed team

13)

A(n) __________ is a formal, ongoing team that often has rotating members.

A) functional team B) ad hoc committee C) standing committee D) voluntary team

14) __________ allows team members of any size to edit a document at the same time, or in sequence.

A) Vaporware B) Teamware C) C-ware D) Groupware

15)

__________ is a function of team structure + team dynamics + team development stage.

A) Team performance B) Team potential C) Team design D) Team valuation

16) According to the team performance model, a team's performance depends on three things: the team's __________, its dynamics, and stage of development.

A) location B) structure C) decision-making skills D) leadership

17)

__________ refers to the patterns of interactions that emerge as groups develop.

A) Team performance B) Team dynamics C) Team orientation D) Team standardization

18)

__________ are a group's shared expectations of its members' behavior.

A) Roles B) Norms C) Codes D) Titles

19) Group __________ is the attractiveness and closeness group members have for one another and for the group.

A) structure B) adjacency C) inducement D) cohesiveness

20) "Our group members do not share any racial jokes or talk negatively about any race."

Which of the following components of group dynamics does this statement represent?

A) objectives B) team norms C) group roles D) team size

21) "Our group members get along very well. Sometimes, we get together on weekends, too."

Which of the following components of group dynamics does this statement represent?

A) objectives B) status within the team C) group cohesiveness D) team norms

22) "Looking at the work pressure we are subjected to, I think we need to get a few extra pairs of hands." Which of the following components of group dynamics does this statement represent?

A) status within the team B) group cohesiveness C) team norms D) team size

23) Status __________ is the acceptance and satisfaction members receive from their group status.

A) cohesiveness B) compliance C) consistency D) congruence

24) _____ are shared expectations of how group members will fulfill the requirements of their position.

A) Roles B) Norms C) Codes D) Titles

25) A group's __________ are the things group members do and say that directly aid in the accomplishment of its objectives.

A) maintenance roles B) task roles C) self-interest roles D) cultural roles

26)

Which of the following roles can be classified as a group's task roles?

A) consensus seekers B) organizers C) involvers D) harmonizers

27)

Which of the following roles can be classified as a group's maintenance roles?

A) planners B) organizers C) compromisers D) objective clarifiers

28)

Which of the following roles can be classified as a group's self-interest roles?

A) organizers B) recognition seekers C) harmonizers D) objective clarifiers

29) "Take this thing apart. It is not what the customer asked for." Which of the following group roles does this statement represent?

A) task roles B) self-interest roles C) maintenance roles D) harmonizing roles

30) "The objective is to cut costs by 10 percent." Which of the following roles does this statement represent?

A) compromising roles B) maintenance roles C) self-interest roles D) task roles

31) A group's __________ are the things group members do and say to develop and sustain group dynamics.

A) withdrawal roles B) task roles C) self-interest roles D) maintenance roles

32) A group's __________ are the things group members do and say to meet their own needs or objectives at the expense of the team.

A) self-interest roles B) task roles C) leading roles D) maintenance roles

33) "We can achieve this month's target if we change our approach. Let's not give up so quickly." Which of the following maintenance roles does this statement represent?

A) objective classifiers B) encouragers of others C) ball hogs D) recognition seekers

34) "I did most of the work in completing this report. I think I deserve more credit here."

Which of the following self-interest roles does this statement represent?

A) objective clarifiers B) consensus seekers C) recognition seekers D) gatekeepers of norms

35)

Identify a true statement about the role of team size in team dynamics.

A) Small groups tend to reduce individual participation.

B) Individual performance deteriorates when teams are small.

C) The ideal group should have five to nine members.

D) More ideas are generated in smaller groups.

36) Which of the following stages of group development is characterized by low development level, high commitment, and low competence?

A) dissatisfaction B) orientation C) resolution D) production

37) In the __________ stage of team development, team members tend to become dissatisfied with their group.

A) performing B) norming C) storming D) resolution

38) You have taken over as the new manager of a department. The employees are interested in doing their work well and have potential. However, because they have not worked together, they do not have the competence to achieve the given tasks. From this information, we can say that the group is in the __________ stage of team development.

A) orientation B) dissatisfaction C) resolution D) production

39) "My team members are having some problems getting along. They are highly committed and are putting in a lot of effort but still do not have the competence to achieve the allotted tasks." In the context of the group development stages (GDSs), we can say that the team is in the __________ stage of team development.

A) GDS1 B) GDS2 C) GDS3 D) GDS4

40) In the __________ stage of team development, team members experience feelings about leaving the group.

A) forming B) storming C) adjourning D) performing

41)

Identify an accurate statement about the performing stage of team development.

A) It is a stage where team members maintain positive group structure and dynamics.

B) It is characterized by low competence.

C) It is the first stage of team development.

D) It is a stage where team members have anxiety over how they will fit in and what will be required of them.

42) The __________ stage of team development is characterized by outstanding development level, high commitment, and high competence.

A) forming B) performing C) norming D) storming

43) Joseph's team members are having problems getting along. They doubt the productivity of the team. Although they have some competence, they aren't too happy with the team and like to complain. In the context of the group development stages (GDSs), we can say that the team is in the __________ stage of team development.

A) GDS1 B) GDS2 C) GDS3 D) GDS4

44) "The members of my team seem more at ease with one another now. Some of them are dedicated to the tasks given to them, and a group structure with acceptable norms and cohesiveness is developing." In the context of the group development stages (GDSs), we can say that the team is in the __________ stage of team development.

A) GDS1 B) GDS2 C) GDS3 D) GDS4

45) Which of the following group development stages (GDSs) is characterized by high commitment and low competence?

A) GDS1 B) GDS2 C) GDS3 D) GDS4

46) Which of the following supervisory styles is used during the first stage of group development?

A) participative B) consultative C) autocratic D) laissez-faire

47) The group development stage 2, dissatisfaction—moderate development (lower commitment/some competence), uses the __________ supervisory style.

A) participative B) laissez-faire C) autocratic D) consultative

48) Which of the following supervisory styles is used during the resolution stage of group development?

A) participative B) laissez-faire C) autocratic D) consultative

49) Which of the following stages of group development uses the laissez-faire supervisory style?

A) dissatisfaction B) production C) resolution D) orientation

50) A supervisor allows his team members to set their own roles and tasks. He has confidence in his team members because they have a high level of commitment toward their job and are highly competent. Which of the following statements is true about this scenario?

A) The supervisor is using a consultative style of supervision.

B) The team members are in the performing stage of team development.

C) The supervisor is using an autocratic style of supervision.

D) The team members are in the storming stage of team development.

51) You have taken over as the new manager of a department. The employees are interested in doing their work well and have potential. However, they do not have the competence to achieve the allotted tasks because they have not worked together before. Which of the following supervisory styles would be most appropriate in this stage of group development?

A) participative B) autocratic C) laissez-faire D) consultative

52) Your department is one of the top performers in the company. The members work as a team even in the absence of your supervision. However, lately, you have realized that there is a conflict within the department. Nevertheless, performance has not dropped due to the conflict.

From this information, we can say that the department is in the __________ stage of group development.

A) orientation B) dissatisfaction C) resolution D) production

53) Maria is the manager of one of the top performing teams in her company. The team members are highly competent and do not require much direction. However, lately, she has noticed that certain team members are losing interest in their work. Therefore, she is focusing on maintaining the interest of the team members in their tasks. Which of the following supervisory styles is Maria using?

A) laissez-faire B) autocratic C) consultative D) participative

54) "This problem has such a simple solution. Why are we spending so much time discussing this? I could have been finishing my work instead of wasting my time here," thought Lamar while attending a project meeting. Which type of problem member is Lamar?,

A) the bored member B) the social loafer C) the multitasker D) the arguer

55) During a problem-solving discussion, Todd asked, "Why do we keep discussing these problems when they never go away? Don't we have a holiday on Friday?" Which of the following types of problem members does Todd belong to?

A) the social loafer B) the wanderer C) the arguer D) the talker

56) Rachel is the last person to contribute anything during team meetings. She tends to shy away from conversations. Which of the following types of problem members does Rachel most likely belong to?

A) the social loafer B) the wanderer C) the silent member D) the bored member

57) The __________ problem member doesn't want to take individual responsibility and do a fair share of the work.

A) bored member B) social loafer C) wanderer D) silent member

58)

__________ is the process of taking corrective action in order to meet objectives.

A) Decision making B) Retribution C) Problem solving D) Allowance

59) Which of the following statements is true about the Delphi technique used for generating creative alternatives?

A) It is used for technological forecasts.

B) It involves face-to-face interaction.

C) It is a variation of synectics.

D) It requires people to generate novel ideas through role-playing and simulation exercises.

60) The leader of a labor union needs to put together a charter of demands for the upcoming union-management negotiations through a structured voting method. Which of the following techniques should the leader use to generate alternative solutions?

A) nominal grouping B) the Delphi technique C) consensus D) synectics

61) __________ is a cooperative attempt to develop a solution acceptable to all employees, rather than a competitive battle in which a solution is forced on some members of the group.

A) A consensus B) The Delphi technique C) A nominal grouping D) Synectics

62) For Work Applications 10-1 through 10-8, recall a specific group to which you belong or have belonged. If you will be doing Skill-Building Exercise 10-1, do not use your class group for this specific group now. Does the group agree on, and are members committed to, clear objectives? Explain your answer.

63)

How large is the group? Is the size appropriate? Explain.

64) List at least three of the team's norms. Identify them as positive or negative. How does the team enforce these norms?

65) Is the group cohesive? How does the level of cohesiveness affect the group's performance? Explain your answers.

66) List each team member in order by status in the team, including yourself. What are some of the characteristics that lead to high or low status on the team?

67) Using your list from Work Application 10-5, identify the major roles played by each group member, including yourself.

68) Identify the group's stage of development and the leader's situational supervisory style.

Does the leader use the appropriate style?

69)

What can be done to improve a group's dynamics? Explain.

70) Recall a specific meeting you attended. Did the group leader plan for the meeting by stating meeting objectives, identifying participants and their assignments, making an agenda, and stating the date, time, and place of the meeting? Did the leader provide a written meeting plan to the members prior to the meeting? Explain your answers and state what you would do differently if you were the leader.

71) Identify group problem members at a meeting you attended. Was the leader effective in handling them? What would you have done to make them more productive members? Explain in detail.

72) Many television (TV) reality shows have an element of teamwork. However, they often have team members doing negative things to each other to get ahead. Do you believe that these negative examples of poor teamwork influence people's behavior in real-life groups? Can you think of any TV shows that give positive examples of good teamwork?

73) It has been said that the team performance model is too simplistic; group performance is much more complex. Do you agree with this statement? How can the model be used?

74) What is the difference between a rule and a norm? Do norms help or hurt groups? Is it ethical to make group members comply with group norms? Can groups stop having norms?

75) It has been said that success breeds cohesiveness, which in turn leads to more success.

What does this mean? How is it supposed to work? Do you agree with the statement?

76) Select a work or sports team to which you belong/have belonged. Which team member (not the manager or coach) had the highest level of status? Identify the factors that contributed to that person's high status.

77) The younger generations have been called the "me generation" because they care only about themselves. Do you agree with this statement? How does putting oneself as number one affect group performance? Which group role is illustrated through the "me generation" statement?

78) Team development stages state that most people coming to a new group are enthusiastic, but that with time they lose some of their morale. What types of things happen in most groups to cause this decline in morale? Be sure to focus on the components of team structure and team dynamics.

79) Many people complain about meetings. Recall a meeting that you have attended. Do you have any complaints about it? State whether or not the meeting had each of the four parts of a written meeting plan (Exhibit 11.5) and whether the meeting included (1) reviewing objectives, (2) covering agenda items, and (3) summarizing and reviewing assignments. How could the meeting have been improved?

80)

Teamwork leads to an increase in productivity due to synergy. ⊚ ⊚

81)

Being a member of a task group is in addition to one's job in a functional group. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

true false

An ad hoc committee is a formal, ongoing team that often has rotating members. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) A standing committee is a formal, temporary team that disbands when its purpose is accomplished. ⊚ ⊚

84)

In the context of team structure, composition refers to the diversity of team members. ⊚ ⊚

85)

true false

true false

Larger groups allow more participation and better performance than smaller groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) The more desirable group membership is, the more willing the members are to behave according to the team's norms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Norms are shared expectations of how group members will fulfill the requirements of their position. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

People often have multiple roles within the same position.

⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Task roles focus on people working effectively, whereas maintenance roles focus on getting the job done. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) The forming stage of team development is characterized by low development level with high commitment and low competence. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) When people first form a group, they tend to come to the group with a low commitment to the group. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) The storming stage of group development is characterized by moderate development level, lower commitment, and an increase in competence. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93) The resolution stage of group development is characterized by outstanding development level, with high commitment and high competence. ⊚ true ⊚ false

94) The first group development stage, characterized by low development, high commitment, and low competence, uses the autocratic leadership style. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) The social loafer distracts the team from the agenda items and often likes to complain and criticize. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Decision making is the process of selecting an alternative course of action that will solve a problem. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) A reflexive decision maker procrastinates and wastes valuable time and other resources and loses out on opportunities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) The devil's advocate technique requires an individual to explain and defend his or her position before a group. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) Synectics is the process of suggesting many alternatives, without evaluation, to solve a problem. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) D 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) B 27) C 28) B 29) A 30) D 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) C 35) C

36) B 37) C 38) A 39) A 40) C 41) A 42) B 43) B 44) C 45) A 46) C 47) D 48) A 49) B 50) B 51) B 52) C 53) D 54) A 55) B 56) C 57) C 58) C 59) A 60) A 61) A 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) FALSE

84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

What are the different types of changes? Describe them.

2)

Explain the stages in the change process.

3)

Why do people resist change? Name the variables involved with resistance to change.

4)

What are the sources of resistance to change? List the major focuses of resistance.

5)

List the methods of overcoming resistance to change.

6)

Explain the Lussier change model.

7)

What is organizational culture? Explain the two dimensions of an organization's culture.

8)

What is organizational climate? What are its dimensions?

9)

What are the steps involved in coaching? Explain.

10) __________ are formal systems for collecting, processing, and disseminating analyzed data that are necessary to aid managers in decision making.

A) Management information systems B) Learning management systems C) Content management systems D) Local information systems

11) Anvil Incorporated, a steel company, changed its organization chart from hierarchical to flat. Which of the following types of change does this statement represent?

A) technological change B) people change C) structural change D) task change

12) "The new laser printer will expedite the printing process." Which of the following types of change does this statement represent?

A) task change B) people change C) structural change D) technological change

13)

The way in which an organization converts its inputs into outputs is called

A) automation.

B) process.

C) design thinking.

D) organizational development.

14) John, an employee at Readers Company, will have to perform the additional work of proofreading with his regular filing job. Which of the following types of change does this statement represent?

A) task change B) people change C) demographic change D) technological change

15)

A change in team membership and in organizational culture are considered

A) people change.

B) task change.

C) technological change.

D) structural change.

16)

Which of the following statements is true about the denial stage of the change process?

A) In this stage, when the change begins to be implemented, employees explore the change.

B) In this stage, when people first hear rumors through the grapevine that change is coming, they refuse that it will happen at all.

C) In this stage, once people get over the initial shock and realize that change is going to be a reality, they resist the change.

D) In this stage, through exploration, employees determine their level of commitment to making the change a success.

17) "I have never done this task on my own before." In the context of the resistance matrix, which of the following sources of resistance does this statement represent?

A) beliefs about self B) facts about self C) beliefs about others D) facts about others

18) "This is a lousy place to work. The pay here is terrible." In the context of the resistance matrix, identify the source of resistance that this statement represents.

A) facts about others B) beliefs about the work environment C) values pertaining to the work environment D) beliefs about self

19) "Who cares what the goals are? I just do my job." In the context of the resistance matrix, identify the source of resistance that this statement represents.

A) values pertaining to others B) values pertaining to the work environment C) values pertaining to self D) beliefs about self

20) "Let someone else train Brandon; I am not interested." In the context of the resistance matrix, identify the source of resistance that this statement represents.

A) facts about the work environment B) facts about self C) beliefs about the work environment D) values pertaining to others

21) "I like my current job. I do not want to change my job as I am happy." In the context of the resistance matrix, identify the resistance to change reflected in this statement.

A) beliefs about self B) facts about self C) values pertaining to self D) facts about the work environment

22)

Which of the following is a method to overcome resistance to change?

A) direct confrontation B) minimal advance notice C) use of power and ethical politics D) reduction of employee involvement

23)

Which of the following is the first step of Lewin's change model?

A) unfreezing B) moving C) refreezing D) reinforcement

24) In which of the following steps of Lewin's change model does the desirable performance become the permanent way of doing things?

A) unfreezing B) refreezing C) moving D) freezing

25) In which of the following steps of Lewin's change model do employees learn the new desirable behavior, values, and attitudes?

A) unfreezing B) refreezing C) moving D) freezing

26) According to the Lussier's change model, which step involves clearly stating the nature of the change?

A) identifying possible resistance to the change B) controlling the change C) planning the change D) defining the change

27) In which of the following steps in Lussier's change model should one check that the implemented change is being maintained?

A) controlling the change B) identifying possible resistance to the change C) implementing the change D) planning the change

28) "Others in the team have told me that this task is very difficult to complete in the given time." In the context of the resistance matrix, identify the resistance to change reflected in this statement.

A) facts about others B) beliefs about others C) facts about self D) beliefs about self

29) Organizational __________ consists of the shared values and assumptions of how its members will behave.

A) climate B) development C) capital D) culture

30)

Identify a true statement about a strong organizational culture.

A) It is characterized by dissimilar values and behaviors.

B) It discourages employees from taking risks.

C) It uses norms to enforce desired behavior.

D) It is a source of resistance and turmoil.

31) __________ is the relatively enduring quality of the internal environment of an organization as perceived by its members.

A) Organizational climate B) Organizational culture C) Organizational capital D) Organizational development

32) Identify the dimension of organizational climate that refers to the degree of being helped by others and of experiencing cooperation.

A) responsibility B) structure C) support D) risk

33) Identify the dimension of organizational climate that refers to the degree of being honored for one's efforts and being punished appropriately.

A) support B) structure C) rewards D) risk

34) Which of the following dimensions of organizational climate refers to the degree of satisfaction with human relations?

A) support B) structure C) responsibility D) warmth

35) __________ is the ongoing planned process of change used as a means of improving an organization's effectiveness in solving problems and achieving its objectives.

A) Organizational development B) Organizational culture C) Organizational dynamics D) Organizational climate

36) A(n) __________ is a person responsible for an organizational development (OD) program.

A) active agent B) change agent C) symbiotic agent D) program agent

37) job.

__________ is the process of developing the necessary skills to perform one's present

A) Retention B) Training C) Sensitization D) Orientation

38) jobs.

__________ is the process of developing the ability to perform both present and future

A) Sensitization B) Retention C) Development D) Orientation

39)

Which of the following is the first step in the training cycle?

A) conducting needs assessment B) setting objectives C) preparing for training D) conducting the training

40) Which of the following is the first step in conducting a job instructional training (JIT) session?

A) trainer presentation of the job B) trainee performance of the job C) preparation of the trainee D) follow-up

41) "I can see a lot of improvement in your presentation skills." With which of the following steps of the training cycle can this statement be best identified?

A) step 1: conducting needs assessment B) step 2: setting objectives C) step 3: conducting the training D) step 4: measuring and evaluating results

42) "At the end of this session, you should be able to use the software to update your work."

With which of the following steps of the training cycle can this statement be best identified?

A) setting objectives B) conducting needs assessment C) preparing for training D) measuring and evaluating results

43) "This is how you operate the machine." With which of the following steps of the training cycle can this statement be best identified?

A) setting objectives B) conducting the training C) preparing for training D) measuring and evaluating results

44) Kate's manager decides that Kate has to learn French for her overseas assignment in three months. With which of the following steps of the training cycle can this statement be best identified?

A) setting objectives B) preparing for training C) conducting needs assessment D) measuring and evaluating results

45)

__________ is the ongoing process of evaluating an employee's execution of a job.

A) Employee survey B) Job evaluation C) Integrated audit D) Performance appraisal

46) Which of the following steps should one take in the performance appraisal process immediately after job responsibilities are determined?

A) Coach employees.

B) Conduct informal performance appraisals.

C) Develop standards and measurement methods.

D) Prepare for the formal performance appraisal interviews.

47) The term __________ describes performance levels in the areas of quantity, quality, time, and cost.

A) demographics B) standards C) norms D) symbols

48)

Which of the following is the first step of the coaching model?

A) Refer to past feedback.

B) Describe desired performance.

C) Get a commitment to the change.

D) Describe current performance.

49) Which of the following steps of the coaching model should a manager take immediately after describing the current low performance of an employee?

A) Refer to past feedback.

B) Describe desired performance.

C) Get a commitment to the change.

D) Praise the work being done.

50) Ryan works in an ice cream parlor. He has been told that the tables should be cleaned up quickly after customers leave so that the next customers do not have to sit at dirty tables. It is a busy night. Ryan's boss finds dirty dishes on two unoccupied tables while Ryan is socializing with some friends instead of cleaning up. Which of the following steps of the coaching model should Ryan's boss ideally take first?

A) Refer to past feedback.

B) Get a commitment to the change.

C) Describe desired performance.

D) Describe current performance.

51) Ian is a clerical worker. He sorts files, as do the other ten employees in the department.

All the employees know that they are supposed to place the files in the exact place when they are finished so that others can find them when they need them. As a rule, the employees should have only one file out at a time. Ian's supervisor notices that Ian has five files on his desk of which one is a file that another employee urgently needs. Which of the following steps of the coaching model should Ian's supervisor take immediately after describing to Ian his current behavior?

A) Refer to past feedback B) Describe desired performance C) Get a commitment to the change D) Use disciplinary action

52) __________ is an organizational development (OD) technique that uses a questionnaire to gather data that are used as the basis for change.

A) Force field analysis B) Management by objectives C) Survey feedback D) Managerial grid

53) __________ is a technique that diagrams the current level of performance, the hindering factors against change, and the driving factors toward change.

A) Performance appraisal B) Survey feedback C) Process consultation D) Force field analysis

54) Give reasons why managing-change skills are important to managers in an organization for which you work or have worked.

55) Describe the management information system (MIS) at an organization, preferably one with which you have been associated. If you are not knowledgeable about the organization's MIS, talk with someone who is.

56) Describe an automation change in an organization, preferably one with which you have been associated.

57) Give one or more examples of a type of change you experienced in an organization.

(Identify it as task change, structural change, technological change, or people change.)

58)

Which single technology change has had the largest effect on your behavior?

59)

Of the four reasons people resist change, which one do you think is the most common?

60) Of the eleven methods for overcoming resistance to change, which one do you think is the best?

61) Describe a situation in which you were resistant to change. Identify the intensity, source, and focus. Using Exhibit 11.3, which box (by number and statement) describes your resistance?

62) Which organizational development (OD) technique(s) can be used to improve consistency among professors in terms of work assignments and performance appraisals at your college? Which of the four reasons for resistance would be the dominant reason for faculty resistance to such a change? How would you rate the intensity, focus, and source of their resistance (see Exhibit 11.3, Resistance Matrix)?

63)

Give a specific example of when a change model would be helpful to a specific manager.

64) Identify the cultural heroes, stories, slogans, symbols, and ceremonies for an organization you are or have been a member of.

65) Describe the organizational culture at a firm for which you work or have worked. Does or did the organization strive to have a strong positive culture? If so, how?

66)

Describe the morale at the organization.

67) Describe your college's culture. Is it strong or weak? Are there any good slogans and/or symbols that help convey your college's culture? Give at least one new way (slogans/symbols, etc.) to promote your college's culture.

68) Using the seven dimensions of climate, describe your college's climate. Rate the morale of students as high or low, explaining your answer in detail.

69) Describe the organizational climate at a firm for which you work or have worked, based on the seven dimensions of climate. Does or did the organization measure its climate? If so, how?

70) State how you were trained to perform a specific job. Explain how the training affected your job performance. How could training at this organization be used to increase performance?

71) Identify an organizational development (OD) technique and explain how it is used by a specific organization, preferably one with which you have been associated.

72) A professor's job is to facilitate student learning, evaluate student performance, and assign grades. Do you believe your learning performance is evaluated effectively? How could it be improved?

73) Do your professors use consistent standards in terms of the work they require in their courses and the performance appraisal grades they give? Or do some professors require more work than others? Do some give lots of As while others give lots of lower grades? Is this diversity in work requirements and performance appraisal positive or negative? Why does it exist?

74) Describe the performance standards for a job you hold or have held. How would you improve them?

75) Identify the performance measurement method(s) used to evaluate your job performance.

Describe how you would improve the method(s).

76)

Describe a specific situation in which it would be appropriate to use the coaching model.

77) One of the purposes of college is to train and develop students for future careers. How would you rate your overall college education?

78) Can a multinational company have one organizational culture, or does it need to have different cultures based on its business unit in each country?

79)

Automation refers to how an organization transforms inputs into outputs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) According to the change process, once people get over the initial shock and realize that change is going to be a reality, they accept the change. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) A change in the sequence of tasks associated with a job is classified as a structural change. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) A breakthrough in technology that makes old technology obsolete is known as incremental change. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) One of the reasons people resist change is because the prospect of learning something new itself produces anxiety.

⊚ ⊚

true false

84) Employees who participate in developing changes are more committed to them than employees who have changes assigned to them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Confronting people by persuading them that their facts, beliefs, and values are wrong is one of the major methods to overcome resistance to change. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Refreezing is the change process in which employees learn the new desirable behavior, values, and attitudes. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

Identifying possible resistance to a change is the first step in the Lussier change model. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) In the context of the habit changing model, the last step involved in making a change in one's own life is developing a clue. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Organizational culture is learned through observing and interacting with employees, events, and training. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) All organizations with clear values that are shared to the extent of similar behavior have weak cultures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) An organizational culture is considered positive when it has norms that contribute to effective performance and productivity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Organizational climate is the relatively enduring quality of the internal environment of the organization as perceived by its members. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Culture is based on shared values and assumptions of "how" things should be done, while climate is based on shared perceptions of the "way" things are done. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Morale is commonly measured on a continuum ranging from high to low morale, based on the seven dimensions of climate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Evaluative objectives are used as the basis of administrative decisions to reward or punish past performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) To effectively assess performance, one needs to have clear standards and methods to objectively measure performance. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

Force field analysis is particularly useful for group problem solving. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) Team building is an organizational development (OD) technique designed to help work groups operate more effectively. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99)

In nurturing cultures, people give more importance to achievement than to quality of life. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Americans tend to focus on small incremental changes to improve processes and products, whereas the Japanese tends to focus on large major changes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) Organizational climate is associated with the actual internal environment, whereas organizational culture is associated with the ideal environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Organizational development programs to improve performance tend to be narrower in scope than culture or climate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) B 17) B 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) C 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) A 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) C 34) D 35) A

36) B 37) B 38) C 39) A 40) C 41) D 42) A 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) B 50) A 51) B 52) C 53) D 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE

91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE Student name:__________ 1) Distinguish between prejudice and discrimination. List common areas of employment discrimination.

2) What is a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) and what are affirmative action (AA) programs? State the major rules of thumb to follow when asking questions during interviews.

3) Describe sexual harassment as defined by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC).

4) List and define the groups that are protected from discrimination under the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC).

5)

Differentiate between the terms "gender" and "sex".

6)

Describe the steps in the complaint model.

7) __________ refers to the degree to which differences exist among members of a group or an organization.

A) Diversity B) Cohesiveness C) Viscidity D) Uniformity

8) __________ is a practice of ensuring that all employees feel that they are valued members of an organization.

A) Diversity B) Affirmative action C) Inclusion D) Global fluency

9)

__________ is the prejudgment of a person or situation based on attitudes.

A) Intolerance B) Prejudice C) Repugnance D) Antipathy

10)

__________ is behavior for or against a person or situation.

A) Insight B) Prejudice C) Discrimination D) Perception

11) "The boss hired another one of those blondes. I bet she'll waste a lot of time flirting with the men." Which of the following does this statement reflect?

A) fact B) discrimination C) prejudice D) favoritism

12) "The boss didn't hire Daniel because he is an African American." Which of the following does this statement reflect?

A) disability B) favoritism C) prejudice D) discrimination

13) Samuel and Hiroto are colleagues. While talking about what they had for dinner the previous night, Samuel says, "Hiroto, I bet you got raw fish for dinner at Yoko's." Which of the following does this statement reflect?

A) prejudice B) favoritism C) fact D) discrimination

14) "I did not select Barbara for my kayaking team as women don't have upper-body strength," said Tom to Harry. Which of the following does this statement reflect?

A) racism B) discrimination C) affirmative action D) sexual harassment

15) __________ view is the tendency to believe that the groups that one belongs to is the best or right.

A) Egocentric B) Ethnocentric C) Acrocentric D) Theocentric

16) Which of the following laws prohibits discrimination in all areas of the employment relationship?

A) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 B) the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 C) the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 D) the Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973

17) __________ allows discrimination on the basis of religion, sex, or national origin where it is reasonably necessary to normal operation of a particular enterprise.

A) Prohibited information B) Vocational rehabilitation C) A bona fide occupational qualification D) An affirmative action program

18) Which of the following is an example of a preemployment inquiry that is considered discriminatory?

A) asking a candidate questions regarding children or other family issues B) asking if a candidate is between specific age groups, 21 to 70, to meet job specifications C) asking a candidate if he or she is legally eligible to work in the United States D) asking for a candidate's current residence and length of residence

19)

Identify an example of a preemployment inquiry that is considered discriminatory.

A) asking a candidate's current legal name and whether the candidate has ever worked under a different name B) asking a candidate's current residence and length of residence C) asking a candidate for his or her religious preference, affiliations, or denominations D) asking a candidate to list languages he or she speaks and/or writes fluently

20) In the context of preemployment inquiries, which of the following is considered discriminatory?

A) asking a candidate for the names of people who suggested the candidate apply for the job B) asking a candidate for information on education and experience gained that relates to the job C) asking a candidate if he or she has been convicted of a felony and other information if the felony is job related D) asking a candidate to identify national origin, citizenship, race, or color

21) "Have you ever used a different name for work?" This preemployment inquiry will most likely be perceived as

A) prejudiced.

B) illegal.

C) legal.

D) discriminatory.

22) "Do you own the house you live in or have you rented the place?" This question is a(n) __________ preemployment inquiry.

A) prejudiced B) discriminatory C) legal D) illegal

23) "How old are you? Can I see your birth certificate?" These questions are __________ preemployment inquiries.

A) illegal B) mandatory C) legal D) prejudiced

24) In the context of preemployment inquiries, which of the following questions can a recruiter legally ask a job applicant?

A) Have you ever worked for the armed forces of any country other than the United States?

B) Have you ever been arrested?

C) Which language do you speak at home?

D) Do you have any disability that can prevent you from performing the job you have applied for?

25) __________ are planned, special efforts to recruit, hire, and promote women and members of minority groups.

A) Affirmative action programs B) Prejudiced discriminations C) Special interventions D) Vocational rehabilitation endeavors

26)

__________ is being careful not to offend or slight anyone with our behavior.

A) Political correctness B) Confabulation C) Affirmative action D) Favoritism

27)

Which of the following is a myth about women managers?

A) Women are equal in managerial ability.

B) Women are equally committed as men.

C) Women are too emotional to be managers.

D) Women are good managers.

28)

The barriers to upward mobility in organizations are commonly called the

A) covert snag.

B) mobility hurdle.

C) organizational handicap.

D) glass ceiling.

29) Alicia is an employee at Globe Corporation She believes that women managers will leave their jobs to have children. Alicia's belief can be best categorized as a(n)

A) fact.

B) overstatement.

C) myth.

D) observation.

30) Noel, a manager at Olive Corporation, is of the belief that disabled individuals lack the motivation to get ahead. Noel's belief can be best categorized as a(n)

A) observation.

B) fact.

C) overstatement.

D) myth.

31) George is a supervisor at Prime Incorporated He is of the view that women are equally committed to the organization as men. This view is a(n)

A) fact.

B) myth.

C) overstatement.

D) stereotype.

32) Nigel is an employee at Prosper Company He believes that male managers are far better at their jobs than their female counterparts. Nigel's belief can be best categorized as a(n)

A) fact.

B) myth.

C) overstatement.

D) observation.

33) "Minorities who are managers have difficulty in situations calling for quick and precise decisions," says Rohan, a supervisor at Trades Incorporation Rohan's statement can be best categorized as a

A) fact.

B) survey feedback.

C) myth.

D) certainty.

34) Brandon, a manager at Legacy Incorporated, believes that men and women are truly equal in management ability. Brandon's belief can be best categorized as a

A) delusion.

B) fable.

C) myth.

D) fact.

35) Gabriel, who is employed at a supervisory level at Matrix Company, says women workers and managers are as committed as men. Gabriel's statement can be best categorized as a

A) fact.

B) fable.

C) myth.

D) delusion.

36)

Which of the following comments about businesswomen is considered sexist?

A) She is opinionated.

B) She follows through.

C) She makes wise judgments.

D) She is careful about details.

37)

Which of the following statements is true about the roles played by fathers?

A) In the old days, most fathers worked short hours and spent a lot of time with their children.

B) Criminals are trained by their fathers.

C) Most male criminals have no relationship with their fathers.

D) More fathers are opting for gender flip.

38) __________ are best described as people who live and work in a country other than their native country.

A) Immigrants B) Expatriates C) Active citizens D) Refugees

39)

Which of the following statements is true of global diversity?

A) Employee health and safety laws are generally more protective in Third World countries than in developed countries.

B) Americans are more long-term oriented than the Chinese.

C) The Japanese and Chinese place a high priority on human relations and teamwork.

D) In the United States and some other countries, it is legal to take and give bribes for doing business.

40)

Identify a true statement about global diversity.

A) The easiest way to be a successful employee in Japan is to be an individual star.

B) In Japan, making the "V" sign with the hand is considered an obscenity rather than a sign for victory.

C) During face-to-face communication, Latinos tend to touch each other less than Americans.

D) Americans prefer to speak face-to-face from a greater distance than people of most other countries.

41)

Which of the following statements is true about global diversity?

A) Hispanics consider socializing as a waste of time.

B) There is not much difference in work ethics between Americans and Europeans.

C) Europeans work more hours than Americans.

D) Europeans have a stronger work ethic than the Japanese.

42)

Identify a correct statement about global diversity.

A) The Japanese prefer dealing with people who are outspoken.

B) Management-labor relations in France are more polarized than in the United States.

C) Americans are the world's highest-paid employees.

D) The French place high importance on team effort.

43) In the context of the Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness (GLOBE) project, an individual who is uncomfortable with ambiguity is said to rank high on the dimension of

A) uncertainty avoidance.

B) societal collectivism.

C) humane orientation.

D) future orientation.

44) In the context of the Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness (GLOBE) project, an individual who strives for improvement and excellence is said to rank high on the dimension of

A) humane orientation.

B) performance orientation.

C) in-group collectivism.

D) societal collectivism.

45) In the context of the Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness (GLOBE) project, __________ refers to whether a culture encourages teamwork or individual work.

A) in-group collectivism B) power distance C) uncertainty avoidance D) societal collectivism

46) Which of the following is the first step in the complaint model for handling employee complaints?

A) Schedule time to get all the facts.

B) Have the complainer recommend a solution.

C) Listen to the complaint and paraphrase it.

D) Talk to the complainer and develop a plan.

47)

Which of the following is the final step in the complaint model?

A) Paraphrase the complaint.

B) Have the complainer recommend a solution.

C) Schedule time to get all the facts and/or make a decision.

D) Develop and implement a plan.

48) You are a manager in the frozen foods department of a supermarket. Every two weeks, the frozen foods cases must be cleaned. Since Chris does the best job, you usually select Chris to clean the cases. Chris has come to you and said, "Why do I always have to do the dirty work of cleaning the cases? It's not fair that I have to clean the cases more often than the other two employees." According to the complaint model, which of the following should you do immediately after listening to Chris and paraphrasing his complaint?

A) schedule time to get all the facts B) take precautions to prevent the mistake in the future C) have Chris recommend a solution D) develop and implement a plan

49) You are a manager in a retail store. The company policy is that employees should not work for longer than three hours without a 10-minute break or a 30-minute meal period.

Employees are not to take breaks until told to do so by you. During the recent holiday season, you have not been giving employees their breaks. Donald comes to you and says, "Why do I have to work such long hours without a break? It's not fair. Yesterday I worked for five hours without a break." In this scenario, which of the following steps in the complaint model should you take first?

A) Schedule time to get all the facts.

B) Make a decision to get someone else to do the work.

C) Develop a plan.

D) Paraphrase the complaint.

50) You are a clergyperson managing a religious organization. You have four part-time employees to answer the door and the phone and to do odd jobs in between. These employees' minimum wages have been increased recently. The increased cost is not yet in your budget, so you decided to cut back the number of working hours of Fabio, one of the employees. Later, Fabio comes to you and says, "Why do I get stuck losing more hours than the other three workers? I'm as good as or better than any of the other workers. It's not fair." You ask Fabio for a solution. According to the complaint model, which of the following should be your next step?

A) develop and implement a plan B) schedule time to get all the facts C) measure and evaluate results D) paraphrase the complaint

51)

Discuss a situation in which you were discriminated against for some reason.

52) Cite an example of employment discrimination in recruitment, selection, compensation, upward mobility, or evaluation, preferably from an organization for which you work or have worked.

53) Do we really need laws to get organizations to give equal opportunities to all? Should the current employment laws be changed? How?

54) Some companies and jobs have a mandatory retirement age. Should the government pass a law stating a mandatory retirement age?

55) Have you, or has anyone you know, been asked an illegal discriminatory question during the hiring process? If yes, identify the question(s).

56) Describe the affirmative action program at an organization, preferably one for which you work or have worked.

57) Do you feel comfortable being around people with disabilities? Should organizations make special efforts to hire individuals who are disabled? Are organizations that hire workers with disabilities just being socially responsible, or are the workers productive?

58) Do you agree that people who work together can date? How might dating lead to sexual harassment? Should organizations have policies about employee dating? If they have policies, what should the policies include?

59) Have you, or has anyone you know, been sexually harassed? If so, describe the situation(s) (use language acceptable to everyone).

60) How do you feel about the fact that certain groups are legally protected against discrimination?

61) What are your views on dating coworkers? Have you dated coworkers, or will you date coworkers in the future?

62) Consider the statement, "Sexist and racist jokes are just meant to be funny and no one gets hurt anyway." Do you agree?

63) The traditional family hasn't been the norm for several years. Instead, it is being overtaken by dual-income earners and single parents. Are we better off today, or should we return to the traditional family?

64) The percentage of married people has declined over the years due to divorce and people living together. Also, male and female roles have changed. Do these trends help or hurt society?

65)

How do you feel about having a female boss? Why?

66) Only a small percentage of Fortune 500 companies have female CEOs. One solution to increase the number of women CEOs would be to have co-CEOs, one male and one female. Do you think this would work? Do you have any other ideas on how to break the glass ceiling?

67) Clearly, women and minorities were held back from employment opportunities in the past. So, shouldn't we give them special consideration today (like giving them jobs when they are qualified even though there are better qualified white males)? Should we be increasing or decreasing affirmative action programs?

68) Have you experienced any cultural differences in human relations with others? If so, explain.

69) Have you, or has anyone you know, gone through diversity training? If yes, describe the program.

70) Identify a complaint you brought to a supervisor. If you have never complained, interview someone who has. State the complaint and identify the steps in the complaint model the supervisor did and/or did not follow.

71) Consider the statement, "With the global economy, people around the world are becoming more and more alike, so why be concerned about diversity?" Do you agree? Should organizations conduct diversity training?

72) Diversity refers to the degree to which differences exist among members of a group or an organization. ⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

To prejudge or stereotype a person or situation in and of itself is not harmful. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 prohibits discrimination against women because of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.

⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 requires men and women to be paid the same for equal work. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Prohibited information is information that does not relate to a bona fide occupational qualification for a job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) A bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) allows discrimination on the basis of religion, sex, or national origin where it is reasonably necessary to normal operation of a particular enterprise. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) During interviews, it is illegal to ask for a woman's maiden name or whether she has changed her name. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) It is legal to ask a candidate's height or weight if it is not a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ).

⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Quid pro quo sexual harassment occurs when unwelcomed sexual behavior creates an intimidating and offensive workplace for anyone. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Hostile work environment sexual harassment occurs when sexual consent affects job outcomes, such as getting a job or assignment or promotion or keeping one's job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) If the people in authority in an organization do not take suitable action to stop sexual harassment even after an employee reports it, the employee may take the complaint to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC). ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) Employee assistance programs are planned, special efforts to recruit, hire, and promote women and members of minority groups. ⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

Sexism is any unwelcomed behavior of a sexual nature.

⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Sexism and racism limit the opportunities of both women and men to choose the lifestyles and careers that best suit their abilities and interests. ⊚ ⊚

86)

true false

The Chinese are more long-term oriented than Americans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Mentors are high-level managers and professionals who prepare with people high potential for advancement. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) A multinational company conducts a large part of its business within the country of its headquarters. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 12 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) C 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) C 20) D 21) C 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) A 26) A 27) C 28) D 29) C 30) D 31) A 32) B

33) C 34) D 35) A 36) A 37) D 38) B 39) C 40) D 41) B 42) B 43) A 44) B 45) D 46) C 47) D 48) C 49) D 50) B 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE

84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

A __________ tracks activities and enables a person to determine how time is used.

A) time log B) travelogue C) time warp D) timer

2) If a particular task does not require personal involvement, the task should ideally be __________.

A) assigned a medium priority B) considered insignificant C) given a low priority D) delegated to someone

3) A task that requires personal involvement and immediate action but is not your major responsibility is __________.

A) given a medium priority B) assigned a low priority C) considered high priority D) a task to be delegated

4)

The term "time management" is defined as

A) a daily diary that tracks activities and enables a person to determine how time is used.

B) techniques designed to enable people to get more done in less time with better results.

C) techniques designed to enable people to get more done in less time with better results.

D) techniques designed to enable people to get more done in less time with better results.

5)

A(n) _____ is the preference given to one activity over other activities.

A) to-do list B) priority C) delegation D) allocation

6)

Identify a time management technique that should be followed at work.

A) The weekly planning sheet should be filled up only electronically.

B) The objectives you want to accomplish during the week must be routine tasks you perform daily.

C) Around 45 percent of your available weekly and daily time should be scheduled for unexpected events.

D) Each day can be begun by scheduling it.

7)

Identify a correct statement about interruptions and distractions at work.

A) Multitasking helps avoid disruptions.

B) The average time working on a task before being interrupted is 20 minutes.

C) Music that you really like helps you concentrate at work.

D) Distractions tend to lead to interruptions.

8)

Which of the following is a way to help overcome procrastination?

A) delegate tasks to subordinates B) concentrate on multiple tasks simultaneously C) use positive affirmations, such as “I can do this” D) think about the good feeling you will have if you rush through a last-minute effort

9)

Which of the following is a time management technique that one should follow?

A) Prioritize urgent tasks over important tasks.

B) Prioritize low-priority tasks during one's most productive time.

C) Avoid doing more than one task at a time.

D) Avoid breaking large tasks into smaller ones.

10) Dustin is setting up a fast food restaurant. He has a lot on his to-do list. With the deadline for the opening approaching, things need immediate attention. In order to manage his time better, Dustin should

A) use a to-do list and write all the assignments on it.

B) schedule the easy tasks during prime time.

C) schedule the next day before leaving work.

D) do the important things rather than the urgent things.

11) Amber, a sales manager at Softonics Inc., has a lot on her plate, as she needs to ensure that sales objectives are met this quarter. Which of the following techniques can help her plan this situation most effectively?

A) teach time management skills to her subordinates B) have an active and inactive file section C) rearrange her desk for increased productivity D) set long- and short-term objectives

12)

Which of the following is a time management technique?

A) not scheduling unpleasant or difficult tasks during prime time B) performing unproductive activities to escape job-related anxiety C) scheduling the next day before leaving work D) doing at least three tasks at a time

13) At which career stage do most employed individuals begin doubting their choice of career?

A) their 40s and 50s B) their 20s C) their 30s D) their 60s and 70s

14)

In the context of career stages, which of the following is true of people in their 20s?

A) They focus on developing the skills required for the job.

B) They question their chosen careers and worry about job security.

C) They focus on changing careers and moving to a different field.

D) They transition to part-time work to reduce their workload.

15)

Which of the following is the first step of the career planning model?

A) career exploration B) career preferences C) self-assessment D) setting objectives

16)

When planning one’s career, networking interviews

A) are useful in getting information about one’s preferred career field.

B) are useful, but only for individuals with prior work experience.

C) are a definite way of getting one’s desired job.

D) determine the requirements and qualifications that are needed.

17) Sara wants to be a certified Six Sigma Black Belt professional within the next four years.

Which of the following steps of the career planning model does this best represent?

A) career exploration and preferences B) self-assessment C) develop a plan D) set career objectives

18) Adam is interested in joining the design department of a start-up company in the retail sector. Which of the following steps of the career planning model does this best represent?

A) self-assessment B) control C) set career objectives D) career exploration and preferences

19)

Which of the following best states the purpose of a cover letter?

A) introducing a resume and requesting an interview B) listing previous jobs held and future aspirations C) providing educational qualifications and other skills D) covering all the details in a resume

20)

Good areas for a candidate to ask questions about in an interview are

A) products or services the company offers.

B) history and size of the organization.

C) strengths and weaknesses of the company.

D) job responsibilities and career opportunities.

21)

When asked about one’s personal weaknesses during an interview, a candidate should

A) portray them as strengths in disguise.

B) ignore the question.

C) be honest and list out all of them.

D) deny having any weakness at all.

22) Which of the following is usually given the most weight by organizations in job decisions?

A) interview B) resume C) cover letter D) career plan

23)

Which of the following is a feature of the format of a resume?

A) incomplete sentences, short and to the point B) job-relevant qualifications toward the end C) sentences stating “I” D) saved as a word processing document

24)

Which of the following should be most visible in a resume?

A) career plan B) interview request C) contact information D) job-relevant qualifications

25)

When writing a resume, one must

A) ensure that it is at least two to three pages long.

B) use industry jargon to impress recruiters and interviewers.

C) list relevant work experience before education qualification.

D) clearly state one's long-term career aspirations.

26)

One can enhance chances of career advancement by

A) focusing solely on completing one’s work.

B) developing good human relations with important people in the organization.

C) taking on more work than one can manage.

D) talking to people about the weaknesses of other colleagues.

27) A __________ is a sequence of job assignments that lead to more responsibility, with raises and promotions.

A) career graph B) career move C) career plan D) career path

28)

Which of the following does a career path facilitate?

A) training for a new job B) achieving career preferences C) developing a career plan D) multitasking

29)

Which of the following affects your chances of getting a raise or promotion?

A) a good performance appraisal B) others’ performance C) a completed time log D) an impressive resume

30)

Self-documentation of one’s accomplishments and initiatives is

A) an addition to one’s work load and not needed.

B) a way to prove one deserves a raise or promotion.

C) useful to gain a sense of personal satisfaction.

D) unnecessary as most companies maintain written records of employee performance.

31)

_________ occurs when employees’ expectations of the workplace are not met.

A) Burnout B) Negating C) Job shock D) Foul play

32)

One will generally project a more positive self-image of confidence if one

A) knows when to approach the boss.

B) wears the latest fashion trends to work.

C) feels good about the way one looks.

D) has a real-world mindset.

33)

Paying attention to one’s apparel and grooming

A) is more important than knowing one’s job.

B) does not have any relation to getting raises and promotions.

C) is important in making a good impression.

D) is insignificant as performance is all that matters.

34)

Before an interview, if one is unaware of the organization’s dress code, one should

A) call or visit the organization and find out.

B) dress casually, to feel comfortable.

C) ignore the dress code as a preferred attire was not specified.

D) wear something flashy and eye-catching.

35)

Which of the following apparel and grooming suggestions should be followed at work?

A) As a general guide, keep away from overdressing for a job interview.

B) Makeup should be subtle to the point that people do not think you are wearing any.

C) In most cases, casual refers to jeans and T-shirts for professional employees.

D) Keep away from the suit, as it has become the most inappropriate apparel in most organizations.

36)

The two classifications of business etiquette are in-person and __________.

A) grooming B) digital C) performance D) communication

37) Try not to bother others by talking too loud, do not eavesdrop, limit chit-chat, and use headphones. These are all suggestions for good __________ etiquette.

A) career B) cell phone C) conversation D) cubicle

38) Tina has a stunning resume and gave a great interview. She was at the top of the list for the job opening at ABC Tire and Auto. However, a member of the hiring committee viewed Tina’s Facebook page and found very unflattering material. Tina moved to the bottom of the list for the job opening. Tina needs to manage her etiquette in which area?

A) in-person B) conversation C) online reputation D) job interview

Answer Key Test name: Appendix A 1) A 2) D 3) A 4) B 5) B 6) D 7) D 8) C 9) C 10) D 11) D 12) C 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) A 24) D 25) C 26) B

27) D 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) C 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) B 37) D 38) C