TEST BANK for Fundamentals of Human Resources in Healthcare, 2nd Edition by Bruce Fried ISBN 9781567

TEST BANK for Fundamentals of Human Resources in Healthcare, 2nd Edition by Bruce Fried Chapter 1 1. Why should healthcare organizations be concerned about integrating business

strategies and HR? a. To better align the business strategies with each other b. To determine which HR functions should be done in-house and which

should be outsourced *c. To enhance organizational outcomes d. To ensure that the organization is included in various lists of "best places to work"

2. Which of the following is an HR metric? a. Market share

*b. Cost per hire c. Profitability d. Competitive advantage

3. The number of HR staff members in most organizations a. continues to increase. b. is remaining the same. c. cannot be determined.

*d. continues to decline.

4. Which of the following is not part of a balanced scorecard? a. Short-term and long-term objectives b. Internal and external performance perspective c. Financial and nonfinancial metrics

*d. Measures of the internal and external environments

5. Which of the following would not be considered a relatively current HR practice? a. Broad job classes b. Performance-based pay

*c. Fixed fringe benefits d. Decentralized pay decisions

6. Competitive advantage in the workforce is challenging to achieve because a. it is enduring and difficult for competitors to duplicate. b. it requires alignment of all HR systems.

*c. it takes time to do so. d. HR practices' impact on it is not clear.

7. In addition to traditional HR activities (e.g., recruitment, training, appraisal,

employee relations), human resources management also includes a. financial management. b. strategic management. c. marketing.

*d. informal management of employees by all administrators.

8. In a study of HR leaders in 1,000 organizations, what percentage reported they

belonged to the executive team? a. 27 percent b. 37 percent

*c. 67 percent d. 74 percent

9. True or false: Understanding the significance of HR management is as relevant to

line managers as it is to HR managers. *a. True b. False

10. True or false: Augmenting status distinctions and barriers is one of the seven HR

practices for effective healthcare organizations. a. True

*b. False

11. True or false: HR is moving from appraisals with multiple inputs to supervisor

input only. a. True

*b. False

12. True or false: Implementation of an HR strategy requires management of internal

and external stakeholders. *a. True b. False

13. True or false: The immediate goal of building a strong HR brand is to attract and

retain the best employees. *a. True b. False

Chapter 2 1. The development of healthcare professionals is related to all of the following except

what? a. Supply and demand b. Healthcare financing and delivery

*c. Decreasing use of new technology due to costs d. Changes in disease and illness

2. Which of the following is not a primary role of a healthcare administrator? a. Coordinate care

*b. Deliver care c. Manage care d. Organize care

3. In 2015, what percentage of RNs were actively employed in nursing? a. 4.7 percent b. 11 percent

*c. 18.9 percent d. 21 percent

4. What are the five key roles of nurses? a. Diagnosis, prescribing, planning, strategic development, and evaluation b. Assessment, prescribing, planning, education, and evaluation c. Assisting physicians, diagnosis, planning, strategic development,

and evaluation *d. Assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation

5. Interdisciplinary care teams include a. insurers, providers, and patients. b. providers, patients, and billing staff.

*c. practitioners/providers, patients, and their family members. d. patients, administrators, and pharmacists.

6. The future shortage of nurses will be affected by all of the following

except what? a. The aging nursing workforce

*b. Decreasing nursing salaries c. Declining educational resources d. Declining nursing school enrollment

7. Which of the following is not a primary reason for the increased supply and

demand for healthcare professionals? a. Technological growth b. The aging population c. Greater specialization

*d. Flexible work schedules

9. True or false: A profession is a means of support, while an occupation

requires specialization and knowledge. a. True

*b. False

11. True or false: An impaired practitioner is a healthcare professional who is able to

carry out his or her duties with reasonable skills and safety. a. True

*b. False

12. True or false: Most healthcare professionals are employed by hospitals.

*a. True b. False

13. True or false: Many healthcare professionals are choosing to go into business on

their own due to the bureaucratic nature of healthcare organizations. *a. True b. False

Chapter 3 1. Which of the following laws regulates child labor in the United States? a. The Family and Medical Leave Act

*b. The Fair Labor Standards Act c. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act d. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act

2. Which of the following types of discrimination is not covered under Title VII of the

Civil Rights Act of 1964? *a. Discrimination based on sexual orientation b. Discrimination based on race c. Discrimination based on religion d. Discrimination based on national origin

4. For an incident to be considered sexual harassment, a. sexual favors must have been sought in return for some

employment opportunity. b. the harassment cannot have occurred between members of the same sex. c. other employees must be able to provide witness testimony to the harassment. *d. None of the above

5. A privately owned nursing home hires mostly Hispanic women. The hiring

manager believes that only Hispanic women could "fit in" and therefore does not hire anyone who does not meet this profile. This practice is likely to be a. permissible because of the employment-at-will doctrine. b. permissible because most of the local residents are Hispanic.

*c. discriminatory on the basis of national origin in violation of Title VII. d. permissible because the nursing home is a private company.

6. Courts are likely to consider all of the following factors in determining whether

hostile environment sexual harassment has occurred except what? a. Frequency of the behavior b. Severity of the conduct

*c. Whether senior managers in the organization considered the behavior objectionable d. Whether the behavior interfered with work performance

7. Which of the following is a form of alternative dispute resolution in which the

parties agree to abide by the decision? *a. Arbitration b. Mediation c. Due process d. a and b

8. Under the employment-at-will doctrine, a. an employer may fire an employee at any time but must give the employee at

least one week's notice. b. an employer may fire an employee but must provide written justification. c. an employer may not fire an employee for an immoral reason. *d. an employee may quit a job at any time.

9. A senior executive of a company is asked to sign a contract to prevent her

from disclosing competitive information if she were to leave the organization at some time in the future. This type of contract is known as a. an employment-at-will clause. b. a severance agreement. c. an alternative dispute resolution (ADR) requirement.

*d. a noncompetition clause.

10. An applicant for an office receptionist position is disqualified for further

consideration because she wears a hearing aid and the hiring manager needs someone who has good hearing. Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, courts are most likely to rule that a. this action is not illegal because good hearing is an essential job

function. *b. this action constitutes illegal discrimination because the employer is discriminating on the basis of a perceived disability. c. this action is not discrimination because the applicant is openly admitting to a disqualifying disability by wearing a hearing aid. d. this action constitutes illegal discrimination because the applicant's hearing may be excellent with the help of a hearing aid.

11. True or false: A substance-abuse treatment program for men hires only male

therapists. This practice is likely to be considered legal because being male is a bona fide occupational qualification. a. True

*b. False

12. True or false: One needs to have a disability to be covered under the Americans

with Disabilities Act. a. True

*b. False

13. True or false: Under the employment-at-will doctrine, it is legal to fire an

employee for a reason unrelated to job performance. *a. True b. False

14. True or false: An organization may be liable for sexual harassment if the harasser

was a low-level employee and managers were unaware of this person's behavior. *a. True b. False

15. True or false: Title VII of the Civil Rights Act covers discrimination against

people because of their sexual preference. a. True

*b. False

Chapter 4 1. Which of the following is/are not usually included in a job specification? a. Education

*b. Job duties and responsibilities c. Experience d. Physical demands

2. Which of the following is/are not usually included in a job description? a. Tasks b. Responsibilities c. Performance standards

*d. Performance appraisal

3. A future-oriented job analysis a. reduces the number of job titles. b. emphasizes "any other duty that may be assigned."

*c. requires managers to assess how duties and tasks may be restructured. d. develops more general job descriptions.

4. The process of job design includes a. acknowledgment of the employee's unique skills. b. reduced flexibility in performing the job. c. appropriate professional guidelines.

*d. changing, eliminating, modifying, and enriching duties and tasks.

5. Employee empowerment a. facilitates communication between employees. b. helps employees achieve self-actualization.

*c. enables decisions to be made by those closest to the customer. d. encourages supervisors to listen to their subordinates.

6. Which of the following is not an obstacle to effective team functioning? a. Lack of power b. Overly high expectations

*c. Lack of communication from top management d. Lack of team member training

7. Flexible work schedules a. are most relevant to patient care positions. b. may reduce customer service. c. are uncommon among employees.

*d. allow employees to choose daily starting and ending times.

9. True or false: A job specification is a written explanation of the job and the duties

it involves. a. True

*b. False

10. True or false: Today's legal environment has created a need for more specific

job descriptions. *a. True b. False

11. True or false: Job descriptions are generally updated as job duties or job

specifications change. a. True

*b. False

12. True or false: The most rapid growth in the healthcare workforce has been in

newer job categories. *a. True b. False

13. True or false: The functions and skills added to a multiskilled healthcare

practitioner's original job may be parallel or higher-level only. a. True

*b. False

14. True or false: A self-directed work team selects its own leaders. a. True

*b. False

15. True or false: Most employers offer some type of compressed work week.

a. True

*b. False

Chapter 5 1. Each of the following is an advantage of internal recruitment except what? a. The applicant is known to management.

*b. Internal applicants usually bring new ideas to the organization. c. Internal recruitment may be faster than external recruitment. d. Internal recruitment is unlikely to be associated with the Peter Principle.

3. Which of the following may be used to evaluate the effectiveness of recruitment? a. Quantity of applicants b. Diversity of applicants c. Cost per applicant

*d. All of the above

4. In assessing person-job fit, one is interested in learning

*a. whether an applicant has the knowledge, skills, and abilities to do the job. b. whether an applicant's beliefs align with those of the organization. c. whether an applicant will help the organization achieve its diversity goals. d. whether an applicant's method of work is consistent with the norms of the organization.

5. In hiring a physician practice office manager, a critical incidents approach to

selection is best used for a. determining the financial skills required to do the job.

*b. determining how the manager needs to communicate with staff. c. checking references. d. None of the above

6. Which of the following is true about the use of reference checks for job applicants?

*a. Reliability tends to be low. b. Reliability tends to be high because previous employers have had experience working with the applicant. c. Reference checks are generally good predictors of job performance. d. Reference checks are more valuable when the old and new jobs are different.

7. An interviewer asks an applicant for a social work position to describe a time

when he had to give difficult news to the family of a patient. What is this kind of question called? a. A situational question

*b. An experience-based question c. An unstructured interview question d. A realistic job preview question

8. In hiring a nurse for a hospital position, which of the following questions would be

considered appropriate and likely defensible in a US court? a. What is your native language? b. When was your last physical exam? c. Will family responsibilities inhibit your ability to work different shifts?

*d. Are you authorized to work in the United States?

9. The level of job dissatisfaction among nurses is a. lower when compared with other professional groups. b. about the same when compared with other professional groups.

*c. higher when compared with other professional groups. d. higher among male nurses.

10. Which of the following is not considered an effective nurse retention

strategy? a. Using an effective selection process

*b. Providing compensation that is well above market rates c. Providing a good orientation program d. Monitoring turnover rates in different departments

11. True or false: Asking a job applicant about her ability to work effectively with

teams is not job-related and is therefore illegal. a. True

*b. False

12. True or false: Unstructured job interviews are consistently more useful than

highly structured interviews. a. True

*b. False

13. True or false: When multiple individuals interview a job applicant, they may score

the applicant's answers differently. *a. True b. False

14. True or false: Even for a job requiring considerable travel, it is inappropriate to

ask whether a job applicant would have any problems with traveling. a. True

*b. False

15. True or false: In international workforce migration, an example of a pull factor is

higher wages in the host country. *a. True b. False

Chapter 6 1. The primary function of organizational development is a. increasing an organization's profits. b. decreasing an organization's turnover.

*c. increasing an organization's effectiveness. d. increasing an organization's moral.

2. Organizational development can result in all of the following except what? a. Increased productivity

*b. Increased workload c. Increased return on investment d. Increased employee satisfaction

3. The five steps of the ADDIE model of training are a. assess, design, determine, implement, and expand. b. analyze, design, develop, implement, and expand.

*c. analyze, design, develop, implement, and evaluate. d. assess, develop, determine, implement, and evaluate.

4. The critical tasks in training design include all of the following except what? a. Accurately outlining objectives b. Communicating objectives

*c. Authoritatively enforcing objectives d. Ensuring understanding of objectives

5. Which of the following is an employee-centered orientation topic? a. Safety b. Privacy of information

*c. Compensation and benefits d. Rules for reporting discriminatory practices

6. The "eating of the apple" method refers to a. focusing orientation on the core of the organization.

*b. breaking up orientation into brief sessions over a period of days or weeks. c. spreading "apple seeds" of organizational information in the employee's mind. d. focusing orientation on juicy office gossip.

7. What is the correct order of the succession planning process? a. Identify critical positions, review mission, provide professional

development, identify potential successors, review the plan, update the plan b. Review the plan, review mission, identify potential successors, identify critical positions, provide professional development, update the plan c. Identify potential successors, identify critical positions, provide professional development, review the plan, review mission, update the plan *d. Review mission, identify critical positions, identify potential successors, provide professional development, review the plan, update the plan

8. True or false: The ADDIE model of training is the most common model of training.

*a. True b. False

9. True or false: The step in which information is collected to determine

whether objectives have been met is called training expansion. a. True

*b. False

10. True or false: Lecture is the most effective training method for small groups of

employees. a. True

*b. False

11. True or false: Succession planning usually focuses on all positions in an

organization. a. True

*b. False

Chapter 7 1. Which of the following refers to indicators of what a job is meant to accomplish,

how performance is measured, and expected levels of job performance? *a. Performance standards b. Performance criteria c. Team-based appraisals d. Performance improvement strategies

2. In relation to performance management and performance measures, reliability

refers to a. whether an employee can be counted on to perform at a high level.

*b. consistency with which two or more managers rate performance when presented with comparable information. c. whether a performance measure measures what it is intended to measure. d. the extent to which factors out of the employee's control affect performance.

3. A primary care physician practice has decided to base its evaluation of physician

performance solely on the volume of patients seen. What problem is most likely to result from such an approach? a. Halo effect

*b. Criterion deficiency c. Criterion contamination d. Rating errors

4. Subordinate appraisal is most useful for a. evaluating the quality of performance data. b. learning about how peers perceive one's performance. c. organizations in which there aren't many managers.

*d. identifying managers' blind spots.

5. Which of the following is not an advantage of multisource appraisal?

*a. Because many people are involved in providing information, it fosters a high level of trust. b. It considers organizational goals and values. c. It contributes to team development and improvement. d. It emphasizes a customer focus.

6. The free rider syndrome is likely to be associated with

a. multisource appraisal.

*b. team-based compensation. c. self-appraisals. d. graphic rating scales.

7. Which of the following performance appraisal methods is likely to reduce

employee defensiveness and conflict? a. Ranking method b. Graphic rating scale c. Critical incident approach

*d. Behaviorally anchored rating scale

8. Which of the following is not an example of a rating error in performance

management? *a. Forced ranking b. Halo effect c. Central tendency d. Contrast effect

9. On a five-point rating form, a manager is asked to respond to the following

question: "How flexible is this person?" This question is likely part of which type of performance management process? *a. Graphic rating scale b. Management by objectives c. Behaviorally anchored rating scale d. None of the above

10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of management by objectives? a. It establishes specific and measurable goals. b. It involves setting goals with employee input. c. It is an opportunity to provide objective feedback to employees.

*d. The method is robust and equally applicable to all types of jobs.

11. True

or false: Because employee performance is so important to organizations, senior management consistently supports performance management procedures. a. True

*b. False

12. True or false: The performance management process has little impact on training in

organizations. a. True

*b. False

13. True or false: Periodic performance appraisals should never be used to make

personnel decisions. a. True

*b. False

14. True or false: Managers sometimes inflate an employee's performance appraisal to

avoid confrontation with the employee. *a. True b. False

15. True or false: A manager who rates an employee particularly low after

reviewing several high-performing employees may be doing so because of the contrast effect. *a. True b. False

Chapter 8 1. A hospital in a rural community is having difficulty attracting radiation therapists.

The department is trying to attract young, newly trained therapists. A decision has been made to pay these newly graduated therapists at a pay rate equivalent to that of radiation therapists who have been with the hospital for up to ten years. What compensation issue is relevant to this scenario? *a. Internal equity b. External competitiveness c. Extrinsic rewards d. Intrinsic rewards

2. A health system is building a new service line and must recruit applicants with a

specialized and scarce skill set. Which compensation strategy would be most appropriate for this health system to ensure competent staffing of this service line? a. A second-quartile compensation strategy

*b. A third-quartile compensation strategy c. A first-quartile compensation strategy d. Either a first- or second-quartile compensation strategy

3. In job evaluation, a benchmark job is

*a. a well-understood job that requires relatively stable knowledge, skills, and abilities. b. a relatively new job in an organization for which the requisite knowledge, skills, and abilities are not entirely clear. c. any job in an organization that can form the basis for ranking other jobs. d. a job that no longer exists in an organization but that can be used to evaluate the value of other jobs.

4. Using a point system of job evaluation, which of the following is least likely to

be used as a compensable factor? a. Educational requirements *b. Age and experience of the employee c. Supervisory responsibilities d. Mental stress

5. The management of a health center has decided to implement a compensation

system that rewards employees when the organization achieves improvements in efficiency, productivity, and cost savings. Which of the following best fits this approach to compensation? a. Profit-sharing plans

*b. Gain-sharing plans c. Piece-rate incentives d. A bonus system paid out annually

6. Which of the following is not a common criticism of pay for

performance? *a. Because peers evaluate an employee's performance in most pay- forperformance programs, bias is likely to be present. b. There is a tendency to please the manager rather than please the patient. c. Some goals may be rewarded at the expense of other valued goals. d. Pay for performance may inhibit innovation.

7. Which of the following is a potential outcome of physician practice under a

capitation arrangement? a. Physicians will provide too many diagnostic tests. b. Physicians will provide too many unnecessary procedures. c. Both a and b

*d. Physicians will provide too few diagnostic tests.

8. Broadbanding enables a. managers to pay employees on the basis of employee

characteristics and performance. b. greater decentralization of decisions about salaries. c. managers to more easily change an individual's compensation. *d. All of the above

9. According to Bokhour and colleagues (2006), which of the following is not true

about physician attitudes toward pay-for-quality performance programs? a. Physicians are concerned that some quality measures are outside their scope of control. *b. Physicians are more motivated by productivity-oriented incentives than by quality-oriented incentives. c. Physicians believe that recorded data are often inaccurate. d. The method of reward distribution affects the reward's power to motivate change.

10. Which physician practice model is most closely related to the combination of

physician shortages, growth in the number of partially retired physicians, lifestyle considerations, and the increased number of female physicians? a. Solo practice physicians

b. Physician managers

*c. Locum tenens physicians d. General practitioners as the only physicians in small rural communities

11. True or false: Intrinsic rewards are tangible and include salary, benefits, and time

off. a. True

*b. False

12. True or false: According to equity theory, an operating room nurse is likely to

compare himself to operating room nurses in the same hospital. *a. True b. False

13. True or false: A health department with limited resources is more likely than a

highly specialized private for-profit hospital to pay its employees using a first-quartile compensation strategy. *a. True b. False

14. True or false: Point systems of job evaluation focus exclusively on the age and

experience of the person holding the job. a. True

*b. False

15. True or false: Knowledge-based pay makes employees more adaptable.

*a. True b. False

Chapter 9 1. The Social Security Act of 1934 provided American citizens with a. social welfare benefits. b. sick leave pools and paid time off.

*c. retirement income protection. d. health insurance.

2. Common ways to educate staff about the value of the benefits package include a. using orientation materials. b. providing a benefits calculation tool. c. producing customized benefits statements.

*d. All of the above

3. Personal health information (PHI) includes all of the following except what? a. Medical history b. Health insurance information

*c. Job performance evaluations d. Age and gender

4. Which of the following are covered by ERISA?

*a. Nongovernmental agencies b. Federal agencies c. State agencies d. All of the above

5. Which of the following is not considered a mandatory employment benefit? a. Unemployment compensation

*b. Sick leave c. Social Security d. Worker's compensation

6. Which type of life insurance accrues a cash value over time?

*a. Permanent b. Term c. Variable d. Split dollar

7. Which categories of retirement plan allow employees to access the balance in

their accounts? a. Defined contribution only b. Hybrid only

*c. Defined contribution and hybrid d. None of the above

8. Which type of retirement plan allows employees to contribute to their own

retirement? a. Nonqualified retirement plan b. Defined contribution plan c. Defined benefit plan

*d. Tax-deferred plan

9. True or false: Employer-sponsored benefits were a result of the wage freeze during

World War I. a. True

*b. False

10. True or false: Total compensation is the value of the employee's base salary less

the value of the benefits package. a. True

*b. False

11. True or false: In terms of health insurance, employees are primarily

concerned with increases in out-of-pocket payments for premiums. *a. True b. False

12. True or false: COBRA protects employees and their family members with

preexisting medical conditions from health coverage discrimination. a. True

*b. False

Chapter 10 1. Which of the following is true about labor unions in healthcare organizations? a. Unionization is illegal in most healthcare organizations.

*b. Healthcare unions have not yet realized significant membership increases. c. Most hospital workers in the United States belong to a labor union. d. Hospital unions are more likely than unions in other sectors to win elections.

2. Which of the following is most likely to be a sign of workers' desire to

unionize? *a. Absenteeism b. Increasing benefits offered to employees c. Poor economic conditions d. Hiring managers from within the organization

4. Representatives of labor and management decide to call in a third party to resolve

an impasse in contract negotiations. Both sides have agreed to abide by the decision of the third party. This method of conflict resolution is known as what? a. Mediation

*b. Arbitration c. A lockout d. Grievance procedures

5. During a strike, a. it is illegal for employees to hold union meetings. b. it is illegal for management to hire replacement workers. c. it is illegal for management or labor to change their bargaining

position. *d. it is legal for employers to hire replacement workers.

6. The National Labor Relations Act

*a. is the legal framework for labor relations in the United States. b. allows public hospital employees to unionize. c. gave states the right to enact right-to-work laws. d. explicitly made unionization illegal.

7. The closed shop describes a situation in which

a. no employee is required to join a union as a condition of employment. b. an employee is required to join a union after starting work.

*c. an employer is permitted to hire only union members. d. it is illegal for nonemployees to enter a place of employment.

8. The 1974 Health Care Amendments a. made it illegal for healthcare employees to strike. b. made it legal for employers to fire employees who are union organizers. c. made it illegal for healthcare employees to picket in front of healthcare

organizations. *d. extended union representation rights to healthcare workers.

9. Which employee group was not included in the NLRB decision identifying

categories of hospital workers permitted to organize in a bargaining unit? a. Nurses b. Audiologists c. Physicians

*d. Middle managers

10. Which of the following was an important factor in physicians' interest in

unionization in the 1990s? a. Physicians were earning less money. b. Nurses were not providing sufficient support to physicians.

*c. Physicians were unhappy about corporate interference in medical decisions. d. The gap between the earnings of primary care physicians and surgical specialists was widening.

11. True or false: The distributive bargaining approach distributes resources more

fairly, meaning it is a win-win type of bargaining. a. True

*b. False

12. True or false: A lockout occurs when an employer shuts down operations

before or during a labor dispute. *a. True b. False

13. True or false: Grievances are primarily filed when labor and management

cannot reach agreement on the terms of a contract.

a. True

*b. False

14. True or false: The primary purpose of the Taft-Hartley Act was to protect

employees from abusive employers. a. True

*b. False

15. True or false: The most effective way to prevent unionization is to screen out

potential union organizers during the hiring process. a. True

*b. False

Chapter 11 1. In Thomas and Ely's discussion of the evolution of thinking about diversity, the

"access and legitimacy paradigm" is characterized by a. ensuring that there is a sufficient number of employees from diverse

backgrounds. *b. seeing the value in differences among employees. c. having employees from diverse backgrounds in senior management. d. training employees to understand employment laws dealing with discrimination.

2. The FRAME acronym is useful for a. helping people overcome their own biases. b. helping people appreciate the perspectives of other people. c. understanding what makes us who we are and how we view

situations. *d. All of the above

4. True or false: Physical abilities may be considered one dimension of diversity.

*a. True b. False

5. Which of the following statements is projected for the US population in 2044?

*a. More than half of all Americans will belong to a group other than nonHispanic white. b. About 20 percent of the population will be foreign born. c. The population will be significantly younger than today's population. d. All of the above

6. True or false: Although diversity and inclusion are worthy goals, a study by

McKinsey and Company Global Consulting Firm found that organizations that exhibit gender and ethnic diversity are no more likely to outperform organizations that lack gender and ethnic diversity. a. True

*b. False

7.

refers to the way people differ within an organization, whereas refers to the extent that an organization is accepting of multiple perspectives.

a. Diversity; an organization that trains people to be tolerant of minorities b. Inclusion; diversity c. Diversity; the absence of discriminatory practices

*d. Diversity; inclusion

Chapter 12 1. Which of the following is one of the six characteristics of a high- quality healthcare

system according to the report Crossing the Quality Chasm? a. Effective b. Timely c. Patient centered

*d. All of the above

2. A physician prescribes the wrong dose of a medication. This may be classified as

which of the following? *a. Misuse b. Overuse c. Underuse d. An unpreventable error

3. True or false: Organizations may adopt a quality improvement orientation

to gain a competitive advantage in the marketplace. *a. True b. False

4. The four stages of the Model for Improvement process are a. plan-do-study-review. b. plan-do-review-change.

*c. plan-do-study-act. d. plan-control-study-change.

5. The use of different levels of belts (e.g., yellow, black) is characteristic of

which quality improvement methodology? *a. Six Sigma b. Lean c. Model for Improvement d. Total quality management

6. Eliminating process steps that do not create value for the customer is among the

steps characteristic of a. Six Sigma

*b. Lean c. Model for Improvement d. Total quality management

7. True or false: Common to all quality improvement efforts are planning,

organizing and coordinating efforts, and sustaining change. *a. True b. False

9. True or false: Root cause analysis refers to meetings where people on multiple QI

teams come together to learn from the experiences of people in similar oragnizations working on QI teams. a. True

*b. False

10. It is desirable for QI teams to have a diverse membership because a. it is legally mandated by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act. b. membership of QI teams should represent the diversity of the organization.

*c. diversity may generate a wider range of perspectives. d. All of the above

11. True or false: Although working on a team is important to QI efforts, teamwork

should not be formally included in a health professional's job description because it does not represent the major area of their professional work. a. True

*b. False