Chapter 1 Common Measurements in Exercise Physiology MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Work is defined as
A) the ability to transform energy from one state to another. B) the ability to utilize oxygen. C) the product of force times distance. D) the product of distance times power output.
2)
Power is defined as
A) the ability to perform work. B) work divided by the amount of time required to perform the work. C) the product of work times force (Work × force). D) the product of force times distance (force × distance).
3)
The SI unit for work is the
A) joule. B) watt. C) kpm. D) kcal.
4) Direct calorimetry is a means of determining energy expenditure and involves the measurement of
A) oxygen consumption. B) heat production. C) ATP hydrolysis. D) carbon dioxide production.
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5)
The energy cost of horizontal running can be estimated accurately because
A) the VO 2 of running is always the same. B) the VO 2 of horizontal running is always 1 MET. C) the VO 2 increases linearly with running speed. D) none of these answers is correct.
6) The most common technique used to measure oxygen consumption in an exercise physiology laboratory is
A) closed-circuit spirometry. B) open-circuit spirometry. C) direct calorimetry. D) computer calorimetry.
7)
One MET is defined as a metabolic equivalent and is equal to
A) resting VO 2. B) 50% of resting VO 2. C) 200% of resting VO 2. D) VO 2 max.
8)
Net efficiency is defined as
A) work output/energy expended at rest multiplied by 100. B) work output/energy expended above rest multiplied by 100. C) work output/energy expended multiplied by 100. D) energy expended/work output multiplied by 100.
9)
Exercise efficiency is greater in subjects who
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A) possess a higher percentage of fast muscle fibers. B) possess a higher percentage of slow muscle fibers. C) possess 50% fast fibers and 50% slow fibers. D) None of these answers is correct.
10)
To achieve the highest efficiency during exercise, the optimum speed of movement
A) increases as the power output increases. B) decreases as the power output increases. C) remains constant as the power output increases. D) increases as the power output decreases.
11)
The SI units used to describe power are
A) Newtons. B) joules. C) watts. D) joules per second.
12)
Net efficiency
as work rate increases.
A) increases B) does not change C) decreases D) follows a sine wave pattern
13)
A kilocalorie is equal to
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A) 100 calories. B) 1,000 calories. C) 4,186 kilojoules. D) 4.186 joules.
14) In order to standardize terms for the measurement of energy, power, work, etc., scientists have developed a common system of terminology called
A) the English system. B) the metric system. C) system international units (SI). D) None of these answers is correct.
15) The incline of a treadmill is expressed in units called percent grade. Percent grade is defined as
A) the angle of the treadmill expressed in degrees. B) the amount of horizontal travel of the treadmill belt per minute. C) the hypotenuse divided by the vertical rise. D) the vertical rise per 100 units of belt travel.
16)
The term ergometry refers to
A) the measurement of heat production. B) the measurement of work output. C) the hypotenuse divided by the vertical rise. D) the vertical rise per 100 units of belt travel.
17) Calculating the work performed on a cycle ergometer requires that you know all of the following except
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A) subject's body weight. B) resistance against flywheel. C) pedaling speed (i.e., distance traveled). D) duration of exercise.
18) Compared to a highly economical runner, runners that exhibit poor running economy would require
A) a lower VO 2 at any given running speed. B) a higher VO 2 at any given running speed. C) the same VO 2 at any given running speed. D) None of these answers is correct.
19)
The treadmill angle (expressed in degrees) can be determined by
A) visual inspection of the angle of the treadmill. B) trigonometric computations. C) using a measurement device called an inclinometer. D) Both trigonometric computations and using a measurement device called an inclinometer answers are correct.
20) The measurement of oxygen consumption during exercise can provide an estimate of metabolic rate. The rationale behind the use of oxygen consumption to estimate metabolic rate is:
A) that measurement of oxygen consumption provides a direct estimate of how much carbohydrate is used a fuel source. B) that a direct relationship exists between oxygen consumed and the amount of heat produced in the body. C) that measurement of oxygen consumption provides a direct estimate of how much fat is used a fuel source. D) None of these answers is correct.
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21) During cycle ergometer exercise, net efficiency decreases as the work rate increases. The mechanism to explain this observation is
A) the relationship between energy expenditure and work rate is curvilinear rather than linear. B) the energy requirement of exercise decreases as work rate increases. C) that, independent of work rate, oxygen consumption during exercise always increases over time. D) None of these answers is correct.
22) Calculate the power output when an individual performs 700 joules of work in one minute.
A) 11.7 watts B) 117 watts C) 42,000 watts D) Power cannot be calculated with the information provided. 1 watt = 1 joule per second
23) A subject performing a 10-MET activity would have an oxygen consumption of approximately A) 10 ml•kg -1•min -1. B) 25 ml•kg -1•min -1. C) 35 ml•kg -1•min -1. D) 45 ml•kg -1•min -1.
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24) Calculate the total amount of work performed in 5 minutes of exercise on a cycle ergometer, given the following: Resistance on flywheel = 30 Newtons Cranking speed = 50 revolutions per minute Distance traveled per revolution = 6 meters 1 joule = 1 newton-meter
A) 9,000 joules B) 4500 joules C) 45,000 joules D) Total work performed cannot be calculated given the information above. 1 joule = 1 Newton-meter
25) Compute the power output (watts) during 60 seconds of treadmill exercise, given the following: Treadmill grade = 10% Horizontal speed = 100 meters per minute Subject's body weight = 60 kg (i.e., force = 588.6 Newtons) 1 joule = 1 newton-meter 1 watt = 1 joule per second 1 kcal = 426.8 kpm
A) 98.1 watts B) 981 watts C) 5886 watts D) Power output cannot be calculated given the information above.
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26)
Calculate net efficiency, given the following:
Resting VO 2 = 0.25 liters per minute Exercise VO 2 = 1.50 liters per minute Work rate = 100 watts (W) or 612 kilopond meters per minute 1 watt = 1 joule per second 1 kcal = 4186 joules 1 liter VO 2 = 5 kcal or 20,930 joules
A) approximately 19% B) approximately 20% C) approximately 23% D) approximately 28%
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A) semilunar valves. B) bicuspid valve. C) atrioventricular valves. D) coronary valves.
5)
The muscle of the heart is referred to as the
A) pericardium. B) myocardium. C) epicardium. D) endocardium.
6)
Electrical impulses are conducted between heart muscle cells by
A) intercalated discs. B) intermediate junctions. C) active transport of sodium between cells. D) Purkinje fibers.
7)
The contraction phase of the heart is called
A) diastole. B) atrial contraction. C) systole. D) the cardiac cycle.
8)
In a healthy heart, the time spent in systole is generally
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A) longer than B) equal to C) shorter than D) three times longer than
9)
During exercise, the time spent in diastole and systole
A) remains unchanged. B) is decreased equally. C) is decreased, with the greatest decrease occurring in diastole. D) is increased, with the greatest increase occurring in diastole.
10)
The difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure is called the
A) pulse pressure. B) mean arterial blood pressure. C) brachial pressure. D) double product.
11)
The normal pacemaker of the heart is the
A) atrioventricular node. B) sinoatrial node. C) A-V node. D) S-V node.
12) The represents ventricular repolarization during a recording of the electrical activity (i.e., ECG) of the heart.
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A) P wave B) QRS complex C) T wave D) R wave
13)
Withdrawal of parasympathetic influence on the heart results in
A) an increase in HR. B) a decrease in HR. C) a small decrease in arterial blood pressure. D) a small decrease in arterial blood pressure followed by an increase in HR.
14)
The cardiovascular control center is located in the
A) medulla oblongata. B) carotid sinus. C) cerebrum. D) atria of the heart.
15) The fact that an increase in end-diastolic ventricular volume increases the stroke volume of the heart is an illustration of the
A) influence of the parasympathetic nervous system on cardiac output. B) Frank-Starling law of the heart. C) influence of atrioventricular node on cardiac output. D) influence of blood pressure on cardiac output.
16)
The increase in cardiac output that occurs during exercise is due to
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A) both an increase in mean arterial pressure and a decrease in vascular resistance. B) a decrease in vascular resistance only. C) an increase in mean arterial blood pressure only. D) an increase in heart rate and a decrease in mean arterial blood pressure.
17)
The most important variable that determines resistance to blood flow is
A) the viscosity of blood. B) the length of the blood vessel. C) the diameter of the blood vessel. D) blood pressure.
18)
The relationship between cardiac output and metabolic rate is
A) linear and negatively correlated. B) linear and positively correlated. C) curvilinear. D) exponential.
19) In most subjects, stroke volume continues to increase during incremental exercise up to approximately
A) 20% of VO 2 max. B) 40% of VO 2 max. C) 75% of VO 2 max. D) 90% of VO 2 max.
20) The age-dependent decrease in maximal heart rate can be estimated via the Karvonen formula
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A) HR max = 200 - age. B) HR max = 205 - age. C) HR max = 210 - age. D) HR max = 220 - age.
21)
Autoregulation of blood flow to contracting muscles during exercise is due to
A) the withdrawal of sympathetic impulses to arteries. B) an increase in parasympathetic outflow to arterioles. C) locally produced factors such as nitric oxide, prostaglandins, and adenosine. D) an increase in sympathetic impulses to arterioles.
22) Most of the increase in mean arterial blood pressure that occurs during dynamic (isotonic) incremental exercise is due to
A) an increase in diastolic blood pressure. B) the increase in systolic blood pressure. C) both an increase in diastolic and systolic blood pressure. D) an increase in systolic blood pressure combined with an equal drop in diastolic blood pressure.
23)
Sympatholysis refers to
A) local inhibition of parasympathetic-induced vasoconstriction. B) local inhibition of sympathetic-induced vasoconstriction. C) increased parasympathetic-induced vasodilation. D) increased sympathetic-induced vasodilation.
24)
A local increase in the nitric oxide concentration around arterioles would result in
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A) vasoconstriction. B) no change in vessel diameter. C) vasodilation. D) None of these answers is correct.
25)
The arterial-venous oxygen difference
A) increases as a function of exercise intensity. B) does not change during exercise. C) decreases as the exercise intensity increases. D) is highest during submaximal exercise.
26) The relationship between oxygen uptake, cardiac output, and the arterial-venous oxygen difference is described mathematically by the
A) Hill equation. B) Fenn equation. C) Fick equation. D) Frank-Starling law.
27)
The metabolic demand of the heart can be estimated by
A) the rate-pressure product. B) the double product. C) multiplying heart rate by systolic blood pressure. D) All of these.
28)
The greatest resistance to blood flow is in the
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A) veins. B) arterioles. C) aorta. D) capillaries.
29) The central command theory of cardiovascular control proposes that initial signal to the cardiovascular control center comes from
A) the cerebellum. B) the brainstem. C) higher brain centers. D) feedback loops coming from muscle receptors.
30) Which of the following is the correct order of events pertaining to contraction of the left ventricle?
A) The bundle branches depolarize, the ventricle contracts, the ventricular pressure increases, and blood exits the ventricle. B) The aortic volume increases, the ventricular pressure increases, the ventricle contracts, the bundle branches depolarize. C) The ventricular pressure increases, the bundle branches depolarize, the aortic volume increases, the ventricle contracts. D) The bundle branches depolarize, the ventricular pressure increases, the ventricle contracts, the aortic volume increases.
31) Which of the following most accurately describes changes in autonomic control of heart rate during incremental exercise (from rest to VO 2 max)?
A) PNS outflow is followed by SNS withdrawal B) PNS withdrawal is followed by SNS outflow C) PNS and SNS outflow D) PNS and SNS withdrawal
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32)
Which of the following factors can decrease blood pressure?
A) systemic vasodilation. B) an increase in blood viscosity. C) an increase in stroke volume. D) increased parasympathetic nervous system activity.
33)
Skeletal and cardiac muscle are similar in which of the following ways?
A) both muscles contain type I, IIa, and IIx fibers B) both muscles are under voluntary control C) both muscles contain fibers that are branched D) both muscles are composed of striated fibers containing actin and myosin
34) Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for increasing venous return during exercise?
A) an increase in stroke volume B) venoconstriction C) skeletal muscle contractions D) rhythmic pattern of breathing provides a mechanical pump to increase venous return
35) Which of the following represents the correct order of events of the flow of blood after it leaves the left ventricle and before it returns to the right atrium?
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A) Blood flows through the aorta, oxygen moves out of the capillaries, blood flows though veins, blood enters the venules. B) Blood flows through the venules, blood flows through the veins, oxygen moves out of the capillaries, blood enters the aorta. C) Oxygen moves out of the capillaries, blood flows through the aorta, blood flows through the venules, blood enters the veins. D) Blood flows through the aorta, oxygen moves out of the capillaries, blood flows through the venules, blood enters the veins.
36) Atrial repolarization occurs during which phase of the cardiac cycle as observed on an ECG?
A) the p wave B) the qrs complex C) the t wave D) the pr interval
37) According to the Fick equation, if cardiac output doubles during exercise and the arterialmixed venous oxygen difference remains constant, body oxygen consumption would
A) remain constant. B) decrease by 50%. C) increase by 100%. D) None of these answers is correct.
38)
Which of the following statements about beta-adrenergic blocking medications are true?
A) beta blocking drugs reduce heart rate during exercise. B) beta blockade reduces the vigor of ventricular contraction. C) beta blocking drugs compete with epinephrine and norepinephrine for betaadrenergic receptors in the heart. D) All of these answers are correct.
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39) Which of the following factors contribute to "fine-tuning" of cardiovascular control during exercise?
A) muscle chemoreceptors B) baroreceptors C) muscle mechanoreceptors D) All of these are correct
40) Which of the following factors has the greatest influence on blood flow to a skeletal muscle during exercise?
A) arterial pressure B) diameter of the arterial blood vessels leading to the muscle C) number of capillaries surrounding the muscle D) the viscosity of the blood
41)
Which of the following statements about heart rate variability (HRV) is NOT true?
A) HRV refers to the time interval between heart beats. B) Epidemiological studies suggest that a low HRV is an excellent predictor of mortality in some patient populations. C) HRV decreases in response to regular aerobic exercise training. D) HRV is influenced by the balance between the parasympathetic nervous system and the sympathetic nervous system.
42) If a person with ischemic heart disease experiences chest pain when their double product exceeds 20,000, which of the following combinations will produce angina?
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