TEST BANK For Business Communication Developing Leaders for a Networked World, 4th Edition by Peter

Test Bank For Business Communication Developing Leaders for a Networked World, 4th Edition, Peter Cardon Chapter 1-16

Chapter 1 Student name:__________ 1)

Why has establishing credibility become so important in the post-trust era?

2) Discuss the role of competence in establishing credibility. Explain how competence affects the perceptions of others.

3) What role does understanding the interests of others play in the establishment of credibility? Give a specific example.

4) Why should a business take a stakeholder view of groups in society that are not part of the company and do not use the company's products or services?

5)

Discuss the role of character in establishing credibility.

6)

What are business ethics?

7)

Why is transparency especially important in the post-trust era?

8)

Why is it important that corporate values be aligned with personal values?

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9)

Why is it important for a company to have a business ethics policy?

10) What are the elements of the FAIR test? Give one example of when the elements of this test would be useful.

11)

The post-trust era is a period of time

A) when the government no longer allows monopolies or trusts to form.

B) characterized by the formation of trusts to manage the wealth of businesses.

C) when people put more of their trust in big business than in big government.

D) when the government allows financial trusts to try to make the economy safer.

E) when people have lost the trust they once had in the business community.

12)

What brought about the post-trust era?

A) the disclosure of widespread cheating in school B) a series of business scandals and economic crises C) the decrease in human interactions in business D) the practice of outsourcing jobs E) a switch to more transparency by businesses

13)

What is the key characteristic of the post-trust era?

A) The public believes businesses operate against the public's best interests.

B) The majority of employees have faith in their leaders and colleagues at work.

C) Transparency is no longer important in the workplace.

D) Stakeholders do not require businesses to be accountable to them.

E) Character-based traits play a very small role in establishing credibility.

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14) In one study, over three-quarters of students surveyed felt that ________ was not a serious offense.

A) Internet plagiarism B) stealing office supplies C) lying on social media D) cheating on a boy/girlfriend E) padding a resume

15)

What is true about competence in the workplace?

A) It has grown less important in the post-trust era.

B) It is most often evaluated by one's track record of achievements.

C) It is innate and cannot be gained through experience.

D) It increases when individuals focus on connecting with others.

E) It depends mainly on the ability to build a sense of community.

16) Edgar's boss has told him that he needs to demonstrate more competence on the job.

What action will help him do so?

A) taking on fewer projects at one time B) asking coworkers what their needs are C) working independently and not consulting others D) hiding his mistakes from his team members E) setting specific work goals and achieving them

17) The Daily News just hired five young reporters. Which new employee most likely has the most competence?

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A) Corrinne, who made top grades in journalism at a prestigious university and then traveled for a year B) Paulo, who has a degree in English and has published three stories in literary magazines C) Hermione, who earned a journalism degree and interned at a local newspaper for two summers D) Bob, who earned a degree in philosophy and spent a year writing for a school newspaper E) Rebecca, who made top grades at a small college and graduated with a degree in English

18) Leona is the general manager of a global manufacturing company. She wants to give one of her managers an "Employee of the Year" award. Which manager should she choose if she is looking for the employee with the highest level of competence?

A) Teel, who is completely trustworthy with confidential information B) Diana, who is the first one to explain what she needs in any situation C) Coral, who develops effective action plans to achieve team goals D) Jiana, who considers company interests above those of customers E) David, who keeps a low profile and does not draw attention to himself

19)

Which action will help a manager establish a sense of caring?

A) holding regular meetings to ask about employee concerns B) setting clear and measurable goals for each employee C) taking a course in making teams function more efficiently D) assigning people to projects without their input E) encouraging people to use the pronouns "I" and "me" in communication

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20)

Which communication technique shows that someone has a team orientation?

A) discussing only positives rather than focusing on negatives B) being open and transparent about the company's confidential matters C) using the FAIR test to evaluate what other people say D) using the pronouns "you" and "we" to discuss goals and needs E) keeping personal motivations hidden in the workplace

21)

How does caring help establish credibility in the business world?

A) It helps people understand serious business problems.

B) It encourages people to work as individuals instead of as teams.

C) It promotes closed communication structures.

D) It helps people connect with others.

E) It makes individuals less transparent.

22) Ralph and Quan are both on the staff of a car dealership. Ralph is always asking colleagues to cover his shifts, but he never returns the favor. Quan often covers shifts for colleagues even though he rarely takes time off himself. Which statement best describes the difference between Ralph and Quan?

A) Quan adheres to the company ethics policy, and Ralph does not.

B) Quan relies on personal values, and Ralph relies on corporate values.

C) Quan is an effective communicator, and Ralph is not.

D) Quan is a giver, and Ralph is a taker.

E) Quan trusts his colleagues, and Ralph does not.

23) The Global Business Machine Company has been around for almost a century and generally has a good reputation for accountability. Which action might harm its reputation for taking a stakeholder view?

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A) The company consistently pays its shareholders high dividends.

B) The company offers its employees good benefits packages.

C) The company develops products that meet customer needs.

D) The company helps its employees develop professional skills.

E) The company keeps profits high by eliminating pollution controls.

24) Aiko is a middle manager at a technology company. Which action would help Aiko build a sense of community among her team members?

A) assign all the team roles without explaining why decisions are made B) emphasize how the quality of the team's work affects her chance at promotion C) empower each team member to set personal goals for his or her career D) put more emphasis on immediate results than on developing skills E) encourage team members to compete to improve productivity

25) George is an editorial manager at a publishing company. He wants to give one of his supervisors an "Employee of the Year" award. Which supervisor should he choose if he is looking for an employee with a strong sense of caring?

A) Jason, who sets short- and long-term deadlines for every project and meets them promptly B) Ayella, who always takes on extra work to help the department meet its deadlines C) Paco, who is the best copy editor and proofreader in the department D) Cho, who helps her employees develop the skills that will allow them to advance E) Tomas, who communicates openly whenever he has doubts or questions

26)

Character refers to

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A) the stated and lived values of a company.

B) the knowledge and skills needed to accomplish business tasks.

C) a reputation for adhering to high moral and ethical values.

D) a set of principles that govern behavior in the workplace.

E) the ability to cultivate a sense of community in the workplace.

27)

Which statement is true of character?

A) It is central in establishing trust.

B) It is innate and cannot be cultivated.

C) Its importance has decreased in the post-trust era.

D) It is seldom important in long-term, collaborative relationships.

E) It increases when the level of transparency decreases.

28) Geoff is the purchasing manager at a company that manufactures clothing. He knows he could save his company money by using cheaper, thinner cotton, but he says, "Our customers count on us to provide a durable product. I do not want to let them down." What quality does this demonstrate?

A) competence B) character C) experience D) expertise E) community

29) When business executives were asked what was the most important determinant of trust in the workplace, the number one answer was

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A) positive attitude.

B) honesty.

C) intelligence.

D) motivation.

E) experience.

30) Jian produces results. He is scrupulously honest; he checks to see that his teammates have what they need; and he always talks about his team's accomplishments, not his own. However, he fails to consider the impact of his company's actions on the public. Jian needs to improve in developing a sense of

A) kindness.

B) community.

C) character.

D) accountability.

E) competence.

31) Performing at the highest standards, not just for oneself, but for the team, for the supervisor, for the consumer, and for the company's shareholders, indicates a sense of

A) individuality.

B) accountability.

C) opportunity.

D) future-orientation.

E) endurance.

32) During performance evaluations, Jana is consistently praised for her ability to see how corporate decisions will affect stakeholders. What does this characteristic of Jana's demonstrate?

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A) accountability B) competence C) expertise D) transparency E) honesty

33)

Business ethics are defined as

A) the skills needed to identify and overcome business problems.

B) the practice of sharing all relevant information with stakeholders.

C) a written code of conduct designed to guide the actions of a company.

D) the commonly accepted beliefs and principles in the business community for acceptable behavior.

E) a set of guidelines for evaluating how much honesty to use in a given situation.

34)

Which statement about business ethics is true?

A) They are skills needed to identify and overcome business problems.

B) They are of decreasing significance to businesses in the post-trust era.

C) They are self-formulated values prioritized and adhered to by individuals in business.

D) They measure the extent to which employees care for the needs of the business.

E) They are commonly held principles in the business community for acceptable behavior.

35)

Why has transparency become so important in the post-trust era?

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A) It creates the feeling among employees that managers care about their interests and needs.

B) It helps reduce the fear that unethical or dishonest practices are being conducted in secret.

C) It reduces incompetence by stressing the acquisition of necessary skills and knowledge for the job.

D) It empowers each individual employee to think primarily about his or her career needs.

E) It focuses on action and results so it helps businesses address their most pressing issues.

36) Barb saw her best friend, Marcie, take office supplies from the workplace. Marcie said it was no big deal, and Barb didn’t want to turn her in, but she knew it was ethically wrong and felt guilty that she was being disloyal to the company. Barb discovered that making the right choice isn’t always easy. This is an example of

A) viewing coworkers' motives with suspicion.

B) feeling resistant to new ways of doing things.

C) rationalizing keeping the secret.

D) keeping one's motives to oneself.

E) an ethical dilemma.

37)

What should you do if you observe unethical behavior in the workplace?

A) Assume that the person knows what he or she is doing and ignore it.

B) Accuse the person of acting with bad motives or criminal intent.

C) Ask questions that challenge the rationalization of the behavior.

D) Report the behavior to the media or to law enforcement immediately.

E) Make a joke about the behavior to subtly convey your discomfort with it.

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38)

Which statement is true of corporate values?

A) Corporate values are those that are formulated and adhered to by individuals.

B) Publicly traded companies can decline to adopt a code of conduct.

C) The employees of a company are not bound by corporate values.

D) Corporate values are most effective when aligned with personal values.

E) Corporate values are implied and unwritten rules that are open to interpretation.

39) Marion is the general manager of a sports equipment manufacturing company. She wants to give one of her employees an "Employee of the Year" award. Which of the following individuals should she choose if she is looking for an employee with a strong sense of ethics?

A) Ivy, who shares all relevant information with stakeholders B) Nicholas, who went to night school to acquire more job-related skills C) Taylor, who shares the company's trade secrets with its competitors D) Keiko, who created a spreadsheet to help track production stages E) Victoria, who conducts personal business on company time

40) What type of company is required by the Sarbanes-Oxley Act to have a code of ethics available to all employees?

A) all companies that employ more than 100 people B) all companies that trade internationally C) all companies that have more than a single owner D) all companies that are publicly traded E) all companies that make more than a million dollars

41)

The most successful people are those whose

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A) personal values take priority over the corporate values where they work.

B) personal values are subservient to the corporate values where they work.

C) personal values align with the corporate values where they work.

D) lives are ruled entirely by their personal values.

E) lives are ruled entirely by the corporate values where they work.

42)

What is the relationship between honesty and competition?

A) Too much honesty destroys competition.

B) Businesses must commit fraud to compete.

C) Truly honest businesses do not need to compete.

D) Honesty and competition have no relationship.

E) Honesty allows performance based on merit.

43) Basir is the chief financial officer of his company. At the annual meeting, he gives a presentation that contains only positive financial news even though the company had a lay-off in the previous year. What impact is Basir’s presentation likely to have on the employees?

A) It will create hope that the coming year will be better than the previous year.

B) It will cause employees to forget about the previous year's problems.

C) It will create mistrust because the presentation did not offer the whole truth.

D) It will not have much effect because employees do not listen to such presentations.

E) It will impress the employees with Basir’s team orientation and positive attitude.

44) Marco works for a research firm. He discloses a client's confidential information publicly. This action is an example of a

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A) business ethics violation.

B) low-trust relationship.

C) conflict between personal and corporate values.

D) failure to be transparent.

E) rationalization of unprofessional practices.

45)

What is the term for the stated and lived values of a company?

A) corporate values B) corporate relationship C) code of ethics D) business ethics E) professional practices

46) Sara is director of human resources, and as such she is tasked with creating a document that states the company’s most important values and rules of conduct. This is called

A) a code of conduct.

B) an ethical standards statement.

C) a company rules bulletin.

D) a human resources manual.

E) organizational guidelines.

47)

What does the "F" in the FAIR test of ethical business communication stand for?

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A) Fresh B) Facts C) First D) Forthright E) Fitting

48)

What does the "I" in the FAIR test of ethical business communication stand for?

A) Intent of communicator B) Interest of audience C) Impacts on stakeholders D) Insight into motives E) Illustration of credibility

49)

What can the FAIR test help you avoid?

A) showing preference to one employee over another B) revealing confidential or proprietary information C) receiving low ratings from subordinates D) rationalizing unethical behaviors E) being disrespectful to other people

50) Parul is a manager who is preparing to send a memo to members of her team. What will best help her evaluate the memo before she sends it?

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A) asking questions to challenge rationalizations B) consulting the Ethics Resource Center C) surveying team members D) applying the FAIR test E) reviewing her company's code of ethics

51) Rhonda is the general manager of a software company. She wants to give one of her employees an "Employee of the Year" award. Which of the following individuals should she choose if she is looking for an employee who communicates fairly in business?

A) Juliana, who always discloses her sources of information B) Evan, who often draws conclusions from assumptions C) Debbi, who often says that customers never know what they want D) Lina, who builds team spirit by reminding people when birthdays are E) Ted, who seldom checks his programs for bugs

52) How does establishing credibility to maintain a high level of trust impact communication?

A) It improves communication because people have to rely more on rhetoric.

B) It improves communication because people give the benefit of the doubt.

C) It worsens communication because people take things for granted.

D) It worsens communication because people question each other's motives.

E) It improves communication because people have to be persuaded to cooperate.

53) According to management expert Stephen M.R. Covey, what is foundational to permanent success?

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A) speaking and writing eloquently B) demanding the respect of subordinates C) overcoming many struggles D) inspiring the trust of others E) having a warm and charming manner

54) In the example in the text about Tim Cook, CEO of Apple, what method is recommended to be used to evaluate his letters to shareholders?

A) the FAIR test B) customer opinion polls C) the outcomes of the letters D) similar responses in government privacy cases E) evaluation by the board of directors

55) Using the FAIR test involves providing access to ________ and explaining how you made your decisions, particularly in complicated and emotionally charged situations.

A) your real motivations B) research and data C) employee records D) in-house documents E) all communications

56)

People who cheat in school are more likely to cheat in the workplace. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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57)

In the post-trust era, most employees have faith in their leaders and colleagues. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Kami, who wants to be a medical assistant, has lined up a summer internship working for a local hospital. That kind of experience will help her develop competence. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) Kersey pursues business opportunities aggressively because she believes that doing nothing can be very costly. Kersey demonstrates a focus on action. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) A manager who acts out of self-interest is more likely to be viewed as credible than one who does not. ⊚ ⊚

61)

true false

Effective communicators gain trust by connecting with others. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) Nancy wants to cultivate a sense of community. Her first step should be to explain her needs to the team.

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⊚ ⊚

63)

true false

Character-based traits are instrumental in establishing trust in the workplace. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Someone who has an enlarged vision of those affected by his or her business activities has a sense of accountability. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) In the phrase s takeholder view, the word stakeholder refers only to someone who owns a share of the business. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) A company president often states in her written and oral communications that she is answerable to the people who use the company's products. By repeating this so frequently, she most likely causes people to mistrust her. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) It is the duty of corporate employees to act visibly, predictably, and understandably when dealing with the public.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

68) In recent years, transparency has become the dominant business ethic for communications. ⊚ ⊚

69)

Employees usually speak up when they observe potentially unethical behavior. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

true false

In recent years, employees have increasingly judged their organizations to be ethical. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) A person of integrity will have one set of values for his or her personal life and another set of values for his or her work life. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Because business problems are expensive and time-consuming to solve, experts recommend avoiding open discussion of serious issues. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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73)

Today, workplace cultures are becoming more closed off and independent. ⊚ ⊚

74)

The FAIR test is a way to predict how employees will react to a new policy. ⊚ ⊚

75)

true false

true false

In high-trust relationships, communication is easier and more effective. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 11) E 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) E 17) C 18) C 19) A 20) D 21) D 22) D 23) E 24) C 25) D 26) C 27) A 28) B 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) E 35) B 36) E 21

37) C 38) D 39) A 40) D 41) C 42) E 43) C 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) B 48) C 49) E 50) D 51) A 52) B 53) D 54) A 55) A 56) TRUE 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 22

67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1)

Define the interpersonal communication process.

2)

How does emotional hijacking hinder effective interpersonal communication?

3)

Why is self-awareness particularly important in stressful and uncomfortable situations?

4)

How can individuals use mitigating information to help with self-management?

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5)

What are the six skills that make up active listening? Give a brief definition of each.

6) Identify the purpose of each of the following types of questions: rapport-building, funnel, probing, and solution-oriented.

7) Alan met a potential customer outside on a cold December day to discuss plowing the man's driveway all winter. The man nodded several times and sounded enthusiastic when he promised to call Alan after talking to his wife. However, Alan decided that was just a brush off.

The man had kept his arms folded across his chest, which Alan has heard is a sign of defensiveness. How well did Alan practice sight-reading? Explain using details from the scenario.

8) What are the eight guiding principles of improving civility in society as discussed by P. M. Forni?

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9) Which term best describes the process of sending and receiving verbal and nonverbal messages between two or more people?

A) active listening process B) verbal communication process C) interpersonal communication process D) decoding process E) encoding process

10) Rebekah intends to say something to her employee to explain why he is being transferred to a new project. The thought that Rebekah intends to communicate is known as

A) meaning.

B) message.

C) semantics.

D) encoding.

E) empathy.

11)

________ is the process of interpreting messages from others into meaning.

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A) Decoding B) Encoding C) Translating D) Filtering E) Communicating

12) Ayanna says, "You're so generous!" in a sarcastic tone. Marvin decides that Ayanna thinks he is cheap. What process has Marvin just completed?

A) filtering B) hijacking C) encoding D) synchronizing E) decoding

13) Karla was trying to study but she had trouble concentrating because her neighbors were having a loud argument. This is an example of ________ noise.

A) physical B) psychological C) semantic D) physiological E) cognitive

14) ________ noise occurs when communicators apply different meanings to the same words or phrases.

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A) Psychological B) Physical C) Semantic D) Cognitive E) Physiological

15)

Which statement is an example of psychological noise?

A) Pranav’s coworker does not understand what he tells her because nearby colleagues are speaking too loudly.

B) Pranav’s coworker does not understand his meaning when he uses technical accounting terms.

C) Pranav’s coworker does not understand what he tells her because she has a pounding headache.

D) Pranav’s coworker dismisses his product suggestions because she thinks he is too inexperienced.

E) Pranav’s coworker does not remember what he tells her about his schedule because she is rushing to get to a meeting.

16)

All outgoing messages are encoded and all incoming messages are decoded through

A) a filter of lifetime experiences.

B) psychological noise.

C) mitigating information.

D) a motivational value system.

E) sight-reading.

17) When Dana found out her proposal was rejected, she stormed into her boss's office and yelled at him. Dana was experiencing emotional

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A) filtering.

B) hijacking.

C) blackmail.

D) noise.

E) intelligence.

18)

Which of these is a domain of emotional intelligence?

A) shared meaning B) sympathy C) self-management D) semantics E) self-esteem

19) What is the process of understanding your own emotions as they occur and how they affect your behaviors and thoughts?

A) self-management B) empathy C) relationship management D) shared meaning E) self-awareness

20) Martha was once mugged on the subway, so now every time she enters the subway she starts to shake and feel afraid. For Martha, the subway is a

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A) trigger.

B) dysfunction.

C) noise.

D) distracter.

E) filter.

21) Elera knows that she is especially vulnerable to work stress today because she had a fight with her husband last night. Therefore, Elera does ten minutes of meditation on her lunch break, and later when she feels herself getting frustrated during a meeting, she counts to ten before making a comment. What quality does Elera's behavior demonstrate?

A) empathy B) self-management C) emotional hijacking D) self-awareness E) psychological noise

22) Which term involves having the discipline to hold off on current urges in order to meet long-term intentions?

A) empathy B) self-awareness C) self-management D) relationship management E) sight-reading

23) Which dimension of emotional intelligence is the "ability to accurately pick up on emotions in other people and understand what is really going on with them"?

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A) empathy B) relationship management C) self-management D) self-awareness E) sight-reading

24)

Which person demonstrates low self-management during interpersonal communication?

A) Mary speaks out constructively about differences of opinion.

B) Frank seeks to de-escalate interpersonal tensions and resolve issues at hand.

C) Kamili provides indirect and vague feedback and ideas to others.

D) Seong frequently vents frustrations without a constructive work purpose.

E) Duri is unaware of her own emotional state and its related impact on communication.

25)

Which person demonstrates high self-management during interpersonal communication?

A) Haruki controls emotional impulses that are not aligned with work and relationship goals.

B) Seda attempts to understand the feelings, perspectives, and needs of others.

C) Doreen engages in a me-first approach to work with colleagues.

D) Dick reacts defensively and with a me-first attitude when threats are perceived.

E) Mimi fails to listen carefully to others.

26)

Which person demonstrates high empathy during interpersonal communication?

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A) Maida controls emotional impulses that are not aligned with work and relationship goals.

B) Iman directs conversations to topics that focus on the needs of others.

C) Belinda is aware of triggers and related tendencies to say the wrong thing.

D) Macy spends a higher percentage of work conversations on work-related topics with a focus on solutions.

E) Sven frequently vents frustrations without a constructive work purpose.

27)

What is a strategy to improve self-management?

A) Encourage others who rarely speak up to voice their thoughts and feelings.

B) Think about group dynamics and the related impacts on each team member.

C) Examine strategies for overcoming impulses that compete with achieving your longrange goals.

D) Think about your last reactions to the following experiences: joy, anger, self-doubt, frustration.

E) Attend work-related social outings.

28) When Kian listens to a customer, he paraphrases the customer's request or complaint to make sure he understands it. Which active listening skill is he using?

A) reflecting B) holding judgment C) summarizing D) clarifying E) paying attention

29)

Which person demonstrates the active listening skill of clarifying?

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A) Trevor leans slightly forward as he listens to others.

B) Sandra asks questions that demonstrate her desire to understand other points of view.

C) William asks the other person to explain a point more completely.

D) Abel expresses his own perspective after he has heard the other person.

E) Bart pauses to think about what he has heard and then paraphrases it.

30) During his annual performance review, Bill says to his supervisor, "So the two main ways that you want me to improve are to double-check my work for accuracy and to be more of a team player. Is that correct?" What active listening skill is Bill using?

A) identifying B) paying attention C) reflecting D) summarizing E) sharing

31) Which active listening skill involves demonstrating a learner mindset rather than a judger mindset?

A) holding judgment B) paying attention C) reflecting D) summarizing E) sharing

32)

Which statement is a judger statement rather than a learner statement?

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A) Aren't you interested in trying new techniques?

B) How long do you think it will take to implement this new program?

C) What do the studies indicate the environmental impact will be?

D) How much do you estimate this will cost?

E) What other companies have tried this type of sales campaign?

33) Which barrier to effective listening involves neglecting listening because of pressing deadlines?

A) lack of time B) lack of patience and attention span C) image of leadership D) communication technology E) fear of bad news or other uncomfortable information

34) A series of questions that attempt to deconstruct a business issue by moving from general to specific are known as ________ questions.

A) rapport-building B) funnel C) probing D) closed E) solution-oriented

35) In a weekly project update meeting, Lisa asks the following questions of one of her employees: "Why were you late meeting your last deadline? Were there external factors that delayed your work? Did other coworkers get their part of the assignment to you on time? Do you need more help from me?" What type of questions are these?

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A) closed B) rapport-building C) solution-oriented D) probing E) funnel

36) Carolyn’s team is having a difficult time developing a team identity. She thinks the problem might be that the team members come from different departments and have not worked together before. What kind of questions can Carolyn use to help with this issue?

A) solution-oriented B) rapport-building C) probing D) closed E) funnel

37)

What is the main difference between probing questions and solution-oriented questions?

A) Probing questions move from general to specific, while solution-oriented questions move from specific to general.

B) Probing questions tend to be analytical and focused, while solution-oriented questions tend to be casual and social.

C) Probing questions tend to be closed, while solution-oriented questions tend to be open-ended.

D) Probing questions seek to uncover root causes, while solution-oriented questions focus on what should be done.

E) Probing questions tend to have a judger mindset, while solution-oriented questions tend to have a learner mindset.

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38) The act of anticipating intentions and moods through the perceptive examination of nonverbal cues is known as

A) sight-reading.

B) emotional intelligence.

C) shared meaning.

D) relationship management.

E) self-management.

39)

What does research consistently demonstrate about nonverbal communication?

A) People are not good at masking their feelings, and most people are highly skilled in their ability to decode nonverbal signals.

B) People are not good at masking their feelings, but most people are incapable of decoding nonverbal signals.

C) People are good at masking their feelings, but most people still manage to decode nonverbal signals.

D) People are good at masking their feelings, so most people are incapable of decoding nonverbal signals.

E) People are not good at masking their feelings, but most people are inconsistent in their ability to decode nonverbal signals.

40) During a budget meeting, Fanny concludes her part of the talk and points to her presentation partner. What does this gesture most likely mean in context?

A) She is indicating that it is his turn to speak.

B) She is accusing him of interrupting her.

C) She is blaming him for the poor budget numbers.

D) She is giving him permission to ask a question.

E) She is trying to get him to be quiet.

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41) When Leonard had to tell Tanya that her project had lost its funding, he found himself adopting a slumped posture that was similar to hers. What was Leonard doing?

A) synchronizing body language to mock her B) synchronizing body language to show empathy C) faking a mood to change her emotions D) using visual cutoff to encourage sharing E) using visual cutoff to make the conversation end

42) As Chula explains her dissatisfaction with her current salary, her supervisor abruptly looks away and sighs. What does the supervisor's nonverbal behavior indicate?

A) strong agreement B) confusion C) strong displeasure D) distraction E) agreement yet helplessness

43) While working on team projects, Louisa welcomes feedback and constructive criticism from her colleagues because she values their opinions and wants to be a better team member.

What aspect of emotional intelligence does this behavior demonstrate?

A) high empathy B) high self-awareness C) high relationship management D) low self-management E) low empathy

44) Which motivational value system is most often guided by concerns about whether business activities have been thought out carefully and the right processes have been put into place to accomplish things?

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A) red MVS B) yellow MVS C) blue MVS D) green MVS E) hub

45) Which of the following statements best expresses a typical concern of someone with a blue MVS?

A) "Let's make sure we've considered how this will affect everyone's welfare."

B) "Let's be sure that we have thought out the long-term results of this policy."

C) "Let's consider the most efficient way to implement this decision."

D) "Let's look at how this relates to the overall welfare of the company."

E) "Let's act in a way that provides clear leadership to others."

46) Focusing on ________ is most likely to help you communicate with a red MVS in a way that he or she prefers.

A) feelings B) results C) teamwork D) flexibility E) caution

47) Charlotte and Micah disagree about which new healthcare insurance to adopt for their company. Charlotte wants to choose a cost-effective policy as soon as possible, while Micah wants to ensure that employees do not see a reduction in benefits because of the change. What can you deduce about Charlotte and Micah from this information?

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A) Charlotte has a green MVS; Micah has a blue MVS. B) Charlotte has a red MVS; Micah is a hub.

C) Charlotte has a red MVS; Micah has a blue MVS. D) Charlotte has a hub; Micah has a red MVS. E) Charlotte has a blue MVS; Micah has a green MVS.

48)

Which quality is characteristic of people who are hubs?

A) nurturing B) decisive C) analytical D) flexible E) competitive

49)

Which quality is more characteristic of introverts?

A) thoughtful B) charismatic C) spontaneous D) lively E) collaborative

50)

Which situation would an extrovert prefer?

A) a quiet meeting with two friends B) a loud party with a large group C) time alone with a book D) a workspace in a library E) a long conversation with one person

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51) Ethan needs to assign his team members the following tasks. One of the team members, Gail, is an extrovert. Which task is most appropriate for Gail?

A) independently analyzing the latest market research report B) writing an explanation of a new product for senior management C) checking the proofs of sales brochures for accuracy before they are printed D) moderating a team meeting to discuss how well the last development cycle went E) preparing a list of questions to discuss at the next team meeting

52)

Introverts can work more effectively with extroverts by

A) speaking up more quickly than feels comfortable to them.

B) allowing conversations to have fewer and more in-depth topics.

C) giving them more opportunities to be alone and recharge.

D) pausing more often and allowing periods of silence that might feel uncomfortable.

E) expressing their preference to discuss things immediately.

53) Vince always drops hand-written reports on his administrative assistant's desk and says, "Type this right away." What common type of incivility is Vince committing?

A) treating others without courtesy B) ignoring others C) disrespecting the dignity and worth of others D) disrespecting the efforts of others E) disrespecting the privacy of others

54)

Which situation is an example of disrespecting the dignity and worth of others?

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A) claiming credit for a co-worker's creative idea B) criticizing a subordinate in front of others C) forwarding a confidential email from the boss D) arriving at a meeting late E) leaving a mess in the kitchen area

55)

What is a guiding principle for improving civility in society and the workplace?

A) Tell, do not ask.

B) Ignore small things.

C) Disagree graciously.

D) Do not refrain from arguing.

E) Keep a negative attitude.

56) ________ is "rudeness and disregard for others in a manner that violates norms for respect."

A) Emotional hijacking B) Semantic noise C) Pessimism D) Incivility E) Visual cutoff

57) In the interpersonal communication process, communicators encode and send messages at the same time that they also receive and decode messages. ⊚ ⊚

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58) Loud music, nearby conversations, and the sound of traffic are examples of physiological noise in the communication process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) All outgoing messages are encoded and all incoming messages are decoded through a filter of lifetime experiences. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) Veronica has great relationships with her direct reports. She plans birthday celebrations for them and listens when they need to talk about personal problems, empathizing with them.

Veronica has high emotional intelligence. ⊚ ⊚

61)

High self-awareness includes the ability to manage events that stir strong responses. ⊚ ⊚

62)

true false

true false

Venting negative feelings is one of the most effective strategies for de-escalating anger. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) People with high self-management tend to have a knee-jerk reaction when threats are perceived.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Pracha missed his sales goal, but isn’t worried because he is sure he’ll make it next time because he understands his customers better now. Pracha is a pessimist. ⊚ ⊚

65)

true false

Corporate recruiters rank listening skills among the most important communication skills. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) In a conversation with a co-worker, Char makes sure she completely understands the other person's point and then explains why she disagrees with it. Char has failed to practice the skill of holding judgment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) During a conversation with his supervisor, Andy paraphrases something that he heard her say. This is an example of a judger statement. ⊚ ⊚

68)

true false

Sharing your own ideas with your colleagues undermines the active listening process. ⊚ ⊚

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69)

Probing questions are intended to create bonds between people. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) After the marketing team gave a presentation, their manager, Mauris, asked in frustration, "What were you thinking?" In this context, Mauris's question shows a learner mind-set. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Nonverbal messages, such as posture, are most important when they convey a different emotion than the spoken message. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Most people are far better at resolving differences when making eye contact during faceto-face conversations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) A person's motivational value system is a blend of the three primary motives of nurturing, dominating, and autonomizing. ⊚ ⊚

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74) According to the motivational value system (MVS), professionals with a blue MVS are most often guided by motives to protect others, help others grow, and act in the best interests of others. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) A manager who wants to hire an effective leader should focus on applicants who are extroverts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) When a person is treated poorly, ignoring them usually de-escalates a difficult situation and shows that person's character and caring. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) E 13) A 14) C 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) E 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) D 25) A 26) B 27) C 28) A 29) C 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) B Version 1

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35) D 36) B 37) D 38) A 39) E 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) C 44) D 45) A 46) B 47) C 48) D 49) A 50) B 51) D 52) A 53) A 54) B 55) C 56) D 57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) FALSE Version 1

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65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

Briefly explain the four stages of team formation.

2)

List at least three traits of effective teams.

3)

What is the purpose of an agenda, and how does it relate to effective meetings?

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4) How should a leader who wants a high-performing team view dissent in meetings?

Explain.

5)

Name three ways to build team rapport on a virtual team.

6) You have been assigned to a short-term virtual team made up of people you have never met. What can you do to build trust in your first meeting with your new team?

7) You are working on a group writing project. Why is it important to agree on technology that will be used during the planning stage?

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8) During a group writing project, what should teams do to ensure that all team members buy into the final product? Identify actions to take during all stages of the project.

9)

What is a learning stance, and what are the advantages of adopting it?

10) Why is disagreeing diplomatically an important component of managing difficult conversations?

11)

Which example describes a team in the forming stage of team development?

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A) All four members of the team attempt to agree on what the team roles and goals should be.

B) Nathan and Anna present alternate ways of assigning work, and the team debates the issue.

C) Nathan, Anna, Roddy, and Ting take turns sharing their background with the others.

D) The four group members work at their assigned tasks efficiently and work together as needed.

E) Nathan and Ting draft a work plan, while Roddy and Anna write guidelines for the group to consider.

12) Kesha and her team share ideas about how their team should approach work, and they spend some time debating which ideas to adopt. The team is in the ________ stage.

A) norming B) forming C) performing D) storming E) reforming

13)

What is characteristic of the norming stage of team development?

A) Team members get to know each other and try to gain acceptance.

B) Team members share competing ideas about the task and roles, and conflict occurs.

C) Team members easily manage to reach consensus even when there is conflict.

D) Team members are still uncertain about what is required of them.

E) Team members agree upon mutual goals and individual responsibilities.

14)

Which scenario best describes the performing stage of team development?

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A) All four members of the team discuss what the team roles and goals should be.

B) Nathan and Anna present alternate ways of assigning work, and the team debates the issue.

C) Nathan, Anna, Roddy, and Ting each share their background at the company.

D) The four group members work at their assigned tasks efficiently and work together as needed.

E) Nathan and Ting draft a work plan, while Roddy and Anna write guidelines for the group to consider.

15) Teams rapidly develop shared perceptions and commitment to a team culture during the ________ stage of team development.

A) norming B) forming C) performing D) storming E) reforming

16) Elon is a manager who organizes his department into teams at the beginning of September. By November, he worries because the teams are still having conflict and do not seem very productive. What would be the best advice to give Elon?

A) Conclude that his workers are not team-oriented people. Abandon the experiment before work falls further behind.

B) Be patient because the teams are in the storming stage. Give them time to reach the norming and performing stages.

C) Conclude that he made a mistake in the makeup of the teams. Reassign people to new teams and start over.

D) Understand the teams are in the norming stage. Give them time to reach the more productive performing stage.

E) Conclude that the teams are spending too little time on work. Start to sit in meetings and direct activities.

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17)

Which scenario illustrates how an effective team works?

A) Kyle, Barb, and Jessica have learned that conflict wastes their time.

B) Kwami disagrees with what Raymond and Arturo are planning, but he decides to keep quiet and see how it works out.

C) Desiree, Carmen, and Alicia are so dedicated to getting the job done that they never have meetings.

D) Lester, Raul, and Everett spend time each meeting talking about their goals and values.

E) Madison, Naomi, and George make sure to spend at least half of their meeting time discussing their favorite baseball team.

18) The team was newly formed and the members did not know each other well. When Connie suggested a solution to the problem at hand, they all quickly agreed without asking for more information. What phenomenon most likely contributed to the agreement?

A) psychological safety B) moral high ground C) groupthink D) conflicting rationalization E) illusion of unanimity

19) Sarah’s team had an excellent record when it came to solving HR problems. When the CEO came to them with a different kind of problem, the team assumed it would make a good decision in spite of the fact they didn’t know anything about it and could cause harm. This is an example of

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A) mindguards.

B) illusion of invulnerability.

C) stereotyping.

D) moral high ground.

E) collective rationalization.

20) Which statement describes the difference between inherent diversity and acquired diversity?

A) Inherent diversity means that there is little difference between team members.

Acquired diversity means pairing people with very different skill sets.

B) Inherent diversity refers to the diversity of a team. Acquired diversity refers to the diversity of the organization as a whole.

C) Inherent diversity involves biological traits. Acquired diversity involves traits gained through experience.

D) Inherent diversity measures the diversity of existing staff. Acquired diversity refers to recruiting diverse candidates.

E) Inherent diversity is present in every organization. Acquired diversity must be carefully cultivated.

21)

Which element contributes to the inherent diversity of a team?

A) customer service experience B) retail experience C) engineering experience D) different levels of education E) a variety of ethnic backgrounds

22)

A company with 2-D diversity is

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A) more likely to increase its market share.

B) more likely to experience damaging conflict.

C) less likely to have a "speak-up culture."

D) less likely to have access to a variety of perspectives.

E) more likely to suffer significant financial losses.

23) What is one of the fastest ways to increase trust among team members who don't know each other well?

A) having the team plan an event B) having members share a workspace C) keeping the team small D) limiting the number of meetings E) encouraging self-disclosure

24)

What is a role of a facilitator?

A) keeping the meeting's minutes B) ensuring fair discussion of each agenda item in a meeting C) discouraging debate and dissent D) steering conversations toward predetermined conclusions E) presenting counter arguments to ideas or suggestions

25) Absolom is frustrated because his team members come unprepared for meetings. What is the first thing he should do to try to improve the situation?

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A) Distribute minutes after the previous meeting to remind people of what was covered.

B) Distribute an agenda ahead of the meeting so people know what to expect.

C) Distribute homework assignments several days before each meeting.

D) Criticize people during the meeting if they are not contributing enough.

E) Criticize people after the meeting to make his point without embarrassing them.

26) Mai has a standard way of running meetings that she has used for a long time. Her meetings tend to be efficient but dry, and people have difficulty feeling engaged. As facilitator, which technique should Mai use to solve this problem?

A) Distribute an agenda ahead of time.

B) Have someone take minutes and distribute them afterward.

C) Make sure to start and end the meeting on time.

D) Encourage each person to share his or her opinion.

E) Remain neutral while facilitating the discussion.

27)

What is the most productive time to schedule a meeting?

A) 2:00 p.m. Thursday B) 4:00 p.m. Wednesday C) 10:00 a.m. Tuesday D) Noon Monday E) 10:00 a.m. Friday

28) In which situation is a company most likely to need a series of problem-solving meetings that have no preset agenda?

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A) planning the annual picnic B) deciding the work assignments for a project C) developing a new product proposal D) discussing the transition to new ownership E) reviewing a market research report

29) A pharmaceutical company has a weekly meeting. Every week, the meeting starts with a story about research progress. What is the most likely reason for this tradition?

A) to help the employees get to know each other B) to encourage employees to relate to senior management C) to establish a conversational tone D) to teach employees how to work as a team E) to remind employees of their common sense of purpose

30) Okapi starts his meetings by describing the procedures he wants people to follow while taking part in the discussion and explaining what topics must be kept confidential. By doing this, Okapi is providing

A) agenda items.

B) minutes.

C) consensus.

D) ground rules.

E) action items.

31)

What should the leader do just before closing a meeting?

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A) Summarize what was accomplished.

B) Allow the attendees to ask questions.

C) Elaborate on the main issues.

D) Ask each attendee to share.

E) Evaluate his or her performance.

32) Team leader Vallerie always follows through after meetings by asking all participants for an update on their assigned action items. What effect is this likely to have on her team members?

A) They will feel that the meeting was a waste of time.

B) They will perceive the team meetings as important.

C) They will feel that Vallerie views them as children.

D) They will be less likely to attend the next meeting.

E) They will procrastinate because they resent being nagged.

33)

Why do organizations use virtual teams?

A) to reduce isolation B) to resolve conflict more easily C) to encourage sharing of opinions D) to save money E) to avoid time zone differences

34)

Which action is most likely to help build trust in a virtual team?

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A) be proactively engaged B) multitask during meetings C) avoid social conversation D) work as independently as possible E) rely mostly on email to communicate

35) Doug has just been appointed leader of a new virtual team. He senses that the team members have doubts about each other's competence. What can he do to alleviate this situation?

A) Take time during a meeting to review the company's mission statement.

B) Encourage the team members to consider stakeholders in every discussion.

C) Allow team members to choose the people they want to work with more closely.

D) Schedule a time when people can share their professional accomplishments.

E) Establish ground rules for their meetings from the very beginning.

36)

Which stage of team development do virtual teams sometimes skip?

A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing E) reforming

37)

Which of these describes a virtual watercooler?

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A) a virtual place to record team goals, assignments, and projects B) a social media space where virtual team members can interact spontaneously C) a database of all the agendas and minutes from a virtual team's meetings D) a social collaboration tool that allows virtual team members to work together easily E) a virtual collaboration tool that adjusts for time zone and language differences

38)

What practice helps to increase buy-in from virtual meeting participants?

A) running the meeting efficiently B) multitasking during meetings C) taking minutes in real time D) opening with a contentious question E) preparing how to state views ahead of time

39) Juliana is concerned that her virtual teammates are misinterpreting each other's statements because they cannot see facial expressions and gestures. Which solution should Juliana suggest to her team leader?

A) setting up a virtual watercooler B) opening with a contentious question C) taking minutes in real time D) asking team members to avoid multitasking E) using video during the meetings

40)

What impact does meeting in person have on long-term virtual teams?

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A) They are more likely to start having conflicts.

B) They find it easier to build rapport.

C) They take longer to trust each other.

D) They often split into separate factions.

E) They waste more time on social chat.

41) What do professionals identify as one of the most important characteristics of virtual teammates?

A) ability to make decisions quickly B) willingness to share information C) interest in new technology D) strong leadership skills E) public speaking experience

42) Marcia's team has been given a group writing assignment. The deadline is three months away. When should the group start working on the project?

A) a week before the deadline B) two weeks before the deadline C) in a month D) in two weeks E) immediately

43) Herb and his team work for an educational publisher. The team has to write a report comparing the textbooks of three competitors. Who would be the best person to analyze the books' methods of teaching?

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A) Herb, who has two years of experience in market research B) Jerone, who has five years of experience as an editor C) Kaitlin, who has three years of experience as a book designer D) Maeko, who has four years of experience as an educator E) Midori, who has five years of experience as a production coordinator

44) Janel’s team is working on a group document that they store in a FTP system on the company server. On Friday, Connie and Mark download the document at the same time, and each makes edits. Mark uploads his document first. When Connie uploads her copy of the document, she deletes all of Mark’s work. What went wrong?

A) Team members did not use the same word processing program.

B) The team did not assign its members clear responsibilities.

C) The team did not have a system to handle version control.

D) Team members were not clear about the purpose of the revision.

E) The team did not consider the needs of the audience.

45) You are working with your team on a group writing project. What can help you define your contributions and time commitments?

A) version control technology B) a team charter C) virtual communication technologies D) a virtual watercooler E) a self-disclosure exercise

46) Your team is facing an aggressive deadline for a group writing project. What will be most helpful in ensuring that the project stays on track?

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A) investing in good virtual communication technology B) giving one team member few tasks so he or she can help others C) trading tasks regularly to keep ideas fresh D) regularly holding real-time conversations about the project E) working independently as much as possible to avoid wasting time

47)

When editing a group document, what should be the first thing the team works on?

A) whether the paper is organized logically B) the transitions between sections C) whether the main ideas are strong and clear D) whether the word choices are appropriate E) the correctness of the grammar and mechanics

48) Annika’s team completed the first draft of a group document and asked her to edit it carefully for grammar, punctuation, and spelling. The next day, the group decided to delete a large part of the document. Annika felt like her efforts were wasted. What did the team do wrong?

A) It did not establish a system for version control.

B) It did not agree on rules for overwriting one another's work.

C) It did not set up guidelines for using comments and track changes.

D) It did not choose a single person to do the final edit.

E) It did not choose an appropriate purpose for each round of revision.

49)

A learner mind-set implies that

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A) you have nothing to learn from the other people involved in the conversation.

B) you intend to find contradictions in what other people have said or done.

C) you avoid difficult conversations in order not to hurt the feelings of other people.

D) you are committed to understanding other peoples' versions of interpersonal interactions.

E) you intend to agree and comply with everything that the speaker says.

50)

Difficult conversations can be handled successfully by

A) hearing everybody's story.

B) agreeing with everything you hear.

C) using the either/or approach.

D) invalidating the perspective of other people.

E) adopting a message-delivery stance.

51)

Validating is a way of

A) disagreeing diplomatically.

B) proving your point.

C) asserting an opinion.

D) checking your work.

E) agreeing with others.

52)

Which of these makes comments sound more conciliatory and less accusing?

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A) I-statements B) You-statements C) We-statements D) It-statements E) They-statements

53)

Which statement is an example of disagreeing diplomatically?

A) You always interrupt me when I try to explain my reasons.

B) Your methods never work, but you refuse to give mine a chance.

C) I know I'm right about this, and I can prove it to you.

D) This is an issue of policy, not personal interpretation.

E) I feel that I did not have a chance to explain my actions.

54)

What is the best opening for a difficult conversation?

A) We need to discuss the way you let your team members down on the last project.

B) I really want to understand what went wrong and find a solution we both can accept.

C) Your work has suffered lately, and I want to make some suggestions for improvement.

D) What were you thinking when you made that proposal in the group meeting?

E) You have been demonstrating a bad attitude lately, and I would like to know why.

55)

Creating a shared story with a colleague means

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A) finding life experiences that you have in common.

B) combining your perspectives and goals into a shared approach to work.

C) creating humor in tense situations.

D) opening a difficult conversation with a story.

E) reaching an agreement about how something happened.

56)

The biggest barrier to team effectiveness is low productivity. ⊚ ⊚

57)

true false

Effective teams spend about half their time bonding by talking about social activities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) When team members have competing ideas about how the team should work, they are in the storming stage of team development. ⊚ ⊚

59)

High-performing teams embrace conflict. ⊚ ⊚

60)

true false

true false

High-performing teams go through repeated cycles of divergence and convergence.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

61) Sacha attends a meeting that focuses on brainstorming how to solve a particular problem.

The agenda is fluid, and the team adjusts the time it spends on various tasks as needed. This is an example of a coordination meeting. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) When developing an agenda to address high-priority items, items of least importance should be placed near the beginning of the agenda to break the ice. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) Jaya perceives that Curtis, the meeting facilitator, seems to have chosen a side in the discussion. As a result, Jaya may be reluctant to share her opinions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Research has shown that teams that have less dissent during meetings reach higherquality decisions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) For brevity, the minutes of a meeting should include only the main decisions that were reached.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

66) One of the unique challenges of working in virtual teams is the inability to gain information by reading nonverbal cues. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) The number of collaboration technologies available can present a challenge to virtual teams. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) One significant advantage of virtual meetings is that team members can multitask during them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Because virtual teams have a more difficult time building relationships than traditional teams, experts recommend starting each virtual meeting with social chat. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

The most important stage of group writing is the drafting stage. ⊚ ⊚

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71) When producing group writing, it is important to ensure that the writing reflects the views of the group at every stage—gathering information, drafting initial findings, and editing the final document. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) During group writing projects, it is important not to waste time discussing roles and contributions. ⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

During unpleasant conversations, you should view conflict as an opportunity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) The message-delivery stance can help you keep emotionally charged conversations productive. ⊚ ⊚

75)

true false

High self-awareness is crucial for handling difficult conversations successfully. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 11) C 12) D 13) E 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) E 22) A 23) E 24) B 25) B 26) D 27) C 28) D 29) E 30) D 31) A 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) B Version 1

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37) B 38) C 39) E 40) B 41) B 42) E 43) D 44) C 45) B 46) D 47) C 48) E 49) D 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) E 54) B 55) B 56) FALSE 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE Version 1

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67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

What qualities would a person with a high cultural intelligence display?

2)

Why are stereotypes formed? Do stereotypes serve any useful purpose?

3)

Which cultural dimension changes most rapidly? Why?

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4)

What is the difference between egalitarian and hierarchical cultures?

5) What is future orientation? What are the differences between cultures with high future orientation and cultures with low future orientation?

6)

What is uncertainty avoidance (UA)? Describe high UA and low UA cultures.

7)

How is trust established in cross-cultural work relationships?

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8)

What are the effects of ethnocentrism on cross-cultural relationships?

9) What are some types of custom and etiquette you should become aware of before traveling to another country for business?

10)

Explain generational differences in workplace culture.

11)

High cultural intelligence is demonstrated by the ability to

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A) work by a rigid set of rules and guidelines.

B) prioritize one's own cultural norms above all others.

C) interpret the behavior of people worldwide through a single culture's framework.

D) approach cross-cultural work relationships with a learner mind-set.

E) suppress one's curiosity and interest in other cultures.

12)

What is a characteristic of high cultural intelligence?

A) speaking many languages B) avoiding inappropriate stereotypes C) accepting that other cultures are like your own D) sharing your values with others E) having a favorable attitude toward another group

13)

Which person demonstrates projected cognitive similarity?

A) Elaine assumes that no two cultures are alike in terms of values and norms.

B) Ricky assumes that all cultures are inferior to his culture.

C) Marisol assumes that other cultural groups have the same values as hers.

D) Andreas assumes that the cultural stereotypes shown in the popular media are true.

E) Lev assumes that all cultures are superior to his culture.

14) Natasha is Russian, and she thinks that all Americans are the same: hard-working, dishonest, and greedy. What concept is Natasha demonstrating?

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A) projected cognitive similarity B) performance orientation C) cultural assimilation D) humane orientation E) outgroup homogeneity effect

15) What advice is useful for conducting business across cultures with those who have limited English ability?

A) Determine a person's level of communication proficiency within the first few moments of your interactions with them.

B) Speak at your normal, regular pace instead of speaking slowly as this may be viewed as disrespectful.

C) Use slang and jargon instead of literal language as much as possible.

D) Allow those with limited English ability enough time to process their thoughts into English.

E) When using an interpreter, focus on the interpreter instead of the person you are communicating with.

16) What cultural dimension tends to increase when a culture becomes more economically developed?

A) collectivism B) individualism C) hierarchy D) assertiveness E) uncertainty avoidance

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17) Frank is typically only interested in people who share his interests in sports and work.

Whenever he finds himself having less in common with a friend, he leaves the relationship. What cultural dimension does Frank display?

A) collectivism B) individualism C) humane orientation D) egalitarianism E) future orientation

18) Armen has been sent to build a factory in a small village. When he arrives, Armen finds that the employees he will be managing see the work as an obligation to the community and the company and that they show less interest about what job they will be performing. Which term best describes the primary trait of this culture?

A) collectivism B) individualism C) egalitarianism D) future orientation E) performance orientation

19)

What is a trait of individualists?

A) They tend to follow the perceived dreams and goals of the group as a matter of duty.

B) They tend to stay in contact with and work through extended networks.

C) They stay in relationships even when they are no longer mutually satisfying.

D) They view themselves as separate from their friends and family.

E) They make decisions based on the larger interests of society.

20)

What is a trait of people who are collectivists?

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A) They pursue their own dreams and goals, even when it means spending less time with their family.

B) They leave relationships when they are no longer mutually satisfying, beneficial, or convenient.

C) They stay in contact with and work through extended networks built on family and friends.

D) They make decisions based on each individual's needs.

E) They enter friendships and relationships primarily based on common interests.

21) Ned is going to work for a year in the Netherlands, which he has learned is even more egalitarian than the United States. What should he expect his new company to be like?

A) Employees will be reluctant to disagree openly with the company's leaders.

B) The salaries of the company's chief officers will be much, much greater than his.

C) His coworkers will respect leaders for their competence, not their position.

D) People will be judged for status symbols such as big houses and automobiles.

E) He will have to find an intermediary to advocate for him if he wants to talk to a manager.

22) Dana has been offered a job at a longstanding financial institution with a hierarchical culture. What should she expect to encounter when she starts work?

A) a steady stream of emails from her subordinates B) a lack of interest in status symbols C) a refusal to blame subordinates for leaders' mistakes D) offices of roughly equal size for all employees E) employees who are discouraged from openly challenging leaders

23)

What is characteristic of egalitarian cultures?

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A) Leaders can be approached directly by subordinates.

B) Decision making is centralized.

C) Subordinates are blamed for the mistakes of leaders.

D) Salary ranges between the top and the bottom of the organization are extreme.

E) Power is concentrated at the top.

24) In the Durable Manufacturing Company, the president, Alicia Hernandez, makes no more than five times what the lowest-paid worker earns. Alicia is often seen eating in the workers' lunchroom because she likes to hear opinions about how the work is going. Which term best describes the culture at the Durable Manufacturing Company?

A) assertive B) collectivist C) individualistic D) hierarchical E) egalitarian

25)

What is true about cultures with low performance orientation?

A) People place more emphasis on results than on relationships.

B) Workers prioritize measurable goals and objectives in meetings.

C) Employees view feedback as essential to improvement.

D) Low performance orientation is especially problematic in business.

E) Financial incentives are considered appropriate motivators.

26)

Cultures with midrange performance orientation include

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A) South Korea.

B) the U.S. C) Canada.

D) India.

E) Brazil.

27)

Cultures with low future orientation

A) rarely focus on long-term plans.

B) emphasize control and planning for the future.

C) are willing to sacrifice current wants to satisfy future needs.

D) discuss long-term strategies and business plans.

E) appreciate visionary approaches to business problems.

28)

What is a feature of a culture with high future orientation?

A) often mentioning short-term rewards and incentives B) focusing more on extrinsic motivation C) rarely discussing long-term strategies or plans D) being imaginative about the future E) using inflexible and firm language

29)

What is most likely to be true about a culture with low future orientation?

A) It teaches children to sacrifice fun activities to develop skills for long-term success.

B) It encourages people to worry about their future financial situations.

C) It has a plan to cope with the types of natural disasters common to its region.

D) Its people tend to enjoy being in the moment and living spontaneously.

E) It rewards those who propose imaginative approaches to business problems.

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30)

The cultural dimension of assertiveness deals with

A) the level of confrontation and directness that is considered appropriate and productive.

B) the degree to which cultures are willing to sacrifice current wants to achieve future needs.

C) the way cultures socialize members to feel in uncertain, novel, surprising, or extraordinary situations.

D) the division of roles and power between men and women in society.

E) the mindset that prioritizes interdependence more highly than independence.

31)

Rhonda lives in a highly assertive culture. As such, she is most likely to

A) speak directly and without using vague expressions.

B) be comfortable with silence in business meetings.

C) speak objectively without much emotion.

D) stress equality and use cooperative language.

E) demonstrate respect than discuss disagreements.

32) A major difference between high-assertiveness and low-assertiveness cultures is that people in low-assertiveness cultures tend to

A) avoid silence in conversation.

B) focus on results over etiquette.

C) value unrestrained expressions of ideas.

D) use tough language to establish dominance.

E) give vague answers to questions.

33)

In cultures with a high humane orientation,

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A) leaders are expected to be generous and compassionate.

B) society members are expected to solve personal problems on their own.

C) self-enjoyment takes precedence over displays of generosity.

D) people extend material and social support only to a close circle of friends and family.

E) people smile and display other nonverbal signs of welcome infrequently.

34) Gerry lives in a society where people are expected to solve their own problems. During business meetings, leaders do not waste time offering welcome or making social talk. Unfair treatment on the job is considered just the way life is. Which term best describes the type of culture Gerry lives in?

A) collectivist B) assertive C) uncertainty avoidant D) low humane orientation E) high performance orientation

35) to

Malika works for a company with a high humane orientation. As such, she is most likely

A) reserve expressions of welcome for formal situations.

B) discourage discussion of feelings as a waste of time.

C) wait until someone asks before helping them.

D) demonstrate that others belong and are welcome.

E) pursue personal comfort and enjoyment more than generosity and kindness.

36) ________ refers to how cultures socialize members to feel in novel, surprising, or extraordinary situations.

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A) Collectivism B) Humane orientation C) Uncertainty avoidance D) Egalitarianism E) Individualism

37)

In cultures that are high in uncertainty avoidance,

A) formalized policies are considered unnecessary.

B) business interactions are informal.

C) change is welcome and considered desirable.

D) verification is sought through oral, not written communication.

E) orderliness, consistency, and structure are important.

38)

Which person is most likely from a culture that is low in uncertainty avoidance?

A) Mackey hates ambiguous situations and often demands clarification.

B) Vladimir wants to have strict and unchangeable work rules.

C) Karen constantly tries to make the workroom more orderly and organized.

D) Abner complains whenever a change is proposed.

E) Eka proceeds to implement a deal after a verbal agreement has been reached.

39)

In low gender egalitarianism cultures,

A) equal professional opportunities are provided to men and women.

B) men and women have the same communication and management styles.

C) protocol that draws attention to gender is avoided.

D) men and women are expected to occupy different roles in society.

E) men have fewer leadership opportunities than women.

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40)

Which business trend is valued across the world?

A) high priority on performance orientation B) low priority on egalitarianism C) high priority on hierarchy D) low priority on humane orientation E) low priority on future orientation

41) Meng takes a job in another country. On his first day, his manager tells him that he will be respected if he can motivate himself to succeed. Meng is encouraged to think about where he wants to go in the company and to discuss long-term strategies for achieving his goals. From this, Meng concludes that he is in a society with

A) low priority on performance orientation.

B) high priority on egalitarianism.

C) high priority on humane orientation.

D) high priority on future orientation.

E) low priority on uncertainty avoidance.

42)

What must be kept in mind while building cross-cultural relationships?

A) Your culture is superior to that of others.

B) People across cultures have similar conceptions of time.

C) People across cultures interpret behavior differently.

D) People across cultures have the same cultural mind-set.

E) Your culture is the same as most other cultures.

43)

Which statement about people with learner mind-sets is true?

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A) They view other cultures as inferior to their own.

B) They think other cultures are the same as their own.

C) They acknowledge that members of other cultures may possess unique knowledge.

D) They believe they have a better knowledge base to conceptualize work than others.

E) They expect to have full control over all decision-making processes.

44)

Ethnocentrism is the belief that

A) your own culture is superior to others.

B) your own culture has nothing of value to share with others.

C) people of other cultures should make all business decisions.

D) you have more to learn from other cultures than to teach.

E) other cultures have a better knowledge base to conceptualize work.

45)

Which statement is true about co-cultures?

A) Co-culture involves the belief that your own culture is superior.

B) Co-culture is a combination of elements from different cultures.

C) People with judger mind-sets find it easier to develop co-cultures.

D) Co-cultures deemphasize the differences that exist between cultures.

E) People who are low in cultural intelligence usually develop co-cultures.

46) Sandra is preparing for a business meeting in a foreign country. What is most important for her to do to ensure proper etiquette?

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A) take them to an expensive restaurant B) purchase traditional clothing C) learn to speak the language D) identify acceptable conversation topics E) perfect an opening joke

47) Raymond is a middle manager at a textile company. He is always the first one to volunteer to stay late to get a job done, but he is not particularly loyal to the company or impressed by titles. Raymond is most likely a member of which generation?

A) Traditionalists B) Boomers C) Gen X D) Gen Y E) Gen Z

48) Members of all generations rank which trait as one of the most important aspects of workplace culture?

A) hard working B) skilled in technology C) adaptable D) ethical E) good communicator

49)

Overall, women tend to be more ________, while men tend to be more ________.

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A) independent; collaborative B) relationship oriented; competitive C) linear in thinking; interconnected in thinking D) collaborative; relationship oriented E) competitive; collaborative

50) Dr. Deborah Tannen studies gendered communication in the workplace. She found that the way men and women speak is related to

A) how much they are paid.

B) whom they most want to impress.

C) whether they went to college.

D) how they socialized as children.

E) the amount of praise they receive.

51)

Which speech pattern is more common among women than men?

A) being direct with subordinates B) avoiding verbal opposition C) refusing to share credit D) speaking more in meetings E) demanding attention and praise

52) David was assigned to a new manager, Sarah. He has always had male managers and is finding that he has trouble understanding what she needs from him sometimes. Based on research on common speech patterns of men and women, this is most likely because

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A) men are more likely to speak indirectly to subordinates than women are.

B) women are more oppositional than men.

C) women tend to not speak a lot in meetings compared to men.

D) women spend a lot of time talking about their accomplishments, while men are more likely to share credit.

E) women generally don’t apologize when they make a mistake.

53)

When you notice someone is using a different speech pattern than yours, you should

A) be on alert that they may not listen to you.

B) try to overcome biases.

C) copy their speech patterns as closely as possible.

D) avoid communicating with them.

E) ask them to adjust their speech patterns so you can better understand them.

54)

What is the leading cause of disability in the workplace?

A) head injuries B) sensory impairment C) abuse D) communication problems E) depression

55) Monica is a partner at a law firm that employs two people who are on the autism spectrum and a person who has ADHD. She says that having these people on staff makes her lawyers more aware of the issues they face and better able to defend people like them. Monica is referring to their

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A) neurodiversity.

B) physical impairments.

C) limited ability.

D) developmental challenges.

E) career limitations.

56) Cultural intelligence is a measure of your knowledge of business practices in other cultures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Projected cognitive similarity is the tendency to think members of other groups are all the same. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Alison assumes that her colleagues in China will be just as motivated by an individual rewards program as people in the United States are. This is an example of the outgroup homogeneity effect. ⊚ ⊚

59)

true false

Popular culture plays an important role in the formation of negative stereotypes. ⊚ ⊚

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60) Annalise is a German woman who was just hired by a multinational company. It will be helpful for her to assume that her colleagues in Brazil will conceptualize time the same way she does. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) Generally, as countries increase their standard of living, they develop more collectivist tendencies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) Seok has accepted an entry-level position at a company in South Korea, which has a hierarchical culture. Seok should expect to take part in his company's decision making right away. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) Egalitarianism is the extent to which a community encourages and rewards innovation, high standards, and performance improvement. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Low performance orientation societies are likely to view high performance orientation societies as impatient and obsessed with short-term results. ⊚ ⊚

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65) Organizations in present-oriented societies are less likely to develop clear long-term strategies and business plans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) People in low uncertainty avoidance cultures often stress orderliness and consistency, even if it means sacrificing experimentation and innovation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) In order to develop strong cross-cultural relationships, one must have an ethnocentric mind-set. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Business managers who are high in cultural intelligence recognize that developing effective co-cultures requires creating something new. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Following the rules of etiquette in other cultures makes a person seem indecisive and insincere. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

Nigeria, like the other MINT countries, has a single, predominant culture.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

71) A colleague from Gen X is more likely to seek continuous feedback than a colleague from an earlier generation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Baby Boomers make up the largest part of the workforce today, showing strong loyalty to employers and preferring a professional work environment. ⊚ ⊚

73)

Millennials generally prefer to communicate via email or social media than face-to-face. ⊚ ⊚

74)

true false

true false

Men are more likely to ask questions than women are. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Gen Yers and Gen Zers are among the most sensitive to issues of diversity in the workplace. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 11) D 12) B 13) C 14) E 15) D 16) B 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) C 21) C 22) E 23) A 24) E 25) D 26) D 27) A 28) D 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) E 33) A 34) D 35) D 36) C Version 1

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37) E 38) E 39) D 40) A 41) D 42) C 43) C 44) A 45) B 46) D 47) C 48) D 49) B 50) D 51) B 52) C 53) B 54) E 55) A 56) FALSE 57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE Version 1

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67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE Student name:__________ 1) What factors differentiate average business writers from expert business writers? Explain why each is important.

2)

Describe the three components of the AIM planning process used for business messages.

3) Lester, a recent college graduate, has taken an entry-level job at a textile company. He notices that his colleagues don't seem to take him seriously. What advice would you give him about building his credibility?

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4)

What are the five common characteristics of excellent business thinkers?

5)

Explain the importance of framing your primary business message.

6) Describe the deductive approach to setting up business messages. Give a specific example.

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7) Hotaru, a manager at a small shipping company, wants to install a new system for sorting packages that uses computer technology to read bar codes containing all the pertinent information. He writes a proposal and, in it, states that the U.S. Postal Service uses just such a system. How effective is Hotaru’s analogy? Explain.

8) Explain what mixed signals are and discuss the consequences of sending mixed signals in business messages.

9)

List three techniques that can be used to ensure that a business message is positive.

10)

What is typically included in the planning stage of writing an effective business message?

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A) setting a positive and other-oriented tone B) making the message easy to read C) making the message easy to navigate D) ensuring that the communication is fair E) identifying the primary message and key points

11) What is typically included in the writing stage of developing an effective business message?

A) setting a positive and other-oriented tone B) double-checking everything C) sending the message to be proofread D) identifying the primary message and key points E) ensuring the communication is fair

12) What is typically included in the reviewing stage of writing an effective business message?

A) setting a positive and other-oriented tone B) ensuring that the communication is fair C) finding the needs of the audience D) identifying the primary message and key points E) making the message easy to navigate

13)

What is something an excellent business writer would do?

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A) spend more time planning than writing B) adopt a message-centered approach C) complete audience analysis while writing D) do a last-minute review of his or her work E) maintain an author-centered tone

14) Auguste is mentoring Parul, a younger colleague, in how to be a better business writer.

As Parul was writing her last memo, she did several things. Which one will Auguste tell her she needs to change?

A) She addressed the needs of her audience in the memo.

B) She spent a long time planning before she started to write.

C) She applied the FAIR test to the memo when she reviewed it.

D) She made sure the memo was easy to read and easy to navigate.

E) She drew primarily on her own opinions and expertise.

15)

What is a goal of the AIM planning process?

A) to unleash good ideas B) to minimize planning time C) to foster self-reflection D) to explore new technologies E) to encourage teamwork

16) During which step in the AIM planning process should you consider the constraints your readers face?

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A) message development B) information gathering C) audience analysis D) process review E) initial brainstorming

17) Charlie has been assigned the task of creating an effective business message aimed at encouraging healthy habits in the workplace. He uses the AIM planning process. What should he do during the information gathering stage?

A) identify problems that prevent employees from making healthy choices B) estimate his level of credibility with his colleagues C) use language that will make his colleagues feel at ease D) edit his message for errors in tone, voice, and grammar E) decide on the primary message that he wants to convey

18)

Enduring beliefs and ideals that individuals hold are called

A) conclusions.

B) positions.

C) values.

D) priorities.

E) truths.

19) ________ involve ranking or assigning importance to things, such as projects, goals, and tasks.

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A) Conclusions B) Positions C) Values D) Priorities E) Facts

20) In the context of the AIM planning process, what tends to be the single most important planning step for many messages?

A) identifying reader benefits and constraints B) making the message easy to navigate C) estimating your credibility D) setting up the message framework E) ensuring the communication is fair

21) Wanda, the marketing manager at Royal Theatres, believes that employees should always act ethically and should also report instances of unethical behavior that they encounter. This belief held by Wanda is an example of a

A) fact.

B) conclusion.

C) position.

D) priority.

E) value.

22) Which statement describes how writers should address the priorities of their targeted audience during the AIM planning process?

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A) Do not consider the priorities as they tend to fluctuate.

B) Recognize that priorities shift less often than values.

C) Assign importance to things, such as projects, goals, and tasks.

D) Refer to the enduring beliefs and ideals that the audience holds.

E) Remember that priorities remain constant for each individual.

23)

To break out of the reputation of an inexperienced newcomer, a person should

A) avoid taking on projects that will reveal inexperience.

B) stand out from the corporate culture in terms of dress and communication.

C) be careful not to waste time on extras like creating a professional blog.

D) attend a lot of meetings to get to know as many colleagues as possible.

E) incorporate the I-voice in business messages as often as possible.

24) In the course of creating an effective business message, excellent business thinkers are most likely to

A) gather information from one strong source rather than from a variety of sources.

B) make well-reasoned conclusions and solutions.

C) begin jotting down a rough draft right away to capture their ideas.

D) encourage one-way linear thinking and a rigid approach to business problems.

E) avoid using the other-oriented tone in their text.

25)

Which person illustrates a characteristic of an excellent business thinker?

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A) Carla’s memos are always written from her perspective and use the I-voice.

B) Donald’s memos usually imply that his is the only acceptable solution to the problem.

C) Brianna likes to write spontaneously, so her memos often meander.

D) Rahm doesn't edit his messages in order to make them feel authentic.

E) Barras uses a variety of sources such as journal articles and colleagues' expertise.

26) Rafi's company is having trouble recruiting employees with the right skills. He needs to choose someone to analyze the problem and suggest potential solutions. Which employee should he choose?

A) Sahara usually bases her ideas on a single, very popular, human resources journal.

B) Vaughn has a logical mind that generally sees issues as linear, step-by-step processes.

C) Alana is the fastest writer in the department and can whip out a draft in no time.

D) Wade has a knack for explaining complex issues in a clear, understandable way.

E) Bonnie is very conventional in her thinking, and she distrusts innovation.

27)

In the context of dealing with business problems, what should ideally be the first step?

A) analyzing the business problem B) clarifying business objectives C) formulating an alternative business plan D) identifying the business problem E) acquiring data about the business problem

28)

Facts are statements that

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A) are subjective and differ from situation to situation.

B) are based on assumptions.

C) can be relied on with a fair amount of certainty.

D) are fictitious in nature.

E) are inherently ambiguous in nature.

29)

Analyzing a business problem typically involves

A) ignoring audience constraints.

B) making conclusions based on facts.

C) imposing your priorities on the situation.

D) exaggerating the problem.

E) being flexible and not taking positions.

30) Arla, an executive at American Hustle, Inc., wants to introduce a profit-sharing program.

She needs to convince the other executives that it is a good idea for their company. She has considered her audience and gathered information. Next, she should

A) call a meeting to discuss her plan.

B) survey her subordinates about the idea.

C) decide how to frame her primary message.

D) craft her document in clear, convincing prose.

E) meet with colleagues individually to enlist their support.

31)

In a business message, the function of a call to action is to

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A) summarize your message in a short, memorable way.

B) outline the organizational structure for the audience.

C) support the main message with evidence and opinions.

D) orient the message to the needs of the audience.

E) state explicitly what you want the audience to do.

32) For the past few months, Denver Framing has experienced high employee turnover. After investigating, human resource manager Kyle discovered that most employees are unhappy with their salaries and therefore unmotivated to work. Kyle plans to craft a message using the direct approach. How should he structure it?

A) Start with a call to action; lay out the supporting reasons; conclude with the primary message.

B) State the primary message; lay out supporting reasons; conclude with a call to action.

C) Lay out the supporting reasons in careful order; state the primary message.

D) State the primary message; give the call to action; lay out the supporting reasons.

E) Start with a call to action; state the primary message; lay out the supporting reasons.

33) Most business arguments employ a deductive approach. When employing this approach, you are most likely to

A) avoid stating your position regarding any business issue.

B) provide supporting reasons first followed by the primary message.

C) begin by stating the primary message, which is typically a recommendation.

D) begin by making a call to action for your audience to follow.

E) begin by stating the supporting reasons followed by your call to action.

34)

The difference between the deductive approach and the inductive approach is

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A) in the inductive approach, the order of supporting ideas is unimportant.

B) in the inductive approach, the supporting reasons are placed before the primary message.

C) in the deductive approach, the supporting reasons follow the call to action.

D) in the deductive approach, positions are based on assumptions, not facts.

E) in the deductive approach, the business argument concludes with the primary message.

35) What do the deductive approach and inductive approach to structuring business messages have in common?

A) The call to action comes in the middle.

B) The supporting ideas come last.

C) The arrangement of supporting ideas is important.

D) The primary message comes first.

E) The call to action must be 15 words or less.

36) Ali is the marketing manager at QLM. In his market survey, he finds that customers are not happy with QLM's inefficient customer service. How will Ali structure his message if he wants to use the inductive, or indirect, approach?

A) Start with a call to action; lay out the supporting reasons; conclude with the primary message.

B) State the primary message; lay out supporting reasons; conclude with a call to action.

C) Lay out the supporting reasons in careful order; state the primary message.

D) State the primary message; give the call to action; lay out the supporting reasons.

E) Start with a call to action; state the primary message; lay out the supporting reasons.

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37) Howard, a manager at ABN, has to prepare a report about the advantages of introducing a counseling program for employees in his company. In his report, he makes the claim that introducing a counseling program would reduce voluntary turnover because employees would be happier with their pay packages, but he offers no evidence linking counseling with pay. This report failed to effectively deliver the message that Howard had intended. What is the most likely reason for its failure?

A) slanting of facts B) exaggeration C) unsupported generalization D) weak analogy E) either/or logic

38) Chavez, a human resources manager of K8 Fabrics believes that the company can improve employee retention rates by improving employee benefits. In outlining his argument to the company's leadership team, he points out that a large technology firm had success with such a strategy. Chavez’ message fails to convince K8's leadership team. What is the likely cause of their reaction?

A) slanting of facts B) exaggeration C) unsupported generalization D) weak analogy E) faulty cause/effect argument

39) Jaeger, the shipping manager at Durable Wear, writes a memo proposing that that they stop using RoadDog Trucking Company and ship everything by L.B. Haines. The reason he gives is that two of the accounts that have been shipping by L.B. Haines during the last year increased their orders by more than 10%, so he is certain that switching trucking firms will cause other accounts to grow too. The executives of the company do not accept Jaeger’s suggestion.

Why was his memo unconvincing?

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A) slanting of facts B) exaggeration C) either/or logic D) weak analogy E) faulty cause/effect argument

40) Sadie, the expeditor at RingGro Manufacturing, writes a memo asking her manager to buy her a new computerized system for tracking customer orders. She claims that if she does not get this system, chronically late deliveries will ensue. Her manager turns down her request. Sadie made the mistake of using

A) either/or logic.

B) an indirect structure.

C) an unsupported generalization.

D) a weak analogy.

E) you-voice.

41)

What action is most likely to lower a person's credibility?

A) slanting facts B) using strong analogies C) asking for more responsibility D) refusing to exaggerate E) using other-oriented approach

42) Adish is analyzing the benefits and feasibility of implementing a stress-reduction program on a fixed budget. Through research, Adish learns that the cost of a stress reduction program exceeds the proposed budget. He also learns that such programs are linked to increased employee health and morale. Adish then advises the company leadership to implement the program because it will be effective at improving the well-being of employees. Adish is guilty of

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A) relying on either/or logic.

B) slanting the facts.

C) limiting his research.

D) acting out of personal interest.

E) making unsupported generalizations.

43) ________ is the overall evaluation that a reader perceives the writer to have toward the reader and the message content.

A) Tone B) Framework C) Structure D) Layout E) Outline

44)

Readers are more likely to react positively to a message if the writer

A) uses current technology.

B) is clearly concerned about the issues discussed.

C) is a subordinate or an equal in the organization.

D) asks them to draw their own conclusions.

E) draws parallels to events in other industries.

45)

What should be one of the primary goals of a business communicator?

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A) to make exaggerated claims to be persuasive B) to express the message in ways that inspire others C) to slant facts to gain as much benefit as possible D) to focus on the negative aspects of the message E) to avoid using the other-oriented approach

46)

In all business messages, communicators should ideally

A) effectively use either/or arguments.

B) slant facts to their benefit.

C) project positivity.

D) appropriately exaggerate facts.

E) avoid the other-oriented approach.

47)

Which technique is most likely to make business messages more positive?

A) exaggerating facts B) setting unrealistic expectations C) avoiding diplomatic words D) using constructive terms E) focusing on what a product lacks

48) In order to make business messages more positive, business writers should focus on actions they can accomplish and demonstrate a realistic optimism. However, they should be careful

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A) not to set unrealistic expectations.

B) to avoid diplomatic terms.

C) not to use too-strong analogies.

D) to avoid generalizations.

E) not to send meta messages.

49)

In the context of writing business messages, which statement is true?

A) Displaying a can-do attitude reduces the credibility of business messages.

B) Emphasizing what products and services are, rather than what they are not, makes business messages more positive.

C) Using diplomatic terms related to your relationships and interactions makes others suspicious of your business messages.

D) The practice of slanting information increases the credibility of a business message.

E) Using accurately negative terms related to your relationships and interactions makes business messages more other-oriented.

50) Seong finds that a geographic restructuring would have a positive effect on his insurance company’s sales department and increase its efficiency. He draws up a report for the board of directors in which he suggests that separate departments should be set up for each of the company's 10 sales territories. Which statement is most likely to increase the positivity of his proposition?

A) Let me know if you want to work on changing the structure of the company.

B) Using a geographic structure will not guarantee that the company's productivity increases.

C) Geographic restructuring is not likely to reduce the company's overall costs.

D) I look forward to putting together a detailed plan to restructure the company geographically.

E) A geographic structure might possibly have a positive effect on the company.

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51)

In content and form, a business message should typically

A) avoid any form of self-centeredness.

B) exaggerate facts.

C) avoid using diplomatic terms.

D) avoid using strong analogies.

E) slant facts skillfully.

52) A business message that primarily relies on the ________ shows that the message is selfcentered.

A) you-voice B) we-voice C) I-voice D) impersonal voice E) other-oriented voice

53)

Extensive use of the I-voice in a business message

A) fails to focus on the interests of the audience.

B) increases the positivity of the message.

C) reveals that the writer has slanted the facts.

D) emphasizes that the writer understands the concerns of the reader.

E) indicates that the writer uses faulty either/or logic.

54)

The use of we-voice in a business message

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A) fails to reflect the interests of the audience.

B) indicates that the writer has not reached any conclusions.

C) decreases the credibility of the message.

D) emphasizes the writer's shared interests with the reader.

E) indicates that the writer is slanting the message.

55) What is most likely to show that the writer of a business message has concern for the audience?

A) relying heavily on the I-voice B) presenting exaggerated facts to the audience C) respecting the autonomy of the reader D) presenting slanted facts to the audience E) giving credit to any sources used

56)

A meta message is

A) the gist of the primary message that the subject line of a topic communicates.

B) what people take away from a communication.

C) the unofficial message that travels through the grapevine.

D) the message communicated using an asynchronous mode of communication.

E) the direct message in which the autonomous voice of the speaker is most prominent.

57)

Sending mixed signals is most likely to

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A) result in positive meta messages.

B) increase the flexibility of encoding and decoding.

C) cause the reader to feel confused.

D) resolve conflicts between content and tone.

E) increase the credibility of a message.

58) The process of developing business messages involves three steps: planning, writing, and distributing. ⊚ ⊚

59)

Good business writers maintain a listener-centered approach. ⊚ ⊚

60)

true false

Values of readers are likely to shift more often than their priorities. ⊚ ⊚

62)

true false

The most important stage of creating effective business messages is planning. ⊚ ⊚

61)

true false

true false

Entry-level professionals usually have very high professional credibility.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

63) Excellent business thinkers explore issues deeply by gathering information from a variety of sources. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Positions are stances that you take or recommendations that you make based on a set of conclusions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) When she frames her message, Rhoda should aim to communicate her primary message in 15 words or less. ⊚ ⊚

66)

Most business arguments employ an indirect approach because it is more persuasive. ⊚ ⊚

67)

true false

true false

An indirect approach is often effective for delivering bad news. ⊚ ⊚

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68)

It is important to avoid analogies when constructing arguments. ⊚ ⊚

69)

true false

Use either/or logic to entrench your business positions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) Exaggeration adversely impacts readers' perception of the credibility of a business message. ⊚ ⊚

71)

Readers will respond better to a business message that has an objective, impersonal tone. ⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

Starting each sentence with "I," helps create a connection with the audience. ⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

true false

While writing business messages, avoid terms that unnecessarily focus on differences.

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⊚ ⊚

74)

A business message should show that you have the interests of your audience in mind. ⊚ ⊚

75)

true false

Typically, tone influences readers over the entire course of a message. ⊚ ⊚

76)

true false

true false

Meta messages are the overall messages people take away from a communication. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Jason is writing a business communication to advocate for an onsite cafe at his office.

"Argument for a New Cafe" would be an effective title for his communication. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 10) E 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) E 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) E 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) E 26) D 27) D 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) E 32) B 33) C 34) B 35) C Version 1

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36) C 37) C 38) D 39) E 40) A 41) A 42) B 43) A 44) B 45) B 46) C 47) D 48) A 49) B 50) D 51) A 52) C 53) A 54) D 55) C 56) B 57) C 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE Version 1

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66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

List and explain three strategies for ensuring the completeness of business messages.

2)

Why is it necessary to ensure that business messages are accurate?

3) Discuss two ways of reducing the overall word count in business messages. Give specific examples of each.

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4)

What is the impact of using the active voice in business messages?

5) What techniques can a business writer use to make series and lists easier for readers to comprehend?

6) What is the purpose of including headings in a business communication, and how can you make sure they achieve this purpose?

7)

Describe the significance of using white space in a business document.

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8) Is visual appeal the most important factor for creating a good business document?

Explain.

9)

Describe the three components of the review process for business communications.

10)

Discuss how to proofread a business document.

11)

Describe the FAIR test, including questions you should ask when conducting it.

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12)

A business message is complete if it

A) avoids all miscalculation, misinformation, and typographical errors.

B) provides all the information necessary to meet the intended purpose.

C) uses efficient language that says as much as possible in a few words.

D) maximizes paragraph length and minimizes white space.

E) keeps the word count as low as possible without redundancies or empty phrases.

13)

To ensure the completeness of a business message, be sure to

A) be specific.

B) avoid empty phrases.

C) avoid redundancies.

D) control paragraph length.

E) use action verbs.

14) Your coworker is worried that her report won't be complete enough and get her message across. What should you tell her?

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A) Providing too much information can distract the readers and weigh a business document down.

B) Using action verbs focuses on the goal of coordinating activity in the workplace and livens up your writing.

C) Using longer, more unusual words to "sound smart" can increase the credibility of your message.

D) Using the passive voice allows for faster processing by the readers, because most people naturally think in that structure.

E) Relying on parallel language can distract the readers from the main message you want to deliver.

15) Which guideline should be followed to ensure that you are including the information that is necessary for your message?

A) Use longer, more unusual words to "sound smart" and increase the credibility of your message.

B) Avoid parallel language as it can distract the readers from the main message you want to deliver.

C) Include all the information you need by eliminating as much white space as possible.

D) Plan, write, and review your message strategically to provide all relevant information, but nothing irrelevant.

E) Use the active voice to avoid blaming others or sounding too bossy.

16)

A survey of recruiters found that the most sought after characteristic of writing style is

A) being accurate.

B) being concise.

C) avoiding redundancy.

D) avoiding buzzwords.

E) using parallel language.

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17)

In order to be accurate, a business message must be

A) concise.

B) exact.

C) short.

D) redundant.

E) general.

18) Valerie's boss is reviewing her proposal and tells Valerie that she needs to make it more accurate. Which element should she try to eliminate?

A) prepositional phrases B) parallel language C) miscalculations D) passive voice E) redundancies

19)

Which element is most likely to negatively influence readers' perceptions of credibility?

A) long paragraphs B) inaccurate statements C) generous white space D) passive voice E) nonparallel language

20)

Which action is most likely to positively influence readers' perceptions of credibility?

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A) being wordy B) being specific C) using buzzwords D) starting sentences with "There are" E) using prepositional phrases

21) Ramey tends to generalize in his writing because he believes that makes his writing easier for most people to understand. What is the likely effect of his generalizations on his readers?

A) They may doubt his competence on the subject he is writing about.

B) They are more likely to read the message carefully.

C) They will be pleased that they can find the information they need quickly.

D) They will be assured that Ramey is not hiding unpleasant facts.

E) They will focus their attention on Ramey's primary message.

22) Harris includes the following sentence in his memo: "In my career, I have never seen a greater increase in profits." What is the flaw in this sentence?

A) It uses obscure words.

B) It contains redundancy.

C) It uses passive voice.

D) It is not specific.

E) It uses a figure of speech.

23) Andy’s colleague tells him that some of his coworkers believe he has been misleading them about his team's expenses. They believe that his reports have concealed the truth. What should Andy do in his next report to avoid giving his coworkers that impression?

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A) He should shorten his paragraphs and increase white space.

B) He should avoid using buzzwords that tend to annoy readers.

C) He should include specific details and dollar amounts.

D) He should avoid using unfamiliar words that may alienate readers.

E) He should include a personal note at the front of his report.

24) Alissa, the floor manager of a packing plant, is under pressure from her boss to increase productivity. She circulates a memo telling all of her workers that they need to increase the number of units packed each hour. After a month, production has not changed significantly.

What went wrong in her communication?

A) She did not explain the pressure she was under.

B) Her message was not concise enough.

C) She used a memo instead of a more formal document.

D) Her message did not set a clear and specific production target.

E) Her message was not friendly enough.

25) Bao is announcing that the company needs to reduce its current workforce by half. What is the most specific way for him to say this?

A) The company will have to lay off a few employees.

B) The company will have to terminate a small percentage of its employees.

C) The company will have to terminate the majority of its employees.

D) The company will have to lay off about half of its employees.

E) The company will have to terminate 50 percent of its employees.

26) McDuff's boss told him he needs to be more concise in his report writing. To do this, McDuff should

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A) remove relevant information.

B) omit needless words.

C) omit parallel structure.

D) remove white space.

E) remove paragraph breaks.

27)

Which action is most likely to help you write concisely?

A) using longer sentences B) avoiding redundancy C) using more prepositional phrases D) avoiding the active voice E) using buzzwords

28) When business messages contain long paragraphs, readers are most likely to think the writer is

A) disorganized.

B) intelligent.

C) accurate.

D) respectful.

E) professional.

29)

The typical paragraph length for a business message is ________ words.

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A) 10-20 B) 40-80 C) 150-200 D) 300-400 E) 500-850

30)

One way to solve the problem of overly lengthy paragraphs is to

A) include more figures of speech.

B) focus on one idea or topic in each paragraph.

C) use passive voice instead of active.

D) start more sentences with "There is."

E) replace verbs with prepositional phrases.

31) Ramiro has written a long paragraph that describes the two main causes of employee absenteeism. Ideally, how many paragraphs does Ramiro need to cover this material?

A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

32) than

As a rule of thumb, for routine messages, the sentence length should average no more

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A) 8 words.

B) 15 words.

C) 20 words.

D) 25 words.

E) 30 words.

33) Consider the statement: "Managers of the people who work for them can use their motivational tools to motivate their employees to increase their productivity." The best way to make this statement concise is to

A) eliminate the passive voice.

B) remove empty phrases.

C) replace a prepositional phrase with a verb.

D) start with "It is" or "There are."

E) remove redundant words.

34) Consider the statement: "In order to build a sustainable organization, it is important to hire employees with sustainable qualities." One way to make this statement more concise is to

A) eliminate the passive voice.

B) remove empty phrases.

C) replace a prepositional phrase with a verb.

D) start with "It is" or "There are."

E) remove descriptive words.

35) Consider the statement: "As most of you know, Mega Molds had its most profitable year ever last year." One way to make this statement more concise is to

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A) eliminate the passive voice.

B) remove empty phrases.

C) replace a prepositional phrase with a verb.

D) start with "It is" or "There are."

E) remove redundant words.

36)

It becomes easier for your readers to process the information you present when you

A) match your writing style to the way your readers think and talk.

B) use prepositional phrases extensively as they increase the clarity of the message.

C) choose long and obscure words to pique their curiosity.

D) avoid using parallel language, which makes it difficult to distinguish between the information provided.

E) include a lot of text in your message and very little white space.

37)

People reading a business message are most likely to be confused by a sentence that

A) uses action verbs rather than passive verbs.

B) uses active voice rather than passive voice.

C) has parallel structure.

D) contains redundancies to drive home the point.

E) does not mention the subject.

38)

Which statement about active voice and passive voice is true?

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A) The active voice diverts attention from the doer.

B) People tend to think in a doer-action-object pattern.

C) The active voice is best when you do not want to attribute blame.

D) People tend to sound bossy when using the passive voice.

E) The passive voice places the object first.

39)

People are most likely to process information quickly when writers use

A) prepositional phrases.

B) action verbs.

C) the passive voice.

D) complex words.

E) long sentences.

40) use

To create a more natural writing style and improve the ease of reading, a writer should

A) passive verbs.

B) parallel language.

C) the passive voice.

D) figures of speech.

E) buzzwords.

41) Consider the sentence: "CEO Mary Williamson regrets to announce that Widgets, Inc. will be downsizing at the end of September." Which action would improve the ease of reading?

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A) Cut the prepositional phrase "at the end of September."

B) Change "at the end of September" to "at the end of the third quarter."

C) Change "Widgets, Inc." to " Widgets, Inc. manufacturing company."

D) Change the buzzword "downsizing" to "laying off employees."

E) Change "CEO Mary Williamson " to "The CEO of Widgets, Inc."

42)

Using the active voice while writing business messages

A) diverts the attention from the subject.

B) makes the writer sound less bossy.

C) allows for faster processing of the business message.

D) makes the message difficult to navigate.

E) is useful when the writer wants to avoid assigning blame.

43)

The use of familiar words in business messages is most likely to

A) distract attention from the message.

B) decrease the credibility of the message.

C) cause the readers' attention to wander because of boredom.

D) decrease the specificity of the message.

E) help the readers to process the information easily.

44) Georgio is writing a memo to suggest that his company hire someone to act on its behalf in a foreign market. If he wants to improve the ease of reading of his message, which term should he use to describe that person?

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A) fiduciary B) executor C) agent D) procurator E) expatriate

45)

Which statement about buzzwords is true?

A) They make text more active.

B) They are clichéd due to overuse.

C) They have very technical meanings.

D) They shorten the length of the message.

E) They improve a message's accuracy.

46) Which statement accurately describes the use of figures of speech, such as idioms and metaphors, in business writing?

A) They should be avoided because they lack specificity.

B) They send the signal that the writer is out of touch with the audience.

C) They are an effective way to write more concisely.

D) They should be avoided because they are too I-centered.

E) They are an effective way to make a message more natural.

47) At the beginning of her speech, Maria said, "It is imperative that we increase sales or we will need to reduce staff." What did Maria do wrong with this sentence?

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A) The message is less precise because it is wordy and lacks a specific subject.

B) The message is less precise because it contains figurative, not literal, meanings.

C) The message is more concise because those are brief phrases.

D) The message is more active because the second word is a verb.

E) The message is less natural sounding because it is not parallel.

48)

To improve ease of reading when using headings in business documents,

A) avoid using headings in complex messages.

B) use different font styles and formatting for different headings.

C) make sure the headings accurately convey the contents of a section.

D) use wordy prepositional phrases as headings.

E) avoid using headings in information-rich messages.

49) Which action is most likely to improve the ease of navigation in information-rich and complex messages?

A) using headings to convey the contents of sections B) avoiding the use of numbered or bulleted lists C) using several different font styles in the document D) using a new style of formatting for each section E) avoiding the use of too much white space

50)

Which statement will make a document easier to navigate?

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A) You should avoid using headings in information-rich and complex messages.

B) Visual appeal should be the first consideration for all written business communications.

C) Documents with too much text and not enough white space look daunting or cluttered.

D) Readers are likely to be distracted by bullets and numberings in a document.

E) In general, you should use special formatting as much as you can so your ideas stand out.

51)

For most written business communications, the first consideration should be to

A) present the message in a visually appealing manner.

B) get the message across in an easy-to-read manner.

C) select the facts in a persuasive manner.

D) construct the message in passive voice.

E) demonstrate how much of an expert you are.

52) Your colleague Lionel has just finished drafting an important business proposal. Now he has asked you for advice on how to review the document. What should you tell him to do?

A) Do a grammar check and spell check.

B) Do a spell check, do the FAIR test, and proofread.

C) Do the FAIR test and get feedback.

D) Do a spell check, do a grammar check, and get feedback.

E) Do the FAIR test, proofread, and get feedback.

53)

Which element is a component of the reviewing process?

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A) audience analysis B) identifying the primary message C) determining the key points D) determining the message structure E) conducting the FAIR test

54)

The "R" in the FAIR test stands for

A) revision.

B) respect.

C) relevancy.

D) redundancy.

E) repetition.

55) You are applying the FAIR test to a business message. Which question are you most likely to ask while analyzing its factual accuracy?

A) Are there any logical errors?

B) Have you allowed message recipients to provide input?

C) Have you considered how the message will impact stakeholders?

D) Have you evaluated impacts on others from an ethical perspective?

E) Have you demonstrated that you value others?

56)

Which task are you most likely to do during the first pass of proofreading?

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A) Check for grammatical errors.

B) Look for typographical mistakes.

C) Imagine how the audience will respond.

D) Check for problems with the writing style.

E) Look for issues with language mechanics.

57)

Which task are you most likely to do during the second pass of proofreading?

A) Check for adequate white space.

B) Look for language mechanics errors.

C) Imagine how the audience will respond.

D) Ask yourself if you are confident in your facts.

E) See if you have made logical errors.

58) Makalo has written a proposal advocating that his company should implement a schedule in which employees work four 10-hour days, with half of the employees having Monday off and the other half having Friday off. He claims that productivity will increase because fewer people will take days off to go to medical appointments, which they can schedule on their off days.

Which person has the best expertise to give Makalo helpful feedback about his proposal?

A) his college buddies when they meet for an after-work drink B) his husband, who is a teacher C) a colleague in the Human Resources Department D) his medical doctor E) his competitor, who has a similar program

59) Donna has written a proposal for a new initiative. Which action will help her evaluate how her message will impact stakeholders?

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A) doing a first pass of proofreading B) applying the FAIR test C) doing a second pass of proofreading D) consulting the design department E) using the AIM planning process

60)

The primary purpose of the FAIR test is to make sure that business communications are

A) concise.

B) accessible.

C) error-free.

D) understandable.

E) ethical.

61) When writing a message, it is important to provide as much information as possible to make the document thorough and useable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) The more specific you are, the more likely your readers are to become impatient and begin skimming your message. ⊚ ⊚

63)

true false

Crafting a credible message includes being specific. ⊚ ⊚

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64) Readers are more likely to read long paragraphs because they assume the details are important. ⊚ ⊚

65)

Long paragraphs in a business message are a sign that the text is well organized. ⊚ ⊚

66)

true false

true false

In order to be concise, you must sometimes leave out relevant information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) When you place more than one main idea or topic in a paragraph, you can end up with overly long paragraphs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) By eliminating redundancies, you can reduce the overall word count in a business message. ⊚ ⊚

69)

true false

Prepositional phrases should be used in business messages to increase clarity.

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⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

A paragraph should rarely exceed 150 words. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) To make it easier for your readers to process the information you present, you should match your writing style to the way your readers think and talk. ⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

Using passive verbs in your message makes it easier to process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) One advantage of using simple, short words is that they help readers process information more quickly. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) Jolene wrote an email to an employee pointing out that the team's report left out crucial information. Jolene should use the active voice to avoid appearing to blame the employee. ⊚ ⊚

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75)

The use of buzzwords in business messages usually stirs positive feelings among readers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Sentences that begin with "it is" or "there are" have a tendency to contain more words than necessary. ⊚ ⊚

77)

true false

Documents with a lot of text and not much white space can look daunting or cluttered. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) Todd wants to be sure everyone gets the message about a special speaker coming to their next meeting, so he should use a lot of unique formatting in his newsletter, such as italics or underlining, to get their attention. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) Reviewing business messages minimizes the possibility of embarrassing and damaging mistakes. ⊚ ⊚

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80)

The FAIR test helps business writers to make sure their communications are ethical. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) B 20) B 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) D 25) E 26) B 27) B 28) A 29) B 30) B 31) B 32) B 33) E 34) C 35) B 36) A 37) E Version 1

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38) B 39) B 40) B 41) D 42) C 43) E 44) C 45) B 46) A 47) A 48) C 49) A 50) C 51) B 52) E 53) E 54) B 55) A 56) C 57) B 58) C 59) B 60) E 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE Version 1

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68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE Student name:__________ 1) What does control refer to in choosing a communication channel? What do planning and permanence mean, and how are they related to control?

2) Which channel or channels of communication provide the most richness? Which channels of communication provide the least richness? Explain.

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3) What impression does it create when business professionals regularly flag their emails as "high priority"?

4) Describe the neutrality effect and negativity effect. How do they affect the receiver's perception of the meaning in emails?

5) Describe cyber incivility, and explain the difference between passive incivility and active incivility. Give an example of each.

6) What tone and language conventions should you use, and not use, when texting in the workplace? Explain.

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7)

Explain how e-interruptions affect productivity.

8) List the guidelines that can be followed to stay responsive to others but allow you to focus enough to achieve peak performance.

9)

What is active listening, and why is it important in phone conferences?

10)

What are some ways to prevent technology problems when participating in a video call?

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11)

What term refers to the degree to which communications can be planned and recorded?

A) richness B) immediacy C) constraint D) coordination E) control

12) Roberto likes to have the option of drafting, editing, and rehearsing his message before he delivers it. Which aspect of communication does he value?

A) permanence B) immediacy C) planning D) richness E) coordination

13) Kumar is conducting a study that compares the cost of keeping print messages on file versus storing digital messages in the cloud. Kumar is considering the ________ of messages.

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A) coordination B) planning C) constraint D) permanence E) richness

14) Monisha is coordinating a video conference involving colleagues in different time zones using different technologies. In addressing coordination and resource issues, she is dealing with

A) constraints.

B) control.

C) immediacy.

D) permanence.

E) richness.

15) Which term refers to how quickly someone is able to give feedback during communication?

A) coordination B) immediacy C) cue D) permanence E) richness

16) Min dislikes email and texting because he cannot hear the other person's tone of voice or see facial expressions. Min’s frustration is related to a lack of

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A) constraints.

B) resources.

C) cues.

D) control.

E) permanence.

17) Individuals involved in ________ communication can pay attention to and respond to communications when it is convenient for them.

A) asynchronous B) synergized C) low empathy D) intrapersonal E) concurrent

18) Talking with a colleague face to face or on the phone are examples of ________ communication.

A) synchronous B) synergized C) empathetic D) impersonal E) concurrent

19) Patricia needs to communicate with many people in her department, but it is not necessary for everyone to receive the message at the same time. Which channel is the best tool for Patricia to use?

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A) a videoconference B) an email C) a phone conversation D) a conference call E) a webinar

20) Which channel is typically used for short, one-to-one or one-to-many messages and is ideal for quick announcements and confirmation of plans?

A) a blog B) a videoconference C) texting D) a conference call E) a webinar

21) Fred needs to notify Yasmin that the proposal she wrote did not get funded. Which communication channel is most appropriate?

A) email B) written message C) social networking D) texting E) spoken communication

22)

Email communication is characterized by

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A) low control.

B) little coordination.

C) richness.

D) high cost.

E) constraints.

23) Suzanna was recently promoted to manager and is ready to start her first project with her new team. In order to develop trust and establish work rules, it would be best for Suzanna to

A) send an email to everyone prior to the first meeting.

B) ask for feedback on the suggested meeting agenda via Google docs.

C) meet face to face with the team.

D) allow team members to participate on their own schedules.

E) communicate via interoffice mail.

24) Carmela is an accountant who needs to request time off to deal with a family emergency.

Her boss prefers email for this kind of communication. What is the best subject line for Carmela’s email?

A) Unexpected request B) Out of the office: March 8-15 C) Staffing concern from the accounting department D) Camila requests time off this month E) Family emergency!

25)

Based on content and length, which example is the best subject line for an email?

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A) Why? B) Last month C) The reason why we should consider implementing this marketing plan is its many benefits.

D) Team meeting, Harper conference room at 11:00 E) So, here it goes

26)

What should be placed in the subject line of an email?

A) an expected action B) a signature block C) a list of attachments D) a professional tagline E) the recipient's name

27)

What should be included in the signature block of an email?

A) a list of attachments B) an expected action C) statistical data D) contact details E) the names of all the recipients

28)

Which of these are almost always more appropriate as attachments?

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A) contact details B) greetings C) meeting times D) brief notes E) spreadsheets

29) Elizabeth created three mock-ups for a product logo. She wants to send them to the company's executive team for feedback. The executives are in different cities, and the files are very large. What is the most efficient way for Elizabeth to distribute the logos?

A) through a sharing site such as Google Drive B) as an email attachment C) through U.S. Mail or FedEx D) in the body of an email E) on a social media site

30) When Sonia sends task-oriented emails to colleagues, she always tells them the deadline for the tasks and details about when she is available to talk or meet. What conclusion are Sonia’s colleagues likely to draw from this?

A) Sonia holds an important place in the organization.

B) Sonia is arrogant and bossy.

C) Sonia respects their time and other commitments.

D) Sonia packs unnecessary information in her messages.

E) Sonia has leadership potential.

31)

What should you do when you cannot respond to a request made in an email?

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A) Log off the system so the sender will assume that you are offline.

B) Set up an automated response to say that you are out of town.

C) Inform the sender that you are busy and cannot reply right now.

D) Reply immediately to explain how soon you can respond in full.

E) Ignore the email for now and reply when you can.

32) Penny always hits "reply to all" whenever she answers a team email, even if the email was a question posed by one other person and directed only to Penny. When she initiates an email about her project, she sends it to everyone in her department. Judging only from this information, what impact is Penny most likely having on her department's communications?

A) She is spreading confidential information to unauthorized people.

B) She is making everyone in her department feel included as part of the team.

C) She is helping make the department work more efficiently.

D) She is ensuring that each person on the team clearly knows their assignments.

E) She is contributing to email overload in her department.

33)

Why are greetings and names sometimes omitted from emails?

A) People do not like being greeted or having their names used very often.

B) Omitting names and greetings saves space and keeps many emails on one screen.

C) Some professionals view emails as the equivalent of memos, which traditionally omit names and greetings.

D) Most people are emotionally uninvolved at work and are not inclined toward greeting others.

E) Since emails are typically forwarded to several other people, it is inappropriate to name only one recipient.

34)

Which person is demonstrating the neutrality effect?

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A) Gino writes an email in which he intends to express a negative emotion, but readers decode it as neutral.

B) Samantha writes an email in which she intends to express a positive emotion, but readers decode it as neutral.

C) Alfred writes an email in which he intends to express a neutral emotion, and readers decode it as neutral.

D) Ro writes an email that he intends to be neutral, but readers decode it as hostile.

E) Elaine writes an email that she intends to be negative, but readers decode it as positive.

35) Duri needs help to meet a big deadline. Katha, who is not normally on his team, volunteers to help out. They meet the deadline. Duri writes what he thinks is an enthusiastic email to Katha to thank her for her help, but Katha does not respond. Her behavior is likely an example of

A) courtesy.

B) the neutrality effect.

C) active incivility.

D) defusing a situation.

E) a high-constraint medium.

36) Soleh’s manager expresses a concern that Soleh has been late with several recent reports.

Soleh writes an email about the incident to his colleague, Sam, saying that it is impossible to get the reports done in the time given. Sam replies, objectively noting that Soleh has been spending a lot of time on social media at work. Soleh responds with "I thought you were my friend." Soleh’s behavior is an example of

A) the negativity effect.

B) email overload.

C) cyber incivility.

D) synchronous communication.

E) phishing.

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37)

What is cyber silence?

A) It is the tendency to perceive messages with an intended positive emotion as neutral.

B) It is the tendency to perceive messages that are intended as neutral as negative.

C) It is the act of sending digital communications characterized by words of profanity and obscenity.

D) It is the act of not responding to emails or other digital communications.

E) It is the tendency to perceive messages that are intended as neutral as positive.

38) David sends an email to his colleague, Strom, asking for important details about an ongoing project. Strom is on a business trip and doesn't find time to reply to all of David’s queries. David wrongly perceives that Strom is ignoring him. What should David do?

A) David should send Strom information about information overload.

B) David should report Strom’s incivility to their manager.

C) David should not interrupt Strom’s trip even if the project falls behind.

D) David should call Strom or send a polite message requesting an early reply.

E) David should ignore Strom’s emails when Strom finally replies.

39) Thoren thinks that his boss favors his colleague Nadia over him. When the boss asks him to let Nadia know about a presentation, he waits until the last minute so she will have no time to prepare. Thoren's behavior is an example of

A) maintaining formality.

B) passive incivility.

C) the negativity effect.

D) the neutrality effect.

E) cyber control.

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40) Which term involves adjusting your initial perceptions by making more objective and fact-based evaluations and fewer personal judgments?

A) reinterpretation B) planning C) coordination D) defusing E) incivility

41) Pascal receives an email in which a colleague accuses him of not caring about the success of the team. Pascal responds with an email that apologizes for giving that impression and reports his progress on the tasks the team assigned him. Pascal's response can be described as

A) reinterpretation.

B) planning.

C) coordination.

D) defusing.

E) incivility.

42)

One possible negative effect of texting and other forms of instant messaging is

A) the brevity of messages can make them sound unfeeling.

B) instant messaging is an inherently serious channel.

C) instant messages cannot convey meta messages.

D) the format of instant messages is not good for positive news.

E) instant messages do not work for group conversations.

43)

Which message can be appropriately conveyed through IM?

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A) a disciplinary warning for excessive tardiness B) the agenda for an annual meeting C) praise for a colleague's presentation D) detailed feedback on a colleague's proposal E) an announcement about layoffs

44) Fedora's boss sends her an IM for the first time, and she is not sure how to respond. What is the best advice for Fedora?

A) Emoticons are a good way to break the ice in business situations.

B) Nonstandard language is inappropriate for office communications.

C) Take cues from your correspondent's messaging style.

D) Be courteous by copying all team members on discussions.

E) IM style does not affect professional reputation.

45) Just before Eileen goes to bed at 11:00 p.m., she realizes that she forgot to confirm a meeting she is supposed to attend the following day. She texts her colleague the following message: "Hi, it's Eileen. Are we still meeting tomorrow at 3:00?" What should she have done differently?

A) not bothered to include her name in the message B) waited to send the text right after she arrived at the office the next day C) included a frowning face emoticon to apologize for forgetting D) made a humorous comment about having a memory like a sieve E) turned off her sound alerts so she will not be awakened if her colleague answers

46) When he is working on his monthly reports, George has a habit of asking colleagues questions via IM instead of looking up data himself. Because of this, George is likely to be perceived as

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A) efficient.

B) a team player.

C) valuable.

D) a leader.

E) a taker.

47) Akiko sends the following message to the people she supervises in the factory: "Plant inspection Wed. 9:00. Sounds like a blast, huh? Akiko." What is the best way to make this text more professional?

A) moving her name to the beginning of the message B) spelling out the word "Wednesday" C) adding "a.m." after the time D) deleting the phrase "Sounds like a blast, huh?"

E) adding a winking face emoticon

48)

Frequent incoming messages can

A) increase productivity.

B) increase attention spans.

C) reduce creativity.

D) reduce stress.

E) improve civility.

49)

Which action can help keep email-induced distractions at bay?

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A) checking your messages once an hour B) checking your messages at the end of the day C) checking your messages once a week and using an automated message at other times D) checking your messages four to five times a day E) checking your messages constantly to keep updated on the latest information

50)

What is inbox zero?

A) a strategy of taking immediate action on every email to keep the inbox empty B) a strategy of having emails diverted from the inbox to avoid interruptions C) a service that compiles daily emails in a digest form D) a service that detects and removes unwanted emails from the inbox E) a service that scans emails for important information

51) According to a study by the University of Michigan, how is productivity affected when employees multitask?

A) Productivity increases by up to 80 percent.

B) Productivity increases by up to 40 percent.

C) Productivity remains the same.

D) Productivity drops by up to 40 percent.

E) Productivity drops by up to 85 percent.

52)

Which action is the best way to reduce e-interruptions?

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A) checking digital messages six to eight times a day at random B) turning on an automatic message that you are not answering emails all day C) replying immediately to all messages to get them out of the way D) using rich channels of communication to accomplish tasks immediately E) adding colleagues to an email chain so they can answer the messages

53) Kayce, the administrative assistant, sends an email with the annual holiday schedule to everyone in the department. At the bottom of the email, Kayce types "no reply necessary." What can you infer about Kayce from this?

A) She is not a very polite person.

B) She is creating unnecessary e-interruptions.

C) She is trying to reduce email overload.

D) She is taking on too much authority.

E) She sees herself as unimportant.

54)

What advantage do landlines have over mobile phones?

A) email ability B) texting ability C) Internet access D) more reliable video E) more reliable audio

55)

Which guideline for phone conversations with business colleagues is most helpful?

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A) Begin discussing business issues immediately after saying hello.

B) To keep a formal tone, avoid using the other person's name.

C) Multitask as long as you can do so without the other person suspecting.

D) Make sure that the conversation time is balanced between both parties.

E) To avoid wasting your colleagues' time, end without social niceties.

56)

What is a helpful tip for using webcams during a group video call?

A) Make sure your background shows several objects relevant to the conversation.

B) Wear casual clothing that day to appear friendlier.

C) Maintain direct eye contact with the camera as much as possible.

D) Be careful to tone down your facial expressions and gestures.

E) Sit slightly to one side so you can display visual aids if needed.

57)

Spoken messages in the workplace are low in control but high in richness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) A business memo is high in richness because the writer can carefully craft the messages at his or her own pace and on his or her schedule. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) Email is a form of synchronous communication, because the individuals involved can pay attention to and respond to communications at a time of their choosing. ⊚ ⊚

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165

60) Email communication is the primary form of written business communication, and that is expected to continue. ⊚ ⊚

61)

true false

Ensuring ease of reading is most important in digital communications. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) "The human resources meeting will be at 10:00 on Thursday in the main conference room" is a good subject line for an email. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) Workplace email communication is typically considered informal because it is less permanent than print communication. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Even colleagues who know each other well often misinterpret humor and sarcasm in digital communications. ⊚ ⊚

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65)

Employees should use the priority flag for all work emails that are time-sensitive. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) In her email, Cathy wrote, “The party for Mike is Friday at lunchtime!” The enthusiasm Cathy wanted to portray was not picked up on by the people who read it as simply an announcement. This demonstrates the negativity effect. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Focusing on task-related facts and issues in your reply is a good way to defuse situations involving cyber incivility. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Delores sent an instant message to her assistant, Fabio. Later, Delores heard that Fabio was offended that she did not think he was important enough for a phone call. Delores failed to consider the meta message of her text. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) If you don’t know the instant messaging style of a colleague, you should keep it brief by using abbreviations, acronyms, and emoticons. ⊚ ⊚

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70) Texting during meetings is unproductive and should be done only in case of an emergency. ⊚ ⊚

71)

true false

You should turn off message alerts at work as they can be distracting. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) In order to manage workplace communication effectively, reply immediately to all electronic messages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) A Microsoft study found that interruptions have little impact on performance because most people can focus on two or more things at a time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) When initiating a business call, it is important to open with the most important issue to be discussed and not waste the other person’s time. ⊚ ⊚

75) call.

true false

It is a good idea to practice with communications technology before initiating a video

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⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Group video calls rarely result in rich communication because people get bored and do other things during the call. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 11) E 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) E 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) D 26) A 27) D 28) E 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) E 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) A Version 1

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37) D 38) D 39) B 40) A 41) D 42) A 43) C 44) C 45) B 46) E 47) D 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) D 52) D 53) C 54) E 55) D 56) C 57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE Version 1

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67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

What are the primary differences between Web 1.0 and Web 2.0?

2)

What should a complete professional profile on social media include?

3)

What is the difference between a team blog and a project blog? How are they similar?

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4)

What are some of the challenges associated with using a shared files platform?

5)

How should you use a dashboard on social software systems?

6)

What is the relationship between public relations and blogs for external audiences?

7)

Explain how you can make your online content more accessible to others.

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8) this?

Why is it important to manage your online reputation, and what are some ways to do

9)

Why is it important to use social media ethically?

10) Explain how both the employer and the employee can be affected by an employee misusing social media.

11)

What has the greatest influence on the impact of social media in the workplace?

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A) access to technology B) cultural norms and values C) personal technical expertise D) speed of technology development E) government regulation

12)

User 1.0 is most likely to

A) actively create and share content online.

B) express opinions and even change the content presented.

C) use email as the main communication tool.

D) customize web pages and content.

E) stay connected online all the time.

13)

User 2.0 is most likely to

A) passively read and search for content.

B) depend on content creators and avoid expressing personal opinions.

C) get the web as is.

D) use the Internet for social connection.

E) use email as the main communication tool.

14)

Which element is a typical Web 1.0 communication?

A) a Wikipedia article B) an aspiring author's blog about writing C) photos of a restaurant menu posted online D) a news article with space for comments E) a user's Twitter feed

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15)

Which element is a typical Web 2.0 communication?

A) a discussion forum that allows users to post questions and answers B) a museum web page that displays hours and a map C) photos of a restaurant menu posted online D) a single web page for a small business showing photos of products E) an author's web page with a biography and list of books but no contact form

16) The evolution of the Internet from Web 1.0 to Web 2.0 platforms is the primary driver of the ________ Age.

A) Machine B) Technological C) Information D) Social E) Industrial

17)

Web 1.0 communication tools are primarily

A) passive and static.

B) interactive and customizable.

C) interactive and social.

D) passive and customizable.

E) customizable and social.

18)

The development of Web 2.0 tools has contributed to the development of more

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A) authoritarian organizations.

B) respect for status.

C) two-way communication.

D) emphasis on individual achievement.

E) collaborative networks.

19)

One potential drawback of using social media in the workplace is that social media

A) increase the time taken to market new products.

B) may lower productivity.

C) often result in intense inner-office debates.

D) make it difficult to develop creative approaches to solving business problems.

E) make it difficult for individuals to build professional networks internally.

20)

One advantage of using social media in the workplace is that social media

A) create a clear demarcation between professional and private lives.

B) discourage self-promotion and opportunism.

C) avoid broadcasting of mistakes to large audiences.

D) provide an interface with suppliers.

E) improve productivity when used constantly.

21)

When you log into most social software systems, you access a front page known as a

A) dashboard.

B) blog.

C) wiki.

D) forum.

E) desktop.

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22)

A status update is also known as a

A) wiki.

B) hub.

C) microblog.

D) mashup.

E) project blog.

23)

Which statement accurately describes microblogs?

A) They are a tool to configure the dashboard on a social software system.

B) They are a collection of knowledge sharing pages that anyone can edit.

C) They should not be used for broadcasting announcements.

D) They contain just a few sentences per entry.

E) They are individual entries on bigger blogs.

24) Which medium is most likely to hold all of a work group's communications, such as updates, progress reports, and discussions?

A) a podcast B) a team blog C) a mashup D) a Facebook group page E) an RSS feed

25) Creating an internal company blog with comment features is a good way for managers to increase

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A) transparency.

B) productivity.

C) profits.

D) sales.

E) employment.

26)

When using a shared file platform, it is important to

A) organize files by date.

B) grant each user access to all documents.

C) keep comments general.

D) discuss protocols for co-editing files.

E) create a single, shared login.

27) When Baruch joined his company, his manager encouraged him to use the company's digital platform to network with those who have shared professional interests and to join their groups. These groups are called

A) professional networks.

B) work teams.

C) communities of practice.

D) digital interest groups.

E) informal interest networks.

28) Talia posted the following message to a discussion forum at work: "Ralph, your late report cost us a shot at being team of the month." What team communication rule did she violate?

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A) Avoid leading posts.

B) Avoid ignoring competing points of view.

C) Avoid sarcasm.

D) Avoid off-topic points.

E) Avoid blaming.

29) Peyton wants to make his team's discussion forum more effective. Which strategy would best help him accomplish that?

A) Post lengthy suggestions.

B) Read comments only when necessary.

C) Acknowledge teammates' ideas.

D) Keep the purpose of the forum fluid.

E) Participate little and let the others do the talking.

30) Ariel notices that her team's online discussion forum has become contentious. Which guideline should she follow in this situation?

A) Summarize the next steps the team will take.

B) Meet in real time.

C) Acknowledge teammates' ideas.

D) Build on the ideas of others.

E) Participate often.

31)

Latecomers to forum discussions are most likely to cause problems by

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A) using strong, rigid language that does not foster discussion.

B) refusing to acknowledge viewpoints that compete with theirs.

C) challenging the team's hard-earned consensus and damaging morale.

D) using sarcastic language and hurting colleagues' feelings.

E) repeating things that were stated earlier.

32) One major threat to productive discussions is inconsistency. Firstcomers to a forum discussion are most likely to cause problems by

A) using strong, rigid language that does not foster discussion.

B) complaining or blaming others for the problems the team is having.

C) challenging the team's hard-earned consensus and damaging morale.

D) directing the discussion off topic and wasting valuable time.

E) stating their opinion but failing to take part as the conversation evolves.

33)

The traditional role of public relations was to communicate with

A) employees.

B) customers.

C) the media.

D) shareholders.

E) the government.

34) During the Information Age, the role of public relations broadened, and it came to be seen as a key component of

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A) human relations.

B) production.

C) finance.

D) research and development.

E) the marketing mix.

35)

What is the goal of most public relations messages?

A) to help the members of a company or organization do better work B) to store all of a team's communications in a single place C) to focus on specific topics and areas of expertise D) to create a distinctive brand for a company or organization E) to create an individual profile that creates a professional impression

36)

A public relations team's first step is to

A) discuss a promotion strategy.

B) clarify the company's brand.

C) identify the products and services to highlight.

D) understand the company's products and services.

E) gather accurate and reliable information.

37)

In the PR story, what does the first paragraph do?

A) answer basic questions B) give background C) provide contact information D) capture reader attention E) describe the author

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38) In a press-release style message, the "story" is written in third person in a style often referred to as ________ style.

A) journalistic B) dateline C) conventional headline D) inverted pyramid E) boilerplate.

39)

The advantage of an op-ed style corporate blog is that it is often used to

A) describe the company's unique selling position up front.

B) provide the necessary background first to give context for important details.

C) capture reader attention with an interesting story about the author.

D) put the most important information first where busy readers can find it.

E) share the opinions and expertise of a corporate leader with the public.

40)

In a blog post, you have ________ to draw your readers in.

A) less than 1 second B) 5 to 15 seconds C) 20 to 30 seconds D) 30-45 seconds E) about 60 seconds

41) Which social media tool would be best at helping a business professional establish a personal brand?

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A) a wiki B) a discussion forum C) a blog D) a microblog E) a social bookmarking page

42)

Blogs and wikis are

A) primarily social.

B) collaborative tools.

C) almost always personal.

D) static content.

E) discouraged in the workplace.

43)

When creating a blog, you should use naming, labeling, indexing, and tagging to

A) increase your flexibility.

B) be more professional.

C) help others find your information.

D) aid in authenticity.

E) be more collaborative.

44) your

A unique set of professional skills and attributes that others associate with you is called

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A) personal brand.

B) online identity.

C) social media profile.

D) blogging style.

E) meta message.

45) Overall and underlying messages that others decode from your online communications are referred to as ________ messages.

A) meta B) public C) wiki D) blog E) dashboard

46) Which meta message would most likely be communicated through a professional networking site such as LinkedIn?

A) I am committed to my industry.

B) I'm a good listener.

C) I can take care of you.

D) I am a fun person.

E) I want you to succeed.

47) Which type of reputation is affected by material a person posts to an online discussion forum that is accessed only by people in his or her company?

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A) personal and public B) professional and public C) personal and private D) professional and private E) professional and personal

48)

Which statement about online presence is true?

A) Employers, colleagues, and clients rarely use online information to judge a person's credibility.

B) Younger people are often expert at developing an online professional presence.

C) Business professionals are unaware of the importance of strong online reputations.

D) Nearly all business professionals are highly skilled at managing their online presences strategically.

E) A personal brand built through an online presence can help business professionals gain opportunities.

49)

Social media tools

A) have little to do with developing a personal brand.

B) make it tough to damage your online reputation.

C) make developing a personal brand very easy.

D) are used only by business professionals.

E) are used only by younger people.

50) Karla's company uses an internal social networking platform. Karla's posts usually involve awards she has won or praise she has received. She rarely comments on others' posts.

Others will most likely see her as

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A) supportive.

B) self-promoting.

C) incompetent.

D) trustworthy.

E) private.

51)

Which online action is most likely to damage your professional reputation?

A) liking a photo on your boss's Facebook page B) connecting with a friend at a rival company on LinkedIn C) praising a deserving colleague in a blog post D) posting vacation pictures on your company's networking page E) writing a glowing recommendation of a colleague with whom you have never

worked

52) Which situation is an example of how social media can complicate professional relationships?

A) An employee posts an invitation to the grand opening of the company's new office on a professional networking page.

B) An employee uses a personal social networking page to announce the birth of his or her child.

C) An employee blogs about an embarrassing incident involving his or her boss, who sees the post.

D) An employee uploads pictures of his or her coworkers at a professional workshop to the corporate blog.

E) An employee uses his or her social networking page to invite colleagues for dinner.

53) What is one of the most common types of effective posts when establishing a professional reputation?

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A) posting your accomplishments and awards B) posting pictures of your family and vacations C) promoting your employer D) sharing articles written by someone else E) sharing links to political opinions that reflect your own

54)

Which statement is one of Coca-Cola's social media guidelines?

A) These guidelines supersede our information protection policy.

B) It is not your job to be an ambassador for our company's brands.

C) You are responsible for your actions.

D) These guidelines supersede our insider trading policy.

E) When you see a comment that requires an expert answer, do the best you can.

55) According to the Coca-Cola social media guidelines, when employees promote the brand online, they should

A) disclose that they work for the company.

B) pose as satisfied customers.

C) offer promotional discounts.

D) notify the marketing department.

E) avoid engaging directly with consumers.

56) The Social Age is an era in which people engage in networked communication, collaborate within boundaries, and solve problems individually. ⊚ ⊚

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57)

Web 2.0 communication tools are primarily read-only. ⊚ ⊚

58)

Twitter is a Web 2.0 communication tool. ⊚ ⊚

59)

true false

true false

Wikipedia is a Web 1.0 communication tool. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) Javier is a writer who loves to communicate through his blog and Facebook. The term User 1.0 applies to Javier. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) Carmen relies almost entirely on email to communicate with friends, family, and colleagues. The term User 1.0 applies to Carmen. ⊚ ⊚

62)

true false

Your professional profile should not include any of your interests outside of work. ⊚ ⊚

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63)

Most employees participate on companies' enterprise platforms with collaboration tools. ⊚ ⊚

64)

true false

Online communities are good places to network with other professionals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) Due to the many communication tools available in the emerging Social Age, the division between professional and private lives is becoming increasingly clear. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) Offering to help a colleague on a company blog or wiki is considered intrusive and unprofessional. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Public relations is fundamentally about increasing the company's ability to earn profit off customers and the community. ⊚ ⊚

68)

true false

The most common format for a written PR message is the op-ed piece.

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⊚ ⊚

69)

true false

Company leaders often use the op-ed style on corporate blogs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) Younger people are often expert at developing an online professional presence, but they are less skilled at developing an online social persona. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Posting about excessive weekend partying on Twitter can damage a person's chances of getting a good job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) The profiles you post on personal social media accounts will not affect your professional reputation, but your work-related accounts will. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Clarise often posts on Facebook about her achievements, extensive travels, and business acumen. As such, she is most likely improving her online reputation. ⊚ ⊚

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74) The use of social media, even for private use, complicates your relationship with your employer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Employees should become familiar with their companies' acceptable-use policies for social networking websites. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 11) B 12) C 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) E 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) D 27) C 28) E 29) C 30) B 31) C 32) E 33) C 34) E 35) D 36) B Version 1

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37) A 38) D 39) E 40) B 41) C 42) B 43) C 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) D 48) E 49) C 50) B 51) E 52) C 53) C 54) C 55) A 56) FALSE 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE Version 1

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67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

Describe the writing process for routine messages. Explain what is involved in each step.

2)

Explain the different components of a message that makes it a request.

3)

Explain why setting expectations is important for managers and supervisors.

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4) Identify the three central components of setting expectations, and give details about each component.

5) What components are necessary for providing directions that are clear, and what should you do to ensure that they are accurate?

6)

Explain strategies you should use in order to respond to inquiries effectively.

7) Why do employees sometimes ignore announcements? What can you do to keep this from happening?

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8)

Describe a claim. What is the process of developing a message that makes it a claim?

9)

What are the drawbacks of showing excessive appreciation?

10) Explain why it is appropriate to extend sympathy messages to close professional contacts.

How should you best formulate those messages?

11) Which question will help you to establish credibility with the readers of your routine messages?

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A) What information does the audience need, and how do they want to receive it?

B) How can I use this message to show off my experience and accomplishments?

C) How can I trim as much detail as possible from this message?

D) What is the most persuasive argument that I can make in this message?

E) What type of formatting will draw the most attention to my design skills?

12)

What is most likely to damage the credibility of the author of routine messages?

A) a too-direct subject line B) the use of short paragraphs C) the use of bulleted lists D) short, concise messages E) overly general messages

13)

Why is efficiency one of the primary goals when sending routine messages?

A) Routine messages require in-depth analysis.

B) Routine messages rarely happen and should be efficient.

C) Routine messages need to include a lot of information.

D) The volume of routine messages is high.

E) Most professionals prefer to write routine messages.

14) Which type of message probably requires the least amount of time for planning and reviewing?

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A) routine message B) persuasive message C) bad-news message D) crisis communications message E) public relations message

15)

What is accurate about developing routine messages?

A) Routine messages have very few purposes.

B) Routine messages do not need to be planned.

C) Routine messages have little effect on credibility.

D) Routine messages need to be reviewed.

E) Routine messages are rare in business.

16)

Which element is least crucial to most routine message development?

A) planning B) proofreading C) drafting D) information gathering E) applying the FAIR test

17)

Which step is most important in planning routine messages?

A) audience analysis B) idea development C) message structuring D) meta message development E) crisis analysis

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18)

What is the main challenge that authors of routine messages have to overcome?

A) Finding enough facts to write a routine message is difficult.

B) Readers receive so many routine messages that it is hard to catch their attention.

C) Routine messages require substantial evidence to document their claims.

D) Knowing what the audience wants from a routine message can be very difficult.

E) Most routine messages have complex content that is difficult to simplify.

19)

What is the advantage of front-loading a routine message?

A) It ensures that the tone of your message is other-oriented.

B) It enables you to elaborate on non-important matters at the end.

C) It is an efficient way to make an email less bulky.

D) It ensures that the recipients perceive your message as unbiased.

E) It makes it easier to get the reader's attention.

20) Lester is developing a routine business message. He is working on his primary message.

How long should it be?

A) fewer than 5 words B) fewer than 10 words C) between 10 and 20 words D) at least 25 words E) at least 50 words

21)

What is a characteristic of a strong routine message?

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A) few details B) short paragraphs C) general statements D) little special formatting E) argumentative language

22) Read the email that Jim sent to his team below. Then choose the answer that best explains what is wrong with the message.

SUBJECT: Proposal draft due Friday Just a reminder that the proposal draft is due Friday for all team's. Please finalize your work ahead of the deadline before Friday.

A) Jim should mention each team member by name.

B) The message is too short.

C) It is not proper memo style to skip the greeting.

D) Jim has not reread the message.

E) Jim has not been clear about when the proposal is due.

23) Read the email that Lisa sent to her supervisor below. Then choose the answer that best explains what is wrong with the message.

SUBJECT: Praise for our intern's work Joni, I just wanted to let you know that Bryce is doing exceptional work as an intern. I'm really happy with his effort.

A) The email is too general to tell Joni anything about Bryce's performance.

B) The tone is too casual for this type of email.

C) It is not Lisa's place to send a note praising a colleague to her supervisor.

D) Lisa should have waited until Joni asked her opinion.

E) The subject line should be more specific to capture Joni's attention.

24)

What will help guarantee that your information is accurate and reliable?

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A) using short sentences B) including links C) using special formatting, such as bullets D) applying the FAIR test E) front-loading your message

25)

What should you focus on during the reviewing step of writing a routine message?

A) message structuring B) design C) proofreading D) audience analysis E) front-loading the message

26)

While writing a routine message, you should

A) avoid using bullets or numbers.

B) use very long sentences and paragraphs.

C) ensure the tone of the message is reader-centered.

D) place the primary message at the end.

E) avoid using the recipient's name.

27) Many routine business messages involve such things as teams coordinating their assignments, customers buying products, and colleagues asking if they can meet. Such messages are known as

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A) requests.

B) expectations.

C) apologies.

D) claims.

E) announcements.

28)

When making requests, ________ goes a long way in maintaining goodwill.

A) using a self-oriented, positive tone B) ordering people to complete a task C) keeping the subject line mysterious D) showing respect for the recipient's time E) omitting the rationale for the request

29) Read the request Sharon sent to her supervisor below. Then choose the answer that most accurately evaluates the email.

SUBJECT: Request for vacation time in October Leon, as we discussed yesterday, I would like to take the first week in October as vacation time. My niece is getting married, so I want to travel to San Francisco to help with last-minute planning. My current project ends September 20, so the trip should not interfere with any department deadlines. Would you be able to let me know by the end of this week so I can book my airline ticket while I can still get a discount rate?

A) The email fails to provide a rationale for the request.

B) The email does not have a specific enough subject line.

C) The tone is too bossy, so it is inappropriate to send to a supervisor.

D) The message does not show respect for Leon's time.

E) The email is specific, positive, and shows concern for the department.

30)

Which statement accurately describes the act of setting expectations for others?

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A) Only senior managers should set expectations for their subordinates.

B) First-time managers are most comfortable telling others what to do.

C) Setting expectations is directly tied to your ability to foster interpersonal trust in the workplace.

D) The way in which you set expectations for others has little impact on your credibility.

E) Stating goodwill in a message for setting expectations conveys weakness.

31)

Failure to set expectations will most likely lead to

A) employee goodwill.

B) team building.

C) increased self-determination.

D) professional disappointments.

E) honored claims.

32) Korrine manages a team of graphic designers. She distributes a document with details on each of the tasks for an upcoming project, which are then assigned to a specific member of her team. Which of the three components of setting expectations does this accomplish?

A) explaining overall goals and objectives B) providing deadlines C) stating goodwill D) discussing coordination E) describing responsibilities

33) Jamal was recently promoted, and he tells his new team they would meet soon to discuss coordination. What does this entail?

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A) encouraging employees to engage in networked communication to solve problems B) designating tasks and work outcomes to certain employees C) setting out the timeline by which the work should be accomplished satisfactorily D) providing guidelines for how employees should communicate and cooperate with one another E) identifying a potential crisis and developing a strategy for avoiding it

34) Rita meets with the team she oversees and gives each team member a spreadsheet that shows when various stages of the project are due. The assignments for each team member are shown in a different color. Which of the three components of setting expectations has Rita completed?

A) describing responsibilities B) setting deadlines C) stating goodwill D) discussing coordination E) providing guidelines

35)

What is a component of setting expectations?

A) making claims B) making requests C) stating goodwill D) providing deadlines E) analyzing audiences

36) When you describe your own role and responsibilities to your direct reports, they are more likely to

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A) see you as domineering and self-obsessed.

B) acknowledge your leadership and accept all your decisions.

C) hold you responsible for everything.

D) realize that you and they are mutually accountable.

E) become more reluctant to be open with you.

37)

Which element is usually found in a set of directions but not in a set of expectations?

A) an explanation of the work outcome B) a description of responsibilities C) a set of deadlines D) step-by-step instructions E) guidelines for working with others

38)

What is an effective way to write procedures and directions?

A) Compose the message entirely in passive voice.

B) Do not complicate the message with additional tips.

C) Put the different steps in a numbered list.

D) Write the steps using the I-voice.

E) Summarize all the directions in the subject line of the message.

39) When a business professional sends a message to answer another person's questions, the professional is

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A) making announcements.

B) making claims.

C) responding to inquiries.

D) providing directions.

E) setting expectations.

40) Wanda receives an email from Kain, a subordinate who is about to start analyzing a market research report. Kain includes a long paragraph that contains five questions about the assignment. What is the best way forWanda to respond to Kain?

A) by inserting her answers directly into Kain's paragraph B) by giving a general summary of the process C) by writing a new paragraph that contains all her answers D) by writing her answers to the questions as a numbered or bulleted list E) by telling Kain that he should model his work on the analysis she did last year

41) Zoe's company changed its telecommuting policy, and it was Zoe's responsibility to let everyone know. Zoe sent out a(n)

A) announcement.

B) claim.

C) direction.

D) request.

E) inquiry.

42)

Announcements are a form of

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A) one-to-one communications.

B) one-to-many communications.

C) supervisor-to-subordinate communications.

D) middle-management communications.

E) front-line communications.

43)

Many employees ignore announcements because announcements

A) are typically written in an other-oriented tone.

B) typically consist of requests for follow-up.

C) are broadcast to a large number of employees.

D) are rarely interesting to read.

E) are complicated to understand.

44)

What can you do to encourage employees to read announcements?

A) Reward employees for reading announcements.

B) Ask employees to take turns writing the announcements.

C) Include links to funny articles or videos in every announcement.

D) Use a specific, catchy subject line that creates interest.

E) Request a read receipt for each announcement.

45)

What are claims?

A) implied codes of conducts for employees B) requests for other companies to compensate for or correct mistakes they have made C) detailed timelines by which work should be accomplished satisfactorily D) guidelines for how employees should communicate and cooperate with one another E) updates to policies and procedures, notices of events, and other correspondences

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46)

A message that makes a claim is most likely to end with

A) the rationale for the claim.

B) an emotional reason for the claim.

C) an announcement.

D) a call to action.

E) a step-by-step direction.

47)

Which component is most likely to be included in an appreciation message?

A) an attention getter B) a quick rationale C) a call to action D) a goal for the message E) a deadline for a task

48)

Which statement accurately describes appreciation messages?

A) Your appreciation messages should include several statements about yourself.

B) Your appreciation message should include exaggerated displays of gratitude.

C) You should avoid explaining why you feel grateful because that sounds defensive.

D) You should begin your appreciation messages with an expression of thanks.

E) Your appreciation messages should have an informal tone when sent to clients.

49)

To show your sincerity in an appreciation message, you should

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A) include exaggerated displays of gratitude.

B) avoid including a rationale for the gratitude.

C) make sure that your message is extremely formal.

D) focus exclusively on the recipient.

E) include a call to action at the end of the message.

50)

What types of messages are reserved for major professional milestones?

A) appreciation B) congratulations C) apology D) sympathy E) inquiry

51)

Which statement about apologies is accurate?

A) Offenses caused by personality clashes do not warrant apologies.

B) It is always good to apologize regardless of whether you are right or wrong.

C) All apologies are not necessarily good apologies.

D) Business professionals who are high in emotional intelligence never apologize.

E) Apologies are necessary only when you harm someone on purpose.

52) Tomas writes a note to his boss apologizing for an embarrassing typo in a recent publication. At the end of the message, he promises that he will not let such a mistake get by him in the future. This promise is an example of

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A) acknowledging a mistake.

B) accepting responsibility.

C) offering commitment.

D) redirecting the conversation.

E) stating goodwill.

53) Raquel walked into her boss's office and made the following apology: "I should not have yelled at you today when I found out that my trip had been canceled. I did a poor job of controlling my emotions. I'll do better next time." What component of an apology has Raquel failed to include?

A) acknowledgment of a mistake B) acceptance of responsibility C) timeliness D) an expression of regret E) a commitment not to repeat the offense

54)

What is the foremost requirement of an expression of sympathy?

A) It must be brief.

B) It must be sincere.

C) It must be accompanied by a gift.

D) It must express grief.

E) It must be delivered in person.

55) What is a common component of all routine messages, including messages that express sympathy?

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A) a statement of goodwill B) deadlines C) a rationale for a claim D) a thank-you statement E) an attention getter

56)

Which guideline is recommended for messages that express sympathy?

A) Avoid sending sympathy messages to people with whom you have only professional relations.

B) In the case of death, avoid mentioning the name of the deceased person in the message.

C) Pay the most attention to using exactly the appropriate words.

D) Handwrite your expression of sympathy whenever possible.

E) Compose long and elaborate messages to express sympathy.

57)

Typically, routine messages deal with complex matters that require in-depth analysis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Business professionals do not usually need to focus on audience analysis for routine messages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) Very general messages keep readers from being bogged down in detail and add to the sender's credibility.

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⊚ ⊚

60)

true false

The tone for most routine messages should be helpful, professional, and reader centered. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) When conducting a FAIR test on a routine message, the most important aspect to consider is accuracy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) Using an other-oriented tone can help you retain goodwill with the recipient of your routine request. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) When writing routine requests, you should expect strong resistance from message recipients. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Many young managers fail to set expectations because they want to maintain a friendly feeling with subordinates. ⊚ ⊚

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213

65) Three components are central in setting expectations for those you manage: describing responsibilities, providing deadlines, and discussing coordination. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) Messages that provide directions and messages that set expectations both involve telling others what to do. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) When choosing between bullets or numbered lists in responding to an inquiry, you should consider whether the order of the items is important. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) In responses to inquiries, setting off each question is an unnecessary and distracting formatting gimmick. ⊚ ⊚

69)

true false

Typically, an announcement is broadcast to very few receivers. ⊚ ⊚

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70) To prevent employees and customers from ignoring announcements, the subject line must be specific and must create interest. ⊚ ⊚

71)

Claims are most likely to be successful if they show emotion. ⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

true false

Appreciation messages should not appear self-serving in any way. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Appreciation messages should focus on the recipient and the person expressing appreciation. ⊚ ⊚

74)

A successful professional should use an apology only as a last resort. ⊚ ⊚

75)

true false

true false

Expressions of sympathy should usually be brief. ⊚ ⊚

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76)

The foremost requirement of any expression of sympathy is that it be automatic. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 11) A 12) E 13) D 14) A 15) D 16) D 17) C 18) B 19) E 20) B 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) C 26) C 27) A 28) D 29) E 30) C 31) D 32) E 33) D 34) B 35) D 36) D Version 1

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37) D 38) C 39) C 40) D 41) A 42) B 43) C 44) D 45) B 46) D 47) B 48) D 49) D 50) B 51) C 52) C 53) D 54) B 55) A 56) D 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE Version 1

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67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

Why is appreciation an important part of persuasive messages?

2)

Discuss the importance of reason and emotion in persuasive messages.

3) You are creating a sales presentation about your cleaning service to a new client.

Demonstrate the right tone to use for this persuasive message by writing a sample message, and explain why you chose to use that particular style.

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4)

Describe a strategy that can be used to personalize persuasive messages.

5)

How are internal and external persuasive messages similar, and how are they different?

6) Choose one of Williams and Miller's decision-making styles that most describes your own decision-making style. Give an example.

7)

What are the benefits and drawbacks of mass sales messages?

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8) Why is the FAIR test especially important for reviewing persuasive messages in the posttrust era?

9)

Explain the review process for persuasive messages.

10)

Which statement accurately describes persuasion in the post-trust era?

A) In the post-trust era, persuasion is rarely employed because it no longer works.

B) In the post-trust era, threats are the best persuasive technique.

C) In the post-trust era, the link between credibility and persuasion has diminished significantly.

D) In the post-trust era, persuasion is becoming increasingly difficult.

E) In the post-trust era, persuading your audience is easier because of social media.

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11)

Which statement about persuasive messages is accurate?

A) The audience is less important in persuasive messages than in other types of messages.

B) Persuasive messages require a message structure that helps reduce resistance.

C) Persuasive messages do not need as much planning as other business messages.

D) Persuasive messages are very similar to messages that express appreciation.

E) The success of persuasive messages seldom depends on the author's credibility.

12) Anthony is trying to convince his colleagues to contribute to their company's holiday clothing drive. The most effective persuasive argument he can use is an argument that

A) relates the clothing drive to their need to feel good about themselves.

B) makes them feel guilty if they do not contribute.

C) shows how much effort Anthony has put into planning the event.

D) competes with the holiday charitable drives of other companies.

E) emphasizes the public relations benefit to the company.

13)

What is the first step in the planning process for writing persuasive messages?

A) conducting the FAIR test for the message B) analyzing the audience C) setting up the message structure D) developing ideas E) choosing a method of influence

14) In the context of developing persuasive messages, the process of understanding the needs and values of others

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A) is simple and happens quickly.

B) requires a strong listening orientation.

C) is a part of the FAIR test.

D) is done after message structuring.

E) has little effect on persuasiveness.

15) A colleague asks you for advice on how to understand the audience of his persuasive message. How would you advise this person?

A) Focus on the audience members' values but not their needs.

B) Ask as few questions as possible to avoid annoying them.

C) Wait until the message is perfected before choosing the right audience.

D) Consider the psychological principles that influence people's decisions.

E) Use the FAIR test to conduct audience analysis.

16) Which of Cialdini's principles of influence involves repaying people for what they have given us?

A) reciprocation B) liking C) authority D) consistency E) scarcity

17)

Which scenario illustrates the principle of consistency?

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A) Paula mentions several examples of other people volunteering at her charity to influence her readers.

B) Michael stresses that the company anti-litter campaign occurs only once a year.

C) Macy describes how the local cancer center has helped several colleagues, which is why the company supports it.

D) Bao names several high-profile celebrities who support the same charity event that the company is sponsoring.

E) Melissa asks volunteers to sign up by return email because then they will be more likely to carry through.

18) Which principle is in play when an employee works overtime to finish a project because she promised the team they would make the deadline?

A) reciprocation B) liking C) authority D) consistency E) social proof

19) What is a principle of influence whereby people determine what is right, correct, or desirable by seeing what others do?

A) reciprocation B) liking C) social proof D) consistency E) scarcity

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20) Min-Ji is a good friend of Tasha. Tasha signs up to participate in a charity event when she finds out that Min-Ji is also participating. Tasha's behavior illustrates the principle of influence known as

A) liking.

B) reciprocation.

C) consistency.

D) authority.

E) scarcity.

21)

Celebrity endorsements in advertising are based on the ________ principle of influence.

A) reciprocation B) authority C) social proof D) consistency E) scarcity

22) A shopper is more likely to buy a product if she hears that it sells out quickly. Her behavior illustrates the principle of influence known as

A) authority.

B) scarcity.

C) social proof.

D) liking.

E) consistency.

23) In order to encourage participation in a walkathon, the organization arranging the event offers a free T-shirt and water bottle to all participants. Which principle of influence is being used?

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A) liking B) authority C) scarcity D) reciprocation E) social proof

24) Sautéed, a restaurant in California, holds a highly popular bash featuring well-known DJs on the last Saturday night of every month. The restaurant offers event-passes to frequent customers (who have spent at least $3,000 during the past year) for free. A limited number of passes are also available to other customers at a high price one day prior to the event. Which principle of influence is the restaurant using?

A) liking B) authority C) scarcity D) consistency E) reciprocation

25)

Which of these is a component of a persuasive message?

A) Refute opposing views.

B) Engage emotion.

C) Provide a rationale.

D) Demonstrate consistency.

E) Resist authority.

26) Recognizing others' needs, wants, ideas, and preferences as legitimate and reasonable is known as

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A) identification.

B) a call to action.

C) reciprocation.

D) validation.

E) a counterpoint.

27) In the context of developing persuasive messages, what is most likely to help you demonstrate a voice of competence?

A) using only emotional appeals in your persuasive messages B) developing strong ideas in the interest of your audience C) adopting the tone of mass advertising such as over-the-top appeals D) focusing only on logical appeals E) using the I-voice in external persuasive messages

28)

The writing style of most persuasive messages tends to be

A) exaggerated and explicit.

B) direct and explicit.

C) direct and implicit.

D) indirect and explicit.

E) indirect and implicit.

29)

A message is said to be indirect when it

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A) provides the rationale for a request before making the request.

B) expresses gratitude toward or appreciation of the readers.

C) contains full and unambiguous meaning.

D) requires reading between the lines to gauge the entire meaning.

E) politely asks people to do or think differently.

30)

Which statement about choosing attention-getters for persuasive messages is accurate?

A) For external persuasive messages, the primary means of gaining attention is demonstrating a business need.

B) Writers have more flexibility choosing attention-getters for internal persuasive messages than for external persuasive messages.

C) Issuing a challenge is a poor attention-getter, so its use should be avoided in persuasive messages.

D) Posting a testimonial is a good attention-getter, particularly for external messages.

E) Posing a rhetorical question is an attention-getter that writers should avoid in the post-trust era.

31)

The first task of most persuasive messages is to

A) express gratitude to the readers.

B) gain the attention of the readers.

C) provide a strong rationale.

D) establish that a problem exists.

E) appreciate the readers' views.

32)

What will help you reduce skepticism once you have described your solution?

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A) restating the need for the solution B) showing appreciation for your readers' views C) discussing positive points about your competitor's products D) agreeing with your readers' objections E) providing a strong rationale

33)

If your audience is emotionally resistant to your solution, a good practice is to

A) provide the rationale before making the request.

B) use the direct approach to help them warm up to your ideas.

C) use statements that are vague and ambiguous.

D) use the hyped-up language of mass advertising.

E) make a request but avoid providing a rationale.

34)

What is the best way to handle objections, according to Michael Maslansky?

A) Use a me-versus-you tone.

B) Endeavor to delegitimize the concerns.

C) Agree with the objections.

D) Always include counterpoints to the objections.

E) Confidently show how your product is superior to the competitor's.

35)

Persuasive messages should conclude with a(n)

A) attention-getter.

B) solution.

C) call to action.

D) summation.

E) rationale.

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36)

What is the most appropriate tone for persuasive messages?

A) positive B) exaggerated C) deceptive D) authoritative E) questioning

37)

When you reduce the confidence and positivity in your message, you run the risk of

A) being perceived as pushy.

B) being perceived as an exaggerator.

C) making your message seem self-serving.

D) making your idea seem weak or unexciting.

E) appearing to focus only on logic.

38)

The writing style of your persuasive messages should be

A) action-oriented and lively.

B) understated and passive.

C) dull or unexceptional.

D) pushy and exaggerated.

E) direct and explicit.

39)

Which statement accurately describes the use of you-voice in persuasive messages?

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A) Writing in the you-voice to customers is just a stylistic choice.

B) Using the you-voice deemphasizes customer benefits.

C) Using the you-voice forces you to personalize the message for your readers.

D) Using the you-voice implies a high level of self-centeredness.

E) Using the you-voice in persuasive messages emphasizes the writer's objectivity.

40)

What is a result of making tangible statements in persuasive messages?

A) It lets the I-voice take center stage over the you-voice.

B) It focuses on your company and deemphasizes benefits to your customer.

C) It is just a stylistic choice and has no outcomes of its own.

D) It adds to the excitement of the message.

E) It allows your readers to interpret the message on a personal level.

41)

Typically, internal persuasive messages focus mostly on

A) negative emotions.

B) the reciprocation principle of influence.

C) the scarcity principle of influence.

D) logical appeals.

E) positive emotions.

42)

External persuasive messages often

A) focus more on promoting ideas.

B) are more direct than internal persuasive messages.

C) are more explicit than internal persuasive messages.

D) focus more on promoting products and services.

E) use the we-voice.

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43) Which of Williams and Miller's decision-making styles comprises the highest percentage of executives?

A) charismatic B) follower C) thinker D) evaluator E) controller

44) Which of Williams and Miller's decision-making styles involves making decisions based on what has happened in the past?

A) charismatic B) follower C) thinker D) evaluator E) controller

45) Jerold was sure that sales were down at his company because its supplier wasn't keeping up with orders, in spite of the data that showed the supplier was actually more responsive than the previous supplier. He yelled at the operations manager during a meeting, telling him to fix the problem now. Jerold's decision-making style is that of a(n)

A) charismatic.

B) skeptic.

C) thinker.

D) evaluator.

E) controller.

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46) To convince his manager that a new copier was needed, Darrin kept track of the lost productivity that resulted from employees having to wait for a repair person, needing to redo projects when the copier destroyed parts of them, and having to go out of the office to get copies made. He also showed the increase in cost of paper. Darrin presented the manager with a spreadsheet containing all the data, and after a week of asking for more information and considering it, the manager agreed to his proposal. Using Williams and Miller's decision-making styles, Darrin's manager is most likely a(n)

A) charismatic.

B) skeptic.

C) thinker.

D) evaluator.

E) controller.

47) Marina owns a small business and she makes all the purchasing decisions. When she talks to a salesperson, she just wants the facts and loses patience when they try to push her for a decision. She tells them not to call her, but they can occasionally email if they have a new product. Using Williams and Miller's decision-making styles, one could conclude that Marina is a(n)

A) charismatic.

B) skeptic.

C) thinker.

D) evaluator.

E) controller.

48) Candy is writing a brochure to explain the benefits of buying produce from local farmers at the farmers' market rather than from chain grocery stores. What information will most likely make her brochure effective?

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A) stories about local farm families who participate in the farmers' market B) statistics about how much money is spent at farmers' markets nationally C) statements to make people feel guilty about not supporting local farmers D) data about how much fuel is saved by not shipping produce long distances E) a lecture about how important it is to put money into the local economy

49)

Which of these is the most expensive medium for sending mass sales messages?

A) online banner ads B) mass emails C) online pop-up ads D) hard-copy letters E) company website ads

50)

In the model for mass sales messages called AIDA, "D" stands for

A) destination.

B) difference.

C) development.

D) desire.

E) drive.

51)

What is a component of the AIDA approach to mass sales messages?

A) gaining attention B) discussing ideas C) analyzing deadlines D) making announcements E) answering queries

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52)

The AIDA model of mass sales messages is aimed at getting potential customers to think

A) "I've seen this product or service before."

B) "What is the benefit of this product of service?"

C) "This business wants my money."

D) "I want this product or service."

E) "Famous people use this product or service."

53)

Most sales messages contain a(n) ________; one of the most common is price.

A) central sales theme B) action statement C) desired goal D) topic of interest E) audience need

54) It is important to ask colleagues to review persuasive messages because persuasive messages

A) use more formal language than other business messages.

B) are more personal and idiosyncratic than other business messages.

C) use difficult direct structure and explicit language.

D) are directed to people who resist your ideas, products, or services.

E) must be extremely objective and neutral to be effective.

55)

It is especially important to review persuasive messages because nearly all of them are

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A) high-stakes communications.

B) personal and confidential.

C) inexpensive to produce.

D) circulated within your organization.

E) copied by your competitors.

56) Thoren is looking for a colleague to give him feedback on a persuasive message he has written.Which colleague would be the best choice?

A) one who shares Thoren's views on most workplace issues B) one who works in a different field than Thoren C) one who may resist in the same way as Thoren's audience D) one who does not have strong opinions E) one who is familiar with Thoren's writing style

57)

Which statement about using manipulation in persuasive messages is true?

A) Manipulating customers is an accepted part of business.

B) Using manipulation increases your credibility in the eyes of your audience.

C) The FAIR test can help you avoid sending manipulative messages.

D) Career advancement often requires that you be manipulative.

E) There is an ethical difference between manipulating customers and manipulating colleagues.

58) Ari's email asking her colleagues to donate clothing to a local homeless shelter is an example of an external persuasive message. ⊚ ⊚

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59) Persuasion implies that you are communicating with someone who thinks the same way as you do. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) Your ability to persuade colleagues is often tied to how much they think you appreciate them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) Charles tends to be more easily persuaded by people he likes. This demonstrates the principle of reciprocation. ⊚ ⊚

62)

true false

Most people justify their business decisions based on the soundness of ideas, not feelings. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) Monica writes a message to persuade customers that eating her company's new yogurt will make them healthier. She chooses to make her message indirect and implicit. Monica has chosen a common approach for such a message. ⊚ ⊚

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64)

Exaggeration is acceptable in persuasive messages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) Your colleagues and customers will be more easily persuaded when you show interest in them personally. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) Compared to you-voice, I-voice is more effective at letting customers and clients know that you have considered their interests. ⊚ ⊚

67)

true false

Strong nouns and verbs make persuasive messages seem dull or mundane. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Using positive wording in persuasive messages helps your audience focus on the benefits rather than the drawbacks of what you are trying to promote. ⊚ ⊚

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69) Internal persuasive messages are more likely to appeal to emotion than external persuasive messages are. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

Persuasion usually happens relatively quickly if you follow the prescribed steps. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Bennett is not afraid to take risks; he makes decisions quickly and with enthusiasm.

According to Gary Williams and Robert Miller, Bennett is most likely a charismatic decisionmaker. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Most effective sales messages provide incentives to motivate purchase of products or services. ⊚ ⊚

73)

Mass sales messages in the form of emails have high success rates. ⊚ ⊚

74)

true false

true false

Mass sales messages can raise a company's brand awareness.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

75) The most important step in the AIDA model for mass sales messages is D—description of the problem. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) The FAIR test is seldom used for evaluating persuasive messages because they are not fact based. ⊚ ⊚

77)

true false

Persuasive messages are directed to others who resist your ideas, products, or services. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 10) D 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) E 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) D 27) B 28) E 29) A 30) D 31) B 32) E 33) A 34) C 35) C Version 1

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36) A 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) E 41) D 42) D 43) B 44) B 45) B 46) C 47) E 48) A 49) D 50) D 51) A 52) D 53) A 54) D 55) A 56) C 57) C 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE Version 1

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66) FALSE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

List the 7 guidelines for delivering bad-news messages.

2) Sasha needs to inform her employees that a major client has gone bankrupt and that the company will need to downsize due to the loss of business. What are the advantages and disadvantages of delivering the news in person?

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3) What are the three aspects of bad news that impact how you approach delivering it?

Explain each of the three aspects and their impact.

4)

How should tone, style, and design be used to deliver written bad news effectively?

5)

What is meant by the mum effect? How does it affect businesses?

6) Morgan has decided to reject a marketing concept developed by Norris, a respected colleague. How can Morgan avoid the mistake of offering token appreciation for Norris' suggestion?

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7)

List five elements to consider while delivering negative performance reviews.

8) Why is accepting negative feedback important for employees? How can employees accept and respond to it effectively?

9) Dick needs to dismiss an employee for excessive absenteeism. How can he use the FAIR test to evaluate this message before delivering it?

10) How would you use the FAIR test to evaluate a performance review for a poorly performing individual before giving it to the employee?

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11) Jordan needs to inform his employees that they will receive a twenty percent salary cut to help the company survive a recession. If Jordan communicates this bad message in an evasive and misleading manner, it will likely

A) negatively affect Jordan's credibility.

B) strengthen Jordan's character.

C) decrease the negative impact of the bad news on employees.

D) signal that Jordan is a strong leader in challenging situations.

E) improve the company's chances of long-term success.

12)

Which action should communicators avoid when delivering bad-news messages?

A) bearing responsibility for one's own role in causing bad news B) committing to transparency and honesty in delivering bad news C) viewing delivery of bad news opportunistically D) sympathizing with the recipients of bad news E) telling the truth even when it is not popular or politically correct

13)

Compared to delivering bad news in person, delivering bad news in writing

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A) allows for richer communication.

B) provides greater scope for immediate feedback.

C) allows for intentions to be demonstrated more easily.

D) appears more callous and impersonal.

E) is more efficient and therefore more sensitive to the audience.

14)

What is an advantage of delivering bad news in person?

A) Verbal delivery of bad news message requires less time than written delivery.

B) Compared to written delivery, verbal delivery results in better documentation of the message.

C) One can use verbal and nonverbal cues to show concern and sensitivity.

D) Verbal delivery of bad news provides directions that bad-news recipients can refer to later.

E) Compared to written delivery, verbal delivery can deliver bad news to more people more effectively.

15) as

The degree to which the bad-news message receiver can alter the outcome is referred to

A) controllability.

B) severity.

C) likelihood.

D) power.

E) adaptability.

16)

Which aspect of bad news indicates how serious or detrimental a bad-news message is?

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A) severity B) consequences C) controllability D) adaptability E) likelihood

17)

Which aspect of bad news relates to the probability of the bad event occurring?

A) adaptability B) controllability C) likelihood D) severity E) consequences

18) Aiko has to tell Demetrius that his attitude and mannerisms have offended some customers. She also must inform him that he is on probation for six weeks and will be fired if his behavior does not improve. It would be best for Aiko to deliver this message in a(n)

A) email.

B) phone call.

C) video call.

D) personal meeting.

E) memo.

19) What is an example of a bad-news message that is characterized by high severity and high controllability?

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A) laying off an HR employee because sales are down B) rejecting a customer claim and not providing a refund C) telling an employee that her performance needs improvement or she will be fired D) cutting back an employee's work hours due to an economic downturn E) rejecting a colleague's idea because it is too expensive

20)

Which example of a bad-news message is high severity and low controllability?

A) laying off an HR employee because sales are down B) rejecting a customer claim and not providing a refund C) telling an employee that her performance needs improvement or she will be fired D) deciding to no longer use a supplier because it charges too much E) rejecting a colleague's idea because it would take too long to implement

21)

Which bad-news message is most likely to be communicated in writing?

A) rejection of a colleague's idea B) a decision to cut employees' hours C) a poor review of an employee's performance D) a decision to lay off an employee E) termination of a long-term supplier's contract

22) A person who has to deliver a bad-news message should gather as much information as possible from a variety of sources to reduce the

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A) credibility of the message.

B) severity of the situation.

C) impact on both the sender and the receiver.

D) probability of making subjective judgments.

E) controllability of the situation.

23)

What is the best example of a less-direct message?

A) Our employees will have to take a salary cut due to the recession.

B) Your last quarter's performance rating is low due to your absenteeism.

C) The warranty clause has expired so we will not be able to replace your television.

D) This employment contract is terminated because you have failed to meet our quality standards.

E) Your idea has been judged infeasible because of the company's lack of funds.

24)

In a bad-news message, a buffer is a statement that is likely to be used to

A) express criticism.

B) distance yourself from the recipient.

C) convey false hope.

D) show appreciation.

E) express disappointment.

25) Taylor has to write a letter denying a customer's request for a free replacement on her two-year-old business laptop, which is past its warranty. Which buffer statement is most appropriate for Taylor to use?

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A) I am sorry to hear that your laptop is no longer performing as expected.

B) Are you certain that you have not dropped or otherwise mishandled your computer?

C) Your computer is outdated and some performance issues are to be expected at this point.

D) The warranty on your laptop expired ninety days after purchase.

E) Our records show that you decided not to purchase the extended warranty that was offered to you at the time of purchase.

26)

What is an ineffective way to soften the blow of a bad-news message?

A) a direct message structure B) a buffer statement C) a teaser message D) an expression of concern for the recipient E) a rationale for the difficult news

27) Elsbeth, the head of human resources at Gold Bowl, has to deliver a negative performance review to Lieve, one of Gold Bowl's employees. Which of these is the best teaser statement for Elsbeth to use in the subject line of her bad-news email?

A) some feedback on your recent performance B) unacceptable work habits C) lunch this afternoon D) appreciation of your work E) your poor performance

28)

A person who has to deliver bad news should avoid

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A) using a neutral subject line for the message.

B) including a short buffer at the beginning of the message.

C) expressing sympathy to the reader.

D) taking the blame for something that is not their fault.

E) providing a rationale for the unfavorable decision.

29) Thomas has to inform one of his subordinates, Sadie, that she is no longer being considered for a promotion. In his message, he should end with

A) a buffer.

B) a blaming statement.

C) a focus on his own concerns.

D) an expression of goodwill.

E) some thoughts on the direction of the company.

30) Juanita wants to reject her colleague's idea. To deliver this bad news effectively in writing, she should

A) use a lot of jargon in her message.

B) use a simple design for her message.

C) avoid the use of buffer statements.

D) ensure that the message looks slick.

E) first tell him face to face.

31) Marge responded to Beverly's idea by saying, "That's a really good idea, but it won't work in this situation." Marge's response demonstrates

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A) token appreciation.

B) sincere gratitude.

C) a buffer.

D) the mum effect.

E) goodwill.

32)

Yes-but statements are one of the most common forms of

A) token appreciation.

B) sincere gratitude.

C) a buffer.

D) the mum effect.

E) goodwill.

33)

The mum effect results when employees in an organization

A) avoid sharing bad news because they do not want to be blamed.

B) view the delivery of bad news opportunistically.

C) take quick actions to rectify the problems described in a bad-news message.

D) take responsibility for bad events even if they are not at fault.

E) avoid talking to superiors at all for fear that they will be criticized.

34) As a result of the mum effect, the message that reaches the top executives of an organization is usually

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A) clear and specific.

B) falsely positive.

C) delayed and outdated.

D) highly credible.

E) explicit and direct.

35) Research on Moto Motor Corp. revealed that the company shows signs of the mum effect. As a result, Moto Motor is likely to

A) underperform year after year.

B) succeed on most projects.

C) develop a transparent culture.

D) accurately state bad news.

E) build its credibility with employees.

36) Moira is worried about telling her boss that her team failed to meet one of its four deadlines last month. Instead, she says that the team is doing well and hitting most of its targets.

This is an example of

A) the mum effect.

B) a teaser statement.

C) a buffer.

D) token appreciation.

E) reframing.

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37) Antonio is the owner of Element Fabrication, Inc. After a major customer takes its business elsewhere, he has to cut back on hours for his 14 employees. He sends them an email with the subject line "A change to our shift lengths" and says how they are not getting as many orders now that their best customer has left. As a result, the length of each shift will be reduced by 90 minutes. Antonio closes by expressing the hope that hours can be expanded again if they gain new customers in the next few months.

What mistake did Antonio make that could leave his message recipients feeling disrespected?

A) not delivering the message in person B) omitting a teaser statement C) failing to close with goodwill D) using a direct message structure E) not providing a rationale for the bad news

38) Otto leads a team of workers at an advertising firm. Recently, one of his subordinates, Lucy, suggested that the team celebrate a major milestone by taking the afternoon off to go to a baseball game together at the company's expense.

Otto cannot approve this request, since the team's budget for entertainment is not enough to pay for everyone. What should Otto say to Lucy when he meets with her to discuss her proposal?

A) I like the baseball game idea, however it's just not possible right now.

B) If you'd thought about the outings we've already been on and how expensive baseball tickets are, you probably wouldn't have made this suggestion.

C) Once I decide on an alternate, less expensive way of celebrating, you'll be the first to know.

D) I would be happy to listen to any other ideas you have about how to celebrate our team's achievement.

E) Thanks for the suggestion, but the answer is no.

39)

What should be avoided when conveying bad news to customers?

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A) neutral language B) passive verbs C) teaser messages D) a buffer statement E) an accusatory tone

40)

What is the most effective way of delivering a bad-news message to a long-term client?

A) using you-voice in a written message to deliver the bad news B) providing a long description of what the client did wrong C) meeting with the client, providing a rationale, and explaining the impacts D) leaving a voice message on the client's telephone E) writing a letter couching the decision in legal language

41)

What is an effective way of delivering a negative performance review?

A) using an accusatory or confrontational tone B) adopting a team-centered orientation C) focusing on attitudes and intentions rather than actions and results D) pointing out mistakes rather than problem solving E) sugarcoating the bad news

42) You are a senior manager who needs to evaluate five supervisors in your department.

Which supervisor appears to be the most effective at delivering performance reviews?

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A) Rihanna sugarcoats her descriptions of problem behaviors when delivering a negative performance review.

B) Amy procrastinates delivering negative feedback when she sees that employees are defensive.

C) Jessica helps the poor performers of her team understand the ways in which they are hurting organizational performance.

D) Jasper discusses what he believes employees are thinking rather than their concrete actions.

E) Chen uses an accusatory tone while delivering a negative performance review.

43) Veronique, a sales manager at Wild Wind Apparel, is reviewing the performance of her team. She observes that one of her subordinates, Mae, has performed poorly in the last quarter.

When giving Mae a negative performance review, Veronique should ensure that she

A) sugarcoats the bad news by placing it between compliments.

B) focuses on Mae's attitudes and intentions.

C) uses primarily a backward-looking tone.

D) asks for Mae's perspectives on her poor performance.

E) uses an accusatory or a confrontational tone.

44) Gregory has to deliver a negative performance evaluation to Tara, a customer service representative. During the meeting, Gregory first thanks Tara for her kindness to fellow employees, then he delivers the bad news. Finally, he ends the review with an expression of goodwill. In this situation, Gregory is applying the ________ approach for delivering the badnews message.

A) sandwich B) teaser C) buffer D) sugarcoat E) direct

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45) Although it may soften the blow of a bad performance review, the sandwich approach to delivering bad-news may also

A) strengthen the message and emphasize the need for improvement.

B) improve the credibility of the message-bearer.

C) encourage poor performers.

D) allow the recipient to discuss the reasons for their poor performance.

E) lower morale among all employees.

46)

When delivering negative performance reviews, focusing on attitudes and intentions will

A) prevent employee defensiveness.

B) increase the effectiveness of the review.

C) be considered perceptive.

D) be perceived as judgmental.

E) increase the credibility of the reviewer.

47)

Which person best exemplifies setting measurable and realistic expectations?

A) Jory tells Hank that she believes he can turn things around for his next performance review.

B) Malia tells Edward, a machine operator, to reduce the amount of defective parts he produces by 40 percent.

C) Paulo tells Rhonda, one of his salespeople, that he expects a sharp improvement in her sales figures.

D) Mike asks Bao to help ensure that the market share of the company increases.

E) Katie informs Ramses that she expects to see an improvement in his output as soon as possible.

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48) This is a quotation from a negative performance review delivered by a senior manager to a team leader: "I know you and your team have the potential to turn things around by our next performance review; hence, we need to totally focus on getting everything right from now on."

This is an ineffective thing to say in a performance review because it

A) does not focus on attitudes and intentions.

B) does not use the sandwich approach.

C) uses a compliment as a buffer statement.

D) uses a teaser message as an opening statement.

E) does not provide measurable and realistic expectations.

49)

A person with high emotional intelligence will usually

A) develop a reframing statement to manage emotions.

B) remain unaware of the negative emotions he or she feels.

C) respond to negative feedback by criticizing the other person.

D) display withdrawal during negative feedback.

E) seek and accept only positive feedback.

50) While receiving a difficult performance review, a person with high emotional intelligence is most likely to

A) point out the supervisor's mistakes.

B) avoid future interactions with the supervisor.

C) rationalize the conduct being criticized.

D) accept the negative feedback.

E) respond with the silent treatment.

51)

Which employee statement is a counterproductive response to a negative review?

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A) My boss doesn't care about my work, so why should I care what he thinks?

B) It is my responsibility to accept the feedback and improve myself accordingly.

C) The feedback I get from my boss will facilitate my career advancement.

D) Negative feedback is a part of the boss's job and mine.

E) My performance on the job is not related to whether my boss likes me.

52) Monica has a performance review scheduled with her boss at the end of the week. She is aware that she badly missed her sales goals for the quarter and is anxious that she will be reprimanded for her poor performance. Monica, however, reminds herself that getting an honest assessment of her work will only help her, and she looks forward to asking her boss for suggestions on improving her performance. This means that Monica

A) is displaying counterproductive response to negative emotions.

B) is displaying signs of defensiveness, denial, and withdrawal.

C) is an individual with low emotional intelligence.

D) is incapable of identifying the negative emotions she is feeling.

E) is reframing her thoughts to foster a constructive conversation.

53) Carmela manages a sales team and most of her subordinates have performed well.

However, one of the team members, Dirk, has been performing poorly. Carmela has created a file that records Dirk's performance issues and contains a few emails from colleagues criticizing him in confidence. While delivering the negative feedback to Dirk, Carmela should

A) focus on the poor attitude that Dirk's posture and expression reveals.

B) keep the negative emails from other colleagues private.

C) ask Dirk why he cannot be more like the other team members.

D) give Dirk the goal of doing better within a short time.

E) focus on pointing out mistakes rather than problem solving.

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54) Hector is preparing a negative performance review for Elias, an employee whose productivity is far below that of his fellow team members. Which question will help Hector determine if his draft review passes the "impacts" aspect of the FAIR test?

A) Are my motives clear, or will others perceive that I have a hidden agenda in giving Elias a negative review?

B) Is my perspective of Elias' performance influenced by defensiveness, favoritism, or some other bias?

C) Have I stated the message in a way that is respectful toward Elias?

D) Am I doing what I can to provide appropriate opportunities to Elias?

E) Is the rationale for this negative review based on sound facts and conclusions?

55) Which component of the FAIR test relates to the question "Have I stated the message in a way that recognizes the inherent worth of others?"

A) fact B) access C) audience D) impact E) respect

56) Which question should you ask yourself to determine if the bad-news message you plan to send passes the "facts" aspect of the FAIR test?

A) Have I considered all the ways in which this message will impact others in the near term and long term?

B) Have I gathered all the relevant information and examined various accounts of the same event?

C) What have I done to lessen the negative impacts on recipients?

D) Have I stated the message in a way that recognizes the inherent worth of others?

E) What am I doing to provide appropriate opportunities to the bad-news recipients?

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57) Which component of the FAIR test refers to the transparency of the motives and reasoning of the person delivering the bad news?

A) fact B) access C) audience D) impact E) respect

58) According to communication specialist Dave Zielinski, communicators should approach people with caution and stick to the bare minimum of information when delivering bad news.

Too much openness can confuse the issue. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) According to consulting firm Siegel+Gale, delivering bad news the right way can strengthen customer relationships and lay the foundations for increased trust when conditions improve. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) The manner in which Leslie delivers bad news to her employees will have little to no effect on her credibility. ⊚ ⊚

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61) Delivering bad news without knowing the details tends to cause unnecessary anxiety among receivers. ⊚ ⊚

62)

true false

Generally, bad news is best delivered in writing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) One advantage of giving bad news in a written communication is that you can ensure you get all the facts right and control the message. ⊚ ⊚

64)

true false

Severity relates to the probability of a bad event occurring. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) Darla has been informed by her manager that she will be fired if her performance does not improve. This bad news has a high degree of controllability. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) It is often best to relay bad news in person, but a less-rich channel of communication is more likely to be appropriate for bad-news messages that are relatively controllable, unlikely, or less severe.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

67) If you gather as much information as you can from a variety of sources, then you are more likely to make subjective judgments and propose solutions that will benefit the company. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) In her message, Lorraine first explains to her employees that the emergence of new technologies have caused demand for the company's products to go down, and then she informs them that work hours will be reduced. This is an example of a more direct message. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) When bad-news message recipients know you are concerned about them, they generally respond without antagonism and even appreciate your honesty. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) Ted uses simple and direct language in an announcement stating that his company is discontinuing a popular product because the cost of production has soared. His choice of language will help customers believe he has been honest with them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) The person delivering bad news should not discuss the immediate impacts of that news on recipients.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

72) The tone of your delivery often outweighs the content of your message when providing face-to-face feedback. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) One characteristic of high-performing organizations is that employees will share bad news with superiors but not with each other. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) The mum effect occurs when bad news is filtered out of messages as they are passed up the chain of command. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) When delivering negative performance reviews, managers should focus on attitudes and intentions rather than on actions and results. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) In performance reviews, providing feedback only on observable actions typically provokes defensiveness.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

77) You should have a colleague review all of your bad-news messages before you deliver them to their intended recipients. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 11) A 12) C 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) D 25) A 26) A 27) A 28) D 29) D 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) B 35) A 36) A Version 1

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37) A 38) D 39) E 40) C 41) B 42) C 43) D 44) A 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) E 49) A 50) D 51) A 52) E 53) B 54) D 55) E 56) B 57) B 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE Version 1

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67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE Student name:__________ 1) Differentiate primary research from secondary research. Explain how you would choose which to use.

2) How are closed questions different from open-ended questions? Give one example of each type of question.

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3) Describe three guidelines for creating effective survey questions and explain why these guidelines are important.

4) When are charts effective to convey information and under what circumstances are tables a better choice?

5)

What guidelines should be followed when formatting tables?

6) What are the five criteria used to evaluate the data quality of secondary research sources?

Explain each one.

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7) Choose two important types of secondary research sources. Discuss the pros and cons of each.

8) Why is it important to document research sources and what is the best way to do this?

How does this impact your credibility?

9) Daoud has been asked to prepare a brief report on consumer trends for tomorrow's emergency sales meeting. With limited time, his only viable information source is the Internet.

Beyond a simple Google search, what are some strategies Daoud could use to find useful information online?

10) Harvey has conducted research on productivity within his company and has identified a few employees who are underperforming on several key metrics. How can Harvey apply the FAIR test to his research to ensure that the results are accurate, comprehensive, and unbiased?

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11)

Who is the primary audience for most business reports?

A) people who own stock in the company B) low-level workers within the company C) customers of the company D) decision makers within the company E) suppliers of the company

12)

How can you make sure that your business report meets the needs of the target audience?

A) Consider updating them about your progress in creating the report and involving them in the process.

B) Find out their biases and tailor the primary research to support their preconceived ideas.

C) Save money by looking for already published reports that relate to the business problem.

D) Focus on data that matches what you know the decision makers want to hear.

E) Do the report as quickly as possible by using only information that already exists in databases.

13)

Which statement about primary research is true?

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A) Primary research refers to data collected by others outside an organization.

B) Primary research provides feedback directly related to an organization and its needs.

C) Primary research is less time-consuming and less expensive to carry out than secondary research.

D) Primary research is free from biases toward preexisting opinions and beliefs.

E) Primary research is generally less useful for your business problems than secondary research.

14)

What is a disadvantage of conducting primary research into a business problem?

A) It may not be pertinent to a business's particular problem.

B) It is less reliable than secondary research.

C) It cannot make use of open-ended questions.

D) It is more time consuming than secondary research.

E) It cannot be influenced by preexisting opinions.

15) Which term is used to encompass the analysis of data collected by others with no direction from you or members of your organization?

A) surveys B) focus groups C) primary research D) secondary research E) external blogs

16) Nate’s boss has asked him to present a business report on "consumer shopping habits" in three days. Due to the time constraint, his boss wants him to use secondary research. In this situation, what should Nathan do?

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A) Arrange for focus group discussions and interviews.

B) Survey consumers through online questionnaires.

C) Interview consumers over the phone.

D) Use data published in business journals.

E) Hire a consultant to conduct survey research.

17) Gowan has been hired by Bailey's Automotive to assess whether the company should air television commercials in the local market. He is planning a study of the relationship between local television commercials and the sales of new vehicles. What is the best way for Gowan to establish a research objective that will address his research problem?

A) Determine how consumers are influenced by the media they watch.

B) Understand the psychology of adults who watch television in this market.

C) Determine how often television commercials result in purchases of new vehicles.

D) Understand what makes an effective television commercial.

E) Determine the process through which television commercials convince viewers to make purchases.

18) Natalie, assistant manager at Bright Gardens Restaurant, is preparing a questionnaire to help her evaluate customer satisfaction. She wants her survey to only include closed questions.

Which question should Natalie use?

A) How would you describe your most recent experience at Green Gardens?

B) How would you suggest that we improve our customer service?

C) On a scale of 1 to 5, how would you rate your level of satisfaction with your most recent meal at Green Gardens?

D) What types of food would you like to see served at Green Gardens?

E) What factors influence you while choosing a restaurant?

19)

A leading question is one that

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A) contains more than one idea.

B) is difficult for respondents to answer.

C) does not include all possible survey choices.

D) suggests how you want the respondents to answer.

E) has more than one appropriate answer.

20) Sadiki included the question on a customer survey: "Do you prefer healthy, nutritious food, or food that is bad for you and will ruin your health?" The problem with that question is that it

A) is too short.

B) is simple to answer.

C) is leading.

D) has exhaustive choices.

E) focuses on one idea.

21)

Which statement about leading questions is true?

A) In surveys, it is better to incorporate leading questions than non-leading questions.

B) Leading questions allow respondents to provide their genuine thoughts or impressions.

C) In surveys, leading questions produce unreliable and unusable information.

D) Leading questions do not have an exhaustive range of possible answers.

E) Leading questions are those that contain more than one idea.

22) Ebony, the owner of One Hour Gym, wants to know how customers feel about the new strength and conditioning classes that she is offering. Which question should Ebony incorporate into her survey questionnaire?

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A) Are you excited to try one of our awesome new classes?

B) How good are the new, improved strength and conditioning classes compared to the previous offerings?

C) How do you feel about the new strength and conditioning classes compared to the old ones?

D) How strongly do you agree that the new classes are more fun and challenging than the old ones?

E) Do you think the new class offerings are better than the old ones because they features more innovative techniques for improving your strength and conditioning?

23)

In order to be effective, a consumer survey should contain

A) answers that appeal to respondents' biases.

B) questions that cover multiple ideas.

C) at least 15 questions.

D) exhaustive answer choices for each question.

E) leading questions that suggest a correct answer.

24) Soria, the owner of Sky Spa, wants to know how her customers feel about the experience at her location. One of the questions in her survey questionnaire reads, "On a scale of 1 to 5, how would you rate our prices, comfort, and service?" This question is ineffective because it

A) is a leading question.

B) is too short to be effective.

C) is an open-ended question.

D) asks about multiple ideas.

E) uses a rating scale.

25)

Which of these is least important when analyzing data related to a business problem?

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A) understanding statistical and quantitative analysis B) understanding database design C) using statistical software over spreadsheet software D) analyzing data with colleagues in a group E) focusing on tangential issues

26)

Generally, bar charts are best suited for

A) depicting a project's progress.

B) illustrating the pieces within a whole.

C) depicting events and trends over time.

D) comparing amounts or quantities.

E) representing organizational hierarchy.

27)

Which type of visual is most effective to display stock prices over time?

A) a line chart B) a pie chart C) a bar chart D) a clustered-column chart E) a table

28)

Which statement about charts is true?

A) Charts are meant solely for conveying simple numerical information.

B) Important business ideas or relationships should not be explained through charts.

C) Charts should not require much mental effort for the reader.

D) The title of a chart should be at least ten words long.

E) Charts have fewer limits than tables in the amount of information they can provide.

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29) Which chart type can be used to compare many types of data and is thus the most versatile?

A) line charts B) pie charts C) bar charts D) clustered-column charts E) flowcharts

30) Rafe, the sales manager at a national magazine, wants to compare sales of the magazine's spring issue on the West Coast to those in the Midwest and on the East Coast. This comparison will best be illustrated through a

A) line chart.

B) pie chart.

C) bar chart.

D) flowchart.

E) cone chart.

31)

What action makes a chart ineffective?

A) giving a short title to the chart B) adding a subtitle for the chart C) highlighting the chart's focal points D) using a nondescriptive chart title E) placing a callout box on the chart

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32) Kwame, the owner of Fantastico's, wants to graphically represent a comparison of his restaurant's market share with those of the top competitors in the same city. His research findings conclude that Fantastico's has the largest market share. In order to present this data most effectively, Kwame should

A) use a line chart instead of a pie chart.

B) use a legend instead of data labels.

C) make sure all segments of the pie chart have equal weight.

D) use a long, descriptive title with at least fifteen words.

E) highlight the key points using color or labels.

33)

Which formatting method decreases the effectiveness of pie charts?

A) placing the data series names and data labels together in the pie slices B) using boldface printing on the largest pie slice C) locating the smallest pie slice at 12 o'clock D) using a subtitle to support the main title E) using the darkest color for the largest pie slice

34)

Which formatting guideline increases the effectiveness of all types of charts?

A) Use many bright colors as a way to highlight focal points.

B) Use darker colors to represent the most important data series.

C) Use unusual fonts for added impact.

D) Use 3-D charts to attract attention.

E) Use dark backgrounds with white type, not white backgrounds with dark type.

35)

Which guideline increases the effectiveness of a bar chart?

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A) Bars should be about half the width of the space in between bars.

B) A legend should be used only if the chart has two or more data series.

C) The baseline for bar charts should always be the first increment of the scale you are using.

D) 3-D bar charts should be used to represent complicated numerical information.

E) Lighter colors should be used to represent your most important data series.

36)

Which statement about pie charts is true?

A) In a pie chart, the largest slice should begin at 6 o'clock and go counterclockwise.

B) Exploding slices should be used extensively in pie charts.

C) Pie slices should complete a whole, that is, add up to 100% of a data series.

D) The slices of the pie charts should be free from data labels.

E) 3-D pie charts are best for representing complicated numerical data.

37) To ensure that the bar charts are formatted effectively, the bars should be about ________ the width of the space in between bars.

A) half of B) equal to C) two times D) three times E) four times

38) Elmer is creating a table to show how the company has performed in the past year month by month. The most effective way to make the table easy to understand would be to

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A) use a large number of grid lines.

B) ensure that each grid line serves a distinct purpose.

C) present comparative data series horizontally rather than vertically.

D) use grid lines on all borders.

E) alternate background colors on rows.

39) When you evaluate how well secondary research can be revised to address your specific business problem, you are considering its

A) reliability.

B) relevance.

C) adaptability.

D) expertise.

E) biases.

40) The ________ of data acquired through secondary research is how well it applies to your specific business problem.

A) expertise B) reliability C) adaptability D) relevance E) biases

41) Aria wants to gather information on the sales potential for a new women's dietary supplement, and decides to purchase a report compiled by a research firm that is highly respected for its understanding of women's health issues. In this case, she is primarily evaluating data quality in terms of its

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A) reliability.

B) relevance.

C) adaptability.

D) expertise.

E) biases.

42) Rhonda used data from a liberal political organization in her report on voting trends in the U.S. In terms of data quality, what is a potential problem with this source?

A) currency B) relevance C) adaptability of the data D) expertise of the researchers E) bias

43) Jorge primarily used research from printed texts for his report. What is a potential problem with Jorge’s research?

A) reliability B) relevance C) adaptability D) expertise E) bias

44) Reports or guides that are issued by the government and organizations and that generally describe research about solving a particular issue are

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A) business books.

B) white papers.

C) scholarly journals.

D) business periodicals.

E) industry publications.

45)

Industry publications tend to be

A) unreliable.

B) less relevant.

C) expensive.

D) lacking in expertise.

E) biased.

46) Barbara is looking for concise, easy to understand research on ways to motivate employees at her workplace. Which research source is least likely to provide the kinds of information she needs?

A) scholarly articles B) industry publications C) external blogs D) business periodicals E) white papers

47)

Which statement about scholarly journals is true?

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A) They contain business research that is extremely reliable.

B) They often provide useful information for common business problems.

C) They rarely focus on theoretical and abstract issues.

D) They generally include a level of theoretical background that is easy to understand.

E) They rely on anecdotal evidence rather than carefully controlled experiments and survey research.

48) You can usually better assess the usefulness of ________ than other secondary sources because of the many online reviews available.

A) business books B) external blogs C) scholarly journals D) industry publications E) white papers

49) Mason maintains an exhaustive database on his research sources and findings, which he shares with decision makers at Oriel Pharmaceuticals when presenting his report on the marketing approach for a new drug. This practice will increase the ________ of Mason’s report.

A) bias B) accessibility C) relevance D) credibility E) adaptability

50)

A drawback of online databases is that they

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A) are more expensive than primary research.

B) provide outdated information.

C) take time to navigate.

D) contain sparse business-related information.

E) are not found in university libraries.

51)

Which statement about online research is true?

A) The information found on the Internet tends to be of uniformly good quality.

B) None of the information sources on the web are informed and accurate.

C) It is not necessary to document information sources found on the web.

D) Speeches and presentations provided in video and audio format have no usefulness for business research.

E) Industry sites list a variety of sources that may be more current than the information in business databases.

52) When business professionals enter into primary research with preexisting assumptions or conclusions, they are likely to

A) avoid information that duplicates their conclusions.

B) interpret the data incorrectly.

C) increase the adaptability of the research.

D) look for information that contradicts their positions.

E) reduce the errors made in analyzing data relationships.

53)

Which action is a deceptive research practice?

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A) using charts and tables to communicate numerical information B) asking a business librarian to help you identify online databases that match your needs C) discussing a data relationship that you are unsure about with your colleagues D) cherry-picking data and adjusting information in your favor E) making numerical adjustments in the table by converting counts into percentages

54) Stanley, a sales analyst for G&B Toys, is preparing a report for board members on the company's market share for action figures. Although G&B has retained its spot as the market leader, several competitors have captured a larger share of the market over the preceding year and appear likely to overtake G&B within the next three years. How should Stanley present his findings to the board?

A) Shrink the timeline of his charts to emphasize G&B’s current position as market leader.

B) Point out how the board is responsible for the company's tenuous market position.

C) Disclose the data fully to foster transparency in the organization.

D) Focus on the company's historical successes to make the board feel good.

E) Tell the board the data is inconclusive and don’t share it.

55) The first step in developing research-based business reports is identifying what decision makers want to accomplish. ⊚ ⊚

56)

true false

Researchers should state their objectives in general, broad, and achievable statements. ⊚ ⊚

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57) Greg is compiling a survey on consumer preferences. In order to achieve the most accurate snapshot of their likes and dislikes, he should follow the 20/20 rule: include at least 20 questions and ask respondents to spend approximately 20 minutes answering the questions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Talib is creating a survey on customer satisfaction. An appropriate question to include would be "Please describe your ideal customer service experience and tell us whether your experience with Sailboat Hospitality lived up to your expectations." ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) Katherine creates a survey that includes the following question: "With traffic accidents on Main Street at an all-time high, do you believe that the city should reduce the speed limit to 35 miles per hour?" This question is non-leading. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) When you analyze data with other group members, you are less likely to inadvertently misinterpret the data. ⊚ ⊚

61)

true false

The bar chart, due to its limited forms, is less versatile than the pie chart or the line chart. ⊚ ⊚

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62)

The title should explain the primary point of a chart. ⊚ ⊚

63)

Each of a chart's focal points should support several ideas. ⊚ ⊚

64)

true false

true false

Placing data labels on each slice of a pie chart makes it cluttered and difficult to interpret. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) In a pie chart, the largest slice should begin at 12 o'clock and go counterclockwise, and the second-largest slice should begin at 12 o'clock and go clockwise. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) Bai wants to quickly and effectively demonstrate a relationship in his presentation. He should avoid using charts for this purpose. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Hakim wants to present a comprehensive set of data precisely illustrating several important industry trends. This information would be best presented in a chart.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Using percentages in tables, as opposed to counts, makes it difficult for readers to make effective comparisons quickly. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Material Industries has a very specific business problem related to the unique characteristics of its workforce. To obtain the necessary data to analyze this problem, the company should do primary research. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

Data that directly applies to your specific business problem is considered reliable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Lorraine always tends to see business problems from the perspective of middle management. This is an example of a bias. ⊚ ⊚

72) cost.

true false

Most industry reports, especially the most reliable, are widely available for free or at little

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⊚ ⊚

true false

73) For business research, the information you can access through business databases and other sources at your library is generally the most reliable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) As you collect, analyze, and present data to others, you should provide all the relevant facts, even if they do not fit into convenient conclusions. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 12 11) D 12) A 13) B 14) D 15) D 16) D 17) C 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) C 22) C 23) D 24) D 25) E 26) D 27) A 28) C 29) C 30) C 31) D 32) E 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) C Version 1

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37) C 38) B 39) C 40) D 41) D 42) E 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) D 50) C 51) E 52) B 53) D 54) C 55) TRUE 56) FALSE 57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE Version 1

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67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

How do business reports vary from routine business correspondence?

2)

What are common elements of business proposals?

3) What have you learned in this chapter about the importance of precision in thinking as reflected in style? Explain how to convey excellent thinking in report writing.

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4)

Explain the importance of fact-based language in reports.

5)

How can you avoid plagiarism on a document-wide level?

6)

What role do headings and preview statements play in a report?

7)

What is an advantage of using bulleted lists in reports? What is a disadvantage?

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8) Describe the significance of objectivity and positivity in a report. How do they relate to one another?

9) What is the value in reviewing your reports and then seeking feedback from your peers and decision makers?

10) Which aspect of writing business reports relates to the component of credibility known as caring?

A) providing facts that help decision makers B) providing conclusions that help decision makers C) addressing the needs of decision makers D) reporting information honestly E) reporting information transparently

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11) Which aspect of writing business reports relates to the component of credibility known as character?

A) providing quotes from outside sources B) providing positions that help decision making C) involving decision makers in the process D) addressing the needs of decision makers E) reporting information transparently

12) Darrell is in charge of facilities management at his company. He believes in helping the environment and knows the company can save thousands of dollars in the long run by converting to energy saving bulbs and instituting energy saving policies across the whole corporation. After suggesting the idea to the CEO and board, they want him to write up a plan with an explanation of why his idea is beneficial to the company, a budget, and how he will use employees' time.

This is a

A) business report.

B) spreadsheet analysis.

C) white paper.

D) business proposal.

E) development timeline.

13) Vince is drafting a proposal to buy electric cars for the company fleet, which his boss will review and make a decision on when he is done. What should Vince do to increase the likelihood of his proposal being accepted?

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A) focus mostly on the philosophy behind the idea B) avoid including distracting details such as timelines or required resources C) use a factual rather than persuasive structure D) negotiate some details verbally with decision makers before writing the proposal E) avoid mentioning the budget until after the general idea is approved

14)

Problem statements are most effective when

A) the contextual details in the statements conceal the urgency of the problem.

B) they provide the unique context of the problem for the organization.

C) they are placed at the end of the report as a review.

D) they avoid using predictions and cause-effect statements.

E) APA style is used for documentation instead of MLA style.

15)

Precision in reports relies on

A) documentation.

B) conclusions.

C) recommendations.

D) definitions.

E) facts.

16)

Which action raises the credibility of a report?

A) avoiding the use of cause-effect statements B) providing supporting details for your conclusions C) avoiding predictions D) using direct quotations rather than paraphrases E) eliminating bulleted lists

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17) Which item should contain all your research sources and should be provided at the end of your report?

A) the table of contents B) the executive summary C) the conclusion D) footnotes E) the reference list

18)

APA and MLA are types of

A) indices.

B) tone choices.

C) documentation systems.

D) bibliographies.

E) research guidelines.

19) What does it mean to demonstrate originality in thought when using secondary research to develop reports?

A) to combine information from a variety of sources in novel and insightful ways B) to use indirect quotations when the quotation contains a particularly compelling combination of words C) to raise the credibility of your report by carefully dealing with cause-effect statements D) to provide citations to indicate the information you have drawn from other sources E) to meld the ideas from two different sources in a way that keeps most of their original wording

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20) While researching the feasibility of converting her company's products to solar energy, Hailie reads several reports on innovations to lithium batteries and photovoltaic cells. Some of the reports suggest any energy using device should begin to incorporate solar into its design, while others argue that the batteries still do not hold enough charge and remain cost prohibitive for products like those of her company. To demonstrate her own original thinking, Hailie should

A) cite all her research sources.

B) choose one source and follow its recommendations exclusively.

C) adopt a methodical approach to decision making.

D) generate her own conclusions and recommendations.

E) avoid making predictions and cause-effect statements.

21)

To develop original reports, make sure that you avoid

A) plagiarizing in any form.

B) relying on summaries and paraphrases.

C) using cause-effect statements.

D) using too many bar charts.

E) including a problem statement.

22) Lazar is quoting a key finding from some research he has done for a business report. To avoid plagiarism, he makes sure to put the text in quotations and

A) include the problem statement at the end of the report.

B) include a table of contents at the beginning of the report.

C) avoid including any attachments in the report.

D) provide information about the source of the quote.

E) include an executive summary in the report.

23)

Which statement is true about documenting secondary research sources?

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A) Statements that are paraphrased do not require documentation.

B) The only thing that has to be documented is a direct quotation.

C) Ideas that are summarized do not require documentation.

D) Writers can use a variety of documentation systems, including MLA and APA styles.

E) The list of research sources should be placed in the executive summary of the report.

24)

You should use direct quotation when

A) a paraphrase will not flow smoothly into the text of your paper.

B) you want to avoid documenting references to others' ideas.

C) the quotation contains a particularly compelling combination of words.

D) you want to express the idea of another speaker in your own words.

E) the quotation does not emphasize the credibility of the original speaker.

25)

In a business report, recommendations

A) address difficult-to-find secondary information.

B) allow readers to know exactly where the information came from.

C) are specific and based on facts.

D) allow decision makers to examine the data themselves.

E) are expressed in exaggerated language for effect.

26)

Which statement about paraphrasing is true?

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A) Paraphrasing involves using your own words to express the meaning of the original speaker.

B) In most situations, you should use direct quotations rather than paraphrasing.

C) Paraphrasing helps you document references to others' ideas.

D) You must paraphrase when the original quotation contains a compelling combination of words.

E) Paraphrasing is used to emphasize the credibility of the original speaker or writer.

27)

Decision makers are unlikely to take your report seriously when you

A) combine information from various sources.

B) use verbatim restatements from another source.

C) make recommendations that are not explicitly linked to facts and conclusions.

D) express in your own words the original idea of one of your research sources.

E) weave together information from more than three sources.

28)

The recommendations made within a business report must

A) be simple and paraphrased.

B) be methodical and skeptical.

C) be complex and theoretical.

D) be general and abstract.

E) take a firm position.

29) Mariska has written a 57-page report outlining key analytics for her company's website over the last year. To make the report more navigable for the executive team, she should

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A) use bullet lists liberally.

B) provide a structure that decision makers are familiar with.

C) use several cause-effect statements throughout the report.

D) use paraphrasing instead of direct quotation.

E) use the MLA documentation system instead of APA style.

30) Why should the important contents of a long business report be summarized in an executive summary?

A) to signal that you have been methodical in collecting, analyzing, and reporting data B) to convey that proper documentation has been used throughout the report C) to provide supporting details for your conclusions D) to allow decision makers to judge the quality of your data E) to enable decision makers to quickly understand and act on the report findings

31)

Nearly all reports contain ________ to help readers quickly navigate through them.

A) copyright notices B) headings C) cover letters D) appendices E) memos

32) Asuka has been tasked to write a progress report for her marketing agency's largest account. What component will she include that would not typically show up in other business reports?

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A) an executive summary B) an introduction C) business objectives D) headings E) accomplishments

33)

Which statement about headings is true?

A) If a report contains a table of contents, headings are unnecessary.

B) At a minimum, you should include third-level headings.

C) All types of reports, except survey reports, should include headings.

D) Reports over five pages long are likely to require second-level headings.

E) Headings should be structural, not descriptive of content.

34)

What is an advantage of preview statements?

A) They allow decision makers to judge the quality of your data.

B) They can help decision makers follow the direction of your text.

C) They decrease the length of your report.

D) They list the headings that will appear in the report.

E) They provide supporting details for your conclusions.

35) Sumiko is writing a report with a great deal of complicated numerical information. To clarify and simplify this information for decision makers, she should put it into

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A) bulleted lists.

B) a preview statement.

C) an executive summary.

D) appendices.

E) charts or tables.

36)

What is the probable effect of using too many bullet points in a report?

A) It makes the report seem like it lacks direction.

B) It can create a choppy, staccato-like effect.

C) It makes the report difficult to navigate.

D) It casts a shadow of doubt on the quality of data.

E) It demonstrates your lack of originality in thought.

37) A business writer who wants to help readers rapidly process and group the information in a report should

A) include a title page in the report.

B) use MLA instead of APA documentation style.

C) use bulleting and enumerated lists.

D) include a memo of transmittal in the report.

E) include a glossary in the back matter.

38)

What is most likely to be included on the cover page of a report?

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A) a list of sources B) a preview statement C) a date D) a mission statement E) the recipients' names

39)

Which statement about cover pages is true?

A) Cover pages should summarize the most important contents of a report.

B) Cover pages consist of a list of first-level and second-level headings.

C) Formal reports, regardless of length, always include a cover page.

D) The cover page is generally the least emphasized aspect of document design.

E) Cover pages typically include the names of all the recipients.

40)

Which statement about a table of contents is true?

A) It demonstrates the basic credibility of a report.

B) It is expected for nearly any report over ten pages long.

C) It typically summarizes the most important contents of a report.

D) It helps establish the purpose and value of the report.

E) It is typically part of the glossary.

41)

The table of contents in a report contains

A) topic sentences from each paragraph.

B) all of the preview statements from each section of the report.

C) all first-level headings and sometimes all second-level headings.

D) section numbers with their corresponding page numbers.

E) the introduction from each section of the report.

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42)

Why do reports frequently include appendixes?

A) to help decision makers judge the quality of report data B) to help readers process and group dense information C) to help the readers navigate the report D) to establish the purpose and value of the report E) to provide reference materials

43) At his last review, Billy was told that his reports succeed at projecting a positive tone, but do not seem objective enough. Billy has asked you, as a trusted colleague, to give him advice on how to improve that aspect of his work. What should you tell him?

A) Use tables and charts in your report to represent numerical information.

B) Provide a well-designed table of contents.

C) Use bulleted or enumerated lists to reduce the density of information.

D) Provide information, analysis, and advice that is sound, reliable, and unbiased.

E) Include an executive summary that provides the quick story of the report.

44)

To project objectivity in a report, you should

A) ensure that your enthusiasm and strong positive emotion do not appear to cloud your judgment.

B) use paraphrasing instead of quotations to make sure ideas are in your own words.

C) use bulleting and enumerated lists whenever you have a particularly dense chunk of information.

D) use headings throughout the report to make the structure readily apparent.

E) combine information from your various sources in novel and insightful ways.

45)

Which statement about business reports is true?

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A) Precision in most business reports is the result of using the right documentation system.

B) It is important to strike a balance between objectivity and positivity in a report.

C) A business report should always use as many bulleted or numbered lists as possible.

D) A title page should be used in a business report to preview the report's most important contents.

E) Preview statements help decision makers judge the quality of the data provided in business reports.

46) Your co-manager, Carl, asks you to take a look at his report on the effects of the immigration crisis on your company's operations in Greece. The report is quite optimistic despite some revenue losses in the region, and you suspect that Carl is missing information that undermines his view. You should offer the criticism that the report lacks

A) charts to convey complex numerical information.

B) a detailed table of contents.

C) original and innovative ideas.

D) balance between objectivity and positivity.

E) a structure that points out its supporting facts and conclusions.

47)

Using Microsoft Word can help you write a professional looking report by

A) providing tools for accurate documentation.

B) creating an executive summary of your report with a click.

C) automatically writing your headings for you based on the section's content.

D) drawing original thinking from secondary sources to make recommendations.

E) suggesting content changes.

48)

Why might a writer decide to create a business report in a slide deck format?

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A) to avoid the need for navigational tools like headings B) to allow decision makers to see it in a presentation rather than read it C) to carry most of the recommendations in visuals rather than in text D) to eliminate the cover and executive summary E) to make it visually stronger and more creative

49)

Which guideline is recommended for reviewing business reports?

A) Make sure that the report projects more positivity than objectivity.

B) Avoid discussing the report with the ultimate decision makers.

C) Run through the report numerous times, each time considering a different perspective.

D) Avoid getting others' perspectives on the report because different people have different opinions.

E) Review the report only if it deals with sensitive marketing strategies.

50)

In order to ensure the effectiveness and fairness of your report, you should

A) review the entire report in just one sitting to maintain consistency.

B) review the entire document several times to check for accuracy and precision in logic.

C) avoid using any gimmicky formatting like bulleted or numbered lists.

D) avoid asking colleagues to review it because they will dilute the perspective.

E) avoid discussing the report with decision makers because that might sway their opinions.

51)

What will help you ensure that your report is fair and effective?

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A) reviewing the entire report in one sitting B) avoiding the use of direct quotations C) giving more importance to positivity rather than objectivity D) reviewing your report from the perspective of decision makers E) giving the emotional reasons for your recommendations

52)

Most proposals deal with personnel issues. ⊚ ⊚

53)

true false

Without a statement of a problem, reports lack direction and may be seen as unimportant. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) Problem statements in business reports are most effective when they downplay the urgency of the problems to avoid appearing in a state of panic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) You can raise the credibility of your report by providing supporting details for your conclusions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

56) Documenting your sources for secondary research is important, but it does not help decision makers judge the quality of your data.

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⊚ ⊚

57)

true false

In most situations, you should use direct quotations rather than paraphrase. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Martha decided to paraphrase another writer in her report rather than quoting him. She does not need to give credit to the original writer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) Nearly all reports, especially those that are more than a few pages long, contain a bibliography at the beginning. ⊚ ⊚

60)

true false

Generally, an executive summary for a 50-page report should be about two pages long. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) In order to help readers create a mental map of her message, Avery should write a preview statement to frame the overall message of her report. ⊚ ⊚

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62)

When most of a report is written in long, dense paragraphs, it can create a choppy effect. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) Generally, formal reports that are submitted to external decision makers do not include a cover page. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) An executive summary tells the story of the report so the busy reader can get the gist of the content. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) Achieving a positive, can-do tone in your communications is appropriate in nearly all business situations. ⊚ ⊚

66)

true false

It is more important to project objectivity than positivity in business reports. ⊚ ⊚

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67) By reviewing his report before submitting it to his CEO in order to be sure that it contains sound, reliable information, analysis, and advice, Jeffrey is taking an appropriate step toward making his report objective. ⊚ ⊚

68)

Reviewing a report in multiple sittings has a negative impact on the review process. ⊚ ⊚

69)

true false

A report must be reviewed at least once for typos or mechanical errors. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

true false

Research-based business reports are generally collaborative efforts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) In order to maintain consistency, and thereby project objectivity, Mario should not get any other perspectives before submitting his report. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 13 10) C 11) E 12) D 13) D 14) B 15) E 16) B 17) E 18) C 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) D 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) A 27) C 28) E 29) B 30) E 31) B 32) E 33) D 34) B 35) E Version 1

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36) C 37) C 38) C 39) C 40) B 41) C 42) E 43) D 44) A 45) B 46) D 47) A 48) E 49) C 50) B 51) D 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE 57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE Version 1

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66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE Student name:__________ 1) In order to conduct a thorough audience analysis, several questions should be answered when possible. Name three of these questions.

2)

Briefly describe how to present to people with the various motivational value systems.

3) Explain the process of identifying and presenting key takeaway messages in business presentations.

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4) List and describe the items that the preview of a presentation should contain and accomplish.

5)

What is a positioning statement? Explain its purpose.

6)

Briefly describe the PREP method for effective communication during presentations.

7)

Discuss how to conclude a presentation with an effective review.

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8)

Explain the various approaches that facilitate ease of processing while designing slides.

9) What are the four key components to using a storyline approach when creating a presentation? Describe them briefly.

10) What is the process of reviewing presentations for fairness and effectiveness? How does this compare to written communications?

11) Which action during a speech is most likely to result in your audience judging you as caring?

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A) having two or three well-developed takeaway messages B) being honest about the sources of your information C) showing that you clearly know what you are talking about D) offering your views transparently E) showing that you are interested in the needs of your audience

12)

Which action is most likely to result in your audience judging you as having character?

A) having two or three well-developed takeaway messages B) basing your recommendations on facts C) showing that you clearly know what you are talking about D) offering your views transparently E) showing that you are interested in the needs of your audience

13)

An early task to be accomplished when developing a presentation is to

A) understand the needs of your audience.

B) gather content for an effective review.

C) use headings to create a storyboard.

D) develop effective slides.

E) apply the story line approach.

14)

Which activity is the final step in the AIM planning process?

A) applying the story line approach to your presentation B) analyzing your audience to make sure you are addressing their needs C) deciding how to speak to the audience in a way that is appealing and easy to follow D) developing your message to focus on the key takeaway concepts E) identifying key facts and conclusions related to your topic

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15)

What is the first step in the AIM planning process?

A) constructing your message to focus on the key takeaway concepts B) analyzing your audience to make sure you are addressing their needs C) developing your ideas by identifying the key facts and conclusions related to your topic D) providing supporting points for key concepts throughout the message E) applying the story line approach to your presentation

16) Hamish conducts some preliminary audience analysis and finds that seniors at retirement communities know very little about the Internet, which is crucial to selling his product. Since he wants to convince them to subscribe to a social media website that they and their families can easily use to interact, Hamish will likely need to adjust his sales presentation to

A) involve them in his presentation.

B) eliminate bulleted and numbered lists from his slides.

C) use only emotional appeals in his presentation.

D) include multiple anecdotal stories that highlight his company.

E) spend more presentation time informing the audience.

17)

The main aim of your presentation is to draw support from your audience and to

A) prove how confident you are as a public speaker.

B) influence key decision makers in your audience.

C) involve your audience as little as possible.

D) analyze the motivational value systems.

E) understand the various types of learners in your audience.

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18) Hamish works for a social media website that caters to senior adults and allows them to engage with their families over the Internet for a small subscription. In the past, the company has focused on retirement communities, but Hamish thinks they would get more subscribers by focusing on seniors who live by themselves. He should prepare a presentation for senior staff that focuses primarily on influencing which decision maker in his company?

A) the editorial director B) the design director C) the security director D) the marketing director E) the human resources director

19) When you specifically want your presentation to appeal to professionals with a green motivational value system, you should focus on

A) discussing immediate goals.

B) using relationship-centered terms.

C) using dispassionate, precise language.

D) blatantly appealing to emotion.

E) stressing the benefits to different stakeholders.

20) When you specifically want your presentation to appeal to professionals with a blue motivational value system, you should focus on

A) discussing immediate goals.

B) using relationship-centered terms.

C) using dispassionate, precise language.

D) emphasizing the bottom-line measures of performance.

E) using "I" language.

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21) Because Janet’s manager has a hub motivational value system (MVS), she should focus on using language that is

A) option-oriented.

B) action-oriented.

C) results-oriented.

D) characterized by precision.

E) relationship-centered.

22)

Which statement is true about visual learners?

A) They like text-based PowerPoint slides.

B) They enjoy gestures and metaphors.

C) They dislike PowerPoint slides rich in images and figures.

D) They learn best from group activities or hands-on activities.

E) They make up the smallest proportion of the population.

23)

Which statement is true about kinesthetic learners?

A) They prefer PowerPoint slides rich in images to learn best.

B) They make up the largest percentage of the population.

C) They learn best from illustrations and simple diagrams.

D) They need breaks about every 20 minutes.

E) They make up about 40 percent of the population.

24)

Which statement is true about auditory learners?

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A) They learn best from illustrations and simple diagrams.

B) They need gestures and metaphors in order to learn.

C) They believe emotion is best conveyed through voice.

D) They need breaks about every 20 minutes.

E) They make up about 20 percent of the population.

25) Eric is giving a presentation to convince his managers that offering yoga classes at work will improve productivity because it will help employees clear their minds. Which aspect of his presentation shows that he is trying to appeal to kinesthetic learners?

A) He has several photographs of the activities the class will do.

B) He has a slide that lists bulleted points giving the benefits of yoga.

C) He speaks in a confident, clear voice.

D) He asks the audience to stand and do a simple yoga pose.

E) He has practiced with a colleague to make sure the technology works.

26) For your presentation to be effective, you must summarize your ________ and reemphasize them several times.

A) key takeaway messages B) supporting details C) attention-getters D) examples and evidences E) rhetorical questions

27)

The beginning of your presentation is critical because

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A) it helps gain audience buy-in on specific actions.

B) it helps you identify the key decision makers in your audience.

C) it helps you understand your audience members' chief concerns.

D) audience members form quick impressions about you and your message during this time.

E) audience members are more willing to take some type of risk during this time.

28)

The preview of a presentation should generally include a(n)

A) example of the PREP method.

B) personalized case study.

C) attention-getter.

D) recap of the message.

E) call to action.

29)

What belongs in the preview of a presentation?

A) a positioning statement B) supporting material C) a call to action D) a personalized case study E) a recap of the message

30) Charo created a preview that demonstrated benefits to the audience and included an emotion-evoking statement. What did she forget to include?

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A) an attention-getter B) a positioning statement C) an overview D) a call to action E) a takeaway

31)

What is one of the purposes of the preview in a presentation?

A) provide examples, illustrations, analogies, and quotations to support the main point B) identify the key decision makers in your audience C) broaden the message enough to accommodate everyone's interests D) generate interest among the audience members E) gain buy-in on specific actions

32)

What is the purpose of an overview?

A) to broaden the message enough to accommodate everyone's interests B) to provide examples, illustrations, analogies, and quotations to support the main point C) to identify the key decision makers in your audience D) to provide a recap of the key messages E) to show how your audience will benefit from the idea you are proposing

33)

What is a purpose of a positioning statement?

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A) to provide a recap of the key messages B) to demonstrate value to the audience C) to identify the key decision makers in your audience D) to broaden the message enough to accommodate everyone's interests E) to provide examples, illustrations, analogies, and quotations to support the main point

34) Arturo opens his presentation with his two takeaway messages and a statement that frames them both in appealing terms. What did he forget to include in the preview of his presentation?

A) a positioning statement B) an attention-getter C) a call to action D) a list of benefits E) a demonstration of value

35) Which component in a presentation is analogous to the body portion of written documents?

A) the preview B) the overview C) the view D) the review E) the attention-getter

36) Which component in a presentation is analogous to the introduction in written documents?

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A) the preview B) the call to action C) the view D) the review E) the storyboard

37)

The majority of your presentation should be devoted to

A) urging the audience to take action.

B) capturing the audience's attention.

C) summarizing your conclusion.

D) entertaining your audience.

E) expressing and supporting your views.

38) James begins his presentation on supplemental insurance by telling a dramatic story about an employee who was able to keep his home because of having such insurance. What type of attention-getter is this?

A) a rhetorical question B) a vivid example C) a testimonial D) an intriguing statistic E) a challenge

39) Velma begins her presentation on vacation policy by asking, "Have you ever been so busy that you couldn't take all your vacation time in a given year?" What type of attention-getter is this?

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A) a rhetorical question B) a vivid example C) a dramatic demonstration D) an unexpected exercise E) a challenge

40) Sankha begins his presentation about a new spreadsheet software program by showing managers how one of its highly innovative features works. What type of attention-getter is this?

A) a rhetorical question B) an intriguing statistic C) a dramatic demonstration D) an unexpected exercise E) a testimonial or quotation

41)

What is the first step of the PREP method of justifying your views in a presentation?

A) restating your key points B) providing reasons C) giving an example D) stating your position E) providing evidence

42)

What is the final step of the PREP method of justifying your views in a presentation?

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A) restating your position B) providing reasons C) giving an example D) stating your key points E) providing evidence

43) Everett gives a presentation to propose that his company eliminate its traditional departments and replace them with flexible teams that will allow employees to move from project to project as needed. He decides to use the PREP method of justifying this position.

Which action is an example of the second step in the method?

A) He describes another company in their industry that has benefited from using the system he is urging his company to adopt.

B) He cites two studies that analyze the positive effects that adopting the flexible team system has on productivity.

C) He closes by reiterating his position and summarizing the benefits he thinks his company will gain from adopting a flexible team system.

D) He explains that, with the current structure, employees in one department may be underutilized while other departments are overtaxed.

E) He clearly states that he favors a reorganization that eliminates departments in favor of flexible teams.

44) Kelli gives a presentation to advocate that her employer, Services-R-Us, which offers services such as personal shopping and event planning to assist busy professionals, expand its offerings to include dog walking. She decides to use the PREP method of justifying this position.

Which action is an example of the third step in the method?

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A) She cites a personal services company in another city that increased its business by adding dog walking to its services.

B) She describes how busy professionals view their pets as family members, almost like children.

C) She reiterates her position that adding dog walking to the company's services would increase business.

D) She explains that many professionals feel guilty that their schedules do not allow them to give their pets enough attention.

E) She opens by clearly proposing that Services-R-Us add dog walking to its list of services for busy professionals.

45) Kelli gives a presentation to advocate that her employer, Services-R-Us, which offers services such as personal shopping and event planning to assist busy professionals, expand its offerings to include dog walking. Which sentence is a call to action that Kelli might use at the end of her presentation?

A) Many people view their pets as substitute children who have equal status to other family members.

B) Studies show that most pet owners feel guilty for leaving the animals alone too long while they are at work.

C) For all these reasons, I propose we hire three dog walkers and begin offering this service by year's end.

D) Most dogs need 30 to 60 minutes of exercise a day, but the average dog gets much less than that.

E) Did you know that the number of households with pets is increasing?

46) You ask your coworker to review your slides for a presentation, and he has trouble recognizing the most important ideas. To fix this, what should you change?

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A) Limit your text to five words per line and three to four lines per slide.

B) Use bold or italics to highlight key ideas.

C) Choose dark backgrounds and text colors.

D) Include a compelling image every few slides.

E) Make sure your charts are large and spread over several slides.

47) You and your coworker, Carla, sit through a presentation that Carla laughingly describes as "death by PowerPoint." When you discuss the presentation afterward, you can think of only one thing the presenter did correctly. Which characteristic of the presentation would have helped rather than hindered ease of processing?

A) using low-contrast backgrounds and colors B) providing as much information as possible on every slide C) using 10-point fonts for body text D) eliminating most white space E) using simple charts and diagrams

48) Shanda has created a presentation to convince the executives at Doggy Daycare, a regional chain of full-service dog boutiques, to include behavioral training in employee interactions with canine clients. It hits every mark but one: it is difficult to visually distinguish key points from the rest of the slides. What should she do to improve her presentation for ease of processing?

A) Have only sixty lines of text for every slide.

B) Don't keep a margin of white space as a border on every slide.

C) Use at least 28-point fonts for titles and 18-point fonts for body text.

D) Put key ideas in the middle of paragraphs in plain text.

E) Use dark purple for the background and black for the text.

49)

In order to design your slides to facilitate ease of processing,

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A) limit your text to ten words per line.

B) provide as much information as possible on every slide.

C) use at least one compelling image on every slide.

D) use complex charts for complex information.

E) use at least three different fonts on every slide.

50) Piers is using the story line approach in his presentation. He says that the coffee shop chain he works for faces the challenge of improving its customer service orientation and presents the goal of improving the customer satisfaction rating from 80 percent to more than 95 percent.

What aspect of a business story does this represent?

A) the plot B) the setting C) the characters D) the resolution E) the moral or lesson

51) Piers is using the story line approach in his presentation. He says that the coffee shop chain he works for faces the challenge of improving its customer service orientation. After telling the story of a sandwich chain that trained its workers in a particular customer service approach, he says, "Within six months, their complaints dropped by half, and their customer satisfaction increased by 18 percent." What aspect of a business story does that statement represent?

A) the plot B) the setting C) the characters D) the resolution E) the moral or lesson

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52) Piers is using the story line approach in his presentation. He says that the coffee shop chain he works for faces the challenge of improving its customer service orientation. After describing a sandwich chain that is similar to his company in size and target market, he explains the specific approach to training that the sandwich chain implemented in order to improve its customer service. What aspect of a business story does his explanation about the training program represent?

A) the plot B) the setting C) the characters D) the resolution E) the moral or lesson

53)

Stories in presentations should typically last for

A) less than 20 seconds.

B) 30 seconds to one minute.

C) three to five minutes.

D) five to ten minutes.

E) 15 to 20 minutes.

54)

Which guideline should be followed while reviewing a presentation for effectiveness?

A) Make sure that your preview takes up the majority of your presentation time.

B) Put compelling pictures or simple charts on every slide.

C) Double-check every aspect of your supplementary materials.

D) Put all your information on the slides so you can just read them aloud.

E) Make sure that you start by telling the story of your company.

55) As you review your presentation, what should you ask yourself to determine how factual you've been?

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A) Does the message offend or pressure in any way?

B) Have I fully disclosed information that colleagues, customers, or consumers should expect to receive?

C) Have I made recommendations to colleagues, customers, and consumers that are in their best interests?

D) Would a neutral observer consider my communication respectful?

E) Have I carefully considered various interpretations of my data?

56)

Delivering an excellent business presentation is aseasy as speaking. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Presentations put a spotlight on speakers, providing them with the opportunity to build credibility. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) When developing a business presentation, the last step in the planning process should be to gain a deeper understanding of the needs of the audience. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) The higher the knowledge level of your listeners, the more presentation time you should spend providing details. ⊚ ⊚

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60)

Presentations should always use analytical appeals rather than emotional appeals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) Professionals with green motivational value systems are most attracted to action-oriented and results-oriented language and logic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) The first task in developing a presentation is to identify the two or three key messages you want to convey. ⊚ ⊚

63)

true false

A well-done preview helps the audience listen to the whole presentation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Starting a presentation by telling the story of your company is effective at capturing audience attention and providing helpful background. ⊚ ⊚

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65) It is important to ensure that your slides are the primary focal point throughout your presentation. ⊚ ⊚

66)

true false

Because slides are now electronic, presenters should use as many as possible. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) In order to design your presentation slides for ease of processing, you should limit the amount of information on any given slide. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Slides that have a lot of white space seem skimpy and give the presentation an unprofessional appearance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) While designing slides, you should use bold, italics, and other formatting features to make key phrases or key components in figures stand out. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) The use of high-contrast backgrounds and colors in your slides causes eye fatigue and makes it harder for the audience to process the content.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

71) You should avoid seeking the help of design specialists when developing a high-stakes presentation because they will make it too slick or glib. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) When using a story line approach to business presentations, the stories should connect facts with people and their business goals. ⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

The main purpose of including true stories in presentations is to entertain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) While reviewing your presentation, it is important to seek feedback from colleagues and clients before and after your presentation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Because Allen's presentation is entertaining and filled with jokes, the typos in his slides are unimportant. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 14 11) E 12) D 13) A 14) D 15) B 16) E 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) D 26) A 27) D 28) C 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) E 33) B 34) B 35) C 36) A Version 1

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37) E 38) B 39) A 40) C 41) D 42) A 43) D 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) E 48) C 49) A 50) A 51) E 52) D 53) B 54) C 55) E 56) FALSE 57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE Version 1

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67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE Student name:__________ 1) What is the difference between internal presentations and external presentations? How does the task of building your credibility differ in the two situations?

2)

How does rehearsing before a presentation help a speaker?

3)

What are three techniques speakers can use to overcome fear and speak with confidence?

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4)

When you give a presentation, what are three ways you make your speech about people?

5) Name three ways to maintain a flexible approach when presenting, and explain how these help when delivering presentations. Explain with examples.

6)

What is the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication in presentations?

7) What are the three main levels of attire for business professionals, and what message does each project?

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8) List three guidelines for making an electronic slide presentation effective, and explain why these are important.

9)

How do good speakers continue to interact with the audience after the presentation?

10)

Explain how to combine individual efforts into a cohesive whole in a team presentation.

11)

Presentations allow you to express your views in a(n) ________ environment.

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A) two-way B) one-way C) one-to-one D) circular E) networked

12) Fernando is a great speaker. He commands attention of the audience from the start and engages them throughout. Fernando is good at establishing

A) synergy.

B) dominance.

C) complexity.

D) a façade.

E) a presence.

13) During Kyle's presentation, one of the audience membersasked for the names of additional sources of information about the topic. He promised to get it to her, looked up the sources as soon as he returned to his desk, and emailed the information to her right away. Which of the three aspects of credibility is most demonstrated by Kyle's action?

A) compliance B) caring C) follow up D) competence E) command

14)

What is the best way to deliver presentations with authenticity?

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A) engaging in frequent name-dropping throughout the presentation B) talking about your abilities and achievements to impress your audience C) finding ways to present your real self to your audience D) attempting to learn the presentation techniques of great speakers E) avoiding the use of notes as they can be perceived as a sign of weakness

15) Bradley was shaking like a leaf before his presentation. What would you suggest to help Bradley manage his nervousness?

A) "Go for a strenuous physical workout."

B) "Think of all the things that could go wrong in the presentation so you can prepare."

C) "Take several deep breaths."

D) "Drink a lot of caffeinated beverages so you will feel energized."

E) "Review your notes and avoid making eye contact with audience members."

16)

What is a good way to reduce tension immediately before a presentation?

A) Look at someone who looks skeptical to motivate yourself.

B) Speak with audience members to break the ice.

C) Imagine what could go wrong so you can develop a plan.

D) Pace around the room to work off tension.

E) Drink milk because it is calming.

17) Judy wants to practice a relaxation technique before her presentation. Which option should she avoid using?

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A) letting her mind go blank B) thinking about things she is grateful for C) reviewing the problem areas of her speech D) meditating E) stretching

18)

In order to focus your presentation on people, you should

A) avoid using presentation software or other technology.

B) use a lot of I-statements.

C) include as many photographs as possible in your slides.

D) make individuals the subject of your sentences.

E) stand where you will not be the center of attention.

19) As the text states, people like to hear about people. Which technique will help make your presentation be about people?

A) reading from your slides and letting the audience interpret them as they like B) introducing colleagues and referring to them by name during your presentation C) engaging in frequent name-dropping to show your network of contacts D) using examples from your personal life rather than from business contexts E) avoiding the use of charts and tables in your slides because numbers are impersonal

20)

What will help you maintain a flexible approach during your presentation?

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A) Arrive just before the presentation to avoid nervousness.

B) Read your entire message so you do not lose your place.

C) Focus on your agenda rather than the needs of the audience.

D) Explain any problems that disrupt the presentation.

E) Know the key messages of your presentation.

21)

When you lose your train of thought during a presentation, you should

A) start your presentation all over again.

B) announce a short break that will allow you to collect your thoughts.

C) read from your slides instead of trying to interpret them.

D) tell a few jokes to distract the audience.

E) pause briefly to regain your composure and your line of thinking.

22) Lester is giving a presentation at a business conference. So many people have signed up for his session that it has been moved to a larger meeting room in the hotel. To make sure that he uses the room to his advantage while delivering the presentation, Lester should

A) sit on a table at the front of the room to be more visible.

B) stand as close to his seated colleagues as possible so they look up to him.

C) pace around the room throughout his presentation so everyone has a chance to see him.

D) stand upright behind a podium to project authority.

E) position himself in a corner so the attention is on his slides.

23) What does "O" stand for in the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication in presentations?

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A) organization B) originality C) open stance D) outward calm E) optimized body language

24)

In the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication, "N" stands for

A) nod.

B) note.

C) need.

D) necessary.

E) neutral.

25)

Which guideline is recommended by the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication?

A) Go through your presentation quickly because most audiences have a short attention span.

B) Lean back and lower your shoulders to convey self-confidence while presenting.

C) Use your facial expressions to connect with your audience and show enthusiasm for your topic.

D) Speak in a steady tone and avoid dramatic modulation of your voice as much as possible.

E) Avoid gesturing with your hands, arms, body, and head as it is distracting.

26)

According to the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication, you should

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A) go through your presentations rapidly to show respect for the audience members' time.

B) face the audience directly with a slight forward lean and upright posture during a presentation.

C) avoid making eye contact with your audience as you could lose your train of thought.

D) point to the audience whenever you want them to remember a key point.

E) gesture constantly with your hands, arms, body, and head to keep the audience engaged.

27) According to the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication, which movement conveys warmth to the audience?

A) gesturing withpalms up B) folding your arms C) lowering your shoulders D) putting your hands on your hips E) crossing your legs

28) According to the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication, what action facilitates trust?

A) holding on to the podium B) speaking in a monotone C) smiling all the time D) maintaining eye contact E) maintaining a relaxed posture

29) According to the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication, during a presentation you should

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A) attempt to read your audience and get a sense for how much energy they have.

B) speak very slowly to show how well you know your topic and how much you prepared.

C) put your hands on your hips or fold your arms to convey authority.

D) dress a little more casually than the audience is dressed.

E) smile as much as possible to express your enthusiasm for your topic.

30)

People often misread body language, so you should

A) stand behind a podium and grip it to keep from waving your hands.

B) avoid making gestures as much as possible.

C) pay attention to your audience members and adjust your presentation based on their reactions.

D) plan your gestures ahead of time, the way you would choreograph a dance.

E) smile as much as possible to show that you have good intentions.

31)

What traits does low-level business casual dress project?

A) authority and competence B) authority and creativity C) productivity and trustworthiness D) creativity and friendliness E) productivity and friendliness

32)

What traits does high-level business casual dress project?

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A) authority and competence B) authority and creativity C) productivity and trustworthiness D) creativity and friendliness E) productivity and friendliness

33)

Business casual dress is intended to project

A) a comfortable, relaxed feel while maintaining a high standard of professionalism.

B) executive presence and seriousness along with a sense of authority.

C) a balance between a sense of inaccessible authority and individualism.

D) creativity and a strong sense of individuality.

E) an image of importance, power, and stability.

34)

Generally, formal business attire projects

A) trustworthiness.

B) creativity.

C) friendliness.

D) competence.

E) approachability.

35) George has joined a small design firm that prides itself on having a non-hierarchical, creative work environment. Which type of business dress would most likely be appropriate for this office?

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A) blue jeans, a colorful shirt, and sandals B) a tailored business suit with a dress shirt and tie C) a blazer, a tailored shirt, and tailored pants D) blue jeans, a polo shirt, and athletic shoes E) a tailored shirt with khakis or chinos

36)

Which guideline makes a presentation more effective?

A) Speak to your audience, not the screen.

B) Stand still as you talk so as not to distract the audience.

C) Use your slides as the primary source of information.

D) Read your slides rather than interpreting them.

E) Start your slides right away without preliminary remarks.

37)

Which statement is a helpful guideline for presenting with slides?

A) Do not practice your slides more than once or the presentation will go stale.

B) Do not start your slides until after you have made preliminary remarks to your audience.

C) Turn out the lights so that the audience can view your slides easily.

D) Create slides that are complete enough not to need any interpretation.

E) Avoid using blank slides as they may cause the audience to lose interest.

38)

Which professional is making effective use of slides during a presentation?

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A) Mary starts her presentation with a slide of a chart rather than with opening remarks.

B) Aretha stares at her slides and reads them word for word to the audience.

C) Cole stands in front of the slide projection and talks about the content.

D) Rick uses animated effects every time he switches from one slide to another to jazz up the presentation.

E) Julian displays a blank screen whenever he speaks for lengthy periods without referencing his slides.

39)

Which professional is following one of the guidelines for effective slide presentations?

A) Everett does not introduce the slides but just starts them without comment.

B) Shawn turns off the lights in the room so his slides will be easier for the audience to see.

C) Theresa explains why the information on each slide is important.

D) Haley looks at her slides during most of the presentation.

E) Paulo displays photographson the screen whenever he speaks for lengthy periods without referencing his slides.

40)

What should be avoided during most presentations?

A) turning off the lights B) using blank slides C) standing to the side of the projection area D) interpreting the slides E) speaking before the slide show

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41) Cynthia recently gave her first presentation to your department. Before starting her slide show, she took a few minutes to remind the audience of their shared work goals. Cynthia used a keyboard to advance her slides, and she was careful not to block the projection. For each slide, she explained how the information on screen related to her larger takeaway messages. She became flustered when two slides were out of order, but she recovered quickly. Afterward, Cynthia asked you how she might improve. Which guideline should you suggest?

A) Do not start your slides right away.

B) Use a remote control to advance slides when possible.

C) Interpret, do not read your slides.

D) Speak to your audience, not the screen.

E) Avoid standing in front of the slide projection.

42)

What should you do during a presentation?

A) Keep the previous visual on the screen when you speak for lengthy periods.

B) Preview the slides before showing them.

C) Stand in front of the slide projection area so you can point to it.

D) Avoid making a personal connection with your audience.

E) Stand still as you talk to avoid distracting the audience.

43)

What is an important principle for using slides?

A) If you plan to speak for lengthy periods without referencing your slides, turn the presentation off.

B) Avoid establishing eye contact with your audience as that may distract them from the slides.

C) The opening moments of your presentation are valuable, so start the slides right away.

D) Do not spend too much time looking at your slides with your back to the audience.

E) Use animated effects every time you switch from one slide to another to liven up the presentation.

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44)

What is the most appropriate type of handout to use during a presentation?

A) a printout of a complex budget B) a copy of the presentation slides C) a hard copy your slide notes D) a pie chart divided into three segments E) a list of the key takeaway messages

45)

Which guideline is suggested for fielding questions?

A) Pause before answering a question.

B) Never admit that you do not know the answer.

C) Provide detailed, lengthy explanations.

D) Avoid reframing the question to match your agenda.

E) Defend your position no matter what the audience says.

46) Which presenter interacts most effectively with the audience during a question-andanswer session?

A) Hankrestates his key points rather than really addressing the questions.

B) Eloiseimprovises when she doesn't know the answer to a question.

C) Frederiko provides lengthy, detailed answers to audience members' questions.

D) Pat tries to respond to each question exactly as it is asked, even if it is off topic.

E) Wendy thanks each member of the audience who asks a question.

47) If someone asks you something you do not know during a question-and-answer session, what should you do?

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A) Reframe the question and then give an answer that fits your agenda.

B) Make up the best answer you can.

C) Change the subject as quickly as possible.

D) Admit that you do not know and offer to find the information.

E) Ask the questioner why he or she wants to know.

48) Which principle is important for effectively interacting with the audience during presentations?

A) Never pause before answering a question.

B) Give short responses, as they are more effective.

C) Never admit that you do not know the answer.

D) Reframe questions to match the audience's agenda.

E) Keep the number of questions to a minimum.

49)

How can you be a supportive audience member?

A) Avoid eye contact with the presenter as this may cause him or her to lose focus.

B) Avoid behaviors, such as yawning, that may distract the presenter.

C) Ask repeated questions during and after the presentation.

D) Point out any errors or typos that you notice in the presentation.

E) Publicly offer the presenter advice on making the presentation more useful.

50)

Which audience member is being rude to the presenter?

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A) Gabby smiles when she agrees with the speaker.

B) Niara sits up straight and wears an alert expression.

C) Charlienods slightly as he reads the presentation slides.

D) Aiyana watches the speaker except when she jots down important notes.

E) Bob sends text messages throughout the presentation.

51)

What is a common mistake made by teams doing presentations?

A) being so cohesive that their individuality does not show B) assigning team roles based on individual strengths C) referring to other team members by name during the presentation D) standing close to one another during the presentation E) working independently right up until the presentation

52)

Which technique helps team presentations be more seamless?

A) working independently on research and writing up until the presentation B) using verbal transitions to pass speaking roles from one person to the next C) keeping your head down when other team members are speaking to keep the focus on the speaker D) assigning team roles to people who need to improve in the particular skill that the task requires E) avoiding referring to each other's names to present more of a team identity

53)

Which person is the best example of how to transition between speakers?

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A) Carl sits down, and Laura stands up and starts speaking.

B) Zachary introduces Sasha by previewing her three main points.

C) Bob introduces Angela by explaining how long they have worked together.

D) Leroy introduces May by stating what her general topic is.

E) William sits down. After a pause, Phoebesays, "Well, I guess it's my turn next."

54)

The team that stands close together during a presentation conveys

A) a united front.

B) insecurity.

C) uncertainty about their material.

D) inaccessibility.

E) effective transitions.

55) Having presence involves commanding attention, garnering respect for your ideas, engaging your listeners, and inspiring your audience to action. ⊚ ⊚

true false

56) You should use your presentation to show your thorough understanding of a business issue, but not show bias by discussing too many of the benefits of your own ideas. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Complying with audience requests during a presentation is a bad idea as it will ruin your "flow."

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⊚ ⊚

true false

58) When learning how to do effective presentations, change all of your problem behaviors at the same time to develop a consistent style. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) In the opening moments of your presentation, looking for friendly faces in the audience will make you feel more nervous. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) Dali has to give a 25-minute presentation. He will be able to keep the audience more engaged if he moves around the room. ⊚ ⊚

61)

true false

In the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication, "F" stands for formal expression. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) During a presentation, speaking slowly and deliberately throughout will engage the audience. ⊚ ⊚

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358

63) Making eye contact with audience members while presenting can distract you from your message. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) During a presentation, you should use gestures that show affirmation and acceptance of your audience members. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) What constitutes business casual dress is interpreted broadly and varies significantly by location and company. ⊚ ⊚

66)

When in doubt, the safest way to dress for presentations is low-level business casual. ⊚ ⊚

67)

true false

true false

Casual dress is rare in a business-related setting. ⊚ ⊚

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68) Jason was just hired as the manager of a telephone sales department. For his first day of work, he should wear formal business attire. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) During a presentation, when you must speak for lengthy periods without referencing your slides, you should display abstract images on the screen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) Speakers should pass out handouts during the first minute of a presentation because that is when audiences form their deepest impressions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) A speaker who allows a question-and-answer period takes a risk, as audience members may ask difficult questions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) During a presentation, you should always give detailed explanations for questions because short responses are disrespectful. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) When colleagues work on team presentations, dividing up the presentation roles leads to a stilted, unnatural presentation style.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

74) When you are an audience member, you should avoid making eye contact so you don't distract the presenter. ⊚ ⊚

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361

Answer Key Test name: chapter 15 11) A 12) E 13) B 14) C 15) C 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) E 21) E 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) B 27) A 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) A 34) D 35) E 36) A Version 1

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37) B 38) E 39) C 40) A 41) B 42) B 43) D 44) A 45) A 46) E 47) D 48) B 49) B 50) E 51) E 52) B 53) D 54) A 55) TRUE 56) FALSE 57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE Version 1

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67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE Student name:__________ 1) Describe the first step in creating résumés and cover letters that will serve your long-term career interests.

2) List at least three abilities and three attributes that you will bring to your next job search process.

3) As a job seeker, what are two ways you can analyze the needs of your potential employers and communicate your ability to fill those needs?

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4) As a college student, name three steps you should be taking now to improve your efforts to find a good position in the future.

5) Describe the methods you will use to emphasize your accomplishments and experiences in a résumé to increase your chances of getting a job.

6) What do the tasks of developing a reference list and building a LinkedIn profile have in common, and how do they differ?

7)

Why do you need to clearly identify the position you are applying for in cover letters?

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8)

Explain the process of reviewing résumés and cover letters.

9)

Discuss the etiquette for following up after job interviews.

10)

Discuss the etiquette for the proper way to leave an organization.

11)

Networking is viewed by professionals as

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A) transactional.

B) shortsighted.

C) not useful.

D) relational.

E) required.

12) Marissa is undecided about what path to take in her career, so she meets with a professional in her field to get advice. This is called a(n)

A) networking session.

B) informational interview.

C) career planning meeting.

D) professional interview.

E) career deep dive.

13)

The primary benefit to joining clubs in your functional area is that you can

A) add it to your résumé.

B) learn leadership skills.

C) meet people with whom you can network.

D) practice your interviewing skills.

E) be seen as more professional.

14)

The purpose of cover letters and résumés is to

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A) show how you meet the needs of your prospective employers.

B) provide a detailed insight into your personal interests and hobbies.

C) allow you to communicate informally with your prospective employers.

D) inquire how an organization might meet your career goals.

E) exaggerate your achievements to get an interview.

15)

What is the first step of the job application process?

A) developing a reference list B) developing your ideas C) analyzing your audience D) setting up the message structure E) sending out your résumé

16) Elana just graduated with a bachelor's degree in accounting and is ready to look for a job.

What is the first step Elana should take?

A) Take the certified public accountant's exam.

B) Evaluate her career ambitions and qualifications.

C) Exaggerate her experience on her résumé.

D) Apply for receptionist jobs just to get a start in a firm.

E) Start sending out résumés and cover letters to accounting firms.

17)

What will help you identify your interests, abilities, and attributes?

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A) Speak to people who have the position you are interested in.

B) Work on your weaknesses.

C) Develop hobbies relevant to the job you are applying for.

D) Complete a self-inventory.

E) Research the needs of your potential employer.

18)

Identifying your career goals helps you

A) address areas that need improvement.

B) discover your personal strengths.

C) prepare a career summary to use on your résumé.

D) understand the needs of your potential employer.

E) recognize your past career accomplishments.

19) When Lauren does a self-inventory, she lists her knowledge of Excel, her proficiency in bookkeeping, and her training in customer service. These go under the category of

A) goals.

B) abilities.

C) attributes.

D) experiences.

E) areas of improvement.

20) Corrine's instructors have always commented that she is good at thinking of creative solutions. Being creative is a(n)

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A) ability.

B) goal.

C) weakness.

D) attribute.

E) experience.

21)

Which of these is an example of an ability?

A) analytical B) reliable C) people-oriented D) good communicator E) flexible

22) Hope frequently checks in with her team members to see if they have questions about their assignments and to ask how they are personally. Hope is demonstrating her credibility through

A) competence.

B) caring.

C) aptitude.

D) experience.

E) character.

23) Hudson knows how to use spreadsheet software to create reports that his managers find useful. This ability indicates Hudson's

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A) caring.

B) attributes.

C) competence.

D) goals.

E) character.

24) Kareem knows that Metallic Industries prides itself on using green processes to reduce its impact on the environment. During his interview with the hiring manager at Metallic Industries, Kareem recounts a story about the recycling program he set up in his dormitory at the university.

By doing so, Kareem is communicating to his potential employer that he has

A) career goals.

B) character.

C) drive.

D) abilities.

E) areas of improvement.

25)

One of the best ways to understand a potential employer's needs is to

A) research the company's advertising.

B) go to job fairs on campus.

C) watch television shows and movies about people in that profession.

D) network with friends and relatives.

E) research the strategic goals and unique challenges of the company.

26)

Your résumé should tell a story of

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A) the value you can provide to a company.

B) your personal interests.

C) everything you have learned and done in your previous job.

D) your educational accomplishments.

E) why you want to leave your current organization.

27)

A mistake that many job applicants make while creating résumés is

A) keeping its length to one to two pages.

B) forgetting to include their hobbies and other interests.

C) trying to display everything they do well.

D) highlighting only a few of their abilities and attributes.

E) leaving out some of their work-related information.

28)

The career summary section of a résumé should provide the candidate's

A) objective for the job search.

B) memberships, awards, certifications and licensure, and activities.

C) list of personal references.

D) employment history with dates and organizations.

E) major accomplishments, abilities, and attributes.

29)

Which section is considered optional in a résumé?

A) education B) work experience C) name block D) objective statement E) contact information

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30)

What additional information adds value to a résumé?

A) certifications B) age C) sexual orientation D) marital status E) religion

31)

What is considered additional, helpful information to include in a résumé?

A) contact information B) marital status C) language abilities D) personal hobbies E) academic degrees

32) it?

Jessica wants to list an unpaid internship on her résumé. In what section should she list

A) education B) work experience C) professional associations D) personal information E) certifications and licensure

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33) Alejandro's job application has a cover letter and résumé. The cover letter has three paragraphs targeted to the job he is applying for. The résumé has a name block, a list of work experience, a list of professional associations and licensure, and a list of personal references.

What necessary component has Alejandro forgotten to include?

A) family information B) demographic details C) educational background D) information about high-school E) an objectives statement

34)

What is a guideline for writing an effective résumé?

A) Provide details about your personal life and activities.

B) Demonstrate humility by downplaying your accomplishments.

C) Use buzzwords and jargon to seem like an insider.

D) Position your most important contributions first.

E) Avoid leaving a lot of white space on the page.

35)

Which statement from a résumé most effectively highlights a key skill or attribute?

A) I was the senior waitress at the restaurant.

B) Thought about improving efficiency.

C) I am a good leader.

D) Managed inventory of all the stock in the store.

E) Responsible for advertising.

36)

Which statement in a résumé shows quantifiable accomplishments in a previous job?

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A) supervised a 10-member telemarketing team B) in charge of the "Save the Tiger" campaign C) looked after the foster care program D) raised funds for the poor E) assisted with buying medical supplies

37) In her résumé, Margarita writes that she "demonstrated an ability to think outside the box and create a win-win scenario for both the company and its customers." What is wrong with this statement?

A) It has grammatical errors that undermine her competence.

B) It has typos that undermine her competence.

C) It does not start with an action verb, so it seems weak.

D) It uses clichés, so it fails to highlight her abilities.

E) It lists an unimportant accomplishment that should be omitted.

38)

Many potential employers immediately discard résumés that

A) do not contain an objective statement.

B) do not include hobbies and interests.

C) contain typos or other careless errors.

D) do not provide details about high school education.

E) include personal information such as age and marital status.

39)

Which person is most likely to benefit from a functional résumé?

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A) Rafe has had one sales position where he worked for four years.

B) Sallie has worked as a chief financial officer for four companies over twenty-six years.

C) Stanley has had three jobs in the eight years since he graduated.

D) Elizabeth has one year as an unpaid intern and three years at her current job.

E) Seong has been with her company for five years and has had two promotions.

40)

Which person is most likely to benefit from a chronological résumé?

A) Daoud has just graduated and has no work history, but he has leadership and organizational experience from campus activities.

B) Iris has been an editor for twenty-seven years, and she has worked for six companies.

C) Nari was a teacher for sixteen years, then she was a textbook editor for twelve years, and now she has been a freelance writer for seven years.

D) Hiroto has had three jobs in eight years, and each one was a higher-level position than the last.

E) Gina has never held a job, but she has experience recruiting volunteers, coordinating schedules, and doing publicity from her charitable work.

41)

Typically, what should a LinkedIn profile accomplish for a job seeker?

A) It should be an extension of social media sites like Facebook and contain mostly personal details.

B) It should be an elaborated version of your résumé and reinforce your professional narrative.

C) It can be the place where you list any provocative opinions that you hold.

D) It should be as low-key as possible so it doesn't hurt employment chances.

E) It usually serves as an electronic replacement for a résumé.

42)

What is the best description of LinkedIn?

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A) a place to debate common issues in business B) a site to share visuals that are related to your career C) a website for a network of professional contacts D) a social media site for old friends E) a job posting board

43)

To construct a reference list for your résumé, you should

A) wait until after you have completed the other, more important parts of your résumé.

B) include your current supervisors even if they are unhappy with your decision to leave the company.

C) include the names of everyone you can, even if you have not contacted them yet.

D) not contact your references ahead of time in case they aren't used.

E) build relationships with potential references over time.

44)

When you are constructing a reference list, you should

A) include the statement, "Call me for contact details," so you do not distribute your references' private information.

B) add a brief statement describing your professional relationship with each of your references.

C) give full demographic information for each of your references.

D) include a positive quotation from each reference below their contact information.

E) create a portfolio of one-page reference letters from each person on the list.

45)

The primary goal of a cover letter is to

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A) add a strong, emotional tone to the applicant's résumé.

B) leave questions in the employer's mind, so he or she will read the résumé.

C) highlight applicants' strengths and weaknesses.

D) make candidates look impressive through the use of exaggeration and hype.

E) sell key abilities and attributes in a way that matches the needs of the employer.

46)

What is a guideline for writing a cover letter?

A) Tailor your cover letter to the job posting and needs of the employer.

B) Do not write cover letters for jobs that have not been advertised by companies.

C) Use a conversational style with elaborate language to convey enthusiasm.

D) Be as thorough as possible in explaining why you are perfect for the job.

E) Do not mention anything that is listed on your résumé because repetition is annoying.

47) Sanga is one of several engineers applying for a job recently advertised on the Internet.

While writing his email cover letter, Sanga should

A) identify the position being applied for in the subject line.

B) adopt a friendly, informal, and conversational style.

C) use the latest buzzwords to sound up-to-date.

D) elaborate on how the job could benefit his career.

E) explain how his hobbies relate to his professional interests.

48) Your friend has written a two-page cover letter for a job application. What reason should you give to convince her to make it much shorter?

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A) Shorter letters are better for email because the recipient will not have to scroll.

B) It is easier to send a clean, error-free letter if it is short.

C) She can put all of the extra information in her résumé.

D) Concise writing can focus more clearly on her main qualifications.

E) A short letter will make her stand out because most people submit long ones.

49) When people reply to formal job announcements, they are writing a(n) ________ cover letter since it is for an open position that a company advertises.

A) unsolicited B) chronological C) functional D) informal E) solicited

50) Which modification to a cover letter should you make when writing unsolicited cover letters?

A) Use a friendly, informal, and conversational style because there is no formal job opening.

B) Open immediately with a proposition about how you can add value to the company.

C) Be as elaborate as possible in explaining how much you learned from researching the company.

D) Add a section on areas of improvement so the hiring manager can see how serious you are about your career.

E) Do not mention the position you are applying for because no job opening exists.

51)

When reviewing your résumés and cover letters, it is important to ensure that you have

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A) included a section on any skills that could use improvement.

B) used a friendly, informal, and conversational style.

C) displayed everything that you do well.

D) emphasized your selling points in a compelling manner.

E) included your marital status, age, religion, and sexual orientation.

52) Alice arrived for her first interview with Capital, Inc. fifteen minutes early, wearing a dress blouse and a business suit whose skirt hem hit her knees. During the interview, she mentioned a successful cost-cutting measure she implemented on her current job. She expressed gratitude for the opportunity her current employer gave her. She mentioned what her current salary was and said she hoped the prospective employer could better it. After the interview, she sent a thank-you note to the manager who interviewed her. What did Amber do wrong?

A) She bragged too much.

B) Mentioning her current employer was inappropriate.

C) Sending a thank-you note was inappropriate.

D) She should not have brought up salary.

E) She dressed too provocatively.

53)

In order to succeed in an interview, you should

A) talk only about your abilities and accomplishments.

B) be perceptive about what hiring managers are evaluating.

C) talk about personal success stories in great detail.

D) avoid asking the interviewer questions.

E) speak negatively about your former supervisors.

54) The STAR method is an approach to telling success stories during an interview. What does "A" stand for in the STAR method?

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A) abilities B) accomplishments C) achievements D) actions E) acquisitions

55)

Success stories should

A) follow the AIM planning process.

B) be relatively brief—not more than one to two minutes long.

C) reveal both your strengths and weaknesses.

D) contain some fictitious details.

E) provide personal insights into your hobbies and interests.

56) During an interview, Roman tells a success story about his fundraising abilities, including that he obtained three grants for a total of $140,000 in funds for his organization. Which part of the STAR method does this statement relate to?

A) situation B) tasks C) abilities D) actions E) results

57)

When interviewees do not ask questions, hiring managers often view them as

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A) confident about the new position.

B) uninterested or inexperienced.

C) highly motivated and eager to work.

D) already competent in their field.

E) arrogant and rude.

58)

Why should you send a note of appreciation following an interview?

A) to demonstrate your grasp of social etiquette B) to flatter the potential employer in the hope of getting the job C) to increase your chances of getting your expected salary D) to show the potential employer that you are desperate to get a job E) to express goodwill and confirm your interest in the position

59)

What should you do when you resign from an organization?

A) Describe how the job you are leaving did not match your abilities and attributes.

B) Enthusiastically describe the benefits of the new position to your former employers.

C) Show graciousness and appreciation for the professional opportunities that were given to you.

D) Use your new job offer to bargain for a better compensation package from your former employer.

E) Describe your negative experiences with your supervisor and colleagues.

60) Networking is a transactional process that involves sharing information with others with the expectation that they will return the favor. ⊚ ⊚

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61)

Most professionals would prefer not to be approached to give career advice. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) Barkley is shy around strangers and knows that will not help him land his dream job, so he decides to volunteer at a local nonprofit organization. This will help him improve his communications skills. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) Preparing for the job application process is completely different from preparing for other forms of business communication. ⊚ ⊚

64)

true false

When you are creating cover letters and résumés, you are writing persuasive messages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) Ali has decided to look for a better job. The first thing he should do before creating a résumé is to look at advertisements for open positions. ⊚ ⊚

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66) If you want to find a job that matches your long-term goals, you should send out as many applications as possible as soon as you start the job-search process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Jeffrey, a recent college graduate, is preparing his first résumé. He decides to list all his previous jobs and all his major college accomplishments, including the awards he won for debate and as a member of sports teams. This decision will make his résumé more persuasive to employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) When describing accomplishments and experiences in a résumé, begin statements with nouns or pronouns. ⊚ ⊚

69)

In a résumé, you should list any personal details that most people would find admirable. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

true false

Focusing on ease of processing and consistency is important while formatting a résumé. ⊚ ⊚

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71) A young professional who has a few years of job experience should generally use a chronological résumé. ⊚ ⊚

72)

Most HR professionals say that creating a presence on LinkedIn is a waste of time. ⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

true false

Providing a list of personal references is a part of most job applications. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) Gerald just graduated from college and is unsure of his career path, so he decides to apply for three different types of jobs. He should use the same cover letter and résumé for each application. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) To demonstrate how interested you are in a position and company, you should use strong language and self-praise in your cover letter to stand out from other applicants. ⊚ ⊚

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76)

Inaccuracies in a résumé can cost you the chance at a job interview. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) When you have secured an interview, you have made the initial cut and are likely deemed a good candidate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) During his job interview, Philip told several stories about his successes. This was a mistake as this can make him seem too arrogant and self-serving. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) Irene always sends a thank-you email after every job interview. This most likely makes her seem like an insincere flatterer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Rhea has decided to leave her first job because she has been offered a position with a better chance of promotion. Rhea should tell her supervisor that she is resigning as soon as she accepts the offer. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 16 11) D 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) E 26) A 27) C 28) E 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) D 36) A Version 1

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37) D 38) C 39) B 40) D 41) B 42) C 43) E 44) B 45) E 46) A 47) A 48) D 49) E 50) B 51) D 52) D 53) B 54) D 55) B 56) E 57) B 58) E 59) C 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE Version 1

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67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE

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