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Chapter 1 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) If you found an organism that was single-celled and had a nucleus, you would classify it as a member of the Archaea. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
The "kingdom" is the most all-inclusive taxonomic category. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) The scientific method cannot be used to answer questions about immaterial and philosophical issues. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 4) Which is the correct sequence for levels of biological organization within amulticellular organism?
A) atom - molecule - organelle - cell - tissue B) molecule - atom - organelle - tissue - cell C) cell - organelle - atom - tissue - molecule D) organelle - molecule - atom - tissue - cell E) atom - organelle - molecule - cell - tissue
5) Which is the correct sequence for levels of biological organization occurring beyond an organism?
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A) population - ecosystem - community - biosphere B) community - population - ecosystem - biosphere C) community - population - biosphere - ecosystem D) population - community - ecosystem - biosphere E) ecosystem - population - biosphere - community
6)
All living organisms
A) are prokaryotes. B) are either unicellular or multicellular. C) are eukaryotes. D) are multicellular. E) are unicellular.
7)
Organisms that extract energy from nonliving environmental resources are called
A) heterotrophs. B) decomposers. C) parasites. D) consumers. E) producers.
8) You are sorting cards with pictures of organisms and their descriptions into groups. You would place the card with an osprey and the description "organisms that obtain energy by consuming other organisms" with cards for other
A) autotrophs. B) plants. C) heterotrophs. D) producers. E) photosynthesizers.
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9) If you observed a newly discovered 'thing' and tried to decide if it might be alive, what would be the weakest distinction for life?
A) homeostasis B) movement C) structural organization D) evolution E) energy use
10)
The four kingdoms included in the domain Eukarya are
A) Bacteria, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia. B) Bacteria, Protista, Plantae, and Animalia. C) Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia. D) Archaea, Bacteria, Plantae, and Animalia. E) Archaea, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia.
11)
A major difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that prokaryotes
A) have cell walls while eukaryotes do not. B) do not have a nucleus in their cells whileeukaryotes do. C) have a nucleus in their cells while eukaryotes do not. D) are autotrophs while eukaryotes are not. E) are not living organisms, while eukaryotes are.
12) If you were grading a set of exams dealing with the scientific method, which statement would lead to a student losing points?
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A) It is a general way of answering questions with evidence. B) It is a framework to consider ideas in a repeatable way. C) It begins with observations. D) It does not apply to problems encountered in everyday life. E) It enables the testing of ideas.
13)
Which statement about ahypothesis is incorrect?
A) It can be proven true. B) It can be proven false. C) It is a tentative explanation. D) It is based on previous knowledge. E) It must be testable to be useful.
14) In a scientific experiment, the investigator manipulates the ______ variable(s) to determine whether it causes another variable to change.
A) standardized B) control group C) dependent D) independent E) control group and standardized
15) In a scientific experiment, the investigator measures the response of the _______ variable(s).
A) independent B) dependent C) control group D) standardized E) dependent and independent
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16)
Which of the following is nota "control" in an experimental procedure?
A) a placebo B) a known standard of comparison C) a normal group D) an experimental group E) a "zero"-value group
17)
A theory differs from a hypothesis in that a theory
A) has more supportive evidence than a hypothesis. B) is broader in scope than a hypothesis. C) has predictive power. D) ties together many existing observations. E) All answers are correct.
18)
A structure consisting of tissues organized to carry out a specific function defines a(n)
A) organ. B) cell. C) population. D) atom. E) molecule.
19) In cleaning up after lab, you have to sort cards into boxes. You would put all of the below cards into a box marked "ecosystem" except
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A) community. B) biosphere. C) populations. D) organisms. E) nonliving environmental components.
20)
Asexual reproduction differs from sexual reproduction in that
A) asexual reproduction produces genetically diverse offspring. B) asexual reproduction utilizes DNA from two parentsto code for traits in offspring. C) asexual reproduction occurs only in plants. D) asexual reproduction produces offspring containing DNA from only one parent. E) asexual reproduction only occursin animals.
21)
If you wanted to demonstrate homeostasis to a friend, you could use as an example
A) a population changing over time. B) environmental conditions holding constant through time. C) cells havingenough water to survive. D) plants and animals needing energy sources. E) an organism maintaining nearly constant internal conditions.
22) What statement deals with an aspect of experimentation but with the incorrect explanation?
A) The larger the sample size, the more meaningful the results. B) The smaller the sample size, the more meaningful the results. C) A control group is an untreated group and provides a basis for comparison. D) It is important to standardize aspects of an experiment that might affect the outcome, other than the independent variable. E) All answers are correct.
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23)
The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus belongs to which domain?
A) Eukarya B) Archaea C) Prokarya D) Protista E) Bacteria
24)
The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus has which of the following?
A) nucleus and ribosomes B) DNA and nucleus C) DNA and cell membrane D) cell membrane and nucleus E) None of the answer choices are correct.
25)
Homo sapiens is in which domain?
A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Eukarya D) Animalia E) Protista
26) What did Charles Darwin predict after observing the 11-inch long nectaries of the Angraecum sesquipedale orchid in Madagascar?
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A) the existence of a moth with a 10–11 inch long tongue B) the existence of a competitor that also possessed especially long nectaries C) the presence of very small bees that could fit into long nectaries D) that the orchid must reproduce asexually E) that the orchid was an evolutionary dead end and could no longer reproduce
27) In an experiment, Charles Darwin's prediction about long nectaries and long-tongued moths would be a(n)
A) standardized variable. B) theory. C) independent variable. D) dependent variable. E) hypothesis.
28) You want to test Charles Darwin's prediction that an orchid with long pollen tubes has a pollinator with long, thin mouthparts that can reach the bottom of the elongated nectar tube. You place nets over some orchids, which allows pollinators with small, short mouthparts to enter but prevents the entry of pollinators with long, thin mouthparts. Next, you compare the number of seeds produced by plants with and without the nets. In this experiment, seed production is a(n)
A) dependent variable. B) hypothesis. C) theory. D) independent variable. E) standardized variable.
29)
What is the advantage to the Madagascan orchid of having an 11-inch long nectar tube?
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A) It can produce nectar over a larger area and attract more pollinators. B) It can collect more rainwater. C) It can be pollinated easily only by the moths with long tongues. D) It can collect more sunlight for photosynthesis. E) It can trap insects as a source of nutrients.
30) What is the advantage of a moth having a very long tongue if an orchid has a very long nectar spur?
A) It is used to attract mates through sexual selection. B) It can pollinate only one type of flower. C) It makes flying more efficient. D) It can be used to capture other flying insects for food. E) It can reach nectar that no other pollinator can reach.
31)
Pollination is a step of _____ in a plant.
A) sexual reproduction B) asexual reproduction C) development D) metabolism E) homeostasis
32)
Why isn't scientific inquiry foolproof?
A) Multiple interpretations of the data are possible. B) Definitive answers may not exist. C) Observations can be misinterpreted. D) Unexpected conclusions are not always readily accepted. E) All answers are correct.
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33)
Which of the following questions cannot be answered by science?
A) What is the meaning of life? B) Why is the sky the color blue? C) What causes species' extinctions? D) How did I start from only an egg and sperm? E) Why is too much fatty food bad for me?
34)
How do you know the computer you are working on is not alive?
A) It is not made of cells. B) It does not maintain an internal consistency of water, solutes, and other components. C) It cannot reproduce, asexually or sexually. D) It cannot evolve. E) All answers are correct.
35)
Gravity is a theory because it is
A) a tentative explanation of an observation. B) an untestable prediction. C) a changeable element of experiments. D) an opinion or hunch. E) an encompassing explanation of a natural phenomenon that is well accepted.
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 36) You perform an experiment in which you take 16 pots of strawberry plants and give half of them 1 gram of ammonium nitrate per liter of water and the other half receive only water. Each group is then split in half again, and exposed to either 8 or 16 hours of light each day. You monitor the height of the plants for 4 weeks. You observe that plants grown in ammonium nitrate and 16 hours of light grow taller than no ammonium nitrate and 8 hours of light.
36.1)
Which of the following is/are independent variable(s) in this experiment?
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A) amount of ammonium nitrate and light B) amount of water C) amount of carbon dioxide D) height of the plants and amount of light E) height of the plants
36.2)
Which of the following is/are dependent variable(s) in this experiment?
A) amount of ammonium nitrate and light B) amount of carbon dioxide C) amount of water D) height of the plants E) height of the plants and amount of light
36.3)
In this experiment, the size of the pot is
A) an independent variable. B) a dependent variable. C) a standardized variable. D) a placebo. E) a control.
36.4)
Ammonium nitrate is
A) an atom. B) a molecule. C) a cell. D) a tissue. E) a biosphere.
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36.5) is
The proximate reason for the uptake by plants of nutrients like ammonium nitrate
A) asexual reproduction. B) sexual reproduction. C) natural selection. D) evolution. E) homeostasis.
36.6)
The leaf of a strawberry plant is
A) an organ. B) a molecule. C) an organelle. D) a cell. E) an organism.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 1 1) FALSE The nucleus in this organism would indicate that it was a eukaryote, and it would be classified as a member of Eukarya, not Archaea. Please see section 1.2 for more information. 2) FALSE Kingdoms are large taxonomic groupings, but domains are even larger. Please see section 1.2 for more information. 3) TRUE The scientific method can only deal with questions about the immediate physical world around us. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 4) A All living things, no matter how different, are made of cells, with multicellular organisms made up of many cells. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 5) D Organisms interact with one another and with nonliving things at a variety of levels, from populations to the entire worldwide biosphere. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 6) B Living things must include at least one cell, as in bacteria, and can be multicellular, as in the case of a human being. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 7) E Version 1
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Producers are the first, and usually most populous level in an ecosystem's passing of energy and resources from organism to organism. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 8) C Consumers eat other consumers or producers to obtain energy and reduced carbon compounds. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 9) B Nonliving things can sometimes move, and living things, like barnacles past the larval stage, sometimes do not move, at least not in some sense. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 10) C The eukaryotes include plants, fungi, animals, and the very diverse group of organisms known as the protists. Please see section 1.2for more information. 11) B The name "eukaryote" means "true nucleus." Please see section 1.2 for more information. 12) D The scientific method can be applied to a wide range of problems, including those of daily life. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 13) A Hypotheses can be shown to be false by experimentation, a normal part of the scientific method. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 14) D The independent variable is altered, and then the experimental result is seen in the changes in the dependent variable. Please see section 1.3 for more information. Version 1
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15) B While the experimenter alters the independent variable, the dependent variable is what results and is measured. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 16) D Controls are parts of the experiment which are used as a kind of baseline. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 17) E Theories are of greater certainty, backed by many different experiments, than mere hypotheses. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 18) A Organs are one level of organization higher than tissues. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 19) B Ecosystems include many parts but are much smaller than the worldwide biosphere. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 20) D Asexual reproduction produces genetic clones of the parent organism since only the one parent's DNA is present in the offspring. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 21) E Please see section 1.1 for more information. 22) B Smaller sample sizes make for weaker, less certain experimental results. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 23) E
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Bacteria belong in their own domain, separate from the other prokaryotes which fall into the Archaea. Please see section 1.2 for more information. 24) C Bacteria lack a nucleus. Please see section 1.2 for more information. 25) C Human beings, Homo sapiens, are eukaryotes, with a nucleus in each cell. Please see section 1.2 for more information. 26) A An orchid with a long nectar spur would require a pollinator with a correspondingly long tongue to drink that nectar. Please see sections 1.3 and "Investigating Life" for more information. 27) E Hypotheses, such as Darwin's about moth tongue length, are really predictions. Please see sections 1.3and "Investigating Life" for more information. 28) A Whatever is actually measured at the end of an experiment is the dependent variable. Please see sections 1.3and "Investigating Life" for more information. 29) C The orchid's long nectar tube evolved to allow a very specific relationship with its pollinator. Please see sections 1.3 and "Investigating Life" for more information. 30) E
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Having such a long tongue, the moth gains exclusive access to food with no competitors able to reach that food. Please see sections 1.3and "Investigating Life" for more information. 31) A Pollination involves the transfer of pollen from the male part of a flower to the female part of the same or another flower. Please see sections 1.3and "Investigating Life" for more information. 32) E Scientific inquiry has its limitations. Please see section 1.3for more information. 33) A Deep philosophical questions cannot be tested by the scientific method, while more immediate and material ones can. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 34) E Living things grow and reproduce and manage their internal state for themselves, none of which computers can do. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 35) E So much experimental evidence is behind our ideas about gravity that it rises to the level of a theory. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 36) Section Break 36.1) A The independent variable is the variable which the experimenter varies to look for responses in the system, rather than what is measured. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 36.2) D
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Dependent variables are what are measured in response to changing independent variable values. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 36.3) C Since pot size is uniform, this is a standardized variable. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 36.4) B Ammonium nitrate is a chemical salt used as a fertilizer. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 36.5) E Plants take up nutrients to maintain internalconcentrations of these important chemicals. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 36.6) A Organs are groups of tissues working for a common purpose, which is photosynthesis in the case of a leaf. Please see section 1.3 for more information.
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Chapter 2 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Water is a compound. ⊚ ⊚
2)
Proteins are compounds because they are polymers. ⊚ ⊚
3)
true false
Polymers are made of monomers, and both are kinds of compounds. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
true false
Carbon is a compound. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) If a molecule is added to a glass of water, and is easily dissolved by the water, the added molecule is described as hydrophilic. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
Proteins store the genetic information of the cell and transmit it to the next generation. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7) The most abundant bulk elements that make up the vast majority of living organisms are Version 1
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A) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and calcium. B) carbon, oxygen, iron, andchlorine. C) carbon, hydrogen, iron, and calcium. D) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. E) carbon, oxygen, sulfur, and calcium.
8)
The atomic number of an atom or element is the number of
A) neutrons in the nucleus. B) electrons in the nucleus. C) protons in the nucleus. D) neutrons in the orbitals. E) protons in the orbitals.
9)
An ion could be
A) an atom that has gained electrons. B) an atom that has a positive charge. C) an atom that has lost electrons. D) an atom that has a negative charge. E) All answers are correct.
10) If you were told to sort cards into boxes after a lab on elements, you would put into a slot labelled "Mass Number" any card with text that included the total number of
A) protons, neutrons, and electrons of an atom. B) protons and electrons of an atom. C) protons and neutrons of an atom. D) neutrons and electrons of an atom. E) protons of an atom.
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11)
Isotopes of the same element are different from one another in that
A) they have a different number of protons. B) they have a different number of neutrons. C) they have a different number of electrons. D) they are a different element. E) only one of the isotopes is matter.
12)
For most atoms, the outermost electron shell would be full if it contained
A) one electron. B) four electrons. C) eight electrons. D) sixteen electrons.
13)
If an atom exists in nature with a valence shell that is full, then it is
A) highly reactive. B) chemically unstable. C) highly likely to combine with other atoms. D) found only in a gas form. E) inert.
14)
In a covalent bond
A) atoms share electrons. B) atoms of opposite charges attract each other. C) atoms share protons. D) atoms share neutrons. E) atoms are repelled by each other.
15)
An ionic bond is a bond in which
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A) atoms share electrons. B) atoms share protons. C) atoms of opposite charges attract each other. D) atoms share neutrons. E) atoms are repelled by each other.
16)
Which statement about a bond between sodium and chlorine is incorrect?
A) Na is the chemical symbol for sodium. B) Chlorine donates an electron. C) Chlorine becomes negatively charged. D) Sodium becomes positively charged. E) The bond that is formed is a strong bond.
17)
In the example of ionic bond formation between sodium and chlorine
A) Na is the chemical symbol for chlorine. B) sodium accepts an electron. C) chlorine accepts an electron. D) chlorine becomes positively charged. E) both sodium and chlorine accept electrons.
18)
If a covalent bond is polar
A) electrons are not shared by atoms. B) protons are shared by atoms. C) it will not form in living organisms. D) the electronegativity of atoms is unequal in their pull on electrons. E) the bond is weak in strength.
19)
A hydrogen bond
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A) is generally a strong bond. B) does not occur in living organisms. C) does not require electron transfer. D) forms between atoms having the same electronegativity. E) is a specialized type of covalent bond.
20)
Evaporation is
A) the conversion of a liquid into a vapor. B) the conversion of a solid into a vapor. C) the conversion of a vapor into a liquid. D) the conversion of a vapor into a solid. E) All answers are correct.
21) A friend who is not taking your Biology course fills a cup with ice and then a drink. The friend asks you why the ice in the cup is floating, and you are able to say that
A) the molecules are closer together in ice than in liquid water. B) the molecules are farther apart in ice than in liquid water. C) ice is denser than liquid water. D) convection currents caused by temperature differences push upwards on the ice. E) water vapor is less dense than liquid water.
22)
In a chemical equation
A) the reactants are on the right of the yields arrow. B) reactants and products are on both sides of the yields arrow. C) the products are on the left of the yields arrow. D) the reactants are on the left of the yields arrow. E) the number of atoms of each element may differ on the two sides of the yields arrow.
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23)
An acid
A) has a value above 7 on the pH scale. B) is a chemical that takes hydrogen ions from a solution. C) has a value of 7 on the pH scale. D) is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution. E) All answers are correct.
24)
A base
A) has a value of 7 on the pH scale. B) is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution. C) is a chemical that absorbs hydrogen ions from a solution. D) has a value below 7 on the pH scale.
25)
A substance with a pH of 2 is
A) neutral. B) a weak acid. C) a weak base. D) a strong base. E) a strong acid.
26) As part of an exam, you are given a powder to analyze. When you perform various tests, you find that it contains a single chemical that changes the pH of neutral water to a pH of 6. You would conclude that the chemical is a
A) weak acid. B) neutral. C) weak base. D) strong acid. E) strong base.
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27)
A substance with a pH of 7 is
A) a weak acid. B) a weak base. C) neutral. D) a strong acid. E) a strong base.
28) As part of a lab exam, you are given a vial of orange crystals. When you add them to pure, neutral pH water, the pH changes to 13. Other tests show that the crystals consist of asingle chemical.You could conclude the chemical is
A) a weak acid. B) a weak base. C) neutral. D) a strong acid. E) a strong base.
29)
Organic molecules are defined as chemical compounds that contain
A) hydrophilic solutions. B) isotopes of carbon. C) ionically bonded atoms. D) strong hydrogen bonds. E) carbon and hydrogen.
30)
The four major groups of organic compounds are
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A) fats, waxes, carbohydrates, and amino acids. B) carbohydrates, lipids, steroids, and monosaccharides. C) lipids, fats, waxes, and steroids. D) carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids. E) carbohydrates, proteins, amino acids, and nucleic acids.
31) You are asked to help prepare a lab and need to label some beakers. In one, you are told, there are sugars polymerizing into a large polymer, so you prepare a label that mentions
A) hydrolysis. B) reproduction. C) dehydration synthesis. D) translation. E) transcription.
32)
A process by which cells break polymers down into smaller units is
A) hydrolysis. B) dehydration synthesis. C) reproduction. D) hydrolysis and dehydration synthesis. E) unrelated to chemical bonds.
33) Imagine that you are in a study session, and your group is taking a practice quiz that members grade for one another. For the question, "A cook decides to cook only using monomers, so what chemicals could the cook use?" you would mark correct if the paper you are grading has the answer as
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A) cellulose and sucrose. B) lactose and sucrose. C) glucose and fructose. D) glucose and cellulose. E) None of the answers are correct.
34) You are asked to help solve a murder, and a note from the murderer taunting the police says that the crime was committed using a lipid. What molecule could you exclude from your search?
A) a triglyceride B) a phospholipid C) a wax D) a sterol E) a starch molecule
35)
The primary building block (monomer) of proteins is
A) a glucose molecule. B) a fatty acid. C) a nucleotide. D) an amino acid. E) four interconnected rings.
36)
If asked to build a model of an amino acid, you would need parts to represent
A) three R groups and a glycerol. B) nitrogen, carbon, and an R group. C) multiple saccharide rings. D) carbon and phosphorus monomers. E) carbon and phosphorus.
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37) As part of a lab practical, you need to attach labels about chemical models. For the bond between amino acids, you would add a label describing that it is
A) an ionic bond in proteins. B) a covalent bond in carbohydrates. C) a covalent bond in proteins. D) an ionic bond in carbohydrates. E) a hydrogen bond in nucleic acids.
38)
The primary building block (monomer) of nucleic acids is
A) a nucleotide. B) a glucose molecule. C) a fatty acid. D) an amino acid. E) four interconnected carbon rings.
39)
Water is best described as which of the following?
A) an ion B) a nonpolar molecule C) an atom D) a polar molecule E) an element
40) You encounter a new compound that is bright purple and smells of violets. It sticks to surfaces in a way similar to water and can replace water in the running of living cells. You might expect that this new molecule will make
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A) covalent bonds. B) ionic bonds. C) hydrogen bonds. D) hydrophobic bonds. E) peptide bonds.
41)
Within a single molecule of water, ____ bonds form between oxygen and hydrogen.
A) ionic B) covalent C) hydrogen D) hydrophobic E) nuclear
42)
What do a lemon, a toaster oven, and sand grains have in common?
A) All are composed of matter and energy. B) All are alive. C) All are composed of organic molecules. D) All are acidic. E) All are basic.
43) You can painlessly wade into a pool, but doing a belly flop off of the high diving board hurts because of
A) water's higher density compared to the air. B) adhesion of your molecules with the water molecules. C) water's high boiling point. D) a neutral pH. E) cohesion of the water molecules.
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44)
What is an example of matter? 4615
A) oxygen gas B) energy C) light D) heat E) None of the answers are correct.
45) Hydrogen, nitrogen, carbon, and oxygen account for 96% of the human body. These elements are
A) also the main elements in organic molecules. B) rare in nonhuman organisms. C) rare on Earth. D) always bonded by hydrogen bonds. E) All answers are correct.
46)
The polymers with the most complex and diverse three-dimensional structures are
A) saturated fats. B) unsaturated fats. C) proteins. D) waxes. E) carbohydrates.
47)
Two hydrogen atoms and an oxygen atombonded together form
A) a molecule, but not a compound. B) a compound, but not a molecule. C) a molecule and a compound. D) an atom and a molecule. E) an atom, but not a molecule or compound.
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48) The four most abundantelements needed by the human body are carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. Because these are needed in large amounts to support our cells, these are referred to as
A) bulk elements. B) trace elements. C) isotopes. D) buffers. E) essential elements.
49) Blood is closely maintained at a pH of 7.4. A patient whose blood pH drops below 7.35 is suffering from metabolic acidosis and can go into a coma. What happens to the concentration of H + ions in a patient with a blood pH of 6.4? A) H + concentration is decreased 10-fold. B) H + concentration is decreased 2-fold. C) H + concentration is increased 2-fold. D) H + concentration is decreased 4-fold. E) H + concentration is increased 10-fold.
50)
The four nitrogen bases found in RNA are
A) adenine, thymine, guanine, and uracil. B) adenine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil. C) adenine, thymine, cytosine, and uracil. D) thymine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil. E) None of the answer choices is correct.
51) Saturated fats have long, straight tails of fatty acids, whereas unsaturated fats from vegetables have kinks in their tails due to double bonds. These kinks prevent the fats from packing together as tightly. Hydrogenated vegetable oils, or trans fats, have hydrogens added back to the double bonds and thus behave like
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A) unsaturated fats. B) waxes. C) carbohydrates. D) proteins. E) saturated fats.
52)
Which of these pairs does not correctly match a carbohydrate with its function?
A) Glycogen is the storage form of energy in animals. B) Starch is the storage form of energy in plants. C) Cellulose provides structural support for human hair. D) Chitin provides an exoskeleton for insects.
53) If a carbohydrate polymer contains only two monomer units, such as sucrose made from glucose and fructose, it is called a(n)
A) disaccharide. B) polysaccharide. C) monosaccharide. D) oligosaccharide. E) complex carbohydrate.
54)
Tawny crazy ants survive a fire ant's sting by having a
A) venom that detoxifies the fire ant venom. B) more potent venom than the fire ant venom. C) hard carapace that protects the crazy ants. D) lipid that coats their skin.
55)
In the experiment investigating tawny crazy ants and fire ants, the control group included
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A) tawny crazy ants with open venom glands. B) tawny crazy ants with plugged venom glands. C) fire ants with open venom glands. D) fire ants with plugged venom glands.
56) How does the formic acid in the venom of the tawny crazy ants protect them from the fire ant venom?
A) It deactivates enzymes in the fire ant venom. B) It raises the pH which crystallizes the fire ant venom. C) It melts the lipids in the fire ant venom. D) It turns the polysaccharides in the fire ant venom into monosaccharides.
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 57) Scientists use carbon dating to determine the age of fossils. 14C is a rare isotope of carbon that has a half life of 5730 years and decays into 14N. By measuring the amount of 14C remaining in a fossil, scientists can estimate when the organism died to within 60,000 years. The atomic numbers of C is 6 and of N is 7.
57.1)
The most common isotope of carbon is
12
C.
14
C has____ than
12
C.
A) more protons B) more neutrons C) fewer neutrons D) fewer protons E) more electrons
57.2)
14
C and
14
N have the same
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A) atomic number. B) number of protons. C) mass number. D) number of neutrons. E) number of electrons.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 2 1) TRUE Water is a compound since it contains more than one chemical element. Please see sections 2.2 and 2.3 for more information. 2) FALSE Proteins are compounds, but because they are made of multiple elements. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 3) TRUE Formation of a polymer implies that several chemical elements are involved in the monomers, so both monomers and polymers must be compounds. Please see section 2.2 and 2.5 for more information. 4) FALSE Carbon is a single element, while compounds must involve multiple elements. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 5) TRUE In understanding water's function as a solvent, hydrophilic molecules are paired with polar molecules that can be dissolved easily by the polarwater molecule. Please see section2.3 for more information. 6) FALSE Although proteins have many functions, and have structures determined by the DNA genetic code, protein functions do not include storage and inheritance of genetics. Please seesection 2.5 for more information. 7) D
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These four bulk elements are required for making the macromolecules which compose all living things. Please see section 2.1 8) C The atomic number is unique to eachelement. Please see section 2.1B for more information. 9) E Ions can be positively or negatively charged due to the gain or loss of electrons. Please see section 2.1 for more information. 10) C Mass number is the total number of protons and neutronsin the nucleus of an atom. Please see section 2.1 for more information. 11) B Isotopes of the same element behave similarly in chemical reactions since they have the same number of outer shell electrons. Please see section 2.1 for more information. 12) C For elements other than hydrogen and helium, the maximum number of outer shell electrons is eight. Please see sections 2.1 and 2.2 for more information. 13) E Atoms are most stable when their valence shells are full. Please see sections 2.1 and 2.2 for more information. 14) A Sharing electrons leads to strong covalent bonds. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 15) C
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Ionic bonds involve ions and transferred electrons. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 16) B In this bond, chlorine gains an electron and sodium loses one. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 17) C In forming the bond in sodium chloride, sodium donates an electron which chlorine accepts. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 18) D When bonded atoms pull unequally on electrons, the resulting covalent bond is polar, with a net partial charge on each atom. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 19) C Hydrogen bonds form between adjacent water molecules due to the polar nature of their covalent bonds. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 20) A Liquids evaporate as their molecules obtain enough energy to escape from solution into the atmosphere. Please see section 2.3 for more information. 21) B Water is less dense when frozen than when liquid due to the structure of ice that results because of hydrogen bonding. Please see section 2.3 for more information. 22) D A chemical reaction shows the progress from reactants to products. Please see section 2.3 for more information. Version 1
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23) D Acids have low pH's, with more protons in solution. Please see section 2.4 for more information. 24) C Bases take up hydrogen ions and raise pH. Please see section 2.4 for more information. 25) E Strong acids have low pH's, well below the neutral pH of 7. Please see section 2.4 for more information. 26) A Weak acids change pH by lowering it, but not by a large amount. Please see section 2.4 for more information. 27) C A pH of 7 means that there is nonet excess of hydrogen or hydroxyl ions in solution. Please see section 2.4 for more information. 28) E Strong bases make pH swing much higher, away from 7. Please see section 2.4 for more information. 29) E Organic molecules, while they may include other elements, by definition must contain hydrogen and carbon. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 30) D All living things are made of carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids, and proteins. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 31) C
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Monomers are turned into polymers in living systems by the removal of water, dehydration. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 32) A When water is added chemically to a bond between the subunits in a polymer, breaking that bond, the reaction is a hydrolysis reaction. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 33) C Monosaccharides are single sugars molecules not linked to any others. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 34) E Starch is a carbohydrate, not a lipid. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 35) D Proteins are made of amino acids linked by the removal of water. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 36) B Amino acids have amino and carboxyl groups in common, and they vary based on the identity of their R groups. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 37) C Peptide bonds link successive amino acids in a protein. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 38) A Nucleic acids are polymers, and they are composed of a set of four nucleotides linked by the removal of water. Please see section 2.5 for more information.
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39) D Water is a polar molecule composed of three atoms of two elements. Please see section 2.3 for more information. 40) C Water molecules' ability to make hydrogen bonds is critical for their function in cells, so any substitute for water would probably make the same bonds. Please see section 2.3 for more information. 41) B Internal bonds in water molecules are polar covalent bonds. Please see section 2.3 for more information. 42) A All material things are made of matter and have energy in them. Please see section 2.1 for more information. 43) E The cohesiveness of water molecules leads to tighter bonding between them than in other solvents, and thus the difficulty/pain involved in a belly flop. Please see section 2.3 for more information. 44) A Light and heat are examples of energy, which is the ability to do work. On the other hand, matter is anything that takes up space, such as organisms, rocks, water, and gases. See section 2.1 for more information. 45) A The human body is made, mostly, of organic compounds, so it and organic compounds share common elements. Please see section 2.1 for more information. 46) C Version 1
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Proteins generally have more kinds of monomers than other large polymers, so they can have a greater diversity of shapes and functions. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 47) C Molecules involve multiple atoms, and compounds involve multiple elements. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 48) A Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins, required in reporting on nutrition labels, are organic molecules composed mainly of carbons, hydrogens, and oxygens. Please seesection 2.1for more information. 49) E Without proper homeostasis of pH controls by buffers and other body functions, relatively small numerical pH changes can result in potentially deadly consequences. Please see section2.4 for more information. 50) B For all known life, there are four nucleotides common in DNA, and the four nucleotides of RNA are similar with one substituted nucleotide. Please seesection 2.5 for more information. 51) E Hydrogenation is a technological manipulation that converts less expensive plant oils to forms that taste to us, as economic consumers, more like animal fats. Please seesection 2.5for more information. 52) C The majority of carbohydrate functions are related to energy and energy storage. Please see section 2.5 and table 2.4 for more information. 53) A Version 1
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Whether used for storage or structure, the number and arrangement of monomers in carbohydrates change the properties most, as cells use them. Please seesection 2.5 for more information. 54) A The tawnycrazy ants' venom detoxifies the fire ants' venom. Please see the "Investigating Life" section. 55) A The control group consisted of tawny crazy ants with open venom glands since the scientists were testing the ability of the tawny ants' own venom to help withstand the fire ant venom. See the "Investigating Life" section. 56) A The formic acid in the venom of the tawny crazy ants lowers the pH thereby deactivating the enzymes in the fire ant venom. Please see the"Investigating Life" section. 57) Section Break 57.1) B Higher mass number means that more neutrons are present, for isotopes of the same element. Please see section 2.1 for more information. 57.2) C Different elements can have the same mass number depending on what isotopes are being compared. Please see sections 2.1 and 2.2 for more information.
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Chapter 3 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) If you collected a piece of cell coating found directly external to a eukaryotic plasma membrane, and chemical tests showed that it was made of cellulose, you would expect to see plasmodesmata if observed with an electron microscope. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) If you were examining a plasmodesma under a microscope, you would expect to find a plant cell at each end. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) If you found a piece of animal tissue that did not allow fluid to cross between cells, you would predict that it contained tight junctions. ⊚ ⊚
4)
Scientists have discovered a few prokaryotic cells do have internal membranes. ⊚ ⊚
5)
true false
Magnetism-detecting bacteria turn with an applied magnetic field. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
true false
Some prokaryotes do have internal membranes, used in detecting gravity. ⊚ ⊚
true false
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7)
The cytoskeleton consists of microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) Endosymbiosis is a theory based on the presence of structures like chloroplasts and ribosomes, which resemble cells from prokaryotic domains, in eukaryotic cells. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) Endosymbiosis is a theory based on the resemblance of chloroplasts and mitochondria to bacteria. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10) What do a pine tree, an octopus, and a bacterium have in common at the cellular level?
A) nothing in common B) nuclei C) blood supply D) cancerous tissues E) genetic material
11) was
The scientist given credit for first using the term "cell" to describe the basic unit of life
A) Mathias Schleiden. B) Robert Hooke. C) Carl Woese. D) Rudolf Virchow. E) J. Craig Venter.
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12)
Why are cells called "the fundamental unit of life"?
A) All known organisms have one or more cells. B) Earliest life on Earth is hypothesized to have been single-celled. C) Some cells are separate living entities that can survive individually. D) Cells are the smallest unit of life that can function independently. E) All answers are correct.
13)
The scientist(s) given credit for formulating the "cell theory" was (were)
A) Robert Hooke. B) Carl Woese. C) J. Craig Venter. D) Mathias Schleiden and Theodore Schwann. E) Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
14) Which component of the cell theory argues against life on Earth evolving from inorganic molecules?
A) All organisms are made of one or more cells. B) The cell is the fundamental unit of all life. C) All cells come from preexisting cells. D) Cells are small in size. E) All cells are either prokaryotic or eukaryotic.
15) The scientist given credit for adding the third component to the cell theory, all cells come from preexisting cells, was
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A) Robert Hooke. B) Theodor Schwann. C) Rudolf Virchow. D) Carl Woese. E) J. Craig Venter.
16)
The original three components of the cell theory are that
A) all organisms have DNA, DNA is the fundamental unit of life, and all cells come from preexisting cells. B) all organisms are made of one or more cells, the cell is the fundamental unit of life, and all cells come from preexisting cells. C) all organisms have DNA, all organisms are made of cells, and all cells produce proteins. D) all organisms are made of one or more cells, the cell is the fundamental unit of life, and all cells have a nucleus. E) all organisms are made of one or more cells, all cells contain DNA, and all cells come from preexisting cells.
17)
How do cells avoid surface area limitations?
A) all of the choices B) flattened shape C) long and thin shape D) transportation system that circulates materials inside the cell E) many microscopic extensions
18) Which of the following are the primary components of the cell membrane and contribute to its semi-permeability property?
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A) cholesterols B) proteins C) phospholipids D) enzymes E) sugars
19)
A phospholipid molecule
A) has a hydrophilic head that is repelled by water. B) has hydrophilic tails that are repelled by water. C) has a hydrophilic head that is attracted to water. D) has a hydrophobic head that is repelled by water. E) has hydrophobic tails that are attracted to water.
20)
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an animal cell membrane?
A) It has a fluid structure. B) It has a rigid structure. C) It has a fluid mosaic structure. D) It has a bilayer of phospholipids. E) It contains cholesterol.
21) The phospholipid bilayer of membranes allows lipids and small nonpolar molecules to pass across membranes, but prohibits the passage of ions and polar molecules. This occurs because the phospholipid tails are
A) always saturated. B) hydrophilic and hydrophobic. C) always unsaturated. D) hydrophilic and selectively permeable. E) hydrophobic and selectively permeable.
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22)
Eukaryotic cells
A) have cell walls with peptidoglycan. B) are usually smaller than prokaryotic cells. C) have nucleiods. D) have membrane-bound organelles. E) do not usually have a nucleus.
23)
The three domains in the Woese system of classification are
A) Bacteria, Animalia, and Plantae. B) Fungi, Protista, and Animalia. C) Archaea, Eukarya, and Protista. D) Monera, Bacteria, and Eukarya. E) Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya.
24)
The cell wall of bacteria
A) helps prevent the cell from bursting. B) protects the cell. C) gives bacteria distinct shapes. D) may contain a capsule. E) All answers are correct.
25)
Penicillin halts bacterial infections by
A) stimulating a person's immune system. B) damaging the cell membrane. C) interfering with the construction of the cell wall. D) causing the DNA of a bacterium to mutate. E) All answers are correct.
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26) What type of membrane protein is involved in creating anchoring junctions between animal cells?
A) transport proteins B) enzymes C) recognition proteins D) adhesion proteins E) receptor proteins
27) What type of membrane protein is involved in passing ions and polar molecules across membranes?
A) transport proteins B) enzymes C) recognition proteins D) adhesion proteins E) receptor proteins
28)
Which pair of junctions, have the most analogous function?
A) plasmodesmata, gap junction B) plasmodesmata, tight junction C) tight junction, anchoring junction D) gap junction, anchoring junction E) anchoring junction, plasmodesmata
29)
The theory of endosymbiosis is based on
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A) the knowledge that ribosomes are structures found in bacteria, plants, and animals. B) the experiments in which bacteria were grown in plant cells and formedchloroplasts. C) the knowledge that chloroplasts and mitochondria resemble bacteria. D) evidence from the fossil record. E) similarities between chloroplasts and other organelles in animals.
30) Which of the following organelles would help you differentiate between plant and animal cells?
A) a centriole B) a ribosome C) a cell membrane D) a peroxisome E) a chloroplast
31)
The function of the nucleolus is
A) protein synthesis. B) photosynthesis. C) to transport materials out of the nucleus. D) to assemble components of ribosomes. E) to assemble DNA.
32) the
The most prominent organelle in most eukaryotic cells, that contains most of its DNA, is
A) endoplasmic reticulum. B) nucleus. C) ribosome. D) nucleolus. E) cell membrane.
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33) Which of the following roles is not performed by the rough endoplasmic reticulum nor the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
A) protein production B) lipid production C) detoxification of poisons D) DNA production E) vesicle formation for transport to the Golgi apparatus
34) If you asked students to describe the Golgi apparatus on an exam, you would deduct points if a student described it as
A) an organelle. B) a processing center. C) studded with ribosomes. D) a stack of membrane enclosed sacs. E) involved with secretion of cellular components.
35)
In order, the organelles involved in the production of milk are
A) nucleus, nuclear pore, rough ER, smooth ER, transport vesicle, Golgi body, and vesicle for secretion. B) nucleus, smooth ER, rough ER, nuclear pore, transport vesicle, Golgi body, and vesicle for secretion. C) nucleus, transport vesicle, rough ER, smooth ER, Golgi body, and vesicle for secretion. D) nucleus, nuclear pore, Golgi body, rough ER, transport vesicle, smooth ER, and vesicle for secretion. E) None of the answers are correct.
36)
Which of the following are cellular digestion centers?
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A) peroxisomes and ribosomes B) lysosomes and peroxisomes C) ribosomes and chloroplasts D) chloroplasts and ribosomes E) lysosomes and Golgi apparatus
37)
Chloroplasts are known for all of the following except being
A) glucose factories. B) responsible for respiration. C) found in plants. D) organelles that carry out photosynthesis. E) found in some protists.
38)
Mitochondria are known for all of the following except that they do not
A) have their own DNA. B) extract energy from food. C) have two membranes. D) have cristae. E) carry out photosynthesis.
39)
In most mammals, the mitochondrial DNA is inherited from
A) the father only. B) the mother and father. C) either parent. D) the mother only. E) Mitochondria are not found in mammals.
40)
In plant cells, a central vacuole
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A) produces protein. B) degrades molecules and organelles and maintains water pressure. C) produces mRNA. D) stores genetic information. E) produces energy from food.
41)
Which of the following are recycling centers for cells?
A) ribosomes and Golgi apparatus B) endoplasmic reticulum and chloroplasts C) mitochondria and nucleus D) central vacuole and lysosomes E) All answers choices are correct.
42)
A cytoskeleton is
A) a structure that aids in the process of cell division. B) found in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells. C) a system of tracks used for transport. D) composed of microtubules and microfilaments. E) All answers are correct.
43)
Flagella can be
A) found on prokaryotic cells. B) found on human sperm. C) used for movement. D) found on eukaryotic cells. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
44)
A protein channel linking the cytoplasm of adjacent cells is called
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A) a tight junction. B) a gap junction. C) an adhering junction. D) an adjacent junctions. E) a microtubular junction.
45) All eukaryotic cells produce proteins. Proteins that will be secreted from the cell are made by ribosomes attached to the
A) cell wall. B) chloroplast. C) rough endoplasmic reticulum. D) mitochondrion. E) Golgi apparatus.
46) Cells typically keep the surface to volume ratio high. If a cell was a cube and you doubled the height, width, and length of the cell, how much would the surface area increase?
A) 2 times greater B) 4 times greater C) It would stay the same. D) 9 times greater E) 8 times greater
47) Cells typically keep the surface to volume ratio high. If a cell was a cube and you doubled the height, width, and length of the cell, how much would the volume increase?
A) 2 times greater B) 8 times greater C) It would stay the same. D) 9 times greater E) 4 times greater
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48) What would be the reason for a scientist engineering a cell for a high surface area-tovolume ratio?
A) To maximize the relative surface area to exchange nutrients, water, and waste. B) To maximize the exchange of heat. C) To provide more volume to store extra organelles. D) To provide more volume to store nutrients. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
49) What is the advantage of a mature red blood cell having aflattened shaperather than a spherical shape?
A) It is easier for them to fit through arteries and veins. B) It provides more membrane for the electron transport chains where oxygen is consumed. C) It provides more receptor sites for the membrane-bound hemoglobin molecules which transport oxygen. D) It saves energy by making more membrane relative to the volume of the cell. E) It maximizes the relative surface area for gas exchange.
50) Eukaryotic cells are 10-100 times larger than prokaryotic cells. How do eukaryotic cells resolve the surface area to volume limitations that favor smaller cells?
A) They have pumps that move gasses and nutrients through the cell. B) Movement of materials is prevented in cells without a cell wall. C) Organelles keep reactions compartmentalized and concentrated. D) Gasses are taken up by active transport. E) None of the biochemical reactions in prokaryotes occur in eukaryotes.
51) You discover a new life form, and study it under an electron microscope. You find that it has no organelles, a peptidoglycan cell wall, and fatty acids in its plasma membrane. You conclude that the new life form is in domain
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A) Bacteria. B) Archaea. C) Eukarya. D) Protista. E) Animalia.
52)
Which of the following do plants use to transport nutrients between adjacent cells?
A) tight junction B) gap junction C) plasmodesmata D) anchoring junction E) cell wall
53) You are working on a forensics team and collect cells from a crime scene. The cells have a cell wall made of cellulose. This sample most likely came from
A) an animal. B) a bacterium. C) a plant. D) a fungus. E) an archaean.
54) What type of microscope would you use if you wanted to examine the movement of a freshwater protist?
A) light microscope B) transmission electron microscope C) scanning electron microscope D) light microscope and transmission electron microscope E) transmission and scanning electron microscopes
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55) Unlike microtubules, which operate in the cilia and flagella, what is the role of microfilaments in eukaryotic cells?
A) a component of the cytoskeleton B) provide strength during cell stretching and compression C) anchor cells to each other D) involved in muscle contractions with myosin protein E) All of the answers choices are correct.
56)
Bacteria with magnetosomes swim based on the direction of the
A) magnetic fields. B) gravity. C) sunlight. D) moving water. E) turbulence.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 3 1) TRUE Please see sections 3.1 and 3.6 for more information. 2) TRUE Please see section 3.6 for more information. 3) TRUE Tight junctions are used by tissues like those lining the intestines to hold fluid in one space. Please see section 3.6 for more information. 4) TRUE Some prokaryotic cells have internal membranes containing minerals used in detecting magnetic fields. Please see the Investigating Life box for more information. 5) TRUE Some prokaryotic cells have internal membranes containing minerals used in detecting magnetic fields. Please see the Investigating Life box for more information. 6) FALSE Some prokaryotic cells have internal membranes containing minerals used in detecting magnetic fields. Please see the Investigating Life box for more information. 7) TRUE The eukaryotic cytoskeleton consists of three parts. Please see section 3.5 for more information. 8) FALSE Version 1
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