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Chapter 01: Careers in the Automotive Industry 1. Currently there is a great shortage of qualified automotive technicians. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Electricity travels at the speed of sound. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Electronic components have no moving parts. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Often, according to terms of the warranty, the owner of a new car must pay a deductible charge. The manufacturer pays for all repairs over the deductible amount. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. A Federal Emissions Performance Warranty requires that the customer pay one-half of the repair charge. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. EPA refers to the Emission Protection Agency. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Aftermarket warranties are typically offered on used vehicles and may require the owner to pay an amount of money called a(n)______. a. deductible b. extended warranty c. limited warranty d. prorated amount ANSWER: a 8. NAPA service centers are franchised repair shops. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Repair estimates are required by law in most states. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 01: Careers in the Automotive Industry ANSWER: True 10. A hybrid vehicle has two separate sources of power. These two power sources can work together to move the vehicle, or each can power the vehicle on its own. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. By mandating cleaner diesel fuels, laws have influenced the design of diesel-engine-powered vehicles to get: a. annual or biannual inspections b. wider use of diesel engine vehicles c. clean-burning and highly efficient diesel engines d. safer automobiles ANSWER: c 12. Specialty technicians work on only one vehicle system (e.g., transmissions). a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. ASE certification is mandatory in most states. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Before taking the ASE L1 test, the technician must pass the Electricity and Engine Performance tests. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. Repair work performed on vehicles still under the manufacturer’s warranty is usually performed by ______. a. independent service shops b. dealerships c. specialty shops d. independent service shops or dealerships ANSWER: b 16. Which of the following businesses perform work on only one or two automotive systems? a. dealerships b. independent service shops c. specialty shops d. fleet service departments ANSWER: c 17. Normally, whose job is it to prepare a repair cost estimate for a customer? a. service manager b. parts manager c. master automotive technician d. service advisor ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 01: Careers in the Automotive Industry 18. To be successful, a parts counter person must possess all the following skills EXCEPT: a. sales skills b. repair skills c. vehicle knowledge d. inventory skills ANSWER: b 19. To be successful, today’s automotive technician must have ______. a. a sound understanding of automotive technology b. on-the-job experience c. continuous training in new technology d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: d 20. To earn ASE certification, a technician must get full-time, hands-on work experience as an automotive technician for at least _______ years. a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: b 21. A technician who passes all eight basic ASE automotive certification tests is certified as a(n) ______. a. automotive technician b. master automotive technician c. service manager d. parts manager ANSWER: b 22. The BMW Step Program is an example of a(n) ______. a. apprenticeship program b. cooperative education program c. postgraduate education program d. job-shadowing program ANSWER: c 23. Wholesale auto parts stores that sell aftermarket parts and supplies to service shops and the general public are called ______. a. warehouse distributors b. mass merchandisers c. jobbers d. freelancers ANSWER: c 24. Working for a new car dealer has the advantage of: a. technical support b. specialized equipment c. ongoing training d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: d 25. Technician A says that after an individual passes a particular ASE certification exam, that person is certified in that test area. Technician B says all the questions on an ASE certification exam are multiple-choice-type questions. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 01: Careers in the Automotive Industry 26. An expert technician is one who guides, encourages, and counsels automotive students, explains things that may not be clear to them, and stays in contact with them during their training and entry into the workforce. This person is called a ______. a. mentor b. counselor c. patron d. benefactor ANSWER: a 27. ASE tests are being discussed. Technician A says ASE is administered by the Department of Transportation. Technician B says most states require technicians to be ASE certified before they can work on automobiles. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 28. Repair shops are being discussed. Technician A says a franchise shop typically repairs all areas of the vehicle. Technician B says dealerships are typically owned by the car manufacturer. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 29. Technician A says fleet service and maintenance technicians only work on trucks. Technician B says fleet service technicians in some large fleets are authorized to do warranty work for the manufacturer who sold the vehicles to the fleet. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 30. Technician A says the shop foreman’s primary job is to help technicians with difficult jobs. Technician B says the shop foreman is sometimes called the lead technician. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 31. Service advisors are being discussed. Technician A says the service advisor serves as the liaison between the customer and the technician. Technician B says most shops use computers to generate repair orders and estimates, therefore having good computer skills is essential for a service advisor. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 32. ASE certification is being discussed. Technician A says there are eight basic automobile technician certification areas. Technician B says you must pass all eight to become an ASE Master Technician. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 01: Careers in the Automotive Industry 33. Technician A says cooperative education programs are typically two years in length. Technician B says students in cooperative education programs spend the first year in the classroom and the second year working in the field. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 34. Technician A says a specialty shop works on only one brand of car. Technician B says specialty shops work on only one or two systems of the automobile. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 35. Electronic components ______. a. have no moving parts c. do not require periodic adjustment ANSWER: d
b. are durable d. All the answers are correct.
36. The typical new car warranty covers repairs and replacement parts for ______. a. 1 year/15,000 miles b. 2 years/24,000 miles c. 3 years/36,000 miles d. 5 years/50,000 miles ANSWER: c 37. The Federal Emissions Performance Warranty covers the catalytic converter for ______. a. 2 years/24,000 miles b. 5 years/50,000 miles c. 8 years/80,000 miles d. 10 years/100,000 miles ANSWER: c 38. In a large dealership, the service director oversees the operation of ______. a. the service department b. the parts department c. the body shop d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: d 39. To remain certified, ASE certified technicians must be retested every _____ years. a. two b. four c. five d. seven ANSWER: c 40. Two technicians are discussing career opportunities. Technician A says working at a dealership helps one to develop into a well-rounded technician. Technician B says working at a dealership provides excellent opportunities for ongoing training. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 01: Careers in the Automotive Industry 41. Which of the following jobs require(s) a good working knowledge of all automotive systems and all major components? a. parts specialist b. service advisor c. service manager d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: d 42. Parts manufactured by the same company that built the vehicle or the company that supplied the parts to the manufacturer of the vehicle are called _____ parts. a. aftermarket b. OEM (original equipment manufacturer) c. secondary replacement d. manufacturer’s specification ANSWER: b 43. What part listed here is NOT covered by the Federal Emissions Defect Warranty? a. ignition module b. mass airflow sensor c. water pump d. fuel pressure regulator ANSWER: c 44. Technician A says some shops have technician teams, consisting of several technicians with different levels of expertise. Technician B says the lead tech is sort of the shop foreman of the team. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 45. The employee who helps technicians with more difficult tasks and serves as the quality-control expert is called the _________________. ANSWER: shop foreperson shop lead 46. Writing accurate repair estimates is a responsibility of the ____________________. ANSWER: service advisor service writer consultant 47. Many independent shops are started by: a. shop forepersons b. service advisors c. vehicle manufacturers d. technicians eager to be their own boss ANSWER: d 48. To generate repair orders and estimates and to schedule the shop’s workload, most shops today use _____________. ANSWER: computers 49. New technicians often begin their career in a new car dealership by performing _____________: a. cost estimation b. diagnostics c. PDI d. All the answers are correct. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 01: Careers in the Automotive Industry ANSWER: c 50. Maintaining parts inventories is the responsibility of the ____________________. ANSWER: parts specialist parts counter person 51. Typically car batteries are sold with a(n) ____________________ warranty. ANSWER: prorated 52. The person responsible for the operation of the entire service department at a large dealership or an independent shop is the _______________. ANSWER: service manager 53. A large parts distribution center is commonly known as a(n) ____________________. ANSWER: warehouse distributor 54. The ____________________ schedule lists the service and maintenance operations that keep the vehicle working efficiently; it may include oil and filter changes, coolant and lubrication services, and replacement of belts, hoses, and spark plugs. ANSWER: preventive maintenance PM 55. A local auto parts store that sells to shops and do-it-yourselfers is often called a(n) ____________________. ANSWER: jobber 56. The most commonly sought advanced ASE certification for automotive technicians is the L1, which is the Advanced ____________________. ANSWER: Engine Performance 57. What are the two warranties mandated by the federal government? ANSWER: Federal Emissions Defect Warranty, Federal Emissions Performance Warranty 58. What is the primary reason technicians cannot repair a particular problem on today’s vehicles? ANSWER: They cannot repair the problem because they cannot find the cause of the problem . 59. Describe cooperative education. ANSWER: Cooperative education is a program in which the student spends some time in school and some time on the job. 60. Name an example of a franchise repair shop. ANSWER: Goodyear Firestone Midas AAMCO 61. Why is today’s automotive industry considered a global industry? ANSWER: Worldwide (global) mergers, parts distribution systems, and vehicle assembling. Manufacturers from around the world partner to build vehicles and make components for domestic and foreign markets. Also, carmakers Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 01: Careers in the Automotive Industry from other countries compete companies in the United States for domestic and foreign sales. 62. How does a service technician become certified? ANSWER: Enroll, pass ASE test(s), and have two years of experience. You may receive credit toward the 2-year experience requirement by completing formal training. 63. What is ASE? ANSWER: An abbreviation for the National Institute for Automotive Service Excellence certification 64. Identify five different types of businesses that hire service technicians. ANSWER: Dealerships, independent shops, specialty shops, franchise repair shops, and fleet service 65. Why are electronics so heavily used on today’s vehicles? ANSWER: They are dependable, lightweight, and fast, and they have no moving parts. 66. What is the primary purpose of a job-shadowing program? ANSWER: To expose the student to real-world situations; to let the student see what it takes to be a successful technician 67. What is a prorated warranty? ANSWER: The amount of the repair bill or parts cost covered by a warranty that decreases over time. 68. Where can all of a car's warranty information be found? ANSWER: In the vehicle’s owner’s manual 69. What is the difference between a mechanic and an automotive technician? ANSWER: A mechanic has the skills necessary to service mechanical systems. A technician has the training and knowledge to work on all systems of the car, including the electrical, electronic, hydraulic, pneumatic, and mechanical systems. 70. The ASE xEV High-Voltage Electrical Safety certification is for: a. light-duty vehicles b. medium-duty vehicles c. heavy-duty vehicles d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: d 71. How can you take a test for any ASE certification? a. by working full time for two years in the industry c. by purchasing test vouchers and logging into a secured testing site ANSWER: c
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b. by being enrolled in an apprenticeship program d. by working at a jobber
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Chapter 02: Workplace Skills 1. Even if you’ve never had a job, you may still have skills to offer an employer. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. A reference can be anyone, including a family member. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. A résumé must be typewritten. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Why should you prepare a résumé, even if a potential employer does not require it? a. It forces you to review your qualifications for the b. So that you can list all your previous employers job. c. It keeps all your information in one place. d. So that employers know you are prepared for everything ANSWER: a 5. All prior jobs should be listed on a résumé. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. The same cover letter should be sent out to all potential employers. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. A job application is a legal document. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. As a general rule, what percentage of your gross pay should you expect to be your net pay? a. 50% b. 80% c. 90% d. 70% ANSWER: d 9. Nonverbal communication includes body language and tone of voice. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 02: Workplace Skills ANSWER: True 10. An automobile is usually one of the largest expenses a customer has. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. The flat-rate system favors technicians who work in small shops. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. Symptom-based diagnostic charts focus on a definition of the problem and offer a list of possible causes of the problem. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. When explaining a repair to a customer, you should always use precise and complex technical terms to impress the customer with your technical abilities. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. New rules and regulations, supervisors, fellow employees, vehicle systems, and vehicles are can all be considered potential sources of stress. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. All the following are considered technical skills EXCEPT: a. ability to use a computer b. ability to work with people c. ability to play video games d. ability to solve puzzles ANSWER: b 16. All of the following are considered soft skills EXCEPT: a. ability to work independently b. ability to persuade people c. ability to do math problems d. ability to negotiate with others ANSWER: c 17. Who would NOT make a good reference? a. teacher b. coach c. adult friend d. uncle ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 02: Workplace Skills 18. Ideally, a résumé should be _____ pages long. a. one to two b. two to three c. three to four d. four to five ANSWER: a 19. A cover letter should have _____ paragraph(s). a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: c 20. Résumés are being discussed. Technician A says it is best to drop off a résumé in person. Technician B says to call back after three days to make sure the employer received the résumé . Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 21. Technician A says getting ready for an interview should include learning about the company. Technician B says getting ready for an interview should include making a list of questions that might be asked. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 22. What could be a benefit of sending a thank-you note even when you do not get the job? a. You will feel better with yourself. b. The interviewer may think of you the next time a similar job becomes available. c. It may make the interviewer reconsider d. It will give you the excuse to talk to them about their the decision. decision. ANSWER: b 23. The withholding allowance certificate form is also called a ______. a. W-1 b. W-2 c. W-3 d. W-4 ANSWER: d 24. A technician turns in 50 hours of work in a 40-hour workweek. He is being paid $20 per hour flat rate. How much is he actually making per hour? a. $20 per hour b. $50 per hour c. $25 per hour d. None of the above ANSWER: c 25. All the following are employers’ responsibilities EXCEPT: a. wages b. productivity c. instruction d. benefits ANSWER: b
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Chapter 02: Workplace Skills 26. Which of the following are considered part of effective communications? a. listening b. reading c. writing d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: d 27. Which of the following is NOT an employee responsibility? a. following directions b. loyalty c. attendance d. opportunity ANSWER: d 28. Critical thinking is being discussed. Technician A says it is a way to evaluate something with bias. Technician B says good critical thinkers begin the process of problem solving by observation. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 29. All of the following are diagnostic aids EXCEPT: a. decision trees c. a combination of “decision trees” and “symptom-based diagnostic” ANSWER: d
b. symptom-based diagnostic d. evaluating the problem based on previous experience
30. The first step in a logical diagnostic approach is to ______. a. gather information b. verify the problem exists c. research the information d. None of the answers is correct. ANSWER: a 31. All the following are positive technician behaviors EXCEPT: a. initiative b. honesty c. experience d. self-esteem ANSWER: c 32. Quitting a job is being discussed. Technician A says to send a letter of resignation in the mail. Technician B says to give two weeks' notice. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 33. Technician A says a bad driving record can prevent you from getting a job. Technician B says once you are hired, your employer cannot legally fire you if you lose your driver's license. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 34. Technician A says a former employer or manager is not a good reference to put on your resume. Technician B says Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 02: Workplace Skills only people who work in the automotive service industry should be used as references. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 35. Cover letters should be addressed to ______. a. the title of the person b. the name of the person c. “to whom it may concern” d. sir or madam ANSWER: b 36. A(n) ____________________ is an honest appraisal of yourself and your career goals. ANSWER: employment plan 37. Your personal marketing tools are your ________ and your __________. ANSWER: résumé, cover letter cover letter, résumé 38. When a technician is paid for the amount of work done based on the time an average technician needs to perform the job, the pay system is called _______ _________. ANSWER: flat rate 39. Working in an automotive facility requires communication with supervisors, fellow employees, and ____________________. ANSWER: customers 40. The meaning of words can be altered significantly by changing the ____________________ of your voice. ANSWER: tone 41. Name three things that an employment plan should contain. ANSWER: Short-term goals, long-term goals, and a list of prospective employers 42. What is the purpose of a personal skills inventory? ANSWER: It helps you to match your skills with an employer’s needs. 43. Name five things that a résumé should include. ANSWER: Contact information, skills/accomplishments, education, work experience, and a statement about references 44. Which of the following types of compensation allows you to get paid for the amount of work or labor hours you complete? a. flat rate b. hourly wage c. commission d. team system ANSWER: a 45. Explain the commission system for paying technicians. ANSWER: Technicians receive an hourly wage plus a percentage of what the shop received from the customer for performing various services. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 02: Workplace Skills 46. Why should you consider removing questionable content from your social media before beginning your job search? a. to prepare your résumé b. because some employers will consider it as part of their decisionmaking process c. to contact your possible d. because of the new material you will post when hired references ANSWER: b 47. Who is responsible for how quickly you climb the ladder to success? a. employer b. teacher c. yourself d. mentor ANSWER: c 48. What is a way to identify companies that are hiring? a. school’s job posting board b. job fair c. job or employee website d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: d 49. What is the best option for sharing your résumé online or by email? a. in a social media account b. as a PDF file c. as a Word file d. as a picture file ANSWER: b 50. Who assigns flat-rate times for warranty repairs? a. automobile manufacturer b. employer c. legislation d. master technician ANSWER: a 51. All of the following are common benefits for automotive technicians EXCEPT : a. health insurance b. paid vacations c. uniforms d. labeled parking spot ANSWER: d 52. Which of the following is an example of hosting sites that offer free basic webpages and résumé-building services? a. Wix.com b. Visual CV c. Weebly d. all of them ANSWER: d
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Chapter 03: Basic Theories and Math 1. Oxygen exists as a single atom. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. What is inertia? a. The tendency of an object at rest to remain at rest c. both A and B ANSWER: c
b. The tendency of an object in motion to stay in motion d. neither A nor B
3. When the weight of a wheel and tire assembly is distributed equally around the center of wheel rotation, the wheel and tire have the proper dynamic balance. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. What is the technically correct unit of measurement for torque? a. Foot-pounds b. Pounds per foot c. Pounds d. Foot ANSWER: b 5. A force acting over a large area will exert less pressure per square inch than the same force acting over a smaller area. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Friction can be reduced only by lubrication. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Blaise Pascal constructed the first known hydraulic device. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Conduction is the transfer of heat through the movement of a heated object. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. When a piece of wood is burned, its energy is destroyed. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 03: Basic Theories and Math 10. One of the most abundant metals on earth is calcium. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Curb weight is the total weight of the vehicle including the driver, passengers, and cargo. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. All materials have a unique resonant or natural vibration frequency. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. Iron combines with hydrogen to form rust. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Matter can exist as a ______. a. gas b. liquid c. solid d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: d 15. Forces are being discussed. Technician A says centrifugal force tends to pull things toward the center of a circle. Technician B says centripetal force tends to push things away from the center of a circle. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 16. Technician A says materials that absorb fluids are impermeable substances. Technician B says that materials that adsorb fluids are permeable substances a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 17. The process that increases the hardness of the outer surfaces of steel while leaving the core relatively soft is called ______. a. heat treating b. carburizing c. anodizing d. electrolysis ANSWER: b 18. The starter motor in an automobile converts electrical energy to which type of energy? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 03: Basic Theories and Math a. chemical c. mechanical ANSWER: c
b. thermal d. radiant
19. Which automotive component converts mechanical energy to electrical energy? a. starter b. generator c. battery d. None of the answers is correct. ANSWER: b 20. Technician A says that frequency of a wave or vibration is the number of cycles per second. Technician B says the amplitude of a wave or vibration is the intensity or strength. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 21. What characteristic of an engine expresses how much the air and fuel mixture will be compressed as the cylinder moves from BDC to TDC? a. volumetric efficiency b. compression pressure c. compression ratio d. None of the answers is correct. ANSWER: c 22. Forces can be _____. a. turning b. balanced c. unbalanced d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: d 23. When two or more forces are applied to an object, the combined force is called the ______. a. centripetal force b. resultant c. gravity d. intensity ANSWER: b 24. Technician A says Newton’s first law of motion is the law of inertia. Technician B says Newton’s second law of motion says that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 25. The strength of an electrostatic force is called ______. a. current b. voltage c. watts d. amperage ANSWER: b 26. A force that does work and tends to turn things is ________. a. Inertia b. Momentum c. Torque d. All the answers are correct. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 03: Basic Theories and Math ANSWER: c 27. How many times a vibration occurs in one second is referred to as _____. a. frequency b. hertz c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 28. Sound is being discussed. Technician A says a decibel is a measurement of the intensity of a sound. Technician B says the pitch of a sound is based on its frequency. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 29. Motion is being discussed. Technician A says the inertia of an object at rest is called static inertia. Technician B says dynamic inertia refers to an object in motion. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 30. Which of the following laws pertains to the behavior of gases? a. Pascal’s law b. Newton’s law c. Hertz’s law d. Boyle’s law ANSWER: d 31. Which of the following objects contain heat? a. ice b. refrigerant c. fire d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: d 32. Heat measurement is being discussed. Technician A says a BTU is the amount of heat it takes to raise the temperature of one gram of water one degree Fahrenheit. Technician B say a calorie is the amount of heat it takes to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Celsius. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 33. The coefficient of drag (Cd) is _____. a. the total resistance to motion caused by air friction b. the rate of acceleration divided by time c. the distance a vehicle travels divided by time d. the amount of horsepower an engine produces divided by the friction of the driveline ANSWER: a 34. Technician A says both liquids and gases are fluids. Technician B says liquids can be compressed. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 03: Basic Theories and Math c. both A and B ANSWER: a
d. neither A nor B
35. You have a sealed hydraulic system with two cylinders connected to each other by a tube filled with hydraulic fluid. Piston #1 has an area of 1 sq. in. Piston #2 has an area of 4 sq. in. How much force is developed on piston #2 if 50 lbs. of force is applied to piston #1? a. 12.5 lbs. b. 50 lbs. c. 200 lbs. d. 500 lbs. ANSWER: c 36. The most common unit of vacuum is _____. a. pounds per square inch b. millibars c. newtons/per square meter d. inches of mercury ANSWER: d 37. All the following are types of heat transfer EXCEPT: a. convection b. radiation c. conduction d. inversion ANSWER: d 38. All the following are properties of metals EXCEPT: a. good electrical and heat conductivity b. low light reflectivity c. malleability d. ductility ANSWER: b 39. A galvanized part is made of iron or steel that has been coated with _____. a. tin b. zinc c. chromium d. nickel ANSWER: b 40. The strength of an electromagnet is dependent on _____. a. the number of coil windings (length of the conductor) b. the amount of current (amps) passing through the coil c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 41. Technician A says kinetic energy in the crankshaft is converted into electrical energy by the generator. Technician B says electrical energy in the generator is converted into chemical energy in the battery. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 42. The formula CID = π x R2 x L x N is used to calculate _____. a. compression ratio b. volumetric efficiency Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 03: Basic Theories and Math c. horsepower ANSWER: d
d. engine displacement
43. What units can be used to measure engine power? a. Watts b. Horsepower c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 44. When ice is warmed to 32°F, the heat needed to convert the ice into water without raising the temperature of the water is called what type of heat? a. latent b. polymorphous c. thermoscopic d. ambient ANSWER: a 45. Engine efficiency is expressed as a ____________________. ANSWER: percentage 46. When fuel burns in the engine cylinders, ____________________ energy is converted to ____________________ energy. ANSWER: thermal, mechanical 47. The volume of an engine’s cylinders determines its size, which is expressed as ____________________. ANSWER: displacement 48. The amount of engine coolant that should be mixed with water is a called a ____________________. ANSWER: ratio proportion 49. When applied forces are balanced, the object is said to be in ____________________. ANSWER: equilibrium 50. What type of balance exists when the weight thrown to the sides of a tire is equal when the assembly is rotating? ANSWER: Dynamic 51. The rate of increase in speed is called _________. ANSWER: Acceleration 52. The study of the effects of air on a moving object is _________. ANSWER: Aerodynamics 53. The rate at which torque is produced is known as _________. ANSWER: Horsepower 54. The change in atmospheric pressure is measured with a ____________________. ANSWER: barometer 55. Ten kilograms of gasoline weighs approximately how many pounds? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 03: Basic Theories and Math ANSWER: 22 twenty two 56. The tendency of an object at rest to remain at rest or the tendency of an object in motion to remain in motion is called _________. ANSWER: Inertia 57. The fixed pivot point on which a lever rotates is called the ____________________. ANSWER: fulcrum 58. If the driving gear has 11 teeth and the driven gear has 44 teeth, the gear ratio equals __________. ANSWER: 4:1 59. The unit of frequency is ____________________. ANSWER: hertz 60. Engine torque can be multiplied by ____________________. ANSWER: gears transmission 61. Calculate the displacement in liters of a four cylinder engine that has a bore of 88mm and a stroke of 94mm. ANSWER: 2.287 liters 2.3 liters 62. Calculate the compression ratio of an engine that has a cylinder volume of 450cc and a chamber volume of 52cc. ANSWER: 9.654 to 1 9.7 : 1 63. How much horsepower is generated by an engine running at 5800 rpm while producing 265 lbs./ft. of torque. ANSWER: 292.6 hp 64. A brake drum is stamped Maximum Diameter 203.5mm. What is the maximum diameter in inches (to three decimal places) that the drum can be used? ANSWER: 8.012 inches 65. What is the thermal efficiency of a vehicle that produces 34,000 BTU of work for each 100,000 BTU of fuel it uses? ANSWER: 34 percent 66. What is a mechanical advantage? ANSWER: When a lever is used in a manner that allows a small effort to overcome a larger load 67. Name five simple machines. ANSWER: lever inclined plane screw pulley wheel & axle gear 68. What is horsepower? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 03: Basic Theories and Math ANSWER: Horsepower is the rate at which torque is produced. One horsepower is 33,000 foot-pounds of work done in one minute. 69. What is a decibel? ANSWER: A numerical expression of the loudness of sound 70. What is a vacuum? ANSWER: The absence of air pressure (pure vacuum). Any air pressure that is less than atmospheric pressure (partial vacuum). 71. What is specific gravity? ANSWER: Specific gravity is the heaviness or relative density of a substance as compared to water. The specific gravity of pure water is 1.000. Substances that are lighter than water have a specific gravity of less than 1.000. Substances that are heavier than water have specific gravities of greater than 1.000. If a volume of a substance is twice as heavy as an equal volume of water, the specific gravity would be 2.000. 72. What is the pH scale? ANSWER: The pH scale is a measure of how acidic or basic (alkali) a solution is. Pure water is neutral and has a pH of 7.0. Acids have pH values of less than 7.0. Bases (alkalis) have pH values from 7.1 to 14. 73. What is an alloy? ANSWER: An alloy is a mixture of two or more metals. 74. What is tensile strength? ANSWER: Tensile strength is the ratio of the maximum load a material can support without breaking while being stretched, divided by the cross-sectional area of the material being tested. 75. How is an electromagnet constructed? ANSWER: A coil of wire is wrapped around an iron bar (core). When an electric current is sent through the coil, a strong magnetic field surrounds the coil and iron bar. 76. What is an example of passive aerodynamics? a. The shape of rear view mirrors b. Movable grill shutters c. Rocker arms d. Rollers ANSWER: a 77. What is an example of solid solution? a. Air b. Brass c. Rust d. Water ANSWER: b 78. What is the opposite of a catalyst? a. Inhibitor b. Oxidation c. Alkalis d. Reduction ANSWER: a
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Chapter 04: Automotive Systems 1. Henry Ford’s factory was the first to produce automobiles for sale to the public. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Gasoline-powered cars have been around for over 100 years. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. In 1985, Congress passed the CAFE standards. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. CAFE refers to “car average federal emissions.” a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Unibody construction is typical in most modern automobiles. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Unibody construction is typical in most modern trucks. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. In body-over-frame construction, the frame is the vehicle’s foundation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. In body-over-frame construction, the body is supported to the frame by large rubber mounts. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. A crossover vehicle is typically a cross between a station wagon and a SUV. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 04: Automotive Systems 10. An SUV can be based on either a truck or an automobile platform. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. What type of body shape vehicle can seat up to nine adults and tow up to six tons? a. SUV b. Pickups c. Sedan d. Convertibles ANSWER: a 12. A transaxle is a transmission that does not have a differential. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. What is the difference between a transmission and a transaxle? a. A transmission is found in RWD and a transaxle in FWD. c. A transaxle includes both transmission and differential in the same housing, whereas transmission does not. ANSWER: d
b. A transaxle contains final drive gears, while a transmission does not. d. All the options are correct.
14. A RWD vehicle that is equipped with independent rear suspension has a rear differential and drive axle shafts similar to a FWD vehicle. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. Many hybrid vehicles rely exclusively on the electric motor(s) during slow-speed operation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. Air-cooled engines are not generally used on modern cars because it is very difficult to maintain constant temperatures at the cylinders. If the cylinder temperature is not accurately controlled, the engine will not run efficiently. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 17. What is the reason for keeping the coolant system pressurized? a. To circulate coolant through the system b. To raise the boiling point of coolant c. To keep the system sealed d. To keep engine parts from warping ANSWER: b 18. The condenser in an air-conditioning system is typically located under the dashboard inside the passenger Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 04: Automotive Systems compartment. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 19. Which of the following is NOT a typical emission control system? a. exhaust gas recirculation (EGR) b. positive crankcase ventilation (PCV) c. thermostatic expansion valve (TEV) d. evaporative system (EVAP) ANSWER: c 20. Engine power is transferred to an automatic transmission through a ______. a. differential b. U-joint c. torque converter d. constant velocity joint ANSWER: c 21. Which of the following is NOT one of the strokes of a four-cycle engine? a. intake b. combustion c. power d. exhaust ANSWER: b 22. Which type of engine is classified as internal combustion? a. gasoline b. diesel c. both a and b d. neither a nor b ANSWER: c 23. What is the purpose of the valve train? a. It connects a piston to the crankshaft b. It supports the major parts of the engine c. It converts reciprocating motion to rotary motion d. It opens and closes the intake and exhaust valves of each cylinder ANSWER: d 24. All of the following are functions of the exhaust system EXCEPT: a. directing toxic gases away from the passenger compartment b. quieting the sound of the exhaust pulses c. burning or catalyzing pollutants in the exhaust gases d. removing hydrocarbon vapors from the crankcase ANSWER: d 25. Which component is located in the vehicle’s exhaust system? a. PCV b. catalytic converter c. sump d. PVC ANSWER: b
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Chapter 04: Automotive Systems 26. Which emission control system introduces exhaust gases into the intake air to reduce the formation of NOX (oxides of nitrogen) in the combustion chamber? a. PCV b. AIR c. evaporative d. EGR ANSWER: d 27. A torsion bar is associated with the ______. a. ignition system b. cooling system c. suspension system d. steering system ANSWER: c 28. A recirculating ball-type design is associated with the ______ system. a. ignition b. cooling c. suspension d. steering ANSWER: d 29. Technician A says liquid cooling an engine maintains a constant operating temperature. Technician B says that air cooling lets the engine operate more efficiently. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 30. Although the exact proper time varies with engine design, ignition must occur_____. a. just before the end of the compression stroke b. just after the beginning of the power stroke c. just before the beginning of the exhaust stroke d. just at the end of the intake stroke ANSWER: a 31. Modern engines do not use a distributor; instead they have one ignition coil _____. a. for each spark plug b. for every two spark plugs c. both a and b d. neither a nor b ANSWER: c 32. OBD II systems are being discussed. Technician A says the system can detect problems even before the driver is aware of a drivability problem. Technician B says when a problem is detected, the system will store a diagnostic trouble code in the vehicle’s computer’s memory. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 33. Technician A says a four-wheel drive vehicle uses a transfer case. Technician B says an all wheel drive [AWD] vehicle has a center differential. Who is correct? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 04: Automotive Systems a. A only c. both A and B ANSWER: c
b. B only d. neither A nor B
34. Automatic transmissions are being discussed. Technician A says they typically use planetary gearsets. Technician B says they always come equipped with a transfer case. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 35. Technician A says a torsion bar is a type of shock absorber. Technician B says shock absorbers slow the upward and downward movement of the vehicle after a bump. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 36. Steering systems are being discussed. Technician A says most passenger cars use a recirculating ball-type mechanism. Technician B says most pickup trucks and SUVs use a rack-and-pinion mechanism. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 37. Technician A says power brake systems use a vacuum booster to increase the force applied to the master cylinder. Technician B says power brake systems use hydraulic pressure from the power steering pump to increase the force applied to the master cylinder. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 38. CAFE is being discussed. Technician A says it refers to a vehicle’s emissions level. Technician B says it stands for Corporate Average Federal Emissions. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 39. Technician A says cooling system pressure is controlled by the radiator cap. Technician B says cooling system pressure is controlled by the thermostat. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 40. Hybrid vehicles are being discussed. Technician A says the hybrid batteries are recharged by the engine during normal driving. Technician B say the batteries are recharged when the brakes are applied as the vehicle slows down. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 04: Automotive Systems ANSWER: c 41. Which of the following components is not a part of an air-conditioning system? a. thermostatic expansion valve (TXV) b. accumulator c. evaporator d. refrigerant pressure regulator (RPR) ANSWER: d 42. Technician A says hybrid cars must be plugged in at night to recharge the batteries. Technician B says a hybrid cannot be a high-performance vehicle because the electric generator constantly uses energy to recharge the batteries, reducing power from the gasoline engine. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 43. On a vehicle with a manual transmission, the clutch assembly is connected to the ______. a. drive axle b. flywheel c. differential d. transmission output shaft ANSWER: b 44. Two technicians are discussing an OBD II vehicle that has a flashing check engine light. Technician A says there is problem with the engine lubrication or cooling system and the vehicle must not be driven, otherwise serious engine damage will occur. Technician B says there is a severe ignition misfire and the driver should reduce speed and engine load and have the vehicle serviced as soon as possible. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 45. What component listed here is not a part of the heating system? a. heater core b. blower motor c. heater and defroster ducts d. compressor ANSWER: d 46. The motion of the piston and the rotation of the crankshaft is monitored by the _____ position sensor. a. piston b. camshaft c. crankshaft d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: c 47. Which component in the cooling system raises the boiling point of the coolant? a. thermostat b. radiator c. water pump d. pressure cap ANSWER: d 48. Hybrid vehicles are being discussed. Technician A says a hybrid can run on electric power or on the internal combustion motor, but never on both. Technician B says the internal combustion engines used in hybrids are specially designed to be assisted by electric power and as a result are more fuel efficient and cleaner than conventional engines. Who is correct? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 04: Automotive Systems a. A only c. both A and B ANSWER: c
b. B only d. neither A nor B
49. Coolant is a mixture of antifreeze and ____________________. ANSWER: water 50. OBD II systems monitor ____________________ and its related components. ANSWER: emission controls 51. The burning of an air and fuel mixture is called _________. ANSWER: Combustion 52. The biggest part of the engine is the cylinder (engine) ____________________. ANSWER: block 53. The part that fits on top of the cylinder block to close off and seal the top of the cylinders is called a cylinder _______. ANSWER: head 54. An area in which the air/fuel mixture is compressed and burned is called the _______. ANSWER: combustion chamber 55. The piston is connected to the crankshaft by a(n) ____________________. ANSWER: connecting rod 56. The part that controls the movement of the engine’s valves is called a(n) ________. ANSWER: camshaft 57. The part that delivers a mixture of air and fuel to the intake ports is called the _____ manifold. ANSWER: intake 58. The part that carries exhaust gases away from the cylinders is called the _________ manifold. ANSWER: exhaust 59. The sump is also called the ____________________. ANSWER: oil pan 60. The nuts that hold the tire and rim to the axle flange are called ____________________ nuts. ANSWER: lug 61. The compressor in an air-conditioning system can be turned on and off by means of an electromagnetic ____________________. ANSWER: clutch 62. Air-conditioning compressor is normally driven by __________. a. Camshaft b. Crankshaft Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 04: Automotive Systems c. Water pump ANSWER: b
d. Electric motor
63. How does CAFE influence today’s vehicles? ANSWER: They require more fuel-efficient designs. 64. How is a unitized vehicle constructed? ANSWER: A unit body (unibody) is a stressed hull structure in which each of the body parts [panels] supplies structural support and strength to the entire vehicle. A unit body tends to be tightly constructed because the major parts are welded together. 65. Define internal combustion. ANSWER: The burning of fuel inside the engine 66. Describe the purpose of the evaporative emission control system. ANSWER: It takes fuel vapors from the fuel tank and directs them into the intake air. This lets them be burned rather than emitted into the atmosphere. 67. What is the purpose of the PCV system? ANSWER: It reduces HC emissions by drawing fuel and oil vapors from the crankcase and delivering them into the cylinder combustion chambers to be burned. 68. Identify three harmful engine exhaust pollutants. ANSWER: Hydrocarbons (HC), carbon monoxide (CO), oxides of nitrogen (NOX) 69. Describe how a vehicle's cooling system works. ANSWER: Heat from the engine is absorbed into the coolant. The hot coolant is routed through the radiator. The coolant is cooled and returned to the engine. Coolant flow is produced by the water pump. The thermostat maintains the coolant temperature. 70. Describe the purpose of a vehicle's lubrication system. ANSWER: The lubrication system reduces wear and friction by routing motor oil through passages to moving components. 71. What is the function of the ignition coil(s)? ANSWER: The ignition coil generates the electricity that fires the spark plug. The ignition coil transforms the low voltage of the battery into a burst of 30,000 to 100,000 volts. This burst is what ignites the fuel/air mixture. 72. Identify the components included in a vehicle’s charging system. ANSWER: AC generator [alternator], voltage regulator, indicator light [or gauge], and related wiring 73. What is the function of the ABS brake system? ANSWER: The function of ABS brakes is to prevent skidding and loss of control during hard braking. 74. Identify the nine major components of an air-conditioning system. ANSWER: Refrigerant Compressor Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 04: Automotive Systems Condenser Evaporator Receiver/dryer Accumulator Orifice tube Thermal expansion valve Lines and hoses 75. What component can be used to control the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator to obtain maximum cooling yet ensuring complete evaporation of the refrigerant within the evaporator. a. Receiver/dryer b. Fixed orifice tube c. Thermostatic expansion valve d. B and C are correct. ANSWER: d 76. Due to the current fuel economy and emission regulations, sales of this type of vehicle are expected to increase. a. SUV b. Electric vehicles c. Diesel-engine vehicles d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: b 77. What of the following is NOT a common alternative fuel? a. LPG b. Methanol c. CNG d. Hydrogen ANSWER: d 78. What is the process by which a vehicle’s kinetic energy can be captured while it is decelerating in a hybrid vehicle is called? a. Regenerative braking b. Antilock braking c. TXV d. Recharging ANSWER: a 79. What is the function of the internal combustion engine in a true series HEV? a. Drive the vehicle at high speed b. Recharge batteries while braking c. Drive vehicle’s rear axle d. Drive the generator ANSWER: d 80. What type of transmission uses two variable diameter pulleys and a metal belt to drive the vehicle? a. Transaxle b. Manual transmission c. CVT d. AWD ANSWER: c 81. What are the main types of components used by an electronic control? a. Input sensors b. A computer c. Output devices d. All options are correct. ANSWER: d
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Chapter 05: Hand Tools and Shop Equipment 1. The United States passed the Metric Conversion Act in 1985. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. One inch equals 2.54 centimeters. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. One square inch equals 6.452 square centimeters. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. One liter equals 61.02 cubic inches. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. One liter equals 3.7854 gallons. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Ten inch pounds of torque equals 13.558 Newton (N) meters. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. One bar equals one pound per square inch. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Bolt length is measured from the top surface of the head to the end of the threads. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. A telescoping gauge may be used to measure the outside diameter of an object. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 05: Hand Tools and Shop Equipment 10. Metric and SAE wrenches are interchangeable. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. When installing a new hacksaw blade, the teeth should face rearward. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. The acetylene tank can be placed horizontally or vertically when heating and cutting with an oxyacetylene torch. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. A tapered punch is used to line up bolt holes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. A 12-point socket has more grip than a 6-point socket. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. What type of wrench should be used to loosen or tighten brake lines or tubing fittings? a. open-end b. box-end c. combination d. flare nut ANSWER: d 16. Which of the following screwdrivers is like a Phillips but has a flatter and blunter tip? a. standard b. torx c. pozi-drive d. clutch head ANSWER: c 17. Which of the following types of pliers is best for grasping small parts? a. adjustable b. needle-nose c. retaining ring d. snap ring ANSWER: b 18. An extractor is used for removing broken ______. a. seals b. bushings c. pistons d. bolts ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 05: Hand Tools and Shop Equipment 19. The tensile strength of a metric bolt can be identified by ______. a. numerical grade markings b. radial lines c. both a and b d. neither a nor b ANSWER: a 20. Which source of information will give you the most detail about a specific system or part? a. automotive technology textbooks b. aftermarket system service manuals c. owner’s manual d. manufacturers’ service manual ANSWER: d 21. Which of the following measurements requires the use of a precision straightedge as well as a feeler gauge? a. piston ring end gap b. connection rod side clearance c. crankshaft end play d. cylinder head warpage ANSWER: d 22. Machine screws can have a(n) _____ head. a. round b. torx c. oval d. all answers are correct ANSWER: d 23. Technician A says antiseize compound is used to prevent bolts from seizing in aluminum. Technician B says thread sealant is used to prevent leaks. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 24. Which screwdriver design has a square tip? a. pozi-drive b. torx c. clutch d. scrulox ANSWER: d 25. Technician A says a vernier caliper can be used to measure the outside diameter of something. Technician B says a vernier caliper can be used to measure the inside diameter of a bore. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 26. Technician A says a tap cuts external threads. Technician B says a die cuts internal threads. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 27. All of the following are major components of a micrometer EXCEPT? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 05: Hand Tools and Shop Equipment a. Frame c. Sleeve ANSWER: d
b. Thimble d. Vernier
28. Technician A uses a punch to align holes in parts during assembly. Technician B uses a punch to drive out rivets. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 29. Technician A uses a small hole gauge and micrometer to measure the inside diameters of small bores. Technician B uses a dial caliper to take depth measurements. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 30. A measurement must be made within one ten-thousandth of an inch. Technician A uses a machinist’s rule. Technician B uses a standard micrometer. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 31. All the following are types of lifts EXCEPT: a. frame contact b. body contact c. wheel contact d. axle engaging ANSWER: b 32. A straightedge and feeler gauge are used to measure _____. a. clearances b. warpage c. runout (wobble) d. endplay ANSWER: b 33. A 3/8 inch UNC bolt is being discussed. Technician A says that the bolt diameter is 3/8 inch and that it has 16 threads per inch. Technician B says that the bolt meets the measurement standards developed by the University of North Carolina. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 34. Technician A says a bolt may break because the fillet is damaged. Technician B says that a bolt may become fatigued and break if it is undertightened. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c
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Chapter 05: Hand Tools and Shop Equipment 35. Technician A torques critical parts using an impact wrench. Technician B torques critical parts with an air ratchet. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 36. The bolts used to attach an engine sling to the engine must thread into the cylinder head or block _____ times the diameter of the bolt. a. 1 b. 1 c. 2 d. 2 ANSWER: b 37. If the number 8.8 is stamped on the head of a bolt, the bolt is ______. a. a metric bolt b. a UNC bolt c. a UNF bolt d. a grade 8 bolt ANSWER: a 38. NPT stands for ______. a. nickel plated thread c. nominal proportion thread ANSWER: d
b. nonplated thread d. national pipe thread
39. Technician A says coarse threaded bolts are used where superior holding force is necessary. Technician B says bolts that have rolled threads are 30 percent stronger than bolts with cut threads. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 40. In an oxyacetylene welding torch the acetylene hose is colored _____. a. red b. blue c. green d. yellow ANSWER: a 41. Turning effort [the amount of torque it takes to maintain rotation of a gear or shaft] can be easily measured using a what type of torque wrench? a. click b. dial c. digital readout d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: c 42. Technician A removes rivets with a hammer and screwdriver. Technician B removes rivets with a hammer and punch. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b
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Chapter 05: Hand Tools and Shop Equipment 43. A dial caliper is accurate to _____ inch. a. .0001 b. .001 c. .002 d. .010 ANSWER: c 44. To prevent vibration from loosening the fasteners, what do locknuts have inserted into a section of the threads? a. copper b. aluminum c. polycarbonate d. nylon ANSWER: d 45. When driving out rusted bolts, Technician A places the round end of a ball-peen hammer over the bolt and then hits the flat end of the ball-peen hammer with a sledge hammer. Technician B uses a Phillips tip screwdriver and a ball peen hammer to drive out small rusted bolts. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 46. When you turn on a grinder, where should you be standing? a. in front of it b. behind it c. beside it d. across the room ANSWER: c 47. What type of wrench is safer, faster, and easier to use than any other in many situations? a. Socket and ratchet b. Adjustable-end c. Flare nut d. Open-end ANSWER: a 48. The two systems of weights and measures that exist side by side in the United States are the British Imperial (U.S. customary) system and the ____________________ system. ANSWER: International Metric 49. A UNC bolt with three radial lines (marks) on its head has a tensile strength grade of ____________________. ANSWER: five 5 50. The ____________________ wrench has an open-end jaw on one end and a box-end on the other. ANSWER: combination 51. A(n) ____________________ wrench has one fixed jaw and one movable jaw. ANSWER: adjustable 52. A(n) ____________________ screwdriver has a six-pronged tip. ANSWER: torx Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 05: Hand Tools and Shop Equipment 53. Combination pliers are often called ____________________ pliers. ANSWER: slip-joint 54. To avoid personal injury, you should always use files with a(n) ____________________. ANSWER: handle plastic handle wooden handle 55. What is the iATN? a. International Account for Transportation and Nature c. International Automotive Technicians Network
b. International Alliance of Technicians and Nurses d. International Advantage for Technology in Navigation
ANSWER: c 56. What type of bulbs should a trouble light use? a. LED b. Fluorescent c. A and B d. None of these. ANSWER: c 57. A thin strip of metal or plastic of known and closely controlled thickness is a _____ gauge. ANSWER: feeler 58. Presses can be____________________. a. hand driven b. electric driven c. hydraulic driven d. All options are correct. ANSWER: d 59. A(n) ____________________ punch is used to make an indent prior to drilling a hole in a steel bracket. ANSWER: center starter prick 60. A(n) ____________________ hammer should be used to install gears and shafts in a transmission. ANSWER: brass soft faced 61. A(n) ____________________ extension allows the socket to pivot up to 16 degrees. ANSWER: wobble 62. A telescoping gauge is also called a(n) ____________________ gauge. ANSWER: snap 63. A(n) ____________________ gauge is used to measure the number of threads per inch on a bolt. ANSWER: thread pitch Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 05: Hand Tools and Shop Equipment 64. Identify some common uses of a dial indicator. ANSWER: Uses include measuring valve lift, journal concentricity, flywheel or brake rotor runout, gear valve guide clearance, backlash, and crankshaft end play. 65. What are some safety issues concerning the use of power tools? ANSWER: Avoid being careless or mishandling power tools; do not use unless you have obtained your instructor’s permission; know how to operate it; and prior to using it read the instructions carefully. 66. Describe the proper usage of a hacksaw. ANSWER: Fine-toothed blade is best for thin sheet metal; a coarse-toothed blade is best on thick metals; avoid bearing down on the blade while pulling it toward you, and use the entire blade while cutting. 67. How are hammers identified? ANSWER: By the material and weight of the head 68. What is the best source for vehicle identification? ANSWER: The VIN number 69. Identify and describe the purpose of three washer designs used with fasteners. ANSWER: Flat washers spread out the load; soft flat/cooper washers seal the components; and lock washers keep the fastener and work pieces from coming loose. 70. How often should the calibration of a micrometer be checked? ANSWER: At least once a week or if the micrometer has been dropped 71. Describe how manufacturers inform technicians about changes in current model year vehicle specifications and repair procedures. ANSWER: Service and technical service bulletins (TSBs) inform technicians of changes. 72. List three types of wheels available for use with a bench grinder. ANSWER: Grinding wheel; wire wheel; and buffing wheel 73. What determines the size of an open-end wrench? ANSWER: The size of the jaw opening in metric or SAE dimensions 74. Name the eight parts of a bolt. ANSWER: head shank threads fillet washer face shoulder head wrench size thread pitch 75. What is the function of the roll knob on a dial caliper? a. Fine adjustment b. Calibration c. Depth measurement d. Storage Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 05: Hand Tools and Shop Equipment ANSWER: a 76. What can be used to lubricate the ratchet mechanism in a ratchet wrench? a. Light oil b. Grease c. A and B are correct. d. Cooking oil ANSWER: c 77. All of the following are types of pliers EXCEPT: a. Adjustable b. Needle nose c. Clutch driver d. Spring clamp ANSWER: c 78. What type of tool can you use to take apart an assembly made by interference fitting? a. Hammer and punch b. Phillips screwdriver c. Puller d. Prying bar ANSWER: c 79. What is the proper way to keep a creeper when it is not being used? a. Under a table and out of the way b. Standing on its end c. Upside down d. With the wheels removed ANSWER: b
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Chapter 06: Diagnostic Equipment and Special Tools 1. A scan tool can be used to access which of the following on-board computer systems? a. Engine b. Antilock brake c. Body electrical d. All options are correct. ANSWER: d 2. The diagnostic connector for OBD-II vehicles is located in the same area for all vehicles. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. A voltmeter cannot be used to check for proper circuit grounding. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Use a conventional 12-volt test light to diagnose components and wires in a computer system. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. DVOMs are available with analog and digital displays. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. A cylinder leakage tester measures the percentage of compression lost to leakage in the cylinder. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Low oil pressure can be caused by excessive bearing clearances. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. When classifying cylinder hone stones, the higher the number, the coarser the grit. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. All FWD engines are removed from the top. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 06: Diagnostic Equipment and Special Tools 10. Front bearing hub tools are usually generic and fit several vehicles. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. When cylinders are bored oversize with a boring bar, no additional cylinder wall service is required. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. Some valve spring compressors allow the valve springs to be compressed and removed while the cylinder head is still attached to the engine block. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. A power steering pressure tester may be used to test the pressure on a hydraulic power brake booster. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. A conventional ammeter requires that the ammeter be connected in parallel with the circuit to be tested. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. Manifold vacuum is measured in ______. a. inches of mercury (in. Hg) b. kilopascals (kPa) c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 16. Which of the following statements regarding the usage of a fuel pressure gauge is true? a. Typical fuel pressure for a fuel injection system is 100 to 150 psi. b. A drop in fuel pressure results in a rich air/fuel mixture. c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 17. A pyrometer is used for all of the following EXCEPT: a. to check blockages across the radiator b. to measure the temperature of the air conditioning condenser c. to find dragging brakes d. to locate leaks in power steering fluid ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 06: Diagnostic Equipment and Special Tools 18. Technician A says a push-in compression gauge must be held tightly in the spark plug hole in order to get an accurate reading. Technician B says the vent valve must be opened to release the pressure in the gauge after each cylinder is tested. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 19. When conducting a cylinder leakage test, Technician A says the piston must be at the top of the cylinder (TDC) when the test is being performed. Technician B says a reading of 0 percent leakage indicates the piston rings are worn or broken. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 20. Technician A says a sulfated and plugged fuel injector is caused by electrical problems. Technician B says a sulfated and plugged fuel injector can be cleaned. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 21. Technician A says the injector balance tester leads must be connected to the battery with the correct polarity. Technician B says the injector balance tester contains a timing circuit. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 22. Ridge reamers are being discussed. Technician A says the reamer removes the unworn metal that lies above the ring travel. Technician B says to remove the ridge after removing the piston. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 23. All the following are types of valve spring compressors EXCEPT: a. pry-bar type b. C-clamp type c. plunger type d. D-clamp type ANSWER: d 24. A torque angle gauge is used to measure ______. a. the amount of additional twist applied to a bolt during the torquing procedure b. the angle of the driveshaft relative to horizontal c. the open and closed pressure of the valve springs d. the preload applied to a torsion bar ANSWER: a 25. A noid light is used to check the ______. a. spark plugs b. fuel injector circuit Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 06: Diagnostic Equipment and Special Tools c. fuel pump ANSWER: b
d. ignition
26. Manifold vacuum is formed on the piston’s ______ stroke. a. intake b. compression c. power d. exhaust ANSWER: a 27. Vacuum leak testing is being discussed. Technician A says to use a vacuum pump to check each component. Technician B says to use an ultrasonic tester. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 28. What tool should be used to work on or around electronic components to prevent destroying them? a. Noid light b. Static strap c. Pyrometer d. DVOM ANSWER: b 29. Technician A says a drum micrometer is used to measure the inside diameter of a brake drum. Technician B says a drum micrometer only measures metric drums. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 30. Axle pullers are used in which of the following types of vehicles? a. RWD b. FWD c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 31. Most exhaust gas analyzers can measure ______. a. HC b. CO c. NOX (oxides of nitrogen) d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: d 32. Control arm bushings are typically removed with ______. a. a pickle fork b. a C-clamp c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 33. Engine speed can be measured using which of the following tools? a. Vacuum pump b. Tachometer c. Spark tester d. Logic probe ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 06: Diagnostic Equipment and Special Tools 34. All of the following are a type of ring compressor EXCEPT: a. wrinkle band b. adjustable band with ratchet c. band and pliers d. C-clamp type ANSWER: d 35. Lab scopes are being discussed. Technician A says the lab scope displays the resistance of a sensor as it changes over time. Technician B says some lab scopes can display two waveforms at the same time. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 36. A logic probe is used to detect ______. a. digital or pulsed (on-off) signals b. continuity c. shorts to ground d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: a 37. A pyrometer is used to measure ______. a. pressure b. temperature c. frequency d. voltage ANSWER: b 38. Technician A uses a pipe wrench to adjust a tie-rod sleeve. Technician B uses a tie-rod sleeve adjusting tool. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 39. Brake-cleaning machines are being discussed. Technician A uses a negative pressure (vacuum) enclosure with a HEPA filter. Technician B uses a low-pressure wet cleaning system using water mixed with an organic solvent. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 40. A refrigerant recycling/recharging station performs all the following functions EXCEPT: a. removes refrigerant from the vehicle b. identifies the type of refrigerant in the system c. evacuates (vacuums) the A/C system d. recharges the A/C system ANSWER: b 41. Two technicians are discussing Volt/Amp testers (VAT). Technician A says the VAT contains a carbon pile that is a variable resistor. Technician B says the VAT is used to check batteries, starting systems, and charging systems. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 06: Diagnostic Equipment and Special Tools c. both A and B ANSWER: c
d. neither A nor B
42. Which ammeter determines the amount of amperage passing through the circuit based on the strength of the magnetic field surrounding the wire? a. inductive b. Cat III c. magneto-resistive d. conventional ANSWER: a 43. Most digital multimeters (DMM) can measure all the following EXCEPT: a. diode continuity b. frequency c. ignition timing d. duty cycle ANSWER: c 44. Technician A uses leather gloves when working on high-voltage components in a hybrid vehicle. Technician B uses a CAT-III voltmeter and test leads when testing electrical components on a hybrid. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 45. The amount of antifreeze in the coolant is measured with a _____. a. hydrometer b. refractometer c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 46. All of these tools are used for fabricating new brake lines EXCEPT: a. SAE flaring tool b. ISO flaring tool c. tubing cutter/reamer d. tubing hone ANSWER: d 47. When servicing air-conditioning hoses, which coupling tool set is required to disconnect the hose ends? a. flare nut b. snap ring c. O-ring d. spring lock ANSWER: d 48. Technician A tests valve springs for squareness and freestanding height. Technician B tests valve springs for open and closed pressure. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 49. Tire tread depth should be checked in at least ____________________ places around the tire. ANSWER: three or four Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 06: Diagnostic Equipment and Special Tools 3 or 4 50. A(n) ____________________ is used to remove a steering wheel from its shaft. ANSWER: wheel puller 51. Most wheel balancers require the wheel to be ____________________ the car. ANSWER: off 52. A self-powered test light is called a(n) ____________________ tester. ANSWER: continuity 53. Cylinder deglazing is done using a cylinder ____________________. ANSWER: hone 54. ____________________ gloves must be used when working on or around high-voltage circuits on hybrid vehicles. ANSWER: Lineman’s Class 0 55. Test strips are used to measure the pH [acidity] of the ____________________. ANSWER: coolant 56. What instrument can be used to measure the resistance in a circuit? a. Ohmmeter b. Voltmeter c. Ammeter d. Lab scope ANSWER: a 57. The pattern displayed on the screen of a lab scope is called a ____________________. ANSWER: waveform trace 58. What kind of information can a scan tool access when connected through the diagnostic connector? a. Diagnostic trouble codes (DTC) b. Run tests c. Monitor the activities of the system d. All options are correct. ANSWER: d 59. When is a clutch alignment tool used? ANSWER: During assembly of the clutch 60. Name the two basic types of compression gauges and how they are used. ANSWER: Push-in gauge and screw-in gauge are positioned in a spark plug hole and provide a compression reading when the engine is cranked. The push-in gauge must be held firmly in place while the engine is cranked, otherwise the readings will be inaccurate. A screw-in gauge has adapters that are threaded into the spark plug holes. It is more accurate than the pushin type.
61. Describe how to test manifold vacuum. ANSWER: Connect the flexible hose of the vacuum gauge to a source of manifold vacuum and read the gauge while the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 06: Diagnostic Equipment and Special Tools engine is running. The gauge should read a steady vacuum of 15 to 20 in. Hg. 62. What colors are used to identify the three different R-134a service hoses? ANSWER: Low-pressure is blue with a black stripe. High-pressure is red with a black stripe. Service hose is yellow with a black stripe. 63. What is a brake spoon used for? ANSWER: Initially adjusting a drum brake after installation 64. List four capabilities of a scan tool. ANSWER: read DTCs monitor system operational data [sensor data and output data] perform system diagnostics tests reprogram the vehicle’s electronic control module display appropriate service information, including electrical diagrams display TSBs troubleshooting instructions easy tool updating through a PC read freeze frame data clear DTCs 65. List four gases that can be measured with an exhaust analyzer. ANSWER: hydrocarbons [HC] carbon monoxide [CO] carbon dioxide [CO2] oxygen [O2] oxides of nitrogen [NOX] 66. List the special tools needed to work on hybrid vehicles. ANSWER: lineman’s gloves with leather outer gloves CAT-III rated multimeter with CAT-III test leads insulation resistance tester 67. What is the difference between a disc brake micrometer and a conventional micrometer? ANSWER: A disc brake micrometer has pointed anvils that allow the tip to fit into the grooves worn on the rotor. Also the range of the disc brake micrometer is from 0.300 in. to 1.300 in. 68. What is the purpose of piston ring expanders? ANSWER: To prevent damage to the piston ring during removal and installation 69. What is the function of a ring compressor? a. To compress the spring valve for removal c. To compress a coil spring during removal ANSWER: b 70. What is the function of a stethoscope? a. To amplify noises impossible to hear Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
b. To install a piston into a cylinder bore d. To remove tie-rod ends
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Chapter 06: Diagnostic Equipment and Special Tools c. To record noises produced during combustion ANSWER: a
d. To test the pH in coolant
71. What can be used to check for shaft distortion that would otherwise be impossible to see? a. Stethoscope b. V-block c. Tachometer d. Scan tool ANSWER: b 72. When should an oil priming pump be used? a. While changing engine oil b. Before removing the engine c. After rebuilding an engine d. While charging A/C refrigerant ANSWER: c 73. Pinch-off pliers are designed to close off which type of hose? a. Brake lines b. Steel pipes c. Rubber hoses d. A/C hoses ANSWER: c 74. What type of socket has a rubber sleeve to prevent cracking or damage to the part being removed or installed? a. Oxygen sensor sockets b. Brake drum specialty sockets c. Steering wheel removal sockets d. Spark plug sockets ANSWER: d 75. What tool can be used to test the pressure relief action of the radiator cap? a. Coolant test strips b. Refractometer c. Cooling system pressure tester d. Hydrometer ANSWER: c
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Chapter 07: Working Safely in the Shop 1. Latex gloves provide excellent protection against cuts. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Batteries are potentially explosive. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Regular prescription glasses offer sufficient eye protection in the shop environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. If there is no fire extinguisher available, a blanket or fender cover can be used to smother the flames. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. MSDS should be kept in a locked cabinet in the service manager’s or supervisor’s office. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. The correct lift points for raising a vehicle can be found in the service manual. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Even with safety stands (jack stands) are properly positioned, the weight of the vehicle should remain on the floor jack. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Brake fluid and chlorinated solvents can be drained into the shop’s waste oil container. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Gasoline fumes are lighter than air. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 07: Working Safely in the Shop 10. Carbon monoxide is an odorless, deadly gas. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Diesel fuel may contain microorganisms and can be highly infectious if it gets into an open cut or sore. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. Dull tools can be more dangerous than sharp tools. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. In a pinch, an old flat tip screwdriver can be used as a chisel. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Ratchets and wrenches should be kept lightly oiled to prevent rust. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. All employees must be trained about their rights under the EPA legislation, the nature of the hazardous chemicals in their workplace, and the contents of the labels on the chemicals in their workplace. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. Which of the following statements about safety glasses is true? a. They should offer side protection b. The lenses should be made of a shatterproof material c. Some service operations require additional eye protection to be worn with safety glasses d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: d 17. Gasoline is ______. a. highly volatile c. dangerous, especially in vapor form ANSWER: d
b. highly flammable d. All the answers are correct.
18. Mesothelioma is a form of lung cancer that is caused by exposure to ______. a. gasoline b. asbestos Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 07: Working Safely in the Shop c. carbon monoxide ANSWER: b
d. chlorinated hydrocarbons (CHC)
19. A high concentration of undesirable vapors, gases, or dust can be classified as a(n) ______. a. hazardous waste b. physical hazard c. ergonomic hazard d. chemical hazard ANSWER: d 20. A class A type fire extinguisher can be used on what type of fires? a. plastic b. gasoline c. electrical wiring d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: a 21. Federal Right-to-Know laws concern ______. a. auto emission standards b. hazards associated with chemicals used in the workplace c. employee benefits d. hiring practices ANSWER: b 22. A class C type fire extinguisher can be used on what type of fires? a. rubber b. electrical wiring c. gasoline d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: b 23. Failure to report a hazardous waste spill can result in a penalty of ______. a. $10,000 b. one year in jail c. both “$10,000” and “one year in jail” d. neither “$10,000” nor “one year in jail” ANSWER: c 24. Which of the following extinguishers is recommended to put out electrical fires? a. type A b. type B c. type C d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: c 25. What type of gloves should be worn when working on the electrical system of a hybrid vehicle? a. Polyurethane rubber b. Nitrile rubber c. Lineman’s d. Leather ANSWER: c 26. Insulated tools should always be used when ____________. a. working with high corrosive chemicals b. working on electric or hybrid vehicles c. working with no gloves d. working on the electric system of any vehicle ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 07: Working Safely in the Shop 27. Technician A says that you wear shoes with nonslip soles in the shop. Technician B says safety shoes have steel plates built into the toe and shank to protect your feet. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 28. Technician A says all hazardous wastes must be properly labeled and sealed and kept in the recommended containers. Technician B says to reduce the amount of hazardous waste generated by a shop, parts should be initially cleaned with used solvent, then a second time with clean solvent. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 29. Ergonomic hazards are being discussed. Technician A says they impede normal body position and motion. Technician B says they are the result of noise or vibrations. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 30. Technician A removes a battery by disconnecting the positive cable first. Technician B uses a battery lifting strap to lift the battery out of the vehicle. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 31. Technician A says carbon monoxide has an odor similar to burnt oil. Technician B says a volatile liquid evaporates slowly. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 32. An MSDS is being discussed. Technician A says it is the shop’s responsibility to develop it. Technician B says it must be readily available to all shop personnel. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 33. Technician A says OSHA regulates vehicle emission standards. Technician B says the Environmental Protection Agency [EPA] regulates the disposal of hazardous wastes. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 34. Technician A says used engine oil may be burned in an EPA approved commercial space heater. Technician B says oil filters should be thrown in the trash immediately after being removed from the vehicle. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 07: Working Safely in the Shop c. both A and B ANSWER: a
d. neither A nor B
35. Technician A says vehicle refrigerants must be recovered and recycled. Technician B says splash goggles should be worn when servicing an air-conditioning system. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 36. Because the electric motors in hybrid vehicles have very strong permanent magnets, people with _____ should not work on or near them. a. pacemakers b. stainless steel surgical staples or bone pins c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 37. Technician A uses a respiratory mask [respirator] when working with solvents and painting. Technician B uses a mask [particle mask] when working on or handling parts made with asbestos. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 38. When lifting heavy parts, Technician A twists at the waist to change direction. Technician B turns his whole body using his feet. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A or B ANSWER: b 39. What type of gloves should be worn when cleaning parts with solvent? a. Latex rubber b. Nitrile rubber c. Polyurethane rubber d. Rubberized nylon ANSWER: b 40. What type of jewelry is acceptable to wear while working? a. Rings b. Necklaces c. Any, as long as is covered d. None ANSWER: d 41. Battery charging is being discussed. Technician A says the charger should be turned on before connecting the charger cables to the battery terminals. Technician B says a battery with frozen electrolyte should be charged for thirty minutes or until the electrolyte melts. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 07: Working Safely in the Shop 42. The high voltage electrical cables (harness cover) of a hybrid vehicle are colored ______. a. red b. orange c. yellow d. pink ANSWER: b 43. A hybrid vehicle needs to be moved from the roadside into the shop. Technician A says it should be towed on a flatbed truck. Technician B say it can be transported with its drive wheels on the ground as long as the transmission is in neutral. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 44. When driving out rusted bolts, Technician A places the round end of a ball-peen hammer over the bolt and then hits the flat end of the ball-peen hammer with a sledgehammer. Technician B uses a Phillips-tip screwdriver and a ball-peen hammer to drive out small, rusted bolts. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 45. What type of cleaning process leaves an ash residue that must be removed by an additional cleaning process? a. Thermal cleaning b. Chemical cleaning c. Abrasive cleaning d. Pressure washing cleaning ANSWER: a 46. Something that catches fire and burns easily is called a(n) ____________________ substance. ANSWER: flammable 47. A volatile liquid ____________________ easily. ANSWER: vaporizes 48. The area where volatile solvents and chemicals are used must be properly ____________________. ANSWER: ventilated 49. After disconnecting the high-voltage system of a hybrid vehicle, you should wait at least ____________________ minutes before working on or around the high-voltage wiring. ANSWER: ten 10 50. A multipurpose dry ____________________ fire extinguisher will put out ordinary combustibles, flammable liquids, and electrical fires. ANSWER: chemical 51. High concentrations of vapors, gases, or solids in the form of dust cause __________ hazards. ANSWER: Chemical 52. The most dangerous battery is the one that has been ____________________. ANSWER: overcharged Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 07: Working Safely in the Shop 53. Excessive noise, vibration, pressures, and temperatures are types of __________ hazards. ANSWER: Physical 54. Conditions that impede normal and/or proper body position and motion are __________ hazards. ANSWER: Ergonomic 55. A bloodborne ____________________ is a microorganism that causes disease. ANSWER: pathogen 56. The voltage in a hybrid vehicle’s electrical system can be as high as ____________________ volts. ANSWER: 650 six hundred fifty 57. A hybrid vehicle can generate voltage as high as _______. a. 2000 V b. 125 V c. 800 V d. 42 V ANSWER: c 58. When they are exposed to oil, gasoline and solvents, __________ gloves weaken. ANSWER: Latex 59. Every school and pubic building should have __________________routes posted. ANSWER: evacuation 60. What makes a material hazardous? ANSWER: When it is classified by the EPA (or OSHA) as being harmful to the environment or the worker 61. Who is responsible for preparing the information on an MSDS? ANSWER: The manufacturer of the chemical product 62. Why should electric cooling fans be disconnected when working around the radiator? ANSWER: They may come on, even without the ignition switch on. 63. What steps should you follow to prevent an injury when lifting heavy objects? ANSWER: Maintain good balance, keep your back straight, apply a firm grip, use your leg muscles rather than your back muscles, avoid twisting your body, do not bend forward, and set the item onto blocks to protect your fingers. 64. What is an MSDS? ANSWER: A material safety data sheet describes hazardous materials/products. 65. Describe what to do with a used oil filter. ANSWER: It should be drained for twenty-four hours, crushed, and recycled. 66. Where can a shop’s complete list of hazardous materials be found? ANSWER: It should be posted for the employees to see. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 07: Working Safely in the Shop 67. How is an exhaust ventilation system used? ANSWER: Connect the ventilation hose to the vehicle’s tailpipe(s). Turn on the fan motor. 68. When should eye protection be worn? ANSWER: Whenever one is in the shop 69. Where in the shop should a list of emergency telephone numbers be posted, and why is its location important? ANSWER: Next to the telephone so that anyone can locate them when needed 70. What steps should you take to alleviate the fire hazard caused by a minor spill of gasoline such as what may occur while changing a fuel filter? ANSWER: Wipe up the spill immediately with rags. Make sure that any grinding or welding that may be taking place in the area is stopped. Flush the floor with water. Take the rags used to absorb the gasoline outside to dry, then store in an approved oily rag container. If vapors are still present, open doors and turn on the ventilation system. 71. What is spontaneous combustion? ANSWER: Fires that start all by themselves, without an open flame or spark. 72. What word is used to remember how to use a fire extinguisher? a. ABCD b. FIRE c. SSAP d. PASS ANSWER: d 73. Which of the following shop wastes cannot be recycled? a. Oil filters b. Batteries c. Solvents d. Asbestos ANSWER: d 74. When was OSHA founded? a. 1955 b. 1965 c. 1970 d. 1999 ANSWER: c 75. If battery acid gets in your eyes, you must flush them with cold water for a minimum of _______. a. 3 minutes b. 5 minutes c. 15 minutes d. 10 minutes ANSWER: c 76. Which of the following are symptoms of CO poisoning? a. Headaches b. Nausea c. Fatigue d. All options are correct. ANSWER: d 77. All of the following are examples of PPE EXCEPT: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 07: Working Safely in the Shop a. Safety glasses c. Gloves ANSWER: b
b. BenchGuard d. Safety boots
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Chapter 08: Preventive Maintenance and Basic Services 1. An oil with a viscosity index of 10W-30 has a viscosity of 10 when warm and a 30 when cold. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. All Ford vehicles use Type F automatic transmission fluid (ATF). a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Oil should be changed only when it appears dirty or black. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Oil viscosity classification is established by the Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE). a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Hybrid vehicles are maintained and serviced in the same manner as conventional vehicles, except for the hybrid components. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. What should be done after using a torque stick to tighten lug nuts? a. Check the actual torque with a torque wrench. b. Lower the car to the floor. c. Check the brake rotor for distortion. d. Drive the car to ensure the wheel is not loose. ANSWER: a 7. Most hydraulic clutch systems use brake fluid. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Disconnecting and then reconnecting the battery on a late model car might cause the engine to run rough for a few miles. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. A heavily obstructed air filter will have what of the following effects on the engine? a. Low power output b. Low fuel efficiency c. A and B are correct. d. None of them is correct. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 08: Preventive Maintenance and Basic Services ANSWER: c 10. A belt that does not have proper tension may squeal or chirp. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Technician A wipes off the outside of a zerk fitting before injecting grease into it. Technician B injects just enough grease to cause the boot to expand slightly. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 12. The VIN number includes all the information listed below EXCEPT: a. model year b. engine type c. manufacturer d. vehicle weight ANSWER: d 13. Two technicians are discussing the measurement of antifreeze concentration in coolant. Technician A uses a coolant hydrometer. Technician B uses a refractometer. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 14. Before replacing a serpentine belt ______. a. cut the old belt with a razor blade to make the job easier. b. measure the belt tension with a belt tension gauge so that the new belt can be retensioned to the original tension. c. remove the fan and water pump. d. locate the belt routing diagram on the underhood decal or shop manual; if none is found draw your own ANSWER: d 15. After servicing a hybrid car, the engine will not start. Technician A says the wrong engine oil was installed. Technician B says the wrong type of brake fluid was used. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 16. Two technicians are discussing the proper coolant to use on a late model GM vehicle. Technician A says that “DEXCOOL” type Organic Acid Technology [OAT] is the proper coolant to use. Technician B says that Ethylene Glycol [good old green] type antifreeze can be used on any vehicle. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a
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Chapter 08: Preventive Maintenance and Basic Services 17. Two technicians are discussing testing coolant with test strips. Technician A says the test strip measures freezing protection level. Technician B says the test strip measures coolant acidity. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 18. A vehicle is towed into the shop with a thrown serpentine belt. Technician A checks for a worn pulley bearing. Technician B checks for a faulty tensioner. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 19. Technician A checks V-belt tension by pressing his thumb firmly on the longest straight span of the belt and measuring the amount of deflection. Technician B uses a belt tension gauge. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 20. Technician A says grease fittings are found on parts of the steering system. Technician B says grease fittings are found on parts of the brake system. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 21. All of the following are good reasons to replace a belt EXCEPT: a. Worn or glazed edges b. Squealing or chirping c. Tears and splits d. Signs of oil soaking ANSWER: b 22. Technician A says V-belts are automatically tensioned. Technician B says serpentine belts are manually adjusted and require periodic adjustment. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 23. Ethylene glycol antifreeze is _____. a. the most commonly used antifreeze c. poisonous ANSWER: d
b. green in color d. All the answers are correct.
24. The minimum concentration of antifreeze is _____. a. 20% antifreeze, 80% water b. 33% antifreeze, 66% water c. 44% antifreeze, 56% water d. 50% antifreeze, 50% water ANSWER: c
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Chapter 08: Preventive Maintenance and Basic Services 25. Which of the following is not a property of synthetic oil? a. low viscosity at high temperatures b. low viscosity at low temperatures c. a longer service life d. better fuel economy ANSWER: a 26. The tenth character in the VIN is the _____. a. manufacturer b. engine family c. model year d. body type ANSWER: c 27. The VIN number for vehicles built in the United States begins with a(n) _____. a. 1 b. 3 c. U d. A ANSWER: a 28. After being initially rotated at 7,500 miles, radial tires should be rotated every _____ miles. a. 5,000 b. 10,000 c. 15,000 d. 25,000 ANSWER: c 29. Directional tires are being discussed. Technician A says directional tires should not be cross rotated, but rotated front to rear. Technician B cross rotates the tires by dismounting them from the rims, flipping them over and remounting. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 30. If a ball joint has a threaded plug, the plug can be removed and which fitting can be installed that will allow the ball joint to be greased periodically? a. Whittington b. spring lock c. ferrule d. zerk ANSWER: d 31. Research shows that states with annual safety inspection programs have ____________________ percent fewer accidents than states without safety inspections. ANSWER: 20 twenty 32. What API S engine oil classification should be used in engines manufactured in 2020 or later? a. SA b. SF c. SP d. SM ANSWER: c 33. The W in 5W-30 viscosity oil stands for ____________________. ANSWER: winter Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 08: Preventive Maintenance and Basic Services 34. Coolant acidity is measured with ____________________. ANSWER: a test strip 35. What is used by some vehicles to determine the air filter condition? a. Fuel consumption b. Inlet flow restriction gauge c. Belt tension gauge d. Refractometer ANSWER: b 36. What part is designed to keep the wiper blade fairly tight against the windshield? a. Wiper blade assembly b. Arm spring c. Wiper arm d. Wiper blade insert ANSWER: b 37. A torque stick is used to ensure that the ____________________ are not over torqued. ANSWER: lug nuts 38. What should be done to the air filter housing before opening it for inspection? a. Use a shop vac or blow gun to remove dirt b. Disconnect the battery c. Check belt tension d. All the options are correct. ANSWER: a 39. What eight pieces of information are contained in the VIN? ANSWER: country of manufacture manufacturer manufacturing division body type engine type model year assembly plant sequence number 40. Why should the radiator cap never be removed when the engine is hot? ANSWER: Because the system is pressurized, the coolant can be hotter than boiling water and will cause severe burns if it is sprayed onto clothes or skin or into your eyes. 41. What are serpentine belts? ANSWER: Most late model cars use serpentine belts to drive all or most accessories. Serpentine belts are long and follow a complex path that weaves around the various pulleys. Serpentine belts are flat on the outside and have a series of continuous ribs on the inside. These ribs fit into matching grooves on the pulleys. Both the ribbed side and the flat side can be used to transfer power. Most serpentine belts use an automatic tensioner to maintain ideal belt tension throughout the life of the belt. 42. Besides generating repair orders, what other services can be done by computerized shop management systems? ANSWER: preparing estimates scheduling reminders bookkeeping vehicle/owner history service history Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 08: Preventive Maintenance and Basic Services tracking employee productivity 43. What is the recommended mixture of antifreeze and water? a. 44% antifreeze and 56% water b. 50/50 c. 100% antifreeze d. 35% antifreeze and 65% water ANSWER: b 44. List four things to check while visually inspecting a battery. ANSWER: Dirt and grease on the cover[case], electrolyte level, cracks and loose terminals, missing cell plug covers, cables for broken and corroded wires, terminals for tightness and corrosion, hold downs for tightness, heat shield [if equipped] 45. List three different types of antifreeze. ANSWER: Ethylene glycol, propylene glycol, phosphate-free, OAT (organic acid technology), HOAT (hybrid organic acid technology) 46. Why is transmission fluid colored red? ANSWER: To distinguish it from other fluids such as antifreeze, engine oil, and brake fluid. 47. What is a common cause of disk brake rotor distortion? a. Using the wrong tires b. Overtorquing of the lug nuts c. Low brake fluid d. Extended time interval between tire rotations ANSWER: b 48. The EP designation for a chassis grease stands for ____________________. ANSWER: extreme pressure 49. When a customer brings in a vehicle for service, why should you check for TSBs and recalls for that model? ANSWER: The TSB will give you with information about a concern, an updated part, or a repair procedure before you spend time trying to figure out a concern on your own. Also, it is possible that the owner of the vehicle is not aware that a recall applies to his or her car. Alerting the person will help build trust and goodwill between the customer and the shop. 50. C-class or F-class engine oil should only be used on what kinds of vehicles? ANSWER: Those with diesel or “compression” ignition engines. 51. Over time, using the wrong oil can lead to all these problems EXCEPT: a. sludge formation b. rapid wear of timing chain components c. seal failure d. a clogged oil filter ANSWER: d 52. What is subletting? a. Use original equipment manufacturer parts c. Contract a specialized shop to perform service or part of a service Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
b. Use aftermarket parts d. A repair order Page 6
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Chapter 08: Preventive Maintenance and Basic Services ANSWER: c 53. What is the approximated oil quantity between the “full” and “add” mark on an oil dipstick? a. one gallon b. one liter c. one quart d. 50% of the capacity ANSWER: c 54. What fluid would normally require the engine to be running to check its level? a. Engine oil b. Transmission fluid c. Brake fluid d. Clutch fluid ANSWER: b 55. What can be said about dark- or brown-colored brake fluid? a. It is not brake fluid. b. The temperature of the fluid is too low. c. Contamination d. Nothing special ANSWER: c 56. Which of the following is a type of brake fluid? a. 15W-30 b. ATF c. HOAT d. DOT 5 ANSWER: d 57. What type of vehicles typically requires the use of DEF? a. Hybrid vehicles b. Gasoline engines c. AWD d. Diesel engines ANSWER: d 58. Most hybrid vehicles have two cooling systems, one for the engine and the other for: a. Cab heater b. Hybrid systems and/or battery packs c. Transmission d. Backup ANSWER: b 59. Where in the vehicle can the VIN be located? a. On the engine valve cover c. Behind the lower corner of the driver’s side of the windshield ANSWER: c
b. Under the hood d. In the fuse box
60. Hybrid components in a hybrid vehicle include the following EXPECT: a. Hi voltage battery pack b. High voltage circuits c. Battery pack cooling system d. Front suspension ANSWER: d
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Chapter 09: Automotive Engine Designs and Diagnosis 1. A high engine compression ratio usually requires high-octane fuel. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Gasoline and diesel engines are classified as external combustion engines. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. All transverse engine layouts are associated with front-wheel drive. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. As seen from the flywheel end, nearly all engines rotate clockwise. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Engine torque always increases with engine rpm. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Lack of combustion is always caused by a fault in the ignition system. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. There is no such thing as a W engine configuration. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Some diesel engines operate on the two-stroke cycle principle. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. The stratified charge engine combines the features of both the gasoline and diesel engine types. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 09: Automotive Engine Designs and Diagnosis 10. What type of engine relies on a combination of spark ignition and compression ignition technology? a. Rotary engine b. Diesel engine c. Gasoline engine d. Homogeneous charge compression ignition engine ANSWER: d 11. Oversquare engines are capable of running at higher speeds and can have larger valves than undersquare engines. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. All of the following are characteristics of an oversquare engine EXCEPT: a. Can fit larger valves b. Tends to be physically larger c. Requires longer connecting rod d. Capable of running at high RPM ANSWER: c 13. The camshaft can be located either in the cylinder block or in the cylinder head. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. The flywheel stores some of the power produced by the engine during the power stroke to help keep the pistons in motion during the exhaust, intake, and compression strokes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. All of the following are strokes of the four-stroke cycle EXCEPT: a. Intake b. Compression c. Ignition d. Exhaust ANSWER: c 16. What is compression ratio? a. The diameter of the cylinder c. The ratio of air-to-fuel mixture ANSWER: d
b. The cylinder arrangement d. None of these answers is correct.
17. To complete a four-stroke cycle in one cylinder, the crankshaft must rotate _____ degrees. a. 180 b. 360 c. 540 d. 720 ANSWER: d 18. On a four-cylinder engine with a firing order of 1342, if the number 1 cylinder is on the exhaust stroke, what stroke is the number 3 cylinder on? a. Intake b. Compression c. Power d. Exhaust Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 09: Automotive Engine Designs and Diagnosis ANSWER: c 19. The stroke of an engine is _____ that of a crankshaft throw. a. half b. twice c. four times d. equal to ANSWER: b 20. The volume of the combustion chamber when the piston is at BDC divided by the volume of the chamber when the piston is at TDC is called _____. a. displacement b. compression ratio c. volumetric efficiency d. mechanical efficiency ANSWER: b 21. Which engine problem may be indicated by good results from a compression test and a cylinder leakage test coupled with poor results from a cylinder power balance test? a. Incorrect valve timing b. Collapsed lifter c. Burnt intake valve d. Worn piston rings ANSWER: b 22. What type of engines use heavy flywheel? a. Hybrid vehicle engines c. Those fitted to automatic transmissions ANSWER: b
b. Those equipped with manual transmission d. Diesel engines
23. Which V-type engine valve train design may use four camshafts? a. OHC b. DOHC c. OHV d. DOHV ANSWER: b 24. A four-stroke cycle engine requires at least _____ valves at the top of each cylinder. a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: b 25. How can engine displacement be changed? a. By changing the bore of an engine b. By changing the number of cylinders in an engine c. By changing the stroke of the engine d. All options are correct. ANSWER: d 26. In what type of engine is the intake valve held open longer than normal during the compression stroke? a. Wankel b. Atkinson cycle c. Two-stroke d. Diesel ANSWER: b 27. Both valves are closed on the _____ strokes. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 09: Automotive Engine Designs and Diagnosis a. power and exhaust c. intake and compression ANSWER: d
b. intake and exhaust d. compression and power
28. Diesel engines are being discussed. Technician A says that diesel engines have a distributor-type injection pump. Technician B says that diesel engines have a common fuel rail, and the injectors are controlled by the computer. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B ANSWER: c 29. The front-engine, longitudinal layout is being discussed. Technician A says that this layout is used in rear-wheel drive vehicles. Technician B says that this layout is used in some front-wheel drive vehicles. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B ANSWER: c 30. Technician A says the engine displacement can be found on the engine ID tag. Technician B says the date the engine was assembled can be found in the casting numbers on the cylinder block. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B ANSWER: a 31. Two technicians are discussing compression testing on a hybrid vehicle equipped with an Atkinson cycle engine. Technician A says the compression reading of an Atkinson cycle engine is normally higher than that of a conventional engine. Technician B says a scan tool may be needed to perform the compression test. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B ANSWER: b 32. Technician A says weak valve springs can be detected with a vacuum test. Technician B says a restricted exhaust can be detected with a vacuum test. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B ANSWER: c 33. A wet compression test is performed on an engine after a dry compression test revealed low compression on one cylinder. If the compression on the low cylinder rises, it indicates _____. a. leaking valves b. worn rings c. a worn camshaft lobe d. a cracked piston ANSWER: b 34. Engine oil pressure testing is being discussed. Technician A says that oil pressure should be tested with the engine cold. Technician B says oil with viscosity that is too high may cause lower than specified pressure. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 09: Automotive Engine Designs and Diagnosis ANSWER: d 35. How many degrees of crankshaft rotation are required to complete one complete one engine cycle in a four-stroke engine? a. 90 b. 180 c. 360 d. 720 ANSWER: d 36. When talking about engines, what is a stroke? a. It is a full rotation of the b. It is the movement of the piston either up or down in the cylinder’s crankshaft. bore. c. It is a full rotation of the camshaft. d. It is the movement of the valve either up or down in valve guide. ANSWER: b 37. The reciprocating movement of the piston is converted into rotary motion by the _____. a. crankshaft and connecting rod b. intermediate shaft c. flywheel d. camshaft ANSWER: a 38. How can camshaft timing be checked? a. By using a lab scope b. By checking the timing marks c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B ANSWER: c 39. What component of the engine determines the stroke? a. The cylinder block b. Pistons c. Connecting rods d. The crankshaft ANSWER: d 40. What type of ICE engine listed below is commonly found in a hybrid vehicle? a. Two-stroke b. Rotary c. Diesel d. Atkinson ANSWER: d 41. Two technicians are discussing diesel engines. Technician A says all diesel engines are fuel injected. Technician B says glow plugs help ignite the fuel when the engine is cold. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B ANSWER: c 42. The largest part of the engine is the ____________________. ANSWER: cylinder (engine) block engine block Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 09: Automotive Engine Designs and Diagnosis cylinder block 43. The movement of the valves is controlled by the __________. ANSWER: camshaft 44. The rotary engine is also known as a(n) ____________________ engine. ANSWER: Wankel 45. A cylinder leakage test measures the amount of leakage in the cylinder as a(n) ____________________. ANSWER: percentage 46. A(n) ____________________ vehicle is one that uses an electric motor and a gasoline engine to move the vehicle. ANSWER: hybrid 47. What is horsepower? a. It is a measure of how much of the heat formed during combustion is available as power from the engine. c. It is a relationship between the amount of energy put into and engine and the amount available from it. ANSWER: b
b. It is the rate at which torque is produced. d. It is the twisting force of an engine.
48. What component connects the crankshaft to the pistons? a. Push rods b. Camshaft c. Connecting rods d. Valve spring ANSWER: c 49. ____________________ lobes open and close the engine valves. ANSWER: Camshaft 50. ____________________ plugs are used to warm the combustion chamber of a cold diesel engine. ANSWER: Glow 51. A(n) ____________________ -mounted engine sits sideways in the engine compartment. ANSWER: transverse 52. A ____________________ test is used to detect if all the cylinders are producing the same amount of power ANSWER: cylinder power balance 53. The crankshaft rotates ____________________ degrees in one piston stroke. ANSWER: 180 one hundred eighty 54. Describe the four-stroke cycle. ANSWER: On the intake stroke, the downward movement of the piston draws the air–fuel mixture into the cylinder. During the compression stroke, the piston moves up while the valves are closed to compress the air–fuel mixture. On the power stroke, the fuel is ignited, and the piston is pushed down. On the exhaust stroke, the piston moves up and pushes the exhaust gases out of the cylinder. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 09: Automotive Engine Designs and Diagnosis 55. Describe the difference between torque and horsepower. ANSWER: Torque is the twisting or turning force. Horsepower is the rate at which torque is produced. 56. Describe rod bearing noise. ANSWER: It can range from a light tap to a heavy knock or pounding noise. 57. Describe an overhead valve engine. ANSWER: In an OHV engine, the camshaft is located in the engine block, and the valves are in the cylinder head. This arrangement requires lifters, pushrods, and rocker arms. 58. Describe the process of combustion. ANSWER: Fuel and air that have been compressed in the combustion chamber are ignited when the piston is near TDC. The flame moves rapidly until all the fuel and air are burned. The pressure of the hot combustion gases pushes the piston downward, producing power in the crankshaft. 59. Describe an in-line engine. ANSWER: In an in-line engine, all the cylinders are placed in a single row. There is one crankshaft and one cylinder head. 60. Identify four types of fuel currently used in automotive engines. ANSWER: Gasoline, natural gas, ethanol, diesel, and propane 61. Identify safety concerns when listening for engine noises with a stethoscope. ANSWER: The hose or stethoscope probe may come into contact with moving parts, such as belts or pulleys, which could cause the stethoscope to be pulled inward or flung outward, potentially resulting in injury. 62. What is detonation? ANSWER: Detonation is also called knock or ping. It is most noticeable under acceleration or heavy loads. Detonation occurs when the air/fuel mixture ignites due to heat rather than by the spark. 63. Describe a mid-engine transverse engine layout. ANSWER: In a mid-engine transverse layout, the engine and drivetrain are positioned between the passenger compartment and the rear axle. Because it is a transverse layout, the engine is mounted sideways (left to right). 64. Name four things that could cause unequal cylinder power balance. ANSWER: Defective ignition coil Defective spark plug wire Defective spark plug Leaking head gasket Worn piston rings Damaged piston Burnt, bent, or worn valves Worn cam lobe Broken valve spring Defective lifters, pushrods, and/or rocker arms Weak intake manifold Faulty fuel injectors
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Chapter 09: Automotive Engine Designs and Diagnosis 65. What is the problem with incorrect valve timing? ANSWER: The crankshaft and camshaft are not synchronized. 66. How much percentage is considered to be normal during a cylinder leakage test? a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 50% ANSWER: b 67. Under what condition might it be normal to see white smoke coming out of the tailpipe? a. Using low-octane fuel b. Idling on a cold day c. Smoke should never be seen coming out of the tailpipe. d. During a power balance test ANSWER: b 68. A carbon blaster can be used for ____________. a. cleaning carbon deposits b. locating engine noises c. Verifying valve timing d. Performing vacuum test ANSWER: a 69. What is rumble? a. It describes a condition in which a part of the air–fuel mixture begins to ignite on its own. c. It describes a condition in which combustion begins before the spark fires. ANSWER: d
b. It is damage caused by preignition. d. It describes a condition in which several flame fronts occur simultaneously.
70. Why should an engine not run for more than 15 seconds with a disabled cylinder? a. To prevent the fan from starting b. Longer tests can produce incorrect results. c. To prevent unburned fuel from building up in the catalytic d. To prevent overheating converter ANSWER: c 71. What is a series hybrid vehicle? a. It is a hybrid vehicle in which the engine drives a generator and never propels the vehicle. c. It is a hybrid vehicle that uses an Atkinson engine.
b. It is a hybrid vehicle that uses either the engine or the electric motor to propel the vehicle. d. It a hybrid vehicle that only uses batteries to propel the vehicle.
ANSWER: a 72. How do fuel cells produce electricity? a. By charging the battery from an external source c. With a generator driven by the engine ANSWER: b
b. By combining hydrogen with oxygen d. Using solar power
73. How many valves does a Wankel engine use? a. None b. 2 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 09: Automotive Engine Designs and Diagnosis c. 4 ANSWER: a
d. 5
74. All of the following are benefits of HCCI engines EXCEPT: a. The same fuel economy as a diesel engine b. A much lower cost compared to a diesel engine c. Zero NOx emissions d. Produces less noise than conventional engines ANSWER: d 75. Which of the following is true when comparing an HCCI engine to a diesel engine? a. Diesel engines are four-stroke engines, while HCCI engines b. Diesel engines do not use spark plugs, are two-stroke. while HCCI engines do. c. Only air is present during the compression stroke in a diesel d. HCCI engines do not require the use of engine, while an air–fuel mixture is present in an HCCI emission control systems, unlike diesel engine. engines. ANSWER: c 76. All of the following are possible causes of incorrect valve timing EXCEPT: a. Timing belt wear b. Tensioner wear c. A leaking head gasket d. Timing chain wear ANSWER: c
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Chapter 10: Engine Disassembly and Cleaning 1. To prevent cylinder head warpage during disassembly, the head bolts should be removed randomly. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Engines in FWD vehicles are often removed from the bottom. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. A major advantage of cleaning ovens is that they are a more environmentally acceptable process than chemical cleaning. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. It is good policy to discard all engine gaskets immediately to ensure they are not mistakenly reused. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. An interference engine has enough clearance between the pistons and valves so that it will not bend the valves if the timing belt breaks, slips, or skips. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. When removing an engine from a FWD vehicle, the steering gear may need to be disconnected from the frame. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. A buildup of sludge in the rocker area indicates a poor maintenance schedule and signals the need to check for wear on other components. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Sludge and metal shavings inside the pan are normal and can be disregarded. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Water-soluble soils contain petroleum by-products derived from crude oil, including tar, road oil, engine oil, gasoline, diesel fuel, grease, and engine oil additives. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10: Engine Disassembly and Cleaning a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. In addition to causing metal destruction, rust acts to insulate and prevent proper heat transfer inside the cooling system. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Some engine repairs can be performed while the engine is still in the vehicle. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. Which cleaning method uses high-frequency sound waves to loosen dirt from parts? a. ultrasonic b. salt bath c. thermal d. caustic ANSWER: a 13. Parts must be _____ when they go into an abrasive blast machine. a. grease free b. dry c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 14. The buildup of mineral and deposits inside the cooling system is called ______. a. organic soil b. scale c. rust d. grime ANSWER: b 15. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT: a. If cracks in a metal casting are found during an inspection, they should be repaired or the part replaced. b. Stress or strain on a weak point of a casting causes it to distort at that point. c. Immediately following crack repair by welding, it is important to flush the part with cold water. d. Cracks in metal castings are the result of stress or strain on a section of the casting. ANSWER: c 16. Technician A disconnects the positive battery cable before removing the engine from the vehicle. Technician B disconnects the negative battery cable. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 17. On an OHC engine, the _____ must be removed before the cylinder head(s) is removed: a. water pump b. camshafts Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10: Engine Disassembly and Cleaning c. timing belt or chain ANSWER: c
d. All the answers are correct.
18. Technician A unbolts the AC compressor from its bracket and repositions it so that the engine can be removed without disconnecting the AC hoses. Technician B captures the refrigerant using a reclaimer or recycling machine before removing the AC hoses from the compressor and then plugs the lines and connections at the compressor. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 19. Technician A rotates the engine by hand until all the cam timing marks align to ensure that the cam timing is set properly. Technician B moves the belt tensioner pulley to release its tension on the belt before removing the timing belt. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 20. Which of the following solvents have associated health risks? a. chlorinated hydrocarbons b. mineral spirits c. caustic soda d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: d 21. Technician A washes parts to remove the ash after they have been cleaned in a thermal cleaning oven. Technician B uses shot blasting to remove the ash from parts after they have been cleaned in a thermal cleaning oven. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 22. All of the following are used in dye penetrant crack detection EXCEPT: a. penetrant b. cleaner c. developer d. electromagnet ANSWER: d 23. Technician A removes the starter wiring and then removes the starter from the vehicle. Technician B unbolts the starter with the wiring attached and lets the starter hang by the wiring. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 24. Technician A uses a chalk mark to index the position of the rear U-joint and pinion flange. Technician B, when removing drive axles, scribes marks on the suspension and steering parts to ensure that the wheel alignment will be close after reassembly. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10: Engine Disassembly and Cleaning 25. While removing a cylinder head, Technician A keeps all rocker arms and pushrods in order. Technician B loosens the head bolts in random order. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 26. While discussing abrasive cleaners, Technician A says that shot is angular in shape and is used for aggressivecleaning. Technician B says that grit is an angular-shaped medium and is used to peen metal surfaces. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 27. Technician A says that it is a good practice to clean the engine and engine compartment before beginning the engine removal process. Technician B says that all engine fluids should be drained before engine removal. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 28. In what scenario should you use an engine cradle to remove it from the vehicle? a. When removing the engine from under the b. When removing the engine through the hood opening vehicle in a FWD in a FWD c. When removing the engine through the hood d. When removing the engine separated from the opening in a RWD transmission in a RWD ANSWER: a 29. Technician A says that, compared to RWD cars, engines in FWD cars are easier to remove because they do not have large assemblies, such as engine cradles, suspension components, brake components, splash shields, or other pieces that need to be disassembled or removed. Technician B says that in certain vehicles, the engine and transmission must be removed together as a unit. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 30. Technician A says excessive buildup of sludge may indicate a poor oil change schedule. Technician B says a buildup of scale in the engine can cause cooling system blockage. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 31. Extreme care should be used when using a scraper or wire brush on parts made of _____. a. cast iron b. stainless steel c. titanium d. aluminum ANSWER: d 32. When attaching a lifting eye to an engine prior to removing the engine with an engine hoist, how far must a 10 mm bolt be threaded into the engine? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10: Engine Disassembly and Cleaning a. 5 mm c. 15 mm ANSWER: c
b. 10 mm d. 20 mm
33. Caustic soda should never be used to clean parts made of _____. a. aluminum b. steel c. iron d. brass ANSWER: a 34. Technician A uses masking tape and a marking pen to label electrical connectors and vacuum lines. Technician B puts all the nuts, bolts, and other fasteners into a big coffee can and sorts them out during reassembly. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 35. Which type of soil is not water soluble? a. dirt b. dust c. mud d. carbon ANSWER: d 36. While discussing cleaning engine parts, Technician A says that a parts tumbler is good for cleaning aluminum components, such as intake manifolds and cylinder heads. Technician B says that the cleaning method used depends on the component to be cleaned and the type of cleaning equipment available. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 37. Install a ____________________ before you disconnect the battery to prevent the vehicle’s computer and other devices from losing information they have stored in their memory. ANSWER: memory saver 9-volt battery that plugs into the cigarette lighter socket 38. A ____________________ hammer is used to drive the CV joint spline out of the wheel hub. ANSWER: Soft-face brass plastic-face 39. The first step in the disassembly of an engine is usually the removal of the ____________________ and ____________________ manifolds. ANSWER: intake, exhaust exhaust, intake 40. The flywheel bolts should be loosened in a ____________________ pattern. ANSWER: star 41. ____________________ should be used to prevent damage to body work and painted surfaces around the hood opening. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10: Engine Disassembly and Cleaning ANSWER: Fender covers 42. When does a cleaning solution become hazardous or toxic waste? a. When it expires b. When it is used in a parts washer c. When it is contaminated with grease and grime d. Never ANSWER: c 43. Parts washers are often called ____________________ tanks. ANSWER: solvent 44. The flywheel for a vehicle with a manual transmission should be examined for damage and signs of ____________________ problems. ANSWER: clutch 45. An engine that has enough clearance between the pistons and valves so that if the timing belt breaks the valves will not be damaged is called a ____________________ engine. ANSWER: free-wheeling noninterference 46. What is an interference engine? ANSWER: In an interference engine, the valve will hit the pistons if the timing belt or chain breaks, slips, or skips. The valves will be bent, pistons may be damaged, and extensive engine damage may also occur. 47. When removing an engine attached to its transmission on a RWD, all of the following may need to be removed EXCEPT: a. drive shaft b. rear suspension c. clutch hydraulic lines d. speedometer cable ANSWER: b 48. Describe a thermal cleaning operation. ANSWER: A part is placed in a thermal cleaning oven and heated to 650 to 800 degrees Fahrenheit (343 to 426 degrees Celsius) to oxidize any grease and oil and then cleaned with shot blast or solvent to remove the residue. 49. Identify the adverse effects of aggressive cleaning with grit. ANSWER: If left unfinished or unpainted, tiny crevices on the part surface may lead to cracking. 50. Describe how magnet crack detection is done. ANSWER: A magnetic field is passed through the part to be inspected. Iron filings are sprinkled on the part to detect a secondary magnetic field around the crack. A crack aligned with the magnetic field will not show up until the magnetic field is rotated 90 degrees. 51. List the procedure for keeping the customer’s vehicle clean while the engine is being rebuilt. ANSWER: Make sure your hands, shoes, and clothing are clean before getting into the customer’s car. Use disposable seat covers, steering wheel covers, and floor coverings. Always use fender covers. 52. How can a cell phone or camera be of help when removing engines from the vehicle? a. It lets you find information from social b. It keeps a record of your time to make you a better Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10: Engine Disassembly and Cleaning network. c. It recalls the location of under-the-hood items before work is started. ANSWER: c
technician. d. It can be used to call your supervisor when in doubt about how items were located under the hood.
53. When disassembling an engine, what should you be looking for? ANSWER: Excessive wear on moving parts, signs of overheating, unusual wear patterns, metal chips, excessive carbon buildup, sludge, and scale 54. Which method for finding cracks requires submerging the component in water? a. magnetic check b. pressure check c. dye penetrant d. All options are correct. ANSWER: b 55. Identify some personal safety concerns when working with any type of cleaning solvent or chemical. ANSWER: Wear protective gloves and goggles, work in a well-ventilated area, read product labels, and study and follow the equipment operating instructions. 56. The decision to repair or replace a cracked part should be based on: a. the location of the crack b. the cost of the repair c. any other repair the part may need d. B and C are correct. ANSWER: d 57. What component may need to be removed before mounting the engine on its stand? a. Starter motor b. Flywheel or flexplate c. Engine head d. Intake and exhaust manifolds ANSWER: b 58. What cleaning agent is normally used in a hot spray tank? a. Caustic soda b. Hydrocarbon solvents c. A strong soap solution d. Mineral spirits ANSWER: c 59. All of the following chemicals are used as part of the dry penetrant method of finding cracks EXCEPT: a. developer b. salt c. penetrant d. cleaner ANSWER: b 60. Where is a safe place to store a vehicle’s hood if removed? a. Under the vehicle b. Standing up against a wall c. On the vehicle’s roof d. The best is not to remove the hood. ANSWER: c 61. When using a soak tank, what can cause a progressive increase in the cleaning time? a. The temperature of the chemical cleaner b. The pressure of the chemical cleaner Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10: Engine Disassembly and Cleaning c. The age of the chemical cleaner ANSWER: c
d. The material of the part being cleaned
62. What is an advantage of using emery cloth on a power tool to clean engine parts? a. It is the fastest way to clean an engine. b. It will not remove any metal from the part. c. It can remove carbon deposits from oil galleries. d. It can remove a large accumulation of grime. ANSWER: b 63. What of the following conditions could cause cracks in metal casting parts? a. Material casting defects b. Impacts caused by solid objects c. Adding cold coolant to a hot engine d. All the options are correct. ANSWER: d 64. All of the following crack detection methods can be used to detect cracks on an aluminum engine head EXCEPT: a. Pressure test b. Magnetic check c. Dye penetrant d. None of the options is correct. ANSWER: b 65. What is the best way to prevent distortion of an engine head once it is removed from the engine? a. Lay it down on a hard surface. b. Lay it down on cardboard or any other soft surface. c. Keep it warm. d. Lay it upside down. ANSWER: b
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Chapter 11: Lower End Theory and Service 1. A cylinder block may be a two-piece casting: the upper part contains the cylinders, and the lower part surrounds the crankshaft. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. When an aluminum block uses liners, what are they normally made of? a. Cast-iron alloy b. Aluminum c. Steel d. Brass ANSWER: a 3. If a hydraulic lifter leaks beyond spec, it should be replaced along with what other component? a. Piston b. Crankshaft c. Camshaft d. Push rod ANSWER: c 4. When is “degreeing” a camshaft recommended? a. When replacing the timing chain b. When replacing the crankshaft gear c. When replacing the valves d. When using a performance camshaft ANSWER: d 5. Which of the following could be a reason for the oil pressure relief valve to fail? a. Oil filter clogged b. Using a different oil grade than recommended by the manufacturer c. Air leaks on the suction side of the d. Oil leak on the delivery side of the pump pump ANSWER: c 6. A damaged threaded hole in an aluminum block should be repaired by using a bottoming tap of the correct size. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Most cylinder wear occurs at the top of the ring travel. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. When installing a segmented oil control ring, the end gaps of the three pieces must line up. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Old core and oil galley plugs are normally removed and replaced as part of cylinder block reconditioning. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11: Lower End Theory and Service b. False ANSWER: True 10. The bottom ring on a piston is a compression ring. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. What type of bearings should be used when housing bores have been machined larger than their original dimension? a. Undersize bearing b. Oversized bearing c. Different material bearing d. New original standard bearing ANSWER: b 12. What tool is used to check camshaft endplay? a. Feeler gauge b. Dial indicator c. Micrometer d. Caliper ANSWER: b 13. Oil pressure is determined by whether the pump is a gear type or rotor type, as well as by oil clearances, the pump’s pressure regulator valve, and oil viscosity. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. What is the best way to check an oil pump? a. Check for noise during operation. c. Check the clearance between outer rotor and housing. ANSWER: d
b. Measure the diameter of the rotors. d. Conduct an oil pressure test.
15. Which of the following is a possible consequence of excessive backlash in timing gears? a. Spalling on timing gear b. Timing gear tooth breakage c. Excessive lifter wear d. Noisy operation ANSWER: b 16. Most pistons used today are made from _____. a. cast iron b. aluminum c. ceramic d. brass ANSWER: b 17. All of the examples listed below are core plug types EXCEPT: a. cup b. disc or dished c. expansion d. Babbitt ANSWER: d 18. The maximum amount of cylinder taper normally allowed is: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11: Lower End Theory and Service a. 0.0015 in. (0.038 mm) c. 0.015 in. (0.38 mm) ANSWER: b
b. 0.006 in. (0.15 mm) d. 0.06 in. (1.5 mm)
19. The connecting rod journal is also called the ______. a. pin boss b. vibration damper c. piston pin d. crank pin ANSWER: d 20. Technician A says that the distance across the outside parting surface of the bearing is slightly greater than the diameter of the housing bore, and this feature is called spread. Technician B says that when a connecting bearing half is installed, the bearing edges extend slightly from the seat; this extension is called bearing crush. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 21. Two technicians are discussing the installation of segmented (three-piece) oil control rings. Technician A says that the ends of the expander or spacer (middle piece) must overlap. Technician B says that the end gaps of all three pieces must be evenly spaced apart. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 22. Technician A says that the maximum amount of cylinder out-of-roundness allowed in most cases is 0.0015 in. (0.038mm). Technician B says that a cylinder can have a taper of up to 0.010 in. (0.254 mm) and still be acceptable. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 23. Technician A says that the pickup screen is rarely replaced when an engine is rebuilt. Technician B says that when installing the pickup tube, you should reuse the original gaskets and seals.. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 24. Technician A says that the oil pump is driven directly by the crankshaft. Technician B says that, on some older engines, the oil pump is driven by the distributor. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 25. Technician A installs a cup-type core plug with its flanged edge facing inward. Technician B hits the center (crown) of a dished-type core plug with a hammer to flatten and expand the plug for a tight fit. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11: Lower End Theory and Service c. both A and B ANSWER: b
d. neither A nor B
26. Technician A uses a micrometer to measure the connecting rod journal for taper. Technician B uses a micrometer to measure the connecting rod journal for out-of-roundness. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 27. Technician A says piston ring grooves should be cleaned with a groove cleaner. Technician B says piston ring grooves should be cleaned with a broken piston ring. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 28. Technician A checks crankshaft endplay or end clearance with a feeler gauge. Technician B uses a dial indicator. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 29. A cylinder bore can be checked for out-of-roundness with a _____. a. dial bore gauge b. telescoping gauge and micrometer c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 30. Why should balance shafts be timed to the crankshaft? a. The balance shaft counterweight should be positioned opposite the weight of the crankshaft. b. Balance shafts do not need to be timed. c. The balance shaft counterweight should be positioned opposite the lobes on the camshaft. d. The balance shaft counterweight should be positioned opposite piston number one. ANSWER: d 31. Technician A says a piston pin is sometimes called a wrist pin. Technician B says the piston pin is always centered in the piston. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 32. Technician A says engine blocks are made from iron. Technician B says engine blocks are made from aluminum. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11: Lower End Theory and Service ANSWER: c 33. What tool is required to remove a dished-type core plug? a. Vise grips b. Allen socket c. Three-jaw puller d. Slide hammer ANSWER: d 34. Which operation must be performed before removing the pistons from an engine? a. Install rod bolt protector sleeves. b. Remove the cylinder ridge with a ridge reamer. c. If the connecting rods are not marked from the factory, number the rods with a prick punch or number stamp. d. All of these steps must be taken. ANSWER: d 35. All of the following are possible ways to lubricate piston pins EXCEPT: a. Through passages in the connecting rod b. Spray nozzle in the rod or piston c. Direct line to the oil pump d. Oil splashing in the crankcase ANSWER: c 36. If timing gears are misaligned by one gear tooth, how many degrees will the timing be off by? a. 20˚ b. 10˚ c. 17˚ d. 25˚ ANSWER: c 37. In which situation should a main bearing not be oiled or greased? a. While installing, the back of it should never be oiled or greased. c. Main bearings should always be oiled or greased. ANSWER: d
b. While checking oil clearance with Plastigage d. Options A and B are correct.
38. Pistons for modern engines are made of _____. a. cast iron b. aluminum c. titanium d. steel ANSWER: b 39. When installing an oil pump in an engine: Technician A packs the pump with petroleum jelly. Technician B submerges the pump in clean oil and rotates the pump shaft to fill the pump body. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 40. A degree wheel is used to _____. a. adjust camshaft timing on a performance camshaft Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11: Lower End Theory and Service b. resurface the cylinder deck surface c. align the crankshaft to the cylinder bores d. install the oil pump ANSWER: a 41. Plastigage is used to check the clearance between _____. a. connecting rod journal and connecting rod bearing b. main bearing journal and main bearing c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 42. Babbitt, a mixture of lead and tin, is used in _____. a. piston skirt coatings b. piston head coatings c. camshaft coatings d. connecting rod and main bearings ANSWER: d 43. Hub, inertia ring, and elastomer (rubber) sleeve are parts of a _____. a. balance shaft assembly b. oil pump c. timing chain tensioner d. harmonic balancer ANSWER: d 44. A lifter that has a concave contact face must be ____________________. ANSWER: replaced 45. The difference in diameter between the bottom of the cylinder bore and the top of the bore just below the ridge is __________. ANSWER: taper 46. Combustion heat, engine oil, and piston movement combine to form a thin residue on the cylinder walls that is commonly called ____________________. ANSWER: glaze 47. When is the use of oversized pistons required? a. When using oversized main bearings c. When glaze is found on the cylinder walls ANSWER: b
b. When reboring an engine d. When the engine deck is machined
48. The holes in the cylinder block that allow the removal of sand used in the casing process are sealed by ____________________. ANSWER: core plugs 49. A vibration damper is often called a(n) ____________________ balancer. ANSWER: harmonic 50. What is the function of the counterweights built into the crankshaft? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11: Lower End Theory and Service a. To overcome the imbalance created by the offset crankpins c. To overcome the imbalance of the camshaft’s lobes ANSWER: a
b. To overcome the imbalance of the balancer shaft d. To overcome the imbalance of the pistons
51. Maximum taper for a rod journal is typically ____________________ inch. ANSWER: 0.001 52. Most camshafts on overhead valve engines use ____________________-piece bearings. ANSWER: one 1 53. The oil hole drilled in the big end of a connecting rod serves to lubricate the piston skirt and the ____________________. ANSWER: cylinder wall cylinder 54. A thrust plate is sometimes used to limit the fore and aft movement (end play) of the ____________________. ANSWER: camshaft 55. What is the function of the flywheel? ANSWER: The flywheel helps the engine run smoothly by applying a constant moving force to carry momentum from one firing stroke to the next. Once the flywheel starts to rotate, its weight helps it continue rotating. The flywheel’s inertia helps keep the crankshaft rotating smoothly despite the pulses of power from the pistons. 56. Describe how to use Plastigage. ANSWER: Place a thin strip of Plastigage between the crankshaft journal and bearing. Torque the bolts and then remove the bearing cap. Measure the width of the Plastigage. 57. When are undersized bearings used? ANSWER: Undersized bearings are used when a shaft (journal) has been ground to a smaller diameter. 58. How is deck warpage checked? ANSWER: Deck warpage is checked using a precision straightedge and feeler gauge. The thickest feeler gauge that can slip through the gap between the straightedge, and the deck surface is equal to the warpage. If the warpage exceeds manufacturer’s specified limits, the block must be resurfaced or replaced. 59. How is a long block different from a short block? ANSWER: A long block is basically a short block that includes the cylinder heads. 60. Describe a basic short block assembly. ANSWER: A basic short block assembly consists of a cylinder block, crankshaft, crankshaft bearings, connection rods, pistons and rings, and oil galley and core plugs. 61. What is the function of compression rings? ANSWER: Compression rings form the seal between the piston and cylinder walls, separating the combustion chamber and the crankcase. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11: Lower End Theory and Service 62. What is the function of the crankshaft thrust bearing? ANSWER: The thrust bearing is used to control the horizontal (axial) movement of the crankshaft. This is also called end play. 63. Where does maximum cylinder bore wear occur? ANSWER: Maximum wear occurs at the top of the ring travel area, just below the cylinder ridge. 64. What part of the block is the deck? ANSWER: The deck is the top part of the engine block where the cylinder head mounts 65. What is the major thrust face? ANSWER: The major thrust face is the part of the piston skirt that experiences the greatest thrust load. This is typically the right side of the piston when viewed from the flywheel end of the engine. During the power stroke, the force applied to the top of the piston pushes the piston sideways into the cylinder wall. 66. What is the most common method used to keep main bearings in place? a. Bearing spread b. Bearing crush c. Locating lugs d. Oil grooves ANSWER: c 67. What are the major reasons for bearing failure? a. Oil starvation and dirt b. Dirt and bent crankshaft c. Corrosion and fatigue d. Oil starvation and cooling failure ANSWER: a 68. What material can connecting rods be made of? a. High-strength steel b. Aluminum c. Titanium d. All options are correct. ANSWER: d 69. What part of the piston supports the pressure from combustion? a. Ring lands b. Dome c. Piston skirt d. Wrist pin boss ANSWER: c 70. What should be done if ring side clearance is out of specification? a. Piston should be machined. b. Piston should be replaced. c. Piston rings should be replaced. d. Oversized piston rings should be used. ANSWER: b
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Chapter 12: Upper End Theory and Service 1. A cylinder head may be made of cast iron or aluminum. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. To protect against scuffing and wear, some valves have coatings of black nitride applied to the valve stem. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. The hemispherical combustion chamber provides excellent turbulence to the air and fuel mixture. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Sodium-filled valves should be cut open for inspection. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Powder metal valve seats are softer and do not last as long as cast iron seats. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Aluminum cylinder head bolts should never be loosened or tightened when the metal is hot. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Many camshaft journals run directly on aluminum supports and do not use bearing inserts. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Resurfacing a cylinder head gasket surface may alter the combustion chamber volume. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. The performance of an engine, its fuel efficiency, and its exhaust emissions all depend to a large extent on the shape of the combustion chamber. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12: Upper End Theory and Service 10. Stainless steel is nonmagnetic. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Which of the following statements about knurling is false? a. It is one of the fastest techniques for restoring the inside diameter dimension of a worn valve guide b. Using oversize valve stems is superior to knurling. c. It is useful for restoring badly worn guides to their original condition. d. It doesn’t change the centerline of the valve stem. ANSWER: c 12. A single hole in the cylinder head that divides into two branches is called a _____ port. a. dual b. siamese c. combination d. two-stage ANSWER: b 13. What is typically the maximum amount of warpage that is acceptable on a cast-iron cylinder head? a. 0.002 in. (.05 mm) b. 0.003 in. (.076 mm) c. 0.004 in. (.1016 mm) d. 0.005 in. (.127 mm) ANSWER: c 14. Multiple valve engines tend to be more efficient than engines with two valves per cylinder because: a. larger valve area improves the air flow. b. air velocity is increased. c. less engine power is lost to spring opening drag. d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: d 15. Valve springs should be checked for all of the following EXCEPT: a. freestanding height b. squareness c. compressed height d. open pressure ANSWER: c 16. Technician A says worn valve stem seals can increase oil consumption. Technician B says worn valve stem seals can cause valve deposits. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 17. Technician A says positive valve stem seals fit loosely around the top of the stem. Technician B says positive stem seals scrape oil off the valve as it moves up and down. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12: Upper End Theory and Service ANSWER: b 18. Cylinder head warpage can be measured with _____. a. a straightedge and feeler gauge b. a dial indicator c. a surface gauge d. a ball gauge and outside micrometer ANSWER: a 19. Technician A says VVT (variable valve timing) engines use a cam phaser that advances or retards the camshaft as the engine is running. Technician B says VVT engines use a third cam lobe with increased lift and duration, operating a third rocker arm that is coupled to the two primary rocker arms by a hydraulically controlled pin, while the engine is running. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 20. Technician A says if valve stem height exceeds specifications, it can be adjusted by grinding the valve tip. Technician B says the valve stem height can be adjusted with shims. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 21. Hemispherical combustion chambers are being discussed. Technician A says the flame path from the spark plug to the piston head is long, which provides efficient burning. Technician B says the cross-flow arrangement of the inlet and exhaust valves allows for a free flow of gases in and out of the chamber. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 22. Technician A says heat is transferred from an exhaust valve to the cylinder head through the valve seat. Technician B says some exhaust valves have a hollow stem filled with silicone to transfer heat to the valve guide. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: a 23. Technician A says multivalve engines can have two valves per cylinder. Technician B says multivalve engines must have five valves per cylinder. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 24. Technician A says multivalve engines have a more complete combustion than conventional engine designs. Technician B says the benefits of multivalve engines may be offset by a more complicated camshaft arrangement. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12: Upper End Theory and Service 25. Which type of valve stem seals move up and down with the valve stems to deflect oil away from the guides? a. positive b. umbrella c. O-ring d. lip ANSWER: b 26. After resurfacing a valve seat at 45 degrees, the seat is too wide and the contact pattern extends all the way up to the valve margin. What should be done to bring the seat width into specifications? a. Make a 30-degree topping cut. b. Make a 45-degree seat cut. c. Make a 60-degree throat cut. d. Replace the valve. ANSWER: a 27. Technician A checks for bent pushrods by rolling them on a flat surface. Technician B checks for bent pushrods using a dial indicator and V-blocks. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c 28. Valve guides are _____. a. integral (bores in cylinder head) c. pressed in bronze inserts ANSWER: d
b. pressed in cast iron inserts d. All the answers are correct.
29. Resurfacing the cylinder head can affect _____. a. compression ratio b. valve timing c. piston to valve clearance d. All the answers are correct. ANSWER: d 30. A pent-roof combustion chamber is normally found on which cylinder head type? a. OHV b. four-valve per cylinder c. two-valve per cylinder d. VVT (variable valve timing) ANSWER: b 31. Prussian blue or machinist dye is used to ______. a. measure stem-to-guide clearance b. measure valve runout c. mark the position of cam bearings prior to removal d. check the width and position of the valve-to-seat contact pattern ANSWER: d 32. Technician A resurfaces valve seats using a grinding stone. Technician B resurfaces valve seats using a cutting blade. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12: Upper End Theory and Service 33. Technician A says the end of the valve spring that is wound the tightest should face toward the spring retainer. Technician B says the O-ring seal should be installed in the lowest of the keeper grooves on the valve stem. a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: b 34. Installed spring height (the distance between the spring seat and the bottom of the retainer) can be measured with a spring height gauge or ____________________. ANSWER: a telescoping gauge dividers scales 35. Very rapid movement of gases in the cylinder causes air and fuel to mix better and improves combustion. We call this movement _______. ANSWER: Turbulence 36. ____________________ Name the component that supports the valve in the head and prevents the valve from moving in any direction other than up and down. ANSWER: Valve guide 37. The type of valve used in automotive engines is called a ____________________. ANSWER: poppet 38. The surface of a valve that comes into contact with the valve seat is called the valve ____________________. ANSWER: face 39. The distance between the valve face and the head of the valve is called the ____________________. ANSWER: margin 40. The camshafts and timing gears are removed from the cylinder head. A technician covers the return oil holes in a camshaft with electrical tape and applies compressed air to the other oil hole. With the camshaft held stationary, the timing gear rotates a few degrees counterclockwise. When the air pressure is released, the timing gear rotates clockwise back to its original position. This proves that the ____________________ is working properly. ANSWER: phaser 41. A cylinder head that has the intake manifold and all the intake valves on one side and the exhaust manifold and exhaust valves on the opposite side is called a ____________________type cylinder head. ANSWER: cross-flow 42. Installed valve spring height can be adjusted with ____________________. ANSWER: shims 43. Describe a hemispherical combustion chamber. ANSWER: shaped like a ball sliced in half valves on either side at an angle to each other spark plug in the center nonturbulent design Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12: Upper End Theory and Service 44. How does refinishing a valve face and the valve seat affect its position in the cylinder head? ANSWER: The valve will set deeper into the port, thus altering valve stem height. 45. While disassembling a cylinder head, what would indicate that the valve seals are worn or damaged? ANSWER: A black, oily buildup in the neck and stem area indicates that oil is entering the cylinder through the intake valve. 46. Where on the cylinder head are cracks most likely to occur? ANSWER: between the spark plug bore and valve seat between the valve seats around the valve guides and in the exhaust ports 47. What is the function of a rocker arm? ANSWER: A rocker arm changes the direction of the cam’s lifting force. As the lifter and pushrods move up, the rocker arm pivots on its axis and forces the valve downward. Rocker arms can also provide leverage [rocker ratio] that allows the valve to open farther than the cam lift. 48. Describe a phaser. ANSWER: The phaser allows crankshaft-to-camshaft timing to change while the engine is running. The phaser is mounted where the timing pulley, sprocket, or gear would be. Phasers can be electronically or hydraulically controlled. In hydraulically controlled systems, oil flow is controlled by the PCM. Electronic systems rely on stepper motors. 49. What happens when valve spring tension is too low? ANSWER: Insufficient spring tension can lead to valve bounce and breakage. 50. What is the most common cause of warpage in an aluminum cylinder head? ANSWER: Warpage in an aluminum cylinder head is usually the result of overheating. Engine overheating can be caused by low coolant levels, coolant leaks, uneven coolant circulation within the head, thermostat stuck closed, restricted radiator, defective fan, lean fuel mixture, or incorrect ignition timing. 51. The Dodge Viper uses variable valve timing on ________________________ . a. the intake valves b. the exhaust valves c. both the intake and exhaust valves d. neither the intake nor exhaust valves ANSWER: b 52. When inspecting valves, they should be checked for all of the following EXCEPT: a. bent b. chipped c. burned d. length ANSWER: d 53. If a valve tip is mushroomed, it can be corrected using ____________________. a. an angle grinder b. a hammer c. a hand file d. a valve grinder ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12: Upper End Theory and Service 54. When the intake cam timing is advanced, it ________________________________. a. increases low end torque b. increases high rpm power c. Increases both low end torque and high end power d. increases fuel mileage ANSWER: a 55. The device used to change cam timing in a variable valve timing system is called a ____________________. a. timing belt b. phasor c. timing gears d. solenoid ANSWER: b 56. All of the following are disadvantages of larger valves EXCEPT: a. Stronger springs are needed. b. low air velocity at low speeds c. More power is needed to open valve. d. more air flow ANSWER: d 57. The Honda VTEC system has how many lobes for each pair of intake valves? a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: b 58. If variable valve timing is used on the exhaust camshaft, it can eliminate the need for ____________. a. ECT b. IAT c. MAP d. EGR ANSWER: d 59. Variable valve timing can be used on ______________________. a. The intake valves b. The exhaust valves c. both the intake and exhaust valves d. neither the intake nor exhaust valves ANSWER: c 60. When the intake cam timing is retarded, it ________________________________. a. increases low end torque b. increases high rpm power c. Increases both low end torque and high end power d. increases fuel mileage ANSWER: b 61. The Honda VVT-i system uses a __________________________ to control the camshaft timing. a. reed valve b. rocker arm c. solenoid d. spool valve ANSWER: d 62. The Honda VVT-i system uses __________________________ to determine camshaft position. a. crankshaft position b. camshaft position c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12: Upper End Theory and Service 63. Rocker arms are made from all of the following except __________________________ . a. titanium b. aluminum c. stamped steel d. None of the above are correct. ANSWER: a 64. Exhaust valves are sodium filled to __________________________ . a. lighten them b. help keep valves cool c. make them stronger d. help exhaust gas flow ANSWER: b 65. The device attached to the camshaft and used to control camshaft timing is called a __________________________ . a. reductor b. controller c. spool valve d. phaser ANSWER: d
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Chapter 13: Engine Sealing and Reassembly 1. Elasticity means that a bolt can be stretched or compressed. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Tightening of a bolt should be done with an impact wrench followed by a torque wrench. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. A torque-to-yield bolt can be reused if it is not damaged. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Gasket sealants should be used on all gasket installations. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. A gasket installed upside down or reversed may cause loss of oil pressure, overheating, and engine failure. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. After the break-in period, the cylinder head and intake manifold bolts may need to be retorqued. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. A gasket adhesive does not add to the gasket’s sealing ability. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. To provide a good sealing joint between the cylinder head and exhaust manifold, apply a sealant to the machined surfaces. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. On some OHC engines, the camshaft[s] must be removed to adjust the valve lash. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13: Engine Sealing and Reassembly 10. Molded rubber gaskets should be coated with hardening-type sealer prior to installation. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. All head bolts in an engine are the same length. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. What keeps the cylinder head and block aligned before the head bolts are torqued? a. head gasket b. friction between head gasket and block c. gravity d. dowel pins ANSWER: d 13. What should be done to correct bolt holes in the block that are pulled up (raised)? a. The threads should be cleaned with a bottoming tap b. The bolt holes should be tapered at the surface by chamfering c. The threads should be cleaned with a bottoming tap and the bolt holes should be tapered at the surface by chamfering. d. None of the answers is correct. ANSWER: b 14. Technician A coats head gaskets with black RTV. Technician B coats exhaust manifold gaskets with red RTV. Who is correct? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B ANSWER: d 15. The shop manual should have a picture of the head bolt tightening sequence. However, if there is no shop manual or technical data available, what would the best tightening sequence be? a. Go from left to right all of the top row (intake side) first, then tighten all of the bottom row (exhaust) bolts right to left b. Go from left to right all of the bottom row bolts (exhaust side) first, then tighten all of the top row (intake) bolts right to left c. Go in a circular pattern beginning in the center and ending on the outboard ends d. Go in a circular pattern working from the outside toward the center ANSWER: c 16. The proper engine break-in procedure is a test run at ______. a. constant 30 mph (48 km/h) b. 10 mph (16 km/h) and acceleration to 30 mph (48 km/h) c. constant 60 mph (96 km/h) highway speed d. 30 mph (48 km/h) and acceleration to 50 mph (80 km/h) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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