TEST BANK For American Government and Politics Today, 2017-2018 Edition, 18e Lynne Ford Barbara Bard

Chapter 1 1. Democracy in the United States derives its powers from a. the Constitution. b. the Declaration of Independence. c. the U.S. Supreme Court. *d. citizens. e. natural law.

2. A significant issue the government faces today is a. a decrease in the national debt. b. a decrease in global competition and foreign trade. *c. an increasing gap in the income and wealth of individuals. d. the availability of homes for purchase. e. an abundance of available social welfare funding.

3.

can be defined as “who gets what, when, and how.” *a. Politics b. Government c. Institutions d. Social contracts e. Democracy

4. The struggle over power or influence within organizations or informal groups that can grant or withhold benefits or privileges is known as a. aristocracy. b. authority. c. government. d. legitimacy. *e. politics.

5. refers to the preeminent institution in which decisions are made that resolve conflicts or allocates benefits and privileges. a. Bureaucracy *b. Government c. Democracy d. Politics e. Socialization

6. Which doctrine supports the belief that a leader's authority is conferred directly by God, and

is not subject to the authority of the church or the people? a. theory of enlightenment b. self-actualization *c. divine right of kings d. trinity doctrine e. social contract

7. One of the most enduring shared American political values is a. a belief in wealth distribution. b. a belief about the right to privacy. c. a belief about the appropriate size and purpose of government. *d. a belief in the rule of law. e. a belief in monarchical rule.

8. The theory that individuals form communities by mutual consent, giving up some of their

individual liberty in order to gain the protection of government, is known as a. divine right. *b. social contract. c. the Leviathan agreement. d. communitarianism. e. elitism.

9. Theorist Thomas Hobbes believed that life without government *a. would be nasty, violent, and short. b. would be free of unnecessary intrusions. c. would resemble the Age of Enlightenment. d. is unnecessary, given man’s inherent qualities. e. is a utopian ideal.

10. When the local mayor is arrested for shoplifting, and the store decides to press charges

much as it would for any shoplifter, this is a demonstration of a. eminent domain. b. property rights. c. habeas corpus. *d. rule of law. e. social contract theory.

11. __________ theorized that government is formed to protect life, liberty, and property, but if

government violates the social contract with the people, the people have the duty to end the abusive government and establish a new government. a. Thomas Hobbes b. Thomas Jefferson *c. John Locke d. Harold Lasswell e. Alexander Hamilton

12. ________ is the basis for power and legitimacy in American democracy. *a. Consent of the governed b. Universal suffrage c. One man, one vote d. Rights to life and liberty e. Majority rule

13. The set of ideas, values, and ways of thinking about government and politics that are shared

by all citizens is known as a. politics. *b. political culture. c. political socialization. d. socialism. e. a social contract.

14. The transmission of political culture to individuals from families, schools, houses of

worships, and the media is known as political a. science. b. transmission. *c. socialization. d. dissemination. e. passage.

15. After 9/11, the government of the United States acted in a manner that a. emphasized liberty over security. *b. emphasized security over liberty. c. dismissed the significance of both security and liberty. d. elevated the significance of both security and liberty. e. completely reversed all traditional political values.

16. During times of threats to national security such as the Civil War, World War II and the

McCarthy era, Americans have supported the increased actions of government to a. take control of corporations. b. limit religious freedom. *c. limit civil liberties. d. increase free speech rights. e. increase tolerance to diversity.

17. The advancement and protection of individual liberties, like the right to __________, are

part of the foundation of the social contract theory of government. a. advanced education b. property c. vote d. privacy *e. religious freedom

18. The oldest purpose of government is to *a. maintain order by protecting members of society from violence and criminal

activity. b. print money and control the economy. c. guarantee freedom and liberty for all people. d. act to protect the rights of the minority. e. establish benefits for the most wealthy and influential in society.

19. As a political value, equality is defined as the idea that all people a. should make the same amount of money. b. should be in a position to succeed economically. c. should have equal access to their elected representatives. d. have access to the courts to enforce their rights. *e. are of equal worth.

20. Political leaders in the United States initially extended equal treatment to *a. men who owned property. b. men who had been born in the 13 colonies. c. white men and women. d. all men regardless of race. e. all citizens.

21. Although Enlightenment philosophers believed in the inherent equality of all persons, they

a. supported the ideals of women's suffrage and abolition, while the Framers did not. *b. did not define all individuals as full persons. c. meant equal in a moral sense, not a political or legal view. d. equated a person with royalty. e. failed to consider the rights of the monarchy.

22. The concept of private ownership of property and a relatively open market for goods,

services, and investments is part of the economic system known as *a. capitalism. b. egalitarianism. c. communism. d. totalitarianism. e. socialism.

23. ________ refers to the right of government to take private land for public use, in return for

just compensation. a. Foreclosure b. Social order *c. Eminent domain d. Economic referendum e. Democracy

24. Totalitarianism means a. a government of independent states unified under a single ruler. b. a condition of having no government and no laws. c. people elect officials to make decisions for them for a specific period of time. *d. that government controls all facets of the religious, business, educational and

political lives of the people. e. the ultimate authority is vested in the people.

25. Which of these countries is the best example of a totalitarian regime? a. China *b. North Korea c. Afghanistan d. South Korea e. Ukraine

26. Much of the terminology used today to describe the distribution of political power is derived

from the

a. ancient Egyptians. *b. ancient Greeks. c. ancient Romans. d. English. e. French.

27. The absence of any form of government or political authority is called a. a regime. b. totalitarianism. c. aristocracy. *d. anarchy. e. oligarchy.

28. A system in which government is fully controlled by the ruler(s), but social and economic

institutions are not under control of the government, is called a. totalitarianism. b. absolutism. c. socialism. d. democratic socialism. *e. authoritarianism.

29. Which of the following is an example of direct democracy? a. Louisiana’s use of the parish *b. New England town meetings c. Somalia during the 1990s d. Soviet Union in the twenty-first century e. the Electoral College system

30. Initiative, referendum, and recall are examples of a. oligarchy. b. representative democracy. c. anarchy. *d. direct democracy. e. direct egalitarianism.

31. The Framers of the Constitution did not create a direct democracy because a. it wasn’t the best way to resist manipulative politicians.

b. direct democracy had never been used before. c. the people had expressed support for a government similar to a monarchy. d. they were worried about the efficiency of ballot counting mechanisms. *e. they believed the rights of the minority would be suppressed by the dominating

majority.

32. The Framers of the Constitution chose to create a(n) *a. republic. b. limited constitutional monarchy. c. totalitarian regime. d. authoritarian regime. e. oligarchic regime.

33. In a republic, there is no a. legislative body. b. rule of law. c. separation of powers. d. bureaucracy. *e. monarch.

34. A democratic republic refers to a form of government in which a. a single ruler controls all aspects of the government, but not economic and social

institutions. b. a single ruler controls all aspects of the government as well as economic and social institutions. *c. representatives are elected by the people to make and enforce laws and policies. d. representatives are appointed by a ruler to create laws and policies for the population. e. each individual person has an equal voice in the role and responsibilities of government.

35. Representative democracy almost always has the same definition as a. republican democracy. b. direct democracy. c. popular sovereignty *d. democratic republic. e. universal suffrage.

36. The United States did not truly become a representative democracy until a. 1789.

b. the Civil War. c. 1920. d. the New Deal. *e. the 1960s.

37. Modern democracies rely on majority rule and also work hard to protect a. monarchy rights. *b. minority rights. c. equality of outcome. d. majority will. e. expanded government.

38. Free and competitive elections are necessary for *a. the continued existence of a representative democracy. b. a totalitarian regime to succeed and demonstrate its legitimacy. c. direct democracy to occur. d. citizens to have justifiable pride in their country. e. all people, regardless of citizenship status, to have a voice in their government.

39. The concept in which the Constitution provides the fundamental structure of government

and describes what the national government can and cannot do is called *a. limited government. b. popular sovereignty. c. representative democracy. d. majority rule. e. majoritarianism.

40. The concept that in a democracy the government should listen to what most people want is

known as a. limited government. *b. majoritarianism. c. elitism. d. pluralism. e. totalitarianism.

41. The flaw with majoritarianism that can be harmful is that *a. the majority can make decisions that are restrictive to the minority group. b. the decisions are difficult to enforce.

c. a group of elites can become the decision makers. d. interest groups can become the decision makers. e. it doesn't take into account the beliefs of ordinary citizens.

42. A perspective holding that society is really ruled by a small number of people who exercise

power to further their self-interest is a. majoritarian theory. b. personality theory. *c. elite theory. d. pluralistic theory. e. interest group theory.

43. According to studies mentioned in the text, which of the following is likely to be more

tolerant of diversity and defend civil liberties? a. mass public *b. elites c. coalitions d. socialists e. conservatives

44. Pluralist theory proposes that people’s interests are protected by *a. interest groups. b. political parties. c. the majority. d. elected representatives. e. elites.

45. Political scientist E.E. Schattschneider criticized pluralist theory by saying, “The flaw in the

pluralist heaven is that the heavenly chorus sings __________.” a. only to deities b. for the chorus itself c. for the populous *d. with a strong upper-class accent e. with an outdated songbook

46. The comprehensive set of beliefs about the nature of people and the role of government is

known as *a. ideology. b. value system.

c. political science. d. political socialization. e. political culture.

47. __________ would strongly support property rights and oppose attempts to regulate

personal behavior and regulate moral values. a. Liberals b. Conservatives c. Traditionalists d. Activists *e. Libertarians

48. The belief in individuals being responsible for their well-being, a limited role of

government, and a support for policies favoring traditional values are characteristics of a. liberalism. *b. conservatism. c. libertarianism. d. totalitarianism. e. socialism.

49. __________ is the belief that government should take an active role in reducing poverty and

regulating the economy, support civil rights, and have a tolerance for social change. a. Libertarianism b. Conservatism *c. Liberalism d. Totalitarianism e. Socialism

50. A socialist would likely be in favor of the a. prohibition of workers unions and trade organizations. b. elimination of the Social Security and Medicare programs. *c. government taking over the oil industry to regulate gasoline and fuel oil prices. d. privatization of the national park system. e. elimination of a federal hourly minimum wage.

51. Based on its original meaning, the United States as a whole is a(n) ________ country, and

all popular American ideologies are variants of this ideology. *a. liberal b. conservative

c. elitist d. socialist e. libertarian

52. Today, libertarians sometimes refer to themselves as a. neoliberals. b. orthodox liberals. *c. classical liberals. d. classical conservatives. e. orthodox conservatives.

53. __________ believe in less government, support for capitalism and private property, and

allowing individuals to pursue their own route to achievement with little government interference. a. Fundamental conservatives b. Essential conservatives *c. Economic conservatives d. Fiduciary conservatives e. Moderate conservatives

54. __________ conservatives oppose abortion, support the death penalty, support the right to

own firearms, and oppose gay marriage. a. Hardline *b. Social c. Kindred d. Affinity e. Classical

55. Libertarian Ron Paul, a Texas congressman and former presidential candidate, remains

popular among college students for his positions which a. provide for free college tuition for all deserving students. b. urge military involvement in global humanitarian crises. c. support government oversight in economic, education and social matters. *d. strongly favor personal freedoms. e. advocate increasing affirmative action and minority reparations.

56. According to the text, a major change the United States will face in the coming years is a. the possibility of revolts against state governments. b. the increase in the number of nation-states in the world. c. the continuing failure of small farmers and decline of food sources.

d. a dramatic increase in its population growth. *e. a decline in its economic dominance.

57. Demographically, the United States is becoming a(n) a. elderly nation with the bulk of its citizens over age 65. b. middle-aged nation with a stagnant population. *c. middle-aged nation with a growing population of elderly. d. youth-oriented nation with the bulk of its citizens under age 30. e. youth-oriented nation with rapidly-rising birthrates.

58. An increased demand on Social Security and Medicare in the U.S. can be linked to the a. declining birth rate. b. increasing number of apathetic voters. c. declining income of workers 20 to 35 years old. d. increasing number of immigrants. *e. increasing number of senior citizens.

59. What is the median age of the U.S. population today? a. 23.4 b. 25 *c. 37.2 d. 40 e. 52.7

60. A Hispanic is someone who claims heritage from a. the island of Hispaniola. b. nations of the North American continent. c. Spanish conquistadors. d. both English-speaking and Spanish speaking ancestors. *e. a Spanish-speaking country other than Spain.

61. Why is the growing Hispanic population politically important? a. Hispanics are more likely to vote on issues, rather than affiliate with a political party. *b. Hispanics give the majority of their support to Democratic candidates. c. Hispanics have the highest rate of new voter registration of any ethnic group. d. Hispanics have the highest rate of voter participation of any ethnic group. e. Hispanics give the majority of their support to third-party candidates.

62. One of the major challenges of globalization is a. the dual citizenship of many of those employed by multinational corporations. b. the lack of an easy way to pay for goods and services in a global economy. c. that multinational corporations are accountable only to the country where the

business began. d. that it tends to drive up prices for all Western consumers. *e. that no single government can regulate multinational corporations.

63. In Thomas Friedman's The World is Flat, the author makes the case that globalization a. has actually disconnected more people than it has connected. b. will bring about the downfall of humankind. *c. and technology are intertwined. d. is strictly for wealthy nations, looking to dominate. e. is strictly for poor nations who are looking to rise.

64. The challenges posed by environmental change are political, *a. technological, and global. b. expertise, and monetary. c. proficiency, and fiscal. d. but exclusive to developed countries. e. but exclusive to developing countries.

65. What consequence is global warming thought to have on the United States? a. impact of heat waves on agricultural industry *b. increase in hurricanes and coastal damage to large populations on seacoasts c. increasing deforestation throughout Plains and Upper Midwest d. increasing droughts in central areas e. crushing rains and flooding near Great Lakes region

66. In your own words, define politics. How did politics play a role in the most recent election cycle?

Correct Answer:

Students' answers may vary.

67. Chapter 1 discussed the theme of “One Republic—Two Americas?” In your opinion, can the United States honor past promises and still meet future challenges? In your response, describe commitments and obligations that exist and challenges that the country faces.

Correct Answer:

Students' answers may vary.

68. Compare and contrast the social contract theories promoted by Thomas Hobbes and John Locke.

Correct Answer:

Students' answers may vary.

69. The fundamental values of U.S. political culture are liberty, order, individualism, equality, and property. Discuss which of these values is most important to you, and which of these values you would be willing to have limited.

Correct Answer:

Students' answers may vary.

70. Compare and contrast direct democracy with representative democracy, and explain why direct democracy is seldom used in governmental elections in the twenty-first century in the United States.

Correct Answer:

Students' answers may vary.

71. After reading the quote below, discuss the meaning of James Madison’s statements in Federalist #51 as related to the principle of limited government.

“Ambition must be made to counteract ambition. The interest of the man must be connected with the constitutional rights of the place. It may be a reflection on human nature that such devices should be necessary to control the abuses of government. But what is government itself but the greatest of all reflections on human nature? If men were angels, no government would be necessary. If angels were to govern men, neither external nor internal controls on government would be necessary.” – James Madison, Federalist #51 Correct Answer:

Students' answers may vary.

72. Summarize the majoritarianism, elitism, and pluralism theories.

Explain which you believe is the more accurate description of American politics.

Correct Answer:

Students' answers may vary.

73. What are the defining beliefs of those that call themselves, liberals, conservatives and libertarians? Be sure to discuss where these ideologies fall on the traditional political spectrum.

Correct Answer:

Students' answers may vary.

74. Identify and discuss major changes that are occurring within the population of the United States in the twenty-first century. Explain how you believe the government should respond to these changes.

Correct Answer:

Students' answers may vary.

75. Discuss the challenge of globalization. How will this affect the United States socially and politically in the next decade?

Correct Answer:

Students' answers may vary.

Chapter 2 1. The Constitution defines the structure of the national and state governments, as well as a. restricts the power of county or parish governments. b. outlines the nomination process for selecting the executive officer. *c. regulates the relationship between government and each individual citizen. d. restricts the power of the individual citizen. e. promotes the formation of a confederation of states.

2. Theoretically, the colonies were governed by England, but the colonists were able to exercise

a large measure of self-government because the a. British crown had little interest in any activities in the colonies. *b. distance between mother country and the colonies allowed more freedom. c. British were more concerned with colonies elsewhere. d. colonial representatives in Parliament had lobbied for more freedom. e. British had not issued a charter to each of the colonies, thus allowing greater

individual rights.

3. During the First Continental Congress, the delegates a. approved an immediate declaration of war against England. b. called for King George to step down from the throne. *c. passed a resolution which planned to send a petition expressing grievances. d. called on the colonies to raise armies and begin a trade blockade. e. called for individuals to return to England.

4. While a peaceful settlement with the British Parliament was still being discussed, the Second

Continental Congress *a. established an army and named George Washington as commander in chief. b. established a navy and named John Paul Jones supreme commander. c. entered into an agreement with France to go to war with Great Britain. d. declared war on Great Britain, France, and Spain. e. drafted a treaty that was rejected by Great Britain.

5. Thomas Paine’s work, Common Sense, was important for both his ideas and his a. continuing loyalty to aristocratic ideals. *b. ability to make the arguments in plain language for the readers. c. ties to Thomas Jefferson, George Washington, and George III. d. orations included in the text. e. new take on the arguments for independence.

6. The Declaration of Independence was necessary to a. establish a framework for a new system of government that would allow

representation without taxation. *b. establish the legitimacy of the new nation in the eyes of foreign governments and the colonists. c. create for a delicate balance of federal and state power. d. identify the reasons the British saw separation from the colonies as necessary. e. demand a separation of church and state.

7. The concept of a social contract existing between people and the government first occurred in

the United States a. during the Civil Rights era. *b. in the Plymouth colony. c. with the Declaration of Independence. d. with the Articles of Confederation. e. with the Constitution.

8. The Declaration of Independence reflects the philosophy of John Locke, who argued that a. government must pledge its allegiance to God before it can claim legitimacy. b. government must first put safety and security above all individual rights. c. government must be divided into executive, legislative, and judicial branches in order

to be effective. *d. all people possess certain natural rights and that it is the duty of the government to protect those rights. e. people possess only those rights that government grants to them.

9. Another purpose of the final version of the Declaration of Independence was to a. disband the army headed by George Washington. b. condemn the burgeoning slave trade. c. guarantee personal civil rights to all colonists. d. support the idea of strong central government. *e. justify the colonists' revolt against Britain.

10. A similarity that exists between the states of Pennsylvania and Georgia during the time of

the American Revolution and the state of Nebraska today is that all three a. instituted a nonvoluntary state militia. b. imposed a state income tax. c. established a plural executive. d. rejected the idea of a Bill of Rights.

*e. adopted a unicameral legislature.

11. The Article of Confederation established a voluntary association of independent states that a. relied on the national government to resolve all regional conflicts. b. paid a yearly levy to the national government to enforce state laws. *c. agreed to only limited restraint on their freedom of action. d. were represented on the basis of population in the Confederate Assembly. e. did not collect tariffs on goods coming into the state.

12. The Articles of Confederation were drafted by a. the legislators of Connecticut and Rhode Island. b. Jefferson,, Hamilton and Madison. c. the First Continental Congress. *d. the Second Continental Congress. e. the Congress of the Confederation.

13. The United States’ first written constitution was the a. Mayflower Compact. b. Declaration of Independence. c. League of States. *d. Articles of Confederation. e. Constitution.

14. Under the Articles of Confederation, the Congress was headed by a. no one. *b. a presiding officer chosen from among its members. c. a popularly-elected president. d. a president chosen by an Electoral College. e. a three-person presiding cabinet.

15. The two major accomplishments that occurred under the Articles of Confederation were a. passage of the Northwest Ordinance, and ending the French and Indian War. b. ending the French and Indian War, and passage of the Bill of Rights. c. passage of the Bill of Rights, and settlement of states’ claims to western lands, *d. settlement of states’ claims to western lands, and passage of the Northwest

Ordinance. e. establishment of the Supreme Court, and payment of damages that occurred during the Revolutionary War.

16. Under the Articles of Confederation, Congress had the power to *a. establish and control armed forces. b. compel states to meet military quotas. c. collect taxes directly from the people. d. regulate interstate and foreign commerce. e. compel states to pay their share of government costs.

17. A major deficiency of the government under the Articles of Confederation was that a. the state legislatures had to approve every act of Congress. b. Congress could regulate coinage. c. the costs of the military became a major expenditure. d. Congress could regulate the militia of each state. *e. each state retained its own sovereignty.

18. The most fundamental weakness of the Articles of Confederation was a lack of a. a bicameral legislature. b. a national system of courts. *c. power to raise funds for the militia. d. power to tax exports. e. state-supported currencies.

19. Shays' Rebellion plays an important role in American history because a. it represents the first major battle to occur in a southern colony during the American

Revolution. b. it anticipated the states' rights battle. c. it was the last major battle of the Revolutionary War. *d. it made obvious the weaknesses of the government under the Articles of Confederation. e. it enabled the colonists to reorganize and gain the upper hand against the British in the Revolutionary War.

20. A crucial weakness in the Articles of Confederation that forced the political leaders to meet

in 1786 was *a. the need for policies for economic stability. b. the states were unable to raise taxes. c. Georgia was considering forming an alliance with Spain. d. former militia members had occupied land in Pennsylvania. e. the lack of a central currency.

21. The publicly stated purpose of the convention to be held in 1787 was to a. develop and write a new Constitution. b. revisit the principles established in the Declaration of Independence. *c. revise the Articles of Confederation. d. expand the rights of individuals who did not own property. e. create a system of government that would abolish the institution of slavery.

22. James Madison played a vital role at the convention because he *a. maintained a personal journal that detailed discussions and votes. b. served as president of the convention and led the meetings. c. secured the room where meetings were held, ensuring discussion would remain

private. d. served as a “reporter” relaying each day’s events to people waiting outside. e. maintained order during discussion and debates by serving as parliamentarian.

23. Why did delegates Gouverneur Morris of Pennsylvania and John Rutledge of South

Carolina favor a strong central government? a. They felt any change would be for the better. b. They preferred the British monarchical model of government. c. They hoped for financial gain for their respective states. d. They were hoping to be appointed as president and vice president. *e. They believed the common people incapable of self-government.

24. The Virginia Plan was favored by a. southern states, since is emphasized the importance of population. b. small states, since it treated all states equally. *c. large states, since it emphasized the importance of population and wealth. d. northern states, since it emphasized the location of government. e. slave states, since it allowed slaves to be counted toward the population of the states.

25. Edmund Randolph’s Virginia plan was a proposal of 15 resolutions that a. called for all states to be represented equally in the national legislature. b. called for a unicameral legislative body. c. were basically a minor variation on the Articles of Confederation. *d. called for a national executive who would be elected by the legislative body. e. included no provision for a president because of the distrust of so much concentrated

power.

26. The New Jersey plan did little to change the Articles of Confederation with the exception of a. allowing for the election of a national executive by the legislature. b. creating a national judiciary that would be appointed by the legislature. c. permitting the executive office to void any state laws. *d. asserting national law over state law in the form of a supremacy doctrine. e. shifting the ability to regulate trade and impose taxes to each individual state.

27. The Great Compromise resolved the impasse between the a. large and small states regarding the executive branch. *b. large and small states regarding representation. c. northern and southern states regarding representation. d. northern and southern states regarding slavery. e. Federalists and Anti-Federalists regarding the executive branch.

28. The Great Compromise created a(n) a. Electoral College to select the chief executive. *b. bicameral legislative body, one with representation based on population and the

second with equal state representation. c. unicameral legislative body, with representation based on wealth and property. d. confederation of states. e. supreme national government, with limited states' rights.

29. The Great Compromise allowed small states to have political power disproportionate to

their size in the *a. Senate. b. House of Representatives. c. Electoral College. d. White House Cabinet. e. Supreme Court.

30. The Connecticut Compromise is called the Great Compromise because it a. established a single national currency. b. ended the dispute over slavery. c. resolved debate related to taxation without representation. *d. solved the problem of representation by creating a bicameral legislature. e. established that three-fifths of the slaves in southern states would receive voting

rights.

31. The Three-Fifths Compromise, which was crafted to address the impasse on slavery, *a. avoided the use of the word “slave,” instead referring to “all other persons.” b. did not abolish slavery, but did bring an immediate end to the importation of slaves

into this country. c. illustrated the power of the Northern states at the convention. d. brought an immediate end to the institution of slavery. e. enhanced the influence that Northern states would have in a newly created Congress.

32. The Three-Fifths Compromise gets its name from the resolution that *a. slaves would be counted as three-fifths of a person, in determining representation in

the House of Representatives. b. slave owners would be credited at three-fifths for each slave that they owned on their taxes. c. northern states that did not count slaves as part of their population would receive three additional seats in the Senate and five extra seats in the House of Representatives. d. southern states that did not count slaves as part of their population would receive three additional seats in the Senate and five extra seats in the House of Representatives. e. after three years the importation of slaves would be prohibited and after five years slavery would be abolished.

33. At the Constitutional Convention, the South insisted that *a. export taxes not be imposed. b. incomes taxes never be imposed. c. lower federal courts be created as well as a Supreme Court. d. slavery be abolished. e. the power to regulate interstate commerce belong to Congress.

34. Because the delegates wanted to prevent the imposition of tyranny, by either the majority or

the minority, the government they proposed had a. a guaranteed right to privacy. b. an electoral college. *c. a separation of powers. d. a supremacy doctrine. e. a unicameral legislature.

35. James Madison argued in Federalist Paper No. 51 that “the great security against a gradual

concentration of the several powers in the same department” was the a. selection by the voters of men of good character and conscience who would resist the

temptation to extend their power.

*b. granting of the means and the motive to each branch of government to resist

encroachment of others into their areas of authority. c. establishment of a Bill of Rights that limited governmental power. d. identification in the Constitution of each specific power that the branches of government would possess. e. establishment of a single branch of government that would be clearly superior to the other branches, thus ensuring consistency and regularity.

36. One of the underlying themes that the delegates to the Constitutional Convention

incorporated into the final document was a. creating three branches of government that were all democratically elected. b. allowing changes to the Constitution to occur at limited access points. *c. promoting cooperation among branches of government. d. recognizing the mistrust of other countries. e. creating a government that would operate efficiently.

37. The creation of the electoral college ensured a. congressional control over the presidency. b. direct popular control over the presidency. c. election of the best qualified candidate for president. d. independence of the presidency from politics. *e. independence of the president from the Congress.

38. The electoral college created a system in which a. political parties became less important than alliances between leaders. *b. the president was insulated from direct popular control. c. the president relied on intermediaries to a strike a deal with political leaders in each

state. d. interest groups became important in the election of the president. e. smaller, less populous states held more power in the election process than did larger, more populous states.

39. The Constitution created a a. confederal system of government that grants fewer powers to the national

government than the Articles of Confederation. b. federal system of government that grants fewer powers to the national government than the Articles of Confederation. c. confederal system of government that divides powers between the states and the national government. *d. federal system of government that divides powers between the states and the national government.

e. unitary system of government that divides powers between the states and the national

government.

40. During the Constitutional deliberations, Alexander Hamilton, James Madison, and John Jay

wrote 85 essays, known as __________, to sway public opinion. a. the Antifederalist Papers b. Common Sense *c. the Federalist Papers d. the Mayflower Compact e. the Pluralist Papers

41. Special conventions in each state were used to ratify the Constitution because a. conventions were more democratic than legislatures. b. conventions could meet more quickly than legislatures. *c. most legislatures were unlikely to approve the document. d. legislatures were likely to take far too long to approve the document. e. legislatures were far more likely to attempt to amend the document.

42. The Federalists had an advantage over the Anti-Federalists during the ratification process

for the Constitution because a. the Federalists stood for the status quo. b. wide public support for the Constitution had already been obtained through the

publication of press updates. c. the Federalists were men of little power and property, and the public found that appealing. *d. the Federalists had been part of the deliberations surrounding the Constitution and understood the plan for the new government better than the Anti-Federalists. e. the Federalists were supported by King George III.

43. The Anti-Federalists can be described as a. those favoring ratification of the Constitution. b. a radical fringe whose position on the Constitution constituted a very small minority. *c. those believing the Constitution created an overly powerful central government. d. the wealthiest bankers, lawyers, and plantation owners. e. those arguing in favor of changing the status quo.

44. Charles Beard argued that the framers of the Constitution were a. flawed, but well-meaning, human beings who did their best under extraordinary

circumstances.

b. the best and the brightest of their time who wanted a strong government so that they

could expand the rights of all people. c. inspired by God and wanted a strong government so that good works could be performed. d. incompetents who ascended to power only through their family’s wealth and influence. *e. wealthy property owners who wanted a powerful government that could protect their property interests.

45. Which of the following statements is true about the ratification of the Constitution? a. Ratification was a speedy and uncontroversial process. b. The Federalists opposed ratification of the Constitution by publishing essays in

newspapers. c. The addition of the first ten amendments was unimportant in the Constitution ultimately being ratified. d. The Constitution was easily ratified in each of the state legislatures. *e. The struggle for ratification included thirteen separate campaigns conducted in each state.

46. The Constitution would not have been ratified in several important states if the Federalists

had not assured the states that a. a ban on the importation of slaves would be a focus of the first Congress. *b. amendments to the Constitution would be passed to protect individual liberties

against incursions by the national government. c. amendments to the Constitution would be passed to protect the rights of states against incursions by the national government. d. an amendment to prohibit the manufacture, sale, and consumption of liquor would be passed. e. slaves that had escaped to free states would not have to be returned to their owners in slave states.

47. Some opponents of the Bill of Rights argued that *a. carefully articulating certain rights might encourage the national government to

abuse any rights that were not specifically defined. b. most people opposed the idea of strong individual rights. c. most people opposed the principle of strong national government. d. the Federalists outnumbered the Anti-Federalists. e. specifying particular rights might lead state governments to abuse rights that were not carefully defined.

48. Ex post facto lawmaking involves

a. finding fault with an individual when an act was committed by a group. *b. passing laws that make one liable for an act that has already occurred. c. allowing the states to supersede federal law. d. passing judgment on someone without legal process. e. using the parliamentary system in civil cases.

49. __________ best explains the underlying reason for the Bill of Rights. a. Checks and balances *b. Limited government c. Rule by government d. Security and order e. Separation of powers

50. The Bill of Rights limits the power of *a. the government over the rights and liberties of individuals. b. the national government over the rights of the states. c. state governments over the inherent powers of the national government. d. national and state governments to tax individuals. e. state governments to tax the national government.

51. As originally written, the Bill of Rights imposed no restrictions on a. the national government over the rights of individuals. *b. state government over the rights and liberties of individuals. c. ex post facto lawmaking. d. bills of attainder. e. the national government over the liberties of individuals.

52. The purpose of the first ten amendments of the Constitution was to a. provide additional power to the national government. *b. provide clear limitations on the power of the national government. c. provide clear limitations on the power of the state governments. d. limit both the power of the national and state governments. e. resolve errors in the original Constitution.

53. Constitutional amendments can be proposed by a a. majority vote in both houses of Congress. b. majority vote in either house of Congress. c. unanimous vote in both houses of Congress.

*d. two-thirds vote in both houses of Congress. e. two-thirds vote of either house of Congress.

54. According to the Constitution, a national constitutional convention can be called by

__________ to propose an amendment. a. a majority of the states b. a majority vote in both houses of Congress c. a two-thirds vote of either the House or the Senate *d. Congress at the request of two-thirds of state legislatures e. three-fourths of the states

55. Constitutional amendments can be ratified by a positive vote by a. a majority of both houses of Congress. b. two-thirds of state legislatures. c. two-thirds of state conventions. d. two-thirds of both houses of Congress. *e. three-fourths of state legislatures.

56. Congress has considered more than 11,000 amendments to the Constitution but has

approved very few. Many amendments lack support because they *a. address highly specific problems, such as burning or defacing the American flag. b. infringe on religious freedoms. c. are too broad in principle. d. infringe on the rights of individuals. e. are worded poorly and are difficult to understand.

57. Which of the following statements regarding Constitutional Conventions is true? a. Although there has not been a national Constitutional Convention held since 1787,

more than 430 state Constitutional Conventions have been held. b. Although there has not been a national Constitutional Convention held since 1787, 32 amendments have been added to the Constitution. *c. Convening a body that could conceivably create a new form of government causes concern to national political and judicial leaders. d. Each state has filed an application for a national convention at least twice, but only ten have been held. e. Congress considered convening a national convention in 2012 to mark the 225th anniversary of the 1787 convention.

58. The Constitution has remained largely intact for more than 200 years because the principles

set forth in the Constitution

*a. are flexible enough to meet new events and concerns. b. are impracticable to amend. c. can only be changed in certain parts. d. are unchallenged principles of the founding fathers. e. are mandated to remain unchanged by the original drafters.

59. Informal methods of changing the U.S. Constitution include a. decisions of state courts, judicial activism, and presidential action. *b. congressional legislation, judicial review, and presidential action. c. acts of international legislatures, stare decisis, and presidential action. d. stare decisis, referendums, and judicial review. e. ad hoc juries, judicial review, and bureaucratic action.

60. Which of the following statements represents an informal method used to adapt the

Constitution? a. The Supreme Court creates a specialized court to review requests for wiretapping

suspected terrorists. b. The Supreme Court makes recess appointments to lower federal courts when the president delays confirmation of appointees. c. The president delegates to a federal agency the power to write regulations. d. Congress suspends civil liberties in a time of war. *e. Congress passes a law that regulates business conducted between different states because of the commerce clause.

61. The Supreme Court adapts the Constitution to modern situations through a. formal amendment methods. b. stare decisis. c. natural law. *d. judicial review. e. bills of attainder.

62. Which of the following represents informal constitutional change specifically through

interpretation, custom and usage? *a. nominations, campaigns, and electoral processes for presidential elections b. legislation defining terms and application of the commerce clause c. the legal interpretation of separate but equal d. passage of the amendment enabling women to vote e. creation of the DREAM Act

63. What form of government was used at the Jamestown settlement? What form was used at the Plymouth colony? How did these governments foreshadow later colonial events?

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers will vary.

64. Describe the relationship between unalienable rights and the social contract.

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65. “We hold these Truths to be self-evident, that all Men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty, and the Pursuit of Happiness—That to secure these Rights, Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just Powers from the Consent of the Governed, that whenever any Form of Government becomes destructive of these Ends, it is the Right of the People to alter or abolish it, and to institute new Government.”

Identify the excerpt above and analyze the meaning of each clause in relation to the historical background and the author’s intent.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers will vary.

66. Discuss accomplishments under the Articles of Confederation and how the weaknesses of the Articles made it necessary to develop a new system of government.

Correct Answer:

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67. Examine the major conflicts at the Constitutional Convention and how they were ultimately resolved.

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68. Describe the Virginia plan and the New Jersey plan. Discuss which parts of each plan were incorporated into the Constitution.

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69. Explain the Madisonian Model idea of checks and balances and relate this concept to government today.

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70. What role did the Federalist Papers play in the ratification process?

Correct Answer:

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71. Discuss the need that some states and their citizens saw for a Bill of Rights to be incorporated into the Constitution. Provide examples of events that may have prompted their desire to have individual liberties protected.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answer will vary.

72. Discuss why the process of constitutional amendment has been successful only 27 times. Include reference to the two formal methods of amending the Constitution.

Correct Answer:

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73. Discuss three major constitutional changes that were achieved by amending of the Constitution.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers will vary.

Chapter 3 1. Ultimate authority is assigned to the national government, and subnational governments

exercise only the powers the central government chooses to delegate in a(n) __________ system. *a. unitary b. confederal c. federal d. authoritarian e. bicameral

2. Most countries today operate under a(n) __________ form of government. *a. unitary b. confederal c. federal d. authoritarian e. bicameral

3. The system consisting of a league of independent states, each having essentially sovereign

powers, and a central government with limited powers is known as a(n) __________ system. a. unitary *b. confederal c. federal d. authoritarian e. bicameral

4. In the U.S. government’s federal framework, supreme and independent political authority is a. reserved to the states, or to the people. b. reserved solely for the national government. c. vested in the three branches of government. *d. shared between the national and state governments. e. shared between Congress and the president.

5. The central government can make laws that are directly applicable to member states, and

those states can choose not to support the laws under a __________ system of government. a. unitary b. federal c. authoritarian d. totalitarian *e. confederal

6. Authority is divided, usually by a written constitution, between a central government and

constituent (state) governments in a(n) a. monarchy. b. unitary system. c. confederal system. *d. federal system. e. oligarchy.

7. During the time of the Constitutional Convention, federalism was an appealing compromise

because it a. prevented cities and states from being dominated by a single group or faction. *b. maintained state traditions while creating a strong national government to handle

common problems. c. allowed politicians to avoid issues of slavery and women's suffrage. d. permitted states to nullify actions of the national government. e. made the national government the focal point of dissatisfaction.

8. The advantages of a federal system of government include which of the following? a. All Americans gain the benefit of uniform social services policies in every state. b. The federal government becomes the focal point of political dissatisfaction for most

citizens. c. It is more practical to locate most power in one place. *d. State governments are frequently testing grounds for new governmental initiatives. e. Smaller political units, such as cities and states, are less likely to be dominated by a single political group.

9. Another noteworthy advantage of federalism is that it a. allows elites to make major political decisions. *b. brings government closer to the people. c. encourages political unity among state and national officials. d. drives reforms that are efficient and speedy. e. eliminates political dissatisfaction.

10. Critics of federalism maintain that a. the system allows too much power at the state level. b. the system allows too much power at the local level. c. there is no check on the powers of the national government. *d. Americans suffer as a result of the inequalities across the states. e. Americans often are unaware of the differences that exist from one state to the next.

11. James Madison and political scientist Daniel Elazar would agree that one of federalism's

greatest virtues is a. allowing powerful state interests to impede national plans. *b. encouraging the development of multiple distinct political subcultures. c. enumerating the powers granted to regional governments. d. allowing factions which develop individual standards for each state. e. granting supremacy to the national government.

12. The power to coin money, create naturalization laws, admit new states, and declare war are

examples of __________ powers. a. implied b. inferred c. inherent d. reserved *e. enumerated

13. The final provision in Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution, sometimes known as the

“elastic clause,” states a. the enumerated powers of Congress. b. five ways that enumerated powers can be carried out. *c. that Congress can make laws that are necessary and proper to carry out its

enumerated powers. d. that Congress can declare war in situations that can be characterized as demanding flexibility. e. a flexible procedure for immediate removal of the president from office.

14. __________ powers constitute a special category of federal power that derives from the fact

that the United States, as a sovereign power among nations, must be the only level of government to deal with other nations. a. Implied b. Inferred *c. Inherent d. Expressed e. Enumerated

15. Powers not given to the federal government by the Constitution, nor prohibited to the states,

are a. nonetheless retained by the federal government.

*b. reserved to the states. c. identified as implied powers. d. known as enumerated powers. e. identified as inherent powers.

16. When a state government passes a law that forbids texting while operating a vehicle, it is

exercising its _____ power. a. concurrent b. delegated c. inherent *d. police e. reserved

17. When examining the Constitution, the reserved powers are not clearly defined because the *a. states had all the power when the Constitution was written because of the Articles

of Confederation. b. national government was developing a detailed list, but preferred to first establish a basic foundation. c. majority of power was to be retained by the people with individual rights taking priority over those of the state governments. d. issue of slavery prevented a list of specific powers from being drafted by the founders. e. founders intended the Supreme Court to evaluate needs of the states on an ongoing basis.

18. Powers held jointly by the national government and by state governments are known as

__________ powers. *a. concurrent b. cooperative c. dual d. federal e. reserved

19. Which of the following is true about most concurrent powers? a. They can be traced to Article IV. b. They prevent Congress from regulating business within specific states. c. They have been held to be unconstitutional by the Supreme Court. d. They encourage state governments to reach beyond their borders. *e. They are not specifically stated in the Constitution, but are only implied.

20. Which of the following is an example of a concurrent power? *a. the power to tax b. the power to declare war c. the power to regulate interstate commerce d. the power to negotiate treaties e. the power to print money

21. If the states lacked the power to tax, states would a. need to enter into treaties with foreign countries to obtain funding. b. be in violation of the Constitution’s provisions regarding interstate commerce. *c. depend on the federal government to be able to function. d. pass the burden of funding their budgets to local governments. e. depend upon private donations from individuals and corporations.

22. Federal preemptions allow Congress to impose national priorities on states through national

legislation, a power that is rooted in the Constitution’s _____ clause. a. necessary and proper b. elastic c. full faith and credit *d. supremacy e. establishment

23. Which of these statements is correct regarding prohibited powers? a. A state government is only permitted to enter into a treaty with another country if it

borders the country. *b. The national government may not impose taxes on exports. c. Any power not specifically granted to the state governments is prohibited. d. State governments are prohibited from establishing supreme courts. e. The power to charter banks and corporations is retained solely by the national government.

24. The full faith and credit clause contributes to American unity by a. allowing local governments to exercise only those powers given to them by the

central government. *b. protecting the rights of citizens as they move from state to state. c. providing that when state laws conflict with the U.S. Constitution, the Constitution prevails. d. requiring states to recognize one another’s laws regarding criminal matters. e. stating that government authority will be divided between the national and regional governments.

25. Constitutionally, a vertical control could best be demonstrated when a. the president vetoes an act of Congress. b. the House of Representatives votes to impeach the president. c. the Supreme Court declares an act of Congress unconstitutional. *d. states refuse to implement a national program, such as the Affordable Care Act. e. Congress overrides a presidential veto.

26. Article IV of the Constitution requires states to give full faith and credit to a. laws enacted by Congress. b. treaties negotiated by the president of the United States. *c. the acts and judicial decisions of other states. d. the decisions of the U.S. Supreme Court. e. declarations of the U.N. Security Council.

27. The principle of privileges and immunities was incorporated into the Constitution to ensure

that a. the national government provide equivalent shares of grant money to states. *b. state governments would not discriminate against another state’s citizens. c. a person charged with a crime in another state be returned to that state for trial or

imprisonment. d. the public acts, records, and civil proceedings of each state are legal and binding in all states. e. public officials would receive equal treatment under the law.

28. ________ refers to the surrender of an accused/convicted criminal to the authorities of the

state from which he or she fled. a. Deportation b. Exoneration *c. Extradition d. Immunity e. Exclusion

29. An example of an interstate compact is the a. creation of the National Park Service. b. creation of the electoral college. c. development of the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration. *d. establishment of the Port Authority of New York and New Jersey.

e. creation of the nation’s capital, Washington, DC, from land donated by Virginia and

Maryland.

30. In the early years of the new republic, most disputes over the boundaries of national versus

state power involved a. different interpretations of the inherent powers of the national government. b. the role of the national government in mediating disputes between the states. c. the ability of the states to enter into international treaties. *d. the implied powers and the power to regulate commerce. e. the enforcement of the Bill of Rights.

31. Chief Justice __________ did much to increase the power of the national government and to

reduce that of the states in the early part of the nineteenth century. a. Warren Burger *b. John Marshall c. William Rehnquist d. Roger Taney e. Earl Warren

32. The Supreme Court, in the case of McCulloch v. Maryland, was asked to evaluate *a. if the national bank was constitutional, and if the state of Maryland could tax the

bank. b. if the power to regulate interstate commerce was a concurrent power. c. if the national government’s power to regulate commerce included intrastate commerce. d. the tax burden placed on the national bank by the state of Maryland. e. the meaning of the term “commerce” as used in the Constitution.

33. The ruling in McCulloch v. Maryland is significant because it a. established the Court’s power of judicial review. b. permitted the Court to nationalize banking. *c. established the doctrine of implied powers. d. expanded the power of Congress to use the commerce clause. e. increased the powers reserved to the states and the people.

34. In McCulloch v. Maryland the Supreme Court a. ruled that Congress exceeded its power when it created a national bank. b. reaffirmed power of the people over the powers of national government. c. ruled that Maryland was within its rights to tax the bank.

d. established major principles of states' rights. *e. established the doctrine of national supremacy.

35. In Gibbons v. Ogden, the Supreme Court ruled that a. Congress could not regulate activities that occur exclusively within the jurisdiction of

a single state. b. the power to regulate interstate commerce is one that is shared between the federal and state governments. *c. commerce should be interpreted to encompass all commercial business dealings. d. although commerce is an exceptionally broad term, it cannot be said to include navigation and the transport of people. e. the power of states should supercede that of the national government in commerce.

36. While many point to slavery as the reason the Civil War was fought, many also point out

that it was really a battle over a. property rights and excessive taxation. *b. national government supremacy versus the rights of the states. c. whether to align with England or France. d. instilling term limits at all levels of government. e. expanding U.S. borders and the resulting immigration.

37. Contrary to the Southern states’ intention, the Civil War resulted in a. an increase in the political power of individual states. b. the expansion of voting rights to all citizens, including blacks and women. c. a resurgence of Southern manufacturing and Northern agriculture. *d. an increase in the political power of the national government. e. thousands of banks failing and widespread unemployment.

38. Both the increased spending by the national government during the Civil War and the

nationally imposed income tax a. were immediately ruled unconstitutional by the Supreme Court. *b. were precursors to an expanding role for the national government in the affairs of

the nation. c. were attempts by the state governments to restrict the role of the national government. d. led to anti-tax riots in major cities. e. were ultimately rejected in the form of constitutional amendments.

39. The Constitution was amended in the years immediately following the Civil War so that the

states would

a. no longer be involved in selecting the president. b. no longer be involved in selecting the state’s representatives in the House of

Representatives. c. not be able to abridge the freedom of speech. *d. not be able to deprive a person of life, liberty, or property without due process of law. e. be compelled to allow all citizens the right to vote.

40. The doctrine of dual federalism maintains that a. conflicts between the authority of the national government and the states should be

resolved by the Supreme Court. *b. the national government and the states have authority over defined and mutually exclusive policy areas. c. the national government and the states should share authority equally in all policy areas. d. the national government should initiate policies and then turn them over to the states for administration. e. any law passed by the national government is the supreme law of the land.

41. Duel federalism is commonly characterized as a(n) ____ because state governments and

national government are seen as separate entities. *a. layer cake b. marble cake c. devil's food cake d. cupcake e. angel food cake

42. The era of dual federalism ended when a. the federal government tried to impose a national income tax. b. President Hayes ordered federal troops to remain in the South for at least two more

decades. c. the Supreme Court upheld legislation that outlawed child labor. d. the United States entered World War I, and national security became paramount. *e. citizens looked to the federal government to address problems created by the Great Depression.

43. President Franklin Roosevelt’s “New Deal” included a. a laissez-faire plan to address unemployment and poverty issues. *b. large-scale emergency antipoverty programs. c. a hands-off approach to regulating labor relations.

d. open competition among businesses to improve the economy. e. policies that strictly followed the interpretation of commerce in the Constitution.

44. What happened in 1937 that prompted the Supreme Court to cease its attempts to limit the

power of the national government under the commerce clause? a. Congress enacted legislation severely limiting the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction over

commerce matters. b. Japan bombed Pearl Harbor, and all parts of the government rallied around the president and his policy decisions. c. Three members of the Supreme Court were killed in a train accident, and Franklin Roosevelt was able to replace them with justices who were loyal to his policies. *d. Franklin Roosevelt proposed legislation allowing him to appoint six additional members to the Supreme Court, sending a clear message that the Supreme Court shouldn’t stand in his way any longer. e. A new chief justice was appointed who believed in a strong role for federal government, and a bailout plan for the American people.

45. The theory that the states and the national government should work together in solving the

nation’s problems is known as __________ federalism. a. collaborative *b. cooperative c. distinctive d. dual e. categorical

46. Aid to Families with Dependent Children (now known as Temporary Assistance to Needy

Families) was an example of __________ federalism. a. collaborative *b. cooperative c. distinctive d. dual e. categorical

47. One of the earliest examples of cooperative federalism is the national government *a. providing land grants to the states to finance education b. allowing states to borrow money at low interest rates to improve prisons. c. requiring the states to lower the drinking age to 21. d. transferring military power to state militias. e. transferring federal dollars to state and local governments for Medicaid.

48. ________ are federal grants to state or local governments that are for specific programs or

projects. a. Block grants *b. Categorical grants c. Mandates d. Revenue sharing e. Leverage packages

49. As a whole, the states today depend on federal funding for ________ of their income. a. around 5 percent b. about 15 percent c. almost 20 percent *d. about 35 percent e. almost 50 percent

50. Federal grants to the states have increased because a. people have demanded fewer federally supervised programs. b. crime has substantially increased. c. new security concerns have prompted many federal security mandates. *d. Congress has decided to offload some programs onto the states and to help fund

them. e. states have more power over foreign trade policy now than they once did.

51. In the 1980s and 1990s, the federal government provided funds to states for highway

improvement based on the condition that states would a. raise the speed limits in their jurisdictions. b. lower the speed limits in their jurisdictions. *c. raise the minimum drinking age to 21. d. lower the minimum drinking age to 18. e. instill mandatory draft registration for men over age 18.

52. Block grants consist of federal aid to state or local governments that is a. divided into discrete “blocks” of grants, each limited to $100 million. b. to be spent on a policy area decided on by the state or local government. *c. to be spent within a specified policy area and the state or local government can

decide how to spend within that area. d. tied to federal mandates that states or local governments must then implement or they will be taxed on the money. e. contingent on state/local endorsement of so-called "social" federal legislation.

53. ________ is a requirement in federal legislation that forces states and municipalities to

comply with certain rules. a. A waiver b. An earmark *c. A federal mandate d. A national agenda e. A leverage package

54. Two examples, from Lyndon Johnson’s administration, that illustrate the power of the

national government to change society are a. due process and the Vietnam War. *b. civil rights legislation and the War on Poverty. c. the establishment of religious communities and the War on Drugs. d. strengthening rights of the accused and abolition of the death penalty. e. ending the Korean War and the establishment of land grant colleges.

55. An ideological theme under new federalism that supports the idea of transferring power

from the national government to state and local governments is known as *a. devolution. b. evolution. c. retribution. d. restitution. e. revolution.

56. Which of the following is the best example of new federalism? a. the 1970 Controlled Substances Act b. Roosevelt's New Deal c. G.W. Bush's No Child Left Behind legislation *d. Nixon's revenue sharing program e. Johnson's civil rights legislation

57. An examination of the perspectives of select presidents on the issue of federalism reveals

that a. Lyndon Johnson was enthusiastic about turning over his civil rights and antipoverty

programs to the states. b. Richard Nixon was suspicious of the trustworthiness of the states and called for an end to revenue sharing. c. Ronald Reagan was an advocate of a strong role for the federal government, but also greatly increased the financial support for the states.

d. Bill Clinton expanded the federal government’s role in welfare programs. *e. George W. Bush increased federal funding and control of education, traditionally an

area controlled by state and local governments.

58. Since the 1990s, Supreme Court decisions on federalism have a. continued the precedents established by John Marshall in McCulloch v. Maryland

and Gibbons v. Ogden. b. relied on broad interpretations of the commerce clause that justify extensive national involvement in many areas. c. allowed the federal government to involve itself in areas that are primarily local in character. d. shown a willingness to allow the federal government to extend its power when it deals with sensitive issues, such as gun control and violence against women. *e. established limits on the national government’s powers under the commerce clause.

59. The Supreme Court decision in __________was the first time in sixty years that the Court

ruled to limit congressional power by claiming Congress had exceeded its authority under the commerce clause. a. Barron v. Baltimore b. Kimel v. Florida Board of Regents c. Nevada v. Hibbs *d. United States v. Lopez e. United States v. Morrison

60. The Affordable Care Act was upheld by the Supreme Court under *a. Congress’s power to tax. b. Congress’s power under the commerce clause. c. Congress’s power to regulate interstate trade. d. a person’s right to individual freedom. e. the president’s emergency powers.

61. While immigration policy is widely viewed as being under the control of the federal

government, several states enacted their own immigration laws because a. they viewed the current national immigration policy as too lenient. b. new immigrants had become a burden on the state’s welfare budget. c. clarification of the national immigration policy was needed. *d. of inaction at the national level related to immigration policy. e. Congress initiated legislation to allow states power to draft immigration policy.

62. Which statement best describes current federal laws related to immigration?

a. All immigrants over the age of 18 who remain in the United States for more than a

year are required to register with the U.S. government and to have registration documents in their possession at all times. *b. All immigrants over the age of 14 who remain in the United States for more than 30 days are required to register with the U.S. government and to have registration documents in their possession at all times. c. All immigrants over the age of 21 are required to have registration documents in their possession at all times. d. All immigrants, regardless of age, are required to have registration documents in their possession at all times and must begin the citizenship process within one year. e. All immigrants are required to register with the U.S. government within two weeks of arrival and provide documents verifying their identity.

63. The responsibility of deporting unauthorized immigrants lies with the executive branch of

the national government and change to immigration policy must a. be approved by voters. b. be initiated by the president. c. be agreed upon by at least two-thirds of the states. *d. occur in Congress. e. occur after other Supreme Court rulings related to immigration policy.

64. Compare a federal system of government against the unitary and confederal systems by explaining advantages and disadvantages of each.

Provide examples to illustrate your arguments.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

65. In your opinion, what is the most significant disadvantage of federalism? Has this disadvantage become more important in modern times? Why or why not?

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Students’ answers may vary.

66. How did Article IV’s full faith and credit clause and Article VI’s supremacy clause attempt to address the problems that existed under the Articles of Confederation?

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

67. Discuss two of the powers specifically granted to the state governments and two of the powers specifically denied the states by the

Constitution. Do the powers granted and denied make sense in modern times?

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

68. Consider the concept of checks and balances. Compare horizontal control and vertical control, and their functions regarding the branches of government. Provide examples which illustrate your response.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

69. Decisions of the Supreme Court have had a major impact on the relationship between state governments and the national government.

Discuss the constitutional effects of McCulloch v. Maryland and Gibbons v. Ogden.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

70. Discuss how the aftermath of the Civil War resulted in the expansion of national government power.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

71. Compare the relationship of the federal and state governments during the era of dual federalism with the cooperative federalism that emerged during the 1930s. Provide examples to illustrate your answer.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

72. Discuss the concept of “New Federalism” and describe the current status of federalism in the twenty-first century.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

73. Explain how the Supreme Court’s decisions in the 1990s and the first decade of the twenty-first century represented a departure from its traditional approach to resolving issues of state power.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

74. Discuss how modern immigration policy is a challenge to federalism.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

Chapter 4 1. Civil liberties are understood to be a. equal economic treatment under the law. *b. personal freedoms that are protected for all individuals. c. equality of opportunity and equality of outcome for all individuals. d. equal educational opportunity under the law. e. absolute freedom for all individuals.

2. Civil liberties, in simplest terms, are a. defined in detail in the Constitution. b. freedoms that civilians have that military personnel do not. *c. protections of citizens from improper government action. d. guarantees that all people get treated equally by the government. e. necessary for government to function.

3. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Bill of Rights? a. The rights guaranteed to all citizens in the Bill of Rights are self-executing and have

required little interpretation. b. The Bill of Rights has always been equally applied to both the national and state governments. c. The Bill of Rights consists of additions to the civil liberties initially discussed in the Constitution. d. The Bill of Rights narrowly defines basic freedoms, requiring great consideration by the Supreme Court in interpreting them. *e. The rights guaranteed in the Bill of Rights change over time, depending on interpretation by the Supreme Court.

4. What shapes the true nature of the civil liberties and rights we possess? *a. judicial interpretation b. presidential signing statements c. congressional veto overrides d. law review articles e. personal ethical interpretation

5. Originally, the Bill of Rights limited only the power of the a. state governments. b. regional governments. c. president. d. Supreme Court.

*e. national government.

6. The Bill of Rights addressed the powers of the national government because a. no judicial system had yet been established. *b. people feared the potential tyranny of the national government. c. state laws were supreme over those of the national government. d. state governments possessed absolute power. e. political parties had not yet been created.

7. The ruling in the 1833 Supreme Court case of Barron v. Baltimore held that a. the city of Baltimore was part of the state of Maryland, not Virginia. b. Barron, as a property owner, held full voting rights. c. the Court did not have jurisdiction in cases involving personal property. d. each state’s constitution was supreme over the Bill of Rights. *e. the Bill of Rights did not apply to state laws.

8. If the constitutions of most states included bills of rights, why was it important for the Bill of

Rights found in the Constitution to be applied to state law? a. New territories wanted to create a single, unified system of rights. *b. Each state’s judicial system interpreted the rights differently. c. It was necessary to prevent states from claiming preeminence in this area. d. The supremacy clause in state constitutions made it necessary. e. Each state’s legislature continued to change these rights and liberties.

9. The ratification of which amendment prompted the government to begin applying the Bill of

Rights to the states? a. Thirteenth Amendment *b. Fourteenth Amendment c. Fifteenth Amendment d. Nineteenth Amendment e. Twenty-second Amendment

10. The view that most liberties and rights guaranteed in the Bill of Rights are protected from

state government actions through the due process clause is known as the a. assimilation doctrine. *b. incorporation theory. c. state restrictions exclusion. d. supremacy theory. e. establishment clause.

11. Which of the following clauses or doctrines prohibits the national government from

supporting an official religion? *a. the establishment clause b. the free exercise clause c. the religious conviction doctrine d. the incorporation clause e. the separation doctrine

12. Thomas Jefferson, in referring to the purpose of the establishment clause, explained it as

providing a. public accommodation of religion. *b. a wall of separation. c. a bridge of acceptance. d. balance between freedom and restraint. e. protection against religious tyranny.

13. A component of the Lemon test includes determining whether a. government or individuals face harm. b. the government has a compelling state interest. c. government involvement meets the standards of rational basis review. *d. government involvement advances a particular religion. e. the government has the ability to tax religious property.

14. In Aguilar v. Felton (1985), the Supreme Court ruled that state programs providing special

educational services to disadvantaged students attending religious schools violated the establishment clause. Twelve years later in Agostini v. Felton (1997) the Court ruled that Aguilar was “no longer good law.” What changed between 1985 and 1997? a. The International Court of Justice ruled that the U.S. Supreme Court erred in its

ruling. *b. Six of the nine justices who decided Aguilar were no longer on the Supreme Court in 1997. c. Congressional leaders lobbied the Supreme Court to change its decision. d. The solicitor general of the United States argued that Aguilar deprived disadvantaged students of their rights under the equal protection clause. e. The president issued an executive order overriding the original decision.

15. The Supreme Court has ruled that state tax dollars can be spent on bus transportation, on

diagnostic services for speech and hearing problems, and on textbooks for students at private schools because

a. the Constitution provides that all children shall have access to these services. b. of the provisions of the Child Protection Act of 1947 and the case of Rosewood v.

Stein. *c. aid to assist the individual child and aid to further the state’s goal of public safety have been deemed constitutional. d. most of the funds used came from nontax resources rather than tax resources of the state. e. children deserve the best possible education regardless of its source.

16. The Supreme Court, in Engel v. Vitale, ruled the Regents’ Prayer unconstitutional in part

because a. opponents were not provided time to recite their own prayers. *b. religious persecutions are closely tied to government-established religions. c. many religions believe only in intercessory prayer. d. such prayers violate the free exercise clause of the First Amendment. e. the prayer was too broad and lengthy to be understood.

17. In Wallace v. Jaffree the Supreme Court struck down an Alabama law that required one

minute of silence for prayer or meditation in all public school classrooms because the a. law violated the free exercise clause. b. prayer constituted an excessive entanglement between government and religion. c. prayer violated the sacred-secular doctrine of the Ninth Amendment. *d. law lacked any clearly secular purpose. e. law violated principles of common law.

18. While instances of student-led prayer in public schools have been allowed by the Supreme

Court, it has ruled that a. students may not appear in public while praying. b. students must incorporate prayers from all faiths. c. students must pray in all languages spoken at the individual school. *d. students may not utilize a school's public address system. e. students may not pray aloud where others can hear them.

19. In the United States, instances of offensive and blasphemous speech, such as that uttered in

the Charlie Hebdo case, are a. generally prohibited under state law. b. severely restricted according to hate speech standards. c. protected under the establishment clause. *d. protected by the First Amendment. e. discouraged by the Fourteenth Amendment.

20. The free exercise clause of the U.S. Constitution is best exemplified by a. the prosecution of criminals under religious legal jurisprudence. b. the establishment of a free public education system. *c. the separation of church and state. d. the protection of hate speech. e. the application of civil liberties to the states.

21. The First Amendment’s free exercise clause means that a. every religious belief is welcome, and every religious practice is to be respected by

all. b. people cannot hold religious beliefs that are harmful to the public. c. people can believe and practice their religious beliefs without any restriction. *d. people can believe whatever they want, but they cannot practice beliefs that are

harmful to the public welfare. e. parents can refuse to vaccinate their children based on religious grounds.

22. The constitutional doctrine of prior restraint prohibits a. the government from censoring obscene material. *b. government agencies from trying to prevent publication of material by the press

except under extraordinary circumstances. c. free speech accompanied by marches, demonstrations or assembly. d. a judge from withholding information about a court case from release to the public or press. e. flag burning as a form of protest.

23. When the Nixon administration went to court in 1971 to block the New York Times from

publishing the Pentagon Papers, it was abusing the *a. constitutional rights of the press. b. threat to national security. c. judicial branch’s power to issue a gag order. d. principle of clear and present danger. e. principle of free exercise.

24. Tinker v. Des Moines School District established the constitutional protection for a. silent prayer in public school. b. transgendered choice in public restroom facilities. *c. symbolic speech. d. representational speech.

e. censorship of high-school newspapers.

25. Which of the following actions did the Supreme Court decide was a protected form of

symbolic speech? a. the burning of a draft registration card by a Vietnam War protester b. blocking the entrance of an abortion clinic c. a newspaper publication of the “Pentagon Papers” *d. the burning of the American flag in public e. advocating the overthrow of the U.S. government in a peaceful public assembly

26. Commercial speech is usually defined as a. the electronic communication of words or symbols. b. any nonpolitical speech. c. any form of expression for which the author is paid. d. advertising which supports a political candidate or cause. *e. advertising statements.

27. The clear and present danger test was first applied in 1919 in a case related to *a. a socialist who distributed a pamphlet opposing the draft. b. an army general who sold secrets to the Russians. c. a communist who wished to work in the Pentagon. d. a congressman who shared highly classified information with his wife. e. a man urging the violent overthrow of the U.S. government.

28. The Westboro Baptist Church has successfully defended its right to __________ as free

speech. *a. demonstrate at the funeral services of military members killed in Afghanistan and

Iraq. b. march through largely Jewish suburbs of Chicago. c. burn copies of the Quran on the tenth anniversary of the September 11 terrorist attacks. d. distribute information about the church door-to-door. e. protest outside abortion clinics in the states of Mississippi and Kentucky.

29. The Supreme Court has not defined obscenity, leaving instead this determination to a. Congress. b. the U.S. Department of State. *c. local and state authorities.

d. the president. e. registered voters.

30. In Osborne v. Ohio, the Supreme Court ruled that states can outlaw the possession of child

pornography in the home because *a. ownership of child pornography perpetuates the commercial demand for

exploitation of children. b. children may be living in the home. c. child pornography universally violates community standards. d. child pornography guarantees deviant behavior. e. ownership of child pornography is offensive by contemporary standards.

31. In order to meet the legal definition of slander, a person must a. utter a defaming statement about someone. b. utter a false and harmful statement about someone directly to their face. c. publish a harsh and critical statement about someone. *d. utter a false and harmful statement about someone within the hearing of a third

party. e. publish a critical statement about someone with intent to harm.

32. The Supreme Court ruled in 2000 that colleges and universities may use student activity

fees to support a variety of clubs and activities, even those opposed by some students, because a. banning such clubs and activities violates the free association clause of the First

Amendment. b. banning such clubs and activities defies the concept of intellectual freedom. c. banning such clubs and activities is a clear and present danger to the intellectual growth of students attending the university. *d. promoting such clubs and activities, which allow for the dynamic discussion of philosophical, religious, and scientific topics, may serve the university’s mission. e. promoting such clubs and activities is sound educational theory.

33. Campus speech codes at state universities are a. usually ruled unconstitutional and no longer exist in the United States. *b. usually ruled unconstitutional, but continue to exist in the United States. c. constitutionally allowed and encouraged. d. typically concerned only with symbolic speech. e. allowed if they do not address the topic of religious speech.

34. Gag orders are used to

a. prohibit criminals from testifying against each other. b. prohibit cameras in courtrooms. c. restrict attorneys from raising certain points before juries. *d. restrict the publication of news about trials in progress. e. restrict what jurors may say to the press after trials.

35. Because the government believes airwaves and all frequencies that travel through the air

belong to the American people, the __________ has the authority to regulate the use of the airwaves and grant licenses to broadcast. *a. Federal Communications Commission b. Federal Trade Commission c. National Broadcasting Company d. Public Broadcasting Service e. House of Representatives

36. The Bill of Rights guarantees rights of the people to peaceably assembly, but the Supreme

Court has allowed local governments to a. regulate the size of any and all assemblies, on public or private property. b. limit the duration and loudness of demonstrations, allowing officials to eliminate

business disruptions. c. prohibit demonstrations by religious or hate groups. *d. require permits for parades and demonstrations, allowing officials to control traffic or prevent demonstrations from turning into riots. e. prohibit demonstrations staged in religious enclaves.

37. The right to privacy is a. explicitly referenced in Article X of the Constitution. b. explicitly referenced in the Preamble to the Constitution. c. explicitly referenced in Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution. d. explicitly referenced in the First Amendment. *e. not explicitly referenced in the Constitution.

38. In Griswold v. Connecticut, the case centered around the right to privacy concerning *a. the use of contraceptives. b. information collected by federal agencies. c. online communication. d. same-sex sexual relations. e. physician-assisted suicide.

39. The Privacy Act of 1974 states that

a. personal information about members of Congress will be classified as confidential. b. records collected by private organizations or companies must be retained in a secure

nature. c. an individual that served in the Vietnam War can request details of their military service. *d. a citizen has the right to obtain copies of personal information gathered by federal agencies. e. healthcare records may only be released to parties designated by the patient.

40. In Roe v. Wade the Supreme Court held that states a. can place significant restrictions on a woman’s right to seek an abortion without her

partner's consent. b. can outlaw all abortions. c. can outlaw abortions in the second trimester of pregnancy. d. cannot place any restrictions on abortions. *e. cannot limit a woman’s right to seek an abortion during the first trimester of pregnancy.

41. According to the Supreme Court, a woman’s right to seek an abortion is based on the a. equal protection clause. b. due process clause. *c. right of privacy. d. zone of privacy explicitly guaranteed in the Constitution. e. right of states to enact police powers.

42. The case of Planned Parenthood v. Casey said that states a. cannot outlaw abortion. b. cannot prevent abortions that use tax-supported facilities. *c. cannot place an undue burden on a woman seeking an abortion. d. can require a woman to undergo counseling designed to discourage the abortion. e. can require a woman to notify her spouse or partner before the abortion.

43. The Texas Omnibus Abortion Bill, which required abortions to be done in an ambulatory

surgical center, was a. the centerpiece of several states' successful restrictions on abortions. *b. ultimately struck down by the Supreme Court. c. never considered by the Supreme Court. d. found to be constitutionally compliant by the Supreme Court. e. the first successful restriction on abortion since Roe v. Wade.

44. The right to choose physician-assisted suicide has been *a. determined by the Supreme Court to be an issue best handled by each state. b. deemed constitutional by the Supreme Court under the Fourteenth Amendment. c. deemed constitutional when a living will exists. d. allowed only in the state of Missouri. e. left unaddressed by the Supreme Court.

45. Following the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks, legislation has eroded basic rights with

the __________ facing the main focus. a. First Amendment’s protection of freedom of expression b. Second Amendment’s protection of the right to bear arms *c. Fourth Amendment’s protection against unreasonable searches and seizures d. Fifth Amendment’s protection from self-incrimination e. Sixth Amendment’s protection of the right to a speedy and public trial

46. The extensive use of personal information by websites, such as Facebook and LinkedIn,

raises constitutional questions about a. due process of law. b. eminent domain. c. freedom of speech. *d. right to privacy. e. symbolic speech.

47. In an effort to combat terrorists, law enforcement agencies have employed __________ that

may violate Fourth Amendment protections. *a. roving wiretaps to track communication on all types of electronic devices b. National Security Letters to subpoena individuals to report for questioning c. torture of detainees suspected of having knowledge of criminal activity d. seizure of mobile phones of individuals expressing displeasure with the government e. jurisdictions to allow better oversight for monitoring suspects

48. Which statement about the PATRIOT Act is correct? a. The PATRIOT Act created clear definitions between law enforcement agencies and

intelligence arms of the government. b. The Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Court has ruled the PATRIOT Act violates the Fourth Amendment. c. Agents of foreign governments are the main focus of search and surveillance activities permissible under the PATRIOT Act.

*d. The PATRIOT Act permits the government to secretly search a suspected terrorist ’s

home. e. National Security Letters are mandatory for activities conducted by the FBI according to the PATRIOT Act.

49. Groups opposing the PATRIOT Act argue that it violates the constitutional protection

against a. the quartering of soldiers in peacetime. *b. unreasonable searches and seizures. c. cruel and unusual punishment. d. the establishment of religion. e. unequal treatment under the law.

50. __________ give law enforcement officials opportunities to track offenders and,

consequently, constitute potential threats to the right to privacy and raises the concerns of those opposed to the PATRIOT Act. a. Landline phone calls b. Movie subscription services c. Red-light cameras d. Video game subscription services *e. Wireless technologies

51. When examined together, the Fourth, Fifth, Sixth, and Eighth Amendments establish the a. civil rights of minorities. *b. rights of criminal defendants. c. right to free speech. d. right to bear arms. e. voting rights of all citizens.

52. In the United States, criminal suspects are given rights to avoid convicting the innocent, but

also because a. all have the right to life, liberty and happiness. b. the U.S. wished to distinguish itself from the English system of law. *c. all have the right to due process and fair treatment. d. the U.S. wishes to avoid costly retrials and lengthy appeals. e. all have the right to free speech and to bear arms.

53. The case of Gideon v. Wainwright significantly expanded the rights of accused persons

when the Supreme Court ruled that

a. an individual had to be warned that they had the constitutional right to remain silent. b. law enforcement officers needed to obtain a warrant before conducting a search of an

individual’s property, including automobiles. *c. people accused of a felony without the means to hire an attorney had to have courtappointed attorneys made available at government expense. d. individuals accused of a crime had the right to one phone call. e. only criminal defendants charged with murder had the right to legal counsel.

54. The requirement that persons under arrest be informed of their legal rights, including right

to counsel, is known as the a. equal representation policy. b. exclusionary rule. c. sphere of privacy. *d. Miranda rule. e. Mapp rule.

55. Exceptions to the Miranda rule exist but a larger threat to its continuing survival is a. state policies that have expanded rights of the accused. b. a more liberal Supreme Court. *c. the use of digital cameras to record interrogations. d. preexisting knowledge among suspects of their constitutional rights. e. rulings made related to Betts v. Brady.

56. After the Supreme Court’s decision in Miranda v. Arizona, a few states and the federal

government tried to void the decision with legislation. In 2000, the Supreme Court later revisited Miranda and ruled that a. states could limit the Fifth Amendment provisions of the Miranda decision, but not

those of the Sixth Amendment. b. states could limit the Sixth Amendment provisions of the Miranda decision, but not those of the Fifth Amendment. c. protection of the public warrants the unlimited admissibility of statements made by the accused. *d. Miranda was constitutionally based and could not be overturned by statute. e. it had erred on the constitutional basis of Miranda.

57. The exclusionary rule is part of the Fourth Amendment’s guarantee against *a. unreasonable searches and seizures. b. unreasonable questioning. c. a lengthy and protracted trial. d. double jeopardy. e. cruel and unusual punishment.

58. One exception to the exclusionary rule supported by the Supreme Court is a. probable cause does not need to be established in civil matters. b. potential death penalty cases may disregard all standard evidence rules. *c. good faith exceptions may be made for officers utilizing the incorrect search

warrant form. d. the homes of witnesses to a crime may be searched without a warrant. e. good intention exceptions may be made for veteran officers in felony matters.

59. John Smith is found guilty of capital murder and sentenced to death. As his attorney, you

decide to challenge the constitutionality of the death penalty based on the guarantee against cruel and unusual punishment found in the a. First Amendment. b. Second Amendment. c. Fourth Amendment. d. Sixth Amendment. *e. Eighth Amendment.

60. From 1972 to 1976 the death penalty *a. was prohibited because the Supreme Court deemed laws too vague and wanted

more precise laws enacted to ensure consistency. b. was prohibited because the Innocence Project determined that 17 innocent individuals were serving time on death row. c. was prohibited because Congress removed the power of juries to impose the death penalty in capital cases. d. limited executions to only those enacted by means of electrocution or firing squad. e. was expanded to all fifty states and to Puerto Rico by executive order.

61. The greatest concerns that have arisen in recent years regarding the death penalty are related

to *a. the lethal injection method used to cause the convicted person’s death. b. the execution of individuals that happened to be juveniles when the crime was

committed. c. the need to create a more precise judicial process to decide death penalty cases. d. a desire to convert cases related to the death penalty from the state courts to the federal courts. e. the fact that a larger number of minorities are executed when compared to white convicts.

62. According to Gallop polling, support for the death penalty

a. is virtually nonexistent in the Northern states. b. is virtually nonexistent in the Southern states. c. continues to rise among the U.S. population. *d. is the lowest in the past forty years. e. is at an all-time high.

63. Define civil liberty, and explain how its meaning has changed since the ratification of the Bill of Rights.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

64. Describe how the Bill of Rights limits the direct influence of religion in public life.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

65. Discuss the free exercise clause as well as the continuing public concerns associated with it. How has the government responded to these concerns?

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

66. Explain the issue of school prayer including the court cases that have brought us to where we are today.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answer may vary.

67. Explain why freedom of expression is critical to people’s participation in the political process.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

68. Discuss types of expression not protected by the First Amendment.

For each type of expression, define the expression and provide examples.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

69. Define libel, and its components related to public figures. Why are public figures subject to slightly different standards regarding libel?

Is this fair?

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

70. Discuss the protections provided in the Constitution for the right to privacy. Identify the Supreme Court cases that established the right to privacy in personal and public life.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

71. Discuss the threats posed by technology and security interests to the privacy rights of individuals in the United States today.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

72. Discuss the concerns raised about the balance between civil liberties and public safety in regards to the PATRIOT Act. Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

73. Identify three rights guaranteed to those accused of a crime, and discuss how the Supreme Court has altered those rights over time.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

74. Examine the history of the death penalty in the United States, including both its constitutional justification and challenges against it. Discuss issues facing the modern death penalty.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

Chapter 5 1. _____ refer specifically to the rights of all Americans to equal treatment under the law. a. Civil liberties *b. Civil rights c. Common law rights d. Inalienable rights e. Natural rights

2. The best example of a civil right is the right to a. freedom of speech. b. freedom of religion. c. happiness. *d. vote. e. a college education.

3. Which of the following statements regarding civil rights and civil liberties is true? a. Civil liberties and civil rights are essentially identical. b. Civil liberties can be linked to specific provisions in the Constitution, whereas civil

rights cannot. *c. Civil liberties specify what government cannot do, whereas civil rights specify what government must do to ensure equal protection and freedom from discrimination. d. Civil rights specify what government cannot do, whereas civil liberties specify what government must do to ensure equal protection and freedom from discrimination. e. Governments must honor civil liberties, whereas they have the option to honor civil rights.

4. The group including _____ best describes those never excluded from enjoying civil rights in

the United States. a. all property owners b. white women and white men *c. white male property owners d. white males and African American males who were not slaves e. whites and Native Americans

5. The _____ clause of the Fourteenth Amendment has been used to launch progress in civil

rights. a. affirmative action *b. equal protection c. exclusionary rule

d. supremacy e. separation

6. The Thirteenth Amendment to the Constitution abolished *a. slavery and involuntary servitude. b. segregation laws which had come before it. c. restrictions on due process. d. slavery and involuntary servitude in new states or territories. e. restrictions on the right to vote.

7. Who sarcastically said, "All men are created equal, except Negroes”? a. Frederick Douglass b. Rutherford B. Hayes c. Homer Plessy *d. Abraham Lincoln e. Dred Scott

8. The Supreme Court’s decision in __________, which held that slaves were not citizens of the

United States and thus not entitled to the rights and privileges of citizenship, contributed to the inevitability of the Civil War. a. Bakke v. California b. Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka *c. Dred Scott v. Sandford d. Smith v. Allwright e. Plessy v. Ferguson

9. Which statement regarding the Civil War Amendments is correct? a. The Thirteenth Amendment established the income tax. b. The Fourteenth Amendment ended slavery. *c. The Fourteenth Amendment asserted that no state shall deny a person due process

of law. d. The Fifteenth Amendment asserted that no state shall deny a citizen equal protection under the law. e. The Thirteenth Amendment allowed African Americans to vote.

10. In response to the Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth Amendments, southern states

quickly passed _____ to limit the civil rights of African Americans and developed labor regulations that resembled slavery. a. abolition codes

*b. Black Codes c. blockade codes d. Jim Crow laws e. supremacy codes

11. The Second Civil Rights Act mandated that *a. everyone is entitled to full and equal enjoyment of public accommodations. b. freed slaves were entitled to equal work for equal pay. c. it was a federal crime for anyone to use law or custom to deprive an individual of his

or her rights. d. the separate-but-equal doctrine was the law of the land. e. former slaves could participate fully in the political system.

12. The election of _____ in 1877 and resulting policy changes effectively halted the

progression of civil rights for African Americans. a. James Garfield b. Jefferson Davis c. Ulysses S. Grant *d. Rutherford B. Hayes e. Andrew Johnson

13. Jim Crow laws are those that a. established slavery and contract law regulating the slave trade. b. justified slavery and set specific codes for the behavior of slaves. c. the North enforced in the South during the Reconstruction era. *d. were enacted by southern whites in the late nineteenth century to establish

segregation policies. e. sought to end segregation by bringing the races into closer contact with one another.

14. In _____, the Supreme Court held that segregation alone did not violate the Constitution. a. Bakke v. California b. Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka c. Lawrence v. Texas *d. Plessy v. Ferguson e. Scott v. Sandford

15. The separate-but-equal doctrine contends that separate-but-equal facilities do not violate *a. the equal protection clause. b. the principle of reverse discrimination.

c. the strict scrutiny standard. d. the idea of de jure segregation. e. the due process of law restriction.

16. In 1896, the Supreme Court ruled in Plessy v. Ferguson that a. African Americans, for the purposes of the Constitution, are not persons. b. former slaves were not to be considered property. *c. separation of races does not violate the Constitution. d. schools may not practice any type of racial segregation. e. the practice of slavery must cease before 1900.

17. The verdict of Plessy v. Ferguson directly resulted in a. the integration of public schools in the South. *b. the development of a system of legalized racial segregation. c. the end of racial segregation. d. a constitutional amendment granting Congress more power to deal authoritatively

with racial problems. e. a complex system of busing to alleviate the effects of past racism.

18. In Smith v. Allwright (1944), the Supreme Court declared that the _____ violated the

Fifteenth Amendment. a. black primary b. grandfather clause c. literacy test d. poll tax *e. white primary

19. When the Supreme Court invalidated the 1875 Civil Rights Act, it argued that a. the Fifteenth Amendment was unconstitutional. b. it deprived majorities of their basic rights. c. it deprived minorities of their basic rights. *d. the Fourteenth Amendment restricted only state action, not the actions of private

citizens. e. the Thirteenth Amendment removed all existing restrictions on former slaves.

20. The grandfather clause was used in southern states to a. prevent blacks from voting in primary elections, even though they had the right to

vote. b. guarantee the equal rights of senior citizens for employment.

*c. deny African Americans the right to vote. d. deny the purchase of land by any person whose grandfather was not white. e. distribute land to former slaves based on how many generations their family had

served a slave owner.

21. The white primary was in effect until the Supreme Court ruled it a constitutional violation

in a. 1865. b. 1897. c. 1921. d. 1979. *e. 1944.

22. A poll tax was used to a. segregate the voting booth into free "whites-only" lines and paid "non-white" lines. b. determine who was intelligent enough to vote. *c. make it more difficult for African Americans and poor whites to vote. d. force individuals to purchase property to obtain voting rights. e. raise funds for voter registration among the minority community.

23. The tests commonly administered as a precondition for voting, in an attempt to limit African

Americans from voting were called a. constitutional exams. *b. literacy tests. c. poll tests. d. primary tests. e. registration tests.

24. _____, the use of mob action to murder African Americans accused of violating the

behavior code, was a common practice in the South. a. Abolition b. Hazing *c. Lynching d. Razing e. Reparation

25. The work of _____ was instrumental in antilynching campaigns throughout the South,

particularly in her role as editor of The Free Speech. a. Linda Carol Brown

b. Harriet Tubman c. Elizabeth Cady Stanton d. Rosa Parks *e. Ida B. Wells-Barnett

26. The NAACP chose to start challenging separate-but-equal policies in education within law

schools, because a. the federal government had authority over the majority of law schools. *b. states would find establishing separate professional schools for African American

students too expensive and would view integration as the best alternative. c. states would be more willing to comply because law schools were already admitting women and Hispanic Americans. d. law schools were more progressive in mission and would be more apt to expand their admittance criteria. e. other institutions of higher education, as well as public K-12 schools, were already integrating.

27. In Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka (1954), the Supreme Court held that a. ethnic minorities have no rights to equal treatment by the government. *b. segregation of races in public schools violates the equal protection clause of the

Fourteenth Amendment. c. the national government does not have the power to force any action on local school boards. d. separation of races for a reason such as education is not a violation of the Constitution. e. African Americans could not be denied the right to a college education.

28. _____ segregation occurs because of laws or administrative decisions by public agencies. a. Private b. Gender *c. De jure d. De facto e. Civil

29. Racial segregation that occurs because of past socioeconomic conditions and residential

racial patterns is known as a. separate-but-equal segregation. b. reverse discrimination. c. de jure segregation. *d. de facto segregation. e. allowable segregation.

30. The reaction to enforced school integration resulted in a. “white flight” from the suburbs to the inner cities. *b. riots and violence in some southern cities. c. the federalizing of the National Guard in every major city. d. President Eisenhower's executive order guaranteeing students could attend the closest

neighborhood school. e. impeachment proceedings against Chief Justice Earl Warren.

31. Today, schools in the United States are a. integrated precisely in the manner outlined by the Supreme Court in its landmark

1954 decision. b. considered integrated, although not to the extent outlined by the Supreme Court in its landmark 1954 decision. c. integrated according to strict federal busing guidelines. *d. becoming segregated again due to demographic population changes. e. segregated because of recent decisions upholding the separate-but-equal doctrine.

32. A modern alternative solution to desegregation which is meeting with some success

is integrating schools based on a. admissions testing. b. neighborhood busing percentages. *c. income. d. parental occupation. e. country of origin.

33. Freedom rides and sit-ins were part of the philosophy of _____ used as a means to achieve

racial justice. a. black power b. court actions c. integration *d. civil disobedience e. legislative actions

34. In his approach to fighting unjust law, Dr. Martin Luther King. Jr. was inspired by the life

and teachings of a. Susan B. Anthony. *b. Mahatma Gandhi. c. Abraham Lincoln.

d. Lyndon Johnson. e. Malcolm X.

35. Media coverage of which event played a key role in ending unjust Jim Crow laws in the

Southern United States? a. 1962 riots at the University of Mississippi b. 1955 boycott of the Montgomery, Alabama bus line c. 1965 assassination of Malcolm X *d. 1963 protests in Birmingham e. 1963 March on Washington for Jobs and Freedom

36. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. told the world, "I have a dream that my four little children will

one day live in a nation where they will not be judged by the color of their skin, but by the content of their character" during a. the signing ceremony of the Civil Rights Act. *b. the March on Washington. c. the Woolworth lunch counter sit-in. d. the Montgomery bus boycott. e. the March on Selma.

37. Which of the following is NOT a provision of the Civil Rights Act of 1964? *a. authorized federal registration of voters b. barred discrimination in public accommodations c. expanded the power of the Civil Rights Commission d. outlaws arbitrary discrimination in voter registration e. established right to equality of opportunity in employment

38. The Voting Rights Act of 1965 resulted in *a. the elimination of discriminatory voter-registration tests. b. the passage of state laws permitting considerable discrimination against ethnic

minorities. c. dozens of federal court decisions limiting congressional power in overseeing staterun elections. d. a decline in the number of African Americans registered to vote. e. a constitutional amendment changing the voting age.

39. The Civil Rights Act of 1968 dealt with discrimination regarding a. employment. b. public accommodations.

*c. housing. d. Native Americans. e. gay men and lesbians.

40. Why was the 2012 election of Mia Love of Utah noteworthy? a. She was the first female African American to serve as governor. b. She was the first African American woman ever elected to the Senate. c. She was the first woman elected in all of Utah. *d. She was the first Republican African American woman elected to the House. e. She was the first African American to live in the state of Utah.

41. In addition to protests generated by the shooting deaths of young black African Americans,

the Black Lives Matter movement has also focused concern on all the following EXCEPT *a. strengthening affirmative action programs. b. excessive fines for misdemeanors. c. racial climate on college campuses. d. mass incarceration practices. e. criminal justice reform.

42. Between the time of the 2008 election of Barack Obama and 2016, what does polling

indicate about the beliefs of the majority of Americans regarding race relations? a. Those believing that race relations were good declined slightly. b. Those believing that race relations were good increased slightly. *c. Those believing that race relations were good declined dramatically. d. Those believing that race relations were good increased dramatically. e. Those believing that race relations were good remained about the same.

43. The goal of the 1848 Seneca Falls Convention was to *a. discuss issues for the expansion of women’s social, civil, and religious rights. b. debate the possibility of seceding from the United States to restrictions on slave

trade. c. create a women's manifesto discussing temperance, abolition and suffrage. d. discuss strategies for the abolition of slavery. e. plan strategies that would advance rights for homosexual individuals and same-sex couples.

44. Those advocating for women's suffrage, including Susan B. Anthony and Elizabeth Cady

Stanton, were working primarily for a. the prohibition of the sale and consumption of alcohol.

*b. women's right to vote. c. the prohibition of so-called "marriage laws" giving husbands control over women's

property. d. women's right to free public education. e. the opportunity to work at male-dominated jobs.

45. Where did the Silent Sentinels picket in support of women's right to vote? *a. the White House b. the Supreme Court c. major factories in the garment industry d. the Washington Monument e. bordellos and houses of ill-repute

46. The second wave of the women's movement gained momentum from a. the successful passage of the Equal Rights Amendment. *b. the publication of The Feminine Mystique. c. implementation of the Voting Rights Act. d. the appointment of Supreme Court Justice Sandra Day O'Connor. e. the recisson of the combat exclusion for women.

47. The Supreme Court has ruled that sexual harassment is sex discrimination that violates Title

VII of the Civil Rights Act when a. it results in psychological or emotional injury to the target of the harassment. b. the target of the harassment objects a second time to touching, body language, or

inappropriate comments. c. the initiator of the harassment is in a position of authority to the target of the harassment. *d. the workplace environment becomes hostile or abusive. e. an employee can no longer satisfactorily complete his or her job.

48. The 1963 Equal Pay Act requires employers to a. hire based on gender-related quotas. b. eliminate any wage gaps for men and women under their employ. *c. provide equal pay for substantially equal work. d. remove all types of occupational segregation. e. provide equal pay to all employees.

49. Which of the following provided voting rights for the first time to those aged 18? a. Voting Rights Act of 1965

b. Nineteenth Amendment c. Twenty-Second Amendment *d. Twenty-Sixth Amendment e. Motor Voter Law

50. The Supreme Court ruling in Hernandez v. Texas was important to civil rights because the

court ruled *a. a jury in a trial must be selected without regard to race or ethnicity. b. a person must be read their Miranda rights in both English and, if necessary, Spanish. c. that segregation of Mexican American students in public schools was a violation of

the Fourteenth Amendment. d. that individuals cannot be required to show proof of identity unless they are suspected of involvement in criminal activity. e. that ballots in primary and general elections must be provided in multiple languages based on the composition of the community

51. In Texas, but also in other locations, political organizing by _____ helped increase local

minority representation for Latinos. *a. the La Raza Unida Party b. the Progressive Party c. Pete Hernandez d. the Tea Party e. African American Democrats

52. Members of the Hispanic community who participated in marches in 2006 voiced a

common request for a. new policies governing border patrolling. *b. the extension of citizenship to illegal immigrants. c. the arrest of civilians acting independently to police borders. d. the extension of Fourteenth Amendment guarantees to Hispanics. e. the provision of free medical and social services to all illegal immigrants.

53. Issues in the Lau v. Nichols case revolved around _____, and the Court ultimately decided

to support it. a. increasing minority hiring preferences b. sexual harassment penalties c. noncitzen military participation *d. rights to a bilingual education e. restrictions on reverse discrimination

54. Affirmative action allows educational institutions and employers to *a. give special preferences to disadvantaged groups. b. set strict quotas for the number of minorities they will hire. c. guarantee that a woman must be hired for the next job opening. d. disregard disadvantaged status, all other things being equal. e. hire completely based on minority status, rather than qualifications.

55. The policy in admissions or hiring that gives special consideration to traditionally

disadvantaged groups to overcome the present effects of past discrimination is known as *a. affirmative action. b. civil actions. c. civil rights. d. legislative mandate. e. reverse discrimination.

56. The Supreme Court ruling in the Bakke case states that a. affirmative action programs are allowable in law schools, but not in medical schools. *b. race cannot be the sole factor in admissions decisions. c. all affirmative action programs are unconstitutional. d. race cannot be a factor in making admissions decisions. e. quota systems are constitutional.

57. The controversy surrounding affirmative action programs has manifested in *a. state ballot initiatives that have permitted voters to approve laws banning state-

sponsored affirmative action efforts. b. Congress developing legislation that would expand and redefine the quota system. c. Supreme Court rulings that have all abolished affirmative action programs in the workplace. d. an executive order by President Obama that prohibited preferential treatment of racial minorities and women. e. the Department of Labor mandating state-run educational programs about affirmative action initiatives.

58. The trend of affirmative action programs in the 1980s and 1990s was to *a. have Congress increase the number of affirmative action programs. b. take race as a factor only in the private sector employment opportunities. c. require a quota system for college admissions. d. eliminate requirements for federally funded affirmative action programs. e. face challenges in court on the legality of existing laws surrounding affirmative

action programs.

59. Compensation through time or money or a formal apology to make amends for a past

transgression or harm is known as a. accommodation. b. rendition. *c. reparation. d. reciprocity. e. abolition.

60. The Americans with Disabilities Act recognizes _____ as a disability that employers need to

“reasonably accommodate.” a. bipolar disorder *b. cerebral palsy c. drug addiction d. epilepsy e. nearsightedness

61. The Supreme Court has issued decisions related to the Americans with Disabilities Act that

have a. limited conditions that are under the protection of ADA to those that can be corrected

with medication or by using corrective devices. *b. protected state government employers from potential lawsuits by offering them protected status. c. broadened the scope of ADA by increasing the chronic diseases and conditions that are recognized. d. allowed insurance companies to deny coverage to individuals with preexisting conditions. e. placed the burden of making accommodations for a disabled job applicant or employee onto the applicant or employee.

62. The modern movement for LGBTQ rights began a. when gay veterans of World War II organized in the 1950s. b. with the growth of the civil rights movement in the early 1960s. *c. in 1969, following a riot that broke out when police raided the Stonewall Inn. d. in 1986, with a campaign against sodomy laws in the state of Texas. e. in 1996, with the campaign for same-sex marriage in the state of Hawaii.

63. In the 2003 decision of Lawrence v. Texas, the Supreme Court a. upheld a Texas law that made homosexual conduct a crime.

*b. declared laws against sodomy between consenting adults in private unconstitutional. c. invalidated antidiscrimination laws that protect homosexuals. d. upheld Bowers v. Hardwick. e. upheld state laws that declare homosexuality a crime.

64. In Obergefell v. Hodges, which amendment ultimately provided protection to same-sex

marriages to individuals in every state? a. Thirteenth Amendment *b. Fourteenth Amendment c. Fifteenth Amendment d. Sixteenth Amendment e. Twenty-Fifth Amendment

65. The Defense of Marriage Act of 1996 was passed by Congress in response to *a. a ruling by the Hawaii Supreme Court that might have allowed same-sex couples to

marry. b. the passage of Vermont’s civil union law. c. the legalization of same-sex marriage in Massachusetts. d. a ruling by the Supreme Court striking down antisodomy laws in Lawrence v. Texas. e. the establishment of civil unions in Minnesota.

66. Discuss the origin of civil rights in the U.S. Constitution and explain how civil rights differ from civil liberties.

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67. Discuss why the civil rights acts passed from 1865 to 1875 were unsuccessful in enforcing the Civil War Amendments during Reconstruction.

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68. Explain the impact of the Plessy v. Ferguson decision. What rights did it infringe upon?

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69. Explain the basis of the Supreme Court’s decision in Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka and efforts of the Supreme Court to ensure integration of schools in subsequent decades.

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70. Compare and contrast the struggle for women’s rights with the struggle for civil rights by African Americans.

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71. What legislation has addressed gender discrimination in the United States? Consider educational, social, military and employment matters.

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72. Review the struggles of Latinos, particularly Mexican-Americans, in gaining civil rights in the United States.

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73. Discuss the goal of affirmative action and explain why affirmative action is controversial in the United States.

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74. Discuss the advancement of civil rights for persons with disabilities in the United States. Has any group with disabilities been left behind?

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75. Explain the significance of Lawrence v. Texas and United States v.

Windsor in regard to the advancement of civil rights in the United States for the LGBTQ community.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

Chapter 6 1. Because there is no single “public,” but rather many different publics, surveying public

opinion actually means a. focusing on one identifiable opinion among competing opinions. *b. describing attitudes typically shared by some portion of the adult population. c. identifying the issue where opinions aggregate. d. polling only influential individuals. e. persuading people to support the policies of the administration in power.

2. A poll indicating that 92 percent of adults believe an education beyond high school is crucial

for success in today’s job market represents a(n)_____ opinion. *a. consensus b. divisive c. elite d. minority e. non

3. Widely varying attitudes among the citizenry on an issue constitutes a. a consensus. *b. a divisive opinion. c. a majority opinion. d. nonopinion. e. public aggregation.

4. When 46 percent of respondents feel the government is doing a good job, and 52 percent

believe it is not, this is an example of a. consensus. b. elite opinion. c. nonopinion. *d. divisive opinion. e. unified opinion.

5. A poll which indicates that 20 percent of respondents approve of the U.S. military assisting in

issues of regional violence in Africa, that 17 percent disapprove, and that a majority do not know enough to answer exemplifies a(n) a. consensus opinion. b. negative opinion. c. fluctuating opinion. d. unresolved opinion.

*e. nonopinion.

6. Demonstrations by Tea Party protesters and other supporters indicated their dislike of

government spending, health-care reform legislation and similar government programs on both sides of the aisle. In this case, the ideas expressed are an example of a. consensus opinion. b. divisive opinion. *c. negative opinion. d. nonopinion. e. polarity opinion.

7. The national government is very responsive to the public’s demand for action when a. the majority of Americans express opinions at the extremes of an issue. b. public opinion shows that a majority of Americans have a nonopinion. c. an election has just occurred. *d. public opinion shifts dramatically. e. the issue concerns civil rights.

8. What is the general impact of public opinion on government action? a. It strictly determines government action. b. It does not impact government action. *c. It sets broad limits on government action. d. It only affects government action on issues that are part of election campaigns. e. It impacts only the highest office holders at the national level.

9. In cases where elected officials are attempting to reform policies where people express

intense feelings both for and against an issue, the elected officials often choose to *a. not change policy to favor either of the extreme positions. b. try to alter public opinion through agenda setting. c. utilize social media to reach a compromise with people that hold extreme positions. d. change policy in favor of the public opinion that most closely aligns with their

political party. e. use polls to determine if a nonopinion on the issue can be formed.

10. The process by which people acquire political beliefs and attitudes is known as a. agenda setting. b. consensus building. c. opinion leadership. d. peer grouping.

*e. political socialization.

11. Recent research about political socialization finds that *a. genetics may explain one-third of the differences in people’s political attitudes. b. peers play the most important role in people’s political socialization. c. the media play no role in people’s political socialization. d. opinion leaders are not agents of political socialization. e. shared environment is the primary factor in political socialization.

12. Which of the following statements is true of political socialization? a. Parents disaffected from the political system are more likely to provide political

information to their children than parents who are not similarly disaffected. b. Although more sources of political information have become readily available in recent decades to most Americans, these sources are not as readily available to most young people. c. Sources of information about politics have been steadily decreasing in the United States for decades. d. The family has become the only meaningful source of political socialization in the United States. *e. Scholars believe that greater access to political information may explain why young Americans are more liberal than their parents on many social issues.

13. The transfer of political attitudes and beliefs a. is more likely to occur from children to parents. *b. is more likely to occur from parents to children. c. is just as likely to occur from children to parents as it is to occur from parents to

children. d. is exceptionally rare in families. e. never occurs from children to parents.

14. Studies suggest that the influence of parents on the political socialization of their children is

due to two factors: *a. communication and receptivity. b. communication and reason. c. nature and instinct. d. paternalism and listening. e. maternalism and paternalism.

15. Peer groups are more likely to influence political opinions when

a. peers are over the age of 50. b. it is not an election year. c. peers do not strongly identify with any political party. *d. peers are actively involved in political activities. e. peers are all of the same gender.

16. Saying the pledge of allegiance in class and learning about the Bill of Rights are examples

of a. family as a source of political socialization. *b. education as a source of political socialization. c. opinion leaders as a source of political socialization. d. peers as a source of political socialization. e. government as a source of political socialization.

17. An opinion leader is a. a pollster. *b. someone able to influence others’ opinions. c. someone who always sways public opinion. d. usually a public relations expert. e. usually an elected official.

18. Nicholas Kristof, a New York Times reporter and author, identified the empowerment of

__________ as a moral imperative for the twenty-first century. a. Latinos b. the homeless c. immigrants *d. women and girls e. young voters

19. Which of the following statements regarding Syria demonstrates political socialization

specific to the United States? a. The Syrian civil war has presented the U.S. and the world with a tremendous

humanitarian challenge. b. New regimes in countries must help people establish day-to-day political norms and practices. *c. Americans are sometimes puzzled by the slow pace of democratization once a dictator has been removed. d. An estimated 4.7 million Syrian refugees have fled to neighboring countries. e. The United Nations Children's Fund estimates that some Syrian children has missed out on as much as two years of education during civil strife.

20. A challenge to new democracies being established in countries which were once headed by

oppressive regimes is that a. older people universally prefer older forms of government. b. younger people universally prefer older forms of government. *c. the control of the educational system, the media, and religion was, for so long, in

the hands of the oppressors. d. democratization reinforces too many normal routines. e. the building of new civil societies is actually more brutal than the oppression of past regimes.

21. According to the text, the government of the United States was viewed as being arrogant by

other nations following a. its entry into World War II. b. its use of force in Kosovo in 1999. c. its invasion of Afghanistan in 2001. *d. its invasion of Iraq in 2003. e. its use of force in Libya in 2011.

22. Which statement about world opinion of the United States is most accurate? a. The "Obama Effect" had a lasting impact on positive opinion results about the United

States. b. Most nations opposed the U.S. plan to attack Iraq in 2003, but did agree that Iraq was a sponsor of terrorism. *c. There are divisions of opinion about the United States among Muslims in Middle Eastern states, based on religious views. d. Among key NATO allies, opinions about the United States are largely negative. e. Almost 70 percent of Pew Global Attitudes Project respondents hold an unfavorable view of the United States.

23. There is extensive global support for the current U.S. military campaign against a. Iran. b. Israel. c. Indonesia. *d. ISIS. e. Iraq.

24. The United States is most likely to be viewed positively by citizens of other nations when

they *a. are under the age of 30.

b. are ages 50 and older. c. have access to social media. d. have not received a college education. e. have large Muslim populations.

25. Which of the following statements is the LEAST accurate regarding political attitudes as

measured by the Pew Global Attitudes Project? *a. Most nations welcome U.S. intervention in their political affairs. b. Most nations expressed support to the United States during its efforts in ousting the

Taliban in 2001. c. Many countries feel the United States has destabilized the Middle East. d. Many countries have expressed strong support of U.S. actions against ISIS in Iraq and Syria. e. Most Muslim states in Africa have favorable opinions of the United States.

26. The Pew Global Attitudes Project focuses on registering a. the opinion Americans hold of other developed countries. b. the opinion members of Congress hold of other developed countries. *c. the opinion of the United States held by 40 nations. d. a detailed list of critical issues facing NATO allies. e. the opinions that countries hold of each other.

27. Agenda setting is determining *a. which public policy questions will be debated or considered. b. which proportion of the public expresses the same view on an issue. c. by what process people acquire political beliefs and attitudes. d. the aggregate opinion of the political elites. e. the aggregate opinion of the adult population.

28. Which of the following is an accurate description of the media’s impact on public opinion? a. The media successfully tell people what to think. b. The media do not impact public opinion or the political issues people consider. *c. The media may not successfully tell people what to think, but they are “stunningly

successful in telling their audience what to think about.” d. The media’s influence on public opinion is insignificant. e. The media’s influence on public opinion has declined over the past two decades.

29. In addition to informing the public about current issues and events, the media serve as a(n) a. direct extension of political parties.

b. glorified form of political advertising for specific officials and candidates. *c. political forum for leaders and the public. d. unbiased monitor of elected officials and candidates. e. uncensored outlet for a spectrum of opinions.

30. During the 2016 presidential election cycle, _____ garnered more than twice the amount of

earned media than the next closest competitor. a. Ted Cruz b. Jill Stein c. Hillary Clinton *d. Donald Trump e. Bernie Sanders

31. The concept of managed news refers to a. government dictating to the media what it can and cannot publish. *b. government generating and distributing information in a way which gives priority to

its own interests. c. media dictating to the government what it will and will not cover. d. media generating and distributing information in a way which gives priority to revenues. e. the public looking to media and the government to manage and frame their news consumption.

32. Which of the following statements is consistent with the life cycle effect on political

opinions? *a. Older Americans tend to be more conservative than younger Americans. b. Older Americans tend to be less conservative about social issues than younger

Americans. c. Voters who grew up in the 1930s during the Great Depression are likely to have formed lifelong attachments to the Republican Party. d. The 1960s and 1970s, dominated by events such as Vietnam and Watergate, led to greater trust in government. e. Based on the economic prosperity of the 1980s under Ronald Reagan, many young people chose to identify with the Democratic Party.

33. The life cycle effect is the a. process by which people acquire political beliefs and attitudes. *b. phenomenon of certain attitudes occurring at certain chronological ages. c. value assigned to a person because of occupation or income. d. principle that gender affects political party identification. e. long-lasting effect of a particular political event on attitudes.

34. Generational effect refers to the a. way in which political socialization produces opinions. b. increased tension between those of different ages within the same political faction. c. tendency for people to adopt conservative political opinions as they age. *d. long-lasting impact of significant events on the political opinions of the generation

that came of age at that time. e. way in which the family members of different ages influence political opinions.

35. The best example of the generational effect is a. individuals who are in their early twenties tend to have more liberal attitudes toward

social issues. b. candidate Hillary Clinton received significant support from women in the 2016 presidential campaign. c. many individuals remember where they were the night Barack Obama was first elected. *d. individuals who came of age during the Watergate scandal have a cynical attitude toward government. e. individuals with a high economic status tend to be more politically involved.

36. In the past, having a college education was associated with a greater tendency to *a. vote Republican. b. vote Democratic. c. vote as an independent. d. run for office. e. abstain from voting.

37. Generally, those with high incomes have tended to a. support consistent government intervention in the economy. b. favor income equality measures. c. focus almost totally on domestic issues. d. be more liberal on economic and cultural issues than other voters. *e. oppose government intervention in the economy.

38. The Pew Research center's typology places _____ in the center of the political spectrum a. Main Street Republicans b. Staunch Republicans c. New Coalition Democrats d. Hard-Pressed Democrats

*e. Independents

39. Voters who exhibit high degrees of religiosity and attend services regularly, regardless of

church affiliation, are *a. more likely to vote Republican. b. more likely to vote Democratic. c. more likely to vote for Independent and third-party candidates. d. less likely to vote at all. e. similar to the overall population in their political preferences.

40. African Americans tend to be more __________ on issues of social welfare, civil

liberties, and foreign policy. a. Republican than whites *b. liberal than whites c. politically neutral d. conservative than whites e. apolitical than whites

41. The difference between the percentage of women who vote for a particular candidate and

the percentage of men who vote for that candidate is called *a. the gender gap. b. the generational effect. c. gendered opinion. d. the lifestyle effect. e. the sexist gap.

42. American women are more likely than American men to support a. capital punishment. b. interventions abroad. c. legislation restricting the rights of homosexuals. d. restrictions on access to abortions. *e. social welfare programs.

43. Which statement about geographic region and political preference is correct? a. The South has always been solidly Democratic. b. The country overall is becoming more Republican. c. The heaviest concentrations of Republicans are found in the Northeast. *d. Regional differences are less important today than just a few years ago.

e. Party affiliation and political attitudes are primarily determined by geography.

44. The systematic questioning of a small, selected sample of respondents who are

representative of the total population is known as a(n) *a. opinion poll. b. quota sample. c. random sample. d. secret ballot. e. straw poll.

45. Modern polling was developed in the a. 1890s by Literary Digest. *b. 1930s by George Gallup and Elmo Roper. c. 1940s at Harvard University. d. 1960s at the Census Bureau. e. 1970s by Zogby and Nielsen.

46. The principle of randomness in public opinion polling means a. every individual sampled decreases the risk of bias error. b. every individual can choose to participate or decline participation in the opinion poll. c. every individual in the population is sampled. *d. every individual has a known and equal chance of being sampled. e. every individual sampled has a unique perspective on the issues.

47. The most important principle in sampling, or poll taking, is a. the sample size. *b. randomness. c. integrity of the pollster. d. prior experience. e. population characteristics.

48. __________ error occurs when some portion of the population is not include in the polling

sample. *a. Coverage b. Exclusion c. Interpretation d. Prejudicial e. Sampling

49. Which of the following is true about quota sampling? a. This technique helps eliminate all interviewer bias. *b. This is a less accurate technique. c. Interviewers use random sampling to select respondents. d. Interviewers form quotas based on their personal preferences. e. This is the preferred technique.

50. Gallup or Roper pollsters generally interview about ______ respondents for a nationwide

sample. a. 150 *b. 1,500 c. 10,500 d. 15,000 e. 150,000

51. A challenging issue in the science of research polling is a. the decline in importance of political polling. b. the lack of scientific research at the university level. c. the relatively low cost of Internet polling. d. the growth of the Hispanic population. *e. the growth of cell phones.

52. When an opinion poll asks “Do you favor or oppose going to war as a means to fighting

terrorism?” the most likely reason the results may be distorted is that *a. more respondents will automatically answer in the affirmative. b. the respondents do not wish to answer the question. c. the respondents' interaction with the interview influence the answer. d. the question may be asked in a different order depending on the respondent. e. the possible answers from which they are allowed to choose is different.

53. In _____ polls, respondents are given misleading information in the questions they are

asked in order to persuade them to vote against a candidate. a. scientific b. media c. political d. pull *e. push

54. “Would you be more likely or less likely to vote for Congressman Jones, who voted to raise

your taxes 22 times?” Which type of poll includes this kind of question? a. media poll b. quota poll c. pull poll *d. push poll e. Gallup poll

55. During presidential primary contests, polling is important to *a. candidates, contributors, and voters. b. candidates but not contributors. c. voters but not contributors. d. media but not candidates. e. voters but not candidates or contributors.

56. The decline in public support for progressive policies such as welfare and extended health

care can be linked to *a. declining political trust. b. declining political socialization. c. increasing party identification. d. increasing unemployment rates. e. increasing voter turnout.

57. As confidence in government falls, it appears that fewer people a. become more extreme in their ideologies. b. believe that problems facing the country are immediate. *c. embrace a shared political culture and norms of political behavior. d. can name an important issue facing the country. e. are interested in the workings of government.

58. About 86 percent of Americans indicated that economic issues were the most important

problem facing the United States during a. every year from 2001 through 2016. b. every presidential election year. *c. the 2008-2009 global recession. d. the 2012 presidential election cycle. e. the 2016 presidential election cycle.

59. Technology was used in the Arab Spring to *a. advance revolution and coalesce public opinion. b. poll participants on their feelings about the uprisings. c. permit voters to participate in online elections. d. allow government leaders in power to deal with threats from revolutionaries. e. silence the oppressive regimes by hacking into government websites.

60. The 2012 presidential campaign was noteworthy for the large use of social media to a. gather votes that could not be counted in traditional polling places. b. register new voters from minority communities. c. mobilize voters between the ages of 54 and 70 to “get out the vote.” d. promote candidates in place of traditional political campaigns. *e. connect with voters who do not watch television or read newspapers.

61. Those who are most active on social networks urging political action tend to be a. individuals in the middle of the political spectrum. *b. individuals at the furthest conservative and liberal ends of the political spectrum. c. individuals who feel fully disenfranchised from political action. d. individuals who are generally uninterested in partisan politics. e. individuals who are older than most elected officials.

62. Twitter was utilized during the 2012 presidential election by *a. traditional network media outlets to document voting trends. b. Quinnipiac University to poll voters about their voting behavior. c. the Tea Party to rally voters for President Obama. d. older voters in support of candidates, rather than young voters under the age of 30. e. Mitt Romney to concede, which was re-tweeted over 7 million times.

63. Which of the following declined in usage as an essential social media platform in the 2016

election cycle? a. Tumblr b. Vine c. Snapchat *d. Facebook e. Twitter

64. Explain the distinction between consensus and divisive opinion.

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Students’ answers may vary.

65. Explain how public opinion influences government decision making.

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66. Explore all the ways that political socialization occurs in the United States. Include examples of your own political socialization.

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67. Describe how political opinions are formed, mentioning at least three major influencers.

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68. Discuss several key demographic factors that shape voting behavior.

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69. Discuss how international opinion of the United States has changed since September 11, 2001. Which groups today tend to view the United States most positively?

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70. Discuss the role of the media in covering political news, particularly the most recent elections. Be sure to reference earned media and social media in your response.

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71. What are the challenges associated with accurate public opinion polling and how can these challenges be overcome?

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72. Discuss three factors that might distort public opinion results collected through opinion polling.

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73. Discuss modern public opinion about government, and the resulting impact on political culture.

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74. Provide at least two examples of how technology has affected the political process.

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Students’ answers may vary.

Chapter 7 1. An interest group is an organized group of individuals that shares common interests and a. seeks to win elections. *b. attempts to influence policymakers. c. aspires to control government. d. wishes to overhaul the judicial process. e. tries to subvert legislative action.

2. A lobbyist is defined as a. any association that employs an interest group to influence the government. b. an individual affiliated with one of the two major political parties. *c. an individual or organization that attempts to influence legislation and the

administrative decisions of government. d. a government worker who is not an elected official. e. a member of the congress who shapes the legislative agenda to benefit powerful interest groups.

3. The ease of access to government which interest groups exploit is sometimes called the

________ view of politics. a. “factional” b. “leaking faucet” *c. “multiple cracks” d. “participatory” e. “pluralistic”

4. Alexis de Tocqueville observed in 1834 that “in no country of the world has the principle of

association been ________.” *a. more successfully used or applied to a greater multitude of objectives than in

America b. more subject to abuse than in America c. more subject to abuse than in America, where two, but only two, factions have control over the entire scope of government d. less successfully used or applied than in America e. more distorted and misunderstood than in America

5. James Madison believed that having multiple organizations in the political system would

result in a. conflict between the organizations that would divide the American republic.

*b. prevention of the formation of oppressive majorities, thereby protecting rights of

political minorities. c. control of the government by the organization that used the greatest monetary influence. d. smaller states having the power to check larger states. e. undermining effective government because of limitations in the political process.

6. ________ sees political struggle as the pitting of different groups against each other to reach

a compromise. a. Majoritarianism b. Socialism c. Elitism *d. Pluralism e. Totalitarianism

7. ________ is the ability of interest groups to mandate or defeat policies needed for the public

good. a. Elitism b. Majoritarianism *c. Hyperpluralism d. Hypermajoritarianism e. Pluralism

8. Which of the following statements best characterizes social movements? a. Social movements represent issues of concern only to social elites. *b. Social movements may express the opinions of the weak and oppressed. c. Social movements rarely demand social change. d. Interest groups seldom spawn social movements. e. Traditional political parties often spawn social movements.

9. The best example of a social movement is a. the National Audubon Society. b. AARP. *c. Black Lives Matter. d. Hispanic-American voters. e. the U.S. Chamber of Commerce.

10. Latino Americans became part of a social movement to improve the lives of immigrant

workers. This could be considered an interest group when

*a. the United Farm Workers and La Raza joined forces as a recognized advocacy

group. b. conditions continued to deteriorate for many undocumented farm laborers. c. Cesar Chavez first considered taking up their cause. d. protesters began receiving widespread media attention. e. workers began to demand better working conditions for themselves.

11. The right to join an interest group is protected by a. Article III of the Constitution. *b. the First Amendment. c. the Second Amendment. d. the Fifth Amendment. e. the Eighth Amendment.

12. An interest that is neither recognized nor represented by a group at the present time is

known as a a. free rider. b. common interest. c. public benefit. d. rational incentive. *e. latent interest.

13. In his writings on interests groups, theorist Mancur Olson referred to the idea of ________,

meaning any public benefit that cannot be denied to any member of the community whether involved or not. a. the rational member b. the purposive incentive *c. the collective good d. the mandated good e. the purposeful incentive

14. Of the following, which is an example of a collective benefit? a. copyright law b. satellite television and radio c. smart phones d. compensation to wrongly convicted individuals *e. loans to college students

15. A free rider is

a. a member of an interest group. b. a participant in a social movement. c. someone granted free passage to Washington to lobby or demonstrate. *d. someone who benefits from the actions of a group without joining it. e. a civil rights activist.

16. ________ are more likely to enroll members who will give time and funds to the cause. a. Larger interest groups b. Groups with members between 18 and 32 years of age c. Groups with liberal affiliations d. Groups with members over 55 years of age *e. Smaller interest groups

17. ________ incentives incite people to join groups because of the companionship and sense of

belonging that they offer. a. Expressive b. Latent c. Material d. Purposive *e. Solidary

18. Kendra joined the National Audubon Society because she enjoys learning about birds and

meeting other birdwatchers. What type of interest group incentive does this demonstrate? a. common good *b. solidary incentive c. purposive incentive d. material incentive e. collective benefit

19. Enticing individuals to join an interest group for solidary incentives has become easier

because of a. changes in federal law. b. the creation of virtual currency. c. the intense partisanship in the federal government. *d. the advent of social media. e. the increased diversity of the U.S. population.

20. An interest group that offers material incentives to induce people to join its ranks is the a. American Civil Liberties Union.

*b. American Association of Retired Persons. c. National Audubon Society. d. Black Lives Matter movement. e. Greenpeace Society.

21. People who become members of interest groups in response to purposive incentives join a. for a sense of belonging. b. as free riders. *c. for ethical beliefs or ideological reasons. d. for economic opportunities. e. because they have been pressured to do so.

22. People who join social movements, such as anti-abortion groups or anti-death penalty

groups, are most likely to join because of ________ incentives. a. solidary b. material *c. purposive d. secondary e. financial

23. Most interest groups in the United States organize to represent ________ interests. *a. economic b. social c. liberal d. environmental e. public

24. The U.S. Chamber of Commerce and the National Association of Manufacturers (NAM) are

known as umbrella groups because they a. use lobbyists, who are said to offer protection for “rainy days”. b. combine with other types of interest groups, such as public interest groups and

professional organizations, in order to achieve their objectives. c. address environmental concerns, especially the issue of acid rain. *d. represent certain types of businesses or companies that deal in a particular type of product. e. are based in the Pacific Northwest, where rainfall is a frequent occurrence.

25. American farmers and their workers represent only 2 percent of the U.S. population, yet

they have significant influence on legislation. This supports the idea that

a. farmers used to be an unsuccessful interest group. b. more farmers are needed today than 40 years ago. c. farmers are usually too busy to be politically active *d. small percentages of the populace can be effective if they organize. e. geographical dispersion is essential to effective interest groups.

26. The economic and political expression of working-class interests is known as the ________

movement. a. socioeconomic *b. labor c. social d. service e. union

27. The sector of the economy that deals with health care, banking, and education is called the

________ sector. a. public employee b. military–industrial *c. service d. manufacturing e. industrial

28. By 2012, individuals who belonged to public-sector unions such as ________ outnumbered

those in private-sector unions. a. steel workers b. agricultural workers c. senators and representatives *d. college professors and other teachers e. automotive workers

29. At the end of 2015, union membership in the United States equaled about ________ of the

workforce. a. 3 percent *b. 11 percent c. 20 percent d. 32 percent. e. 49 percent

30. In terms of money spent on lobbying, the most powerful and influential professional interest

group is the

a. American Bar Association (ABA). *b. American Medical Association (AMA). c. Association of General Contractors of America (AGC of America). d. Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE). e. National Education Association (NEA).

31. Because the economically disadvantaged cannot afford to join interest groups, they are a. largely represented by business groups. b. largely represented by labor unions. c. nonetheless represented as effectively as wealthier citizens. *d. only indirectly represented, with only little direct voice of their own. e. not represented, but do not wish representation at any level.

32. A group which focuses on the best interests of the overall community is pursuing a. labor interests, b. patriotic interests. c. purposive interests. *d. the public interest. e. manifest interests.

33. Common Cause, a public-interest group focused on political reform, was actively involved

in a. pursing enhanced voter ID laws in every state. b. passage of the Nineteenth Amendment. *c. legislation to limit campaign spending. d. legislation supporting congressional term limits. e. supporting the censure of President Clinton instead of impeachment.

34. A unique feature of the public-interest group MoveOn.org is that a. it has existed for more than 50 years. b. it is directly affiliated with the Republican Party. *c. it is primarily an online interest group. d. it works only on state-level reforms. e. it is very small, but powerful.

35. Groups such as the National Right to Life committee and NARAL Pro-Choice America can

be considered

*a. single-issue interest groups. b. economic interest groups. c. interest groups of professionals. d. labor interest groups. e. public-interest groups.

36. Foreign governments and private foreign interests play a role in Washington, DC, by a. contributing large sums of money to the election campaigns of key members of

Congress. *b. hiring former members of Congress as lobbyists. c. bestowing expensive gifts on members of Congress who travel overseas. d. introducing legislation in Congress that benefits their countries. e. working to increase the complexity of banking regulations between the United States and their countries.

37. AARP and the American Automobile Association (AAA) have members in every

congressional district, a reflection of strength in a. leadership. *b. size and resources. c. ability to rally the public. d. cohesiveness. e. grassroots tactics.

38. An interest group’s ability to get members to call their representatives quickly or contribute

extra money when needed is an example of that group’s a. camaraderie. b. leadership. *c. cohesiveness. d. longevity. e. latent interests.

39. Direct techniques used by interest groups include a. using YouTube, Twitter, and Facebook to generate influence. b. using public-relations firms to polish their image with the public. *c. building alliances with other groups to enhance their collective effectiveness. d. using constituents to lobby Congress on behalf of an issue. e. staging demonstrations, marches, and boycotts.

40. ________ give interest groups a shorthand way of describing congressional voting records

to interested citizens.

a. Campaign assistance programs b. Legislator evaluations *c. Rating systems d. Lobbying quotients e. Power rankings

41. Assisting legislators or bureaucrats in drafting legislation and regulations is an example of a. campaign assistance. b. an indirect lobbying technique. c. an illegal lobbying technique. *d. a direct lobbying technique. e. climate control.

42. Interests groups recognize that ________ is the greatest concern of legislators. a. constituent satisfaction *b. reelection c. campaign reform d. committee membership e. congressional leadership

43. Political endorsements by interest groups are *a. important because groups publicize their choices in their membership publications. b. important although candidates cannot identify the specific source of any

endorsement. c. relatively unimportant, given the power of political parties. d. violations of campaign finance reform laws. e. permissible only in local elections, not in federal elections.

44. The 2009 Supreme Court decision in Citizens United v. Federal Election Committee

establishes a. that the Federal Election Committee must publish an annual report listing the names

of lobbyists. *b. that unions, interest groups, and corporations can spend money directly on advertising for and against candidates. c. a waiting period which is mandatory for ex-members of Congress who wish to accept lobbying positions. d. that 527 organization no longer have tax-exempt status if they contribute to political campaigns. e. that lobbyists must register with the clerk of the House of Representatives and the secretary of the Senate.

45. A strategy employed by interest groups that uses the general public or individual

constituents to influence government officials is known as a. alliance building. b. a direct technique. *c. an indirect technique. d. a material technique. e. campaigning.

46. Indirect techniques used by interest groups include a. approaching elected officials personally to press their cases. *b. mobilizing the general public to influence the government on issues of concern. c. forming alliances with other groups that are concerned about the same legislation. d. paying members of Congress to act as consultants. e. rating voting records of members of Congress and publicizing the results.

47. In order to gain the favor of the public, an interest group implements a public relations

campaign that demonstrates the danger of plastic twist-off caps to wildlife. This is an example of *a. climate control. b. tragedy of the commons. c. self-actualization. d. the common good. e. a direct technique.

48. When interest groups use YouTube, Twitter and Facebook to generate widespread public

comment and pressure, the goal is to *a. convince policymakers that public opinion overwhelmingly supports the interest

group’s position. b. mislead the public by capitalizing on the viral nature of social media. c. bypass the legislative process and direct attention to the executive branch. d. force bureaucrats to seek judicial rulings. e. lobby lawmakers directly to use specific language in new legislation.

49. Corporations employing climate control are a. manipulating environmental legislation to lessen its impact. b. making donations to PACs which support their candidates of choice. c. artificially manufacturing grassroots activity to sway legislators. d. using direct lobbying to wine and dine legislators. *e. using public relations techniques to create favorable public opinion.

50. The “shotgun” approach of mobilizing constituents to lobby for an interest group’s goals

may a. be the most impactful strategy, because legislators like hearing from many

constituents. *b. be ineffective because the legislators know that the activity has been artificially manufactured. c. require a minimal number of participants to effect considerable change if the message is “on target.” d. be best suited to interest groups that are focused on a single-message, like the National Rifle Association. e. also incorporate a demonstration or boycott to draw attention to the groups message.

51. In the ________ approach to lobbying, an interest group may request that managers or

owners of businesses who are responsible for many jobs or who control other resources to contact their senators. a. “shotgun” *b. “rifle” c. “Astroturf” d. “grassroots” e. “greenturfing”

52. Which of the following statements about demonstrations is true? a. Demonstrations, by definition, are organized refusals to buy the products of particular

companies. b. Demonstrations usually unite the general public behind an issue. c. Demonstrations are comparatively rare, given the availability of the Internet and social media. *d. Demonstrations, if peaceable, are protected by the First Amendment. e. Demonstrations in protest of Russian vodka by gay and lesbian groups have been overwhelmingly successful.

53. In order for a boycott to be effective, there must be *a. widespread support from the public, like what occurred during the grape boycott

from 1965 to 1970 to support the unionization of Mexican American farmworkers. b. a charismatic leader, like what occurred when Martin Luther King Jr. organized the 1955 bus boycott in Montgomery, Alabama. c. widespread media coverage, like what occurred following the Deepwater Horizon oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico d. a civil rights issue, like what occurred during the Black Lives Matter protest in Ferguson, Missouri.

e. a name brand product, like what occurred when a cookie boycott targeted the Girls

Scouts of America.

54. According to the Federal Regulation of Lobbying Act, individuals are defined as lobbyists

who ________ and the act ________. a. receive money to be used principally to influence legislation before Congress; did not

require their disclosure or registration *b. receive money to be used principally to influence legislation before Congress; required their disclosure c. work in Washington D.C. in any capacity except as an elected official and his or her staff; did not require their registration d. receive money to work as an advocate for a cause, interest group or foundation; required their review by the Internal Revenue Service e. receive money from any elected official, congressional staffer, executive branch member or judicial branch member; required their review by the Internal Revenue Service 55. Congress’s first attempt to control lobbyists, the Federal Regulation of Lobbying Act of

1946, *a. proved largely ineffectual because it provided for public disclosure more than for

regulation. b. ironically caused an increase in the number of lobbyists in Washington, DC. c. forced many interest groups to abandon attempts to influence the government. d. reduced the effectiveness of most interest groups. e. was ruled unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.

56. According to the Center for Responsive Politics, about 11,500 individuals and organizations

registered in 2015 as lobbyists, and experts estimate that number to be a. about right. b. about ten times too high. c. about twice as high. *d. about ten times higher. e. about one hundred times higher.

57. Legislation to reform the regulation of federal lobbying in 1995 resulted in the a. elimination of registration requirements for lobbyists. b. filing of monthly reports by lobbyists disclosing their activities. c. registration of tax-exempt organizations, such as religious groups. *d. registration of persons who spend more than 20 percent of their working time

lobbying Congress or the executive branch.

e. the adoption by Congress of a $500 cap on the value of gifts that members can

accept.

58. The scandal involving corrupt lobbyist Jack Abramoff a. did not result in any criminal charges. *b. defrauded American Indian tribes and led to charges of corruption against public

officials. c. was limited only to Abramoff’s ties with Republicans. d. was generally overlooked by Congress and the president. e. resulted in the resignation of the Speaker of the House and key staffers.

59. Efforts to restrict lobbying, such as the Honest Leadership and Open Government Act of

2007, have been a challenge because *a. lobbyists often find loopholes in lobbying legislation. b. members of Congress refuse to move forward with lobbying reforms. c. the public generally opposes legislation aimed at restricting lobbying. d. the president often opposes lobbying restrictions. e. reforms have directly resulted in increased taxes, which are politically unpopular.

60. The Honest Leadership and Open Government Act of 2007 was adopted by both houses of

Congress and a. found unconstitutional by the Supreme Court. *b. signed by President George W. Bush. c. negated by President Barack Obama. d. rejected out-of-hand by the Association of Government Professionals. e. vetoed by President George W. Bush.

61. The existence of interest groups poses challenges to democracy because a. it demonstrates the validity of the pluralist model. b. it demonstrates the validity of the majoritarian model. c. it guarantees that small groups have no particular advantage. *d. it appears that the upper classes often dominate interest groups. e. it contradicts many tenets of the Bill of Rights.

62. Most interest groups have a ________ bias. a. labor union *b. middle- or upper-class c. lower- or middle-class d. religious

e. pluralist

63. The concept that interest groups are really an elitist phenomenon rather than a manifestation

of pluralism is supported by the fact that a. public-interest groups are the most powerful groups. b. only a small percentage of the interest groups lobbying Congress are business groups. c. the power of unions has declined over the past three decades. d. religious groups and recreational groups have the largest financial footprint in

Washington, DC. *e. most Americans are not represented by interest groups.

64. The results of lobbying efforts do not always favor the interest of the most powerful groups

because a. members of Congress are often opposed to the influence of interest groups. *b. not all interest groups have an equal influence in government. c. competing interests often cancel out the objectives the groups are trying to achieve. d. public opinion has been overwhelming opposed to interest groups pressuring

Congress. e. mobilizing members of interest group can be difficult.

65. Compare and contrast the beliefs regarding interest groups expressed by Alexis de Tocqueville and James Madison.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

66. Explain the constitutional and political reasons why there are so many interest groups in the United States.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

67. Discuss the different reasons Americans have for joining interest groups. Provide examples of interest groups that demonstrate these benefits.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

68. Describe different types of economic interest groups and explain how they differ from other types of interest groups.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

69. Explain the factors that make an interest group powerful.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

70. Discuss the direct techniques used by interest groups to influence government decisions.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

71. Discuss ways the general public and individuals are involved in indirect techniques for influencing government decisions. When are these strategies most successful?

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

72. Explain how technology has changed the methods used by interest groups to promote their agendas to members and Congress.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

73. Discuss the legislative attempts to regulate lobbyists at the federal level.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

74. Explain the view that says interest groups are really an elitist phenomenon. Support or dispute this view with examples.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary

Chapter 8 1. A subgroup within a legislature or political party acting in pursuit of a special interest or

position is referred to as a. an interest group. b. an intraparty. *c. a faction. d. a clique. e. a third party.

2. Political parties are an important feature of the political landscape of the United States, but

they a. do not contribute financially to campaigns. b. do not run the government. c. have little power in challenging the party in power. d. have little influence in deciding government policy. *e. are broad and inclusive, with no dues-paying members.

3. A political party is a group of individuals who a. answers strictly to designated party leaders. b. agrees on all policy issues. c. has obtained positions of official power. *d. organizes to win elections and operate the government. e. pays monthly dues to an ideological organization.

4. A political party differs from an interest group in that a. individuals may choose to belong to an interest group but not to a political party. b. individuals in a political party agree on all major policy issues and interest group

members do not. *c. political parties want to operate the government and interest groups do not. d. political parties are concerned about election events and interest groups are not. e. political parties deal with matters of campaign finance and interest groups do not.

5. If political parties in the United States did not search out and encourage political hopefuls,

then *a. voters would have limited choices. b. fewer elections would be uncontested. c. elections would be simplified for the voting population. d. democracy would be strengthened. e. requirements set out in the Fourteenth Amendment would be unattainable.

6. Political parties play an important role in organizing and running elections by a. conducting elections. b. printing the election ballot. c. holding debates. *d. conducting voter-registration drives. e. confirming ballot tabulation.

7. Political parties are large and complex organizations that reflect *a. a set of broad principles. b. a narrow position on particular issues. c. the consensus opinion of the electorate. d. the official policy positions of government. e. an unwavering perspective on the policy agenda.

8. One responsibility that a political party takes on when accepting responsibility for running the

government is a. preventing the party out of power from voicing their opinions. b. reorganizing the department structure to meet the needs of their elected officials. c. staffing the executive branch in a nonpartisan manner. *d. developing connections between elected officials to implement their policies. e. acting as the organized opposition to the "in" party.

9. The political party “out of power” is a. required to support the party “in power” despite their disagreements. *b. expected to force debate on policy alternatives. c. expected to present another perspective on issues but not in a forceful or disrespectful

manner. d. expected to file “opposition briefs” against policies supported by the majority. e. required to support domestic and foreign policies that promote "American" values.

10. One way in which political parties in the United States differ from those in European

countries is that *a. American parties are not focused on signing up large numbers of members. b. parties in European countries are active only at the national level. c. party organizations in the U.S. are highly structured and hierarchical. d. major functions in European political parties are carried out by a small group of party

activists. e. American parties require active members to contribute dues.

11. The party-in-the-electorate refers specifically to *a. all members of the general public who identify with a political party. b. the formal leadership of a political party. c. all elected and appointed officials who identify with a party. d. the members of the electoral college. e. all individuals who choose members of the electoral college.

12. Individuals who may or may not participate in election campaigns, yet who feel loyalty to a

political party, would best be described as a. a faction. *b. the party-in-the-electorate. c. the party organization. d. a public interest group. e. straight-ticket voters.

13. Political party leaders pay close attention to the affiliation of their members in the electorate

because a. only declared voters are eligible to vote in the general election. b. they seek to attract underrepresented groups. c. these individuals are the political voice of the nation. *d. winning a majority of elections will allow the party’s policies to be enacted. e. voters may only choose between two formal choices when declaring their party.

14. The formal structure and leadership of a party is known as the a. party-in-government. *b. party organization. c. official party. d. party-in-government. e. party machine.

15. The segment of the political party that recruits volunteers to become party leaders and

identifies potential candidates is a. a faction. b. the party-in-the-electorate. *c. the party organization. d. a public interest group. e. straight-ticket voters.

16. Which statement about the party organization is correct? a. The party organization at the national level is most important for recruiting young

adults into political work. *b. The party organization is responsible for maintaining the affiliation of the party-inthe-electorate. c. The party organization is rigidly linked at every possible level. d. The party organization is hierarchical with power being centered at the national level. e. The party organization at the national level funds the operations of the state and local party organizations.

17. Regarding political parties in the United States, it is true that a. they are extremely hierarchical. b. they are made up of professional staffers. c. they are extremely powerful. *d. they have a confederal structure. e. they have equal influence and funding in every state.

18. At each national convention, a political party drafts the party ________ outlining the party’s

policies, positions, and principles. a. ordinance b. caucus c. constitution *d. platform e. treaty

19. The task of planning the next campaign and convention, obtaining financial contributions,

and publicizing the national party belongs to the *a. national chairperson. b. presidential nominee. c. state chairperson. d. state committee. e. local delegation.

20. The national convention, national committee and state central committees are part of a. the checks and balances system. b. the party-in-the-electorate. c. the informal party structure. *d. the party organization. e. the party-in-government.

21. The unit rule is important to presidential candidates because a. the electoral votes of a state are allocated in units proportional to the number of

members in the House. b. they must receive a majority of the national popular vote to receive any electoral votes. *c. the electoral votes of a state are cast for the candidate who gets the largest number of popular votes in the state. d. the party workers within a political party must be considered for roles as electoral delegates. e. they must campaign in all 50 states to guarantee they receive a majority of the electoral votes.

22. The party-in-government is best described as *a. elected and appointed officials who identify with a party. b. citizens who feel a sense of loyalty to the party. c. special interest groups who feel loyalty to a party. d. elected and appointed officials who are in the majority party. e. constituents that align themselves with a party.

23. A divided government is understood to mean a. a bicameral system of government, with a House of Representatives and a Senate. b. a system which divides responsibilities between the state and federal levels. c. a bipartisan government in which all viewpoints are represented. *d. the executive and legislative branches of government are controlled by different

parties. e. the two-party system of government in the United States.

24. James Madison believed the emergence of political parties could be attributed to a. differences rooted in religious beliefs. b. traditions that carried over from British rule. *c. the form of government created by the Constitution. d. the strengths and failings of the first two presidents. e. economic interests that sought alternative political systems.

25. George Washington viewed political parties as a. a necessary evil to prevent majoritarianism. b. an important aspect of democracy. c. effective as a means to raise campaign funds.

d. essential for a representative government. *e. a threat to national unity.

26. The first political parties in the United States, the Federalists and Anti-Federalists, had

opposing views related to the a. prohibition of the slave trade and slavery. b. importance of economic interests in leaders. *c. power that should be provided to the national government. d. types of taxation permitted by the various levels of government. e. role of religion in government.

27. One outcome likely attributable to the early presence of political parties in American

politics was a. a need to control campaign contributions. b. a decline in voter turnout in New England. c. the absence of negative political discourse. *d. the peaceful transfer of power from one party to another. e. frequent violence during political campaigns.

28. Which of the following statements about political parties during the era of good feelings is

true? a. The administration of John Adams was known as the era of good feelings. b. During the era of good feelings, spirited competition between parties occurred in a

context of mutual respect and polite restraint. c. During this era, little emphasis was placed on personal politics but clear ideological differences between candidates was evident. d. With the election of John Quincy Adams, the Republican Party split in two, creating the Federalists and the Anti-Federalists. *e. The Republican party dominated the presidency and Congress, and political competition took place within the party.

29. The success of the Democratic Party in the 1820s was linked to *a. their superior efforts to involve common citizens in the political process. b. the fact that so few people participated in politics that it was simple to influence those

who were actually involved. c. the party reaching out to free blacks to secure their vote. d. the absence of party identity and loyalty during the decade. e. the party’s concern for black and female suffrage.

30. The modern Republican Party was formed

a. as a response to the Seneca Falls Convention for women’s rights. *b. from a coalition of antislavery factions. c. as an outgrowth of the Southern Whigs. d. as the party supporting rum, Romanism and rebellion. e. during the era of good feelings.

31. The populist movement, which supported inflation to reduce the value of outstanding debts,

was a. part of the Republican party of Reconstruction. b. the initial platform for women's right to vote. c. supported by urban working-class voters. d. able to decisively alter national government policies. *e. formed to champion the interests of small farmers.

32. The idea of political reform that became known as progressivism was *a. a belief that honest, impartial government could effectively regulate the economy. b. a belief that the conditions faced by African Americans needed improvement. c. adopted by the Republican Party and led to Theodore Roosevelt winning the

presidential election. d. a return to patronage cloaked in concern for the common voter. e. a continuation of traditional Democratic Party positions repackaged to appeal to a wider group of voters.

33. The presidential election of 1912 was unique because a. the Democratic Party temporarily split in two. *b. there were three significant contenders for the presidency. c. two Roosevelts ran against each other. d. all of the major parties opposed progressivism. e. the election was decided in the House of Representatives.

34. Which of the following statements about the Great Depression and New Deal era are true? a. The Great Depression shattered the belief of working-class Americans in the

economic competence of the Democratic Party. b. The Great Depression solidified the Republican Party as the dominant and most trusted party in American government and politics. c. Roosevelt’s relief programs were generally not available to African Americans, resulting in African American antagonism toward the Democratic Party that lasted for decades. *d. The Great Depression resulted in the final transformation of the Democrats from a party of limited government to a party of active government.

e. The ability of the Republican Party to offer relief to those hard-hit by the Great

Depression allowed the party to hold the presidency from the early 1930s until the late 1960s.

35. Beginning in the 1960s, socially conservative voters, particularly in the South, began to

________, with the result that ________. a. join the Libertarian Party; third parties dominate the modern era b. join the Democratic Party; the Democrats came to dominate the modern era c. join the Republican Party; the Republicans came to dominate the modern era *d. leave the Democratic Party; neither party dominates the modern era e. leave the Republican Party; neither party dominates the modern era

36. The election of 2000 appeared to change U.S. political culture because a. voters began expressing greater trust in the electoral process for the first time since

the Watergate scandal. b. the intense primary fight that preceded the election weakened interest in partisanship. *c. since then, states have been labeled as “red states” or “blue states,” depending on the leanings of their voters. d. it was the first time Twitter had been actively used in a campaign. e. for the first time in U.S. history, the electoral college vote was not supported by the popular vote.

37. Which of the following groups is more likely than the others to affiliate with the modern

Democratic Party? *a. Millennials b. white Evangelical protestants c. Cuban Americans d. Americans over age 65 e. wealthy men

38. In many cases, the largest percentage of people in any category, including men, non-

Hispanic whites, Millennials and college graduates, identify themselves as a. Republicans. b. Democrats. *c. Independents. d. Libertarians. e. nonpartisans.

39. Which statement about party positions related to size of government is correct?

a. Republicans and Democrats share a vision about the size and scope of government. b. Republicans prefer a bigger government that provides more services. *c. Democrats prefer a more active government that provides more services. d. Democrats prefer a smaller government that provides fewer services. e. Republicans prefer a smaller tax burden, but a larger and more active government.

40. Republicans favor ________ over ________. a. environmental protection; environmental regulation b. reforming immigration; expanding immigration c. gay rights; states' rights d. expanding health care options; contracting health care options *e. gun ownership; gun control

41. Modern Democrats emphasize the issues of a. limiting the scope of national governments power and states' rights. b. flat taxes, budget deficits and judicial restraint. *c. education, poverty and homelessness. d. reducing social programs and increasing regulation. e. reforming immigration and reducing the deficit.

42. Democrats place a higher importance on ________ than Republicans. *a. the distribution of wealth b. the military c. taxes d. immigration reform e. world affairs

43. Republicans place a greater importance on ________ than Democrats. a. gun policy b. the distribution of wealth *c. the military d. the environment e. health care policy

44. Two major issues of concern which helped shape the 2012 national elections were a. climate change and environmental regulation. b. women in the military and national defense. *c. reproductive rights and abortion.

d. same-sex marriage and civil rights. e. Medicare and Medicaid.

45. The 2014 midterm elections gained in importance for both parties, and ultimately saw a. a mixed message from voters, giving Republicans control of the executive branch and

Democrats control of the legislative branch. b. a mixed message from voters, giving Democrats control of the executive branch and the Senate, and Republicans control of the House of Representatives. c. a surge of support for the Tea Party agenda, making a third party candidacy a realistic option for 2016. *d. a surge of support for a conservative Republican agenda, giving the party control of the House and the Senate. e. a surge of support for the Democratic Party, helping the Democrats retain legislative control.

46. A recurring message of the 2016 presidential campaign season was a. the apathetic mood of the voters. b. the Republican dominance of the election process. c. the Democratic dominance of the election process. d. the return-to-party mood of the voters. *e. the anti-establishment mood of voters.

47. Elections based on a plurality system discourage new parties from forming because a. plurality requires each party to be as narrowly based as possible, leaving little room

for new parties. b. plurality gives an advantage to savvy political unknowns who can grab the media spotlight. c. plurality requires parties to form alliances with other parties to win elections. d. only parties receiving more than 5 percent of the vote are allocated seats. *e. under this winner-take-all system, no incentive is given for finishing second.

48. One reason that the two-party system has endured in the United States is the a. constitutional provision for a bipartisan system that mirrors the bicameral legislature. *b. prevalence of single-member electoral districts. c. prevalence of multimember electoral districts. d. rules of proportional representation. e. constitutional restriction on the speech of third-party candidates.

49. The winner-take-all principle can be observed in the United States when the ________

select(s) the president and the vice president.

a. party elders *b. electoral college c. national committee d. party-in-government e. voters in each state

50. The adoption of ________ would permit multiple parties to acquire seats in Congress

because representation would be based on the percentage of votes that they receive in national elections. a. divided representation b. patronage c. Australian ballots *d. proportional representation e. ticket splitting

51. Which of the following statements about third parties in the United States is true? a. Minor parties have been relatively inactive throughout the history of presidential

elections. b. Minor parties generally downplay ideology in favor of winning elections. *c. Minor parties are discouraged by the election laws in many states. d. Minor parties have been increasingly more important in many national elections, most recently in 2004. e. Minor parties do not need to meet minimum signature requirements in order to appear on ballots.

52. Many political scientists contend that third parties a. are incapable of effective grassroots organization. b. have consistently failed because they never reflect the political mood of the nation. *c. serve as a safety valve for dissident political groups, preventing major

confrontations and political unrest. d. can come into existence only if they are organized around a single charismatic leader. e. can come into existence only if they split off from one of the major political parties.

53. The third parties in the United States that have had the greatest longevity have been a. parties that focus on a single issue. *b. parties with strong ideological foundations. c. parties that splinter from a major party. d. factions. e. parties that focus on socialism.

54. Third parties have influenced presidential elections by a. increasing party identification among the electorate. *b. pulling votes from one of the major-party candidates. c. recruiting candidates from the major political parties to run for president. d. encouraging a larger voter turnout on election day. e. distracting and confusing voters about policy agendas.

55. ________ refers to a process in which a substantial group of voters switches party

allegiance. a. Dealignment b. Revolution *c. Realignment d. Reassessment e. Devolution

56. During the Roosevelt administration in the 1930s, the Democrats enjoyed political priority

after years of Republican rule. This is an example of a. a political caucus. b. the populist party. *c. realignment. d. segregation. e. dealignment.

57. A decline in party loyalties that reduces long-term party commitment is known as *a. dealignment. b. divided government. c. realignment. d. devolution. e. ticket splitting.

58. Party identification means *a. linking oneself to a particular political party. b. registering one’s support for a political party. c. voting exclusively for the candidates of one political party. d. changing the partisan balance in a district, state, or country. e. switching allegiance from one political party to another.

59. What occurs in straight-ticket voting? a. Voters adjust their support from one party to another. b. Citizens link themselves to a particular political party. *c. People vote exclusively for the candidates of one party. d. Substantial groups of voters switch party allegiance. e. Groups of voters grow large enough to change the partisan balance in a district, state,

or country.

60. A problem with dealignment theory is that a. straight-ticket voting is now nearly universal. *b. many so-called independent voters are not really all that independent. c. most voters are swing voters. d. realignments in American political history are generally unknown. e. closely divided elections are rare.

61. An individual who sometimes votes Republican and sometimes votes Democratic is known

as a a. dealigning voter. b. battleground voter. c. split voter. *d. swing voter. e. partisan voter.

62. The impact of swing voters is only relevant if a. voters are registered as independents. b. the election is local. c. voting turnout is high. *d. an election is competitive. e. an incumbent is running for office.

63. Tipping takes place when a. a substantial group of voters switches party allegiance. b. increasing numbers of voters call themselves independents. *c. groups of voters grow large enough to change the partisan balance in a district,

state, or country. d. birth rates decrease. e. third party candidates enter the race.

64. With the support for the Republican Party and Democratic Party eroding, which of the

following is most likely? a. Interest groups will replace political parties in the election process. b. Latino voters will swing vote in favor of the Republican Party in future elections. c. A charismatic candidate will rise to prominence in a major party to allow that party to

secure new members. *d. Demographic changes and the rise of nonparty support for candidates will alter party structures. e. The Republican Party will solidify a strategy to secure the votes of men.

65. Explain the different functions of political parties in the American system of government.

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66. Explain the differences between the party-in-the-electorate, the party organization, and the party-in-government.

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67. Describe the relationship of the national, state and local party organizations to each other. Include organizational examples of each type.

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68. Explain why political parties formed in the United States. Discuss how their strength and importance has changed over time.

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69. Discuss the differences between the modern Democratic Party and the Republican Party on economic and social issues.

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70. What are the demographic differences between those voters who identify as Republicans and those who identify as Democrats? How do those identified as independents compare to these?

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71. Review prominent candidates and their positions in the 2016 presidential elections in light of party politics. What implications can you find for future elections? What messages did voters send?

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72. Discuss the factors that reinforce the two-party system in the United States.

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73. Describe different types of third parties and explain why they are rarely successful at winning elections at the national level.

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74. Compare and contrast realignment and dealignment. Do political scientists express any concerns with these theories?

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75. What might you predict for the future of the two major political parties in the United States? What major factors will affect the party system?

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

Chapter 9 1. Individuals who run for political office can be divided into two groups, which are a. lawyers and insurance agents. b. idealists and realists. *c. those who are recruited and those who are self-starters. d. those with political knowledge and those with no political savvy. e. those who are progressive and those who are regressive.

2. Democratic political systems require a. universal voting rights. *b. competitive elections. c. elitist candidates. d. primary elections. e. political activists.

3. Which statement about the nomination process is true? a. Independent candidates often get help from political parties to obtain petitions and

gather signatures to appear on ballots. *b. Candidates from the two major parties have fewer requirements to get on ballots than independent or minor-party candidates, in most states. c. The nomination process is controlled by the Constitution and federal law. d. For most minor offices, candidates submit petitions to be added to ballots at local courthouses. e. Political parties require candidates to pay filing fees to run under the party’s name.

4. The American election system differs significantly from most European ones in that the U.S.

system a. includes free and fair elections. b. includes voting rights for all citizens. c. includes little party involvement. *d. includes primary elections. e. includes proportional representation.

5. In order to run for president of the United States, a candidate must be at least _____ years of

age. a. 27 b. 44 c. 59 d. 50

*e. 35

6. Naturalized citizens are constitutionally barred from running for the office of a. U.S. senator. b. U.S. representative. c. state representative. *d. president of the United States. e. governor.

7. Both a candidate for the U.S. Senate and the House of Representatives must a. be a natural-born citizen. b. have attained the age of 40 years. *c. be a resident of the state from which elected. d. have served previously in the state legislature. e. be a member of a registered political party.

8. Which statement about those individuals elected to political office in the United States today

is most accurate? a. The individuals elected to political offices accurately reflect the diverse population in

the U.S. b. Those elected to political offices are evenly divided between men and women. *c. Representatives today are overwhelmingly white and male. d. Individuals elected today are younger than candidates elected in the 1800s. e. Elected officials are overwhelmingly Protestant.

9. Which event contributed most to an increase in the number of African American public

officials? a. the legal end of segregation in public schools b. the ratification of the Nineteenth Amendment *c. the passage of major civil rights legislation in the 1960s d. the refinement of the constitutional requirements for office in the latter 1800s e. the lowering of the legal voting age to 18

10. Efforts which have increased the number of woman elected to public office include all the

following EXCEPT a. former secretary of state Condaleeza Rice's campaign to "Ban Bossy." b. funding of female candidates by EMILY's List. c. funding of female candidates by conservative groups.

*d. a constitutional amendment to remove the word "male" from officeholder

requirements. e. gender bias in the treatment of female candidates such as Sarah Palin.

11. Which statement about candidates, political parties, and campaigns is most accurate? a. The political party is the main source of campaign funding for a candidate. b. The candidate’s position on the issues has been overshadowed in the campaign by the

political party’s position on key issues. *c. The focus during a campaign is on the candidate because fewer people identify with political parties. d. The political party provides most of the expertise needed for a candidate to campaign effectively. e. The negativity found in modern campaigns is a new phenomenon.

12. A striking feature of today’s political campaigns is the a. large number of people who are willing to volunteer their time. b. positive theme that most candidates use exclusively through the election. c. lack of money contributed to candidates for major political office. *d. importance of paid professionals rather than volunteers. e. refusal of so many candidates to take advantage of the media.

13. The goal of a political campaign is to a. provide competition that will allow the most qualified candidate to be elected. *b. win the election, since the candidate who comes in second gets no reward. c. improve the voters’ knowledge of the major issues. d. make the parties stronger and unite the country. e. provide voters with a candidate who satisfies their preferences.

14. The primary role of the political consultant in today's campaign process is to a. organize the Get Out the Vote drive prior to election day. *b. devise the campaign theme and overall strategy. c. direct fundraising and spending. d. monitor the campaign’s progress through polling. e. deal directly with the press covering the campaign.

15. The individual who interacts directly with journalists covering a political campaign is called

the *a. press secretary. b. moral majority.

c. pollster. d. political pundit. e. communications director.

16. A winner-take-all system is also known as a ________ voting system. a. democratic b. majority *c. plurality d. proportional e. representational

17. In the case of an independent candidate, or a candidate representing a minor party, the most

serious problem is to convince voters a. that voting is their patriotic duty. b. of the importance of foreign policy issues. c. of the importance of domestic policy issues. *d. to reject the major-party candidates. e. that pluralism is fundamentally flawed.

18. An accurate way to gain insight into the public’s perception of a candidate is through a. man-on-the-street opinion polls, because they are conducted by the media. *b. tracking polls, because they are conducted almost daily and enable fine-tuning of

the candidate's message. c. advertising expenditures, because these are indicative of the strongest candidate. d. the primary election, because the response from voters will always indicate the strongest candidate. e. campaign contributions made by individual households, because this funding highlights most voter's preference.

19. The general intent of the federal corrupt practices acts passed by Congress was to a. ensure that business interests were protected in campaign finance laws. b. prevent or limit the possibility of slander against candidates. *c. regulate campaign financing. d. simplify the financial information that the media report on candidates. e. restrict the political activities of civil servants.

20. The Hatch Act of 1939 (Political Activities Act) is best known for *a. restricting the political activities of civil servants. b. limiting political groups to spending no more than $1 million in any campaign.

c. limiting individual contributions to a political group to $1,000. d. restricting the amount of money spent on primary and general elections for

congressional candidates. e. requiring disclosure of election expenses by candidates.

21. The Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 provided for *a. public funding of presidential campaigns. b. disclosure of all contributions and expenditures under $100. c. elimination of corporate and union influence in political campaigns. d. mandatory campaign contributions of $1-$3 on federal income tax returns. e. unlimited spending on campaign advertising.

22. The Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 was amended in 1974 to *a. create the Federal Election Commission. b. provide public financing for congressional races. c. limit campaign expenditures in presidential elections to a maximum of $2 million. d. create the Federal Communications Commission. e. expand presidential campaign spending to an unlimited amount.

23. The Supreme Court ruled in Buckley v. Valeo that ________ cannot be banned under the

Constitution. *a. the amount a candidate spends on a campaign b. making unlimited contributions to a congressional campaign c. accepting campaign contributions from a corporation or union d. contributions to members of the Federal Election Commission e. making unlimited contributions to a presidential candidate

24. Over the past 20 years, interest groups and individual companies have worked to find ways

to support candidates through campaign donations, with the result that a. Congress has passed more laws to increase restrictions on contributions from big

business. b. candidates have tried to distance themselves from these groups to avoid the appearance of complicity. *c. candidates have become dependent on these donations to run increasingly expensive campaigns. d. candidates have chosen to decline these campaign donations because accepting public money appears more ethical to voters. e. Congress has passed more pass laws to increase restrictions on contributions from liberal interest groups.

25. The term PAC refers to a. political action commissions. b. political access contributions. *c. political action committees. d. private access contributions. e. private action campaigns.

26. Campaign contributions that are unregulated by federal or state law are known as a. hard money. b. referendums. c. mandates. *d. soft money. e. initiatives.

27. The Supreme Court ruling in Citizens United v. FEC supports *a. corporations, unions, and interest groups funding campaign advertising without

limits as long as it is not coordinated with a campaign. b. restrictions on campaign language used in negative advertising about other candidates. c. unrestricted advertising by, for, or about political candidates. d. the elimination of super PACs. e. the unrestricted role of big business in political campaigns and candidate advertising.

28. A presidential primary in which contending candidates compete for popular votes, but the

results do not control the selection of delegates to the national convention, is referred to as a *a. beauty contest. b. candidate parade. c. reality show. d. front-loader. e. horse race.

29. Which statement about the presidential nomination process is most accurate? a. The nomination process in use today originated with the founders to elect the second

president of the United States. b. Superdelegates comprise at least 50 percent of the delegate votes in the Republican Party. c. Winning primary elections in states with a large number of electoral votes labels the candidate a front-runner. d. Front-loading primaries have been discouraged by both major political parties.

*e. The process of nominating presidential candidates is controlled by the public, rather

than the party elites.

30. For presidential candidates, a significant advantage in an early primary win in New

Hampshire is a. being named the lead horse, which eliminates other partisan challengers. b. the ability to ignore the rest of the primary election season. c. a bonus accrual of 10 superdelegate votes at the national nominating convention. *d. being designated as the front-runner, with resulting media exposure e. the right to speak at the nominating convention of their party.

31. The 2016 Republican presidential primary campaign saw as many as ________ candidates,

with ________ contenders still campaigning during the Iowa caucuses. a. 22; 18 b. 22; 10 *c. 18; 10 d. 18; 5 e. 10; 4

32. States that have been tagged as ________ states will see intense campaigning up to the very

day of the election. *a. battleground b. blue c. large d. red e. front-loading

33. Voter _____ refers to the percentage of citizens taking part in the election process. a. initiative *b. turnout c. fraud d. recall e. referendum

34. What percentage of the voting-age population went to the polls for the 2016 presidential

election? a. 82% b. 12% *c. 53%

d. 27% e. 91%

35. In local races for mayor, city council and the like, voter turnout is a. unimportant, because most local races are nonpartisan. b. high, but has little impact on issues affecting the local community. c. much higher than for national elections. d. about the same as for national elections. *e. usually much lower than for national elections.

36. In order to accurately assess voter turnout rates in the United States, you must a. compare it to the birth rate. b. compare it to voter turnout rates before passage of the Fifteenth, Nineteenth and

Twenty-Sixth Amendments. *c. compare it with the population of eligible voters. d. compare it with the voting-age population. e. compare it to countries utilizing compulsory voting.

37. Political participation increases with age because older voters a. are more mobile. b. were once immigrants. c. have attained higher levels of education. d. have less leisure time to learn about candidates. *e. have had more time to experience voting as an expected activity.

38. In general, which factor contributes to higher voting rates? a. greater geographic mobility *b. higher education level c. minority status d. youth e. less competitive race

39. The Americans who turn out to vote at the lowest rate are a. voters with children. b. the poorest voters. c. the oldest voters d. middle-aged voters. *e. the youngest voters.

40. Low rates of voter turnout among Hispanic and Asian American immigrants may occur

because they *a. are not yet citizens. b. are uninterested in politics. c. have little to gain. d. are less affluent. e. tend to be older.

41. Reported voter turnout ________ as education ________. a. increases; decreases b. decreases; increases c. stabilizes; increases *d. decreases; decreases e. stabilizes; decreases

42. ________ tend to be overrepresented among voters who turn out on election day. a. People under the age of 65 b. Young voters aged 18 to 24 *c. Wealthier people d. The poor and homeless e. Hispanics

43. Which statement about voter turnout and media coverage is supported by some scholars? *a. The news media’s focus on polls rather than on the actual policy positions of

candidates discourages voter turnout. b. Negative campaigns adequately inform citizens, increasing their likelihood of voting. c. Negative campaigning is thought to have no impact on voter turnout. d. News media reports on the candidates’ positions give voters incentives to avoid voting. e. Nonvoters have a more positive view of government and politicians than voters because of media campaign coverage.

44. Scholars explain low turnout rates by saying that some voters purposefully decide not to

become informed about an issue or believe that their vote will not matter, an impact they call the a. cognitive dissonance effect. b. uninformative media effect. c. horse race effect. d. negative campaigning effect.

*e. rational ignorance effect.

45. To increase voter turnout, one option that has had some limited success in the U.S. is to *a. utilize mail-in ballots. b. declare election day a national holiday. c. make registration mandatory for all citizens. d. make voting mandatory for all citizens. e. allow early voting.

46. When plans to improve voter turnout were implemented, by allowing early voting by up to

three weeks and voting via absentee ballot, what happened? a. Voter turnout increased by 9 percent. b. Voter fraud was a major issue. c. Results were not conclusive. d. The U.S. Election Assistance Commission objected to the initiatives. *e. Voter turnout actually fell.

47. Some voters show up at the polls because they a. are required to vote to maintain their citizenship. *b. believe they are doing their patriotic duty and receive personal satisfaction from

voting. c. have been ordered by the courts to participate in free and open elections. d. need to vote to satisfy religious mandates. e. are required to appear at the polls to receive government benefits.

48. In the years following the adoption of the Constitution but before the Civil War, many states

placed legal restrictions on the right to vote because of the *a. belief that voters should own property. b. belief that poor whites would abolish slavery if they could vote. c. belief that all whites, including women, should be allowed to vote. d. fear of aristocratic forms of government. e. fear of the voting power of illegal immigrants.

49. The writers of the Constitution allowed ________ to decide who should vote. a. Congress b. the president and vice president c. natural born citizens d. registered voters *e. the states

50. Women could vote in all states with the ratification of the ________ Amendment in 1920. a. Fifteenth *b. Nineteenth c. Twentieth d. Twenty-first e. Twenty-second

51. All the following statements regarding voter registration are correct EXCEPT *a. many states let noncitizen immigrants vote with a government-issued photo

identification. b. each state has different qualifications for voting and registration. c. every state must provide voter registration by mail. d. the minimum voting age is 18. e. you must be a citizen in order to vote.

52. The requirements to register to vote are a. age, literacy, and military service. b. age, residency, and property. c. citizenship, age, and property. *d. citizenship, age, and residency. e. literacy, age, and residency.

53. Regarding voter identification laws, Democrats generally believe that a. laws requiring voters to show a photo ID help reduce fraud. b. stricter photo ID laws tend to increase voter turnout overall. *c. photo ID requirements restrict poor and elderly voters who might not have

identification cards. d. photo ID requirements are appropriate government regulation of the voting process. e. photo ID requirements are a good tool to increase turnout among higher-income voters.

54. In the summer of 2006, the Voting Rights Act was *a. extended for an additional 25 years in legislation signed by President G.W. Bush. b. amended to remove jurisdiction by the U.S. Department of Justice over local voting

practices. c. amended to require American citizens to have proficiency in English. d. amended to end the process of appointing federal election observers e. altered to tighten registration and voting laws in the southern states.

55. In a closed primary, ________, and in an open primary, ________. a. only declared party members may select candidates; any voter may select candidates

in one or both primaries b. only registered voters may vote; any individual may vote *c. only declared party members may vote in that party's primary; voters may vote in any party primary without disclosing their affiliation d. only two candidates are running; multiple candidates are running e. only Republican candidates may run to become the nominee; any independent candidate may run to become the nominee

56. Which statement about ballots used during elections is most accurate? a. The party-column ballot is no longer used in the United States. b. The Indiana ballot reduces partisan voting by not publishing party affiliations. c. The Massachusetts ballot has been disallowed in the United States because it is

discriminatory. *d. The Australian ballot is secret and prepared, distributed, and tabulated by government officials. e. The office-block ballot has been linked to voter fraud.

57. When a popular candidate influences the success of other candidates on the same party

ticket, it is called the _____ effect. a. partisan b. Australian c. butterfly d. incumbent *e. coat-tail

58. The potential for voter fraud appears to be greatest with a. newly-registered voters. b. digitized voting machines. *c. absentee ballots and phony registrations. d. elderly voters. e. the use of the Australian ballot.

59. The framers of the Constitution wanted ________ to select the president and vice president. a. Congress b. natural-born citizens *c. a few reasonable men

d. the people e. the collective citizenry

60. The manner in which members of the electoral college are selected by each state is currently

governed by *a. state laws. b. the Federal Election Commission. c. Article II of the U. S. Constitution. d. congressional oversight. e. federal district court judges.

61. Members of the electoral college selected by each state equal the number of a. House members. b. Senators. *c. House members plus the number of Senators. d. voting districts. e. voting districts plus three.

62. What occurs in cases where no presidential candidate receives a majority of the electoral

college vote? a. the decision is made by the Supreme Court b. the candidate who received a plurality of the popular vote is elected c. the electors cast a second ballot to determine who will be elected d. Congress is required to authorize a second presidential election *e. the election is decided in the U.S. House of Representatives

63. Which of these presidents was elected without obtaining a majority of the popular vote? a. George Washington b. Barack Obama c. Lyndon Johnson *d. Abraham Lincoln e. Jimmy Carter

64. Explain the eligibility requirements for president, senator, and representative. Discuss why an individual might choose to become a candidate for office.

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65. Describe the members of the professional campaign staff including their role during a campaign.

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66. Describe the role of political action committees in the election process including their role in campaign finance.

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67. Discuss the modern campaign for running for president. Why is it referred to as the longest campaign? What is essential to success?

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68. Review the 2016 primary season. Include the importance of frontrunner status and battleground states.

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69. Describe voter turnout in relation to local and national elections.

Why do voters appear to be more interested in national races than those that affect them most?

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70. Discuss the factors that influence voter turnout in the United States. Which groups are most likely to vote? Least likely?

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71. Review the restrictions placed on voting throughout American history. Explain how these restrictions have been eliminated.

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72. Describe the characteristics associated with a closed primary, open primary, blanket primary and run-off primary.

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73. Explain the electoral college process. Does it work as the Founders envisioned?

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74. Describe how the electoral college could be reformed. Should the electoral college be reformed? Why or why not?

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Chapter 10 1. Forms of communication, including radio and television, that have a broad reach to many

people are known as a. mass messages. b. journalism. c. popular press. *d. media. e. news.

2. The primary purpose of social media is to *a. connect individuals who want to share information. b. legitimize news sources. c. investigate business and government on behalf of the public. d. present news that is not found in other media. e. organize people into common social groups.

3. George Washington felt it was important to keep some governmental matters secret and as a

result, news should be censored to keep these matters out of the public eye. This is an example of a. a free press. b. gerrymandering. *c. managed news. d. yellow journalism. e. covert reporting.

4. Which of the following statements best exemplifies yellow journalism? *a. a newspaper editor runs a sensationalized story in order to sell the publication b. a newspaper owner expounds their political philosophy through its publication c. a politically-sponsored newspaper runs stories that promote its party’s point of view d. biased journalism that exists in all publications e. a failure to report the news accurately for fear of retribution

5. Managed news reflects information that gives priority to ______ issues. a. small business *b. government c. voter d. social e. media

6. At the founding of the nation, the role of the media in politics was viewed as a. crucial to spreading political information to the electorate. b. an overstepping of a clear boundary since freedom of the press was not established. *c. limited because of the speed at which news traveled. d. vital since a large group of citizens controlled the political discussion. e. a nuisance since Thomas Jefferson openly opposed newspapers.

7. Mass-readership newspapers began in the nineteenth century because of a. the desire to follow events related to the Civil War. b. a backlash to the government’s desire to manage news. c. the increase in the literate population. *d. the invention of the high-speed rotary press and the telegraph. e. Supreme Court rulings permitting accurate reporting under First Amendment

protection.

8. Which type of media relayed returns of the 1920 U.S. presidential race to the people as it

occurred? a. telegraph b. magazine c. television *d. radio e. Internet

9. When presidential candidates John F. Kennedy and Richard Nixon debated in 1960, those

people who heard about the debate by _____ thought Kennedy had won while people who learned about the debate through other media thought Nixon had won. *a. watching it on television b. listening to it on the radio c. reading about it in the newspaper d. talking with family and friends e. listening to their state representative

10. During the 2016 presidential election, voters between the ages of 18 and 29 used social

media to gain information while all other age groups identified _____ as their source for election news. a. public radio *b. cable television c. national network television d. newspapers e. satellite radio

11. The media and the executive branch have a relationship that is best described as a. causal because both groups are interacting based on the role they play in government

operation. b. collaborative since the president and White House press corps work together to establish the public agenda. c. fiduciary since the media depends on funding from the government to operate. d. mutual due to the rights and responsibilities each has subscribed to uphold. *e. reciprocal because each needs the other to thrive in the political arena.

12. The full-time reporters who are assigned to cover the president of the United States are

called the White House a. cabinet. *b. press corps. c. secretaries. d. majority whips. e. liaisons.

13. The breadth of information available to the public about activities of the president is largely

due to *a. the White House press corps, which has almost continual access to the chief

executive. b. the president’s press secretary, who provides daily or twice-daily briefings. c. the president himself, who uses the press to promote programs he would like to see created. d. the digital age, which has prompted individuals to demand in-depth coverage of elected officials. e. other nations, that have allowed their press unlimited access and prompted our news media to do the same.

14. Which president was the first to make effective use of the media by talking to the nation

during his "fireside chats?" a. Jimmy Carter b. Thomas Jefferson c. Dwight D. Eisenhower *d. Franklin D. Roosevelt e. John F. Kennedy

15. In what ways do social networking, blogging, and the Internet play a role in politics today?

*a. Politicians at all levels of government office have placed importance on having a

web presence. b. The two major party candidates for president in 1996 were the first to develop political websites for their campaign. c. Because social networks were intended for friends and families, politicians have limited their presence in these applications. d. Modern political candidates have had limited success using the Internet to raise money to fund campaigns. e. While local politicians use social networking successfully, most national politicians do not.

16. The method of distributing multimedia files, such as an audio file, for downloading onto a

personal computer is called *a. podcasting. b. blogging. c. skyping. d. phishing. e. scrambling.

17. Which statement best reflects the role of the media in U.S. society? a. Media is often limited with the scope of news and information that they cover

because of government control. b. Regulations have increased during the past two decades as alternative sources of news and information have emerged. c. The influence a citizen can have over elected officials is limited since these individuals control the release of information. *d. Alternative sources of news and information are essential to inform citizens and maintain democracy. e. Media tend to be strictly guided by political beliefs and citizens must assess the information they receive.

18. Compared to twenty years ago, Americans have _____ trust in the media today. *a. diminished b. greater c. strengthened d. increased e. equal

19. When Washington Post reporters Bob Woodward and Carl Bernstein broke the story of the

Watergate scandal in the early 1970s, what role of the press were they fulfilling? a. engaging in political socialization

b. coordinating public actions c. interpreting developments in news d. providing essential information for informed political decisions *e. conducting investigative reporting

20. Issues that are perceived by the political community as meriting public attention and

governmental action are known as a. infotainment. *b. the public agenda. c. watchdog news. d. whistleblowing. e. priming news.

21. If a cable news channel decides to report on a senator's financial indiscretions rather than

report on a piece of congressional legislation that failed to pass, that news channel is practicing a. hard news. b. blogosphere politics. c. net neutrality. d. gerrymandering. *e. agenda setting.

22. A television network decides to run a series of news stories highlighting the need for

stronger regulations over gun sales and purchases. This example is representative of *a. agenda setting. b. blogosphere politics. c. managed news. d. gerrymandering. e. yellow journalism.

23. When a news program begins the broadcast each day with a certain political story and

continues to highlight this issue for several days, it suggests to the public that this political story is an important issue. Which function of agenda setting does this represent? *a. priming b. sorting c. replaying d. factoring e. blogging

24. Lisa watched a news report on recycling, and was proud that citizens had stepped up to be

more conscious of what they throw away. Jeremy heard a similar report on the radio as he drove

home and was frustrated because it showed that companies were still putting products in nonrecyclable containers. These two responses to similar information demonstrate the effect of a. sourcing. b. blogging. c. socializing. *d. framing. e. priming.

25. Framing is best defined as the influence on *a. public opinion as a result of the way a story is presented or covered, including the

details and context offered in the report. b. public opinion from a story that covers one candidate or policy favorably without providing similar coverage of the other side. c. public opinion as a result of journalists’ decisions about which news stories to cover. d. government policy as a result of positive or negative coverage of an issue. e. government activities as a result of media coverage of an issue.

26. In January 2013, the government shut down as part of a sequestration. Some reports focused

more on negative consequences of sequestration, while others discussed how Tea Party members of Congress pushed for fiscal responsibility. What aspect of agenda setting does this represent? a. selective attention b. distorting *c. framing d. priming e. racial bias

27. What is meant by the media providing a political forum for candidates? a. Covering a political candidate is the main way for the media to increase its income

levels. b. Political forums allow the media to present alternative policies that politicians may not have considered. c. Candidates are obligated to provide complete disclosure of their views to the public. *d. Candidates for office use news reporting to sustain interest in their campaigns. e. It allows citizens to directly interact with the political candidate.

28. Which statement about media and political campaigns is true? a. Campaigns have focused mostly on Internet advertising and decreased television

advertising in recent years. *b. Most national political figures plan every public appearance and statement to attract media coverage.

c. Most Americans get information about political campaigns only from the Internet. d. Media influence on politics is most obvious between the general election and

inauguration day. e. The importance of news coverage for a single event has decreased over the past two decades.

29. Three types of TV coverage are generally employed in campaigns for the presidency and

other offices: advertising, management of news coverage, and a. reality television competitions. b. late-night infomercials. *c. campaign debates. d. prime-time program sponsorship. e. fireside chats.

30. One of the most effective political ads was a thirty-second spot for __________, depicting a

little girl picking daisies in a field and then an image of a mushroom cloud emanating from a nuclear explosion. a. John F. Kennedy in his campaign against Richard Nixon *b. Lyndon Johnson in his campaign against Barry Goldwater c. Jimmy Carter in his campaign against Ronald Reagan d. George Herbert Walker Bush in his campaign against Michael Dukakis e. Bill Clinton in his campaign against George Herbert Walker Bush

31. Which of the following statements concerning the “Daisy Girl” ad from the 1964

presidential campaign is true? a. The ad ran nightly for a month before being retired by the campaign. b. The ad attempted to portray Lyndon Johnson as a candidate who would lead the

United States to nuclear war. c. The ad negatively backfired and caused a brief surge of support for Barry Goldwater. *d. The ad is an example of classic negative campaign advertising. e. The ad outraged World War II veterans who thought it played upon emotions related to the bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

32. Spin refers to a. misleading information in the tabloid press. *b. an interpretation of campaign events that is most favorable to the candidate. c. the rotation of political commentators on public access channels. d. the calculations made by the media after the closing of polls on the east coast. e. a brief memorable comment that can easily fit into news broadcasts.

33. How does a political candidate access earned media? a. The candidate agrees to debate another candidate who is running for the same office. b. The candidate buys air time on a network television station. *c. The candidate receives coverage without paying for advertising after saying

something the media thinks should be reported. d. The candidate is considered the frontrunner so the media decides to give that candidate the most coverage. e. The candidate has more campaign financing than other candidates.

34. A spin doctor is a a. journalist who practices sensational and irresponsible reporting so his or her

organization makes more money. *b. political campaign adviser who tries to convince journalists of the truth of a particular interpretation of events. c. government spokesperson who generates information that gives government interests priority over candor. d. professional political commentator who appears on cable news programs. e. media elite who determines which stories to cover and which to ignore.

35. In presidential debates, it is common for *a. challengers to have much more to gain from debating than incumbents. b. nonvoters to favor the challengers over an incumbent. c. the minority party to enjoy an advantage. d. incumbents to have more to gain than a challenger. e. the debate to have little effect on the election outcome.

36. During the 2016 presidential campaign, Donald Trump spent $10 million on political

advertising and earned close to $2 billion in free media. This free media is also known as _____ media. a. soft b. press c. sliding *d. earned e. hard

37. The most important aspect of debates for political candidates is taking advantage of an

opportunity to a. present their own views on the issues. b. attack the views of their opponent on the issues.

*c. use the power of television to project an image. d. speak to the part of the electorate that is already committed to voting for the

candidate. e. show the electorate that the candidate is eloquent and articulate.

38. Which of the statements about the 2008 elections is true? a. The Obama campaign purchased ten times more advertising time than the McCain

campaign. b. Senator Obama accepted public funds for the general election campaign and chose not to accept private donations. c. Senator McCain accepted $4 million in political action committee (PAC) contributions. *d. The Obama campaign pioneered new ways for an individual to make contributions over the Internet. e. The amount of money raised by Senator McCain and Senator Obama for each of their campaigns differed by only $1 million.

39. By using demographic and consumer data to identify individuals who had voted for

president in 2008, the Obama team used this information to send specific advertising messages during the 2012 campaign. In other words, the team decided to _____ voters to assure their votes. *a. microtarget b. narrowcast c. simulate d. prime e. frame

40. A presidential candidate would use microtargeting to a. create a short list of potential cabinet members. *b. identify individuals who voted for them in the past and advertise to them to assure

their votes. c. mobilize the military in times of war. d. delay an initiative in Congress which might put their candidacy in jeopardy. e. limit media reports on a negative situation.

41. Which statement about the media’s impact on voters is true? a. Research has shown that the media has a substantial impact on voting behavior. b. A large number of Americans accessing media have a limited knowledge of political

issues and candidates. *c. Individuals will filter out information that does not fit with their own ideas. d. Information that makes an individual uncomfortable will often prompt further research to determine accuracy.

e. The media can cause a decided voter to change their opinion through repetition of

campaign information.

42. Tina had already made up her mind about who she would vote for so when political ads

came on television about opposing candidates, she didn't pay any attention to them. This is an example of a. a political agenda. *b. selective attention. c. framing. d. yellow journalism. e. priming.

43. The tendency for individuals to only pay attention to information that reinforces their held

beliefs is known as a. framing. b. media bias. c. racial bias. *d. selective attention. e. political ideology.

44. Which of the following is an example of selective attention? a. Nora decided to only watch the first presidential debate because any additional

debates would be the same. b. Raja decided not to vote this year because he didn't like any of the candidates. *c. Lydia refuses to listen to any news about Democratic candidates because she only votes for Republicans. d. Brianna noticed that the radio reported on the president's trip to South Africa, but the cable news channel did not. e. Sun-Jun knows it's important to listen to both candidates before making his voting choice.

45. The increase in advertising by campaigns during the final weeks or days before an election

is related to a. the need to sway voters that have committed to the opposing candidate. b. the requirement by the Federal Elections Commission that all campaign funds be

expended before election day. c. a reduction in advertising costs on television networks and radio stations. *d. a desire to gain the support of an undecided voter. e. the need to counteract any decline in party support related to debates.

46. Campaign managers and candidates believe that the media has the most influence on *a. an individual who has not formed an opinion about a candidate. b. people who have strong ties to a political party. c. those people who have preconceived ideas about a candidate. d. individuals who plan to vote for an incumbent. e. the people who don't believe their vote counts.

47. The 2016 presidential campaign was unprecedented in that while the media influenced what

the voters saw and heard, it also had to share the role of information dissemination with social media, especially Donald Trump's use of *a. Twitter. b. Facebook. c. SnapChat. d. Instagram. e. LinkedIn.

48. Which statement about the media and government control is most accurate? a. The First Amendment allows the media freedom from government control. *b. The media can wield power over the affairs of government and over government

officials. c. The news media is severely limited by the government through the Federal Communications Commission. d. Initiatives by the Justice Department have provided greater freedom of information related to government activities. e. The president is able to limit the freedom of the media through executive privilege.

49. The distribution and regulation of frequencies for electronic media is the responsibility of *a. the Federal Communications Commission. b. National Public Radio. c. the Supreme Court. d. the Federal Trade Commission. e. the First Amendment.

50. Which statement about the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) is most accurate? a. The FCC has little control over wireless frequencies because Congress has not

authorized this authority. b. The media is limited with the stories that they can cover related to the government because of censorship by the FCC. *c. The government established the FCC to distribute and regulate the radio, television, and wireless frequencies.

d. The Supreme Court ruled that allowing the FCC to regulate interstate telephone

service was a violation of the Commerce Act. e. The FCC has permitted large corporations to secure control of the telephone, cable, satellite television, and Internet services.

51. One of the earliest central goals of the FCC was to *a. prevent a single company from dominating the airwaves in an area. b. maintain journalistic integrity among broadcast media. c. prevent media programs from airing vulgar or lewd content. d. regulate newspaper content to prevent the publication of information that was a

national security threat. e. prevent foreign companies from controlling the American media.

52. The Telecommunications Act of 1996 has allowed *a. companies to own more media outlets. b. the government to seize stations from defiant companies. c. companies to receive tax benefits from state governments. d. the government to fully regulate cable television. e. the FCC to raise the national audience-reach cap from 35% to 45%.

53. Evidence of the devastation created by large media conglomerates is best demonstrated

through a. the decision by Congress to reduce the national audience-reach cap to 39 percent. b. the attempt by the FCC to increase the national audience-reach cap to 45 percent. *c. the fact that only a few independent news operations exist in the United States. d. regulations that permit a corporation to own up to three television stations in its

largest market. e. the creation of news websites, blogs, and podcasts that are an extension of corporations.

54. The percentage of the national viewing public that has access to a media conglomerate’s

outlets is known as a. agenda setting. b. media concentration. c. framing. *d. audience reach. e. audience ratings.

55. It wasn't until 1952 that the Supreme Court provided First Amendment protection to

*a. the motion picture industry. b. newspapers. c. cable television. d. the Internet. e. religious institutions.

56. The Bush administration allowed 500 journalists to travel with combat forces in order to

report the news from the front line of the war. Which war did this coincide with? *a. Second Gulf War b. Vietnam War c. World War II d. Persian War e. War in Afghanistan

57. Media access refers to _____ right of access to the media. a. government's *b. the public's c. broadcasters' d. big business's e. candidate's

58. The principle of net neutrality applies to content from which media source? a. newspapers b. privately-held television stations *c. the Internet d. public radio e. cable television

59. Net neutrality is the Internet's version of *a. "free press." b. "absence of malice." c. "innocent until proven guilty." d. "the right to bear arms." e. "agenda setting."

60. An inclination or a preference that interferes with impartial judgment is known as a. found reasoning. b. profiling.

c. ethnocentrism. *d. bias. e. net neutrality.

61. A 1980s study of journalists revealed that a. there is a notable leaning toward conservatives. *b. there is a notable leaning toward liberals. c. very few consider themselves as moderates. d. there is a balance among liberals and conservatives. e. a clear political bias does not exist.

62. A journalist that includes a negative stereotype about individuals who are African

American, Hispanic, or white while reporting on a story is engaging in a. partisan bias. b. hazing. c. priming. *d. racial profiling. e. yellow journalism.

63. The first goal of journalists is a. attracting viewers that will promote spending by advertisers. *b. reporting the news to keep their viewers and readers informed. c. developing stories that will appear unbiased while still conveying the ideology of the

media corporation. d. conducting investigative reporting that will increase viewers and readers. e. engaging viewers and readers in politics by developing agenda-setting stories.

64. It has been said that television coverage of women in politics has focused on the "three H's"

which include hair, husbands, and *a. hemlines. b. history. c. hands. d. humor. e. hierarchy.

65. Sunday morning television shows like Face the Nation repeatedly have more male guests

than female guests. This perpetuates *a. a gender bias. b. racial profiling.

c. gerrymandering. d. net neutrality. e. the watchdog effect.

66. Describe how American media has evolved from mass newspapers to the electronic and digital revolution.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

67. Explain the functions of the media in American society. Identify those functions that are essential to the democratic process.

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Students’ answers may vary.

68. Explain how agenda setting affects public opinion.

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Students’ answers may vary.

69. Discuss the impact of social networking, blogging, and the Internet on political campaigning.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

70. Explain how political advertising has evolved over the years.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

71. Discuss the relevance of selection attention and its role in the media's impact on voters.

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Students’ answers may vary.

72. Explain why the principle of net neutrality is important to the public.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

73. Describe how the government's role in controlling the media has changed since the terrorist attacks of September 11th.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

74. Should the public have greater or lesser media access? What role does government play in granting this access?

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

75. Discuss examples of gender bias in the media.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

Chapter 11 1. Which statement about the powers of Congress as granted by the U.S. Constitution is most

accurate? *a. The founders envisioned Congress as having a leading role in the new government

because they were elected by the people. b. Congress is a unitary body because the House of Representatives and the Senate convene under one roof. c. The Connecticut Compromise resulted in Congress becoming a parliamentary body. d. The principal function of Congress is the carrying out of laws that have been created by the executive branch. e. The enumerated powers of Congress as they apply to the United States are found in Article I, Section 2 of the Constitution.

2. __________ reinforced the logic of separate constituencies and separate interests underlying

the bicameral Congress. *a. Differences in length of tenure b. State governments c. The methods of amending the Constitution d. The Bill of Rights e. The unique role of the Speaker of the House

3. A majority of the bills on which Congress acts originate a. among the bureaucracy. b. among the people. *c. in the executive branch. d. from members of Congress. e. from Supreme Court decisions.

4. If a senator from Ohio agrees to support a fellow senator's bill in exchange for that member's

promise to support the Ohio senator's bill, it is an example of a. gerrymandering. b. the trustee role. *c. logrolling. d. a pocket veto. e. a filibuster.

5. A representative who is performing the role of a trustee is a. representing only the needs of his or her constituents. b. supporting all of the president’s legislative programs.

c. supporting his or her political party. *d. acting on conscience or representing the broad interests of the entire society. e. representing other members of Congress.

6. A representative who is performing the role of an instructed delegate is *a. primarily representing the wishes of his or her constituents. b. supporting all of the president’s legislative programs. c. representing the broad interests of the entire society. d. supporting his or her political party. e. representing other members of Congress.

7. One major problem with the role of the instructed delegate is that a. the president’s program may not have public support. b. a majority of the constituents may be of a different political party than the

representative. *c. the constituents may not actually have well-formed views on many issues. d. few members of Congress are knowledgeable about most legislation. e. members of Congress find it difficult to cooperate.

8. When a Congress member intercedes with a regulatory agency because members of the

constituency are concerned with regulations that agency is proposing, the Congress member is playing the role of a(n) a. executive branch member. b. instructed delegate. c. trustee. *d. ombudsperson. e. parliamentarian.

9. The most important of the domestic powers of Congress are the rights to collect taxes, to *a. spend, and to regulate commerce. b. establish post offices, and to regulate copyrights and patents. c. establish the federal court system, and to coin money. d. coin money, and to borrow money. e. establish rules for naturalizing citizens, and to borrow money.

10. The most important foreign policy power given to Congress is the power to a. borrow money from other countries. *b. declare war. c. punish piracy on the high seas.

d. raise an army. e. summon and regulate state militias.

11. Enumerated powers are those that are specifically granted to the national government by the a. citizenry. b. Supreme Court. c. Bill of Rights. d. Emancipation Proclamation. *e. Constitution.

12. Which government body is responsible for consenting to the ratification of treaties? a. House of Representatives *b. Senate c. Office of the President d. Supreme Court e. White House Cabinet

13. What effect has the necessary and proper clause had on the federal government? *a. It expanded the role of the national government relative to that of the states. b. It increased the powers of the state governments at the expense of Congress’ powers. c. It limited their own ability to amend the Constitution. d. It served to limit the expansion of national authority. e. It restricted the ability of the president to veto legislation.

14. How many senators are there in the U.S. Senate? a. 50 *b. 100 c. 819 d. 435 e. 270

15. One major difference between the House and Senate is the total number of members,

ensuring that a. the House will spend much more time on a bill on the floor than will the Senate. b. the Senate is able to decide on the proper action on a bill quicker than the House. *c. a greater number of formal rules are needed to govern activity in the House. d. House members must sit on more committees than senators. e. filibusters are allowed in the House in order to end debate quickly.

16. Which of these statements accurately describes the legislative process? a. The House of Representatives and the Senate use the exact same rules, procedures,

and criteria for debate and argument. *b. Filibusters in the Senate are used to stop bills from coming to a floor vote. c. Cloture in the Senate is used to send a bill into committee for further discussion and review. d. The Rules Committee in the House of Representatives can call for a floor vote at any time once a bill is introduced. e. The House of Representatives and the Senate both allot the same amount of time for party leaders to present their arguments.

17. A unanimous consent agreement is used in the Senate to *a. agree on the rules of debate for proposed legislation. b. establishes the rules for election to the House of Representatives. c. reject a pocket veto from the president. d. amend legislation that is overturned by the Supreme Court. e. override legislation created in the House of Representatives.

18. The use of the filibuster and cloture in the Senate has occurred because a. the leadership in the Senate does not have the same authority to set the agenda as in

the House of Representatives. b. the movement of bills from committee to committee requires these steps. *c. the rules governing debate in the Senate are not as limited as in the House of Representatives. d. the majority party in the Senate is reacting to the use of the “nuclear option” by the minority party. e. the greater size of the Senate requires procedures to limit debate on the floor,

19. The greater size of the House of Representatives means that a. members will have a greater number of committee assignments. b. members will receive greater media exposure. *c. a member must become an expert to attain recognition. d. the level of prestige is higher than the Senate. e. recognition is easily attained.

20. Which statement about the composition of Congress is true? a. Both houses of Congress are about 20 percent women. b. The Senate has more African American members than women.

c. Minority group members fill 30 percent of the seats in the House of Representatives. *d. The House and Senate today are significantly more diverse in gender and ethnicity

than ever before. e. The vast majority of the 113th Congress are millionaires.

21. Research shows that incumbents have a ________ success rate for reelection. a. 3% *b. 90% c. 18% d. 40% e. 65%

22. Reapportionment is defined as the a. redrawing of congressional districts by the House of Representatives based on a new

census. b. redrawing of congressional districts by state governments based on a new census. c. reallocation of seats in the Senate and House of Representatives following a census. *d. reallocation of seats in the House of Representatives to the states following a census. e. reallocation of committees in the House of Representatives and the Senate.

23. Following the 2010 census, Ohio lost two seats in the House of Representatives. This

decision would have been based on a. a caucus. b. a filibuster. c. gerrymandering. *d. reapportionment. e. redistricting.

24. Redistricting occurs when a. seats in the House are allocated to each state after each census. *b. district boundaries are redrawn within each state to ensure equal district

populations. c. a court orders new elections because of voting irregularities. d. a legislative formula is altered that apportions spending among the states. e. both houses of Congress are considered bipartisan.

25. Which of the following describes gerrymandering correctly?

a. legislation passed in southern states to limit African American participation in

elections *b. the drawing of legislative district boundaries for the purpose of gaining partisan advantage c. an attempt to prevent the passage of a bill through the use of unlimited debate d. the drawing of legislative district boundaries that respect county lines and divides a state cleanly e. an unconstitutional act following an 1812 ruling by the Supreme Court 26. Techniques like “packing” and “cracking” may be used during redistricting to *a. maximize a political party’s chances of winning seats in the state legislature and

Congress. b. confuse voters about their polling location or the candidates on their ballot. c. decrease the voting power of undecided voters in national elections. d. increase voter turnout of minority groups. e. eliminate the opportunity for gerrymandering to occur.

27. In 1962, the Supreme Court made the apportionment of state legislative districts a

justiciable question. This means that it could be a. considered illegal to alter the makeup of Congress. b. practiced at both the state and national levels. *c. raised and reviewed in court. d. practiced multiple times in a single year. e. rejected by the voters.

28. Following the 1990 Census, the Justice Department directed states to create congressional

districts that would a. balance the gender gap. b. help increase the tax base for each state. c. favor congressional incumbents. d. prioritize federal programs over local programs. *e. maximize the voting power of minority groups.

29. Research has shown that __________ districts are more competitive because they have not

been drawn to favor one party over the other. a. gerrymandered b. malapportioned c. minority–majority *d. nonpartisan e. packed

30. The franking privilege allows members of Congress to a. redraw district lines in their favor. b. cast a nonpartisan vote. *c. send material through the mail at no cost. d. vote based on the desires of the constituency. e. advertise on network television during an election year.

31. Congress is able to divide up legislative labor through the use of ________ which allows

members to concentrate on one area or topic. a. apportionment b. gerrymandering c. caucuses *d. the committee system e. legislative liaisons

32. In the House of Representatives, the discharge petition is used to a. force the Speaker to take action on a bill. b. prevent the president from using the pocket veto. *c. force a bill out of committee so that the entire House can vote on it. d. delay action on a bill that has the support of the majority. e. adjourn for the remainder of the session.

33. The most important committees in Congress are _______ committees, permanent bodies

that possess an expertise due to their jurisdiction over certain policy areas. a. conference b. joint c. legislative d. select *e. standing

34. One characteristic of a standing committee is that it a. deliberates only on rules and procedures. b. is only found in the House of Representatives. c. is only found in the Senate. *d. continues from session to session. e. is a temporary group.

35. A(n) _______ legislative committee is established for a limited time period and for a special

and specific purpose. a. conference b. joint c. oversight *d. select e. standing

36. The job of a conference committee is to a. originate appropriations bills. *b. reconcile House and Senate versions of a bill. c. set the rules of debate for a bill. d. determine the committee path of a bill. e. override a presidential veto.

37. After being reported by a committee, but before being sent to the House floor, bills are

given to the ________ Committee, which defines the conditions under which the bills are to be considered by the House. a. Appropriations b. Joint *c. House Rules d. Select e. Ways and Means

38. The seniority system provides that a. members are awarded additional committee assignments in line with their seniority. *b. the committee member of the majority party with the longest continuous service

normally becomes the committee chairperson. c. members become party whips in order of seniority. d. members of the House can be appointed to the Senate to fill vacancies. e. the Speaker of the House is the member of the majority party with the longest continuous service.

39. Compared to leaders in the Senate, leaders in the House of Representatives *a. have more control over the agenda of the body than leaders in the Senate. b. must work closely with the other party’s leaders to achieve success. c. are considered weak compared to other party leaders. d. hold more power than leaders in true "party government" legislatures. e. need to overcome the unusual power of individual members.

40. Which person has the most power in the House of Representatives? a. president pro tempore b. Senate majority leader c. majority whip d. legislative liaison *e. Speaker of the House

41. Congressional whips assist the party leaders by a. voting to support the party platform at the national convention. b. attempting to convince the general public that congresspersons should vote the party

line. *c. passing information to members from the leadership of the party. d. gathering research information to use in committee. e. pressuring them to take positions popular among the party rank-and-file.

42. Compared to the leadership structure in the House of Representatives, the leadership

structure in the Senate is a. not necessary. b. totally centralized. c. more complex. d. basically the same. *e. not as formal.

43. Based on the Constitution, the president of the Senate is also the a. longest-residing Supreme Court justice. b. Speaker of the House. *c. vice president of the United States. d. governor of the largest U.S. state in population. e. Senate majority leader.

44. Which statement about leadership in the Senate is most accurate? a. The president of the Senate is the leader of the majority party in the Senate. b. The president pro tempore is the chief spokesperson of the majority party in the

Senate. c. The vice president of the United States determines who will be recognized during floor debate in the Senate. *d. The real leadership power in the Senate rests in the hands of the Senate majority leader.

e. The Senate Rules Committee controls the rules related to the schedule and floor

debate.

45. Studies show that the single best predictor for how a member will vote in Congress is his or

her a. affiliation with organized interest groups. b. age. c. length of time in Congress. *d. party affiliation. e. region.

46. The conservative coalition was introduced into politics in the ________ when there was a

split between Northern liberals and Southern conservatives. a. 1890s b. 1920s *c. 1950s and 1960s d. 1980s and 1990s e. 2010s

47. Democratic members of Congress from moderate districts who sometimes vote with

Republicans and who are frequently pursued by Republican leaders are known as *a. Blue Dog Democrats. b. fence sitters. c. logrolling Democrats. d. pork barrelers. e. swing voters.

48. Polarization in Congress refers to a. the agreement among both houses to veto a bill. b. delay tactics used to prevent voting on legislation. *c. the strong division between the two political parties. d. the decision to change political parties to match the president's party. e. crossing over and voting with the opposing party.

49. When the president is a Republican and the Senate is also controlled by Republicans but the

House of Representatives is controlled by Democrats, it demonstrates the idea of a. agenda setting. *b. a divided government. c. a joint resolution.

d. a gerrymander. e. markup.

50. A congressional earmark allows a. for deficit spending rather than balancing the federal budget. b. more discretionary funds that can be channeled to where the money is most needed. *c. the government to spend money on a specific project. d. a tax loophole for a specific corporation. e. the funding required for entitlement programs.

51. When a senator says, “One man’s pork is another man’s job,” that senator is probably

referring to a. a continuing resolution. *b. an earmark. c. an enumerated power. d. a filibuster. e. logrolling.

52. Once a joint resolution to amend the Constitution is passed by both houses of Congress, it

must be a. placed on the ballot for voter approval. b. approved by the Supreme Court. c. signed by the president. *d. sent to the states for ratification. e. added to the Bill of Rights.

53. According to the Constitution, all bills for raising revenue must a. be introduced by the president. b. start in the Senate. *c. originate in the House. d. originate in conference committee. e. receive a two-thirds vote in both houses.

54. Which statement regarding the steps taken for a bill to become a law is most accurate? a. A joint resolution is required for all bills to move from Congress to the president. b. The initial step for a piece of legislation under consideration is for the

subcommittee(s) to review the bill for approval. *c. Bills are introduced in Congress but they may face disapproval by the president using the veto.

d. Following the signing of a bill into law by the president, two-thirds of the states must

approve the law. e. If chambers pass a bill and it contains different provisions, the bill must move to the compromise committee to be resolved.

55. Proposed legislation goes through the "markup" process when it is a. given to the president for approval. b. first introduced in the Senate. *c. in a committee or subcommittee. d. signed into law in the House. e. debated by the Supreme Court.

56. The Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974 requires a. members of Congress to inform their constituents of their votes on appropriations

measures. *b. the president to spend the funds that Congress has appropriated. c. a balanced budget by the 1993 fiscal year. d. the president to present an executive budget. e. budgets to receive the approval of the American people before they take effect.

57. The federal government’s fiscal year runs from a. January through December. b. April through March. c. July through June. d. August through July. *e. October through September.

58. Congress required ________ to prepare and present the executive budget starting in 1922. *a. the president b. each state c. the Senate majority leader d. the Cabinet e. the Office of Management and Budget

59. The Office of Management and Budget is one of the most powerful agencies in Washington

because it a. audits the workings of the IRS to ensure fiscal responsibility. b. appropriates funds to other departments and agencies. c. oversees the operation of the executive branch and the bureaucracy.

*d. assists in the preparation of the federal budget and monitors federal agencies

throughout the year. e. authorizes all budget resolutions and guides the budget through approval in Congress.

60. Within the congressional calendar, the first budget resolution is scheduled to be passed in

what month? *a. May b. January c. July d. October e. December

61. In order to actually fund programs established by authorization bills, Congress must pass a. a budget resolution. *b. an appropriations bill. c. a budget reconciliation. d. authorization vouchers. e. a continuing resolution.

62. A temporary law that Congress passes when an appropriations bill has not been decided by

the beginning of the fiscal year is a. the Emergency Revenue Generation Act. b. an Emergency Fall Review. *c. a continuing resolution. d. a Second Temporary Budget Resolution. e. a spring review.

63. If Congress passes a spending bill that provides $2 million to the Department of

Transportation, it is an example of a(n) *a. appropriation. b. reapportionment. c. alignment. d. earmark. e. cloture.

64. Congress passes a second budget resolution by September that will *a. set limits on expenditures based on revenue projections. b. revise program authorizations to achieve required savings. c. establish a discretionary government program or an entitlement.

d. fund programs established by authorization bills. e. resolve the differences between House and Senate versions of the budget.

65. Which statement regarding budget resolutions is most accurate? a. The first budget resolution is passed in January based on the budget requests made to

committees from government agencies. b. The second budget resolution is passed in May of each year to allow planning over the summer regarding entitlement programs c. A continuing resolution is passed when the budget does not need to be changed and the agencies request the same amount of funding as the previous year. *d. Congress has not passed a budget in some years because it will not follow its own rules. e. The president and Congress have worked to pass budget resolutions that will increase the budget deficit.

66. Compare and contrast the trustee and instructed-delegate theories of representation.

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67. Discuss the major powers of Congress as granted by the U.S. Constitution.

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68. Explain the differences between the House of Representatives and the Senate with regard to constituencies, terms of office, powers, and political processes.

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69. Explain the rules governing debate in the Senate including the role that filibusters have played in recent lawmaking.

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70. Describe the processes of reapportionment and redistricting.

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71. Explain the consequences of having nonpartisan panels drawing congressional districts.

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72. Discuss the importance of committees to the lawmaking process and to the ability of members of Congress to do their jobs.

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73. Describe the leadership structure in each house of Congress, noting the differences between the House and the Senate.

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74. Explain the process for how a bill becomes a law.

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75. Discuss the process by which the federal budget is formulated and the legislative process for approving the budget.

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Chapter 12 1. Although delegates to the Constitutional Convention agreed they did not want ________,

they created a ________. a. a strong executive; chief executive with supreme powers b. a no-executive government; weak executive with few formal powers *c. a weak executive; chief executive with fewer powers than those of Congress d. a king; chief executive whose powers balanced those of Congress e. a king; chief executive whose powers exceeded those of Congress

2. The president, in his capacity as head of state, is responsible for a. determining the countries with which the United States will have diplomatic

relations. b. conducting all foreign policy of the country. c. leading the legislative process by submitting legislation. d. administering the laws. *e. engaging in activities that are largely symbolic or ceremonial in nature.

3. Going on official state visits to other countries, decorating war heroes, and dedicating parks

are all examples of the president’s role as a. chief legislator. b. chief diplomat. c. commander in chief. *d. head of state. e. chief executive.

4. As chief executive, the president is constitutionally bound to *a. enforce laws, treaties, and court orders. b. submit a balanced budget to Congress. c. inform Congress prior to any military action. d. oversee actions of state governments. e. honor pronouncements of the United Nations.

5. When does the president use signing statements? a. These are provided to the Supreme Court for all cases that involve the federal

government. b. These are used in place of a pocket veto and can be presented to either the Senate or the House of Representatives. *c. These accompany legislation and allow the president to point out sections of the law the president sees as unconstitutional.

d. These are the official forms designating approval of the submitted budget. e. These are copies of final legislation provided to the individual states.

6. President Barack Obama nominated John Kerry to be secretary of state during his second

term. Which constitutionally authorized power was he exercising in this case? a. the power to serve as commander in chief of the armed forces *b. the power to nominate and appoint various political officers c. the power to meet with foreign ambassadors and make treaties d. the power to pardon or grant reprieves e. the power to invoke executive privilege

7. The term used when referring to the body of employees who work for the government is the *a. civil service. b. voting public. c. bureaucracy. d. cabinet. e. diplomatic corp.

8. When a president releases a prisoner from the prison term they are serving before it is

completed, it is an example of a(n) a. mandate. b. reprieve. *c. pardon. d. filibuster. e. amnesty.

9. As commander in chief, the president is a. only a symbolic leader of the military. *b. the ultimate decision maker in military matters. c. allowed to make military decisions, but only with the approval of the joint chiefs of

staff. d. not responsible for military decisions. e. obligated to sit on the board of regents for the military, the naval, and the air force academies.

10. What is the significance of the War Powers Resolution of 1973? a. It made all uses of U.S. troops subject to congressional approval. b. It gave the president the power to commit troops for up to two years without

congressional approval

c. It was the first time the Supreme Court overturned a bill limiting the president’s

powers as commander in chief. d. It placed power over the armed forces in the hands of the joint chiefs of staff. *e. It forced presidents to gain congressional approval for large-scale military actions.

11. Which president vetoed the War Powers Resolution only to have Congress overturn the

veto? a. Andrew Johnson b. Harry S. Truman c. Dwight D. Eisenhower *d. Richard Nixon e. Gerald Ford

12. As chief diplomat, the president a. is responsible for selecting judges to federal courts. b. is responsible for all actions within the executive branch. c. selects leaders of the majority party in Congress. *d. negotiates treaties, recognizes foreign governments, and makes executive

agreements. e. ratifies treaties with the advice and consent of the Cabinet.

13. The Obama Administration has avoided the requirements of the War Powers Pact when

dealing with terrorist leaders by a. deferring to the United Nations to send in peacekeepers. b. calling upon allies in the war on terror to mobilize their forces to strike. c. mobilizing local tribal leaders in the area to turn on the terrorist cells. d. using an executive order to deploy troops without the need of congressional approval. *e. ordering drone strikes that do not involve placing American troops in combat

situations.

14. The president's power to recognize or not recognize a foreign government is called

________ recognition. a. ratification b. ambassador c. international *d. diplomatic e. partisan

15. Before a treaty can become legally binding, the treaty must be

a. submitted to the United Nations for approval. b. ratified by the Supreme Court. c. approved by three-fourths of the state governments. *d. approved by a two-thirds vote in the Senate. e. approved by a majority vote in both houses of Congress.

16. Which statement accurately describes executive agreements? *a. They take place between the executive branch and a foreign government and can be

reversed by subsequent presidents. b. They take place between the executive branch and a foreign government and are difficult to reverse by subsequent presidents. c. They can be reversed by subsequent presidents and are subject to Senate approval. d. They are subject to Senate approval and take place between the executive branch and a state government. e. They were deemed unconstitutional by the Supreme Court because they bypassed congressional approval.

17. A key difference between a treaty and an executive agreement is that a. a treaty has to be approved by Congress. *b. executive agreements expire at the end of a president’s term in office. c. treaties are much more common (about 13,000) compared to executive agreements

(around 1,300). d. executive agreements can only be made with one of the 50 states. e. a treaty can only be made in one country, while an executive agreement can include multiple countries.

18. The president is able to influence the making of laws in the role of a. chief diplomat. *b. chief legislator. c. commander in chief. d. head of state. e. party leader.

19. Presidents tend to have legislative success rates that are a. low at the beginning of their administrations with a steep increase in the middle and

then a decline at the end. b. high throughout their administrations as they pursue their role as chief legislator. c. low throughout their administrations as Congress checks and balances them. d. not following a consistent pattern. *e. high at the beginning of their administrations with a steep decline at the end.

20. The State of the Union message is a requirement of the president as set forth by the a. Senate. b. Bill of Rights. *c. Constitution. d. Cabinet. e. press corps.

21. Originally, presidents delivered their State of the Union message via a. a press release to the media. *b. a written memo to Congress. c. a formal declaration. d. an address to the public. e. a mailing to state legislatures.

22. When can the president use a pocket veto? a. It can be used by a president only once during each complete term in office. *b. It can only be used when Congress adjourns for the session within ten days of the

bill being submitted to the president. c. It is used when previous legislation is reintroduced in the next Congress. d. It is no longer an option for the president as it was revoked in 1936. e. It is used when a president disagrees with legislation and wishes to return proposed legislation to Congress within the same session.

23. Which of the following allows the president to participate in the legislative process? a. referendum b. treaties c. pardon d. initiative *e. veto

24. The ________ veto allows an executive to veto individual items within a piece of legislation

without vetoing the entire bill. a. pocket *b. line-item c. executive d. block e. expressed

25. The request of recent presidents for the line-item veto is a challenge to which of the

following principles? a. executive privilege b. senatorial courtesy *c. separation of powers d. eminent domain e. congressional oversight

26. A power created for the president through laws passed by Congress is called a(n) ________

power. a. constitutional b. inherent c. legislative d. limited *e. statutory

27. Which of the following is an example of the president’s constitutional powers? a. issuing an executive order b. declaring national emergencies *c. giving a State of the Union message d. invoking executive privilege e. declaring war

28. What power of the president is often invoked during times of war or emergency to justify

the executive’s actions to protect the nation? a. delegated powers b. expressed powers *c. inherent powers d. statutory powers e. limited powers

29. Powers of the president which are derived from the Constitution, and are then defined

through practice rather than through the law, are called ________ powers. a. constitutional b. statutory c. executive d. expressed *e. inherent

30. Some critics say that the powers exercised by modern presidents a. have diminished over time when compared to previous administrations of the 1800s. b. have been slowly relinquished to a more powerful Congress. c. have been undermined by Supreme Court rulings. *d. rightfully belong to Congress, but Congress has yielded to the executive branch. e. rightfully belong to the state governments.

31. A new president might need to appoint several thousand individuals to jobs in the federal

government. When these jobs are rewarded to people because they are faithful members of the same political party, it is an example of a. going public. b. a mandate. c. executive privilege. *d. patronage. e. expressed powers.

32. Scholar Samuel Kernell has proposed that the ________ has contributed to a change in the

style of presidential leadership since World War II that has caused a shift in the balance of national politics. a. advent of nuclear weapons b. rise of the Soviet Union and United States as super powers *c. influence of television d. advent of elitism e. use of satellite technology

33. An inherent power exercised by the president during a period of national crisis is known as *a. emergency powers. b. executive orders. c. executive privilege. d. expressed powers. e. political immunity.

34. In early 2014, President Obama raised the minimum wage for all temporary workers

provided to the federal government through private contracts because Congress would not enact legislation to increase worker compensation. His actions are an example of a. an executive agreement. *b. an executive order. c. administrative law. d. a pocket veto. e. a signing statement.

35. An executive order can be described as *a. a rule issued by the president that has the effect of law. b. being invalid unless both chambers of Congress approve it. c. something that must be approved by a majority of the cabinet. d. a rule that can only be issued when Congress is not in session. e. an item that cannot be overturned by Congress.

36. Presidents use __________ to withhold information on the activities of the executive branch

from other branches of government. a. executive agreements b. executive orders *c. executive privilege d. emergency power e. signing statements

37. Executive privilege refers to the authority of the president to a. receive foreign heads of state. b. appoint Supreme Court justices. c. remove federal judges from the bench without consulting Congress. *d. withhold information from the legislature and the judiciary. e. relocate his family members to the White House.

38. Executive privilege was not limited until the *a. Watergate affair of the Nixon administration. b. Iran Contra affair of the Reagan administration. c. Monica Lewinsky affair of the Clinton administration. d. terrorist attacks on September 11, 2001. e. investigation of the Bush administration following Hurricane Katrina.

39. In United States v. Nixon, the Supreme Court ruled that a. Richard Nixon could not be sued in civil court for offenses that occurred before the

president took office. *b. executive privilege would not protect Richard Nixon’s attempt to withhold tapes of White House conversations. c. congressional approval must be granted before presidents make use of executive privilege. d. the president is immune from criminal prosecution except for impeachable crimes. e. members of the Secret Service cannot be required to testify against the president.

40. What does the Constitution stipulate regarding impeachment? a. It can be applied only to a president who has committed treason. b. It can be used only against a president who has committed a violation of criminal

law. c. It cannot be used against an incumbent president. *d. It is voted on by the House of Representatives. e. It requires a two-thirds vote of the Senate.

41. Which president was impeached during his term in office? a. Andrew Jackson *b. Andrew Johnson c. Ulysses Grant d. Richard Nixon e. Gerald Ford

42. An impeachment trial is conducted by the a. House of Representatives. b. Supreme Court. *c. Senate. d. voting citizenry. e. home state of the accused.

43. Which statement regarding President Richard Nixon and impeachment is most accurate? a. The House Judiciary Committee approved articles of impeachment against Nixon for

his violation of the War Power Resolution. b. The House of Representatives voted to impeach Nixon which led to his resignation from the office of president. c. The House voted to impeach Nixon, while the Senate failed to convict him, but he ultimately decided to resign as president. *d. Nixon chose to resign after information provided by members of the Republican Party in the Senate indicated he would be convicted if the House voted to impeach. e. Nixon is the only president in the history of the United States to be impeached and convicted.

44. The only U.S. president to resign from office is a. Gerald Ford. b. Bill Clinton. *c. Richard Nixon.

d. Thomas Jefferson. e. Andrew Jackson.

45. The main function of the president’s cabinet is to a. draft the federal budget and submit to Congress for approval. b. write federal regulations. c. provide information regarding proposed legislation by testifying before Congress. d. provide leadership in the event the president is unable to perform his duties. *e. provide advice to the president to aid in decision making.

46. The informal advisers that a president relies on for advice are known as the ________

cabinet. *a. kitchen b. pantry c. secret d. upper e. lower

47. At the beginning of Franklin Roosevelt's tenure, the White House staff consisted of 37

people. But, the president's staff first began to grow significantly following a. the Vietnam War. *b. the New Deal. c. the Great Society. d. the Civil Rights Act of 1964. e. the attacks of 9/11.

48. The original White House cabinet consisted of the secretaries of state, treasury, war and the a. vice president. b. state governors. *c. attorney general. d. head of the FBI. e. joint chiefs.

49. President Franklin D. Roosevelt established the ________ to help coordinate the executive

bureaucracy. a. office of the vice president b. Department of the Treasury c. kitchen cabinet *d. Executive Office of the President

e. National Security Council

50. It is the responsibility of the ________ to direct the White House Office and advise the

president. a. press secretary *b. chief of staff c. attorney general d. vice president e. Senate majority leader

51. One of the main duties of the White House chief of staff is to a. serve as the president’s personal secretary. *b. coordinate the White House Office. c. represent the branches of the military before the president. d. serve the president’s cabinet by providing valuable research. e. serve as the director of the Executive Office of the President.

52. The duties of the __________ include managing the media. a. attorney general b. Office of Management and Budget c. White House Cabinet d. Supreme Court *e. White House Office

53. The strategy carried out by the White House to increase the president’s popularity and

support is known as the a. goodwill effort. b. head of state plan. *c. permanent campaign. d. reelection campaign. e. spoils-allocation plan.

54. President George W. Bush established the Office of Faith-Based and Community Initiatives

during his administration. This is a type of ________ unit within the White House. a. parallel b. religious c. primacy d. domestic

*e. advisory

55. Analyzing and approving all legislative proposals and budgetary requests before they are

submitted to Congress is the duty of the a. Department of the Treasury. *b. Office of Management and Budget. c. Office of Independent Regulatory Affairs. d. Council of Economic Advisers. e. Internal Revenue Service.

56. The National Security Council is a link between a. Congress and the president. b. leaders of foreign governments and the president. c. the Security and Exchange Commission and the president. *d. key foreign and military advisors and the president. e. state governments and the president.

57. A policy ________ is appointed without Senate confirmation for the term of the president to

focus on one special policy area. a. ambassador b. liaison c. watchdog *d. czar e. chief

58. Which of the following is a constitutional duty of the vice president? *a. presiding over the Senate b. overseeing the federal court system c. serving as a member of the Cabinet d. attending meetings among foreign leaders e. advising the president

59. When selecting a vice presidential candidate, a nominee for president is usually concerned

with choosing a running mate who a. has significant personal wealth. b. can serve as a domestic policy adviser. *c. balances the national ticket. d. shares knowledge of how the federal system operates. e. shares the ideological beliefs of the presidential candidate.

60. When Al Gore served as vice president during the Clinton administration, he used his term

in office to aggressively support policies on a. the agricultural industry. b. education. c. the military. *d. the environment. e. international trade.

61. __________ served as vice president before ascending to the presidency. a. Dwight D. Eisenhower b. Jimmy Carter c. Ronald Reagan *d. George H.W. Bush e. Al Gore

62. According to the Twenty-fifth Amendment, if a president’s ability to discharge normal

functions is in question and he is unable to communicate, a. the Supreme Court selects a physician to certify whether or not the president is able

to perform the functions of office. b. the Speaker of the House becomes acting president until the matter is resolved. *c. a majority of the cabinet, including the vice president, can declare the president incapable. d. the president must be permanently removed from office. e. the vice president has the exclusive power to determine the president’s capability.

63. If the office of vice president becomes vacant, a. it remains unfilled until the next election, and the Speaker of the House becomes

president if the president dies. *b. the president nominates a replacement who must be approved by both chambers of Congress. c. the president names a replacement who is not subject to congressional approval. d. the president nominates a replacement who must be approved with a general election vote across the states. e. the secretary of state becomes vice president.

64. __________ is the only president to have not been elected to his position. a. Chester Arthur b. Lyndon Johnson

c. Richard Nixon *d. Gerald Ford e. Jimmy Carter

65. If both the president and vice president die, resign, or are disabled, the ________ will

become president. a. First Lady b. Secretary of Defense c. Secretary of State d. Senate President Pro Tempore *e. Speaker of the House

66. Discuss the constitutional or political origins of the formal and informal roles played by the president.

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67. Explain the president’s role as head of state and how it differs from the president’s role as chief executive.

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68. What are the president’s powers as commander in chief? How did Congress attempt to limit this power in the War Powers Resolution?

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69. Describe the president’s role as chief diplomat. How is it related to the president’s role as commander in chief?

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70. Discuss the president’s role in the legislative process, including tools to initiate or block legislation.

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71. Explain the emergency powers of the president.

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72. Analyze the circumstances by which a president could be impeached and forced to leave office. Include a brief discussion of the impeachment process.

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73. Describe the executive offices that support the president.

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74. Explain the pattern of presidential succession and the policies established by the Twenty-fifth Amendment.

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75. Describe the job of the vice president, including both constitutional duties and the office's modern role in campaigns and in office.

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Chapter 13 1. Which statement best describes bureaucracy? *a. A bureaucracy is a large organization, structured hierarchically, that carries out

specific functions. b. The bureaucracies work in a cyclical fashion with Congress to create and implement laws. c. Public bureaucracies serve the federal government. d. All public bureaucracies report to the president and operate under direction from his office. e. State bureaucracies provide financial assistance to the national bureaucracy.

2. Within a bureaucracy, the units of organization are divided according to the a. corresponding committee jurisdiction within Congress. b. length of service of the members. c. desires of each presidential administration. *d. specialization and expertise of the employees. e. pay grade of the employees.

3. Public bureaucracies differ from private corporations because a. the public bureaucracy is only accountable to the president, not a board of directors. b. a private corporation will only be successful by serving the citizens. c. public bureaucracies are organized in order to make a profit. *d. they rely on Congress for funding and staffing. e. public bureaucracies have a single set of leaders.

4. One of the important differences between public bureaucracies and private corporations is

that government bureaucracies *a. are not organized to make a profit, whereas private corporations are. b. have a single set of leaders, whereas private corporations do not. c. must be held accountable by the individual states. d. are not intended to serve the citizenry, as private corporations are. e. present an opportunity for career advancement, whereas private corporations do not.

5. The Weberian model of bureaucracy characterizes it as having a. a disregard for the manner in which decision making occurs. *b. a hierarchical organization. c. expanded budgets. d. internal democracy. e. a disdain for public opinion.

6. Which model of bureaucracy says it should be an apolitical organization, and explains that

individual advancement is supposed to be based on merit rather than political connections? a. acquisitive model b. merit model c. monopolistic model d. spoils model *e. Weberian model

7. The acquisitive model of bureaucracy holds that a. decision making should be a rational process. b. advancement should be based on merit. *c. leaders of bureaucracies seek expanded budgets and larger staffs. d. bureaucracies should apply similar decisions to similar situations. e. bureaucracies should hold hearings before taking action.

8. The head of a government agency tells the staff, "If our budget is not increased, our

organization is in a state of decline." What model of bureaucracy does this represent? *a. acquisitive b. monopolistic c. simplistic d. Weberian e. Keynesian

9. According to the monopolistic model of bureaucracy, a lack of _____ leads to inefficient and

costly operations. a. merit b. seniority *c. competition d. funding e. marketing

10. The monopolistic model of bureaucracy states that a. decision making should be a rational process. b. advancement should be based on merit. c. bureaucracies seek expanded budgets and increased size. d. bureaucracies should apply similar decisions to similar situations. *e. bureaucracies have no competitors and are, therefore, inefficient.

11. A federal, state, or local government unit established to perform a specific function is called

a(n) a. standing committee. b. cabinet department. *c. administrative agency. d. contract system. e. legislative liaison.

12. A line organization can best be described as a(n) a. independent commission that does not answer to the president. b. tool used by the president when vetoing legislation. *c. agency that reports directly to the president. d. state agency that carries out the wishes of the federal government. e. a group of Americans who are concerned about the efficiency of government.

13. There are 15 major service organizations of the federal government which include Treasury,

Agriculture, Education and more. These are known as _____ departments. *a. cabinet b. agency c. legislative d. mandated e. constitutional

14. The most recent cabinet department to be established was Homeland Security. What was the

very first cabinet department created by Congress? a. Agriculture b. Defense c. War *d. State e. Treasury

15. Independent executive agencies report directly to _____, but are not part of _____. a. the president; the federal bureaucracy *b. the president; a cabinet department c. Congress; the federal bureaucracy d. Congress; a cabinet department e. cabinet officers; the federal bureaucracy

16. The Central Intelligence Agency (CIA), and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

are examples of a. cabinet departments. b. corporations subject to regulation. c. government corporations. d. independent regulatory agencies. *e. independent executive agencies.

17. __________ were set up because Congress felt it was unable to handle the complexities and

technicalities required to carry out specific laws in the public interest. a. Cabinet departments b. Courts of limited jurisdiction c. Government corporations d. Independent executive agencies *e. Independent regulatory agencies

18. The major difference between independent regulatory agencies and independent executive

agencies is that independent executive agencies a. only report to Congress. b. are directly controlled by the judicial branch of the federal government. c. are more likely to be included as part of the iron triangle. d. combine some function of all three branches of government. *e. are subject to the authority of the president to a greater degree than independent

regulatory agencies.

19. What is meant when a part of the bureaucracy has been “captured?" a. One government agency takes over another agency’s function. b. Government services are provided by private companies. *c. An industry regulated by an agency gains substantial power over the agency. d. Congress takes the oversight power of an agency away from the president. e. A business or corporation uses undue influence over Congress.

20. One accusation made after the BP oil spill in 2010 was that the appropriate regulatory

agency had become too lax on enforcing the safety regulations on the drilling rigs because a. it lacked the necessary funding. b. the necessary legislation was stalled in Congress. *c. it favored the oil companies. d. there were no OSHA standards for the oil industry. e. offshore drilling was too important to the economy.

21. An agency of the government that can, in theory, make a profit, is a(n) a. business entity. b. corporate commission. *c. government corporation. d. independent commission. e. independent regulatory agency.

22. Amtrak and the U.S. Postal Service are examples of a. cabinet departments. b. corporations subject to regulation. *c. government corporations. d. independent executive agencies. e. independent regulatory agencies.

23. Which of the following statements about bureaucracy is true? a. Bureaucracies of the federal government have grown in scope so that no problem is

beyond an agency’s authority to solve. b. The elimination of overlapping jurisdictions within agencies, corporations, and line departments has eradicated confusion when problems or crises arise. *c. Some problems and crises are so severe that they require help from multiple agencies. d. The federal bureaucracy includes agencies, corporations, and line departments that all share the same mission. e. Each agency, corporation, or line department has unique jurisdictions that do not overlap with other parts of the federal bureaucracy.

24. The largest reorganization of the U.S. government since 1974 occurred following the a. implementation of Roosevelt's New Deal. *b. terrorist attacks of September 11th. c. election of Donald Trump. d. economic downfall of 2008. e. Bay of Pigs invasion.

25. The two categories of bureaucrats are political appointees and *a. civil servants. b. cabinet members. c. foreign ambassadors. d. legislative liaisons. e. elected representatives.

26. After the president appoints a government official, that official must be investigated by

_____ before confirmation by the Senate. a. all 50 states b. the House of Representatives *c. the FBI d. the Secret Service e. the CIA

27. Which statement about political appointees is most accurate? a. A political appointee undergoes a detailed screening process and must be confirmed

by the House of Representatives. *b. The average term of service for a political appointee is less than two years. c. In recent years, less than 10 percent of federal employees have been fired for incompetence. d. A political appointee will serve from the beginning of a president’s term until a new appointee is transitioned after the election. e. Political appointees are often unsatisfied with their jobs, given that the salary tends to be lower than workers in the private sector.

28. Professional civil servants may not feel compelled to carry out the directives from their

current boss because they know that a. more important directives come from the individual states. b. someone else will also be responsible for the same job. *c. that boss will not be around for very long. d. they will get paid more by waiting. e. civil servants only have their position for about two years and "the next guy will do

it."

29. Following the election of Thomas Jefferson, the federal bureaucracy became a self-

maintaining, long-term element within government because a. the president and members of Congress were more focused on defending the borders

of the United States. *b. no changes in most office holders took place for 25 years. c. Jefferson initiated binding legislation that ensured their loyalty and longevity. d. the states had relinquished all power to the federal government and a strong bureaucracy was necessary to manage it. e. the Constitution stated that the bureaucracy needed to be established by 1802.

30. When a president is elected who has a different party affiliation than the current president,

the new president staffs the federal government with political supporters and friends. This describes a. the civil service. b. the merit system. c. the Weberian model of bureaucracy. *d. the spoils system. e. gerrymandering.

31. The merit system refers to *a. the selection and promotion of government employees on the basis of examinations. b. a system of checks on Congress intended to prevent discrimination. c. a process of selecting policies based on their value. d. a system that was used for hiring bureaucrats under Andrew Jackson. e. using work experience in lieu of educational qualifications when applying for federal

positions.

32. The __________ created the civil service system and placed limits on the spoils system. a. Postal Service Act of 1792 *b. Pendleton Act of 1883 c. Interstate Commerce Act of 1887 d. Political Activities Act of 1939 e. Civil Service Reform Act of 1978

33. The Civil Service Commission administers the ______ service of the federal government. a. education *b. personnel c. healthcare d. finance e. unemployment

34. The Civil Service Commission was abolished in _____ and replaced with two new federal

agencies to perform its duties. *a. 1978 b. 1929 c. 2008 d. 1961 e. 1994

35. The Hatch Act of 1939 prohibits federal employees from *a. participating in the political management of campaigns. b. receiving Social Security benefits. c. securing a mortgage from a national bank. d. speaking poorly about past or present administrations. e. voting in partisan elections.

36. Those who disagreed with the Hatch Act said it deprived federal employees of their rights

under the _____ Amendment. a. Second b. Fifth *c. First d. Tenth e. Seventeenth

37. Which of the following was NOT a part of the Federal Employees Political Activities Act of

1993? a. It allowed federal employees to run for office in nonpartisan elections. b. It allowed federal employees to participate in voter-registration drives. c. It allowed federal employees to make campaign contributions. *d. It allowed federal employees to garner state funds to establish a campaign. e. It allowed federal employees to campaign for candidates in partisan elections.

38. Sunshine laws require agencies to *a. conduct their business regularly in public session. b. conclude work after five years unless Congress grants the agency an extension. c. hold at least half of their public meetings outside of Washington, DC. d. fill at least 40 percent of upper-level positions within an agency with women or

ethnic minorities. e. develop policies to reduce their impact on the environment by “going green.”

39. The __________ requires federal agencies to disclose information on file about an

individual on that individual’s request. a. Government in the Sunshine Act *b. Freedom of Information Act c. Pendleton Act d. Political Activities Act e. E-Government Act

40. The trend toward government in the sunshine and information disclosure has been reversed

since a. the Vietnam War. b. the Bay of Pigs incident under Kennedy. c. the introduction of the Internet. d. Richard Nixon's Watergate scandal. *e. the September 11th terrorist attacks.

41. Laws that require existing programs to be reviewed regularly for their effectiveness are

known as _____ legislation. a. solar b. sunshine c. expiration *d. sunset e. freedom

42. Which of the following is an example of privatization? *a. The federal government contracts with a private firm to operate a youth detention

center. b. A private business receives funding from the government to buy fair-trade products. c. The government requires a hospital to purchase liability insurance through a government agency. d. The public library receives a grant from the government to update its civics book collection. e. A private business is able to reduce its overall spending by outsourcing some production to a government agency.

43. _____ refers to the replacement of government services with services provided by private

firms. a. Outsourcing b. Globalization c. Localization *d. Privatization e. Insourcing

44. According to political scientists Joel Aberbach and Bert Rockman, the problems attributed

to the bureaucracy are a result of the *a. political decision-making process. b. nation’s diverse economic base. c. traditional bureaucratic organization.

d. citizens' approach to partisanship. e. separation of church and state.

45. A whistleblower is a person who a. finds ways to blame others to cover for his or her inadequacies. *b. brings to public attention gross governmental inefficiency or illegal action. c. is hired in excess of the true labor requirements of an agency. d. serves in the position of an ombudsman. e. leaks the contents of a presidential speech to the press before it is given.

46. A clerical worker for the federal government notices gross negligence in the spending habits

of a government agency and the worker feels the need to call this discrepancy to the attention of the media. That clerical worker is an example of a(n) *a. whistleblower. b. ombudsman. c. legislative page. d. sunset legislator. e. fraudulent bureaucrat.

47. What was a result of the False Claims Act of 1986? a. allows the government to prosecute whistleblowers whose accusations have been

unfounded *b. allows whistleblowers to receive monetary rewards c. penalizes federal bureaucrats who participate in political activities d. allows top bureaucrats to discipline underlings who leak information to the press e. for the first time established a relatively swift method for firing civil servants

48. The Supreme Court in Garcetti v. Ceballos placed restrictions on lawsuits brought by public

workers by ruling that a. the Office of Special Counsel wrongfully reinstated the plaintiff to his previous job. *b. when public employees make statements relating to their official duties, they are not

speaking as citizens for First Amendment purposes. c. whistleblower protections do not apply to prosecuting attorneys acting on behalf of a government entity. d. Fifth Amendment protections against self-incrimination also apply to public workers. e. Ceballos had not been denied promotion for whistleblowing.

49. A statute enacted by Congress that authorizes the creation of an administrative agency is

called

a. an appropriations authorization. b. sunshine legislation. *c. enabling legislation. d. an executive order. e. statutory authorization.

50. Enabling legislation is delegated by Congress and allows _____ to implement legislation. *a. administrative agencies b. the states c. the president d. foreign governments e. the Cabinet

51. Since laws are often drafted in very vague terms, it is the job of agencies to determine the

best way to carry out these laws. In this sense, the agency becomes a(n) a. partisan follower. b. executive branch officer. c. judicial ruler. *d. unelected policymaker. e. government lobbyist.

52. With negotiated rule making, federal agencies have begun encouraging businesses and

public interest groups to become directly involved in a. administering regulations. *b. drafting the regulations that affect them. c. lobbying Congress to relax regulations. d. lobbying the president concerning bureaucratic reorganization. e. taking responsibility for their own self-regulation.

53. Many federal agencies encourage businesses and public-interest groups to become directly

involved in drafting regulations. This is known as a. capture. b. government in the sunshine legislation. *c. negotiated rule making. d. privatization. e. whistleblowing.

54. The "iron triangle" refers to what aspect of the bureaucracy? *a. policymaking

b. interaction with voters c. judicial rights d. taxation e. employment

55. The iron triangle is composed of a. the three branches of government. b. think tanks, interest groups, and executive agencies. c. standing committees, subcommittees, and conference committees. *d. interest groups, congressional committees, and bureaucrats. e. policy experts, bureaucrats, and committee chairpersons.

56. Issue networks are a. news organizations that explore how government programs affect common people. b. private communication between the president and interest groups. c. websites set up by Congress to solicit public opinion. d. discussions between the president and top advisors held in remote locations. *e. alliances that may contain scholars, interest groups, executive agency staff, and

legislative staff members.

57. The difference between an issue network and an iron triangle is that a. the issue network is an older concept that has been replaced by the theory of an iron

triangle. *b. issue networks involve conflict between members related to an issue while iron triangles are often viewed as achieving compromise among members. c. the iron triangle has been eliminated through bipartisan agreement on legislation and replaced by the issue network. d. divided government has been pressured by citizens and interest groups resulting in the collapse of the issue network. e. the iron triangle dealt with Cold War issues while issue networks pertain to modern terrorist threats.

58. Which of the following industries are examples of issue networks that ramped up their

efforts to be influential in sweeping legislation proposed during President Obama's administration? *a. health, public education, and energy b. health, banking, and firearms c. health, banking, and environment d. health, firearms, and private education e. health, firearms, and welfare

59. The ability of Congress to control the bureaucracy is evidenced when allegations were made

that the IRS targeted conservative political groups and Congress responded by *a. reducing funding for that agency. b. adding additional staffing to study the issue. c. authorizing a legislative veto against the IRS. d. abolishing the IRS. e. turning the authority of the IRS over to the president.

60. A major power that Congress has over the federal bureaucracy is the a. authority to select high-level bureaucrats. *b. authority to extend or limit appropriations. c. authority to fire bureaucrats for not executing policy passed by Congress. d. power to find agency actions unconstitutional. e. power to appoint agency heads.

61. The Congressional _____ Office has the power to conduct oversight studies on the

bureaucracy. a. Legislative b. Treasury c. Administrative *d. Budget e. Liaison

62. Only eight resolutions of disapproval have been introduced since the Congressional Review

Act was passed in 1996. How many of these were passed in Congress? a. eight b. four *c. none d. two e. six

63. Two possible approaches discussed in the text that Congress may use to oversee the

bureaucracy are the *a. police patrol and fire alarm approaches. b. iron triangle and issue network approaches. c. spoils system and merit system. d. enabling legislation and sunset legislation. e. executive agency and government corporation.

64. Which government body is responsible for oversight of the national bureaucracy? a. president *b. Congress c. Supreme Court d. Electoral College e. Central Intelligence Agency

65. A federal agency stepping in to regulate lollipops as a choking hazard before they become a

serious health risk is an example of a. enabling legislation. b. fire alarm oversight. c. negotiated rule making. *d. police patrol oversight. e. sunset legislation.

66. Describe the differences in the three models of bureaucracy: Weberian, acquisitive, and monopolistic.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

67. Explain the concept of bureaucracy and explain why bureaucracies are necessary.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

68. Compare the structure and function of executive departments, executive agencies, independent regulatory agencies, and government corporations.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

69. Describe the difference between a political appointee and a civil servant. Discuss how these two types of employees obtain their jobs.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

70. Discuss the history of attempts to reform the process of how individuals get positions in the federal bureaucracy.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

71. Describe attempts to make the federal bureaucracy more open, efficient, and responsive to the needs of U.S. citizens.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

72. Explain the rule-making environment. How might negotiated rule making alter this environment?

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

73. Explain why federal agencies are sometimes thought of as unelected policymakers.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

74. Compare iron triangles and issue networks. How are they similar?

How are they different? What are the consequences of the differences?

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

75. Describe the manner in which Congress attempts to control the bureaucracy.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

Chapter 14 1. Laws in the United States are based largely on the a. doctrines of Friedrich Engels, a German philosopher. b. ideas of Thomas Paine, an American patriot and legal scholar. c. laws during the time of the republic in the Roman Empire. *d. English common-law tradition. e. Bible.

2. The body of judge-made law is known as a. administrative regulations. *b. common law. c. criminal law. d. judicial maxims. e. statutory law.

3. When William the Conqueror began the process of unifying the king's courts, the courts

began the practice of compiling important decisions in volumes known as a. amicus briefs. b. precedents. c. encyclopedias. d. almanacs. *e. year books.

4. A court rule bearing on subsequent legal decisions in similar cases is called a. common law. b. criminal law. c. a judicial maxim. *d. a precedent. e. statutory law.

5. What statement describes the doctrine of stare decisis? a. The common law changes very slowly to permit rational decision making in each

branch of the government. b. The Supreme Court is required to issue an opinion after a ruling. c. Most citizens can know that the law will remain consistent in its expectations for them. *d. Judges must abide by precedent of earlier cases unless there is a clear reason to distinguish the current case from predecessors.

e. The Supreme Court is able to promote judicial review through regularly scheduled

reviews of case law.

6. When the Supreme Court decides an issue, all courts in the United States are obligated to

abide by this decision. Which of these terms is used to describe this situation? *a. stare decisis b. amicus brief c. jurisdiction d. judicial restraint e. concurring opinion

7. A(n) ______ is a law enacted by a federal or state legislature. a. code b. interpretation c. precedent d. ordinance *e. statute

8. When a city government issues a zoning proposal, it is an example of a. case law. b. common law. c. an amendment. *d. an ordinance. e. a precedent.

9. If the federal government implements a regulation that says companies producing more than

five tons of waste each year must install toxic evaluation equipment, the government is issuing a(n) a. referendum. *b. statute. c. initiative. d. dissenting opinion. e. recall.

10. Interpretations of constitutional law, statutory law, and administrative law are called a. administrative regulations. *b. case law. c. judicial traditions. d. jurisdiction.

e. statutes.

11. The Supreme Court’s power of judicial review was established by a. Article III of the U.S. Constitution. b. the Tenth Amendment. *c. the Court’s decision in Marbury v. Madison. d. the Court’s decision in Plessy v. Ferguson. e. the Court’s decision in Kelo v. City of New London.

12. Which statement regarding judicial review is accurate? *a. The Court has ruled acts of Congress to be unconstitutional about 200 times in

history. b. State laws have been found unconstitutional on a much lower basis when compared to federal laws. c. Since the early twentieth century, the Supreme Court has been much less active in using its power of judicial review. d. The power of judicial review is limited to the Supreme Court. e. Legislation passed by Congress and state legislative bodies is supported by the principle of judicial review.

13. The process for deciding whether a law is contrary to _____ is known as judicial review. a. administrative laws b. a Supreme Court decision c. lower court decisions d. state law *e. the Constitution

14. Judicial review permits the Supreme Court *a. to enforce the separation of powers between the branches of government. b. to exercise powers that the founders inferred to in Article I of the Constitution. c. to balance influence when determining institutional power of the executive and

legislative branch. d. to disrupt the checks and balances the founders intended to equalize the branches of government. e. to dominate the other two branches of government and make the judicial branch superior.

15. The U.S. federal courts derive their power from a. the Supreme Court.

b. Congress. c. state legislatures. *d. the Constitution. e. the president.

16. Jurisdiction refers to a. a court that appeals a case to the Supreme Court. b. an attempt by an individual state to overturn a Supreme Court decision. c. the amount of time it takes a jury to deliberate. d. the guarantee of a litigant to hear his or her rights. *e. the authority of a court to decide certain cases.

17. A federal question refers to one that has to do with the U.S. Constitution, acts of Congress

or a. referendums. b. Supreme Court decisions. c. presidential vetoes. *d. treaties. e. state law.

18. When a lawsuit involves diversity of citizenship and the amount in controversy is at least

$75,000, the jurisdiction for the case could be handed over to a. the Supreme Court. b. local court. c. a state court for the accuser. d. a state court for the defendant. *e. federal court.

19. The U.S. district courts are considered courts of general jurisdiction which means that they a. can only hear cases presented by the general public. b. must defer final ruling to the Supreme Court. *c. can hear cases involving a broad array of issues. d. only hear cases involving class actions. e. are limited to civil litigation.

20. A court that has the jurisdiction to review cases and issues that were originally tried in a

lower court is known as a(n) _____ court. a. congressional b. litigant's

c. civil *d. appellate e. procedural

21. What procedure does an appellate court use when it reviews a case? *a. It uses a panel of judges to review the records of the case. b. It conducts another trial. c. It relies on a jury to hear a new case. d. It assesses only questions of fact associated with the case. e. It presents the records of the case to local government.

22. How many justices have been on the Supreme Court since 1869? a. 7 b. 5 c. 16 *d. 9 e. 12

23. When the U.S. government passed the Foreign Service Intelligence Act, it was the first time

the government established a(n) _____ court. a. civil b. criminal c. federal d. appellate *e. secret

24. An interest group known as The Panda Protectors brought a lawsuit against the organization

of national zoos. This would be an example of a(n) a. federal mandate. b. writ of certiorari. *c. class-action suit. d. rule of four. e. civil suit.

25. When a witness in a case refuses to answer questions, that witness might be cited for

contempt of court and might be taken into custody. Contempt of court is an example of a(n) a. litigant. *b. procedural rule. c. amicus brief.

d. writ of certiorari. e. oral argument.

26. Spoken presentations by attorneys to the appellate court laying out the reasons why the

court should rule in his or her client’s favor are known as a. affirmation action. b. briefs. c. criminal defenses. d. dissenting opinions. *e. oral arguments.

27. In today's Supreme Court, during the conferences held by the justices to decide a case *a. strict privacy is maintained. b. a stenographer is present to take minutes of the meeting. c. meetings are taped for public records according to the Government in the Sunshine

Act. d. cameras provide a live feed for news programs and viewers on the Internet. e. two pages provide clerical assistance to the justices.

28. The Supreme Court's ruling on an issue is called the a. mandate. b. precedent. c. argument. *d. opinion. e. brief.

29. When a Supreme Court case is remanded, it means that the case is a. affirmed. b. overturned. *c. sent back to the court that originally heard it. d. given to the legislature for review. e. not eligible for the rule of four.

30. Which statement accurately explains Supreme Court opinions? a. The responsibility of writing the Supreme Court opinion lies with the chief justice. b. A dissenting opinion can be important because it means the case cannot be used as a

precedent. c. A Supreme Court justice that agrees with the result reached by the majority of the Court but has different reasoning would issue an amicus curiae brief.

d. A concurring opinion reflects the views of most of the Supreme Court justices. *e. A unanimous opinion requires all Supreme Court justices to agree on an opinion.

31. When a Supreme Court justice agrees with the decision of the majority but wants to clarify a

particular point in the ruling, he or she would prepare a(n) _____ opinion. a. dissenting b. civil c. unanimous *d. concurring e. amicus

32. Some scholars suggest that one of the reasons the Supreme Court hears fewer cases today

than in the past is the *a. court often groups similar cases into a single larger case. b. increasing age and decreasing “vigor” of the Supreme Court justices. c. increased influence of judges appointed by Democratic presidents. d. increased guidance issued by lower court judges. e. drop in number of cases filed in the federal court system.

33. How do the justices of the Supreme Court gain their position on the Court? a. They are nominated by Congress. b. They are elected by the people. c. They are placed on the Court after serving as an appellate judge for at least 30 years. d. They apply for the job, go through an interview process, and are hired. *e. They are appointed by the president.

34. How long is the term of office for a federal judge? *a. A federal judge serves for life. b. A federal judge must be re-elected every four years. c. Federal judges are replaced when a new president comes into office. d. A federal judge can serve no more than ten years. e. Federal judges serve a one-year term.

35. The practice of senatorial courtesy refers to the a. tradition of judges being approved by the Senate only if they belong to the same party

that controls the Senate. b. ability for senators to have the exclusive right to nominate candidates for the federal district courts in their state.

c. routine of allowing members of the House to participate in the nomination process

for justices. *d. power provided to senators to veto candidates for federal district courts in their state. e. Senate’s deferring to the president on court nominees and routinely approving the selection.

36. Senatorial courtesy allows a senator from the president’s political party to veto a judicial

appointment in his or her state by issuing *a. a blue slip. b. censure. c. formal condemnation. d. a pink slip. e. a senatorial veto.

37. The __________ is responsible for overseeing the federal court system including its $5.5

billion budget. a. attorney general *b. chief justice c. president d. Senate Judiciary Committee e. solicitor general

38. The first female justice appointed to the Supreme Court was a. Nancy Pelosi. b. Elena Kagan. c. Sonia Sotomayor. *d. Sandra Day O'Connor. e. Ruth Bader Ginsburg.

39. The opportunity for the president to appoint members to the federal judiciary is valuable

because a. new justices help move long-term justices closer to mandatory retirement. b. a majority of presidents have been able to make more than five appointments to the

bench while in office. c. rulings related to redistricting and election laws will be altered to favor the president’s political party. d. the Court is able to move swiftly to begin ruling in favor of the president’s ideology. *e. the political views of the president will continue to be institutionalized long after they have left the White House.

40. Based on President Obama’s two appointments to the U.S. Supreme Court, the balance of

the Court’s ideology a. became much more liberal. b. became much more conservative. *c. remained about the same. d. became much more libertarian. e. was unable to be determined.

41. Almost ______ of presidential nominations to the Supreme Court have been either rejected

or not acted on by the Senate. a. 5% b. 10% *c. 20% d. 50% e. 75%

42. President Obama was unique in appointing _____ to the Supreme Court. a. an African American man b. a gay woman c. no justices *d. two women e. a gay man

43. The power of _____ provides a check on Congress's lawmaking authority. a. dissenting opinion b. habeas corpus *c. judicial review d. precedent e. national supremacy

44. Judicial activism means that the a. Supreme Court should accept as many cases for decision as it can. *b. Supreme Court should actively check the other branches of government when they

exceed their authority. c. Supreme Court should have the power of judicial review. d. courts should defer to decisions made by the elected representatives of the people whenever possible. e. members of the Supreme Court should take an active role in informing the American people.

45. Under the direction of the _____ Court, the civil rights movement was propelled forward

when racial segregation was seen as violating the equal protection clause. *a. Warren b. Marshall c. Roberts d. Burger e. Rehnquist

46. A Supreme Court justice who believes they should yield to the views of the legislative

branch when interpreting a federal law is following a. judicial activism. b. judicial interpretation. *c. judicial restraint. d. judicial review. e. strict constructionism.

47. The concept of the Constitution being a "living constitution" would be adopted by those

who believe in *a. broad construction. b. partisanship. c. nonpartisanship. d. strict construction. e. concurring opinions.

48. Strict construction means a. that the Supreme Court should hear the fewest possible cases on appeal. b. that the court will stand on precedent. *c. the attempt to follow the “letter of the law.” d. the attempt to understand the law by looking at its context and purpose. e. the doctrine that citizens cannot sue their own state governments unless the states

permit them to do so.

49. Strict construction is most closely associated with ____ political views. a. nonpartisan b. third party c. left wing *d. conservative e. liberal

50. Roberts' role in Supreme Court decision on issues like environmental protection and partial-

birth abortions demonstrate that he ________ at that time. *a. leaned toward more conservative ideologies b. believed in judicial activism c. strictly interpreted the Constitution d. supported the rights of the individual over the rights of the state e. placed states' rights before that of the federal government

51. The current chief justice of the U.S. Supreme Court is a. Samuel Alito. b. Elena Kagan. c. Anthony Kennedy. d. William Rehnquist. *e. John Roberts.

52. Given its opinions on the legality of gay marriage and limits on contributions to political

campaigns, the Roberts Court could be accurately described as a. likely to continue as activist and focus on moving the country down a progressive

path. *b. likely to vote based on policy preferences rather than for activist or restraintist

goals. c. strongly liberal, with a social justice agenda. d. strongly conservative, with a traditionalist agenda. e. likely to exhibit strongly constructionist tendencies.

53. The executive and legislative branches are responsible for judicial implementation because

the Supreme Court *a. does not have any enforcement powers. b. lacks funding to follow up on rulings. c. has limited manpower to execute on decisions. d. has a low approval rating with the public. e. is the weakest of all three branches.

54. Judicial implementation refers to a. decisions made at both the state and federal level. *b. the execution of court decisions into policy. c. legislative review of Supreme Court decisions.

d. elevating a judge at a lower federal court to a higher federal court when there is a

vacancy. e. the enforcement powers of the Supreme Court.

55. President _____ was unique in going against a decision of the Supreme Court when he said,

"John Marshall has made his decision; now let him enforce it." a. Franklin D. Roosevelt b. Abraham Lincoln *c. Andrew Jackson d. John F. Kennedy e. Richard Nixon

56. The refusal of the Arkansas state government to comply with the Supreme Court order to

desegregate public schools exemplifies the concept of *a. judicial implementation. b. a court of general jurisdiction. c. diversity of citizenship. d. judicial precedent. e. stare decisis.

57. Presidents have the power to change the direction of the Supreme Court and the federal

judiciary by *a. appointing new judges who in principle have philosophies consistent with the

president. b. firing judges and justices on the grounds of incompatibility. c. forcing Congress to consider impeachment of specific judges. d. declaring martial law, which restricts judicial decision making. e. limiting the jurisdiction of the federal courts with an executive order.

58. If Congress disagrees with a decision of the Supreme Court concerning the interpretation of

the U.S. Constitution, it can a. ignore the decision. *b. propose an amendment to the Constitution that would negate the Court’s ruling. c. request that the president veto the decision. d. pass a new law that would negate the Court’s ruling. e. do nothing because the court has the final say.

59. One effective tool that Congress has at its disposal for controlling the federal

courts is the power to

a. impeach judges who back policies opposed by Congress. b. overturn Supreme Court rulings with which it disagrees. c. strip federal courts of their enforcement authority. *d. limit the funds that are necessary to carry out a court ruling. e. veto decisions of the courts.

60. Congress can check the power of the federal judiciary in all of the following

ways EXCEPT *a. interpreting laws themselves. b. enacting new laws. c. initiating amendments of the U.S. Constitution. d. not confirming nominees. e. confirming nominees.

61. How is the U.S. solicitor general selected? *a. appointed by the president b. nominated by Congress c. elected by the public d. selected by other members of the Supreme Court e. chosen by the Attorney General

62. What role does public opinion play in shaping government policy in the United States? a. Most public opinion tends to be liberal which is in accordance with government

policy. b. While public opinion affects the presidential nomination it does not affect the legislative process. c. Public opinion is generally ignored by the legislators. *d. Public opinion has an affect on the policies adopted by government, including the judiciary. e. Public opinion plays a role in social policies but does not affect other types of policies.

63. Public opinion can serve as a check on the judiciary because a. people have the ability to vote federal judges out of office if they do not approve of

court rulings. *b. the public may pressure elected officials to refuse to enforce an unpopular ruling. c. the Supreme Court typically polls the public as a basis for their decisions. d. the president will veto a Supreme Court decision if it is politically unpopular. e. Congress can override a decision of the Supreme Court with a majority vote in both houses.

64. As a means to avoid deciding some cases, the federal courts have developed a doctrine of a. extrajudicial concern. b. judicial precedent. c. jurisdictional issue. *d. political question. e. dissenting opinion.

65. The impact of the lower courts can be felt on the Supreme Court because a. the executive branch places the burden of enforcement on the lower courts. *b. the Supreme Court rarely makes broad and clear-cut statements, allowing lower

court interpretation. c. the Supreme Court typically returns complex cases to the lower courts for further review. d. lower courts may reverse the decisions of higher courts in the federal court system. e. the lower courts are not bound to the doctrine of stare decisis, and tend toward activism.

66. Explain the concepts of stare decisis and precedent.

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67. Explain judicial review and the constitutional and judicial origins of this power.

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68. Produce a graphic illustration of the federal court system.

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69. Describe the U.S. Courts of Appeals, including its jurisdictions and procedures.

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70. Describe how the U.S. Supreme Court decides cases and explains its decisions.

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71. Explain how judges are nominated and confirmed for the Supreme Court.

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72. Compare and contrast the concepts of judicial activism and judicial restraint.

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73. Compare and contrast the theories of strict constructionism and broad constructionism.

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74. Describe the controversial opinions handed down by the Robert's Court and explain how this relates to the hopes for Roberts as a moderate leader of the Court.

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75. Discuss the constitutional and political checks that impact the Supreme Court.

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Students’ answers may vary.

Chapter 15 1. When the federal government addresses issues such as poverty and health care, it is

concerned with ________ policy. a. social b. civil *c. domestic d. foreign e. regulatory

2. Domestic policy can best be described as a. policies that affect major economic variables. b. all policies that affect housing, including construction costs and insurance. *c. all the laws, government planning, and government actions that affect

individuals’ lives in the United States. d. matters relating to law enforcement within the borders of the United States. e. the activities of the government in its relations with other countries.

3. Which of the following statements about domestic policies is true? a. Domestic policies are only related to relatively simple issues. b. Domestic policies include what tariffs should be levied on goods imported from the

United Kingdom. c. Domestic policies do not include how to reduce our nation’s contribution to global climate change. d. Domestic policies do not include how to improve the performance of schools across the nation. *e. Domestic policies include multiple topics that span from simple issues to complex ones.

4. The process through which problems become matters of public concern and government

action is called *a. agenda building. b. the rule of four. c. legislative rule. d. policy implementation. e. partisanship.

5. Which of the following examples demonstrates agenda building? *a. The National Bureau of Economic Research declared in late 2008 that the United

States was officially in a recession, which is an economic downturn.

b. In early 2009, Congress passed and President Barack Obama signed, legislation

designed to improve the performance of the economy. c. The Senate voted to approve one of the components of the Affordable Health Care Act but delayed approving other aspects of the bill. d. Members of Congress debated the details of a proposed economic stimulus package designed to help the economy recover from recession. e. The government designs policies to improve health care by authorizing a massive reform of the health care system.

6. What occurs during the policy formulation stage of the policy making process? a. The government is made aware of the issue that requires action. *b. Various proposals for policy are discussed both within government and among the

public. c. A specific proposal for government action is put into place. d. Bureaucrats, the courts, police, and individual citizens determine the success of a policy. e. How a policy has worked in practice is examined.

7. Receiving input from hospitals, doctors, pharmaceutical manufacturers, and other parts of the

medical industry that would be impacted by health care reform policies is an example of a. agenda building. b. policy adoption. *c. policy formulation. d. policy implementation. e. policy shaping.

8. The official decision of a government body to accept a particular policy and put it into effect

is known as a. legislative acceptance. *b. policy adoption. c. policy determination. d. policy formulation. e. selective discussion.

9. When a bill is passed in both the Senate and the House of Representatives, it is in the

________ stage of the policy making process. a. agenda building b. policy formulation *c. policy adoption d. policy approval e. policy implementation

10. Once a policy is adopted by Congress, it moves next to the ________ stage of the policy

making process. *a. implementation b. formulation c. agenda d. evaluation e. revision

11. The creation of insurance pools for people with existing conditions and health care coverage

for children up to age 26 in response to the Affordable Health Care Act is an example of a. agenda building. b. policy enforcement. c. policy evaluation. *d. policy implementation. e. reform enforcement.

12. The assessment of policy effectiveness after a given period of time is part of a. bureaucratic implementation. b. agenda building. c. policy adjustment. *d. policy evaluation. e. research and development.

13. The Affordable Health Care Act has not been fully implemented, meaning that the

________ stage of the policy making process is difficult to achieve. a. agenda building b. rule of four c. policy adoption *d. policy evaluation e. policy formulation

14. Which of the following is an example of the policy evaluation stage of the policy making

process? a. Following a terrorist attack, the government placed legislation on the calendar to

discuss new ways to alert the public to threats. b. Members of Congress were asked to consider three different proposals addressing poverty levels across regions of the U.S.

*c. An independent organization study showed the results of legislation implemented

two years ago regarding decreasing levels of toxic waste in manufacturing plants. d. While the proposed legislation passed in the Senate quickly, it was forced into committee in the House and has still not been approved. e. In response to the new health care plan, individual states created websites that citizens could use to enroll.

15. According to the text, one explanation for the rising cost of health care is the a. dependence on prescription drugs. b. large number of malpractice lawsuits brought against physicians and hospitals. c. large percentage of the U.S. population that suffers from diabetes. d. increasing population that is obese. *e. aging of the U.S. population.

16. When examining total health care spending, the largest portion is paid by *a. the government. b. individuals. c. PACs. d. physicians. e. private insurance.

17. Medicaid is a(n) *a. joint state-federal program that provides medical care to the poor. b. federal health insurance program that covers U.S. residents over the age of 65. c. government program that takes over the economic function of providing basic health

care coverage to all citizens. d. in-kind subsidy for health care. e. federal program established to provide assistance to elderly persons and persons with disabilities.

18. In order to become eligible for Medicaid, a person must a. be over the age of 70. b. be determined incapable of performing a full-time job. c. be living in a nursing home or skilled nursing facility. d. have a disability. *e. exhaust all of their financial assets.

19. In the health care system, patients and __________ are the two primary parties. *a. caregivers

b. insurance companies c. Medicaid d. Medicare e. Social Security

20. Which federal health insurance program covers U.S. residents age 65 and older and is paid

for by a tax on wages and salaries? a. Medicaid b. Social Security *c. Medicare d. ACA e. Secure Care

21. While Social Security is the largest spending program in the federal government, the second

largest is a. unemployment insurance. b. Medicaid. c. OSHA. *d. Medicare. e. agricultural stipends.

22. Because of the increase in Medicaid recipients, some states had to *a. revise the eligibility rules to reduce the number of families eligible for Medicaid. b. increase taxes to prevent a budget deficit related to Medicaid. c. request a greater percentage of reimbursement from Congress. d. suspend reimbursement to physicians for costly medical procedures. e. surrender state involvement in Medicaid back to the federal government.

23. The Affordable Care Act was seen as necessary in response to the nearly ________ of the

American population that did not have health insurance. a. 8% b. 40% c. 52% d. 64% *e. 20%

24. Typically, under a single-payer plan a. it is easy to control unnecessary procedures. b. administrative costs are high.

c. the government employs most physicians. *d. the government has a monopoly on issuing basic health insurance. e. private insurers must approve all medical procedures.

25. The contemporary environmental movement in the United States began following *a. the publication of Silent Spring, which described the dangers of pesticides. b. an oil spill off the coast of Alaska in 1969. c. a massive extinction of frogs in the Midwest and Northeast. d. the Hudson River in New York actually catching fire in 1969 due to floating

chemicals. e. the creation of the Environmental Protection Agency.

26. The movement to protect the environment is based on two major views: *a. conservation and preservation. b. consumption and production. c. man and nature. d. pro-business and pro-ecology. e. use and protection.

27. The national parks system was put into place by which president? a. Woodrow Wilson b. Richard Nixon c. Franklin Roosevelt *d. Theodore Roosevelt e. Abraham Lincoln

28. The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 put into place reports that must show the

costs and benefits of major federal actions that could significantly affect the environment. These reports are called a. sustainability assessments. *b. environmental impact statements. c. agenda building. d. legislative protocol. e. green opinions.

29. One aspect of the Clean Air Act of 1990 was that it *a. required new automobiles to reduce emissions of nitrogen dioxide. b. established an immediate ban on the production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) as of

2002.

c. created a loophole to allow older coal-burning power plants to continue operating as

they had been for years. d. removed pollution controls on factories and other businesses in 96 cities with air quality problems. e. mandated a shift from coal-generated power to nuclear energy.

30. Increased regulations have affected air pollution in the United States. According to the EPA,

in the last 30 years, air pollution levels have been *a. cut in half. b. increasing steadily. c. reduced by about 10%. d. at an all-time high. e. eliminated.

31. The Clean Water Act of 1972 was put into place to protect fish and wildlife, to eliminate the

discharge of pollutants into the water and to a. allow chemical filtration of lakes. b. eliminate the use of navigable waters by migratory birds. c. eradicate the use of well water. d. reduce lead levels in drinking water. *e. make waters safe for swimming.

32. Which government act helped environmental groups stop the completion of the Tellico Dam

because it threatened the habitat that was critical to the snail darter fish? a. The Clean Water Act of 1972 *b. The Endangered Species Act of 1973 c. The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 d. The Clean Air Act of 1990 e. The Engine Emissions Act of 2002

33. Achieving a balance between society and nature that will permit both to exist in harmony is

known as a. expansionism. b. isolationism. c. environmentalism. d. globalization. *e. sustainability.

34. How did the United States react to the Kyoto Protocol, a global climate conference

sponsored by the United Nations?

a. The U.S. felt that agricultural production was responsible for global issues and put all

aspects of the protocol into place. b. The U.S. required all developing nations to join the agreement after it signed. c. The U.S. was the first to sign the protocol agreement. *d. The U.S. did not allow the protocol to go to the Senate for ratification. e. The U.S. initiated the Kyoto Protocol in response to pressure from environmental PACs.

35. __________ are laws that focus on how much energy is needed and used. a. Consumption indexes *b. Energy policies c. Energy requirements d. Fuel ratios e. Statutes of consumption

36. Which statement regarding energy consumption in the United States is most accurate? a. The United States is the fifth largest producer of oil in the world. b. In 2015, the United States consumed about 60 million barrels of petroleum per day. *c. In 2015, only about 24 percent of the petroleum consumed in the United States each

day was imported. d. The most recent statistics show that imported petroleum is at an all-time high for the U.S. e. The United States no longer uses natural gas as an energy source.

37. As the price of crude oil has risen since 1970, a. the government has reduced speed limits in an effort to reduce consumption of

gasoline. b. the United States has struggled to find an economically feasible way to domestically drill and pump oil. c. individual consumers increased their demand for gasoline and have created shortages. *d. industries that use oil to produce energy have switched to less expensive fuels. e. OPEC has instituted an embargo on shipments of petroleum to the United States.

38. Because of the effects of producing energy and burning fuels, energy policy is deeply

connected with __________ policy. a. agricultural b. economic *c. environmental d. health care e. welfare

39. In an effort to create cleaner-burning gasoline, Congress mandated that 10% of the fuels

sold in the years to come should include ________ as an ingredient. a. petroleum b. detergent *c. ethanol d. hydrocarbons e. alkaline

40. The majority of electric power generated in the United States comes from companies that a. create wind power. b. create hydroelectric power. c. generate nuclear power. d. burn oil. *e. burn coal.

41. As a source of energy, nuclear power a. is rarely used in the United States or Europe. b. is inefficient and emits high levels of greenhouse gases. c. produces a minimal amount of waste so there is little spent fuel to store. *d. has been used safely in Europe and the former states of the Soviet Union for

decades. e. is widely supported in the United States.

42. Wind, solar, and geothermal energy are alternatives to the United States’ dependence on

fossil fuels. Which of the following describes these alternative sources? a. The government has set a deadline of 2020 to have at least 50 percent of the nation’s

energy come from alternative sources. *b. Technology does not exist to use any of these sources to produce the quantity of energy needed to replace coal plants or other current energy sources. c. These alternatives pose no threat to the environment and area wildlife. d. The majority of Americans favor nuclear power as a more realistic alternative to meeting the country's energy requirements in an efficient manner. e. They have been discussed in only a hypothetical sense and have yet to be put into actual use.

43. Proponents of a __________ system want industries to account for carbon emissions

through a market system, yet opponents believe that such a system will ultimately drive up energy costs.

*a. cap and trade b. collective c. self-regulating d. unregulated e. tax-and-spend

44. To address poverty in the United States, the government has used income transfers, which a. require services to be rendered by the recipients in return for income. *b. are methods of transferring income from the relatively well-off to the relatively

poor. c. prevent the poor from escaping their low-income status. d. put a portion of a person's paycheck immediately into savings. e. have eliminated mass poverty in most regions of the country.

45. Compared to poverty levels in the 1960s, poverty levels in the United States today *a. have increased. b. have decreased somewhat. c. are about the same. d. have been eliminated. e. are even lower.

46. Currently, adjustments to the poverty income threshold are based on a. recommendations from the Council of Economic Advisers. b. the population levels from the census. c. recommendations from the president. *d. changes in the consumer price index. e. changes to the gross domestic product.

47. The official poverty level does not take into account in-kind subsidies which are a. cash transfers from the government that go directly to poor individuals. *b. goods and services provided by the government to low-income groups. c. part-time wages received from a government agency. d. provided directly from the government to businesses to stimulate investment. e. donations an individual receives from local charities.

48. The program that most people think of when they hear the word welfare is now called a. Aid to Families with Dependent Children. b. Federal Program to Eliminate Poverty.

c. Supplemental Security Income. *d. Temporary Assistance to Needy Families. e. the Earned Income Tax Credit program.

49. Under the Welfare Reform Act, ________ is/are responsible for the burden of any increased

welfare spending. a. Congress *b. the states c. the president d. voters e. private charities

50. The biggest group of people to receive benefits under TANF are a. the elderly. b. children under age 18. *c. single mothers with children. d. expectant mothers. e. the disabled.

51. The federal program that provides assistance to elderly and disabled persons is called a. Aid to Families with Dependent Children. b. Federal Program to Eliminate Poverty. *c. Supplemental Security Income. d. Temporary Assistance to Needy Families. e. the Earned Income Tax Credit program.

52. The Earned Income Tax Credit program was created in 1975 to a. make education expenditures deductible. *b. provide rebates of Social Security taxes to low-income workers. c. subsidize farmers during times of low crop yield. d. provide a deduction for those who pay capital gains taxes. e. provide assistance for higher education.

53. The homeless population continues to grow with __________ being the fastest-growing

subgroup. a. military veterans b. the mentally ill c. drug addicts

*d. families e. senior citizens

54. Which statement regarding the homeless is most accurate? a. Those defined as "street homeless" are typically families. *b. Estimating the number of homeless is difficult because the number varies depending

on how “homeless” is defined. c. Those that are classified as "sheltered homeless" receive a government stipend. d. The Welfare Reform Act of 1996 reduced the number of homeless because they now receive federal assistance. e. Liberals and conservatives are able to agree that a majority of the homeless are alcoholics, drug abusers, and mentally ill.

55. Examples of attempts to criminalize homelessness include a. laws against robbery and burglary. *b. outlawing sleeping on park benches. c. bans on the construction of new shelters. d. requiring an address to be able to register to vote. e. laws against solicitation.

56. Every year more than __________ people immigrate to the United States. a. 500,000 *b. 1 million c. 2 million d. 4 million e. 8 million

57. People born on foreign soil now constitute more than ________ of the United States

population, which is twice the percentage of 30 years ago. a. 1% b. 5% *c. 10% d. 20% e. 35%

58. Currently, four out of five immigrants to the United States come from a. Asia and Africa. b. Europe and Asia. c. Europe and Africa.

*d. Latin America and Asia. e. Latin America and Europe.

59. The largest minority group in the United States is a. African Americans. b. Asians. c. Eastern Europeans. *d. Hispanics. e. Native Americans.

60. If current immigration rates continue, by the year __________ minority groups collectively

will constitute the majority of Americans. a. 2020 b. 2030 c. 2040 d. 2050 *e. 2060

61. The high rate of immigration benefits the United States because it a. increases the number of individuals that are unemployed. *b. provides additional taxes that help support programs that benefit older Americans. c. decreases the tax rolls and eliminates the need for state funding. d. increases the voting-age population. e. reduces the demand on Medicaid.

62. What effect did the recession of 2008-2009 have on immigration in the United States? a. U.S. citizens welcomed having immigrants enter the country and add to the tax base. b. More undocumented workers were able to get jobs than highly-educated citizens. c. The "flood" of undocumented workers increased dramatically. *d. Many undocumented workers left the U.S. and returned to Central America. e. The recession did not have an effect on immigrants the way it did on citizens.

63. Congress passed legislation authorizing the construction of a 700-mile-long fence between

the U.S. and Mexico in ________ which included both real fencing and virtual fencing. a. 1999 b. 1929 c. 2016 d. 1967

*e. 2006

64. To curtail the activities of undocumented workers, the state of __________ passed a

controversial immigration law in 2010 which required state and local police to check citizenship papers of those stopped for other offenses. *a. Arizona b. California c. Michigan d. Minnesota e. Texas

65. The only federal program the majority of Americans agree should be cut from the federal

budget is a. social services. b. agriculture subsidies. c. Medicare. *d. foreign aid to other nations. e. education reform.

66. Describe the stages of the policy making process in American government.

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67. Explain the principles underlying the American health care system and the issues facing the system.

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68. Discuss the rising costs of health care and the governmental efforts to address this matter.

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69. Analyze the governments’ attempts to protect the environment since the 1960s. What has been successful?

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70. Discuss the role of sustainability and how it affects the U.S. government, business and the citizens of the country.

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71. Analyze the American energy policy and discuss how the policies encourage energy independence.

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72. Discuss the connection between environmental policy and energy policy.

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73. Describe the national policies designed to fight poverty.

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74. Discuss why homelessness in the United States continues to be a problem.

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75. Review the issues raised by immigration into the United States and the proposed reforms to the immigration system.

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Students’ answers may vary.

Chapter 16 1. The Glass-Steagall Act was passed following the Great Depression, and was designed to

regulate the ________ industry. a. agriculture b. education *c. banking d. pharmaceutical e. military

2. Inflation can be described as the a. increase in the sale of stocks on the stock market. *b. increase in the general price level of goods and services. c. increase in currency in the money supply. d. increase in the purchasing power of foreign currency. e. decrease in the salaries of members of government.

3. Which of these statements best describes inflation? *a. A loaf of bread used to cost $1.95, but now it costs $3.99. b. The United States produces more now than it did fifty years ago. c. The gross domestic product of the United States increases over the years. d. The federal reserve issues U.S. Treasury bonds to pay for the debt burden. e. Over the past three years, the economy has shrunk instead of growing.

4. Which of these situations is the result of a recession? a. decrease in job loss b. long-term job prosperity *c. increased unemployment d. growth of household income e. increase in money held in savings

5. Under the doctrine of dual federalism, __________ had the right to address U.S.

unemployment. a. only the national government *b. only state governments c. both national and state governments d. both national and local governments e. both the international community and the national government

6. Which statement regarding unemployment is most accurate? a. Full employment is defined as a job for every adult who wants one. b. Today the unemployment rate at which the American workforce is considered fully

employed is around 8 percent. c. Imbalance of trade is the inability of people in the labor force to find jobs. d. The average unemployment rate in 2009 was more than 15 percent and did not begin to decrease until late 2011. *e. The unemployment rate may under-represent accurate statistics because of failure to account for discouraged workers.

7. How did President Roosevelt address the needs of the unemployed during the Great

Depression? a. He implemented a wage garnishment for the employed which was given to the

unemployed. b. He created Social Security which provided the unemployed with a monthly stipend. *c. He created jobs through government programs like the CCC and the WPA. d. He ignored the unemployed and focused on the wealthy. e. He provided shelter and food to those who had no money.

8. What percentage of the unemployed workers in the U.S. qualify for and receive benefits

under the unemployment insurance program? a. 2% b. less than 15% c. 100% *d. 33% e. 50%

9. The __________ is a measure of the change in price over time of a specific group of goods

and services used by the average household. a. gross national product (GNP) *b. consumer price index (CPI) c. inflation index scale d. gross domestic product (GDP) e. gross price scale

10. Today’s dollar, relative to a dollar of a century ago, is worth about a. a penny. *b. a nickel. c. seventy-five cents. d. the same.

e. twice as much.

11. The ______ is a term that describes fluctuations in the nation’s economic activity, including

periods of economic expansion and contraction. *a. business cycle b. public agenda c. CPI d. gross domestic product e. productive capacity

12. An extremely severe recession is called a(n) a. deflation. *b. depression. c. overhaul. d. downturn. e. uprising.

13. Fiscal policy is the use of __________ to affect changes in economic activity. a. the money in circulation *b. taxing and government spending c. interest rates d. the courts e. legislative precedents

14. When the U.S. government adjusts the amount of money in circulation in order to alter

credit markets and employment, it is relying on ________ policy to influence the economy. a. political *b. monetary c. fiscal d. regressive e. collateral

15. Adam Smith, author of The Wealth of Nations, theorized that __________ drive(s)

economic prosperity. a. government intervention b. economic safety nets c. decisions of ruling-class elites *d. free competition among individuals and businesses e. military strength

16. Keynesian economic theory argues that the government a. can raise total revenue by cutting taxes. b. can address inflation by permitting a natural balance to occur between supply and

demand. *c. should use taxing and spending to maintain economic stability. d. should let economists set the country’s budget. e. should not consider economic conditions when setting policy.

17. The basis for supply-side economics is that in order to control inflation government should a. only regulate imported goods. b. increase taxes. c. enforce stricter regulations on companies. d. spend tax dollars to create jobs. *e. reduce regulation and cut taxes.

18. A key difference between laissez-faire and Keynesian economic policy is *a. the level of government involvement in the nation’s economy. b. the value of printed money in relation to the gold standard. c. how each deals with the issue of inflation. d. the way in which government surpluses are spent. e. the importance of easy credit for businesses.

19. Democrats tend to subscribe to the __________ view of the economy, which supports

government aid to the economically disadvantaged. a. “seedling” b. “bubble up” *c. “percolate up” d. “rise up” e. “rainbow”

20. Republicans tend to believe in the __________ approach to economic policy, which favors

less government regulation and lower taxes so that the wealth of business owners and the rich creates jobs and income for the less well off. a. “cascade” b. “drop-down” c. “rising tide” *d. “trickle-down” e. “waterfall”

21. Reliance on Keynesian economic methods began with the administration of a. Bill Clinton. b. Dwight D. Eisenhower. c. Ronald Reagan. d. Richard Nixon. *e. John F. Kennedy.

22. The Obama administration has consistently followed a Keynesian path in its approach to the

economy, including a. increasing the Social Security taxes paid by workers on earnings. b. reducing unemployment benefits. c. reducing federal stimulus programs to state and local governments. d. increasing government regulations. *e. extending the food stamp program.

23. Why are fiscal policies sometimes difficult to use in regulating the economy? *a. Federal spending cannot be easily adjusted up or down as economic conditions

change. b. Decisions about how much government should spend are made by a very small group of people. c. Changes in spending and taxes can occur very quickly before many economists can agree on what the problem is. d. Decisions by Congress to lower the discount rate to federal banks are a cumbersome process. e. Checks and balances provided for in the Constitution require agreement among all three branches regarding a course of action.

24. Government expenditures that exceed receipts are known as a budget a. upturn. b. inflation. c. capita. *d. deficit. e. rebate.

25. What instrument does the federal government use to borrow money? a. market stocks b. the GNP c. IRAs

d. private bank loans *e. U.S. Treasury bonds

26. The net public debt is defined as a. the total amount owed by all individuals, corporations, and governments in the

United States. *b. the total amount owed by the federal government to individuals, businesses, and foreigners. c. a percentage of the gross national product. d. money not available for private use. e. the total amount of all interagency borrowings within the government.

27. The gross domestic product (GDP) can be defined as a. the difference in a given year between what the government raises in taxes and fees

and what it spends. *b. the value of all of the goods and services produced by an economy in one year. c. the total amount owed to those who have loaned money to the government. d. an increase in the revenue from the sale of U.S. Treasury bonds. e. the average value of goods and services produced in the U.S.

28. Which of the following describes the cycle of the net public debt? a. It has never been lower than at the present time. b. It amounts to almost nothing at the present time. *c. It peaked during World War II. d. It peaked during the Vietnam War. e. It is always at a consistent rate.

29. The only administration of recent times to actually run a budget surplus, as opposed to a

deficit, was that of a. Jimmy Carter. b. Ronald Reagan. c. George H. W. Bush. *d. Bill Clinton. e. George W. Bush.

30. Deficit spending, as opposed to budget surpluses, was again an economic reality for the

United States by early in the twenty-first century. A contributing factor was a. a series of disastrous economic choices made by Bill Clinton in the last months of his

presidency.

*b. the dot-com bust followed by the 2001–2002 recession. c. a series of tax increases passed by Congress in 2001 and 2003 at the urging of

George W. Bush. d. withdrawal from the Kyoto Protocol. e. restored relations with Iraq after years of acrimony.

31. The financial crisis of 2008 plunged the nation into recession and unemployment. Congress

reacted by authorizing bailout funds and passing stimulus spending programs that led to a(n) *a. increase in the federal debt. b. increase in tax revenues. c. increase in wage rates. d. reduction in overall spending on entitlements. e. rapid end to the recession.

32. Tax exclusions and tax deductions are used by government bodies to a. increase overall revenue. b. fund entitlement programs, like Social Security and Medicare. c. fund road improvements and school construction. *d. incentivize some sectors of the economy. e. discourage some sectors of the economy.

33. The total value of all taxes collected by government at all levels, federal, state, and local, is a. over half of the nation’s income. b. higher than in most other economically-advanced countries. c. subject to a ceiling imposed by Congress. *d. about 35 percent of gross domestic product. e. enough to run the government and maintain a budget surplus.

34. Social Security and Medicare taxes are assessed based on a. the excise rate. b. a company's income. c. the property tax rate. *d. a person's salary. e. a person's health status.

35. The highest tax rate an individual pays is called the ________ tax rate. a. primary *b. marginal

c. supplemental d. joint e. fiscal

36. The tax system in the United States is structured so that a. everyone pays the same percentage of their income as tax. b. a proportional rate is paid by all individuals that are fully employed. *c. the “last” dollar made is being taxed at the highest rate. d. individuals are always taxed in a regressive manner. e. real estate is taxed at a higher rate than income.

37. Tax loopholes allow individuals and corporations to *a. reduce their taxable income legally. b. choose the state to which they will pay taxes. c. register formal complaints with the Internal Revenue Service. d. pay taxes only on investment income. e. force the state to pay the tax on income.

38. Warren Buffett, the billionaire CEO, has brought attention to the fact that he is taxed at a

lower rate than his secretary, who pays almost 30 percent of her income in federal taxes each year. Mr. Buffet is taxed at a lower rate because a. his salary is diverted into Roth IRA accounts, which are not taxed until the money is

dispersed. b. he has diverted 30 percent of his salary into U.S. Treasury bonds and those are taxed at a lower rate than salaries. c. he has diverted 30 percent of his salary into pretax investment funds, which are not taxed until the money is dispersed. *d. his income comes from dividends, which are taxed at 15-20 percent. e. he is older than his secretary and current tax rates are based on income as well as on age.

39. A tax provision which allows investors in oil and gas wells to reduce their taxable income is

an example of a(n) *a. loophole. b. IRA. c. net public debt. d. flat tax. e. progressive tax.

40. How does a progressive tax work?

a. All taxpayers pay taxes at the same rate, regardless of income. *b. Taxpayers with higher incomes pay a higher percentage of their incomes in taxes. c. Taxpayers with higher incomes pay a lower percentage of their incomes in taxes. d. Taxpayers who own property pay taxes at lower percentage rates than taxpayers who

do not, regardless of income. e. All taxpayers pay taxes at a set percentage, which increases every year, regardless of income.

41. Which of the following taxes are considered progressive in their effect? a. real estate taxes b. Social Security taxes *c. federal income taxes d. sales taxes e. estate taxes

42. What identifies a regressive tax? a. All taxpayers pay taxes at the same rate, regardless of income. *b. Taxpayers with lower incomes pay a higher percentage of their incomes in taxes. c. Taxpayers with lower incomes pay a lower percentage of their incomes in taxes. d. Taxpayers who own property pay taxes at lower percentage rates than taxpayers who

do not, regardless of income. e. All taxpayers pay taxes at a set percentage, which goes down every year, regardless of income.

43. Which statement regarding income tax is most accurate? a. The federal income tax is levied in a manner proportional to income. b. All income is taxed at the same rate. c. Almost 30 percent of Americans pay no federal income tax at all. d. Income tax is levied on most sources of income, including Social Security and

Medicare. *e. The top 25 percent of all households pay more than 86 percent of all income taxes.

44. Unemployment insurance is an example of a(n) ________ program which is guaranteed to

the respective recipients. a. welfare b. need-based c. pension *d. entitlement e. fiduciary

45. Which of the following is an example of an entitlement program? a. federal income tax b. federal student loans *c. Medicare d. Medicaid e. an IRA

46. Under the law, individuals who meet certain requirements, such as age or income level,

qualify to receive benefits under a particular federal program. These programs are called *a. entitlements. b. discretionary spending. c. wealth distribution. d. pensions. e. subsidies.

47. The Social Security system is a. funded solely by employees' contributions through wages. b. protected by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC). *c. a pay-as-you-go system where those currently working support those who are

retired. d. funded by a progressive tax on income. e. essentially, a private pension fund.

48. Many people regard Social Security as a "social compact" which means that a. no individual is guaranteed the benefits of the program unless they have worked to

contribute to the program. b. if the federal government is unable to pay benefits, the state government will take over and pay. *c. it is a national promise to successive generations that they will receive financial support in their old age. d. it is not guaranteed to be around forever. e. the benefits received from the program must be used for the common good.

49. Estimates suggest that by 2030, only ________ workers will be employed for every retired

Social Security recipient. *a. two b. three c. five d. six

e. ten

50. All of the following are potential solutions noted in the text that would allow Social Security

and Medicare to remain intact, EXCEPT *a. establishing eligibility assessments based on overall health and expected life span. b. raising the combined payroll taxes. c. increasing the age of full benefit eligibility. d. reforming immigration policy to permit additional work permits. e. privatizing the Social Security system to allow for personal investment.

51. Which of the following have political leaders, including President G.W. Bush, advanced as

a possible solution to ensure Social Security’s solvency in the future? a. increasing payouts to seniors and encouraging reinvestment b. lowering the age of eligibility c. issuing a moratorium on immigration *d. privatizing the system, partially or wholly e. abolishing the program altogether

52. Controlling U.S. monetary policy is the responsibility of the a. executive branch, especially the president. b. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. *c. Federal Reserve System. d. International Monetary Fund. e. National Bank.

53. The Fed can best be described as a. a partner with the U.S. Congress in determining economic volatility. *b. a truly independent source of economic power in the U.S. government. c. an offshoot of the president's budget. d. a resource for college loans and home loans. e. a diplomatic arm of the U.S. government that focuses on the foreign exchange

market.

54. The responsibility of the Federal Open Market Committee is to a. negotiate balanced trade agreements. b. negotiate congressional budgets. *c. implement the monetary policy of the Federal Reserve. d. develop, with the U.N. Trade Information Commission, international trade policies. e. regulate the markets for stocks and bonds.

55. The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System operates a. under the control of the president. b. under the control of Congress. c. as part of the U.S. Department of the Treasury. *d. independent of the president and Congress. e. as an extension of the U.S. Mint.

56. A monetary policy that makes credit inexpensive and abundant, possibly leading to

inflation, is called a(n) ________ monetary policy. *a. loose b. slow c. tight d. progressive e. regressive

57. “Slave” wages, lack of environmental standards, and loss of industry in regions of the

United States are all arguments against a. exports. *b. globalization. c. import quotas. d. insourcing. e. tariffs.

58. Automobiles that are made in Japan and brought into the United States to sell are an

example of a(n) a. mandate. b. tariff. c. export. d. embargo. *e. import.

59. How do U.S. exports compare to many other countries? a. U.S. exports are relatively high compared to many other countries. *b. U.S. exports are relatively small compared to many other countries. c. The U.S. no longer exports any goods or services. d. The U.S. has the highest number of exports in the world. e. The U.S. exports about the same amount of products as most other developed

nations.

60. President George W. Bush signed the CAFTA-DR into law, but this agreement is opposed

by which American industry? a. banking b. customer service c. electronics d. farmers *e. textile workers

61. How does an import restriction affect the price of goods in the United States? a. It will lead to lower prices in the future. b. It causes other countries to lower the cost of their goods. *c. It can result in higher prices. d. It automatically lowers prices. e. It has no effect on the cost of goods.

62. The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) created a free-trade zone between the

United States, a. the Bahamas, and the Dominican Republic. b. Russia, and China. c. Japan, and South Korea. *d. Canada, and Mexico. e. Belize, Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Nicaragua, and Panama.

63. Which institution is responsible for overseeing tariffs throughout the world? a. Federal Reserve Bank b. World Bank *c. World Trade Organization d. International Monetary Fund e. United Nations

64. Almost every nation seeks to protect its __________ sector, making this sector one of the

areas of greatest disagreement among trading nations of the WTO. *a. agricultural b. energy-producing c. banking d. entertainment e. textile

65. India and China are leading outsourcing destinations for American companies, but as

__________, other countries may soon become larger outsourcing providers. *a. wages in these countries are rapidly increasing b. political systems in these countries are rapidly changing c. birth rates in these countries are rapidly decreasing d. factory regulations in these countries are rapidly becoming more rigorous e. imports from these countries are rapidly declining

66. Describe the historic role of the U.S. government in addressing unemployment.

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67. Define fiscal policy and monetary policy. Explain the tools used by the institutions of the national government to shape economic policy.

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68. Compare and contrast laissez-faire economics, Keynesian economic theory and supply-side economics.

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69. Discuss the annual deficit and the total national debt. Describe how the two are related.

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70. Describe a tax loophole and present an example of one.

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71. Explain the taxation systems used in the United States.

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72. Describe an entitlement and present examples of entitlement programs.

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73. Discuss potential ways to salvage the Social Security system.

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74. Explain the role of the Federal Reserve System in the United States.

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75. Describe the role of the World Trade Organization, especially as related to globalization.

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Chapter 17 1. Foreign policy is defined as *a. the nation’s external goals and the techniques and strategies to achieve them. b. the formal agreements that are approved by the World Court. c. interactions with other countries that are not related to economics or politics. d. the treaties that are ratified by the Senate. e. the manner in which the armed forces are deployed.

2. When a country settles a dispute with another country using peaceful means instead of

resorting to war, it is an example of a. arbitrage. *b. diplomacy. c. collective bargaining. d. isolationism. e. expansionism.

3. The G8 Summit is an example of ________ because it brings together heads of state to carry

out political relations with one another without entering into conflict. a. policy b. divestiture c. arbitrage *d. diplomacy e. reprieve

4. The National Security Council acts as an advisory body to a. Congress. *b. the president. c. the State Department. d. the Joint Chiefs of Staff. e. the individual states.

5. When the United States sends engineers and agricultural experts to foreign countries to help

those countries develop these industries, it is an example of ________ assistance. *a. technical b. economic c. military d. digital e. regime

6. U.S. defense policy details the a. authorizations and appropriations from Congress for the defense budget. b. procedures for maintaining a secure border for the country. c. economic aid being delivered to foreign nationals. d. projected number of casualties in a war. *e. types of armed forces units that are necessary.

7. Which U.S. policy is concerned with the safety and defense of the United States? a. technical assistance *b. national security c. economic aid d. welfare relief e. social services

8. When the U.S. provides assistance to another nation with a grant or loan to enable that

country to buy U.S. products, it is an example of a. national security. b. fiduciary spending. c. technical assistance. *d. economic aid. e. isolationism.

9. The __________ is/are the most successful example of U.S. diplomacy to encourage peace in

the Middle East. *a. Camp David Accords b. Carter Compromises c. Dayton Peace Accords d. Marshall Plan e. Monroe Doctrine

10. Which constitutional power did President Obama use when he ordered the Navy SEAL raid

that killed Osama bin Laden? a. ambassador appointment b. treaties *c. war powers d. precedent e. executive agreements

11. Nearly all of the understandings reached between the U.S. and other nations following

World War II have been accomplished using a. diplomatic trade. b. political appointees. c. treaties. *d. executive agreements. e. physical force.

12. Which of the following is NOT one of the four foreign policymaking sources within the

executive branch? a. Department of State *b. Department of the Interior c. National Security Council d. intelligence community e. Department of Defense

13. According to the text, three other broad sources of presidential power include tradition,

precedent, and *a. the president's personality. b. the pocket veto. c. arbitrage. d. elite concurrence. e. partisan relationships.

14. Within the U.S. government, the ________ is the executive agency with primary authority

over foreign affairs. a. Senate b. North American Trade Organization c. Central Intelligence Agency *d. State Department e. White House Executive Office

15. The National Security Agency and the Federal Bureau of Investigation gather information

about the capabilities and intentions of foreign governments. These two organizations are part of the ________ community. a. economic advisory *b. intelligence c. embassy d. diplomatic e. defense

16. By passing the War Powers Resolution Act, Congress established limits on the powers of

the president in setting foreign and defense policy following which war? a. World War II b. Revolutionary War *c. Vietnam War d. Civil War e. World War I

17. Members of Congress who are the same political party as the president tend to ________

when they have personal doubts about the use of military force. a. claim ignorance b. agree with public opinion c. disagree with the president *d. support the president e. remain passive

18. The attentive public refers to *a. that portion of the general public that pays attention to policy issues. b. individuals who have attended college. c. elites in business, education, and other fields. d. members of the public who are opposed to the government’s foreign policy

initiatives. e. members of the public who support the government’s foreign policy initiatives.

19. The mutually beneficial relationship between the armed forces and defense contractors is

referred to as the a. arms race. b. Iron Curtain. *c. military-industrial complex. d. shadow Pentagon. e. permanent war economy.

20. The Pentagon’s strongest support has been from a. arms suppliers and defense contractors. b. members of the military and citizens who work in the defense industry. *c. members of Congress whose districts or states benefit economically from military

bases or contracts. d. presidents and members of Congress that identify with the Republican party.

e. foreign countries that depend on the United States for military support and assistance

defending their borders.

21. President Barack Obama’s support of the Libyan and Egyptian democracy movements was

based on a(n) __________ foreign policy perspective. a. containment b. expansionist c. isolationist *d. moralist e. realist

22. The increased use of drones to track down and dispose of terrorists is an example of a(n)

__________ foreign policy. a. containment b. expansionist c. isolationist d. moralist *e. realist

23. If the United States is pursuing an expansionist policy, it is *a. embracing the extension of American borders as far as possible. b. restricting exports and implementing higher tariffs. c. abstaining from an active role in international affairs or alliances. d. allowing more immigrants into the country. e. providing financial assistance for conflicts in other nations.

24. When the U.S. annexed Texas in 1845 and purchased Alaska in 1867, it was practicing the

concept of *a. expansionism. b. arbitrage. c. detente. d. isolationism. e. pluralism.

25. The Monroe Doctrine was an example of a. containment policy. b. détente. c. internationalism. d. arbitrage.

*e. isolationist foreign policy.

26. United States foreign policy toward Europe during most of the 1800s can be described as a. expansionist. b. interventionist. *c. isolationist. d. multilateral. e. one of détente.

27. The Monroe Doctrine established three principles that reflected the activities of the United

States and a. South America. b. Asia. *c. Europe. d. the USSR. e. the Far East.

28. When did the last vestige of American isolationism end? a. with the onset of the Great Depression *b. with the bombing of the U.S. naval base at Pearl Harbor c. when the United States entered the United Nations d. when France and the United States signed a mutual alliance pact e. with the end of the Korean War

29. The United States was the only major country to emerge from World War II with a. an addition to its territory. b. a weakened economy. *c. nuclear weapons that were operational. d. the same leader of government that it had when it started the war. e. an intention to expand its role in the world.

30. The Cold War refers to the confrontation between the United States and ________ after

World War II. a. West Germany b. France *c. the Soviet Union d. Eastern Europe e. Italy

31. The term "iron curtain" refers to the division created by a. NAFTA. b. the European Union. *c. the Soviet bloc. d. the Korean conflict. e. Fidel Castro in Cuba.

32. The Truman Doctrine promoted the ________ theory in response to the communist takeover

in parts of Europe. a. constructionist b. nationalist c. isolationist *d. containment e. expansionist

33. How were conflicting policies of countries involved in the Cold War carried out? a. The countries relied on their respective legislative bodies to carry out the policies. b. The Soviet Union placed military installations in the southern part of the United

States. *c. Confrontations among client nations were used to carry out policies of the United States and Soviet Union. d. Direct military conflict between the U.S. and the Soviet Union provided the means for carrying out policy. e. The United States placed ambassadors in eight different regions of the Soviet Union.

34. In government, détente refers to a. the need to cut military aid. b. limiting immigration. *c. a relaxation of tensions between nations. d. the ability to form a militia. e. a military takeover on foreign ground.

35. Which statement describes foreign policy and the declining days of the Cold War? a. The Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty (SALT II) quickly ended the Cold War

because the Soviet Union willingly decided to limit development of antiballistic missiles. b. President Richard M. Nixon took a hard line against the Soviet Union during his first term, proposing the strategic defense initiative (SDI) or “Star Wars.”

c. Following the fall of the Berlin Wall in 1989, China became the sole military global

superpower. *d. The Intermediate-Range Nuclear Force (INF) Treaty, which required 4,000 missiles to be dismantled, signaled a reduction in tensions between the United States and Soviet Union. e. Tensions related to the Cold War are evident today in Afghanistan where people are divided over support from the Soviet Union and the United States.

36. The al-Qaeda terrorist network launched the attacks of September 11th in response to a. the U.S. attack on Riyadh. b. the inability to import goods from the U.S. *c. the presence of U.S. troops in Saudi Arabia. d. the U.S. oil embargo. e. a lack of U.S. intelligence services in Iran.

37. A military engagement that is undertaken to stop an enemy before it attacks the United

States is called a(n) ________ war. a. conduit b. initial c. expansionist *d. preemptive e. isolationist

38. In 2002, President George W. Bush enunciated a new foreign policy doctrine that held, in

part, that a. the United States would go to war with any country that attacks it. *b. the United States was prepared to wage preemptive war against perceived threats

with or without allies. c. Islamists would not be allowed to take power in any additional nations. d. the United States would leave the United Nations if that body did not support its military initiatives. e. the United States would no longer participate in the World Trade Organization or in the World Bank.

39. The United States entered into the Gulf War in 1990 to help Saudi Arabia defend against the

invasion led by *a. Saddam Hussein. b. Osama bin Laden. c. Joseph Stalin. d. Vladimir Putin. e. Kim Jong Un.

40. Iran's attempted annexation of Kuwait in 1990 can be described as a. a means of restoring to Iraq a province that had been separated by the British after

World War II. b. being supported by large-scale demonstrations in Kuwait City. c. a justified undertaking after Hussein reached a diplomatic agreement with Saudi Arabia. *d. the most clear-cut case of aggression against an independent state in half a century. e. remaining in effect until George W. Bush initiated the Second Gulf War in 2003.

41. Following the cease-fire that ended the Gulf War, Iraq agreed to a. turn over medium-range missiles and all weapons of mass destruction to the United

States. *b. allow United Nations weapons inspectors to examine Iraqi research facilities. c. end all economic sanctions against Kuwait and Saudi Arabia. d. hold democratic elections to replace Saddam Hussein. e. assist the United States with the surge in Afghanistan.

42. What was President George W. Bush referring to when he talked about the "axis of evil?" a. the deplorable human conditions that took place during the Nazi regime *b. the threat to world peace triggered by Iraq and Saddam Hussein c. the nations responsible for the September 11th terrorist attacks d. the United Nations attempt to bring Turkey into the European Union e. the swelling number of immigrants crossing the U.S.-Mexican border

43. The people of Iraq are divided into ________ principal group(s) based on ethnicity and

religion, which explains why different areas of Iraq responded in various ways to the actions of Saddam Hussein. a. more than twenty b. five c. eleven *d. three e. just one

44. The Bush administration used a military surge in 2007 to a. topple Saddam Hussein from power in Iraq. b. locate bin Laden and bring him to justice. c. maintain control of the Iraqi government. *d. defeat the insurgence of al-Qaeda terrorist cells in Iraq.

e. take control of provinces in Afghanistan from the Taliban.

45. According to the text, after ten years of an American presence in Afghanistan it is apparent

that social and economic progress for ________ has been improved. *a. women b. children c. the elderly d. college students e. small business

46. What effect did the Clinton administration have on the U.S. military? a. It remanded the title of commander in chief to the attorney general. b. It ordered the CIA to focus more on military intelligence. c. It doubled the budget for military installations. *d. It decreased the size of active duty military. e. It built new ships and updated all equipment.

47. The text notes that over the last two decades, terrorism has become even more concerning

because it has increasingly threatened a. foreign nationals. b. government officials. c. members of the military. *d. ordinary citizens. e. religious houses of worship.

48. The open border policy of ________ was an obstacle in capturing the perpetrators of the

bombing of an open-air cafe in Paris in 2015. a. North Korea b. Iran *c. the European Union d. Pakistan e. the United States

49. What was the first nation to possess nuclear weapons? *a. United States b. Germany c. Soviet Union d. Iran e. Japan

50. Nuclear proliferation refers to the a. dismantling of nuclear weapons by the United States and Soviet Union. b. diplomacy used between countries that have nuclear weapons. c. creation of huge nuclear arsenals during the Cold War by the United States and

Soviet Union. *d. development of nuclear weapons by countries other than the United States. e. failure to determine an accurate number of nuclear warheads per nation.

51. Nuclear proliferation became an even greater issue than before in 1998 when __________

detonated nuclear devices. a. Britain and France *b. India and Pakistan c. Iran and Iraq d. North Korea and South Korea e. South Africa and Israel

52. The United States has suspected for some time that nations such as __________ might

supply nuclear materials to terrorists or to nations that want to have nuclear capability. a. India and Pakistan *b. Iran and North Korea c. Israel and Iran d. Pakistan and South Korea e. Syria and Iran

53. It is believed that there are nearly ________ nuclear warheads stocked worldwide. a. 55 *b. 20,000 c. 900 d. 1,000,000 e. 100

54. The effort to control the proliferation of nuclear weapons includes the Comprehensive

Nuclear Test Ban Treaty which a. went into global effect in 1999. b. was a major accomplishment for the Clinton administration. c. provides for the dismantling of all nuclear weapons worldwide. *d. was not ratified by the U.S. Senate. e. permits crippling sanctions to be issued against a country that tests nuclear weapons.

55. How did the U.S.respond to nuclear tests carried out by India and Pakistan in 1998? a. It asked Russia to join forces to limit these tests. b. It removed tariffs from exports to those countries. c. It encouraged imports from those countries. d. It installed a military presence. *e. It imposed economic sanctions.

56. The internationally recognized solution to the Israeli-Palestinian dispute is for a. the Palestinians to be resettled in Jordan with full compensation. *b. Israel to yield the West Bank and Gaza Strip to the Palestinians in return for

security guarantees and Palestinian abandonment of any right of return to Israel proper. c. Israelis and Palestinians to join a single state in which all citizens have equal rights, an equal vote and equal access to government resources. d. Israel to yield the West Bank and Gaza Strip to the Palestinians; both Israelis and Palestinians may settle in either country. e. Israel to yield all territory not granted to it by the UN in 1948, including all of Jerusalem.

57. In January 2006, the __________ won a majority of the seats in the Palestinian legislature,

an alarming development because it has called for the destruction of Israel. *a. militant group Hamas b. Kurdish People’s Liberation Front c. militant group Hezbollah d. Palestine Liberation Organization e. extremist group Free Jerusalem Now

58. The __________ movements that arose in 2011 and 2012 were focused on replacing

authoritarian regimes in the Middle East. a. Amnesty Now b. Operation Desert Storm *c. Arab Spring d. Enduring Freedom e. New Dawn

59. The major issue between the United States and Iran is a. Iran’s treatment of American citizens living and working in Iran. *b. Iran’s secret development of a nuclear capability. c. Iran’s assistance to insurgents in Iraq and Afghanistan.

d. Iran’s closed society that forbids Iranians from traveling outside of Iran. e. the United States' treatment of Iranian citizens living and working in the United

States.

60. The U.S. and Iran have had difficult relations since the capture of the American embassy

during the ________ administration. a. Ford b. Eisenhower *c. Carter d. Obama e. Reagan

61. One of the biggest challenges facing the United States in regards to Syria is *a. how to decide which rebel groups should receive weapons since some are supported

by terror groups. b. how to address the attack on the U.S. embassy in September 2012. c. how to investigate allegations of chemical weapon use on the Syrian people by the Assad regime. d. how to restrict Russia’s involvement in resolving issues in Syria. e. whether to support the government of President Assad.

62. The United States has had a tense relation with Cuba since 1959, when the _________

regime seized power. *a. Castro b. Chavez c. Duvalier d. Guevara e. Peron

63. Which of the following instilled a protective attitude from the United States toward the rest

of the Western hemisphere? a. the Emancipation Proclamation b. NATO c. the New Deal *d. the Monroe Doctrine e. CAFTA

64. Beginning in the 2000s, which disease began its crippling effect on southern Africa to such

an extent that U.S. resources remained dedicated there during the Obama administration?

a. influenza b. malaria c. ebola *d. AIDS e. Zika

65. Which country in Africa experienced a tribal civil war in 1994 that resulted in the massacre

of nearly one million civilians, although the U.S. has provided little humanitarian assistance? a. Ethiopia b. Lesotho c. Libya *d. Rwanda e. Zambia

66. Explain how foreign policy, diplomacy, and national security policy shape the position of the United States in the world.

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67. Describe the role of diplomacy in the U.S. government foreign policy over the past 50 years.

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68. Explain the role of the president in setting foreign policy and national security policy. Discuss both constitutional and informal powers of the president in these roles.

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69. Trace the evolution of American foreign policy from isolationism to global leadership.

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70. Explain the concept of containment and link it to the Truman Doctrine.

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71. Discuss the origins of the war on terror.

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72. Explain how the war on terror has influenced domestic policy and relations with other nations.

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73. Discuss how security and diplomatic challenges that face the U.S. today vary drastically from those just 50 years ago.

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74. Describe the current distribution of nuclear weapons in the world and efforts to control further nuclear proliferation.

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75. Describe the conflict between Israel and the Palestinians and the efforts to bring peace to this troubled part of the world.

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Chapter 18 1. In the United States, we live in a federal system in which a. the states have most of the power. b. local governments create the state governments. c. governmental programs are mostly the exclusive responsibility of the federal

government. *d. there are 50 separate state governments and one national government. e. the states are creatures of the national government.

2. The power to tax and spend are examples of ________ powers of the states. a. implied *b. reserved c. inherent d. remanded e. reprised

3. The states have general ________ power which allows them to impose traffic laws and

regulate pornographic materials. *a. police b. fiduciary c. commerce d. federal e. military

4. The power to regulate intrastate commerce is in the hands of a. Congress. b. local government. c. the president. *d. the states. e. the Supreme Court.

5. The states have a general police power, meaning that the states a. can create limited armed forces. b. have the exclusive right to undertake law enforcement activities. *c. can regulate citizens in the area of safety, health, welfare, and morals. d. can enforce laws without interference from the federal government. e. have the power to collect taxes.

6. With regards to the U.S. Constitution, state and local laws must a. be acknowledged by an existing amendment. b. be in opposition to the Constitution. c. take into account future Supreme Court opinion. *d. not be in conflict with the Constitution. e. be approved by the president.

7. The Constitution outlines in Article VI, Clause 2 that state and local governmental activity is a. permitted in actions that do not involve the national government. b. unlimited because of fears of a strong national government dating to the Articles of

Confederation. c. superior to national law. d. under the oversight of the legislative branch of the national government. *e. restricted because of the supremacy of the national government.

8. In regards to immigration, Utah, Arizona, South Carolina and Alabama have all passed laws

which a. offer in-state tuition to colleges and universities for undocumented students. *b. discourage the residency of undocumented immigrants. c. legally supercede the federal government's position on undocumented immigrants. d. ignore the status of undocumented immigrants, allowing them greater access to

housing and education. e. smooths the pathway to citizenship for undocumented immigrants.

9. Which of the following issues has recently been addressed by the state of Arizona, resulting

in policies that are at odds with federal policies? *a. immigration policy b. maximum speed limits on interstate highways c. establishing an official language d. increasing minimum wage e. gun regulation policy

10. According to historians, the length and mass detail of many state constitutions reflect the a. political involvement of citizens during the 1800s. b. effects of Congress forcing detailed measures on state governments. c. impact of the feminist movement and its leaders. *d. loss of popular confidence in state legislatures in the late 1800s. e. impact of reconstruction following the Civil War.

11. One reason states feel compelled to be specific in their state constitutions is a. to protect themselves from the overreaching authority of the federal government. b. to protect themselves from the overreaching authority of other states. c. because state courts interpret their constitutions in a much more broad and liberal

manner than the Supreme Court interprets the U.S. Constitution. *d. to fill gaps left by the very brief federal Constitution. e. to override provisions in the U.S. Constitution.

12. The constitutional initiative that exists in some states allows a. the governor of a state to call a constitutional convention. b. the state legislature to request that the governor call a constitutional convention. c. the citizens to petition for a constitutional convention. *d. citizens to place a proposed amendment on the ballot without calling a

constitutional convention. e. citizens to vote on proposed U.S. constitutional amendments in general elections.

13. How many states allow for a constitutional initiative? *a. 18 b. 34 c. all of them d. none of them e. 2

14. All state governments in the United States have a(n) a. unicameral legislature. b. parliamentary system of government. c. provision allowing citizens to vote to alter state boundaries. *d. executive, legislative, and judicial branch. e. strong executive branch.

15. During the colonial period, the power of governors appointed by the Crown could be

characterized as *a. powerful. b. weak. c. unknown. d. impartial. e. democratic.

16. Under the views of Jacksonian democracy,

a. the governor should appoint most state officers within the executive branch. *b. the more public officials elected, the more democratic the system. c. the state legislature should be unicameral. d. only the highly educated should be eligible to hold a governmental office. e. the legislature should elect the governor.

17. What characteristic does the text suggest is needed to create a strong governor's office? a. a balanced budget *b. the governor's personality c. voter apathy d. a nonpartisan legislature e. active interest groups

18. In nearly all states, a governor has the power of the item veto which allows him or her to a. make military installations. b. veto a bill after Congress has been dismissed. *c. decrease legislative spending. d. appoint judges. e. redraw district boundaries.

19. If a governor wants to veto a particular section of an appropriations bill, he or she would

implement a(n) ________ veto. a. pocket *b. item c. initiative d. amicus e. recess

20. How many states allow the governor to use the item veto for legislation that does not

involve appropriations? a. 7 b. 26 c. 43 *d. 19 e. 0

21. State legislatures have been often criticized for

a. exercising too much power in the regulation of interstate commerce. b. their handling of foreign trade. *c. being unprofessional and ineffective. d. refusing to consider trivial legislation. e. ignoring the interests of lobbyists.

22. Guaranteeing that one political party remains in control of a particular voting district using

creative map drawing is known as a. partisanship. b. voter fraud. *c. gerrymandering. d. malapportionment. e. benevolent gerrymandering.

23. Malapportionment refers to the skewed distribution of ________ in a state legislative

district. a. incumbents b. judges *c. voters d. businesses e. funds

24. Which statement regarding term limits for state legislators is most accurate? a. All of the states have term limits in place for state legislators. *b. The majority of states do not have laws restricting the number of terms a legislator

can serve. c. Term limits have been found to be unconstitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court. d. Term limits have never been considered for the state level. e. Current politicians often favor term limits because they would be provided job security.

25. Advocates of term limits argue that a. lawmakers who have spent years in public office are in a position to best represent

the interest of voters. *b. interest groups would not have as much influence with legislators who do not have to finance future campaigns. c. with term limits, lawmakers will lack the experience to understand state policy. d. legislators serving limited terms are more likely to be ideologically motivated. e. political corruption is the rule for legislators serving multiple years.

26. States in which serving in the legislature is part-time work and the senator or representative

does not receive a salary large enough to live on are said to have ________ legislators. *a. citizen b. partisan c. fiscal d. lay e. executive

27. Which of the following statements is true regarding state ethics and campaign finance

reform? *a. The amount of information disclosed about donors varies widely, as does the

public’s access to the information. b. The Federal Election Commission oversees state ethics and campaign regulations. c. States are consistent in how they regulate campaign contributions and the disclosure of donors. d. Almost all states require candidates to report the amount and purpose of individual expenditures. e. State reporting requirements have greatly decreased in recent years.

28. Jenna wants to be sure she votes in the next election because her community is voting on a

school bond issue for her district. A school bond issue would likely be introduced to the voters through a(n) a. recall. b. opinion. c. initiative. d. veto. *e. referendum.

29. An initiative can be described as a. an authorization that permits voters to remove an elected official from office before

his or her term has expired. *b. a procedure that allows voters to control the government directly. c. the long ballot that is used in a majority of the states. d. the opportunity for the appellate court to review the decision of the lower court. e. the final opportunity for the executive branch to amend proposed legislation.

30. The right of citizens to remove an elected state official before his or her term of office is

complete is called a. initiative. b. referendum.

*c. recall. d. impeachment. e. mandate.

31. All of the states in the U.S. have major trial courts which are sometimes referred to as

________ courts. a. high b. supreme c. intermediate d. appellate *e. circuit

32. Since the Constitution does not mention local governments, this level of government is said

to be created by a. Congress. b. the counties. c. the federal government. d. the people. *e. the states.

33. Dillon's rule provides a ________ interpretation of the legal status of local governments. a. federal b. global c. very broad d. neutral *e. very narrow

34. A charter is a(n) *a. document issued by a government that grants rights to a person, a group, or a

corporation to carry out specific activities. b. power of a state or local executive during times of martial law. c. policy that allows city-county consolidated governments. d. ruling by a state’s Supreme Court that allows citizens to indict city officials. e. electoral device whereby statutes are referred by the legislature to voters for approval or disapproval.

35. Cooley’s rule is a. a policy that allows city-county consolidated governments. *b. a view that cities should be able to govern themselves.

c. a view that cities are incapable of decision-making without approval of the state

legislature. d. a ruling by the Supreme Court that allows citizens to indict city officials. e. a very narrow interpretation of the legal status of local governments.

36. Which of these characteristics applies to a home rule city? a. must have a population in excess of 50,000 people b. only allows single-family dwellings within its borders *c. allows local voters to frame, adopt, and amend the city’s charter d. not responsible for providing basic services to the public e. has virtually no power

37. The concept of a general law city refers to *a. a city operating under general state laws that apply to all similar governmental

units. b. areas of counties which lie outside of municipal limits. c. municipal areas with overlapping jurisdictions. d. the power of governors during times of martial law. e. a city that receives its law enforcement services from the state police.

38. Which of the following is NOT a form of local government? a. municipality b. county c. special district *d. unincorporated area e. township

39. The chief governmental unit set up by the state to administer state law and business at the

local level is called a(n) *a. county. b. township. c. village. d. special district. e. municipality.

40. One scholar used the phrase “the dark continent of American politics” to describe a. the relationship that exists between the federal government and state governments. b. the relationship that exists between the state governments and cities. *c. the operation of counties in our governmental system.

d. the manner in which Article IV, Section 4 has been implemented. e. American civil liberties since 9/11.

41. Many New England towns relied on the town meeting to conduct government business, but

with interest declining in these, the communities have implemented the ________ system. *a. town manager b. city council c. village board d. county board e. municipal manager

42. A selectperson is a member of the governing group of a community within the ________

system of government. *a. town manager b. town meeting c. county d. municipal e. special district

43. The greatest number of local government units in the United States are in the form of a. town councils. *b. special districts. c. villages. d. townships. e. municipalities.

44. An area that is not located within the boundary of a municipality is called a(n) ________

area. a. unorganized b. differentiated *c. unincorporated d. rural e. district

45. Consolidation is defined as the *a. union of two or more governmental units to form a single unit. b. division of a government into two or more separate units. c. shortening of terms for state legislatures. d. revision of a state constitution to eliminate obsolete clauses.

e. application of state laws to all local governments.

46. Cooperation by two or more units of local government in providing services to their

inhabitants is known as ________ consolidation. a. commission b. primary c. mandated d. council *e. functional

47. Councils of Governments (COGs) are a. special districts created by a municipality. b. national conventions for officers of local and state governments. *c. voluntary organizations of counties and municipalities that tackle area-wide

problems. d. set up to administer revenue sharing among political units in a metropolitan area. e. bodies set up by the states that local governments are required to join.

48. The commission plan and the council-manager plan are both forms of ________

government. a. federal b. special district c. town meeting d. state *e. municipal

49. The commission form of government uses elected members who have a. only executive power. b. judicial and executive powers. *c. legislative and executive powers. d. only legislative power. e. little to no power.

50. The professional chief executive in the council-manager form of government is typically

called the a. mayor. *b. city manager. c. executive council. d. commissioner.

e. state representative.

51. What is seen as the biggest detriment to the commission and council-manager forms of

government? a. There is no one assigned to oversee the city council. b. The voters are not well-represented by the elected officials. c. They are used by almost all municipalities so it is difficult to change them. d. The elected officials are typically partisan. *e. There is not a single, strong political executive leader.

52. The mayor-administrator form of government is often used in *a. large cities that lack a strong mayor. b. small towns governed by a town council. c. New England town hall government. d. rural areas with small populations. e. suburbans areas that must conform with urban municipal code.

53. The most widely-used form of municipal government is the ________ plan. *a. mayor-council b. mayor-administrator c. council-manager d. commission e. council-council

54. The two forms of mayor-council government are known as a. high and low. b. partisan and nonpartisan. *c. strong and weak. d. laissez-faire and authoritarian. e. volunteer and professional.

55. The largest expense at the state level of government is for a. education. b. parks and recreation. c. police. d. highways. *e. welfare.

56. Compared to state and local expenditures for education, the federal government allocates a. no funds for public education. b. matching funds for public education. c. more than 45% of its budget to education. *d. less than 5% of its budget to education. e. the majority of the funds for elementary, and secondary education.

57. The tax that generates the most income for states is the __________ tax. a. income b. farm subsidy c. gasoline *d. general sales e. property

58. A tax on the value of real estate is called a(n) ________ tax. a. excise b. income c. inheritance d. sales *e. property

59. Beginning in the 1980s, an increasingly popular way for states to raise general-fund money

was a. interest income. *b. state lotteries. c. state-owned banks. d. state-owned tobacco stores. e. tuition increases.

60. In the 1990s, most states increased spending for education, criminal justice, and *a. health care. b. highways. c. public services. d. public transportation. e. social welfare.

61. With the exception of Vermont, all states are required to

a. run a budget deficit. b. have voters approve their budget. c. submit a budget to Congress. *d. balance their budget. e. earmark funds for welfare in the budget.

62. A major factor in causing budget problems for most states in the early 2000s was the

increased cost of *a. health care. b. transportation. c. election administration. d. technology. e. import taxes.

63. The revenues generated from municipal utilities such as water and electric power are

sources of income for ________ government. a. district b. federal c. only state *d. local and state e. only local

64. According to the text, many states recovered from the 2008-2009 recession by ________,

with some enjoying strong economic expansion due to ________. a. 2010; the strengthening agricultural industry *b. 2011; revisions in the federal tax code c. 2012; passage of the Affordable Care Act d. 2013; a surplus of clean water e. 2014; the booming petroleum industry

65. As states began to recover from the 2008-2009 recession, those states that had budget

surpluses faced the problem of a. how to avoid a cut in funding by the federal government. *b. what services to restore. c. which companies to dissolve. d. when to increase taxes. e. how to address entitlement programs.

66. Compare and contrast the U.S. Constitution to state constitutions.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

67. Discuss the relationship of state laws and constitutions to the U.S. Constitution and federal law.

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Students’ answers may vary.

68. Discuss the roles and results of gerrymandering and malapportionment in state legislatures.

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Students’ answers may vary.

69. Outline the differences between an initiative, a referendum and a recall, and explain their purpose within state government.

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Students’ answers may vary.

70. Explain the differences between Dillon’s rule and Cooley’s rule as related to local government.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.

71. Describe four major types of local government units.

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Students’ answers may vary.

72. Describe the mayor-council form of municipal government.

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Students’ answers may vary.

73. Explain the process of consolidation in government.

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Students’ answers may vary.

74. Describe "machine politics" and the role it played in city government in the United States.

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Students’ answers may vary.

75. Discuss the sources of revenue and also the expenditures for state and local governments.

Correct Answer:

Students’ answers may vary.