TEST BANK for Social Psychology, 7th Canadian Edition. by Elliot Aronson, Timothy D. Wilson and Robi

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Chap 01_3e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is the most general term for the type of research in which two or more variables are measured and compared to determine the extent to which they are associated? a. the experimental method b. the correlational method c. quasi-experimental design d. random assignment 2. Researchers are interested in whether the amount of violent video games played as a child is related to aggression in adulthood. To answer this question, they collected data on a group of 200 people each year from the ages of 9–25. This study is BEST considered an example of a(n): a. longitudinal design. b. correlational design. c. experimental design. d. quasi-experiment.

3. _____ refers to the judgment that for a particular experiment, it is possible to conclude that the independent variable caused the change in the dependent variable. a. Internal validity b. Operationalization c. Construct validity d. External validity 4. Which of the following is NOT an official ethical requirement for research with human subjects? a. Participants must be given the chance for informed consent and be free to withdraw at any time. b. Projects must be approved by an institutional review board. c. The full purpose of a study must be explained to participants before they begin. d. Participants should be assured that efforts will be taken to protect the confidentiality and anonymity of their data.

5. Carol and Dean are moving to a new state and trying to decide between three cities to live in. As a child, Carol knew someone from one of these cities whom she did not like, and thinks negatively about this city as a result. When visiting this city, Carol only notices things such as potholes in the road, rundown buildings, and litter in the street. Which psychological concept best explains Carol's behavior? a. reverse causality b. causal attributions c. confirmation bias d. stereotype threat

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Chap 01_3e 6. An if-then statement that specifies what the relationships between variables should be like if a theory is correct is called a: a. correlation coefficient. b. hypothesis. c. research question. d. causal attribution.

7. Which of the following techniques of measurement is NOT considered a tool of the neuroscience perspective in social psychology? a. brain imaging b. assessing cardiovascular functioning c. assessing people's behaviors d. measuring brain waves 8. Lord and colleagues had psychology students read about two studies on the social impact of capital punishment. One study seemed to confirm that the death penalty is effective as a crime deterrent, while the other study suggested that it is not effective. Students on both sides of the debate came away holding their initial positions even more strongly than before. This finding is evidence of: a. social comparison. b. confirmation bias. c. causal attribution. d. hypocrisy.

9. Which of the following events had a major influence on the history of social psychology? a. the economic crisis of the 1970s b. World War II c. the Cold War d. the development of institutional care for people with severe personality disorders 10. Simon is a very extraverted person. However, at school he rarely talks to his classmates. What is the best explanation of Simon's behavior in this case? a. his personality b. the situation c. his habits d. the interaction of the situation and his personality

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Chap 01_3e 11. Which of the following instances is an example of the way we use social comparisons to self-evaluate? a. An instructor provides personal feedback on a test. b. A person shooting rolled-up paper balls into a wastebasket is able to make three baskets. c. A child thinks about how tall she is by looking around at the other children in her classroom. d. A mother decides that her son is her favorite person in the world.

12. Which of the following sequences BEST demonstrates the cycle of theory and research in science? a. Hypothesis → Theory→ Revised Theory → Research Outcome b. Theory → Hypothesis → Revised Theory → Research Outcome c. Hypothesis → Theory → Research Outcome → Revised Theory d. Theory → Hypothesis → Research Outcome → Revised Theory 13. When we randomly assign participants to different conditions of a variable, we are creating a(n): a. independent variable. b. dependent variable. c. independent and a dependent variable. d. correlation coefficient.

14. A researcher counts the number of people who look both ways before crossing the street. She finds that people are more likely to do so when by themselves rather than in groups. This is an example of: a. experimental research. b. field research. c. a case study. d. pilot research.

15. Which of the following is NOT a form of validity which social psychologists are interested in obtaining? a. construct b. reverse causality c. external d. internal 16. A positive or negative value that shows the strength and direction of the association between two variables is referred to as a: a. point estimate. b. dependent variable. c. conceptual replication. d. correlation coefficient.

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Chap 01_3e 17. A developmental psychologist wants to understand how people's religious beliefs develop through adolescence and early adulthood. Which of the following research approaches is best suited for answering this question? a. correlational b. experimental c. field d. longitudinal 18. Which of the following statements is MOST true regarding scientific theories? a. If the methods do not exist to test hypotheses derived from the theory, the theory is useless. b. A scientific theory should be designed to match the methods and techniques currently available for scientific testing. c. Even if the methods do not currently exist for fully testing its hypotheses, a theory may still ultimately be shown to be an accurate representation of reality. d. A theory should be able to show how the methods that have been used to test previous theories are inadequate and out of date.

19. A researcher is able to replicate her study results using the same operational definitions in three countries other than the country where she originally conducted the research. By doing so, she has primarily increased the _____ of her finding. a. conceptual replicability b. construct validity c. internal validity d. external validity 20. What does it mean to say that humans are cultural animals? a. Humans create their own symbolic conception of reality. b. Humans tend to live socially in groups. c. Humans in different groups around the world are hostile toward members of other groups. d. Humans are actually driven by instincts.

21. The _____ method can be used to make researchers more confident about likely causal order. a. correlational b. experimental c. field study d. quasi-experiment

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Chap 01_3e 22. A health psychologist wants to understand whether self-esteem is related to healthy eating. Which of the following research approaches is best suited for answering this question? a. correlational b. experimental c. field d. longitudinal 23. The belief that social behavior is shaped by experiences is reflective of: a. psychoanalytic theory. b. evolutionary theory. c. the social cognitive perspective. d. behaviorism.

24. Which of the following terms best describes the human tendency to avoid strenuous mental effort? a. cognitive misers b. cognitive conservatives c. confirmation bias d. cultural knowledge 25. Lucas has never seen a germ, and he also hasn't read any of the medical research supporting germ theory.

However, Lucas believes that if he catches a cold, it is because of a germ. Lucas is relying on _____ to understand how colds happen. a. an existential perspective b. confirmation bias c. cultural knowledge d. the scientific method 26. The concept of adaptation is most central for which influential perspective in contemporary social psychology? a. the existential perspective b. the evolutionary perspective c. the neuroscience perspective d. the cultural perspective 27. Power analysis is used to: a. define independent and dependent variables. b. establish internal validity. c. establish external validity. d. determine appropriate sample size.

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Chap 01_3e 28. What is the definition of cultural knowledge? a. a store of information accumulated in a culture, about how the world works b. our understanding of a given culture using the scientific method c. the way in which people understand themselves through comparison with others d. people's consistent preferences and ways of thinking that are consistent across situations and time 29. If in an experiment the independent variable is in fact a manipulation of what was intended and the dependent variable is in fact a measure of what was intended, then the experiment can be said to be high in: a. construct validity. b. external validity. c. significance. d. practical value.

30. Research demonstrates that when Black and White students are reminded of their race (or not) before taking a test, Black students, but not White students, show lowered performance in the condition where they are reminded of their race. This result shows: a. a general effect of race on test performance. b. a general effect of the extent to which people are thinking about their race on test performance. c. an interaction between the race of participant and the extent to which people are thinking about their race before a test. d. a correlation between racial identity and the extent to which one is thinking about their race prior to a test.

31. Taylor is writing his doctoral dissertation on the relationship between musical and mathematical ability. To do so, he analyzes a large number of previously conducted studies, in order to understand the nature of this relationship. What is Taylor conducting? a. power analysis. b. meta-analysis. c. direct replication. d. conceptual replication.

32. Which of the following statements is true regarding the finding that there is a negative correlation among stigmatized group members between stigma consciousness and GPA? a. It allows us to conclude that stigma consciousness and GPA are completely unrelated variables. b. It is consistent with a hypothesis that can be derived from the theory of stereotype threat. c. It strongly suggests that a person's level of stigma consciousness causally determines their GPA. d. It suggests that if we know a person's level of stigma consciousness, we can predict with near-perfect accuracy what their GPA will be.

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Chap 01_3e 33. Researchers find that attendance at horror movies is associated with neuroticism. They conclude that attending horror movies causes people to be more neurotic. Which of the following statements does NOT describe a problem with their claim? a. It's possible that instead neurotic people like horror movies more than other people do. b. It's possible that watching horror films reminds people of their real-life problems, and this in turn makes them more neurotic. c. People who are lonely may be both more neurotic and more likely to attend horror movies. d. Horror movies may be marketed in ways designed to be more appealing for neurotic individuals, causing them to attend such movies at a higher rate.

34. A researcher believes that receiving a self-esteem threat will make participants more depressed. She conducts a study in which participants are randomly assigned to receive negative feedback on a personality test, and she then measures their level of depression. She tells participants that the study is about validation of personality measures. In this example, validation of personality measures is: a. an operational definition. b. a cover story. c. a conceptual variable. d. internal validity.

35. Morgan believes that her mom is ignoring her because of a recent argument over her curfew, even though her mom says that she is fine. Morgan is making a: a. random assignment. b. causal attribution. c. third variable assumption. d. social comparison.

36. Which of the following is TRUE? a. Correlation implies causation. b. Correlation means that there is no causal relationship. c. Correlation may indicate causation, but further research is needed to make that claim. d. We can only understand correlation, but not causation.

37. Which one of the following statements is FALSE? a. Some hypotheses can be effectively tested using a correlational approach. b. A correlation between two variables may be primarily driven by a third variable that is associated with both. c. Correlation does not imply causation. d. Two variables do not need to be correlated with each other for one to have a causal influence on the other.

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Chap 01_3e 38. The earliest treatments of social psychology (such as the theories of Spencer and McDougall) tended to emphasize: a. a view of humans as driven by unconscious motivation. b. an instinct-based view of human behavior. c. a view of humans as machinelike information processors. d. a reinforcement-centered view of humans as learning from experience.

39. Dr. R is replicating a study on stereotype threat. Dr. R repeats the methods and procedures used in Dr. Steele's original study. Dr. R is engaging in: a. conceptual replication. b. meta-analysis. c. indirect replication. d. direct replication.

40. A researcher finds that self-esteem is positively correlated with academic performance. What can the researcher conclude from this fact about the causal relationship between these variables? a. High self-esteem causes people to perform better academically. b. People who perform better academically have higher self-esteem as a result. c. High self-esteem and academic performance both have causal influence on each other. d. It is impossible to conclude anything about the causal relationship between these variables based on the given data.

41. In an experiment, the measured variable is also known as the _____ variable. a. independent b. dependent c. extraneous d. confounding 42. Random assignment refers to a procedure through which: a. participants are assigned to experimental conditions in such a way that they have an equal chance of being in any condition. b. participants are recruited from a broader population such that any member of the population has an equal chance of being in the study. c. participants are kept unaware of the purpose of the study until they are suddenly made aware of it after the independent variable has been administered. d. quasi-experiments can be made to approximate true experiments.

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Chap 01_3e 43. Jacob is a male blue-collar worker attending a group therapy session. He knows that people from his background are thought of as not being in touch with their feelings and having quick tempers. During the session, he worries about how he will appear, and he ends up getting angry and losing his temper as a result of this anxiety. Jacob's case is an example of: a. a cognitive miser. b. stereotype threat. c. demand characteristics. d. confirmation bias.

44. The third variable problem refers to the fact that: a. experiments allow researchers to assess relationships between independent variables, dependent variables, and third variables. b. almost all phenomena in social psychology are driven by the interaction between three identifiable variables. c. a correlation between two variables may be driven by their mutual association with another variable. d. researchers in social psychology tend to statistically investigate the relationships between only three variables at a time.

45. What phenomena were behaviorists primarily interested in measuring? a. mental states b. observable behaviors c. neurological reflexes d. unconscious drives 46. A group of social psychologists found that making people perform a difficult task in a short period of time leads them to recall less information about the task after the fact. The researchers conclude that stress impairs memory. Which of the following best represents a conceptual replication of this finding? a. an identical study as was first conducted b. a study that is very similar to the original study, except the independent variable is changed from the difficult task to an easy task c. a study that is very similar to the original study, except the dependent variable is changed from memory to mood d. a study that substitutes the difficult task for a different stressful one 47. Which theory suggests that people are like intuitive scientists, using reasoning and observation to understand the nature of the social world? a. social cognition theory b. social comparison theory c. behaviorism d. attribution theory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_3e 48. A specific, concrete method of measuring or manipulating a conceptual variable is referred to as a(n): a. operational definition. b. independent variable. c. dependent variable. d. correlation coefficient.

49. In science, _____ are the content of the observations that have been made and replicated by scientists, while _____ are the explanations given by scientists for that content. a. studies; hypotheses b. hypotheses; studies c. facts; theories d. theories; facts 50. The process whereby scientists observe events, look for patterns, and evaluate theories proposed to explain those patterns is referred to as: a. research. b. a priori causal theory. c. intuitive knowledge. d. causal attribution.

51. What is the best research method for determining whether one variable has a causal influence on another? a. a longitudinal study b. an experiment c. a correlational study d. a quasi-experiment 52. Emiliano believes that dogs are better than cats. One day, he decides to search the Internet to see if his opinion is rooted in fact. He reads several articles that consider all sides of the matter, presenting a rather blurry picture of whether humans should prefer the company of dogs or cats. What does research suggest Emiliano is most likely to conclude based on reading all this new information? a. Dogs are better than cats. b. Cats are better than dogs. c. Both animals should be loved equally. d. There is no way to answer the question definitively.

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Chap 01_3e 53. A researcher finds that the number of swimming pools in an area is correlated with the number of people that die from heatstroke. However, the researcher realizes that there is a third variable problem related to this finding. What might this problem be? a. It is possible that swimming causes people to die from heatstroke. b. Places that regularly have high temperatures are more likely to both have a lot of swimming pools and heatstroke deaths. c. People dying from heatstroke causes others to want to go swimming more. d. It is impossible to say.

54. A quasi-experiment is a: a. study in which naturally occurring groups of participants are compared on a dependent variable without random assignment. b. study in which only half of the participants can be randomly assigned to a condition. c. set of studies that include both experimental and correlational components. d. study in which two independent variables interact to produce changes in the dependent variable.

55. Which of the following is true of the very first social psychology textbook? a. It was inspired by Herbert Spencer's extensions of Darwin's ideas about evolution. b. It was inspired by the events of World War II. c. It ignored the role of experience in behavior. d. It ignored the role of instinct in behavior.

56. A study demonstrated that if a participant is being interviewed by a person who taps her feet, the participant is also more likely to tap his feet; and if he is being interviewed by a person who scratches her head, the participant is also more likely to scratch his head. Which principle does this finding BEST demonstrate? a. People are biased toward trying to confirm what they already know. b. The act of observing behavior can change that behavior. c. People develop a priori causal theories to explain their behavior. d. People are cognitive misers.

57. The reverse causality problem refers to what phenomenon? a. the fact that when a correlation is found between two variables, it may be impossible to determine which variable causes the other b. the fact that people's thoughts about the future can influence their present behaviors c. the fact that people will explain their own behavior by relying on culturally common theories or factors that happen to be salient at the moment d. the fact that there are many situations in which variables influence each other in a reciprocal fashion

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Chap 01_3e 58. The chief weakness of a field study is that: a. it captures social behavior as it naturally occurs instead of in the laboratory. b. the researchers have too much control over the variables in the study. c. the researchers lose control over the variables in the study. d. there are too many choices of independent variables.

59. Which of the following is the best example of the power of the situation? a. U.S. citizens vary in the extent to which they conform to the norms of their culture. b. Everyone in a library tends to be quiet. c. Extraverted people are more likely than introverted people to talk at a party. d. A person tends to have a stable identity that is constant through different environments.

60. What is the ultimate function of a good theory in social psychology? a. to control the variables b. to be useful c. to show relationships among the variables d. to reduce the number of unanswered questions 61. Which of the following is NOT one of the major perspectives that provide an integrated view of human social behavior in contemporary social psychology? a. the existential perspective b. the evolutionary perspective c. the instinct-based perspective d. the cognitive perspective 62. While social psychology in the first half of the 20th century tended to stress _____, social psychology from the second half of the 20th century to the present stresses _____. a. an instinct-based approach; a behaviorist approach b. a behaviorist approach; an instinct-based approach c. specific, topic-based theories; broad views of human sociality d. broad views of human social behavior; specific, topic-based theories 63. A social psychologists states that "If people become more politically conservative as they age, then younger people are likely to react to news stories differently than older people." Which type of scientific statement is this? a. theory b. research c. fact d. hypothesis

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Chap 01_3e 64. A researcher assesses anxiety by measuring heart rate. In this study, anxiety is the _____ and rapid heart rate is the _____. a. abstract conceptual variable; operational definition b. operational definition; abstract conceptual variable c. independent variable; dependent variable d. dependent variable; independent variable 65. Which of the following is NOT a reason why people are often limited in their ability to explain the causes of others' behavior? a. The act of observing behavior might change it. b. People are biased toward trying to confirm what they already believe and expect. c. People's observations come from a limited, idiosyncratic perspective. d. People spend as much cognitive energy as possible trying to uncover why a given situation happened.

66. What is social psychology? a. the scientific study of society as a psychological entity (i.e., society as a motivated agent) b. the scientific study of how individual differences in social-emotional functioning drive a person's behavior across a variety of situations c. the scientific study of the causes and consequences of people's thoughts, feelings, and actions regarding themselves and other people d. the scientific study of the relationships between, and development of, different societies 67. Which of these is NOT a reason why deception is commonly used in social psychological experiments? a. to determine if participants can guess how they are being deceived b. to reduce the potential influence of demand characteristics c. to create the conditions necessary to test a hypothesis d. to create an artificial situation that is psychologically involving and convincing for the participants 68. Ezekiel is often motivated to work hard because he feels that his life is very meaningful. Which of the following perspectives psychology is BEST able to help us understand Ezekiel's experience? a. the existential perspective b. the evolutionary perspective c. the social cognition perspective d. the neuroscience perspective

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Chap 01_3e 69. Which aspect of social psychology MOST distinguishes it from many other ways of understanding the causes and consequences of people's social behavior, such as philosophy or general cultural knowledge? a. the idea that humans are inherently social b. an emphasis on the scientific method c. a sense that people's dispositions play a major role in determining their behavior d. the use of observations from the real world to form assumptions 70. A researcher randomly assigns a group of male and female college students to either gossip about their friends or to play a game of basketball. Afterward, the researcher administers the students a measure of happiness. The finding is that students who played basketball are happier than those who gossiped. What is the MOST likely cause of this outcome? a. Men were happier overall than women. b. Students who like to play sports were happier than students who don't like to play sports. c. Playing basketball made students happier than gossiping did. d. The people in the basketball-playing condition were already happier to begin with.

71. _____ methods are preferable for determining causal relationships between variables, but _____ methods are preferable for determining the influence of personality or dispositional variables. a. Correlational; longitudinal b. Longitudinal; correlational c. Correlational; experimental d. Experimental; correlational 72. What does it mean to say that a theory is parsimonious? a. It is good at parsing large observations into sets of smaller observations. b. It explains a large number of diverse observations with many and complex principles. c. It generates a very large number of hypotheses. d. It explains a large number of diverse observations with relatively few and simple principles.

73. A pattern of results in which the effect of one independent variable on a dependent variable depends on the level of another independent variable is referred to as: a. a main effect. b. a correlation. c. a correlation coefficient. d. an interaction.

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Chap 01_3e 74. Behaviorists emphasize that human behavior is driven primarily by: a. unconscious motivation. b. instinct. c. cognitive processes. d. learning from past experiences.

75. The notion that much of human social behavior is driven by forces outside of conscious awareness is critical to which perspective? a. the psychoanalytic perspective b. the behaviorist perspective c. the social cognition perspective d. the evolutionary perspective 76. In their research on stereotype threat, Pinel and colleagues found a negative correlation among stigmatized group members between stigma consciousness and GPA. This study was designed as a test of which of the following hypotheses? a. The more a person is conscious of the negative stereotype of his or her group, the worse that person will perform in areas related to the stereotype. b. Situations that make a negative stereotype of a person's group prominent in the person's mind will lead to worse performance than situations that do not. c. People who belong to a stereotyped group will be more likely than those who don't to have a low GPA. d. Being aware of stigmatization of one's group generally leads to an inflated sense of GPA. 77. Researchers Nisbett and Wilson found that when shoppers were asked to choose among different silk stockings, the primary factor influencing their decision was the positioning of the stockings on the table.

However, when asked why they chose the stockings they chose, the shoppers generated a variety of different reasons but never mentioned the positioning of the stockings. This finding is evidence that: a. a behaviorist perspective provides the most insight into psychology. b. people rely on a priori causal theories to explain their behavior. c. people are the best sources of information about their own behavior. d. cultural knowledge is generally accurate.

78. Which of the following is NOT a reason why researchers are often skeptical about people's self-reported accounts and explanations of their own behavior? a. People often don't tell the truth. b. People sometimes repress unpleasant information. c. People often rely on a priori causal theories to explain their behavior. d. People have internal access to the processes that lead to their thoughts, judgments, and preferences.

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Chap 01_3e 79. A social psychologist wants to understand whether reading about natural disasters influences people's intentions to travel internationally. To test this possibility, the researcher randomly assigns people to read about either a natural disaster or a control topic, and then asks about their travel intentions. This study design is best described as _____. a. correlational b. experimental c. field d. longitudinal 80. Within the scientific method, a theory is: a. a narrative about the origin of some psychological trait. b. an explanation (potentially false) that people give for their own behavior. c. an explanation for how and why variables are related to each other. d. a prediction about what will occur given certain specified conditions.

81. Which of the following is NOT a reason why experiments help researchers determine causality? a. In an experiment, the researcher can control the temporal sequence of two variables. b. Because they take place in a controlled laboratory setting, experiments have greater external validity. c. Participants can be randomly assigned to different conditions of the independent variable. d. The experimenter can hold everything constant except for the variable being manipulated.

82. What is the term for the way an individual understands his or her social world? a. social cognition b. the existential perspective c. embodied cognition d. a priori causal theory 83. Which of the following questions cannot be answered by the scientific method? a. What is the effect of religious participation on health? b. Which is the correct religion? c. How do religious beliefs develop over the life span? d. How do cognitive styles influence religious beliefs?

84. A researcher believes that the more neurotic a person is, the more that person will tend to experience negative emotions. This is an example of a(n): a. third variable problem. b. experimental/causal hypothesis. c. correlational hypothesis. d. theory.

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Chap 01_3e 85. In the scientific method, _____ are derived from _____, in order to test the accuracy of the latter. a. hypotheses; theories b. theories; hypotheses c. experiments; correlations d. hypotheses; experiments 86. Which of the following problems is not primarily solved by random assignment to a condition? a. the third variable problem b. the causal sequence problem c. the fact that participants might differ in their level of the dependent variable prior to the study d. the fact that random factors experienced by different participants the day of the study might contribute to their scores on the dependent variable 87. Laura just participated in a psychological experiment that asked her to recount a painful experience.

Afterward, the researchers tell Laura about the purpose of the experiment and invite her to ask any questions about her participation in it. What part of the research process is this? a. informed consent b. debriefing c. unethical research d. experimenter biasing 88. A researcher conducts a study in which Native Americans and White people are asked about their attitudes toward the environment. The researcher hypothesizes that Native Americans will generally be more protective of the environment. This study is best characterized as: a. a correlational design. b. an experiment. c. a quasi-experiment. d. field research.

89. From the social cognitive perspective, what is the primary metaphor for understanding human beings? a. a tumultuous storm of conflicting drives b. a blank slate c. an information processor d. a social animal

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Chap 01_3e 90. What is the definition of a confound? a. an individual difference between participants that may be contributing to their scores in an experiment b. a problem with the temporal order of a study which leaves open the question of reverse causality c. a variable other than the variable intended to be manipulated that may be responsible for an observed effect d. any source of random error contributing to the outcome of a study 91. Which of the following procedures is a major ethical safeguard against any negative feelings that might be induced by deception in a study? a. informed consent b. a thorough debriefing c. a guarantee of anonymity d. payment of participants 92. Akira got in a car accident recently. After assessing the situation, he believes that the accident was the other driver's fault. Akira now pays close attention to the behavior of other drivers, trying to anticipate how their mistakes might cause an accident. What does this example BEST demonstrate? a. the importance of an evolutionary perspective b. our reliance on social comparison c. the power of the situation d. the powerful influence of social cognition 93. Which of the following potential problems with research on human subjects is NOT considered an important ethical issue? a. the possibility that participants might experience more stress during a study than they would in their everyday life b. the use of deception in experiments c. the fact that college students often participate in studies as part of their education d. the possibility of long-term physical or psychological damage from a study 94. What is a reason posited by stereotype threat theory for shortfalls in performance by members of stigmatized groups? a. Members of stigmatized groups are threatening to members of majority groups, who then stereotype the stigmatized group members. b. Because of constant exposure to stereotypes, members of stigmatized groups have stopped caring about their performance. c. Members of stigmatized groups experience more threats on a day-to-day basis. d. Situations that remind stigmatized group members of negative stereotypes about their group cause them to worry about their performance.

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Chap 01_3e 95. Walton and Cohen conducted a study in which they intervened in freshman college students' experience by having them read either an essay about how stress is a normal part of the college transition or a control essay.

What did the researchers find when they tracked the students' GPAs over the course of the next three years? a. The treatment had no effect. b. All students who read an essay about stress being normal had higher GPAs than those who did not. c. Black students who read an essay about stress being normal had higher GPAs than Black students who did not. d. White students who read an essay about stress being normal had lower GPAs than Black students who read the same essay.

96. The fact that people tend to latch onto quick and easy answers to questions, rather than expending much mental effort, has led researchers to conclude that people are: a. social cognizers. b. introspective. c. cognitive misers. d. intuitive scientists.

97. One of the primary potential problems in the research process is: a. lack of random assignment. b. experimenter bias. c. lack of construct validity. d. moderator variables.

98. A researcher believes that thinking about clowns will make people more aggressive. He randomly assigns some people to see pictures of clowns and other people to read a description of a calm forest. He finds that people who looked at pictures of clowns behaved more aggressively. However, there is at least one confound in this study. What is that confound? a. The researcher has no theoretical basis for this effect. b. Not all people will become aggressive when they think about clowns. c. Some people looked at pictures, while others read text. d. Looking at pictures of clowns may not have been a good operational definition of thinking about clowns.

99. A researcher finds a substantial negative correlation between a measure of anxiety and a measure of life satisfaction. How should we interpret the relationship between these variables? a. There is no relationship between anxiety and life satisfaction. b. The higher a person scores on anxiety, the higher they score on life satisfaction. c. The higher a person scores on anxiety, the lower they score on life satisfaction. d. Anxiety reduces life satisfaction.

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Chap 01_3e 100. Scientists propose that the evolution of species occurs through the process of natural selection. If this is correct, then it should follow that if two groups of fruit flies from the same species are kept in radically different environments, genetic differences will emerge between the two groups over successive generations.

In this example, the statement about how members of the same fruit fly species will begin to differ can be referred to as: a. a theory. b. an a priori causal theory. c. a hypothesis. d. research.

101. A study in which a researcher takes active control of an independent variable, manipulates it, and observes its effect on a dependent variable is called a(n): a. correlational study. b. longitudinal study. c. experiment. d. quasi-experiment.

102. According to stereotype threat theory, why will a member of a group that is negatively stereotyped for performance on a task feel threatened when he or she is performing that task? a. The group member will worry that their performance might reflect on the whole group. b. The group member will desire to confirm the stereotype. c. The group member will encounter direct stereotypes from members of other groups while performing the task. d. It is objectively more difficult for members of that group to perform well on such a task.

103. A social psychologist wants to understand whether people with more expensive cars are more or less likely to stop at stop signs than are people with less expensive cars. Which of the following research approaches is best suited for answering this question? a. theory b. experimental c. field d. longitudinal 104. Which of the following is NOT something that a good theory in social psychology should be required to do? a. generate new questions b. provide direction for research c. show how a correlation explains causation d. explain observations

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Chap 01_3e 105. Keeping researchers blind to a condition primarily deals with what problem? a. experimenter bias b. external validity c. the third variable problem d. random error 106. What is one of the ultimate conclusions to be drawn from Nisbett and Wilson's research demonstrating people's limitations in explaining their own behavior? a. While people have access to the products of their thought processes, they have little access to those processes themselves. b. Dispositional factors are more important than situational factors in determining how people behave. c. Situational factors are more important than dispositional factors in determining the explanations people give for their own behavior. d. Most people have surprisingly strong powers of introspection.

107. In experimental research, the _____ is what we believe is being affected by the _____, which we believe to be the cause. a. interaction; correlation coefficient b. correlation coefficient; interaction c. independent variable; dependent variable d. dependent variable; independent variable 108. Which of the following statements is most accurate? a. A given theory should generate multiple hypotheses. b. A given hypothesis should only generate one theory. c. If a hypothesis derived from a theory is disproven, then the theory itself should be discarded. d. Theories cannot be revised once they have been used.

109. Which of these statements does NOT capture a limitation of science? a. Through competition between scientists, many hypotheses are disproven and theories eventually discarded. b. There are aspects of reality that humans cannot know. c. Human values exert an influence on the way science is conducted. d. Because scientists are human, they often apply the scientific method in a biased way.

110. When deception is used in research, participants should receive _____ after their participation. a. an apology b. extra compensation c. a debriefing d. demand characteristics Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_3e 111. In an experiment, participants are randomly assigned to different levels of the: a. independent variable. b. dependent variable. c. independent and dependent variables. d. third variable.

112. Which of the following tactics does NOT help eliminate confounds from research? a. random assignment to conditions b. making sure to get a random sample from the population of interest c. anticipating alternate explanations and including variables relevant to these explanations as control conditions d. performing conceptual replications 113. If two psychological variables are correlated at r = +1.0, this probably means that: a. the two variables are measuring the same underlying construct. b. the two variables are completely independent of one another. c. the two variables are moderately related. d. the higher you score on one variable, the lower you score on the other.

114. Which of the following assumptions is NOT one of the four core assumptions of social psychology? a. Behavior is determined exclusively by situations. b. Virtually all human thought is social in nature. c. Social cognition has a strong influence on social behavior. d. The scientific method is essential for understanding the roots of social behavior.

115. Researchers are interested in studying whether intelligence is related to agreeableness. To examine this, they conduct a correlational study that compares GPA to the number of followers that a person has on social media. This study has weak _____ validity. a. construct b. interaction c. external d. replicating

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Chap 01_3e 116. In a famous study, participants were told they were teachers in an experiment who were going to give instructions to a learner. When the learner failed to do well, the participants were ordered to give the learner electric shocks. The learner was actually an actor working for the study organizers, and not a real participant.

The learner in this study was what is called: a. a confederate. b. a research assistant. c. an experimenter. d. an ersatz participant.

117. The content of research observations that have been repeatedly found by many researchers is called a(n): a. fact. b. theory. c. hypothesis. d. explanation.

118. Researchers are interested in the amount of time that people spend socializing. To examine this, they survey a group of college students and conclude that people spend roughly half of their time socializing. This study has weak _____ validity. a. construct b. internal c. external d. replicating 119. A researcher believes that people who have thought about times when others helped them in the past will be more likely to help someone else. To test this, she brings participants to the lab for what they are told is a study called Being Good Citizens. Participants are randomly assigned to think about a time when someone helped them or to think about a different topic; then they are given the opportunity to donate money to a charity. In this example, the study title Being Good Citizens is likely an example of: a. an extraneous variable. b. a demand characteristic. c. a confound. d. a debriefing.

120. Confirmation bias is: a. the tendency to be more positive than negative when processing social input. b. the tendency to process information in a manner that conforms to what we desire and expect. c. a form of prejudice based on familiarity with outgroup members. d. an automatically higher level of agreement with everything that is being said to one at the moment.

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Chap 01_3e 121. Consistent preferences, ways of thinking, and behavioral tendencies that manifest across different situations and over time are referred to as: a. dispositions. b. situational influences. c. selves. d. core attitudes.

122. Which of the following statements about scientific ethics is FALSE? a. In the U.S., all experimentation using human subjects must be approved by a review board. b. It is sometimes considered appropriate to deceive participants. c. Scientists have always abided by ethical principles. d. Potential benefits should outweigh potential risks.

123. According to social psychology, behavior is influenced by both the _____ and the _____. a. person; situation b. person; disposition c. rules; choices d. disposition; perception 124. A study that is repeated with the major conceptual variables operationalized differently, but yielding similar results, is said to have been: a. externally validated. b. internally validated. c. conceptually replicated. d. directly replicated.

125. Leo thinks that his brother is acting strangely because he ate too much sugar. What is Leo making? a. correlational observation b. causal attribution c. third variable assumption d. social comparison 126. Identify and briefly discuss three conditions that must be satisfied in order for a study to be a true experiment.

Identify the types of variables involved in an experiment and how they are administered.

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Chap 01_3e 127. Define an interaction between two variables. Give an example of an interaction, one that is either hypothetical or taken from research.

128. Discuss some of the reasons why people are not very accurate when it comes to explaining their own behavior, and the behaviors of others, in their day-to-day lives. Inform your answer with your understanding of confirmation bias, mental effort, and the shaping influence of motives on the way people think. What are some examples from your own life that support the idea that people often don't understand the true causes of their behavior?

129. Do you believe that the use of deception is justified in social psychological experiments? Or do you think that deception is never necessary or justified? Provide supporting arguments for your position.

130. How do true experimental designs eliminate the reverse causality and third variable problems?

131. Discuss at least two of the four limitations of science. Do you agree that science truly has these limits? What is an example of an important phenomenon that science and social psychology in particular may not be able to address? Why is science important in spite of these limits?

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Chap 01_3e 132. List and briefly discuss four of the five functions that a good theory in social psychology should be able to serve.

133. Explain the two primary reasons for why a correlation between two variables does not confirm that the first variable causes the second.

134. Define external validity. Why is this form of validity important? What might be a threat to this form of validity in standard social psychological research?

135. Describe the three major perspectives on human behavior that were prominent prior to the rise of social psychology. What did each of these perspectives primarily emphasize as the explanatory force driving social behavior?

136. List and briefly characterize three of the five perspectives that have emerged in the last few decades of social psychology to contribute to a more integrative perspective on human behavior.

137. What are the four core assumptions of social psychology? Apply at least three of these assumptions to illuminate a recent social event, such as a conflict between two groups, a famous individual's achievement, or a popular television show.

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Chap 01_3e 138. What is the essence of attribution theory? What are causal attributions, and what is one of their primary sources?

139. Give an example of a study design that would have to be a quasi-experiment rather than a true experiment.

140. Define and discuss the concept of confounds. How are the concepts of internal validity and confounds related to each other?

141. Consider the abstract conceptual variable of happiness. Discuss two ways in which this conceptual variable could be operationally defined in a study. Then, for one of the two ways described, indicate a possible confound that might problematize that particular operational definition.

142. Describe the limitations of science for understanding human behavior.

143. Define and discuss the concept of internal validity.

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Chap 01_3e 144. Summarize some of the research suggesting that people aren't really able to accurately describe the causes of much of their own behavior. Why do people have difficulty with this kind of understanding?

145. Discuss the three safeguards that the Code of Ethics dictates all psychological research must abide by. Why do you think these safeguards are important? Do you think that there is any area of research where the safeguards can be disregarded? Why or why not? What is debriefing, and what should debriefing accomplish?

146. Define random assignment. Describe why random assignment is a major component of all experiments when participants are put into different conditions.

147. Define confounds. Describe how researchers try to deal with confounding variables in their studies.

148. Summarize two studies from the literature on stereotype threat that employed different methodologies (e.g., correlational, experimental, field research). What were the findings of these studies, and how did they support stereotype threat theory?

149. Define and discuss the concepts of operational definition and construct validity. How are these concepts related to each other?

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Chap 01_3e 150. In an experimental study, what are demand characteristics, and what is one way in which they might arise?

151. Describe the cycle of theory and research.

152. What is confirmation bias, and how does it affect information processing?

153. What is a debriefing, and why is it important?

154. Discuss at least two reasons why people often have difficulty explaining the behavior of others, and provide supporting examples from research findings. What aspects of psychology make us poor judges of the causes of others' behavior?

155. Describe the three classical perspectives in psychology that influenced modern social psychology. How did these explanations play a role in the formation of modern social psychology?

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Chap 01_3e 156. Define and discuss the concepts of internal and external validity. How are we best able to determine if a study has either or both of these two types of validity? Is there a trade-off in studies between internal and external validity, or can a study achieve equal levels of both? Which form of validity do you think is most important?

157. What is the correlational method, and what is a correlation coefficient? What information does a correlation coefficient give us?

158. What is the essence of stereotype threat theory? What are two hypotheses that can be derived from this theory?

159. Briefly define the five major perspectives that have emerged in social psychology in the past few decades to form an integrative perspective on social thought and behavior. Do you believe that any one of these perspectives is more valuable or accurate than the others? What are some ways they complement one another?

160. List and briefly explain the four core assumptions of social psychology. What does each assumption explain about human behavior?

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Chap 01_3e Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. a 4. c 5. c 6. b 7. c 8. b 9. b 10. d 11. c 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. b 16. d 17. d 18. c 19. d 20. a 21. b 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. c 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_3e 27. d 28. a 29. a 30. c 31. b 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. c 37. d 38. b 39. d 40. d 41. b 42. a 43. b 44. c 45. b 46. d 47. d 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. b 52. a 53. b 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_3e 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. c 59. b 60. b 61. c 62. d 63. d 64. a 65. d 66. c 67. a 68. a 69. b 70. c 71. d 72. d 73. d 74. d 75. a 76. a 77. b 78. d 79. b 80. c 81. b 82. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_3e 83. b 84. c 85. a 86. b 87. b 88. c 89. c 90. c 91. b 92. d 93. c 94. d 95. c 96. c 97. c 98. c 99. c 100. c 101. c 102. a 103. c 104. c 105. a 106. a 107. d 108. a 109. a 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_3e 111. a 112. b 113. a 114. a 115. a 116. a 117. a 118. c 119. b 120. b 121. a 122. c 123. a 124. c 125. b 126. The experimenters must manipulate the level of exposure of participants to the independent variable, or the variable that they think is having some kind of causal impact. Participants should be randomly assigned to conditions or levels of the independent variable. The experimenters must then measure scores on a second variable (the dependent variable) that they believe will be affected by the manipulated variable (the independent variable).

Finally, the experimenters must hold everything else constant in the situation, besides the independent variable.

127. An interaction is a pattern of results in which the effect of one independent variable on the dependent variable depends on the level of a second independent variable. An example of an interaction comes from stereotype threat research: black students primed with their race prior to a test do poorly compared with black students not primed with their race, but race priming has no effect on white students. In other words, the effect of the race priming variable on performance depends on the race of the participant.

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Chap 01_3e 128. Individuals assume they would be aware of the reasons for their behaviors. Individuals, however, are sometimes not the best judges of their own motivations. There are several reasons for the inaccuracy. For one thing, people may not be honest about why they engaged in certain behaviors. This may especially be true where people believe they are being judged by others (e.g., regarding their weight). Also, individuals might be sincerely mistaken about why they feel a particular way or why they do certain things. People may latch onto explanations that protect their self-esteem. They may accept preexisting causal explanations provided by their culture. In short, people may not be very good at introspection.

In addition to being mistake-prone when explaining their own behavior, some people may not be very good at explaining the behavior of others. One broad lesson of social psychology is that we are all, to varying extents, cognitive misers who tend to conserve our mental energy. This means that, all things being equal, we prefer familiar and simple interpretations of social stimuli, such as familiar stereotypes about social groups, over complex or ambiguous interpretations. It is sometimes easier to accept things at face value. People's perspectives may also be limited when making judgments of others. In other words, people may not see the entire picture of what is going on and just see a slice of behavior. People are sometimes prone to confirmation bias, the tendency to view events and people in ways that fit expectations. Confirmation bias can guide the thinking process at several stages. It can focus attention on certain aspects of a person or situation, it can bias the interpretation of ambiguous stimuli, and it can make it easier to remember social events in ways that fit with one's preferred interpretation.

Motivational factors also play a big role in accounting for why people are not normally perfectly accurate when making sense of other people and themselves. People often have motives to reach certain conclusions (e.g., that their romantic partner is a good person) or broad beliefs about how the world works (e.g., good people do not suffer unnecessarily). These motives can significantly alter how information is attended to, processed, remembered, and acted on.

Student examples will vary.

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Chap 01_3e 129. Student answers will vary on this question. Still, feedback can/should emphasize the trade-off between deception and progress in science. Deception typically involves withholding from participants certain details of the study, or giving them a cover story that portrays the study's purpose in a way that is different from the true purpose. In such cases, participants are not told the full truth. Still, if the study is conducted in accordance with proper ethical protocols, there are two major safeguards in place to protect subjects from harm. The first is that the informed consent disclosure must always specify whether the study involves any tasks that participants might reasonably find embarrassing, self-incriminating, or otherwise unpleasant. The disclosure will specify what those tasks might be, if there are any. Hence, participants are never expected to perform objectionable tasks they were not initially informed of. The second major safeguard of an ethically well-conducted study is that all participants receive a full debriefing at the conclusion of the study that explains the details and study rationale that was originally withheld from them. Indeed, it is recommended that participants be given the opportunity after receiving the debriefing to withdraw their responses from the study. With these two safeguards in mind, students should weigh the justification for deception in light of the advances in scientific understanding that can be gained from conducting studies that involve deception. In many cases, deception is useful for assessing people's spontaneous, natural responses to tasks. Put differently, when participants are not deceived and instead given a complete account of the study's details and purpose prior to participating, they often do not give their genuine, honest responses, instead responding how they think they ought to respond. In these cases, it can be difficult for researchers to assess how people respond to these tasks in the real world. Deception is a tool for assessing how people think, feel, and act when they are responding spontaneously to the social situation. Students should consider this benefit of deception when weighing the justification for the practice overall.

130. Experiments eliminate the reverse causality problem because the experimenter administers the independent variable prior to the dependent variable in a temporal sequence. This allows one to isolate the causal effect of the independent variable on the dependent variable (and it can't be the other way around). Experiments address the third variable problem because (a) the experimenter can try to hold all variables besides the independent variable constant, and (b) through random assignment to a condition, the experimenter randomly distributes all sources of variation between participants across conditions of the independent variable, meaning no unmeasured variables can account for systematic differences between conditions.

131. While science serves an incredibly important purpose, it does have some limitations. One limitation of science is that there are some aspects of reality that we just can't know. For example, we get our information via our sense organs, but our sense organs are limited (e.g., hearing is limited to a certain range of sound frequencies). Another limitation is that humans are not always objective. In other words, experimenter bias can skew results. A third limitation is that not all questions can be answered scientifically. Often these questions involve value judgments, or judgments about what is good or bad, or right or wrong in a moral sense. For example, research can shed light on how people resolve moral dilemmas, such as whether it is right or wrong to steal food for a starving child. But research cannot definitively identify the right way to resolve such dilemmas. More generally, social psychology can make headway studying what people do, but it is not designed to prescribe what people should do. A final limitation is that human values can have a powerful influence on the way science is actually conducted. For example, the subject matter that is chosen or how the questions are asked are determined by a wide range of factors.

Student answers may vary on the rest of the question.

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Chap 01_3e 132. (1) A theory should organize the disparate facts that are revealed by research. (2) A theory should be logically consistent in explaining how different variables are related to each other. (3) A theory should provide direction and insight for research, including the development of novel research methods and technologies. (4) A theory should be generative, leading to new questions about phenomena that go beyond what the theory was originally designed to explain. (5) A theory should also have practical applications, helping to solve social problems and improve quality of life.

133. The first reason is the reverse causality problem: when variables are assessed simultaneously in a correlational study, it is impossible to determine if one variable precedes the other in a causal sequence. The second reason is the third variable problem: even if two variables are related to each other, it's possible that this relationship is due to the mutual impact of an unmeasured third variable on both of the measured variables.

134. External validity is the researcher's confidence that their findings would generalize across different settings and different groups of people at different times. External validity is important in order to determine the applicability of experimental findings to real-world situations. External validity is threatened in much of social psychological research when studies are primarily conducted with convenience samples of college students in Western cultures, which have certain unique characteristics.

135. The instinct-based view of behavior, represented by Spencer and McDougall, suggested that all of human behavior was the result of evolutionarily acquired, specific instincts. Psychoanalytic theory, developed by Freud, suggested that human behavior is primarily driven by unconscious desires for sex and aggression. Behaviorism, championed

by John Watson, claimed that behavior was learned over time and was solely the result of experiences of punishment and reward.

136. The social cognition perspective focuses on how people perceive, remember, and interpret events and individuals, including themselves, in their social world. The evolutionary perspective seeks to identify how and why social behavior develops as a consequence of evolved adaptations. The cultural perspective focuses on the influence of culture and broader societal norms on thought, feeling, and behavior. The existential perspective attempts to identify core human motivations to understand oneself and find meaning in the face of broader concerns about human mortality. The neuroscience perspective is the study of the neural processes that occur during social judgment and behavior.

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Chap 01_3e 137. There are four core assumptions in modern social psychology. The first assumption is basically an interactionist view, according to which social thought and behavior are the joint product of both the person and the situation.

The second assumption is that an individual's view of reality is influenced by other people, and, thus, behavior depends on a socially constructed view of reality. The third assumption is that our behavior is strongly influenced by social cognition, the set of mental processes by which people make sense of the social world and themselves.

The final assumption is that the best way to understand social behavior is to investigate it using the scientific method.

Applications of these assumptions will vary. Still, students should be encouraged to use this as an opportunity to appreciate how social psychology approaches social thought and behavior from a different angle than closely related fields, such as personality psychology. Perhaps the most important point in this regard is that, in our efforts to explain human behavior, it helps to interpret a person's actions as influenced by what is happening in his or her situation, past or present, while also appreciating that different people respond differently to the same kinds of situations. It is important that students learn to appreciate how aspects of the person (such as personality traits) interact with aspects of the situation to produce a pattern in thought or behavior. The reason is that many students, especially those who have taken classes in clinical, personality, or abnormal psychology, will be familiar with analyzing a person's behavior as a sole function of that person's stable, dispositional attributes (or what the students presume these attributes to be). Students should be encouraged to appreciate that although those views have merit, a major advantage of social psychology is that it gives us a unique window into how the person interacts with the situation at hand, and how changing situations can make a major difference in how a person thinks and acts in everyday life.

138. Attribution theory posits that people try to understand the social world by acting like intuitive scientists, observing others' behavior and inferring explanations. In order to do so, people make causal attributions: explanations for why an individual engages in a particular action. A common source of causal attributions is our cultural knowledge, a store of knowledge accumulated from our culture about how the world works and why people act the way they do.

139. A quasi-experiment is any study in which participants are compared based on naturally occurring groups that could not be experimentally manipulated. Examples of quasi-experiments would include any study in which the hypothesis involves differences between groups based on gender, ethnicity, or culture, or on a dependent variable.

For instance, most stereotype threat studies have quasi-experimental elements, since they compare the experience of a stereotyped group to that of a non-stereotyped group.

140. In an experiment with internal validity, the conditions that make up the independent variable differ in only one way.

When two (or more) conditions vary in more than one way, the experiment has a confound. A confound, then, is a variable other than the independent variable that may be responsible for any effect observed on the dependent variable. Confounds in an experiment make alternative explanations possible and present a threat to internal validity.

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Chap 01_3e 141. One way to operationalize happiness is to ask people to fill out questionnaires about their levels of happiness. This could include their mood at the moment or their overall happiness with their life as a whole. A second way to operationalize happiness is to look at physical behaviors such as smiling. If we think that happy people smile more than unhappy people, then researchers could count the number of times that someone smiles in order to measure their level of happiness. A confound may be other reasons for smiling instead of happiness. People sometimes smile when they feel uncomfortable or awkward. Students should also be encouraged to appreciate two important points about operational definitions. The first is that there is no absolute right way to operationally define a conceptual variable. Some operational definitions may provide a more valid or reliable window into the conceptual variable, but the choice of which operational definition to employ in a given experiment will depend on several other factors, including practical and ethical constraints. The second point is that a benefit of conducting several studies using different operational definitions of the same conceptual variable is that researchers can see whether the results converge on a common pattern. For example, if two studies test whether similarity increases romantic love, and one study operationalizes love in terms of self-report while the other does so in terms of heart rate, researchers can test their hypotheses with more confidence than if they had relied on one operational definition alone.

142. Science is a rigorous and reliable method for identifying the causes and consequences of human thought, behavior, and action. There are, however, limitations in what science can tell us. First, there are some things that humans can't know, due, for instance, to the limitations of our senses. Second, human beings are fallible and prone to bias in applying the scientific method. Third, some questions cannot be answered scientifically, notably questions of values and ethics. Fourth, the choice of which scientific questions to investigate is often shaped by nonscientific factors or influences.

143. Internal validity is the judgment that for a particular experiment it is possible to conclude that the manipulated independent variable caused the change observed in the measured dependent variable.

144. Sometimes people aren't honest about the motives for their actions, but often they truly aren't able to correctly identify why they do what they do. Research by Nisbett and Wilson suggests that people have difficulty identifying the causes of their behavior. Their work shows that people often rely on theories to explain their behavior; rather than identifying the correct cause, people cite factors that are in their minds at the moment, or that are culturally common explanations for behavior. These researchers posit that although people can introspect about what they think, feel, and do, they typically have very little mental access to the processes that lead to thought, feelings, and behavior.

145. The Code of Ethics was established by the American Psychological Association. The first safeguard is research approval by the ethical review board. This board will judge whether the benefits of the research outweigh the ethical costs. Next, informed consent is obtained from the study participants. Informed consent is given after the participants are told about the procedures and potential risks (if any) and that they can ask questions and withdraw from the study at any point in time. Finally, participants are assured of confidentiality of their identities and responses.

Student answers will vary with the next two parts of the question. Debriefing is given at the end of the study. The participants are given an explanation of the study if deception was involved. Debriefing is designed to be informative, educational, and comforting, and to alleviate misconceptions the participants had about the study.

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Chap 01_3e 146. Random assignment places participants into assigned conditions in a way that gives all participants the same chance of being in any given level of the independent variable. Random assignment is an essential component of all experiments where participants are going to be put into different conditions. Random assignment controls for individual differences and helps to eliminate the third variable problem.

147. A confound is a variable other than the independent variable that may be responsible for the effect on the dependent variable. Confounds make alternative explanations possible. Researchers try to avoid the problem of confounding by: (1) considering potential confounds and alternative explanations when planning a study; (2) including control groups that only expose participants to the potential confounding variable, to test whether it alone has a similar effect on the dependent variable; and (3) using conceptual replication or repeating the study with different operationalizations of the causal variable.

148. Pinel et al. (2005) used a correlational method to test the hypothesis that the more a person is conscious of a negative stereotype of his or her group, the worse their performance will be in areas related to that stereotype.

First the researchers measured stigma consciousness, the tendency to be highly conscious of one's stereotyped status. This was measured in academically stigmatized students (e.g., Hispanic Americans) and non-stigmatized students (e.g., Asian Americans). Data were obtained about their GPAs. Correlation coefficients calculated between stigma consciousness and GPA indicated a moderate negative correlation. In other words, the more concerned individuals were about being stigmatized by their stereotype, the lower their GPA. This finding fits with the idea that awareness of a negative stereotype that applies to one's own group negatively impacts performance.

An experiment was conducted by Steele and Aronson (1995) to test the hypothesis that situations that make a negative group stereotype prominent in the person's mind will lead to worse performance compared with situations that do not. White and Black college students were given a test of verbal ability using items from the GRE. Stereotype threat was manipulated by having half the participants indicate their race on an information sheet, while the other half took the test without first indicating their race. Mentioning race or not was the independent variable, and performance on the test was the dependent variable. Among Black participants, those who were reminded of their race tended to have worse performances on the test of verbal ability than those who were not. The same pattern was not detected among White students. This finding is consistent with stereotype threat theory, because it suggests that even subtle reminders of a negative group-based expectancy can interfere with performance.

149. An operational definition is a specific, concrete method of measuring or manipulating a conceptual variable.

Construct validity refers to the confidence a researcher can have that they successfully measured or manipulated the variable they intended to. Construct validity is essentially the extent to which an operational definition has been successful.

150. Demand characteristics are aspects of a study that give away its purpose or hint at how the participant is expected to behave. One way in which demand characteristics can arise is through experimenter bias. When the experimenter is aware of the hypothesis and the conditions to which participants have been assigned, he or she may (even unconsciously) influence the participants to behave in ways that are suggested by the hypothesis.

151. Theories lead to hypotheses. A theory can generate many hypotheses. A hypothesis is an if-then statement that follows from a theory. The hypothesis is tested through research. The research may be correlational (identifying associations) or experimental (identifying cause and effect). The outcome of this research can lead to the theory being revised and then retested through new hypotheses, thus continuing the cycle.

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Chap 01_3e 152. Confirmation bias refers to the tendency to seek out information and view events in ways that fit our expectations.

Because of this, two people can see identical information and draw opposite conclusions that are in line with their preexisting beliefs.

153. A debriefing is a procedure that occurs at the end of a study, during which the true nature of the study is explained to participants in a manner that counteracts any negative effects of the study experience. Debriefings are especially important if participants have been deceived during the study in order to make sure they understand the reasons for this deception and that they do not have any negative feelings about participating in the study.

Debriefings also educate research participants about the nature of scientific discovery in social psychology.

154. First, people are cognitive misers: they look for the simplest explanations, which are not always the most accurate.

Second, people's reasoning processes are biased by what they want to find out is true, a phenomenon referred to as confirmation bias. For instance, a study showed that people opposed to capital punishment and people supporting it read the same information about capital punishment, and both sides found that it supported their view! Finally, there is also evidence that the very act of observing social behavior has the potential to change that behavior; for example, studies suggest that people who are interacting with others are very likely to unconsciously mimic the behavior of the other person.

155. The three broad perspectives influencing modern social psychology include (1) an instinct-based view, (2) psychoanalytic theory, and (3) behaviorism. McDougall strongly believed in the instinct-based view of human behavior. Extrapolating from Spencer's evolutionary view of human behavior, McDougall proposed that instincts determine the vast majority of human behavior. The psychoanalytic school led by Freud, however, believed that unconscious forces are what determine social behavior. Freud believed that these forces were sexual and aggressive in nature. Watson and other behaviorists, however, disagreed. The behaviorists believed that the unconscious forces and instincts could not be measured. They strongly believed that behaviors were learned through experiences, and that the proper study of psychology was that of outward behavior and reinforcement, not the internal life of the mind.

Student answers will vary on the rest of the question.

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Chap 01_3e 156. In the context of an experiment, internal validity is the extent to which the independent variable or variables caused the observed change in the dependent variable. Internal validity cannot be directly assessed; rather, it is inferred based on how well-designed the experiment is. It depends on the strength of the manipulation, the validity and reliability of the dependent variable assessment, and control over extraneous variables (which includes, most importantly, random assignment to conditions). For example, internal validity is not guaranteed simply because one observed the predicted difference between two groups on the dependent variable. Rather, the difference may be due to a confound, or alternative cause, that was inadvertently introduced when manipulating the independent variable. Internal validity is also suspect if the dependent variable assessment is capturing change in another variable that is related to, but distinct from, the dependent variable under investigation. For example, if one measures hope for the future with a five-item self-report measure, but responses to the items reflect respondents' general feelings of self-esteem rather than hope per se, then one can observe a difference and yet still have low internal validity. External validity applies when the research result can be generalized in a variety of ways, such as to other people, other settings, and other times. If a study has high internal validity, the criterion of a good experiment has been met. If a study has good external validity, then the results of that study can be generalized to other people or settings. In other words, external validity means generalizability in an experiment. If a study has good external validity, then the research can be replicated under a variety of other situations and with different groups.

Opinions will vary.

157. In the correlational method, two or more variables are measured to determine the extent to which they are associated. A correlation coefficient is a numerical value ranging from –1 to +1 that assesses the relationship between two variables. The coefficient tells us the direction of the relationship between two variables (if positive, higher scores on one variable are associated with higher scores on the other; if negative, higher scores on one variable are associated with lower scores on the other). It also tells us the strength of the relationship; values closer to –1 or +1 indicate a strong relationship, while values near zero indicate a weak or nonexistent relationship.

158. Stereotype threat theory posits that, for members of a group negatively stereotyped on a given domain, performance in that domain can be undermined by concerns about possibly confirming the stereotype of their group. One hypothesis that follows is that the more a person is conscious of the negative stereotype of his or her group, the worse that person will perform on tasks related to the stereotype. Another hypothesis is that situations that make a negative stereotype of a person's group prominent in the person's mind will lead to worse performance than situations that do not bring that stereotype to mind.

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Chap 01_3e 159. The major perspectives of modern social psychology are (1) cognitive, (2) evolutionary, (3) cultural, (4) neuroscience, and (5) existential. The cognitive perspective focuses on how people remember, perceive, and interpret social stimuli, including events and other individuals, as well as themselves. The evolutionary perspective views people and their social behaviors as a result of evolved adaptations. The cultural perspective focuses on the influence of culture on people's thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. The neuroscience perspective focuses on the biological basis of social thought and behavior, examining how the brain and other parts of the body respond to social stimuli. Finally, the existential perspective focuses on how people come to terms with the big questions about their existence, such as the meaning and value of life, and how those efforts to make sense of the world influence how they think and act in their everyday lives.

Opinions on these perspectives will vary. Still, students should be encouraged to appreciate that, although unique, all five perspectives fit together at a broad level. Brains (neuroscience) evolved (evolutionary) to process information from the social world (social cognition), but that entailed a built-in responsiveness to local cultural conditions (culture) and a uniquely human awareness of the self in the grand scheme of things (existential). All five perspectives build on one another, despite pointing to competing answers on specific questions about the mechanisms behind social behavior.

160. (1) Behavior is a joint product of the person and the situation: situations exert a strong influence on behavior, but people's individual differences also shape what they do. (2) Behavior depends on a socially constructed view of reality: people compare themselves to others and constantly think about the beliefs, attitudes, and actions of others as they move about in the world. (3) Behavior is strongly influenced by our social cognition: our understanding of others and our explanations for their behavior. Finally, (4) the best way to understand social behavior is to use the scientific method: people's explanations for their own behavior can be fallible, whereas empirical testing of hypotheses about behavior is more rigorous and accurate.

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Chap 02_3e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The fact that one function of culture is to adapt people to the metaphysical environment suggests that cultures: a. sometimes distort reality. b. almost always provide accurate information. c. only last a few generations. d. are inevitably negative in their consequences.

2. Which of the following is NOT a piece of evidence supporting the universality of basic emotions? a. Basic emotions appear to be triggered by similar stimuli in diverse settings around the world. b. People in more collectivist cultures tend to experience higher levels of guilt. c. People from isolated cultures can recognize expressions associated with basic emotions from people of a different culture. d. Basic emotions are associated with activation of brain regions that emerged early in human evolution.

3. What is an adaptation? a. a particular way in which an environment is changed as a result of organismal influence b. an attribute that increases an organism's likelihood of survival and reproduction c. a behavioral tendency that an organism acquires after years of living in the same environment d. an attribute that decreases an individual's fitness index 4. People who want to be themselves and do their own thing are exhibiting: a. an interdependent self-construal. b. a personal self-construal. c. an other-focused self-construal. d. an independent self-construal.

5. A cultural trauma is: a. a mental disorder which is only found within a particular culture, also known as a culture-bound syndrome. b. a disruption, such as a forced migration or colonization, which causes members of a culture to lose the sense of meaning and security formerly provided by that culture. c. the painful experience of socialization into a culture. d. an experience of trauma that occurs when one person is traveling temporarily in a foreign culture.

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Chap 02_3e 6. Research shows that in Japan, people tend to _____ their emotions, while people in the U.S. tend to _____ their emotions. a. inhibit; display b. display; inhibit c. lie about; be honest about d. be honest about; lie about 7. In cultural transmission: a. cultural changes are based on the extent to which new beliefs and behaviors contribute to a culture's success. b. members of a culture are instructed in the beliefs and behaviors of their culture. c. one culture influences another. d. a person is separated from their culture by a ritual of expulsion.

8. _____ activates an area of the brain that is also activated during physical pain. a. Contact with other cultures b. Social exclusion c. Failure to successfully complete a task d. Cultural initiation 9. Having recently moved to Missouri from Colorado, Ayn hears a loud tornado siren go off around noon. She immediately begins to worry and experiences an increased heart rate. Then she remembers that her new city tests the tornado siren once a month, and she realizes that the alarm is merely a test. She feels relieved.

According to Lazarus's theory of emotions, how should we categorize Ayn's memory of the tornado siren test? a. a primary appraisal b. a secondary appraisal c. a background emotion d. a secondary emotion 10. After thinking he was alone, Artur sees a stranger waiting for the subway late at night. According to research on the evolution of human sociability, what will Artur attempt to understand about the stranger? a. the stranger's gender and age b. the stranger's height and weight c. the stranger's group and status d. the stranger's hair and eye color

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Chap 02_3e 11. What is the definition of a social role? a. a set of strong norms for behavior within a particular setting b. a position within a group that determines particular ways of acting and dividing responsibility and resources c. an individual's level of security compared with another individual's within the same culture d. a pattern of action that is only performed in particular contexts to reinforce cultural beliefs 12. Action identification theory suggests that as a person experiences difficulty completing a task, that person will tend to reconceptualize their activity in more _____ terms. a. automatic b. future-oriented c. abstract d. concrete 13. Mario is traveling abroad after graduating from college. During his travels, he visits a country in central Asia where everyone looks, speaks, and acts differently from him. To his surprise, everyone is still very friendly to him and no one treats him differently than anyone else. The way Mario is treated by the locals suggests that he is in a(n) _____ country. a. collectivistic b. individualistic c. democratic d. authoritarian 14. Julia believes that, after she dies, she will be reborn as a new person. This is an example of the way in which culture adapts people to the: a. metaphysical environment. b. physical environment. c. unconscious environment. d. social environment.

15. Which of the following beliefs was NOT described as a form of symbolic immortality by the psychohistorian Robert Jay Lifton? a. biosocial immortality b. creative immortality c. heavenly immortality d. experiential immortality

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Chap 02_3e 16. According to terror management theory, a person's _____ provides standards for being a valuable contributor to the universe, while a person's _____ is their sense that they are meeting those standards. a. hierarchy of goals; self-direction b. self-direction; hierarchy of goals c. self-esteem; cultural worldview d. cultural worldview; self-esteem 17. All of the following are true about cultural diffusion EXCEPT which statement? a. Most cultures are typically hybrids of many cultures. b. A culture has to depend solely on the ingenuity of its own members. c. Influences of one culture get adapted for another culture's own purposes. d. Communication and learning make cultural diffusion possible.

18. Hector has long dreamed of traveling to Los Angeles to pursue an acting career. However, after receiving an opportunity to do so, he decides to remain with his family in Illinois and continue in his career in data analysis.

According to Rank's theory of fundamental psychological motivations, Hector has prioritized his motive for: a. satisfaction. b. growth. c. security. d. competence.

19. In _____ cultures a person's initiative, creativity, and achievement are highly rewarded, while in _____ cultures interdependence and the group's welfare are prioritized. a. divinity; community b. collectivistic; individualistic c. individualistic; collectivistic d. divinity; autonomy 20. Studies derived from Hogg's (2007) uncertainty-identity theory suggest that people are especially likely to identify with groups if they: a. come from a collectivist culture, and the group makes them feel valued. b. come from an individualist culture, and the group makes them feel valued. c. are uncertain about themselves, and the group has clear boundaries. d. are uncertain about themselves, and the group has open, flexible boundaries.

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Chap 02_3e 21. In a study among Hong Kong participants, those who were first shown typically Western symbols were subsequently more likely to explain the behavior of an isolated fish in an image as caused by that fish itself.

Those who were first shown typically Eastern symbols were subsequently more likely to explain the behavior of the fish in the image: a. as dangerous and deranged. b. as innovative and independent. c. as caused by the fish itself. d. as caused by the situation the fish was in.

22. A researcher is interested in determining whether there is a social function to sadness. Which of the following study designs might BEST determine if this is the case? a. asking participants to open an e-mail containing sad news either alone or in the presence of others and recording their facial expressions b. asking participants to complete measures of extraversion and emotionality c. asking participants to open an e-mail containing either sad news or happy news and then measuring their level of sadness d. asking participants to go to a party and then measuring how sad they are 23. _____ are accepted ideas about reality, and _____ are preferences or opinions about what is good and bad. a. Attitudes; values b. Values; beliefs c. Beliefs; attitudes d. Morals; norms 24. Angelo is trying to learn how to speak French in order to audition for a spot in a local production of the play Huis Clos. In this example, what is Angelo's attempt to learn French? a. an abstract goal b. a concrete goal c. a dream d. a desire 25. Which of the following is NOT one of Fiske's four basic patterns of social relations? a. authority ranking b. vertical collectivism c. equality matching d. community sharing

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Chap 02_3e 26. Which of the following values is NOT primarily related to the basic growth motive? a. self-direction b. achievement c. conformity d. stimulation 27. The idea that specific emotional experiences are shaped by a two-step process, initial general arousal and general perception of harm or benefit, followed by the influence of higher-order cognitive processes, is called: a. action identification theory. b. the secondary appraisal process. c. cognitive appraisal theory. d. two-system cognition theory.

28. In Nisbett's account of East-West differences, all of the following is true about holistic thinking EXCEPT which statement? a. It emphasizes relational thinking. b. It emphasizes dialectical thinking. c. It emphasizes categorical thinking. d. It emphasizes attention to context.

29. If a person is presented with the words panda, monkey, and banana, and asked which words go together, a person who thinks more analytically will say: a. panda and banana. b. monkey and banana. c. panda and monkey. d. all three words go together.

30. Victor's culture very highly values that everyone has access to the same amount of resources. What is the best way of characterizing this culture? a. authority ranking b. market pricing c. equality matching d. community sharing 31. Ji is thinking that next week he should study for his economics exam. He is thinking about studying: a. as satisfying his need for autonomy. b. as satisfying his need for relatedness. c. in relatively low-level, concrete terms. d. in relatively high-level, abstract terms.

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Chap 02_3e 32. The part of the brain that is the most involved in primary appraisal is the: a. hippocampus. b. hypothalamus. c. amygdala. d. thalamus.

33. All of the following are true about culture EXCEPT which statement? a. It is fairly static. b. It limits the ways in which people think about themselves. c. It creates divides between people. d. It imposes preferred beliefs.

34. Which of the following factors does NOT help the process of cultural diffusion? a. advances in modes of transportation b. communication technology c. geographic isolation d. the extent to which a belief or practice contributes to the material success of a culture 35. Izeta immigrated to the United States from Bosnia when she was 8 years old. Now that Izeta is 18, she is almost totally Americanized in both her behaviors and beliefs. Izeta is demonstrating: a. integration. b. biculturalism. c. assimilation. d. cultural trauma.

36. Marie is studying for her astrophysics final exam. She is thinking about studying: a. as satisfying her need for autonomy. b. as satisfying her need for relatedness. c. in relatively low-level, concrete terms. d. in relatively high-level, abstract terms.

37. The fact that eggs, which were originally symbols in pagan fertility rites, are now associated with the Christian holiday of Easter is an example of what concept? a. cultural diffusion b. cultural transmission c. values d. the moral foundation of divinity

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Chap 02_3e 38. Jiao was raised to believe that it is perfectly acceptable to act and feel like a different person in different contexts. Li, however, was raised to believe that a person is fundamentally the same regardless of the social role they are playing in a given situation. This suggests that Jiao is from a(n) _____ culture and Li is from a(n) _____ culture. a. collectivistic; individualistic b. strong-situational; weak-situational c. weak-situational; strong-situational d. individualistic; collectivistic 39. Data from Germany suggest that the people there tend to cognitively separate parts of scenes out from the whole. They pay attention to the differences between objects and how they contrast with and are separate from one another and from the background. This suggests that Germany is a(n) _____ culture. a. land-based b. water-based c. collectivistic d. individualistic 40. Compared with biological evolution, cultural evolution is: a. faster. b. slower. c. inefficient. d. purposeless.

41. Thoughts or actions that occur without conscious attention are called _____, while those that occur through conscious, deliberative effort are called _____. a. controlled; automatic b. automatic; controlled c. domain-specific; domain-general d. domain-general; domain-specific 42. What is the general consensus in the area of research on emotions? a. Cognition and emotion are unrelated. b. Cognitions primarily influence emotions. c. Emotions primarily influence cognitions. d. Cognition and emotion influence each other.

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Chap 02_3e 43. While a melting-pot view of culture tends to encourage _____, a multicultural view tends to encourage _____. a. acculturation; socialization b. socialization; acculturation c. integration; assimilation d. assimilation; integration 44. Svetlana is watching the news and sees a story about someone who was murdered while walking around town at night. She thinks that this person deserved it for acting so irresponsibly. This line of thinking is evidence of what? a. collectivism b. the moral foundation of fairness/equality. c. just world beliefs d. self-esteem 45. The rational system of thought is associated with _____ processes. a. controlled b. automatic c. domain-specific d. domain-general 46. In research across cultures by Schwartz and colleagues, which of the following values ranked as most important? a. benevolence b. security c. achievement d. tradition 47. A person's evaluation of their own self-worth is called: a. self-concept. b. self-esteem. c. self-awareness. d. self-evaluation.

48. The fact that Americans refuse to eat horses is MOST clearly an example of: a. differences in values. b. cultural imperialism. c. irrational behavior. d. the metaphysical aspects of food consumption.

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Chap 02_3e 49. According to Triandis, traditional and ethnically homogenous cultures stress community sharing and: a. market pricing. b. authority ranking. c. equality matching. d. benevolence.

50. Which of the following is NOT one of the aspects of our environment that, according to the anthropologist W. Lloyd Warner, culture helps us adapt to? a. the metaphysical environment b. the physical environment c. the unconscious environment d. the social environment 51. _____ are specific patterns or styles of dress, speech, and behavior deemed appropriate in a particular context, while _____ are patterns of action performed in particular contexts to reinforce cultural beliefs, values, and morals. a. Rituals; customs b. Symbols; norms c. Norms; symbols d. Customs; rituals 52. All of the following are true about the hierarchy of goals EXCEPT which statement? a. Goals serve a single purpose. b. A single action can serve multiple purposes. c. Observers can interpret an action at multiple levels. d. There is a temporal factor in whether goals are concrete or abstract.

53. Rey works long hours in her art studio every day. She hopes to someday be remembered for her great artistic contributions. Which of the following, according to terror management theory, is Rey pursuing? a. symbolic immortality b. literal immortality c. cultural worldview d. existential anxiety 54. Jayla is not very good at recognizing her own emotions. For example, she cannot tell whether she is sad, depressed, or worried. What is Jayla failing to do? a. primary appraisal b. secondary appraisal c. emotion differentiation d. domain-general adaptations Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_3e 55. Mao was originally born in China, but he lived in many countries in his life, including Vietnam, France, Brazil, and the United States. According to research, what is Mao likely to think of himself as? a. as an independent person b. as a citizen of China c. as deeply obligated and connected to his friends and family d. as being a completely different person in each of the different role contexts he encounters 56. All of the following are true about cultural worldviews EXCEPT which statement? a. They must be continually reinforced. b. They must be passed from generation to generation. c. They must demonstrate the transient nature of life. d. They create an enduring significance for the self.

57. Which of the following is NOT one of the 10 cross-culturally accepted universal values identified by Schwartz and colleagues? a. hedonism b. chastity c. power d. self-direction 58. Winning an Academy Award is an example of _____ immortality. a. experiential b. natural c. biosocial d. creative 59. Another word for cultural pluralism is: a. assimilation. b. integration. c. multiculturalism. d. acculturation.

60. The socialization process is particularly important to humans because: a. humans are the only known social animal. b. humans are relatively immature when they are born. c. humans can only learn by directly imitating the behavior of others. d. humans are naturally independent but gradually learn to be social as they grow older.

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Chap 02_3e 61. If the self tends to be defined in relation to others, rather than being evaluated separately from others, this is referred to as: a. an interdependent self-construal. b. an independent self-construal. c. market pricing. d. equality matching.

62. Which of the following statements is NOT accurate? a. Variability and competition are essential elements for natural selection. b. The human species evolved as the end goal of a series of progressive stages during which life became increasingly complex and better adapted. c. Human bipedalism brought with it both advantages and disadvantages. d. The process of evolution through natural selection does not necessarily have any ultimate purpose.

63. _____ is/are the human preference for pleasure over pain. a. Goals b. Motivation c. Hedonism d. Experiential thinking 64. _____ and _____ are the two primary sources of the variability necessary for natural selection. a. Competition; fission b. Competition; heritability c. Heritability; sexual recombination d. Mutation; sexual recombination 65. _____ is the evolutionary process by which nature chooses traits that enable organisms to survive and reproduce. a. Adaptation b. Natural selection c. Sexual recombination d. The naturalistic fallacy 66. Terror management research shows that Iranian participants who previously thought about their own death are more _____ toward people praising Iran and more _____ toward people criticizing Iran. a. positive; negative b. attentive; inattentive c. inattentive; attentive d. negative; positive

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Chap 02_3e 67. Tonio tells his friend that he is in a really good mood today. Tonio's statement describes his _____ emotions. a. background b. primary c. secondary d. appraisal 68. The capacity for symbolic thought is most directly involved in which aspect of human experience? a. imitation b. the senses c. movement d. language 69. As we move down the hierarchy of goals, goals become increasingly _____; as we move up the hierarchy of goals, they become increasingly _____. a. concrete; abstract b. abstract; concrete c. relational; personal d. personal; relational 70. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of the human capacity for symbolic consciousness? a. People can be afraid of things that don't even exist. b. People can imagine who they want to be in future times of their lives. c. Unlike other organisms, all human behavior occurs as a result of conscious control. d. People can ask why? and what if? questions.

71. According to cognitive appraisal theory, emotions consist of a primary appraisal that involves _____ and a secondary appraisal that involves _____. a. security motivation; growth motivation b. growth motivation; security motivation c. high-level cognition and the rational system; physiological arousal and the experiential system d. physiological arousal and the experiential system; high-level cognition and the rational system 72. _____ is/are the process whereby inventions and ideas transfer from one culture to another, while _____ is/are the process whereby cultures develop, through beliefs and behaviors that contribute to their success. a. Cultural evolution; cultural diffusion b. Cultural diffusion; cultural evolution c. Cultural transmission; cultural symbols d. Cultural symbols; cultural transmission

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Chap 02_3e 73. Which of the following statements BEST summarizes terror management theory? a. People from individualist cultures tend to be more concerned about the possibility of dying alone. b. The majority of people's activities are designed to distract them from thinking about death and other sources of anxiety. c. The anxiety that people feel in everyday life is repressed by unconscious mechanisms that prevent terror from ever entering into conscious awareness. d. To protect against fears of mortality, humans try to see themselves as valuable contributors to a meaningful world.

74. Studies suggest that individuals who have an interdependent self-construal tend to answer the question I am . . . with descriptions of their: a. personal traits. b. social relationships. c. ritualistic duties. d. relative financial status.

75. Our _____ gives us control over the environment as we shape it to fit our vision of how the world should be. a. sense of self b. intelligence c. imagination d. awareness of others 76. In a study in which some Asian Americans were told that they didn't look very American, what were these participants more likely to do than those who had not been told this? a. choose a typically American meal b. eat food that was less rich in calories c. choose a typically Asian meal d. defend their national identity on a patriotism test 77. Which of the following is the MOST evolutionarily unique quality of human beings? a. culture b. the ability to make vocal sounds c. bipedalism d. a high brain-to-body-mass ratio 78. Contemporary emotion researchers distinguish between which kinds of emotions? a. feelings, moods, and affects b. background, primary, and secondary emotions c. innate, secondary, and tertiary emotions d. cognitive emotions and motivational emotions Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_3e 79. Simeon is Catholic. At a museum for a class trip, he sees a piece of satirical art criticizing the Catholic Church. According to terror management theory, Simeon should: a. feel a sense of uncertainty about his future. b. be more likely to think about death. c. begin to feel depressed. d. decide that he wants to become an artist in order to respond to offensive art.

80. All of the following are true about a worldview defense EXCEPT which statement? a. It is the tendency to think negatively about those who violate important cultural ideals. b. It is the tendency to think positively about those who uphold cultural ideals. c. It can influence people's judgments and behaviors. d. Only people low in self-esteem use the worldview defense.

81. Research suggests that positive emotions are associated with _____ motivation, while negative emotions are associated with _____ motivation. a. security; growth b. avoidance; approach c. approach; avoidance d. controlled; automatic 82. People from hunter-gatherer cultures are typically distinguished by their abilities in which cognitive domains? a. abstract reasoning b. complex and long-term planning c. numeric and verbal problem-solving d. the visual and spatial domains 83. Arlyssa grew up in the desert. Her culture lives in small, clay homes which keep cool even during extreme heat. This is an example of the way culture adapts people to the: a. metaphysical environment. b. physical environment. c. unconscious environment. d. social environment.

84. Hakim has always wanted to feel good about himself and the things he has accomplished. Hakim is studying to become a sommelier—an expert in wine tasting. If he passes the test, he will feel very proud. In this case, Hakim has a _____ to feel good about himself, and a _____ to pass the sommelier test. a. goal; need b. need; goal c. motive; drive d. urge; desire Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_3e 85. The idea that what is evolved or observed in the biological world is inherently good is referred to as: a. the naturalistic fallacy. b. survival of the fittest. c. the theory of adaptation. d. Lamarckian evolution.

86. According to research on the cognitive impacts of mood, people who have been put into a generally bad mood tend to do which of the following? a. make more quick but rational judgments b. rely on preexisting knowledge rather than analyzing information carefully c. make more external attributions for any difficulties they experience d. pay careful, critical attention to information about themselves and their environments 87. Violations of autonomy morals elicit reactions of _____, while violations of divinity morals elicit reactions of _____. a. disgust; anger b. anger; disgust c. legality; religiosity d. religiosity; legality 88. The process of expending energy to achieve or avoid a particular outcome is generally referred to as: a. motivation. b. symbolism. c. hedonism. d. adaptation.

89. The _____ theory explains how people who are not sure of how to act in a situation identify with culturally defined groups that have clear guidelines for behavior. a. cultural transmission b. social norms c. uncertainty-identity d. cognitive-appraisal 90. Chee has lived in the New Mexico all of his life. Chee's grandmother taught him to speak Navajo, so he would understand the Navajo way of life. Chee's grandmother has passed on a(n) _____ to him. a. attitude b. social role c. self-esteem d. culture

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Chap 02_3e 91. According to research on cognition and mood, people who are in a good mood generally tend to do which of the following? a. rely on preexisting knowledge rather than carefully analyzing information b. make more positive judgments about others c. make more external attributions for their difficulties d. make careful analysis of information about themselves and their environments 92. While individualistic cultures tend to emphasize _____, collectivistic cultures tend to emphasize _____. a. authority ranking; equality matching b. equality matching; authority ranking c. community sharing; authority ranking d. authority ranking; community sharing 93. Research suggests that people from an individualistic (as opposed to a collectivistic) culture are relatively: a. less likely to have strong emotional reactions in private. b. more likely to have strong emotional reactions in private. c. more likely to inhibit strong emotional reactions in front of others. d. less likely to inhibit strong emotional reactions in front of others.

94. When people experience a social emotion, all of the following apply EXCEPT which statement? a. They pay closer attention to inappropriate behavior. b. They try to maintain appropriate behavior. c. They avoid particular objects in their environment. d. They try to repair disrupted relationships.

95. Which of the following emotions is NOT a social emotion? a. surprise b. sympathy c. guilt d. pride 96. _____ is the process by which initially difficult, complex, or multistep tasks come to no longer require conscious attention. a. Socialization b. Primary appraisal c. Automatization d. Adaptation

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Chap 02_3e 97. Terror management theory specifies all of the following important functions of cultural worldviews EXCEPT which function? a. providing people with a sense of the origin and meaning of the universe b. convincing people that death is only an illusion c. offering clear standards for what it means to be a valuable person d. giving people the promise of actual or symbolic immortality 98. North Sentinel Island, off the coast of India, is home to the traditional culture of Sentinelese. Which of the following types of morals is Sentinelese culture MOST likely to hold? a. divinity b. benevolence c. autonomy d. community 99. _____ are shared beliefs about appropriate or expected behaviors in particular situations. a. Norms b. Values c. Ideas d. Attitudes 100. A culture that places a strong emphasis on the sacredness of marriage is demonstrating a(n) _____ moral. a. autonomy b. community c. divinity d. benevolent 101. In a strong situation, there are _____ norms for appropriate behavior, whereas in a weak situation there are _____ norms for appropriate behavior. a. security; growth b. growth; security c. clear; unclear d. unclear; clear 102. Which of the following entities is NOT an example of a cultural symbol in the United States? a. an American flag b. the State of Liberty c. the U.S. Constitution d. a railroad

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Chap 02_3e 103. In the Müller-Lyer visual illusion, a line with two open-angle ends appears longer than a line with two closedangle arrowhead ends, even though the lines are in fact the same length. This illusion is more common in cultures where: a. carpentry is prominent, due to the prevalence of right angles. b. people are highly mobile, due to exposure to differing environments. c. there are many deserts, due to the frequency of rounded lines. d. archery is a common mode of hunting and defense, due to the prevalence of arrowheads.

104. The experiential system of decision making is associated with _____ processes. a. controlled b. automatic c. domain-specific d. domain-general 105. After graduation, seniors at a university walk from one end of campus to the other, where groups of friends and families wait to celebrate. What is the most precise social psychological description of what these graduating seniors do? a. develop a new set of customs by learning about a set of cultural attitudes b. enact the cultural value of benevolence c. fulfill motives for security and growth d. participate in a ritual celebrating entrance into a new social role 106. Which of the following is NOT a secondary emotion? a. delight b. misery c. anxiety d. anger 107. Which of the following statements is NOT accurate? a. A fairly random mixture of circumstances determines which attributes are adaptive. b. Survival of the fittest means that the strongest will survive. c. What is fittest depends on the organism's natural environment. d. Over time attributes that were once adaptive may become less so.

108. The two primary components of the process of natural selection are: a. variability and competition. b. competition and survival of the fittest. c. variability and genetic recombination. d. sexuality and mortality.

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Chap 02_3e 109. Socialization is defined as: a. the process of learning from parents and others what is desirable behavior in a culture. b. the experience of being accepted into an exclusive group. c. the evolution of social instincts across different species. d. the developmental process through which the brain acquires the ability to recognize social cues in the environment.

110. What was the term Rank used to describe how people develop unique personalities as a function of their growth motivation? a. individuation b. self-determination c. socialization d. hedonism 111. Sensitivity to _____ is important in avoiding interpersonal conflicts. a. the possibility of possibilities b. social rejection c. social exclusion d. status hierarchies 112. Rita has the capacity for self-awareness and believes that she is an argumentative person. What is one consequence of this belief? a. Rita wants to be close to others. b. Rita's vision of future situations includes decisions to be either argumentative or agreeable. c. Rita can recognize whether another person is argumentative or not. d. Rita has an independent self-construal.

113. _____ involves internalizing aspects of a new culture while retaining aspects of one's former culture; _____ involves almost completely embracing a new culture and leaving one's former culture behind. a. Acculturation; socialization b. Socialization; acculturation c. Integration; assimilation d. Assimilation; integration 114. In Rank's conception of the two fundamental psychological motives, _____ can be thought of as a form of approach motivation, and _____ can be thought of as a form of avoidance motivation. a. sexuality; hedonism b. hedonism; sexuality c. growth; security d. security; growth Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_3e 115. A _____ sets the stage for more specific affective reactions. a. primary appraisal b. background emotion c. primary emotion d. secondary emotion 116. According to self-determination theory, which of the following is NOT a basic human need? a. autonomy b. competence c. symbolic immortality d. relatedness 117. Which is NOT one of the three basic moral domains, according to Shweder et al.? a. community morals b. competence morals c. divinity morals d. autonomy morals 118. Which of the following statements is the BEST summary of evolution? a. All organisms fit together in a harmonious ecosystem. b. Children develop in a way that parallels the development of the human species. c. Species change over time and are descended from common ancestors. d. Change in a species can occur within a generation.

119. Hedonistic avoidance and approach correspond to two basic motivational orientations that guide human behavior. These are _____ and _____. a. sexuality; self-determination b. sexuality; growth c. security; growth d. self-determination; security 120. The human capacity for learning is best considered an example of: a. a domain-specific adaptation. b. a genetically determined personality trait. c. a domain-general adaptation. d. a mutation.

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Chap 02_3e 121. Francine walks into her first social psychology exam with the goal of doing well in her social psychology course. As she begins to fill in the multiple-choice options on the exam, she realizes that her pencil tip keeps breaking and she is not able to successfully fill out the answer sheet. Based on research, how is Francine thinking about her actions in the middle of the exam? a. She is trying to do well in the social psychology course. b. She is trying to do well on the first social psychology exam. c. She is trying to bubble in answers on an answer sheet. d. She is trying to finish the test on time.

122. Biologists discover that in a certain species of lizard, the males tend to have orange tails. These biologists are also aware that (a) there is vegetation in the area that can make animals' skin orange; (b) females of the same lizard species are attracted to the color orange; and (c) predators in the area have difficulty seeing the color orange. Based on what we know about evolutionary processes, which statement best describes the likely cause of the lizards' orange tails? a. Female lizards are attracted to orange-tailed males. b. Predators have difficulty seeing the color orange. c. No factor explains the inheritance of the color orange; it is simply a random mutation. d. The color orange likely results from a combination of factors, including the vegetation, female preference, and predator characteristics.

123. The _____ system of thought is generally associated with automatic processes, while the _____ system of thought generally supports controlled processes. a. abstract action; concrete action b. concrete action; abstract action c. rational; experiential d. experiential; rational 124. All of the following are psychological dimensions of the individual EXCEPT which one? a. the collective b. the universal c. the individual d. the cultural 125. A set of beliefs, attitudes, values, norms, morals, customs, roles, statuses, symbols, and rituals shared by members of a group who see themselves as a group is referred to as: a. social identity. b. group perspective. c. culture. d. reality.

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Chap 02_3e 126. _____ are attributes that help the organism cope with a wide variety of challenges encountered in different environments, while _____ are attributes that help the organism cope directly with particular challenges. a. Domain-specific adaptations; domain-general adaptations b. Domain-general adaptations; domain-specific adaptations c. Genotypes; phenotypes d. Phenotypes; genotypes 127. List and define two of the four forms of symbolic immortality described by Robert Jay Lifton.

128. Discuss the ways the human brain has evolved to help individuals belong in their social world.

129. Summarize the basic elements of cognitive appraisal theory. What does this theory say about the relationship between cognition and emotion?

130. Define and differentiate between cultural diffusion and cultural transmission.

131. Explain the concept of just world beliefs, and explain how they influence the phenomenon of "victim blaming".

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Chap 02_3e 132. Describe the moral domains proposed by Shweder and colleagues. How does moral foundations theory distinguish community morals from autonomy morals?

133. Briefly discuss the idea of a hierarchy of goals and what research suggests about how people conceptualize their goals when they encounter difficulty with a task.

134. What is the mortality salience hypothesis? Describe how support for this hypothesis supports terror management theory. Give an example of how this hypothesis has been tested in research.

135. Briefly describe the difference between an independent and an interdependent self-construal.

136. Define the naturalistic fallacy, and identify a reason why it is false.

137. What is a cultural trauma? Discuss a detailed example of cultural trauma that you believe to have occurred in history. Why do you think the case you are discussing qualifies as an instance of cultural trauma? What were the consequences of this event for the people involved?

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Chap 02_3e 138. What is the process of socialization? Why is it so important for humans?

139. List and briefly define three of the nine basic elements of culture.

140. Discuss the concepts of cultural transmission and cultural diffusion. Which is important for the study of cultural evolution and depends on the concept of variability?

141. Provide at least two examples of the influence of the natural environment on cultural-psychological processes.

142. Define and contrast the melting-pot and multicultural views of acculturation. Do you believe that one form of acculturation is preferable to the other? Provide examples from contemporary society to support your argument.

143. Describe human sociability. Discuss the ways in which the human brain evolved to help individuals react to and get along with others.

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Chap 02_3e 144. Identify the differences between automatic and controlled processes, and how they relate to the two systems of thought in humans.

145. Describe the general process of evolution by means of natural selection. What elements are required for natural selection to occur?

146. Describe both collectivistic and individualistic cultures. Include in your answer the characteristics of both types of culture and the predominant social relationship patterns of each culture. How do you think each type of culture promotes cultural survival? What do you think are the advantages and disadvantages of each type of culture? Illustrate your points with concrete examples.

147. Describe what is meant by the universality of emotion. List the primary emotions that are universal, and describe research supporting the conclusion that these emotions are basically innate.

148. Describe cognitive appraisal theory and its two-step processes. Recall a time from your life that you can understand using this theory.

149. Define cultural evolution, and discuss how it differs from biological evolution.

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Chap 02_3e 150. Name some negative aspects of culture.

151. What does the current research literature (cited in the text) say about the relationship between cognition and emotion? Does one of these variables primarily drive the other? Or do they both influence each other reciprocally? Use some examples from research to support your analysis.

152. Discuss the distinction between symbolic and literal immortality according to terror management theory. Give an example of each type of immortality.

153. Discuss some of the ways in which culture adapts individuals to the physical, social, and metaphysical environments. Give examples from your knowledge of your own and/or other cultures of each form of adaptation.

154. Discuss how collectivistic and individualistic cultures relate to the four basic patterns of social relations that were described by Alan Fiske.

155. What are some ways in which cultures are good for individuals? What are some ways in which cultures are potentially bad for individuals?

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Chap 02_3e 156. Summarize the concept of cultural trauma. How might this explain contemporary issues faced by Native Americans?

157. What are the two fundamental psychological motives, as identified by psychologist Otto Rank? Please describe each.

158. Describe at least two ways in which modernization processes have affected cultures around the world.

Present examples from research.

159. Summarize the melting-pot and multicultural views of the acculturation process. What are the major differences between these views?

160. Provide a brief summary of terror management theory.

161. Describe what survival of the fittest really means. Identify what really determines fitness.

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Chap 02_3e Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. c 11. b 12. d 13. b 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. c 19. c 20. c 21. d 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. b 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_3e 27. c 28. c 29. c 30. c 31. d 32. d 33. a 34. c 35. c 36. c 37. a 38. a 39. d 40. a 41. b 42. d 43. d 44. c 45. a 46. a 47. b 48. d 49. b 50. c 51. d 52. a 53. a 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_3e 55. a 56. c 57. b 58. d 59. c 60. b 61. a 62. b 63. c 64. d 65. b 66. a 67. a 68. d 69. a 70. c 71. d 72. b 73. d 74. b 75. c 76. a 77. a 78. b 79. b 80. d 81. c 82. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_3e 83. b 84. b 85. a 86. d 87. b 88. a 89. c 90. d 91. b 92. b 93. d 94. c 95. a 96. c 97. b 98. a 99. a 100. c 101. c 102. d 103. a 104. b 105. d 106. d 107. b 108. a 109. a 110. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_3e 111. d 112. b 113. c 114. c 115. b 116. c 117. b 118. c 119. c 120. c 121. c 122. d 123. d 124. a 125. c 126. b 127. (1) Biosocial immortality is obtained by having children and by identifying with larger social collectives (e.g., nations) that outlast the individual. (2) Creative immortality is obtained by making personally significant contributions to one's culture, such as creative or heroic acts. (3) Natural immortality is obtained by identifying with the natural world or surrounding universe and perceiving that one's body is part of a material world that will continue to exist after one's death. Finally, (4) experiential immortality is obtained by participating in peak experiences, such as transcendental feelings of wonder and awe in religion, love, and other life domains.

128. Being sensitive to others in our social world is a very important skill. The brain plays a role in sociability. The fusiform face area is a part of the brain that functions to recognize faces. This allows people to relay the information that is conveyed via the face. Some of that information may be essential to survival. For example, is this person a friend, whom I can safely approach? Second, the brain is quick to assess social rejection. When a strong rejection stimulus is transmitted to the brain, it activates the area that generates physical pain. Thus, people often conform socially to avoid these experiences. The brain also performs categorizations according to status hierarchies, which further facilitates social interactions.

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Chap 02_3e 129. Cognitive appraisal theory asserts that emotion involves a two-step process. The primary appraisal, which usually occurs very quickly, takes place largely outside of conscious awareness and involves a general assessment of whether a stimulus is good or bad for the individual. The secondary appraisal, which occurs after a short delay, is a more thoughtful and conscious interpretation of one's initial reaction to a stimulus that involves memories and cultural scripts. The cognitive appraisal theory asserts that cognition plays an important role during the secondary appraisal in how we experience emotion.

130. Cultural diffusion is the transfer of ideas, inventions, and knowledge from one culture to another. Cultural transmission is the process through which members of a culture learn to imitate the beliefs and behaviors of other, typically more senior, members of that culture. Cultural diffusion is a process that occurs between cultures and generally leads to cultural change, whereas cultural transmission is a within-culture process that usually leads to the conservation of cultures.

131. Just world beliefs refer to the idea that good things happen to good people, while bad things happen to bad people. People are highly motivated to maintain faith in these beliefs. In the case of victim blaming, which refers to attributing blame to a person who has been harmed, just world beliefs make this more likely in order to keep believing that bad things only happen to those who deserve them.

132. Shweder and colleagues propose three moral domains. The moral domains are (1) community morals, which concern the obligations of social roles, respecting authority, and group loyalty; (2) autonomy morals, which deal with infringing on the rights and freedoms of individuals; and (3) divinity morals, which deal with what is sacred and pure in a culture. Moral foundations theory makes a further distinction between community morals and autonomy morals. Community morals deal with ingroup loyalty and respect for authority, while autonomy morals are those reflecting harm/care and fairness/reciprocity.

133. The notion of a hierarchy of goals refers to the idea that goals are hierarchically organized from very concrete to very abstract. People typically complete more concrete goals in the service of higher-order, abstract goals.

Ordinarily, people think about their activities at a reasonably high level of abstraction. However, if people encounter difficulties in a task, they will typically shift toward reconceptualizing their performance in more concrete, lower-order terms.

134. The mortality salience hypothesis states that if cultural worldviews function to alleviate death-related anxiety, then reminding people of their own death should increase their need for the protection provided by such beliefs. More specifically, thinking about death should lead people to show especially strong support for those who support their cultural beliefs, and especially strong dislike for those who violate their cultural beliefs, a tendency referred to as worldview defense. Examples of worldview defense after mortality salience include municipal judges becoming more punitive toward prostitutes; U.S. citizens becoming more supportive of individuals praising their country and more derogatory toward those criticizing it; and people being more generous in deciding on the reward for someone who has behaved in conventionally heroic fashion.

135. People living in collectivistic cultures tend to have an interdependent self-construal. They define themselves primarily in terms of group and relational identities. People with an interdependent self-construal tend to value social harmony over personal expression. People living in individualistic cultures tend to have an independent selfconstrual. They define themselves as unique individuals. People with an independent self-construal tend to value personal expression over maintaining social harmony.

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Chap 02_3e 136. The naturalistic fallacy is the tendency to incorrectly believe the way things are is how they ought to be. This belief is incorrect because evolution is not a goal-oriented process. There is no higher purpose to natural selection, and there is no sense in which species or organisms are improving progressively over the course of evolution.

Evolution via natural selection simply happens; that doesn't mean the adaptations it produces are perfect, ideal, or normative.

137. Cultural traumas are tragic historical examples of cultural disruptions, which may lead to complete cultural disintegration. Cultural traumas provide evidence of the psychological importance of culture. A striking example of cultural trauma was caused by the evacuation of Bikini Island to make room for the U.S. government to test atomic weapons. The Bikinians and their descendants suffered lasting demoralization and psychological stress, not just because of the physical hardship of relocating but because of the loss of much of their cultural heritage.

Student answers will vary in examples given and the rest of the question.

138. Socialization is the lifelong process of learning from others what is desirable and undesirable in a particular culture.

Socialization occurs primarily through our parents, family, and teachers, but it also occurs through any individuals with whom we have close relationships over the course of our lives. It is a very important process in humans because (a) culture is quite complex and (b) when we are born, we are not very developed and are incapable of self-support; infants, toddlers, and children rely on the process of socialization to learn how to behave in the world.

139. Culture consists of: (1) beliefs, which are accepted ideas about some aspect of reality; (2) attitudes, which are preferences, likes and dislikes, and opinions about what is good and bad; (3) values, which reflect a culture's guiding principles and shared goals; (4) norms, which are shared beliefs about what is appropriate or expected behavior in particular situations; (5) morals, which are beliefs about what constitutes good and bad behavior; (6) customs, which are specific patterns or styles of dress, speech, and behavior that are deemed appropriate in particular contexts; (7) social roles, which are positions within a group that entail specific ways of acting and dividing labor, responsibility, and resources; (8) cultural symbols, which represent either the culture as a whole or beliefs or values prevalent in the culture; and (9) rituals, which are patterns of actions performed in particular contexts that reinforce cultural beliefs, values, and morals, and that often signal a transitional or historically significant event.

140. Cultural transmission is the process whereby members of a culture learn to imitate the beliefs and behaviors of others in that culture. The learning can be either explicit or implicit. Cultural diffusion is the transfer of inventions, knowledge, and ideas from one culture to another. Cultural diffusion is important in the study of cultural evolution, the process whereby cultures develop and propagate according to the systems of belief or behavior that contribute to the success of a society. Cultural diffusion leads to variability, because in the culture on the receiving end, diffusion produces a kind of competition between old and new ways of doing things. If the new way improves people's lives, it becomes a permanent adaptation that replaces the old way.

141. People from hunter-gatherer cultures are especially strong in visual and spatial cognitive abilities. By contrast, people from sedentary agricultural backgrounds are less strong in the visual/spatial areas but typically perform better on quantitative reasoning tasks. Perceptual illusions are also influenced by the natural environment; for example, the Müller-Lyer visual illusion is more prominent in cultures with extensive use of carpentry, straight lines, and sharp angles. Note: student answers may vary.

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Chap 02_3e 142. According to the melting-pot view, ideally immigrants will fully assimilate into the mainstream culture they are joining. In this view, diversity is not highly valued. On the other hand, according to the multicultural view, cultural diversity is valuable, and diverse people within a society should retain elements of their original cultures while integrating into their new host culture.

Student answers will vary on the rest of the question. As students reflect on this question, it is hoped that issues of ethnocentrism and prejudice will arise.

143. Humans are indeed social beings. Human sociability is the need that individuals have to be around others. In fact, humans can't survive without being around others. The brain has evolved in several ways to help individuals both react to others and get along with them in the social world. The fusiform face area of the brain recognizes human faces and enables us to interpret others' thoughts and feelings. The brain can also recognize social rejection or exclusion. The brain's response is activation of the part of the brain responsible for physical pain. Individuals may conform socially to avoid these feelings. Finally, the brain plays a role in categorizing others as approachable, or not, based on social rankings.

Students should use this as an opportunity to appreciate how both biology and environment are crucial for human behavior and to see the interaction between the two.

144. Automatic processes are thoughts or actions that occur quickly, usually without any involvement of conscious awareness. Controlled processes are thoughts or actions that occur more slowly and involve conscious awareness and deliberation. Automatic processes are related to the experiential system of thought, which is connected to the limbic system and regions of the brain that evolved earlier. Controlled processes are related to the rational system of thought, which is connected to the more recently evolved cerebral cortex.

145. Natural selection is the process through which certain attributes become more represented in future generations because they are more successful (at promoting the survival and reproduction of individuals) in a given environment. Variability is the first element necessary for natural selection, and it comes primarily from gene mutation and sexual recombination. The second necessary element is competition between individuals and groups for survival in an environment.

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Chap 02_3e 146. An individualistic culture is a culture where the focus is on the individual person. Individual achievement and initiative are highly valued in this type of culture. Individualistic cultures value independence, autonomy, and uniqueness. An individualistic culture encourages the expression of one's personal views and fosters a more independent self-construal, which views the self as a unique being focusing on one's own goals. There is not a clear distinction between the ingroup and the outgroup, since people are viewed as individuals and not group members. In an individualistic culture, there is an analytical cognitive style that looks for parts of the whole, and not the whole itself. In social relations, individualistic cultures emphasize equality matching and market pricing.

A collectivistic culture is a culture that has the group as the focus. Interdependence, cooperation, and the welfare of the group are highly valued. A collectivistic culture values group harmony and fosters a more interdependent self-construal, which views the self in terms of how the individual relates to others and contributes to the greater whole. There is a clear demarcation between the ingroup and the outgroup, and members show preference for those in the ingroup. The cognitive style is more holistic, looking for relationships between the parts. In social relations, collectivistic cultures emphasize community sharing and authority ranking.

Student answers will vary on the rest of the question. Students may use this as an opportunity to discuss the importance of norms, values, social status, and hierarchies. Students may also begin to see that culture can be both good and bad.

147. Certain emotions are experienced across all cultures. These emotions include (1) happiness, (2) sadness, (3) fear, (4) anger, (5) surprise, and (6) disgust. All individuals, across all cultures, experience these primary emotions.

Research supporting the universality of emotions was conducted by Ekman and other researchers; they found the same emotions in different cultures, triggered by similar physical and social stimuli. These researchers demonstrated that people in isolated villages could accurately recognize emotions in the faces of Americans, when the villagers had never even encountered an American. Research on the neurology of emotions has revealed that the experience of emotions is associated with certain parts of the brain, such as the amygdala and the anterior cingulate cortex.

148. According to cognitive appraisal theory, the subjective experience of our emotions is determined by a two-step process. First, a primary appraisal takes place before people are aware of it. This consists of general autonomic arousal experienced as a racing heart or sweaty palms. In order to explain these physiological changes, people make secondary appraisals that interpret the purported stimuli. This can involve prior experiences, personality traits, contextual clues, and other high-level thinking processes. This theory shows that emotions are not purely experiential or rational, but a combination of the two.

149. Cultural evolution is the process through which cultures develop and propagate on the basis of beliefs or behaviors that contribute to the success of a society. Cultural evolution is distinguished from biological evolution in that it typically happens much more quickly. Culture can evolve horizontally, within a single generation, while biological evolution only takes place vertically, across multiple generations.

150. Cultures limit the ways that people think, divides people (ingroup vs. outgroup), and imposes upon people beliefs, attitudes, and values before they are able to consider these things.

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Chap 02_3e 151. According to Lazarus's cognitive appraisal theory, emotion is the product of a two-step process. First, primary appraisal occurs. Primary appraisal is the experience of arousal and an initial physiological and emotional response. The second step is secondary appraisal. In secondary appraisal the environment is assessed for further information, leading to a possible modification or change in the emotion that is being experienced. For example, the awareness of being followed by a stranger triggers general autonomic arousal, including an elevated heart rate.

In the secondary appraisal, confirmation of the stranger's presence may produce a sense of danger, whereas recognition that the supposed stranger is actually an acquaintance will produce a feeling of relief.

Cognition and emotions can indeed have a reciprocal effect. Emotions can also affect cognitions. Your mood can affect the judgments that you make about others and yourself. Emotions can affect whether you are optimistic or pessimistic in your predictions about the future and can also affect your memory. Emotions can influence cognition by focusing attention and memory on the self (e.g., possibly depression). Emotions can also affect decision making. Anger may make it very difficult to evaluate the facts of a situation. Thus, it is no surprise that both cognition and emotion affect each other in various ways.

152. Literal immortality is a shared cultural belief that there is some form of afterlife. Examples would include any religious belief in an afterlife for individuals who have met the standards of morality set by that religion. Symbolic immortality is a shared cultural belief that individuals can contribute to an aspect of their culture that will survive after their deaths. Examples would include any scientific, artistic/cultural, or business institution that strives to preserve the works of individuals for posterity.

153. Culture helps people adapt to their physical environment by producing technologies such as those used for shelter and for tools and toolmaking. Culture also shapes people's perceptions and thought processes, so that, for example, people in hunter-gatherer societies are unusually skilled, compared with other people, at tasks involving visual perception and spatial navigation. Culture also plays a role in the social environment. Individuals need each other in order to survive. Culture gives people social direction on what they should do and what they are allowed to do. Furthermore, culture adapts people to the social world by providing a framework for social relationships (e.g., authority ranking versus equality matching). Finally, culture also helps individuals adapt to their metaphysical environment by providing answers to questions about life's ultimate meaning and what a well-lived life consists of, and by helping them come to terms with their mortality.

Student answers will vary on the rest of the question. Students may use this as an opportunity to discuss the reciprocal nature of culture and the interaction of the person and the situation.

154. Collectivistic cultures emphasize authority ranking and community sharing, thus stressing interdependence and cooperation and prioritizing the well-being of the group over that of the individual. Individualistic cultures emphasize equality matching and market pricing, thus stressing individual achievement and initiative.

Furthermore, in individualistic cultures people primarily look after their own interests and those of their immediate families.

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Chap 02_3e 155. Culture can be both good and bad for people. On the positive side, culture helps individuals enjoy their lives, answer hard questions, and keep deep fears at bay. Culture also gives individuals a way to feel connected, protected, and valuable.

Culture, however, can also be bad for a person. It can limit the ways in which people think about themselves and the world and can create a split between members of the culture and people outside of the culture. And culture begins to instill beliefs, values, attitudes, and morals in people before they are able to make conscious choices about such things.

156. Cultural trauma refers to a disruption of a culture that may involve loss of language, religion, and other practices.

Historical examples of cultural trauma highlight the psychological importance of culture. In the case of Native Americans and other indigenous people, cultural trauma in the form of colonization has led to contemporary issues such as anxiety, depression, and alcohol and drug abuse.

157. The first fundamental motive is for security. It motivates people to follow the crowd, obey authority figures, and endorse the mainstream values of their society. The second fundamental motive is for growth. It motivates people to strive for individuation and uniqueness, and to defend their personal freedoms when they are threatened.

158. Forces of modernization, such as democratization and socioeconomic development, have made cultures more heterogeneous and consequently more individualistic. For example, use of collective first-person pronouns (we and us) has decreased in U.S. books in the past 50 years, while use of singular first-person pronouns (I and me) has increased. Research suggests that socioeconomic development is also associated with the rise of individualistic values, such as self-direction, universalism, and benevolence, and a decreased emphasis on traditional statuses and concern for personal safety. Modernization also increases the mobility of individuals, which leads them to become more culturally individualistic.

159. The melting-pot view holds that people belonging to different cultural backgrounds in a society should blend fully into the mainstream culture. The multicultural view values diversity and suggests that members of different cultural groups should maintain aspects of their unique traditions. While the melting-pot view encourages acculturation through assimilation, the multicultural view encourages acculturation through integration.

160. Terror management theory proposes that humans are uniquely aware of their mortality and that they draw on their ability to create a culture to help relieve the anxiety that results from this awareness. Specifically, humans construct cultural worldviews, which are symbolic systems that imbue the world with a sense of ultimate meaning. Cultural worldviews also provide standards for obtaining self-esteem. By attaining self-esteem, individuals can convince themselves that they have symbolic or literal immortality.

161. Survival of the fittest, a term coined by Spencer, does not mean the strongest, nor does it mean the most aggressive. What survival of the fittest really means is that what is fit depends on the environment in which the organism lives. What is fit in one place may not be fit in another. Thus, a particular environmental niche is really what determines fitness.

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Chap 03_3e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Fernanda is attending a wedding this summer and has knowledge of what it will be like. She anticipates that the bride will walk down the aisle, the couple will exchange vows, and the ceremony will be followed by a reception with food, drinks, and dancing. What is the term for Fernanda's knowledge of what will happen at the wedding? a. impression b. script c. expectation d. category 2. A _____ is a mental structure that is stored in human memory and is based on prior knowledge. a. schema b. category c. script d. impression 3. Billy loves cartoons about cowboys. One day, his dad introduces him to his friend who rides horses. What does research on priming suggest will occur? a. Billy will have a negative impression of his dad's friend. b. Billy will have a positive impression of his dad's friend. c. Billy will have a mixed impression of his dad's friend. d. Billy will be unable to make up his mind about his dad's friend.

4. Research suggests that the more _____ people have devoted to a judgment, the more their _____ will influence the judgment. a. schemas; emotions b. emotion; schemas c. thought; mood d. moods; thoughts 5. A theory that explains phenomena by positing two ways of processing information is referred to as a _____ theory. a. dual process b. Gestalt c. motivated social cognitive d. priming

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Chap 03_3e 6. Ricardo watches a scene in the street on his way home from work. An older woman is about to be hit by a car because she has fallen over into the street and can't get back up again. She sees a man walking on the sidewalk nearby and yells to him for help. The man quickly helps her out of the way, and she avoids the danger. Afterward the older woman tries to thank the man, but he shrugs his shoulders and wanders off.

Ricardo has the impression, although he can't be sure, that if the woman hadn't cried for help, the man wouldn't have done anything. Research suggests that when Ricardo retells this story to another person, the other person will: a. become angry with Ricardo. b. misremember the story as being about an older woman helping a man. c. have a more negative impression of the man than Ricardo. d. have a more positive impression of the man than Ricardo.

7. People who have a personal preference for clear and simple knowledge tend to seek: a. accurate knowledge. b. closure quickly. c. confirmation of preexisting beliefs. d. no closure at all.

8. Joanne is about to go on a date with Michael. On his online dating profile, Michael claimed to be "the life of the party" and a very extraverted person. Based on research on the role of schemas in information gathering, which question is Joanne MOST likely to ask Michael during their date? a. What do you like best about being in social situations? b. What do you like least about being in social situations? c. Can you tell me about your personality? d. Are you more of an extravert or introvert?

9. As you listen to a political speech, you start to think about all the traits that are generally associated with politicians and think about other politicians that you have seen speak in the past. This is an example of a(n): a. script. b. automatic processing. c. schema. d. heuristic.

10. _____ attitudes are those that people are consciously aware of through the cognitive system, while _____ attitudes are automatic associations based on previous learning through the experiential system. a. Positive; negative b. Negative; positive c. Implicit; explicit d. Explicit; implicit

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Chap 03_3e 11. Schemas that are easily brought to mind due to personal importance are called _____ schemas. a. experiential b. associative c. chronically accessible d. salient 12. One study asked trained clinicians and naive observers to look at drawings by mentally ill patients for signs of the artists' disorders. The researchers randomly paired each picture with a particular disorder. The results indicated that: a. only the therapists' schemas for how mental illness should look shaped how the drawings were perceived. b. only the naive observers' schemas for how mental illness should look shaped how the drawings were perceived. c. the prime of mental illness did not affect how the drawings were perceived. d. both naive observers and trained clinicians were more likely to shape beliefs based on preexisting schemas.

13. The implicit association test measures the extent to which: a. people mentally associate behaviors. b. people mentally associate concepts. c. people make impressions on others. d. people use heuristics.

14. Which aspect of our cognition is related to the limbic system? a. the experiential system b. the cognitive system c. Gestalt perception d. the self-concept 15. Kruglanski's theory of lay epistemology addresses which basic problem of social cognition? a. how people form overall impressions of the scenes they encounter b. the overabundant quantity of information that people are confronted with day to day c. the relationship between perception, motivation, and processes in the brain d. the role that memory plays in our perception of novel objects 16. All of the following are true about schemas, EXCEPT which statement? a. Schemas are manipulated to highlight particular pieces of knowledge. b. Schemas are fixed after sufficient knowledge is gained. c. Schemas help people interpret their social world. d. Schemas represent knowledge of others and ourselves.

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Chap 03_3e 17. In a classic study by Rosenthal and Jacobson (1968), teachers were told that a randomly selected group of children in their classes were late bloomers on the verge of an intellectual growth spurt. What were the findings of the study when the abilities of all the children in these classes were evaluated two years later? a. The students who had been randomly labelled late bloomers actually performed worse. b. The students who had been randomly labelled late bloomers actually performed better. c. Half the late bloomer students performed better, and half of them performed worse when compared with the other students. d. There was no impact on student performance of whether teachers had been told a student was a late bloomer or not.

18. All of the following are true of the storytelling bias EXCEPT which statement? a. The listener of the story tends to form a realistic impression of the person or event. b. The storyteller tends to tell a simplified version of the story. c. Stereotypes can play a role in the recall of information. d. The listener of the story tends to form an extreme impression of the person or event.

19. Which of the following is the BEST statement about the current state of priming and behavior research? a. Research has shown that priming definitely affects behavior. b. Research has shown that priming does not affect behavior. c. Research has shown mixed results with regard to the effects of priming on behavior. d. Research has shown only an interaction with personality, priming, and behavior.

20. To retrieve a memory of the movie you are supposed to see tomorrow with your friend, you need to activate a linkage with movies you have already seen and with the types of movies your friend likes. This process is known as: a. scripting. b. priming. c. associating. d. triggering.

21. Tara only listens to podcasts that agree with her political beliefs. This is an example of the: a. confirmation bias. b. self-fulfilling prophecy. c. self-bias. d. hindsight bias.

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Chap 03_3e 22. A mental construct where people place things that are similar to each other is called a: a. schema. b. category. c. script. d. heuristic.

23. A belief that leads to its own fulfillment is called a(n): a. self-fulfilling prophecy. b. attribution. c. self-confirming schema. d. script.

24. Under very _____ time frames, when individuals need to act _____, priming may be more likely to affect behavior. a. long; slowly b. short; slowly c. short; fast d. long; fast 25. A common metaphor people use is that of comparing "importance" to weight. For example, important ideas are often described as "heavy." As a result, people who hold a heavy object while assessing an idea are likely to: a. assess the idea on its own merits. b. judge the idea to be less important. c. judge the idea to be more important. d. be unable to assess the idea.

26. A major challenge for individuals to make sense of the social world is the _____ of information. a. quality b. quantity c. type d. accuracy 27. The _____ is the idea that people experience certain bodily changes as emotions, and they come to associate those changes with positive or negative contexts, which helps guide their decision-making process. a. emotion script b. somatic marker hypothesis c. assimilation effect d. implicit association test

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Chap 03_3e 28. In which of the following situations are people MOST likely to make a decision about another person based on the first information they are given, rather than considering all of the information they receive equally? a. when they are under time pressure to make a decision b. when they believe they are going to spend substantial time interacting with that person c. when the environment is quiet and comfortable d. when the stakes of making a wrong decision are quite high 29. For a person trying to make a decision, lay epistemology theory would identify the following as relevant influences EXCEPT which factor? a. the extent to which a relevant preexisting belief that we hold is activated in the situation b. whether a person has a general preference for clear and simple knowledge c. the cognitive impairments and advantages that people may have at different developmental stages d. whether a person is exhausted or unable to focus in a situation 30. In one study, researchers found that participants thought they were more likely to draw a red marble from a jar with 10 red marbles and 90 other-colored marbles, rather than a jar with 1 red marble and 9 othercolored marbles, even though technically this is not true. This study BEST illustrates the pervasiveness of what aspect of social cognition? a. impressions b. scripts c. the cognitive system d. heuristics 31. Jesse has always thought that Diego Maradona is the best ever soccer player. She just listened to an interview that praised Maradona for his dribbling and goal scoring abilities. She is very assured of her belief, in spite of other things she has read regarding Maradona's limitations. What need is Jesse demonstrating? a. to reach closure quickly b. to confirm preexisting beliefs c. for accuracy d. for validation 32. If a behavior is automatized, this means that the: a. behavior is so complicated it automatically engages all cognitive processes simultaneously. b. person performing the behavior can do so without devoting attention to it. c. behavior is a component of a stereotype. d. behavior is primarily controlled by the cognitive system of thought.

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Chap 03_3e 33. In a practical application of priming, researchers introduced a clean-smelling citrus scent just outside the entrance of the ICU. The results indicated: a. about 15% of the visitors cleansed their hands with this prime. b. this prime made absolutely no difference on the number of visitors cleansing their hands. c. almost half of the visitors cleansed their hands with this prime. d. fewer people cleansed their hands with this prime.

34. All of the following are true about motivation and social cognition EXCEPT which statement? a. When people are motivated to gain a clear, simple understanding, they take time to process all the information. b. The motive for accuracy makes people focus on objective facts. c. When people are mentally lazy, they seek closure quickly. d. When unexpected events happen, people strive to restore meaning to their world.

35. Mali and Mongolia are very different in terms of culture, language, and history, yet both are countries. The fact that both are countries represents a: a. schema. b. category. c. script. d. impression.

36. The ease with which people can bring an idea into consciousness is referred to as: a. salience. b. schema. c. accessibility. d. association.

37. Which of the following statements does NOT describe a way in which the unconscious is smart? a. The unconscious generates creative ideas. b. Memories consolidate during sleep. c. People are only able to form and express attitudes in the unconscious. d. Intuition can facilitate smart decisions.

38. All of the following are true about the confirmation bias EXCEPT which statement? a. People ignore information that doesn't fit with their preexisting schemas. b. People pays more attention to information that fits with their preexisting schemas. c. Ambiguous information is interpreted in a schema-disconfirming way. d. People can misremember factual information in ways that support their preexisting schemas.

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Chap 03_3e 39. A person's understanding of _____ is a compromise among a desire to be accurate, be certain, and hold valued beliefs. a. the physical world b. their own mortality c. others' behavior d. reality 40. In studies where participants complete a gambling task where they could continually choose between lowrisk and high-risk card decks, what was found among patients who have experienced ventromedial brain damage (and therefore lower arousal)? a. They are equally likely to choose between low- and high-risk decks. b. They learn over time to choose the low-risk deck. c. They continually choose the high-risk deck. d. They choose the high-risk deck only in those instances where their arousal level actually increases.

41. According to a meta-analysis of many studies, when are primes most likely to influence behavior? a. when the person is paying attention b. when the person is motivated to enact the behavior c. when the prime is subconscious d. when the person is tired 42. Research has demonstrated all of the following in mainstream media reporting EXCEPT which major bias? a. portraying men, women, and ethnic groups in stereotyped ways b. showing a disproportionate amount of violence c. portraying romantic relationships and love in simplified ways d. focusing on stories about children more than stories about adults 43. All of the following are true about the experiential system EXCEPT which statement? a. It can be used to make rapid good enough judgments. b. It uses heuristics. c. It is intuitive. d. It involves slow processing.

44. Seeking out information that supports our beliefs about what we already believe is called the: a. hindsight bias. b. confirmation bias. c. overconfidence phenomenon. d. self-fulfilling prophecy.

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Chap 03_3e 45. All of the following are true about metaphors EXCEPT which statement? a. Schemas organize knowledge about a given idea. b. Metaphors help people understand an abstract concept. c. Priming bodily feelings can influence judgments about an abstract idea. d. Metaphors help people solidify their understanding of concrete ideas.

46. Kareem is trying to learn sign language. When studying hand signs, he likes to listen to lofi instrumental music.

When a song comes on that Kareem really likes, he finds it easier to memorize hand signs. In this example, the hand signs are being processed by Kareem's _____, while the music is being processed by Kareem's _____. a. cognitive system; experiential system b. experiential system; cognitive system c. schema; script d. script; schema 47. Leymah came to a party in a generally bad mood, because before leaving her house she found out that her favorite aunt had become ill. Leymah is currently single, and at the party her friend Ellen introduces her to several people whom she thinks Leymah might be interested in dating. How does research suggest Leymah will interact with these potential dating partners? a. She will gladly begin a relationship with the first seemingly acceptable dating partner she meets. b. She will be very skeptical, thinking carefully and critically about each partner. c. She will go with her gut and make an unconsciously rational decision about which of the dating partners to pursue further. d. She will refuse to even speak to any of the potential dating partners.

48. What does current research suggest about the relationship between unconscious processes and decision making? a. People who are in prison are more likely to have made decisions based on unconscious processes. b. The unconscious is incapable of making decisions because no concrete thoughts can be formed in the unconscious. c. Relying on the unconscious to make decisions always results in irrational and detrimental behavior. d. Impressions and feelings that we have on an unconscious level often carry important information about the best decision in a situation.

49. When unexpected circumstances threaten routine behaviors, which of the following conditions need NOT be met in order for the cognitive system to override the experiential system? a. synthesis between the cognitive and experiential systems so the two can work in unison b. ability to override the automatic behaviors of the experiential system in the situation c. awareness that the automatic behaviors of the experiential system are currently inadequate d. motivation to exert higher-level control over the behavior Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_3e 50. Yuthika strongly believes that vaccinations are dangerous. After watching a documentary that claims vaccinations are necessary for public health, her opinion is likely to be: a. stronger. b. weaker. c. more moderate. d. the same as before.

51. What does the research on attitudes suggest? a. It is not possible to have implicit and explicit attitudes toward objects that are different in valence (or direction) from each other. b. It is possible for people to have opposite implicit and explicit attitudes (in terms of valence and direction) toward the same object. c. People's implicit and explicit attitudes toward objects are never correlated with each other. d. Some people have only implicit attitudes toward a certain object, while others only have an explicit attitude toward it.

52. Which of the following statements is an implication of the research on the role of metaphor in social cognition? a. Metaphor is primarily a useful tool for social cognition among individuals who are either well-educated or think creatively. b. People construct an understanding of abstract ideas by drawing on their knowledge of sensory and motor experiences from very early in development. c. People are only able to understand concrete concepts, like weight or size, by attaching them to abstract, symbolic concepts with which they are more familiar, like duty and power. d. Metaphors are only activated subliminally, whereas schemas are usually primed with conscious awareness.

53. I'll have whatever she's having best demonstrates: a. the need for accurate knowledge. b. the need for information quantity. c. the need to confirm preexisting beliefs. d. the need to reach closure quickly.

54. Our self-concept is defined as: a. a schema we have about ourselves. b. the category of person into which we place ourselves. c. the impression we have of our own body. d. a human ability to recognize that other people are all unique selves.

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Chap 03_3e 55. Heuristics are defined as: a. aspects of logic utilized in carefully formulated judgments. b. mental shortcuts used automatically for making decisions. c. mental structures stored in memory, based on prior experience. d. impressions that individuals have of important people.

56. What does research on the somatic marker hypothesis tell us about the nature of the unconscious? a. Emotions are only an impediment to rational judgments. b. People who cannot make social decisions are incapable of feeling emotion. c. Emotions are conscious rather than unconscious phenomena. d. Unconscious, emotional evaluations are necessary for good social judgment.

57. What is the primary implication of the meaning maintenance model? a. People are primarily motivated by a need for nonspecific closure. b. The sense of meaning that a person develops in childhood is maintained throughout the rest of their life. c. People are willing to completely revise their meaning systems in order to accommodate incoming information. d. When people are exposed to seemingly meaningless or uncertain situations, they strive to affirm familiar meanings and morals, even in unrelated areas.

58. Carla is serving on a jury and has listened to hours of testimony all day. When getting home, she is tired, hungry, and has to decide what to cook for dinner. According to research, what is Carla likely to do? a. eat whatever food is recommended to her b. cook a meal full of nutrients to restore her energy after a long day c. eat her favorite food, regardless of how much effort it takes d. seek out and try a new food which she has never had before 59. In a study, participants watched a silent video of a woman being interviewed. Half of the participants were told that the interview was about sex, and the other half were told the interview was about politics.

Participants were asked to rate the woman's emotional state. The results indicated: a. the woman was rated more anxious when participants thought the interview was about sex. b. the woman was rated more anxious when participants thought the interview was about politics. c. the woman was rated the same with on anxiety level regardless of the topics. d. the woman was rated as not anxious in both conditions.

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Chap 03_3e 60. In the social cognition literature, a metaphor can be defined as: a. a synonymous term for a script. b. a schema for understanding a concrete event that might occur but hasn't occurred yet. c. a cognitive tool that allows people to understand an abstract concept in terms of a dissimilar, concrete concept. d. a poetic way of talking about a concept that might confuse people in the course of a conversation.

61. A schema that people have about themselves is called a: a. heuristic. b. impression. c. stereotype. d. self-concept.

62. The result of having a hybrid brain is that two systems of thinking play a role in social cognition. These are the _____ systems. a. experiential and semantic b. cognitive and semantic c. experiential and cognitive d. semantic and implicit 63. Abijah is a Jewish person living in Chicago. He has many Muslim friends, and considers himself a very tolerant person. Still, if he hears of a terrorist attack on the news, Abijah's first thought is that it was committed by a Muslim person. What does this suggest about Abijah? a. He has a positive implicit attitude toward Jewish people. b. He has a negative explicit attitude toward Muslim people. c. He has both negative explicit and implicit attitudes toward Muslim people. d. He has a positive explicit and a negative implicit attitude toward Muslim people.

64. Takashi often thinks about his life as a journey that he is taking. For example, he feels like he took a wrong turn when he started hanging out with some cruel friends in high school, but now that he's in college and studying what interests him, he feels like he's back on the right path. It is MOST appropriate to say that Takashi is using a(n) _____ to understand his life. a. self-fulfilling prophecy b. experiential association c. schema d. metaphor

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Chap 03_3e 65. Despite the weather report predicting a hot day of 90 degrees Fahrenheit, a storm front rolled in and dropped 2 inches of snow. According to the meaning maintenance model, how might people react to this unexpected event. a. include snow into their associative network for summer b. reaffirm their sense of coherence by acting in line with their moral beliefs c. refuse to believe this new information d. assume that the weather report was dishonest 66. What is the process of consolidating memories? a. People filter their memories through schemas and confirmation biases. b. By explicitly discussing their memories with others, people often transfer their memories from the experiential system to the cognitive system. c. During sleep, the unconscious organizes and solidifies what has been learned in recent waking hours and days. d. Eventually, all short-term memories become long-term memories.

67. In a study by Bless and colleagues (1990), students were presented with weak or strong arguments for tuition increases, after being put in either a positive or negative mood. What was the central finding of the study? a. Participants were equally against a tuition increase across all conditions. b. Participants in a positive mood were more favorable toward a tuition increase after hearing a weak argument. c. Participants in a negative mood were generally less supportive of a tuition increase. d. Only those participants in a negative mood who heard the strong argument were more supportive of a tuition increase as compared with all the other participants.

68. All of the following are true about the confirmation bias EXCEPT which statement? a. It often leads to inaccurate interpretations of new information. b. It often leads to a better understanding of new information. c. It helps preserve people's worldviews. d. It provides people with psychological security.

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Chap 03_3e 69. In one study on the effects of priming, participants completed a sentence-unscrambling task. Half of the participants saw words in their sentences related to rudeness, while the other half saw words related to politeness. What was the observed effect of this priming in a subsequent situation? a. About one-third of the participants primed with rudeness interrupted the experimenter in less than 10 minutes. b. About two-thirds of the participants primed with rudeness interrupted the experimenter in less than 10 minutes. c. About two-thirds of the participants primed with politeness said kind words to the experimenter. d. About two-thirds of the participants primed with politeness failed to ever interrupt the experimenter.

70. In a study, researchers asked participants to either provide their gut feelings about their current romantic relationships or to discuss at length after conscious reflection whether their relationships were good for them.

The researchers then tried to use this information to predict the success of these relationships. What did the researchers find was the best predictor of relationship success? a. people's gut feelings b. people's more rational assessments c. neither gut feelings nor rational assessments predicted relationship success d. a combination of gut feelings and rational assessments 71. An associative network is defined as a: a. set of ideas that a group generates when first tackling a difficult problem. b. set of scripts that constitute a global schema. c. group of individuals with whom a person interacts on a daily basis. d. model for how pieces of information are linked together and stored in memory.

72. Which of the following is NOT a likely source of the information contained in our schemas about events and groups of people? a. gossip and rumors b. film and television c. future ways in which people and events might deviate from our expectations d. mass media biases 73. Which research perspective emerged in the 1970s to find out what specific mental processes are involved when we construct a meaningful understanding of the social world? a. the social cognitive perspective b. the Gestalt perspective c. the metaphoric cognition perspective d. the schema-based perspective

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Chap 03_3e 74. Research suggests that people in a positive mood process information _____, while people in a negative mood process information _____. a. that is relevant to other people; that is self-relevant b. carefully and deliberately; heuristically and experientially c. experientially and heuristically; carefully and deliberately d. that is self-relevant; that is relevant to other people 75. Tran was recently introduced to her sister's boyfriend Ramon, who works as a chef at a high-end restaurant.

Having met chefs previously, Tran infers that Ramon must be hardworking and a perfectionist. In this example, chef is a(n) _____ and Tran's assumptions about Ramon are part of a(n) _____. a. schema; category b. category; schema c. script; category d. impression; script 76. _____ are mental links between concepts that one has experienced close together in space and time, while _____ are mental links between concepts having similar meaning. a. Needs for specific closure; needs for nonspecific closure b. Semantic associations; experiential associations c. Experiential associations; semantic associations d. Needs for nonspecific closure; needs for specific closure 77. In one set of studies related to the somatic marker hypothesis, participants with and without brain injury are asked to choose draws from high- and low-risk decks of cards. Eventually, most participants without brain injury learn to stop drawing from a risky deck. What else is found in these studies? a. About one-third of participants with brain injury consistently draw from the low-risk deck throughout the study. b. About one-third of normal participants are unable to explain why they chose cards from one deck more or less than from another. c. Participants become very angry when they are forced to abandon the high-risk deck. d. The arousal levels of all participants are consistently low throughout the study.

78. What does current research suggest about the relationship between social cognition, emotion, and motivation? a. These are three independent processes of interpersonal interaction that are dominant in separate situations. b. Social cognition is largely driven by people's motivations. c. Social cognition is impacted by people's emotional and mood states. d. Social cognition is influenced by both people's motivations and the emotions that they feel.

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Chap 03_3e 79. Which of the following motives is NOT a primary influence on our processes of social cognition? a. the desire to be certain b. the desire to maintain particular beliefs and attitudes c. the desire for cognitive uncertainty d. the desire to be accurate 80. Nikhil lives far away from his family and as a result rarely thinks about his grandparents. However, whenever he watches old movies, Nikhil thinks about his grandparents. For Nikhil, old movies and his grandparents are: a. in the same associative network. b. chronically accessible schemas. c. part of a script for family d. commonly salient.

81. What is the primary function of an implicit association test? a. determining a person's unconscious intelligence b. exploring people's network of cognitive associations by asking them to name one word after another, without conscious reflection c. determining the extent to which people tend to think more implicitly, as opposed to explicitly d. determining the extent to which people mentally associate two concepts, even outside of conscious awareness 82. Which task might be used to examine the speed with which people are able to associate pleasant and positive words with examples of members of a stigmatized group? a. a somatic marker card-playing task b. an implicit association test c. a priming task d. a metaphor priming procedure 83. Which of the following is NOT true? a. When we are explicitly undecided about an issue, implicit attitudes predict our later explicit preferences. b. When we are explicitly undecided about an issue, our explicit attitudes predict our later implicit preferences. c. There is similarity among some attitudes when assessed implicitly or explicitly. d. Our implicit and explicit attitudes are more likely to align when we feel strongly about a particular issue.

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Chap 03_3e 84. The theory of lay epistemology deals with: a. the relationship between perception and motivation. b. the role that memory plays in perception. c. impression formation. d. motivational influences to reach a decision.

85. People are motivated to validate their preexisting beliefs in all of the following EXCEPT which circumstance? a. the sense of self-worth is at stake b. beliefs are challenged by opposing information c. beliefs have been made salient d. there is time and the issue is important 86. Schemas that we have for particular individuals are called _____, while schemas that we have about whole groups of people are called _____. a. categories; scripts b. scripts; categories c. stereotypes; impressions d. impressions; stereotypes 87. Rodrigo is watching his favorite basketball team play an important game. What does research suggest Rodrigo will likely perceive with regard to the number of potential penalties committed by his favored team? a. Rodrigo will perceive the exact number of potential penalties committed by the team, as judged by independent observers. b. Rodrigo will perceive more potential penalties committed by the team than they actually commit. c. Rodrigo will perceive fewer potential penalties committed by the team than they actually commit. d. The number of potential penalties perceived by Rodrigo will depend on whether the team is winning or losing this season.

88. Tsintah grew up in a rural area with many sheep and horses. Eric grew up in downtown Chicago and most of his experiences with animals come from those at the zoo and on TV. If Tsintah and Eric are asked to create a list of animals, what is likely to happen? a. Tsintah and Eric will both list animals such as sheep and horses. b. Tsintah and Eric will both list animals such as giraffes and lions. c. Tsintah will list animals such as giraffes and lions, while Eric lists animals such as sheep and horses. d. Tsintah will list animals such as sheep and horses, while Eric lists animals such as giraffes and lions.

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Chap 03_3e 89. Implicit attitudes are more related to the _____, while explicit attitudes are more related to the _____. a. schema mode; impression mode b. cognitive system; experiential system c. experiential system; cognitive system d. impression mode; schema mode 90. Mood is defined as a: a. generalized state of affect that persists longer than the experience of an emotion. b. state that involves a particular appraisal, a physiological state, and a concrete behavioral intention. c. diffuse feeling state that we can cognitively trace back to a single, identifiable incident. d. general cognitive perception of the environment.

91. Kanahus is planning a skiing trip in Colorado. She easily brings the idea of travel to mind and thinks about planning for the trip. This is MOST clearly an example of: a. salience. b. accessibility. c. association. d. impression.

92. At a cognitive level, metaphors allow people to make sense of _____, using their knowledge of _____. a. concrete concepts; abstract concepts b. abstract concepts; concrete concepts c. schemas; categories d. categories; schemas 93. What happens when a self-fulfilling prophecy occurs? a. People interpret information in a way that confirms their existing schemas. b. A person's high expectations for themselves lead to an expansion of their self-concept. c. Initially false expectations lead to the fulfillment of those expectations. d. A person with a psychiatric disorder is able to see events which no one else can see.

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Chap 03_3e 94. Adnan is trying to make a decision about which cancer treatment to pursue. His mother tells him that he should listen to his doctor carefully, get a second opinion, and then weigh all his options. His father tells him that he should not pay attention to all the details and simply go with his gut. What does current research on medical decision making suggest? a. Adnan should weigh all the possibilities and engage in conscious processing before making a decision. b. If Adnan listens to his intuition, it might integrate unconscious and conscious processes and result in a good decision. c. If Adnan has never had cancer before, then the best option would be to get a second opinion before making a decision. d. If Adnan only listens to his intuition, he is guaranteed to make a bad decision.

95. _____ is a schema's tendency to be active in one's mind, coloring perception, while _____ occurs when something in the environment activates a schema. a. Priming; salience b. Salience; priming c. Script; associative network d. Associative network; script 96. In one study on the effects of schema accessibility, students were asked to evaluate a student who smiled while receiving a compliment from the professor. What were the findings of the study? a. Prior priming with words related to arrogance led participants to rate the student as more conceited. b. Participants for whom conceitedness was chronically accessible rated the student as more conceited. c. Priming with arrogance-related words increased ratings of the student as conceited, but most especially among students with high chronic accessibility of conceitedness. d. Participants were most likely to rate the student as conceited if they already had negative attitudes toward the student.

97. What is a general summary of the information that has been found in studies on the role of self-fulfilling prophecies in classrooms? a. Self-fulfilling prophecies always have a substantial impact on classroom performance. b. Self-fulfilling prophecies rarely have any impact on classroom performance. c. When self-fulfilling prophecies influence performance, it is because teachers behave differently toward students whom they expect to do well. d. When self-fulfilling prophecies influence performance, it is because students who have been praised in the past are expecting to continue to be stellar students.

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Chap 03_3e 98. The _____ is an unconscious, intuitive, and automatic mode of thinking, while the _____ is a conscious, rational, and controlled mode of thinking. a. semantic association; experiential association b. experiential association; semantic association c. cognitive system; experiential system d. experiential system; cognitive system 99. For which of the following pairs of items was the weakest correlation found between people's explicit and implicit attitudes? a. Democrats and Republicans b. cats and dogs c. summer and winter d. rich people and poor people 100. Research suggests that when individuals are faced with making complex decisions, they are best made by: a. automatic processing. b. conscious processing. c. integrating conscious and unconscious processing. d. intuition alone.

101. In a classic study by Higgins and colleagues (1977), participants were first asked to complete a task that primed them with different kinds of words. Next, they evaluated a person they had never met before, who tended to engage in risky behavior. What were the findings? a. Participants primed with words like adventurous had a negative impression of the person. b. Participants primed with words like reckless had a positive impression of the person. c. Participants primed with words like reckless had a negative impression of the person. d. Participants primed with words like reckless had a negative impression of the person, while those primed with words like adventurous had a positive impression.

102. Activating particular associations in memory through an environmental stimulus is called: a. triggering. b. initiating. c. priming. d. stimulating.

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Chap 03_3e 103. Having grown up with strict parents, Doreen has a chronically accessible schema for morality. When she meets new people, Doreen is MOST likely to: a. worry about whether she is acting morally. b. evaluate these new people in moral terms. c. wonder whether they will think she is a moral person. d. not think about morality.

104. Despite overwhelming evidence, many still do not believe in global climate change. If one of these people watches a documentary on climate change, how is confirmation bias likely to influence their response? a. The documentary will change their mind and they will believe in climate change. b. They will become further entrenched in their beliefs. c. The documentary will have no effect on their beliefs. d. Confirmation bias is not relevant in this scenario.

105. _____ organize knowledge about a given idea, but _____ connect an idea to knowledge of an unrelated abstract concept. a. Schemas; metaphors b. Experiential associations; semantic associations c. Semantic associations; experiential associations d. Metaphors; schemas 106. A person is MOST likely to revise a preexisting schema in which of the following situations? a. when the information they perceive radically disconfirms their prior expectations b. when the information in a situation is ambiguous c. when they enter the situation having already been subtly primed to think about it in a certain way d. when the situation is similar to situations that they have been in before 107. Marta is a psychology professor at a large university. She is interviewing many potential graduate students to work in her lab. If she chooses correctly, then she will have a positive group in her lab and will be looked upon favorably by others in her department. If she chooses the wrong candidate, then others may question her judgement. When choosing a graduate student, Marta will be primarily motivated by a need: a. for accurate knowledge. b. for information quantity. c. to confirm preexisting beliefs. d. for structure and meaning.

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Chap 03_3e 108. The fact that the same visual stimulus can be interpreted in multiple ways demonstrates that the whole is more than the sum of its parts. This is a reflection of the _____ view. a. behaviorism b. psychodynamic c. Gestalt d. social 109. Which of the following statements BEST summarizes the perspective of the Gestalt view? a. Metaphors play a prominent role in our social cognitive processes. b. People rely on schemas to understand social reality. c. In matters of perception, the whole image is just the sum of its parts. d. People construct an understanding of reality through selective acts of perception.

110. What does research suggest that people are likely to do if they are primed with words related to the concept elderly? a. think of themselves as older b. speak more quickly c. walk more slowly if they have negative attitudes toward the elderly d. walk more slowly if they have positive attitudes toward the elderly 111. Which of the following does NOT play a role in how accessible certain schemas are? a. a person's personality b. priming c. the immediate environment d. a person's gender 112. If a person goes to a comedy show and laughs lot, this will likely increase the _____ of their schema for being happy. a. stereotype b. salience c. associative network d. likelihood

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Chap 03_3e 113. Facilitated communication with individuals with autism was eventually discredited, as it became apparent that the thoughts of the alleged communicators were actually the thoughts of the facilitators. The facilitators were influencing the words typed by the individuals with autism, even though the facilitators had no awareness of this. What does this case tell us about the nature of social cognition? a. People are capable of planting thoughts in the minds of others. b. Social cognition always involves the direct interplay of two or more individuals. c. People with autism and related cognitive issues are incapable of communication. d. Nonconscious, experiential processes can play an important role in shaping behavior and cognition.

114. An automatic association of an object or person as good or bad, based on prior experience, is referred to as a(n): a. implicit attitude. b. explicit attitude. c. script. d. category.

115. According to the existential perspective, why are people quite sensitive to even small violations of expected meanings? a. People prefer to seek out moments of uncertainty in the hope that they will discover new sources of meaning in life. b. People experience negative arousal whenever their standard meanings are violated. c. If the world is not an orderly place, people may be unable to maintain faith that any of their accomplishments will be remembered after they die. d. The earliest humans who were sensitive to violated meanings were more likely to survive and reproduce than those who were insensitive to such violations.

116. Albert has worked at his construction job all day without having a chance to eat lunch and as a result is extremely hungry. While driving home, what is Albert MOST likely to notice? a. a very attractive woman walking on the street b. an advertisement for a new type of sunscreen c. a billboard featuring a burger and fries d. a weird sound coming from his car engine

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Chap 03_3e 117. In a classic study by Allport and Postman (1947), participants were shown an image of a White man on a street car, waving a razor at a Black man. Then the scene was described by one participant to another and so on until it had been described six times. What were the findings of the study? a. In over half the trials, by the last telling of the story, the participant was claiming a Black man held a razor. b. In over half the trials, by the last telling of the story, the participant was not relaying any information about a razor. c. In the majority of trials, people were able to recount the story essentially accurately. d. In the majority of trials, people had gotten confused about the setting in which the story was taking place.

118. Keisha believes that, while she studied for a long time, she is not a good test taker and thus will fail her upcoming exam. Later, she finds out that she did fail the exam; she is disappointed but not surprised. This is an example of: a. a prime. b. confirmation bias. c. a self-fulfilling prophecy. d. a script.

119. When people tell someone else a story about an event they observed, they often sharpen it by _____ and level it by _____. a. leaving out many details; emphasizing the main events b. emphasizing the main events; leaving out many details c. changing the characteristics of the main characters; retaining the setting of the story d. retaining the setting of the story; changing the characteristics of the main characters 120. Mental shortcuts that aid in our decision making are called: a. heuristics. b. attributions. c. categories. d. scripts.

121. Which of the following is NOT emphasized by lay epistemology theory? a. the need for accurate knowledge b. the need for information quantity c. the need to confirm preexisting beliefs d. the need to reach closure quickly

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Chap 03_3e 122. In order to determine what role the experiential system and automatic behaviors might play in a given process, researchers have used which of the following methods? a. asking people explicitly how they feel about the process at a deep level b. studying the process while the cognitive system is blocked, for example by asking participants to simultaneously memorize a long list of numbers c. giving participants arousal-inducing drugs without telling them that they have done so, and then observing how they react to the process d. asking participants to look at visual illusions and arrays, such as figure-and-ground images, after they have completed the process 123. In a classic study by Tversky and Kahneman (1981) on people's choices when presented with statistically identical treatment options, what was the conclusion regarding people's heuristic processing? a. People's choices are dramatically changed when they are thinking about possible losses versus possible gains. b. People always prefer treatments which they believe are going to be the most effective. c. When it comes to considering life-and-death issues, people weigh all the options carefully and try to make rational decisions. d. When people are presented with statistically identical options, they ultimately choose randomly between the options.

124. Which of the following statements about motivated social cognition is the MOST accurate? a. People do not have any control over the schemas they use. b. People are unbiased information-processing machines. c. Our needs and goals influence the cognitive tools that we use. d. People are always motivated to reach closure quickly.

125. Define and briefly discuss the cognitive and experiential systems of thought. What is an example of a decision a person might be more likely to reach using the cognitive system? What about when using the experiential system? What factors are necessary for the cognitive system to override the experiential system?

126. What are some of the sources of our schemas? What are some of the ways in which bias infiltrates the translation of cultural ideas into schemas? What are some of the potential negative outcomes of these processes?

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Chap 03_3e 127. Discuss some of the research findings on the effect of priming the concept elderly. What do more recent findings in this area from Cesario and colleagues tell us about the way that cognitive primes work?

128. Describe how personal factors play a role in determining which motives influence a person's thinking.

129. What is a self-fulfilling prophecy? Give an example from research demonstrating some of the effects of this phenomenon.

130. In social cognitive terms, what is a metaphor? How do metaphors influence cognitive processes? Give one example of a metaphor.

131. Describe the somatic marker hypothesis.

132. According to the theory of lay epistemology, what are the three motives that influence thinking about the social world? Consider the case of an executive trying to decide who to hire between two candidates. How might each of the motives lead that person to a different decision?

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Chap 03_3e 133. Discuss how teachers' perceptions of students' abilities can turn into self-fulfilling prophecies, which can impact academic achievement.

134. What are a schema, a script, and an impression? Give an example of each.

135. Discuss research by King et al. (2016) on improving handwashing behavior through priming.

136. Briefly discuss the social cognitive research on rumors and gossip. How do people alter information when they tell stories about events they have witnessed? What are some examples of findings from studies on the effects of rumors?

137. What are some of the major sources of people's schemas? Provide some examples of schemas that might be derived from these sources.

138. Define confirmation bias. Describe the reasons that confirmation biases occur. Discuss why confirmation biases do not always occur. Provide an example from your own life of a situation in which you and another person arrived at opposite conclusions after being exposed to the same information.

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Chap 03_3e 139. What is a dual process theory? What are the two modes of social cognition that a dual process theory distinguishes between?

140. Discuss research on metaphors linking importance to physical weight.

141. Discuss whether priming influences our impressions of other people. Cite research to support your answer.

Provide an example from your own life. Discuss whether priming influences people's own behavior. Cite research to support your answer.

142. Define the self-fulfilling prophecy. Why does the self-fulfilling prophecy occur? Discuss research supporting the self-fulfilling prophecy. Provide an example of the self-fulfilling prophecy.

143. Discuss how metaphors can improve understanding of abstract concepts.

144. Discuss one example in which confirmation bias is not likely to occur.

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Chap 03_3e 145. What are the three conditions that must be met for the cognitive system to override the experiential system in a given situation?

146. What factors influence the accessibility of schemas?

147. Define schemas. Describe two types of schemas. Discuss whether schemas are malleable.

148. Discuss two ways in which research suggests moods influence our social judgments.

149. Briefly discuss at least one way in which the experiential system is involved in judgments and decisions, and one way in which it is involved in attitudes.

150. Discuss how schemas work in terms of accessibility, salience, priming, chronically accessible schemas, and associative networks.

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Chap 03_3e 151. Discuss two of the three motives according to lay epistemology theory. What is an example of a situation in which each of these motives is most likely to drive cognition?

152. Define mood. Discuss the evolutionary value of mood. Discuss the relationship between mood and social cognition. What are the primary research findings concerning this relationship? Provide an example of a situation in which a person's mood would influence his or her social judgment.

153. What are at least three ways in which the unconscious can be considered smart? Provide examples from research to support your argument.

154. Provide one example of research showing the effects of priming on social perception and one example of research showing the effects of priming on behavior.

155. What is the difference between an experiential association and a semantic association? Provide an example of each.

156. What is an example of research demonstrating the need to reach closure quickly?

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Chap 03_3e 157. List three of the five ways in which the unconscious is smart, and provide an example from research or theory to illustrate each.

158. What are the relationships between the concepts of accessibility, salience, and priming?

159. Describe confirmation bias. List one reason that confirmation biases occur. Describe how this bias helps people preserve their worldview.

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Chap 03_3e Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. d 7. b 8. a 9. c 10. d 11. c 12. d 13. b 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. b 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. c 25. c 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_3e 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. d 31. b 32. b 33. c 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. c 38. c 39. d 40. c 41. b 42. d 43. d 44. b 45. d 46. a 47. b 48. d 49. a 50. a 51. b 52. b 53. d 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_3e 55. b 56. d 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. c 61. d 62. c 63. d 64. d 65. b 66. c 67. d 68. b 69. b 70. a 71. d 72. c 73. a 74. c 75. b 76. c 77. b 78. d 79. c 80. a 81. d 82. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_3e 83. a 84. d 85. d 86. d 87. c 88. d 89. c 90. a 91. b 92. b 93. c 94. b 95. b 96. c 97. c 98. d 99. d 100. c 101. d 102. c 103. b 104. b 105. a 106. a 107. a 108. c 109. d 110. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_3e 111. d 112. b 113. d 114. a 115. c 116. c 117. a 118. c 119. b 120. a 121. b 122. b 123. a 124. c 125. The cognitive system of thought is conscious, slow, and effortful. To organize information the cognitive system uses a system of rules to reach more logical conclusions. It plays a role in our thinking critically, planning behavior, and making deliberate decisions. The experiential system of thought operates in the background, controlling more automatic thoughts and behaviors. It is fast, frequently used, and relies on implicit associations to make "good enough" judgments and decisions using heuristics, or mental shortcuts. Students may give a variety of examples of a decision that a person might reach using the cognitive system. One example may be trying to decide on a college major. Students may also give a variety of examples of a decision that a person might reach using the experiential system. One example may be a quick impression of whether a person is friend or foe. Three conditions must be met for the cognitive system to override the experiential system: we must be aware that controlled processes are necessary to complete a task or to counteract automatic processes that are malfunctioning, we must be motivated to control our thoughts and behaviors, and we must have the ability to consider thoughts and behaviors at a more conscious level.

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Chap 03_3e 126. Schemas are constructed from a variety of sources. Personal experience helps to form schemas as we come into contact with people, events, and ideas. The socialization process aids in schema formation. We get much of our social information indirectly from parents, teachers, peers, and media. These sources can provide schemas of types of people, stereotypes of groups, and situations. Biases come into play with regard to schemas. The information that is transmitted to individuals may not be accurate. This information gets shaped when it is repeated by others in the form of rumors and gossip. People filter information based on their own schemas. The main idea of information may be transmitted but the details may not, which shapes the information that is remembered. This may lead to forming a more extreme impression of a person or the forming of a distorted or incomplete script.

Furthermore, our stereotypes can also play a role. Our own biases can shape what we remember. Media may also distort information, and media portrayals of people or situations may be unrealistic. Individuals create the news, and they choose what to report or print. Sometimes these decisions are derived from media professionals making business decisions based on what will boost ratings or sell magazines. People may form stereotypes of others, get an unrealistic or exaggerated picture of people or events, and even form likes and dislikes about others based on this information. Another form of bias may be in the creation of social reality that we expect based on our schemas (e.g., the self-fulfilling prophecy). (Students should begin to see the bigger picture of how these schemas are related to attribution, stereotyping, first impressions, and prejudice.)

127. Original research by Bargh and colleagues demonstrated that when people are primed with the concept of elderly, they walk more slowly. More recent research by Cesario and colleagues shows that only people who have positive attitudes toward the elderly walk more slowly when they are primed with the concept. This suggests that primes operate by elevating tendencies that we already have, perhaps by preparing us to take the kind of action we would like to take in an upcoming situation, such as interacting with an elderly person while walking.

128. An individual's personality traits can make a difference as to which motives predominate. People with a high need for quick closure are those that seek and prefer simple and clear knowledge. These people struggle in ambiguous or unclear situations. By contrast, those who tolerate ambiguity tend to gather more information before arriving at a conclusion and often do not have a strong desire for rapid closure. A person's educational or professional background can also matter, in that people who are experts may be less flexible and feel more entitled to have dogmatic views. Such people may be more prone than others to seek conclusions that agree with what they already believe.

129. A self-fulfilling prophecy is a phenomenon whereby initially false expectations cause the fulfillment of those expectations. An example of research on this phenomenon is a study in which teachers were told that a randomly selected sample of students were late bloomers who were about to have an intellectual growth spurt. When performance was assessed two years later, these randomly chosen children actually performed better on tests of ability, suggesting that the teachers treated them differently because of their expectations.

130. A metaphor is a cognitive tool that compares one thing with another. This tool allows people to understand an abstract concept in terms of a dissimilar, concrete concept. An abstract concept like power, which can't be seen or easily defined, can be understood in terms of the familiar properties of a concrete experience, like being high above others. An example might be: Her arguments are strong (arguments are muscle force); or I'll keep that in mind (the mind is a container).

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Chap 03_3e 131. The somatic marker hypothesis describes how physiological processes play a role in decision making. According to this hypothesis, some experiences and learned associations lead to physiological changes that people experience as emotion. These somatic (bodily) changes become conditioned responses to either positive or negative events. When individuals experience those particular contexts again, the same physical and emotional responses are triggered. The emotions, in turn, help to unconsciously shape decisions.

132. According to the lay epistemology theory, the three motives influencing thinking are (1) the need to be accurate, (2) the need to reach closure quickly, and (3) the need to confirm what one already prefers to believe. When someone is trying to decide who to hire, the need for accuracy may guide them toward a truthful, accurate understanding of the candidates. A lot of time and energy will be invested in reading the information about the candidates and speaking to their references. If someone is motivated by the need to reach closure quickly, then they will not put much effort into the decision-making process. Their decision on who to hire may be guided by the first name that they saw on the list, the candidate who told a memorable joke in the interview, or just a random decision. If they are motivated by the need to confirm what they already believe, then they will focus on information about the job candidates that is consistent with their impressions of the candidate, and ignore other information.

133. Students who are expected to perform better are given more attention, approval, and positive reinforcement for their successes. So teachers' beliefs about who will be successful can actually influence that very outcome. The opposite is also true: students who are not expected to succeed will be given less attention and help, which can be detrimental to their education.

134. A schema is a mental structure stored in memory that is based on prior knowledge. For example, one might have a schema for the characteristics of a professor. A script is a schema about an event that specifies the typical sequence of actions that take place at such an event. For example, one might have a schema about what will happen when interacting in the classroom or office of a college professor. An impression is a schema that a person has about another individual. For example, one might think of their particular professor as unapproachable.

135. Research by King et al. (2016) showed that adding an automated air freshener in a hospital primed the idea of cleanliness, which increased people's likelihood of washing their hands.

136. When people spread rumors and tell stories, the information tends to change with each retelling. The information is filtered through the motivations and schemas of both speaker and listener. Each side typically focuses on the main elements of an event and downplays minor details. Research by Baron and his colleagues showed that when people repeated what they had been told by a man who became intoxicated and wrecked a car under extenuating circumstances, the retold story left a more negative impression of the man than the original version did. In another study, Allport and Postman asked several individuals to describe a picture in which a white man threatened a black man with a razor. This description was then relayed through a chain of participants. More than half the time, the last person in the chain reversed the race of the assailant in describing the unseen picture.

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Chap 03_3e 137. Many of our schemas develop during childhood, based on the culture in which we are raised. Schemas come from everyone and everything around us, including parents, teachers, peers, books, newspapers, magazines, television, movies, and social media. For example, schemas about what people of different races or from different kinds of neighborhoods are like might come from the mass media, such as news programs. The types of culturally influenced experiences we have also determine our schemas. For example, children from a rural Native American background tend to based their animal schema on animals they actually encounter, whereas urban-dwelling European American children base their animal schema on species depicted in picture books.

138. Confirmation bias occurs when we seek out and evaluate new information so that it supports or confirms our preexisting beliefs. This bias allows people to sustain their worldview. The confirming of preexisting beliefs, however, may contribute to people misinterpreting new information. Confirmation biases occur for several reasons. First, the schemas that are activated can contribute to people interpreting ambiguous information to support those schemas. In other words, when we're not sure what we're seeing, we go with what we know.

Second, people tend to pay attention to information that fits with their preexisting schemas and to screen out information that doesn't fit. While confirmation biases can be very powerful, they do not always occur. If a person's observations clearly conflict with their initial expectations, then they may revise their schemas. This is especially true when the difference between what they expect and observe is very large. If people are aware that they are being biased, and are concerned about it, then they may pay more attention to incoming information.

Finally, if other people know we have biases about them, they may go out of their way to behave in such a way as to counteract those biases.

Students will have a variety of life examples. One example might be hearing that a class is very challenging. One person might interpret challenging as very difficult or impossible to do, while another person might interpret challenging as interesting and exciting. Students should be thinking about how confirmation bias is related to self-fulfilling prophecies and the previously discussed material on the need to confirm what one already prefers to believe.

139. Dual process theories are used to explain a wide range of phenomena by positing two ways of processing information. One example of a dual process theory is the one that divides social cognition into two systems, namely the cognitive system, a conscious, rational, and controlled way of thinking, and the experiential system, an unconscious, intuitive, and automatic way of thinking.

140. Research has shown that when people were asked to rate a thing's importance, those who held a heavy object judged that thing to be more important than those who handled a light object. This has been found when rating issues at a university, a job applicant's seriousness, severity of a disease, improving city roads, and a book's literary significance.

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Chap 03_3e 141. Research by Higgins and colleagues showed that priming can affect the schemas we form about other people. In one study, participants read about a person, Donald, who was fond of high-risk activities. The impressions the subjects formed of Donald were affected by the words the subjects had seen while performing an ostensibly unrelated word-recognition task a short time earlier: subjects who had seen words like adventurous formed more positive impressions of Donald than subjects who had seen words like reckless. Students will vary on examples from their own life. One example might be prior knowledge about a professor affecting their first impression of that professor. (Students should begin to be thinking about how this relates to research on first impressions and attribution theory and how their social reasoning may be correct or incorrect; e.g., confirmation bias.) Priming can also affect our own behavior, at least under certain circumstances. If you have to act fast, without much thought, priming is more likely to affect behavior. This is especially true in ambiguous tasks. For example, researchers showed subjects gambling words (e.g., gamble, bet, or wager for one group and pass, fold, or stay for another) before they had to make a decision during a game of Blackjack. The words were flashed before the subjects very briefly, right before the betting decision had to be made. Participants primed with betting words were more likely to place a bet, but only when their cards were so-so and the decision could have gone either way.

142. The self-fulfilling prophecy is a process where initially false expectations can actually cause the fulfillment of those same expectations. The self-fulfilling prophecy typically occurs because the expectations one has for others, and the way one expresses those expectations, affect their behavior. The classic study on the self-fulfilling prophecy was conducted by Rosenthal and Jacobson. They gave tests to elementary school students and then gave the teachers names of randomly selected students. The teachers were told these were late bloomers getting ready to have an intellectual growth spurt. Two years later these students did score higher than others on a test of general abilities. The teachers' expectations affected their behavior toward the students in the form of more attention, positive reinforcement, and challenges. Students, in turn, responded to these behaviors with more effort and ultimately more learning. Student examples will vary.

143. When people are struggling to understand an abstract concept, they often use metaphors. These metaphors compare the abstract concept to a more easily understood, or concrete, concept. Knowledge about the concrete concept is transferred to the abstract concept, rendering it more understandable.

144. Confirmation bias is not likely to occur when there is a large gap between expectations and reality. In such cases, the new information can be included into people's beliefs. Further, confirmation bias is not likely to occur when people are concerned about being biased. In these cases, the cognitive system can override the experiential system to produce a more accurate judgement. For example, if someone is learning about political candidates and is very concerned about interpreting information in a biased way, then putting effort into unbiased reasoning can diminish the effect of confirmation bias.

145. A person must be aware that controlled processes are necessary either to complete a task or to counteract automatic processes that are not working correctly. A person must also be motivated to exert control over automatic thoughts and behaviors. Finally, a person must have the ability to consider their thoughts and actions at a relatively conscious level, meaning they can't be tired or distracted.

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Chap 03_3e 146. The accessibility of schemas is influenced by many factors. A stimulus in a person's immediate environment can activate a schema, a phenomenon called priming. Priming of one schema will also bring to mind other ideas that are closely linked to that schema in what is called an associative network. Personal factors also play a role.

Chronically accessible schemas are schemas that represent information that is important to the individual, that is relevant to how they think of themselves, or that they use frequently.

147. A schema is a mental construct that is based on prior knowledge. In other words, it consists of a pattern of learned associations. Some schemas, called scripts, represent knowledge about events that follow a predictable temporal sequence, such as doing laundry or dining at a restaurant. Other schemas, called impressions, represent knowledge about individual persons; these schemas contain information about physical appearance, personality traits, and social roles. A schema about a whole group of people is called a stereotype, while a schema about the self is called a self-concept. Because schemas are learned, they can change. New information can become incorporated into the schema, or existing information can be modified. It is also important to note, however, that information from the outside world might be filtered by our perceptions, so that our schemas are to some extent self-perpetuating.

148. Studies show that the valence of our mood influences our social judgments. If we are in a negative mood, we are more likely to perceive something negatively, whereas if we are in a positive mood, we are more likely to perceive something positively. In addition, if we are in a positive mood, we are more likely to interpret information quickly and automatically. If we are in a negative mood, we scrutinize information and objects more carefully.

149. The experiential system relies primarily on heuristics, which are mental shortcuts used for making judgments and decisions. One example would be the rule that if X is good, more of X is better. Another common heuristic is to make decisions by focusing on loss minimization rather than performing complicated cost-benefit analyses that balance gains against losses. When it comes to attitudes, the experiential system primarily consists of implicit attitudes, which may be inborn, like fear of snakes, but are mostly learned, like disgust at the prospect of eating insects.

150. Some schemas are more likely to influence our thoughts and decisions than others, based on how readily each is available for use. Accessibility refers to the ease with which a schema is brought to mind, while the closely related concept of salience refers to how readily a schema becomes activated without any effort or even awareness on our part. Priming is the influence of an environmental stimulus in activating a schema. So, for example, the schema science fiction film is accessible to the extent that we remember the usual elements found in such films and can think of examples; it is salient to the extent that we naturally think of science fiction films when someone asks us about our taste in movies, or suggests going to a movie, and it is primed when an ad or poster that we see (whether consciously or unconsciously) prompts us to think about science fiction films.

Chronically accessible schemas are schemas that remain highly accessible over a long period of time, typically because they represent important information that is frequently needed. An associative network is a cluster of related schemas that can act as primes for one another. So, for example, the schema science fiction film might activate the schema money, as we think about the process of buying movie tickets. The money schema is chronically accessible, having many associative-network connections to many other schemas besides just movierelated ones.

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Chap 03_3e 151. The need to be accurate refers to a motivation to achieve an accurate, truthful understanding of a given person, idea, or event. It is most active in situations where the outcome of a decision will have major consequences. The need to reach closure quickly refers to a preference for arriving at a judgment or decision in a short time and without much effort. It is most active in situations where thinking requires a lot of effort or is unpleasant and where time pressure or fatigue is a factor. The need to confirm what one already prefers to believe refers to a motivation to reach a conclusion that fits with attitudes or beliefs a person already prefers. It is most active when one's core beliefs are salient in a situation or are being challenged.

152. A mood is an affective state that persists longer than an emotion. Emotions are more fleeting. Moods have evolutionary value, in that a positive mood helps to signal that all is well, while a negative mood signals possible danger. Thus, mood can provide information for one's judgments. Moods can act as primes for thoughts and behaviors. If a person is in a good mood, then that might prime them to form a more positive impression of others. If a person is in a bad mood, then that might prime them to form a more negative impression of others.

Mood also affects our motivational levels. By signaling that all is well, a positive mood encourages individuals to relax and not put a great deal of conscious effort into their thoughts, relying instead more on their experiential system (e.g., to use heuristics). Negative moods signal that there might be danger, so that more thought is required, and then individuals rely more on their cognitive system. One study had students recall a happy or sad event in their lives. Subjects then listened to an essay that argued for an increase in student fees at the university.

Half of the subjects heard weak arguments and half of the subjects heard strong arguments. Students who were in a good mood processed the argument based on the experiential system of thought. Students who were in a bad mood processed the argument based on the cognitive system of thought. Student examples will vary. One example might lead to a discussion on why it is not a good idea to make big decisions when you are in a very good mood or a very bad mood. For example, it is best not to decide which college to attend immediately after an acceptance letter. It is also not a good idea to decide which college to attend immediately after a rejection letter.

153. The unconscious is considered smart for a variety of reasons. First, the motives that guide thinking often operate unconsciously. Second, memory consolidation occurs during sleep. Third, unconscious mind wandering can aid in creativity. Fourth, intuition can facilitate sound decisions. Last, unconscious emotional associations can promote beneficial decisions. Research has shown that our unconscious can sense when information is logical, and it responds with positive affect. One study by Wilson and Kraft (1993) had half of their participants analyze the reasons they felt a particular way about their current romantic relationship and rate their overall satisfaction. The other group just rated their overall satisfaction with the relationship, without an analysis. The ratings from the group that went with their gut, without analysis, better predicted whether they were still dating their partners several months later. Research also suggests that medical decisions may benefit from input from the intuitive processing system, because it helps integrate feelings and emotions that might play a role in treatment compliance.

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Chap 03_3e 154. In a classic study of the effects of priming on social perception, half of the participants were randomly assigned in an initial task to read words with negative implications (e.g., reckless), and the other half of the participants read words with positive implications (e.g., adventurous). In the second study, participants were asked to read about a person named Donald who took part in various high-risk activities. Those participants who had previously seen words such as reckless were likely to form more negative impressions of Donald than those who had seen words like adventurous. In another study, participants were put in a situation where they needed to interrupt an experimenter after being primed either with no specific concept, rudeness concepts, or politeness concepts.

Subjects primed with rudeness concepts interrupted more frequently.

155. Semantic associations result when two concepts are similar in meaning or belong to the same category. The words nice and kind, for example, have similar meanings, and the words sheep and cow both refer to farm animals.

Experiential associations occur when one concept has been experienced close in time or space to another concept. For example, for a person whose grandmother lives by the ocean, eating seafood may be experientially associated with feeling happy and content.

156. In a study demonstrating the need for nonspecific closure, participants who were told that they had to form an impression of someone in a limited amount of time tended to show a primacy effect, meaning that they tended to reach a conclusion based on the first bits of information they received and to neglect information that came later.

Participants not under time pressure considered all of the information given.

157. First, the motives that guide thinking often operate unconsciously. The needs to make decisions accurately and quickly, and to confirm preferred beliefs, are largely unconscious. Second, memory consolidation occurs during sleep. During sleep the unconscious consolidates memories by organizing and solidifying what we've learned and experienced. Third, the unconscious mind can work at a problem in parallel with the conscious mind, as evidenced by studies of artists and scientists who discover the solution to problems they're working on in a flash of creative insight, often after extensive conscious deliberation. Fourth, intuition can facilitate sound decisions. The unconscious responds with positive affect to logically coherent information. This is why people who judge romantic relationships based on gut feeling tend to be right more often about where their relationships are headed than people who engage in deliberate analysis. Fifth, unconscious emotional associations can promote good judgment, especially by influencing physical reactions. Research suggests that people with brain injuries who are unable to feel arousal in certain situations fail to shift away from risky decision making.

158. Accessibility is the ease with which people can bring an idea into consciousness and use it in thinking. When a schema is highly accessible, its salience is increased. A salient schema is active in one's mind and has an effect, often at the unconscious level, on perceptions and behavior. Priming occurs when a stimulus in the environment activates an idea that increases the salience of a schema.

159. A confirmation bias is when we seek out information that supports or confirms our schema or preexisting belief.

For example, if we have a first impression that someone is grumpy, then we often look for information that confirms that our belief fits the grumpy schema. Confirmation biases may occur when a schema is activated that leads us to interpret ambiguous information in a way that confirms the existing schema, whether it is correct or not. Confirmation biases help people keep their view of the world stable, by sustaining a consistent set of beliefs about the world, thus providing psychological security.

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Chap 04_3e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. People with _____ typically have diminished theory of mind. a. prosopagnosia b. neurotypicality c. autism d. depression 2. Navi has realized that whenever her friend Eli is around, she begins to feel angry. If Navi draws an inference based on the covariation principle, what will she conclude? a. There is no real connection between Eli's arrival and Navi's feelings. b. Navi must be doing something both to prompt Eli to arrive and to make herself angry. c. There is probably a third variable explaining the fact that Navi feels angry at the same time that Eli shows up. d. Eli causes Navi to become angry.

3. Around the age of four, children realize that their own beliefs and desires are separate from other people's beliefs and desires. This is the beginning of what is called: a. a theory of mind. b. the fusiform face area. c. mirror neurons. d. magical thinking.

4. Brianna recently failed her driving test. Thinking about it after the fact, she believes that she failed because she has no driving skills. Which type of attribution is Brianna making about her failing the driving test? a. external b. internal c. behavioral d. fundamental 5. When at a local restaurant, Dolores observes another woman run out of the bathroom crying. The other woman quickly pays her bill and leaves the restaurant still in tears. Dolores decides that this woman is probably very emotional all of the time. Which best represents Dolores' reasoning? a. external attribution b. correspondent inference c. availability heuristic d. mood-congruent memory

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Chap 04_3e 6. In a study by Gilbert and colleagues (1988), participants were shown a video of a nervous-looking woman discussing various topics. It was explained to half the participants that she was discussing anxiety-provoking topics, while the remaining participants thought she was discussing pleasant topics. Finally, half the participants were randomly assigned to complete a cognitively draining task while they performed the study.

What were the results? a. Those participants who completed a cognitively draining task were more likely to assume that the woman was a nervous person when they thought she was discussing pleasant topics. b. Those participants who completed a cognitively draining task were equally likely to assume that the woman was a nervous person regardless of what they thought she was discussing. c. Those participants who did not complete a cognitively draining task were more likely to assume that the woman was a nervous person when they thought she was discussing anxiety-provoking topics. d. Those participants who did not complete a cognitively draining task were equally likely to assume that the woman was a nervous person, regardless of what they thought she was discussing.

7. All of the following are true about first impressions, EXCEPT which statement? a. If we receive enough disconfirming information, then first impressions can change. b. We are more likely to use a bottom-up approach when we are motivated to get to know and understand a person. c. We are more likely to use a top-down approach when we are motivated to get to know and understand a person. d. First impressions are difficult to change, because of the primacy effect.

8. Which of the following statements is NOT an example of the fundamental attribution error? a. Wealthy people tend to believe that poor people are poor because they are lazy or immoral. b. People believe that their coworkers who are late to work are lazy. c. People believe that individuals become depressed because the people around them treat them as if they should be depressed. d. People believe that actors are like the characters they play.

9. A _____ mind-set sees a particular attribute as something fixed that a person can't control or change, whereas a _____ mind-set sees a particular attribute as something malleable that can increase or decrease. a. incremental; entity b. entity; incremental c. internal; external d. external; internal

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Chap 04_3e 10. People in more individualistic cultures tend to believe that others' behavior: a. is a reflection of internal traits. b. is caused by the situation. c. does not reflect internal dispositions. d. is due to events beyond their control.

11. The inability to recognize familiar faces is called: a. theory of mind. b. transference. c. dialecticism. d. prosopagnosia.

12. What does research suggest is a factor that lowers the tendency to rely on the ease of retrieval effect? a. whether a person is able to easily recall past instances of a behavior or not b. the extent to which the person has a good versus a poor general working memory capacity c. the extent to which the person connects their sense of self to their memories d. the personal relevance of the domain in which the individual is trying to recall past behaviors 13. Relying on the first few pieces of information to form a first impression is called the: a. primacy effect. b. recency effect. c. transference. d. halo effect.

14. In a classic study by Asch, participants read a list of traits ascribed to someone identified only as John. In one condition, participants read that John was intelligent, industrious, and envious. In the other condition, participants read that John was envious, intelligent, and industrious. The results showed that people liked John more in the first condition. What phenomenon did this study demonstrate? a. the representativeness heuristic b. the availability heuristic c. the primacy effect d. the ease of retrieval effect 15. People who suffer damage to the fusiform face area tend to suffer from: a. the ease of retrieval effect. b. prosopagnosia. c. theory of mind. d. transference.

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Chap 04_3e 16. Imagining what might have been, in contrast to what actually happened, is called: a. the availability heuristic. b. the representativeness heuristic. c. the primacy effect. d. counterfactual thinking.

17. In a study, participants watched a videotape of a woman claiming to like beer and classical music. The participants believed the woman was either a librarian or a waitress. When participants were asked what they remembered about the woman, those who believed she was a librarian were more likely to recall that she liked classical music and those who believed she was a waitress remembered that she liked beer. What does this study illustrate? a. the role of schemas in shaping memory b. people selectively remembering people's preferences, which match their own preferences c. people having difficulty remembering anything about strangers d. the influence of short-term memory on long-term memory 18. What does research suggest about people's ability to form impressions of others? a. People can form a fairly accurate impression of another person in about 30 seconds. b. People require at least six hours of interaction with someone else to form an accurate impression of them. c. Having more time to observe people increases the accuracy of the impression. d. People are only capable of forming accurate impressions of members of their ingroup.

19. When watching the results on election night, Nick was surprised to find out that many of his friends did not vote for the same candidate that he did. Which of the following most applies to Nick's experience? a. transference b. the halo effect c. theory of mind d. false consensus 20. Another name for a more flexible mind-set is a(n) _____ mind-set. a. incremental b. attributional c. fixed d. corresponding

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Chap 04_3e 21. All of the following are true about causal attribution, EXCEPT which statement? a. Causal schemas are based on personal experience. b. Causal schemas are based on general cultural knowledge. c. We are more likely to make causal attributions for expected events. d. The top of the head phenomenon plays a role in causal attribution.

22. Kelley identified all of the following as sources of relevant information for making causal attributions EXCEPT which one? a. duration b. distinctiveness c. consensus d. consistency 23. The actor–observer effect describes the tendency: a. for actors to be more expressive than observers in any given situation. b. to be less susceptible to the misinformation effect if one is an actor, rather than an observer, in a situation. c. to make internal attributions for the behavior of others and external attributions for our own behavior. d. to make causal attributions about both actors and observers, depending on the role we are playing in a given context.

24. If Gary thinks he was not selected for the baseball team because he did not practice as much as he should have, he is making a(n) _____ attribution about his behavior. a. unstable external b. stable internal c. unstable internal d. stable external 25. Which of the following is NOT true about the actor–observer effect? a. People make more internal attributions for their successes. b. People make more internal attributions for their failures. c. Actor–observer asymmetries are stronger if people believe the behavior is unintentional. d. The actor–observer effect can cause trouble for interpersonal relationships.

26. The fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to: a. rely on the most situationally salient factor to make a causal attribution. b. believe that what is easy to call to mind is also what is most accurate. c. attribute behavior to situational factors and underestimate the role of internal qualities. d. attribute behavior to internal qualities of an actor and underestimate situational factors.

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Chap 04_3e 27. The dimension of attribution referring to whether a behavior is an aspect of either the actor or the environment they are in is called: a. fixed versus incremental attribution. b. correspondent inference. c. stability of causation. d. locus of causality.

28. Which of the following is NOT a potential source of a person's initial causal hypothesis when they are trying to make an attribution? a. the interpretation the person would prefer to make b. the interpretation the person would fear the most c. a salient aspect of the event or a factor that is easily accessible from memory d. knowledge of a factor that is temporally and spatially distant from the event 29. An upward counterfactual is: a. the event that actually happened. b. identical to magical thinking. c. an imagined alternative that is better than what actually happened. d. an imagined alternative that is worse than what actually happened.

30. Which of the following is NOT true about repressed memories? a. Individuals who are susceptible to suggestion may be more likely to experience false repressed memories. b. Individuals who are trying to understand their psychological problem may be more likely to experience false repressed memories. c. Individuals who are overconfident may be more likely to experience false repressed memories. d. Individuals who are asked leading questions may be more likely to experience false repressed memories.

31. The two fundamental dimensions along which Heider believed causal attributions vary are _____ and _____. a. externality; internality b. stability; externality c. locus of causality; internality d. locus of causality; stability 32. Another name for an entity mind-set is: a. incremental. b. attributional. c. fixed. d. malleable.

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Chap 04_3e 33. Theory of mind refers to: a. the recognition that having a functioning brain is definitive of being human. b. a set of ideas about other people's thoughts, desires, feelings, and intentions based on what we know about them and the situation they are in. c. people's tendency to mimic the behavior of other individuals. d. people's tendency to infer internal causes for the behavior of others.

34. According to the three-stage model of dispositional attribution, a person is MOST likely to commit the fundamental attribution error when they: a. have plenty of time to form a decision. b. are highly motivated to make an accurate attribution. c. are distracted or too tired to pay close attention to the situation. d. are not under any cognitive load.

35. In elementary school, Hector was bullied by a group of tall children. As a result, he continues to hold a stereotype that tall people are mean. Hector was recently selected to serve on a jury for a manslaughter trial, with the defendant being a very tall man. After sitting through weeks of testimony, Hector is exhausted, yet he has to make a decision about the verdict. According to research, what decision would Hector be expected to make? a. make the decision at random b. find the defendant guilty c. find the defendant innocent d. follow the opinion of the other jurors 36. Which of the following is NOT true of counterfactual thinking? a. It is deeply ingrained in how we react to events. b. It is associated with unique patterns of brain region activation. c. It takes a lot conscious cognitive effort. d. It affects our emotional responses.

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Chap 04_3e 37. Ricardo and Monique are in couples' therapy because they often argue with each other. One day, their therapist asks each of them to think of five times in which they provoked the other person into an argument.

Another day, their therapist asks them to think of ten times when they did the same thing. According to research, what will the effect of the therapist's technique be on making Ricardo and Monique think of themselves as argumentative? a. On both days, Ricardo and Monique will be equally likely to think of themselves as argumentative. b. Due to gender differences, Ricardo is more likely to see himself as an argumentative person on both occasions. c. Both Ricardo and Monique will probably see themselves as more argumentative on the day when they are asked to recall five incidents. d. Both Ricardo and Monique will probably see themselves as more argumentative on the day when they are asked to recall ten incidents.

38. Which of the following is NOT true about memory? a. It is a reconstructive process. b. It can be biased by schemas. c. Ease of retrieval may bias memory. d. It is affected only by paying attention.

39. You see Bea sleeping during your social psychology lecture. If you make the fundamental attribution error, then you will say Bea: a. stayed up late studying for the exam. b. partied too much last night. c. is lazy. d. probably worked an extra shift the night before.

40. Cues given after an event can plant false information into memory. This is referred to as: a. mood-congruent memory. b. dialecticism. c. the misinformation effect. d. the availability heuristic.

41. The ease of retrieval effect refers to the fact that: a. people are more likely to judge personal rather than situational factors as having an influence in others' behavior. b. it's easier to retrieve long-term memories than to form new ones. c. people judge how frequently an event occurs by how easily they can retrieve examples of that event. d. people with better memories find it easier to retrieve events from long-term memory than those who have worse memories.

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Chap 04_3e 42. Research has shown that the most powerful influence on the development of children's mind-set is: a. the parents' mind-set about failure. b. the parents' mind-set about praise. c. mass- and entertainment-media influences. d. social-media influences.

43. Which of the following statements about the relationship between schema-consistency and memory is accurate? a. People are equally capable of remembering schema-consistent and schema-inconsistent information in almost all contexts. b. People are only able to remember information that is consistent with their prior schemas. c. People are only able to remember schema-inconsistent information if they have time to think about it. d. Under certain circumstances people are very good at remembering highly schema-inconsistent events.

44. The tendency to assume that information that comes easily to mind is more frequent or common is referred to as the: a. fundamental attribution error. b. availability heuristic. c. correspondent inference. d. misinformation effect.

45. While he is a huge fan of heavy metal, Michael hated the latest album from his favorite band. According to Kelley's covariation model of attributions, Michael's attitude toward this new album is: a. low in consensus. b. high in consensus. c. low in distinctiveness. d. high in distinctiveness.

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Chap 04_3e 46. A 1967 study demonstrating the fundamental attribution error assigned participants to read an essay that either praised or criticized Fidel Castro. Participants were also randomly assigned to be told that the author of the essay either freely chose to write it or was required to write it on that particular theme. What were the results of the study? a. Participants had no opinions about the author's attitude toward Fidel Castro, regardless of which essay they read. b. Participants believed the author's attitude toward Fidel Castro corresponded to the essay that was written only when they believed the person freely chose to write the essay. c. Participants believed the author's attitude toward Fidel Castro corresponded to the essay that was written only when they believed the person was forced to write the essay. d. Participants believed the author's attitude toward Fidel Castro corresponded to the essay that was written, regardless of whether the person was required to write the essay or had freely chosen to do so.

47. Research suggests that when a behavior is high in consistency, distinctiveness, and consensus, it tends to elicit a(n) _____, whereas when a behavior is high in consistency but low in distinctiveness and consensus, it tends to elicit a(n) _____. a. internal attribution; external attribution b. external attribution; internal attribution c. covariation principle; discounting principle d. discounting principle; covariation principle 48. The covariation principle refers to: a. the fact that two continuous variables can covary with each other either positively or negatively. b. the tendency to see a causal relationship between an event and an outcome when they happen at the same time. c. the fact that people tend to overestimate the role of situational factors in explaining others' behavior. d. the fact that people tend to overestimate the role of personal factors in explaining others' behavior.

49. The process of storing information in short-term memory is called _____, while the process of storing information in long-term memory is called _____. a. inference; discounting b. consolidation; encoding c. encoding; consolidation d. discounting; inference

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Chap 04_3e 50. According to Kelley's covariation theory, what three types of information do we use when we make causal attributions about other people's behavior? a. consistency, distinctiveness, and character b. consistency, distinctiveness, and consensus c. conformity, distinctiveness, and character d. conformity, distinctiveness, and consensus 51. How does mood-congruent memory explain why depressed individuals have trouble recalling past positive events? a. The same regions of the brain that cause depression are also responsible for encoding memories. b. Since depressed people experience fewer positive events, their memories typically cause them to be in a negative mood. c. When depressed individuals remember positive events, they usually think about them negatively. d. Because depressed people are usually in a negative mood, it is easier for them to recall negative events.

52. Research suggests that magical thinking and superstitious behavior are relatively more likely among: a. people with a strong need for control experiencing a high-stress situation. b. people with a low need for control experiencing a low-stress situation. c. adults (rather than children). d. individuals in modern cultures.

53. Joanna, a famous author, is being interviewed about her childhood. Before the interview, she ate a piece of chocolate cake—her favorite. How is Joanna, according to research, likely to have remembered her childhood? a. She remembered a mix of positive and negative details. b. She only remembered positive aspects of her childhood. c. She only remembered negative aspects of her childhood. d. She mostly remembered the negative, but also remembered some positive details of her childhood.

54. While the _____ concerns people's tendency to overestimate the role of internal factors in others' behavior, the _____ concerns people's tendency to make situational attributions about their own behavior. a. fundamental attribution error; actor–observer effect b. availability heuristic; ease of retrieval effect c. ease of retrieval effect; availability heuristic d. actor–observer effect; fundamental attribution error

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Chap 04_3e 55. One approach for improving the grades of lower-achieving students is to get them to adopt a _____. a. growth mind-set b. fixed mind-set c. causal attribution d. stable attribution 56. _____ is when we attribute to an actor the attitude, desire, or trait that corresponds to their actions. a. A correspondent inference b. A fundamental attribution error c. An entity mind-set d. An incremental mind-set 57. According to Kelley's covariation model of attributions, if we know that someone's opinion has low distinctiveness, it MOST CLEARLY tells us that it is caused by: a. an internal factor. b. an external factor. c. a stable factor. d. an unstable factor.

58. According to the text, which of the following is NOT an essential way that people make sense of their social world? a. person perception b. counterfactual thinking c. memory d. magical thinking 59. Kim was recently hired as a graphic designer. While she enjoys the creative aspect of this job, she is often asked to work long hours and has found many of her coworkers to be rude. As a result, Kim cannot decide whether she likes this job or not. Nine months later, Kim has befriended her coworkers and has received a pay raise for her good work. What does research suggest Kim's memory will be of the beginning of her job? a. Kim will remember that she wasn't sure if she liked the job at first. b. She will remember that she didn't like her job at first. c. She will remember liking her job from the beginning. d. She will not be able to remember the beginning of the job.

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Chap 04_3e 60. In which of the following situations are we LEAST likely to make a correspondent inference about a person who is praying? a. in a church b. in a restaurant c. at a lecture hall d. at a party 61. People are more likely to make _____ attributions for their failures and _____ attributions for their successes. a. causal; hostile b. hostile; causal c. internal; external d. external; internal 62. Which of the following statements is an accurate description of the relationship between schemas and memory? a. Schemas are more important than memories for processing information. b. Memories are more important than schemas for processing information. c. We often remember information that matches our schemas and ignore information that conflicts with our schemas. d. Schema and memory are the same concept.

63. Blaming victims for the suffering they experience is an example of what phenomenon? a. people's need for accurate causal knowledge b. people's tendency to attribute external causes to the experiences of those they dislike c. people's desire to believe that good things happen to their enemies d. people's desire to believe that the world is just 64. Which of the following is NOT true about Carol Dweck's early work on achievement? a. She found boys often attributed their difficulties to a lack of effort. b. She found girls tended to attribute their difficulties to a lack of ability. c. She started encouraging children to attribute failures to internal but stable factors. d. She found girls were more likely to give up trying to get better at math.

65. If people have a high cognitive load, then they are _____ likely to attribute behaviors to internal factors. a. randomly b. less c. more d. not

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Chap 04_3e 66. A local speaker was brought into a high school to talk about their experiences with drunk driving. When telling their story, everyone in the audience began to tear up. According to Kelley's covariation model of attributions, this is an example of a behavior: a. high in consensus. b. low in distinctiveness. c. high in consistency. d. low in consensus.

67. According to Kelley's covariation model of attributions, if we know that someone's opinion has low consistency, what does that MOST CLEARLY tell us about their opinion? a. It is caused by an internal factor. b. It is caused by an external factor. c. The cause of the opinion is stable. d. The cause of the opinion is unstable.

68. A classic study by Storms (1973) showed that when people were engaged in a conversation, they thought that _____ was/were leading the conversation; but when they watched a video of the conversation from their partner's perspective, they thought that _____ was/were leading the conversation. a. their partner; they (the participant) b. they (the participant); their partner c. no one; the experimenter d. the experimenter; no one 69. The fundamental attribution error is the tendency for observers to _____ situational influences and _____ dispositional influences on behavior. a. overestimate; underestimate b. underestimate; overestimate c. ignore; overestimate d. overestimate; ignore 70. A causal attribution is: a. the explanation that people use for what caused a particular event or behavior. b. a tendency to explain events in terms of the results, rather than effects. c. a tendency to explain other people's behavior in terms of dispositional, rather than situational, factors. d. a tendency to explain other people's behavior in terms of situational, rather than dispositional, factors.

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Chap 04_3e 71. We often underestimate the situational causes of others' behavior but not our own because we observe others from a different perspective than we observe ourselves. This is known as: a. the actor–observer effect. b. the locus of causality effect. c. the self-awareness effect. d. rosy perspective bias.

72. The term mood-congruent memory refers to the fact that: a. people are more likely to remember negative information when in a negative mood, and positive information when in a positive mood. b. memory tends to be driven by the mood we are feeling at the time that we are forming a memory. c. our mood at any point in time is primarily determined by our memories. d. overall, people are more likely to remember events as more negative than they actually were.

73. In _____ cultures, people are less likely to perceive others in terms of internal dispositions. a. collectivist b. individualistic c. secular d. religious 74. In a classic study, Heider and Simmel (1944) showed people a film clip of a large triangle and a small triangle moving around, and out of a larger square that had an opening. When the researchers asked people what was going on in the clip, what were the findings? a. People explained the events in terms of intentional actions committed by the shapes. b. People simply listed the shapes that they had seen in the video. c. People suspected that the experimenters were doing something suspicious while distracting them with the shapes. d. The majority of the participants were completely unable to make sense of what they had seen.

75. A tendency to weigh instances of negative behavior more heavily than instances of positive behavior is called: a. theory of mind. b. transference. c. false consensus. d. negativity bias.

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Chap 04_3e 76. As you walk into the doctor's office, you see two people looking over medical charts. One is an older male, and the other is a young woman. As most doctors are male, you assume that the man is the doctor. What is this an example of? a. the representativeness heuristic b. the availability heuristic c. prejudice d. top-down processing 77. Growing up, Alyssa dressed up as a pirate for Halloween for 5 years in a row. According to Kelley's covariation model of attributions, Alyssa's opinion about dressing up like a pirate is: a. low-consistency. b. high-consistency. c. low-consensus. d. high-consensus.

78. Which of the following is the best description of the process of getting information into long-term memory? a. Some of the information present in our current array of sensory input is encoded. b. Information that is actively rehearsed or is otherwise distinctive, goal-relevant, or emotionally salient gets consolidated for later retrieval. c. Information that we decide to remember becomes attached to a particular schema. d. Information that we encounter three or more times becomes a part of our long-term memory.

79. A downward counterfactual is: a. the event that actually happened. b. the same as magical thinking. c. an imagined alternative that is better than what actually happened. d. an imagined alternative that is worse than what actually happened.

80. Desiree was working at a grocery store when it was robbed. Another witness mentioned that the thief was wearing a basketball jersey. While the thief was NOT actually wearing a basketball jersey, it has become incorporated into Desiree's memory. This represents the: a. actor-observer effect. b. availability heuristic. c. false memory effect. d. misinformation effect.

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Chap 04_3e 81. Which of the following conditions does NOT increase the likelihood that people will remember schemainconsistent information? a. The information is highly salient. b. The schema being violated is highly important to the person. c. People have the cognitive resources to notice and process the information. d. People are motivated to make sense of the information.

82. On Saturday, Lucas attended a soccer game with some friends. At the game, he accidentally spilled his drink on another fan when celebrating a goal. The other fan is upset because he infers that this was intentional.

What is the best example of a causal attribution in this scenario? a. Lucas celebrating the goal b. Lucas spilling his drink c. the other fan's inference that Lucas purposefully spilled his drink on him d. Lucas thinking about how the other fan is reacting 83. A(n) _____ locus of causality refers to behavior being caused by an aspect of the actor, while a(n) _____ locus of causality refers to behavior being caused by an aspect of the situation. a. internal; external b. external; internal c. short-term; long-term d. long-term; short-term 84. Thierry believes that if he practices his drawing skills, he can become a better artist. Which type of mind-set does Thierry have in relation to artistic ability? a. consistent b. inconsistent c. incremental d. entity 85. People with fixed mind-sets tend to: a. make more positive stable attributions about themselves in response to challenges. b. experience more negative affect in response to challenging tasks. c. perform better under pressure. d. embrace opportunities for change.

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Chap 04_3e 86. Mirror neurons are: a. missing in individuals with a damaged fusiform face area. b. activated both when one performs an action oneself and when one simply observes another person perform that action. c. activated whenever the individual encounters an image of himself or herself. d. second genetic copies of each neuron in the brain.

87. Which of the following situations is most likely to generate feelings of guilt and regret? a. not engaging in counterfactuals b. engaging in any form of counterfactual c. engaging in an upward counterfactual d. engaging in a downward counterfactual 88. On a Wednesday night, Evan tries to get Armando to go with him to a local concert. Saying that he wants to get a full night of sleep to prepare for a math test in the morning, Armando declines the invitation. Evan attends the concert anyway and is only able to get a few hours of sleep. When walking to school in the morning, Armando and Evan notice a car driving down the wrong side of the road. Who is more likely to remember this event in a few days? a. Armando is more likely to remember. b. Evan is more likely to remember. c. Both will remember. d. Neither will remember.

89. Sergio cannot seem to get the hang of driving his new car. His friends ask if he had similar issues with his previous car. The answer to this question MOST directly provides information about: a. consistency. b. consensus. c. character. d. distinctiveness.

90. Jake borrowed a few books from the library and did not return them on time. The librarian thinks this is because Jake is irresponsible. Which type of attribution did the librarian make about Jake's behavior? a. external b. internal c. behavioral d. fundamental

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Chap 04_3e 91. "What did she expect to happen? She was drinking and out late!" These comments best reflect: a. people's desire to believe that bad things will happen. b. people's need for accurate knowledge. c. people's desire to believe that the world is just. d. people's illusion of control.

92. The _____ process describes how we build an impression of another person based on our own preconceived ideas; while the _____ process describes how we form our impression by observing their actions and drawing conclusions about them. a. attributional; impression formation b. bottom-up; top-down c. top-down; bottom-up d. impression formation; attributional 93. Which of the following does NOT increase the likelihood of a correspondent inference? a. There is a clear external factor contributing to the individual's behavior. b. The individual has a choice between two actions, and there is only one difference between the two choices. c. The individual is acting inconsistently with their given social role. d. The individual seems to have a choice in the action.

94. Tong is late for his date with Juanita because traffic on the freeway was unusually bad. Juanita is angry with Tong when he arrives. What does research on the actor–observer effect suggest each of these people will think about the other? a. Tong thinks Juanita is angry because he was late for the date; Juanita thinks Tong might be late for a specific reason, like traffic. b. Tong thinks Juanita is angry because he was late for the date; Juanita thinks Tong is late because he is always late. c. Tong thinks Juanita is angry because she is always angry; Juanita thinks Tong is late because he is always late. d. Tong thinks Juanita is angry because she is always angry; Juanita thinks Tong might be late for a specific reason, like traffic.

95. According to research, one possible way to reduce the interpersonal conflicts arising from the actor– observer effect is to: a. ask each person to think carefully about their own view of the situation. b. have each person view a situation from the perspective of the other. c. remind each person of the situational factors that are influencing their own behavior in that situation. d. ask each person to think about the aspects of the other person that are causing them to behave the way they are behaving.

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Chap 04_3e 96. Using preexisting schemas to form impressions of a person means relying on our: a. theory of mind. b. transference. c. implicit personality theories. d. explicit personality theories.

97. What does research suggest about exchange students who have strong entity mind-sets regarding achievement and intelligence? a. They are more likely to be highly proficient in their native language. b. They are less likely to be highly proficient in their native language. c. They are more likely to attend remedial English courses. d. They are less likely to attend remedial English courses.

98. Janet is sitting in the passenger seat while her friend Brigitte is driving. Feeling nervous about Brigette's driving skills, Janet presses her foot into the floor of the car when they get too close to the car in front of them. Janet seems to hold a(n) _____. a. external locus of control b. illusion of control c. theory of mind d. false consensus 99. People from individualistic cultures are more likely to make _____ attributions for other people's behavior, while those from collectivist cultures are by comparison more likely to make _____ attributions for other people's behavior. a. external; internal b. stable; unstable c. unstable; stable d. internal; external 100. The process of judging something by quickly comparing it with a mental representation of a category is the: a. theory of mind. b. transference. c. availability heuristic. d. representativeness heuristic.

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Chap 04_3e 101. If Riyadh believes he failed his chemistry exam because the teacher is bad at their job, then Riyadh is making a(n) _____ attribution about this event. a. external b. internal c. noncausal d. fundamental 102. Bob realizes that everyone in the neighborhood prefers to go to the Italian restaurant rather than the burger place. According to Kelley's covariation model of attributions, the general opinion about the restaurants in town is: a. low in consensus. b. high in consensus. c. low in consistency. d. high in consistency.

103. In a study by Ross and colleagues (1977), researchers randomly assigned participants to play the part of either a quiz show contestant or the questioner, while other participants were the observers. The results indicated that: a. both contestants and observers thought the questioners were more knowledgeable than the contestants. b. both contestants and observers thought the contestants were more knowledgeable than the questioners. c. observers thought the questioners were more knowledgeable, but contestants attributed the outcomes to the situation. d. questioners thought themselves more knowledgeable, but contestants attributed the outcomes to the situation.

104. All of the following are true about first impressions EXCEPT which statement? a. We have an innate system for quickly detecting a person's age and sex. b. Being highly attuned to physical characteristics has evolutionary survival value. c. In our day-to-day interactions, we rarely use observable characteristics to form impressions. d. We are quick to decide whether a person is a stranger or someone we know.

105. Research suggests that which of the following will NOT result from convincing a person to adopt an incremental mind-set? a. They will be more persistent in response to failure. b. They will tend not to pursue opportunities to improve their intelligence. c. They will make fewer ability-based attributions for failure. d. They will adopt more learning-oriented goals.

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Chap 04_3e 106. Dweck (1975) found that boys tend to attribute their poor performance in math to _____ factors, whereas girls tend to attribute their poor performance in math to _____ factors. a. stable internal; stable external b. stable internal; unstable external c. unstable internal; stable external d. unstable internal; stable internal 107. All of the following are true about false consensus EXCEPT which statement? a. We are more likely to assume false consensus among members of our ingroup. b. We are more likely to assume false consensus among members of our outgroup. c. Our own self-focus leads us to assume false consensus among others. d. False consensus validates our worldview.

108. Research has shown that which of the following U.S. demographic groups is relatively more likely to make the fundamental attribution error? a. political conservatives b. political liberals c. White Americans d. Black Americans 109. Which of the following statements is true about the relationship between feelings and memory? a. If an event made you feel positively or negatively, you will remember that feeling accurately. b. People generally remember events as being more positive than they actually were. c. People generally remember events as being more negative than they actually were. d. People remember events as more negative than they were, but only if they feel positively about their current situation.

110. Dialecticism refers to: a. a tendency to oscillate back and forth between positive and negative moods when trying to recall memories. b. a tolerance for inconsistency and changes in thinking about the world and others. c. a tendency to recall information based on current mood. d. a tendency to recall memories in schema-consistent ways.

111. Which of the following cultural variables is LESS likely to encourage people to commit the fundamental attribution error? a. religiosity b. individualism c. collectivism d. entitativity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_3e 112. Information that is currently activated is called _____ memory. a. consolidated b. short-term c. long-term d. schematic 113. When is a person MOST likely to engage in an elaborate, thoughtful process of causal attribution to understand an event? a. when the event clearly fits a schema from personal experience b. when the event clearly fits a schema from the broader culture c. when the event is something that has happened many times before d. when the event is completely unexpected 114. Which of the following research findings is NOT true? a. People high in neuroticism are less likely to report positive emotions. b. People can accurately perceive personality traits of others from their Facebook postings. c. People can accurately perceive conscientiousness by seeing someone's office. d. Knowing that people have preferences for music with vocals can be a predictor of extraversion.

115. Short-term memory is information _____, while long-term memory is _____. a. that is currently activated; information from past experience b. from past experience; information that is currently activated c. that is only active for a short period of time; information that is chronically active d. that is chronically active; information that is only active for a short period of time 116. In a famous experiment, all subjects viewed the same video of an automobile accident. Later one group of subjects was asked, how fast were the cars going when they bumped into each other? The other group of subjects was asked, how fast were the cars going when they smashed into each other? Which group reported seeing more broken glass? a. the group that was asked about cars that bumped into each other b. the group that was asked about cars that smashed into each other c. Both groups reported seeing equal amounts of broken glass. d. Neither group reported seeing any broken glass, because there was no broken glass.

117. In the United States, people are more likely to die from falling in the shower than from terrorist attacks. Yet people often assume that terrorism is much more dangerous than falling in the shower. This is an example of: a. information recall. b. the actor–observer effect. c. the availability heuristic. d. external attribution.

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Chap 04_3e 118. When is it most helpful to generate upward counterfactuals? a. when a negative event is likely to reoccur, and will be under our control b. when a negative event is not likely to reoccur, and will be under our control c. when a negative event is likely to reoccur, and will not be under our control d. when a negative event is not likely to reoccur, and will not be under our control 119. Michelle cannot see another person cry without starting to cry herself. This is due to: a. the fusiform gyrus. b. perspective taking. c. mirror neurons. d. illusion of control.

120. According to Kelley's covariation model of attributions, if we know that someone's opinion reflects a high consensus, it MOST CLEARLY tells us that their opinion is caused by: a. an internal factor. b. an external factor. c. a stable factor. d. an unstable factor.

121. The tendency of social perceivers' assessments of an individual on a given trait to be biased by the perceivers' more general impression of the individual is called: a. false consensus. b. the halo effect. c. an explicit personality theory. d. theory of mind.

122. Which of the following is an example of the availability heuristic? a. being more afraid of flying than driving because of heavy media coverage of airplane crashes b. believing that a friend failed a test due to lack of intelligence, whereas you failed the test because you were unable to study due to various factors c. thinking that an older student in the hall is a professor d. being more upset about missing an important flight by a few minutes than about missing it by several hours 123. In the area of causal attribution research, magical thinking refers to: a. the tendency to disregard previous information when more recent information is available. b. the tendency for people to see cause-and-effect relationships everywhere in the world. c. the tendency to believe that simply having thoughts about an event before it occurs can influence that event. d. the fact that people can control their emotions via their cognitive processes.

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Chap 04_3e 124. As people age, what are they most likely to regret? a. undesirable actions that they committed b. desirable actions that they omitted c. the concrete, situational pressures that prompted them to take certain actions d. People are equally likely to regret a variety of actions and inactions.

125. The tendency for the importance of any potential cause of a person's behavior to be reduced in the presence of other potential causes is referred to as the: a. discounting principle. b. covariation principle. c. misinformation effect. d. ease of retrieval effect.

126. False consensus refers to: a. a tendency to believe that whatever is popular is also good. b. a tendency to assume that other people share our attitudes and preferences. c. an opinion that is high in consensus. d. an opinion that is low in consensus.

127. _____ occurs when we form an impression of an unfamiliar person using the schema we have of a familiar person, due to some physical resemblance. a. Theory of mind b. False consensus c. Halo effect d. Transference 128. Which of the following is NOT a stage in the three-stage model of dispositional attribution? a. The observer makes an automatic external attribution. b. If the observer has sufficient accuracy motivation and cognitive resources, they revise their initial attribution. c. A behavior is observed and labeled. d. The observer makes an automatic correspondent dispositional inference.

129. Victor is meeting another student for the first time to work on a class project. Instantly, when Victor meets this student, she vaguely reminds him of his good friend Mari. Victor immediately gets the feeling that he is going to get along well with this new student. What process has just occurred? a. transference b. causal attribution c. false consensus d. the misinformation effect Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_3e 130. Laurent's car was recently stolen. When reporting the crime to the police, he is trying to remember all the details about the event. The police are asking him to recall everything he remembers about the event, including where he was, what the thief looked like, and which direction they went. Which of the following statements BEST characterizes what Laurent's process of remembering the event will be like? a. Although he might not be able to remember everything, Laurent's memories will be accurate and objective. b. Laurent will describe long-term, but not short-term memories. c. Laurent's memory will most likely be biased, as memory is a reconstructive process. d. As getting your car stolen is a rare event, Laurent will be able to remember every detail.

131. When visiting France, Nick had an okay time. When reminiscing with his friends a year later, he remembered having a great time on his trip. This is called: a. rosy recollection bias. b. negativity bias. c. the mind-set effect. d. positivity bias.

132. Which of the following is NOT a reason why people experience the phenomenon of false consensus? a. People typically expose themselves to diverse forms of news media. b. It is comforting, especially under threat, to think that our beliefs are widely held. c. People tend to associate with others who share their opinions and lifestyle. d. Whatever people themselves believe is what is most cognitively salient to them.

133. Luisa thinks that she was fired from her job because the company has overly high expectations. She is making a(n) _____ attribution about her behavior. a. unstable external b. stable internal c. unstable internal d. stable external 134. Describe the two basic dimensions of causal attribution. Describe mind-sets. Draw on research and theory in these areas to discuss the ways in which attribution processes can cause some students to fare better academically than others.

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Chap 04_3e 135. Discuss the evolutionary value of being able to form quick impressions of others.

136. What is theory of mind? When do individuals develop theory of mind? Do certain individuals have less theory of mind compared with others?

137. Are people able to make accurate impressions of others based on brief encounters, or does accuracy require more extended interactions? Support your answer with examples from research.

138. Research suggests that people can form fairly accurate impressions of others based on relatively brief encounters, or indeed without ever even meeting a person. Discuss some of this research. Do you believe that people can form accurate impressions on the basis of very limited information? Once an impression is formed, is it difficult to change? Is it impossible to change first impressions?

139. Briefly discuss and define transference, implicit personality theories, and the halo effect. Provide examples of supporting research for all three phenomena. How are these effects of person perception similar? Are there ways to achieve more accurate perceptions of others outside of such biases?

140. Define causal attribution. What are the two basic dimensions of causal attribution identified by Fritz Heider?

What implications do these two basic dimensions have for how we view other people?

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Chap 04_3e 141. What is the false consensus phenomenon? Name at least two reasons why false consensus is so common.

142. When are people more likely to use a bottom-up approach to person perception?

143. Describe both bottom-up processing and top-down processing with regard to impression formation.

144. According to Kelley's covariation model, what are the three sources of information that people focus on when trying to make an accurate causal attribution?

145. What are the availability heuristic and the ease-of-retrieval effect? Give a research example of each.

146. Describe stereotyping. When do we use stereotypes in impression formation? What is the representativeness heuristic, and what role does it play in stereotyping? Describe Tversky and Kahneman's study on the representativeness heuristic.

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Chap 04_3e 147. What are counterfactuals? What do studies suggest about the relationship between counterfactuals and emotional reactions? Give an example to support this point.

148. What is the relationship between schemas and memory formation? Discuss when we remember schemainconsistent information. How do schema-consistent and schema-inconsistent information relate to culture?

149. What is mood-congruent memory? Give examples of this phenomenon from research.

150. Describe the fundamental attribution error and the actor–observer effect.

151. What is the evolutionary value of forming quick first impressions? Describe bottom-up and top-down processing with regard to impression formation. Describe the negativity bias in first impressions, and provide reasons why it occurs.

152. What is the difference between entity and incremental mind-sets? According to research, what are some of the positive benefits of students having an incremental mind-set?

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Chap 04_3e 153. Discuss the three sources of information that Kelley proposed people use when motivated to make accurate attributions. Provide examples of an internally and an externally attributed behavior classified on these three dimensions.

154. According to Gilbert and colleagues, what are the three steps in the attribution process?

155. Discuss counterfactual thinking. When does counterfactual thinking produce stronger reactions? Describe both downward and upward counterfactual thinking. Provide an example from your own life of a situation where you contemplated a downward or upward counterfactual that had a strong emotional impact on you.

What are the benefits and drawbacks of using counterfactuals?

156. What is magical thinking? Describe an example of magical thinking that has been demonstrated in psychological research.

157. Define and discuss correspondent inferences, the fundamental attribution error, and the actor–observer effect. Provide everyday examples of each. Are there times when the fundamental attribution error is more or less likely to occur?

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Chap 04_3e 158. Describe the relationship between personal control and counterfactuals. In what kinds of life situations is it better to generate upward versus downward counterfactuals?

159. What is the misinformation effect? How was this effect demonstrated in Loftus's classic study?

160. How does culture influence the tendency to commit the fundamental attribution error?

161. What are the primary origins of causal schemas?

162. Describe the misinformation effect. Describe Loftus's classic study on the misinformation effect. What has research demonstrated about the potential consequences of this effect? What do you believe the relevance of this effect might be for our legal system?

163. What is a correspondent inference? Name at least two of the three conditions that make a correspondent inference more likely to occur.

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Chap 04_3e 164. What are upward counterfactuals, and what are downward counterfactuals? Give an example of each.

165. Describe the availability heuristic. What role does the availability heuristic play in people's judgments?

Provide two examples of the availability heuristic.

166. Consider Kelley's covariation model's three sources of information that people use to make a causal attribution. Which specific combination of sources of information is most likely to lead to an external attribution? Give a hypothetical example of an external attribution and how it would be high or low on each source of information.

167. What is the representativeness heuristic? Describe Kahneman and Tversky's classic demonstration of this phenomenon.

168. Under what circumstances is the fundamental attribution error less likely to occur?

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Chap 04_3e Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. c 8. c 9. b 10. a 11. d 12. d 13. a 14. c 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. a 19. d 20. a 21. c 22. a 23. c 24. c 25. b 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_3e 27. d 28. d 29. c 30. c 31. d 32. c 33. b 34. c 35. b 36. c 37. c 38. d 39. c 40. c 41. c 42. a 43. d 44. b 45. d 46. d 47. b 48. b 49. c 50. b 51. d 52. a 53. b 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_3e 55. a 56. a 57. a 58. d 59. c 60. a 61. d 62. c 63. d 64. c 65. c 66. a 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. a 71. a 72. a 73. a 74. a 75. d 76. a 77. b 78. b 79. d 80. d 81. b 82. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_3e 83. a 84. c 85. b 86. b 87. c 88. a 89. d 90. b 91. c 92. c 93. a 94. c 95. b 96. c 97. d 98. b 99. d 100. d 101. a 102. b 103. a 104. c 105. b 106. d 107. b 108. a 109. b 110. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_3e 111. c 112. b 113. d 114. a 115. a 116. b 117. c 118. a 119. c 120. b 121. b 122. a 123. c 124. b 125. a 126. b 127. d 128. a 129. a 130. c 131. a 132. a 133. d

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Chap 04_3e 134. Attributional processes affect how we view both others and ourselves. Heider proposed that causal attributions vary on two dimensions: stability and locus of causality. The locus of causality can be internal or external, either something within the actor, like a disposition or a character trait, or something outside, a situational element in the environment or coming from another person. For example, Harleen believes she failed the test because she is not smart (an internal attribution), whereas Akhil believes he failed the test because the teacher is a bad teacher (an external attribution). On the stability dimension, behavior is caused by either stable or unstable forces. If Harleen believes she failed the course because she is not smart, that is not only an internal attribution but a stable one, because people typically believe intelligence is a fixed quality. If Akhil believes that the teacher is a bad teacher, then that is an external attribution and, again, a stable one, because a teacher's skill level does not change from week to week. In other words, because the teacher is bad, Akhil will probably not do well on his next exam either. Stable attributions predict future outcomes to be the same in similar situations. If, however, Akhil believes he did badly because he had bad luck in guessing which questions would be asked, then he has made an external but unstable attribution, which suggests that he might do better in the future if his luck turns around. The educational psychologist Carol Dweck has shown that boys tend to attribute failures or difficulties to the unstable internal factor of lack of effort or to external factors such as bad teachers. Girls, on the other hand, attribute their failures or difficulties to a more stable internal cause such as their lack of ability. These findings prompted Dweck to characterize two opposing mind-sets. A fixed (or entity) mind-set sees human traits and abilities (e.g., intelligence) as stable and not greatly subject to change, whereas an incremental (or growth-oriented) mind-set sees room for change and therefore for improvement. People with a fixed minds-set tend to make more negative stable attributions about themselves when trying difficult tasks. They may have more negative feelings and may perform worse and give up trying. People with an incremental mind-set tend to make more external attributions and keep trying when faced with difficult tasks. Thus, students who fare better academically typically have an incremental mind-set. Perhaps the takeaway for both parents and teachers is not to tell Akhil's he is brilliant, but to focus on the importance of hard work and effort.

135. Certain characteristics of others, such as sex, age, and other physical indicators of health and strength, can be quickly summed up with little conscious thought. People may have evolved to assess these cues quickly because they are helpful for distinguishing whether someone is friendly or not, and possibly for sizing up potential partners.

Individuals who could make these quick summations were better able to survive and thrive than those who didn't make quick judgments.

136. Theory of mind refers to a set of ideas about other people's thoughts, desires, feelings, and intentions, based on what we know about them and the situation they are in. People generally develop a theory of mind around the age of four. Studies indicate that individuals with autism often have reduced capacity for theory of mind compared with others.

137. Research suggests that people are able to form fairly accurate impressions of others based on relatively brief encounters. For example, students formed an impression of a lecturer based on watching a 30-second clip of the lecturer teaching. The students' impressions were strongly correlated to evaluations made by students enrolled in the lecturer's course. Research has also found that people accurately perceived personality traits of others based on only reading their Facebook posts.

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Chap 04_3e 138. First impressions are quickly formed on the basis of very little information. They may be formed based on a name, an e-mail address, voice, or attire. Research has also shown that people can form reasonably accurate impressions based on very brief glimpses of an individual's behavior. A meta-analysis of over three dozen studies found that after watching only 30 seconds of a person's behavior, observers were fairly accurate at forming an impression that matched how that person might describe himself or herself. Other research showed that after seeing a professor on video for 30 seconds, students formed impressions that correlated strongly with the later end-of-course evaluations of that professor made by actual students in the class. Research has also shown that people can assess the personality traits of others from reading their Facebook posts. People also have ideas about other people's thoughts based on what is called theory of mind. Beginning around age four, children develop this ability to read others' thoughts and feelings based on clues such as facial expressions and tone of voice. With the ability to read thoughts and emotions comes an ability to predict how people will behave.

Students' opinions may vary on whether they believe that people can form accurate impressions, but the majority of students will most likely state that they can and will cite instances when they have, in fact, done so. It is said that a first impression is a lasting impression. Research has shown that first impressions are difficult to change.

Once people have formed an impression-schema of another person, they tend to use that schema to screen any additional information. Because of this primacy effect, first impressions are difficult to change. However, while it is difficult, it is not impossible. If information comes in that disconfirms people's previous view, and if the disconfirming evidence is strong enough, then the brain registers the arrival of the new information as a significant event, and then an initial impression can change.

139. Transference is a process where people activate an impression schema for a person they know and use that schema to form an impression of someone new. Andersen and colleagues found that when you first see your new roommate, if he or she looks like someone you know or know of, then you will tend to assume that the roommate resembles the other person not only in appearance but also in personality. Implicit personality theories are theories we form about which traits go together and why they do so. Ash conducted research that found that people combine traits to form a coherent overall description of a person, even if some of the traits don't easily fit together.

For example, he found that a sociable but lonely person might be viewed as someone with many acquaintances but no close friends. The halo effect is the tendency of perceivers' assessments of an individual on a given trait to be biased on the perceivers' more general impression of the individual. For example, attractive people are also thought to be happier and more successful than less attractive people. Transference, implicit personality theories, and the halo effect are all top-down phenomena that revolve around schema activation and also automatic assessment of traits. People can, however, correct for biases and change their perceptions. Disconfirming evidence, especially strong disconfirming evidence, that goes against a first impression can cause that impression to be reassessed.

140. A causal attribution is an explanation that people generate for what caused a certain event or a particular behavior.

Locus of causality refers to whether we attribute the cause of a behavior to some internal aspect of the actor, or to some external factor. Stability refers to whether we attribute an event or action to stable or unstable factors.

These two basic dimensions affect the impressions we form of others and the predictions we make about their future behavior. For example, attributions to stable personality factors lead us to expect people to act the same in the future as they did in the past.

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Chap 04_3e 141. False consensus refers to a general tendency to assume that other people share our own attitudes, opinions, and preferences. False consensus is common partly because people's own beliefs and opinions are highly salient to them. It also occurs because it is reassuring to people to believe that their own opinions are highly shared. Finally, it occurs because individuals tend to associate with others who share their opinions.

142. People are more likely to use a bottom-up approach to person perception when they are motivated to get to know a person or they are motivated to understand a person. If, say, they will need to work with a person, or if they are somehow grouped with that person and they feel similar to them, then they may be more motivated to move beyond stereotypical assessment.

143. Bottom-up processing is building an impression from the bottom up, or in other words noting individual characteristics, actions, and expressions and then drawing conclusions based on them. Top-down processing is when we form a first impression about a person based on our own preconceived ideas and form expectations about their behavior before we have even observed much of it.

144. According to research by Kelley, people pay attention to whether a behavior is consistent across time or it varies.

People also pay attention to whether a behavior is distinctive compared with other behaviors. In other words, does the person engage in this kind of behavior, or does this particular behavior stand out as exceptional? Finally, people also pay attention to whether there is consensus about a behavior or opinion (e.g., do many people endorse or exhibit it, or only one individual?).

145. The availability heuristic is the tendency to assume that information that comes easily to mind, or is readily available, is more frequent or common. For example, people tend to worry more about airplane crashes than car accidents because airplane crashes are more sensationalized in the media. The ease of retrieval effect refers to the process whereby people judge how frequently an event occurs on the basis of how easily they can retrieve examples of that event. For instance, people who are asked to recall 6 times they behaved aggressively think of themselves as more aggressive than those asked to recall 12 such times. The reason is that it is much easier to recall 6 occasions than 12. People asked to recall 12 occasions infer from their difficulty with the assigned recall task that they are not very aggressive.

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Chap 04_3e 146. Stereotyping is a heuristic to get a quick assessment of a person. Stereotypes essentially group people together based on some common feature. People rely on this type of schematic processing when making top-down assessments of others. This process may be accurate or inaccurate. It is, however, always a generalization.

Stereotypes are quick and require little cognitive effort to make an assessment. People don't always rely on stereotypes to form impressions, but they typically do when (1) the outcome doesn't really matter, (2) they are tired, and (3) they don't really know the person. People may rely on stereotypes even when the stakes are high, especially if they are tired. If a person comes to know a person more as an individual and not just as a member of some group, then there is less reliance on stereotyping. The representativeness heuristic is the tendency to overestimate the likelihood that a target is part of a category if the person that has some features that seem to fit or be representative of that category. For example, imagine that you see an older person and a younger person standing at the front of the class. If your professors are typically older, then you quite quickly assume that the older person represents or fits the category of professor. Obviously, you may be right or you may be wrong in your assessment. This representative heuristic is part of why we stereotype. We like to be right and hold onto our assessments. Tversky and Kahneman demonstrated the representativeness heuristic by asking subject to read a description of a person chosen from a group of 100 professionals. The subjects read about Jack, a 45-year-old married man with four children, who is conservative, careful, and ambitious. He doesn't have any interest in political or social issues, and his hobbies are carpentry, sailing, and math puzzles. Subjects were asked if Jack was an engineer or a lawyer. Subjects chose engineer because the description better fit their stereotypical view of an engineer. This was the same result even when subjects were told that out of the 100 professionals, 70 were lawyers and 30 were engineers. This description still seemed more representative of an engineer to the subjects.

147. Counterfactuals are alternative outcomes that run counter or opposite to what actually happened. Negative outcomes resulting from unusual actions or actions that were almost avoided are easier to undo mentally. Because they are easier to undo mentally, they cause people to generate more counterfactuals and arouse stronger negative emotional reactions. For example, if a person misses a flight by only five minutes, they will be able to imagine more possible scenarios in which they could have made their flight. This will make them angrier than if they missed the flight by an hour.

148. Most of the time it is easier for people to remember information consistent with their schemas. At times, however, people may remember schema-inconsistent information. Information that is highly inconsistent with our schemas may grab our attention and make us want to figure out what is going on. When we have time and are motivated, we will focus more on schema-inconsistent information and remember it better. There are also cultural differences with regard to schema-consistent and schema-inconsistent information. Collectivist cultures, where people tend to think about things as embedded in the broader context, have more tolerance for inconsistency compared with individualistic cultures. Individualistic cultures tend to have well-defined distinctive concepts that show stability over time and show less tolerance for inconsistency. As a result, people from collectivist cultures sometimes have a better memory for facts or descriptive details that appear to conflict and cannot easily be brought together under a single schema.

149. When we say that people tend to exhibit mood-congruent memory, we mean that they are more likely to remember positive information when they are in a positive mood, and more likely to remember negative information when they are in a negative mood. For example, shoppers tend to recall more positive attributes of products if they are in a good mood. In another example, depressed individuals are more likely to recall negative events from their past because they are usually in bad moods.

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Chap 04_3e 150. The fundamental attribution error is the tendency to attribute behavior to internal or dispositional qualities of the actor, and to underestimate the role of situational factors. The actor–observer effect is the tendency to make internal attributions for the behavior of others and external attributions for our own behavior.

151. Certain characteristics of others, such as sex, age, and other physical indicators of health and strength, can be quickly summed up with little conscious thought. People may have evolved to assess these cues quickly because they are helpful for distinguishing whether someone is friendly or not, and possibly for sizing up potential partners.

Individuals who could make these quick judgments were better able to survive and thrive than those who couldn't. Bottom-up processing means building an impression from the bottom up, or, in other words, drawing high-level conclusions about a person's traits and attitudes based on a series of individual observations. Topdown processing is the reverse: we form expectations about people's behavior in specific situations based on preconceived ideas about traits and attitudes. The negativity bias is our tendency, in forming first impressions, to weigh negative behavior more heavily than positive behavior. This bias occurs for two reasons. One is that people have a general tendency to detect negative things in our environment, probably because this has evolutionary survival value. Second, negative or bad behavior sticks out because people tend to follow norms of behavior, at least when they are being watched. Bad behavior may appear as a slip that reveals a person's true character.

Thus, it can be easily seen how making a good first impression is indeed crucial. (Students should be thinking of what they learned in prior chapters about evolutionary adaptation and about schema-consistency and schemainconsistency.)

152. An entity mind-set sees personal traits and abilities as fixed, static, and unchanging. An incremental mind-set, by contrast, sees personal traits and abilities as malleable or changeable. For example, if individuals can practice some still (e.g., in mathematics) then they can improve with respect to it. Research suggests that students with an incremental mind-set regarding intelligence show more persistence in response to failure, make fewer attributions for failure based on ability, and develop more learning-oriented goals.

153. Kelley proposed that when we are motivated to arrive at an accurate attribution to explain another person's action, we rely on three sources of information: (1) consistency across time, (2) distinctiveness across situations, and (3) consensus by others. Individuals can be high or low in each of these domains. For example, Ziva is struggling with her computer. Does she usually struggle with her computer (consistency)? Does she struggle with other computers or just this computer (distinctiveness)? Does everyone in class find her computer hard to work with (consensus)? If Ziva usually struggles with her computer, then her behavior exhibits high consistency. If she struggles with other computers, then she is demonstrating low distinctiveness in struggling with this one. Finally, if others in her class are able to operate her computer without trouble, then her behavior is low in consensus. From this we would conclude that Ziva has an ongoing problem with computers. In other words, we would make a stable, internal attribution. Now suppose that Ziva usually struggles with her computer, so that she is demonstrating high consistency, but she rarely struggles with other computers. Then her present actions are high in distinctiveness. And if everyone in class struggles with Ziva's computer when they try to help her, then her behavior is high in consensus. If the behavior is high in consistency, high in distinctiveness, and high in consensus, then the attribution tends to be stable and external. We might suspect that Ziva's computer has something wrong with it.

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Chap 04_3e 154. First, a behavior is observed and labeled. Second, the observer automatically makes a correspondent dispositional inference. Finally, if the observer is significantly motivated and has sufficient cognitive resources, then they modify their initial attribution to take situational factors into account.

155. Counterfactual thinking is coming up with alternative outcomes that are different from the actual outcome of a particular situation. Counterfactuals help us make sense of the social world, and they play a role in how we judge and respond to events in our lives. Like heuristics, counterfactuals play a role in judgments. In the case of counterfactuals, they play a role in how we judge and respond emotionally to events. The strongest emotional reactions come from unusual or almost-avoided actions. Research suggests this is because it is easier to imagine the event having turned out differently. For example, a close miss is more agonizing for people. Somehow missing a plane by 5 minutes causes a more negative reaction than missing a plane by 35 minutes. Missing a gold medal by winning the silver is more agonizing than winning the bronze. In these situations it is much easier to imagine the results being better. If only I hadn't stopped for coffee or If only I had trained harder. A downward counterfactual is an imagined alternative where the outcome is worse than what actually happened (Yes, I flunked the exam, but at least I didn't flunk the course). Downward counterfactuals help people feel better about the past. In other words, people can feel better about what actually happened. Upward counterfactuals are imagined alternatives where the outcome is actually better than what actually happened. While these types of counterfactuals can help people better prepare for the future by providing insight into what could have been done better, they often make people feel worse about what actually happened (e.g., If only I hadn't partied so hard last night before the exam). The benefits of counterfactuals included consoling people, helping people prepare for the future, reframing past events, and making sense of the social world. The drawbacks are that counterfactuals can be emotionally draining and arouse self-blame and guilt. Student examples of their counterfactuals and reactions will vary.

156. Magical thinking is the tendency to believe that simply having thoughts about an event before it occurs can influence that event. One example of magical thinking in research includes demonstrations that people have an inflated sense of their control over chance outcomes, like lottery drawings. In another example, people who first felt angry thoughts toward someone, and were then asked to place a curse on that person, were likely to believe that they had actually harmed that person when he or she later complained of a headache.

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Chap 04_3e 157. Correspondent inferences, the fundamental attribution error, and the actor–observer effect are all automatic processes of causal attribution. Correspondent inference is the tendency to attribute to an actor an attitude, desire, or trait that corresponds to their action. For example, if you see Trina studying in the hallway, then you may assume she is a studious person. Correspondent inferences are most likely when the individual seems to have a choice in the action, when a person has a choice between two courses of action and there is only one difference between the choices, and when someone acts inconsistently with a social role. The fundamental attribution error is the tendency to attribute behavior to internal or dispositional qualities of the actor and consequently to underestimate the causal role of external factors. For example, if you see Axel sleeping in class, then you may make a dispositional attribution that he is lazy, when it could instead be that Axel was up all night working a second job. The actor–observer effect is the tendency to make internal attributions for the behavior of others and external attributions for our own behavior. For example, if you see Aldo raising his voice at his kids, then you may quickly assume Aldo is grumpy. If you raise your voice at your kids, however, it's because they were being obnoxious and you'd had enough. Research has shown that the fundamental attribution error is more likely to occur in individualistic cultures. People are less likely to make the fundamental attribution error when they are of socioeconomic status and when they are Catholic rather than Protestant. (Hopefully, students will be able to see the complicated picture of attribution and will be able to relate this to previously learned material on implicit and automatic processing and biases.)

158. If a person has personal control over a negative outcome and is likely to experience a similar situation again, it is generally better to generate an upward counterfactual. By imagining how the event might have played out in a more positive way, the individual can become motivated to avoid negative outcomes in similar situations in the future. However, if a person doesn't have control over a negative outcome or is not likely to experience a similar situation again, it can be psychologically reassuring to simply imagine that the outcome might have been worse.

159. The misinformation effect occurs when cues given after an event plant false information into memory. In a classic study by Loftus and colleagues, all participants watched the same video of a car accident. After watching, some participants were asked, How fast was the car going when it hit the other car? Others were asked, How fast was the car going when it smashed into the other car? Those who heard the word smashed not only estimated that the car was going faster but also misremembered broken glass being at the scene. In reality there was no broken glass.

160. While people from more collectivistic cultures are more likely to consider external, situational factors when making causal attributions, the fundamental attribution error is committed by people across cultures.

161. Causal schemas originate from two primary sources. One source is a person's own personal experience, such as observing our parents' behaviors when we are children. Another source of causal schemas is general cultural knowledge, which is transmitted to us in school, through the media, and so on.

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Chap 04_3e 162. The misinformation effect is a process by which cues or information given post-event can plant false information into memory. Loftus demonstrated the misinformation effect by showing subjects a video of a car accident. Half of the subjects were then asked, How fast was the car going when it hit the other car? while the other half were asked, How fast was the car going when it smashed into the other car? The subjects who heard smashed estimated a higher rate of speed. Furthermore, they were more likely to report broken glass at the scene, even though there was none. Loftus thus demonstrated that words can prime a schema and thereby rewrite a memory, causing a mismatch between the memory and what actually happened. This can cause sincere disagreement between two people recalling the same event. It can also have more serious ramifications in the area of criminal law, causing people to give erroneous eyewitness testimony, to have false memories of childhood abuse, and even to confess to crimes they did not commit. Student answers may vary with regard to the relevance for the legal system but should mention the reliability of eyewitness testimony. Since the misinformation effect revolves around post-event information, students might discuss how reading a newspaper account or talking to others, or even simply reflecting on events by oneself, can generate misinformation. They may also discuss how stereotypes and preexisting biases can feed into the misinformation effect.

163. Correspondent inference refers to the tendency to attribute to an actor an attitude, desire, or trait that corresponds with his or her actions. Correspondent inferences are more likely (1) when the individual seems to have a choice in taking an action. They are also more likely (2) when a person has a choice between two courses of action and there is only one clear difference between the choices. Finally, a correspondent inference is also more likely (3) when someone has a particular social role and acts in a role-inconsistent way.

164. Upward counterfactuals are imagined alternatives where the outcome is better than what actually happened.

Upward counterfactuals usually make us feel worse about what happened. However, they also may help us prepare for the future. If only I hadn't partied so hard last night! is an example of an upward counterfactual.

Downward counterfactuals are imagined alternatives where the outcome is worse than what actually happened.

Downward counterfactuals may help to console us. An example of a downward counterfactual would be the person who says, Well, at least I don't have to have knee surgery! when they find out they need to wear a knee brace for six months.

165. Many heuristics or mental shortcuts play a role in social judgments. One of them is the availability heuristic, the tendency to assume that information that comes quickly to mind or is readily available is more common. This assumption is often incorrect and can contribute to distorted judgments. For instance, the availability heuristic can affect your willingness to fly in an airplane or to travel to a particular spot, and it can affect your estimate of the risk of contracting a disease. (Students may provide other examples.) Because airplane crashes are widely covered in the media, many people feel it is safer to travel by car. In reality, automobile travel is riskier than air travel. Similarly, because shark attacks are widely reported, many people worry more about shark attacks than about drowning when swimming in the ocean, even though statistically drowning is far more likely.

166. External attributions are most likely when a behavior is high in consistency, distinctiveness, and consensus. For example, if a friend likes a particular soda every time they drink it, if they aren't a fan of soda generally but just like this particular brand, and if many other people also like the soda, then it is likely that the observer will attribute their friend's behavior to the quality of the soda, rather than anything internal about their friend.

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Chap 04_3e 167. The representativeness heuristic is the tendency to overestimate the likelihood that a target is part of a larger category if the person has features that seem representative of that category. Kahneman and Tversky showed that if a person is described as having characteristic features of a certain occupation (e.g., characteristics that seem representative of an engineer, like being studious and liking mathematical puzzles), then study subjects believe that that person belongs to the category. This is the case even if statistical evidence strongly suggests that the person likely does not belong to the category.

168. The fundamental attribution error is less likely to occur under several circumstances. These circumstances include a culture that is collectivist rather than individualistic, a group of people of lower socioeconomic status, and a group of people who are Catholic rather than Protestant.

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Chap 05_3e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Toni is a poet is a small creative scene in her city. One night, other artists get together to give each other feedback on their art. What does research suggest will be Toni's experience of this meeting? a. She will give the other band members disproportionately positive feedback. b. She will give the other band members disproportionately negative feedback. c. She will receive disproportionately negative feedback from the other band members. d. She will interpret the feedback she receives as more negative than the other band members intend.

2. Ironic processing refers to: a. the fact that people find it easier to understand humorous rather than non-humorous information. b. the idea that the more we try not to think about something, the more those thoughts enter our mind and distract us from other things. c. the phenomenon whereby people's attention is immediately captured by unexpected events in the environment. d. an experimental method based on allowing people to free-associate their thoughts.

3. A study showed that overweight people are significantly less happy if they live in a society that stigmatizes obesity than if they live in a society in which obesity is common and accepted. This illustrates the concept of: a. the worse than average effect. b. downward comparison. c. the generalized other. d. the looking-glass self.

4. The _____ theory states that one's attitudes, values, and goals will be most likely to influence behavior when the focus is on the self. a. symbolic interaction b. self-awareness c. self-perception d. social identity 5. Deanna believes willpower is an unlimited resource, while Josie believes that willpower is a finite resource.

Who is more likely to exhibit the typical ego depletion effect? a. Deanna is more likely to exhibit the typical ego depletion effect. b. Josie is more likely to exhibit the typical ego depletion effect. c. Deanna and Josie are both likely to exhibit the typical ego depletion effect. d. Neither Deanna nor Josie are likely to exhibit the typical ego depletion effect.

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Chap 05_3e 6. One study found that 42% of engineers thought they were in the top 5% of engineers in their field. While these engineers were highly skilled, it is mathematically impossible for 42% of them to be ranked in the top 5%. What social comparison error is this an example of? a. better-than-average effect b. Dunning–Kruger effect c. social comparison effect d. self-awareness effect 7. Which of the following statements about the stability of the self-concept is most accurate? a. Self-concepts are completely stable, and do not change from one situation to another. b. Self-concepts are completely unstable, and change entirely from one situation to another. c. Self-concepts are somewhat stable, and can change according to the situation. d. Self-concepts are somewhat stable, and can change depending on purely random chance.

8. According to self-awareness theory, an _____ focus of attention leads relevant standards to become salient. a. internal b. external c. other d. abstract 9. A study by Milne and colleagues reminded students of their vulnerability to heart disease and the benefits of exercising to reduce that risk. One group of students was given implantation intentions and the other group was not. What did the results show? a. The students who were given implementation intentions increased their exercise habits the most. b. The students who were given implementation intentions decreased their exercise habits. c. There was no difference in exercise habits between students with or without implementation intentions. d. The students who were given implementation intentions increased their exercise habits the most, but only if they were made to be self-aware.

10. All of the following are true about the self-concept EXCEPT which statement? a. The self-concept always remains stable. b. Some aspects of the self-concept remain stable, and others do not. c. People quickly process information that is self-defining. d. Social contexts play a role in the flexibility of the self-concept.

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Chap 05_3e 11. Lucas's mother has always wanted him to get married and start a family. One day Lucas is debating whether or not he should ask a woman he has been talking to on a date. While debating this, he is scrolling through his phone and briefly sees some old messages from his mother. What does research suggest Lucas is likely to do? a. not ask the woman on a date b. ask the woman on a date c. keep scrolling through his phone d. become anxious 12. Research suggests that when people are having difficulty carrying out an action, they tend to reconceptualize that action: a. in more abstract terms. b. in more concrete terms. c. at a more unconscious level. d. in terms of its relation to the ideal self.

13. Individuals who repeatedly formed smiling expressions tended to find cartoons funnier than individuals who repeatedly formed frowning expressions. This is best explained by the _____ theory. a. social role b. symbolic interaction c. self-perception d. downward comparison 14. Comparing oneself with those who are better off is making a(n) _____ comparison; comparing oneself with those who are worse off is making a(n) _____ comparison. a. downward; upward b. upward; downward c. abstract; concrete d. concrete; abstract 15. In a study by Baldwin and colleagues (1990), Catholic participants were presented with a description of a sexual dream and then were subliminally exposed to an image of either the pope or an unknown figure scowling in disapproval. What were the findings of the study? a. Participants exposed to the pope judged themselves more favorably than before. b. Participants exposed to the pope judged themselves less favorably than before. c. Participants exposed to the other figure judged themselves more favorably than before. d. Participants exposed to the other figure judged themselves less favorably than before.

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Chap 05_3e 16. According to construal level theory, when people think about goals in the distant future, they tend to think _____, while when people are thinking about goals in the near future, they tend to think _____. a. in more abstract terms; in more concrete terms b. about the ought self; about the ideal self c. about the ideal self; about the ought self d. in more concrete terms; in more abstract terms 17. All of the following are true about males and females EXCEPT which statement? a. Males and females are more different than they are similar. b. Females and males are more similar than they are different. c. When differences between males and females occur, they are statistically small. d. People assume that differences between males and females are biologically based.

18. People in collectivist cultures define themselves more in terms of _____, while people in individualist cultures define themselves more in terms of _____. a. attributes that make them unique; attributes that make them part of a group b. the ego; the self-concept c. the self-concept; the ego d. attributes that make them part of a group; attributes that make them unique 19. What is the central idea of action identification theory? a. People define themselves and their behaviors largely in terms of the social groups to which they belong. b. People focus on concrete details when thinking about the distant future, but abstract aspects when thinking about the immediate future. c. People's descriptions of their own and others' actions can range from more concrete to more abstract. d. The effort a person extends on a goal is a function of the value of the goal and their expected ability to achieve it.

20. Social identity theory is the theory that: a. people are equally likely to identify with ingroups and outgroups, depending on situational factors. b. people define and evaluate themselves largely in terms of the social groups with which they identify. c. the social groups we belong to, rather than the culture we are in, define who we are. d. people have one prominent social identity (e.g., their ethnicity), which defines them across all situations.

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Chap 05_3e 21. According to action identification theory, people can interpret their actions in many ways, ranging from concrete to abstract. Which of the following most accurately describes the difference between concrete and abstract interpretations? a. Concrete interpretations focus on how an action is accomplished, while abstract interpretations focus on why an action is accomplished. b. Concrete interpretations focus on why an action is accomplished, while abstract interpretations focus on how an action is accomplished. c. Concrete interpretations describe the action, while abstract interpretations use metaphors. d. Abstract interpretations describe the action, while concrete interpretations use metaphors.

22. According to Higgins's self-discrepancy theory, the ought self is another word for: a. ego. b. ego-ideal. c. conscience. d. unconscious.

23. Mikel woke up late for class and had to run to get there on time. Coming into the building where his class is, he sees a handsome man whom he has never seen before. According to research on the misattribution of arousal, what is a likely outcome of this scenario? a. Mikel will ignore the man to get to class. b. Mikel will try to find the man after class. c. Mikel will believe that he is attracted to the man. d. Mikel will not even notice the man.

24. Participants came to a lab and were told to make a good first impression. According to action identification theory, this is a(n) _____ goal. a. concrete b. instinctive c. abstract d. unconscious 25. Participants who were either seated in front of a mirror or not seated in front of a mirror were asked to deliver shocks to another participant. What were the results of this study? a. Participants in front of a mirror were less likely to punish the confederate. b. Participants in front of a mirror were more likely to punish the confederate. c. Among participants in front of a mirror, their preexisting attitudes toward punishment predicted their level of punishment. d. Among participants in front of a mirror, their preexisting attitudes toward punishment had no effect on their level of punishment.

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Chap 05_3e 26. The self-regulatory perseveration theory of depression suggests that depressed individuals are likely to have _____ levels of self-awareness. a. low b. moderate c. variable d. high 27. The _____ is the aspect of the self that directs one's thoughts and actions. a. self-concept b. ego c. social identity d. self-schema 28. The mental reframing of a situation to minimize emotional reaction to it is referred to as: a. upward comparison. b. misattribution of arousal. c. affective forecasting. d. cognitive reappraisal.

29. Self-awareness can often be uncomfortable, and as a result people sometimes try to escape it. Which of the following has NOT been found to be a strategy that people use to escape self-awareness? a. alcohol use b. binge-watching TV c. looking at a mirror d. binge eating 30. _____ is the idea that arousal caused by one event can intensify the emotional reactions of another, unrelated event. a. The two-factor theory of emotion b. Excitation transfer theory c. The facial feedback hypothesis d. Self-discrepancy theory 31. The better than average effect refers to: a. people's tendency to rank themselves higher than others on positive attributes. b. people's tendency to perform better than average in areas that are strongly connected to their selfschema. c. the fact that most people perform better than average on most tests of ability. d. the fact that if you tell someone they have average ability in a given domain, they tend to interpret this feedback more positively than intended.

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Chap 05_3e 32. Lee notices that, at her job, women are more likely to perform administrative tasks, whereas men are more likely to perform creative tasks. Based on these observations, and according to social role theory, what is Lee likely to conclude? a. Differences between men and women are socially constructed. b. Regardless of gender, people are able to choose the tasks they would like to perform. c. Women perform more administrative tasks because they are naturally better at such tasks. d. Lee should perform creative tasks, because there are not enough women performing these social roles.

33. What is one of the foundational insights of social comparison theory? a. People compare their achievements with an internal standard on social, but not on nonsocial, dimensions. b. People often don't have an objective means of assessing their ability on a given dimension. c. People compare themselves with others only when they are feeling generally confident about their abilities. d. Comparisons between people are inevitably harmful for motivation.

34. A self-schema is defined as: a. an integrated set of memories, beliefs, and generalizations about an attribute that is part of one's selfconcept. b. a set of expectations that a person possesses about how someone else is going to behave. c. the part of the self that controls and directs behavior. d. a belief that is variable across people about whether or not the self is stable or flexible.

35. The most common way to study self-awareness is by: a. asking people to focus on an object in their immediate environment. b. asking people to write an essay with singular first-person pronouns. c. placing people in front of a mirror. d. pointing a video camera at people.

36. The EAR device is used to: a. scan people's brain activity while they are completing tasks. b. assess people's ability to accurately process auditory input from their social environment. c. measure a person's implementation attentions by coding their free associations about their goals. d. record sounds in a person's environment to ascertain information about their activities and personality.

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Chap 05_3e 37. The theory that even subtle exposure to goal-related stimuli can automatically activate the goal and guide behavior is called the _____ theory. a. self-discrepancy b. action identification c. expectancy-value d. auto-motive 38. Failures to live up to the ought self elicit _____, while failures to live up to the ideal self elicit _____. a. hostility and frustration; a sense of challenge and determination b. anxiety and guilt; dejection and sadness c. dejection and sadness; anxiety and guilt d. a sense of challenge and determination; hostility and frustration 39. Artyom is a Russian student studying abroad in the United States. He is the only Russian in any of his classes, and as such has a strong sense that he is unique. What concept is Artyom experiencing? a. self-concept b. self-schema c. working self-concept d. solo status 40. Baldwin and colleagues had graduate students evaluate their own research ideas after seeing a picture of a highly respected faculty member with a disapproving expression or seeing a less prominent figure with an approving expression. What did the results show? a. Subjects primed with the highly respected faculty member judged their ideas less favorably than before. b. Subjects primed with the highly respected faculty member judged their ideas more favorably than before. c. Subjects primed with the less prominent figure judged their ideas less favorably than before. d. Subjects primed with the less prominent figure judged their ideas more favorably than before.

41. Vazire's self-other knowledge asymmetry model states that in comparison with our understanding of ourselves: a. others may have a more accurate view of us with regard to our external characteristics. b. others may have a more accurate view of us with regard to our internal characteristics. c. others may have a more accurate view of us based on others' opinions. d. others may have a more accurate view of us based on social comparison.

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Chap 05_3e 42. Kaguya needs a study guide for an upcoming exam but cannot afford to buy one. She is about to steal one from the university bookstore, even though in general she feels petty theft is wrong. As she is about to walk out of the store with the book, she approaches the glass doors at the entrance, where she sees her reflection.

What does research suggest is likely to happen? a. Kaguya will steal the book. b. Kaguya will not steal the book. c. Kaguya will do better on the test after proving to herself how badly she wanted to do well. d. Kaguya will do worse on the test than if she had not attempted to steal the book.

43. Participants in a study who were asked to eat Cheetos with chopsticks were likely to conceive of their action as: a. putting food in my mouth. b. eating. c. reducing my hunger. d. completing a psychological study.

44. What does research suggest about the relationship between goals and consciousness? a. All goals are active on a conscious level. b. People are often motivated by unconscious goals. c. Unconscious goals are extremely rare. d. Conscious goals are extremely rare.

45. All of the following are methods that researchers have used to increase self-awareness EXCEPT which one? a. asking people to focus on an object in their immediate environment b. asking people to write an essay with singular first-person pronouns c. placing people in front of a mirror d. pointing a video camera at people 46. _____ connects self-perceptional processes to emotional processes. a. Affective forecasting b. Self-awareness theory c. Self-discrepancy theory d. Misattribution of arousal

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Chap 05_3e 47. What is the central proposition of self-perception theory? a. The aspects of people's personalities which they perceive to be most important have the strongest influence on their behavior. b. People are not capable of accurately perceiving their own characteristics. c. People's perceptions of how others view them are a major determinant of how they treat others. d. People sometimes infer their own attitudes and attributes by observing their behavior and the situation in which it occurs.

48. Cassia arrives at a job interview but has to wait outside the interview room with another candidate for the position. This candidate appears disorganized and is not well dressed. What can we conclude about Cassia's state of mind based on social comparison theory? a. Cassia has somewhat lowered self-esteem. b. Cassia has somewhat heightened self-esteem. c. Cassia will be more likely to use metaphors of cleanliness in the interview. d. Cassia will be more likely to use metaphors of dirtiness in the interview.

49. Molly has had a difficult time reaching her goal of exercising regularly. To help accomplish her goal, she tells herself that if she becomes bored at home, then she will exercise for 20 minutes. What psychological concept is this an example of? a. cognitive reappraisal b. self-regulatory perseveration c. implementation intentions d. affective forecasting 50. Ang is very worried about his upcoming physics test; he feels that if he performs poorly on the test, his career and life will be over. Ang's friend, Hank, wants to increase the accuracy of Ang's predictions about how this event will affect him emotionally. In order to achieve this goal, Hank can ask Ang to: a. list all the reasons why it is important to do well on the test. b. compare his actual performance to his ideal performance. c. focus exclusively on the test and try to ignore all other information about potential upcoming sources of emotion. d. write out a list of all the different activities Ang is going to be doing in the weeks after the test.

51. Self-awareness theory states that: a. if people focus on other people rather than themselves, they are usually happier. b. when people are focused on themselves, they are more likely to behave defensively. c. human beings are self-aware, which gives them potential for overwhelming anxiety. d. one's attitudes, values, and goals will be most likely to influence behavior when attention is focused on the self.

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Chap 05_3e 52. In their research on self-perception theory, what did Storms and Nisbett (1970) find was an effective treatment for insomnia? a. asking people to reflect on the reasons why they have insomnia b. asking people to visualize themselves sleeping c. giving people a placebo pill that they were told would cause arousal as they went to sleep d. giving people a placebo pill that they were told would relax them and help them sleep 53. What does research suggest about people's ability to evaluate themselves across a variety of domains and skills? a. When people are evaluating themselves on physical abilities, they are generally more accurate than if they are evaluating themselves on abilities related to intelligence. b. There are no discernible differences between those who give themselves high evaluations and those who give themselves low evaluations on a variety of abilities and skills. c. If you give people sufficient incentive to make accurate evaluations, you can eliminate the better than average effect. d. Those who give themselves the highest evaluations on a given ability or set of skills are often the worst performers.

54. According to the looking-glass model of the self, people understand themselves by first considering _____ and then incorporating those into the self-concept. a. others' appraisals of the self b. self-schemas c. central self-goals d. social identities 55. In a study of social identity theory, participants completed an artistic-preference task to determine if they had a figure orientation or a group orientation. In reality, students were randomly assigned to a figure orientation or a ground orientation group. Next, they completed a questionnaire measuring a new personality trait called surgency. Some of the participants were then told that members of their same group were high in surgency. What were the results of this study? a. Participants assigned to the figure group rated themselves as high in surgency. b. Participants assigned to the ground group rated themselves as low in surgency. c. Participants who believed their ingroup was high in surgency rated themselves as high in surgency. d. Participants who believed that the outgroup was high in surgency rated themselves as high in surgency.

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Chap 05_3e 56. We are more likely to feel _____ when we focus on a bad behavior we have committed, and to feel _____ when we think that we are a bad person. a. guilt; shame b. shame; guilt c. angry; dejected d. dejected; angry 57. Jama is talking with her coworker. She has a pain in her neck, so she is moving her head up and down vigorously and repeatedly to reduce the discomfort. Jama's coworker is presenting her with an idea that he thinks they should bring up at the next board meeting. What does research suggest Jama's response will be? a. It is impossible to determine Jama's response based on this information. b. Jama will likely approve of the coworker's idea. c. Jama will likely reject the coworker's idea. d. Jama will only approve of the coworker's idea if she was already in a good mood.

58. According to social comparison theory, with whom or what are we most likely to compare ourselves when trying to determine where we stand on a particular trait or ability? a. national averages for that trait or ability b. people who are in approximately the same range as us, or who are similar to us c. people who are far better than us on that trait or ability d. people who are far worse than us on that trait or ability 59. What is the central concept behind the idea of ego depletion? a. People are unable to focus on a task when they are trying to keep distracting thoughts out of consciousness. b. Ego strength can be depleted by extensive use of self-control. c. Over time across the life span, people lose the majority of their cognitive faculties. d. When people are in a state of high self-awareness, they become less focused on their own goals and attitudes.

60. Research suggests that people who frequently experience shame are more likely to: a. have positive outcomes compared to those who frequently experience guilt. b. seek ways to increase their level of self-awareness. c. be angry or depressed. d. try and make amends to the people whom they have offended.

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Chap 05_3e 61. Ileana doesn't like horror films, but her new partner is dragging her along to one. In order to minimize the extent of the physical arousal she might experience during the film, what would be the best strategy for Ileana to pursue? a. Concentrate on the fact that the images are staged, rather than real. b. Simply watch the film. c. Try to actively suppress her emotional reactions to the film. d. Attempt to appear to an outside observer as if she is not experiencing any reactions to the film.

62. Toby is in the middle of taking an exam and is very hungry. He keeps thinking about what he is going to eat for lunch and getting distracted from the exam. He tries really hard not to think about food, but the more he does so, the more he ends up thinking about food. What psychological concept is this an example of? a. ego depletion b. ironic processing c. action identification d. cognitive reappraisal 63. The idea that changes in facial expression elicit emotions associated with those expressions is referred to as: a. the James–Lange theory. b. the two-factor theory of emotion. c. the facial feedback hypothesis. d. misattribution of arousal.

64. Which of the following statements is true? a. People are reasonably good at predicting what the strength of their emotional reactions to future events will be. b. People are fairly poor at predicting what the strength of their emotional reactions to future events will be. c. People tend never to think about what their emotional reactions to future events will be. d. People who are high in private self-consciousness generally provide more accurate predictions of their emotional reactions to future events.

65. The idea that our sense of self is often influenced by how we imagine people in our lives perceive us is referred to as our: a. self-schema. b. looking-glass self. c. ego. d. identity.

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Chap 05_3e 66. Bukayo is having a very difficult time learning how to drive. He feels like he will never be able to pass the driving test. Self-awareness theory predicts: a. Bukayo will try harder to study. b. Bukayo will ask for help from his friends. c. Bukayo will avoid self-focus. d. Bukayo will compare himself to others.

67. A set of processes for guiding one's thoughts, feelings, and behavior to reach desired goals is referred to as: a. self-regulation. b. cognitive reappraisal. c. ego depletion. d. implementation intention.

68. A _____ tends to be fairly consistent across situations, whereas a _____ tends to be differentially activated by situational cues. a. social identity; looking-glass self b. looking-glass self; social identity c. working self-concept; self-schema d. self-schema; working self-concept 69. One study by Nisbett and Wilson (1977b) examined how distractions affected people's enjoyment of a movie. What were the findings of this study? a. People liked a movie less if it was out of focus, but were unaffected by loud noises outside of the theater. b. People liked a movie less if there were loud noises outside of the theater, but were unaffected by whether it was out of focus or not. c. People liked a movie less if it was out of focus and if there were loud noises outside of the theater. d. People were unaffected by whether the movie was out of focus or if there were loud noises outside of the theater.

70. All of the following research findings about self-schemas are true EXCEPT which statement? a. People are more likely to remember specific behaviors that reflect a self-defining attribute. b. People process information about a self-defining attribute more quickly. c. People's opinions about their central self-schema(s) tend to fluctuate dramatically in different situations. d. People are reluctant to believe information that contradicts their sense of the extent to which they possess a self-defining attribute.

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Chap 05_3e 71. The _____ is the mental process that is on the lookout for signs of an unwanted thought, while the _____ is the mental process that pushes signs of an unwanted thought outside of consciousness. a. monitor; operator b. operator; monitor c. ego; superego d. superego; ego 72. Dubula is trying to decide what he is going to write about for his term paper. He is getting an early start on the project; the paper is not due until four months from now. According to construal level theory, what kind of project topic is Dubula likely to pursue? a. the easiest possible topic b. the topic for which he is most likely to get a good grade c. the topic about which he will learn the most and which will be the most interesting d. the most difficult possible topic 73. According to the text, all of the following are sources of self-knowledge EXCEPT which one? a. appraisals from others b. social comparisons c. self-perceptions d. first impressions 74. What are the two factors in Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion? a. arousal and cognitive label b. emotion and cognitive label c. arousal and emotion d. affect and arousal 75. When you answer the question Who am I? you are describing your: a. ego. b. self-esteem. c. self-concept. d. looking-glass self.

76. According to the self-regulatory perseveration theory of depression: a. depression occurs when people shift all their attention away from their self-concept. b. ego depletion is the primary cause of depression. c. depression is the result of the inability to find any meaningful goal to commit to. d. depression results from an inability to disengage from a goal that the person cannot achieve.

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Chap 05_3e 77. The idea that people use their understanding of how others view them as the primary basis for knowing and evaluating themselves is known as: a. the self-schema perspective. b. social identity theory. c. social role theory. d. symbolic interactionism.

78. When Max is primed with the fact that spiders have eight legs, that info _____; when Max is primed with the goal of passing his social psychology class, that goal _____. a. induces self-awareness; induces a sense of ought-actual discrepancy b. induces a sense of ought-actual discrepancy; induces self-awareness c. induces tension and remains salient until an end state is achieved; fades from memory at a constant rate d. fades from memory at a constant rate; induces tension and remains salient until an end state is achieved 79. What does research suggest about the relationship between people's ratings of their own physical attractiveness compared with how their close friends rate them? a. There is no relationship between the two. b. They are almost identical. c. The two have a weak correlation (around 0.25). d. The two have a strong correlation (around 0.75).

80. Tasks which require a child to wait 20 minutes for two cookies or to ring a bell if they would like to have one cookie sooner are designed to measure: a. the ability to delay gratification. b. the independence of the hot and cool systems. c. the extent to which children have high self-awareness. d. the amount of hunger a child is experiencing.

81. People view themselves in ways that do not always match up with how others view them. Which types of characteristics are best understood by others, rather than ourselves? a. internal characteristics b. external characteristics c. concrete characteristics d. abstract characteristics

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Chap 05_3e 82. One study found that self-awareness reduced cheating on a test from 71% to 7%. If researchers were interested in replicating these findings, what is one common method for experimentally manipulating selfawareness? a. making the participants watch TV b. making the participants eat a snack food c. making the participants look at themselves in a mirror d. making the participants answer survey questions 83. All of the following are true about the two-factor theory of emotion EXCEPT which statement? a. Emotion is a product of arousal and cognitive labeling. b. Emotion is a product of self-perception and arousal. c. The same arousal can be attributed to different emotions, depending on interpretation. d. The level of arousal determines the intensity of an emotion.

84. Carlos's goal is to become a famous dancer. However, as his life goes on he begins to feel that he may be unable to achieve this goal. What does the self-regulatory perseveration theory of depression suggest will happen if Carlos does not let go of this goal? a. Carlos will keep striving to achieve the goal for the rest of his life. b. Carlos will eventually give up on the goal and shift his energy to something else. c. Carlos will begin to experience depression. d. Carlos will be able to achieve the goal only if he maintains a high level of self-awareness.

85. In individualistic cultures, people are socialized to define themselves in terms of _____, whereas in collectivistic cultures, people are socialized to define themselves in terms of _____. a. their own attributes; their goals and beliefs b. their own attributes; groups they belong to c. groups they belong to; their own attributes d. their goals and beliefs; their own attributes 86. Evidence for the concept of ego depletion is mixed. Which of the following is NOT evidence against the concept of ego depletion? a. Monetary rewards can reduce ego depletion. b. Reminders of one's personal values can reduce ego depletion. c. Believing that self-control can benefit oneself or others can reduce ego depletion. d. Self-control becomes difficult if required for extended periods of time.

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Chap 05_3e 87. One key to effective self-regulation is: a. implicit thinking. b. perceived control. c. automatic control. d. effortful control.

88. Reflected appraisals refer to: a. other people's beliefs about us. b. our beliefs about what other people believe about us. c. the attributions people make about their looking-glass selves. d. opinions that arise in conversation between two people.

89. Affective forecasting refers to: a. the desire to be distracted when one is in a state of painful self-awareness. b. people's attempts to understand the emotional responses of interaction partners. c. the tendency to focus on more abstract aspects when imagining activities in the distant future. d. people's attempts to predict what their emotional reactions to potential future events will be.

90. In one study, some people were primed with the name of a significant other prior to working on a task. What were the findings of the study? a. Those primed with a significant other worked longer on the task. b. Those primed with a significant other worked longer on the task if the significant other had low expectations of them. c. Those primed with a significant other worked longer on the task if the significant other had high expectations of them. d. Being primed with a significant other had no impact on people's performance of the task.

91. Which of the following is NOT true about excitation transfer theory? a. Misattribution to a second stimulus occurs. b. Arousal is interpreted as a reaction to a second stimulus. c. The effect occurs primarily when participants are aware of the leftover arousal. d. The effect occurs primarily when participants are not aware of the leftover arousal.

92. Maxwell compares himself with his coworkers who show up late and do not work hard. What is Maxwell engaging in? a. upward social comparison b. downward social comparison c. reflected appraisal d. self-esteem

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Chap 05_3e 93. Shinichi is thinking about how he has performed in pursuing his goal of becoming a professional musician. He realizes that what he has accomplished and what he envisioned himself accomplishing are nearly identical.

According to self-discrepancy theory, how is Shinichi likely to feel? a. anxious and guilty b. angry c. discouraged d. satisfied 94. Anthony has always dreamed of attending Harvard Business School. For many years, he has thought that attending this school would make him extremely happy. What psychological concept is this an example of? a. affective forecasting b. action identification c. self-awareness d. self-regulation 95. When people have a sense of solo status, they tend to: a. be capable of planting thoughts in the minds of others. b. dislike being alone and strive at all times to be in the presence of others. c. define themselves by attributes that distinguish them from others in the same situation. d. be prejudiced against individuals who are self-sufficient or standoffish.

96. All of the following techniques will help people minimize the negative effects of ironic processing EXCEPT which one? a. working in a quiet, distraction-free environment b. making sure that one has plenty of time to complete a task, without stress c. working to keep unwanted thoughts out of consciousness d. not trying so hard to push unwanted thoughts out of consciousness 97. Research suggests that forming implementation intentions: a. generally enhances people's ability to achieve their goals. b. generally undermines people's ability to achieve their goals. c. generally has no effect on people's ability to achieve their goals. d. is only related to goal-achievement in the long term, rather than the short term.

98. Which of these is NOT a reason discussed in the text for why there are gender differences in behavior? a. Being told that a behavior is appropriate for one's gender makes a child more likely to engage in that behavior. b. Children are more likely to model the behavior of same-sex adults. c. Nearly all behaviors have biologically rooted gender differences. d. People learn what behaviors are appropriate for their gender from their culture.

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Chap 05_3e 99. Which of the following human capabilities is NOT essential to self-regulation? a. having self-awareness b. our ability to convince ourselves that we're better at something than we actually are c. being able to think abstractly about goals d. being able to envision the future and what we will hypothetically be like 100. As you start your new job, you notice that all of the other workers attended Ivy League schools and you did not. This is an example of: a. a sense of solo status. b. having a social role. c. the looking-glass self. d. a reflected appraisal.

101. In action identification theory, more concrete descriptions of an action tend to focus on _____, while more abstract descriptions of an action tend to focus on _____. a. how an action is performed; why an action is performed b. why an action is performed; how an action is performed c. the relevance of the goal to the self; the relevance of the goal to others d. the relevance of the goal to others; the relevance of the goal to the self 102. A person's capacity as a child to wait more time to get two cookies instead of one is predictive of: a. how they are perceived by an adult in a subsequent interaction. b. their ability to cooperate with another child in an attempt to steal all the cookies from the experimenter. c. their performance on standardized tests and general functioning up to 30 years later. d. their mood the following day.

103. According to action identification theory, which of the following scenarios is most likely to elicit concrete interpretations for Americans? a. visiting the UK and driving on the left-hand side of the road b. driving in the United States on the right-hand side of the road c. pushing the brakes to stop at a stop sign d. turning on the car

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Chap 05_3e 104. In one study, participants were told that they had either done well or poorly on a test, and then they participated in a second study, ostensibly on alcohol preferences. What were the findings? a. The participants who believed they did poorly on the test drank less wine. b. The participants who believed they did poorly on the test drank more wine. c. Among the participants who believed they did poorly, existing levels of private self-consciousness predicted higher levels of drinking. d. Among the participants who believed they did poorly, there was no relationship between existing levels of private self-consciousness and levels of drinking.

105. Hariqbal is preparing an online dating profile. One of the questions for the profile is whether he is a romantic person. In order to answer this question, Hariqbal thinks back on some of his most recent actions. Since in the past week he read a book of love poems, enjoyed a dramatic film, and took a long walk by the beach, he decides that he must be a romantic person. What process has Hariqbal engaged in? a. self-perception b. upward social comparison c. the better than average effect d. the misattribution of arousal 106. Hannah is very busy and has a lot on her mind. Which of the following pieces of information is she most likely to remember? a. that she wants to be on the soccer team, and tryouts are next week b. that there was a substitute teacher in her science class today c. that a school dance is coming up, which she has no intention of attending d. that the history lecture covered the War of 1812 107. When people are primed with everyday pieces of information, that information _____, while when people are primed with a goal, that goal _____. a. induces self-awareness; induces a sense of ought-actual discrepancy b. induces a sense of ought-actual discrepancy; induces self-awareness c. induces tension and remains salient until an end-state is achieved; fades from memory at a constant rate d. fades from memory at a constant rate; induces tension and remains salient until an end state is achieved 108. Thinking of goals at a more abstract level allows us to: a. complete the goal faster. b. complete the goal better. c. stay motivated to achieve the goals. d. feel better about our efforts to meet the goal.

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Chap 05_3e 109. When we conclude that we must be anxious because we can't sleep, which theory describes our thought process? a. social role theory b. symbolic interactionism c. social identity theory d. self-perception theory 110. Adama is a preschool teacher, and he is currently alone in the classroom with several male children. How does research suggest Adama will think of himself in this situation? a. as an adult b. as a preschool teacher c. as a male d. It is impossible to predict how Adama will see himself in this situation.

111. Ascribing arousal resulting from one source to a different source is called _____; _____ is the process through which leftover arousal from one event intensifies reactions to another event. a. downward comparison; upward comparison b. upward comparison; downward comparison c. misattribution of arousal; excitation transfer d. excitation transfer; misattribution of arousal 112. According to self-awareness theory, what determines whether people distract themselves from negative selfawareness or commit to trying to be better in the future? a. the likelihood that a negative discrepancy can be easily reduced b. whether the person's cognitive faculties are impaired (e.g., by fatigue) c. the person's level of neurotic tendencies d. the extent to which the person was invested in the relevant goal before a negative discrepancy occurred 113. The theory that people often infer their attitudes by observing their own behavior is called: a. the looking-glass self. b. reflective appraisal. c. self-perception theory. d. symbolic interactionism.

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Chap 05_3e 114. Which of the following statements is the BEST description of Schachter and Singer's (1962) classic study on the two-factor theory of emotion? a. Participants who were given an arousing injection and told that their arousal was a side effect of the injection were more likely to believe they felt happy or angry, depending on a confederate. b. Participants who were given an arousing injection were more likely to feel angry when a confederate acted angry. c. Participants who were given an arousing injection were more likely to feel happy when a confederate acted happy. d. Participants who were given an arousing injection and not told that their arousal was a side effect of the injection were more likely to believe they felt happy or angry, depending on a confederate.

115. The _____ system provides direction and energy to seek our goals, and the _____ system helps keep us focused on our goals. a. hot; cool b. hot; ironic c. cool; hot d. ironic; cool 116. According to research, how will training a person to be better at a certain task affect that person's ability to accurately evaluate their own performance on that task? a. Training at a task will have no effect on the accuracy of people's evaluations. b. People who are trained at performing a task will evaluate their performance more accurately than if they had not received the training. c. People who are trained at performing a task will rate their performance as worse than that of performers who received no training. d. Training will lead people to evaluate their performance more positively if performance is determined by social comparison, rather than objective standards.

117. The _____ refers to our conscience, or beliefs about what we are obligated to do, while the _____ refers to our beliefs about what we would like to accomplish and become. a. ideal self; ought self b. ought self; ideal self c. ego; looking-glass self d. looking-glass self; ego 118. Self-discrepancy theory describes all of the following EXCEPT which view of the self? a. the undesired self b. the actual self c. the ought self d. the ideal self Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_3e 119. After Phineas Gage suffered a serious brain injury, what was the result of his accident? a. Gage became unable to communicate with others except through sign language and nonverbal behavior. b. Gage forgot everything about his prior identity. c. Gage changed from an angry, upset man to a docile, calm man. d. Gage changed from an honest, reliable man to a volatile, unpredictable man.

120. An implementation intention involves: a. shifting to a more concrete understanding of an activity. b. shifting to a more abstract understanding of an activity. c. mental rules that link particular situational cues to goal-directed behaviors. d. comparing the actual self with the ideal self.

121. The best way for an individual to break the spiral of depression when they are experiencing negative selfregulatory perseveration is by: a. practicing the self-regulatory ability to increase the commitment to a difficult goal. b. increasing one's level of self-awareness. c. focusing on the more abstract goal that an unattainable goal was serving. d. focusing on the series of concrete goals leading up to an unattainable goal.

122. Which theory suggests that emotion is a function of both physiological arousal and the label we give that arousal? a. the two-factor theory b. self-perception theory c. excitation transfer theory d. self-awareness theory 123. The view that a person holds of their own traits, social roles, and social identities is called the: a. self-concept. b. ego. c. social identity. d. self-schema.

124. In order to concentrate on his exam, Absalom actively tries to push all thoughts of the date he went on last night out of his mind. What does research suggest will happen? a. Absalom will be completely unable to forget about the date. b. After he finishes the exam, thoughts of the date will be even more prominent in Absalom's mind than before he started. c. Absalom will perform very well on the exam. d. Absalom will not be likely to go on a date with the same person again.

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Chap 05_3e 125. Describe the two-factor theory of emotion. Describe the classic study that first tested this theory and demonstrated the misattribution of arousal.

126. Describe the misattribution of arousal.

127. Define self-schema and working self-concept. What kinds of factors trigger different working selfconcepts? Provide examples.

128. According to the theory of ego depletion, self-control is like a muscle that can become tired but can also be strengthened. Explain ego depletion; discuss research that supports it and the idea that ego strength is a limited resource, as well as research that contradicts it.

129. Define the self-concept. Discuss the stability of the self-concept. Discuss the flexibility of the self-concept.

Provide an example from your own life demonstrating both the stability and flexibility of the self-concept.

130. Describe cognitive reappraisals and give one example of how they can be used to minimize stress.

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Chap 05_3e 131. Define self-regulation. What three key capacities do humans possess that allow them to self-regulate?

132. Describe the basic premise of self-awareness theory. According to research from this theory, how are people likely to react to a discrepancy between their actual self or behavior and their internalized ideals?

133. Describe the self-regulatory perseveration theory of depression. According to this theory, what can be done to break the cycle of depression? Give a hypothetical example.

134. Describe social comparison theory, and be sure to include downward and upward comparisons. According to this perspective, when are we most likely to compare ourselves with others?

135. What are implementation intentions? Give one example and describe how they contribute to goal completion.

136. According to self-awareness theory, how does looking at oneself in the mirror influence behavior?

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Chap 05_3e 137. Describe the better than average effect. According to research, who is most likely to demonstrate this effect, and why?

138. Describe self-perception theory. Discuss a way in which self-perception processes influence our emotions.

Provide an example from research. Provide an example of self-perception theory from your life, and describe how the perception may be correct or incorrect.

139. Describe construal level theory. Provide an example from a college experience that demonstrates the central ideas of this theory.

140. Summarize Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion. Describe research supporting this theory. Describe the misattribution of arousal.

141. Describe ironic processing, and discuss the rebound effect.

142. What are some ways in which reflected appraisals differ from actual appraisals? Provide an example from research. Why might there be errors in the appraisals? Discuss an area of your own life or self-concept where you believe that reflected appraisals might differ from actual appraisals.

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Chap 05_3e 143. Define willpower. Describe the cool and hot systems of self-regulation. What is a major key to selfregulation?

144. Define affective forecasting. Are people skilled or not at this particular task? Provide a research example of affective forecasting.

145. Define symbolic interactionism, and list the primary insights of this theory.

146. Describe what research and theory suggests are the differences between guilt and shame. Name at least two of the different outcomes of shame- and guilt-proneness that have been demonstrated in studies.

147. What is the relationship between an explanation of depression provided by self-awareness theory versus the self-regulatory perseveration perspective? Are these two explanations different or complementary? What is emphasized by each perspective? What role does cognitive reappraisal play in depression?

148. Describe self-awareness theory. Describe the different kinds of discrepancies that people can experience from the perspective of self-discrepancy theory. What are the emotions associated with these discrepancies?

Which form of discrepancy do you think is more problematic and difficult for people to deal with in today's society, and why might this be the case?

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Chap 05_3e 149. Define social role theory. According to this theory, why do gender differences in career and life opportunities tend to be perpetually reinforced and transmitted across generations?

150. Describe the central idea behind self-perception theory. Provide some examples of the role that selfperception processes play in emotion.

151. Describe three important ways that people learn about themselves in everyday situations.

152. Describe the main idea behind action identification theory. Provide some hypothetical examples of different ways to conceive of an action. Describe at least one factor that influences the way people think about their actions.

153. Describe self-discrepancy theory. What kinds of emotions does the theory predict will occur as a result of these discrepancies?

154. Describe upward and downward comparisons and give one example of each from your life.

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Chap 05_3e 155. Describe the basic idea behind social identity theory. Describe a study derived from this theory.

156. Define action identification theory. What are the benefits of thinking about actions in concrete terms and in abstract terms? What is construal level theory? Provide an example of action identification theory and one of construal level theory.

157. Describe the concept of solo status.

158. What are some of the cultural and biological forms of influence on the self-concept? How do these two forces interact when it comes to certain areas of self-knowledge and identity? Give an example to illustrate your argument.

159. Describe the concepts of monitor and operator in the context of ironic processing.

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Chap 05_3e Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. a 7. c 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. b 12. b 13. c 14. b 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. b 21. a 22. c 23. c 24. c 25. c 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_3e 27. b 28. d 29. c 30. b 31. a 32. c 33. b 34. a 35. c 36. d 37. d 38. b 39. d 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. d 47. d 48. b 49. c 50. d 51. d 52. c 53. d 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_3e 55. c 56. a 57. b 58. b 59. b 60. c 61. a 62. b 63. c 64. b 65. b 66. c 67. a 68. d 69. a 70. c 71. a 72. c 73. d 74. a 75. c 76. d 77. d 78. d 79. c 80. a 81. b 82. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_3e 83. b 84. c 85. b 86. d 87. d 88. b 89. d 90. c 91. c 92. b 93. d 94. a 95. c 96. c 97. a 98. c 99. b 100. a 101. a 102. c 103. a 104. c 105. a 106. a 107. d 108. c 109. d 110. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_3e 111. c 112. a 113. c 114. d 115. a 116. b 117. b 118. a 119. d 120. c 121. c 122. a 123. a 124. b 125. The two-factor theory of emotion proposes that people's emotions are the product of both their arousal level and how they cognitively interpret that arousal. In Schachter and Singer's classic study, individuals were injected with adrenaline (which causes arousal in the sympathetic nervous system); the individuals were either told that they would be aroused by the drug or not told anything. They were then put into a situation where a confederate in the room was either happy or angry. Those who were not told to expect arousal from the drug misattributed their arousal to the emotion being demonstrated in the room: they reported being either happy or angry, depending on the confederate, and thus misattributed their arousal. Those who were told that they would be aroused by the drug attributed their arousal to the drug.

126. A misattribution of arousal takes places when we ascribe arousal from one source to a different source. For example, since nervousness and excitement are both physiologically arousing, people who are excited can infer that they are nervous and vice versa.

127. A self-schema is an integrated set of memories, beliefs, and generalizations about an attribute that is central to one's self-concept. The portion of your self-schema that is currently activated and influencing your thoughts, feelings, and actions is known as the working self-concept. Factors that influence which working self-concept is active at any point in time include situational elements and other people. For example, a college student is more likely to think of themselves as a student in a classroom setting; and a female is more likely to think of herself as a woman if she is surrounded by men.

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Chap 05_3e 128. Ego depletion is mental fatigue and loss of will power after extended bouts of self-control. That idea is that we have a certain amount of ego strength that allows us to regulate and control behavior, but that strength can be drained. One study documenting ego depletion had participants view a film about environmental disasters with graphic imagery of dying animals. One group of participants was instructed to control their emotions, another group was instructed to exaggerate the emotions they felt, and a third group received no instructions about emotional regulation. After viewing the film all participants were asked to squeeze a handgrip for as long as they could. Participants who were told either to control or to exaggerate their emotions squeezed the grip for less time than those who had been given no instructions. Although emotional self-regulation and hand squeezing are very different tasks, the study suggested that at some level they both draw down a person's energy reserves.

Additional evidence comes from research on brain chemistry: blood glucose, a source of energy, is consumed in the prefrontal cortex during mental tasks requiring self-control.

However, not all research finds ego depletion effects. One study found that when participants were led to believe that willpower is unlimited, they didn't show the ego depletion effect. Monetary incentives can also reduce or eliminate ego depletion effects, as can appeals to a person's goals and personal values; this finding is not easily reconciled with the theory that ego depletion involves literal dwindling of a physical resource in the body. It may be that there are many factors involved in self-control, and what is called ego depletion is really a decline in motivation, or a wandering of one's attention.

129. The self-concept is people's knowledge about themselves, including their traits, social identities, and experiences.

A person's central attributes, which make up the self-schema, such as I am intelligent or I am musically talented, typically remain stable across a variety of situations. Research suggests that this stability exists because people typically process information about their central attributes very quickly, remember information that is consistent with their self-schemas, and disregard self-conflicting or discrepant information. But while central aspects of the self typically are quite stable, situational factors may prompt certain aspects of the self-concept to become more salient than other aspects. The currently activated portion of the self-concept is called the working self-concept. This working self-concept continues to change as the situation changes or as situational cues become available. For example, the same person may think of themselves as studious when surrounded by books in a library but more as athletic when watching a sporting event. People may also define themselves according to their unique features that distinguish them from others. For example, if you are a traditional student enrolled in a night class and all the other students are non-traditional students, then your solo status, your sense of uniqueness, becomes prominent in your self-concept. Student examples will vary.

130. Cognitive reappraisals reframe situations to minimize one's emotional reaction to it. They can be used to minimize stress by thinking about the stressful situation in a different way. For example, after a breakup, someone might use a cognitive reappraisal and think about negative aspects of the relationship rather than the pain of the breakup.

131. Self-regulation is a set of processes that guide one's thoughts, feelings, and behaviors in order for the person to reach a particular goal. This ability to self-regulate is distinctly human and is based on three key features of the human mind: (1) being self-aware; (2) being able to imagine abstract goals and hypothetical outcomes; and (3) being able to recall the past and mentally project oneself into the future in order to envision the causal relationships between behavior at one time and outcomes at a later time.

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Chap 05_3e 132. Self-awareness theory suggests that one's attitudes, values, and goals will be most likely to influence behavior when attention is focused on the self. This often occurs when people are in the presence of a mirror. According to research, if people are in a self-aware state, and perceive a discrepancy between their actual behavior and their ideal, then they will try to modify their behavior if they believe the discrepancy can be easily reduced. However, if they believe that the discrepancy cannot be reduced, they will try to escape self-awareness.

133. The self-regulatory perseveration theory of depression proposes that one way in which people can fall into depression is by persistent self-focus on an unattainable goal. This typically occurs when an unattainable goal was previously central to the person's sense of self-esteem, so that shifting the focus away from the self and the unattainable goal is difficult or impossible. The persistent focus on failure leads to depression, which leads to social withdrawal and other behaviors that reinforce the self-focus. A person can break this cycle by identifying the more abstract goal they are trying to achieve and finding an alternate route to achieving it. For example, a person depressed over the breakup of a romantic relationship might consider why they wanted a partner so much in the first place. Perhaps their broader goal is to overcome loneliness. Instead of seeking to get back together with their partner, then, they could focus on building relationships with friends and family.

134. Social comparison theory suggests that people come to understand themselves partly by comparing themselves with others, and, in particular, similar others. Downward comparisons involve comparing the self with those who are not as skilled on a trait or behavior, while upward comparisons involve others who are more skilled on a trait or behavior. The theory suggests that we are especially likely to compare ourselves with others when we lack objective indicators of our ability and therefore are uncertain where we stand.

135. Implementation intentions are mental rules reminding us to respond to a cue in a situation with a goal-directed behavior. For example, someone trying to lose weight may create an implementation intention that states that every time they think about eating junk food, they will eat something healthy instead. Implementation intentions help people reach their goals by allowing them to self-regulate even if in stressful situations or when they have a lot on their mind.

136. Research on this topic has shown that seeing oneself in a mirror makes people to behave in line with their internal standards.

137. The better than average effect is the tendency people have to rank themselves higher than most other people on positive attributes. Studies indicate that across a variety of careers, those who are actually the worst performers are the most likely to indicate that they are better than average. This is probably because the more one lacks skill in an area, the less one understands what good performance looks like. Evidence for this explanation comes from studies in which people's estimates of their own performance went down as the result of training that improved their competence.

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Chap 05_3e 138. Self-perception theory states that people sometimes infer their attitudes and attributes by observing their behavior and the situation in which it occurs. In other words, we make attributions about our own behaviors. If we think the behavior can be explained in terms of external factors, then the cause is the situation. But if we think the behavior can't be explained in terms of external factors, then we make an internal attribution. This is especially true in new or unusual situations.

A similar dynamic is at work when we assess our own emotions: situational cues and our own behavior can influence our understanding of what we are feeling. This reliance on visible evidence to figure out what is going in on inside us can lead to mistakes. In one study, college students cited the weather and the amount of sleep they'd gotten the night before as factors affecting their moods, even though it could be shown that neither of those was a significant influence.

According to the facial feedback hypothesis, self-perception can also influence our emotions via the action of facial muscles. According to this hypothesis, there may be something to the suggestion to smile when you feel sad. Laird subtly induced people to either smile or frown by describing those movements without using leading terms like smile or frown. He then showed study participants cartoons. Those induced to smile rated the cartoons as funnier and reported more positive feelings. In a similar vein, study subjects induced to shake their heads from side to side interpreted this as an expression either of condemnation or of sympathy, depending on whether they were watching a video of a murderer or of a drug addict struggling in difficult circumstances.

Student answers will vary on the examples.

139. Construal level theory builds on action identification theory by proposing that people focus more on the concrete details of their actions when thinking about the near future, but focus more on abstract meaning when thinking about the distant future. An example from the college experience is that of students choosing how to complete course assignments. In the beginning of the semester, students often gravitate toward projects that seem fulfilling and interesting, regardless of their practical achievability. As deadlines approach, however, students become more focused on pragmatic details, in the spirit of just get it done.

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Chap 05_3e 140. Schachter's two-factor theory of emotions states that emotion is a product of our physiological arousal and the label that we give that arousal. In other words, in situations where people's autonomic nervous system gets activated and they feel physically aroused, the emotion they feel remains indeterminate until a label is applied. For example, your heart is beating like crazy right before you give a speech. Is it anxiety, or is it excitement? It depends on the cognitive label. The arousal is the same, but the label is different.

In Schachter and Singer's now-classic study, participants came to the lab for a study about the effects of a drug on memory. They got an injection of what they thought was the memory-enhancing drug, but it was really adrenaline, which causes physiological arousal. Two groups of participants were told there would be no side effects of the drug. While supposedly waiting for the drug to take effect, they were exposed to a confederate who acted either happy or angry. The third group was given the drug and was told to expect the physiological effects of the drug. Of participants in the first two groups, those who were in the room with the happy confederate reported being happy and those exposed to the angry confederate reported being angry. Participants in the third group did not report high levels of happiness or anger, because they already had an explanation for their sensations of arousal, namely the drug.

As the study illustrates, arousal may be attributed to a source other than the real one; the general term for this is misattribution of arousal. The real cause of the arousal need not be something physical, like a drug. For example, if you are feeling anger at one of your classmates and then you meet someone new, you may later explain your negative feelings as an effect of meeting the new person.

141. Ironic processing is the phenomenon that the more a person tries not to think about something, the more those thoughts enter their mind and distract them. Typically, a person is able to initially suppress a distracting thought if they are motivated to do so. Nevertheless, once the person stops trying to suppress the thought, a rebound effect occurs: the thought is more accessible than it was before suppression. One theory of this dynamic posits a monitor process that looks for signs of unwanted thoughts and an operator process that pushes away unwanted thoughts as they are detected. The rebound effect would then be due to the salience of unwanted ideas on the monitoring side after the operator process goes offline. Other, rival analyses of ironic processing and the rebound effect have also been proposed.

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Chap 05_3e 142. Appraisals are what other people think about us. When we become aware of these appraisals, they can become incorporated into our self-concept, a phenomenon Cooley calls the looking-glass self. This is especially likely to happen with appraisals by people we know and admire. In a study by Baldwin and colleagues, social psychology graduate students evaluated their own research after being primed by either a scowling faculty member who was respected or by a smiling stranger. The results indicated that the students rated their own research more harshly after being primed by the scowling, respected faculty member. In another study, Roman Catholics were more affected by a picture of the pope with a disapproving expression than by one of a similarly disapproving unfamiliar person.

According to Vazire's self-other knowledge asymmetry model, other people's appraisals of us are often more reliable than our own self-appraisals when it comes to external, easily observed characteristics, especially where we may be biased in our own favor, such as regarding the social appropriateness of our behavior. On the other hand, we are better judges about more internal characteristics of ourselves, where we are better informed than anyone else. Others are more likely to be mistaken about the mood we are in, for example, than we ourselves are.

Our estimates of others' appraisals of us are called reflected appraisals, and they can be inaccurate. That is, we can be wrong about what others think of us. One study involving bar bands showed that band members tended to think they ranked lower as musicians in their bandmates' eyes than they in fact did. Presumably the reflected assessment was colored by insecurity. The gap in between actual appraisals and reflected appraisals may also be due to the way others provide us with feedback. The feedback may not be entirely honest; or it may be delivered too politely (or too bluntly).

Students will give varying examples of appraisals and reflected appraisals from their own lives.

143. Willpower is one way people self-regulate. It is the capacity to overcome temptations, challenges, and obstacles that get in the way of achieving long-term goals. According to Mischel and colleagues, two systems guide our willpower. One is the hot system that provides the direction and energy to seek out goals. This is driven by strong emotions. The cool system helps keep people on track and focused on their goals by thinking and reasoning. A major key to self-regulation is effortful control.

144. Affective forecasting is predicting what one's emotional reactions to potential future events will be. In general, research shows that people are not very accurate in their affective forecasts, because they overestimate the importance of certain salient factors. In one study, for example, students felt that they would be very unhappy if they were assigned to an undesired dorm and very happy if they were assigned to a desired dorm; but after the first year of college, students in these different circumstances did not actually differ in their level of happiness.

145. Symbolic interactionism is the perspective that people use their understanding of how significant people in their lives view them as the primary basis for knowing and evaluating themselves. It was historically represented by Mead and Cooley. One of the primary ideas originated by Mead and Cooley is the concept of the looking-glass self. The looking-glass self is a self-understanding people form largely based on their own ideas about others' views of them (reflected appraisals). But while reflected appraisals are taken primarily from specific others who play a significant role in one's life, Mead also posited the influence of the generalized other, an internalized representation of the average member of the surrounding society. The generalized other becomes a kind of internal audience by which people view and judge themselves.

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Chap 05_3e 146. Guilt is typically conceived as feeling bad about a specific bad behavior. Shame is conceived as a feeling of being unworthy or being a bad person. People prone to guilt feel more empathy for others, and they are more likely to apologize to those they harmed and to try to make things right. People prone to shame show higher levels of depression, are more likely to use drugs and alcohol, and tend to be more angry, hostile, and suspicious of others.

147. According to the self-regulatory perseveration view, depression is a result of persistent self-focus on goals that are not attainable. A key component of this theory is self-awareness theory. In self-awareness theory, people have an internal focus that compares their current condition with their ideal (desired) state or self. Any discrepancy is addressed either by working to close the gap or, where that is not possible, by shifting focus away from the self.

The added piece in self-regulatory perseveration is that in some cases where a goal is not attainable, people have a hard time letting go of the goal and turning their focus elsewhere. The persistent self-focus, and persistent awareness of a discrepancy between one's ideal and one's actual condition, tend to exacerbate negative feelings.

People in this state often blame themselves for their problems, because they are thinking more about themselves and their personal qualities rather than about their external circumstances. This creates a spiral of misery that is very difficult to get out of.

Cognitive reappraisal, or mental reframing, may be helpful in some cases of depression. The recommended reframing involves moving to a higher level of abstraction. It may be that the unattainable goal was a means to a more abstract goal that can still be pursued by other means. For example, it may be that a failed relationship was a means to feeling valued and loved, and that other relationships (possibly less romantic and more friendshipbased) can meet that need.

148. Duval and Wicklund's self-awareness theory classifies a person's focus of attention, at any given time, as either internal or external. The person's attitudes, values, and goals will be more likely to influence behavior if attention is focused inward, toward the self. In other words, self-awareness activates our desires and concerns with meeting goals, especially as those relate to whatever situation we are in. As we focus inward, we become aware of discrepancies between our lives as they actually are, on the one hand, and what we would hope and wish them to be, on the other. This can motivate us to make changes.

Refinements of self-awareness theory distinguish the emotions that arise from inward-focused reflection in two ways. First, Higgins's self-discrepancy theory states that people feel anxious when they don't meet their own standards of how they ought to be and act, but feel sad when they fail to be or achieve what they want to. And second, people's feelings of having fallen short can focus on something they have done or on the type of person they are. This difference in attribution makes a difference for emotions: the sense of having behaved badly will lead to feelings of guilt, whereas the sense of being a bad person will lead to feelings of shame. Guilt can be a motivating factor to make amends for the bad behavior. Studies have shown that people feeling guilt experience more empathy for others, and are more motivated to make up for past mistakes, than people feeling shame.

People who feel shame tend to be more depressed and angry and tend to turn to self-medicating. This may be a result of having less confidence that something can be done to reduce the discrepancy. As Duval and Wicklund had already noted, low likelihood of discrepancy reduction causes people to seek escape from self-awareness.

Student answers will vary but chances are many will cite shame as being more problematic and point to issues of drug use, incidence of depression, and the need for anger management classes.

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Chap 05_3e 149. Social role theory suggests that gender differences in behavior, personality, and self-definition arise because of a long history of role distribution between the sexes. According to the theory, gender differences persist because when people see men and women unevenly distributed across careers and life situations demanding different tasks and skills, they assume that men and women are biologically better at those respective tasks and skills.

150. Self-perception theory suggests that people sometimes infer their attitudes and attributes by observing their behavior and the situation in which it occurs. This is especially true in new or unusual situations. People often infer their emotions from their own bodily reactions. For example, the facial feedback hypothesis shows that if people are smiling when they hear a joke, they will find it funnier. Other research suggests that people are not very good at inferring the source of their moods and overattribute or misattribute them to factors like the weather.

151. People gain self-knowledge in three basic ways: (1) reflected appraisals, (2) social comparisons, and (3) selfperception. First, people gain self-knowledge by observing what others think about them (appraisals). The observations may be accurate or inaccurate, but they do contribute to people's working knowledge of themselves. A second way that people gain knowledge about the self is through comparing themselves with others. In upward social comparison, people compare themselves with people that are more skilled on a particular trait. The comparison can also be downward, where people compare themselves with others who are less skilled. Finally, self-perception allows people to gain knowledge about the self. In self-perception people learn about themselves by viewing their own behavior and making attributions about their traits or values. Like reflected appraisals, these attributions may be correct or incorrect.

152. Action identification theory suggests that people conceive of actions in ways that range from very concrete to very abstract. For example, the act of tying one's shoes can be conceived as looping two laces together or as preparing for a life-changing race. The theory proposes that conceiving of an action abstractly helps keep the action's purpose in view, the why of the action, and thereby helps maintain motivation. But people shift to more concrete understandings of their actions when they are having difficulty achieving their goals and need to focus on how to accomplish them.

153. Self-discrepancy theory proposes that each person has ideal selves (the versions of themselves they would ideally like to become) and ought selves (the versions of themselves that they feel morally obligated to be). According to the theory, when a person perceives a discrepancy between their actual and ought selves, they will feel anxiety and guilt. When a person perceives a discrepancy between their actual and ideal selves, they will feel disappointment-related emotions like sadness and discouragement.

154. Upward comparisons compare oneself with those who are better off, while downward comparisons compare oneself with those who are worse off. While students may give many different examples, common themes are school and athletic performance. In the context of school, they may make upward comparisons to the best students in class (or the teacher) and downward comparisons to the worst students in class.

155. Social identity theory suggests that people define and value themselves largely in terms of the social groups with which they identify. In one study people were randomly assigned to believe that they belonged to one of two groups of people based on their reactions to art. They were then told that members of that group tended to be high on a fictional personality trait called surgency. When people thought their artificial group was high on this trait, they tended to rate themselves as also being high on that trait.

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Chap 05_3e 156. According to action identification theory, developed by Vallacher and Wegner, people conceive of their actions using a hierarchy of interpretations or descriptions, ranging from concrete at the bottom of the hierarchy to abstract at the top. Concrete descriptions tend to be how-focused, whereas abstract descriptions tend to be why-oriented. For example, if you think of yourself as trying to make a good impression, that is a fairly abstract description. By contrast, if you tell yourself to smile, nod, and look interested, you are thinking about your own behavior in quite concrete terms. Thinking more abstractly gives us a better view of what we are actually doing or accomplishing. This may aid in motivating us to reach our goals. But if we consider our actions in more concrete terms, then we may be able to see the steps necessary to solve a problem.

Trope and Liberman's construal level theory takes time into account. This theory states that people operate more on the concrete level when thinking about the near future and more on the abstract level when thinking about the distant future. For example, if students choose their research topics during the first few weeks of class, even though the project is not due until the end of the term, they tend to choose topics of interest to them or of relevance to their course of study. These are abstract considerations. If students procrastinate and wait until the project is almost due, they tend to choose topics for which they can easily get their hands on any needed resources and which will allow them to finish on time.

157. Solo status is the sense that one is unique in some manner from others in the environment. Studies show that people tend to mention characteristics about themselves such as age, gender, and ethnicity if they differ on these from the majority.

158. Culture shapes all aspects of how people think about themselves. Socialization by parents, teachers, and media, including social media, all play a role in shaping the self-concept of individuals. Social identity theory states that people define and evaluate themselves by the social groups they identify with (e.g., students, females, daughters).

Culture also shapes how people think about themselves in terms of independence or interdependence.

Individualistic cultures tend to view the self as an independent being, and cultural values promote independence.

People raised in more collective cultures tend to view the self as more of an interdependent being, with the focus on the group more than on the individual and individual achievements. Collective values often emphasize obedience, conformity, and doing things for the good of one's group. Culture also provides gender schemas about what it is like to be male or female. These schemas function as guidelines for behavior but also as stereotypes. So then, biology makes an initial assignment of biological sex, which affects the self-concept through (for example) the average size difference between men and women, and women's ability to bear children. But cultural schemas add another layer of differences, not grounded in biology and sometimes not grounded in fact at all. For instance, in America it is common for men and women alike to think of women as the more talkative sex, when in fact there is virtually no difference between the sexes when it comes to talkativeness. In other cases, culture may create real differences that have no biological basis. For example, young children told that some toys are for boys and others for girls will begin to arrange their gender schemas for what toys to play with and what is culturally appropriate.

Students may have different examples to support their discussion.

159. Ironic processing refers to the idea that the more we try not to think about something, the more those thoughts enter our mind. In this context, monitor is the effortless mental process that is on the lookout for signs of unwanted thoughts, and operator is the effortful mental process that pushes any sign of unwanted thoughts out of focus.

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Chap 06_3e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. All of the following are true about self-esteem EXCEPT: a. it may be a conscious attitude about the self. b. it may be an unconscious attitude about the self. c. it is always stable. d. it may be a result of implicit and explicit factors.

2. Basking in reflected glory refers to people's tendency to: a. associate themselves with successful others. b. compare themselves to those who perform far better than they in a domain. c. acquire and display symbols that reinforce a self-relevant aspect. d. reflect on past successes in a nostalgic way.

3. Yamir attends sociology class because he would feel guilty if he didn't attend. However, he doesn't really feel that sociology connects to his sense of what he wants to do with his life. Yamir attends the class because of: a. intrinsic motivation. b. extrinsic motivation. c. self-presentation. d. symbolic self-completion.

4. The fact that an accomplished classical musician will be treated very differently in a concert-hall performance than if they are performing anonymously in a subway station is MOST CLEARLY a testament to the importance of which social psychological viewpoint? a. the self-evaluation maintenance model b. the dramaturgical perspective c. the BIRG-ing phenomenon d. intrinsic versus extrinsic sources of self-esteem 5. In a study on induced hypocrisy and condom use, which participants were most likely to purchase a condom at the end of the study? a. those who had made a public speech advocating condom use b. those who had not made a public speech advocating condom use c. those who had not made a public speech advocating condom use, before being reminded of a time when they did not use condoms d. those who had made a public speech advocating condom use, before being reminded of a time when they did not use condoms

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Chap 06_3e 6. All of the following are mechanisms that people use routinely to maintain their self-esteem EXCEPT: a. self-verification. b. projection. c. self-handicapping. d. compensation.

7. Tao has just been told that he is not as good a rock climber as he thought he was. If he pursues the defensive strategy of compensation, what is Tao now likely to do? a. try harder to become a better rock climber b. stay out partying before the next climbing competition c. brag about his academic achievements d. compare himself to another person who is a worse rock climber than he is 8. N'Faly and Iarla are both undergoing therapy to cure their agoraphobia. N'Faly's therapist is using a traditional exposure method, through which N'Faly will gradually get farther and farther from his house. Iarla is being treated using a controversial new method, which requires him to stand outside his house and scream for minutes on end. What does research suggest will be the outcome of these therapies? a. N'Faly will have more success. b. Iarla will have more success. c. Neither N'Faly's nor Iarla's therapy will be very successful. d. If N'Faly and Iarla both believe they chose the therapy, they will experience some success.

9. _____ occurs when people attribute their action to an external incentive, and their intrinsic motivation and enjoyment of the task are consequently diminished. a. The spotlight effect b. The overjustification effect c. The locus of control d. Minimal deterrence 10. Emma has always thought of herself as a good student. Yet she recently failed a chemistry exam and is experiencing cognitive dissonance as a result. Which of the following is NOT a strategy that Emma may take in order to reduce dissonance? a. no longer believe that she is a good student b. claim that the exam does not really matter c. adopt the belief that the exam was unfair d. convince the professor to change her grade

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Chap 06_3e 11. Naby feels that he has no control over his life, with others making all of the important decisions for him.

Which of the following needs outlined by self-determination theory is Naby most likely lacking? a. autonomy b. competence c. relatedness d. self-esteem 12. Some research suggests that people who experience trauma: a. always suffer predominantly negative consequences. b. lose their sense of self-esteem. c. shift their focus to entirely extrinsic sources of self-esteem. d. sometimes report experiencing personal growth.

13. All of the following are elements of self-compassion EXCEPT: a. maintaining a deep sense that the self is always good. b. recognizing that all people are limited in certain ways and prone to some amount of failure. c. accepting negative feelings about the self. d. being kind to the self.

14. A clearly defined, internally consistent, and temporally stable sense of self is referred to as: a. self-verification. b. self-esteem. c. self-concept clarity. d. self-schema.

15. All of the following are potential ways to reduce dissonance EXCEPT: a. trivialize the inconsistent cognitions. b. change one of the inconsistent cognitions. c. reflect deeply on the inconsistency between the two cognitions. d. add a third cognition that makes the original cognitions seem less inconsistent.

16. Jurgen has always felt that lying is unethical. Recently, he lied to his parents about going to school, instead spending the day with friends. His attitude toward lying has become less critical. The _____ theory best accounts for his attitudinal shift. a. cognitive dissonance b. self-presentation c. self-determination d. self-affirmation

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Chap 06_3e 17. Yanis just moved to a new city and is trying to make friends. He is invited by people in his apartment building to a party. They tell him that many of their friends are architects. Accordingly, Yanis has spent the few days reading and listening to podcasts about architecture. During the party, Yanis is likely going to be: a. self-verifying. b. giving a sincere performance. c. giving a cynical performance. d. experiencing stable self-esteem.

18. Self-concept clarity refers to _____, while self-complexity refers to _____. a. multiple aspects of the self-concept; a clearly defined and consistent self-concept b. one point in time; multiple points in time c. multiple points in time; one point in time d. a clearly defined and consistent self-concept; multiple aspects of the self-concept 19. In a church you automatically take on the role of "worshipper." According to the dramaturgical model, this is an example of: a. a sincere performance. b. an explicit performance. c. a cynical performance. d. a convincing performance.

20. The theory of _____ states, among other things, that to reduce discomfort we may find a way to justify our actions to ourselves. a. symbolic self-completion b. self-affirmation c. cognitive dissonance d. self-presentation 21. Zahra is typically a good student, though her chemistry class is very challenging. She is uncertain whether she will do well on an upcoming exam. The night before the exam, her friend invites Zahra to a party. What does research on self-handicapping suggest Zahra will do? a. go to the party only if the friend has a negative view of Zahra b. go to the party only if the friend has a positive view of Zahra c. go to the party, stay up late, and drink d. decline to go to the party, study hard for the test, and put forward her best effort

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Chap 06_3e 22. Ostracism evokes a brain response that is similar to that triggered by: a. pressure. b. pain. c. anger. d. depression.

23. According to research on self-verification, people who have positive views of themselves seek out others who _____, and people who have negative views of themselves seek out others who _____. a. have negative views of them; have negative views of them b. have positive views of them; have positive views of them c. have positive views of them; have negative views of them d. have negative views of them; have positive views of them 24. A parent says to their child, "If you have to work hard for your allowance, then you will appreciate it more when you receive it." What psychological concept does this best illustrate? a. overjustification b. effort justification c. minimal deterrence d. self-verification 25. When faced with a daunting situation, if a person believes their resources are adequate they experience _____, but if a person believes their resources are inadequate they experience _____. a. challenge; threat b. threat; challenge c. flow; growth d. growth; flow 26. The sociometer model emphasizes: a. self-verification. b. social comparison. c. the desire to fit in with others. d. the desire to stand out from others.

27. Aylin is convinced that everyone is staring at her new haircut. Aylin's belief is an example of: a. the transparency effect. b. the spotlight effect. c. self-monitoring. d. self-verification.

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Chap 06_3e 28. All of the following are true about self-handicapping EXCEPT: a. men are more likely to self-handicap than women. b. self-handicapping helps protect self-esteem. c. self-handicapping often arises from uncertainty about one's skills. d. self-handicapping occurs at varying levels among people.

29. All of the following are fundamental motives behind self-presentation EXCEPT: a. to serve as the basis for self-improvement. b. to expose the arbitrariness of cultural standards for success. c. to convey and protect one's self-image. d. to support the culturally derived meaningfulness of social interactions.

30. Amir-Ali prides himself on his artistic ability. Recently, Amir-Ali watched a film about death and dying, which made him reflect on his own eventual death. The anxiety-buffer conception of self-esteem suggests that: a. Amir-Ali will no longer want to create art. b. Amir-Ali is now strongly motivated to create art. c. Amir-Ali 's self-esteem will be decreased by watching the film. d. Amir-Ali 's self-concept will be transformed by watching the film.

31. After a choice is made, people typically reduce dissonance by _____ the chosen alternative and _____the alternative not chosen. a. focusing on; ignoring b. ignoring; downgrading c. focusing on the positive aspects of; focusing on the negative aspects of d. focusing on the negative aspects of; focusing on the positive aspects of 32. State self-esteem refers specifically to: a. the level of positive feeling one has about oneself. b. a feeling about the self that can temporarily increase or decrease in positivity in response to changing circumstances. c. a general attitude toward the self, ranging from very positive to very negative. d. an implicit attitude toward the self.

33. Compared to younger people, older people are consistently: a. more anxious. b. more depressed. c. more active. d. happier.

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Chap 06_3e 34. If you assign to other people the traits that you fear you possess, then you are engaging in: a. symbolic self-completion. b. self-serving attributional bias. c. identification. d. projection.

35. A coherent life story connecting one's past, present, and possible future is referred to as: a. self-concept clarity. b. self-verification. c. self-complexity. d. a self-narrative.

36. Research finds that when individuals face a threat to their self-esteem, they prefer to: a. minimize it directly by self-enhancement. b. minimize it directly by self-handicapping. c. compensate for their shortcoming directly. d. engage in self-comparison.

37. The research on lying suggests that: a. men are equally likely to lie on behalf of themselves or on behalf of others. b. women are especially likely to lie in order to protect their own self-images. c. the majority of lies people will report telling have a harmful or manipulative purpose. d. the majority of lies people will report telling are about saving face, one's own or another's.

38. The feeling of being completely absorbed in an activity that challenges skills at an appropriate level is called: a. anxiety. b. boredom. c. flow. d. self-awareness.

39. Fatima is asked by her daughter to explain the benefits of eating healthy. Later that day, Fatima reflects on the fact that she has been eating quite unhealthily for a while. According to research on cognitive dissonance processes, what is Fatima now likely to do? a. eat a healthy meal b. not eat a healthy meal, and come up with an excuse for not doing so c. eat a healthy meal, but only if she feels there is a strong external incentive to do so d. eat a healthy meal, but only if she can see no external reason why she should

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Chap 06_3e 40. _____ refers to people's desire and ability to adjust their self-presentations for strategic purposes. a. Self-affirmation b. Self-monitoring c. Self-complexity d. Symbolic self-completion 41. To create an image of power and strength, some people may use: a. ingratiation. b. audience segregation. c. supplication. d. intimidation.

42. Seo-yeon has low self-esteem and does not think of herself as a good person. At her new job, there are two people who seem interested in being friends with her. Ji-woo laughs at all of her jokes and compliments her on her fashion sense. Chae-won seems to enjoy hanging out with Seo-yeon but also criticizes her frequently.

Research suggests that Seo-yeon will: a. prefer to associate with Ji-woo. b. prefer to associate with Chae-won. c. want to equally associate with both Ji-woo and Chae-won. d. not want to associate with either of these people.

43. Your text cites all of the following variables as a primary contingency on which people base their self-esteem EXCEPT: a. academic accomplishments. b. physical attractiveness. c. deference to authority figures. d. God's love.

44. After graduating from college, Petr has decided between two job offers in New York and Chicago. After making his choice, he finds himself reducing any dissonance by: a. focusing on the job he chose and ignoring the other choice. b. ignoring all new information about any other potential job. c. focusing on the positive aspects of the chosen job and focusing on the negative aspects of the job not chosen. d. focusing on the negative aspects of the chosen job and focusing on the positive aspects of the job not chosen.

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Chap 06_3e 45. People from individualist cultures are more likely to experience dissonance _____, while people from collectivist cultures are more likely to experience dissonance _____. a. in private settings; in public settings b. in public settings; in private settings c. during young adulthood; during older adulthood d. during older adulthood; during young adulthood 46. The self-serving attributional bias is the tendency to make: a. internal attributions for one's own behavior and external attributions for the behavior of others. b. external attributions for one's own behavior and internal attributions for the behavior of others. c. external attributions for bad things one does and internal attributions for good things one does. d. internal attributions for bad things one does and external attributions for good things one does.

47. The central concept of the dramaturgical perspective is that: a. all people strive to become famous someday, even if some people eventually realize that they will never be famous. b. people pursue self-esteem differently depending on the cultural worldview in which they are immersed. c. people are generally cynical in their day-to-day lives, and committed to deceiving one another. d. all of social life can be compared to a theatrical production in which people, like actors, perform according to a script.

48. Research suggests that feeling ostracized in a social activity such as a game increases activation in the: a. amygdala. b. brain stem. c. ventromedial prefrontal cortex. d. anterior cingulate cortex.

49. Which of the following statements about self-esteem is MOST accurate? a. Where people derive self-esteem from does not change across the life span. b. There are universal standards for self-esteem. c. Positive family environments in childhood predict high self-esteem in adulthood. d. All people derive self-esteem from being physically attractive, academic success, and God's love.

50. In an induced compliance paradigm: a. individuals are given the opportunity to reduce dissonance in a number of different possible ways. b. individuals choose between alternatives and, subsequently, their attraction to the alternatives is assessed. c. individuals are allowed to choose between several undesirable tasks. d. individuals are manipulated into engaging in a behavior that goes against their attitudes.

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Chap 06_3e 51. Using the least possible amount of external justification required to prevent undesirable behavior is referred to as: a. minimal deterrence. b. cognitive dissonance. c. induced compliance. d. initiation severity.

52. Compared to those low in self-monitoring, people high in self-monitoring: a. are better at giving cynical performances. b. have more consistent behavior across situations. c. have fewer friendships. d. have more long-lasting romantic relationships.

53. Abrax is able to adapt his behavior so that he can fit in with any group of people. Abrax would be considered: a. a low self-monitor. b. a high self-monitor. c. a self-handicapper. d. one who basks in reflected glory.

54. A life story in which a set of obstacles are overcome and ultimately lead to positive experiences is referred to as a _____, while a life story in which a state of good fortune is transformed into a state of failure or tragedy is referred to as a _____. a. contamination story; redemption story b. redemption story; contamination story c. positive self-view; negative self-view d. negative self-view; positive self-view 55. In a state of flow, the individual _____, while in a state of mindfulness, the individual _____. a. is strongly self-focused; is strongly other-focused b. is absorbed in an activity; is completely attentive to the present moment c. is completely attentive to the present moment; is absorbed in an activity d. is strongly other-focused; is strongly self-focused

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Chap 06_3e 56. The theory of symbolic self-completion suggests that: a. individuals associate with others who support their self-views. b. people tend to be insensitive to feedback from the environment suggesting that their behavior could improve. c. if people feel threatened in one self-relevant domain, they will compensate by shifting their focus on their abilities in a different domain. d. when people feel a self-defining aspect of themselves is threatened, they compensate by displaying symbols that support their self-definition.

57. Individuals who are low in self-monitoring: a. give better cynical performances. b. have more consistent behavior across situations. c. are social chameleons. d. have more variations in their behavior across situation.

58. An example of using the strategy of trivialization to reduce dissonance is: a. a smoker who keeps smoking after telling herself that without smoking, she would gain weight. b. a person who litters instead of finding a trash can, because lots of people litter in that area already. c. an animal rights activist who decides to become a vegetarian. d. a person with high cholesterol who cuts back on red meat.

59. People with low self-esteem are more likely to have _____ than those high in self-esteem. a. intense fears or phobias b. high life satisfaction c. low death anxiety d. God's love 60. Nora is very invested in being viewed as attractive by others. Recently, she entered a beauty contest and took first place. According to the self-evaluation maintenance model, she is motivated to: a. see her competitors as dissimilar to her. b. see her competitors as similar to her. c. evaluate her ability in comparison to her competitors. d. not evaluate her ability in comparison her competitors.

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Chap 06_3e 61. Santiago eats a lot of candy. He is also a nutrition expert who is aware that candy is bad for his health.

According to cognitive dissonance theory, what is the MOST likely way that he will try to resolve his dissonance? a. deciding that if he didn't eat candy, he would probably become unhappy and that would be just as bad for his health b. refusing to believe that candy is bad for his health c. stopping all consumption of candy d. convincing himself that candy is actually healthy 62. What is the implication for parenting based on research on the minimal deterrence phenomenon? a. Children are happiest if their parents allow them to explore the environment without providing a strict set of rules and norms. b. The more difficult it is for children to feel included in a particular activity, the more they will ultimately justify engaging in that activity by seeing it as good. c. Minimal deterrence is the most effective way to provide a child with maximal external reason to avoid undesired behavior. d. Minimal deterrence makes a child more likely to internalize the idea that he or she doesn't want to engage in the undesired behavior.

63. The idea that people respond less defensively to threats to one aspect of themselves if they think about another valued aspect of themselves is referred to as: a. self-affirmation. b. self-verification. c. symbolic self-completion. d. projection.

64. People in individualist cultures tend to declare themselves better than average on _____, while people in collectivist cultures tend to declare themselves better than average on _____. a. almost all traits; almost no traits b. almost no traits; almost all traits c. traits like self-reliance; traits like loyalty d. traits like loyalty; traits like self-reliance 65. According to the sociometer model: a. a basic function of self-esteem is protecting the individual from troubling thoughts. b. self-esteem primarily serves to maximize a person's sense of social status. c. a basic function of self-esteem is indicating one's level of acceptance by others. d. extraverted people are more concerned with self-esteem than introverted people.

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Chap 06_3e 66. According to the overjustification effect, if you promise a child a reward for doing what he or she already intrinsically enjoys, then a. it will lead to more enjoyment of the activity. b. it will lead to less enjoyment of the activity. c. it will lead to increased practice of the activity. d. it will become more intrinsically rewarding.

67. Janel does not really care about being athletic. Still, she recently ran the fastest mile out of anyone in her class. According the self-evaluation maintenance model, she is motivated to: a. see her competitors as dissimilar to her. b. see her competitors as similar to her. c. evaluate her ability in comparison to her competitors. d. not evaluate her ability in comparison her competitors.

68. In one study, participants received personality feedback before watching either a disturbingly graphic video or a video with neutral content. The findings of this study indicated that participants who received: a. neutral feedback were not differentially affected by the two videos. b. positive, esteem-enhancing feedback were not differentially affected by the two videos. c. neutral feedback expressed greater liking for the graphic video. d. positive, esteem-enhancing feedback were more disturbed by the graphic video.

69. A study by Cialdini (1976) and colleagues on people's reactions to their college sports team showed that: a. students were less likely to wear school apparel when the football team had won a game. b. students were more likely to wear school apparel when the football team had won a game. c. students were equally likely to wear school apparel whether the football team had won or lost. d. students connected to the football team (e.g., either on the team or best friends with a team member) were more likely to wear school apparel on game days.

70. The belief that others are paying more attention to one's appearance and behavior than they actually are is referred to as the _____ effect. a. spotlight b. audience c. transparency d. self-verification

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Chap 06_3e 71. _____ has been identified by research as a technique that helps individuals preserve a sense of self-continuity and meaning, even in the face of reminders of mortality. a. Self-evaluation maintenance b. Self-compassion c. Nostalgia d. Self-monitoring 72. According to the _____ model, self-esteem primarily serves as a defense against existential threats. a. self-evaluation maintenance b. anxiety-buffer c. sociometer d. cognitive dissonance 73. In Aronson and Carlsmith's (1963) study conducted with preschoolers, under what experimental condition were children the most likely to change their attitudes toward an initially desirable toy at the end of the study? a. those who were not given an opportunity to play with the toy b. those who had been told that the experimenter would be mildly annoyed if they played with the toy c. those who had been told that the experimenter would be very angry if they played with the toy d. those who played with the toy during the study 74. João did not play well at soccer tryouts and was cut from the team. If João exhibits the self-serving attributional bias, he will: a. practice harder for next year's tryouts. b. blame himself for not practicing enough. c. blame the coach for not evaluating his skills effectively. d. give up trying.

75. Santiago has a group of friends who have a lot of piercings and tattoos. His family, however, is very conventional, and looks down on people who are different from themselves. Santiago tries to make sure that his friends and his family members do not spend time around each other. This is an example of the selfpresentational strategy of: a. lying. b. audience segregation. c. honing an image. d. ingratiation.

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Chap 06_3e 76. Spreading of alternatives is a strategy that gets used in: a. the free choice paradigm. b. all instances of dissonance reduction. c. the induced compliance paradigm. d. the trivialization strategy.

77. Arnost is taking a psychology course to learn more about himself and his personal growth. This is an example of: a. extrinsic motivation. b. intrinsic motivation. c. high self-monitoring. d. self-verification.

78. The experimental paradigm that has been used to demonstrate that cognitive dissonance processes are driven by a negative, affective state of tension is: a. induced hypocrisy. b. misattribution of arousal. c. the implicit attitudes test. d. excitation transfer.

79. Extrinsic motivation refers to _____, while intrinsic motivation refers to _____. a. self-esteem; self-presentation b. self-presentation; self-esteem c. feeling that one's actions are controlled by external forces; feeling that one's actions reflect one's authentic desires d. feeling that one's actions reflect one's authentic desires; feeling that one's actions are controlled by external forces 80. Which of the following scenarios is NOT an example of self-handicapping? a. A student who stays up late the night before an important exam b. An athlete eating unhealthy foods before a big game c. A factory worker visiting the doctor after being injured at work d. A musician failing to practice for an upcoming concert 81. Dissonance will be _____ if a person acts in a counterattitudinal fashion with a _____ justification. a. highest; high b. high; moderate c. moderate; low d. high; weak

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Chap 06_3e 82. Deyra has always been worried that she is annoying. At the same time, she often describes new people that she meets as annoying. Which psychological concept is this an example of? a. the better-than-average effect b. projection c. symbolic self-completion d. self-affirmation 83. People feel self-determined in their actions when all of the following basic needs are met EXCEPT: a. relatedness. b. competence. c. self-evaluation. d. autonomy.

84. According to self-presentation research, when we want to get people to like us, _____ is an effective technique. a. self-promotion b. supplication c. ingratiation d. intimidation 85. Being kind to the self when one fails or feels inadequate is referred to as: a. self-compassion. b. self-esteem. c. self-verification. d. symbolic self-completion.

86. Which of the following statements accurately summarizes findings from research on possible selves? a. People's possible selves are primarily positive. b. People's possible selves are primarily negative. c. While possible selves play an important role in self-verification, they have little influence on motivation and actual behavior. d. Possible selves serve as an important motivator for goal-setting and achievement.

87. People high in self-concept clarity are _____ others' feedback, while those low in self-concept clarity are _____ others' feedback. a. less sensitive to; more sensitive to b. more sensitive to; less sensitive to c. less likely to encounter; more likely to encounter d. more likely to encounter; less likely to encounter

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Chap 06_3e 88. All of the following are ways that people maximize self-growth EXCEPT: a. foster a positive mood. b. explore novel aspects of the world. c. experience flow. d. focus on become more intrinsically motivated.

89. In a typical game of what Williams and colleagues called cyberball, participants: a. begin playing an electronic game of catch with two avatars, and the avatars gradually increase the extent to which they include the participant. b. begin playing an electronic game of catch with two avatars, and the avatars eventually stop including the participant in the game. c. engage in a dialogue with a computerized avatar that they believe is a participant in another room on a different computer. d. engage in a dialogue with a participant in another room, whom they believe to be only a computerized avatar.

90. Self-handicapping refers to: a. substituting state self-esteem for trait self-esteem in a situation. b. placing obstacles in the way of one's success to protect self-esteem. c. deliberately punishing oneself to compensate for a self-esteem-threatening failure. d. associating with others who have negative views of oneself, in order to maintain a negative self-view.

91. In Festinger and Carlsmith's (1959) classic study on cognitive dissonance, subjects came to believe that a boring task was interesting when they: a. did not have to tell someone that they enjoyed the task. b. were paid $1 to tell someone that they enjoyed the task. c. were paid $20 to tell someone that they enjoyed the task. d. were predisposed to make a good impression on others.

92. All of the following are true about individuals with high self-concept clarity EXCEPT: a. they may be happier. b. they may be better able to cope with stress. c. they are more sensitive to feedback. d. their attitudes about themselves are stable.

93. Images of what the future self may look like are referred to as: a. self-presentations. b. self-projections. c. imagined ideals. d. possible selves.

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Chap 06_3e 94. All of the following are factors affecting the magnitude of dissonance EXCEPT: a. the extent to which the action is reversible. b. a person's level of self-esteem. c. the amount of external justification a person has for a behavior. d. the extent to which aversive consequences can be foreseen.

95. Roberta is anxious about an upcoming job interview. Instead of getting a good night's sleep before the interview, she goes to a party and stays out late. Roberta is engaging in: a. self-concept clarity. b. self-handicapping. c. self-serving bias. d. relatedness.

96. The desire for others to perceive us in the same way that we see ourselves is called: a. self-verification. b. self-affirmation. c. self-complexity. d. self-handicapping.

97. While _____ refers to the tendency to overestimate others' ability to know one's thoughts, _____ refers to the belief that others are more focused on oneself than they really are. a. the spotlight effect; the illusion of transparency b. self-serving attributional bias; behavioral mimicry c. behavioral mimicry; self-serving attributional bias d. the illusion of transparency; the spotlight effect 98. Linder and colleagues had participants write a counterattitudinal essay on banning controversial speakers from campus. In one condition participants were told the essay was mandatory, and in a second condition participants were told it would be helpful but was not required. Which participants experienced the most dissonance? a. The participants in the high choice condition experienced the most dissonance. b. The participants in the low choice condition experienced the most dissonance. c. The participants experienced the same amount of dissonance. d. None of the participants experienced dissonance.

99. When people experience an event as a challenge: a. their heart rate decreases, while veins and arteries remain unchanged. b. their heart rate increases, while veins and arteries remain unchanged. c. their heart rate increases, and their veins and arteries dilate. d. their heart rate increases, and their veins and arteries contract.

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Chap 06_3e 100. Implicit self-esteem has been studied by: a. asking participants to predict what others think about them, and to state their confidence in their predictions. b. evaluating the speed with which participants can identify positive versus negative words after being primed with first-person singular pronouns. c. measuring fluctuations in a person's self-esteem over the course of a week, as indicated on self-report questionnaires. d. asking experts to code people's self-esteem based on videos of them giving speeches before a small group of people.

101. The key concept behind cognitive dissonance theory is that people: a. base their self-esteem on cognitive assessments of their ability. b. are willing to distort reality in order to maintain a sense of themselves as inconsistent and flexible. c. experience an uncomfortable tension over inconsistencies in their beliefs, attitudes, and behavior. d. are highly sensitive to unexpected information coming from the environment.

102. All of the following are key elements of self-compassion EXCEPT: a. self-kindness. b. recognizing that imperfection exists. c. mindfulness. d. stable self-esteem.

103. Self-esteem is defined as the: a. individual's level of life satisfaction. b. extent to which the person has a stable, coherent self-concept. c. level of positive feeling one has about oneself. d. extent to which one likes oneself.

104. Trait self-esteem refers specifically to: a. the level of positive feeling one has about oneself. b. a feeling about the self that can temporarily increase or decrease in positivity in response to changing circumstances. c. a general attitude toward the self, ranging from very positive to very negative. d. an implicit attitude toward the self.

105. Which of the following findings has emerged from research on social comparison? a. People prefer to compare themselves to those who perform far better than they in a domain. b. People prefer to compare themselves to those who perform far worse than they in a domain. c. People generally think of themselves as worse in most respects now than they used to be. d. People generally think of themselves as better in most respects now than they used to be.

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Chap 06_3e 106. Aronson and Mills (1959) conducted a classic study in which female college students were recruited for a discussion group. In one condition participants were put through a difficult initiation into the group. In a second condition participants were put through a mild initiation into the group. Finally, in the control condition they were simply admitted to the group. The discussion that they actually listened to was quite boring. Which group stated they liked to group and were committed to the group? a. those who did not have an initiation prior to listening to the discussion b. those who had a mild initiation c. those who had a difficult initiation d. those who were already committed to being in the discussion group 107. The induced hypocrisy paradigm is used to activate a sense of: a. cynical performance. b. ostracism. c. cognitive dissonance. d. self-esteem threat.

108. Thiago feels that he does not understand himself. To find out information about himself, he takes a genetic test and finds out that he is ethnically French, British, and Indonesian. Which of the following was Thiago MOST likely seeking when ordering the genetic test? a. Self-concept clarity b. Self-verification c. Self-complexity d. Self-regulatory perseveration 109. When giving a sincere performance, a person _____; when giving a cynical performance, a person _____. a. is not committed to succeeding; is committed to succeeding b. is committed to succeeding; is not committed to succeeding c. is not consciously aware that they are performing; is consciously aware that they are performing d. is consciously aware that they are performing; is not consciously aware that they are performing 110. Intrinsic self-esteem is based on _____, while extrinsic self-esteem is based on _____. a. factors like physical appearance; enduring inner qualities b. enduring inner qualities; factors like physical appearance c. unconscious, stable factors; conscious, unstable factors d. unconscious, stable factors; unconscious, stable factors

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Chap 06_3e 111. Aarav is attending an anger management course. According to research, the best outcome is MOST likely if: a. the anger management course is court-ordered. b. Aarav is attending the anger management course because his parents told him to. c. Aarav chose to attend the anger management course himself. d. Aarav is attending the course to make his girlfriend happy.

112. In social psychological research, self-verification refers primarily to: a. trying out multiple different self-concepts across one's life span. b. seeking out others who support the way one views oneself. c. storing autobiographical information about the self. d. focusing more on the needs of the self than the needs of others.

113. Being reminded of extrinsic sources of self-esteem leads to increases in all of the following behaviors EXCEPT: a. downward social comparisons. b. self-handicapping. c. social conformity. d. reflection on personal values and goals.

114. When people reduce dissonance by convincing themselves that what they suffered for is actually quite valuable, this phenomenon is referred to as: a. overjustification. b. effort justification. c. minimal deterrence. d. self-verification.

115. In the induced hypocrisy paradigm, participants: a. advocate an opinion they already believe in, and then are reminded of a time when their actions contradicted that opinion. b. are assigned tasks of varying unpleasantness in order to gain entrance to a group, and their opinions about the group are assessed. c. are made to feel that they have freely chosen to undertake a counterattitudinal behavior. d. are given the smallest external justification necessary to prevent them from engaging in an undesirable behavior.

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Chap 06_3e 116. Rasmus writes science fiction and experienced early success with one breakout novel. He signed a deal with a publisher and sold over a million copies. However, before he was able to publish a second novel, he was involved in a serious car accident that left Rasmus in the hospital for months. After leaving the hospital, he was left with a lot of medical debt, and could not find the energy to continue writing. Now, Rasmus works odd jobs to continue paying his debt. Rasmus's story is an example of: a. self-verification. b. a redemption story. c. a contamination story. d. self-concept clarity.

117. Research suggests that if people have unstable self-esteem, they: a. behave no differently than those with stable self-esteem. b. are equally sensitive to potential self-esteem threats as those with stable self-esteem. c. are less sensitive to potential self-esteem threats than those with stable self-esteem. d. are more sensitive to potential self-esteem threats than those with stable self-esteem.

118. The strategy of audience segregation refers to: a. the tendency for people to lie only to certain kinds of other people, based on the roles those other people play. b. people's desire to seek out others who share their own self-views, whether positive or negative. c. the tendency for people in large groups to spontaneously cluster into smaller groups based on race or gender. d. people's attempts to keep separate the different groups of people before whom they maintain somewhat different identities.

119. The extent to which a person believes that either internal or external factors determine their outcomes is referred to as: a. the locus of control. b. the illusion of transparency. c. self-evaluation maintenance. d. self-concept clarity.

120. Which of the following statements accurately summarizes findings from research on the narration of personally experienced traumatic events? a. Narration of trauma does not help the individual cope. b. Narration of trauma improves coping, but it is unclear when this happens. c. Narration of trauma mostly improves coping in individuals who have high levels of self-complexity. d. Narration of trauma primarily improves coping in those individuals who seek out cause-and-effect connections.

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Chap 06_3e 121. Allison has decided she would like to start exercising regularly. She posts on social media that this is her goal for the year. What does research based on symbolic self-completion theory suggest will happen? a. Allison will successfully self-complete by exercising regularly. b. She has self-completed through her social media post, and Allison may be less likely to exercise regularly. c. Allison will only exercise regularly if she receives support from her friends. d. Allison will only exercise regularly if she is generally ignored by her friends.

122. If you think your shortcomings are pretty common, but you think your strengths are unique, you have provided an example of: a. self-verification. b. self-handicapping. c. the better than average effect. d. projection.

123. All of the following are true about self-esteem EXCEPT: a. both unstable self-esteem and low self-esteem contribute significantly to psychological difficulties. b. the way in which people pursue self-esteem is dependent on their cultural worldview. c. it is relatively easy to increase a person's overall level of self-esteem. d. striving for self-esteem can sometimes have destructive consequences.

124. Research on culture and self-esteem suggests that: a. only individuals in individualist cultures care about self-esteem. b. only individuals in collectivist cultures care about self-esteem. c. only individuals in individualist cultures engage in self-serving biases. d. people in different cultures pursue self-esteem equally but using different criteria.

125. All of the following are self-presentational strategies EXCEPT: a. self-verification. b. honing an image. c. audience segregation. d. lying.

126. Describe the concept of mindfulness. List three effects that mindfulness can have on daily life.

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Chap 06_3e 127. Describe the trait of self-monitoring. Discuss some of the differences between high and low self-monitors.

128. Discuss either the hypocrisy paradigm or the idea of minimal deterrence. How does research in these areas relate to real-world issues?

129. Describe the basic premise of symbolic self-completion theory. Give a hypothetical example of a situation that is explained by this theory.

130. Describe the anxiety-buffer perspective on why people need self-esteem. Discuss some examples of research supporting this perspective.

131. Discuss four strategies supported by research that people use to protect and enhance their self-esteem.

Describe some of the problems with these strategies. Do you think that any of them are healthier than any others?

132. Describe the concept of basking in reflected glory. Explain how it can help bolster self-esteem.

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Chap 06_3e 133. Describe the basic idea behind cognitive dissonance theory. Explain when dissonance is particularly disturbing. List the three most common ways to reduce dissonance.

134. Describe compensation. Discuss how self-affirmation theory builds on this basic idea.

135. Define self-esteem. Distinguish between state and trait self-esteem. Describe the factors that influence selfesteem.

136. Describe the basic principles of self-determination theory. Describe the overjustification effect. Do you believe that most people in our society are intrinsically or extrinsically motivated most of the time? Why would that be the case?

137. List and briefly discuss three of the five primary factors that research shows affect the magnitude of cognitive dissonance.

138. Discuss at least two of the four primary implications of the body of research on self-esteem.

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Chap 06_3e 139. Discuss self-concept clarity and self-complexity. Describe the benefits of having either of these qualities.

140. Describe the status-maximizing theory of self-esteem and the sociometer model of self-esteem. Discuss the similarities and differences of these perspectives.

141. Define self-narrative. Describe two of the most common self-narratives.

142. Define self-esteem. Distinguish between state and trait self-esteem.

143. Define self-handicapping. Describe the circumstances where people are most likely to use this strategy.

144. Describe self-narratives and why they are important. Discuss some of the most common kinds of selfnarrative themes. Describe how nostalgia plays a role in self-narratives. If you were to tell your own life story up to this point, what would be the most prominent theme?

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Chap 06_3e 145. Explain self-esteem stability and the consequences of high or low stability. Discuss how self-esteem can be both a conscious and an unconscious attitude.

146. Describe the dramaturgical perspective and the types of performances. Discuss the concepts of selfmonitoring and the spotlight effect. Describe the goals of self-presentation.

147. Define the spotlight effect and the illusion of transparency.

148. Define self-compassion. List the three elements of self-compassion.

149. Describe the concept of possible selves. Describe how possible selves help motivate and guide behavior.

Give one example of how researchers have used the concept of possible selves to improve real-world outcomes.

150. Describe self-concept clarity. How is self-concept clarity related to self-esteem? Describe the ways that people sustain their self-concepts.

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Chap 06_3e 151. Describe the concept of flow. List the factors that need to be satisfied for individuals to be in flow. Describe the negative emotions that can result when the individual is not in a state of flow.

152. Define self-verification. Describe the consequences of self-verification.

153. Discuss the functions of self-esteem as an anxiety buffer and cite research to support this view. Compare and contrast the social functions of self-esteem. Reflecting on your own life, what function does self-esteem serve?

154. Describe the overjustification effect. Provide a research finding demonstrating this effect.

155. Discuss self-determination theory. Describe the three basic needs posited by this theory.

156. Discuss cognitive dissonance, incorporating the primary ways to reduce dissonance and providing an example. Describe two dissonance paradigms along with an example of each. Describe effort justification, providing an example, and explain how this concept relates to cognitive dissonance.

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Chap 06_3e 157. Identify and briefly describe the two most common experimental paradigms used to examine dissonance.

158. Describe effort justification. Provide two real-world applications of effort justification.

159. Describe how people can grow and even benefit from difficult or traumatic experiences. Cite research to support your answer. Do you think this would this always be the case, or only under certain circumstances?

160. Describe the dramaturgical perspective. Discuss the difference between a sincere and a cynical performance.

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Chap 06_3e Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. c 8. d 9. b 10. d 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. c 15. c 16. a 17. c 18. d 19. a 20. c 21. c 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. a 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_3e 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. b 31. c 32. b 33. d 34. d 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. c 39. a 40. b 41. d 42. b 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. d 49. c 50. d 51. a 52. a 53. b 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_3e 55. b 56. d 57. b 58. b 59. a 60. a 61. a 62. d 63. a 64. c 65. c 66. b 67. b 68. b 69. b 70. a 71. c 72. b 73. b 74. c 75. b 76. a 77. b 78. b 79. c 80. c 81. d 82. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_3e 83. c 84. c 85. a 86. d 87. a 88. d 89. b 90. b 91. b 92. c 93. d 94. b 95. b 96. a 97. d 98. a 99. c 100. b 101. c 102. d 103. c 104. c 105. d 106. c 107. c 108. a 109. c 110. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_3e 111. c 112. b 113. d 114. b 115. a 116. c 117. d 118. d 119. a 120. d 121. b 122. c 123. c 124. d 125. a 126. Mindfulness is the state of being and acting fully in the current moment. This allows people to engage more creatively and openly with the world around them. Mindfulness can affect daily life in a number of positive ways, including decreasing stress and anxiety, as well as increasing creativity, concentration, and well-being.

127. Self-monitoring is one's readiness and ability to adjust one's self-presentation for different audiences. People who score high in self-monitoring are constantly aware of the fact that they are putting on performances, and they adjust their performances based on who they are with. High self-monitors tend to have more friendships, but fewer long-lasting, intense relationships. People low in self-monitoring do what feels real to them. Low selfmonitors have more consistent, internally generated behavior across a variety of situations than high self-monitors do.

128. In research on induced hypocrisy, participants are asked to advocate an opinion they already believe in, but then are reminded about a time when their actions ran counter to that opinion. This arouses dissonance and causes the individual to engage more in behavior that is in line with their opinion. This effect has been demonstrated with condom use, water conservation, and exercising. Minimal deterrence research suggests that a behavioral disincentive is most effective when kept at the minimal level necessary to deter unwanted behavior. If parents only give children minimal reason for not engaging in a behavior, then the children will come to believe that they don't want to engage in the behavior, and will engage in it less. For example, saying I would be annoyed if you went in the pool alone is more likely to lead to the children's gradually finding the pool less appealing than I would be furious and ground you if you went in the pool alone.

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Chap 06_3e 129. Symbolic self-completion theory suggests that when people perceive that an aspect of the self is threatened, they feel incomplete. Then they try to compensate by acquiring and displaying symbols that support their desired selfdefinition. An example of this might be an aspiring doctor who does poorly on an MCAT exam. They might respond by filling their room with medical textbooks and buying medical equipment, such as a stethoscope.

130. The anxiety-buffer perspective proposes that self-esteem is a resource that allows people to minimize anxiety in the face of threats, especially the threat of death that comes with the awareness of one's own mortality. Evidence for the anxiety-buffer perspective comes from a study showing that people who have received self-enhancing feedback do not show elevated anxiety in response to watching a disturbing video with death-related images. In another research example, reminders of mortality have been shown to induce greater striving toward high selfesteem. For example, those who derive a sense of self-esteem from being skilled drivers engage in more risky driving in a simulator after being reminded of death.

131. People use many strategies to both enhance and protect their self-esteem. These strategies include: (1) self-serving attributional bias, (2) self-handicapping, (3) the better than average effect, (4) social comparison, (5) projection, (6) symbolic self-completion, (7) compensation, and (8) self-affirmation.

Self-serving attributional bias is the tendency to attribute our failures to external factors but our successes to internal qualities we possess. This habit can be useful to protect self-esteem, but it can be problematic if used too often, since it can prevent us from accurately assessing our behaviors and thereby learning to improve. Selfhandicapping is the habit of placing obstacles in the way of one's own success, in order to have an excuse for failure. The better than average effect is our tendency to rate our own performance as better than the average person's. Obviously, most of these judgments are, by definition, inaccurate. Closely related to the better than average effect is social comparison, which is simply comparing ourselves to others. Upward social comparisons, or comparing ourselves to people who are better than we are at a task, can hurt our self-esteem but can also allow us to associate ourselves with their achievements and thereby bask in reflected glory. Downward social comparisons, or comparing ourselves to people who are not as good as we are, can increase our self-esteem.

Typically, we compare ourselves to others who are not quite as good as we are.

Projection is assigning to others the negative traits that we fear we possess; this makes less threatening the prospect that we possess the traits. Symbolic self-completion is the acquiring and displaying of symbols that support an idealized version of the self. Compensation is de-emphasizing areas of failure and shifting one's focus to areas of strength. One form of this is self-affirmation, which is compensation in response to criticism as a healthier alternative to becoming angry and defensive.

Of the strategies listed, self-handicapping is probably the least healthy, since it literally aims at failure. Projection is also largely unhealthy, since like self-handicapping it emphasizes the negative without generating much in the way of positive feeling. The other strategies are mostly healthy in moderation, but if we use them too often we risk losing touch with the reality of our mix of strengths and limitations.

132. Basking in reflected glory is the concept of associating oneself with successful people or groups to help bolster one's own self-esteem. This is one strategy that people use to bolster their self-esteem, as associating with successful others reflects positively on you. A common example of basking in reflected glory comes from sports, where people associate themselves with teams, and as a result can gain self-esteem from the team's success.

Importantly, the success of the team is completely unrelated to the fans' actions, meaning that anybody can achieve self-esteem by basking in reflected glory depending on who they choose to associate themselves with.

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Chap 06_3e 133. When two cognitions (e.g., beliefs, attitudes, or perceived actions) are inconsistent or contradict one another, people experience an uncomfortable psychological tension known as cognitive dissonance. The more important the inconsistent cognitions are to the person, the more intense the feeling of dissonance and the stronger the motivation to get rid of that feeling. There are three primary ways to reduce dissonance: change one of the cognitions, add a third cognition that makes the original two cognitions seem less inconsistent, or trivialize the inconsistent cognitions.

134. Compensation occurs when people respond to a blow to their self-esteem in one domain by asserting or establishing their worth in another domain, thereby preserving their overall sense of self-value. Self-affirmation theory builds on this idea by proposing that people respond less defensively to threats to one aspect of themselves if they think about another valued aspect of themselves.

135. Self-esteem is the level of positive feeling one has about oneself. Considered as a trait, self-esteem is a generally stable attitude, ranging from positive for people with consistently high self-esteem to negative for people with consistently low self-esteem. Self-esteem, however, can and does fluctuate. People's sometimes-up, sometimesdown feelings about themselves are referred to as state self-esteem. The fluctuations can be due to changing circumstances, including setbacks and achievements.

Self-esteem, like other aspects of personality, is shaped by the interaction of nature and nurture. Genetically inherited temperament and personality traits influence self-esteem, as do our reflected appraisals, such as our perception of our parents' view of us as we grow up. Culture matters, as well, since it sets up standards for personal qualities and personal behavior that can vary from one culture to the next. Individualistic cultures, for example, have different standards regarding things like modesty and success than collectivistic cultures do.

Individual differences matter, too, including stage of life (what bolsters self-esteem in a grade schooler will not necessarily do so in a high schooler), but also individual choices in what to care about: one person may seek selfesteem in being physically attractive, while another seeks it in academic success.

People use a range of strategies to maintain positive self-esteem. They focus on their successes, for which they take credit, while tending to either ignore their failures or blame them on outside factors. (Sometimes they even arrange for outside factors to thwart their efforts, so as to have a convenient explanation for their failures.) People are also selective about how they use other people to bolster their own self-esteem. Others who are doing less well in life are convenient objects of downward social comparisons, while others who are doing better sometimes present opportunities to bask in reflected glory.

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Chap 06_3e 136. Self-determination theory identifies two types of motivation. Intrinsic motivation occurs when people view their actions as coming from their own desires; their locus of control, as it is called, is internal. Extrinsic motivation occurs when people view their actions as controlled by external forces, an external locus of control.

According to the theory, people are happier when their motivation is intrinsic. This requires the meeting of three basic needs: (1) relatedness, or being meaningfully connected with others; (2) autonomy, or feeling a sense of authentic choice in what one does; and (3) competence, or feeling effective in what one does. Individuals who are intrinsically motivated tend to feel more satisfied and to report greater happiness. They also, objectively, perform better and more creatively.

The overjustification effect is evidence in favor of this view that being internally motivated has greater benefits than being externally motivated. The overjustification effect is the tendency for salient rewards or threats to lead people to attribute or justify their behavior to an external force, which then decreases their enjoyment of the activity and intrinsic motivation. What happens is that when individuals know they are being externally reinforced for a behavior, that external incentive becomes the focus of their attention and they attribute their performing of the activity to the reward: If I'm getting paid for doing this, that must be why I'm doing it—an illustration of selfperception theory. The resulting decline in intrinsic motivation leads the person to perform less effectively. It should be noted, however, that reinforcements are not always bad and do not always reduce intrinsic motivation.

For instance, reinforcements presented as after-the-fact rewards undermine intrinsic motivation less than incentives offered ahead of time, and may even enhance them.

Student answers will vary on the rest of the question.

137. First, people are more likely to feel strong dissonance when they have no external justification for their behavior.

For example, if a person is being well paid to do something counterattitudinal, they might not feel dissonance.

Second, a person's perceived level of choice matters. In studies where participants wrote counterattitudinal essays, more dissonance was experienced in conditions where they felt it was ultimately up to them to write the essay or not. Third, the commitment level of a behavior, meaning the extent to which its effects can later be undone, also matters. Behavior that commits a person irrevocably to certain consequences generates more dissonance than behavior where the effects can be reversed or at least minimized, Next, the foreseeable aversive consequences of an action are important. People experience more dissonance if they think their action will have long-term negative consequences. Finally, culture plays a role. In individualistic cultures, dissonance is felt more strongly when an inconsistency is confronted in private, whereas in collectivist cultures, the dissonance is felt more strongly when inconsistency is revealed in a public setting.

138. (1) Self-esteem cannot be easily granted to people. It is derived from the process of socialization and the perception that the self is actually meeting cultural standards for value. (2) People with either unstable or low selfesteem struggle with psychological problems such as anxiety, depression, and drug dependencies, and can also sometimes display heightened levels of hostility and aggression. (3) People pursue self-esteem in ways that fit with their cultural worldview, sometimes with harmful consequences. For example, a terrorist usually believes that they are a person of worth according to the standards of their own worldview. (4) Striving for self-esteem can have constructive or destructive consequences for the self. For example, many people develop eating disorders partly based on unreasonable cultural standards for thinness and attractiveness.

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Chap 06_3e 139. Self-concept clarity involves having a clearly defined, internally consistent, and temporally stable self-concept.

People who score high in self-concept clarity tend to be happier and better able to cope with criticism, because they are less sensitive to negative feedback from others. Self-complexity is the extent to which an individual's selfconcept consists of many different aspects. People who score high in self-complexity can protect themselves from self-esteem threats in one area of life by drawing strength from their involvement in another area.

140. According to the status-maximizing theory, people seek self-esteem in order to maintain dominance in a hierarchical social structure. The sociometer model suggests that self-esteem serves to indicate to individuals how much they are accepted by other people. Both perspectives emphasize the social functions of self-esteem. The status-maximizing theory, however, emphasizes the desire to stand out and be better than others. The sociometer model emphasizes fitting in with others and gaining their acceptance.

141. A self-narrative is a coherent life story that connects one's past, present, and possible future. One of the most common self-narratives is a redemption story. In the redemption story individuals see themselves as having risen above the challenge of unfortunate circumstances to arrive at a better place. Some people's self-narratives, however, take the form of a contamination story. In the contamination story individuals see themselves as having fallen from fortunate circumstances into a more negative state of unhappiness.

142. Self-esteem is the level of positive feeling individuals have about themselves. Trait self-esteem is the general attitude toward the self that ranges from positive to negative. It is fairly stable across the life span. State self-esteem is the feeling about the self that increases or decreases due to the situation or circumstance and therefore can be quite variable over time.

143. Self-handicapping is the act of placing obstacles in the way of one's own success to protect self-esteem from possible failure. For example, a person might party the night before a test if they are worried they won't do well.

If they do badly, they can then attribute their failure on the test to partying. People are most likely to self-handicap when they are unsure of their competence in a particular area, or when they are focused on their performance will reflect on them, rather than being focused on the rewards of success.

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Chap 06_3e 144. Your self-narrative is a life story that connects your past, present, and possible future into a unified, purposeful whole that describes who you have been and who you are becoming. A clear self-narrative enhances well-being in at least two ways. On a pragmatic level, it facilitates action by helping us to gauge the limits of our ability and to anticipate future challenges. It can transform a negative past experience from a source of vague unhappiness into a coherent cause-and-effect account that yields useful lessons for the future. And on an emotional level, a clear selfnarrative provides psychological security by depicting each of our lives as a coherent whole rather than merely a series of passing moments. This imparts to our lives a significance they would not otherwise have and helps us to work through past traumas, which is beneficial even aside from any practical implications for future actions.

Studies have also shown that when one thinks about one's eventual death, reflecting nostalgically on one's past, seen as a coherent story, helps to maintain the sense that one's life is meaningful.

Although some people construct contamination story self-narratives, in which early good fortune is followed by tragedy or failure, much more common are redemption story narratives, in which daunting challenges are eventually overcome. Not surprisingly, the second kind of self-narrative is associated with greater life satisfaction and well-being.

The possible future part of a self-narrative includes possible selves, images of what the self might eventually become. Some possible selves are positive visions of a self that is successful professionally or socially, while others are negative visions of a self that has failed to reach life goals. Studies indicate that for middle-school students, visualizing positive possible selves promotes motivation and thereby contributes to better academic outcomes.

As students reflect on their own life stories, their responses will vary.

145. Self-esteem may be high or low, but it can also be stable or unstable. That is, one person may have high selfesteem that remains reliably high over time, while another a person has self-esteem that is high today but low tomorrow. The first kind of person tends to be less sensitive to potential threats to their self-esteem, much as individuals with high self-concept clarity are less sensitive to feedback from others. They tend not to pay too much attention to feedback and are not thrown off stride by occasional setbacks.

People with high self-esteem stability tend to derive their self-esteem from more internal sources, such as their talents and values, than from external ones, such as their looks or their professional achievements. Individuals with high self-esteem stability tend to make fewer downward social comparisons, are less likely to conform to others' opinions, and are less likely to self-handicap. Since their self-esteem fluctuates less than that of people with low self-esteem stability, they have less need for the various strategies to support self-esteem. For example, since their self-esteem does not fluctuate much, they will be less likely to boost their self-esteem by comparing themselves to other people with fewer accomplishments (downward social comparison).

Just as attitudes can be conscious or unconscious, so can self-esteem. Conscious, or explicit, self-esteem can be determined through interviews and questionnaires. Unconscious, or implicit, self-esteem may be measured with a test similar to the Implicit Associate Test (IAT), using the speed with which participants can identity positive words after being primed with words like I, me, or myself. Interestingly, conscious and unconscious self-esteem can be out of sync: people may sincerely report feeling good about themselves, and yet tests indicate that at an unconscious level they have low self-esteem.

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Chap 06_3e 146. The dramaturgical perspective looks at self-presentation and self-presentational strategies. Goffman's concept of the dramaturgical perspective uses theater as a metaphor, stating that people are like actors playing roles. The roles or scripts are learned through the socialization process. Like other aspects of life, the scripts can vary depending on the culture that you live in. Roles can be defined based on the situation that the person is in. Some of these situations have such familiarity that people do not even realize that they are playing a role. The norms are implicit and individuals automatically perform these roles. This is referred to as a sincere performance. (For example, students automatically fall into the student role.) Other roles are performed at the more conscious level.

These are referred to as cynical performances, in the sense that they are deliberate and calculated. They are conscious attempts to perform a particular way to manage an impression. (For example, going on a job interview requires one to think about the impression that they wish to make for a particular job.)

People differ in their level of self-monitoring, meaning their desire and ability to adjust their self-presentations for different audiences. People who are high in self-monitoring are sometimes referred to as social chameleons; they deliberately adapt their performance to fit each situation and thereby engage in cynical performances. These individuals are good at impression management. By contrast, individuals who are low in self-monitoring tend to have a take me as I am attitude. They do not follow societal expectations to the same extent as high selfmonitors. Their behavior is more consistent, not changing with the demands of each situation, and their self-image is their own and not constructed based on societal expectations.

As people give their performances, they often think that everyone is more focused on them than others actually are. This is called the spotlight effect. People may be aware of their own roles, but not reliably aware of how relatively little attention other people are paying. This leads to a further effect, namely that people often overestimate others' ability to know their thoughts and feelings. This is known as the illusion of transparency. In reality, others are not watching our performances as much as we think, nor are they as aware of our internal processes as we think they are.

Self-presentation has three broad goals. The first is to convey and protect your desired self-image. The second is to support the meaningfulness of social interaction by playing culturally approved roles in accordance with the culture's scripts. Finally, self-presentation serves to aid in self-improvement and personal growth.

147. The spotlight effect is an egocentric bias that leads us to believe that others are more focused on us than they really are. It is because of egocentric bias that a teen believes EVERYONE will notice her new haircut. The illusion of transparency is people's tendency to overestimate others' ability to know their thoughts and feelings. For example, after you give a speech, you think everyone knows how nervous you were, when in fact they thought you were relaxed. The illusion of transparency is a secondary effect of the egocentric bias: we think people see through us more than they do partly because we think people are paying more attention to us than they really are.

148. People practice self-compassion when they take the stance of a compassionate other toward the self. The first element, self-compassion, is self-kindness, or being as kind to the self as one would be to a suffering other. The second element is the recognition that everyone fails or makes mistakes. The third element is mindfulness, or accepting negative thoughts and emotions as they are rather than suppressing or denying them.

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Chap 06_3e 149. The concept of possible selves refers to images of what the self might become in the future. This can be either positive or negative, and they help motivate and guide behavior by making us aware of the actions we need to take to become our best possible self (or avoid becoming our worst possible self). Researchers have used the concept of possible selves to improve school performance. Oyserman et al. (2006) randomly assigned a group of low-income students to either participate in an intervention that used the concept of possible selves or to a control condition. In the possible selves intervention, students were instructed to imagine versions of themselves in the future, specifically focusing on academic outcomes. A year later, students in this condition performed better in school than those in the control condition.

150. Self-concept is a person's view of who they are or the image that they have of themselves. Self-concept clarity is having a clearly defined, consistent, and temporally stable self-concept. Of course, there may be inconsistencies at times within the self, but overall, having high self-concept clarity is beneficial. Individuals with high self-concept clarity tend to be happier and better able to cope with challenges and stressors.

While self-esteem is the evaluative aspect of one's self-concept, it is closely related to self-concept clarity.

Individuals with a higher or more positive self-esteem tend to have higher self-concept clarity. They are also better able to cope with life's challenges and stressors. Individuals with higher self-esteem, like individuals with high selfconcept clarity, are not nearly as sensitive to feedback from others as people with lower self-esteem are. They tend to not pay as much attention to the feedback. Both individuals with high self-concept clarity and individuals with high self-esteem tend to have higher social status and a more stable view of themselves.

People can sustain their self-concepts in various ways. One way is through self-verification. With self-verification people seek out and maintain relationships with those who see them in the same way that they see themselves.

This, in turn, verifies their own self-concept. This can also apply to seeking out social situations that maintain their view of who they are.

151. Flow is the feeling of being completely absorbed in an activity that is appropriately challenging to one's skills. Flow occurs when the individual feels a perfect match between the challenges being set by an activity and their skills or ability to meet the challenge. If challenges outpace skills, anxiety results, but if skills outpace challenges, then boredom results.

152. Self-verification is a common habit of seeking out other people and social situations that support the way one views oneself, in order to sustain a consistent and clear self-concept. It is not surprising that people who feel positively about themselves tend to seek out others who also view them positively. But research inspired by selfverification theory has also shown that individuals with negative self-views actually prefer to interact with others who have negative views of them as well. Individuals with low self-esteem will avoid individuals who may help increase their self-esteem.

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Chap 06_3e 153. According to terror management theory, much of our psychological behavior is driven by existential anxiety over our mortality. Self-esteem buffers this anxiety by helping us to see ourselves as enduringly significant beings whose lives will continue to matter even after we are dead. Research by Greenberg and colleagues documented this effect in a study that assigned half of the subjects to a self-esteem–boosting condition, which provided positive feedback about their personality. The other half of the subjects received more neutral feedback. Participants reported their anxiety levels after watching a 10-minute video that was either neutral or showed graphic death scenes. The graphic video produced higher anxiety levels in subjects who had received neutral feedback, but not in subjects who had received positive feedback. Evidently, the boost to self-esteem protected subjects from the anxiety-inducing effects of viewing scenes of death.

Self-esteem also plays a role in how individuals relate to their social groups. According to one theory, high selfesteem tends to lead to high social status. If that is correct, then raising one's self-esteem is a way to improve one's standing in a social hierarchy. According to another view, the sociometer model, self-esteem is a means of gauging social acceptance. That is, it is an internalized manifestation of people's sense of how far others like and accept them. Assuming that people need to feel a sense of belongingness with others, self-esteem is a measure of how much that need is being met.

Both the status model and the sociometer model emphasize the role of self-esteem in helping us take our place in society. The status model, however, emphasizes our desire to be placed higher than others. The sociometer model instead emphasizes our need to be accepted and included. Both views can claim support from studies showing the negative impact of ostracism on self-esteem.

Student responses will vary on the individualized part of the answer.

154. The overjustification effect is the tendency for salient rewards or threats to lead people to attribute their engaging in an activity to those external factors. This, in turn, undermines their intrinsic motivation for the activity. This effect was demonstrated in a study in which children were coloring. Some children were promised a special ribbon as a reward for their coloring. After those children received the ribbon reward and were then given an opportunity for further coloring, they were less likely to do so. They had developed an external justification for this activity and experienced a loss of internal motivation.

155. Self-determination theory proposes that people function best when they feel that their actions stem from their own desires, or they are intrinsically motivated, rather than from external forces, or when they are extrinsically motivated. The first basic need posited by the theory is relatedness or being connected with others. The second is autonomy, or feeling a sense of having an authentic choice in what you do. The last basic need is competence, or feeling effective in what you do.

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Chap 06_3e 156. Cognitive dissonance as defined by Festinger is the idea that people do not like having inconsistencies between their beliefs and attitudes. This inconsistency produces an uncomfortable feeling that people are motivated to reduce. Dissonance may be reduced in three major ways: changing one of the cognitions, adding a third cognition that makes the original two seem less inconsistent, or trivializing the cognitions that are inconsistent. Students may have a variety of examples, including smoking and weight. For example, students may discuss knowing that overeating is bad for your health and recognizing that they overeat. This is obviously an inconsistency between cognition and known behavior. To reduce this dissonance, a student could, theoretically, change a cognition by deciding that overeating is not really bad for them, or, more realistically, by eating better. Alternatively, the student might declare that their exercise regimen mostly offsets the negative effects of their unhealthy diet. Finally, they could trivialize the dissonance by saying that many students eat much worse.

Dissonance can be studied using two different techniques. First, the free choice paradigm is based on the idea that when you make a choice between two equally appealing things, there may be some dissonance because of the positive qualities of the item passed over and the negative qualities of the item chosen. The harder it is to make the choice, the more dissonance is experienced. For example, choosing between two graduate schools is often a hard choice. What typically occurs after the choice is made is that individuals tend to support their choices even more.

In what is called spreading the alternatives, people tend to emphasize the positive aspects of the chosen alternative and the negative aspects of the rejected alternative; for example, The people in this program are so nice, and the other program wouldn't have been a good fit for me, anyway.

The second way dissonance studied is the induced compliance paradigm. This is a laboratory situation where people are induced to engage in a behavior that runs counter to their true feelings. Festinger and Carlsmith demonstrated that paying people either $1 or $20 to profess enthusiasm for a boring activity caused more dissonance in those paid only $1, as evidenced by their greater tendency to persuade themselves that the activity really was not so boring after all. This may be understood as a form of effort justification: those who took the trouble to lie convincingly about a boring task and received only $1 in return were led to invent another rationale for the effort of their behavior, namely that they actually liked the activity reasonably well and therefore didn't mind saying so. The general pattern is that people who have invested effort in an unrewarding activity can reduce their dissonance by convincing themselves that their suffering really was worthwhile. Other examples of effort justification may include fraternity initiations, working hard for a grade, buying your own car, or paying your own tuition.

157. In the free choice paradigm, people make a choice between two alternatives that are closely matched in desirability, and afterward their attraction to the alternatives is assessed. Typically in these studies people spread their alternatives to reduce dissonance. In other words, when forced to choose between two equally desirable options, people end up convincing themselves that they clearly preferred the option they chose. In the induced compliance paradigm, participants are induced to engage in a behavior that runs counter to their true attitudes.

Typically, participants then generally shift their attitudes to be more consistent with the behavior they exhibited.

158. Another way to describe effort justification is suffering leads to liking. In effort justification people reduce dissonance by convincing themselves that when they suffer for something, they find it quite valuable. There are many real-world examples, and student answers may vary. Examples may include: fraternity initiations, working hard for a grade, buying your own car, or paying for your own tuition.

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Chap 06_3e 159. People have a wide variety of experiences in life. Happy, good, positive, negative, bad, and even traumatic events play a role in shaping the self. People can benefit and grow from all their experiences, even the traumatic ones.

Self-narratives are one way that people can work through traumas, by turning vague, negative feelings into coherent explanations of what happened. Research by Pennebaker and colleagues showed that when people wrote about traumatic experiences 15 minutes a day for four days, they showed improvements in their physical health that persisted even months later.

Thinking about traumatic events can also, for some people, lead to an appreciation of life. When people recognize their mortality, it can be a reminder that time is limited and thereby help them to focus on relationships that matter, intrinsic goals, and more enjoyable activities. Research has shown that survivors of trauma often report becoming more balanced, appreciative of life, and accepting.

Not everyone, of course, will respond to trauma in the same way. People who have a contamination story selfnarrative would obviously not benefit from dwelling on trauma. It would just reinforce their unhealthy selfnarrative and possibly increase their anger or depression. Certainly, factors like having an internal or external locus of control would also play a role. Those with an internal locus of control would believe that they have internal resources that can help them overcome. Those with an external locus of control would believe that forces out of their control are in charge of their destiny. They would be less likely to see their past trauma as providing an opportunity for learning and growth.

160. Using the theater as a metaphor, the dramaturgical perspective proposes that people, like actors, perform according to a script. If we all know the script and play our parts well, then our social interactions flow smoothly and seem meaningful. People put on sincere performances when they engage in social activity that is so automatic for them that they don't realize or focus on the fact that they are performing. People put on cynical performances, as they are termed, when they are making a conscious effort to behave in a certain way in order to give a particular impression.

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Chap_07_3e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following factors would have a stronger influence on compliance on someone from an individualistic culture than on someone from a collectivistic culture? a. how others have responded to the same request b. how other people believe one ought to respond to the request c. whether they have received a favor or gift from the requestor d. how they themselves have responded to similar requests in the past 2. Kimin's English class is discussing whether they should spend more time focusing on writing exercises instead of analyzing texts. Kimin believes they should focus more on text analysis, but everyone else in the class wants to focus on writing exercises. If Kimin is asked to write down his preference and hand it to the instructor, what will he likely do? a. Kimin will stick to his original opinion and express support for greater focus on analyzing texts. b. Even though he doesn't really agree, Kimin will conform to the group and express support for more writing exercises. c. Kimin will express support for the group opinion and will actually convince himself that this is what he wants. d. Kimin will experience a great deal of internal conflict and will find it difficult to express any opinion.

3. An effective method to test the ideas of social learning theory would be to: a. prime participants with pictures of faces or with numbers before they are asked to complete a math test. b. create a novel task for participants to learn and then have them learn the task either with the assistance of experienced others or on their own. c. ask a group of inventors and scientists how they came up with their most groundbreaking ideas. d. randomly assign participants to either learn about famous people or learn about famous places, and assess how well they perform on each learning task.

4. Which of the following is an example of social contagion? a. A teacher reports smelling gasoline and begins to feel nauseous; soon most of the school's population also feels nauseous. Later, it is discovered that there was never a gas leak. b. A politician gives a very moving speech in which he argues that the nation is superior to all other nations. The crowd cheers very loudly. c. A person is suffering from a severe injury on the side of the road. However, people driving by fail to stop to help even though they notice the injured person. d. A shopper notices a sign in the electronics store, saying that supplies of a certain tablet are limited.

The shopper decides to buy the tablet based on this information.

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Chap_07_3e 5. All of the following reasons have been given by Milgram or others for why the participants obeyed in his studies EXCEPT which statement? a. People in all cultures are socialized to obey authority figures starting at an early age. b. People have inherited a natural instinct to obey a person who appears to be a leader in a situation. c. At the time the study was conducted, most U.S. adults had been raised in authoritarian families. d. In the paradigm, participants only gradually administer increasingly harmful doses of electricity to the learner.

6. Reicher and Haslam (2006) conducted a study similar to the Stanford Prison Experiment, where participants were randomly assigned to prisoner vs. guard roles. What did they find? a. None of their participants displayed the type of role-consistent behaviors that had been observed in the original Stanford Prison Experiment. b. They almost perfectly replicated the original Stanford Prison Experiment, with guards displaying sadistic behaviors and prisoners displaying submissive behaviors. c. Prisoners displayed role-consistent submissive behaviors, but guards did not display the sadistic behaviors observed in the original Stanford Prison Experiment. d. The degree to which participants displayed role-consistent behaviors depended on how thoroughly they had internalized the social identity of their assigned role.

7. Which of the following statements is NOT true about culturally defined social situations? a. The cultural context automatically activates the norm for behavior. b. The cultural context is so powerful that all people follow the cultural scripts. c. Nonconformists show less automatic activation of norms supplied by the cultural context. d. Culturally defined situations have particular scripts of how to behave.

8. Violeta asks her friend to lend her 50 cents. After her friend gets out her wallet, Violeta changes her request and asks if she could actually have $5. Violeta has used: a. the foot-in-the-door technique. b. the door-in-the-face technique. c. informational influence. d. the norm of reciprocity.

9. The chameleon effect is the: a. fact that mood changes match the surrounding environment. b. common inclination to attribute one's arousal to salient situational factors. c. fact that attitudes become more extreme when people with opposing views interact. d. tendency to unconsciously mimic the nonverbal behaviors of a conversation partner.

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Chap_07_3e 10. On his first day at a new job, Markus learns that most of his new coworkers are vegetarians. Markus begins eating vegetarian lunches at work, although he doesn't believe there is anything wrong with eating meat and continues to do so outside of work. Marcus is displaying: a. private acceptance. b. public compliance. c. normative focus. d. informational influence.

11. Asch's classic studies on line-length judgments in group settings have shown that: a. social roles are one of the most important sources of situational influence. b. people can become very aggressive when they are asked to conform. c. people are very unlikely to publicly comply with normative influence. d. people will often conform to a group opinion, even if it goes against their own perception.

12. In Zimbardo's classic Stanford Prison Experiment, the behavior of the participants was attributed to: a. their preexisting beliefs around guards and prisoners. b. the charismatic leader. c. the personality traits of the participants. d. the roles the participants played.

13. Historically, people are likely to elevate a charismatic leader to power in: a. a period of stable economic growth. b. a time of economic depression. c. a period of cultural renaissance. d. a time when a country's middle class is growing.

14. All of the following have been found to help explain the rise of charismatic leaders EXCEPT: a. the economic situation. b. terror management theory. c. effort justification. d. social identity theory.

15. In Asch's original conformity research, 25% of participants did not display any conformity at all. What does this observation suggest? a. Aspects of participants' shared American culture influenced the rate of conformity. b. Elements of the experimental social situation influenced the rate of conformity. c. Personality traits or other individual differences influenced the rate of conformity. d. The study was too flawed to draw strong conclusions about influences on conformity.

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Chap_07_3e 16. If a nurse receives a call from a doctor whom he doesn't recognize, and is asked to administer an excessive dose of a drug to a patient, what is the nurse likely to do? a. give the dose to the patient without hesitation b. ask the doctor to come in person to confirm the order c. call another superior to question the identity of the doctor d. refuse to give the dose to the patient 17. A couple receives a $200 Visa gift card as a free gift for attending an information session about vacation timeshares. After receiving this gift, the couple agrees to schedule a one-on-one meeting with a salesperson to hear their full sales pitch. This example illustrates the influence of: a. the norm for social commitment. b. injunctive social norms. c. descriptive social norms. d. the norm of reciprocity.

18. In the _____ technique, a person is presented with a larger request before being presented with the real request; in the _____ technique, a person is presented with a smaller request before being presented with the real request. a. reciprocity; lowballing b. lowballing; reciprocity c. foot-in-the-door; door-in-the-face d. door-in-the-face; foot-in-the-door 19. _____ is a technique that works based on the norm for social commitment, whereas _____ is a technique that works based on self-perception processes. a. Reciprocity; the door-in-the-face technique b. The door-in-the-face technique; reciprocity c. Lowballing; the foot-in-the-door technique d. The foot-in-the-door technique; lowballing 20. Adelese desperately wants to be accepted by her peers at her new school. As a result, she starts dressing and acting like they do. Adelese is responding to: a. social contagion. b. informational influence. c. normative influence. d. injunctive norms.

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Chap_07_3e 21. Which of the following statements best explains the distinction between injunctive norms and descriptive norms? a. Injunctive norms deal with what behaviors are actually normative in society, and descriptive norms deal with individuals' perceptions of what behaviors are normative. b. Injunctive norms deal with what behaviors are common or typical, and descriptive norms deal with what behaviors are considered right or appropriate. c. Injunctive norms deal with individuals' perceptions of what behaviors are normative, and descriptive norms deal with what behaviors are actually normative in society. d. Injunctive norms deal with what behaviors are considered right or appropriate, and descriptive norms deal with what behaviors are common or typical.

22. Yesterday, Shivani put some items in her online shopping cart but didn't buy them. Today, some of the items are gone because, according to the website, they have sold out. This persuades Shivani to quickly buy the items that remain in her cart. Shivani was affected by: a. the norm of reciprocity. b. the norm for social commitment. c. the door-in-the-face effect. d. the appearance of scarcity.

23. The process through which dissenters produce attitude change in a group is called: a. conversion. b. the minority slowness effect. c. minority influence. d. the foot-in-the-door effect.

24. Under which of the following conditions did Milgram record the highest rate of obedience? a. when participants delivered shocks to the learner from a separate room b. when the participants recruited for the "teacher" role were women c. when participants were in the same room as the learner d. when participants were not directly responsible for shocking the learner

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Chap_07_3e 25. In their study of the effects of mortality salience on support for different types of political candidates, Cohen et al. (2004) found that: a. mortality salience increased support for charismatic leaders, decreased support for relationshiporiented leaders, and had no effect on support for task-oriented leaders. b. mortality salience decreased support for both charismatic leaders and relationship-oriented leaders, and increased support for task-oriented leaders. c. mortality salience increased support for both charismatic leaders and relationship-oriented leaders, and had no effect on support for task-oriented leaders. d. mortality salience had no effect on support for charismatic leaders, and increased support for both relationship-oriented and task-oriented leaders.

26. Berns et al. (2005) scanned participants' brains while they made judgments about the spatial orientation of 3D figures. One group of participants was given feedback about how other people thought the figures were oriented. Which area(s) of their brains showed the most activity? a. amygdala b. rostral cingulate cortex c. nucleus accumbens d. occipital-parietal areas 27. Which of the following statements about social proof is NOT true? a. It is more likely to occur in individualistic cultures. b. It is a tendency to conform based on our respect for others. c. It is more likely to occur in collectivistic cultures. d. It relies on social comparison.

28. People are more likely to comply with a request for an unusual amount of money like $1.77 because: a. unusual requests activate descriptive norms. b. unusual requests interrupt people's automatic responding routine. c. people want to please the person making the request. d. a person's self-perception can be temporarily altered by an unusual request.

29. The minority slowness effect is when: a. it usually takes longer for a person to accept the same arguments from a minority group member than from a majority group member. b. social change among minority group members is faster than it is among majority group members. c. members of minority groups tend to react more slowly to persuasive influence. d. people holding the minority position take more time to express their opinions.

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Chap_07_3e 30. Extrapolating from Milgram's work, when is a soldier going to be most willing to kill enemy combatants or civilians? a. when he is alone in the same room with the enemy b. when he is trying to make his own decision about whether to kill c. when he has been ordered to by his superior d. when other members of their squad are telling him to do so 31. Milgram's study on conformity demonstrated that people are likely to look up to the sky if they see someone else doing so. Furthermore, this research demonstrated that: a. people will follow the other person's gaze if they already know what the person is looking at. b. the greater the number of people looking up, the less likely it is that the participant will look up. c. the likelihood of the participant looking up increases dramatically if 5 people are looking up instead of one. d. the likelihood of the participant looking up increases dramatically if 15 people are looking up instead of 5.

32. Which of the following messages highlights a dynamic norm? a. "The majority of American teens do not use tobacco products, including vaporizers." b. "Using tobacco products, including vaporizers, is an irresponsible choice for your health." c. "Almost a quarter of American teens report using vaporizers to consume tobacco products." d. "Every day, more and more American teens are deciding to quit using tobacco products."

33. The door-in-the-face technique: a. is an example of informational social influence. b. relies at least in part on the norm of reciprocity. c. relies heavily on social perception theory. d. works when others we respect are observing us.

34. The norm of reciprocity refers to the belief that: a. the opinion of someone you respect must be correct. b. people should honor agreements once they have been publicly made. c. society changes by minorities and majorities working together. d. one should return a favor to someone who has done a favor for them.

35. Along with the legitimacy of the authority figure, _____ is the second most important variable influencing obedience. a. similarity b. physical distance c. gender d. witnessing defiance Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_3e 36. Based on conformity research, which of the following situational changes would likely result in the SMALLEST reduction in conformity? a. decreasing the size of a unanimous group from 10 to 2 b. decreasing the size of a unanimous group from 15 to 10 c. adding one dissenter to an otherwise unanimous group of 10 d. portraying the members of a unanimous group as low in status 37. Shi is enjoying talking with Will and wants to get to know him better. Will is wearing a Star Wars shirt.

Research suggests that after they finish their conversation, if Shi turns on the TV and starts flipping through the channels, what will she likely do? a. be more likely to watch Star Wars if it's on b. not be any more likely to watch Star Wars if it's on c. be especially aggressive if Star Wars is on d. take a long time to decide what to watch 38. Burger's replication of Milgram's study differed from the original because: a. fewer people obeyed at the 450-volt level. b. more people refused to continue the study. c. Burger ended the experiment at the 150-volt level. d. Burger's participants reported higher levels of stress post-study.

39. Which statement below BEST explains the idea that reality is socially constructed? a. There is no such thing as an objective external reality or objective truth. b. Our perceptions and actions are profoundly shaped by cultural norms and worldviews. c. It is impossible for people to "unlearn" the norms they were socialized into. d. People frequently imitate the behavior and attitudes of others around them.

40. In Milgram's first study, with a sample of 20- to 50-year-old men, 65% of them: a. refused to shock the learner beyond 150 volts. b. shocked the learner up to the maximum level of 450 volts. c. refused to participate in the experiment at all. d. asked to be released from the experiment at 135 volts.

41. Which of the following statements about reference groups is NOT true? a. People typically want approval from their reference group more than other groups. b. Reference groups are sources of both informational and normative influence. c. People typically trust reference groups more than other groups. d. Reference groups are sources only of informational influence.

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Chap_07_3e 42. Brain scans of nonconformists showed increased activation of the: a. hippocampus. b. occipital areas. c. parietal areas. d. amygdala.

43. The primary implication that Zimbardo drew from the Stanford Prison Experiment was: a. cultural expectations surrounding social roles can have a major influence on behavior. b. injunctive norms are particularly strong guides to behavior in strange situations. c. personality is a stronger determinant of behavior than situational factors. d. only disturbed individuals are likely to abuse power when they are granted it.

44. The fact that people from collectivist cultures are more likely to conform to social pressure suggests that: a. conformity almost never occurs in individualist cultures. b. conformity is often a sign of a timid personality. c. people only conform with great reluctance. d. people sometimes conform in order to promote group cohesion.

45. Jake is the only one of his six friends who wants to go see the new superhero movie. Based on research, what would be the ideal set of circumstances to give Jake the chance to convince his friends that he's right? a. His friends are too tired to pay much attention to his arguments, they see themselves as very similar to Jake, and Jake seems willing to compromise. b. His friends are ready to pay close attention to his arguments, they see themselves as very similar to Jake, and Jake seems willing to compromise. c. His friends are ready to pay close attention to his arguments, they see themselves as very different from Jake, and Jake seems willing to compromise. d. His friends are ready to pay close attention to his arguments, they see themselves as very different from Jake, and Jake doesn't seem willing to compromise.

46. In Bandura's classic Bobo doll studies, children were more likely to imitate the behavior they observed if the: a. children were present in the room. b. model showed remorse after his/her behavior. c. model was rewarded for his/her behavior. d. environment encouraged exploration.

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Chap_07_3e 47. The explanation that people are influenced by a minority because of the minority's distinctive position capturing the majority's attention is called: a. social contagion. b. normative influence. c. informational influence. d. conversion theory.

48. The most important variable in the Milgram studies was: a. the perceived legitimacy of the experimenter's authority. b. the amount of compensation received by the "teacher." c. the physical distance between the learner and the teacher. d. the personality of the learner.

49. Conversion theory suggests that _____ are sometimes influential because they are _____. a. authority commands; presented slowly b. authority commands; informational c. minority opinions; distinctive d. minority opinions; presented quickly 50. Social contagion may be explained, in part, by _____ and _____. a. mimicry; injunctive norms b. social priming; descriptive norms c. mimicry; social priming d. descriptive norms; social commitment norms 51. Which of these statements is accurate, according to research on minority influence? a. Minority influence is an agent for conservation of tradition. b. Minority opinions are expressed more slowly than majority opinions. c. Minority opinions tend not to be distinctive. d. Minority opinions tend to be less carefully processed than majority opinions.

52. Which of the following statements gives the best summary of Milgram's findings? a. Most people show a high degree of obedience across most social situations. b. Some individuals show a high degree of obedience, while others rarely obey. c. Most people show a high degree of obedience under specific conditions. d. Only people with psychopathic personalities will obey orders to harm another person.

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Chap_07_3e 53. A key to minority influence is: a. creativity. b. consistency. c. normative influence. d. injunctive norms.

54. The term for the phenomenon where feelings, ideas, and behaviors spread rapidly through a group of people is called: a. hysteria. b. social contagion. c. the chameleon effect. d. mindlessness.

55. Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the foot-in-the-door effect? a. It is based on first complying with a large request. b. It is explained by self-perception theory. c. Refusing a second request would likely result in dissonance. d. It is based on first complying with a small request.

56. All of the following were steps Milgram reported taking to ensure the ethicality of the research EXCEPT which statement? a. Participants met the learner after the study and were able to see that he was completely unharmed. b. Participants were repeatedly made aware that they could stop the study at any time. c. Participants were extensively debriefed. d. Participants were examined by a psychiatrist one year after the study.

57. All of the following are social influence areas EXCEPT which one? a. creative thinking b. compliance techniques c. conformity to norms d. following commands from authority 58. One idea Milgram proposed to explain the behavior of his participants was the idea of an "agentic state."

What does this mean? a. a state in which people see themselves as agents or instruments of the authority figure b. a state in which people feel a high degree of personal agency, power, and freedom c. a state in which the authority figure is perceived as an agent of a higher power d. a state in which the learner/victim is perceived as an agent of hostile, nefarious forces

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Chap_07_3e 59. Which of the following is an accurate statement about replications of Milgram's work? a. Replications of Milgram's work have not been attempted because of ethical concerns. b. Replications have generally found rates of obedience lower than Milgram initially found. c. Replications have generally found rates of obedience similar to what Milgram initially found. d. Replications have generally found rates of obedience higher than Milgram initially found.

60. Private acceptance is: a. conforming only outwardly without changing one's inner beliefs. b. privately believing in something that the rest of one's group does not believe in. c. conforming by altering both inner beliefs and public behaviors. d. accepting the norm for social commitment.

61. The spread of complaints of illness, with no organic basis, within a work or school environment is called: a. mass influence. b. mass delusion. c. mass psychogenic illness. d. social influence.

62. When an individual alters his or her beliefs, attitudes, or behavior to bring him or her in line with others, this is called: a. conversion. b. reciprocity. c. conformity. d. obedience.

63. In a field experiment, the request for change that was most likely to elicit compliance was: a. "Can you spare any change?" b. "Can you spare 37 cents?" c. "Can you spare a quarter?" d. "Can you spare some money?"

64. In a study of social priming, some subjects were stopped at a red light and approached by a passerby who asked for directions. Shortly after the light turned green, subjects encountered a stalled car at an intersection.

The researchers found: a. subjects who had been primed to be helpful were less likely to honk their horns at the stalled car. b. subjects who had not been primed to be helpful were less likely to honk their horns at the stalled car. c. priming did not affect the results. d. subjects, regardless of the prime, were likely to state that they would always help a stranger in need.

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Chap_07_3e 65. Watching someone behave aggressively increases the salience of aggression-related concepts. This is an example of: a. social priming. b. hysterical contagion. c. the role of mirror neurons. d. conformity to norms.

66. Which of the following is NOT an example of social learning? a. A child learns kickboxing from watching a movie. b. A teen learns to drive in part by observing what other drivers do. c. A dog learns how to behave faster in the presence of other trained dogs. d. An early human accidentally discovers how to light a fire.

67. Which of the following is an accurate statement about conformity and group size? (Assuming a unanimous group in which everyone but the test subject agrees.) a. There is more conformity with 1 to 2 people versus 3 to 5 people. b. There is more conformity with 3 to 5 people versus 1 to 2 people. c. The size of the group doesn't have an effect on conformity. d. Larger group size always increases conformity.

68. In the Milgram studies all of the following were factors that determined obedience EXCEPT which one? a. the "learner's" similarity to the "teacher" b. the physical distance between teacher and learner c. the authority's physical proximity to the teacher d. the authority figure's perceived legitimacy 69. For Burger (2009) to conduct a replication of Milgram's obedience studies, he had to change the original procedures. Which of the following changes did Burger make? a. He made both audio and visual recordings of the study. b. He stopped each round after a shock of 150 volts. c. He paid all participants $50. d. He told participants the purpose of the study in the beginning.

70. Which of the following is NOT a true statement about social learning? a. People are more likely to imitate a model if they see that the model is reinforced for the behavior. b. People are more likely to imitate a model if they see the model has received no consequences for the behavior. c. People are more likely to imitate a model if the model is likable. d. People are more likely to imitate a model if they are in the same motivational state as the model.

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Chap_07_3e 71. In a classic study, participants were led to believe that they were to punish another participant with electric shocks of increasing voltage. Participants were encouraged to continue increasing the voltage and the majority of participants did increase the voltage. This study is: a. Asch's study of conformity. b. Milgram's study of obedience. c. Zimbardo's study on social roles. d. Moscovici's study of minority influence.

72. When a person mentally envisions kicking a soccer ball while watching someone else kick a soccer ball, _____ are involved. a. interneurons neurons b. mirror neurons c. rehearsal cells d. the social reflexes 73. _____ is most likely to result in private acceptance. a. Normative influence b. Social contagion c. Informational influence d. An injunctive norm 74. How does an existential perspective explain the appeal of charismatic leaders? a. Charismatic leaders appeal to people's desires for meaning and security. b. Charismatic leaders appeal to people's desires for economic prosperity. c. Charismatic leaders appeal to people's desires for peace and tranquility. d. Charismatic leaders appeal to people's desires for love and relatedness.

75. All the following statements are ethical concerns about Milgram's research EXCEPT which one? a. Participants were not aware that they were part of a psychological study. b. Many participants learned that they were potentially capable of doing harm to another person simply because they were told to do so. c. It was stressful for participants to be in a situation where they were being ordered to do harm to another person. d. Participants could have damage done to their self-image.

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Chap_07_3e 76. When we rely on others to find out what is true or accurate, this is _____; when we seek to meet others' expectations in order to be accepted, this is _____. a. public compliance; private acceptance b. private acceptance; public compliance c. informational influence; normative influence d. normative influence; informational influence 77. A hotel manager is trying to convince guests to conserve water by reusing their bathroom towels. In all the bathrooms she places signs that read, "Discarding your towel to be cleaned after only one use wastes water and should not be done. Many guests discard their towel after just one use, leading to a massive drain on our local water resources." The manager has activated _____. This tactic _____. a. an injunctive norm only; should lead to less of the desired behavior b. an injunctive norm only; should lead to more of the desired behavior c. a descriptive norm only; should lead to less of the desired behavior d. both a descriptive and an injunctive norm; will not influence the desired behavior 78. Research has found that, when people find another person likable, they are more likely to change their own attitudes to match the other person's attitudes. What does this imply? a. People often mimic others because of motivations to get along and form social bonds. b. People often mimic others to signal that they are both members of the same ingroup. c. People often mimic others because it is easier than figuring out how to act on their own. d. People often mimic others because they feel insecure and uncertain about how to act.

79. Milgram surveyed psychology professionals before he conducted his original study. The results of the survey showed that: a. they underestimated the extent of obedience. b. they overestimated the extent of obedience. c. the professionals were approximately accurate in their estimates. d. most professionals refused to provide an estimate.

80. The results of Ellen Langer's research on mindlessness indicated that compliance to move to the front of the line to make copies occurred the most: a. when the person didn't give a reason for needing to use the machine. b. when the person explained that they were in a rush. c. when the person said they needed to make some copies. d. when the person said either they were in a rush or that they needed to make copies.

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Chap_07_3e 81. Which feature of Asch's classic conformity studies suggests that their results are mainly revealing of normative influence, and not informational influence? a. The confederates were attractive, so participants were strongly motivated to fit in with them. b. The confederates acted foolish, so participants saw them as unreliable sources of information. c. The confederates were highly similar to participants, creating a shared ingroup identity. d. The task was easy, so participants weren't reliant on confederates as a source of information.

82. According to research on gender and conformity, men would be most likely to conform to majority opinions in a conversation about: a. sports. b. the stock market. c. childcare. d. lawn mowers.

83. Which of the following does NOT boost minority influence? a. consistency b. self-confidence c. openness and flexibility d. unyielding resolve 84. Sherrice and her coworkers are invited to a fancy dinner party by their boss. Sherrice wants to make a good impression on her boss and colleagues, but she has never attended this type of party and isn't sure what the etiquette is. Throughout the meal, Sherrice imitates her neighbors' silverware choices and napkin placement.

This example illustrates: a. neither informational nor normative influence. b. primarily informational influence. c. primarily normative influence. d. both informational and normative influence.

85. Ms. Heacock has received a free T-shirt from the Animal Protection Association. After reviewing the request for donations, Ms. Heacock sends a check to the Animal Protection Association. Ms. Heacock's behavior illustrates the: a. foot-in-the door effect. b. norm of reciprocity. c. lowball effect. d. door-in-the-face effect.

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Chap_07_3e 86. Which of the following is NOT true about obedience? a. The pressure to obey is subtle. b. The pressure to obey is explicit. c. Hierarchical power structures contribute to obedience. d. Social roles can dictate power.

87. Based on our understanding of charismatic leadership, which of the following was NOT a factor that contributed to Hitler's rise to power? a. the German defeat in World War I b. Hitler's emphasis on an us-versus-them philosophy (the pure Germans versus the impure Jews, homosexuals, and other deviants) c. the fact that Hitler did not have the physical appearance of a typical German figurehead d. the economic crisis of the 1930s 88. In Moscovici's early study on color judgments in a group, the data revealed that group members were most likely to be influenced by a minority judgment if: a. judgments were made publicly. b. judgments were made privately. c. the minority was inconsistent in their opinion. d. the minority was consistent in their opinion.

89. The emphasis of the focus theory of normative conduct is the role that _____ plays in enhancing normative influence. a. social contagion b. salience c. imitating others d. mindlessness 90. In the case of _____, the pressure to change someone's opinion or behavior is usually implicit; in the case of _____, the pressure to change someone's opinion or behavior is usually explicitly acknowledged as a goal. a. obedience; conformity b. compliance; lowballing c. compliance; conformity d. conformity; compliance

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Chap_07_3e 91. Joaquin is at a car lot. A salesperson named Lucy has offered him a car he wants at a price that he agrees to accept. Lucy goes inside the staff room and a few minutes later a new salesperson, Sahana, comes out.

Sahana tells Joaquin that there was actually a miscommunication and the price of the car is somewhat higher.

If the lowball works, then what will Joaquin do? a. Joaquin will pay the new, higher price for the car. b. Joaquin will likely refuse to pay the new price and walk away. c. Joaquin will pay the higher price only if his self-perception has not changed. d. Joaquin will not pay the new, higher price and will second-guess his decision.

92. The major reason that participants obeyed the experimenter's commands to shock the learner in the original Milgram study was that the: a. participants were similar to the experimenter. b. experimenter was an especially likable person. c. participants had an unconscious desire to punish the learner. d. experimenter seemed to be a legitimate authority figure.

93. Minorities are more likely to be influential: a. in matters of opinion. b. in matters of fact. c. during times of prosperity. d. when the person to be influenced is tired or under stress.

94. Recent revelations about the Stanford Prison Experiment show that Zimbardo directly instructed the guards to mistreat the prisoners. This was not reported in the original publications about the study. How have these revelations changed the interpretations of the experiment? a. They have further reinforced Zimbardo's original conclusions, that the experiment primarily reveals the influence of social roles on behavior. b. They suggest that Zimbardo's original reports were not totally honest, but have not resulted in any substantial changes to the interpretation of the experiment. c. They suggest that the results of the experiment are more of a demonstration of obedience to authority, and less reflective of the influence of social roles. d. They suggest that the results of the experiment reflect the influence of a salient descriptive norm, more so than the influence of social roles.

95. If Tia becomes obese, there is an increased likelihood that Tia's friend will also become obese. This is because of: a. social contagion. b. injunctive norms. c. informational influence. d. the reference group effect.

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Chap_07_3e 96. Learning by watching and imitating is called: a. operant conditioning. b. classical conditioning. c. social learning. d. latent learning.

97. In research on obedience in the Netherlands, Meeus and Raaijmakers (1995) found that participants were especially likely to obey commands that are harmful to another person when: a. the harm is not physical and the other person appears innocent. b. there are norms in the culture that encourage doing harm to others. c. the other person appears innocent and the participant will be financially compensated. d. the harm is not physical and won't occur until after the participant is out of the situation.

98. You see a group of friends who are sitting in a coffee shop. One person crosses their legs. When you look over again, everyone has their legs crossed. This is an example of a. the chameleon effect. b. an injunctive norm. c. a descriptive norm. d. informational influence.

99. In a study by Regan (1971), subjects worked with a confederate who was either likable or rude. In one condition, the confederate came back from a break and gave the participant a Coke. In another condition, the participant received a Coke from the experimenter. In a third condition the participant did not receive a Coke. At the end of the experiment the confederate asked the participant to buy some lottery tickets. What result was observed? a. Participants who did not receive a Coke during the study bought tickets more often. b. Participants who were given a Coke by the confederate bought tickets more often. c. Participants who were given a Coke by the experimenter bought tickets more often. d. Participants who were given a Coke by the confederate bought more tickets, but only if the confederate was likable.

100. Researchers asked some subjects to be unpaid counselors to delinquents for two years, and then asked them to take the delinquents to the zoo once. Other subjects were asked only to be unpaid counselors. Still other subjects were only asked to take the delinquents to the zoo. Knowing what you know about compliance techniques, what were the results? In other words, when did people comply the most? a. More people complied with the zoo request when it was presented first. b. More people complied with the zoo request when it was preceded by the counselor request. c. More people complied with the zoo request when it was presented alone. d. More people complied with the counselor request than with the zoo request.

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Chap_07_3e 101. Which of the following is NOT a way that minorities can be more influential? a. being self-confident b. appearing willing to compromise c. belonging to a different ingroup from the person being persuaded d. getting a member of the majority to defect to the minority position 102. On the first day of classes, Ashraf does not know how to address his professor. He listens and hears other students address the professor as "Doctor" and then addresses the professor in the same way. This is an example of: a. normative influence. b. informational influence. c. the chameleon effect. d. an injunctive norm.

103. Which of the following statements about conformity is NOT true? a. Conformity increases with group size, but only to a point. b. Conformity always involves deliberate thought. c. One dissenting voice can contribute to other dissenting voices. d. A person's reference group plays a role in conformity.

104. Classic research on the "autokinetic effect" showed that judgments about the distance a point of light moves can be affected by other people. This research demonstrated that: a. only explicit attitudes can be modified through social influence. b. even perception can be influenced by processes of conformity. c. commands from authority figures are a key source of influence. d. informational influence is not as important as normative influence.

105. Another term for automatic responding is: a. foot-in-the-door. b. door-in-the-face. c. lowballing. d. mindlessness.

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Chap_07_3e 106. Cialdini's (1978) study on the lowballing technique, involving student participation in a psychological experiment, found that: a. participants who were asked to sign up for a study, and then asked if they could come at 7:00 a.m. were more likely to attend than participants who were first told the study started at 7:00 a.m. b. participants who were first told that a study started at 7:00 a.m. were more likely to attend than participants who were asked to sign up before they knew the time of the study. c. participants were more likely to attend a later study if they first agreed to sign a form for the experimenter. d. participants were more likely to sign a form for an experimenter if they had first been asked to participate in a later study.

107. Your town is considering making all of its police officers "plainclothes" officers who don't wear recognizable uniforms. Milgram's research suggests that people will be _____ to obey orders from a plainclothes officer vs. a uniformed officer. a. more likely b. equally likely c. less likely d. faster 108. Which of the following statements about Milgram's research is TRUE? a. Women were less likely to obey the experimenter than men. b. Only people in certain cultures are likely to obey the experimenter. c. The experimenter never made it clear what the penalty to the participant would be for disobedience. d. Research suggests that rates of disobedience have gone down in recent decades.

109. People with high self-awareness and self-esteem are: a. less likely to conform. b. more likely to conform. c. less likely to conform if their self-esteem is based on what others value. d. more likely to conform in public situations.

110. According to the focus theory of normative conduct, _____ are beliefs about what the majority of people typically do, while _____ are beliefs about what is considered right and wrong in the culture. a. majority focus; moral focus b. moral focus; majority focus c. descriptive norms; injunctive norms d. injunctive norms; descriptive norms

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Chap_07_3e 111. Burger's replication of Milgram's studies on obedience found that compared with people in the 1970s, people in his study were _____ likely to obey authority. a. less b. just as c. more d. not 112. Which of the following statements about gender and conformity is correct? a. On average, women tend to display conformity more frequently and across more distinct social situations than men do. b. People show greater conformity to others of their own gender; men conform more to other men's behavior, and women conform more to other women's behavior. c. There is no meaningful relationship between gender and conformity; gender is simply not a relevant factor to consider in predicting and explaining conformity. d. People conform more in areas they know less about, so men conform more in stereotypically feminine domains, and women conform more in stereotypically masculine domains.

113. In Burger and Caldwell's foot-in-the-door study, the participants who showed the highest rates of compliance with a request to volunteer to help the homeless were: a. those who had simply signed a petition to help the homeless earlier in the study. b. those who signed a petition to help the homeless and were complimented on their charity. c. those who received $1 to sign a petition for the homeless earlier in the study. d. those who completed surveys with no other prompting prior to the request.

114. Adnna is a liberal. She just joined a committee made up mainly of conservatives, so Adnna holds a minority opinion on the committee. If she wants to influence the group, she should: a. remain quiet. b. express her opinion only once. c. express her opinion, but also state the conservative viewpoint. d. express a consistent viewpoint.

115. "Buy Bambi on DVD now before it is sealed in the Disney vault" is an example of: a. the foot in the door. b. the reciprocity norm. c. reciprocity. d. scarcity.

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Chap_07_3e 116. Persuasion by the majority opinion is typically _____, while persuasion by the minority opinion is typically _____. a. an automatic process; a controlled process b. a controlled process; an automatic process c. through public compliance; through private acceptance d. through private acceptance; through public compliance 117. Sherif's work on the autokinetic effect primarily demonstrates the power of _____, and Asch's studies on line judgments demonstrate the power of _____. a. social roles; normative influence b. normative influence; informational influence c. informational influence; normative influence d. compliance tactics; informational influence 118. The _____ compliance technique is best explained by self-perception theory. a. lowball b. foot-in-the-door c. reciprocity d. door-in-the-face 119. One reason that obedience to authority is common in the United States is because: a. individualist cultures like the U.S. emphasize conformity and social harmony. b. power in the United States is hierarchically structured by social roles. c. authoritarian parenting is the most common style of parenting in the United States. d. institutions in the United States do not sufficiently protect individual freedoms.

120. All of the following are reasons that researchers have suggested for the influence of scarcity on compliance EXCEPT which statement? a. People feel that the scarcity of an item threatens their freedom of choice. b. People experience less dissonance after choosing a scarce item. c. Scarce items attract closer scrutiny, so people pay more attention to them. d. People have a desire for, and feel that they must have, things that are in short supply.

121. Linjay watched all her neighbors "go green" and begin to recycle, even though recycling is not mandatory.

Linjay began to recycle too. Linjay was following a(n) _____ norm. a. descriptive b. proscriptive c. injunctive d. productive

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Chap_07_3e 122. According to Moscovici's conversion theory, minority opinions can be more persuasive and sway the majority because: a. minority opinions exert informational, rather than normative, influence. b. minority opinions are more distinctive and thus processed more deeply. c. minority group members are better at employing compliance tactics. d. minority opinions are generally more accurate and unbiased.

123. Participants in a study on obedience would be LEAST likely to obey: a. in the presence of a legitimate authority figure. b. if the person giving the command is another study participant. c. if the learner is in the same room. d. if they see two other participants in the study refuse to obey.

124. A leader who makes swift, confident decisions and conveys the sense that the group's worldview is sacred and superior is a(n) _____ leader. a. existential b. normative c. authoritative d. charismatic 125. A nature park wants to post signs that will reduce the rate of littering in the park. Which of the following messages would probably be the LEAST effective? a. "Lots of park visitors litter. Please don't be one of them." b. "All trash and recyclables must be disposed of properly." c. "Most park visitors don't litter. Follow their example!" d. "There is no excuse for littering in the park!"

126. Cohen et al. (2017) examined how mortality salience affected attitudes toward the 2016 U.S. presidential candidates. What did they find? a. Mortality salience increased support for Donald Trump and decreased support for Hillary Clinton. b. Mortality salience decreased support for Donald Trump and increased support for Hillary Clinton. c. Mortality salience increased support for Donald Trump and had no effect on support for Hillary Clinton. d. Mortality salience had no effect on support for Donald Trump and decreased support for Hillary Clinton.

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Chap_07_3e 127. A reference group is: a. a group with which an individual strongly identifies. b. a group of people who has known the individual since birth. c. a set of pieces of information about a particular topic. d. the sum total of other people who have a normative influence on the person's life.

128. Research by Cohen and colleagues found that participants were more likely to endorse a hypothetical candidate with a charismatic leadership style when: a. the thought of an upcoming exam was salient. b. the thought of their own mortality was salient. c. they had recently experienced a threat to their self-esteem. d. the candidate also had elements of a task-oriented style.

129. A belief about what most people typically do in situations is called: a. an injunctive norm. b. informational influence. c. norm for social commitment. d. a descriptive norm.

130. The belief that we should honor a public agreement, even if the circumstances surrounding the agreement change, is the: a. norm for social commitment. b. descriptive norm. c. injunctive norm. d. norm of reciprocity.

131. Zoltan is trying to decide where to go on his lunch break. He remembers that yesterday three of his coworkers whom he especially admires went to a Thai food restaurant. Research suggests he will likely go to the Thai restaurant because of: a. normative influence. b. the norm for social commitment. c. reciprocity. d. social proof.

132. The payment schedule of the Rev. Jim Jones's People's Temple, where individuals began by making a small contribution and then escalated to a larger contribution, illustrates the effectiveness of applying: a. reactance. b. reciprocity. c. the foot-in-the door technique. d. the door-in-the-face technique.

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Chap_07_3e 133. Social influence is defined as the: a. influence of the individual on society. b. effects of other people on an individual's level of extraversion. c. effects of other people on an individual's beliefs or behaviors. d. influence of public settings on an individual's perception.

134. Define minority influence, and describe how minorities exert their influence.

135. Discuss two different reasons why perceived scarcity leads to increased sales of a product.

136. Define reference groups, and explain how reference groups affect processes of both informational and normative influence. Develop original examples illustrating a reference group affecting each of these types of social influence processes.

137. Define the foot-in-the-door and lowballing effects, and identify one similarity and one difference between them.

138. What are the distinguishing characteristics of a charismatic leader, and under what circumstances do charismatic leaders typically rise to power?

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Chap_07_3e 139. Describe examples of one descriptive norm and one injunctive norm that exist at your college.

140. Distinguish between informational influence and normative influence.

141. Discuss two reasons given why individuals are willing to commit even harmful actions as a result of obedience to authority.

142. Briefly describe Sherif's studies on the autokinetic effect and Asch's studies on judgments of line length. What do these two sets of studies tell us about the nature of conformity?

143. Define obedience. Describe how obedience differs from conformity. Describe why obedience is common in the United States, the variables that influence obedience, and the reasons why people obey.

144. Define minority influence. Discuss how minorities exert their influence. Describe ways that minorities can be more influential. Provide an example of when and how minority influence may occur.

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Chap_07_3e 145. Explain the norm for social commitment, including an original example that illustrates this norm in action.

146. Explain the significance of the recent revelation that Zimbardo gave the guards in the Stanford Prison Experiment more direct orders to mistreat the prisoners than he initially revealed. How does this change the interpretation of the study?

147. Explain why informational influence is generally more likely to lead to private acceptance than normative influence.

148. Define the chameleon effect, and cite supporting research.

149. Describe the basic procedure and purpose of Milgram's classic study on obedience.

150. Define social proof, and give an example of using social proof to promote compliance.

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Chap_07_3e 151. Define social learning theory, and describe some of the major findings from research related to social learning theory.

152. Explain what is meant by the "social construction of reality," and how people are influenced by culturally defined social situations and social roles. Include original examples of a culturally defined social situation and a culturally defined social role.

153. Briefly describe the Stanford Prison Experiment and the primary lesson it taught about human social behavior.

154. Discuss the neural processes associated with conformity. Describe what the neuroscience perspective teaches about conformity. Cite research to support the answer.

155. Define conformity, and discuss the variables that play a role in conformity.

156. Briefly describe the methods and results of Asch's classic conformity studies.

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Chap_07_3e 157. Imagine that you have the task of convincing people to help your volunteer organization improve the lives of homeless people in your city. You want people to donate money to the organization or to volunteer some spare time to help carry out relief and assistance activities. What kind of compliance tactics might you use to convince people to help your cause? How specifically could you use these tactics to secure their help?

158. Discuss two personality or situational variables that influence the likelihood individuals will demonstrate conformity.

159. Discuss the ways that people representing a minority opinion can increase their chances of influencing the majority.

160. Define reciprocity, and cite research demonstrating this effect.

161. Define social learning and identify the factors that play a role in imitating others.

162. Describe injunctive and descriptive norms. Cite research describing how these norms can change behavior.

Provide an example of using these norms to change behavior.

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Chap_07_3e 163. Describe a charismatic leader. Describe the situations when a charismatic leader may rise to power. Give an example of a leader from recent history whom you believe to be a charismatic leader. Based on research on charismatic leaders, describe why you believe this particular person fits the category of charismatic leader.

164. Describe two variations on the shock-the-learner paradigm used in Milgram's classic study on obedience.

165. Define the door-in-the-face effect, and provide an example.

166. Describe informational influence and normative influence. Provide a real-life example of each.

167. Briefly describe the autokinetic effect studies and what they demonstrated about conformity.

168. Define mindlessness, and cite one example from research on people being more likely to comply with a request due to mindlessness.

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Chap_07_3e 169. Discuss the two types of norms outlined in Cialdini's focus theory of normative conduct.

170. Define social learning theory. Describe Bandura's classic study on social learning. Describe the factors that are involved in social learning. Describe research findings on the related phenomenon of mimicry and its connection to liking and the desire to get along with others.

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Chap_07_3e Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. d 7. b 8. a 9. d 10. b 11. d 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. c 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. c 20. c 21. d 22. d 23. c 24. d 25. a 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_3e 27. a 28. b 29. d 30. c 31. c 32. d 33. b 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. b 41. d 42. d 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. c 47. d 48. a 49. c 50. c 51. b 52. c 53. b 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_3e 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. c 60. c 61. c 62. c 63. b 64. a 65. a 66. d 67. b 68. a 69. b 70. b 71. b 72. b 73. c 74. a 75. a 76. c 77. d 78. a 79. a 80. d 81. d 82. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_3e 83. d 84. d 85. b 86. a 87. c 88. d 89. b 90. d 91. a 92. d 93. a 94. c 95. a 96. c 97. d 98. a 99. b 100. b 101. c 102. b 103. b 104. b 105. d 106. a 107. c 108. c 109. a 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_3e 111. b 112. d 113. b 114. d 115. d 116. a 117. c 118. b 119. b 120. b 121. a 122. b 123. d 124. d 125. a 126. c 127. a 128. b 129. d 130. a 131. d 132. c 133. c 134. Minority influence is the process where dissenters (or numerical minorities) produce attitude change within a group.

Minority opinions are characteristically expressed more slowly compared with majority opinions. This is known as the minority slowness effect. But according to conversion theory, when minority opinions are finally expressed, their unusualness and distinctiveness attracts attention, which gains them influence. Minority influence generally involves a more controlled, thoughtful process on the part of listeners, whereas majority influence happens through an automatic, heuristic process. This means that a person who has been converted to a minority opinion is more likely to hold that opinion strongly and for a long time than one who has gone along with the majority.

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Chap_07_3e 135. It has been suggested that scarcity leads to increased sales because we have an innate mental heuristic that tells us that if a good is scarce, we need to make sure we have enough before the supply completely runs out. This leads us to scrutinize scarce goods closely and, if in doubt, to err on the side of securing them. It has also been suggested that we perceive scarcity as an insult to our view of ourselves as free, choosing agents, and we respond by insisting on our freedom to have scarce things.

136. A reference group is a larger group that an individual belongs to, to which the individual feels a strong connection or sense of identification. Reference groups affect both informational and normative processes of social influence.

With respect to informational influence, people are more likely to view members of their reference groups as reliable, trustworthy sources of information—and hence more likely to accept informational influence from reference-group members than from nonmembers. For example, if Xian has recently immigrated to the United States from China and finds himself in an unfamiliar situation, he will be more likely to look to the behavior of other Chinese immigrants and Chinese Americans (members of his reference group) as a guide for his own behavior, as opposed to the behavior of members of other groups. With respect to normative influence, people are more strongly motivated to maintain inclusion and social harmony with members of their reference groups than with nonmembers. As such, they are also more susceptible to normative influence from reference group members than from nonmembers. For example, if Rita strongly identifies as a Democrat, she will be more likely to adopt the opinions, fashions, and behaviors that are popular among the Democrats she knows (members of her reference group) as opposed to those popular among the Republicans she knows.

137. The foot-in-the-door effect is people's tendency to comply with a moderately burdensome request after they have already said yes to a smaller request. The lowballing effect is people's tendency to keep a commitment even if they later learn of extra costs. In both cases, one person persuades another person to agree to a small request in order to increase the likelihood that they will subsequently agree to the larger one. However, the foot-in-the-door effect works by changing the complying person's self-perception into that of someone who is in favor of whatever cause or project is being supported. The lowballing effect, by contrast, works by activating the norm for social commitment: people tend to feel that they should follow through on their pledges, even when circumstances change.

138. Charismatic leaders are typically bold and self-confident. They also present a heroic vision of the ingroup as culturally superior. According to terror management theory, people are more likely to be swayed by a charismatic leader during times when their culture is not giving them a basis for seeing their lives as meaningful. A political or economic crisis occurring at the same time can further heighten the appeal of a charismatic leader.

139. Descriptive norms refer to the behaviors that are common or typical in a given social context. Examples will vary by student, but it should be clear in the example that the norm is a behavior that is common or typical (e.g., "Everyone takes this shortcut up the hill instead of following the sidewalk."). Injunctive norms refer to the behaviors that are seen as right, proper, or appropriate in a given culture or social context. Examples will vary by student, but it should be clear in the example that the norm involves this kind of value judgment (e.g., "Students are expected to address their professors as 'Doctor So-and-so'").

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Chap_07_3e 140. Informational influence is the process of using others as a source of information about the world. Informational influence tends to lead to private acceptance, i.e., sincere adoption of new beliefs and attitudes. People typically use informational influence in ambiguous situations. Normative influence is the process of using others to determine how to fit in. People typically use normative influence when they want to be liked or accepted by that group or fear rejection. Normative influence leads to public compliance, i.e., outward behavioral conformity, but not necessarily to private acceptance.

141. Milgram believed that people are willing to commit harmful acts when they are ordered to do so by authorities because human beings evolved, as members of hunting and food-gathering groups, to obey the commands of figures acting as group leaders. Another factor is the process of socialization, which involves coming to respect authority figures and see their opinions as correct and informed. Finally, as Milgram observed, people are more willing to inflict harm if the harm is initially mild and then gradually increases in severity. This may be seen as a variation of the foot-in-the-door effect.

142. Sherif investigated whether people would influence each other's perceptions of how much a point of light moved in an otherwise dark room. He put two or three people together and had them publicly call out estimates of how much the light moved. He found that people began with varying estimates but quickly shifted their answers and came to agree with others, coming up with a common norm. (In fact the point did not move at all.) The introduction of a confederate could even be used to manipulate the consensus. Participants in Sherif's study tended to change their opinions on the basis of informational influence, the process of using others as a source of information about the world.

Asch investigated whether others' influence could affect a person's judgment of the relative lengths of three parallel lines. In his experiment, confederates were instructed to give the wrong answer, aloud, to an easy question about which of three lines matched a fourth line in length. The participant was then asked to state his answer. Many participants went along with the confederates' answers even when they didn't believe they were correct.

Both of these studies demonstrated that people will go along with the group or conform. However, Sherif's study documented a change in private belief as well as public behavior, a behavior called private acceptance. Sherif's subjects exhibited inward as well as outward conformity. By contrast, Asch's study demonstrated that people will sometimes conform to a group outwardly, in order to fit in, without changing their private beliefs. This kind of behavior is called public compliance.

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Chap_07_3e 143. Obedience is an action engaged in to fulfill a direct order or command of another person. Conformity, by contrast, is altering one's beliefs, attitudes, or behavior to match those of a majority. Here the pressure to respond a certain way takes various forms that are normally more subtle than a direct order.

Obedience will be common in any culture that, like the United States, has hierarchical power structures that give parents authority over children, teachers authority over students, and so on. Milgram's famous experiments led him to identify a number of factors that determine the likelihood and extent of people's obedience to authority figures. The most important variable involved is the authority's perceived legitimacy. Physical closeness of the authority figure is another factor that contributes to obedience: the closer the physical distance, the more obedience. Another factor is psychological closeness or remoteness to persons who might be affected by one's obedience. The more psychologically remote those persons, the more willing a person will be to obey in a way that causes them harm.

Finally, people are more likely to obey if they see everyone else obeying. This probably traces back to the same cause as the tendency to obey in the first place: historically, people have generally benefited from belonging to stable social groups that acted in well-coordinated fashion to do things like hunt and gather food. So then there may be an evolutionary basis for individuals' wanting to get along with others and not challenge authority figures.

(This is also why compliance-inducing techniques such as the foot-in-the door tactic work on us.) And of course socialization reinforces the habit of obeying authority figures.

144. Minority influence is the process by which dissenters (people numerically in the minority) can produce attitude change within a group. Although people in the minority often face social rejection and therefore tend to be slower to express their opinions than people in the majority (this is called the minority slowness effect), according to Moscovici's conversion theory the very unusualness of the minority opinion can cause listeners to pay more attention. As a result, the listeners, trying to understand the novel position, engage in more controlled processing, which is more deliberate and tends to produce stronger, more lasting changes in belief than the quick, automatic processing with which people often react to majority opinions.

A number of factors increase the influence of minorities. They have more influence in matters of opinion (should questions) than in matters of fact (what is questions), and they are more likely to persuade others if they have a consistent message and project self-confidence, while also displaying flexibility and open-mindedness, thereby signaling a willingness to compromise. If the minority can win one person from the majority to their side, that may result in others following. People in the majority are also more likely to be influenced if the person in the minority is seen as a member of the majority's ingroup.

Student answers will vary but should include the elements of how minorities exert influence.

145. The norm for social commitment is a tendency for people to be true to their word and honor the social agreements they have made, even if the circumstances surrounding the agreement have changed. For example, if I had agreed to give a talk at a conference in April 2020, I might have felt compelled to follow through on that commitment and give the talk even though the COVID-19 pandemic had begun spreading rapidly in the U.S. by that time.

146. In Zimbardo's original publications about the experiment, he explicitly claimed that the guards had not been directly ordered to mistreat the prisoners. Rather, he claimed that the guards had spontaneously begun the mistreatment simply because they were influenced by the social role of "guard" that they now occupied. The fact that he gave them explicit orders makes the study seem like more of a case of obedience to authority than of social-role influence.

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Chap_07_3e 147. When an individual is affected by informational influence it is because they genuinely aren't sure what is true, or what the correct way to behave is in a given situation. Thus, if others seem to know what they're doing, the individual is inclined to accept that as correct (i.e., private acceptance). In contrast, when individuals are affected by normative influence they don't necessarily lack knowledge of what is correct—they are just trying to fit in and be accepted, so public compliance in the absence of private acceptance is more common than with informational influence.

148. The chameleon effect is the tendency that people have to unconsciously mimic the nonverbal mannerisms of their interaction partner. Research by Chartrand and Bargh paired participants with a confederate to take turns telling a story about a photograph. The confederates had been trained to either rub their faces or tap one of their feet during the videotaped interactions. Participants tended to exhibit the same behavior, either face-rubbing or foottapping, as the confederates they were paired with. The participants reported that they had no conscious awareness of mimicking their partners.

149. In Milgram's study, participants believed they had been randomly assigned to be the teacher in a study on learning.

The learner was a confederate in another room who was ostensibly receiving electric shocks for giving wrong answers to the questions asked by the participant. The experimenter repeatedly insisted that the teacher needed to give electric shocks of increasingly high voltage to the learner, and the participant's willingness to do so was the measure of obedience in the study. The purpose of the study was to determine how obedient average people would be to an authority figure's instructions to engage in harmful actions.

150. Social proof is our tendency to engage in behavior because a trusted or admired other seems to support that behavior. Student examples will vary. For example, advertisements routinely use celebrity endorsements to convince us to buy or use products. The advertisements assume that we look up to these celebrities and that therefore social proof will operate to convince us of the products' value. We can also be influenced by the example and advice of respected friends and colleagues, especially ones we perceive as being similar to us, so that their preferences are good predictors of ours. Thus, we are likely to check out a TV show recommended by a friend who is similar to us in age and known to have similar tastes in entertainment.

151. Social learning theory describes our capacity to learn from observing others, typically by imitating their behavior.

Research inspired by social learning theory includes the Bobo doll studies, in which children imitated an adult who behaved aggressively toward a doll, particularly if the adult was rewarded for the behavior. Other studies demonstrate the chameleon effect, people's tendency to unconsciously mimic others' bodily gestures and postures. Not all social learning is beneficial: sociological research suggests that media coverage of suicides is associated with an increase in suicide rates.

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Chap_07_3e 152. The "social construction of reality" refers to the profound influence of society/culture on individuals' perceptions and behavior. From birth, each individual is socialized into a particular set of cultural norms, beliefs, values, and institutions, and this process of socialization never stops. As a result, the way individuals perceive and think about the world, and the way they live their lives, are shaped in very fundamental ways by this cultural "training." At just about every moment of every day, we are acting within culturally defined situations and carrying out the responsibilities associated with culturally defined social roles and relying on culturally transmitted belief systems to make sense of our experiences. Within culturally defined situations, there are recognized scripts for how to behave that people have been socialized to follow. Even when in private or when we feel like we're not in "civilization," we may still be operating in a culturally defined situation. For example, if I am hiking a trail up a mountain in a remote wilderness area, this is still a culturally defined situation—hiking is a culturally recognized activity that has certain norms and scripts which participants follow (e.g., one generally hikes up the mountain, spends some time at the peak, then descends). Cultures also recognize certain social roles that people can occupy, including relational roles (e.g., daughter, father) and occupational roles (e.g., dentist, museum curator).

Within the culture, there are shared beliefs or stereotypes about people occupying each recognized role, as well as norms and scripts governing the behavior of people occupying each role. For example, "teacher" and "student" are culturally defined social roles with quite clearly defined scripts. Teachers are recognized as having authority in the classroom and can speak at will, whereas students are expected to be respectful and attentive and generally need recognition or permission from the teacher to speak up.

153. In the Stanford Prison Experiment, participants were randomly assigned to play prison guards or prisoners for a short period of time. The "guards" quickly became immersed in their roles, to the extent that they began to commit abuses against the prisoners. The "prisoners" also embraced their roles and began to rebel or to exhibit signs of depression. The experiment illuminated the power of culturally constructed social roles to influence behavior.

154. Social neuroscience uses functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) of the brain to examine the neural processes of conformity. Bern and colleagues had participants make judgments about the spatial orientation of 3D geometric figures. Participants were given feedback about how other people who were supposedly also in on the session thought the figures were oriented. In a second condition participants were given feedback that was supposedly from a computer. When participants conformed to the opinions of other purported participants, the occipital-parietal areas of the brain, where tasks like spatial perception and mental rotation are handled, were more active. By contrast, no such increase in activity was observed in the computer condition. The difference suggests that informational influence from others has a distinctively potent effect on how we perceive objects in the world.

Neuroscience has also shown that when it comes to brain activity, failing to conform is like realizing one has made a mistake. Klucharev and colleagues had participants make judgments about how attractive they found people's faces. While the subjects made their judgments, their brains were scanned. The participants were then informed of the average rating of each face. Thirty minutes later participants were asked to re-rate the attractiveness of the faces. Participants who learned that their ratings were different from the groups had activation in the rostral cingulate cortex and the nucleus accumbens, where learning tasks are handled. Moreover, the stronger the activation, the greater the tendency for people to adjust their ratings on the second go-around to make them more like the supposed average ratings. Klucharev's interpretation was people experience disagreeing with the group as a mistake and try to learn the "correct" response.

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Chap_07_3e 155. Conformity occurs when an individual alters his or her beliefs, attitudes, or behaviors to bring them in line with those of a majority. There are many factors that affect conformity. First, conformity can be based on informational influence or normative influence. Informational influence occurs when people look to others to provide them with information about an ambiguous situation. Private acceptance (sincere change in belief) is more likely to occur because people are unsure of themselves or what to do. Normative social influence is based on wanting to be accepted into a group. This type of influence typically leads to public compliance—that is, to doing things to fit in and be accepted, but not necessarily to changes in internal attitudes or beliefs. Normative social influence is often driven by the fear of being rejected, isolated, or ostracized.

A number of variables can increase or decrease people's tendency to conform. Individuals from collectivistic cultures, which value group cohesiveness, are more likely to conform than individuals from individualistic cultures.

When it comes to differences in individual temperament, a high need for achievement, leadership qualities, confidence in one's own judgments, and high self-esteem are all associated with a lesser tendency to conform than the opposite traits are. Gender may play a role, but only in certain tasks: women are more likely to conform on stereotypically masculine topics, while men are more likely to conform on stereotypically feminine topics. A group's size, and the degree of unanimity, also matter; a person is much more likely to conform in a large group where everyone else appears unanimous than in a small group where at least one person joins in dissent. Finally, people are more likely to conform if they psychologically identify with the group than if they do not.

156. Participants judged which of three comparison lines was most similar in length to a target line. Some participants were exposed to conformity pressure, in the form of a group of confederates who all gave the same wrong response in the line-judging task. Most participants (~75%) conformed to the confederates' choice at least once during the study. Participants not exposed to conformity pressure made errors on fewer than 1% of trials, while those exposed to conformity pressure made substantially more errors, agreeing with confederates' wrong answer in 37% of trials on average.

157. I have many tactics to choose from. I could try to use the foot-in-the-door effect by starting small with people and then asking them to increase their commitment. So I might ask them to volunteer for one hour per week. Once they had done that for a couple of weeks, I would request maybe two hours or one hour twice a week. The idea behind this tactic would be that once they have begun to volunteer, self-perception theory says they will see themselves as the sort of person who does volunteer work. One thing that is important to note, however, is that the person who volunteers needs to freely choose to do that activity. If they are required to put in an hour per week, then increasing their workload may not work.

I could also make use of the norm for social commitment by getting people to make a public pledge to get involved. They are more likely to stick with their commitment if they have made it in front of other people. A third possible tactic would be to use the norm of reciprocity. If I can do something for the other person prior to asking for a commitment from them, they may be more willing to respond favorably. A fourth option would be to use social proof by presenting a list of prominent others who have volunteered for my organization. Fifth, using scarcity may work if I can make the person believe that volunteer opportunities are few and far between. A last thing that I might do is ask people to volunteer for one and a half hours per week, the idea being that a specific and slightly unusual amount of time would jolt them out of mindless refusal and make them think more seriously about my request.

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Chap_07_3e 158. The personality variables that influence the likelihood of conformity include need for achievement, leadership qualities, and self-image. Individuals who have a high need to achieve; strong leadership traits; and high selfesteem, high self-awareness, and confidence in their own judgment are less likely to conform. Situational variables that influence conformity include group size, degree of unanimity, and relation to the group. An individual will be most likely to conform in a large group where everyone else is unanimous. In a smaller group (fewer than four) or in a group where at least one other person is dissenting, conformity is significantly less assured. The extent to which the individual identifies with the majority also influences the degree of conformity. Strong identification with the reference group increases conformity.

159. People representing a minority opinion can use a number of techniques to increase their influence: (1) project selfconfidence and maintain a consistent, unwavering position; (2) display, at the same time, a willingness to listen with an open mind and to compromise where appropriate; (3) concentrate on getting at least one majority member to change his or her mind, thereby encouraging others to follow suit; and (4) encourage the majority to see the minority as part of the majority's ingroup.

160. Reciprocity is when people essentially return the favor or do something for someone because that person did something for them in the past. In an experiment by Regan, participants worked on a task with a confederate who was either friendly and likable or else quite rude, and who either did or did not perform an unsolicited favor for the participant by bringing them a can of Coke to drink. At the end of the session the confederate asked if the participant would like to purchase a fund-raising lottery ticket. Participants to whom the confederate had brought a Coke purchased more tickets. It did not matter whether the confederate was likable or rude. This demonstrated that buying the lottery ticket was based on the norm of reciprocity rather than on the participants' general mood or their feelings toward the confederate.

161. Social learning is the capacity to learn from others. People are more likely to imitate another person, the model, if (1) the model is seen to be rewarded for the behavior, (2) the observer finds the model likable, and (3) the behavior observed is consistent with the motivational state of the observer (e.g., aggressive behavior will be more readily imitated if the observer is in an angry mood).

162. Cialdini's focus theory of normative conduct distinguishes between two types of norms that exert influence on behavior. A descriptive norm is a belief about what most people typically do. An injunctive norm is a belief about what behaviors are generally approved of or disapproved of in a culture. Adherence to a norm tends to increase when the norm becomes salient. Cialdini and colleagues demonstrated this by creating and posting signs at two different spots in the Petrified Forest National Park, to try and get individuals to not take a souvenir piece of wood home from the park. One sign was based on an injunctive norm and stated, "Please don't remove the petrified wood from the park." The other sign was based on a descriptive norm and stated, "Many past visitors have removed the petrified wood from the park, changing the state of the Petrified Forest." When examining areas of the park where specially marked wood was distributed, it was found that more people removed the wood in the descriptive norm condition. Apparently the descriptive norm made the fact that some people do take the wood salient.

Student examples may vary. One example may be conserving water usage. Hotels may have a sign hanging up stating "80% of people who reserve this room choose to reuse their towels" (a descriptive norm) in order to increase water conservation.

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Chap_07_3e 163. A charismatic leader is a leader who exhibits boldness and self-confidence and emphasizes the greatness of the ingroup. According to terror management theory, if a culture no longer provides its members with a basis of meaning and self-worth, then people look for a more secure belief system providing them with enduring significance. A person who has a vision of the ingroup as representing the greater good may rise to power. In short, reminders of mortality can increase the appeal of charismatic leaders. This is especially true when cultural threats to people's sense that life is meaningful are accompanied by economic or political threats to their security.

Something like an economic downturn may provide an opportunity for charismatic leaders to rise to power.

Social identity theory research has shown that people are more willing to support leaders who affirm the value of the group's shared social identity. And leaders who have a vision for how the group can achieve great things can often inspire followers, especially in times of crisis.

Student examples of a charismatic leader will vary.

164. Milgram varied several aspects of the procedure. The perceived legitimacy of the experimenter's authority was varied by conducting the study either at a university (Yale) or in an unimpressive office building. The physical distance between teacher and learner was varied by placing them either in different rooms or in the same room.

(In some of the latter cases, the teacher had to make physical contact with the learner.) The proximity of the experimenter was varied by having the experimenter give instructions either in person or by phone. Finally, the social environment was varied by, in some cases, introducing other confederates who raised objections in the presence of the participant.

165. The door-in-the-face effect is the increase in people's readiness to comply with a moderate request after they have first been presented with, and refused, a bigger request. Underlying the effect is the principle of reciprocity: the reduction from the bigger request to the smaller one is perceived as a favor that calls for a favor in return.

Students may provide a variety of examples. One example could be "Mom, can I go to Mardi Gras in New Orleans with my boyfriend?" After Mom says no, the request becomes, "Can I go to the local Mardi Gras parade with my boyfriend?"

166. Informational and normative influence are both types of social influence. Informational influence occurs when people who find themselves in an ambiguous situation look to others for information. Private acceptance is more likely to occur when people are unsure of themselves or unsure what to do. Examples might include taking one's cues from other people in an unfamiliar social situation or signing up for a particular class because everyone else does so.

Normative social influence occurs when people want to be accepted into a group. This type of influence typically leads to public compliance—i.e., outwardly doing whatever is required to fit in and be accepted—but not necessarily to changes in internal attitudes or beliefs. Normative social influence is often driven by the fear of being rejected, isolated, or ostracized. For example, in a discussion of the death penalty, an individual may publicly go along with the group but privately not believe what the rest of the group does.

Student answers may vary on the examples.

167. The autokinetic effect is a perceptual phenomenon where individuals in a dark room perceive a stationary spot of light to move. Individuals in these studies would make verbal judgments in groups about the distance the light moved. Within a group, participants would eventually converge to a common norm. In some variations, participants were brought back up to a year later, and their private judgments still conformed to the original group norm, suggesting that conformity processes can influence even basic perceptions.

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Chap_07_3e 168. Mindlessness is akin to automatic processing or to being on autopilot. A person acting mindlessly gives only superficial thought to what they are doing, relying mostly on habit and other mental reflexes. In one study, people were more likely to comply with a person's request to cut in line to use a copier if that request was accompanied by a because statement, even if the rest of the statement simply repeated the request ("because I need to make some copies"). The simple use of because triggered mindless compliance. In another study, individuals were more likely to give someone some change if the person asked for an unusual amount. Where a request for a quarter would be met with mindless refusal, a request for 37 cents would trigger a more attentive response.

169. The focus theory of normative conduct distinguishes between injunctive norms and descriptive norms. Injunctive norms are beliefs about what behaviors are generally approved of or disapproved of in a culture. Descriptive norms are beliefs about what most people typically do. Both forms of normative influence can be used to change behavior. However, it is important not to make conflicting norms salient: communicating that a certain injunctive rule is frequently broken will undermine the effort to get people to obey the rule.

170. Social learning theory, developed by Bandura, captures the theme "monkey see, monkey do." Social learning theory describes people's capacity to learn from observing a model. The model may be a real person or it may be symbolic (e.g., television character). Bandura's classic 1960s studies had children between the ages of 3 to 6 watch a film of an adult model punch and kick a large, inflatable doll called a Bobo doll. When children were placed in a play room with a Bobo doll, they tended to imitate the adult model.

Bandura found that the children's behavior matched the predictions of social learning theory, according to which people are more likely to imitate a model who has been reinforced for an action (given soda and candy, in the case of the Bandura study) and less likely to imitate a model that has been punished. (Sometimes Bandura's model was shown being spanked.) A model's likeability also matters: more likeable models are more consistently imitated. Finally, social learning is more likely to occur when the behavior that is observed is consistent with the observer's motivational state. So, for instance, aggressive behavior is more readily imitated by research subjects who are irritated or frustrated.

Mimicry, the imitating of another person's behavior, may be completely unconscious, the result of mirror neurons in the brain running an internal simulation of the other's actions. When unconscious mimicry duplicates nonverbal behaviors, this is called the chameleon effect. Chartrand and Bargh paired a participant with a confederate and made-up stories about a photograph. The confederates had been trained prior to the experiment to rub their faces or to shake their foot. The participants were more likely to rub their own faces when they were paired with a face-rubbing confederate and more likely to shake their feet when they were paired with a foot-shaking confederate.

Mimicry can also extend beyond bodily behavior to things like beliefs and attitudes. But research suggests that we engage in such mimicry mainly when observing people we like, not ones we dislike. Sinclair and colleagues had White participants complete the IAT to measure their unconscious attitudes toward Blacks in the presence of an experimenter who wore a T-shirt that was either blank or said "Eracism." The experimenter was deliberately rude in one experimental condition and friendly in the other. When the experimenter was friendly and wore the "Eracism" T-shirt, participants exhibited more positive attitudes toward Blacks in their IAT responses. The likely explanation for this phenomenon is that mimicry is an expression of our desire to get along with people we feel positively toward.

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Chap_08_3e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. _____ proposes that people value thinking and acting freely. a. Regulatory focus theory b. The elaboration likelihood model c. Terror management theory d. Psychological reactance theory 2. Each individual described below was persuaded to adopt more pro-environmental attitudes. Which individual is most likely to maintain these new attitudes over time? a. Shige, who became more pro-environmental after reading government-issued reports detailing the harmful impacts of human activity on the environment. b. Hilda, who became more pro-environmental after her favorite YouTuber started including short "Going Green" segments in some of her videos. c. Kayt, who became more pro-environmental after hearing her pastor deliver a sermon encouraging the congregation to be "good stewards of God's Earth." d. Desmond, who became more pro-environmental after watching an interview with an attractive young climate scientist on his local news station.

3. Someone using the peripheral route would probably NOT be persuaded by: a. a strong argument from a high-credibility source. b. a strong argument from a low-credibility source. c. a weak argument from a high-credibility source. d. a weak argument from a highly attractive source.

4. According to terror management theory, people are most likely to focus on protecting their self-image when: a. thoughts of death are in direct conscious awareness. b. thoughts of death are active but outside of conscious awareness. c. they are experiencing a positive mood state. d. they perceive that they are at risk of being socially excluded.

5. Psychological reactance theory proposes that: a. situations that threaten people's freedom arouse discomfort and trigger efforts to restore freedom. b. the regulatory fit of an argument will determine attitudes. c. people's increased awareness of their mortality motivates their efforts to restore freedom. d. people have a need to conform to others.

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Chap_08_3e 6. John is a registered voter, but he doesn't have many strong opinions and doesn't really follow politics. John will MOST likely follow the _____ route to persuasion when it comes to politics. a. central b. peripheral c. source d. cognitive 7. The _____ proposes that persuasion occurs via two different cognitive routes. a. elaboration likelihood model b. metacognitive model c. theory of planned behavior d. balance theory 8. All of the following represent a high level of source credibility EXCEPT which source of medical information? a. a medical journal reporting the results of a recent clinical trial b. your primary care physician c. a medical blog written by a person with no formal medical training d. a report from a federal health agency such as the Centers for Disease Control 9. In which of the following situations would a two-sided message (i.e., one that both advances an argument and attempts to refute counterarguments) be most effective? a. The audience's initial attitudes toward your position are negative/oppositional. b. The audience's initial attitudes toward your position are neutral/mixed. c. The audience's initial attitudes toward your position are positive/favorable. d. The audience is unfamiliar with the issue and does not have existing attitudes.

10. A health message is designed with the goal of persuading people to get a tetanus shot. If this message includes a stern warning about the dangers of tetanus, what else should it also include to ensure that its persuasive impact is maximized? a. Graphic images of people with severe tetanus infections. b. Testimony from parents whose children died of tetanus. c. Information about how to obtain a tetanus shot. d. A high-credibility communicator, such as a doctor.

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Chap_08_3e 11. Whether a one-sided or a two-sided message is more persuasive depends on all of the following EXCEPT which one? a. the audience's initial attitude toward the message b. whether the audience is aware of opposing arguments c. the audience's attitude toward the source d. the audience's age and level of education 12. In an experiment by Wolf and Montgomery, mock jurors were presented with a trial where specific testimony was ruled either admissible or inadmissible. In the inadmissible condition the ruling was accompanied by either a weak or a strong admonition to disregard the testimony. Which group was most influenced by the questionable testimony? a. jurors who heard the admissible arguments b. jurors who heard the inadmissible arguments accompanied by a weak admonition c. jurors who heard the inadmissible arguments accompanied by a strong admonition d. jurors who heard the inadmissible arguments, regardless of a strong or weak admonition 13. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about the elaboration likelihood model? a. The route depends heavily on the motivation of the listener. b. Individuals using the central route tend to have more positive attitudes. c. The central route is influenced primarily by the strength of the argument. d. Heuristics play a role in the peripheral route to persuasion.

14. The need for cognition is the need to: a. think about things critically and analytically. b. focus on positive emotions. c. focus on negative emotions. d. self-enhance.

15. _____ is people's general tendency to think and act in ways oriented toward the approach of positive outcomes. a. Self-esteem b. Promotion focus c. Prevention focus d. Need for cognition

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Chap_08_3e 16. Which of the following persuasive messages would be most convincing to a promotion-focused audience member? a. "Take action to stop climate change, so we can all keep enjoying the planet we know and love." b. "Take action to stop climate change, or else the planet we know and love might be gone forever." c. "Take action to stop climate change, unless you want to explain why you didn't to your grandkids." d. "Take action to stop climate change, unless you're cool with global famine and the flooding of coastal cities."

17. The more quickly a person indicates an attitude when asked, the more: a. likely that person is lying. b. accessible and strong that attitude is. c. reactance that person is feeling. d. that person is motivated by self-presentation concerns.

18. Which of the following is NOT true about fear-inducing messages? a. A message framing health behavior in gain-related terms is more effective for prevention of a health problem. b. A message framing health behavior in loss-related terms is more effective for detection of a health problem. c. A message framing health behavior in loss-related terms is more effective for prevention of a health problem. d. Fear-arousing messages are most effective in changing attitudes if they are accompanied by information about how to reduce the threat.

19. Research by Zajonc (1968) found that when American participants were repeatedly shown Chinese characters, they tended to rate the ones they had seen more often as aesthetically more pleasing. This is due to the: a. sleeper effect. b. primacy effect. c. recency effect. d. mere exposure effect.

20. All of the following are true about regulatory focus EXCEPT which statement? a. People with a promotion focus are more oriented toward security. b. People with a prevention focus are more oriented toward security. c. People with a promotion focus think in ways oriented toward approaching positive outcomes. d. People with a prevention focus think in ways oriented toward avoiding negative outcomes.

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Chap_08_3e 21. Attitude inoculation works to increase resistance to persuasion because it: a. generates reactance, and then people disregard subsequent messages. b. increases fear, and people tune out subsequent messages. c. boosts self-confidence, making people more resistant to persuasion. d. supports people in generating counterarguments.

22. A college is considering a policy that would require all students to pass a comprehensive exam to graduate. If adopted, the first mandatory exams will be given in three years. Virtually all students at the college say they strongly oppose the mandatory exam policy when asked about it. However, far more first-year students have participated in active protests against the policy compared to sophomores, juniors, and seniors. This example illustrates that self-reported attitudes are better predictors of behavior for: a. individuals whose attitudes are based on personal experience. b. individuals who have a vested interest in the issue/topic in question. c. individuals whose implicit attitudes match their self-reported attitudes. d. individuals whose attitudes about the issue are more accessible.

23. Lisa does not like horror movies, but she goes with her friends to see a horror movie because she does not want them to think poorly of her. Lisa's attitude toward horror movies did not predict her behavior because of: a. mood. b. self-presentation concerns. c. reactance. d. the need for cognition.

24. Which of the following types of attitudes would be most strongly bolstered by learning that someone dissimilar to yourself holds the same attitude as you? a. attitudes concerning morality, values, and related issues b. attitudes concerning personal tastes, likes, and dislikes c. attitudes concerning social and political issues d. attitudes concerning objective matters of fact 25. Adna wants to persuade her daughter not to drink. Which of the following suggestions is LEAST likely to persuade Adna's daughter to resist the pressure to drink? a. Increase her fear of drinking by showing her videos of car crashes. b. Tell her she is forbidden to drink. c. Ask her to list the pros and cons of drinking. d. Ask her to make a public commitment not to drink.

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Chap_08_3e 26. Mo rarely eats breakfast; instead he focuses on getting to work each morning. Today, Mo passed a new billboard for a fast-food breakfast restaurant. It reminded him that he likes breakfast food, and he pulled into the drive-through to get a breakfast sandwich.

What principle of attitudes and behavior does this example illustrate most directly? a. Stronger attitudes are better predictors of behavior. b. Implicit attitudes can be good predictors of spontaneous behaviors. c. More accessible attitudes are better predictors of behavior. d. People often misrepresent their attitudes for self-presentational reasons.

27. Carl overheard some people discussing evidence that drinking green tea can prevent cancer. He is initially not persuaded by this information because he is not confident that those people were well-informed. However, several weeks later Carl can no longer remember the source of this information but does remember the idea that green tea consumption may be linked to lower cancer rates. Since Carl forgot the source of the information, he may be vulnerable to the: a. sleeper effect. b. mere exposure effect. c. primacy effect. d. recency effect.

28. Reactance is the: a. feeling that one's goals do not match one's behavior. b. negative feeling that one's freedom is being threatened. c. desire to think critically about information. d. desire to enhance one's self-image.

29. Attitudes formed through the _____ route to persuasion are more durable and long lasting. a. peripheral b. central c. relevant d. primacy 30. Whether a one-sided or a two-sided message is more effective depends on: a. whether the argument is consistent. b. whether the argument is relevant. c. the audience's initial attitude toward the issue. d. whether there are many people who reject the argument.

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Chap_08_3e 31. Which of the following does NOT relate to the sleeper effect? a. People learn about the credibility of the source after they hear the arguments. b. People can remember the message without remembering the source of that message. c. Source credibility has a diminishing effect on attitudes over time. d. The first pieces of information that the listener hears have the greatest impact.

32. Henry is 19 years old, has low self-esteem, and is not very intelligent. Henry is probably high in: a. need for cognition. b. negative mood. c. persuadability. d. promotion focus.

33. Explicit attitudes are better at predicting _____ behavior, and implicit attitudes are better at predicting _____ behavior. a. specific; general b. general; specific c. reasoned; spontaneous d. spontaneous; reasoned 34. Most people have very positive attitudes toward Fred Rogers, the late host of Mister Rogers' Neighborhood. According to balance theory, what would happen if Rogers personally endorsed a consumer product, such as a certain brand of sweaters? a. People would develop more positive views of the brand Rogers endorsed, to maintain consistency with their positive views of Rogers himself. b. People would develop more negative views of the brand Rogers endorsed, to counteract and balance out their positive views of Rogers himself. c. People would not change their attitudes toward the brand, since Rogers's endorsement is just a peripheral cue and is irrelevant to the brand's quality. d. People would be more likely to try the brand Rogers endorsed, but their attitudes would only change based on their direct experiences with the product.

35. All of the following are key elements of the theory of planned behavior EXCEPT which one? a. perceived behavioral control b. subjective norms c. objective norms d. intentions

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Chap_08_3e 36. _____ proposes that attitudes, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control interact to shape people's behavioral intentions. a. Terror management theory b. Regulatory focus theory c. The theory of planned behavior d. Psychological reactance theory 37. Anis is against the death penalty. She doesn't really know why she feels this way, but she knows that she does. Anis's attitude is a _____ predictor of her behavior. a. good b. neutral c. strong d. poor 38. The three key determinants of persuadability are: a. age, self-esteem, and education and intelligence. b. gender, self-esteem, and education and intelligence. c. the need for cognition, self-esteem, and mood. d. self-esteem, age, and mood.

39. Research on message characteristics suggests that: a. statistical information and vivid examples are approximately equally persuasive. b. statistical information tends to be more persuasive than a single vivid example. c. a single vivid example tends to be more persuasive than statistical information. d. neither vivid examples nor statistical information have much persuasive power.

40. A preference for thinking about things deeply and analytically is referred to as: a. need for self-esteem. b. need for cognition. c. promotion focus. d. prevention focus.

41. _____ is people's general tendency to think and act in ways oriented toward avoidance of negative outcomes. a. Self-esteem b. Promotion focus c. Prevention focus d. Need for cognition

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Chap_08_3e 42. According to the theory of planned behavior, which of the following statements BEST captures the role of attitudes in producing behavior? a. A person's attitudes are one factor that influences their behavioral intentions, and behavioral intentions in turn directly influence behavior. b. A person's attitudes interact with their behavioral intentions to ultimately result in the actual behavior they engage in. c. A person's attitudes are influenced by their behavioral intentions, and the attitudes a person ends up with directly influence behavior. d. A person's attitudes play no role in producing their behavior; instead, people change their attitudes to match their behavior after the fact.

43. Who is MOST likely to use the central route to persuasion when attending a seminar on financial aid reform? a. Laharina, who has little interest in financial aid b. Wei, who is currently on financial aid c. Tony, who is doing his homework during the talk d. Armin, who has found a way to pay his own way through college 44. People high in promotion focus are MORE likely to be persuaded by an argument if that argument: a. focuses on avoiding a negative outcome. b. focuses on positive emotions. c. is relevant to self-esteem. d. focuses on achieving a positive outcome.

45. All of the following are true about the communicator EXCEPT which statement? a. Real expertise persuades people through peripheral-route processing. b. The appearance of expertise often persuades individuals. c. People are often more persuaded when they eavesdrop on a conversation. d. Speaking quickly can make a speaker appear more credible.

46. People high in _____ are more persuadable through the central route. a. self-esteem b. need for cognition c. self-monitoring d. prevention focus 47. A speaker is said to be _____ when she is perceived as both an expert and trustworthy. a. genuine b. honest c. credible d. factual Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_3e 48. People _____ tend to use the peripheral route to persuasion. a. high in need for cognition and high in self-monitoring b. low in need for cognition and high in self-monitoring c. high in need for cognition and low in self-monitoring d. low in need for cognition and low in self-monitoring 49. All of the following variables influence persuadability EXCEPT which one? a. age b. self-esteem c. gender d. education and intelligence 50. Luttrell and colleagues (2017) measured students' need for cognition, then asked them to read an editorial arguing all seniors should be required to pass a comprehensive exam to graduate. This argument was highly relevant to all participants. Half of the participants read strong arguments for the exam, and the other half read unconvincing arguments for the exam. Which of the following results was NOT obtained? a. Participants were more favorable toward the exam when it was supported by strong arguments. b. Participants high in need for cognition were especially likely to approve of the proposal when it was supported by strong arguments. c. Participants high in need for cognition were especially likely to disapprove of the proposal when it was supported by weak arguments. d. All participants processed the arguments through the central route to persuasion.

51. What is one implication of the idea that resisting persuasion is cognitively demanding? a. People have an unlimited capacity to resist persuasion. b. People will be more persuadable when tired or hungry. c. People who are extremely intelligent can't be persuaded. d. People can't practice how to better resist persuasion.

52. According to _____, whether people focus on their health or their self-esteem depends on whether thoughts of death are inside or outside of conscious awareness. a. balance theory b. need for cognition theory c. regulatory focus theory d. terror management theory

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Chap_08_3e 53. The _____ is likely to occur if there is only a small delay separating two messages. The ____ is likely to occur when there is a longer delay and the time elapsed since the second message is small. a. recency effect; primacy effect b. sleeper effect; recency effect c. primacy effect; recency effect d. mere exposure effect; sleeper effect 54. Child molesters are more likely to confess their sexual thoughts about children if they: a. are paid money. b. are treated kindly. c. are under strong pressure to express socially desirable responses. d. believe they are attached to a lie detector.

55. Asma believes Eric Church is the greatest musician on the planet. Her close friend, Wei, agrees with her.

Which of the following is likely to occur because of this agreement? a. Asma will be less confident in her belief. b. Asma will be more confident in her belief. c. Wei's agreement will have no impact on Asma's belief. d. Asma will initially be confident and then over time become less confident in her belief.

56. Khelood is going on a job interview. She knows there will be three candidates interviewing. Which position does Khelood NOT want to be interviewed in? a. the first b. the second c. the third d. The position would make no difference.

57. According to terror management theory, people are most likely to focus on protecting their health when: a. thoughts of death are in direct conscious awareness. b. thoughts of death are active but outside of conscious awareness. c. they are experiencing a positive mood state. d. they perceive a threat to their self-esteem.

58. One reason attitudes are often poor predictors of behavior is that: a. people are horrible at predicting their own behavior. b. people tend to not have strong attitudes. c. attitudes are distorted. d. people often do not appreciate that they have other relevant attitudes.

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Chap_08_3e 59. Research indicates that fear can persuade people if: a. the individual is motivated to reduce the fear. b. people can distract themselves from the fear. c. the emotion is accompanied by detailed information on how to reduce the threat. d. the individual feels threatened.

60. _____ are your perceptions of approval or disapproval of performing a behavior. a. Subjective norms b. Objective norms c. Implicit attitudes d. Intentions 61. Petty and colleagues (1983) had participants take part in a study on consumer attitudes. They were told they would receive a gift after the study. One group was promised a choice of razor blades, the other a choice of toothpaste. Participants then flipped through ads and came across an ad for Edge razor blades. Half the participants read strong arguments for Edge razor blades, and half read weak arguments. One version of the ad featured an attractive celebrity, and the other version featured an average-looking person. When the Edge ad was relevant to the participants' later choice, what were the results? a. If the arguments were strong, the participants chose Edge blades. b. If the arguments were weak, the participants chose Edge blades. c. The participants were influenced by the whether they liked the celebrity or not. d. The participants were influenced by the average person.

62. While running late to work, Frieda is approached by a man collecting donations for "The Human Fund," an organization Frieda isn't familiar with. Frieda usually does careful research before donating money, but because the man looks nice and seems sincere, she hands him $50. Which statement best explains why Frieda used the peripheral route instead of the central route in this situation? a. Frieda has cognitive impairments that prevent her from engaging in central-route processing. b. Frieda doesn't care enough about this issue to engage in central-route processing. c. Frieda avoids engaging in central-route processing because she dislikes effortful thinking. d. Frieda was unable to engage in central-route processing because she was distracted.

63. People with a promotion focus tend to have _____ motivation. a. maintenance b. growth c. security d. steady

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Chap_08_3e 64. Christopher is an atheist and holds negative attitudes toward organized religion. Friends have invited him to go to church with them repeatedly, and this year he attended an Easter service. Based on this information, which statement BEST explains why Christopher's attitudes were a poor predictor of his behavior in this situation? a. Christopher doesn't actually know what his attitudes toward religion truly are. b. Christopher's negative attitudes toward religion are not very strong. c. Christopher's behavior was affected by factors other than his religious attitudes. d. Christopher holds positive attitudes toward religion at an implicit level.

65. Jasna is watching television when a commercial for a new pain reliever comes on. Since Jasna has been having backaches, she is motivated to pay close attention to the commercial. Jasna is more likely to use the _____ route to persuasion. a. heuristic b. peripheral c. central d. relevant 66. An attitude researcher is studying the topic of LGBTQ prejudice (i.e., homophobia and transphobia). The researcher wants to use a self-report method, but is concerned that people may not be honest in reporting their attitudes on this sensitive topic. The researcher should _____ in order to obtain more honest selfreports. a. use a bogus pipeline procedure b. use standard self-report methods c. use implicit attitude measures d. ask participants to tell the truth 67. Which of the following behaviors would probably be best predicted by a measure of implicit attitudes towards the homeless? a. how people vote on a local ballot measure to establish a new homeless shelter b. whether people donate money, food, or clothing to charities that help the homeless c. how much eye contact people make when interacting with a homeless person d. whether people volunteer their time to work at a soup kitchen or homeless shelter 68. High school students Amy and Ray have been dating each other casually. Recently, Amy's parents urged her to stop seeing Ray, and then they forbade her to see him. Amy now wants to date Ray even more and continues to date him. Amy's behavior illustrates the effects of: a. attitude inoculation. b. self-presentational concerns. c. planned behavior. d. psychological reactance.

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Chap_08_3e 69. Successfully resisting persuasion depends on all of the following EXCEPT which one? a. gender b. motivation to resist c. strategies for resistance d. knowing what to resist 70. Hannah wants to quit smoking, and knows that her friends, family, and others in her life would be supportive if she tried to quit. However, quitting just feels impossible to Hannah. Which of the factors described by the theory of planned behavior is preventing Hannah from forming a behavioral intention to quit smoking? a. Hannah's attitudes toward quitting b. Hannah's subjective norms c. Hannah's perceived behavioral control d. Hannah's history of reinforcement 71. Destiny is 35, has high self-esteem, and is college-educated. Destiny is probably low in: a. need for cognition. b. negative mood. c. persuadability. d. promotion focus.

72. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about reactance? a. The amount of reactance depends on how important the freedom being violated is to people. b. The amount of reactance depends on how forceful the threat to personal freedom is to people. c. Reactance when others' freedom is threatened is greater in individualistic cultures. d. Situations that threaten people's freedoms arouse an uncomfortable emotional state.

73. In a study by Sagarin and colleagues (2002), some participants were trained to notice when actors were posing as experts in commercials. Compared to participants who did not receive this training, those that were trained were: a. less persuaded by all ads, both those featuring fake experts and those featuring real experts. b. more persuaded by ads featuring fake experts, and less persuaded by ads with real experts. c. more persuaded by all ads, both those featuring fake experts and those featuring real experts. d. less persuaded by ads featuring fake experts, and more persuaded by ads with real experts.

74. People's attitudes are _____ poor predictors of their behavior. a. almost always b. often c. rarely d. never

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Chap_08_3e 75. Diego started eating more fruits and vegetables because he wants to be healthy. Diego is high in: a. self-monitoring. b. the need for cognition. c. prevention focus. d. promotion focus.

76. All of the following create an effective emotional response EXCEPT which one? a. informational variety b. repetition c. familiarity d. the need for consistency 77. All of the following are true about the attractiveness of the communicator EXCEPT which statement? a. Physical appearance is the major way a communicator gains attractiveness. b. Physical attractiveness can only persuade people through the peripheral route. c. Physical attractiveness can persuade through both the central and peripheral routes. d. Physically attractive communicators are persuasive even when the arguments are unrelated to their attractiveness.

78. After watching a political debate, Jada decides she supports the candidate who spoke first. Jada's candidate preference may have been influenced by the: a. sleeper effect. b. primacy effect. c. recency effect. d. central route of persuasion.

79. The _____ is the phenomenon whereby people can remember a message but forget where it came from. a. recency effect b. primacy effect c. mere exposure effect d. sleeper effect 80. Taylor did not have strong opinions about classical music the first time she heard it, but the more she listened to it, the more she liked it. Taylor's attitude about classic music may have been influenced by the: a. mere exposure effect. b. primacy effect. c. recency effect. d. peripheral route of persuasion.

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Chap_08_3e 81. In LaPiere's study of racism in the United States, he had little trouble finding lodging when traveling with a young Chinese couple. LaPiere later sent letters to the establishments they visited, asking whether Chinese visitors would be welcome. Ninety-two percent replied that they would not welcome them or accommodate them. This study suggested that: a. the elaboration likelihood model explains the link between people's attitudes and actions. b. the link between people's attitudes and their behavior is often quite weak. c. people responded with reactance to the perceived threat of a Chinese couple. d. the theory of planned behavior explains the link between people's attitudes and actions.

82. The bogus pipeline is used to: a. make the participant feel more comfortable. b. increase the likelihood that the participant will report his or her true attitudes. c. help the participant access implicit attitudes. d. decrease reactance.

83. Armando and Lasharina are candidates for the same job. Armando interviews first, and Lasharina interviews second. Assuming that both candidates are equally qualified and interviewed equally well, hiring Armando would be an example of the: a. primacy effect. b. recency effect. c. sleeper effect. d. central route.

84. _____ of health behavior includes the idea that willingness refers specifically to a person's openness to being influenced by social circumstances. a. The regulatory focus model b. Implicit cognition c. The prototype/willingness model d. Explicit cognition 85. Sofia likes to think deeply about issues. Sofia is likely high in: a. persuadability. b. promotion focus. c. prevention focus. d. need for cognition.

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Chap_08_3e 86. An individual high in self-monitoring would be influenced especially strongly by: a. a strong, evidence-based argument that focuses on the product's objective merits. b. a message from a highly credible source who recommends the product in question. c. a cue implying that those who buy the product will enjoy increased status or social approval. d. a fear-based message emphasizing the dangers of not purchasing the product in question.

87. As a project for health class, your task is to persuade students to practice safe sex to avoid sexually transmitted infections (STIs). What is the best thing to do? a. Show a video in which people describe their personal struggles living with STIs. b. Provide graphic descriptions and images of STIs to scare students into safer sex practices. c. Describe STIs, and explain how to get and use various types of protection. d. Provide national-, state-, and local-level statistics about STIs. 88. Which of the following is NOT an example of a peripheral cue that might influence people? a. the length of the persuasive argument b. the strength of the persuasive argument c. the attractiveness of the speaker d. the speed at which the speaker presents the arguments 89. When people follow the central route to persuasion, their attitudes are influenced primarily by: a. the characteristics of the communicator. b. the desirability of the source. c. the strength of the argument. d. decision-making heuristics.

90. Attitudes stemming from _____ are better predictors of behavior than attitudes stemming from _____. a. personal experiences; others' experiences b. emotions; cognitions c. others' experiences; personal experiences d. cognitions; emotions 91. Product placement works for all the following reasons EXCEPT which one? a. increased mental accessibility b. classical conditioning c. psychological reactance d. narrative transport

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Chap_08_3e 92. _____ occurs when people are exposed to a weak form of an argument and are then able to generate counterarguments that act like protective barriers around their initial attitudes. a. Attitude inoculation b. The primacy effect c. The recency effect d. Persuasion 93. Tanisha is listening carefully to a persuasive message and thinking about the arguments. She is using the: a. peripheral route to persuasion. b. central route to persuasion. c. primacy effect. d. recency effect.

94. Before launching a new ad campaign, a cereal company wants to know who will be most likely to consider buying their cereal in the near future, so they can direct the ads at these consumers. Which of the following attitudes should they measure to BEST predict who would be likely to purchase their brand of cereal in the near future? a. attitudes toward breakfast cereals in general b. attitudes toward this particular cereal company c. attitudes toward this particular brand of cereal d. attitudes toward buying this brand of cereal in the next month 95. When Lisa was looking to buy a car, she paid careful attention to information regarding gas mileage, safety record, and resale value. She wanted her vehicle purchase to be based on compelling evidence. Lisa's approach to buying a car best illustrates: a. the peripheral route of persuasion. b. an attitude. c. source credibility. d. the central route of persuasion.

96. Attitude inoculation is more powerful when: a. the counterarguments are introduced slowly. b. the counterarguments start small and then increase in power. c. people play an active role in generating counterarguments. d. people know they are being persuaded.

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Chap_08_3e 97. Balance theory involves consistency in one's thoughts. This is similar to the concept of: a. primacy effect. b. cognitive dissonance. c. sleeper effect. d. attribution.

98. Georgiana is overwhelmed by the number of political candidates running for state senator. She sits down with information about each candidate and lists their positions on the issues that are important to her. After she thoroughly reads up on each candidate, she makes her selection. Georgiana is using the _____ route to persuasion. a. central b. peripheral c. logical d. heuristic 99. Wei really wants to make a good impression on his new roommate. Because Wei desires to make a good impression, he is more susceptible to: a. central-route processing. b. peripheral-route cues. c. the primacy effect. d. low self-monitoring.

100. Which of the following is an example of persuasion? a. Ibrahim develops a distaste for seafood after getting food poisoning from some crab cakes. b. Shreyas comes to appreciate classical music after listening extensively to the works of Bach. c. Sean begins to support legalizing marijuana after his friend is sent to jail for possession. d. Jerry starts to like a Democratic political candidate more after hearing their campaign speech.

101. Who is MOST likely to be persuadable? a. Mojda, a 45-year-old secretary b. Tianyuan, a 21-year-old college freshman c. Torrie, a 60-year-old nurse d. Armin, a 70-year-old retiree 102. What is a major risk of using perspective-taking as a persuasive strategy? a. It can result in strong emotional responses that actually distract from the persuasive message. b. It requires a lot of mental energy, leading many people to find it difficult and unpleasant. c. It can be overly effective, changing attitudes beyond just the ones that were targeted. d. It can backfire by highlighting the differences between the audience and the message source.

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Chap_08_3e 103. Which of the following is NOT an accurate generalization about persuasive messages? a. A message needs to be presented in a logical order to be a strong argument. b. Longer messages are more persuasive when the audience is using the central route. c. Longer messages that include many strong arguments can be more persuasive. d. Longer messages with arguments of varying quality can be less persuasive.

104. _____ is a person's susceptibility to persuasion. a. The primacy effect b. The recency effect c. Persuadability d. The need for cognition 105. After watching a political debate, William decides he supports the candidate who spoke last. William's candidate preference may have been influenced by the: a. sleeper effect. b. primacy effect. c. recency effect. d. peripheral route of persuasion.

106. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about repeating messages or stimuli? a. Repetition can help the audience comprehend difficult messages. b. Repetition increases accessibility of a product in the audience's memory. c. The more people are exposed to a stimulus, the more familiar it becomes. d. Positive attitudes toward the stimuli increase sharply after 20 exposures.

107. Imagine you are a political campaign manager preparing for an upcoming rally. Which of the following actions would enhance the persuasive impact of your candidate's message among as many members of the audience as possible? a. Providing everyone attending the rally with a pamphlet detailing your candidate's policy platform and track record of successfully advocating for that platform. b. Providing comfortable seating, enjoyable refreshments, and high-quality entertainment to put the audience in a good mood before your candidate takes the stage. c. Employing fear-based messages to call audience members' attention to the many threats and challenges their community is currently facing. d. Securing the endorsement of a well-known but controversial local political leader, who is beloved by some in the community but despised by others.

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Chap_08_3e 108. Implicit attitudes predict some types of behavior better than explicit attitudes do, because implicit attitudes: a. tend to come out through the bogus pipeline. b. tend to come out when people feel their personal freedoms are being violated. c. are less influenced by self-presentational concerns. d. are more influenced by self-presentational concerns.

109. _____ attitudes are _____ predictors of specific behaviors. a. General; good b. Specific; poor c. General; poor d. Positive; good 110. Which of the following sources would offer the MOST source credibility on national crime statistics? a. a close friend, who reads a lot of newspapers b. a neighbor, who likes to watch police dramas on television c. a researcher, who studies national trends in different types of criminal activity d. a criminal 111. Research has shown that the more children see films where adults smoke, the more positive the children's attitudes are toward smoking and the more likely they are to start smoking. _____ helps to explain these findings. a. The elaboration likelihood model b. Psychological reactance theory c. Narrative transportation theory d. Attitude inoculation 112. According to the elaboration likelihood model, the key factors that influence the route of persuasion that people follow are _____ and _____. a. the individual's motivation; the ability to think deeply about the message b. the individual's motivation; the argument c. the type of persuasion cue; the source d. the ability to think deeply about the message; the argument 113. When audience members are using the peripheral route: a. they will generally be more persuaded by a longer message than by a shorter message. b. the effect of message length on persuasion depends heavily on the message content. c. the length of the message will have little impact on how persuasive it is. d. they will generally be less persuaded by a longer message than by a shorter message.

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Chap_08_3e 114. Which of the following statements concerning attitudes and behavior is NOT accurate? a. Attitudes based on firsthand personal experience are better predictors of behavior than attitudes based on the secondhand reports of other people. b. Attitudes about a given issue predict the behavior of people who have a personal stake in the issue better than the behavior of people who do not. c. Attitudes that people acquired earlier in their lives are better predictors of behavior than attitudes that people have acquired later on in their lives. d. Attitudes that come to mind more quickly and easily are better predictors of behavior than attitudes that are less cognitively accessible.

115. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about strong attitudes? a. Strong attitudes exert more influence on behavior than weak ones. b. Strong attitudes are more resistant to change, but only for a short time. c. An attitude is stronger if the person has a vested interest in the attitude. d. The domain of an attitude plays a role in its strength.

116. Attitudes that are changed by _____ are more durable and resistant to other influences. a. high-credibility sources b. primacy effects c. central-route processing d. peripheral-route processing 117. The _____ occurs when people hold a positive attitude toward a stimulus simply because they have been exposed to it repeatedly. a. primacy effect b. recency effect c. sleeper effect d. mere exposure effect 118. Uri believes that all his classmates disapprove of his use of his phone in class. This is an example of a(n): a. subjective norm. b. objective norm. c. implicit attitude. d. intention.

119. Which of the following is true about positive mood and persuasion? a. A positive mood makes one more inclined to agree with a message. b. A positive mood makes one less inclined to agree with a message. c. A positive mood has no significant effect on persuasion. d. Effects of positive mood on persuasion are unknown due to a lack of research on this topic.

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Chap_08_3e 120. The _____ occurs when information encountered earlier influences attitudes more strongly. a. primacy effect b. sleeper effect c. recency effect d. mere exposure effect 121. Chris studies hard for his final exams because he wants to avoid failing his classes. Chris is probably high in: a. self-monitoring. b. need for cognition. c. prevention focus. d. promotion focus.

122. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement regarding the confidence of audience members' thoughts about persuasive messages? a. Confidence can be influenced by subtle situational factors. b. Confident thoughts are almost always well-informed. c. Confident thoughts are more likely to guide attitudes. d. The perception of confidence is very important.

123. Research suggests that the _____ might be strongest when the stimulus is presented outside of conscious awareness. a. sleeper effect b. mere exposure effect c. primacy effect d. recency effect 124. According to _____, consistency among one's thoughts influences how one forms new attitudes. a. the cognitive approach to persuasion b. the primacy effect c. the sleeper effect d. balance theory 125. The prototype/willingness model of health behavior proposes that: a. one's willingness is the best predictor of behavior when the behavior is opportunistic. b. one's willingness is the worst predictor of behavior when the behavior is opportunistic. c. intentions always are the strongest predictors of behavior. d. implicit attitudes are more important than explicit attitudes.

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Chap_08_3e 126. According to the theory of planned behavior, the best predictor of using a condom would be: a. one's intention to use a condom. b. one's attitude toward condoms. c. one's fear of sexually transmitted infections. d. the knowledge of how to use a condom.

127. A drug company is advertising a new anti-nausea medication. In this context, which of the following factors would be a peripheral cue to persuasion? a. the fact that an actual medical doctor is the main communicator in the commercial b. details about the possible side effects that users of the new drug may experience c. stats on how quickly and effectively the drug was found to reduce nausea in clinical trials d. charts showing how the new drug compares to existing anti-nausea medications 128. Discuss the theory of planned behavior. Describe how the theory of planned behavior relates to risky behaviors. Finally, describe how the theory of planned behavior would play a role in a person deciding to recycle.

129. Summarize the factors that create an effective emotional response to a message.

130. Describe the concept of self-monitoring as an individual difference and explain how this trait influences a person's susceptibility to persuasion.

131. Describe the mere exposure effect and how it influences the effectiveness of a message.

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Chap_08_3e 132. Imagine you want to persuade people who support the use of the death penalty to change their attitudes and oppose the death penalty. Describe the type of persuasive message you would employ, and explain why you would use this type of message.

133. Explain the basic logic of attitude inoculation procedures, and briefly describe an example of an attitude inoculation procedure that you could use to help children become more resistant to junk-food advertisements.

134. Define the need for cognition, and describe how this need influences the central route to persuasion.

135. Describe the two different routes of processing proposed by the elaboration likelihood model.

136. Identify characteristics that make a message more persuasive. Cite research to support your answer.

137. If climate-change activists want to use fear appeals to motivate pro-environmental behavior, what should they do? Provide an example.

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Chap_08_3e 138. Describe how confidence in our own thoughts affects persuasion. Cite a study supporting the findings.

139. Define persuadability. List the three key determinants and how they influence persuadability.

140. Describe the sleeper effect and how it influences the long-term acceptance of a message. Cite a study to support the findings.

141. According to terror management theory, when will the awareness of death motivate efforts to improve health, and when will this awareness motivate efforts to improve self-esteem?

142. Describe all the reasons why attitudes often don't predict behavior, and describe the factors that affect how well attitudes predict behavior. Cite research to support your answer. Provide examples of times when your attitudes and behaviors were in sync and when they were not in sync.

143. Describe the characteristics of the communicator that play a role in persuasion.

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Chap_08_3e 144. Summarize the factors about the content and style of a message that contribute to changing people's minds.

145. What theory explains the pop-psychology phenomenon of "reverse psychology"? How does this theory account for the phenomenon?

146. Describe how characteristics of the source affect persuasion. Explain how the characteristics of a source would influence each of the two routes of persuasion. Provide an example of how advertising may use the source to sell a product.

147. Explain the variables that create an effective emotional response to a persuasive message. Cite research to support your answer.

148. Describe psychological reactance theory, and cite a study supporting this research. Provide three real-life situations when reactance may occur.

149. Explain the basic claims of regulatory focus theory. Describe how each type of regulatory focus would influence motivation toward the goal of getting good grades.

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Chap_08_3e 150. Describe balance theory, and provide an example.

151. John has racist attitudes but knows that his colleagues at work are not racist. He also knows that they would think poorly of him if they knew he was racist. This concerns him. Given John's concern, are his racist attitudes likely to be a good predictor of his behavior?

152. Explain what product placement is, and describe at least two psychological mechanisms by which product placement can influence viewers' attitudes toward placed products.

153. Define a one-sided and a two-sided message, and explain when each is more effective.

154. Describe the following: • The types of situations in which people become more likely to rely on the central route versus the peripheral route of persuasion • The types of individuals who would be more likely to tend to rely on the central route versus the peripheral route of persuasion For each description, be sure to explain why each type of persuasion is more likely in that kind of situation, or for that kind of person.

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Chap_08_3e 155. Explain the circumstances under which audience members are persuaded more by sources that are similar versus dissimilar to themselves.

156. Briefly describe the elaboration likelihood model, and discuss how motivation and the ability to think influence the different routes of persuasion. Explain how these motivational influences increase or decrease the persuasiveness of a message. Cite research to support your answer.

157. Discuss the reasons that people are able to resist being persuaded. Describe the conditions where people are most likely to resist persuasion and how recognizing legitimate appeals plays a role in persuasion.

158. Describe the primacy and recency effects, and state when each is most likely to occur.

159. Describe how distraction can affect persuasion, and list some factors that can create distraction.

160. Discuss the elaboration likelihood model. In the discussion include the routes, circumstances where each route is used, and the durability of persuasion-induced attitude change resulting from each route. Finally, apply the elaboration likelihood model to a nonprofit organization that wants to create an advertisement campaign to reduce teenage smoking.

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Chap_08_3e 161. Describe the characteristics of the audience that make them more or less persuadable. Cite research to support your answer.

162. Describe the key factors that determine whether an individual takes the central or peripheral route to persuasion.

163. George is considering going on a two-week road trip across the entire United States. Drawing on the theory of planned behavior, explain what has to happen for George to follow through on this idea and actually go on the road trip.

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Chap_08_3e Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. d 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. b 18. c 19. d 20. a 21. d 22. b 23. b 24. d 25. b 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_3e 27. a 28. b 29. b 30. c 31. d 32. c 33. c 34. a 35. c 36. c 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. b 41. c 42. a 43. b 44. d 45. a 46. b 47. c 48. b 49. c 50. d 51. b 52. d 53. c 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_3e 55. b 56. b 57. a 58. d 59. c 60. a 61. a 62. d 63. b 64. c 65. c 66. a 67. c 68. d 69. a 70. c 71. c 72. c 73. d 74. b 75. d 76. a 77. b 78. b 79. d 80. a 81. b 82. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_3e 83. a 84. c 85. d 86. c 87. c 88. b 89. c 90. a 91. c 92. a 93. b 94. d 95. d 96. c 97. b 98. a 99. b 100. d 101. b 102. d 103. b 104. c 105. c 106. d 107. b 108. c 109. c 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_3e 111. c 112. a 113. a 114. c 115. b 116. c 117. d 118. a 119. a 120. a 121. c 122. b 123. b 124. d 125. a 126. a 127. a 128. The theory of planned behavior proposes that our attitudes are one of three major ingredients in the mix of factors that shape our behavioral intentions. The other two ingredients are subjective norms and perceived behavioral control. How these ingredients interact determines what intentions are formed and what behavior results. Thus, when risky behavior is contemplated, such as unprotected sex with an unfamiliar partner, the behavioral attitude may be that there is nothing wrong with condoms, and the subjective norm may favor condom use as the socially approved choice. The strong resulting intention will likely lead to condom use. But now suppose instead that the subjective norm is based on peer group disparagement of condoms; then the individual's behavioral attitude and subjective norm conflict. Even when the individual still forms the intention to use a condom, the intention will be weaker. If, additionally, the individual overestimates his level of behavioral control, he may end up not using a condom.

Or consider a person who forms an intention to recycle. Their attitude about the recycling may be favorable. If they believe that others approve of their recycling behaviors, then that is the subjective norm. Since recycling behavior is not difficult, the individual will probably recycle. But now suppose instead that the person is aware of the social norm but privately thinks recycling is a chore and likely does no good. The person may still form an intention to recycle, but it will be weaker and may fail to lead to recycling, especially if the individual counted on having the discipline to recycle and didn't allow for distractions such as being busy with other things.

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Chap_08_3e 129. Many factors create an effective emotional response: (1) Repetition and familiarity produce positive feelings through the mere exposure effect, whereby people come to feel positively toward any stimulus they encounter again and again. (2) People can learn to respond with positive emotions, through classical conditioning (pleasant stimuli accompanying a message), operant conditioning (being rewarded for embracing a message), and social learning (observing someone else embrace a message). (3) People’s desire for internal consistency in their thoughts can lead them to re-evaluate an initially negative reaction to a message if, for instance, a respected friend agrees with the message. (4) Being in a positive mood makes people more open to persuasion. (5) Appeals to fear can in some cases be persuasive, especially if guidance for how to respond positively is given.

130. Self-monitoring refers to individual differences in how concerned people are with being perceived favorably by others. Individuals high in self-monitoring tendencies more actively manage their behavior to conform to what they believe others expect and desire from them, whereas those lower in self-monitoring do not do this as much. High self-monitors are more apt to be persuaded by certain types of peripheral cues—particularly image-focused cues that have to do with social status or approval.

131. The mere exposure effect is when people hold a positive attitude toward a stimulus simply because they have been exposed to it repeatedly. The more we are exposed to a novel stimulus, the more familiar it becomes. And the more familiar it becomes, the better we like it, because people tend to prefer the familiar to the unfamiliar.

132. Because the audience initially supports the death penalty, they are inclined to disagree with the position of the antideath-penalty persuasive message. As such, a two-sided message would be recommended here. This message would include both direct arguments against the death penalty (e.g., arguing it is inhumane, or that the state does not have the right to end a person's life), and refutations of major arguments in favor of the death penalty (e.g., presenting evidence that the death penalty does not actually deter crime, as many of its supporters believe that it does).

133. Attitude inoculation procedures build people's resistance to persuasion by exposing them to persuasive arguments and giving them the opportunity to develop counterarguments. Then, when facing a real persuasive message, people are more prepared to resist since they have some counterarguments ready to deploy in their defense. An attitude inoculation program to help children resist junk-food ads might involve showing kids some representative ads, calling their attention to the persuasive elements of the ads (e.g., "Notice that they called your attention to the amount of calcium in those cheese puffs," or "See how they show a lot of fit, healthy-looking kids eating that candy?"), and supporting them in developing refutations to each persuasive appeal (e.g., "So the cheese puffs have a lot of calcium, but what else is in them?" or "Do you think that's what kids who eat a lot of candy really look like?").

134. The need for cognition is a person's need to think critically and analytically about issues. The strength of this need varies from person to person. People with a high need for cognition tend to use central route processing, because that is where critical, analytic thought takes place.

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Chap_08_3e 135. The central route to persuasion is used when people are thinking carefully about an argument. It involves focusing on the merits of an argument and relies on the strength of the argument. Attitude change is more durable and resistant to change via this route. The peripheral route to persuasion is used when people are not thinking carefully about an argument. It involves paying attention to cues unrelated to the merits of an argument, such as the attractiveness of the speaker. Attitudes formed via the peripheral route are less resistant to change and less longlasting.

136. Several characteristics make the message more persuasive. To the extent that persuasion will be by the central route, the presentation of the argument is paramount. The message should not tire the audience by being longer than it needs to be. If the action the audience is being asked to take is still a ways off, the most important information should come at the start, to take advantage of the primacy effect; on the other hand, if the message takes some time to present and the action the audience is being asked to take is imminent, the most important information should come at the end, to take advantage of the recency effect.

The presentation of the argument also matters for peripheral-route persuasion, but here a long-winded argument may more useful, in that it may trigger the heuristic judgment that a message with so much support must be correct. Where possible, the message should include one or more vivid examples or metaphors. These have a legitimate place in central-route persuasion, but they are at least as effective for peripheral-route persuasion.

When Hamill and colleagues had participants read an article describing in vivid detail how a welfare recipient abused the system, this led to more negative attitudes toward welfare recipients generally, even when the participants had been told that the case was atypical (and therefore a poor basis for generalization).

Another influence on peripheral-route processing is how confident people feel about their own thoughts with regard to the message. Brinol and Petty had participants wear headphones and listen to a speech arguing, either well or poorly, that students be required to carry personal identification cards. The participants were also told that the headphones were designed for use during exercise. Half the participants were asked to move their heads up and down and the other half to shake their heads from side to hide. The results indicated that those in the headnodding condition were more confident in their assessments of the argument, both when they agreed with the strong arguments and when they rejected the weak ones. Those in the head-shaking condition felt less confident in their reactions to the message. Apparently, something like the facial feedback effect (see Chapter 6) caused head movements associated with a feeling of confidence to produce that feeling.

137. They should make sure the fear-inducing information is accompanied by specific instructions on how to address the threat to one's life and health. Fear has little practical impact if people do not have information on how to act on it.

Student examples will vary, but may include reducing meat consumption, avoiding use of gas-powered vehicles, reducing consumption of goods in disposable plastic packaging, lobbying elected officials to advocate for stricter regulations on emissions and pollution, or shifting one's home to renewable energy sources such as solar power.

The key in all cases is that a resolution must be provided.

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Chap_08_3e 138. If people are confident in their assessment of what they are hearing, then their thoughts will play a large role in guiding their attitudes. People's confidence in their own thoughts sometimes comes from group cohesion. When people think the message is coming from a tightly knit group, then they are more confident in the information.

Confidence can also come through nonverbal, unconscious sources. Brinol and Petty had participants wear headphones and listen to a speech advocating that students be required to carry personal identification cards.

They were also told that the headphones were designed for use during exercise. Half the participants were asked to move their heads up and down and the other half to shake their heads from side to side. When presented with strong arguments about why people need to carry identification cards, those in the head-nodding condition were more likely to support that argument and feel confident in their assessment, and when they were given weak arguments, they were more confident in their negative assessment of the argument, and less likely to agree. Those in the head-shaking condition felt less confident in their positive or negative thoughts about the argument, and those thoughts mattered less for their tendency to agree or disagree with the message.

139. Persuadability is how susceptible one is to attempts at persuasion. The three determinants are age, self-esteem, and education/intelligence. Younger people (18 to 25 years) are more persuadable than older ones, because young people are still in the process of forming their attitudes. People with low self-esteem are more persuadable than people with high self-esteem, because people with low self-esteem have less confidence in their own judgment. People who are low in intelligence or poorly educated are more persuadable than the intelligent and well educated, again because of lower confidence in their own ability to form an accurate opinion.

140. The sleeper effect is when people remember a message but forget where it came from. As a result, source credibility becomes less important over time. Hovland and Weiss found that people were initially more likely to agree with a highly credible source, such as a medical journal, than with a lower-credibility source. But when the researchers measured the same study participants' attitudes a month later, participants who originally agreed with a highly credible source's message showed decreased agreement, while those who disagreed with a lowcredibility source's message showed increased agreement.

141. Conscious thoughts of death tend to motivate health-promoting behaviors, such as the avoidance of smoking. By contrast, the activation of thoughts of death that remain just outside the range of conscious awareness is more likely to motivate efforts to boost self-esteem. This can lead to risk and unhealthy behaviors, such as smoking in order to feel like an adult, driving fast in order to feel skillful, and suntanning in order to look good.

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Chap_08_3e 142. Attitudes and behaviors are not always in sync, for several reasons. One reason is the sheer complexity of people's attitudes. People have more than one attitude at a time, and the attitudes may pull in different directions. For example, one may participate in an activity one dislikes, to please a friend. On top of that, people have not only explicit attitudes, which they hold consciously, but also implicit attitudes, of which they may not be aware. So, for instance, someone may consciously endorse the view that all people are equal but unconsciously still harbor prejudice against some racial groups. With many explicit attitudes present in a single person, any one attitude is likely to be a poor predictor of behavior. To the extent that there is a pattern, research suggests that explicit attitudes are better predictors of deliberate, reasoned behavior, while implicit attitudes better predict spontaneous behavior.

Another reason for the loose connection between attitude and behavior is that attitudes may be general, while behavioral contexts are always specific. LaPiere, studying racial discrimination in the United States, with the help of a Chinese couple acting as confederates, found that while many hotels and restaurants professed to have a general policy of not serving Chinese individuals, only one establishment refused the couple service when they visited. Apparently, specifics such as the couple's nice attire and the presence of a Caucasian professor, LaPiere, were enough to prevent the negative attitude from being expressed. Another illustration of the same point comes from Davidson and Jaccard's study of women's attitudes toward birth control. The study found very little correlation between women's attitudes toward birth control in general and their use or non-use of birth control pills, but the study found progressively stronger correlation as the questions about attitudes became more specific (What is your attitude toward the birth control pill? What is your attitude toward using the birth control pill? In the next two years?)

Student examples will vary.

143. One factor that affects a communicator's persuasiveness is source credibility. This is the degree to which the audience perceives the communicator as expert and trustworthy. It should be noted that the perception of expertise and trustworthiness is what makes the difference. In addition to credibility, communicator attractiveness and similarity to the audience also play a role in determining the degree of influence of the communicator.

144. Several factors influence attitudes and play a role in changing people's minds. These factors are (1) a logical, comprehensible message; (2) listeners' confidence in their own thoughts about the message; (3) vivid examples that connect personal experience with the attitudinal objects; and (4) the order of presentation of elements of the argument or arguments.

145. Psychological reactance theory explains the "reverse psychology" phenomenon. According to this theory, a negative state called reactance arises when people who value thinking and acting freely believe that their freedoms are threatened. The state of reactance feels unpleasant and uncomfortable, and motivates people to reassert their freedom somehow. This explains the reverse psychology phenomenon, where people respond to what seems like an obvious attempt to control their behavior by doing the exact opposite. According to reactance theory, people do this in order to reassert their freedom and dispel the unpleasant state of reactance.

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Chap_08_3e 146. The source of a message is the individual or group communicating. Multiple source-related factors affect the extent to which a message persuades. To begin, it helps if the source is seen as an expert and trustworthy, in which case they are said to have source credibility. What matters is the perception of expertise and trustworthiness. This is evident in advertisers' choices of spokespeople for products: they are more likely to use an actor who plays a doctor on television than they are to use a real doctor. Individuals processing the message by the peripheral route attend mainly to cues such as the actor's appearance and manner of speech. For persuasion by the peripheral route it makes sense to choose a spokesperson who "looks the part" and is likeable and physically attractive, and who can sound confident and knowledgeable.

People relying on the central route to process the message would not be persuaded by peripheral cues but would instead attend to arguments presented by real experts. Here source factors like credentials matter, but a centralroute listener might also take into account the source's possible bias. A source taking a stance opposed to their self-interest can reasonably be thought to be presenting an unbiased argument—although of course the possibility that the lack of bias is a deliberate pose should be kept in mind.

It also matters whether the communicator seems similar to the audience. However, how it matters depends on the nature of the topic. Where subjective preferences are concerned and there is no objective right or wrong answer, people are more influenced by speakers who seem like them. But where objective facts are at issue, people are sometimes more persuaded by speakers who are different from them.

Student answers will vary on the examples but may include Marcia Gay Harden from the medical show Code Black talking about the health benefits of one brand of yogurt over another.

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Chap_08_3e 147. Persuasive messages are more effective if they get people to associate a position or a product with positive emotions. One way to evoke positive feelings in the audience is through repetition. The repetition can increase accessibility of the message, and if the message is complex then people can dissect it over time. Additionally, repetition can increase people's receptiveness to what is often referred to as the mere exposure effect: repeated exposure to any stimulus makes it more familiar, and people tend to prefer the familiar to the unfamiliar.

Classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and social learning are all forms of learning that can associate positive feelings with the attitudinal object. In an example of classical conditioning, Razran showed participants slogans such as "Workers of the world, unite." The slogans were repeatedly paired with a positive stimulus, namely a free lunch; a negative stimulus, namely unpleasant odors; or a neutral environment. More positive attitudes were formed toward the slogans when they were paired with the free lunch. A similar study by Janis and colleagues led to the same conclusion, as did later studies using pleasant music and beautiful scenery. An example of operant conditioning would be rewarding people who respond favorably to the message. The reward might take the form of praise for acting virtuously; this is the premise behind ad campaigns telling consumers that a portion of the profits from their purchases will go to charity. An example of social learning would be seeing someone else, possibly an actor in a commercial, receive a reward for acting as the message urges.

Some messages do seek to arouse negative emotions, such as fear. These messages often have to do with healthrelated behaviors such as not smoking, avoiding the sun, and getting prostate exams. The effectiveness of the fear-based approach compared with a more upbeat one varies. In general, people are more likely to be persuaded and comply with a message that frames a health behavior in gain-related terms ("Stay healthy") when the behavior involves prevention of low-level risk. By contrast, a message phrased in terms of avoiding loss ("Don't wait until it's too late!") can be more effective when the behavior involves monitoring for already-existing problems or avoidance of a grave risk. With fear-based appeals, however, specific information on how to respond needs to be provided. Leventhal and colleagues gave study participants a fear-arousing message about the danger of tetanus and/or instruction on how to get the shot. The group that received both the message and the detailed instructions was more likely to get the shot than either of the other groups.

148. Psychological reactance theory states that people value their freedom of thought, feeling, and action. When they perceive that freedom to be threatened, they experience a discomfort called reactance and respond by trying to protect or restore their freedom. The severity of the reaction depends on how important the freedom is to the person and how strong the threat is. This is the basis of the forbidden fruit effect, by which a prohibition against an action makes the action more attractive.

In a study demonstrating psychological reactance, Brehm and colleagues had participants rate some sample music recordings and then invited them to choose a record as a free gift. One group could choose any record they wanted, while the other group were told that their third-rated record selection was unavailable (restricted choice condition). As a follow-up, all the participants were asked to once again indicate their ratings of the samples.

More participants in the restricted choice group increased their ratings of the denied selection than participants in the free-choice group did.

Psychological reactance is to some extent culturally dependent. People in individualistic cultures display stronger reactance when their personal freedoms are threatened than people in collectivistic cultures do.

Student answers will vary on the real-life applications. Real-life situations may include parents not wanting their daughter to date a particular person, laws requiring motorcycle helmets or seatbelts, not being able to rent adult materials, or being told to disregard a piece of evidence while on a jury.

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Chap_08_3e 149. Regulatory focus theory distinguishes between a promotion-focused regulatory orientation and a preventionfocused regulatory orientation. A promotion focus is a tendency to organize one's thoughts and behavior to promote positive outcomes, whereas a prevention focus is a tendency to organize one's thoughts and behavior to avoid negative outcomes. For someone with a promotion focus, efforts to get good grades would be driven by a desire to, say, "be successful and achieve something in life." For someone with a prevention focus, on the other hand, efforts to get good grades would be prompted by a desire "not to flunk out and end up on the street." A teacher trying to persuade a student to study harder will have more success if the teacher is able to tailor the argument to the student's focus.

150. Balance theory proposes that the motivation to maintain consistency among one's thoughts colors how people form new attitudes and can also drive them to change existing attitudes. Student examples may vary. In the text, an initial dislike of ballroom dancing is moderated by the fact that a friend likes ballroom dancing.

151. John has high self-presentational concerns, which are one of several factors that can weaken the connection between attitudes and behavior. John will try to keep his racist attitudes from showing up in his behavior, as much as he can, in order to maintain a favorable image in the eyes of his colleagues. He is likely to be successful, so long as his attitudes aren't too strong nor too accessible (always on his mind), and so long as he isn't put in a situation designed to foil his cover-up efforts (such as a bogus pipeline psychology experiment).

152. Product placement refers to the insertion of consumer products into TV shows and movies (such as the fictionalized Larry David driving a BMW in his show Curb Your Enthusiasm). This can influence attitudes in multiple ways, including the following: (1) viewers form positive associations with the placed products as they see them being used by characters they like, in the context of movies and TV shows they enjoy; (2) through processes of narrative transportation, viewers can become psychologically immersed in fictional stories and take on the mannerisms and attitudes of characters they identify with, extending to their preferences for the placed consumer products; and (3) viewers are exposed to placed products in a subtle fashion, so that many viewers don't realize they are a form of advertising and hence are not making any active efforts to resist persuasion, allowing positive attitudes toward placed products to form.

153. A one-sided message only gives the arguments in favor of the position one is advocating. A two-sided message gives both the arguments for and the arguments against the position and then attempts to answer the arguments against. The major factor determining which type of message will be more effective is the audience's initial attitude. If the audience is inclined to agree with the position being argued for, then a one-sided message is more persuasive. Arguments against the position only distract. But if the audience is inclined to disagree with the position, then a two-sided message will be more effective, because it speaks to concerns that are probably already on the audience's mind.

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Chap_08_3e 154. According to the elaboration likelihood model, use of the central versus peripheral routes to persuasion depends on whether people have the motivation and the ability to think actively about a persuasive message. Because central-route processing is more difficult and cognitively demanding than peripheral-route processing, people will only engage in central-route processing if they are motivated and able to do so.

As such, when considering the situations in which central-route processing is more likely, these will be situations in which people's motivation and ability to think are supported—or at least not disrupted or interfered with. In situations where distractions are present, where time is limited, or where the stakes are low, people's motivation and ability to think are diminished, and peripheral-route processing thus becomes more likely.

When considering the sort of individuals who are more apt to engage in central- versus peripheral-route processing, we can think about the motivation and ability to think as individual difference variables. When it comes to the motivation to think, the construct of need for cognition refers to a general-level desire or preference for deep, analytical thinking. Because individuals high in NFC enjoy thinking more, they will be more motivated to engage in central-route processing overall. By contrast, lower-NFC individuals who might not enjoy effortful thinking as much would be more apt to rely on peripheral-route processing. We can also think about the motivation to think in a more fine-grained, domain-specific manner—how interested or invested is the individual in specific topics or issues? Individuals will be more motivated to use the central route to process persuasive messages if they have a particular interest or stake in the topic that the message deals with. In contrast, individuals who do not care as much about the topic in question will be more likely to process the message using the peripheral route.

With respect to individual differences in the ability to think, the concept of intelligence is relevant. More intelligent individuals will be more likely to rely on the central route, to the extent that they are better able to think analytically. Less intelligent individuals, who have a harder time with this type of thinking, are more likely to use the peripheral route. Beyond the idea of intelligence as raw mental ability, individual differences in education and skills or strategies may also matter. More highly educated individuals, and those who have more practice evaluating messages and arguments, will also be more able to engage in central-route processing.

155. Audiences tend to be persuaded more by sources who are similar to themselves when it comes to matters of subjective preference or opinion (e.g., whether the current mayor is doing a good job). In contrast, audiences tend to be persuaded more by sources who are dissimilar to themselves when it comes to matters of objective fact (e.g., how long the current mayor has been in office).

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Chap_08_3e 156. Petty and Cacioppo's ELM model describes two routes that a persuasive message can take to influence people.

These two routes are the central and the peripheral route to persuasion. The central route is effortful processing that focuses on the strength of the arguments. The peripheral route is effortless, automatic processing that relies on peripheral cues. Which route is taken depends on both the person's motivation and their ability to think critically about the arguments presented.

People who are highly motivated to think carefully about a particular topic tend to focus more attention on the quality of the argument. Often people are motivated because the message is relevant to their goals and values or to their future plans. A study by Petty and colleagues supports this assertion. Participants were told that as reward for their participation in a study about consumer attitudes, at the end they would get to choose a product to keep.

One group of participants were told that they could choose from different brands of razor blades, while the other group was promised a choice from different brands of toothpaste. All participants were exposed to an ad for Edge razor blades during the course of the study. This was relevant to the group who would choose razor blades and not relevant for the group choosing toothpaste. Half the participants read strong arguments for Edge razor blades and the other half read weak arguments. Also, one version of each ad showed an attractive celebrity, while the other version showed "normal" people. The results showed that individuals in the relevant condition (those choosing razor blades) relied more heavily on the central route and did not pay attention to the attractive spokesperson—whether these people liked Edge depended on the strength of the arguments. Participants expecting to choose toothpaste, on the other hand, were influenced mainly by peripheral cues—they liked Edge if there was an attractive celebrity endorsing that product.

A person's ability to think about the arguments also influences the route to persuasion. That is, people may be motivated but unable to think about the arguments for a variety of reasons. For example, they may be tired, hungry, or distracted. Petty and colleagues had study participants listen to a recorded message arguing for a tuition cut at their university. One group heard strong arguments for cutting tuition, whereas the other group heard weak arguments. While listening to the message, both groups also performed a task that generated varying levels of distraction. Participants who were only mildly distracted agreed with the tuition cut if they heard strong arguments. The more highly distracted participants saw the tuition cut as a good idea, regardless of the strength of the arguments. This demonstrated that when people are distracted, they do not focus their cognitive resources on the arguments and instead are likely to rely on a peripheral-route shortcut such as "Tuition cuts would save students money, and saving money is good."

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Chap_08_3e 157. People may resist persuasion if they feel that their personal freedom is under attack. Especially in individualistic cultures, people value the ability to choose what to do, and a loss of that freedom prepares them to try and find ways to keep that freedom. Psychological reactance theory states that people value thinking and acting freely; in situations that threaten freedom, there is an increase in discomfort that makes people want to restore that freedom. If you frame that in cognitive dissonance terms, individuals want to reduce the dissonance by doing what they want. How much people resist attempts to remove their freedom depends on how important that freedom is to us and how forceful the threat.

Another source of resistance to persuasion is attitude inoculation, which consists of exposing people to weak forms of a persuasive argument in order to prepare them to resist stronger versions of the argument later on.

Inoculation works better when people play an active role in generating their own counterarguments. Forewarned is forearmed is the motto of this way of strengthening resistance to persuasion.

Some persuasive appeals are more legitimate than others. Some persuasion is deceptive and some is not. Sagarin and colleagues trained half of their study participants to be suspicious of advertisers' manipulations. The other half of the participants were not given any training. All subjects were presented with persuasive appeals from legitimate and non-legitimate sources and asked to indicate agreement with the position. Participants given the training were more resistant to appeals from non-legitimate authority and were more likely to be persuaded by legitimate authority.

Finally, a person's physical and psychological energy levels matter. People are better able to resist persuasion when they are rested than when they are sleepy, physically depleted, or under psychological stress.

158. The primacy effect occurs when the information that is presented first carries the most impact. It is most likely to occur when there is little delay between two messages and there is a considerable delay between the end of the second message and the audience's response. The recency effect occurs when the information that is presented last carries the most impact. It is most likely to occur if there is a time delay separating two messages and if the audience makes up its mind immediately following the second message.

159. When people are highly distracted, they are more likely to use the peripheral route of persuasion and are less likely to focus their attention on the arguments. Many things can distract attention, for example, environmental stimuli such as noise, internal sensations of hunger or restlessness, and tasks that add to a person's cognitive load.

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Chap_08_3e 160. Petty and Cacioppo's ELM model describes two routes that persuasive messages can take to influence people.

These two routes are the central and the peripheral route to persuasion. The route that is taken depends on both the person's motivation and their ability or desire to critically think about the information presented.

The central route is taken when people make the effort to think critically about the information that is central to the issue in question. This information is called the argument. The strength of the argument determines whether the persuasive message is accepted. The central route is used when a person is highly motivated and has the ability to process the argument. People tend to be highly motivated when the message is relevant to their goals and commitments. Then they are willing to take the time to rehearse and scrutinize the argument.

Attitudes formed by the central route are typically stronger and last longer than attitudes formed via the peripheral route. The peripheral route is taken when people are not able or not willing to critically think about the information presented. Then they are influenced not by the strength of the argument but by peripheral cues. Here processing is effortless and automatic. Peripheral cues can include the attractiveness of the speaker, and how fast and how long they talk. Another peripheral cue is the communicator's perceived expertise and trustworthiness (not to be confused with the communicator's actual expertise and trustworthiness). Listeners typically take the peripheral route if they are not very motivated to listen closely or lack the ability to follow and analyze the argument.

An anti-smoking campaign would need to consider many factors. To persuade via the central route, the campaign would need to present logical arguments, based on high-quality information, and ideally those arguments would need to reach teens when they were in a receptive frame of mind rather than being distracted or tired. To persuade via the peripheral route, it would be useful to have an attractive communicator who is fairly young telling teens not to smoke. The current "favorite" actor and actress would be good to use in this situation. This is very powerful when the teens are concerned with their self-image, as most teens are, because they will focus on the attractiveness of the speaker. If trying to appeal to teens, the surgeon general speaking on the dangers of smoking more than likely will not work!

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Chap_08_3e 161. People differ in their susceptibility to persuasion. The three main determinants are age, self-esteem, and education and intelligence. Emerging adults (18 to 25 years of age) are more likely to be influenced, because they are still in the process of forming their attitudes. Individuals in their late twenties tend to be better able to resist persuasive attempts, because their attitudes are more completely formed. Individuals with low self-esteem are less confident and are more easily persuaded than individuals with high self-esteem, who tend to be more confident in themselves, their abilities, and therefore their attitudes. And individuals who are not very educated or have low levels of intelligence are more likely to be persuaded than educated and intelligent people, who, like those with high self-esteem, are confident in their ability to think critically and form their own opinions.

What might be called mental temperament matters, as well. Some people have a high need for cognition, meaning a need to think about things critically and analytically (the central route). This is not the same thing as education or even intelligence, although they probably tend to go together. People with a high need for cognition tend to be less persuadable than those with a low need for cognition, as Cacioppo and colleagues found in a study. The participants were first assessed for their need for cognition and were then asked to read an editorial supposedly written by a journalism student, stating that all seniors should be required to pass a hard, comprehensive exam to graduate. The message had obvious relevance for all of the participants. Half of the participants read an article with strong arguments favoring the exam and half read an article with weak arguments favoring the exam.

Participants reading the strong arguments tended to favor the exam more than participants reading the weak arguments, but participants with a high need for cognition had more extreme reactions than the rest.

Other aspects of temperament that matter for persuasion are degree of self-monitoring and regulatory focus.

People who are high in self-monitoring adapt their behavior to control their social image. Such people are more easily persuaded by a message promising success in social self-presentation than people who are low in selfmonitoring. Regulatory focus refers to an orientation either toward growth (promotion of new skills and other lifeimproving qualities and experiences) or toward security (protection against harm and other life setbacks). A message that is tailored to the audience's regulatory focus is more likely to persuade than one that is not regulatory. What is really clear is that not everything is equally persuasive to everyone. Characteristics of the audience, message, and communicator all interact to influence persuasion.

162. The key factors in determining the route taken in the elaboration likelihood model (ELM) are the person's motivation and their ability to think deeply about the message. If motivation and ability are both high, then the central route is typically taken. If the person is not motivated or doesn't have the ability to process the message, then the peripheral route is typically taken.

163. According to the theory of planned behavior, behavior is driven by intentions. So in order to actually go on his road trip, George will need to form a behavioral intention to do so. The theory of planned behavior specifies that behavioral intentions are produced by the interaction of three factors: (1) the person's attitudes, (2) the person's subjective norms (i.e., their perceptions of how favorably others would view the action), and (3) the person's perceived behavioral control (i.e., the degree to which they see themselves as able to actually perform the action).

So in order for George to form a behavioral intention to take his road trip, he will have to: (1) have a favorable attitude toward going on the trip; (2) believe that others, such as his family, friends, and colleagues, will be okay with him going on the trip; and (3) have confidence in his ability to actually make the trip happen. If these three conditions are satisfied, George should form a strong behavioral intention to take the trip, which he will follow through on barring unforeseen circumstances.

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Chap_09_3e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. According to social facilitation theory, the presence of others will _____ performance on difficult tasks and _____ performance on simple tasks. a. improve; impair b. impair; improve c. improve; not affect d. not affect; improve 2. Lisa is frustrated because she feels her group is disadvantaged and that she has no chance of advancing herself under the current system. However, she believes the system is unstable and can be changed. Lisa is likely to engage in: a. collective action. b. individual mobility. c. social loafing. d. social dominance.

3. Research shows that killing and torturing captives is more common in cultures in which warriors tend to hide their identities. This research provides support for the idea of: a. ingroup bias. b. social facilitation. c. social loafing. d. deindividuation.

4. Harvey Milk was an inspiring and influential leader for the gay rights movement, who helped his supporters feel united in their antidiscrimination mission. He was a _____ leader. a. task-oriented b. relationship-oriented c. charismatic d. transactional 5. Lately, Kaprice has been feeling down on herself. According to social identity theory, how might Kaprice boost her self-esteem? a. by engaging in an activity that she both enjoys and is good at b. by identifying herself with a high-status group c. by criticizing and mocking members of a high-status group d. by spending some time scrolling through her social media feeds

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Chap_09_3e 6. Which statement below is the best explanation for why fairness norms seem to be stronger in large-scale industrial societies than in small-scale agrarian societies? a. Large-scale societies tend to embrace modern, progressive values, and fairness is one of the values that is most central to modern political thought. b. Large-scale societies were established by human subpopulations that had stronger genetic predispositions toward fairness to begin with. c. Large-scale societies generally have democratic governments, and fairness norms help ensure that this model of government functions correctly. d. Large-scale societies require that people trust in strangers for the society to function, and strong fairness norms support people in doing this.

7. Phil does not work as hard as he could when he is working with others. Phil might be engaging in: a. social loafing. b. terror management. c. social facilitation. d. ingroup bias.

8. Which of the following is the best explanation of the claim that the human tendency to form groups evolved through natural selection? a. Among our human ancestors, individuals with traits conducive to group living were more likely to survive and reproduce than those without these traits. b. Among our human ancestors, the individuals who could form groups were able to band together and kill off those with more solitary tendencies. c. Our human ancestors developed tendencies to form groups as part of the inevitable growth in complexity that occurs over time in any biological species. d. Our human ancestors recognized the value of cooperative group-based living, and only allowed select individuals who did well in group life to reproduce.

9. All of the following decrease social loafing EXCEPT which one? a. feeling personally accountable b. knowing others will put forth a lot of effort c. feeling like the task is personally meaningless d. feeling indispensable to the project 10. When people are reminded of their mortality, they tend to: a. perceive their ingroups as more cohesive. b. distance themselves from low-status ingroups. c. feel more connected to others, including outgroups. d. experience a decrease in their self-esteem.

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Chap_09_3e 11. According to _____, mortality concerns will increase disidentification with a group if the group no longer provides meaning and is perceived as temporary. a. system justification theory b. social identity theory c. social dominance theory d. terror management theory 12. Regina acts as the de facto leader of her friend group. She shames and humiliates anyone who disagrees with her or criticizes her in any way. How does this suppression of dissent contribute to groupthink? a. Group members will become hesitant to speak their minds, which creates the impression within the group that everyone is on board with whatever is happening. b. By displaying social power in this way, the group leader projects strength and inspires greater loyalty among the subordinate group members. c. If they are punished like this repeatedly, dissenting group members eventually remove themselves from the group, and only the loyal group members remain. d. By making a social comparison to the punished dissenter, the non-dissenters feel good about being loyal group members, which reinforces their group identification.

13. Complementary stereotypes are: a. positive stereotypes about a group that has been historically marginalized. b. negative stereotypes about a group. c. a mix of positive and negative stereotypes ascribed to a group to help justify the status quo. d. positive stereotypes about a group that serve to counter negative stereotypes.

14. Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the Prisoner's Dilemma? a. A player can secure the best possible individual outcome for themselves by cooperating. b. A player cannot secure the best possible individual outcome for themselves by cooperating. c. The best possible collective outcome for both players requires that both choose to cooperate. d. A player will get the worst possible outcome if they cooperate and the other player defects.

15. Groupthink is more likely to happen when a group is highly: a. cohesive. b. task-oriented. c. performance-oriented. d. motivated.

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Chap_09_3e 16. Why do small-scale agrarian societies have relatively weak fairness norms? a. These societies tend to have rigid social hierarchies or caste systems, so their members are accustomed to inequality and don't have an expectation of fairness. b. Because the people in a small-scale society know each other (by reputation if not personally), they deal with each other on a case-by-case basis and don't rely on a general fairness norm. c. The members of small-scale societies do not own much wealth or property, so large inequalities are rare and as a result people are generally not concerned with issues of fairness. d. These societies tend to follow traditional values and practices, so modern values like fairness and equality are usually not well represented in their customs.

17. Research suggests that when group members think about themselves as individuals prior to group discussions: a. group polarization is increased. b. group polarization is decreased. c. groupthink is increased. d. ingroup bias is increased.

18. In the _____ game Jax is assigned the role of the decider. He has a sum of money that he can decide either to keep to himself or to divide with another person. a. ultimatum b. public goods c. dictator d. commons 19. The persuasive arguments theory explains group polarization via the concept of _____, while social comparison theory explains group polarization via the concept of _____. a. deindividuation; ingroup bias b. informational influence; normative influence c. normative influence; informational influence d. ingroup bias; deindividuation

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Chap_09_3e 20. Nicole passes a homeless man on the street, and finds herself wondering how he got there. Which of the following would be a system-justifying explanation for the man's homelessness? a. He was laid off during a recent economic crisis through no fault of his own, and just couldn't afford to keep his home without a steady income. b. He grew up poor, without reliable access to food and shelter, let alone education or other opportunities, so he is a victim of the intergenerational cycle of poverty. c. He is either a dangerous criminal or mentally ill, and either way he is essentially incapable of making any valuable contributions to society. d. He was in the military from age 18, and just didn't receive enough support to transition successfully to civilian life after being discharged.

21. Which of the following is NOT a way in which belonging to a group reduces uncertainty? a. reinforcing people's faith in their cultural worldview b. prescribing norms c. prescribing laws d. providing roles 22. _____ represents efforts by groups to resist and change the status quo in the service of group goals. a. System justification b. Social dominance orientation c. Individual mobility d. Collective action 23. According to the evolutionary perspective, people belong to groups because: a. groups increase self-esteem. b. groups provide feelings of certainty. c. groups are central to the development and survival of our species. d. groups promote entitativity.

24. Which of the following groups features both a common bond and a common identity? a. people who consider themselves fans of the St. Louis Cardinals b. survivors of the plane crash known as the "Miracle on the Hudson" c. members of a commune who live, work, and worship together daily d. investors who all own shares of the same companies' stock 25. Social dominance theory proposes that: a. people tend to see others as equal. b. people strive to individuate themselves from others. c. people do not like to be dominated. d. people tend to endorse beliefs that legitimatize social hierarchy.

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Chap_09_3e 26. Limited research shows that effective leaders tend to be high in all of the following traits EXCEPT which one? a. openness to new experiences b. conscientiousness c. agreeableness d. extraversion 27. _____ and _____ are features of groups that make them seem more cohesive. a. Entitativity; common bond b. Common bond; common identity c. Entitativity; common identity d. Uncertainty; common identity 28. According to system justification theory, how do group-based stereotypes function to legitimize the status quo? a. Stereotypes support explanations for why low- and high-status groups "deserve" their positions within the social hierarchy. b. High-status groups popularize negative stereotypes about low-status groups to keep them in subordinate positions in the social hierarchy. c. Stereotypes distract and divide low-status groups, preventing them from banding together to demand social change. d. Negative stereotypes harm the self-esteem of members of low-status groups, draining their motivation to change the social order.

29. When interacting with friends, people from collectivist cultures: a. cooperate more than people from individualistic cultures. b. cooperate less than people from individualistic cultures. c. cooperate about the same as people from individualistic cultures. d. do not cooperate at all.

30. All of the following strategies help improve group decision making EXCEPT which one? a. increasing group diversity b. suppressing dissent within the group c. decreasing the emphasis on group cohesiveness d. encouraging individuality

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Chap_09_3e 31. Majed and Rejan are playing the Prisoner's Dilemma. On the last turn, Majed defected against Rejan, who had chosen to cooperate. On this turn, Rejan defects against Majed to get even with him for the last turn.

What kind of strategy is Rejan using? a. a cooperative strategy b. a tit-for-tat strategy c. a self-interested strategy d. Rejan has no strategy.

32. Group discussion is more likely to result in polarized positions when group members are highly motivated to present themselves positively to other group members. This phenomenon is explained by: a. terror management theory. b. social comparison theory. c. social identity theory. d. system justification theory.

33. Sharing the same gender or race contributes to: a. a common bond. b. a common identity. c. a collective. d. communal sharing.

34. The presence of other people will increase performance for: a. Alisha on her first day on the job, when learning a task in front of her team. b. Tom, who is washing his bike in front of his neighbors. c. Lola Bea, who is learning new dance moves as her team watches. d. Alan, who is learning a difficult basketball maneuver with his team.

35. Research by Hogg and colleagues (2007) found that, when participants were made to feel uncertain: a. they expressed greater group identification, but only with a highly entitative group. b. they expressed greater group identification, regardless of the group's entitativity. c. they expressed lower group identification, but only with a highly entitative group. d. their group identification was unchanged, regardless of the group's entitativity.

36. Making individuals feel personally responsible for any decision a group makes: a. increases ingroup bias. b. decreases system justification. c. decreases groupthink. d. increases uncertainty.

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Chap_09_3e 37. _____ is the theory that negative stereotypes get attached to groups partly because they help to explain and justify why some individuals are more advantaged than others. a. Terror management theory b. Social identity theory c. System justification theory d. Social dominance theory 38. The number one reason that people engage in social loafing is: a. arousal due to the presence of others. b. not feeling their efforts are important for group outcomes. c. feeling less accountable. d. belief that others will hold back their efforts.

39. Which of the following would NOT be an effective way to reduce groupthink? a. building regular "dissent sessions" into the group's decision-making process b. inviting outsiders with different backgrounds to share their views with the group c. making each group member feel individually responsible for the group's decisions d. verbally reminding group members of the importance of being objective 40. _____ is at the heart of making cooperation succeed. a. Success b. Trust c. Healthy completion d. Risky behavior 41. _____ is the theory that disadvantaged groups are less aware of their disadvantage if they compare their outcomes only with those of other groups that are similarly deprived. a. System justification theory b. Relative deprivation theory c. Terror management theory d. Social dominance theory 42. Wong and Hong (2005) found that when Chinese Americans were primed to think about their Chinese identity, they became: a. more cooperative when playing with friends and strangers. b. more cooperative when playing with strangers but not with friends. c. more cooperative when playing with friends but not with strangers. d. less cooperative when playing with friends and strangers.

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Chap_09_3e 43. The _____ theory proposes that group identities are an important part of self-definition and self-esteem. a. social dominance b. system justification c. social identity d. ingroup bias 44. The most effective leaders: a. are high in extraversion and conscientiousness. b. focus on equity and fairness. c. focus on the group goals. d. focus on the needs of group members.

45. Shi is moderately religious, but when she spent time discussing religion with other moderately religious people, her religious beliefs intensified. This example illustrates: a. social loafing. b. social facilitation. c. deindividuation. d. group polarization.

46. Which of the following is an example of a conjunctive task? a. a footrace, where each competing team is represented by three runners, and the winner is simply the team with the fastest runner b. a smartphone assembly line, where each worker can only begin installing a part once the worker before them has finished their job and passed the phone along c. a school assignment, where each project group must turn in a finished research paper and each individual group member's contributions are not assessed d. a criminal investigation, where detectives share all of the evidence they gather, and take turns handling different parts of the investigation 47. Karen sends her children to the local public school, but for years she has exploited legal loopholes to avoid paying the property taxes that support the school district. Karen is: a. using a tit-for-tat strategy. b. facing the commons dilemma. c. a free rider. d. a prosocial actor.

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Chap_09_3e 48. When women are reminded of their mortality and then primed to think of negative stereotypes of women, such as not being good in math: a. they tend to identify with the group even more. b. they tend to disidentify with the group. c. they do not change feelings toward the group. d. they tend to disregard the stereotype, focus on a positive feature, and identify with the group.

49. The dominant response is the response that: a. occurs when people cooperate. b. occurs when people compete. c. is most likely when people are rewarded for competition. d. is most likely for a person in a particular task.

50. The opposite of heightened self-awareness is: a. ingroup bias. b. social facilitation. c. social loafing. d. deindividuation.

51. According to _____, the presence of others will improve performance on simple tasks. a. social facilitation theory b. system justification theory c. social identity theory d. relative depravation theory 52. The most effective leadership style is: a. a task-oriented leadership style. b. a relationship-oriented leadership style. c. a charismatic leadership style. d. different depending on the situation.

53. Social dilemmas result when people have to: a. weigh their own self-interest against a prosocial goal. b. choose one of two competing groups to side with. c. choose between two uncertain goals. d. decide whether to harm one person to help many people.

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Chap_09_3e 54. When people experience deindividuation, they are: a. more likely to be guided by their own personal values and less likely to conform to others' behavior. b. more likely to conform to the behavior of those around them, but only if it aligns with their personal values. c. more likely to conform to the behavior of those around them, even if it goes against their personal values and prevailing social norms. d. more likely to conform to the behavior of those around them, but only if it aligns with prevailing social norms.

55. People are more likely to take collective action for all the following reasons EXCEPT which one? a. They see the system as illegitimate. b. They see the system as unstable. c. They see little opportunity to change the system by themselves. d. They feel isolated from other ingroup members.

56. Groupthink can compromise decision making by: a. increasing the likelihood of social loafing. b. making group members less willing to consider alternative perspectives. c. decreasing the fear of death, leading to recklessness. d. making the group worry too much about the possible risks of their actions.

57. Which of the following observations from research on social dilemmas is NOT consistent with people valuing fairness? a. "Deciders" in ultimatum games and "dictators" in dictator games often offer to split the money relatively equally with the other player, even though they could give it all to themselves. b. "Recipients" in ultimatum games tend to reject offers that are too unequal and favor the "decider" too much, even though this results in the "recipient" getting nothing. c. When facing commons dilemmas or public goods dilemmas, some people over-consume scarce resources and benefit from public goods without contributing to their maintenance. d. Players in Prisoner's Dilemmas often choose to treat their partner as their partner treated them on the last turn (i.e., cooperate if their partner cooperated, and defect if their partner defected).

58. In _____ tasks, the most skilled members of the group determine the outcome. a. competitive b. cooperative c. disjunctive d. conjunctive

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Chap_09_3e 59. At the center of the Prisoner's Dilemma is: a. trust. b. self-esteem. c. fear of death. d. ingroup bias.

60. Perceiving more trust coming from others: a. increases activation in the anterior insula. b. decreases activation in the anterior insula. c. increases oxytocin. d. decreases oxytocin.

61. Stoner (1961) had participants read a scenario, which described a man deciding between taking a new highpaying job that might not last long (risky condition) or keeping his current low-paying but stable job (conservative condition). After reading the scenario, participants were asked how they personally would decide, then discussed the scenario in groups and came to a joint decision. The results indicated: a. the group made a riskier decision. b. the group made a more conservative decision. c. the group failed to reach a decision. d. social loafing occurred and no decision was reached.

62. Which of the following statements about deindividuation is NOT true? a. Overstimulation can contribute to deindividuation. b. When physically aroused, people are more likely to experience deindividuation. c. Deindividuation always leads to destructive behavior. d. Feelings of anonymity contribute to deindividuation.

63. Which of the following is NOT a reason why other people create arousal in us? a. distraction b. personality c. mere presence d. fear of evaluation 64. A shared threat: a. decreases perception of a common identity. b. increases perception of a common identity. c. has no influence on perception of a common identity. d. decreases perceptions of a common bond.

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Chap_09_3e 65. Which of the following does NOT contribute to deindividuation? a. Concealing one's identity, such as by wearing a mask or disguise. b. Dressing similarly to others, such as by wearing a uniform. c. Being in the midst of a large, noisy, moving crowd. d. Maintaining a high level of self-awareness.

66. When group tasks are _____, the _____ skilled members of the group make the greatest effort. a. conjunctive; least b. disjunctive; least c. conjunctive; most d. unfair; least 67. Zajonc and his colleagues used cockroaches to study social facilitation. When other roaches were present the roaches would run faster down a straightaway to escape a bright light. They took longer in the presence of other roaches when they had to run a maze to escape light. This research supports the idea that: a. the roaches experienced evaluation apprehension. b. the presence of other same-species individuals elicits arousal. c. the presence of others impedes the dominant response. d. the presence of others enhances the nondominant response.

68. Which of the following variables has been shown to promote deindividuation? a. high self-awareness b. high self-monitoring c. high cognitive load d. high self-regulation 69. _____ most applies when people are performing in front of others and _____ most applies when people are performing with others. a. Social loafing; social facilitation b. Social facilitation; social loafing c. Social loafing; social bias d. Social bias; social facilitation 70. The commons dilemma involves: a. trust of partners. b. success of both partners. c. competition for scarce resources. d. equity of scarce resources.

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Chap_09_3e 71. Hina says that she is just using a little water for her lawn and it won't violate the drought ban too much. This is an example of the: a. Prisoner's Dilemma. b. public goods dilemma. c. distribution games. d. commons dilemma.

72. Which of the following statements about power is NOT true? a. Power can create feelings of distance between the self and others. b. People in power have an approach motivation. c. Power can increase feelings of empathy. d. Power can contribute to being less generous.

73. All of the following are reasons for social loafing EXCEPT which one? a. arousal due to the presence of others b. not feeling their efforts are important for group outcomes c. feeling less accountable for contributing d. belief that others will hold back their efforts 74. All of the members of a baseball team feel like the team is a very cohesive group. The baseball team is: a. not a real group. b. low in ingroup bias. c. low in entitativity. d. high in entitativity.

75. Social loafing is a tendency to: a. cooperate with others on shared goals. b. exert more effort when performing as part of a group. c. exert less effort when performing as part of a group. d. compete with others on shared goals.

76. Bubba doesn't vote. When asked why, he says he doesn't think his vote will make any difference. This suggests that the main reason Bubba doesn't vote is that he: a. doesn't feel accountable for voting. b. has low expectations for others' contributions. c. doesn't care enough about politics. d. perceives his vote as dispensable.

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Chap_09_3e 77. Yusef is a soccer player who tends to want to be around other soccer players. He would much rather be around others who play soccer than others who play a different sport. This is an example of: a. ingroup bias. b. outgroup homogeneity. c. entitativity. d. uncertainty-identity theory.

78. _____ suggests that people have a general tendency to endorse beliefs that legitimatize a social hierarchy. a. Social identity theory b. Terror management theory c. Social dominance theory d. Social comparison theory 79. What is the basic claim of social identity theory? a. Because people's social identities (i.e., group memberships) form a part of their sense of self, people can maintain their self-esteem by maintaining positive attitudes toward their ingroups. b. Because people are fundamentally troubled by existential anxiety about death, they invest in developing social identities that provide them with a sense of meaning and security. c. Because having clearly defined social identities helps people feel certain about themselves and how to behave, people are motivated to join and identify with groups. d. Because successful group living was crucial to our ancestors' evolutionary success, people are biologically predisposed to develop social identities that guide their behavior.

80. The Bay of Pigs invasion and the Challenger disaster resulted from: a. group polarization. b. deindividuation. c. groupthink. d. social loafing.

81. In distribution games, people tend to: a. give more money away than they keep. b. keep more money than they give away. c. keep all the money. d. distribute money equally.

82. The personality trait that most consistently predicts cooperative and fair decisions is: a. conscientiousness. b. openness. c. agreeableness. d. introversion.

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Chap_09_3e 83. Assume that you are learning a new computer program and several of your classmates gather round to watch you figure out the program. If you are _____ computer programmer, you would _____ because of the arousing effects of them watching. a. an excellent; complete the task quickly b. an excellent; perform poorly on the task c. mediocre; complete the task quickly d. poor; increase your performance 84. Two processes that detract from the quality of group decision making are: a. social loafing and groupthink. b. social loafing and social facilitation. c. deindividuation and group polarization. d. group polarization and groupthink.

85. Which statement below best reflects the current understanding of social facilitation? a. The presence of others heightens arousal, which improves performance across the board. b. The presence of others heightens arousal, which facilitates people's dominant responses. c. The presence of others reduces arousal, which improves performance across the board. d. The presence of others reduces arousal, which facilitates people's dominant responses.

86. _____ is the theory that the presence of others increases a person's dominant response in a performance situation. a. System justification theory b. Social facilitation theory c. Social identity theory d. Terror management theory 87. People are inclined to leave a group when group membership: a. increases self-esteem. b. threatens survival. c. decreases death anxiety. d. reduces uncertainty.

88. What is the main physiological difference between a challenge response and a threat response? a. Heart rate and blood pressure decrease in a challenge response, and increase in a threat response. b. Blood vessels to the limbs and vital organs expand in a challenge response, and constrict in a threat response. c. The pupils of the eyes dilate to become larger in a challenge response, and contract in a threat response. d. Body temperature increases during a challenge response, and decreases during a threat response.

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Chap_09_3e 89. _____ is the tendency toward flawed group decision making when group members are so intent on preserving group harmony that they fail to analyze a problem completely. a. Social identity b. Ingroup bias c. System justification d. Groupthink 90. Designating a group member to play "devil's advocate" or to seek out flaws in the group's reasoning would: a. decrease groupthink. b. increase groupthink. c. increase social loafing. d. decrease social loafing.

91. People who are reminded of their death tend to do all of the following EXCEPT which one? a. view the ingroup more favorably b. view religious organizations more positively c. view the ingroup as higher in cohesion d. view the ingroup as lower in cohesion 92. Adair feels like her efforts will not significantly impact the outcome of her group task. Adair is: a. less likely to engage in social loafing. b. less likely to cooperate. c. more likely to engage in social loafing. d. more likely to cooperate.

93. Free riders are a problem in: a. the Prisoner's Dilemma. b. the dictator game. c. the ultimatum game. d. the commons dilemma.

94. _____ theory proposes that low-status groups may actually show a preference for high-status groups over their own group. a. Social identity b. System justification c. Social comparison d. Social facilitation

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Chap_09_3e 95. _____ is the tendency to lose one's sense of individuality when in a group or crowd. a. Ingroup bias b. Social facilitation c. Social loafing d. Deindividuation 96. If you know that others in your group are going to try hard, then that should: a. decrease your social loafing. b. increase your social loafing. c. increase competition. d. have no effect on group behavior.

97. Jen is a professional ballet dancer. Having an audience watch her dance is most likely to: a. enhance her performance. b. impair her performance if the audience is small. c. have no effect on her performance. d. impair her performance if the audience is large.

98. _____ explains group polarization as being the result of normative social influence. a. Social facilitation theory b. Social comparison theory c. Persuasive arguments theory d. Social loafing theory 99. When assigning group projects, teachers should be sure to monitor individual performance as a way to: a. decrease social loafing. b. increase social loafing. c. decrease ingroup bias. d. decrease cooperation.

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Chap_09_3e 100. Early studies on norm formation found that people settled on moderate judgments after hearing others' judgments. In contrast, studies on group polarization found that people adopted more extreme views after interacting with others. What methodological difference between these two research traditions might explain this difference in findings? a. Unlike participants in the early norm-formation studies, the participants in group-polarization studies had an opportunity to discuss their reasons for their judgments and build consensus. b. The early norm-formation research used correlational methods, whereas the studies of group polarization used experimental methods that afforded researchers greater control. c. The early norm-formation studies primarily activated processes of normative influence, whereas group-polarization studies primarily activated processes of informational influence. d. Unlike participants in the group-polarization studies, participants in the early norm-formation studies were instructed by the experimenter to try to actively resist being influenced by others.

101. Which of the following statements about the evolutionary perspective on of groups is NOT true? a. Being in a group is crucial to the survival of humans as a species. b. People strongly identify with the family and cultural groups they were raised in. c. People accomplish goals when working in groups that they could not accomplish alone. d. Through natural selection people have a learned desire to belong to a group.

102. When talking about her childhood during the Great Depression, Vera says, "We didn't know we were poor, because nobody we knew had any more than we did!" This example is most consistent with: a. system justification theory. b. social dominance theory. c. social identity theory. d. relative deprivation theory.

103. Better group decisions are made when: a. the group becomes highly cohesive. b. the group is composed primarily of like-minded individuals. c. group members share constructive criticism. d. group members focus on maintaining group harmony.

104. A strong feeling of oneness with a group and viewing the group and the individual as one is known as: a. power distance. b. relative depravation. c. ingroup bias. d. identity fusion.

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Chap_09_3e 105. Which of the following is the most important factor in determining whether social facilitation or social loafing is more likely in a given situation? a. the task; whether it is an individual task performed in front of others or a group task performed in collaboration with others b. the relationship between the people involved; whether they are strangers or people who are more familiar with each other c. the group dynamics among the people involved; whether or not they are all members of the same ingroup d. the cultural context; whether it is a primarily individualistic context or a primarily collectivistic one 106. Two friends are playing a game. On each turn, each player must choose to add $10 either to a common pot or to their own account, without knowing the other player's choice. After each turn, the common pot is split 50/50, regardless of who contributed to it. A $5 bonus is added to the common pot on turns when both players contribute to it. This game is most similar to the: a. commons dilemma. b. Prisoner's Dilemma. c. dictator game. d. ultimatum game.

107. Research has shown that, all else being equal, _____ from _____ cultures are the most likely to socially loaf. a. men; Western b. women; Western c. men; East Asian d. women; East Asian 108. Mitch is primarily concerned with his workers' feelings and their interactions with one another. Mitch is a _____ leader. a. task-oriented b. relationship-oriented c. charismatic d. transactional 109. When asked to explain why most positions of power in business and politics are held by men rather than women, Don says, "I guess most women just aren't cut out for those roles." Don's belief is: a. a legitimizing myth. b. an arbitrary set. c. a self-justification. d. a complementary stereotype.

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Chap_09_3e 110. Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the fairness norm? a. The norm for fairness is evident in nonhuman primates like chimpanzees. b. Fairness has evolutionary value, as it improves chances to survive and reproduce. c. Agrarian cultures where interactions are face to face are the most cooperative. d. Large societies rely on the norm of fairness more than small-scale societies.

111. In the social comparison interpretation, group polarization happens because people can present themselves more _____ by taking a slightly more _____ position. a. positively; cautious b. negatively; risky c. positively; extreme d. negatively; conservative 112. A college's board of trustees has tentatively been considering a tuition increase. Following their last meeting, they are now strongly in favor of raising tuition. This is an example of: a. deindividuation. b. group polarization. c. groupthink. d. social loafing.

113. The saying "Not one rich man in ten has a satisfied mind" is an example of: a. a legitimizing myth. b. a complementary stereotype. c. an ingroup bias. d. relative deprivation.

114. Major et al. (2002) had participants role-play applying for a job. White participants who learned that a Latino manager had passed them over in favor of a Latino applicant: a. tended to accept the outcome without much thought, and move on to the next job. b. were more likely to claim discrimination than Latinos passed over by a White manager. c. were less likely to claim discrimination than Latinos passed over by a White manager. d. inferred that they must have been passed over because they were less qualified.

115. Research indicating that feelings of uncertainty increase identification with groups high in entitativity supports: a. social dominance theory. b. terror management theory. c. system justification theory. d. uncertainty-identity theory.

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Chap_09_3e 116. Kumar, sitting on a university committee deliberating over a proposed tuition increase, has made up his mind about the issue. However, during the discussion Kumar thinks that he will see how others feel, because he doesn't want them to think he is too radical. Kumar best illustrates the _____ interpretation of group polarization. a. persuasive arguments b. risky shift c. social comparison d. social loafing 117. Ariel is engaging in a task while her teammates watch. Her heart rate is increasing and her arteries are constricting. From this profile we can infer that Ariel's task is: a. well practiced. b. neither easy or difficult. c. easy. d. difficult.

118. _____ is the degree to which a collection of people feels like a cohesive group. a. Entitativity b. Ingroup bias c. Social facilitation d. Social identity 119. When groupthink happens, people may hold dissenting views but not speak up. This creates the: a. illusion of invulnerability. b. illusion of unanimity. c. illusion of infallibility. d. tragedy of the commons.

120. _____ is a tendency for group discussion to shift group members toward an extreme position. a. Social facilitation b. Group polarization c. Ingroup bias d. Social loafing

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Chap_09_3e 121. After several of his football teammates are arrested for fighting in a local bar, Cedric tells his parents, "I'm nothing like the other guys on the team." Cedric is probably disidentifying himself from the group in this situation in order to: a. maintain his self-esteem. b. reduce uncertainty. c. promote his survival. d. manage death anxiety.

122. Chen feels unclear about his future. According to _____, this feeling of ambiguity might increase Chen's identification with a group. a. uncertainty-identity theory b. terror management theory c. system justification theory d. social dominance theory 123. Derrian is a leader who is more concerned with getting the job done than with the feelings of the workers.

Derrian is a _____ leader. a. task-oriented b. relationship-oriented c. charismatic d. transactional 124. Ingroup bias is: a. a tendency to self-enhance on traits associated with our group identity. b. the need to reduce uncertainty. c. the efforts groups use to resist change. d. a tendency to favor groups we belong to over those we don't.

125. When people feel like a group has violated a core value, they are inclined to: a. increase their commitment to the group. b. ignore this violation. c. disidentify with the group. d. spend more time with the group.

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Chap_09_3e 126. After Elmer is promoted to manager at the fast-food restaurant where he works, he has the employees reorganize the entire kitchen to a new layout that he believes will be more efficient. This example best illustrates: a. how power can create feelings of distance between the self and others. b. how power can create a behavioral avoidance mind-set. c. how power can make people less empathetic to others. d. how power can create a behavioral approach mind-set.

127. Describe the reasons why people leave their groups.

128. Explain the idea of fairness norms. Describe one piece of evidence for an evolutionary basis for fairness norms, and one piece of evidence for a cultural basis for fairness norms.

129. Explain how group identification can help people deal with existential concerns about death.

130. Discuss the reasons why people join and identify with groups. Describe why people may also leave a group.

131. Describe charismatic leaders, task-oriented leaders, and relationship-oriented leaders.

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Chap_09_3e 132. Define collective action, and describe two factors that contribute to people's willingness to engage in collective action on behalf of an ingroup.

133. Imagine you are put in charge of a group at work. You are concerned about the possibility of social loafing.

Describe the strategies that you could take to reduce loafing.

134. Describe social facilitation and reasons that social facilitation occurs.

135. Describe at least two ways to reduce social loafing.

136. Describe three reasons that people join groups.

137. Define social dominance theory. Give an original example of a legitimizing myth that functions to uphold a social hierarchy.

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Chap_09_3e 138. Contrast uncertainty-identity theory and social identity theory. Provide research and examples to support each view.

139. Define entitativity, and describe the features of groups that make them more or less cohesive. Describe at least one problem with group cohesiveness.

140. Describe when and why people will cooperate. Cite research to support your answer.

141. Describe the main proposal of system justification theory.

142. Discuss what makes a leader effective and the types of leaders, and give examples of each.

143. Explain the idea of fairness norms, and describe the evidence for fairness norms that has been observed in distribution games like the ultimatum game and dictator game. Describe one piece of evidence that points to an evolutionary influence on fairness norms, and one piece of evidence that points to a cultural influence on fairness norms.

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Chap_09_3e 144. Describe the ultimatum game and the dictator game, and summarize the evidence for fairness that has emerged from research using these distribution games.

145. Describe how group diversity influences group decision making.

146. Describe two factors that would increase group cohesion.

147. Describe the Prisoner's Dilemma and the commons dilemma.

148. Describe the circumstances under which people will cooperate rather than compete.

149. Describe how belonging to groups reduces uncertainty.

150. Define deindividuation. Describe when people will deindividuate and the outcome of deindividuation.

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Chap_09_3e 151. Discuss uncertainty-identity theory.

152. Charley joined a gang when he was 14. Now, a few years later, Charley worries more and more that his activity with the gang might get him hurt or killed. Although belonging to the gang has helped Charley feel like he has a certain place in the world, as he has grown up it has become harder and harder for Charley to feel good about his identity as a gang member. Analyze this situation in terms of factors that contribute to people leaving groups, and state whether you think Charley is more likely to remain in the gang or leave.

153. Define groupthink. Provide one example of how groupthink might develop in a decision-making setting.

154. Describe the phenomenon of group polarization. Summarize the explanations for this phenomenon put forward by persuasive arguments theory and social comparison theory.

155. Henry was part of a crowd and ended up engaging in criminal behavior that he probably would not have engaged in had he been by himself. Discuss how being in a crowd may have influenced Henry's behavior.

156. Define social dilemmas. Describe one type of resource dilemma and one type of public good dilemma.

Provide an example of a resource dilemma.

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Chap_09_3e 157. Define social facilitation. Describe the reasons social facilitation can occur, citing research. Give an example of how social facilitation can improve or negatively impact performance of a task.

158. Describe social identity theory.

159. Imagine you are part of a group of university administrators discussing whether or not to increase student tuition. Describe how this group may fall prey to groupthink. Provide strategies that you can use to reduce groupthink in this setting.

160. Describe what makes a leader effective.

161. Define social loafing. Provide one research example of social loafing.

162. Describe how power influences empathy.

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Chap_09_3e Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. c 10. a 11. d 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. b 18. a 19. b 20. c 21. c 22. d 23. c 24. c 25. d 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_3e 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. b 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. c 37. c 38. c 39. d 40. b 41. b 42. c 43. c 44. d 45. d 46. b 47. c 48. b 49. d 50. d 51. a 52. d 53. a 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_3e 55. d 56. b 57. c 58. c 59. a 60. c 61. a 62. c 63. b 64. b 65. d 66. a 67. b 68. c 69. b 70. c 71. d 72. c 73. a 74. d 75. c 76. d 77. a 78. c 79. a 80. c 81. d 82. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_3e 83. a 84. d 85. b 86. b 87. b 88. b 89. d 90. a 91. d 92. c 93. d 94. b 95. d 96. a 97. a 98. b 99. a 100. a 101. d 102. d 103. c 104. d 105. a 106. b 107. a 108. b 109. a 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_3e 111. c 112. b 113. b 114. b 115. d 116. c 117. d 118. a 119. b 120. b 121. a 122. a 123. a 124. d 125. c 126. d 127. People tend to leave groups for the same reasons that they joined them: (1) survival—people tend to leave groups when belonging is more dangerous than leaving; (2) reducing uncertainty—people may leave a group when they see it as violating a core value that provided them with certainty; (3) self-esteem—people may leave when the group is no longer viewed positively; and finally, (4) managing mortality concerns—people may leave a group when, because of the group's changed status, composition, or activities, it no longer serves as a buffer against mortality concerns and no longer provides meaning and value.

128. Fairness norms are social norms pertaining to fairness—the expectation within a given social context that people will not be cheated or taken advantage of, nor will some people be afforded special treatment not afforded to others. One piece of evidence that suggests an evolutionary basis for fairness norms is the fact that nonhuman primates have been observed to respond negatively to unequal distributions of resources. One piece of evidence that suggests a cultural basis for fairness norms is the fact that fairness norms are stronger in certain cultural contexts, such as those of large-scale industrial societies, than in other contexts, such as those of smaller-scale agrarian societies.

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Chap_09_3e 129. According to terror management theory and existential psychology more generally, people defend themselves against the fear of mortality by investing in cultural worldviews, which provide a framework for experiencing meaning and achieving self-esteem. Identifying with groups is often a central part of this process, since cultural worldviews are commonly shared within groups (e.g., nations, religious communities, etc.). Identifying with a group can give the individual a sense of being connected to something larger than oneself, and since the group will outlive the individual, this can provide a comforting sense of symbolic immortality.

130. People join groups for a range of reasons. Groups can (1) promote survival and goal achievement, (2) reduce uncertainty, (3) increase self-esteem, and (4) help manage mortality concerns.

(1) From an evolutionary standpoint, social groups are a means for people to acquire and share food, transmit information, raise children, and ward off danger. Thus, belonging to a group increases each member's chances of surviving and reproducing. Groups are also capable of performing tasks that are too big and complex for individuals acting alone—everything from making movies to running prisons.

(2) Uncertainty-identity theory states that people join and identify with groups to reduce negative feelings of uncertainty about themselves and others. This is accomplished because groups reinforce a person's own cultural worldview and prescribe norms and roles for how to behave. Knowing how one is expected to act eliminates uncertainty in social situations.

(3) Social identity theory states that group identity is an important part of defining one's self and a key source of self-esteem. Group membership gives people who possess low self-esteem, because of their perceived lack of accomplishments, a chance to raise their self-esteem by identifying with the group and mentally associating themselves with things the group has accomplished.

(4) According to terror management theory, belonging to a group can mitigate the distress people feel when contemplating their eventual death, because even if the individual dies, the group lives on, and so, in a symbolic sense, some part of the individual will live on.

Interestingly, people leave groups for the same reasons that cause them to join. If membership in a group increases, rather than decreases, one's risk of injury or death (think of gang membership), it is time to leave the group. A group divided over matters of principle or doctrine is no longer a means of reducing uncertainty but a source of it. If a group fails in its goals or does things of which members are ashamed, membership no longer boosts self-esteem. Finally, if the things a group stands for are not things an individual wants to "live on in," it makes sense for the individual to find another group, one that stands for better things.

131. A task-oriented leader focuses on achieving the group's goals or getting the job done in a very practical way. A relationship-oriented leader focuses on fairness, equality, and harmony among the members of the group, and participation by everyone. A charismatic leader has a heroic vision for his followers, inspires them, and takes bold actions to achieve the mission or vision.

132. Collective action refers to various actions aimed at creating social changes from which the group as a whole will benefit. People are more likely to engage in collective action if they perceive the status quo as both illegitimate/unfair and unstable/changeable. People are also more likely to engage in collective action if they perceive group boundaries as impermeable, meaning that they perceive it as impossible to move from a disadvantaged group into a more advantaged group. Related to this, individuals who experience identity fusion with their ingroup, a state of such strong group identification that the boundaries between self and group are blurred, are especially likely to engage in pro-group collective action. Individuals with stronger system-justification motives are also generally less likely to engage in collective action.

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Chap_09_3e 133. Whenever there is a group task, there is a danger of social loafing. Social loafing is a tendency for people to put forth less effort when performing an action as part of a group than when performing solo. There are multiple reasons for this: (1) in a group people feel less individually accountable, i.e., they are apt to feel that the effects of their loafing will not be traced back to them; (2) in a group people fear that others will slack off and leave them in the sucker's position; and (3) accountability aside, in a group people may feel that their efforts are not especially important for the group's results. Which group members feel this way depends on the nature of the task. With "disjunctive tasks," where the capable efforts of just a few group members will be sufficient for success, the lesscapable members tend to loaf. But on "conjunctive tasks," where just one or two slackers can cause the entire group's effort to fail, the least-skilled members work the hardest, while the most-skilled members do just enough to get by.

As the person in charge of my work group, I would take several steps to avoid social loafing. First, I would make people accountable for their actions. I would establish reinforcements or incentives for both the group and the individual. Each individual would be responsible for evaluating their own performance and the performance of others. Therefore, no one can hide behind the group. Second, I would also verbalize the level of effort that I personally planned to put forth. I would also have a colleague in the group do the same. That would establish high expectations for everyone's level of effort. Finally, I would also work hard to make each person feel that their contribution was valuable to the output of the group. I would need to assess the skills of the group members and then try to get my best performers to view the task as disjunctive and my weaker performers to view the task as conjunctive. I would also try to foster group cohesion so that the members of the group valued and liked each other. This could help reduce loafing. And if there were another group working on a similar project, then a little friendly competition may help to alleviate loafing.

134. Social facilitation theory states that the presence of others heightens arousal, which in turn increases a person's tendency toward their dominant response. This is the response that is most likely for that person for whatever task they are performing. If the task is easy or well-practiced, then the arousal tends to enhance performance. On the other hand, if the task is difficult or new, then the arousal tends to impede performance. People's awareness that others are not only watching their performance but also evaluating it can add stress and make successful performance of a task more difficult.

135. Social loafing can be reduced by monitoring people individually and holding them accountable for their effort; by having everyone declare their intended level of effort to the group, to lessen each member's suspicion that the others will be slacking off; and by describing tasks as either disjunctive (to high-skill members, so as to emphasize how much their exceptional contribution will improve the outcome) or conjunctive (to low-skill members, so as to emphasize that without their contribution the group effort could fail). Making the task interesting and rewarding also helps by encouraging group members to feel personally invested. Finally, the opportunity or need to compete with another group can also motivate everyone in a group to give their best.

136. People join groups because group membership can help people survive and achieve their goals; reduce uncertainty by providing people with norms to obey and roles to enact; increase self-esteem, allowing people to share in the group's accomplishments; and help with concerns about mortality by enabling people to be part of something that will continue on after they die.

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Chap_09_3e 137. Social dominance theory states that large societies create hierarchies and people tend to endorse beliefs that legitimize the hierarchies. This occurs when societies grow large enough and division of labor expands beyond fixed roles. Legitimizing myths are explanations, often overly simplistic, for why people occupy the positions they do within the social hierarchy that lend perceived legitimacy to the hierarchy. For example, a belief that people wind up in poverty because they have failed to work hard enough is a legitimizing myth that functions to justify the hierarchy of wealth and social status in our society.

138. Uncertainty-identity theory states that people join and identify with groups to reduce negative or uncertain feelings about themselves and others. This is accomplished because groups reinforce a person's own cultural worldview.

The more people share your worldview, the more secure you are in the feeling that it is correct. Uncertainty is also reduced because groups provide norms and roles for how to behave, i.e., guidelines for how to think and act in various situations. This reduces the pressure of needing to figure out what to do.

To test the hypothesis that people respond to uncertainty about who they are by increasing their commitment to tightly knit groups, Hogg and colleagues set up small groups of study participants who did not know each other.

Half of the participants were told that they and others in their group had responded similarly on a questionnaire, and that their group was unique compared with the other groups. The other half of participants were told that there was no particular similarity within their group, and that their group was much like all the other groups. Thus, the first set of participants perceived high cohesiveness in their group, while the second set did not. Next, half the participants were asked to write an essay about ways they felt uncertain about their identity and their future. The other half of the participants wrote about more certain aspects of their life. All of the participants were then asked how much they identified with their group. The group that was primed by the essay task to feel uncertain reported increased group identification—but only in the case of the supposedly cohesive groups.

Social identity theory states that what people gain from group membership is not so much a reduction in uncertainty or negative feelings as a positive self-definition and a sense of self-esteem. An individual who sees their own life as uninteresting can gain in self-esteem by embracing membership in an admired group as part of their identity. While this sounds like a positive thing, studies have demonstrated some negative effects: people who see their ingroup, and themselves with it, in a positive light often by contrast have negative or stereotyping attitudes toward outgroups. Also, identifying with a successful group in lieu of having accomplishments of one's own to feel good about can make it easier for people to be lazy and not do anything worthwhile with their own lives. The research literature calls this "basking in reflected glory."

139. Entitativity is the degree to which a collection of people feel like a cohesive group. Groups can acquire cohesiveness by several different means. A common bond is the degree to which group members interact with and depend on each other to attain their goals and have their needs met. The common bond may be formed via communal sharing, in which all resources are treated as common property, or via market pricing, which involves bargain-like exchanges of favors. Cohesiveness can also be based on a common identity or a sense of "weness." This common identity may form because of shared attachments, similar characteristics, or support of a common cause or goal. The sense of identity may also derive from a common challenge or a shared enemy or threat.

Problems with group cohesiveness can include pressure to conform, a tendency toward ingroup bias and a tendency to view other groups as inferior or in terms of stereotypes, and the risk of producing inferior decisions through the process of groupthink.

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Chap_09_3e 140. Whether people cooperate or not depends on multiple factors: (1) situational factors, (2) personality traits, (3) cultural influences, and (4) neurocognitive and physiological processes.

(1) Situational factors can be very subtle, sometimes as simple as how an activity is labeled. One study, by Liberman and colleagues, found that participants cooperated much more often in a "Community Game," as it was called, than if the very same game was called the "Wall Street Game."

(2) People who score high in the personality trait of agreeableness tend to cooperate, especially in response to a cooperative gesture from someone else, while people who are high in honesty and humility have the greatest tendency to be the ones making the first risky step toward cooperation.

(3) One might expect that people from collectivist cultures are naturally more cooperative than people from individualist cultures. This holds true when interactions among friends are studied, but for interactions with strangers, the situation is reversed: collectivists become more competitive than individualists. Case in point: Wong and Hong found that Chinese Americans who were primed to think about their Chinese identity were more cooperative when playing with friends, but not when playing with strangers.

(4) At the biological level, the hormone oxytocin predisposes people to trust others and to feel positively toward them. In turn, people's oxytocin levels go up when they perceive that others trust them. In this way, trust behavior and blood hormones that promote the behavior form a causal loop. Kosfeld and colleagues studied this effect by randomly assigning study participants to receive an injection of either oxytocin or a placebo. When playing a trust-themed game involving monetary investments, participants who had oxytocin injections were twice as likely to make the maximum investment compared with the placebo group. Another study, however, found that even after an artificial oxytocin boost, people remain on the lookout for signs that the trust they are prepared to give might be misplaced.

141. System justification theory focuses on people's tendency to support the status quo and maintain the social hierarchy. It proposes that stereotypes get attached to groups partly because they help explain and justify why some individuals are more advantaged than others. These stereotypes may reflect ingroup bias through positive beliefs about the ingroup and negative beliefs about other groups, or it may actually reflect a bias in favor of a higher-status outgroup. Or the stereotypes of other groups may be a complementary mix of positive and negative, to lessen the appearance of social unfairness. ("They don't have much money, and yet see how happy they are.")

142. Research suggests that being extraverted, open to new experiences, and conscientious may all contribute to being an effective leader, but the correlations are small. One factor that definitely makes a leader effective is a focus on the needs of the followers, but those needs may be different from one situation to another.

There are several types of leaders. A task-oriented leader focuses on achieving the group's goals or getting the job done in a very practical way. In a political campaign, for example, a campaign manager in task-oriented mode might not worry about being liked and instead focus on getting the candidate elected. A relationship-oriented leader focuses on fairness, equality, and harmony among the members of a group. This style of leadership might work well for a college dean who gets to know all the faculty members, focuses on helping everyone get along, and does not get distracted by thoughts of promotion to a higher level in the administration. A charismatic leader has a heroic vision for his followers, inspires them, and takes bold actions to achieve the mission or vision. Martin Luther King Jr. would be an example of a charismatic leader.

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Chap_09_3e 143. The idea of fairness norms refers to a seemingly widespread concern with and preference for fairness among human beings. Studies using distribution games have provided some evidence for prevalent fairness norms.

Participants playing the "decider" role in the ultimatum game or the "dictator" role in the dictator game frequently choose to divide money relatively equally with their partner, even though they do not have to do this and could maximize their own benefit by allocating all of the money to themselves. Furthermore, participants in the "recipient" role in the ultimatum game tend to reject offers from the decider that are too unequal in the decider's favor, even though this means the recipient ends up with nothing. These patterns indicate that people try to distribute resources fairly, and respond negatively to unfair offers.

One piece of evidence that points to an evolutionary influence on fairness norms is the finding that nonhuman primates like chimpanzees also respond negatively to unfairness. The fact that these nonhuman species also show signs of having fairness norms suggests that it is not simply a human cultural innovation, but a more basic evolved tendency of social primate species.

One piece of evidence that points to a cultural influence on fairness norms is the finding that members of largescale industrial societies adhere to fairness norms more consistently than members of smaller-scale agrarian societies. This suggests that stronger fairness norms may have emerged in large-scale societies because they facilitate people's ability to put their trust in strangers. If fairness norms are strong, one can have faith that one will not be cheated even when dealing with someone totally unknown. The ability to trust strangers is crucial to the functioning of large-scale societies, but not in small-scale societies where people generally know each other as individuals—either personally or by reputation. Thus, fairness norms may be emphasized or deemphasized to different degrees across cultures, as a function of how necessary these norms are to the continued functioning of the society.

144. Both the ultimatum game and the dictator game are distribution games, in which one player is in charge of deciding how to divide up resources (usually money) between themselves and the other player. In the ultimatum game, one player is the "decider" who determines how to divide the money. The other player, the "recipient," chooses whether to accept or reject the decider's offer. If the offer is rejected, neither player receives any money. The dictator game is basically similar, except the recipient does not have the option to reject the offer; they must accept whatever distribution the "dictator" decides upon.

In both games, the player in the deciding role often chooses a relatively equal distribution of resources, even though this does not maximize their own self-interest. This suggests an inclination for fairness. Further evidence for a concern with fairness comes from the ultimatum game, where recipients will often reject offers that favor the decider too much even though this results in the recipients ending up with nothing.

145. Group diversity can improve group decision making, because the variety of opinions that typically comes with diversity is an antidote to group polarization. Diverse opinions increase disagreement, which promotes group discussion and reduces groupthink. If natural diversity of opinion is lacking, it can be created artificially by designating a group member to play the role of devil's advocate, one whose job it is to bring up objections no one else is thinking of.

146. Group cohesion can be increased by (1) creating a common bond through interpersonal interaction and mutual dependency, based either on communal sharing or market pricing; and (2) promoting a common identity by highlighting awareness of shared characteristics, shared goals, or a shared threat to the group.

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Chap_09_3e 147. In the Prisoner's Dilemma a person must decide whether to act selfishly or to cooperate with a similarly situated partner. The decision revolves around the level of trust that you have that your partner will cooperate with you. If you do not trust your partner, then you tend to do things to help yourself. The commons dilemma is a resource dilemma that stems from ancient times, when keeping the common ground healthy was in everyone's best interest.

Just about all environmental conservation issues are commons dilemmas, the common theme being the risk that a natural resource will be depleted or ruined through individuals' selfish overuse or careless treatment of it. Here, placing cooperation above selfish interest means making sure one's actions contribute to the resource's sustainability.

148. When it comes to personality traits, people tend to cooperate when they possess the trait of being agreeable, meaning that they care about the needs and feelings of others and try to foster interpersonal harmony. But for initiating cooperation by taking the first risky step, the optimal traits are honesty and humility.

When it comes to situational factors, certain situations and environmental cues will foster cooperation. For example, a prevailing norm of reciprocity will play a role. Subtle cues, like labeling a situation using the word "community" rather than a word that suggests competition, can also prime people to cooperate. Culture plays a role in cooperation as well, although the picture is a bit complex. Compared with people from individualist cultures, people from collectivist cultures are more cooperative with friends but less cooperative with strangers.

149. Uncertainty-identity theory proposes that people join and identify with a group in order to reduce negative feelings of uncertainty about the self and others. Belonging to a group reduces uncertainty by reinforcing people's faith in their cultural worldview. The beliefs of a group seem more certain because more people hold those beliefs. A second way groups reduce uncertainty is through norms and roles. The norms dictate how group members should act in various situations, thus providing them with a greater degree of certainty in the area of behavior. Roles are, in effect, norms of conduct associated with particular social positions.

150. Deindividuation is a tendency to lose one's sense of individuality when in a group or crowd and to imitate the actions of others rather than being guided by one's own attitudes, moral standards, and goals. People in this state of mind, sometimes called "mob mentality," may even do things that run counter to their own attitudes and standards.

According to research, people are most likely to lose their individuality when they are overstimulated by the sights and sounds of the environment and/or are carrying a high cognitive load, as well as if factors like similar clothing or darkness make it hard to distinguish individuals from the crowd.

The effects of deindividuation are often not good. It can lead to riots, lynchings, and war crimes. It can lead people to goad a suicidal person into jumping off a ledge. However, under the right circumstances deindividuation can have positive effects. One kind of circumstance involves giving up one's individual identity to adopt an identity associated with positive behavior—for instance, by putting on a nurse's uniform. Another kind of circumstance involves joining a crowd that is engaged in positive behavior, such as donating to charity.

151. Uncertainty-identity theory proposes that people join and identify with a group in order to reduce negative feelings of uncertainty about the self and others. Groups reinforce people's faith in their cultural worldview and its associated beliefs. Groups also provide norms and roles that help people know how to behave.

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Chap_09_3e 152. Charley's membership in the gang poses risks to his survival—this is one significant factor that may push him in the direction of leaving. He does seem to depend on his gang membership for a sense of certainty about his identity, which will push him toward staying. However, because he is not able to derive much self-esteem from his membership in the gang, this is another factor that will push him in the direction of leaving. The fact that his gang membership both poses direct survival risks and seems to be a barrier to Charley's self-esteem suggests that it is probably not helping him deal with existential concerns about mortality. Thus, overall it is probably more likely that Charley will leave the gang than remain part of it, since his gang membership jeopardizes more of his physical and psychological needs than it fulfills.

153. Groupthink is the tendency toward flawed group decision making when group members are so intent on preserving group harmony that they fail to analyze a problem completely. Student examples will vary. One example may be a group working to elect a political candidate. If the group has a leader who emphasizes the importance of group cohesion and who gives instructions while discouraging candid feedback, then the group may fail to gather enough information and suppress dissent from individual group members. This can lead to things like unrealistic scheduling or the releasing of unintentionally controversial campaign ads, things that might not have happened if group members had felt free to raise concerns.

154. Group polarization is a phenomenon whereby people's views on a given issue become more extreme after they engage in a group discussion of the issue with like-minded others. According to persuasive arguments theory, this occurs because people are exposed to new arguments for their viewpoints when they discuss their views with like-minded others. According to social comparison theory, this occurs because once people realize that a group is like-minded and is basically in agreement about a topic, they can compare themselves favorably to other members of the group and perceive themselves as "better group members" by expressing a more extreme version of the group's views.

155. When people are in crowds, they sometimes experience what is called deindividuation: they lose their sense of individuality and begin to do whatever those around them are doing, rather than being guided by their own attitudes and mortal standards. In a case like Henry's, various factors may have contributed. He may have been dressed similarly to others in the crowd, and that plus poor lighting may have promoted in Henry a sense of faceless anonymity. It is also possible that the sights and sounds at the scene, plus whatever he was occupied with at the time, put Henry in a state of partial cognitive overload, which would have undermined his ability to think clearly about his actions.

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Chap_09_3e 156. A social dilemma involves situations in which what is good for the individual on a particular occasion might not be good for the group or when viewed within a larger social context. One type of social dilemma is the resource dilemma, where maintenance or preservation of a public resource requires that people act for the good of the group rather than selfishly. In a commons dilemma, a type of resource dilemma, the resource exists naturally but can be used up or ruined if people are not careful with it. The dilemma gets its name from the need in medieval times to preserve the town commons as a grazing area for livestock. A modern equivalent would be preservation of the natural environment through things like water conservation, voluntary recycling, and the avoidance of polluting behavior. (Student examples will vary.)

Another type of social dilemma is the public goods dilemma. Here a resource can only be sustained if everyone contributes something. (Again, student examples will vary.) Public services, ranging from blood banks to libraries to schools, require financial support, which means taxpayers need to pay up even if they would rather not, and need to participate in fund-raising bake sales, and so on, even when they are not necessarily in the mood.

The structure common to both types of social dilemma is that something provides a benefit to everyone, and everyone would suffer if it were lost. However, any one person has a clear incentive to act as a free rider in these situations, meaning someone who acts selfishly while enjoying the resource that exists through everyone else's unselfish efforts. Because there is a temptation to free ride, and because everyone will be badly off if too many people give in to that temptation, there are, for example, laws against littering and laws requiring people to pay taxes.

157. Social facilitation theory, in its more refined form, states that the presence of others heightens arousal in a way that increases a person's dominant response. This is the response that is most likely for that person, for whatever task they are performing. If the task is easy or well-practiced, then the presence of others tends to enhance performance—an instance of social facilitation, as it is called. But if the task is difficult or new, then the presence of others tends to impede performance.

Zajonc demonstrated that even cockroaches were subject to such effects. He found that the presence of other roaches improved the performance of roaches on a simple, well-established task, such as running straight to avoid a light, but the presence of other roaches impaired performance on a more difficult task, such as running a maze to avoid the light. Obviously with humans the story is more complex. For one thing, the interpretation of the situation also makes a difference. If a person is assigned a well-practiced task and feels they have sufficient resources to perform it, then a challenge response occurs: the heart pumps harder, and arteries expand to deal with the rush of blood. On the other hand, if a person perceives the task as too difficult or resources as inadequate, then a threat response occurs, in which the heart beats harder but the arteries and veins constrict, making blood flow difficult.

Another piece of the puzzle is people's awareness of being not only watched but evaluated. The added stress of knowing that one's actions are liable to be judged inept can be a source of distraction, as a person thinks about what the audience is thinking rather than concentrating finite mental resources on the task at hand. Or the stress may cause a person to overanalyze their actions, thinking self-consciously about the details of a behavior, like the swing of a tennis racquet, that should flow automatically and without a lot of conscious effort.

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Chap_09_3e 158. Social identity theory proposes that group identities are an important part of a person's self-definition and a key source of self-esteem, and that is a main reason why people join groups. People who value their membership in a group may see that membership as an important part of who they are, and if they view the group positively, this helps them feel positively about themselves. However, the corollary is that group members tend to exhibit ingroup bias: they behave more favorably toward their group and its members than to people in other groups.

159. Groupthink is a tendency for groups to make problematic decisions when group members are so intent on preserving group harmony that they fail to analyze a problem completely. They focus on information that supports the consensus position and ignore information that contradicts it, and stop worrying about the possibility that they are wrong. If the group of university administrators behaved this way, they would not work hard enough to weigh the facts on how a tuition increase might benefit the institution against evidence that it might hurt the institution.

They might agree to recommend a tuition increase, without considering alternatives, such as cost-cutting and ramped-up fund-raising efforts. Group members who voiced concerns about this would be pressured into keeping their objections to themselves, for the sake of maintaining a united front.

In order to reduce the possibility of groupthink, a variety of employee groups should be represented, not just administrators. This would promote a diversity of views and make a wider range of knowledge of the institution available. The leader should guide the discussion through deliberate consideration of the pros and cons of any idea and encourage people with minority opinions to speak up. If necessary, the group could designate a "devil's advocate," whose role it is to come up with objections to the consensus view. If more information is needed, outside sources could be asked to provide it. The group leader should stress that the goal is to reach the wisest, best-informed conclusion and that disagreement along the way (including disagreement with the leader) is part of the process and reflects everyone's commitment to the group and its work. The leader would want to encourage group members to each think of themselves as individually responsible for the outcome. Finally, the group should build into the process points at which everyone pauses to step back and consider how the present state of the group's deliberations would look from an outsider's perspective.

160. A major factor that makes a leader effective is a focus on the needs of the followers. Of course, the needs of followers may be different depending on the situation. Limited evidence points to certain personality traits that also make a leader effective: being extraverted, open to new experiences, and conscientious all may contribute to being an effective leader, as may confidence in oneself as a leader. However, the correlations are small.

Historically, there is no clear correlation between political leaders' personality traits and the leader's effectiveness.

161. Social loafing is the tendency for individuals to exert less effort when acting as part of a collective or group than when acting alone. An early study by Latane and colleagues found that when participants were asked to clap as loudly as they could for a "study" of sound generation and perception, they clapped loudest when alone. In groups of two, four, or six people, individuals put progressively less effort into clapping.

162. Power has the potential to reduce empathy. Studies have shown, for example, that people in power feel less of a connection to others, are often less generous, and are more likely to indulge in stereotypes of lower-status individuals. People in power may also adjust their political ideology to allow them to feel better about how they treat the less powerful.

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Chap_10_3e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. With no other information to base a judgment on, people assume that _____, but when we know more information, _____ is the major factor. a. women are more agentic than men; education level b. men are more communal than women; gender c. men and women are equally agentic; gender d. women are more communal than men; occupation 2. Stavros believes that women are flighty and foolish, but also finds women beautiful, charming, and sensitive.

His views are an example of: a. hostile sexism. b. benevolent sexism. c. sexual objectification. d. ambivalent sexism.

3. Which of the following statements about self-esteem and stereotyping is TRUE? a. People with high self-esteem do not make use of stereotypes. b. People can use stereotyping strategically to maintain and boost their self-esteem. c. People with high self-esteem are especially likely to make use of stereotypes. d. People who engage in stereotyping develop lower self-esteem over time.

4. Which of the following might reduce racial prejudice among White people? a. Portraying White people as a highly cohesive group with a well-defined identity. b. Portraying White people as a loose, non-cohesive group without a clear identity. c. Portraying the collective interests of White people as currently under threat. d. Portraying non-White racial groups as economically outcompeting White people.

5. Research indicates that students who do poorly in their courses evaluate: a. male instructors as less competent than female instructors. b. female instructors as less competent than male instructors. c. male and female instructors similarly. d. male instructors as more difficult than female instructors.

6. According to _____, prejudice can result from people's concerns about mortality. a. terror management theory b. the theory of symbolic racism c. social identity theory d. realistic group conflict theory

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Chap_10_3e 7. _____ is the tendency to think about women with a narrow focus on their physical appearance and bodies and neglecting their full humanity. a. Institutional discrimination b. Stereotype threat c. Sexual objectification d. Infrahumanization 8. According to the stereotype content model, stereotypes develop based on how groups relate to one another along the two dimensions of _____ and _____. a. status; cooperation b. value; status c. cooperation; industriousness d. competence; status 9. _____ is a negative attitude about a member of a group, and _____ is behavior toward a member of that group that usually results from the negative attitude. a. Discrimination; prejudice b. A stereotype; prejudice c. Prejudice; a stereotype d. Prejudice; discrimination 10. People high in _____ hold the belief that the world is ruthlessly competitive and that it is appropriate and right for powerful groups to dominate weaker ones. a. authoritarian submission b. tolerance for ambiguity c. conventionalism d. social dominance orientation 11. Research on personality across culture suggests that: a. stereotypes about the connection between personality and culture are mostly accurate. b. there is no truth to stereotypes relating personality and culture. c. Germans are more conscientious than Italians, on average. d. cultures tend to have characteristic personality profiles, but the profiles do not match the common stereotypes of those cultures.

12. People high in _____ are competitively driven to maintain the supremacy of some groups over others. a. social dominance orientation b. the need for structured knowledge c. the trait of disidentification d. right-wing authoritarianism Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_3e 13. Research on stereotype activation suggests that: a. individuals low in prejudice do not always automatically activate stereotypes when they encounter an outgroup. b. stereotypes are always automatically activated when people encounter an outgroup, regardless of their levels of prejudice. c. stereotypes can only be activated among individuals high in prejudice, and must be directly primed to be activated. d. even stereotypes that haven't been activated can guide people's perceptions of and behavior toward outgroup members.

14. The stereotypic association of black people with crime and violence can lead to: a. stereotype threat. b. ingroup harmony. c. the shooter bias. d. the racial bias effect.

15. Research found that when undecided White voters in the lead-up to the 2008 U.S. presidential election were reminded of their race, they were: a. more likely to say they would vote for the Black Democratic candidate, Barack Obama. b. less likely to say they would vote for the Black Democratic candidate, Barack Obama. c. more likely to believe negative reports about the Black Democratic candidate, Barack Obama. d. more likely to believe positive reports about the Black Democratic candidate, Barack Obama.

16. _____ is often justified, in people's minds, by _____. a. A stereotype; discrimination b. Prejudice; discrimination c. Prejudice; stereotypes d. A stereotype; prejudice 17. _____ is the pairing of hostile beliefs about women with benevolent but patronizing beliefs about them. a. Dehumanization b. Hostile sexism c. Ambivalent sexism d. Benevolent sexism 18. If stereotypes function as cognitive "shortcuts," then: a. highly intelligent people will be more likely to stereotype others. b. people will be less likely to stereotype when they are tired or distracted. c. people will be more likely to stereotype when they are in a good mood. d. stereotyping sometimes lets people process social information more quickly and efficiently.

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Chap_10_3e 19. Many White people hold both pro-Black and anti-Black attitudes, which is known as: a. implicit racism. b. aversive racism. c. ambivalent racism. d. symbolic racism.

20. Marty experiences anxiety when interacting with Black men. According to the justification suppression model, how might he respond to these negative feelings? a. subscribing to the stereotypic belief that Black men are violent, which allows him to see his anxiety as a reasonable reaction to have b. convincing himself that his anxiety must be caused by something other than interacting with Black men, so he can continue to view himself as non-racist c. posting on social media about his support of the Black Lives Matter movement, so he can feel that his private racism has been nullified by this public display of anti-racism d. expressing his anxiety around Black men as aggression instead, so that he can uphold a more masculine self-image 21. Ambivalent racism is influenced by the two clashing values of _____ and _____. a. individualism; egalitarianism b. individualism; collectivism c. collectivism; egalitarianism d. egalitarianism; authoritarianism 22. Research showing that people are more likely to confuse different outgroup members with each other provides evidence that _____ can influence visual perception. a. stereotype threat b. sexual objectification c. mortality salience d. the outgroup homogeneity effect 23. Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic causes of prejudice? a. Hostile feelings, often resulting from experiences of frustration or threat, which end up being directed toward entire categories of people. b. People's repeated firsthand experiences with members of various outgroups, which are the primary factor that determines their overall attitude toward each group. c. Tendencies for people to favor the groups they are members of (ingroups) over groups that they do not belong to (outgroups). d. Psychological investment in cultural worldviews, within which outgroups may be overtly demonized, and which can be symbolically affirmed through anti-outgroup expressions.

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Chap_10_3e 24. Imagine a law that required people to have a college degree to vote in federal elections. Such a law would be an example of: a. stereotype threat. b. ingroup bias. c. institutional discrimination. d. implicit bias.

25. Which of the following statements is most consistent with social role theory? a. Women are often stereotyped as having poor math ability because research suggests they perform at a slightly lower average level than men on quantitative reasoning tests. b. Stereotypes of non-European societies as uncivilized emerged because these stereotypes helped Europeans justify their nations' colonial projects in Africa, Asia, and the Americas. c. The stereotype that rural people are unintelligent emerged in part because the jobs available in rural areas tend to involve more physical than mental labor. d. Gay men are stereotyped as being flamboyant, because this is consistent with how they are often portrayed in mass media.

26. Which of the following is a common pattern found among White participants in research that uses both selfreport and physiological measures of prejudice? a. They self-report positive attitudes toward Black people, but the physiological measures suggest they experience stress or negative emotions in response to Black people. b. They both self-report negative attitudes toward Black people and show signs of stress or negative emotions in response to Black people on the physiological measures. c. They self-report positive attitudes toward Black people, and the physiological measures also show signs of positive emotions in response to Black people. d. They self-report negative attitudes toward Black people, but the physiological measures show signs of positive emotions in response to Black people.

27. Which of the following statements about categorization is NOT true? a. People categorized into outgroups are seen as more heterogeneous than they really are. b. People categorized into outgroups are seen as more homogenous than they really are. c. People tend to perceive members of an outgroup in stereotypic ways. d. A perceiver's stereotypes and prejudices can shape the categorization process.

28. In his influential work The Nature of Prejudice, Gordon Allport argued that: a. people feel hostility when they are frustrated or threatened. b. stereotypes do not strongly contribute to discrimination. c. prejudice is motivated by existential anxiety about death. d. prejudice forms based on multiple encounters with an outgroup.

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Chap_10_3e 29. Gaertner and Dovidio (2000) had White participants evaluate pairs of Black and White college applicants. If the Black applicant had higher SAT scores but lower high school grades than the White applicant, more prejudiced participants assigned greater importance to high school grades. This allowed them to deny admission to the Black applicant, but in a way that was not directly based on race. This kind of rationalization in nonracial terms exemplifies: a. institutional racism. b. aversive racism. c. ambivalent racism. d. stereotype threat.

30. _____ is the tendency to view individuals in outgroups as more similar to each other than they really are. a. Stereotype threat b. Sexual objectification c. The outgroup homogeneity effect d. The racial bias effect 31. Which of the following theories focuses on the cultural value placed on women's appearance? a. objectification theory b. terror management theory c. social identity theory d. system justification theory 32. Individuals high in _____ believe that the world is inherently dangerous and unpredictable. a. self-esteem b. the need for structured knowledge c. disidentification d. right-wing authoritarianism 33. System justification theory suggests that _____ can be motivated to endorse stereotypes that justify the status quo. a. only high-status individuals b. only low-status individuals c. both low- and high-status individuals d. neither low- nor high-status individuals

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Chap_10_3e 34. _____ is the influence on White Americans' racial attitudes by two clashing sets of values: a belief in individualism and a belief in egalitarianism. a. Institutional discrimination b. Stereotype threat c. Ambivalent racism d. Symbolic racism 35. Which statement below BEST summarizes the basic logic of the IAT? a. People will respond more quickly and easily to stimuli that match up with their implicit attitudes and beliefs than to stimuli that do not match. b. Autonomic physiological processes, like heart rate and blood pressure, can give clues about people's implicit attitudes and beliefs. c. When people believe they are hooked up to a working lie detector, they will report their true implicit attitudes more honestly. d. When people are put into a state of high emotional arousal, they cannot control their behavior as well and will be more likely to reveal their implicit attitudes.

36. To study the effects of self-esteem threats on prejudice, Fein and Spencer (1997) gave some participants positive feedback and others negative feedback. After receiving feedback, participants evaluated either a Jewish American or an Italian American job applicant. Compared to those who received positive feedback, participants who received negative feedback: a. gave the Jewish American applicant worse ratings, but not the Italian American applicant. b. gave the Italian American applicant worse ratings, but not the Jewish American applicant. c. gave both the Jewish American and Italian American applicants worse ratings. d. gave both the Jewish American and Italian American applicants similar ratings.

37. As a group, homeless people tend to be perceived as: a. high in warmth and low in competence. b. low in warmth and high in competence. c. low in warmth and low in competence. d. high in warmth and high in competence.

38. Research by Castano and Giner-Sorolla found that when people are made to feel a sense of collective responsibility for their ingroup's mass killing of an outgroup, they view members of the outgroup as: a. helpless. b. low in warmth. c. less human. d. low in competence.

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Chap_10_3e 39. Sally says to her friend Trish, who is about to go out on a date with Rob, "Don't bring up equal pay for equal work! You know how men are—they are all sexist." Sally is demonstrating: a. ingroup heterogeneity. b. ingroup homogeneity. c. outgroup heterogeneity. d. outgroup homogeneity.

40. Katz and Hass (1988) found that when White participants were primed with the Protestant work ethic, they: a. reported stronger anti-Black attitudes. b. reported stronger pro-Black attitudes. c. became better at identifying racism. d. became angrier at those who expressed racist attitudes.

41. People high in social dominance orientation would most likely support policies that _____ existing hierarchies. a. establish b. maintain c. eliminate d. weaken 42. Which of the following is NOT an example of prejudice? a. An American woman has disliked Muslims ever since the 9/11 terror attacks. b. A Black student dislikes his White teacher, who has never praised any of his work. c. An older man dislikes teenagers, who he sees as nothing but vandals and troublemakers. d. A liberal accountant starts to dislike a new coworker after learning they are conservative.

43. If you think that you are great, then you tend to think that your group is also great and groups that you do not belong to are not very good. This pride in, and preference for, your own group over others is a natural extension of: a. social identity theory. b. realistic conflict theory. c. self-serving bias. d. ethnocentrism.

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Chap_10_3e 44. Antonia simultaneously feels that Black Americans deserve equal treatment and equal dignity, and that many Black Americans simply don't work hard enough to improve their station in life. Antonia's attitude would be most accurately described as one of: a. implicit racism. b. aversive racism. c. ambivalent racism. d. symbolic racism.

45. Pyszczynski et al. (2006) found that when conservative American college students were reminded of their own mortality they: a. supported preemptive bombing of countries that might threaten the United States. b. did not support preemptive bombing of countries that might threaten the United States. c. believed that time was short and they needed to focus on themselves. d. believed data should be gathered before making any determination of policy.

46. _____ is the tendency to believe that bad actions by outgroup members occur because of their internal dispositions, and good actions occur because of the situation, while believing the reverse for ingroup members. a. Ingroup bias b. Outgroup derogation c. The ultimate attribution error d. System justification 47. Research found that men higher in _____ showed decreased activation in the medial prefrontal cortex when viewing sexualized female targets. a. ingroup bias b. infrahumanization c. hostile sexism d. objectification 48. Ingroups tend to be perceived as: a. high in warmth and low in competence. b. low in warmth and high in competence. c. low in warmth and low in competence. d. high in warmth and high in competence.

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Chap_10_3e 49. Research found that First Lady Michelle Obama was viewed as lower in warmth when participants focused on her: a. political affiliation. b. gender. c. race. d. appearance.

50. We tend to perceive members of our own group as: a. unique individuals. b. very similar to one another. c. threats to self-esteem. d. low in familiarity.

51. Which of the following statements about illusory correlations is NOT true? a. They are based on a kernel of truth. b. They generally occur when two things are rare and co-occur in close proximity. c. When strange or unusual things co-occur, our mind automatically assumes a connection. d. They generally occur when two things are distinctive and co-occur in close proximity.

52. Which of the following theories proposes that the motive for self-esteem plays a causal role in ingroup bias? a. stereotype threat theory b. intergroup anxiety theory c. social identity theory d. realistic group conflict theory 53. All of the following are true about ingroup bias EXCEPT which statement? a. Arbitrarily formed groups take some time before exhibiting ingroup bias. b. Arbitrarily formed groups immediately exhibit ingroup bias. c. Liking for the ingroup is more fundamental than dislike for the outgroup. d. Ingroup bias serves self-esteem needs.

54. Which of the following people is displaying an implicit racial prejudice? a. Carly, who tells her friends in private that she doesn't trust other ethnic groups b. Courtney, who shows subtle signs of discomfort in interracial interactions c. Cathy, who publicly attends neo-Nazi White nationalist rallies d. Carrie, who selectively hires Whites over other groups to work in her restaurant

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Chap_10_3e 55. In a study, students were shown a video of other students, from either their own or a different university, making a decision between listening to rock or classical music. Which statement BEST describes the outcome? a. The students estimated that a lower percentage of the students in the video would have the same musical preference if they were from a different university. b. The students estimated that a higher percentage of the students in the video would have the same musical preference if they were from their own university. c. The students estimated that a higher percentage of the students in the video would have the same musical preference if they were from a different university. d. There were no differences in the students' estimates of the students in the video, whether they were from a different university or their own university.

56. Correll et al. (2002) found that White participants completing a "shooter task" were faster to register "shoot" responses to armed Black men than to armed White men, and slower to register "don't shoot" responses to unarmed Black men than to unarmed White men. What did they find with respect to the errors people made? a. They were more likely to respond "shoot" to unarmed Black men than unarmed White men, and more likely to respond "don't shoot" to armed men who were White. b. They were more likely to respond "shoot" to unarmed White men than unarmed Black men, and more likely to respond "don't shoot" to armed men who were Black. c. They were equally likely to respond "shoot" to unarmed Black men and unarmed White men, but more likely to respond "don't shoot" to armed men who were White. d. They performed the task with perfect accuracy and didn't make any errors, either by responding "shoot" to unarmed men or in responding "don't shoot" to armed men.

57. Infrahumanization: a. increases willingness to help an outgroup. b. decreases willingness to help an outgroup. c. has no effect on willingness to help an outgroup. d. decreases willingness to help an ingroup.

58. Which of the following does NOT contribute to ingroup favoritism? a. greater familiarity with the ingroup b. self-serving bias c. evolved tendencies d. stereotype threat

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Chap_10_3e 59. Which of these statements about how prejudices have changed over time is NOT true? a. In the 1950s, nearly all Americans surveyed said they were opposed to interracial marriages. In the 2000s, less than 20% of Americans report the same attitude. b. Fewer Americans report negative attitudes toward Jewish people now than in the past, but antiSemitic hate crimes continue to occur with some regularity. c. Prejudices based on race, gender, sexuality, and religion have mostly faded away at the individual level, and really only persist at the institutional level. d. Attitudes toward same-sex marriage have changed relatively quickly, going from a majority of Americans opposing it in the early 2000s to a majority supporting it by the mid-2010s.

60. _____ is a tendency to express negative biases against a racial outgroup by rejecting social policies seen as benefiting that group. a. Ethnocentrism b. Stereotype threat c. Ingroup bias d. Symbolic racism 61. Data showing that women tend to get paid less than men may provide evidence of: a. symbolic racism. b. institutional discrimination. c. ethnocentrism. d. modern racism.

62. Prejudice toward outgroups can be fueled by all of the following EXCEPT which feeling? a. hostility b. frustration c. intergroup anxiety d. intragroup anxiety 63. The tendency to hold stereotypic views of outgroup members as animalistic is: a. dehumanization. b. ingroup bias. c. stereotype threat. d. system justification.

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Chap_10_3e 64. _____ is a particularly good predictor of prejudice against groups who are seen as socially deviant and a threat to traditional norms. a. Self-esteem b. Neuroticism c. Social dominance orientation d. Right-wing authoritarianism 65. How does activating a stereotype affect the interpretation of behavior? a. It leads people to perceive ambiguous behaviors as consistent with the stereotype. b. It cues people to be vigilant so they can resist being influenced by the stereotype. c. It makes people more likely to notice behaviors that deviate from the stereotype. d. It leads people to see even behavior that contradicts the stereotype as consistent with it.

66. An overgeneralized belief about the traits and attributes of members of a particular group is known as: a. discrimination. b. a stereotype. c. prejudice. d. ethnocentrism.

67. A stereotype is: a. behavior that selectively favors some groups and disadvantages others. b. an emotion that people feel toward members of a particular group. c. an unconscious attitude toward members of a racial group. d. an overgeneralized belief about the members of a particular group.

68. Research suggests that we prefer outgroup members to: a. conform to stereotypes. b. try to show us that stereotypes about them are not true. c. deviate from stereotypes. d. accept stereotypes about us.

69. _____ is the tendency to assume an association between two rare or distinctive occurrences, such as being in a minority group and performing negative actions. a. Prejudice b. Illusory correlation c. Stereotype threat d. Ingroup bias

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Chap_10_3e 70. All of the following are true about how stereotypes affect judgment EXCEPT which statement? a. Categorization increases the perceived homogeneity of outgroup members. b. Stereotypes can be activated automatically. c. Stereotypes influence behavioral interpretation. d. Disconfirming evidence causes people to abandon stereotypes.

71. Which of the following theories best explains why dominant groups react with hostility toward groups of immigrants when the economy is struggling? a. stereotype threat theory b. realistic group conflict theory c. intergroup anxiety theory d. terror management theory 72. People who exhibit signs of symbolic racism: a. know they are prejudiced but don't care. b. know they are prejudiced but want to change. c. do not think they are prejudiced. d. believe that prejudice is acceptable.

73. Which of the following theories proposes that negative feelings between groups are often based on a real conflict or competition over scarce resources? a. stereotype threat theory b. realistic group conflict theory c. intergroup anxiety theory d. terror management theory 74. _____ is the tendency to mistakenly see objects in the hands of black men as guns. a. Stereotype threat b. The shooter bias c. The outgroup homogeneity effect d. The racial bias effect 75. Research by Sinclair and Kunda indicates that students who do well in their courses evaluate: a. male instructors as less competent than female instructors. b. female instructors as less competent than male instructors. c. male and female instructors similarly. d. male instructors as more difficult than female instructors.

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Chap_10_3e 76. If you learned that someone holds an implicit bias against women, which of the following behaviors would you most expect them to display? a. obnoxiously cat-calling at passing women in the street b. showing nonverbal signs of boredom when a woman is speaking c. making blatantly sexist jokes in the company of friends d. refusing to vote for a woman who is running for elected office 77. Which of the following prejudices would probably be more closely associated with social dominance orientation than with right-wing authoritarianism? a. prejudice against feminists b. prejudice against communists c. prejudice against people with disabilities d. prejudice against ethnic minorities 78. People high in the trait of _____ are prejudiced against those they regard as threatening to the existing hierarchy of social groups. a. social dominance orientation b. need for structured knowledge c. disidentification d. right-wing authoritarianism 79. The idea that members of an outgroup are successful because of luck best reflects: a. ideas from system justification theory. b. ideas from terror management theory. c. the outgroup homogeneity effect. d. the ultimate attribution error.

80. _____ is the term for judging the actions and people from other cultures based on our own culture's views of what is right and wrong and good and bad. a. Ethnocentrism b. Stereotype threat c. Ingroup bias d. Discrimination 81. Research suggests that the shooter bias is more pronounced: a. when the situation seems non-threatening. b. when the race of the person in question is ambiguous. c. when the person in question has a darker skin tone. d. when racial stereotypes have not been activated.

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Chap_10_3e 82. Groups that are stereotyped as personally warm but incompetent elicit: a. anger. b. jealousy. c. pity. d. fear.

83. Jack recently lost his job, and has grown hostile toward immigrants to the United States because he thinks they take jobs from people like him. Jack's feelings are best explained by: a. terror management theory. b. intergroup anxiety theory. c. stereotype threat theory. d. realistic group conflict theory.

84. Which of these statements about research involving the IAT is NOT true? a. At least in some studies, scores on the IAT have been shown to predict behavior. b. Studies using the IAT tend to show that most Whites associate "Black" with "bad." c. There is not a consensus among scholars about exactly what the IAT is measuring. d. A majority of Black participants in IAT studies also associate "Black" with "bad."

85. Which of the following theories would suggest that the objectification of women may be partially the result of people's efforts to deny mortality? a. objectification theory b. terror management theory c. social identity theory d. system justification theory 86. When people are informed of someone's social role, such as homemaker, they are: a. more inclined to endorse gender stereotypes. b. more inclined to make a judgment based on role than gender. c. more inclined to make a judgment based on gender than role. d. more likely to engage in prejudice.

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Chap_10_3e 87. The kernel of truth hypothesis: a. proposes that stereotypes are accurate characterizations of groups and thus represent accurate knowledge structures about all members in a group. b. has been supported in personality research on average differences in the traits, interests, and habitual behaviors of different groups. c. explains why stereotypes are important for survival because they helped our human ancestors organize their knowledge about the outgroups they were competing against. d. proposes that some stereotypes may be based on actual differences in the average traits or behaviors associated with two or more groups.

88. A negative attitude toward an individual solely on the basis of that person's presumed membership in a particular group is: a. discrimination. b. a stereotype. c. prejudice. d. ethnocentrism.

89. The idea that members of an ingroup are successful because of their natural disposition best reflects: a. ideas from system justification theory. b. ideas from terror management theory. c. the outgroup homogeneity effect. d. the ultimate attribution error.

90. Some Americans look at cultures where families sleep together in a single family bed and proclaim, "That is so wrong; they are spoiling their children!" This is an example of: a. ethnocentrism. b. cultural relativism. c. scapegoating. d. stereotyping.

91. Tim believes that women are more nurturing, emotional, and irrational than men. Tim's beliefs are examples of: a. prejudice. b. stereotypes. c. discrimination. d. ethnocentrism.

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Chap_10_3e 92. Wilma outperformed Jake on their most recent math test. If Jake were to commit the ultimate attribution error, he might say: a. "She just got lucky this time, that's all!" b. "Wow, girls sure are good at math!" c. "Wow, Wilma sure is good at math!" d. "I must not be as good at math as I thought!"

93. _____ is when an outgroup is blamed for ingroup problems or when ingroup members feel inferior, guilty, anxious, or unsuccessful. a. Prejudice b. Stereotype threat c. Ingroup bias d. Scapegoating 94. _____ is conflicting, often nonconscious, negative feelings about Blacks that Americans may have, even though most do in fact support principles of racial equality and do not knowingly discriminate. a. Institutional discrimination b. Stereotype threat c. Aversive racism d. Symbolic racism 95. _____ is a particularly good predictor of prejudice against groups who are seen as inferior, such as the unemployed or the physically disabled. a. Self-esteem b. Neuroticism c. Social dominance orientation d. Right-wing authoritarianism 96. Research by DeGue, Fowler, and Calkins (2016) found that Black Americans are killed by police officers at a disproportionately high rate compared to other racial/ethnic groups. Some activists argue that this is at least partly due to aspects of police departments' standard operating procedures, such as heavier policing of Black neighborhoods. This is an example of: a. symbolic racism. b. institutional discrimination. c. implicit racism. d. ambivalent racism.

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Chap_10_3e 97. Paul did poorly in the Lumberjack Olympics, which the audience attributed to a run of bad luck. If Paul's daughter Pauline also performs poorly, the audience will most likely attribute it to: a. bad luck, again. b. a lack of ability. c. a lack of effort. d. bad genes inherited from Paul.

98. Thomas expects that Wu, who is Asian, will do well in math because "Asians are good at math." This is an example of: a. a stereotype. b. discrimination. c. prejudice. d. ethnocentrism.

99. Which of the following statements about sexism is TRUE? a. Women who are primed to think about hostile sexism are more motivated to engage in collective action to change gender inequity. b. Women who are primed to think about benevolent sexism are more motivated to engage in collective action to change gender inequity. c. Women who are primed to think about hostile sexism are less motivated to engage in collective action to change gender inequity. d. Women who are primed to think about benevolent sexism are more motivated to engage in negative thoughts about both men and women.

100. A medieval knight leading a charge against the enemy cries, "Show no mercy, men! These vile knaves don't even love their own children!" This is an example of: a. dehumanization. b. infrahumanization. c. objectification. d. system justification.

101. _____ is unfair restriction on opportunities for certain groups of people through organizational policies, structural power relations, and formal laws. a. Institutional discrimination b. Stereotype threat c. Ingroup bias d. Symbolic racism

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Chap_10_3e 102. _____ is similar to self-serving attributions, but at the group level. a. Ingroup bias b. Outgroup derogation c. The ultimate attribution error d. System justification 103. According to Adorno, _____ is a cluster of personality traits, including uncritical acceptance of authority, preference for well-defined social power arrangements, adherence to conventional values and moral codes, and rigid, black-and-white thinking. a. the need for structured knowledge b. right-wing authoritarianism c. prejudice d. an authoritarian personality 104. Upon meeting Jeff, you learn he is a stay-at-home dad to his three children. You will most likely: a. perceive Jeff as more communal than agentic, consistent with his social role as a homemaker. b. perceive Jeff as more agentic than communal, consistent with general stereotypes about men. c. perceive Jeff as both communal and agentic, joining stereotypes about men and homemakers. d. perceive Jeff as neither communal nor agentic, since he violates usual stereotypes about men.

105. Studies indicate that when people are reminded of their mortality they: a. go to great lengths to show compassion to all human beings. b. become more positive toward others who support their worldview. c. become more negative toward others who support their worldview. d. are motivated to reduce their level of prejudice.

106. James refuses to vote for any female political candidates. This is an example of: a. a stereotype. b. discrimination. c. prejudice. d. ethnocentrism.

107. All of the following are true about stereotypes EXCEPT which statement? a. They are heuristics for simplifying everyday life. b. They help to justify the prejudices people hold. c. They often make the people who hold the stereotypes feel better about themselves. d. They are the result of low intelligence.

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Chap_10_3e 108. Research indicates that White individuals are more inclined to view a social situation in which one person shoves another person as violent if the person doing the shoving was: a. White. b. Black. c. laughing. d. smoking.

109. Which of the following statements about prejudice is NOT true? a. People are more likely to express prejudice toward an outgroup when they view their own group as cohesive. b. Negative feelings and prejudices toward outgroups can be transmitted from generation to generation. c. People are more likely to express prejudice toward an outgroup when they view their own group as loosely associated. d. As a result of intergroup conflict, members of opposing groups can become anxious around each other.

110. The IAT assesses: a. institutional discrimination. b. stereotype threat. c. explicit attitudes. d. implicit associations.

111. What does a cultural perspective suggest about how stereotypes are learned? a. People develop stereotypes about the different groups within their society based on their own firsthand experiences interacting with members of those groups. b. People are taught to hold stereotypic beliefs about the members of other cultural groups, but not about members of their own society. c. People are socialized into the stereotypes that exist within their culture; they are taught by parents, peers, media, and other avenues of cultural transmission. d. People only learn to stereotype others in certain cultural contexts; in cultures with highly egalitarian values, stereotyping is uncommon.

112. _____ is the perception that outgroup members lack qualities viewed as unique to human beings, such as language, rational intelligence, and complex social emotions. It is a subtler form of another form of prejudice. a. Dehumanization b. Stereotype threat c. Objectification d. Infrahumanization

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Chap_10_3e 113. In World War II, Nazi propaganda portrayed Jews as disease-carrying rats. This is an example of: a. outgroup favoritism. b. dehumanization. c. stereotyping. d. sexual objectification.

114. Whites who have a strong racial bias exhibit a strong _____ response when viewing pictures of black males. a. hippocampus b. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex c. prefrontal cortex d. amygdala 115. Research indicates that stereotypes tend to be: a. easy to change. b. difficult to change. c. avoidable. d. unimportant when assessing actual behavior.

116. Charles believes that the world is a dangerous and chaotic place and that the only way to keep it safe is to try and protect order, cohesion, and tradition. Charles is high in: a. self-esteem. b. the need for structured knowledge. c. the trait of disidentification. d. right-wing authoritarianism.

117. When someone says, "They are all the same," about another group, they are exhibiting: a. stereotype threat. b. sexual objectification. c. the outgroup homogeneity effect. d. the racial bias effect.

118. When women perform poorly on a stereotypically masculine task, people tend to attribute their poor performance to a lack of ability. This attribution is explained by: a. ingroup bias. b. outgroup derogation. c. the ultimate attribution error. d. system justification.

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Chap_10_3e 119. Someone endorsing the idea that their country would be better off if we cared less about how equal all people are is high in: a. social dominance orientation. b. the need for structured knowledge. c. the trait of disidentification. d. right-wing authoritarianism.

120. Research found that following _____, participants responded more negatively to women who exemplified the "creaturely" nature of the body, such as women who were breast-feeding. a. mortality salience b. objectification prime c. a self-esteem threat d. gender stereotype activation 121. Psychologists usually refer to stereotypes as _____, but stereotypes can also be _____ when it comes to a particular group. a. subtle; blatant b. positive; negative c. negative; positive d. specific; general 122. According to _____, stereotypes help to rationalize the status quo. a. objectification theory b. terror management theory c. social identity theory d. system justification theory 123. Historically, instances of intergroup hostility (e.g., hate crimes) tend to increase during times of economic hardship. This pattern most directly resembles: a. displaced aggression. b. a realistic group conflict. c. stereotype threat. d. intergroup anxiety.

124. Which of the following statements about prejudice is NOT true? a. Prejudice involves judging people without considering their individual actions or traits. b. Prejudice can lead to acts of extreme violence against innocent people. c. Prejudice paints entire groups with a broad brush, ignoring within-group differences. d. Prejudice is often rationalized and justified on the basis of discrimination.

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Chap_10_3e 125. The _____ proposes that people endorse stereotypes in part to rationalize their own negative affective reactions to outgroup members. a. stereotype threat hypothesis b. social identity model c. justification suppression model d. system justification hypothesis 126. Describe two physiological indicators that have been interpreted as signs of implicit racial prejudice.

127. Use social role theory and the stereotype content model to explain why some people may still believe that a woman is not qualified to be the president of the United States. Include in your discussion the relevant stereotypes that are involved in these beliefs.

128. Explain the concept of symbolic racism, and give an example of the public policy attitudes that an individual high in symbolic racism might hold.

129. Describe the main proposal of realistic group conflict theory. Include one example in your discussion.

130. Define outgroup homogeneity, and describe the major explanation for outgroup homogeneity.

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Chap_10_3e 131. Describe the implicit association test (IAT) for race. Describe why the implicit association test (IAT) is considered an implicit measure.

132. Explain the basic logic of the implicit association test (IAT), and describe how the test works. Describe the pattern of IAT responses that would reflect an implicit bias favoring White people over Black people.

Summarize one significant criticism that scholars have leveled against the IAT, and explain why this is a potential problem for the IAT.

133. Discuss the similarities and differences between right-wing authoritarianism and social dominance orientation.

Include examples of how people who score high in each of these orientations would think about a specific issue.

134. Describe the three basic causes of prejudice proposed by Allport.

135. Define institutional discrimination. Give an example of institutional discrimination in practice.

136. Discuss the differences between symbolic racism, ambivalent racism, and aversive racism. Include examples of each, and discuss one study demonstrating each type of racism.

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Chap_10_3e 137. Discuss ingroup bias and why people tend to prefer others who are in the ingroup and to dislike the outgroup.

138. Define the stereotype content model, and describe the two dimensions proposed by the stereotype content model.

139. Describe ethnocentrism and how it can impact views of people from other cultures. Include a modern-day example of ethnocentrism and how it has produced prejudice.

140. Discuss how social dominance orientation can influence prejudice. Give one example of how this orientation can influence prejudice.

141. Define ambivalent racism. Describe the two sets of values that contribute to ambivalent racism.

142. Explain how expressing hostility toward outgroup members can function to insulate people from death anxiety, according to terror management theory.

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Chap_10_3e 143. Define aversive racism. Describe when people are most likely to fall prey to aversive racism.

144. Describe how stereotypes influence memory. Give an example of how stereotypes influence memory.

Describe and explain one study to support how memories are influenced by stereotypes.

145. Define the authoritarian personality and right-wing authoritarianism.

146. Describe how self-esteem threats impact prejudice. Include one example of how this might happen.

147. Define stereotypes, and describe where people's stereotypic beliefs originate.

148. Define stereotypes, and discuss at least three reasons that people use stereotypes. Give an example of stereotypes assigned to groups and how one's perceptions of the groups are influenced.

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Chap_10_3e 149. Describe the kernel of truth hypothesis. Give one example of how the kernel of truth is used to justify prejudice toward an outgroup.

150. What are the five primary psychological functions of stereotypes?

151. Define implicit prejudice, and describe ways to measure it.

152. Describe the difference between prejudice and discrimination. Give one example of each.

153. Describe the difference between implicit prejudice and explicit prejudice. Explain one method of measuring implicit bias.

154. Briefly describe Henri Tajfel and colleagues' research (1971) on minimal groups, and explain how this research relates to the claims of social identity theory regarding ingroup bias.

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Chap_10_3e 155. Explain the claims of social role theory regarding the origin of stereotypes, and give an example that illustrates these processes.

156. Explain how illusory correlations influence stereotypes.

157. Social psychologists assume that prejudice against a person based simply on group membership is never justified. Describe the three characteristics of prejudice that form the basis of this assumption.

158. Discuss how, according to terror management theory, prejudice potentially helps people combat concerns about their own mortality. Cite research to support your answer.

159. Discuss how realistic group conflict theory and the dynamics of anxiety complement each other to explain prejudice. Provide an example of realistic group conflict theory.

160. Describe how anxiety plays a role in realistic group conflict theory. Include one example in your explanation.

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Chap_10_3e 161. Define shooter bias. Describe how shooter bias might influence a police officer's decision to shoot or not shoot at a potential criminal threat.

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Chap_10_3e Answer Key 1. d 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. a 7. c 8. a 9. d 10. d 11. b 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. c 16. c 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. a 21. a 22. d 23. b 24. c 25. c 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_3e 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. c 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. c 35. a 36. a 37. c 38. c 39. d 40. a 41. b 42. b 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. c 47. c 48. d 49. d 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. a 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_3e 55. c 56. a 57. b 58. d 59. c 60. d 61. b 62. d 63. a 64. d 65. a 66. b 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. d 71. b 72. c 73. b 74. b 75. c 76. b 77. c 78. a 79. d 80. a 81. c 82. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_3e 83. d 84. d 85. b 86. b 87. d 88. c 89. d 90. a 91. b 92. a 93. d 94. c 95. c 96. b 97. b 98. a 99. a 100. b 101. a 102. c 103. d 104. a 105. b 106. b 107. d 108. b 109. c 110. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_3e 111. c 112. d 113. b 114. d 115. b 116. d 117. c 118. c 119. a 120. a 121. c 122. d 123. a 124. d 125. c 126. Physiological measures that have been used as indicators of implicit prejudice include subtle facial movements, cardiovascular activity, and brain activity. With respect to facial movements, small movements of White people's cheeks and brows during interracial interactions have been interpreted as a sign of implicit prejudice. With respect to cardiovascular activity, when White people show a threat response characterized by increased blood pressure and the constriction of blood vessels in an interracial interaction, this has been interpreted as a sign of implicit prejudice. Finally, with respect to brain activity, increased amygdala activation among White people in response to images of Black people has been interpreted as a sign of implicit bias, since the amygdala is implicated particularly strongly in negative emotions.

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Chap_10_3e 127. Social role theory offers one explanation for gender stereotypes. According to this theory, stereotypes come from the roles and behaviors that societal pressures may put on a particular group. When people see others in a particular role, they tend to attribute to them the traits associated with that role. Because men, compared with women, are statistically overrepresented in professions where individual accomplishment is valued, men tend to be seen as having "agentic" traits: assertiveness, aggressiveness, and an achievement-oriented outlook. And because women, compared with men, are statistically overrepresented in caregiving roles, both professionally and in the home, women are seen as having "communal" traits: warmth, empathy, and emotionality. Although the presidency is a unique role, being president has more in common with being a corporate CEO than with being a parent or a nurse, and so agentic traits are thought to be more important in a president than communal ones.

Consequently, the presidency tends to be viewed as a man's job.

To social role theory, the stereotype content model adds the element of a two-dimensional classification of groups and roles, with one dimension being competence, also associated with status and power, and the other being warmth, also associated with cooperation and trust. Again, the different roles historically played by men and women cause high competence to be regarded as more typical of men and high warmth as more typical of women. Since the presidency is a high-status, high-power role where competence is essential, while warmth is desirable but perhaps less important, people are more likely to think that a man is well qualified than that a woman is. (However, the implication that cooperativeness and trust are considered secondary as well is a potential problem quite aside from any implied gender bias.)

128. Symbolic racism is the idea that White Americans implicitly view Black Americans as a symbolic threat to the White moral and social order. Individuals high in symbolic racism generally do not hold explicitly hostile or negative views of Black people. Rather, their racism is expressed symbolically through their political attitudes.

Individuals high in symbolic racism tend to oppose public policies that are designed to diminish racial inequalities or specifically enhance Black Americans' social and economic standing in society. They also tend to support policies that, while not appearing to be explicitly racist on the surface, end up having a disproportionate negative impact on racial minority groups. For example, an individual high in symbolic racism would likely be opposed to affirmative-action policies that are intended to increase the representation of Black students on a college campus, or increase the representation of Black employees in a company's workforce. They would claim to oppose these policies because they believe they are unnecessary, not because of any explicit anti-Black prejudice. Similarly, an individual high in symbolic racism might support "stop and frisk" policing policies, which empower officers to stop and search people they deem suspicious, and which in practice tend to be applied disproportionately to peoples of color. Again, they would claim to support these policies out of a concern for public safety, not out of any explicit racial prejudice.

129. Realistic conflict theory proposes that groups often have negative feelings toward each other because of real competition over scarce resources. One example of realistic conflict theory would be not wanting immigrants to enter the country and compete with citizens over jobs.

130. Outgroup homogeneity is the tendency to view individuals in outgroups as more similar to each other than they really are. The major explanation for this is that people are very familiar with their own ingroup and can see individual members as unique. People are less likely to be familiar with the outgroup, so there is less basis for seeing its members as different. It is simpler to regard them as all alike.

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Chap_10_3e 131. The IAT is used to measure several different areas of implicit bias (e.g., race, gender). The IAT for race presents people with Black and White faces paired with words that have positive and negative connotations, such as "dessert" and "cancer." Some subjects have slower response times for pairings of black faces with positive words and white faces with negative words than for Black/negative and White/positive pairings. That response pattern is interpreted as reflecting a racial bias in favor of Whites and against Blacks. The test is considered an implicit measure because the test is structured to avoid giving the test subject a chance to become aware of what is being measured and manipulate the outcome.

132. The IAT works according to the basic logic that people process stimuli more quickly and accurately when the stimuli match up with their implicit expectations. In the IAT, participants use two keys on a computer to categorize stimuli as they appear on the screen. There are two sets of stimuli in each IAT—one set representing the groups toward which attitudes are being assessed (e.g., pictures of Black vs. White people) and one set representing the stereotypes or attitudes that are being measured (e.g., words with positive vs. negative meanings). Across the IAT, the stimuli are paired by having participants use the same keys to categorize both stimulus sets. For example, in the first block of trials a respondent might use the "1" key to indicate Black people AND positive words, and the "2" key to indicate White people AND negative words. Over the course of the IAT, participants complete blocks of trials with every possible combination of stimulus pairings and key assignments.

Again, the basic idea behind the IAT is that people will respond more quickly and accurately to stimulus pairings that match their implicit attitudes. So if a respondent harbors implicit attitudes that favor White people over Black people, they should respond faster and make fewer errors on IAT trials where "White" and "good" stimuli share one response key and "Black" and "bad" share the other, and respond slower and make more errors on trials where "White" and "bad" are paired on one key and "Black" and "good" are paired on the other.

One significant critique of the IAT is that it is not clear what exactly the test is measuring. Does the fact that someone responds faster when "White" and "good" are paired really reflect their own personal biases, or could it simply reflect how different groups are typically portrayed in society? Is it possible that people might more readily associate "Black" with "bad" because they are aware of the suffering and oppression that Black people in America have endured, and not because they harbor hidden biases against Black people? Some research has even found that people show patterns indicative of more implicit racism when they know that the IAT is supposed to measure racial biases! This uncertainty about what the test measures makes it hard to conclusively interpret IAT results and to know what the most appropriate uses for the IAT are.

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Chap_10_3e 133. Right-wing authoritarianism and social dominance orientation are two different personality trait variables that correlate with one another and also with various forms of prejudice.

Right-wing authoritarianism (RWA) is a tendency to believe that the social world is inherently dangerous and unpredictable, and that for the sake of their own security and that of society in general, the existing social order, with its laws and traditions, needs to be upheld. It is an especially strong predictor of prejudice against groups seen as deviant and as threats to established norms. Social dominance orientation (SDO) is a tendency to see the social world as an arena for ruthless competition, where it is perfectly appropriate for powerful groups to dominate weaker ones. A high SDO is a predictor of prejudice against groups that can be perceived as inferior for one reason or another, such as the disabled or the unemployed.

On an issue like immigration, these traits would be associated with get-tough views on illegal immigration and a belief that quotas for legal immigration should be lowered. Right-wing authoritarianism would be associated with viewing immigrants, particularly undocumented immigrants but also documented immigrants who don't immediately assimilate culturally, as a danger to law and order and to the social fabric. Social dominance orientation would be associated with a tendency to see all immigrants as low-status misfits who aren't entitled to legal rights or protections and deserve to be relegated to subordinate roles in society (e.g., as laborers doing undesirable work).

134. Gordon Allport proposed three basic causes of prejudice. First, Allport believed that people tend to feel hostility when threatened and reflexively link those feelings to salient categories of people. Second, Allport proposed that people tend to prefer the familiar over the unfamiliar, and therefore prefer members of their own group. Finally, Allport noted the importance of an internalized cultural worldview, with its norms about what is good and bad, for determining how we view groups of people.

135. Institutional discrimination is unfair restrictions on opportunities for certain groups of people, through institutional policies, structural power relations, and formal laws. One example is widespread gender pay inequity.

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Chap_10_3e 136. Symbolic racism is a tendency to view racial outgroups as a threat and to reject social policies seen as benefiting them. People who harbor symbolic racism believe that disliking a group of people is wrong, but they do not believe they are prejudiced. They do not express direct hostility toward racial outgroups; rather, their negative attitudes are expressed at the level of policy, where they oppose efforts to advance the interests of those groups.

In one study, for instance, subjects scoring high on symbolic racism were more likely to support the death penalty and "three strikes" laws, both of which are known to discriminate against minorities.

Ambivalent racism reflects the tension in White Americans' racial attitudes between a belief in individualism and a belief in egalitarianism. To the extent people embrace individualism, they believe that everyone should succeed on their own merits. But to the extent people embrace egalitarianism, they favor laws and programs that create a level playing field. Research shows that between individualism and egalitarianism, which value is primed in a given situation makes the difference in which value is supported. In one study, researchers primed White subjects to think about the value of individual hard work and found that they were more likely to report anti-Black attitudes, but no more likely to report pro-Black attitudes. Conversely, when the White subjects were primed to think about the value of humanitarianism, they were more likely to report pro-Black attitudes and no more likely to report anti-Black ones. Both symbolic and ambivalent racism can have an effect on attitudes toward social programs of the disadvantaged.

Aversive racism is perhaps the subtlest form of racism, in that it can be present even in someone who at a conscious level deliberately embraces principles of racial equality and, unlike the symbolic or the ambivalent racist, prioritizes those principles over individualistic ones. This person will try to behave in accordance with egalitarian values, but in ambiguous situations their prejudice may come out. Gaertner and Dovidio presented White participants with a situation where a Black or a White person needed help. In one condition the participants thought they were the only person available to help, while in the other condition the participants thought others were also available. When they thought they were the only ones, White participants were equally likely to help a Black or a White victim. But if participants thought others were available, they were more likely to help a White victim than a Black one. The failure to help the Black victim could be given a nonracial explanation ("There were others to help"), but the response patterns revealed racial bias.

137. People tend to prefer their ingroup over outgroups for a couple of reasons. For one thing, people tend to like what is familiar, because it is easy to understand and more predictable, and therefore safer. People know others in their ingroup and are typically in a position to understand them, to know how to act with them, and to feel safe in their presence. By contrast, the unfamiliar takes more cognitive resources to figure out, and what is not well known is not predictable and therefore a source of anxiety. Because people do not know others in outgroups as well as they know those in their ingroup, they view outgroup members as less predictable and therefore less safe to be around. All of this is an example of the mere exposure effect, applied to people seen as "stimuli."

Ingroup bias is also related to self-esteem, in that the two are mutually reinforcing. People with high self-esteem tend to view their ingroup as superior simply by virtue of their presence in it—a case of self-serving bias.

Conversely, however, people gain in self-esteem by identifying with a group they view in positive terms. So then they have an incentive to think more highly of their ingroup than of outgroups, because doing so boosts their selfesteem. The expressions of this second effect can be quite harsh: people with low self-esteem may try to boost it by blaming an outgroup for their troubles; this is called scapegoating.

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Chap_10_3e 138. The stereotype content model states that stereotypes develop on the basis of how groups relate to one another along two dimensions, namely status and cooperation. Higher status brings with it assumptions of power, prestige, and competence. Cooperation brings with it assumptions of warmth and trustworthiness.

139. Ethnocentrism is the habit of viewing the world through one's own cultural value system and, as a result, judging people from other cultures based on one's own cultural views of right and wrong. An example could be judging another culture "dirty" or "disgusting" due to different practices in the area of hygiene or diet.

140. Social dominance orientation refers to a belief that some groups in society are inherently superior to others, and that therefore society ought to be structured according to a rigid hierarchy of status and power. Because highSDO individuals are strongly motivated to legitimize existing inequalities and hierarchies, they are prone to developing prejudicial attitudes and stereotypic beliefs that allow them to perceive those inequalities and hierarchies as justified. SDO is particularly strongly associated with prejudice against low-status and disadvantaged groups in society, since high-SDO individuals are motivated to perceive these individuals as deserving their subordinate position in society. For example, an individual high in SDO might hold particularly negative attitudes toward minimum-wage workers, viewing them as people who were not talented or driven enough to rise to a higher-status position in society.

141. Ambivalent racism is the influence on White Americans' racial attitudes by two clashing sets of values, namely individualism and egalitarianism. Individualism is the idea that each person should be able to make it on her or his own, and egalitarianism is the idea that all people should be given equal opportunities.

142. Terror management theory claims that people insulate themselves from existential anxiety about their mortality by investing in cultural worldviews, which provide a framework within which they can experience meaning in life and achieve self-esteem. The mere existence of alternative worldviews is an implicit threat to the validity of one's own worldview; therefore, people can indirectly affirm their own cultural worldviews by derogating or aggressing against members of outgroups, who are perceived as representatives of alternative worldviews. It is through this indirect affirmation of one's own worldview that expressing hostility toward outgroups protects the individual from death anxiety, according to terror management theory.

143. Aversive racism consists of conflicting, often nonconscious, negative feelings about African Americans that people have, even though most do support racial equity principles and do not knowingly discriminate. Aversive racism often shows up in situations that are complex enough to leave room for discriminatory behavior to be rationalized in nonracial terms.

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Chap_10_3e 144. Stereotypes can influence memory in every step of the memory process. Stereotypes can influence how people encode information. When people have a preconceived idea about a group of people, they often seize on information that confirms their original view, or even distort information to make it more confirming of their view, in the course of encoding the information. Stereotypes also influence what information is retrieved from memory.

Information that fits our stereotypes tends to be more readily recalled.

Student examples will vary. A possible example would be people remembering a narrative as being about a male airline pilot when in fact the narrative did not mention the pilot's gender. A classic study by Allport and Postman asked several individuals to relay, from one person to the next, a description of a situation in which a young White man threatened a suit-wearing Black man with a straight razor. There was a tendency, by the time the last person retold the story to the experimenters, for the story to have changed so that the White man was in the suit and the Black man was holding the razor. Between people encoding what they were hearing and the recalling of what they had heard in order to retell it, memories were altered to fit racial stereotypes.

145. The authoritarian personality, as defined by Adorno, is a cluster of traits including uncritical acceptance of authority, preference for well-defined power arrangements, adherence to conventional values and moral codes, and a rigid style of thinking, with no gray areas. Right-wing authoritarianism (RWA) is a refined measure of the authoritarian personality. People high in RWA see the world as unpredictable and dangerous and believe that maintaining a sense of security requires upholding society's order and traditions. RWA is a predictor of prejudice against groups seen as socially deviant or as a threat to traditional norms.

146. Ingroup bias assists in the promotion of self-esteem. When people's self-esteem is threatened, they tend to prefer their own group and to derogate outgroups. This tends to make them feel better about themselves and to restore self-esteem. Scapegoating also allows people to feel better about themselves. For example, a worker afraid of being laid off might seek reassurance in the thought that a minority worker would not be qualified to do the work.

After being laid off anyway, the worker might blame minority workers for being willing to work for lower pay.

This would allow the laid-off worker to attribute the layoff to external factors.

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Chap_10_3e 147. A stereotype is a cognitive schema that contains all a person's knowledge about, and associations with, a particular group. It is a generalization that need not be completely inaccurate and need not be negative. The stereotype of librarians, for instance, includes bookishness and a fondness for order and quiet. This stereotype fits many librarians reasonably well, and there is nothing wrong with being well read and liking quiet. As a blanket description of all librarians, however, the stereotype is inaccurate, so in dealing with individual librarians we must hold the stereotype lightly and cautiously.

Several theories about the origins of stereotypes have been proposed. One, already touched on, is sometimes described as the "kernel of truth" basis for stereotypes. But besides remembering the pitfalls of overgeneralization, we must also be aware that even the size of the "kernel" is sometimes overblown, and that this is particularly the case with alleged personality differences between different groups. Stereotypes about national temperament (the conscientious Germans, the free-spirited Italians) have been found to have no detectable basis in fact at all. And where seeming personality differences do exist, other explanations are often superior. For example, differences in crime rates across different racial groups are more likely due to socioeconomic factors than to race-based differences in willingness or ability to obey the law.

Social role theory gives a different explanation for the origins of stereotypes. In this theory, stereotypes come from the roles and behaviors that societal pressures impose on particular groups. When people see others in a particular role, they infer that those others have the traits associated with that role—for example, that people in physically demanding professions are naturally hard-working. According to this theory, the stereotypes of men as assertive and goal-oriented and of women as empathic and nurturing trace back to the different occupations traditionally assigned to men and women rather than to innate differences in personality. An extension of social role theory, called the stereotype content model, sorts groups along two dimensions that can be roughly summarized as competence (or social status) and warmth (or cooperativeness/helpfulness). Again, this scheme posits that we attribute the traits associated with the roles to the people and groups of people who play those roles: people in cooperation-oriented roles are seen as warm and trustworthy, and so on.

Finally, some stereotypes are based on illusory correlations: a version of the overblown "kernel of truth" where no actual kernel exists but striking or unusual features of a situation create the appearance of a pattern. If members of a minority group are involved in a high-profile crime, someone learning about the story in the news media may associate the perpetrators' minority status with the criminal behavior, when statistically there is no meaningful connection whatsoever.

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Chap_10_3e 148. A stereotype is a cognitive schema that contains all a person's knowledge about, and associations with, a particular group. It is a generalization that need not be completely inaccurate and need not be negative.

People rely on stereotypes for several reasons. First, stereotypes simplify daily life. It takes much less cognitive effort to apply stereotypes to particular groups than to see everyone as a unique individual and on that basis keep track of what one knows about them. Even people who are not cognitive misers will stereotype in order to conserve their mental resources when they are cognitively busy or overloaded. Second, stereotypes justify prejudice. People may use or continue to hold stereotypes in order to justify negative beliefs about, for example, an enemy nation in time of war. But even where no particular belief is at stake, maintaining a stereotype may help justify preexisting negative feelings toward an outgroup where otherwise the feelings have no basis. Third, stereotypes help justify violence and discrimination against outgroups. Dehumanizing or objectifying outgroup members enables people to feel more justified in their hostility toward them. Fourth, stereotypes justify the status quo by providing reasons for why differences of privilege should be accepted. Finally, stereotypes may aid in boosting or maintaining people's self-esteem. Viewing outgroup members in more derogatory terms can help people feel better about themselves.

Student examples will vary. One example is gender stereotypes. For a manager interviewing a man and a woman for the same job, treating the woman in accordance with a stereotype about what kind of work women are suited for may make the hiring decision easier (reason one), be a means for the manager to avoid admitting that they feel hostility toward many women (reason two), and relieve the manager of a sense that the company should be doing more to promote gender equality within the company (reason four).

149. According to this hypothesis, although stereotypes are overgeneralized, some of them may be based on actual differences between groups. For instance, it may be true that a higher percentage of Asian Americans get good grades in math courses than other ethnic groups, and that generalizes to the stereotype that "Asians are good at math."

150. The five primary psychological functions of stereotypes are: (1) simplifying everyday life by supplying cognitive tools that make thinking easier, (2) justifying prejudice by supplying evidence in its favor, (3) justifying violence and discrimination by portraying the victims as less than human, (4) justifying the status quo on the basis of different groups' natural abilities and suitedness for their respective assigned roles, and (5) helping to boost selfesteem by portraying the ingroup as superior to one or more outgroups.

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Chap_10_3e 151. A person's implicit prejudice toward an outgroup consists of those negative attitudes or affective reactions that the person harbors with little or no conscious awareness and that can be activated automatically.

Measures of implicit prejudice must rely on means that do not require conscious awareness of it. One such measure is the implicit association test, or IAT. The premise of the IAT is that the more strongly two things or concepts are linked in a person's mind, the faster people are able to perform timed-response tasks where those things or concepts go together. The IAT that tests for implicit racism involves faces of different races and words that have positive or negative meanings or connotations. The test subject will be shown either a face (sometimes Black, sometimes White) or a word (such as "rainbow" or "vomit") and must quickly classify the item as, for example, either "African American" or "good" or else "European American" or "bad." If the person's response times are longer with those two categories than with the categories "African American" or "bad" and "European American" or "good," this suggests that the person finds the latter pair of categories more natural and easier to work with, which would indicate implicit prejudice against Blacks.

Implicit prejudice can also be measured using physiological indicators. The amygdala in the brain is the seat of emotional responses, especially fear. Whites with a strong racial bias tend to have a strong amygdala response when viewing pictures of Black men. Electrodes on the face may also be used to detect subtle facial muscle movements that are thought to reflect implicit prejudice. Finally, when a person partnered with someone of another race exhibits a cardiovascular response normally associated with environmental threat, namely an increase in volume of blood pumped by the heart but at the same time a contracting of veins and arteries, this is interpreted as a sign of implicit prejudice.

152. Prejudice is a negative attitude about someone because of her or his membership in a group, while discrimination is actual behavior that is often based on that prejudicial attitude. An example of prejudice is disliking women as a group. An example of discrimination is a pattern of not hiring women.

153. Explicit prejudice is conscious. Implicit prejudice consists of attitudes or affective responses that are outside of conscious awareness or control. Measures of implicit bias include physiological measures, such as differences in brain and cardiovascular response to people of different racial groups, and cognitive measures, such as the implicit association test, or IAT, which involves timed responses to sorting tasks where race is a variable.

154. Tajfel and colleagues found that even when participants were assigned to arbitrary, meaningless groups, they displayed favoritism toward their ingroup by choosing to allocate more resources to ingroup members than to outgroup members. These findings are consistent with the claims of social identity theory, which proposes that people can maintain and enhance their own self-esteem by maintaining favorable perceptions of their ingroup relative to outgroups. The fact that people display favoritism even toward artificial, arbitrary ingroups supports the idea that people are motivated to compare their ingroups favorably to outgroups.

155. Social role theory claims that we form stereotypes of groups based on the sorts of social roles that members of those groups commonly occupy. The idea is that we come to attribute the qualities of the social roles to the groups that happen to occupy those roles. For example, for much of American history Black people were barred from obtaining formal education and largely consigned to roles as physical laborers and household servants.

Although this was most pronounced during the pre–Civil War era of slavery, and the post-Reconstruction Jim Crow era, similar patterns persist to the present day. According to social role theory, the fact that Black people were only commonly seen in these roles, and not commonly seen in highly educated roles, has contributed to stereotypes of Black people as unintelligent.

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Chap_10_3e 156. An illusory correlation results when the mind seeks out relationships. Our attention is drawn to rare or distinctive events, and when two such events co-occur we tend to assume a connection. Minority group members stand out to most majority group members, and socially undesirable behaviors are often distinctive. Thus, our attention is often aroused when we see minority group members involved in socially undesirable behavior, and we are quick to see this as reinforcing stereotypes about that group even when there is statistically no pattern at all, not even a "kernel of truth."

157. First, prejudice involves judging an individual negatively without considering the person's actual attributes or actions. Second, any large category of people includes tremendous variability in every possible attribute of a person. Finally, prejudice has often led to acts of violence against the innocent.

158. A person's worldview is a means of understanding the world and knowing how to behave, and therefore a source of psychological security. Terror management theory predicts that people will cling to their worldview especially tightly in times of turmoil and when reminded of their own mortality. Researchers have hypothesized that if people are reminded of their own mortality, they will be moved to redouble their commitment to their worldview and therefore to the ingroup that shares and supports it; they will have more dislike and other negative feelings toward outgroups that in one way or another challenge or threaten that worldview.

Multiple studies have confirmed this hypothesis. In one study Greenberg and colleagues primed people toward greater awareness of their own mortality. American Christian students then tended to have more favorable attitudes toward Christians and more negative attitudes toward Jews. Pyszczynski and colleagues found that when reminded of their own mortality, Iranian college students felt more support for suicidal martyrdom against Americans. Finally, politically conservative American college students who were reminded of their mortality were more ready to support preemptive bombing of countries that might threaten the United States.

159. Realistic group conflict is a theory of prejudice which states that hostility between groups is often based on, or historically traces back to, real conflict or competition regarding scarce resources. If people believe that there are only so many resources to go around—things like land, water, jobs, or housing—then negative feelings toward perceived competitor groups naturally arise. The effect is particularly strong in people who view their ingroup as cohesive and as having collective interests.

Through cultural transmission, negative feelings about outgroups can be transmitted from one generation to another and perpetuate conflicts. Protracted conflict conditions people to feel anxious around outgroup members.

Also contributing to anxiety is a mutual lack of familiarity, which makes everyone see outgroup members as strange and unpredictable. Since feelings of anxiety are unpleasant, people learn to associate outgroups with negative feelings, which can fuel further prejudice toward outgroups.

Students may vary on their examples. One example is immigration: those already residing in a country fear immigrants as a source of competition for a limited number of jobs. The fear may be exaggerated, but it is not completely without basis.

160. Intergroup conflicts often have historical roots. Because of the intergroup conflict, members belonging to the opposing groups feel anxious around each other, and that intergroup anxiety perpetuates prejudice. One example of this may be people that historically believe that immigrants take U.S. jobs. People born in the United States may be anxious around immigrants, and this anxiety can, in turn, fuel their prejudice.

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Chap_10_3e 161. Shooter bias is the tendency to mistakenly see objects in the hands of Black men as guns. This bias stems from the stereotype that associates Blacks with violence and crime. Studies suggest that in a simulation people are quicker to shoot at an unarmed target if he is Black than if he is White. This could bias police officers to be more apt to mistakenly shoot a Black individual. However, studies do show that in video situations, trained police are less likely to shoot an unarmed Black target than untrained community members.

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Chap_11_3e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following is NOT a reason that stereotype threat impairs performance? a. Devoting effort to disproving a salient stereotype interferes with task performance. b. Stereotypes guide behavior, such that people tend to act in line with salient stereotypes. c. Dealing with the anxiety brought on by stereotype threat distracts from the task at hand. d. Stereotype threat makes people focus consciously on behaviors that are usually automatic.

2. Intergroup contact under certain conditions is considered "optimal" for improving majority group members' attitudes toward minority groups. How does intergroup contact under these same "optimal" conditions affect minority group members' attitudes toward majority groups? a. It generally improves minority group members' attitudes toward majority groups, in much the same way that it improves majority group members' attitudes toward minority groups. b. It generally has the opposite effect on minority group members' attitudes toward majority groups, making these attitudes more negative than they were prior to intergroup contact. c. It generally improves minority group members' attitudes toward majority groups, but the effects are much weaker than on majority groups members' attitudes toward minority groups. d. It has mixed effects on minority groups members' attitudes toward majority groups; this type of contact sometimes improves these attitudes, but sometimes makes them more negative.

3. Instructing people to reappraise anxiety as a normal part of test-taking: a. increases the effects of stereotype threat. b. leads to disidentifying with academics. c. decreases the effects of stereotype threat. d. increases test anxiety.

4. A field experiment in Rwanda exposed people to one of two radio shows over a year. People listened to either a soap opera with health messages or a soap opera with themes of reducing intergroup prejudice. The results indicated: a. the type of show made no difference in attitudes toward interracial marriage. b. those exposed to the show with health messages showed negative attitudes toward interracial marriage. c. those exposed to the show with health messages showed more positive attitudes toward interracial marriage. d. those exposed to the show about reducing prejudice showed more positive attitudes toward interracial marriage.

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Chap_11_3e 5. When a person consumes alcohol, _____ electrical signals indicative of cognitive control are emitted from the brain. a. fewer b. more c. higher wavelength d. lower wavelength 6. Which of the following examples best represents an oppositional culture? a. women nursing students who identify as "helpers" b. men who identify as computer "geeks" c. Black students who perceive doing well in school as "acting White" d. Black students who identify as athletes 7. The 1954 Supreme Court decision in Brown v. Board of Education declared racial segregation in public schools unconstitutional, requiring that schools be desegregated. Which of Allport's four conditions for positive intergroup contact does this Supreme Court verdict reflect? a. equal status between groups b. intimate, varied intergroup contact c. a shared superordinate goal d. institutional support for contact 8. According to the dual process approach to prejudice, Process 1 happens: a. after thoughtful deliberation. b. when people are with members of their own group. c. quickly and automatically. d. when people disidentify with their groups.

9. Research by Word et al. (1974) on self-fulfilling prophecies in job interviewing found that: a. White interviewers showed more discomfort and awkwardness when interviewing Black applicants, and these interviewer behaviors led applicants to perform worse in the interview. b. White interviewers showed more thoughtfulness and sensitivity when interviewing Black applicants, and these interviewer behaviors led applicants to perform better in the interview. c. Black interviewers showed more discomfort and awkwardness when interviewing White applicants, and these interviewer behaviors led applicants to perform worse in the interview. d. Black interviewers showed more thoughtfulness and sensitivity when interviewing White applicants, and these interviewer behaviors led applicants to perform better in the interview.

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Chap_11_3e 10. _____ is an ideology that endorses seeing the value of different cultural identities. a. Multiculturalism b. Colorblindness c. Cultural relativism d. Social dominance orientation 11. Perspective-taking can help to reduce prejudice because it: a. increases empathy. b. increases distancing from a minority group member. c. increases competition. d. increases superordinate goals.

12. _____ is the idea that group identities should be ignored and that people should be judged solely on their individual merits. a. Multicultural ideology b. Colorblind ideology c. Cultural relativism d. Social dominance orientation 13. Research suggests that different groups are more likely to get along if: a. they keep to themselves and do not interact much with one another. b. there is a clear social hierarchy in place. c. they are equal in status to one another. d. they are working toward divergent group goals.

14. _____ suggests that targets of bias can employ strategies that deflect discrimination, as long as those methods aren't perceived as confrontational. a. Terror management theory b. The social identity model c. Stereotype threat d. The target empowerment model 15. Which of the following statements about self-objectification is NOT true? a. Idealized images of women's bodies promote self-objectification. b. Self-objectification increases self-disgust. c. Self-objectification can interfere with cognitive performance. d. Self-objectification only affects White women.

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Chap_11_3e 16. The more interaction and civil behavior there is toward outgroups, the more attitudes tend to change and fall in line with the behavior. This is consistent with: a. self-affirmation theory. b. attributional ambiguity. c. social identity threat. d. cognitive dissonance theory.

17. Olga works hard to appear non-racist, not because she really cares about racism herself but because racism is socially unacceptable, and she wants to avoid conflict with her friends and neighbors. According to research on motivation and prejudice, Olga is likely to: a. develop non-racist attitudes over time, aligning with her non-racist outward behaviors. b. resent having to police herself, and become more motivated to engage in racist behavior. c. leave this community and relocate to one where she is more free to express racist attitudes. d. fail to conceal her racism from others in the community, since her motives are insincere.

18. Wes mainly thinks of himself as a gay man. Thinking about his identity in these terms allows Wes to feel a sense of belonging as a member of the gay community, but also allows him to feel relatively unique as an individual. This group identity provides _____ for Wes. a. optimal distinctiveness b. a superordinate goal c. optimal intergroup contact d. self-affirmation 19. Research by Shelton et al. (2005) found that when Black college freshmen expected others to have racial biases against them, they: a. disclosed more information about themselves to their White dormitory mates. b. disclosed less information about themselves to their White dormitory mates. c. frequently refused to interact at all with their White dormitory mates. d. were much more likely to be confrontational toward their White dormitory mates.

20. Research indicates that alcohol makes people: a. more prejudiced. b. have lower self-esteem. c. more able to control stereotypic thinking. d. less able to control stereotypic thinking.

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Chap_11_3e 21. Research by Stone et al. (2011) found that _____ can make White American participants more empathetic to concerns about prejudice voiced by Arab Americans. a. mortality salience b. self-affirmation c. stereotype threat d. ingroup bias 22. When people are conscious of being stigmatized, they: a. become less vigilant to signs of prejudice. b. become more vigilant to signs of prejudice. c. are less willing to cooperate with others. d. are more willing to cooperate with others.

23. _____ is the process of disinvesting in any area in which one's group traditionally has been underrepresented or negatively stereotyped. a. Stereotype threat b. Disidentification c. Social identity threat d. Stereotype lift 24. In Stage 1 of the stages for intergroup contact, all of the following occur EXCEPT which one? a. salient categorization b. initial contact c. decategorization d. initial anxiety 25. The Robber's Cave Study provided support for the importance of: a. social dominance orientation. b. superordinate goals. c. self-objectification. d. keeping groups separate.

26. Isaac is conscious of being one of the few openly gay men in his small town, where many of the residents hold anti-gay attitudes. In this context, Isaac will be likely to: a. perceive himself as having qualities stereotypically associated with gay men. b. behave in ways that correspond to common stereotypes about gay men. c. perceive signs of prejudice in how people in town behave toward him. d. develop negative attitudes toward the town's non-gay residents.

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Chap_11_3e 27. A benefit of attributional ambiguity is that it: a. shifts the focus of negative feelings onto the biases of others. b. is self-affirming. c. demonstrates that discrimination rarely happens. d. affirms our own biases.

28. Amuchu belongs to an ethnic minority group that is often viewed with suspicion and disdain within the larger society. Because he is aware of the prejudices against his group, Amuchu usually expects interactions with outgroup members to go poorly, since he expects others to see him only as a member of a despised group.

Amuchu likely scores high in: a. stereotype threat. b. disidentification. c. stigma consciousness. d. master status.

29. Which of the following statements about stereotypes is NOT true? a. Stereotypes are schemas that help social interactions run smoothly. b. Social interactions tend to be better when individuals confirm each other's expectations. c. People prefer to interact with others who self-stereotype. d. People are less motivated to get along with someone who stereotypes them.

30. Which of the following examples represents a reappraisal strategy for dealing with social identity threat? a. Lucia reminds herself of all of the talented Latina teachers who were her role models growing up and inspired her to pursue her own education. b. James reminds himself that feeling challenged in college is normal, and isn't something that only Black students such as himself experience. c. Minjung reflects on how much she values and appreciates the beauty of the natural world, helping her worry less about her upcoming English exam. d. Lars tells himself that doing well in his college courses doesn't really matter, since he isn't interested in pursuing a "white-collar" professional career.

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Chap_11_3e 31. All of the following situations involve a high degree of interracial contact. Which situation is most likely to result in improved interracial attitudes over time? a. Black and White tenant farmers (a.k.a. sharecroppers) coexisting on the same landowner's land. Each farmer works a separate plot of land, rented from the owner. b. Black and White students attending a school together. Most of the schoolwork students complete consists of individual homework assignments and exams. c. Black and White telemarketers working at a call center together. Each employee has a private cubicle, and each calls a different list of potential customers each day. d. Black and White factory workers striking together. The workers are on the picket line during the day, and meet each night at the union hall to plan the next day's actions.

32. All of the following are true about the jigsaw classroom EXCEPT which statement? a. It is a cooperative learning technique. b. It has been shown to increase self-esteem. c. It increases peer liking across racial lines. d. One child is designated the leader and the others followers.

33. It is common for people to estimate that they personally experience: a. little or no discrimination. b. less discrimination than the average member of their group. c. more discrimination than the average member of their group. d. an unbearable amount of discrimination.

34. In situations in which people are aroused or upset: a. cognitive control is impaired. b. cognitive control is improved. c. self-esteem is decreased. d. self-esteem is increased.

35. All of the following are difficulties of combating prejudice EXCEPT which statement? a. People may not even be aware that they have prejudices. b. People worry that others will think negatively of them if they change their views. c. Prejudice allows people to displace their hostility. d. Prejudice is part of people's psychological security.

36. One reason optimal contact creates positive change is because it: a. increases stereotyping. b. decreases stereotyping. c. decreases empathy. d. increases arousal.

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Chap_11_3e 37. It is more difficult for people to control their biases under all of the following conditions EXCEPT: a. when they are upset. b. when they are low in self-esteem. c. when they are short on time. d. when they are distracted.

38. Which of the following statements about controlling biases is NOT true? a. Controlling biases requires an awareness that a person has biases. b. Individuals must be motivated to control biases. c. Motivation to control biases can stem from different goals. d. Motivation to control biases stems from external pressures.

39. Stereotype threat: a. depletes cognitive resources. b. increases self-esteem. c. typically improves performance. d. has not been tested experimentally.

40. The jigsaw classroom can be an effective way to reduce prejudice because it focuses on: a. intrinsic motivation. b. self-esteem. c. competition. d. cooperation.

41. An oppositional culture results when members of a: a. majority group strive to make their group exclusive. b. minority group disidentify with their own group. c. minority group create a group identity that opposes the majority group. d. majority group oppose prejudice.

42. The jigsaw classroom succeeds in demonstrating positive results with regard to self-esteem and increased liking among peers of diverse groups. It yields these results because: a. students' responsibilities are informally structured. b. minority children compete in areas where they would not normally. c. stereotypes are made salient prior to the assigned tasks. d. it is beneficial for each child to cooperate with others.

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Chap_11_3e 43. Claire was passed over for a promotion at work. She isn't sure if this was the result of discrimination, or if she just wasn't the best candidate. Claire's uncertainty exemplifies: a. self-objectification. b. attributional ambiguity. c. self-affirmation. d. disidentification.

44. Who is more likely to keep their biases from influencing their judgments and decisions? a. Chu, who worries about being politically correct b. Majed, who wants to avoid making others angry c. Rejan, who wants to be a good person d. Jaylen, who wants to make his new boss happy 45. The tendency for people to estimate that they personally experience less discrimination than is faced by the average member of their group is called: a. stereotype threat. b. disidentification. c. common ingroup identity. d. person-group discrimination discrepancy.

46. Swim and Hyers (1999) found that the majority of women put in a group where men were making sexist remarks: a. directly confronted the men making the remarks. b. talked to a man in the group they believe would be empathetic to them. c. talked to an assertive woman in the group about what to do. d. did nothing at all to challenge the men's sexism.

47. Research showed that focusing people's attention on a shared threat can _____ the effect of _____ on prejudice. a. reduce; arousal b. increase; arousal c. reduce; mortality salience d. increase; mortality salience

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Chap_11_3e 48. Research on stereotype threat found that: a. White students performed significantly worse on verbal problems when those problems were described as being diagnostic of intelligence. b. Asian students performed significantly worse on verbal problems when those problems were described as being diagnostic of intelligence. c. Black students performed significantly worse on verbal problems when those problems were described as being diagnostic of intelligence. d. There were no differences between students on verbal problems when those problems were described as being diagnostic of intelligence.

49. Inferring that a negative experience was the result of discrimination is most likely to buffer a stigmatized group member's self-esteem when: a. the negative experience is perceived as an isolated incident. b. the negative experience is part of a pattern of pervasive discrimination. c. they feel personally responsible for their stigmatized group membership. d. they believe that society as a whole is generally fair and just.

50. When asked to describe themselves, students from an ethnic minority are: a. equally likely to mention their group identity as students from the ethnic majority. b. less likely to mention their group identity than students from the ethnic majority. c. more likely to mention their group identity than students from the ethnic majority. d. unlikely to mention any group membership as part of their self-description.

51. Lisa believes that her most defining attributes relate to her physical attractiveness. Lisa is high in: a. stereotype threat. b. ingroup bias. c. disidentification. d. self-objectification.

52. _____ is the concern that one might do something to confirm a negative stereotype about one's group, either in one's own eyes or in the eyes of someone else. a. Master status b. Stereotype threat c. Stigma consciousness d. Disidentification

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Chap_11_3e 53. Grace is a woman with Puerto Rican ancestry, who was born to an English-speaking American family.

Throughout her life, Grace has primarily thought of herself as a White woman rather than as a Latina. Based on this description, Grace would most likely: a. expect others to discriminate against her based on her Latina identity. b. fail to notice discrimination directed at her based on her gender. c. notice subtle signs of anti-Latin American prejudice in others' behavior. d. be surprised if she experienced discrimination based on her Latina identity.

54. Research on identification with role models suggests that having a female calculus professor can: a. increase the confidence of female students. b. decrease the confidence of female students. c. increase the confidence of male students. d. decrease the confidence of male students.

55. To reduce the harmful psychological effects of experiencing discrimination, individuals can do all of the following EXCEPT: a. devalue the domain where they have experienced discrimination. b. create a group identity opposite to that of the majority group. c. blame negative experiences on bias, and not on themselves. d. accept the discriminatory treatment as fair and justified.

56. One reason optimal contact creates positive change is that it: a. increases self-esteem. b. increases anxiety. c. decreases self-esteem. d. decreases anxiety.

57. All of the following are described in the text as ways people minimize their experience of prejudice in social interactions EXCEPT: a. concealment. b. compensation. c. social support. d. avoidance.

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Chap_11_3e 58. Women who report being frequent targets of sexism: a. show a greater physiological response when they believe they have not personally been targeted by bias. b. show a greater physiological response when they believe they have been personally targeted by bias. c. report an indifference toward bias. d. show a greater psychological response but not physiological response when they believe they have been targeted by bias.

59. Jenny always enjoyed computer programming, but she has decided that she does not want to be a computer scientist because she feels she would not fit in with other computer scientists. Jenny's decision to opt out of pursuing her interest in computer science is an example of: a. self-objectification. b. stereotype lift. c. disidentification. d. ingroup bias.

60. Tony is Black and has decided that school is not that important, as a result of repeatedly experiencing stereotype threat. This is an example of: a. self-objectification. b. social identity threat. c. disidentification. d. ingroup bias.

61. Stereotype threat is more likely to impair performance under all of the following conditions EXCEPT: a. when the stigmatized identity is made salient in the situation. b. when the task is described as an "exercise" rather than a "test." c. when individuals are implicitly reminded of the stereotype. d. when individuals believe their performance will be compared with others'.

62. Which of the following is NOT a true statement about being in a racist or sexist situation? a. People get a boost in self-esteem when they confront someone being racist or sexist. b. People who confront someone being racist or sexist often face anger and dislike from others. c. Those who do the confronting are often viewed negatively. d. Expressions of prejudice can rub off on the observer.

63. The Robber's Cave Study demonstrated that: a. a shared threat can promote intergroup cooperation. b. a shared threat can undermine intergroup cooperation. c. self-objectification can lead to emotional distress. d. mortality salience can increase ingroup bias.

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Chap_11_3e 64. _____ is a common problem or shared goal which two distinct groups must work together to solve or achieve. a. A superordinate goal b. An intergroup goal c. A social goal d. An ingroup goal 65. Experiencing prejudice is especially likely to lead to negative psychological effects such as depression when people: a. blame themselves for their stigma. b. blame others for their stigma. c. are unaware that they are being stigmatized. d. do not perceive negative outcomes as the result of prejudice.

66. In the dual process approach, people's biased attitudes are brought to mind through a(n) _____ process, and then people employ a(n) _____ process to regulate how the thoughts affect behavior. a. cognitive; experiential b. experiential; cognitive c. reflective; experiential d. reflective; cognitive 67. According to the dual process approach to prejudice, Process 1 involves: a. reflexive processes. b. reflective processes. c. coordinated processes. d. physiological processes.

68. Jacqueline says, "I don't care if someone is Black or White, gay or straight, Christian or Muslim, or anything else. None of that stuff matters at the end of the day." Jacqueline's statement reflects: a. a multicultural ideology. b. a colorblind ideology. c. ingroup favoritism. d. a common ingroup identity.

69. When there is a change in behavior it can also lead to a change in attitude. This is the basic premise of: a. self-affirmation theory. b. attributional ambiguity. c. social identity threat. d. cognitive dissonance theory.

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Chap_11_3e 70. Tim and Gregg attended rival high schools, but are now college roommates. When they first met, Tim and Gregg talked for hours about their shared interest in movies, and both of them had the experience of forgetting the other one was a student at their rival school. This reflects: a. ingroup favoritism. b. the outgroup homogeneity effect. c. decategorization. d. a common ingroup identity.

71. Which of the following is NOT a true statement about prejudice? a. Minority group members are often hypersensitive to perceiving bias, and overestimate how biased others are. b. Minority group members may have a perception that they are only seen in terms of a stigmatizing attribute. c. Minority group members may have an expectation that others will perceive them in terms of their group membership. d. People may become vigilant to signs of prejudice when they are aware of being stigmatized.

72. Which of the following examples represents the person-group discrimination discrepancy? a. Nadia believes that she has experienced relatively little gender-based discrimination compared to other women. b. Aaron believes that he has probably experienced more anti-Semitism than the average Jewish person in America. c. Clive is more likely to make a racist comment to an individual Black person than to a group of Black people. d. Jeff is more likely to make racist comments to Black people when he is out by himself than when he is in a group with friends.

73. Jaylen is a gay teen who strongly identifies with the gay community and works with other gay youth at a food pantry for individuals suffering from HIV. According to _____ theory, Jaylen is offsetting the negative consequences of being discriminated against for being gay. a. terror management b. self-objectification c. self-affirmation d. rejection identification 74. _____ is a recategorizing of members of two or more distinct groups into a single, overarching group. a. Ingroup bias b. Disidentification c. Common ingroup identity d. Intergroup harmony Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_3e 75. The _____ states that biased attitudes are quickly and automatically brought to mind, and then people use a reflective process to control how these thoughts affect their behavior. a. self-perception theory b. target empowerment model c. rejection identification model d. dual-process approach 76. Janell is a minority student at the university. Her classmates accuse her of "acting White." This is an example of the effects of: a. social identity threat. b. stereotype lift. c. empowerment. d. stereotype threat.

77. It is possible to increase intrinsic motivation to control prejudice by: a. stressing the need for cooperation. b. stressing the need for competition. c. helping people increase their self-esteem. d. teaching people how to refocus their attributions.

78. Research shows that when Native American children and young adults are primed with Native American– themed sports mascot images: a. their self-esteem increases. b. their self-esteem decreases. c. they feel better about their community. d. they imagine themselves achieving more in the future.

79. _____ is the perception that a person will be seen only in terms of a stigmatizing attribute rather than as the total self. a. Master status b. Stereotype threat c. Stigma consciousness d. Disidentification 80. All of the following are among Allport's principal ingredients for positive intergroup contact EXCEPT which element? a. equal status between groups in the situation b. contact that is intimate and varied c. institutional support d. positive mood Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_3e 81. By providing an opportunity for students to experience prejudice, Jane Elliott taught her class a lesson in: a. self-objectification. b. terror management. c. disidentification. d. perspective-taking.

82. Efforts to control bias can: a. improve performance on other cognitive tasks. b. harm performance on other cognitive tasks. c. enhance self-control cognitive resources. d. never be successful.

83. Sarina is the only woman in an advanced math class. If a negative stereotype about women's math ability is made salient during an exam, Sarina's performance could be influenced by: a. self-objectification. b. stereotype threat. c. disidentification. d. ingroup bias.

84. All of the following are ways to cope with stereotype threat and social identity threat EXCEPT which option? a. accept the stereotype and work hard to overcome it b. reappraise the anxiety resulting from the stereotype c. identify with positive role models d. self-affirmation 85. Which of the following theories helps explain why members of a stigmatized group often band together? a. self-objectification theory b. rejection identification theory c. terror management theory d. self-affirmation theory 86. _____ is the feeling that your group simply is not valued in a domain and that you do not belong in that domain. a. Stereotype threat b. Stereotype confirmation c. Social identity threat d. Master status

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Chap_11_3e 87. Stereotype threat is felt most acutely among those who: a. are not part of a stigmatized group. b. are not aware of a stereotype about their group. c. care the most about being successful. d. do not perceive the task as a diagnostic measure.

88. Research shows that the more people are exposed to counterstereotypic fictional examples of minority groups: a. the less automatic the activation of stereotyped associations. b. the greater the prime for stereotypical feelings. c. the more easily they can disregard the counterstereotypic examples. d. the more they engage in subtle prejudice.

89. White individuals taking the implicit association test, who associated "Black American" with "bad," showed _____ when looking at Black faces for 30 milliseconds. a. lower activation of the amygdala b. higher activation of the amygdala c. increased DLPFC activation d. decreased DLPFC activation 90. White individuals taking the implicit association test, who associated "Black American" with "bad," showed _____ when looking at Black faces for 250 milliseconds. a. lower activation of the amygdala b. higher activation of the amygdala c. increased DLPFC activation d. decreased DLPFC activation 91. Studies on the effects of stereotypic expectations have shown that teachers' stereotypic expectations of their students: a. had no effect on actual student performance. b. changed student behavior such that students performed in line with stereotypes. c. changed student behavior such that students performed counter to stereotypes. d. changed student behavior such that all students performed more poorly.

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Chap_11_3e 92. Bartholow and colleagues (2006) examined electrical signals emitted from the brain, indicating cognitive control. Their study found: a. White participants presented with pictures of Black targets had more of these signals and lower accessibility of stereotypic thoughts. b. White participants presented with pictures of Black targets had fewer of these signals and lower accessibility of stereotypic thoughts. c. White participants presented with pictures of Black targets had more of these signals and higher accessibility of stereotypic thoughts. d. White participants presented with pictures of Black targets had fewer of these signals and higher accessibility of stereotypic thoughts.

93. Stereotype threat has been studied primarily as an explanation for long-standing group differences in: a. personality. b. motivation. c. performance. d. intelligence.

94. According to the dual process approach to prejudice: a. people first employ a reflective strategy to call their attitudes to mind. b. people first work hard to call their biases to mind. c. people bring to mind biased attitudes automatically. d. people think about their past behaviors.

95. Affirming values related to _____ would probably NOT be an effective way of reducing prejudice against Black Lives Matter activists and others calling for dramatic police reform. a. aesthetic expression and beauty b. compassion and love c. achievement and success d. law and order 96. In a college seminar, a Black student reacts to a comment by one of his White classmates by saying, "Wow, could you be any more racist?" According to the target empowerment model, how will the White student most likely respond in this situation? a. by reflecting on and affirming one of their deeply-held values b. by trying to empathize with the Black student's perspective c. by dismissing the Black student as a confrontational complainer d. by apologizing profusely to the Black student

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Chap_11_3e 97. If people believe that others will generally disapprove of their biases: a. they are less likely to express their prejudices publicly. b. they are more likely to challenge others' prejudices. c. they are more likely to develop implicit prejudices. d. they are more likely to change both their public and private views.

98. _____ is a phenomenon whereby intense cultural scrutiny of the female body leads many girls and women to view themselves as "things" to be looked at and judged. a. Self-objectification b. Stereotype threat c. Stigma consciousness d. Disidentification 99. One of the great challenges in reducing prejudice lies in changing the: a. norms of a culture. b. self-esteem of individuals. c. personality of individuals. d. feelings of the targets of prejudice.

100. Arturo is a Latino student at a majority-White college. He is the first person in his family to attend college, and he often gets the feeling that people like him don't really belong there. What is one likely outcome if this social identity threat persists as a regular, repeated part of Arturo's experience at college? a. He will try even harder to be a successful college student, to prove that he does belong there. b. He will try to more fully adapt to the norms of his White schoolmates so he can fit in better. c. He will adopt exaggerated stereotypical Latino behaviors to get along more smoothly. d. He will stop caring as much about college and won't try as hard to be a successful student.

101. Research shows that when people try to compensate for negative stereotypes, all of the following may be experienced EXCEPT which option? a. an increase in cognitive load, leaving them cognitively exhausted b. feeling inauthentic c. feeling embarrassed for compensating d. a disruption in the flow of social interactions 102. People who confront prejudice are often viewed _____ by others. a. as helpful b. positively c. negatively d. as honest

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Chap_11_3e 103. Cohen and colleagues had students write about either a personally cherished value or a value that some might care about but was not central to them. Grades were then tracked. The researchers found that: a. White students were less likely to earn low grades when they affirmed their values. b. White students were more likely to earn low grades when they affirmed their values. c. Black students were less likely to earn low grades when they affirmed their values. d. Black students were more likely to earn low grades when they affirmed their values.

104. _____ is a phenomenon whereby members of stigmatized groups are uncertain whether negative experiences are based on their own actions or abilities or are the result of prejudice. a. Disidentification b. Ingroup bias c. Self-objectification d. Attributional ambiguity 105. Leo immediately feels suspicious and angry whenever he encounters a person who "looks Muslim" to him (which for Leo means anyone who appears to be of Middle Eastern descent), since he automatically associates Muslims with the September 11, 2001, terror attacks. In terms of dual process approaches to prejudice, Leo's reactions reflect: a. Process 1. b. Process 2. c. reflective processing. d. cognitive processing.

106. Which of the following statements is an accurate generalization about research findings on dual process approaches to prejudice? a. Automatic processes contribute to prejudice, but people who are properly motivated can exercise more active cognitive processes to control their biases. b. Automatic processes contribute to prejudice, and it is impossible for people to control these processes and prevent them from influencing their behavior. c. Automatic processes contribute to prejudice, but researchers have developed highly effective interventions that can eliminate people's implicit biases. d. Automatic processes do not contribute much to prejudice; people's conscious attitudes and deliberate decisions are much more important.

107. Teaching people that test anxiety is normal for everyone: a. improves performance on tests. b. leads to more anxiety. c. has no effect on test performance. d. decreases self-esteem.

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Chap_11_3e 108. Sinclair et al. (2005) conducted a study where women had a casual conversation with a male student whom they believed had sexist or nonsexist views about women. The results found that: a. women who were high in affiliative motivation acted more stereotypically feminine during a conversation with a man they believed held sexist views of women. b. women who were high in affiliative motivation acted less stereotypically feminine during a conversation with a man they believed held sexist views of women. c. women who were high in affiliative motivation acted more stereotypically feminine during a conversation with a man they believed held nonsexist views of women. d. women who were high in affiliative motivation acted less stereotypically feminine during a conversation with a man they believed held nonsexist views of women.

109. If a given group within society comes to be associated with fewer negative behaviors and outcomes than it once was, then: a. the group will be thought about even less. b. group members' self-esteem will be even lower. c. the group will be evaluated more positively. d. there will be no change in how others view the group.

110. Which of the following statements about concealing stigmatized identities is NOT true? a. People can avoid some of the negative consequences of stigma by concealing their identities. b. Concealing one's identities is considered one of the most effective ways to cope with stigma. c. People who conceal their identities can have a hard time feeling like their real, authentic self. d. Concealing one's identities takes effort, and is both cognitively and emotionally draining.

111. When Jada interacts with White individuals, she suspects that their perceptions of her are based solely on her being Black. Jada is probably high in: a. disidentification. b. self-objectification. c. stereotype threat. d. stigma consciousness.

112. The negative effects of discrimination on health and well-being tend to become more severe under all of the following conditions EXCEPT: a. when the amount of discrimination people are subject to increases over time. b. when people belong to multiple groups that are devalued or stigmatized. c. when people identify weakly with the stigmatized groups they belong to. d. when people experience discrimination in a repeated, chronic fashion.

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Chap_11_3e 113. Bodenhausen's (1990) research on circadian rhythm and bias in jury decision making found that: a. jurors' decisions were least biased in the morning, and became more and more biased the later it got in the day. b. jurors' decisions were most biased in the early morning and later in the evening, and were least biased in the middle of the day. c. jurors who identified as "morning people" were least biased in the morning, while "evening people" were least biased in the evening. d. jurors' decisions were equally biased regardless of the time of day, suggesting that circadian cycles do not impact decision making.

114. Which of the following statements about prejudice is NOT true? a. It is often reinforced by a long history of socialization. b. It can come to mind easily. c. An awareness of biases needs to exist to help control prejudice. d. External motivation is better than internal for reducing prejudice.

115. _____ is the expectation of being perceived by other people, particularly those in the majority group, in terms of one's group membership. a. Stereotype threat b. Disidentification c. Stigma consciousness d. Master status 116. _____ represents the idea that people can offset the negative consequences of being targeted by discrimination by feeling a strong sense of identification with their stigmatized group. a. Rejection identification theory b. Disidentification c. Ingroup bias d. Self-affirmation theory 117. Michelle Obama has stated that when she was a student at Princeton she felt as if White students assessed her first as being Black and second as a student. This is an example of: a. master status. b. stereotype threat. c. person-group discrepancy. d. disidentification.

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Chap_11_3e 118. A White student joins his school's racially diverse football team. The coach begins their first practice with a speech about how important it is for the team to cooperate if they want to have a winning season. When forming impressions of his new teammates, the White student will likely: a. rely on racial stereotypes to guide the impressions he forms. b. form a generic positive impression of all of his teammates. c. form exaggeratedly positive impressions of his non-White teammates. d. form a unique impression of each teammate's individual characteristics.

119. Michelle believes that people should not try to ignore differences between groups but should instead celebrate the diversity that distinct groups offer. Michelle favors a(n): a. multicultural ideology. b. colorblind ideology. c. social dominance ideology. d. authoritarian ideology.

120. Ahmed sees people of different races as ultimately being part of the same group, namely human beings.

Ahmed sees people as having: a. distinct group identities. b. a common ingroup identity. c. natural social hierarchies. d. natural intergroup conflict.

121. Which of the following is a way to change or reduce stereotypes? a. behaving in ways that confirm the stereotype b. ignoring the stereotype c. making jokes about stereotypes d. providing role models that do not support the stereotype 122. Schmader et al. (2001) gave male and female participants bogus facts about a personality trait called "surgency." Some participants were told that men scored higher on surgency than women, while others were told that women scored higher than men. What result was found? a. Men assigned less value to surgency when told that women scored higher than men, but women did not devalue this trait when told that men scored higher than women. b. Men and women both assigned less value to surgency when told that people of the opposite gender scored higher than people of their own gender. c. Women assigned less value to surgency when told that men scored higher than women, but men did not devalue this trait when told that women scored higher than men. d. Women assigned more value to surgency when told that women scored higher than men, but men's valuing of this trait was not affected by what they were told.

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Chap_11_3e 123. Which of the following is NOT a way that institutional changes can reduce prejudice? a. by establishing new norms for nondiscriminatory behavior, which in turn influence people's attitudes to be more accepting b. by increasing the prevalence and visibility of minority group members who defy common negative stereotypes about their groups c. by formalizing and legitimizing shifts toward greater inclusion that have already occurred at the level of individuals' attitudes d. by reassuring people that they live in a non-prejudiced society, as reflected by institutional changes toward greater tolerance 124. A research study found that women expecting to interact with sexist men were: a. quicker to detect sexism-related words during a computer task. b. slower to detect sexism-related words during a computer task. c. unable to detect sexism-related words during a computer task. d. less likely to judge ambiguous facial expressions as showing criticism.

125. Neil is a White man who believes strongly that in America, people get what they deserve based on how hard they work. Neil recently interviewed for a job with a Latino hiring manager. Today, Neil found out that a Latino applicant was hired instead of him. Neal will most likely: a. infer that the Latino applicant must have been more qualified than he was. b. infer that the hiring manager was biased in favor of the Latino applicant. c. blame himself for not preparing more thoroughly for the job interview. d. begin to develop a generalized prejudice against all Latinos.

126. Define stereotype threat, and describe four of the five conditions under which the effect of stereotype threat is the strongest.

127. Explain how stereotyping can contribute to self-fulfilling prophecies, and give an example.

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Chap_11_3e 128. Describe some of the problems with using a compensation strategy to help overcome prejudice and discrimination.

129. Describe the difficulties in controlling prejudice.

130. Discuss the conditions under which contact between groups can reduce prejudice. Cite research to support your answer.

131. Define the dual process approach to prejudice. Describe the differences between Process 1 and Process 2.

132. Define attributional ambiguity. Provide an example of a positive outcome of attributional ambiguity.

133. Discuss the reasons that prejudice is not always easily controlled, and discuss the negative aspects of using control strategies. Cite research to support the findings.

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Chap_11_3e 134. Explain the dual process view of prejudice. Describe how research in social neuroscience supports the dual process view.

135. Define stereotype threat and social identity threat, and state the relationship between them. Give one example of each.

136. Define self-affirmation, and explain how it helps people cope with stereotype threat and social identity threat.

Give an example of someone using self-affirmation to cope with one of these threats.

137. Discuss the social strategies for coping with prejudice and discrimination. Be sure to include both positive and negative aspects.

138. Explain, in general, how perspective-taking can help reduce prejudice, and describe one example of research supporting this conclusion.

139. Define stereotype threat and social identity threat. Using theory and research on these concepts, what strategies would you suggest to teachers who are trying to improve academic performance among black students?

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Chap_11_3e 140. Explain the basic claims of rejection identification theory, and give an example illustrating this theory.

141. Discuss the difference between a multicultural ideology and a colorblind ideology.

142. Describe how optimal contact can create positive change with regard to prejudice.

143. Describe the ways to cope with stereotype and social identity threat.

144. Describe and give examples of the strategies a target of prejudice can employ to cope with stereotype threat and social identity threat.

145. Describe why it is difficult to change the values and beliefs of prejudiced people.

146. Based on what you know about stereotype threat, how is Lisa likely to perform on a difficult math test if her instructor informs the class prior to the test that women tend not to be as good at math as men?

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Chap_11_3e 147. Describe the concept of stigma consciousness. Explain the role self-fulfilling prophecies play in stigma consciousness.

148. Discuss the psychological strategies for coping with prejudice and discrimination. Be sure to include both positive and negative aspects.

149. Explain why people often do not confront others who express prejudice or engage in discriminatory behavior. What does the target empowerment model suggest about how prejudice and discrimination can be confronted most effectively?

150. Describe Allport's four principal ingredients that are necessary for positive intergroup contact.

151. Define a superordinate goal. Give one research example in which a superordinate goal was created and reduced prejudice.

152. Describe why people may fail to see that they are the targets of prejudice.

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Chap_11_3e 153. Explain how institutional changes can reduce prejudice, discrimination, and stereotyping in a society, and discuss the implications of societies adopting colorblind versus multicultural ideologies.

154. Describe the long-term health effects prejudice has on those who are the targets of prejudice. Include the effects on both psychological and physical health.

155. Define master status. Give one example of how master status affects one's identity.

156. Describe the effects positive roles models have on members of stigmatized groups. Give one example of the effects of positive role models.

157. Discuss how perspective-taking and self-affirmation can play a role in reducing prejudice. Cite a research example to support your answer.

158. Describe the harmful effects of stereotypes, prejudice, and/or discrimination on an individual. Cite research to support your statements.

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Chap_11_3e 159. Define disidentification, and explain why it sometimes occurs in cases of stereotype threat and social identity threat. Give an example illustrating disidentification.

160. Define self-objectification, and describe at least three consequences of self-objectification.

161. Describe the social strategies for coping with prejudice and discrimination.

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Chap_11_3e Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. c 7. d 8. c 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. b 13. c 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. a 20. d 21. b 22. b 23. b 24. a 25. b 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_3e 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. b 31. d 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. b 37. b 38. d 39. a 40. d 41. c 42. d 43. b 44. c 45. d 46. d 47. c 48. c 49. a 50. c 51. d 52. b 53. d 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_3e 55. d 56. d 57. d 58. b 59. c 60. c 61. b 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. b 67. a 68. b 69. d 70. c 71. a 72. a 73. d 74. c 75. d 76. a 77. a 78. b 79. a 80. d 81. d 82. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_3e 83. b 84. a 85. b 86. c 87. c 88. a 89. b 90. c 91. b 92. a 93. c 94. c 95. d 96. c 97. a 98. a 99. a 100. d 101. c 102. c 103. c 104. d 105. a 106. a 107. a 108. a 109. c 110. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_3e 111. d 112. c 113. c 114. d 115. c 116. a 117. a 118. d 119. a 120. b 121. d 122. a 123. d 124. a 125. b 126. Stereotype threat is anxiety over doing something to confirm a negative stereotype about one's group, in either one's own eyes or someone else's. This concern can affect performance on any number of tasks, such as academic performance, memory in older adults, the driving performance of women, athletic performance, and women's negotiation skills. Stereotype threat is most likely to occur when a person cares about being successful in the stereotyped domain. Stereotype threat is more likely to impair performance when (1) the stigmatized identity is made salient in the situation (that is, the situation makes a person conscious of their minority-group status); (2) there is high stigma consciousness or identification with the stigmatized group (that is, the person has formed a pattern of having the stigma or group identity psychologically activated); (3) the task is characterized as more of a diagnostic measure of ability where the group being stereotyped is seen as inferior (e.g., an intelligence test given to a group stereotyped as less intelligent); (4) individuals are led to believe that their performance is going to be compared with the group seen as superior; and (5) individuals are explicitly reminded of the existing stereotype.

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Chap_11_3e 127. Stereotypes contribute to expectations about members of stereotyped groups. An individual relying on stereotypes will approach interactions with stereotyped group members with the expectation that they will act in stereotypeconsistent ways. These expectations, in turn, may lead the individual to behave in ways that actually elicit stereotype-consistent behavior from the stereotyped group member. For example, a teacher who stereotypes a Black student as unintelligent may not call on the Black student in class, or provide much constructive feedback on the Black student's work—thereby giving the Black student fewer opportunities to display intelligence. As an alternative example, an employer who stereotypes women as incompetent may not entrust female employees with any important responsibilities, thereby depriving them of opportunities to demonstrate their competence.

128. Making an extra effort to act contrary to a stereotype can be an effective way of combating prejudice. However, it is psychologically depleting. For example, research suggests that when Black people expect racial bias against them, they are more likely to disclose personal information about themselves to White people. Self-disclosure is very powerful to establish trust and liking. Indeed, the Black participants who self-disclosed more were liked more by their White roommates. However, the self-disclosing students reported feeling inauthentic in the relationship, as if they had been wearing a mask of politeness. Compensation can also disrupt the smooth flow of social interaction by making everyone self-conscious, and the cognitive effort required to manage a conversation that is not going smoothly can be tiring for everyone.

129. Controlling prejudice is not easy because it involves cognitive resources. That is, it takes focused effort and so can be hard to do under stress. For example, if someone is aroused or upset, then it is difficult to use cognitive resources effectively to control prejudice. Similarly, if someone is pressed for time, distracted, busy with a demanding task, or simply not mentally sharp due to the time of day, controlling prejudice becomes harder.

130. For contact between groups to reduce prejudice, Allport proposed that the intergroup contact should be positive.

Ideally, that is due to four ingredients: (1) the groups in the situation should be of equal status; (2) the contact needs to be close and varied, which allows for people to get to know each other; (3) there should be cooperation in pursuit of a superordinate goal, which is a goal that couldn't be accomplished by just one group; and (4) the contact should have institutional support, meaning the approval of custom, law, or authority.

The classic Robbers Cave study by Sherif is an example of optimal contact. In this study boys participated in a summer camp. As the boys arrived at camp, they were assigned to either the Eagles group or the Rattlers group.

Initially the groups were kept separate. During week two, they came together in a series of competitive situations.

The competition for a limited number of prizes (recall realistic conflict theory) created prejudice and discrimination. In week three Sherif introduced tasks, such as finding the leak in a water pipe, where all the boys would need to cooperate with each other to achieve a goal, and the hostility disintegrated. In that last phase, all four of Allport's optimal ingredients were present. The two groups had equal status, the camp counselors were the authority sanctioning the activities, the activities allowed the boys to get acquainted, and the boys worked toward a superordinate goal.

131. In the dual process approach to prejudice there are two processes. In Process 1, stereotypes and biased attitudes are brought to mind quickly and automatically. In Process 2, people employ slower, more controlled patterns of thought to regulate their behavior and judgment. Process 1 is reflexive and based on experience, while Process 2 is more reflective and cognition-driven.

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Chap_11_3e 132. Attributional ambiguity is when members of a stigmatized group are uncertain whether a negative experience they are having is based on their own actions or abilities or is the result of prejudice. A positive aspect of attributional ambiguity is that it does allow a shift of attributional focus. In other words, blame can be shifted onto the biases of others, thus protecting one's self-esteem.

133. Controlling prejudiced thoughts can be difficult at times. Besides the lag time required for the brain's dorsolateral prefrontal cortex to kick in and moderate or override the amygdala's initial reaction, there is also the problem that the mental process that controls prejudice can be undermined by emotional or cognitive overload.

Investigating the effect of emotion, Rogers and Prentice-Dunn conducted a study, ostensibly on behavior modification, in which they found that White participants in a control condition would administer lower shocks to Black confederates than to White ones, but White participants who had been angered by an overheard insult would administer stronger shocks to Black confederates. The anger short-circuited the participants' mental control processes.

Studying the effect of cognitive load, Kruglanski and Freund found that time pressure degraded teachers' ability to set their biases aside when grading students' work. And Bodenhausen found that time of day affected the ability of study participants playing the role of jurors in a hypothetical trial to be impartial: for jurors deliberating at a non-optimal time for them (evening for "morning" persons, for example), judgments were more heavily affected by stereotypes.

Even where factors like anger and mental fatigue do not distort a person's judgment in the moment, the extra effort of suppressing bias in order to make a sound judgment can deplete mental resources. This was documented in a study that found that White students performed more poorly on a demanding computer task as a result of first having a conversation with a Black student. There is also no guarantee that bias, once suppressed, stays suppressed. Studies have shown that people can set aside stereotypes after a few minutes of exposure to another person, only to have those stereotypes be reactivated by later disagreement.

134. The dual process view sees prejudice as involving two separate processes. Process 1 is a quick, reflexive, experience-based process in which stereotypes and bias are brought to mind quickly and automatically. Process 2 is a reflective or cognitive process that controls the degree to which those thoughts affect judgments and behaviors. The dual process view acknowledges that prejudiced thoughts may come easily to mind but emphasizes that they can still be controlled. This requires people to be aware that their biases exist and to be motivated to control them. For motivation, it helps if a person is made aware of the necessity of working with others they harbor biases toward.

Neuroscience research has produced some support for the dual process view. Mental efforts at cognitive control can be detected through the brain's emission of characteristic electrical signals. In a study where cognitive control was impaired by alcohol consumption, lowered ability to control stereotyping thoughts was confirmed by changes in the signals. Brain structures involved in these processes include the amygdala, which is the fear center of the brain, and the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC), which is the region responsible for more controlled processes of judgment. One study found that when White participants were shown pictures of Black faces for a very short time, they displayed increased activation in the amygdala if they had higher IAT scores for Black associations with bad. But as the length of time of the exposure to Black faces increased, amygdala activation declined and DLPFC activation increased.

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Chap_11_3e 135. Stereotype threat is the concern that one might do something to confirm a negative stereotype about one's group, either in one's own eyes or in the eyes of someone else. Social identity threat refers to the feeling that one's group identity is not valued or welcomed in a given context. Stereotype threat is a specific type of the broader phenomenon of social identity threat. An example of stereotype threat is when a woman believes that others think that she cannot do math. If she worries about confirming this fear, then she may freeze up while taking an exam or giving a presentation, and thereby confirm the stereotype. An example of social identity threat could be a Latino first-generation college student feeling like they don't belong and aren't welcome at a majority-White college or university.

136. Self-affirmation involves reflecting on the values that are most central and important in one's life. Doing this helps people satisfy their need to view themselves positively, which in turn makes them less vulnerable to threats to their positive self-views such as those posed by stereotype threat and social identity threat. For example, if a Black student has the opportunity to affirm her value of close relationships prior to taking an exam, her sense of positive self-worth should be relatively secure as a result of the affirmation, and she will feel less worried about the possibility of confirming negative stereotypes about Black students' academic ability.

137. Several social strategies may be employed to help people cope with prejudice and discrimination. One strategy is to confront those with biases. Unchallenged bias not only continues in those who hold it but can also rub off on those who profess to reject it. The difficulty is that people who engage in confrontation are often viewed negatively. The key, then, is to challenge bias in a way that is not perceived as confrontational. In other words, it may be all in the delivery. The target empowerment model recommends that a challenge to someone's bias be preceded by a more positive interaction, such as encouraging the person to reflect on their own values or on things they view as positive.

Targets can also cope with bias by compensating for the negative stereotypes. For someone from a group that is stereotyped as cliquish and stand-offish, compensation would consist of making an extra effort to be friendly and mingle with people outside the group. On the plus side, compensation can have the desired result of changing perceptions. On the minus side, it can produce interactions that for the person relying on compensation may privately feel inauthentic and therefore unsatisfying. That inauthenticity may also affect the interpersonal interaction, causing a less-than-natural conversational flow and leaving both sides feeling a bit disconnected and misunderstood, not to mention exhausted from the cognitive effort.

Depending on the stigma, people can try to conceal their stigma. While this is usually not a viable strategy for race- or gender-based stigmas, it may be used for sexual orientation or religious affiliation. Like compensation, concealment may be effective, but like compensation it can lead to inauthentic experience and cognitive exhaustion.

A final option is to seek social support. On a practical level, a person experiencing discrimination may learn from others who have gone through similar experiences. But additionally, rejection identification theory proposes that a strong sense of identification with a stigmatized group can offset the negative consequences of being the object of prejudice.

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Chap_11_3e 138. Taking the perspective of an outgroup member (i.e., mentally putting oneself in their position) can increase empathy for and create a sense of connection with the target individual, which may generalize beyond that single individual to other members of the outgroup. A few examples of research supporting this conclusion are given in the text: (1) Batson et al. (1997) found that participants who took the perspective of an individual AIDS victim reported greater sympathy toward AIDS victims in general. (2) Todd et al. (2011) found that participants who took the perspective of a young Black man subsequently chose to sit closer to a Black interaction partner. (3) Peck et al.

(2013) found that participants who role-played a darker-skinned person in a virtual reality environment displayed less evidence of anti-Black implicit bias on an IAT. 139. Stereotype threat is fear of doing something to confirm a negative stereotype about one's group, in either one's own eyes or someone else's. This concern can affect performance on any number of tasks, such as academic performance, memory in older adults, the driving performance of women, athletic performance, and women's negotiation skills. Stereotype threat is most likely to occur when a person cares about being successful in the stereotyped domain and is primed for the stereotype. Social identity threat is the feeling that your group is not valued in a particular domain and that you do not belong there. When individuals try to enter and excel in areas where their group is stereotyped as not belonging, they are forced to juggle identities, suppressing their ingroup identity in order to gain entry into the domain in question, at the same time as they are asserting that identity around other members of their ingroup. Both stereotype threat and social identity threat can cause individuals to disidentify with an area of performance, meaning that they decide it is not important to who they are, and therefore they decline to participate.

Since stereotype threat and social identity threat can undermine performance or engagement in activities, educators need to be aware of its existence and power. In a study of stereotype threat, Steele and Aronson found that describing a test as a verbal intelligence test rather than as a simple lab exercise led to lower scores for Black students, even though the description made no difference to White students' scores. The mere fact of labeling the test as an intelligence test apparently activated, for the Black students, harmful anxieties related to stereotypes about academic ability. Thus, teachers may need to be aware of how they frame tasks and assignments and try to avoid reminding students of existing stereotypes.

Other strategies exist, as well. Since multiple studies have shown that members of stereotyped groups benefit from having positive role models, teachers should consider doing such things as hanging wall posters featuring athletes and entertainers who can provide inspiration or inviting inspirational guest speakers to talk to the class.

Since setbacks, such as a poor test grade, can have a particularly strong effect on students already questioning whether they belong (at college, in a major), teachers should help students reappraise their anxiety to see setbacks as a normal challenge for everyone. That teaching technique has been shown to have lasting positive effects. And since it has been shown that students sometimes do better after being prompted to write about their core values, teachers can look for ways to encourage students to think about, and affirm, their broader values while studying to get a good grade on the next assignment.

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Chap_11_3e 140. Rejection identification theory claims that when members of a given group are subject to stigma and discrimination, they can offset these negative experiences by identifying more strongly with and taking pride in the stigmatized group. In other words, members of groups that are rejected or devalued by the larger society can cope with this in part by banding together and forging their own positive definitions of what it means to belong to their group.

For example, the Black Pride and Black Power movements of the 20th century sought to redefine Blackness as an identity to be proud of, and pushed the idea that Black people can self-determine their own fate rather than having to seek acceptance from and assimilate to mainstream White society. A broadly similar trajectory can be seen in the LGBTQ+ community, which has also redefined many stigmatized sexual and gender minority identities as sources of pride and redefined formerly derogatory terms such as "queer" to convey positive meanings.

141. The colorblind ideology is the idea that group identities should be ignored and that people should be judged solely on their individual merits. The multicultural ideology is the alternative view that different cultural identities and viewpoints should be not ignored but instead acknowledged and appreciated.

142. Optimal contact that includes Allport's key ingredients creates positive change using three key mechanisms: (1) reduction of stereotypes through better knowledge and closer understanding between groups—this is called decategorization; (2) reduction in anxiety through increased familiarity; and (3) fostering of empathy, which helps people to look past differences to see what their groups have in common.

143. There are several ways to overcome stereotype threat. First, a person can identify with positive role models or people who have been successful. When people are exposed to a positive role model, the stereotype can be altered and a person may feel inspired to succeed. Second, a person can reappraise their stereotype-related anxiety as a normal response experienced by everyone to the challenges everyone faces. Finally, a person can engage in self-affirmation. If there is a threat to their positive self-view in one area of their life, then they can compensate by affirming other strongly held values.

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Chap_11_3e 144. Three strategies are (1) identification with positive role models, (2) reappraisal of anxiety, and (3) affirmation of broader values.

Multiple studies have shown that people's performance is improved by awareness of others like themselves who have been successful. Harmful stereotypes can thereby be altered, and people will feel inspired to do well. One study found, through random assignment of students to calculus courses taught by either a male or a female professor, that male students' attitudes and behavior did not correlate with the professor's gender, but that female students became more confident and more likely to participate in class when the professor was female. It makes sense, then, for someone who experiences prejudice to seek out role models to be inspired by, be they in-person mentors or notable figures in the person's chosen field.

For those who are targets of prejudice, difficulties and setbacks can exacerbate a sense of being underprepared or otherwise not belonging. If they can reinterpret difficulties and setbacks as challenges everyone faces, then that can help alleviate harmful effects of stereotypes. It has been demonstrated that teachers can improve their students' performance by encouraging that kind of reappraisal of the students' anxieties. But students can also encourage this reappraisal in themselves and with one another.

Finally, several studies have found that a threat to a positive self-view in a particular area of life can be countered by reminding oneself of one's broader core values. So, for instance, if a woman writes entries in her personal journal about why she is in college and what she hopes to do with, for example, her pre-med major, that should have a positive effect on her performance on graded work in an organic chemistry course, and result in selfaffirmation.

145. Changing the values and beliefs of prejudiced people is difficult because their values and beliefs are a basis of their psychological security. A second difficulty is that prejudice may help people deal with their own self-esteem issues and displace their hostile feelings. Third, prejudiced views and stereotypes distort perceptions and memories and thereby become self-perpetuating. Finally, people sometimes are not aware of their prejudices and how these come out.

146. Lisa's sense that the test will be even harder for her than for the males, plus the distraction of thinking about how she was just stigmatized, will most likely cause her to perform worse than she would have if the teacher had said nothing. This is an example of stereotype threat.

147. Stigma consciousness is the expectation of being perceived by other people, particularly those in the majority group, in terms of one's group membership. How people expect to be perceived and treated affects how they behave, and that can produce a self-fulfilling prophecy. For example, someone who believes their group is stereotyped as oppositional and defensive may as a result come into a conversation with a defensive attitude, and thereby reinforce the stereotype.

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Chap_11_3e 148. One way to deal with bias, psychologically, is to blame the bias—that is, refuse to accept the bias as an accurate reflection of one's personality or talents, and instead, dismiss the bias as misguided. This takes the attributional focus off of the individual and can enhance self-esteem, and it can also reduce the shock to one's self-esteem of future encounters with the same bias. Blaming the bias is particularly helpful in cases of attributional ambiguity, where a person has the choice of blaming either themselves or someone else's bias for a negative outcome.

However, that same ambiguity may also make it harder for the person to be sure that blaming the bias is justified.

As an alternative to blaming the bias, people can also decide that the area where they face prejudice and discrimination is not very important to them. As they devalue the domain, they lessen the psychologically harmful impact of the experience of bias. But while this technique does make one feel better, it can be problematic in the long run. A person may be diverted from a career path where they showed great promise. And if the domain carries high social status, devaluing it means accepting one's relegation to domains of lesser status. In extreme cases, devaluing the domain can lead to the formation of oppositional culture in which, say, academic excellence is derided as "acting White." While oppositional culture can increase a sense of solidarity, the rejection of majorityculture standards of achievement can also hurt opportunities for self-improvement and career advancement.

149. People often do not confront others for being prejudiced or discriminatory because they incur certain social costs for doing so. Those who call out prejudice are often labeled as "complainers" and may be disliked, or worse, subject to hostility or aggression. The target empowerment model suggests that targets of bias can respond effectively either by avoiding being perceived as confrontational or by somehow putting the prejudiced individual at ease before confronting them.

150. According to Allport, the following are necessary for positive intergroup contact: (1) equal status between groups in a situation; (2) contact that is varied and close, to allow people to get acquainted; (3) cooperation toward a superordinate goal that no one group can achieve on its own; and (4) institutional support, that is, contact approved by law, custom, or authority.

151. A superordinate goal is a common problem or shared goal that two distinct groups must work on together because neither will be successful alone. One research example is the Robber's Cave Study, where two groups of boys had to cooperate and work together to find a leak in a water pipe system.

152. People may fail to see themselves as targets of prejudice because they are motivated to deny that prejudice and discrimination affect them. This may be a reflection of some people's general tendency to be optimistic. People may also be motivated to sustain their faith that society is set up to be fair and that the status quo need not be challenged. This brings a sense of stability and predictability and helps a person maintain the motivation to do their best to succeed.

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Chap_11_3e 153. Institutional changes refer to changes in the formal organizational structures of a society (e.g., laws, courts, schools, businesses, etc.). When institutional changes occur, this can change behavior fairly directly (e.g., the passage of anti-discrimination laws in the United States reduced the occurrence of legal discrimination in hiring, housing, and other domains). People's attitudes often follow suit with their behavior, so if anti-discrimination policies are adopted, this can eventually result in a decline in prejudiced attitudes within the society. Once an institutional change has become cemented as part of the status quo, people's system-justifying motives will also lead them to develop attitudes and beliefs that allow them to see the institutions in question as just and legitimate (for example, the majority of Americans now view racial segregation laws, which were widespread in the 20th century, as morally unacceptable). Institutional policies that provide opportunities and resources to members of marginalized groups, and increase their representation in mainstream society, can also function to reduce prejudices and stereotypes against those groups. If members of marginalized groups have institutional supports that improve their chances to achieve success and recognition, members of these groups will eventually be more visible in a variety of social roles, including high-status roles. Greater visibility and representation of people from marginalized groups in the mainstream of society helps dispel negative attitudes and beliefs about these groups.

The prevailing ideologies that a society uses to engage with issues of diversity can also affect how the society deals with prejudice, discrimination, and stereotyping. A major distinction made by social psychologists is between colorblind ideologies on the one hand, and multicultural ideologies on the other hand. A colorblind ideology maintains that people are all fundamentally the same, and should be judged on their own individual merits rather than on their group memberships. In contrast, a multicultural ideology acknowledges that there are important differences in the cultures and perspectives of people from different backgrounds, and maintains that those differences should be celebrated rather than erased or ignored. In general, research suggests that multicultural ideologies are associated with lower levels of prejudice than colorblind ideologies. Colorblind ideologies lead people to avoid engaging with issues of group identity, which can allow prejudices and stereotypes to go unchallenged and allow people to more easily ignore ongoing issues of discrimination and inequality in their society.

154. Psychological effects of being a regular target of prejudice include increased depression and lower life satisfaction, less positive feelings about oneself and one's ingroup, and lowered expectations of future achievement.

Physiologically, prejudice acts like a chronic stressor, producing elevated stress hormone levels and leading over time to poorer cardiovascular functioning, plaque buildup and calcification in the arteries, and greater risk of heart disease.

155. A master status is the perception that a person will be seen only in terms of a stigmatizing attribute rather than in terms of their total self. Master status brings a person's stigmatizing attribute to the forefront and pushes other attributes into the background. This even affects how people think of themselves, as reflected in how they describe themselves to others. For example, a Black person may mention their racial identity as a major defining factor in their personal identity, or a gay man might mention his sexual orientation as a major defining feature of his personal identity.

156. Providing positive role models, meaning examples of people from the stigmatized group who have been successful in a given domain, can reduce stereotypes for the people in the group, so that they see themselves more positively. As a result, they have increased confidence that they are capable of success in that domain. One example would be exposing females to successful STEM women.

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Chap_11_3e 157. Perspective-taking is crucial for the development of empathy. People can learn to take the perspective of another through direct contact but also by other means, such as a mental exercise. If empathy can be increased for the target and the target's situation, then a connection can develop between oneself and the outgroup, which reduces prejudice.

Jane Elliott's blue-eyed/brown-eyed exercise is an early, famous example of deliberate, organized perspectivetaking. The exercise was designed to help teach Elliott's all-White class of third-graders about racial prejudice.

The class was divided into two equal groups, with half the students in the blue-eye group and the other half in the brown-eye group. One day the brown-eyed children were treated as superior, and the next day the blue-eyed children were treated as superior. After learning what it was like to be seen as inferior, Elliott's students became more aware of the effects that their own prejudice could have on others.

Perspective-taking changes how people think about others. It is also possible to reduce prejudice by changing how people think about themselves. Interestingly, encouraging people to feel good about themselves and their ingroup reduces people's prejudice toward outgroups. Rather than reinforcing a smug sense of superiority, a boost to people's self-esteem eases their feelings of insecurity and frees them up to be more tolerant and compassionate toward outgroups. One theory that predicts this kind of effect is terror management theory, according to which an improved self-image will lessen a person's need to manage their fear of death by lashing out at others.

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Chap_11_3e 158. One harmful effect of being the target of prejudice and discrimination is the impact on an individual's mental and even physical health. People who experience prejudice are at risk for depression and lower life satisfaction, traceable back to stereotype-related effects like lower self-esteem and less positive feelings about their community as a whole. Sometimes the effect is subtle. This was supported by research that primed Native American children and young adults with exposure to sports teams' mascots of Native Americans (e.g., Cleveland Indians). While many participants did not see the mascots as bad, there were declines in their self-esteem.

Physiologically, experiencing prejudice over an extended period is a chronic stressor and takes its toll on the body like any other chronic stressor. Increased levels of the stress-related hormone cortisol throughout the body are predictive of poorer cardiovascular functioning and a buildup of arterial plaque and calcification, putting the person at greater risk for coronary heart disease.

By affecting how people perceive themselves, being the target of prejudice also has effects on behavior, especially on how people interact with others. People can come to believe that they will be seen not as total individuals but only in terms of a stigmatizing attribute (master status) or their group membership (stigma consciousness), thus causing them to be more aware of and attuned to signs of prejudice. For example, Inzlicht and colleagues found that women expecting to interact with a sexist man were more likely to detect computer-generated sexist words and judge ambiguous faces as critical.

The harmful behavioral expressions of a self-image shaped by the experience of prejudice can vary. Sometimes people will conform to a stereotype, thereby confirming it, in order to get along with others. This can be seen as a case of the self-fulfilling prophecy. Sinclair and colleagues had female participants engage in conversation with a male confederate who they believed was either sexist or not. The women who were high in affiliative motivation (a desire to get along and make friends) were more likely to behave in gender-stereotypic ways with the supposed sexist male, according to both their own later description of the encounter and the confederate's description.

Another harmful effect of prejudice on behavior is disidentification. This is in effect a version of conforming and confirming: when members of a certain group are repeatedly told, or encouraged to think, that they lack the aptitude for a certain area of study or professional practice, they begin to steer clear of it in large numbers. Thus, women who have absorbed the message that computer science is for men are less likely to major in that subject in college. A study documented how priming women to think of computer science as a geek field affects their level of interest in the field. Thus, the stereotype of computer science as a mainly male field can cause women to avoid it.

Another aspect of behavioral response is stereotype threat, which is the harmful effect awareness of stereotypes has on performance. Steele and Aronson gave Black and White undergrads a set of challenging verbal problems to solve. Half of the sample was told that the problems were a diagnostic test of verbal intelligence, and the other half of the sample were told that the problems were a simple lab exercise. The White students were unaffected by the description. The Black students, however, performed significantly worse when the task was described as diagnostic. The interpretation of the finding was that for black students, calling the task a measure of intelligence activated, in a harmful way, their knowledge of negative stereotypes about the relationship between intelligence and race.

159. Disidentification is when a person stops feeling that a given domain is important to who they are, and hence stops caring about or striving for success within the domain. Disidentification can be a functional response to stereotype threat or social identity threat, to the extent that it helps insulate the individual from the negative impact of these psychological threats. For example, if I disidentify with school and stop caring about it, being academically unsuccessful or socially rejected by schoolmates won't affect my self-worth as much.

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Chap_11_3e 160. Self-objectification is where intense cultural scrutiny of the female body, including sexualizing words and images, leads many girls and women to view themselves as objects to be examined and judged. On an emotional level, it increases negative emotions such as body shame, appearance anxiety, and self-disgust. On a cognitive level, harmful effects include disrupted concentration. On a behavioral level, harmful effects can include eating disorders and sexual dysfunction.

161. There are several social strategies that stigmatized targets may use to cope with their experience of prejudice and discrimination. First, they may confront the people who have biases. While this may be difficult, it is a necessary precursor for social change. Second, people may compensate for the negative stereotype people have toward them by making an extra effort to act contrary to the stereotype. People may also try to conceal their stigmatized identity. Finally, people may seek social support from others who share the stigmatized identity, and they may draw strength from embracing their membership in that group as part of who they are.

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Chap 12_3e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The _____ states that when people are still physiologically aroused by an initial event, but not thinking about what made them aroused, then the unexplained excitation can be shifted and interpreted in the context of a new event. a. cognitive neoassociationism model b. excitation transfer theory c. catharsis model d. social learning theory 2. The weapons effect tends only to be observed: a. when the participant is in a good mood. b. if the participant has low self-esteem. c. under conditions of cognitive load. d. when the participant is angry.

3. Which of the following explanations for the link between intelligence and aggression has NOT been supported by research? a. Individuals lower in intelligence are more likely to mistakenly make hostile attributions. b. Individuals lower in intelligence are more likely to experience frustrations in their lives. c. Aggressive behavior early in life can contribute to poorer intellectual functioning later on. d. The same genes that contribute to lower intelligence also contribute to aggressive tendencies.

4. _____ is the tendency to attribute hostile intent to others' actions, even when others' intentions are innocent. a. Instrumental aggression b. Affective aggression c. Displaced aggression d. Hostile attribution bias 5. Exposure to aggression and physical violence at home: a. decreases aggressive tendencies among children. b. increases aggressive tendencies among children. c. has little effect on the aggressive tendencies of children. d. only increases aggressive tendencies among children who play violent video games.

6. Which of the following statements about gender and aggression is NOT true? a. Men and women do not differ in the preferred mode of aggression. b. Verbal aggression can be harmful for the target's emotional health. c. Men's size may play a role in their physical aggression. d. Women are more physically aggressive when they do not feel constrained by gender norms.

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Chap 12_3e 7. Which of the following interpersonal interventions would probably NOT lower aggression? a. including training in effective, non-abusive parenting in the public-school curriculum b. strengthening social bonds between individuals living in the same communities c. holding "neighborhood listening nights" to foster greater empathy in the community d. calling attention to how some members of the community have been victimized by others 8. High levels of impulsivity are: a. associated with greater aggression. b. associated with lower aggression. c. not associated with aggression. d. observed only among children.

9. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which the presence of weapons increases aggression that has been supported by research on the weapons effect? a. Weapons prime aggressive thoughts in memory. b. Weapons lead people to perceive others as more hostile. c. Weapons can elicit physiological reactions that promote aggression. d. Weapons allow people to feel that aggression is socially acceptable.

10. Researchers developed the concept of _____ to explain inner-city gang-related violence. a. subcultures of violence b. cultures of honor c. ingroup bias d. gang-based aggression 11. People often _____ when some impediment prevents aggressing against the original source of frustration. a. suffer a decline of self-esteem b. experience increased death anxiety c. displace their aggression d. become extremely violent 12. Bartholow et al. (2005) examined the weapons effect among hunters and non-hunters. They found that: a. All participants displayed the weapons effect when primed with images of all types of guns; there were no noticeable differences in the weapons effect between hunters and non-hunters. b. Hunters only displayed the weapons effect when primed with assault weapons, and not when primed with ordinary guns; non-hunters displayed the effect when primed with all types of guns. c. Compared to non-hunters, hunters displayed an even stronger version of the weapons effect and became extremely aggressive when primed with images of all types of guns. d. Hunters did not display the weapons effect when primed with any types of guns, whereas non-hunters showed the effect when primed with all types of guns, particularly assault weapons.

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Chap 12_3e 13. Which of the following is NOT considered a part of hostile masculinity syndrome? a. hostile sexism b. belief in rape myths c. enjoying sexually dominating women d. a strong masculine identity 14. Which of the following acts of interpersonal violence would an individual from a culture of honor consider MOST acceptable? a. a rancher killing another rancher to take over their cattle herds b. a man beating his own children in order to "toughen them up" c. a man killing another man who insulted his wife and family d. a man killing another man who belongs to a despised outgroup 15. Male abusers tend to hold the belief that: a. marital violence is acceptable. b. marital violence is unacceptable. c. women are physically stronger than men. d. women are intellectually superior to men.

16. Which of the following societal interventions would probably NOT decrease aggression? a. improve the quality of life b. limit access to guns c. increase opportunities for catharsis d. punish aggression 17. _____ occurs when someone does not respond to an initial provocation but later, when faced with a second provocation, responds more aggressively than would be warranted by that second provocation alone. a. Violent aggression b. Provoked aggression c. Instrumental aggression d. Triggered displaced aggression 18. Low levels of serotonin are: a. not associated with aggression. b. associated with low levels of aggression. c. associated with high levels of aggression. d. the sole determinant of aggressive personality.

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Chap 12_3e 19. Malamuth (1981) found that _____ of men self-reported that there was some chance (i.e., a non-zero probability) that they would rape a woman if they knew they would get away with it. a. 5% b. 35% c. 50% d. 75% 20. A boxer punches his opponent as hard as he can in order to win the boxing match. This is _____ aggression. a. affective b. instrumental c. verbal d. implicit 21. Catharsis: a. is typically effective in reducing aggression. b. often increases or exacerbates aggression. c. has never been tested as an aggression-reduction tool. d. only works at reducing aggression if it is vicarious.

22. All of the following are true about aggression EXCEPT which statement? a. When frustration is arbitrary, people are less likely to aggress. b. The most reliable provocation of aggression is the belief one has of being attacked. c. Attacks to self-esteem often provoke aggression. d. Social rejection can provoke aggression.

23. Research indicates that exposure to violent media: a. increases aggression. b. decreases aggression. c. has no effect on aggression. d. leads to severe mental illness.

24. A _____ is characteristic of regions where people evolved from herding societies and ____. a. culture of honor; the legal system is reliable b. culture of honor; the legal system is ineffectual c. culture of machismo; the legal system is reliable d. culture of machismo; the legal system is ineffectual

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Chap 12_3e 25. All of the following are examples of sexual coercion EXCEPT which one? a. A man asks a woman on a date, even though he expects she will say no. b. A woman kisses another woman even after being asked not to. c. A man forcibly rapes a woman. d. A man continues to rub a woman's leg even after she tells him to stop.

26. Poor intellectual functioning: a. is associated with high aggressiveness, especially in children. b. is associated with low aggressiveness, especially in children. c. is associated with aggressiveness mainly in adult males. d. is associated with aggressiveness mainly in adult females.

27. _____ is harm done to another person that serves some other goal. a. Instrumental aggression b. Violent aggression c. Physical aggression d. Affective aggression 28. Adilah is intoxicated, and she has a decreased ability to read emotions on the face of another person and pick up other social cues. Adilah is exhibiting: a. alcohol inhibition. b. alcohol myopia. c. ego depletion. d. narcissism.

29. Which of the following statements about aggression is NOT true? a. Both humans and animals will usually aggress when competing for resources. b. Both humans and animals will usually aggress over attacks on their offspring. c. Both humans and animals are essentially hardwired for aggression. d. Both humans and animals aggress over issues of social status.

30. _____ is harm done to another person that is elicited in response to some negative emotion. a. Instrumental aggression b. Violent aggression c. Physical aggression d. Affective aggression

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Chap 12_3e 31. Research found that monozygotic twin pairs were: a. less similar in aggressiveness than dizygotic twin pairs. b. more similar in aggressiveness than dizygotic twin pairs. c. very aggressive from an early age. d. not very aggressive from an early age.

32. Which of the following observations would be MOST consistent with the frustration-aggression hypothesis? a. Some individuals display a pattern of aggressive behavior across their whole life span, emerging in childhood and continuing throughout adulthood. b. People become more likely to commit aggressive acts against outgroup members when they are confronted with a reminder of their mortality. c. Around the world, more violent crimes are recorded on extremely hot summer days than on days when the outside temperature is lower. d. Around the world, aggressive and violent acts occur more frequently in places experiencing high rates of unemployment and economic hardship.

33. The more people identify with the character they see engaging in filmed violence: a. the more likely they are to aggress. b. the less likely they are to aggress. c. the more likely they are to experience negative emotions. d. the less likely they are to further consume violent media.

34. Samir is walking down the street when a group of boys start yelling insults and slurs at him, creating a conflict for him about how he thinks he should be treated and how he is treated. The _____ in Samir's brain will be the first region to become active when this occurs. a. amygdala b. dorsal anterior cingulate cortex c. hypothalamus d. hippocampus 35. Which of the following is an example of sexual coercion? a. A man asks a woman for her phone number. b. A man asks another man if he is gay. c. A woman touches a man's genitals even though he asks her not to. d. A woman offers to have sex with a man she has never met before.

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Chap 12_3e 36. When their self-esteem is threatened, narcissists: a. exhibit lower aggressiveness. b. exhibit higher aggressiveness. c. blame themselves for failure. d. become less narcissistic.

37. Self-regulatory strength can be increased by all of the following EXCEPT: a. minimizing obstacles to self-awareness. b. minimizing obstacles to self-control. c. minimizing cathartic opportunities. d. minimizing conditions that foster deindividuation.

38. Evan thinks that the world would be a much better place if he ruled it. Evan is probably high in the trait of: a. narcissism. b. agreeableness. c. neuroticism. d. impulsivity.

39. All of the following are true about triggered displaced aggression EXCEPT which statement? a. People will typically displace the aggression toward any target that is available. b. Someone does not respond to an initial frustration but later responds to a second event. c. Preexisting hostility from the first event biases how a person interprets a second event. d. People are more likely to displace their aggression toward someone they don't like.

40. Which of the following situations would be most likely to provoke an aggressive response? a. Being denied a promotion because your colleague who applied was more qualified and has been at the company longer than you. b. Being told that the delicious dinner special you wanted to order is not available because it was so popular that it sold out tonight. c. Being told that you cannot visit your grandmother in a nursing home because you have a fever and might pose an infection risk to residents. d. Being told you cannot take your son home because he has a 99.9-degree fever, and school policy says a child must have a 100-degree fever to be sent home.

41. One function of the dorsal anterior cingulate cortex (dACC) is to: a. prepare our bodies for "flight" or "fight." b. stimulate aggressive tendencies. c. alert us when there is a conflict between our expectations and the situation we are in. d. decrease aggressive tendencies.

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Chap 12_3e 42. Which of the following factors does NOT explain cross-national differences in the rates of interpersonal violence? a. differences in the extent to which nations' social norms accept versus reject violent behavior b. differences in how available firearms and other weapons are across different nations c. differences in nations' general-level cultural emphasis on individualism versus collectivism d. differences in the proportion of innately aggressive individuals in nations' populations 43. Drugs can contribute to aggression because: a. they can increase arousal and paranoia. b. they cause severe mental illness. c. they are associated with high trait aggressiveness. d. they increase self-control.

44. Frustration is accentuated when we: a. are close to our intended goal. b. think the frustration is unintentional. c. think everyone is feeling the same way. d. expect to be frustrated.

45. Which of the following statements is the most accurate generalization about humans' evolved biological tendencies towards aggression versus nonaggression? a. Humans are biologically predisposed more toward aggression than nonaggression, and it requires strong cultural forces to restrain people's aggressive impulses. b. Humans are biologically predisposed more toward nonaggression than aggression, and only individuals with rare genetic mutations have strong aggressive urges. c. Humans have evolved context-specific tendencies to behave aggressively in some situations, and to behave nonaggressively in other situations. d. Humans' evolutionary inheritance includes both aggressive and nonaggressive tendencies, and which tendency is more pronounced is mostly a matter of individual genetics.

46. For something to be labeled as aggression it has to be: a. intentional. b. violent. c. physical. d. painful.

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Chap 12_3e 47. Within the organized-crime community, members can receive praise and a rise in status for engaging in violent acts that would be punished in mainstream society. These criminal organizations have a(n): a. subculture of violence. b. culture of honor. c. individualist culture. d. collectivist culture.

48. All of the following are true about aggression EXCEPT which statement? a. Intention is key to deciding whether something is aggression or not. b. Aggression can be measured in a laboratory setting. c. Instrumental and affective aggression often are blended together to contribute to aggression. d. Aggressive acts are classified as either instrumental or affective.

49. Ted often trolls people online by picking fights on Twitter and in YouTube comments, because he expects to be entertained by upsetting people with his insulting and absurd comments. Ted likely scores high in: a. narcissism. b. self-esteem. c. impulsivity. d. sadism.

50. _____ is violence between current or former romantic partners. a. Affective aggression b. Instrumental aggression c. Domestic violence d. Verbal aggression 51. Much like humans, nonhuman animals have been observed to engage in aggression under all of the following conditions EXCEPT: a. when competing to control resources. b. when they or their offspring are attacked. c. when their social status is threatened. d. when reminded of their own mortality.

52. _____ is the study of animal behavior in its natural context. a. Biology b. Ethology c. Eros d. Thanatos

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Chap 12_3e 53. Research has generally: a. failed to link playing violent video games to aggression. b. shown that only males are violent. c. established a link between playing violent video games and aggression. d. shown that aggressive tendencies predict interest in violent media, not the other way around.

54. Men who _____ are likely to engage in acts of sexual coercion. a. have hostile masculinity syndrome b. are married c. do not have college degrees d. have instrumental aggression syndrome 55. All of the following are true about alcohol EXCEPT which statement? a. It impairs self-awareness. b. It increases aggression because we expect it to. c. Victims of violent crime are likely to be sober. d. Intoxicated people are less distressed by their mistakes.

56. Playing prosocial video games: a. increases aggressive cognitions. b. decreases aggressive cognitions. c. has no impact on aggressive cognitions. d. increases violent behavior.

57. Violent media is most likely to influence aggression: a. among people who really like video games. b. in poorer countries. c. in urban areas. d. among people who are generally above average in aggressive tendencies.

58. Aggression is less likely to occur if the frustration one is experiencing: a. results from an interaction with a friend. b. seems justified. c. results from an interaction with a member of an outgroup. d. seems arbitrary.

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Chap 12_3e 59. A model of aggression emphasizing that stressors, hostile feelings, and cues associated with aggressive behavior is the _____ model. a. frustration aggression b. cognitive neoassociationism c. social learning d. excitation transfer 60. The association between media violence and aggression is: a. stronger than the association between smoking and lung cancer. b. weaker than the association between calcium intake and bone mass. c. stronger than the association between condom use and sexually transmitted HIV. d. weaker than the association between self-examination and the extent of breast cancer.

61. Individuals with _____ social status generally display more aggressive proclivities when faced with insults or other status threats. a. low b. middling c. high d. both very low and very high 62. Which of the following statements is the most accurate generalization about the relationship between illegal drugs and aggression? a. Illegal drugs primarily contribute to aggression directly; the actual psychoactive effects of drugs, such as decreased impulse control, can make users more likely to commit aggressive acts. b. Illegal drugs primarily contribute to aggression indirectly; because drugs are criminalized, the people who sell and use them are more likely to become involved in dangerous situations. c. Illegal drugs contribute to aggression both directly, through their psychoactive effects, and indirectly, through the situations that the sellers and users of illegal drugs find themselves in. d. Illegal drugs do not contribute substantially to aggression, either directly or indirectly.

63. Research showing that study participants were more likely to shock someone if they had been prevented from obtaining a desired prize provided support for: a. terror management theory. b. the frustration-aggression hypothesis. c. social identity theory. d. Freud's theory of aggression.

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Chap 12_3e 64. Which of the following is NOT an example of aggression? a. A woman viciously insults another YouTube user in the comments section. b. A boy attempts to kick another child but misses. c. A doctor touches a patient's bruised arm, causing the patient to scream in pain. d. A woman shoots a man attempting to assault her.

65. _____ aggression is aggression directed to a target other than the source of one's frustration. a. Instrumental b. Affective c. Displaced d. Violent 66. Sexual coercion occurs when: a. an individual spreads sexual rumors about another person. b. an individual forces sexual behavior on another person. c. alcohol is involved in sex. d. people have promiscuous sex.

67. According to research, what percentage of abused children grow up to be abusive parents? a. 70% b. 10% c. 30% d. 90% 68. Research observed that convicted murderers displayed: a. a greater ability to regulate their impulses. b. less glucose metabolism in their prefrontal regions. c. greater glucose metabolism in their prefrontal regions. d. lower levels of trait aggressiveness.

69. _____ is a type of therapy aimed at helping reduce aggression by focusing on what drives people to aggress. a. Multisystematic therapy b. Catharsis therapy c. Displacement therapy d. Instrumental therapy

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Chap 12_3e 70. _____ is the tendency for the presence of firearms to increase the likelihood of aggression, especially when people are frustrated. a. The weapons effect b. Displacement c. The priming effect d. Hostile aggression 71. Trait aggressiveness is: a. rarely observed in collectivist cultures. b. stable across time. c. not stable across time. d. rarely observed in individualistic cultures.

72. A psychologist running an anger-management clinic has her clients practice thinking of the events that frustrate them as just "things that happen sometimes" rather than as roadblocks intentionally put in their way.

This psychologist is trying to reduce her clients' aggression by: a. expanding their self-regulatory resources. b. increasing their self-esteem. c. improving their emotional self-awareness. d. minimizing their hostile attributions.

73. John loves playing violent video games. However, John does not have aggressive tendencies and rarely experiences hostile feelings. For John, exposure to violent media is likely to: a. increase self-control. b. increase aggression. c. decrease aggression. d. have little or no effect on aggression.

74. Violent media is often appealing for all of the following reasons EXCEPT which statement? a. It is arousing. b. It is exciting. c. It transfers excitement. d. It portrays good over evil.

75. Which of the following IS an example of aggression? a. A distracted driver texting while speeding on a residential road strikes and kills a pedestrian. b. A mother, out of ignorance, feeds her children a deficient diet that causes health problems. c. A bystander forcefully pushes an older woman out of the way of an approaching truck. d. A manager deliberately "forgets" to file a disliked employee's application for a promotion.

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Chap 12_3e 76. Which of the following statements about sexual coercion is NOT true? a. Men who engage in sexual coercion report being aroused by stories depicting rape. b. Men who engage in sexual coercion typically have a very secure sense of self-worth. c. Men who engage in sexual coercion often associate sex with power, authority, and control. d. Sexually aggressive men primed with power-related words rate women as more attractive.

77. Narcissism is a trait that reflects: a. high communal goals. b. greater empathy for others. c. a grandiose but fragile view of the self. d. high implicit self-esteem.

78. While on the playground, Wanda is being teased by a group of girls. After Wanda kicks one of them, the girls run away and leave her alone. After this incident, Wanda starts trying to kick anyone who teases her.

Wanda's violent behavior is best explained by: a. operant conditioning. b. cognitive dissonance. c. excitation transfer. d. displaced aggression.

79. _____ is the ability to take another person's point of view. a. Empathy b. Displacement c. Catharsis d. Perception 80. In the culture of honor research by Cohen and colleagues: a. Southerners were more likely than Northerners to have aggressive cognitions after being insulted. b. Southerners were less likely than Northerners to have aggressive cognitions after being insulted. c. Southerners tended to laugh after being insulted. d. Northerners tended to withdraw emotionally after being insulted.

81. The warrior gene: a. does not universally predict aggressive behavior. b. is associated with low levels of aggression. c. metabolizes serotonin quickly and easily. d. is the sole determinant of aggressive personality.

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Chap 12_3e 82. In cultures of honor, people (especially men) are MOST characteristically: a. less motivated to protect their status and reputations. b. highly concerned about the honor of their women. c. highly motivated to protect their self-esteem. d. highly motivated to protect their status and reputations.

83. Research on aggression found that Major League Baseball pitchers were more likely to hit batters with pitches: a. if the pitcher had low self-esteem. b. if the batter was a racial minority. c. on days when the pitcher had consumed alcohol. d. on days when the temperature was very high.

84. Which of the following is an example of instrumental aggression? a. A runner trips an opponent in order to take the lead in the final stretch. b. A woman stabs her husband after learning he was unfaithful to her. c. A high school student punches a classmate who was mocking him. d. A woman colorfully curses out a man who catcalled her on the street.

85. Alejandro is the class bully who always looks at others and interprets their facial expressions as threatening, even when they are neutral. Alejandro: a. is low on trait aggressiveness. b. displays hostile attribution bias. c. displays a self-serving bias. d. engages in displaced aggression.

86. Which of the following is NOT a trait that has been associated with greater aggression? a. narcissism b. self-esteem c. impulsivity d. sadism 87. _____ can make people more likely to engage in aggression themselves. a. Being friends with an aggressive person b. Being a victim of aggression c. Knowing a victim of aggression d. Hearing about instances of aggression

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Chap 12_3e 88. Some theorists argue that natural selection may have shaped the human mind to _____ valued relationship partners. a. forget b. aggress against c. forgive d. retaliate against 89. Rick wants to vent his aggressive impulses so he works out on a punching bag every day after work. Rick's behavior is an example of: a. triggered displaced aggression. b. affective aggression. c. hostile attribution bias. d. catharsis.

90. _____ proposes that frustration produces an emotional readiness to aggress. a. Terror management theory b. The frustration-aggression hypothesis c. Freud's theory of aggression d. The displacement hypothesis 91. _____ helps to damp out angry and aggressive impulses. a. Serotonin b. Dopamine c. Testosterone d. Estrogen 92. The two brain structures that together generate the fight-or-flight response are the _____ and the _____. a. amygdala; hippocampus b. hippocampus; hypothalamus c. hypothalamus; amygdala d. dACC; amygdala 93. James is not typically a violent man. However, every now and then, when his anger really builds up, he becomes aggressive toward his wife. Which type of abuser is James? a. psychopathic b. undercontrolled c. overcontrolled d. borderline

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Chap 12_3e 94. In studying the harmful effects of aggression, psychologists include: a. only physical harm, and only the harm suffered directly by the victims. b. physical and psychological harm, and only the harm suffered directly by victims. c. physical and psychological harm, and only the harm suffered by victims and people who personally know victims. d. physical and psychological harm suffered by victims, people who personally know victims, and witnesses of aggression.

95. According to ethologist Konrad Lorenz, if we observe aggressive behavior in similar situations among both humans and nonhuman animals, it suggests that: a. this behavior was selected for in the species' evolution because it promoted survival. b. humans are closely genetically related to the nonhuman animal species in question. c. humans learned this behavior in the distant past by observing nonhuman animals. d. humans' aggressive behaviors are purely biological in nature, and not influenced by culture.

96. Which of the following statements is true? a. Women are more likely than men to be physically aggressive. b. Men are more likely than women to be physically aggressive. c. Men are more likely than women to be verbally aggressive. d. Men and women do not differ in their preferred mode of aggression.

97. Long-term exposure to pornography is: a. associated with greater acceptance of violence against women. b. associated with less acceptance of violence against women. c. associated with less sexual aggression. d. unrelated to sexual aggression.

98. Hostile attribution bias: a. predicts aggressive behaviors. b. does not predict aggressive behaviors. c. is only observed among males. d. is only observed among females.

99. Alcohol sometimes leads to aggressive thoughts and attributions because: a. it makes us want to play violent video games. b. it increases testosterone. c. we expect it to. d. it causes aggressive personality disorder.

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Chap 12_3e 100. Using bug-killing as an assigned experimental task, researchers found that the more bugs participants were instructed to kill, the more bugs they voluntarily chose to kill during a subsequent free time period if the: a. participants were high in trait anger. b. participants believed there was some similarity between bugs and humans. c. experimenter provoked the participants. d. participants believe there was no similarity between bugs and humans.

101. Longitudinal studies of the relationship between violent media consumption and aggressive behavior have generally found that: a. consuming violent media during childhood predicts aggressive behavior in adulthood more strongly than aggressive behavior in childhood predicts consuming violent media in adulthood. b. aggressive behavior during childhood predicts consuming violent media in adulthood more strongly than consuming violent media in childhood predicts aggressive behavior in adulthood. c. consuming violent media during childhood predicts aggressive behavior in adulthood just as strongly as aggressive behavior in childhood predicts consuming violent media in adulthood. d. consuming violent media in childhood does not predict aggressive behavior in adulthood, and neither is childhood aggression predictive of violent media consumption in adulthood.

102. Individual differences in trait aggressiveness emerge as early as age: a. 3. b. 7. c. 12. d. 15.

103. The great majority of rapes are committed by: a. the mentally ill. b. men who do not know their female victims. c. men who know their female victims. d. alcoholics.

104. In the psychology of aggression, the most widely studied hormone is: a. testosterone. b. insulin. c. estrogen. d. amygdala.

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Chap 12_3e 105. Troy is really angry at his social psychology professor for the grade he received on his exam. Troy goes home and yells at his partner when she comes home a bit late. This is an example of: a. simple displaced aggression. b. triggered displaced aggression. c. a terror management process. d. cognitively primed aggression.

106. Bruce easily becomes jealous when other men talk to his wife. He tends to have a very uncertain sense of self. Bruce also physically abuses his wife. Which type of abuser is Bruce? a. psychopathic b. undercontrolled c. overcontrolled d. borderline 107. Children who are physically punished at home are: a. more aggressive outside the home later in life. b. less aggressive outside the home later in life. c. more responsible citizens when they grow up. d. typically mentally ill.

108. While driving home after seeing a very intense, exciting action movie, Dennis is cut off by another driver. He pulls up alongside them screaming curses, and throws a half-empty cup of soda out his window at them.

Dennis's aggressive outburst here is best explained by: a. the frustration-aggression hypothesis. b. excitation transfer theory. c. triggered displaced aggression. d. terror management theory.

109. Research indicates that the more violent television people watch: a. the more they believe violence is acceptable. b. the less they believe violence is acceptable. c. the more they believe violence is common in the real world. d. the less they believe violence is common in the real world.

110. Women are: a. less likely to be verbally aggressive than men. b. more willing to ignore aggression than men. c. more likely to be verbally aggressive than men. d. more likely to identify with cultures of honor than men.

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Chap 12_3e 111. One way to decrease people's hostility and anger is to work to: a. decrease their self-regulatory resources. b. increase their self-esteem. c. provide them an opportunity for catharsis. d. decrease their self-awareness.

112. Increasing emotional self-awareness tends to: a. increase aggression. b. increase anger. c. decrease aggression. d. decrease self-control.

113. _____ reflects the idea that if people can aggress in harmless ways, built-up aggression will diminish. a. Social learning b. Catharsis c. Displaced aggression d. Desensitization 114. Alcohol is involved in about _____ of all violent crimes and sexual assaults worldwide. a. 10% b. 20% c. 50% d. 80% 115. Which of the following statements about domestic violence is NOT true? a. In heterosexual couples, the frequency of physical aggression by men and women is equal. b. Most domestic violence is instrumental rather than affective. c. Male abusers tend to believe marital violence is acceptable. d. Cultures of honor promote a more tolerant attitude toward violence against women.

116. All of the following are true about violent media EXCEPT which statement? a. The more people watch violent media, the less they are disturbed by it. b. The more people watch violent media, the more they realize it is fictional. c. People sometimes imitate violent media content in a detailed manner. d. Violence is more likely to be imitated if the perpetrator is reinforced.

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Chap 12_3e 117. Which of the following is NOT a common rape myth? a. Women often falsely claim that they have been raped. b. Many rapes are committed by "normal" men from "decent" backgrounds. c. It isn't really rape if the victim does not physically resist. d. Men don't often intend to rape women, they just get carried away.

118. The _____ is the region of the brain that regulates impulsive behavior. a. dorsal anterior cingulate cortex b. amygdala c. hypothalamus d. prefrontal cortex 119. Women are: a. more likely than men to believe physical aggression is inappropriate. b. less likely than men to believe physical aggression is inappropriate. c. more likely to perceive ambiguous scenes as aggressive. d. more tolerant of violence if they are high status.

120. Declan has an insecure sense of self, and depends heavily on his wife for comfort and security. He verbally and physically abuses his wife when he feels neglected, after which he usually apologizes profusely and promises never to hurt her again. Declan is a(n) _____ abuser. a. psychopathic b. undercontrolled c. overcontrolled d. borderline 121. Bako is likely to employ physical aggression both inside and outside his primary domestic relationship. He is a(n) _____ abuser. a. psychopathic b. undercontrolled c. overcontrolled d. borderline 122. Research on the role of social rejection in aggression found that being rejected: a. increases aggression. b. decreases aggression. c. has no effect on aggression. d. increases aggression but only among children.

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Chap 12_3e 123. _____ is any physical or verbal behavior that is intended to harm another person or any living thing. a. Displacement b. Frustration c. Aggression d. Violence 124. Khalil is a man who is generally not violent, but his resentments with both his job and his in-laws build up, and then he takes out these frustrations on his wife, Samia. Khalil is a(n) _____ abuser. a. psychopathic b. undercontrolled c. overcontrolled d. borderline 125. Describe how cultural differences in individualism and collectivism relate to aggression.

126. Describe the interpersonal interventions to reduce aggression.

127. Explain the two primary mechanisms by which exposure to violent media is thought to increase the likelihood of aggression.

128. Define the weapons effect. Discuss why the weapons effect occurs. Explain and discuss the implications of one laboratory and one field study that demonstrate the effect.

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Chap 12_3e 129. Describe trait aggressiveness and the reasons for the development of this trait.

130. Discuss the evidence that both early socialization experiences and genetic factors contribute to an individual's level of trait aggressiveness, and how genetic and environmental factors may interact in this domain.

131. Describe the weapons effect and why it occurs.

132. Describe the types of personalities of male domestic violence offenders.

133. Explain the revised form of the frustration-aggression hypothesis. Provide a real-world example of aggression that would be consistent with the frustration-aggression hypothesis.

134. Describe the different types of harm that can result from aggressive acts, and who can be harmed by them.

135. Describe how trait aggressiveness, intelligence, and narcissism are related to aggression.

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Chap 12_3e 136. Explain how, according to Lorenz (1966), human technology can bypass natural evolved mechanisms that would ordinarily prevent us from seriously hurting or killing each other.

137. Describe the similarities in humans' and nonhuman animals' aggressive behavior that have been documented by researchers taking an ethological perspective.

138. Describe the differences between men and women on types of aggression typically exhibited. Explain why researchers think this difference exists.

139. Define triggered displaced aggression and describe when it is most likely to occur.

140. Describe how intellectual functioning and aggression are related.

141. Imagine you are serving as a consultant for an organization that wants to put forward legislation in favor of gun control. Discuss research that you could provide to help make the case for increased gun control.

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Chap 12_3e 142. Imagine that you have been asked by a local school to help with an interpersonal intervention, in the form of a workshop for parents whose children are displaying aggressive behavior. Based on research on interpersonal interventions, provide a brief description of a workshop presentation that you think could help to reduce aggression at school.

143. Explain how larger status discrepancies are implicated in the link between cultures of honor and aggression.

144. Describe each of the three types of male domestic violence offenders, as identified by research.

145. Define narcissism and describe how it is related to aggression.

146. Imagine you are to give a presentation to a group of parents on the influence of violent video games in promoting aggression. Discuss what you would say in your presentation regarding the scientific research linking violent media to aggression.

147. Define a culture of honor, and discuss its origins. Discuss regional differences in the United States with regard to the culture of honor, and provide a research study to support your discussion.

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Chap 12_3e 148. Explain excitation transfer theory, and give an example of aggression fueled by excitation transfer. How is this phenomenon different from triggered displaced aggression?

149. Discuss the difference between affective aggression and instrumental aggression. Give one example of each.

150. List three common rape myths. Describe what motivates men who rape.

151. Describe how serotonin is associated with aggression and how varying levels of serotonin increase or decrease aggression.

152. Define the hostile attribution bias. Give an example of this bias in action.

153. Describe the regions of the brain that respond to threats.

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Chap 12_3e 154. Discuss the brain regions involved in the detection of social threat, the experience of anger, and aggressive behavior.

155. Describe displaced aggression and the condition that usually leads to displaced aggression.

156. Describe the frustration-aggression hypothesis. Give one example of this hypothesis from research.

157. Describe three reasons why alcohol increases aggression.

158. Describe the idea of a culture of honor. Discuss the historical influences on the development of the culture of honor.

159. Describe how the prefrontal cortex plays a role in human aggression. Include in your discussion the relevant sections of the prefrontal cortex and the role serotonin plays in damping aggressive behaviors.

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Chap 12_3e 160. Describe the cognitive neoassociationism model of aggression.

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Chap 12_3e Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. b 6. a 7. d 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. c 12. b 13. d 14. c 15. a 16. c 17. d 18. c 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_3e 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. d 31. b 32. d 33. a 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. c 38. a 39. a 40. d 41. c 42. d 43. a 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. a 48. d 49. d 50. c 51. d 52. b 53. c 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_3e 55. c 56. b 57. d 58. b 59. b 60. c 61. a 62. c 63. b 64. c 65. c 66. b 67. c 68. b 69. a 70. a 71. b 72. d 73. d 74. c 75. d 76. b 77. c 78. a 79. a 80. a 81. a 82. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_3e 83. d 84. a 85. b 86. b 87. b 88. c 89. d 90. b 91. a 92. c 93. c 94. d 95. a 96. b 97. a 98. a 99. c 100. b 101. a 102. a 103. c 104. a 105. b 106. d 107. a 108. b 109. c 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_3e 111. b 112. c 113. b 114. c 115. b 116. b 117. b 118. d 119. a 120. d 121. a 122. a 123. c 124. c 125. Individualistic cultures tend to have more interpersonal aggression than collectivist cultures. Some researchers believe the reason to be that individualistic cultures put a greater emphasis on independence and self-reliance, while collectivistic cultures put a greater emphasis on cooperation and harmonious relationships.

126. The interpersonal interventions to reduce aggression include (1) improve parental care by training parents in more effective child rearing methods, (2) strengthen social connections to foster a greater sense of community with more cooperation and less competition, and (3) enhance empathy or the ability to take another person's point of view and experience the emotions that are being felt by another.

127. The two main mechanisms by which consuming violent media increases viewers' likelihood of aggression are (1) social learning and (2) desensitization. With respect to social learning, viewers are exposed to characters who model violent behavior (or, in the case of video games, players actually assume the role of violent actors). Media portrayals often encourage viewers to identify with violent protagonists, frequently portray protagonists being rewarded for their violence, present violence as justified and necessary, and minimize or sanitize the harm resulting from violence, all of which make viewers more likely to imitate the violent behavior they see on screen. With respect to desensitization, repeated exposure to violent media can lead viewers to believe that violence is actually commonplace in the real world, and can result in diminished emotional reactions to witnessing violence and reduced empathy for victims. Consistent with this, neural responses associated with surprise are diminished among people exposed to violent media. Those who become desensitized to aggression and its consequences in this way are more likely to commit acts of aggression themselves.

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Chap 12_3e 128. The weapons effect is the tendency for the presence of firearms to increase the likelihood of aggression, especially when people are frustrated. One explanation for this effect is provided by the cognitive neoassociationism model, which expands on the frustration-aggression hypothesis by identifying three causal factors associated with aggression: physical stressors, arousal, and priming cues. The weapons effect is an example of the third kind of factor: the mere presence of a weapon in a situation can cause escalated aggression.

Several studies, both lab and field, have confirmed the weapons effect. In a laboratory study, subjects believed they were participating in an investigation of the connection between physiology and stress. The initial phase involved the subjects' receiving mild electric shocks based on their performance on a brainstorming task. The second phase gave those subjects a chance to administer shocks to the confederate who had been shocking them during phase one. With subjects who had been goaded into anger through shocks administered unfairly (as they thought), their retaliatory shocks in phase two were stronger if firearms were lying in view, ostensibly as leftovers from a previous study, than if innocuous items such as a badminton racquet were instead displayed. And in a field study, a researcher had a pickup truck outfitted with a gun rack stall at a traffic light. The experimental conditions were varied to either include or omit a military-style rifle visible in the rack, and to include a bumper sticker that read either "VENGEANCE" or "FRIEND." Drivers stuck behind the stalled truck were more likely to honk when the gun was present and the sticker read "VENGEANCE," and they were least likely to honk with the opposite primes.

The experiments illustrate the ability of visual cues to prime aggression-related thoughts and thereby promote aggressive behavior. It may be, however, that the weapons effect is also due in part to another factor identified by the cognitive neoassociationism model, namely arousal. At least one study has found that handling a firearm can increase testosterone levels, and raised testosterone levels are known to predispose one to feelings of anger and aggressive behavior.

129. Trait aggressiveness is the trait in some people of being more likely to aggress than others over time and across situations. People high in trait aggressiveness tend to have hostile thoughts, express anger, and engage in physical and verbal aggression. Both nature and nurture influence trait aggressiveness. On the nurture side, a coercive parenting style (inconsistent discipline, physical abuse, and exposure to family conflict) can contribute to a child's developing trait aggressiveness. On the nature side, a genetically based inability to metabolize and secrete serotonin, a hormone that moderates negative emotions and their expression, can contribute to trait aggressiveness.

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Chap 12_3e 130. Evidence suggests that both socialization experiences early in life and genetic factors contribute to the level of trait aggressiveness that an individual develops. With respect to socialization, some of the most direct evidence concerns the relationship between parenting practices and children's aggressive behavior. A variety of "bad" parenting practices, including coercive parenting, inconsistency in discipline, abuse, and frequent in-home conflict are all associated with greater likelihood that children will display aggressive tendencies later in life. Children exposed to these parent behaviors can learn both to behave aggressively themselves, and to interpret social situations in ways that make aggression more likely. This latter pattern is known as a hostile attributional bias; children from hostile family environments tend to infer that others have hostile motives, making them more likely to respond to others with hostility themselves. Children who are mistreated by their parents also tend to experience heightened levels of anger, and to ruminate about their anger, which also make aggressive acts more likely.

With respect to genetic factors, twin studies consistently find that monozygotic twins (i.e., identical twins, who share 100% of their genes) display more similar levels of aggression to each other than dizygotic twins (i.e., fraternal twins, who share on average 50% of their genes). Because twins have similar social environments, these findings imply that trait aggressiveness is partly a matter of genetic inheritance. Some studies have also found that specific genes, such as a particular allele of the gene that codes for the enzyme monoamine oxidase A (MAO-A; an enzyme involved in the metabolism of serotonin), are associated with heightened levels of aggression and violent behavior.

Research on this allele of the MAO-A gene, known as the "warrior gene," points to an interaction of genetics and the social environment in producing aggression rather than a pure genetic influence. Those with the warrior gene are not more aggressive across all situations, but only display more aggression in situations where they are somehow provoked. Thus, having this allele of the MAO-A gene does not guarantee that a person will be highly aggressive; someone with this gene might live a largely peaceful, harmonious life as long as they do not encounter frequent provocations in their social environment.

131. The weapons effect is the tendency for the presence of a firearm to increase the likelihood of aggression, especially when people are frustrated. The weapons effect occurs because weapons prime aggression-related thoughts, which make it more likely that those thoughts will translate into aggressive ways to deal with anger. The handling of weapons can also induce a physiological reaction, in the form of elevated testosterone levels, that also makes aggression more likely.

132. The literature on domestic violence describes three types of male domestic offender personalities. First, the psychopathic abuser is an abuser both in and outside of the relationship. He typically has low impulse control and a history of violence. The overcontrolled abuser is generally not violent but builds up resentments from various aspects of his life and displaces his aggression onto his partner. The borderline abuser is a narcissist and likely a borderline personality, with an insecure sense of self, defensive traits, and abandonment issues. They are overly dependent on their partner and use jealous outbursts as a method of control.

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Chap 12_3e 133. In its current form, the frustration-aggression hypothesis states that frustration or a blocked goal produces an emotional readiness to aggress. The greater the frustration, the more likely and the stronger the resulting aggression. This is a weaker version of the original form, according to which frustration always led to aggression and aggression was always preceded by frustration. In both forms of the hypothesis, however, it is possible for the frustration to remain contained, and even to build, until it comes out in an act of displaced aggression, as when, for example, anger over being fired from work leads a person to kick a sleeping dog. Displaced aggression may occur when the original source of the frustration is a high-status person whom it would be imprudent to attack, or when the source is intangible (e.g., an economic downturn). If the later target is a source of frustration in its own right (say, a scampering dog that gets underfoot), the aggression is called triggered displaced aggression.

Student real-world examples will vary. A possible example would be a high-profile criminal case with a jury verdict widely perceived to be unfair. Subsequent street protests might be an expression of simmering frustration over issues highlighted in the case, such as racial tensions or a perceived pattern of police misconduct. If protesters vandalized cars parked near the site of the protest, that would be displaced aggression. If they vandalized a car after being angered by the driver's speech or manner of driving, that would be triggered displaced aggression.

134. Acts of aggression can cause both physical and psychological harm. Physical aggression can cause pain, injury, or death. Both physical and verbal/social forms of aggression can cause psychological harm as well. Acts of physical violence can traumatize their victims, leading to ongoing issues including anxiety, nightmares, rumination, insomnia, and other problems. Being the victim of verbal aggression can make people feel anxious, depressed, isolated, hopeless, and humiliated, which can become chronic issues and disrupt day-to-day functioning (e.g., impairing students' school performance). While physical harm is limited to those directly victimized, the psychological harms caused by aggressive acts can extend to people who know victims of aggression (e.g., the bereaved parents of a murdered child) and to those who witness acts of violence (e.g., the child who witnesses his father beating his mother).

135. Trait aggressiveness is a trait, emerging as early as age three in some children, where people are susceptible to hostile thoughts, are likely to express anger, and tend to engage in aggression. It is a fairly stable trait across the life span. Studies show that people who are high in trait aggressiveness engage in higher levels of aggressive behavior both when provoked and under more neutral conditions.

Poor intellectual functioning is linked to high aggressiveness. This is especially true in children. There are probably several reasons for this. For one thing, poor intellectual functioning means a greater likelihood of misreading a social situation and incorrectly inferring that others are deliberately giving offense when they are not. Another element is the increased frustration level that comes with greater difficulty handling everyday tasks. Finally, poor intellectual functioning also translates into poor judgment about how and when to express anger. To make matters worse, aggression in turn can exacerbate intellectual deficits by disrupting relationships with teachers and peers, who might help with mental and academic development.

Narcissists are people with a very grandiose but fragile sense of self. Their verbal self-assessments are exaggeratedly positive ("If I ruled the world, it would be a much better place"), but their self-esteem is often low when measured implicitly. Narcissists respond to perceived threats with high levels of aggression. They feel vulnerable and are especially agitated in the face of threats to their self-view.

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Chap 12_3e 136. Lorenz observed that many nonhuman species seem to employ strategies that minimize the chances of serious injury or death when intra-species aggression occurs. For example, when dogs fight, the loser of the fight typically makes a display of submission that signals to the winner that they are done fighting, and the winner generally "accepts" this display and the fight ends before either dog is seriously hurt or killed. However, humans have developed technologies that make it comparatively easy for us to severely injure or kill each other very quickly, before we can register signs of submission or suffering that might otherwise lead us to stop aggressing. Even simple weapons like knives can inflict serious injuries very quickly, and these issues are compounded when we consider weapons like guns, bombs, drones, and so on that allow us to harm each other across ever-greater distances.

137. Broadly, the findings of ethological research imply that humans and nonhumans engage in aggression in many of the same situations, and that aggressive behavior serves similar functions for both humans and nonhuman animals. In both humans and animals, aggression occurs: (1) when individuals are competing to control resources, (2) when individuals or their offspring are physically threatened, and (3) when an individual's place within a social status hierarchy is threatened. Often, displays of anger occur first, but if these are not sufficient to settle the conflict then it may escalate to physical aggression.

138. Men tend to be more physically aggressive, and women tend to be more verbally aggressive. One theory about the difference is that men's higher testosterone levels incline them more toward physical violence. A second theory points to men's greater physical size as making physical violence more feasible. A third theory posits that men are naturally more inclined to read social cues as threats to their reputation. A more culture-based explanation would be that women are more strongly socialized to regard physical aggression as inappropriate.

139. Triggered displaced aggression is most likely to occur when someone does not respond to an initial provocation and later encounters a second provocation. The second provocation then triggers disproportionate aggression because the person is still frustrated from the first provocation.

140. Poor intellectual function is associated with high aggressiveness, most likely for several reasons. One reason is a greater likelihood of misjudging social situations and taking offense where none was intended. Another reason is a higher baseline frustration level, due to greater challenges with everyday activities. A third reason is poor judgment about how and when to express anger. In addition, aggression in turn can also be a contributing cause of poor intellectual functioning, because aggression in children tends to disrupt relationships with peers and teachers and thereby deprives the children of learning opportunities.

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Chap 12_3e 141. The first thing I would tell the group about is the weapons effect. This is the tendency for the presence of firearms to increase the likelihood of aggression, especially when people are frustrated. To earn credibility as an expert, I would tell them that the weapons effect can be understood using the cognitive neoassociationism model. This model posits that there are three causal factors associated with aggression: physical stressors, arousal, and priming cues. The weapons effect is an example of the third kind of factor: the mere presence of a weapon in a situation can act as a visual cue that causes escalated aggression, by making aggression-related thoughts more readily available. Physically interacting with guns can increase testosterone levels, which will predispose one to arousal, another factor identified by the cognitive neoassociationism model. High testosterone levels correlate with anger and aggression.

I would bolster my argument by citing statistics about the lethality of guns. Aggression by firearms leads to death one in six times compared with aggression by knife, where only about 1 in 30 attacks are fatal. Shootings involving semiautomatic weapons yield more rounds, and that amounts to more harm inflicted. I would add some statistics about annual gun violence totals. In 2011, according to the U.S. Bureau of Justice Statistics, 11,101 people were killed by gun violence, and 478,400 people were victims of a crime committed with a gun. Between 1993 and 2011, 60% to 70% of the murders in the United States were committed with guns, especially handguns. Furthermore, people in homes with guns are 2.7 times more likely to be murdered than those in homes without guns. I would also bring up the fact that when alcohol is involved, inhibitions are lowered and people are more likely to act on their impulses. When there is a weapon available, the possibility of someone reaching for that weapon increases.

The bottom line is this: if guns are not present or available, then they act as less of a prime for aggression, and if aggression does occur, the consequences of the violence are minimized.

142. I would begin my presentation with an overview of what aggression is and how damaging aggression can be. I would remind the parents that we often say "sticks and stones may break my bones, but names will never hurt." I would then tell them why this is not true and talk a bit about aggression being both physical and relational. I would also remind them that both boys and girls can be aggressive.

After setting the stage with that brief description, I would focus on providing helpful information to the parents about ways to reduce aggression in children. I would stress the importance of good communication, both between parents and children and out in the larger social world. I would also talk about how children who are not very skilled in social communication may be too quick to perceive a remark, gesture, or facial expression as hostile. (I would talk to the school administration about the need for a comprehensive anti-bullying program so children can learn to develop positive relationships with their peers.)

It would be useful for parents to know that they should stress to their children to try and "tend and befriend" others, and to look at things from another's point of view. I would encourage the parents to use opportunities at home to ask their children "How do you think that feels?" This would strengthen their children's empathy and social skills and lower their aggression levels. It will also be good for the children being befriended, since acceptance leads to lower aggression compared with social rejection.

I would end by stressing that raising children is a team effort; the school wants to be of help and is working to make sure it is doing its job in teaching the children good behavior at school. (Again, I would want to see an antibullying program in place.) I would say this because I don't want parents to feel as if they are being targeted for their children's aggressive behaviors. That might make the parents more defensive and undermine the effort to help them.

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Chap 12_3e 143. The larger disparities in wealth and status found in herding societies account for the link between cultures of honor and aggressive tendencies. Men with low status in herding societies are highly motivated to protect what they have in order not to slip even further downward in status and in self-worth. Therefore, they are more sensitive to status threats and thus more inclined to be aggressive.

144. The three types of male domestic violence offenders are the psychopathic abuser, the overcontrolled abuser, and the borderline abuser. The psychopathic abuser is an equal opportunity abuser. He is likely to use physical aggression in all aspects of his life, both inside and outside his close relationships. He has low impulse control and often a history of violent behavior. The overcontrolled abuser, by contrast, is able to regulate his behavior outside the home but builds up anger and resentment from various aspects of his life (e.g., his job) and then makes his domestic partner the target of displaced aggression. The borderline abuser is narcissistic, meaning that he has a grandiose yet fragile view of himself. He also has a borderline personality, meaning that he is insecure, defensive, angry, and impulsive and has abandonment issues. Often his childhood was marked by neglect or abuse and by shaming, typically coming from his father. For this kind of abuser, the relationship with the partner is a source of psychological security. He will use emotional manipulation, often including a cycle of jealous, abusive outbursts and contrite apologies, to control his partner and keep her or him in the relationship.

145. Narcissists have a grandiose but fragile view of themselves. On implicit tests of self-esteem they score low, even though they speak of themselves in glowing terms. Narcissism is most likely to increase aggression when the individual feels that her or his self-view is under threat. This occurs because narcissists have a very fragile view of self and thus are more likely to turn to aggression to defend that self-view. In short, it is narcissists' sense of vulnerability, not their grandiosity, that underlies their aggressive behavior.

146. First, I would approach parents in my presentation by talking about how popular violent media content, including video games, is in today's world. I would stress that even though research shows there is a strong correlation between violent media and aggression, the profitability of the media continues to override the research. I think it would be important to discuss why violent media is popular and appealing. First, people who are often high in sensation seeking or are feeling bored like to watch violent media because they are not in any real danger.

Second, when children or teens are watching violent media, they get to identify with the hero (especially when playing a first-person shooter video game), and that may give them a boost in self-esteem and a reassuring sense that good triumphs in the end.

Parents may not be the best group to bombard with statistics, but I would tell them that research shows that the more violent programs an individual watches as a child, the more likely that person is to be violent up to 22 years later. One study showing that exposure to playing video games increases aggression was conducted by Konijn and colleagues. In this study Dutch adolescent boys were randomly assigned to play a violent or a nonviolent video game for 20 minutes and then to play a competitive game with another study participant. The winner got to blast the loser with noise ranging in loudness from tolerable to potentially hearing-damaging. The adolescents who had played violent video games tended to choose higher noise levels.

Parents would also need to know that through social learning, both children and adults can acquire more aggressive patterns of behavior. People tend to imitate the behaviors they observe in others, and the more a viewer identifies with the aggressive character being observed, the more readily the learning of aggression occurs.

Moreover, where violent behavior in a video game leads to winning the game, the behavior is reinforced. Of course, parents would be saying not my kid, and they could well be right. But violent media makes violent scripts and thoughts more accessible for people experiencing stress and hostile feelings. Parents should be aware of this.

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Chap 12_3e 147. In a culture of honor, people, especially men, are highly motivated to protect their status or reputation. Threats to honor, masculinity, and reputation are met with a quick, aggressive response, and so conflict is frequent. Cultures of honor are thought to originate where environments are difficult and authorities are ineffective. Historically, these circumstances are most likely to apply in herding cultures, where people depend for sustenance on livestock, which is easier to steal than agricultural crops. People on the alert for threats to their herds are poised to respond aggressively.

Cohen and Nisbett cite historical environmental and economic conditions to explain how the culture of honor varies geographically in the United States. Settlers in the South often came from pastoral, herding societies, such as Scotland. Western settlers were more dependent on cattle ranching and sheepherding than on farming. The South and West were also less inhabited and widely scattered, and they had weaker law enforcement. People had to protect their own property.

In a study demonstrating these regional differences, male college students from either the North or the South were put in a situation where someone bumped into them and then cursed them for being in the way. Students from the North did not show much of a reaction, but Southern students tended to act as though their masculine reputations were threatened and later on were more likely to aggress or react aggressively to others (e.g., not moving out of another person's way).

148. Excitation transfer theory suggests that whenever people are put into a high-arousal state, but are no longer thinking about the original source of that arousal, the lingering arousal can carry over (i.e., be transferred) to how people interpret and respond to subsequent events. This can lead people to overreact to perceived provocations.

For example, if I am on my way home from an intensive workout and somebody bumps into me in the street, the residual arousal from my workout might carry over into my response, leading me to react more aggressively to being bumped than I otherwise would have. In contrast to triggered displaced aggression, the original source of arousal in excitation transfer can be a neutral event; it doesn't have to be a frustrating event that elicited hostile feelings.

149. Affective aggression is harm done to another person in response to a negative emotion, whereas instrumental aggression is done because it serves another goal. Student examples will vary. An example of affective aggression would be vandalizing a romantic partner's car during an ugly quarrel. An example of instrumental aggression would be a criminal vandalizing someone's car to frighten them out of testifying in court.

150. Common rape myths include "She asked for it," "It wasn't really rape," "He didn't mean to," "She wanted it," "She lied," "Rape is a trivial event," and "Rape is a deviant event." Men who rape are motivated by the idea of dominating women and by insecurity about, and hostility toward, women. They also associate sex with power.

151. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter known as the feel good neurotransmitter. Together with the prefrontal cortex, which has many of the associated receptors, serotonin helps control impulsive responses to distressing events by regulating our negative emotions. Low levels of serotonin are associated with high levels of aggression. The causal link between serotonin and aggression has been demonstrated by experimental studies in which people's serotonin levels were artificially manipulated.

152. The hostile attribution bias is the tendency to attribute hostile intent to others' actions, even when the others' intentions are innocent. Student answers may vary with regard to the example. One example would be a bully who mistakenly infers hostility in others by misreading their facial expressions or nonverbal behavior.

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Chap 12_3e 153. The dorsal anterior cingulate cortex activates when there is a conflict between what was expected and what is actually happening. Provocations and insults activate this part of the brain because these situations created conflict between our expectations and our actual treatment. The hypothalamus and the amygdala produce the response to the threat; the hypothalamus kicks the body into high arousal, in preparation for a fight-or-flight response, while the amygdala generates the appropriate emotion: fear for "flight" and anger for "fight."

154. Several brain regions are involved in aggression. First, the dorsal anterior cingulate cortex (dACC) plays a role in the detection of social threats. This region responds when there is a discrepancy between one's social expectations and the social situation as it actually develops, with insults and rejection being prime examples where the dACC is activated. Research has also shown that the stronger the response in the dACC to a provocation by another person, the greater the readiness to retaliate.

Both the hypothalamus and the amygdala play a role in the experience of fear and anger, the two emotions coupled together in a fight-or-flight response. Facing a threat, the hypothalamus kicks into high arousal, preparing the body to fight or flee. The amygdala responds by generating either fear or anger. If the emotion is fear, then flight is in order. If the emotion is anger, then fight is in order.

Finally, the prefrontal cortex is the brain region that regulates impulsive behavior and the control of emotions. If an unexpected development in a social situation, such as an insult, triggers an anger response, the prefrontal cortex is where the appropriateness of acting on that anger by physically or verbally retaliating is assessed. Sometimes the prefrontal cortex decides that a cooler, more peaceful response is advised. People who have suffered damage to the prefrontal cortex are sometimes dramatically more irritable and less self-controlled in their behavior.

155. Displaced aggression is aggression directed toward someone who was not the source of frustration. This usually occurs when something prevents someone from aggressing against the actual source. For instance, aggressing against one's boss could result in being fired.

156. According to the frustration-aggression hypothesis, frustration produces an emotional readiness to aggress. Buss instilled frustration in participants by preventing them from getting a desired prize because of an inept partner.

Participants were then given the opportunity to shock their partner during a learning task. The participants who were frustrated by their inept partner gave them stronger shocks.

157. First, alcohol impairs higher-order thinking such as self-awareness, thereby reducing inhibitions and impulse control. Second, people expect alcohol to lead to aggression, which can lead to an increase in aggressive responses to situations, a form of script-following. Finally, alcohol inhibits the ability to read social cues (e.g., others' signs of annoyance), which can put a person who has been drinking at greater risk of becoming involved in an altercation (and, often, of being a victim of aggression, not just a perpetrator).

158. A culture of honor is a cultural orientation in which people, especially men, are highly motivated to protect their status or reputations. If their honor is threatened, they are expected to use aggression to protect their honor. One theory of the origins of cultures of honor is that they emerged in herding societies where laws against theft were poorly enforced. Livestock were more easily stolen than crops, and so in the absence of an effective police or the equivalent, families developed a pattern of vigilant, aggressive protection of their land and goods. This included social behavior that deterred theft and other forms of encroachment by signaling a readiness to respond violently.

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Chap 12_3e 159. Anger and the impulse to act on it arise in the limbic system but are regulated by the part of the brain responsible for self-control, namely the prefrontal cortex, and more specifically the medial prefrontal cortex (MPFC) and the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC). Both these areas are active when people reflect on their emotional impulses and on the physical, social, and moral consequences of acting on those impulses. That reflection can lead to a choice to remain calm and do nothing. Also, through neural connections back to the dorsal anterior cingulate cortex and to the amygdala, the MPFC and DLPFC can put the brakes on the emotional signals coming from those parts of the brain.

The prefrontal cortex, in turn, is responsive to the neurotransmitter serotonin, which promotes a sense of feeling good. Where serotonin levels are high, either naturally or because of experimental manipulation, the prefrontal cortex is especially likely to curb angry and aggressive behavior in response to distressing events such as unfair treatment. Conversely, low serotonin levels lead to more aggressive responses.

160. The cognitive neoassociationism model expands on the frustration-aggression model by emphasizing three causal factors in aggression. First, physical stressors can make hostile feelings more likely. Second, the hostile feelings contribute to affective aggression. Finally, certain features of the situation prime aggressive thoughts, which make a person more likely to aggress.

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Chap 13_3e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Research found that priming concepts such as divine and sacred increased prosocial behavior among: a. atheists. b. religious individuals. c. the elderly. d. religious individuals and atheists.

2. When people express gratitude, we: a. feel collective guilt. b. have a communal orientation. c. are more likely to help again. d. are less likely to help again.

3. On self-report personality measures, women typically score higher than men on all of the following EXCEPT: a. agreeableness. b. empathy. c. agency. d. communion.

4. Feelings of relationship insecurity make people: a. less likely to help others. b. more likely to help others. c. more likely to help strangers but not friends. d. feel more compassionate.

5. Failing to live up to one's moral standards causes the feeling of: a. disgust. b. anger. c. sympathy. d. guilt.

6. Priming roles such as "friend" tends: a. to decrease helping. b. to increase helping. c. to increase helping, but only with people you know. d. not to influence prosocial behavior.

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Chap 13_3e 7. According to a learning-theory account of prosocial development, helping motivated by _____ reflects an intermediate stage of development. a. getting things one wants b. winning others' approval c. internalized values d. altruistic desires 8. The third step on the path to helping is to: a. decide how to help. b. interpret the situation as an emergency. c. notice the situation. d. take responsibility.

9. Darley and Batson (1973) found that seminary students asked to prepare a sermon on the biblical parable of the Good Samaritan: a. were much more likely to stop to help a person in distress than seminarians asked to prepare a sermon on a different topic. b. were much more likely to stop to help a person in distress than participants who were not seminary students, especially atheists. c. were highly unlikely to stop to help a person in distress if they were in a hurry, but more likely to help if they were not in a hurry. d. always stopped to help a person in distress, even when they were told they were running late to deliver their sermon and had to hurry.

10. _____ predict greater prosocial behavior in children. a. Genetics b. Peer interaction c. Positive parenting practices d. Media models 11. People feel the largest boost in mood when they help: a. people they feel communally connected to. b. those in need. c. themselves. d. members of marginalized groups.

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Chap 13_3e 12. Helping _____ seems to have the most emotional benefits for both the giver and the receiver of help. a. for money b. because of guilt c. for intrinsic reasons d. for extrinsic reasons 13. "Tend and befriend" is the idea that: a. in stressful situations, females become less prosocial and more self-focused. b. in stressful situations, females seek safety and comfort and strive to build social networks. c. when in a positive mood, females seek safety and comfort and strive to build social networks. d. men and women respond to stress by becoming more prosocial.

14. People who score high on the trait of _____ are thought to be motivated by prosocial concerns. a. neuroticism b. extraversion c. collective guilt d. agreeableness 15. Research suggests that people will choose to avoid experiencing empathy if: a. they have the time to help. b. they know they will be asked to help someone. c. helping someone is going to involve a small investment of time. d. helping someone is going to involve a large investment of time.

16. When observing groups such as drug addicts, people show reduced activation in the _____ area of the brain. a. amygdala b. hippocampus c. medial prefrontal cortex d. fusiform face area 17. All of the following are true about gratitude EXCEPT which statement? a. When someone we help expresses gratitude, it increases our helping. b. When someone expresses gratitude toward a person, it increases a sense of community. c. People who feel grateful tend to be happier and more optimistic. d. People who feel grateful only experience cognitive benefits of gratitude.

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Chap 13_3e 18. Research on moral foundations theory finds that liberals prioritize considerations of harm and fairness much more than concerns with ingroup loyalty, respecting authority, and maintaining purity. How does this compare to conservatives' moral foundations? a. Conservatives tend to prioritize all five moral foundations more equally than liberals do. b. Conservatives do not prioritize fairness at all, but prioritize the other four foundations heavily. c. Conservatives are primarily concerned with authority, above all other moral foundations. d. Conservatives' pattern of moral foundations is overall very similar to that of liberals.

19. Dr. Von Schlegel asks her four graduate students to make an update to their lab website. A week later, the update still hasn't been made. When she asks her students why not, they all say, "I thought somebody else would take care of it." This example illustrates: a. a reciprocity norm. b. diffusion of responsibility. c. pluralistic ignorance. d. an empathy gap.

20. Which of the following points weighs most conclusively in favor of the idea that empathy can motivate genuine altruism? a. When people empathize with another person, they really feel that other person's pain. So by helping to relieve the other person's suffering, they are also relieving their own suffering. b. When people empathize with another person, they can make sacrifices or take risks on that other person's behalf that are so great that it is hard to see them as being selfishly motivated. c. Being empathetic and compassionate is generally valued and approved of in society. So by being empathetic and helping others, people can receive others' praise and social approval. d. People are more likely to experience empathy toward other people who are similar to themselves, and toward people with whom they have preexisting social relationships.

21. Sakura notices a duck that appears to be injured and struggling to stay afloat near the river shore. Sakura is the only person around, and she wants to help the duck, but she isn't sure how to get it out of the water without injuring it further, or what she would do with it after that. If Sakura fails to help the duck in this situation, it is likely because: a. she did not interpret the situation as an emergency. b. she did not feel responsible for helping the duck. c. she did not feel qualified or capable of helping. d. she felt that she would put herself at risk by trying to help.

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Chap 13_3e 22. Parents who display emotional warmth tend to have children who are: a. aggressive. b. depressed. c. empathetic. d. intelligent.

23. Simon was with a large group of people when he saw a woman slip on the ice. Simon did not stop to help her. This is an example of: a. the bystander effect. b. prosocial behavior. c. urban overload. d. altruism.

24. _____ is a collection of personality traits, such as empathy, that render some people more helpful than others. a. A communal orientation b. The empathy gap c. The altruistic personality d. Trait helpfulness 25. _____ is an explanation for why we give help: If I help you today, you might be more likely to help me tomorrow. a. Altruism b. Kin selection c. The norm of reciprocity d. Diffusion of responsibility 26. Research by Batson and colleagues (1981) indicates that people low in empathy will only help someone if they: a. would suffer by not helping. b. had first played a prosocial video game. c. are forced to. d. are religious.

27. Research suggests that a positive mood makes people: a. less likely to help others. b. more likely to help others. c. more likely to help strangers but not friends. d. more likely to help friends but not strangers.

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Chap 13_3e 28. All of the following are true about the bystander effect EXCEPT which statement? a. It is less likely to occur among strangers than among friends. b. A tendency toward inaction increases as the number of bystanders increase. c. It is generally more likely to occur when the situation seems less dangerous. d. It can occur in children as young as five years of age.

29. Women report being more attracted to men who: a. behave prosocially. b. do not behave prosocially. c. only help family. d. are low in altruistic personality.

30. Which of the following findings does NOT support the idea that humans have evolved a basic, generalized tendency to be helpful to others? a. People tend to be more willing to help people they are more closely genetically related to. b. Many nonhuman primates, like chimps, have been found to spontaneously help each other. c. Even very young infants show a preference for helpful others over those who are hurtful. d. People often help others even if they don't expect to be helped in return and aren't relatives.

31. One problem with focusing on personality when studying gender differences is that personality is: a. typically not stable over time. b. contextually variable. c. typically measured with self-report surveys. d. a poor predictor of behavior.

32. Research on the altruistic personality: a. supports the idea of individual differences in altruistic tendencies. b. does not support the idea of individual differences in altruistic tendencies. c. has yet to explore the possibility of an altruistic personality. d. suggests that personality is the only variable that influences helping.

33. Research on the relationship between prosocial behavior and happiness has found that: a. people generally experience happiness when they help others. b. helping others is stressful and usually takes a toll on happiness. c. prosocial behavior is not systematically related to happiness. d. people only feel happier after helping people they know and like.

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Chap 13_3e 34. The desire to believe in a just world tends to make people believe that: a. people ultimately get what they deserve. b. people are generally innocent and deserve help. c. helping is never warranted. d. helping should be based on a social exchange.

35. _____ is the underestimation of other people's experience of physical pain as well as the pain of social rejection. a. Altruism b. The negative state relief hypothesis c. The empathy gap d. Empathy underestimation 36. The _____ is a phenomenon in which many people witness a need for help, and the knowledge that there are other witnesses makes it less likely that each particular witness will do anything to help. a. bystander effect b. empathy gap c. communal orientation d. selfish effect 37. If people see an outgroup as disadvantaged relative to their own group, and believe this to be unfair, they are likely to experience: a. collective guilt. b. disgust. c. ingroup bias. d. an empathy gap.

38. Another term for self-serving motivations for helping is: a. altruistic. b. empathetic. c. norm-based. d. egoistic.

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Chap 13_3e 39. Darley and Latané (1967) had participants speak over an intercom system with another student, who was actually a confederate of the researchers. Participants either conversed with this confederate alone, or as part of a larger group. Midway into the conversation, the confederate pretended to have a seizure. What pattern of results was observed? a. Most participants in the "alone" condition went for help before the seizure ended, while most participants in the "group" condition did not seek help before the seizure ended. b. Most participants in the "group" condition went for help before the seizure ended, while most participants in the "alone" condition did not seek help before the seizure ended. c. The majority of participants sought help before the seizure ended, regardless of whether they were in the "alone" condition or the "group" condition. d. The majority of participants failed to seek help before the seizure ended, regardless of whether they were in the "alone" condition or the "group" condition.

40. Batson et al. (1981) examined whether people would volunteer to trade places with "Elaine," a woman who was assigned to receive a series of painful shocks. Some participants were led to empathize with Elaine, while others were not. What pattern of results was observed? a. Participants were only willing to take Elaine's place if they would otherwise have to watch her getting shocked, regardless of whether they had been led to empathize with her. b. Participants were generally unwilling to take Elaine's place, regardless of whether they had been led to empathize with her or whether they would have to watch her getting shocked. c. Those led to empathize with Elaine were only willing to take her place if they would otherwise have to watch her getting shocked, while those not led to empathize with Elaine were generally unwilling to take her place. d. Those led to empathize with Elaine were generally willing to take her place, even if they could easily have escaped the situation, while those not led to empathize with Elaine were only willing to take her place if they would otherwise have to watch her getting shocked.

41. Pluralistic ignorance is an example of the power of _____ to inhibit helping. a. normative social influence b. urban overload c. diffusion of responsibility d. informational social influence 42. Dimitri is helpful to his classmate because he likes the approval that it earns him with his classmates and the teacher. According to the stages of learning prosocial behavior, Dimitri is in stage: a. one. b. two. c. three. d. four.

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Chap 13_3e 43. Studies suggest that people tend to offer: a. less help to members of socially devalued groups. b. more help to strangers than to friends. c. more help to members of socially devalued groups. d. help to people in need, regardless of who they are.

44. _____ is the desire to help another purely for his or her own sake, regardless of whether we derive any benefit. a. Prosocial behavior b. Altruism c. Communal orientation d. Kin selection 45. Personality traits are stronger predictors of helping behavior in _____ situations. a. clear-cut and unambiguous b. ambiguous and open-ended c. stressful and demanding d. familiar and comfortable 46. Simone wants to help a struggling student, but on the other hand she is reluctant because she knows it will take time out of her busy schedule. What theory explains why she did NOT help? a. kin selection theory b. the norm of reciprocity c. social exchange theory d. the empathy-altruism model 47. Reminders of mortality are especially likely to inspire prosocial behavior when: a. people are high in self-esteem. b. the fear of death is low. c. prosocial cultural values have also been primed. d. people are low in self-awareness.

48. All of the following are true about helping and religion EXCEPT which statement? a. People who report high levels of religiosity also report being more altruistic. b. In lab studies religiosity is related to altruism. c. In lab studies religiosity is not related to altruism. d. The mere idea of religion can prime more positive acts.

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Chap 13_3e 49. _____ is a good predictor of people's willingness to help _____. a. Agreeableness; strangers b. Agreeableness; family members c. Extraversion; strangers d. Extraversion; family members 50. Research showing that the closer the genetic relationship, the more likely a person is to help provides support for the idea of: a. altruism. b. kin selection. c. social exchange. d. reciprocity norms.

51. Men are more likely to help: a. when it involves volunteering time. b. when it involves caring for others. c. in potentially dangerous situations. d. in situations that involve helping children.

52. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which religion promotes helping? a. by providing people with moral teachings that encourage kindness and compassion b. by helping people feel that they have a responsibility to help even people they don't know c. by encouraging people to make dispositional attributions for others' behavior and outcomes d. by fostering belief in a God or gods who are always watching and will know if we do wrong 53. Which of the following personality traits is NOT associated with helping behavior? a. agreeableness b. humility c. empathy d. extraversion 54. To reduce the likelihood of a diffusion of responsibility, a person in need of help should: a. make sure as many people are listening as possible. b. be part of a group. c. be careful not to single any one person out. d. single out one individual to be responsible.

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Chap 13_3e 55. If you "do unto others as you would have them do onto you," then they may help you in return someday. This idea is representative of the: a. norm of kin selection. b. obedience norm. c. norm of reciprocity. d. empathy-altruism hypothesis.

56. Which of the following is NOT an emotional state implicated in helping? a. empathy b. gratitude c. guilt d. pride 57. Religious people tend to: a. make dispositional attributions. b. make situational attributions. c. not want to help others. d. help others only when they feel guilty.

58. Itzel thinks of her closest friends as family, and would share anything she has with them without thinking twice. Itzel has: a. a communal orientation. b. an empathy gap. c. a reciprocity norm. d. a sense of gratitude.

59. Empathy makes people more likely to help when they focus on: a. the expected social exchange. b. their own suffering. c. the suffering of a group. d. the suffering of an individual.

60. _____ is an outlook in which people don't distinguish between what's theirs and what is someone else's. a. Kin selection b. Prosocial behavior c. Altruism d. A communal orientation

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Chap 13_3e 61. _____ occurs in a situation in which the presence of others prevents any one person from taking responsibility. (Choose the BEST answer.) a. The bystander effect b. Diffusion of responsibility c. Pluralistic ignorance d. The empathy gap 62. Women are more likely to help: a. in potentially dangerous situations. b. when norms for chivalry are present. c. when others will know they have helped. d. when it involves volunteering time on an ongoing basis.

63. The principle underlying kin selection is that: a. because close relatives share many genes with an individual, when the individual helps close kin, those shared genes are more likely to be passed on to offspring. b. people are more likely to help similar others such as family members because they share the same personal values. c. because close relatives spend a lot of time together, individuals are more likely to help members of their own family than people they spend less time with (e.g., strangers, coworkers). d. humans are inherently selfish and will only help others if they share genetic traits or offer an opportunity to reproduce.

64. Which of the following is NOT a reason why positive moods are thought to increase helping? a. Helping allows people to maintain their positive mood state. b. Positive moods contribute to more favorable perceptions of others. c. Positive moods prime people to think of their responsibilities to others. d. Positive moods lead people to perceive helping as more beneficial.

65. If a prosocial behavior itself serves to remind people of their mortality, people are: a. more likely to engage in the behavior. b. less likely to engage in the behavior. c. less likely to be afraid of death. d. more likely to be afraid of death.

66. The notion of our basic prosocial norm for positive reciprocity: a. is an idea specific to Western religions. b. is an idea specific to the Judeo-Christian teachings. c. is an idea specific to Eastern religions. d. can be found in all of the major world religions.

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Chap 13_3e 67. Elena does not distinguish between what is hers and what is someone else's. Elena is high in: a. relational security. b. agency. c. empathy gap. d. communal orientation.

68. At the center of _____ is the assumption that people's actions are motivated primarily by some degree of self-interest. a. altruism b. the functional approach c. the empathy-altruism model d. a communal orientation 69. Which of the following prosocial acts would someone who had recently been reminded of death find most appealing? a. donating to a local museum that inscribes donors' names on a large plaque near the entrance b. volunteering to serve as an active-listening partner in a support group for grieving seniors c. donating to a charity that provides medical services to poor people in developing nations d. donating blood and plasma to a hospital in an underserved low-income neighborhood 70. In laboratory research, religiosity is found to be: a. a strong predictor of prosocial behavior. b. unrelated to the actual likelihood of prosocial behavior. c. the primary variable driving empathy. d. a strong predictor of death anxiety.

71. Which of the following statements about positive mood and helping is NOT true? a. Good moods are inherently rewarding. b. The effects of a good mood tend to be long-lasting. c. Positive moods make people see others more positively. d. Positive mood can arise from a wide variety of different sources.

72. _____ is an action by an individual that is intended to benefit another individual or set of individuals. a. Prosocial behavior b. Egoism c. Communal orientation d. Kin selection

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Chap 13_3e 73. Which of the following is a step on the path to helping? a. Decide whether to give help. b. Decide whether you are in the mood to help. c. Focus on self standards. d. Think about whether or not anyone will ever know if you don't help.

74. The bystander effect is: a. less likely to occur among strangers than among friends. b. more likely to occur among strangers than among friends. c. less likely to occur in larger groups. d. more likely to occur when the situation seems dangerous.

75. You are most likely to receive help when there are _____ witnesses. a. two b. four c. eight d. fourteen 76. Which of the following messages would probably be MOST effective at increasing empathy toward Latin American immigrants to the United States? a. a video documenting the struggles of a migrant caravan walking north from Central America b. a video documenting the journey of a group of Cuban immigrants traveling by raft to Florida c. a video documenting the hard work of Latino immigrants at meatpacking plants in Texas d. a video documenting a single Latina mother's journey to the U.S. and her life after arriving 77. _____ is the idea that people provide help depending on their level of empathy. a. Social exchange theory b. The empathy-altruism model c. Kin selection d. Altruism theory 78. Which of the following examples is consistent with the norm of reciprocity? a. James loans his friend some money because he knows his friend is struggling financially. b. Monique thinks her boyfriend should drive her to work because that is what good boyfriends do. c. Nick helps his friend move because he knows he himself will need to ask for help moving later in the semester. d. Joan tries to guilt her parents into giving her money to buy a new car.

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Chap 13_3e 79. _____ is the idea that city dwellers learn to cope with the sounds that arise from population density by shutting out these sounds. a. The bystander effect b. Diffusion of responsibility c. The urban overload hypothesis d. The empathy gap 80. According to research by Skitka and colleagues (Skitka, 1991; Skitka & Tetlock, 1992; Skitka et al., 1991; Weiner et al., 2011), both liberals and conservatives are reluctant to help those they perceive as responsible for their own problems when: a. resources are scarce. b. reminded of their mortality. c. they experience empathy. d. primed with religious stimuli.

81. Rob is not very good at fully appreciating what others are going through when they are upset. This is consistent with the idea of: a. an empathy gap. b. kin selection. c. negative state relief. d. a communal orientation.

82. Freddy asks one of his coworkers to cover an upcoming shift. Freddy's coworker is most likely to help him if Freddy's reason for missing the shift is: a. because he just really feels like taking that day off. b. because he wants to attend his son's school play that day. c. because he wants to schedule a routine doctor's visit for that day. d. because he forgot to formally request the day off earlier.

83. According to _____, people provide help to someone else when the benefits of helping, and the costs of not helping, outweigh the potential costs of helping and the benefits of not helping. a. social exchange theory b. the theory of kin selection c. altruism theory d. the empathy-altruism model

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Chap 13_3e 84. _____ is when people feel guilty about something they are not personally responsible for. a. Altruism b. The empathy gap c. The guilt complex d. Collective guilt 85. One study had participants play City Crisis, a prosocial video game, while a second group played Tetris, a non-prosocial video game. All of the participants were then exposed to a female experimenter being harassed by her hostile ex-boyfriend. The results were that: a. participants playing the prosocial video game tended to intervene to help the experimenter more than those playing the non-prosocial video game. b. participants playing the non-prosocial video game tended to intervene to help the experimenter more than those playing the prosocial video game. c. participants playing the prosocial video game tended to intervene to help the experimenter more than those playing the non-prosocial video game, but only if they liked her. d. there were no differences between the groups in their intervention to help.

86. Which of the following is NOT a step on the path to helping? a. Reflect on one's moral values. b. Interpret the situation as an emergency. c. Notice the situation. d. Decide whether to give help.

87. Infants as young as _____ prefer others who are helpful rather than hurtful. (Choose the BEST answer.) a. 2 years b. 3 months c. 1 year d. 1 month 88. Research found that playing prosocial video games: a. increased prosocial behavior. b. decreased prosocial behavior. c. had no effect on prosocial behavior. d. increased aggression.

89. Research indicates that exposure to prosocial media increases helping because it increases: a. positive mood. b. feelings of connectedness. c. empathy. d. arousal.

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Chap 13_3e 90. Which of the following is the BEST example of altruism? a. Lisa volunteers at a local food pantry, because she wants others to see her as a good person. b. Jim buys gifts for poor children, because he knows it will make them happy. c. Rick donates money to charity, so he can claim it as a write-off on his taxes. d. Vera volunteers at her child's swim meet, because it is a required part of team membership.

91. Which of the following is the BEST example of altruism? a. Claire is a paid employee at a local nonprofit organization that helps homeless families. b. John helps his brother with his chores, if his brother is willing to help him with his homework. c. Roberto anonymously donates money every year to a local food bank. d. Julie volunteers at a local hospital after school, because she thinks it will help her get into a good college.

92. Hannah is happy to share everything she has with her close friends and family. Hannah has: a. low self-esteem. b. a communal orientation. c. high guilt proneness. d. a narcissistic personality.

93. When a person's difficulties are due to factors beyond their control, we tend to feel: a. disgust. b. anger. c. sympathy. d. happiness.

94. After reading a news story that reminds him of his death, Carl is: a. less afraid of death. b. more likely to aggress against an ingroup member. c. more likely to help others. d. less likely to experience empathy.

95. "I'm not going to help him! He's a drunk and deserves what he gets!" This view reflects: a. social exchange theory. b. a belief in a just world. c. self-serving bias. d. pluralistic ignorance.

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Chap 13_3e 96. Clint found a dollar bill on the ground, and this put him in a good mood. As a result, Clint is: a. less likely to help others. b. more likely to help others. c. more likely to help strangers but not friends. d. likely to feel collective guilt.

97. Studies indicate that guilt: a. decreases helping. b. increases helping. c. has no effect on helping. d. increases helping among children but not adults.

98. _____ are motivated to maintain traditional values and norms, while _____ are motivated by more egalitarian values and norms. a. Liberals; conservatives b. Conservatives; liberals c. Altruistic individuals; individuals prone to collective guilt d. Individuals prone to collective guilt; altruistic individuals 99. The first step on the path to helping is to: a. decide how to help. b. interpret the situation as an emergency. c. notice the situation. d. take responsibility.

100. All of the following are true EXCEPT which statement? a. Species other than humans can engage in prosocial behavior. b. Identical twins show correlations greater than 0.60 on prosocial behavior. c. Fraternal twins show correlations greater than 0.60 on prosocial behavior. d. Infants as young as 3 months prefer others who are helpful rather than hurtful.

101. Farouk sees a man slumped over in the alley. He looks around, but no one else seems concerned. Farouk assumes that if no one else is worried, then the man's condition must not be serious. This is an example of: a. diffusion of responsibility. b. pluralistic ignorance. c. the social responsibility norm. d. the norm of reciprocity.

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Chap 13_3e 102. Which of the following statements about race and helping is NOT true? a. In a set of 2008 experiments on race and helping, Whites tended to help more regardless of the victim's race. b. In a set of 2008 experiments on race and helping, Blacks tended to help more regardless of the victim's race. c. In a set of 2008 experiments on race and helping, White participants tended to be slower to aid a Black victim than a White victim. d. White participants are especially unlikely to help Black victims if it is possible for them to justify their decision not to help in non-racial terms.

103. Based on the findings of Wolsko et al. (2016), a liberal American would be most likely to donate to an organization that advocates for harsher sentences for people convicted of drug-related crimes if the organization framed itself as: a. protecting innocent, morally pure young Americans from the corrupting influence of drugs. b. promoting an orderly society characterized by the rule of law and respect for authority. c. protecting the most vulnerable Americans from the grave harms caused by drug addiction. d. protecting your friends, neighbors, and fellow Americans from Mexican drug cartels.

104. Chen lives in a loud and busy part of New York City. He has gotten quite good at tuning out all the noise and thus did not hear a woman who was screaming for help. This is an example of: a. the bystander effect. b. prosocial behavior. c. urban overload. d. altruism.

105. While riding to work, Tina saw someone on the bus being physically assaulted. Because there were many other people on the bus, she decided that she didn't need to help. Tina's thinking illustrates: a. the just world hypothesis. b. an empathy gap. c. diffusion of responsibility. d. pluralistic ignorance.

106. All of the following are true about empathy EXCEPT which statement? a. Empathy makes people more likely to help when they focus on the individual. b. Empathy makes people more likely to help when they focus on a group. c. Perspective taking can help close the empathy gap. d. Asking people to visualize experiencing social rejection can help close the empathy gap.

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Chap 13_3e 107. The idea that natural selection led to greater tendencies to help close relatives over helping those with whom we have little genetic relation is called: a. prosocial behavior. b. altruism. c. communal orientation. d. kin selection.

108. Recent research suggests that observing groups such as the homeless and drug addicts triggers: a. disgust. b. anger. c. sympathy. d. happiness.

109. What would you expect to find in a study where a confederate who was dressed to look like either a hippie or a conservative asked participants for money? a. Hippie participants would be more generous toward hippie confederates. b. Hippie participants would be more generous toward conservative confederates. c. Hippie participants would be more generous toward all confederates. d. None of the participants would be generous toward hippie confederates.

110. People are _____ to help someone in need when they are alone than when they are among other people. a. more likely b. less likely c. generally afraid d. too distracted 111. Research suggests that people are: a. less likely to be helpful in larger cities. b. less likely to be helpful in smaller cities. c. equally likely to be helpful in large and small cities. d. generally not helpful anywhere.

112. With respect to helping behavior, the personality trait of agreeableness: a. best predicts helping when the person being helped is family. b. best predicts helping when the person being helped is a stranger. c. has not been shown to reliably predict helping. d. only predicts helping among religious individuals.

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Chap 13_3e 113. People's prosocial behavior is influenced by: a. only genes. b. only experiences. c. neither genes nor the environment. d. both genes and the environment.

114. Researchers found that people were more likely to offer help if they had been asked to do a task that involved thinking about a: a. coworker. b. person they do not like. c. close friend. d. stigmatized group.

115. Research indicates that mortality salience: a. increases donations to valued charities. b. makes people less willing to help others. c. increases anxiety about helping others. d. decreases donations to valued charities.

116. Laura volunteers to tutor children who are struggling in school, because she once struggled as a student and knows what these students are going through. This example is consistent with: a. the negative state relief hypothesis. b. the empathy-altruism model. c. altruism theory. d. kin selection.

117. _____ occurs in a situation in which all bystanders glance at each other as they try to decide whether there is cause for concern, but no one actually does anything. (Choose the BEST answer.) a. The bystander effect b. Diffusion of responsibility c. Pluralistic ignorance d. The empathy gap 118. Which of the following primes would be LEAST likely to increase prosocial behavior? a. a reminder of death/mortality b. religious concepts (e.g., divine and sacred) c. images of awe-inspiring natural scenes d. the social role of coworker

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Chap 13_3e 119. Carl buys a homeless man lunch. He does this purely because he wants to help the man, not because he expects anything in return. This is an example of: a. altruism. b. kin selection. c. the norm of reciprocity. d. a social exchange.

120. Which of the following is NOT an example of altruism? a. A bystander steps between two people who are about to fight, because she doesn't want anyone to get hurt. b. A doctor chooses to practice in an underserved community, even though she could make more money practicing elsewhere. c. An auto mechanic does free work on her friend's car, and in exchange gets free haircuts at her friend's beauty salon. d. A motorist picks up a hitchhiker because she could see how cold he looked on the side of the road and felt sorry for him.

121. Research derived from moral foundations theory suggests that Americans generally make moral decisions with an eye toward: a. respecting authority. b. maintaining moral purity. c. being loyal to ingroups. d. avoiding harm and unfairness.

122. In a research study using the Good Samaritan parable, Darley and Batson (1973) studied seminary students to see whether their helping behavior was affected by: a. age differences. b. time pressures. c. religious training. d. the norm of reciprocity.

123. Gordon is an avid ice fisherman. Late in the season, when the ice is getting thin, he sees another fisherman fall through. Gordon is the only witness, and he has rescued two other people from under the ice before.

However, he knows that the ice must be very thin and that he may fall through himself if he goes over there. If Gordon fails to help in this situation, it is likely because: a. he did not interpret the situation as an emergency. b. he did not feel responsible for trying to help. c. he did not feel qualified or skilled enough to help. d. he felt that trying to help would be too risky.

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Chap 13_3e 124. A meta-analysis conducted by Eagly and Crowley (1986) on gender differences in helping found that, overall: a. men were more likely to help. b. women were more likely to help. c. men and women were equally likely to help. d. men rarely help.

125. The fact that people experience guilt and empathy serves as a reminder that humans are highly motivated to: a. find self-esteem. b. find and maintain close relationships. c. aggress against others. d. protect their own self-interests.

126. Describe the bystander effect. Give one research example of the bystander effect.

127. Describe prosocial behavior. Give one example of prosocial behavior.

128. Describe why priming mortality tends to increase prosocial behavior.

129. Describe the effect playing prosocial video games has on behavior. Explain one study that demonstrates this effect.

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Chap 13_3e 130. Describe how priming certain social roles can enhance prosocial behavior. Provide examples.

131. Discuss two possible explanations of gender differences in helping behavior. That is, what could explain why men and women tend to engage in different types of helping behavior?

132. Describe the main idea of social exchange theory. Provide an example demonstrating social exchange theory.

133. Describe how expressions of gratitude from those on the receiving end of prosocial acts contribute to the continuation of prosocial behavior in the future.

134. Describe three pieces of evidence that suggest humans have general inclinations toward prosocial behavior that go beyond kin selection and reciprocity norms.

135. Discuss the difference between the kin selection and norm of reciprocity explanations of prosocial behavior.

Give one example of each.

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Chap 13_3e 136. Describe how positive affect promotes helping. Give one example.

137. Describe the empathy gap. Describe a situation that illustrates the empathy gap.

138. Describe the role causal attributions play in deciding whether to help another person. Describe one example of how causal attributions may inhibit or encourage helping behavior.

139. Describe the three stages of prosocial development according to learning theory.

140. Describe what laboratory research suggests about the relationship between religiosity and helping.

141. Describe the empathy-altruism model. Cite research supporting this model.

142. Discuss how similarity and prejudice, and causal attributions, play a role in helping or not helping others. Cite research evidence to support your discussion.

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Chap 13_3e 143. Explain the phenomenon of pluralistic ignorance, and how this phenomenon can contribute to the bystander effect. Give an example illustrating this phenomenon.

144. Describe the steps taken to decide whether to help or not to help.

145. Describe how population density relates to helping behavior. Include one study that illustrates the role of population density and helping behavior.

146. Discuss how personality can influence helping behavior. Discuss the characteristics of the altruistic personality. Explain one study measuring this personality characteristic.

147. Describe an altruistic personality.

148. Define the bystander effect. Describe a real-world example of the bystander effect. What specific aspects of the situation do you think influenced people's behavior? Describe one of Darley and Latané's experiments to further illustrate the bystander effect.

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Chap 13_3e 149. Discuss who will help others who are in need of help.

150. Describe the "empathy gap" phenomenon, and give an example of it. Explain how it can be overcome, and discuss how feelings other than empathy can promote prosocial behavior.

151. Pretend you are in a meeting and someone says to you, "All New Yorkers are rude and uncaring and would never stop to help a person in need." Describe how a social psychologist would reply.

152. Describe the urban overload hypothesis and what it helps explain.

153. Describe how a person's similarity to you influences the likelihood that you will help that person.

154. Discuss the role of empathy in helping others, and describe the psychological process involved in empathy.

Cite research to support your discussion.

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Chap 13_3e 155. Define altruism. Through the years, there has been a debate as to whether or not there is such a thing as altruism. Discuss this debate. That is, what does each side propose, and what type of data do they use to support their proposals?

156. Discuss the role that nature and nurture play in prosocial behavior. Describe research that demonstrates the role of nature and the role of nurture.

157. Describe a situation in which a person may need help. Use this example in your discussion of each of the five steps to helping.

158. Explain how positive mood inductions, social-role primes, reminders of mortality, and religious primes can all function to increase prosocial behavior. Briefly describe one research finding showing how each of these factors affects prosocial behavior.

159. Define the diffusion of responsibility, and discuss how the diffusion contributes to the bystander effect. Give one example of this phenomenon.

160. Explain the concept of collective guilt. Discuss the role collective guilt may play in motivating someone to help members of an outgroup.

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Chap 13_3e 161. Describe how a communal orientation motivates prosocial behavior. Give one example.

162. Discuss what research suggests about gender differences in helping.

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Chap 13_3e Answer Key 1. d 2. c 3. c 4. a 5. d 6. b 7. b 8. d 9. c 10. c 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. c 22. c 23. a 24. c 25. c 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_3e 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. a 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. a 35. c 36. a 37. a 38. d 39. a 40. d 41. d 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. b 46. c 47. c 48. b 49. a 50. b 51. c 52. c 53. d 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_3e 55. c 56. d 57. a 58. a 59. d 60. d 61. b 62. d 63. a 64. c 65. b 66. d 67. d 68. b 69. a 70. b 71. b 72. a 73. a 74. b 75. a 76. d 77. b 78. c 79. c 80. a 81. a 82. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_3e 83. a 84. d 85. a 86. a 87. b 88. a 89. c 90. b 91. c 92. b 93. c 94. c 95. b 96. b 97. b 98. b 99. c 100. c 101. b 102. a 103. c 104. c 105. c 106. b 107. d 108. a 109. a 110. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_3e 111. a 112. b 113. d 114. c 115. a 116. b 117. c 118. d 119. a 120. c 121. d 122. b 123. d 124. a 125. b 126. The bystander effect is a phenomenon in which a person who witnesses another in need is less likely to help when there are other bystanders present to witness the event. In other words, the knowledge of other witnesses inhibits helping. In one study, Latané and Darley had participants complete questionnaires in a waiting room. When the experimenters introduced smoke into the room via an air vent, the participants' responses varied depending on the presence of others. Participants sitting alone were 75% likely to get up and report smoke. The presence of two other participants reduced the percentage likelihood to 40%. The presence of two or more confederates who made a show of being unconcerned reduced the likelihood that the participant would step out to report smoke all the way down to 10%.

127. Prosocial behavior is an action by an individual that is intended to benefit another individual or set of individuals.

Student answers will vary for the examples. One example would be volunteering one's time in some form of service to one's community.

128. Priming mortality increases prosocial behavior because being reminded of death activates our desire to have a lasting positive impact on the world, even beyond our own lives. Charitable giving, volunteerism, and blood donations are some of the ways that desire finds expression.

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Chap 13_3e 129. Research indicates that when people play games that involve helping or engaging in other prosocial behaviors, they are subsequently more likely to be helpful and willing to come to someone's aid, because the prosocial video games primed prosocial thoughts and behavioral scripts. Greitemeyer and Osswald had participants witness a female experimenter being harassed by her ex-boyfriend. If the participants had played a prosocial video game called City Crisis, then they were more likely to intervene to help her than if they had just played Tetris.

130. When a given social role is associated with norms of prosocial conduct, priming that role (i.e., calling attention to it, making it salient) can increase prosocial behavior. For example, people primed with the social role of "parent" may engage in more caretaking and protective behaviors, perhaps especially toward children.

131. Although both men and women engage in prosocial acts, a pattern of difference exists. Men are more likely to help in situations that call for chivalrous behavior, for example, showing courtesy toward others, especially women, or for taking action despite possible danger, such as behavior ranging from helping a woman with heavy packages to giving a stranger a ride. Men are also more likely to help in ways that involve being seen to help, suggesting that reputation-boosting is part of the motivation. Women, on the other hand, are more likely to volunteer their time and to help in less dramatic, less high-profile ways, and so are more likely to sign up to care for children and more likely to mail an envelope for a stranger.

Explanations for these findings come from both nature and nurture. One explanation for these differences is the social learning of traditional gender roles. Cultural norms about how big boys are tough and strong are perpetuated in how parents treat their children and how teachers treat their students, and in adulthood culture tends to assign caring-oriented roles more to women than to men. As a result, men are more likely than women to take charge in chaotic, dangerous situations, while women are more likely to step in where extended emotional engagement is required.

Taylor and colleagues, however, hypothesized that in stressful situations, women exhibit an innate tend and befriend response that includes an increase in oxytocin, which prompts women to seek safety and comfort for both themselves and others. The hypothesis of innate sex differences is bolstered by findings of babies less than a year old, showing that between dolls and trucks, boy babies seem more interested in the trucks than the girl babies do, and conversely the girls seem more interested in dolls than the boys do.

132. Social exchange theory asserts that people provide help when the benefits of helping and the costs of not helping outweigh the potential costs of helping and the benefits of not helping. In other words, the theory asserts that before people help, they weigh the pros and cons. One example may be deciding to help someone study.

According to social exchange theory, one will help if the benefits outweigh the costs. On the cost side there would be the time and effort involved. On the benefit side there would be, potentially, the pleasure of spending time with the other person (if one finds their company pleasant), the benefit to oneself of reviewing the material, and also the potential of the other person's returning the favor on a later occasion.

133. When the recipient of a prosocial act expresses gratitude, this can serve as a social reward that reinforces the prosocial actor's behavior (making it more likely to be repeated in the future). Expressions of gratitude can also cue norms of reciprocity (e.g., "Thanks, I owe you one!"), which signals to the prosocial actor that they may benefit in the future from having acted prosocially and functions as a further reinforcement of the behavior. Finally, expressions of gratitude can instill communal feelings in prosocial actors, which make them feel like valued members of their communities and strengthen their motivation to continue behaving prosocially.

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Chap 13_3e 134. People often help others with whom they have no genetic relationships, up to and including strangers on the other side of the world. This suggests that humans' prosocial tendencies are not reserved for kin alone. People also frequently help others in situations where the likelihood that help will be reciprocated is low (e.g., giving directions to a stranger you will probably never see again in your life) and without communicating expectations of reciprocal help. This suggests that humans' prosocial behavior is not purely motivated by an expectation of receiving help in return. Finally, even very young children spontaneously help others, suggesting a basic, general inclination to be prosocial that is rooted more in "nature" than "nurture."

135. Kin selection is an evolutionary mechanism that promotes a genetic predisposition to help one's close relatives.

Since close relatives share one's genes, helping those relatives will promote the passing of one's genes on to the next generation. The norm of reciprocity is a pattern of helping others with the expectation of later receiving help in return. Kin selection is the best explanation for helping blood relatives, even if they are not able to return the favor, while reciprocity is the best explanation for helping non-relatives with whom one has ongoing interactions, even if they are not blood relatives.

Examples will vary. One example of behavior explained by kin selection might be lending Uncle Joe some money because he is your uncle. An example of behavior explained by the norm of reciprocity might be helping Joe move because he will later help you when you need something.

136. Positive affect tends to increase helping because people want to maintain their pleasant mood. A positive mood also tends to make us see the best in people, which makes us more likely to help them. Student examples will vary. One example is being in a good mood and then being asked to volunteer for some task. The positive mood increases the probability that one will say yes.

137. The empathy gap is the underestimation of other people's experience of physical pain as well as the pain of social rejection. Student examples will vary. One example would be cyberbullying. Individuals who say that it is no big deal have probably not been cyberbullied and have not tried to imagine and understand what it is like.

138. People are more likely to help someone if they believe that the person is not responsible for her or his misfortunate.

People are less motivated to help if they believe that the person deserves their misfortune because of bad choices.

Examples will vary. If you believe that a person has fallen because they are intoxicated, then you may be less inclined to help that person get up and receive medical attention.

139. First, young children learn to help in order to get things that they want. Next, people learn to help in order to garner social rewards in the form of approval from others. Finally, people reach a point where they help because they adhere to internalized values and are guided by their moral conscience.

140. Although on surveys people who report high religiosity also report being more altruistic, in controlled laboratory experiments, they are no more likely than nonreligious people to behave prosocially.

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Chap 13_3e 141. The empathy-altruism model posits two different kinds of motivations for helping others. Where empathy is low, the reasons are those described by social exchange theory: people will help others when the benefits outweigh the costs. But where empathy is high, people will help others even if the costs outweigh the benefits.

To show both kinds of motivations at work, Batson and colleagues paired participants with a confederate, "Elaine." After the participants were manipulated into feeling either a high or a low degree of empathy for Elaine, she was randomly assigned to complete a performance task under stressful conditions (repeated mild but painful electric shocks). The participants observed Elaine attempt to perform the tasks and then declare that she was anxious due to a fear of electricity. At that point, the experimenter asked the participants to switch places with Elaine. When participants were low in empathy, they only helped if they would otherwise be forced to stay and watch Elaine receive shocks. People high in empathy helped even if they were free to leave.

142. It easier for us to empathize with someone in our ingroup, whom we feel positively toward and see as similar to ourselves, than with someone in an outgroup. The difference in empathy, in turn, makes a difference to our readiness to help. That effect explains the results of a 1973 study by Gaertner, in which researchers made phone calls to White participants. The researchers spoke either without a distinctive accent or with a Southern Black accent. A caller pretended to be someone with car problems and asked the participant to phone a garage and send out a tow truck. When the participants assumed the caller was White, they were more likely to phone for the truck than if they thought the caller was Black. The results of that study, done four decades ago, have been replicated in much more recent studies.

Causal attribution also affects people's readiness to help. Especially in individualistic cultures, people tend to make dispositional attributions about other people, explaining their troubles in terms of internal factors such as habits and character traits rather than external, situational factors. On top of that, people like to believe that the world is just, so that when people are in trouble, it is generally their fault. The combined effect is to reduce people's willingness to help unless it is clear that others' suffering is due to circumstances beyond their control. For example, people are much more willing to support charities that benefit victims of cancer than charities that benefit drug addicts or the homeless. The latter groups tend to be perceived as less than human. They elicit disgust rather than sympathy.

143. Pluralistic ignorance is a phenomenon in which people look to the behavior of others to identify a norm, but misinterpret others' behavior, resulting in an incorrect appraisal of the situation. Pluralistic ignorance can contribute to bystander nonintervention when people fail to recognize a situation as an emergency based on the inactions of their fellow bystanders. For example, if a college student faints in class and slumps over in their chair in class, the other students might look to each other and to the professor to figure out how to respond. If nobody promptly acts to help the student who fainted, the bystanders might infer that the situation is not an emergency (because nobody is treating it like one) and that the student is probably fine.

144. The steps involved in helping are (1) noticing the event: notice that something is amiss and that help might be needed; (2) interpreting the event: decide that the situation is an emergency and that help is definitely needed; (3) taking responsibility: resolve that if something is to be done, you will be the one to do it; (4) deciding how to help: determine what form the help should take and whether you are qualified to give it; and (5) deciding whether to give help: make a quick cost-benefit calculation of how the benefit of your help stacks up against the risks and other costs, so you know what you are getting into and why.

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Chap 13_3e 145. Studies suggest that people are less likely to help those in need in larger cities with more dense populations than in smaller cities. Levine and colleagues documented this by staging three types of helping opportunities in 24 different U.S. cities. The three scenarios involved a dropped pen, an injured leg, and a request for change for a quarter. City size and helping behavior were negatively correlated, with coefficients in the –0.47 to –0.55 range.

Some of this pattern may be due to the bystander effect: there are likely to be more witnesses in a big city. But it has also been hypothesized, by Milgram, that living in a dense population area exposes people to greater noise pollution, and people learn to shut out stimuli and therefore are less likely to notice situations where their help is needed. In the five steps toward helping, this urban overload effect, as it has been called, blocks people from even completing step one.

146. People help for various reasons, but one factor may be the personal characteristics of the helper. The altruistic personality is a collection of personality traits that render some people more helpful than others. These traits include a tendency toward empathy and perspective-taking, a tendency to take personal responsibility for others' welfare and well-being, overall agreeableness and humility, and strength of moral reasoning. Several studies have found that personality measures that correlate with altruism are fairly stable across a person's life span.

In one study that documented altruism-related personality differences, Carlo and colleagues conducted an experiment similar to an earlier one run by Batson. In the new experiment, participants were again offered the opportunity to take the place of a confederate who wanted relief from a stressful task (in this case, reading about a physical assault), but the responses were checked against independent measures of the participants' personalities. It was found that when participants were easily able to decline to help the confederate, and not forced to watch her endure the continued stress of the assigned task, participants who scored highest in altruism were more likely to go ahead and help by taking the confederate's place. For them, the availability of an easy out didn't make nearly so much difference as for participants with less altruistic personalities.

Self-image matters, too: people who not only score high in altruism but see themselves as altruistic are especially likely to behave prosocially. Asked to articulate their reasons for helping, people who see themselves as helpful are more likely to give an internally based explanation ("I help because I think it is important to"), where someone else would be more likely to give an externally based explanation ("I help because others tell me to").

147. An altruistic personality is a collection of personality traits, such as empathy, that render some people more helpful than others. Other specific characteristics include tendencies to take another person's perspective and to take personal responsibility for others' welfare and well-being. Overall agreeableness and humility and strength of moral reasoning are also traits of an altruistic personality. Several studies have found that personality measures that correlate with altruism are fairly stable across a person's life span.

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Chap 13_3e 148. The bystander effect is a phenomenon in which a person who witnesses another in need is less likely to help when there are other bystanders present to witness the event. The best-known example of the effect is the 1964 murder of Kitty Genovese, in New York City. She was killed while walking home from work in the early morning hours, in a stabbing attack that lasted over half an hour. According to news reports at the time, almost 40 people witnessed the attack from their apartment buildings and heard Genovese's cries for help, but no one intervened or even phoned the police until it was too late.

Although it now appears that some details, including the number of witnesses, were exaggerated, the fact remains that there were witnesses who could have acted and saved Genovese's life but preferred not to get involved. The bystander-effect explanation would be that the presence of other witnesses encouraged each witness who could have helped to remain passive instead. One causal ingredient would be pluralistic ignorance: any one witness trying to decide whether to intervene would have noticed that no one else had done so (yet) and would be led to conclude that perhaps the situation wasn't as serious as it seemed. Another factor would be diffusion of responsibility: any one witness could hang back without feeling personally responsible for Genovese's death, because there were several others equally able to help. The element of risk in getting involved (leaving one's apartment to at least get a better look at what was happening, etc.) may also have played a role, although it should be noted that, surprisingly, in general the bystander effect occurs more often in safe situations than in dangerous ones.

A few years after the Genovese murder, Darley and Latané studied the bystander effect in several experiments (1968). In one of these, they had a confederate fake an epileptic seizure during a conversation conducted by intercom. The great majority of participants who believed they were in a one-on-one conversation with the confederate quickly got up to go help the confederate in person, while participants who believed there were four others in on the conversation were much less likely to act. In another experiment, participants' responses to the sight of smoke coming in through a waiting room air vent was a function of others' presence in the room: participants sitting alone were very likely to report the smoke, participants in groups of four were less likely, and participants grouped with confederates who acted unconcerned were very unlikely to report the smoke.

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Chap 13_3e 149. Helping behavior is the result of a combination of nature and nurture. On the nature side, a tendency to help can be explained in part through kin selection. When an individual helps a close family member, the family member's chance for survival is greater, and those shared genes are more likely to be passed on. In this way, a genetic predisposition toward altruism can be passed on even when the behavior is costly for the altruist. People do, however, help others beyond their own family. Humans improve their prospects of survival by cooperating in groups. Social cooperation has many aspects, but one of them is reciprocal helping. A pattern of you scratch my back, I'll scratch yours behavior enables people to benefit from help when they need it, in exchange for giving help to others in need. A genetic predisposition to adopt such a norm of reciprocity is evolutionarily advantageous.

According to social exchange theory, the same kind of self-interest calculation that goes into reciprocal helping precedes all behavior normally described as altruistic. We decline to help when the cost is too great, and on the plus side we look for a benefit for ourselves, if only in the form of a good feeling about ourselves. Against this view, the empathy-altruism model states that the extent to which people help others depends on their level of empathy toward them. When empathy is low, people help others when the benefits outweigh the costs, as the social exchange theory predicts. When empathy is high, however, people help others even when costs outweigh benefits. People tend to have higher levels of empathy toward others who are (1) similar to themselves and (2) believed not to be responsible for their own plight. Thus, people who believe that the world is just, so that people in difficulty can be assumed to be to blame for their difficulties, are less likely to help than people who see the world as frequently unjust and people in need as frequently blameless.

Some people have an altruistic personality, meaning that they score high in agreeableness and related traits that correlate with a greater tendency to help. However, situational factors matter, too. When people notice there is a problem, interpret it as a problem, have fewer other people present, and know how to help, then they are much more likely to decide to help than when opposite circumstances exist.

On the nurture side, social learning has a great deal of influence on helping behavior, in various ways. The earliest major influence on children is their parents' parenting style. Parents who are emotionally warm tend to have more empathetic and therefore more helpful children. If people are primed by prosocial roles, such as being in a helping-oriented profession, or even if they just play prosocial video games, then they tend to be more helpful.

Another social-learning influence is guilt, either individual or collective (meaning: feeling guilty over something done by others in one's ingroup, or over unfair advantages enjoyed by one's ingroup). Research also shows that political liberals will be more likely than conservatives to help those who seem to be suffering unnecessarily or as a result of an unfair disadvantage, while conservatives will be more likely to help individuals and groups they see as conforming to traditional moral and religious norms and values.

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Chap 13_3e 150. The empathy gap is a phenomenon wherein people tend to underestimate others' physical and emotional pain resulting from social rejection. For example, if my friend falls off their bike and reports being in great pain, but I say, "It doesn't look like you broke any bones, and you're not bleeding. I think you're probably fine," this reflects an empathy gap.

The empathy gap can be overcome in multiple ways. First, actually experiencing pain or rejection, or vividly imagining it, can help people take others' suffering more seriously. Relatedly, taking the perspective of a suffering individual can also help bridge the empathy gap. Finally, people are less likely to empathize with an entire group's suffering than with an individual's suffering, so highlighting individual cases can also help to bridge the gap and make people more likely to help.

Beyond empathy, other emotional experiences including guilt, communal feelings, gratitude, and relational security can also increase the likelihood of prosocial behavior. When people feel guilty about failing to live up to their own values (whether the guilt stems from failing to act prosocially or from another source), they are motivated to engage in "good" behavior, which can include acting prosocially, to alleviate their guilt. When people experience collective guilt as a result of belonging to a group that is unfairly advantaged over other groups in society, this can also motivate prosocial actions such as working to improve the lot of disadvantaged groups. When people adopt a communal orientation toward others, which typically happens in close relationships, they regard the other person(s) as family and attend to their needs selflessly. Expressions of gratitude can reinforce prosocial acts and make prosocial actors feel like valued members of a community, making it more likely that they will continue to act prosocially. Finally, when people feel relationally secure (as opposed to insecure), they find it easier to experience compassion for others, and as a result are more apt to behave prosocially.

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Chap 13_3e 151. A social psychologist would probably start by denying that all New Yorkers fit that or any other one profile, but would go on to acknowledge that, statistically speaking, New Yorkers are probably less likely to help a stranger in need than citizens of any other major U.S. city.

However, the social psychologist would question whether New Yorkers' relative unhelpfulness toward strangers represents some sort of inherent trait. Admittedly, it is possible that people with non-helping personalities are drawn to New York and less likely to move away from there. But it is at least equally possible that high population density influences individual behavior, so as to inhibit the helping of strangers. And the New York area is one of the most densely populated areas in the country.

One way population density might inhibit helping is through the bystander effect. When someone is in need in the presence of a single witness, that witness will generally help. But as the number of witnesses increases, passivity sets in. Each witness looks to the others for clues as to whether the situation is serious enough to warrant action, and their inaction (they, too, are looking around) tends to bias judgment in the direction of not acting. This is called pluralistic ignorance. Also, the presence of multiple witnesses allows any one witness to remain uninvolved without feeling responsible for the fate of the person in need, even after the witness realizes that help is definitely called for. This is called the diffusion of responsibility. Both of these effects are more strongly in play in a big city than in a small town, simply because at any scene where someone sees another person in need of help, there are more likely to be many other witnesses present.

But besides the bystander effect, there may be an even more basic explanation for the relative lack of helpfulness of New Yorkers and other big-city residents. Milgram speculates that living in dense urban areas exposes one to so much noise (from cars, crying babies, late-night partiers, and so on) that urban residents mentally screen out stimuli to a greater degree than people living elsewhere do, so that a city dweller is less likely to notice another person's need for help in the first place. This explanation for city dwellers' unhelpfulness is called the urban overload hypothesis.

152. According to the urban overload hypothesis, city dwellers learn to cope with the sounds of high-density urban life by mentally shutting them out. They literally are less likely to hear things like people shouting, police sirens blaring, and so on. This would help to explain why people in larger cities may be less likely to help another than people in small towns. They are perhaps tuning out the information that could signal a need for help.

153. Studies indicate that people tend to help those who are similar to them. The likely explanation is that perspectivetaking is easier when the other person's situation is one we know well and understand. Since perspective-taking promotes empathy and empathy promotes helping, we end up being more likely to help people who are like us.

The regrettable flip side of this phenomenon is that we are less likely to help people we see as different from us.

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Chap 13_3e 154. Empathy, which consists of feeling what another person is feeling, is normally a product of perspective-taking, the act of using one's imagination to experience a situation from the other person's point of view and thus to share their emotional reactions. Through empathy, observers witnessing someone in a painful or uncomfortable situation feel a kind of pain or discomfort themselves, and in this way they are motivated to help the other person resolve the situation. Thus empathy gives people a motive to help others in need.

It is generally acknowledged that, at least sometimes, helping only takes place after a cost-benefit calculation that determines that the cost of helping is worth the trouble. However, Daniel Batson maintains that this description only applies to potential helpers with low empathy for those in need. When empathy is high, the empathy-based motive for help overrides calculation: people help others no matter what the costs.

In search of evidence to support this empathy-altruism model, as they called it, Batson and colleagues paired participants with a confederate, "Elaine." In one condition, a survey allegedly revealed that the participant and Elaine had similar tastes. In the other condition, the participants were led to believe that they and Elaine had different tastes. Elaine was then assigned to complete a performance task under stressful conditions, namely repeated mild but painful electric shocks. Eventually Elaine claimed to be anxious and afraid of electricity. The experimenter then asked the participants to switch places with Elaine. Participants in the low-empathy condition tended to help Elaine only if they would otherwise have to watch her suffer more shocks. If they were free to leave, they generally did so. By contrast, participants in the high-empathy condition helped Elaine regardless of whether they were free to decline and leave Batson's study altered the participants' level of empathy with Elaine by manipulating the perceived similarity between the two people. Another study that illustrated the effect of similarity was conducted by Gaertner. In this study, researchers made phone calls to White participants. The researchers spoke either without a distinctive accent or with a Southern Black accent. The caller pretended to be someone with car problems and asked the participant to phone a garage and send out a tow truck. When the participants assumed the caller was White, they were more likely to phone for the truck than if they thought the caller was Black.

Other factors also affect the degree of empathy people have for others. One factor is upbringing: parents who are emotionally warm tend to have children that are more empathetic. Another factor is the reason or cause for a person's needing help: people who believe that others are in need because of situational rather than dispositional factors tend to have increased empathy. For example, people are more likely to help someone who is homeless as a result of a natural disaster than someone who, they suspect, is homeless because of poor life choices. People are also more empathetic with someone in a situation that the observers themselves have experienced in the past.

Finally, empathy is more readily triggered when people focus on the suffering of a single individual rather than when they consider a tragedy that befalls a large group. This is why charities often feature the suffering of a single representative child or animal when asking for donations.

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Chap 13_3e 155. Altruism is the desire to help another person just for that person's benefit, regardless of whether the person helping derives a benefit. Therein lies the debate: does it ever really happen that people do something that provides them with no benefit whatsoever?

Social exchange theory says that people provide help to someone else only when the benefits of helping and the costs of not helping outweigh the potential costs of helping and the benefits of not helping. Thus, the decision to help or not to help is based on a quick mental cost-benefit analysis. To test this hypothesis, Piliavin and colleagues arranged for a confederate to collapse in a public place and look as if he needed help. If the confederate was carrying a cane when he collapsed, he received help quickly 90 percent of the time. If, however, he appeared drunk, then he was helped less than 20 percent of the time. The researchers theorized that people judged the cost of helping an intoxicated person to be higher than the costs of helping a person with a disability.

The empathy-altruism model assumes that cost-benefit calculations occur when a person has only a low degree of empathy for the person in need of help. This would be the typical situation where the person needing help is a stranger. However, the empathy-altruism model posits that where empathy is high, as in the case of, say, a neighbor or close friend in need, helping is not based on a weighing of costs and benefits. Instead, it is based on seeing the other person's situation from their point of view and sharing their reaction to it, and thus being motivated to alleviate their distress. Batson and colleagues demonstrated the difference between these two kinds of response by pairing study participants with a female confederate, "Elaine." The experimental conditions manipulated the participants' degree of empathy with Elaine by either declaring, based on a purported survey, that the participant and Elaine had similar tastes or else that their tastes were very different. After the participants observed Elaine trying to complete a performance task under stressful conditions, namely repeated mild but painful electric shocks, Elaine expressed anxiety and the experimenters asked the participants to switch places with Elaine. Participants in the low-empathy condition tended to help Elaine only if they would otherwise have to watch her suffer more shocks. If they were free to leave, they generally did so. By contrast, participants in the high-empathy condition helped Elaine regardless of whether they were free to decline and leave.

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Chap 13_3e 156. Both nature and nurture are involved in prosocial behavior. One way that nature encourages prosocial behavior is through kin selection. When an individual has a genetic predisposition to help close family members, the relatives' chances of survival improve, and since they are likely to have the same genetic makeup, it is more likely to be passed on to the next generation than the genetic makeup of a family where relatives do not help one another.

People do, however, also help others beyond their own family. That clearly makes sense when there is an expectation that the help will, or would be, reciprocated as needed. Thus, the norm of reciprocity can be explained in evolutionary terms: individuals with a disposition to reciprocate are better off in the long run than individuals who lack the disposition.

Research-based evidence of the biological basis of helping can be found in studies of nonhuman species.

Chimpanzees, killer whales, and rats have all been observed helping same-species individuals that are trapped, injured, or unable to reach a food source. Studies of young children also indicate a readiness to help others that at least partly precedes any opportunities for social learning.

Learning does, of course, matter; it is the other influence on prosocial behavior. Learning theory suggests that people learn to be helpful in three stages. First, young children learn to be helpful to get what they want. Second, people learn to help because social rewards come from the approval they get from others. Finally, people help because they have internalized certain values. Most of the learning comes through direct interaction with other people. One study found that children whose parents display more emotional warmth grow up to be more empathetic with others and more socially competent. However, even nonsocial experiences like playing a video game can increase prosocial behavior. In one study, participants watched the female experimenter get harassed by her ex-boyfriend. Participants who had played City Crisis, a prosocial game, intervened more than those who had played Tetris. It is thought that playing the first game made helping-related thoughts more accessible.

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Chap 13_3e 157. Student situations will vary. One example could be screams coming from a neighbor's apartment. For you to help, a five-step process would need to be completed.

First, you would need to notice the situation. In other words, you would need to hear the screams and recognize that an unusual and concerning situation existed, something different from just, say, people talking loudly over the noise of the television.

Next, you would need to interpret the situation as an emergency. Are the screams part of a nonviolent argument?

That would be an unfortunate situation, but not one that called for you to get involved. Here you might look to see how your roommates were reacting. If they seemed unconcerned, or equally unsure, their inaction might actually impede your action. But if you went ahead and interpreted the situation as an emergency, then you would move on to step three.

In step three, if you were alone you would be likely to help. With roommates present, however, a diffusion of responsibility might occur that could prevent you from taking action. After all, someone else might do it! Then again, if someone pointed to you and urged you to do something, that could increase your feelings of responsibility and move you to act.

If you determined that you wanted to help, the next question would be deciding how. Knock on the neighbor's door? Call 911? What you decided might depend on what you felt qualified to do. Depending on the circumstances, someone with training in how to mediate domestic disputes might feel more comfortable knocking on the door than someone who had no such training.

Finally, in step five you would need to decide to go ahead and take the action identified in step four. This decision would require a quick cost-benefit analysis that weighed the inconvenience and any personal risk against the likelihood of making a positive difference to the outcome of whatever situation gave rise to the screaming next door.

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Chap 13_3e 158. Positive moods can promote prosocial behavior for at least two reasons. First, people are motivated to maintain positive mood states, and acting prosocially helps them do this (i.e., people generally feel good when they do nice things). Second, being in a positive mood can make people perceive others more favorably, making them more likely to help. Early research by Alice Isen found that people were more likely to help in a variety of ways (e.g., donating to charity, helping someone pick up their dropped belongings) after being put in a good mood through one of a variety of procedures (e.g., being given cookies, finding money unexpectedly).

Because some social roles are associated with norms of prosocial conduct, people tend to behave more prosocially when primed with such a social role. For example, Fitzsimons and Bargh (2003) found that participants primed with the social role of "friend" agreed to help the experimenter with a subsequent study much more often than participants primed with the role "coworker."

When people are reminded of mortality, they seek to reassure themselves of the meaning and value of their existence by living up to the standards set by their cultural worldviews. Because most cultural worldviews recognize prosocial helping as valued, morally good behavior, reminders of mortality can make people more likely to behave prosocially. By doing so, people are able to feel more secure that their existence matters and that they have contributed to something that might outlast their own mortal life span. For example, Jonas et al. (2002) found that participants who were reminded of death donated more to charities than other participants.

Finally, being reminded of religious concepts and values can increase prosocial behavior, both because religions typically include prosocial behavior in their moral teachings, and because religions foster belief in ever-watchful deities who take account of all of our deeds and misdeeds. Religious primes can even increase prosocial behavior among nonbelievers! For example, Shariff and Norenzayan found that participants primed with words like divine and sacred showed more generosity to a stranger than those primed with neutral words, and this effect was observed among both believers and atheists.

159. The diffusion of responsibility is the tendency of the presence of others to prevent any one person from taking responsibility. It contributes to the bystander effect because when there are a bunch of people around, any one person is less likely to feel personally responsible – after all; someone else could help just as easily. Student examples will vary. One example would be someone falling down the steps. The more people are present, the less anyone will feel obliged to help that person up and, if they are injured, to call for more help and to stay until help arrives.

160. Collective guilt is guilt over things one is not personally responsible for, either things done by other members of one's group or some kind of unfair advantage one's group enjoys. For example, White Americans may feel guilty about the prejudice experienced by Black Americans, even if they themselves have not engaged in such prejudice. Collective guilt can motivate a desire to make reparations to victims or to remove the unfair advantage and level the playing field.

161. People who have a communal orientation do not distinguish between what is theirs and what is someone else's. A communal orientation tends to increase prosocial behavior, because it makes one more likely to share with someone in need. Student examples will vary. One example would be going out to dinner and splitting the bill equally without worrying about who ordered what.

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Chap 13_3e 162. Research suggests that men and women are probably equally likely to help but that they tend to differ in the type of helping. Men are more likely to help in dangerous situations or where chivalrous behavior, especially toward women, would be helpful. Women are more likely to help through volunteer work that requires the giving of their time over an extended period and in situations where emotional involvement in the form of caring is required.

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Chap 14_3e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Evolutionary psychology suggests that: a. women might prefer a long-term mating strategy. b. women might prefer a short-term mating strategy. c. both men and women should prefer a short-term mating strategy. d. women should be more interested than men in having multiple sexual partners.

2. Men entering and leaving a university cafeteria were asked how much an ideally attractive woman would weigh. The participants: a. named a higher weight when entering the cafeteria than when leaving. b. named a lower weight when entering the cafeteria than when leaving. c. named the same weight when entering the cafeteria as when leaving. d. said it does not matter how much a woman weighs.

3. Which of the following statements BEST describes why tanned skin is perceived as attractive in modern America? a. Tanned skin is an indicator of low status. b. Tanned skin is an indicator of high status. c. Tanned skin is an indicator of evolutionary advantage. d. Tanned skin is an indicator of evolutionary disadvantage.

4. Attractive people are generally: a. more socially skilled. b. more intelligent. c. higher in life satisfaction. d. higher in self-esteem.

5. _____ is the tendency to perceive a composite image of multiple faces that have been photographically averaged as more attractive than any individual face included in the composite. a. The halo effect b. The averageness effect c. Transference d. The proximity effect

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Chap 14_3e 6. Jose got a bigger boost to his self-esteem when a stranger complimented him than when his wife did. This is consistent with: a. the need to belong hypothesis. b. gain-loss theory. c. the compliment hypothesis. d. attachment theory.

7. According to the evolutionary perspective, as a woman, Lisa should become most jealous if she finds out her partner has: a. formed an emotional bond with another woman. b. had sex with another woman. c. not made as much money as other men. d. looked at pornography.

8. Research has shown that people take all of the measures EXCEPT which to alleviate feelings of loneliness. a. attempting to socialize with others b. bingeing on alcohol c. staying in unhappy relationships d. experiencing rejection 9. All of the following are critiques about the evolutionary view of gender and infidelity EXCEPT which statement? a. The data do not always fit with an evolutionary account. b. Methodological issues exist with data collection. c. The culturally based argument that women derive more self-esteem from their sex lives does not hold up under research. d. The sex differences, if they exist, may not be very large.

10. Research showing that attractive babies get more attention from parents and staff before leaving the hospital provides support for: a. stereotype threat. b. BIRGing. c. the halo effect. d. the averageness effect.

11. Research suggests that males are evaluated: a. more positively if they are believed to be in a relationship with an attractive woman. b. more positively if they are believed to be in a relationship with an unattractive woman. c. more negatively if they are believed to be in a relationship with an attractive woman. d. more positively if they are believed to be single.

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Chap 14_3e 12. Which of the following is a benefit associated with men's short-term mating? a. risk of STDs b. some resource investment c. potential to reproduce d. parental investment 13. _____ is the time and effort that parents must devote to each child they produce. a. Parental investment b. Kin selection c. Mating strategies d. Transference 14. Some researchers have argued that the need to belong has helped people to survive and reproduce. Which of the following perspectives are these researchers taking? a. evolutionary b. cognitive c. cultural d. social 15. Meeting the need to belong by having positive interactions with close others is associated with all of the following EXCEPT which one? a. lower levels of loneliness b. lower self-control c. higher self-esteem d. increased happiness 16. Which of the following reasons does NOT explain discrepancies between men and women in the number of sexual partners they report having? a. Men are more likely than women to have sex with prostitutes. b. Men are more likely than women to say that oral sex qualifies as sex. c. Men tend to overexaggerate, while women tend to underexaggerate their number of sexual partners. d. Men tend to start having sex at a younger age than women.

17. _____ is one of the strongest determinants of attraction. a. Perceived similarity b. Humor c. Wealth d. Perceived distinctiveness

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Chap 14_3e 18. During the fertile phase of the menstrual cycle, women are more attracted to men who show signs of: a. caring and nurturing. b. power and dominance. c. youthfulness. d. high self-esteem.

19. Women tend to be attracted to each of the following features EXCEPT for: a. wealth. b. height. c. physical strength. d. youth.

20. Attractive people are often more socially skilled than less attractive people. This is MOST likely because attractive people: a. are treated differently than unattractive people. b. have higher self-esteem than unattractive people. c. are more introverted than unattractive people. d. compensate by emphasizing their intelligence.

21. Grabe and colleagues (2008) conducted a meta-analysis of studies on media depictions of women and selfimage. Which statement BEST summarizes their findings? a. Media depictions of women improve women's self-image. b. Media depictions cause women to have problems to terms with their own body shapes and sizes. c. Media depictions of women have no effect on women's self-image. d. Media depictions of women make men more attracted to their relationship partners.

22. Todorov and colleagues (2005) examined the relationship between a political candidate's physical appearance and the likelihood of their being elected. Which statement BEST summarizes their findings? a. Candidates perceived as physically attractive were more likely to win their election. b. Candidates perceived as physically attractive were less likely to win their election. c. Candidates perceived as competent were more likely to win their election. d. Candidates perceived as competent were less likely to win their election.

23. All of the following are true about same-sex relationships EXCEPT which statement? a. The factors predicting attraction are the same in same-sex and heterosexual relationships. b. Same-sex and heterosexual people are attracted to people who provide affection. c. For gay men and lesbians, physical appearance is especially important in evaluating relationship partners. d. Gay men tend to look for masculine traits in their partners.

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Chap 14_3e 24. Which of the following statements about physical attraction is MOST accurate? a. Attraction is universal, with no cultural differences. b. Attraction is culturally influenced, with no universal standards. c. Attraction both has universal standards and is culturally influenced. d. Attraction depends entirely on the individual.

25. All of the following are true about loneliness EXCEPT which statement? a. It can hurt a person's mental health but not their physical health. b. It can hurt a person's mental and physical health. c. It can contribute to schizophrenia. d. It can contribute to alcohol abuse.

26. Which of the following statements about the relationship between physical attractiveness and intelligence is MOST accurate? a. There is a positive relationship between physical attractiveness and intelligence. b. There is a negative relationship between physical attractiveness and intelligence. c. There is a curvilinear relationship between physical attractiveness and intelligence. d. Attractive people are generally perceived to be more intelligent.

27. Research has demonstrated that the preference for symmetrical faces is _____. a. dependent upon culture b. universal c. only displayed by women d. only displayed by men 28. Which of the following is NOT one of the five core motives for sex (among college students) as outlined by Cooper and colleagues (1998)? a. physical pleasure b. foster intimacy c. affirm self-worth d. reproduction 29. Which of the following statements about physical attractiveness is INCORRECT? a. Infants gaze more at attractive adult faces. b. Attractiveness is typically the most important factor in the early stages of dating. c. Evaluating a person's attractiveness typically takes longer than a minute. d. Attractive people are generally thought to possess other desirable qualities.

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Chap 14_3e 30. Kim likes the coffee shop worker who serves her coffee every morning, because that person is associated with the pleasant experience of drinking coffee. This supports: a. attachment theory. b. the reward model of liking. c. the averageness effect. d. the halo effect.

31. _____ proposes that people like other people whom they associate with positive stimuli and dislike people whom they associate with negative stimuli. a. Loneliness theory b. The need to belong c. The reward model of liking d. Gain-loss theory 32. About one out of every _____ husbands has an extramarital affair. a. two b. five c. three d. ten 33. The mere exposure effect does not occur if: a. people are high in the need to belong. b. the stimulus is pleasant. c. people are in a close relationship. d. the stimulus is initially disliked.

34. All of the following are true about physical attractiveness EXCEPT which statement? a. Infants gaze more at attractive adult faces. b. It allows people to BIRG. c. Over time, attractiveness remains important in keeping the interest of others. d. Attractive people are believed to possess other positive traits.

35. According to the evolutionary perspective, _____ is an emotion that might have evolved to be an effective warning light signaling our partner's real or imagined indiscretions. a. anger b. joy c. fear d. jealousy

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Chap 14_3e 36. _____ is a tendency to assume that people with one positive attribute (e.g., who are physically attractive) also have other positive traits. a. The halo effect b. BIRGing c. Transference d. The proximity effect 37. People typically need _____ meaningful relationships to satisfy their need to belong. a. zero b. a few c. 50–100 d. over 100 38. Men and women find _____ faces physically attractive. a. unique b. all c. asymmetrical d. symmetrical 39. Research found that when participants were put in a room with a stranger, they liked the stranger more if: a. the room temperature was comfortable. b. the room temperature was uncomfortable. c. the study was conducted in the morning. d. the study was conducted in the afternoon.

40. Research indicates that the more nice things someone says about us: a. the more we think they have an ulterior motive. b. the more we distrust them. c. the more we like them. d. the less interested we become in having a romantic relationship with them.

41. _____ is more important for friendships and romantic relationships than _____. a. Age; income b. Income; age c. Perceived similarity; actual similarity d. Actual similarity; perceived similarity

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Chap 14_3e 42. According to Cooper and colleagues, _____ is the most endorsed of the five core motives for sex. a. fostering intimacy b. coping with negative emotions c. enhancing physical or emotional pleasure d. gaining peer approval 43. The averageness effect refers to: a. the tendency to perceive composite images of multiple faces to be more attractive than any individual face included in the composite. b. the tendency for bland, ordinary faces to be considered the most attractive. c. the tendency for people to assume that those with one positive attribute likely have other positive attributes. d. the principle that supposes most future events are likely to balance any past deviation from a presumed average.

44. Research suggests that many of the reasons for sex boil down to _____ core motives. a. two b. three c. four d. five 45. According to an evolutionary analysis, in terms of mate selection, women should care more about _____ than _____. a. youth; social status b. physical attractiveness; social status c. social status; physical attractiveness d. personality; physical attractiveness 46. For most people heading off to a blind date, the _____ of their partner is the most important factor influencing whether they will want to have a second date. a. intelligence b. financial success c. attractiveness d. personality 47. Each of the following EXCEPT which result from a satisfied need to belong? a. satisfaction with life b. better mental health c. higher self-esteem d. higher anxiety Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_3e 48. _____ is a mechanism for regulating behavior to acquire the tangible or intangible resources necessary for survival and well-being. a. Self-esteem b. Self-regulation c. A psychological need d. Self-control 49. Tanned skin is generally perceived as more attractive than fair skin among: a. Caucasian Americans. b. African Americans. c. nearly all racial groups. d. males but not females.

50. All of the following pieces of evidence EXCEPT which support the idea that men, on average, have a higher sex drive than women do? a. Young men experience sexual desire 37 times per week, while young women experience sexual desire 9 times per week. b. Men spend more money on sex than women do. c. Men are more likely to be unfaithful in their relationships than women are. d. One-third of teenage boys have mixed feelings about having sex for the first time.

51. Our bodies respond to rejection with a stress response that is similar to: a. depression. b. physical pain. c. schizophrenia. d. autism.

52. All of the following are costs associated with men's long-term mating EXCEPT which one? a. restricted sexual opportunity b. heavy parental investment c. heavy relationship investment d. increased reproductive certainty 53. Women generally prefer their mates to: a. be slightly younger than themselves. b. be slightly older than themselves. c. have a waist-to-hip ratio of 0.7. d. be in the same socioeconomic class as themselves.

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Chap 14_3e 54. _____ percent of men who have a regular sexual partner masturbate more than once a week, and _____ percent of women who have a regular sexual partner masturbate more than once a week. a. Eleven; 7 b. Ninety; 27 c. Twenty-five; 16 d. Fifty; 16 55. According to an evolutionary perspective, people have a need to belong because: a. early humans who formed social bonds were more likely to survive and reproduce. b. it contributes to self-esteem. c. the need to belong helps prevent people from becoming mentally ill, and mental illness is maladaptive. d. they enjoy the company of others.

56. Most people generally disapprove of sex between: a. unmarried partners. b. unmarried partners who are not emotionally committed to each other. c. married partners. d. married partners who have children.

57. Vanessa is looking to meet a romantic partner. To whom is she most likely to be attracted? a. a person who has different political and social views b. a person who has similar political and social views c. a person who has a very different personality from hers d. the first single person she meets 58. All of the following are true about gender and infidelity EXCEPT which statement? a. Buss found that approximately 50 percent of men said they would be more upset if they caught their partners sleeping around than if their partner had fallen for another person. b. Buss found that approximately 80 percent of women said they would be more bothered by learning their partner had fallen in love with someone else. c. Anger might be a warning light signaling a partner's real or imagined indiscretions. d. Women may have evolved a greater sensitivity than men to threats to the emotional bond.

59. Research in support of the idea of _____ indicates that people tend to like someone they just met if that individual resembles someone they already like. a. gain-loss theory b. attachment c. trait need to belong d. transference

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Chap 14_3e 60. Which of the following helps explain why men report having more sexual partners compared with reports made by women? a. Women are more likely to report that oral sex counts as sex. b. Men tend to exaggerate the number of sexual partners they have had. c. Men are more honest than women about their sexual histories. d. Women are rarely asked to report on their sexual histories.

61. Where might it be beneficial to have an office if you are starting a new job and want to make a lot of new friends? a. by the vending machine b. in the basement, separate from other offices c. at the end of the hall d. in the far corner of the building 62. Penny is friends with Joni, who lives next door, and with Chrissy, who lives two doors down the hall. Penny is also friends with Beth, who lives three doors down the hall. According to research on proximity, Penny will probably like: a. Joni best. b. Chrissy best. c. Beth best. d. all of them equally because the distances are too short for proximity effect.

63. The need to belong is: a. specific to certain cultures. b. only important for females. c. only important for males. d. universal.

64. In cultures in which resources such as food are scarce, men tend to prefer: a. heavier women. b. thinner women. c. women of different racial backgrounds. d. older women.

65. Floyd thinks that because Jennifer is attractive, she is also probably very kind. This is an example of: a. mate selection. b. mate guarding. c. the halo effect. d. transference.

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Chap 14_3e 66. Evolutionary psychologists have attempted to explain gender differences in sexual behaviors. According to them, men benefit from _____ and women benefit from _____. a. short-term mating strategies; long-term mating strategies b. long-term mating strategies; short-term mating strategies c. short-term mating strategies; short-term mating strategies d. long-term mating strategies; long-term mating strategies 67. Research suggests that feeling socially connected to others: a. increases the likelihood of a premature death. b. decreases the likelihood of a premature death. c. increases the likelihood of mental health problems. d. decreases satisfaction with life.

68. When asked to rate the importance of various attributes in a romantic partner, individualistic cultures rated _____ high. a. intelligence b. dependability c. conscientiousness d. humor 69. Adults who form stable close relationships are: a. more likely to reproduce. b. less likely to reproduce. c. more likely to not have a high belongingness motivation. d. less likely to make friends.

70. _____ is the feeling that one is deprived of human social connections. a. The need to belong b. Attachment style c. Psychological need d. Loneliness 71. Tuan is rejected by most of his peers. This rejection in Tuan has produced all of the following EXCEPT which reaction? a. activation of the anterior cingulate cortex b. a flood of oxytocin in the body c. a response similar to physical pain d. an increase in stress-related heart activity

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Chap 14_3e 72. Who is more likely to report looking forward to having sex for the first time? a. teenage males b. teenage females c. Teenage males and females are equally likely to report looking forward to this. d. The answer to this question depends on historical trends.

73. Monique likes John because he reminds her of her father. This is an example of: a. mate selection. b. mate guarding. c. the halo effect. d. transference.

74. According to the evolutionary perspective, as a man, Jake should become most jealous if he finds out his partner has: a. formed an emotional bond with another man. b. had sex with another man. c. not made as much money as other women. d. made friends with other men at work.

75. The _____ is a part of the brain that is activated when we are ignored or rejected. a. hippocampus b. cingulate gyrus c. anterior cingulate cortex d. fusiform gyrus 76. All of the following are true about physically attractive individuals EXCEPT which statement? a. Physically attractive people typically earn more money than less attractive ones. b. Physically attractive people are more likely to be found guilty of crimes than less attractive ones are. c. Physically attractive students are expected to be more intelligent than less attractive students. d. Physically attractive babies get more attention than less attractive babies.

77. Across many cultures, men prefer their sexual partners to be: a. older than themselves. b. younger than themselves. c. wealthier than themselves. d. more masculine than themselves.

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Chap 14_3e 78. Solitary confinement is widely used in prisons. In these cases, people are held in individual cells and are unable to communicate with others. Research on loneliness would suggest that all of the following EXCEPT which are likely to result from being held in solitary confinement. a. depression b. weakened immune systems c. cardiovascular system issues d. improved self-esteem 79. Research found that after men looked at Playboy centerfolds, they tended to: a. see typical women as less attractive. b. see typical women as more attractive. c. see their wives as more attractive. d. be more realistic about physical attractiveness expectations.

80. The _____ helps explain why people tend to like people who they regularly see because of proximity. a. mere exposure effect b. loneliness effect c. need to belong d. proximity effect 81. If we like someone, we tend to assume that he or she: a. has attitudes similar to our own. b. has attitudes very distinct from our own. c. does not like us. d. is single.

82. The results of a study of speed-dating suggested that in actual relationships: a. men are more influenced than women by the attractiveness of their partner. b. women are more influenced than men by the attractiveness of their partner. c. women are more influenced than men by the social status of their partner. d. men and women are equally influenced by physical attractiveness.

83. Research on human infants suggests that the need to belong is: a. specific to certain cultures. b. not very important until later in life. c. innate. d. learned.

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Chap 14_3e 84. When attractive people are being rated by someone who does NOT know what they look like (e.g., over the phone), they are rated as being _____ than unattractive people. a. more socially skilled b. less socially skilled c. less likeable d. less honest 85. The statement "Physical attractiveness only benefits sexual or romantic aspects of people's lives, but not other aspects" is BEST described as: a. incorrect. b. correct. c. unknowable. d. yet to be tested.

86. Studies showing that attractive people are presumed to have other positive traits provide support for: a. stereotype threat. b. BIRGing. c. the halo effect. d. the averageness effect.

87. The reward model of liking suggests that we may like someone simply because: a. we share personality traits. b. he or she happened to be around when we were feeling good. c. we tend to like people. d. we are lonely.

88. Young women experience sexual desire on average _____ times per week and young men experience sexual desire on average _____ times per week. a. 5; 27 b. 9; 37 c. 27; 57 d. 37; 77 89. In general, the more someone sees another person and interacts with that person, the: a. less he or she tends to like that person. b. more he or she tends to like that person. c. less he or she recognizes that person. d. more he or she will try to avoid that person.

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Chap 14_3e 90. Once a romantic relationship begins, who is more likely to want to begin having sex? a. women b. men c. Men and women are equally likely to want to begin having sex. d. Research has not addressed this question.

91. Men are most attracted to women with a waist-to-hip ratio of: a. 0.7. b. 1.0. c. 0.9. d. 0.8.

92. Existential isolation BEST refers to: a. the sense that one is alone in their experiences. b. a mechanism for regulation behavior. c. the physical nearness of others. d. the feeling that one is deprived of human social connections.

93. Festinger and colleagues studied friendship patterns in people living in apartment buildings and housing projects. They found that people who lived on the first floor of the apartment complex and by the stairwells made more friends on the second floor, and that people who lived in houses facing a common courtyard made more friends than residents whose homes faced the street. This illustrates the importance of: a. similarity. b. proximity. c. the reward model of liking. d. the gain-loss theory.

94. _____ represent(s) approaches to mating that help people reproduce successfully. a. Parental investment b. Kin selection c. Mating strategies d. Transference 95. Evolutionary theory accounts for all of the following EXCEPT which observation? a. Being ostracized helped to toughen up people against mental challenges. b. The motive to belong is found across time and cultures. c. Affiliation begins at birth. d. Affiliation increases survival.

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Chap 14_3e 96. Before his first date with Elaine, Roger got a drink from his favorite coffee shop, listened to his favorite artist, and had a good conversation with his best friend. What does research suggest Roger will think of Elaine at their date? a. Roger will be in a good mood and will like Elaine more as a result. b. Roger will be in a good mood and will like Elaine less as a result. c. Roger's previous mood will have no influence on how much he likes Elaine. d. There is no way to know.

97. Julie is closer friends with her immediate neighbors than the people who live several houses away. This supports the idea of: a. the proximity effect. b. the need to belong. c. trait loneliness. d. evolutionary motives for belongingness.

98. Before visiting a potential college, Jordyn got into a fight with her mom. What does research suggest Jordyn will think of the college during their visit? a. Jordyn will be in a bad mood and will like the college more as a result. b. Jordyn will be in a bad mood and will like the college less as a result. c. Jordyn's previous mood will have no influence on how much they like the college. d. There is no way to know.

99. All of the following are costs associated with women's short-term mating EXCEPT which one? a. good genes from a mate b. reduced value as a long-term mate c. risk of STDs d. risk of pregnancy 100. Attractive people are generally NOT: a. more socially skilled. b. more popular. c. more outgoing. d. more mentally healthy.

101. _____ is the effort to prevent others from mating with one's partner, in order to avoid the costs of rearing offspring that do not help to propagate one's genes. a. Mate selection b. Mate guarding c. Kin selection d. Transference Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_3e 102. Couples who are _____ are more likely to have satisfying, long-lasting relationships. a. similar b. dissimilar c. attractive d. lonely 103. All of the following are true about online dating and attraction EXCEPT which statement? a. Both men and women value trustworthiness in a dating partner. b. Both men and women tend to look for similar others. c. Both men and women look for attractive partners. d. Both men and women are attracted to others who share their current relational goals.

104. _____ is basically a classical conditioning model of liking. a. Proximity b. The need to belong c. The reward model of liking d. Gain-loss theory 105. All of the following are core motives for having sex EXCEPT which one? a. to enhance physical or emotional pleasure b. to foster intimacy c. to gain power d. to affirm self-worth 106. Research suggests that situations that increase jealousy do so by threatening: a. self-esteem. b. belongingness. c. positive mood. d. social status.

107. According to the evolutionary perspective, women have a much _____ level of _____ than men. a. higher; parental investment b. lower; parental investment c. higher; mating strategies d. lower; mating strategies

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Chap 14_3e 108. According to Cooper and colleagues, _____ is the least endorsed of the five core motives for sex. a. fostering intimacy b. coping with negative emotions c. enhancing physical or emotional pleasure d. gaining peer approval 109. Who is more likely to say they would enjoy casual sex outside of a committed relationship? a. women b. men c. Men and women are equally likely to say this. d. Research has not addressed this question.

110. Franz often feels like others cannot understand his perspective. Which of the following psychological phenomena is Franz experiencing? a. loneliness b. existential isolation c. life satisfaction d. mere exposure 111. The _____ effect is the increased likelihood of forming relationships with the people who are physically close by. a. loneliness b. attachment c. proximity d. need to belong 112. Early research on infidelity found that men tended to be more concerned about _____ infidelity and women tended to be more concerned about _____ infidelity. a. sexual; emotional b. emotional; sexual c. emotional; emotional d. sexual; sexual 113. Research suggests that people may partner with a dissimilar other if they are looking for a: a. short-term, low-commitment relationship. b. long-term, high-commitment relationship. c. person to have children with. d. long-term relationship that will not result in children.

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Chap 14_3e 114. If you find out that someone else likes you, you are likely to: a. think less of them. b. ignore them. c. dislike them. d. like them too.

115. Internet technology is somewhat reducing the: a. need to belong. b. potency of rejection sensitivity. c. importance of proximity in forming relationships. d. need to form close relationships.

116. In more egalitarian societies, in terms of mate selection, women care more about _____ than _____. a. youth; social status b. physical attractiveness; social status c. social status; physical attractiveness d. personality; physical attractiveness 117. _____ is a tendency to map, or redirect, feelings for a person who is known onto someone new who resembles that person in some way. a. Gain-loss theory b. Loneliness c. Transference d. Attraction 118. Tina is asked whether sexual infidelity or emotional infidelity is worse. Her answer would be: a. emotional infidelity. b. sexual infidelity. c. both are equally problematic and destructive. d. based on how the question was phrased.

119. Which of the following traits differs in importance for finding a partner between men and women? a. income b. emotional stability c. openness to new experiences d. kindness

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Chap 14_3e 120. From an evolutionary perspective, loners are: a. more likely to survive and reproduce. b. better able to adaptively function. c. less likely to survive and reproduce. d. less likely to have mental health problems, because they do not depend on others.

121. _____ is a theory of attraction that posits that liking is highest for others when they increase their positivity toward you over time. a. Belongingness theory b. Gain-loss theory c. Terror management theory d. Attachment theory 122. Eduardo recently moved into a new apartment building. According to the principle of proximity, who is Eduardo most likely to befriend? a. his next-door neighbor b. his landlord c. someone who lives on the opposite end of the apartment building d. someone who lives in a different apartment building 123. All of the following are true EXCEPT which statement? a. Both men and women find unique faces as attractive. b. Across many cultures men prefer their sexual partners to be younger than they are. c. Men are primarily attracted to women with baby-faced features. d. Men, more than women, prefer partners who are physically attractive.

124. Which of the following statements about sexuality and gender roles is MOST accurate? a. Lesbians prefer traditional gender roles more than heterosexual men do. b. Heterosexual men prefer traditional gender roles more than lesbians do. c. Both lesbians and heterosexual men prefer traditional gender roles. d. Neither lesbians nor heterosexual men prefer traditional gender roles.

125. Lucy recently met a new student in her class who has the same birthday as Lucy's best friend. While she might not know it, Lucy starts to like this new student as a result of the shared birthday. Which psychological concept best describes this phenomenon? a. transference b. proximity c. I-sharing d. gain-loss

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Chap 14_3e 126. List the four observations about affiliation needs according to evolutionary theory.

127. Describe three pieces of evidence suggesting that, on average, men have higher sex drives than women do.

128. Discuss the importance of physical attractiveness. Define the halo effect, and discuss why the halo effect exists. Cite research to support your answer.

129. Describe why media portrayals of females tend to make females view themselves more negatively in terms of physical attractiveness.

130. Describe the reasons why physical attractiveness is important.

131. Describe the concept of existential isolation.

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Chap 14_3e 132. Describe the concept of parental investment and how, according to evolutionary psychology, it influences attitudes about sex for men and women.

133. Discuss gender differences with regard to infidelity, in light of both early and modern research. Use specific studies to support your answer.

134. Describe the concept of mate guarding from the evolutionary perspective.

135. Discuss whether the preference for symmetrical faces is universal and evidence for or against this supposition.

136. Explain the averageness effect and why it exists.

137. Describe how people benefit when their need to belong is satisfied.

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Chap 14_3e 138. State three costs associated with long-term mating for males.

139. Describe how proximity influences liking.

140. Discuss how people view attractive people, and describe the benefits of being physically attractive. Provide research to support your answer.

141. Discuss both the reward model of liking and the gain-loss theory. Include a discussion of research supporting each model.

142. Describe the concept of transference. Explain the role transference plays in interpersonal attraction.

143. Explain gain-loss theory.

144. Describe how men and women differ in terms of jealousy, according to evolutionary theory.

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Chap 14_3e 145. Discuss how attractive others can help to satisfy psychological needs. Cite research to support your answer.

146. Discuss how meeting or not meeting the need to belong affects both psychological and physical health.

Discuss some of the relevant research evidence.

147. Explain whether people tend to be attracted to those who are similar to them or to those who are different from them.

148. Define the halo effect. Provide a real-world example of the halo effect. Discuss two studies on this effect and the influence it can have on one's self perception. Finally, describe the cultural media explanation for the halo effect.

149. Describe how media portrayals of women affect male views about female attractiveness.

150. Describe the reward model of liking.

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Chap 14_3e 151. Describe four gender differences with regard to sexual attitudes and behaviors.

152. Describe the halo effect and how it can bias people.

153. State three costs associated with short-term mating for females.

154. Describe three benefits of physical attractiveness.

155. Discuss what men and women find attractive in the opposite sex. Discuss the origins of those differences.

156. Discuss five gender differences with regard to sexual attitudes and behaviors. Describe the evolutionary explanation for gender differences on attitudes toward sex and reported sexual behavior. Include at least two studies in your discussion of this topic.

157. Describe one example of indicators of high status being considered attractive.

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Chap 14_3e 158. Using evolutionary theory, describe the features men look for in a mate and the features women look for in a mate.

159. Define proximity, and discuss how it facilitates liking. Cite research to support your discussion.

160. While there is some evidence that men and women differ in what they consider to be attractive in potential partners, this evidence has been criticized. Describe two controversies in this line of research.

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Chap 14_3e Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. c 10. c 11. a 12. c 13. a 14. a 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. b 19. d 20. a 21. b 22. c 23. c 24. c 25. a 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_3e 27. b 28. d 29. c 30. b 31. c 32. c 33. d 34. c 35. d 36. a 37. b 38. d 39. a 40. c 41. c 42. c 43. a 44. d 45. c 46. c 47. d 48. c 49. a 50. d 51. b 52. d 53. b 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_3e 55. a 56. b 57. b 58. c 59. d 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. d 64. a 65. c 66. a 67. b 68. d 69. a 70. d 71. b 72. a 73. d 74. b 75. c 76. b 77. b 78. d 79. a 80. a 81. a 82. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_3e 83. c 84. a 85. a 86. c 87. b 88. b 89. b 90. b 91. a 92. a 93. b 94. c 95. a 96. a 97. a 98. b 99. a 100. d 101. b 102. a 103. c 104. c 105. c 106. a 107. a 108. d 109. b 110. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_3e 111. c 112. a 113. a 114. d 115. c 116. b 117. c 118. d 119. a 120. c 121. b 122. a 123. a 124. b 125. a 126. The four observations about affiliation needs according to evolutionary theory are (1) the motive to belong is universal, (2) affiliation behaviors are inborn, (3) social rejection triggers a response similar to physical pain, and (4) relationships foster reproductive success.

127. There is considerable evidence that, on average, men have higher sex drives than women do. For example, men experience sexual desire more frequently, are more motivated to seek out sexual activity, are more likely to exaggerate the depth of their feelings in order to have sex, spend more money on sex, masturbate more frequently, and are more likely to be unfaithful in romantic relationships.

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Chap 14_3e 128. Physical attractiveness is important for several reasons. For starters, it is pleasant to look and be around attractive people. Even infants look longer at an attractive face than an unattractive one, presumably because they find the attractive face more pleasant.

Beyond that, however, being around attractive others can also boost self-esteem, because people who are around attractive others can reap some of the benefits of their attractiveness. Thus, basking in reflected glory (BIRGing) can make a person feel better about themselves. In one study, when participants thought that a man was the boyfriend of an attractive woman, they formed a more positive impression of him than when he was not associated with the attractive woman. Another study by the same researchers found that people realize that others evaluate them more positively when they are with attractive others. Specifically, males thought they would be evaluated more positively if they were seen as having a relationship with an attractive woman.

Our tendency to focus on physical attractiveness when evaluating others has far-reaching consequences for social relationships. Physical appearance is the first thing we typically know about a person and therefore often the starting point for our impression of them. From there, we make a snap judgment very quickly about other characteristics. This halo effect, as it is called, leads us to view people through the lens of appearance and associate being attractive with other positive attributes. People see attractive people as happier, warmer, more dominant, mature, mentally healthy, extraverted, intelligent, sensitive, confident, and successful. Landy and Sigall found that people evaluated an essay purportedly written by an attractive person more positively than the same essay written by an unattractive person. Clifford and Walster gave teachers information about either a boy or a girl but paired the information with either an attractive or an unattractive photograph. Teachers rated the children as more intelligent and as having a greater likelihood of success when the photograph showed an attractive child.

The halo effect exists for several reasons. One reason is that we are motivated to be around attractive others, and therefore project other positive qualities onto them to justify our associating with them. Culture also plays a role in the development of the halo effect: media images often pair good character with physical attractiveness and bad character with ugliness. For example, Cinderella is good and beautiful, and the stepsisters are not beautiful and not good. One study found that attractive characters in Hollywood films tend to be not only more virtuous but also more successful.

129. Media portrayals of women tend to use a number of techniques to make the women depicted appear more attractive. For photographic images, for instance, professional models are used, they are photographed in a carefully staged way under ideal lighting, and afterward the photos are altered using Photoshop or similar software. The process creates unrealistic standards of beauty that the women who view the images inevitably fall short of.

130. First, it is more pleasant to look at attractive people (the reward model of attraction). Second, people can bask in the reflected glory (BIRG) of the attractive people that they are with. Third, it is assumed that attractive people will have other positive qualities (the halo effect). These are all reasons why people are drawn to attractive people. Those who are attractive benefit from the increased positive attention in at least two ways. First, because attractive people are assumed to be socially skilled, they are treated as such and end up having more opportunity to develop the skills attributed to them (the self-fulfilling prophecy). And second, attractive people end up with more options when it comes to finding a mate.

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Chap 14_3e 131. Existential isolation refers to the sense that one is alone in their experience and that others cannot understand their perspective. Unlike loneliness, people can experience existential isolation even when interacting with others. The experience of existential isolation can be distressing and as a result people are attracted to others who make them feel understood.

132. Parental investment is the time and effort parents must invest in each child they produce. Compared with men, women have a higher level of parental investment, because they can produce far fewer children than men and must devote a considerable amount of time to the bearing and raising of each child. Thus, women should be choosier about when they have sex and whom they have sex with. According to an evolutionary analysis, men are predisposed to adopt short-term mating strategies that lead to many sexual encounters, and often more offspring, while women are predisposed to adopt long-term mating strategies that lead to long-term partnerships.

133. Early research showed that there was a significant gender difference in how people view infidelity. Buss and his colleagues found that almost 50% of men said that, forced to choose, they would be more upset if they found their partner was sleeping with other people than if their partner had fallen in love with another. The large majority of women, on the other hand (over 80%), would be more upset if their partner had fallen in love with someone else. An evolutionary explanation for this difference would point to a difference in reproductive roles. For women, the need for a long-term partnership during pregnancy and child raising would make them more sensitive to any threat to their emotional bond with their mate. Men, on the other hand, worry more about the sexual activity of their partners because they do not want to invest their energy in raising another man's offspring, which carry his genes and not theirs. Thus, evolution explains male sexual jealousy and mate guarding, as it is called, efforts to prevent one's sexual partner from mating with someone else.

More modern research has produced a somewhat more mixed picture. Some of it has also found gender differences, with men worrying more about sexual infidelity and women more about emotional infidelity. A study

by Buss and colleagues found that physiological responses are different for men and women with regard to thoughts about infidelity: in men, elevated skin conductance, taken to be a sign of the fight-or-flight response, is associated with imagining their partners' sexual infidelity. Women, by contrast, show elevated skin conductance imagining their partner's emotional infidelity. However, other modern research suggests that the gender difference is less stark than early researchers thought. Multiple studies found that when they were not forced to choose between a partner's sexual infidelity and their emotional infidelity, men and women scored similarly in their feelings about each. Moreover, studies of actual infidelity have not always replicated the sex difference earlier found in studies of how people reacted to imagined infidelity. Finally, the significance of elevated skin conductance is unclear. A study by Harris suggests that in men, it may be related not to sexual jealousy but simply to sexual thoughts, as such, being physically more arousing than thoughts about emotional involvement.

134. Mate guarding is the effort to prevent others from mating with one's partner in order to avoid the costs of rearing offspring that do not help to propagate one's genes.

135. The preference for symmetrical faces, or finding symmetrical faces attractive, is universal. People all over the world display this preference. Some evidence for why this is the case comes from evolutionary psychology. Specifically, a key evolutionary challenge is finding a healthy person to mate with in order to produce healthy offspring. As there is a link between facial symmetry and health, being attracted to symmetrical faces gives people an evolutionary advantage.

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Chap 14_3e 136. The averageness effect is people's tendency to perceive a composite image of multiple faces that have been photographically averaged as more attractive than any individual face included in that composite. The effect can be explained in evolutionary terms by people seeing asymmetrical faces and unusual facial features as signs of disease or other reproductive non-fitness. The average face is by definition free of such indicators of disorder.

137. People who feel a sense of belongingness tend to have higher self-esteem, feel happier and more satisfied with their lives, and have better mental health. On the physical side, they have stronger cardiovascular, immune, and endocrine systems, and they are less likely to die prematurely.

138. There are three costs associated with long-term mating for males: (1) restricted sexual opportunities, (2) heavy parental investment, and (3) heavy relationship investment.

139. Proximity is the physical nearness of others. It encourages personal encounters, which are necessary for a relationship to form. Moreover, proximity encourages repeated encounters. Studies suggest that people tend to like those they see frequently, such as close neighbors or colleagues at work. This is an instance of the mere exposure effect.

140. People see attractive people as happier, warmer, more dominant, mature, mentally healthy, extraverted, intelligent, sensitive, confident, and successful. In other words, people view attractive others through the lens of attractiveness and associate being attractive with other positive attributes. This is called the halo effect. Landy and Sigall found that people evaluated an essay purportedly written by an attractive person more positively than the same essay written by an unattractive person. Clifford and Walster gave teachers information about either a boy or a girl but paired the information with either an attractive or an unattractive photograph. Teachers rated the children as more intelligent and as having a greater likelihood of success when the photograph showed an attractive child.

Attractive people are not only evaluated more positively but are treated better. The benefits can begin early. One study found, disconcertingly, that cute premature babies received better care in hospitals than less cute ones.

Attractive babies get more attention from parents. Attractive people are more popular, and this begins in preschool. Attractive people date more frequently, earn more money, and are less likely to be found guilty of a crime. Attractive people are also more outgoing and socially skilled, which may be explained by their being treated differently, in a way that helps them hone their social skills. One clever study found that people were rated as more socially skilled, by neutral judges, after a phone conversation with someone who thought they were attractive (based on a photograph) than after a conversation with someone who thought them unattractive.

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Chap 14_3e 141. The reward model of liking is based on classical conditioning principles. It proposes that people like others whom they associate with positive stimuli and dislike others they associate with negative stimuli. Veitch and Griffitt had participants overhear either bad or good news on the radio right before evaluating a stranger. Those who heard good news tended to like the stranger more than those who heard bad news. Another study by Griffitt had participants come to a room and fill out questionnaires for 45 minutes. One questionnaire described a stranger's attitudes on various issues. The temperature of the room was varied to be either comfortable or too hot.

Participants liked the stranger more when they completed the questionnaire with the room at a comfortable temperature.

The gain-loss theory is inspired by an observation about long-term relationships. People are used to being complimented by friends and romantic partners, so another compliment from one of them is no surprise. By contrast, a compliment from a stranger, or from an associate who is usually stingy with compliments, comes as a pleasant surprise and therefore has a greater impact. Reflecting on this pattern, Aronson and Linder proposed that liking is highest for others who increase their positivity toward a person over time. They documented this phenomenon by means of a study in which participants overheard a confederate evaluate them in conversation with the researchers. Participants heard (1) consistently positive comments, (2) consistently negative comments, (3) comments that started out negative but ended positively, or (4) comments that started out positive but ended negatively. When participants were then asked what they thought of the confederate, they liked the confederate best when the comments were initially negative and then became positive. This was the gain condition. They liked the confederate least when the comments were initially positive and then became negative. This was the loss condition.

142. Transference is a tendency to map, or transfer, feelings for a person who is known onto someone new who resembles that person in some way. It plays a role in interpersonal attraction, in that if you like someone and then meet someone else who is somewhat similar, you are liable to like them, too.

143. The gain-loss theory of attraction posits that liking is highest for others when they increase their positivity toward you over time. A compliment from someone you just met will generally have a greater positive effect on you than a compliment from someone you know well and like, because the compliment from the new acquaintance is unexpected or novel.

144. Evolutionary theory proposes that men should be more jealous about sexual infidelity, because a woman having sex with other men threatens paternal certainty. Men do not want to devote time and resources to raising a child that does not carry their genes. Women should be more jealous about a partner becoming emotionally attached to another woman, because this could signal that he is going to leave and no longer help with child rearing, thus increasing her burden.

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Chap 14_3e 145. Being around physically attractive others can make a person feel good. Research shows that it is more pleasant to look at attractive versus unattractive people. This is true even for infants. This can satisfy a person's need for psychological comfort. Being around attractive others can also help with a person's esteem needs, because people that are around attractive others can reap some of the benefits of their attractiveness. Thus, basking in reflected glory (BIRGing) can make a person feel better about themselves. In one study, when participants thought that a man was the boyfriend of an attractive woman, they formed a more positive impression of him than when he was not associated with the attractive woman. Another study by the same researchers found that people realize that others evaluate them more positively when they are with attractive others. Specifically, males thought they would be evaluated more positively if they were seen as having a relationship with an attractive woman.

146. Human beings have a need to belong, a need to form social relationships. People for whom that need is not met can suffer from loneliness, which brings with it a higher risk of substance abuse. Prolonged loneliness causes stress and increases the risk of depression, eating disorders, and schizophrenia. Loneliness also makes people more vulnerable to physical disorders. A study by Pressman and colleagues found that loneliness weakens college students' immune systems, making them more likely to catch a cold or flu. Another study, by Hawkley and colleagues, found that loneliness increased the risk of poor health by about the same amount as smoking and obesity.

People who do feel they belong, on the other hand, tend to have higher self-esteem, feel happier and more satisfied with their lives, and have better mental health. On the physical side, people whose need to belong is met have stronger immune, cardiovascular, and endocrine systems. They are also less likely to die prematurely. Even a very brief anti-loneliness dose of human contact can be beneficial. One study by Cohen and colleagues found that people who received a hug from someone else were less likely to develop cold symptoms even after exposure to the cold virus.

147. People tend to be attracted to similar others. A number of studies support this idea. In fact, perceived similarity is one of the strongest determinants of attraction. We like those who share our beliefs and interests. Research shows that opposites attract is usually not the case.

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Chap 14_3e 148. The halo effect is our tendency to view people through the lens of appearance and to associate being attractive with other positive attributes. People see attractive people as happier, warmer, more dominant, mature, mentally healthy, extraverted, intelligent, sensitive, confident, and successful. Landy and Sigall found that people evaluated an essay purportedly written by an attractive person more positively than the same essay written by an unattractive person. Clifford and Walster gave teachers information about either a boy or a girl but paired the information with either an attractive or an unattractive photograph. Teachers rated the children as more intelligent and as having a greater likelihood of success when the photograph showed an attractive child.

The halo effect exists for several reasons. One reason is that we are motivated to be around attractive others, and therefore project other positive qualities onto them to justify our associating with them. Culture also plays a role in the development of the halo effect: media images often pair good character with physical attractiveness and bad character with ugliness. For example, Cinderella is good and beautiful, and the stepsisters are not beautiful and not good. One study found that attractive characters in Hollywood films tend to be not only more virtuous but also more successful.

There are many real-world examples of the halo effect. One might be a teacher who is shocked when an attractive student fails an exam. The teacher expected the student to excel because the teacher associated attractiveness with intelligence. The halo effect can also turn into the self-fulfilling prophecy. For example, if someone believes that you will be mature or socially skilled based on the fact that you are physically attractive, then they might treat you in a way that elicits mature or socially skilled behavior. In theory, over time, we may internalize the view of ourselves originally imposed on us because of our appearance, so that we consistently act in a more mature or socially skilled manner.

149. Studies suggest that after males look at media portrayals of very attractive females, they find the typical real woman less attractive. In other words, the media can set men up with artificial and unrealistic expectations regarding female attractiveness.

150. The reward model of liking proposes that people like other people whom they associate with positive stimuli and dislike people whom they associate with negative stimuli. This model explains liking in terms of classical conditioning.

151. Studies show that, compared with women, men think about sex more often and want to have it more frequently.

They want to start having sex at an earlier age, and also want to start having sex earlier in relationships than women do. They are more likely to be disappointed if they feel they missed an opportunity for sex. Men are more likely than women to say that they would enjoy casual sex outside of a committed relationship. Men masturbate more frequently than women, spend more money on sex, and are more likely to be sexually unfaithful to their romantic partners.

152. The halo effect is the tendency to assume that people with one positive attribute, such as physical attractiveness, also have other positive attributes. It can bias people because it inclines them to judge people based on one attribute, even if that attribute is not directly related to other traits or behaviors. For example, if two people write essays of identical quality, the grader is liable to impute more insight to the essay written by the more attractive person.

153. There are three costs associated with women's short-term mating. These include (1) the risk of getting a sexually transmitted disease, (2) the risk of pregnancy, and (3) reduced value as a long-term mate.

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Chap 14_3e 154. There are numerous benefits to being physically attractive. Cute babies tend to get more attention, both at the hospital and then at home, from parents. Young children prefer to be around attractive others. Attractive children are more popular. Teachers see attractive children as more intelligent and more successful. Attractive people earn more money. Attractive defendants tend to be found less guilty of crimes, and if they are convicted, they tend to receive lighter sentences.

155. In some respects, men and women find the same things attractive. First, they tend to perceive bilaterally symmetrical faces as attractive. There is also a preference for averageness, as revealed by studies in which participants perceive a photographically averaged composite image of multiple faces to be more attractive than any individual face included in the composite. In judging attractiveness of the opposite sex, both men and women emphasize kindness, dependability, warmth, loyalty, a sense of humor, and a pleasant disposition.

At the same time, there are significant differences between what men find attractive in women and what women find attractive in men. Men find younger women more attractive than older ones, with a preference for babyfaced features such as a small chin combined with features that signal sexual maturity, such as prominent cheekbones. Men prefer women with a waist-to-hip ratio of 0.7.

Women also value certain physical characteristics, namely height and a muscular build (with a waist-to-hip ratio around 0.9), and masculine facial features such as a large chin. However, women also value nonphysical attributes, such as wealth and social status. They also look for men slightly older than they are, perhaps because of the likely higher social standing that comes with age.

All of these preferences, in both men and women, may be explained in evolutionary terms as a preference for partners best suited to reproduction. Pregnancy is physically demanding for women, and women are fertile over a shorter portion of their lives than men are. Moreover, during pregnancy and child-raising women are physically and economically vulnerable. Men, then, will naturally be drawn to women who in virtue of their youth and bodily proportions seem most fertile. (The preference for a certain waist-to-hip ratio has an evolutionary explanation: a ratio of 0.7 is associated with a mix of hormones that correlates to fertility and physical health.) For their part, women will naturally be drawn to men who, physically and socioeconomically, appear able to protect and provide for them and their children.

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Chap 14_3e 156. Compared with women, when it comes to feelings and attitudes men are (1) more likely to say they would enjoy casual sex outside a committed relationship, (2) quicker to interpret nonverbal cues as signaling sexual interest, (3) more anxious to lose their virginity, (4) more likely to regret not pursuing opportunities for sex, (5) more likely to want to have sex sooner in a relationship and more often, and (6) more prone to feelings of sexual desire and to fantasizing about sex. When it comes to behavior, men (7) spend more money on sex (ranging from money for pornography to money for prostitutes), (8) masturbate more often, and (9) are more likely to be unfaithful to their partners.

One explanation for these differences comes from evolutionary theory. Trivers suggested that men and women differ in the parental investment, the time and effort that parents must invest in each child they produce. Because men are not the ones who get pregnant, they have a lower parental investment and therefore maximize their reproductive success by focusing on short-term mating strategies that enable them to mate with as many partners as possible and so produce as many offspring as possible. Women, on the other hand, have a higher parental investment. Having to carry children for nine months at a time, they can only produce a limited number of offspring and need partners who will support them during pregnancy and help with child raising. In pursuing such partners, the women are adopting long-term mating strategies.

According to research by Schmitt, Gangestad and Simpson, and Kenrick and others, men are indeed more eager for casual, uncommitted sex than woman are, and are less discriminating in their choice of partner when it comes to qualities of character and socioeconomic standing. (It should be noted, however, that Buss and Schmitt complicated the picture by finding that men will switch to a long-term mating strategy when seeking a longer, more committed relationship.)

157. Features that indicate high social status are typically considered to be attractive. For example, in modern American society, tanned skin, which indicates an ability to spend leisure time outside or afford going to a tanning salon, is considered attractive. As another example, in cultures and historical periods experiencing food scarcity, heaviness, which indicates the ability to afford ample food, is considered attractive.

158. For men, signs of fertility should be important: youth, ideal waist-to-hip ratio, and good health. For women, signs of masculinity and power should be important: high social or economic status, height, and muscularity.

159. Proximity is the physical nearness of others. It is a major factor in determining whom we form relationships with, because one must meet people in order to form a relationship with them, and proximity increases the probability of people meeting. Research by Festinger and colleagues found that the location of people's apartments had an impact on who became friends with whom. People were nearly twice as likely to become friends with a nextdoor neighbor as with someone two doors away. The researchers also found that among people living on the first floor, those near a stairwell made more friends on the second floor.

Proximity promotes not only first-time meetings but also repeat meetings. The mere exposure effect, by which the more people are exposed to a stimulus, the more they tend to like that stimulus, applies even when the stimulus is a person. Reis and colleagues confirmed this by having study participants converse with one another between one and eight times. Those who conversed more often tended to like each other more, due to increased familiarity and comfort with each other. It follows that by promoting repeat encounters and repeat conversations, proximity facilitates liking by means of the mere exposure effect.

160. Research on gender differences in attraction has been criticized as having inconsistent data, small observed effects, limited by reliance on self-report measures, and failing to consider alternative explanations.

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Chap 15_3e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. All of the following are part of the four horsemen of the relational apocalypse EXCEPT which one? a. denial of a problem b. criticism of their partner c. contempt for their partner d. defensiveness 2. The Inclusion of Other in the Self Scale was designed to assess the extent to which people: a. incorporate their partners partially into the self. b. desire to form lasting relationships with others. c. perceive others as important for one's own self-esteem. d. have strong social connections.

3. Diego and Lauren have been in a relationship for a few years and have been having a lot of arguments lately.

During these arguments, Diego often rolls his eyes and makes sarcastic comments toward Lauren. Which of Gottman's (1995) four horsemen of the (relational) apocalypse is demonstrated in this example? a. criticism b. contempt c. defensiveness d. stonewalling 4. According to Sternberg's triangular model of love, _____ is characterized by high levels of intimacy, passion, and commitment. a. romantic love b. fatuous love c. consummate love d. compassionate love 5. Research found that people judged their partner's faults to be: a. less important than outside observers judged them to be. b. more important than outside observers judged them to be. c. more important than their partner's positive qualities. d. a barrier to a positive relationship.

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Chap 15_3e 6. According to the triangular model of love relationships, the combination of intimacy, passion, and commitment create _____ love. a. romantic b. companionate c. consummate d. fatuous 7. Zena has a negative view of herself but a positive view of others. She is high in anxiety and low in avoidance and has intense but unstable relationships. Zena is: a. securely attached. b. anxious-ambivalent. c. fearfully avoidant. d. dismissive avoidant.

8. In many parts of _____ and _____, marriages are arranged. a. Germany; Poland b. Japan; China c. India; Pakistan d. Canada; England 9. Research on relationship problems suggests that defensiveness leads to: a. stonewalling. b. criticism. c. contempt. d. distrust.

10. According to research conducted by Zick Rubin (1973), which of the following summarizes the key difference between liking and loving? a. Liking is more focused on attachment. b. Liking is more focused on caring. c. Liking is more focused on similarity. d. Liking is more focused on intimacy.

11. All of the following are critical factors proposed by interdependence theory EXCEPT which one? a. satisfaction b. investments c. perceived alternatives d. attractiveness

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Chap 15_3e 12. Research suggests that in a relationship, when facing a minor problem with one's partner, the best strategy is to: a. face the problem head on. b. give your partner the silent treatment. c. keep a list of every occurrence of the problem. d. avoid conflict by not sweating the small stuff.

13. According to interdependence theory, when your comparison level for alternatives is low, your commitment: a. decreases. b. is variable. c. remains high. d. is low.

14. According to Sternberg's triangular model of love, _____ is characterized by high levels of passion and commitment but a low level of intimacy. a. romantic love b. fatuous love c. consummate love d. companionate love 15. Research suggests that marital satisfaction increases when: a. couples have a child. b. people have been married for a few years. c. couples are having financial problems. d. the children have grown up and left home.

16. _____ is the idea that people are attracted to others who are similar to them in some kind of social hierarchy. a. Attachment b. Equity theory c. The comparison level d. Assortative mating 17. Diego and Lauren have been in a relationship for a few years and have been having a lot of arguments lately.

During these arguments, Diego often shuts down and refuses to talk to Lauren. Which of Gottman's (1995) four horsemen of the (relational) apocalypse is demonstrated in this example? a. criticism b. contempt c. defensiveness d. stonewalling

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Chap 15_3e 18. The _____ model of love provides insights into the subjective experience of love. a. terror management b. attachment c. triangular d. self-expansion 19. Research suggests that divorce rates are higher in: a. collectivistic cultures. b. individualistic cultures. c. cultures that do not value romantic love. d. cultures that do not value passionate love.

20. All of the following explain the psychological functions of love EXCEPT which one? a. evolutionary theory b. terror management theory c. attachment theory d. the self-expansion model 21. From the perspective of the social exchange model, we should always be looking to: a. find true love. b. form lasting romantic relationships. c. balance self-interest with helping others. d. maximize benefits for ourselves.

22. _____ are idealized perceptions of romantic partners that highlight their positive qualities and downplay their faults. a. Self-disclosure b. Attachment schemas c. Romantic attitudes d. Positive illusions 23. According to the EVLN model, _____ is a strategy that is both passive and destructive. a. exit b. neglect c. voice d. loyalty

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Chap 15_3e 24. According to the model of relational turbulence, in the early stage of a relationship there is: a. a lot of conflict. b. a turbulent period of adjustment. c. little conflict. d. a high level of uncertainty.

25. Each of the following is a component of closeness EXCEPT for: a. caring. b. interdependence. c. trust. d. attachment style.

26. Robert enjoys regularly listening to a podcast that features a group of friends discussing sports, movies, and news. Robert feels that he knows these people, cares about what happens to them, and is committed to supporting them. What is this BEST an example of? a. romantic relationship b. parasocial relationship c. romantic love d. trust 27. _____ is an economic perspective that assumes that people approach relationships with an underlying motivation of self-interest. a. The social exchange model b. Attachment theory c. Evolutionary theory d. Terror management theory 28. All of the following are true about relationships EXCEPT which statement? a. Love and romance are universal experiences. b. Across all cultures, love plays a central role in marriage. c. Individualistic cultures focus more on love as a motive for marriage. d. Collective cultures focus more on family considerations with regard to marriage.

29. According to research by Csikszentmihalyi (1980), long-lasting relationships work best when the challenges of a relationship partner are commensurate with one's relationship-related abilities. Which psychological principle BEST describes this phenomenon? a. flow b. integrative strategy c. distributive strategy d. stress adaptation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_3e 30. According to Sternberg's triangular model of love, _____ is characterized by high levels of intimacy and passion but a low level of commitment. a. romantic love b. fatuous love c. consummate love d. compassionate love 31. _____ describes an avoidant attachment style characterized by a negative view of others and a positive view of the self. People with this attachment style do not appear to need closeness with others and tend to hide their vulnerability. a. Securely attached b. Anxious-ambivalent c. Fearfully avoidant d. Dismissive avoidant 32. As a child, Wen was not very distressed when her mother left the room and didn't seek her out when she returned. Wen has a(n) _____ attachment style. a. distressed b. secure c. anxious-ambivalent d. avoidant 33. Roberto's attachment style is secure and Tom's attachment style is secure. Based on research: a. they are likely unhappy with their relationship. b. they are likely satisfied and committed to their relationship. c. one of them will be restless in the relationship. d. they are both dissatisfied with the relationship.

34. _____ is partners' acknowledgment that their lives are intertwined and that they think of themselves as a couple instead of as two separate individuals. a. Mutuality b. Interdependence c. Commitment d. A parasocial relationship 35. All of the following are at the core of romantic love EXCEPT which element? a. attachment b. intimacy c. perceived similarity d. caring Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_3e 36. What two major emotions do people tend to experience in the face of a breakup? a. happiness and sadness b. relief and regret c. anger and sadness d. sadness and guilt 37. Feelings of excitement from unrelated activities—such as traveling—can transfer to the relationship partner.

Which psychological concept BEST describes this concept? a. Coolidge effect b. transference c. flow d. stonewalling 38. More securely attached individuals are: a. less able to maintain enduring relationships. b. less likely to end a relationship that they do not find to be meeting their psychological needs. c. more likely to end a relationship that they do not find to be meeting their psychological needs. d. typically single.

39. Jose told his wife that he wants to start seeing a marriage therapist to help them with their relationship problems. According to the EVLN model, Jose is employing the strategy called: a. exit. b. voice. c. neglect. d. loyalty.

40. Which of the following BEST describes the difference between parasocial relationships and close relationships? a. Parasocial relationships lack interdependence. b. Parasocial relationships lack knowledge. c. Parasocial relationships lack caring. d. Parasocial relationships lack commitment.

41. Donna follows country music star Eric Church on Facebook and Twitter. She is the total fan and feels very close to Eric. This is an example of: a. mutuality. b. interdependence. c. an insecure attachment. d. a parasocial relationship.

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Chap 15_3e 42. Studies show that when people are asked to name the person they feel closest to, the most common answer is their: a. best friend. b. age-nearest sibling. c. romantic partner. d. parents.

43. Rick puts his wife up on a pedestal, often overlooking her faults and highlighting her positive features. This is an example of: a. positive illusions. b. relational bias. c. true love. d. secure attachment.

44. Which of the following statements about the connection between culture and love is MOST accurate? a. Love is experienced in some cultures, but not others. b. Love is experienced in all cultures, and is experienced in identical ways between cultures. c. Love is experienced in all cultures, but its specific experience can differ between cultures. d. Love is only experienced in a few cultures.

45. Katrina likes to share things with Felix. She also feels that she has his emotional support. According to Sternberg, this aspect of a relationship is: a. passion. b. compassion. c. intimacy. d. commitment.

46. In early research on attachment styles, Ainsworth used an experimental scenario called the strange situation.

She found that about ___ percent of children displayed a secure attachment style. a. 40 b. 50 c. 80 d. 60 47. _____ describes an avoidant attachment style where the person doesn't feel worthy, doesn't trust others, and fears rejection. a. Securely attached b. Anxious-ambivalent c. Fearfully avoidant d. Dismissive avoidant Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_3e 48. Cross-cultural research found that, compared with Americans, the Chinese were more likely to incorporate _____ and _____ as part of the love experience. a. suffering; sadness b. joy; passion c. happiness; anger d. regret; sadness 49. Attachment theory combines insights from all of the following EXCEPT which one? a. operant conditioning b. Freudian psychoanalytic tradition c. studies on primates d. developmental psychology 50. When two people in a relationship see themselves as us instead of me and you, they have a high degree of: a. parasocial relationship. b. mutuality. c. anxious-ambivalent attachment. d. attachment.

51. _____ is the sharing of information about oneself. a. Attachment security b. Companionate love c. Self-disclosure d. Secure attachment 52. In _____ cultures, family considerations have more influence on choice of marriage partners than in _____ cultures. a. individualistic; collectivistic b. collectivistic; individualistic c. rich; poor d. Northern; Southern 53. _____ describes an attachment style characterized by a positive view of the self and others, low anxiety and low avoidance, and satisfying, stable relationships. a. Securely attached b. Anxious-ambivalent c. Fearfully avoidant d. Dismissive avoidant

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Chap 15_3e 54. A child who feels comfortable exploring the environment when her or his mother is present, and who is upset when the mother leaves but easily calmed upon her return, likely has which attachment style? a. distressed b. secure c. anxious-ambivalent d. avoidant 55. Arianna and Dominique have been dating for three years. While their friends tend to think that Dominique can be gossipy, Arianna does not agree and thinks that Dominique just cares a lot about the people in her life. Which psychological concept BEST describes Arianna's attitude? a. positive illusions b. self-disclosure c. relational turbulence d. interdependence 56. Which of the following is not one of the strategies proposed by the EVLN model? a. exit b. neglect c. voice d. loneliness 57. The fact that arousal from exciting activities can be transmitted to feelings of lust provides support for the: a. Coolidge effect. b. two-factor theory of love. c. matching effect. d. interdependence theory.

58. When people interpret facts about their partners in a more benevolent fashion than other people would, they are exhibiting: a. positive illusions. b. relational bias. c. self-disclosure. d. secure attachment.

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Chap 15_3e 59. Hannah tolerates her husband despite the fact that he is verbally abusive toward her. She hopes that things will improve at some point and is willing to give him the benefit of the doubt. According to the EVLN, Hannah is employing the strategy called: a. exit. b. voice. c. neglect. d. loyalty.

60. The scholar Zick Rubin developed a scale to distinguish _____ from _____. a. attachment; love b. interdependence; trust c. liking; attachment d. liking; love 61. Studies found that reminders of mortality: a. increased people's fear of relationships. b. increased people's desire for offspring. c. decreased people's fear of relationships. d. decreased people's desire for offspring.

62. When you are thinking about the person you love deeply, there is an increase in activation of the: a. hippocampus. b. amygdala. c. fusiform gyrus. d. caudate nucleus.

63. Dutton and Aron arranged for adult males to be interviewed on one of two bridges over a river. One bridge was very safe and secure looking, while the other bridge was very narrow and scary. The males were interviewed by either an attractive female or a male interviewer. Dutton and Aron found that when males were on a scary bridge, they: a. attributed some of their arousal as anger toward the male interviewer. b. attributed some of their arousal as anger toward the female interviewer. c. attributed some of their arousal as attraction toward the female interviewer. d. refused to participate in the study.

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Chap 15_3e 65. Rhonda feels she has a close relationship with her favorite movie star. This is an example of: a. an interdependent relationship. b. insecure attachment. c. a parasocial relationship. d. a dysfunctional relationship.

66. One of the core elements of liking is: a. attachment. b. intimacy. c. perceived similarity. d. caring.

67. Attachment theory posits that the prototypic experience of love is: a. the result of cultural customs about romantic relationships. b. the young child's bond with the primary caretaker. c. a person's desire to be in a romantic relationship. d. established by one's first romantic relationship.

68. _____ is the idea that satisfaction, investments, and perceived alternatives are critical in determining commitment to a particular relationship. a. Interdependence theory b. Social exchange theory c. Attachment theory d. Terror management theory 69. According to Sternberg's triangular model of love, _____ is characterized by high levels of intimacy and commitment but a low level of passion. a. romantic love b. fatuous love c. consummate love d. companionate love 70. Matthew and Landon have recently started dating. They often tell each other stories about their past, their likes and dislikes, and their hopes for the future. Which psychological concept BEST describes what Matthew and Landon are practicing? a. assortative mating b. social exchange c. self-disclosure d. positive illusions

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Chap 15_3e 71. Which statement BEST describes the trajectory of marital satisfaction over time? a. Newlyweds presume that their marriage will become less satisfying over time, and this is usually the case. b. Newlyweds presume that their marriage will become more satisfying over time, and this is usually the case. c. Newlyweds presume that their marriage will become less satisfying over time, and this is usually not the case. d. Newlyweds presume that their marriage will become more satisfying over time, and this is usually not the case.

72. In China, the value called xiao reflects: a. respect for and devotion to family. b. social interdependence. c. a desire for passionate love. d. a feeling of duty to country.

73. _____ is a situation in which what each person does significantly influences what the partner does over long periods of time. a. Mutuality b. Interdependence c. Commitment d. A parasocial relationship 74. An adult romantic relationship is most successful and satisfying if: a. one person has a secure attachment style and one person has a dismissive avoidant attachment style. b. both members of a couple have a secure attachment style. c. both members of a couple have an anxious-ambivalent attachment style. d. one person has a fearfully avoidant attachment style and one person has a dismissive avoidant attachment style.

75. Research by Murray and colleagues indicates that people who idealize their romantic partners: a. end up being disappointed and resentful. b. tend to have low self-esteem. c. are more satisfied and feel stronger love and trust. d. have insecure attachment styles.

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Chap 15_3e 76. All of the following are part of the cascading process of Gottman's description of a collapsing relationship EXCEPT which one? a. denial of a problem b. criticism of their partner c. contempt for their partner d. defensiveness 77. On his way to work, Ainsley passes by a cemetery, which makes him momentarily think about his own death. According to the terror management theory perspective on close relationships, how is this reminder of death likely to influence Ainsley's attitudes toward his relationship with his wife? a. Ainsley will become less committed. b. Ainsley will become more committed. c. Ainsley will remain at the same level of commitment. d. Ainsley will end the relationship.

78. _____ is partners' investment of time, effort, and resources in their relationship, with the expectation that it will continue indefinitely. a. Mutuality b. Interdependence c. Commitment d. A parasocial relationship 79. Research found that thinking about a current romantic partner reduces the need to defend one's worldview after a reminder of death, but only for people who are: a. high in self-esteem. b. low in self-esteem. c. securely attached. d. insecurely attached.

80. According to the _____ theory, when partners first meet, their attraction to each other is based primarily on conspicuous attributes like age and physical appearance. a. stimulus-value-role b. matching c. social exchange d. equity

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Chap 15_3e 81. _____ is (are) global feelings about the nature and worth of close relationships and other people's trustworthiness. a. Attachment styles b. Working models of relationships c. Romantic schemas d. Relational self-esteem 82. _____ is the idea that as partners make the transition from casual dating to more serious involvement in the relationship, they go through a turbulent period of adjustment. a. The model of relational turbulence b. Attachment theory c. Equity theory d. Comparison level 83. Relationships that include all _____ of the components of closeness are the most satisfying. a. three b. four c. five d. six 84. _____ people tend to be better able to accept a breakup and recover from sadness more quickly. a. Lonely people b. Insecurely attached c. Securely attached d. Anxiously attached 85. _____ represents the perceived quality of alternatives to the current relationship. a. The comparison level for alternatives b. The model of relational turbulence c. Interdependence theory d. The attachment schema 86. According to Otto Rank, _____ have largely replaced _____ as the primary source of meaning in people's lives. a. romantic relationships; religion b. religion; romantic relationships c. parasocial relationships; religion d. religion; parasocial relationships

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Chap 15_3e 87. One method that has been shown to help keep passion alive in a relationship is: a. doing novel, fun, exciting things together. b. having avoidant goals. c. having frequent arguments. d. sharing your frustration with your partner.

88. Research suggests that generally there is: a. very little stability of attachment style from infancy to adulthood. b. little evidence to support attachment theory. c. considerable stability of attachment style from infancy to adulthood. d. a considerable amount of evidence suggesting that attachment style does not predict relationship success in adulthood.

89. _____ is the idea that romantic relationships serve the desire to expand the self and grow. a. Terror management theory b. Attachment theory c. Secure attachment d. The self-expansion model of relationships 90. In the social exchange model, satisfaction = (rewards minus costs) minus: a. equity. b. fairness. c. equality. d. the comparison level.

91. According to the EVLN model, the two dimensions reflective of how people resolve conflict are: a. active/passive and constructive/destructive. b. approach/avoidance and dominance/submission. c. secure/insecure and warm/cool. d. hostile/peaceful and dismissive/engaged.

92. Attachment theorists argue that childhood experiences with primary caregivers result in: a. working models of relationships. b. parasocial relationships. c. love. d. social connectedness.

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Chap 15_3e 93. Diego and Lauren have been in a relationship for a few years and have been having a lot of arguments lately.

These arguments often start with Lauren telling Diego things she does not like about him. Which of Gottman's (1995) four horsemen of the (relational) apocalypse is demonstrated in this example? a. criticism b. contempt c. defensiveness d. stonewalling 94. _____ is the idea that people are motivated to maintain a sense of fairness or equity, whereby both partners feel that the proportion of outcomes (rewards) to inputs (costs) that each receives is roughly equal. a. Attachment b. Equity theory c. The comparison level d. Assortative mating 95. The social exchange theory can be considered a(n) _____ model. a. sociological b. anthropological c. economic d. evolutionary 96. Kim is an attractive woman, and she is looking for an attractive male partner. This supports the idea of: a. romantic love. b. the matching phenomenon. c. terror management. d. attachment theory.

97. _____ is the idea that people seek romantic relationships with others who are similar to them in physical attractiveness. a. The matching phenomenon b. Equity theory c. The comparison level d. Assortative mating 98. Infatuation is characterized by: a. commitment alone. b. passion alone. c. intimacy alone. d. passion and commitment.

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Chap 15_3e 99. Danh and Bian were married for nearly 30 years until they recently divorced. Having been married for so long, Danh feels that he no longer knows who he is outside the context of the relationship. Danh is experiencing a lack of: a. self-concept clarity. b. positive illusions. c. relational turbulence. d. self-disclosure.

100. The _____ strategy for conflict management involves ignoring the problem. a. integrative b. distributive c. avoidant d. voice 101. According to the EVLN model, _____ is a strategy that is both active and destructive. a. exit b. neglect c. voice d. loyalty 102. According to _____, early relational experiences continue to shape relationships across the life span. a. attachment theory b. terror management theory c. two-factor theory d. triangular model of love relationship 103. Marital satisfaction tends to decline over time, particularly after the first year of marriage. All of the following EXCEPT for which contribute to this decline in marital satisfaction? a. Partners start with unrealistic expectations. b. Small issues get magnified. c. Partners become interdependent. d. Sore spots are revealed.

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Chap 15_3e 104. Eric and Julia have been dating for approximately one year. They have a good relationship and take an active interest in the other's hobbies. Eric has taken to Julia's love for science fiction and Indian food, while Julia has embraced Eric's penchant for metal music and camping. As a result, both Eric and Julia have grown as individuals and as a couple. Which psychological perspective best describes this scenario? a. terror management theory b. attachment theory c. self-expansion model of relationships d. two-factor theory 105. The _____ strategy for conflict management is competitive, emphasizes individual goals, assigns blame, and often devolves into insults and hostility. a. integrative b. distributive c. avoidant d. approach 106. Research on relationship problems suggests that _____ by one partner leads to contempt, which in turn leads to _____. a. criticism; stonewalling b. stonewalling; criticism c. criticism; defensiveness d. criticism; anger 107. According to terror management theory, close relationships help to reduce: a. anxiety about death. b. fear of rejection. c. feelings of uncertainty. d. the need for self-esteem.

108. Research suggests that bringing to mind a favorite television program: a. makes people feel lonely. b. buffers people from feeling rejected when their real relationships are threatened. c. increases negative feelings toward others. d. has no influence on how people feel after rejection.

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Chap 15_3e 109. According to the _____, romantic love may have the advantage of helping people focus on courting and mating with a single individual. a. attachment theory b. evolutionary perspective c. triangular theory d. social exchange theory 110. _____ is individuals' relationships with people in the media: celebrities, television characters, and athletes. a. Mutuality b. Interdependence c. Commitment d. A parasocial relationship 111. The area of the brain that shows increased activation when you are thinking about your beloved is also associated with: a. pain. b. fear. c. reward. d. memory.

112. Diego and Lauren have been in a relationship for a few years and have been having a lot of arguments lately.

During these arguments, Lauren often denies responsibility for her actions, instead blaming Diego and making excuses. Which of Gottman's (1995) four horsemen of the (relational) apocalypse is demonstrated in this example? a. criticism b. contempt c. defensiveness d. stonewalling 113. After four years of marriage, the happiest couples are those who: a. have unrealistic positive expectations about marital bliss. b. initially have negative views of their partner. c. begin a relationship with a high amount of passionate love. d. started out with realistic outlooks about what married life would be like.

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Chap 15_3e 114. Research has shown that, after a breakup, all of the following strategies EXCEPT for _____ can help people move on. a. staying in contact with their ex b. investing in other relationships c. practicing self-compassion d. investing in challenges at school or work 115. Each of the following concepts is included in the triangular model of love relationships EXCEPT for: a. intimacy. b. passion. c. commitment. d. expansion.

116. Holly recently discovered that her boyfriend, whom she loves very much, was having an affair. Their relationship has ended as a result of this infidelity. According to the terror management perspective on close relationships, what will be one likely outcome of this breakup? a. Holly will experience heightened death-related thoughts. b. Holly will become more committed in the relationship. c. Holly will become fearfully avoidant. d. Holly will become dismissive avoidant.

117. Support for the _____ of love comes from experiments demonstrating the misattribution of general arousal to interaction with an attractive person. a. two-factor theory b. attachment theory c. triangular model d. self-expansion theory 118. All of the following are components of closeness typically found in parasocial relationships EXCEPT which element? a. knowledge b. caring c. commitment d. interdependence 119. Research suggests that marital satisfaction tends to decline at year _____ and year _____. a. 1; 8 b. 2; 5 c. 1; 5 d. 5; 10 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_3e 120. According to the model of relational turbulence, as partners transition from casual dating to more serious involvement, they go through a: a. period of infatuation. b. phase involving a lot of positive illusions. c. period of self-disclosure. d. turbulent period of adjustment.

121. As a child, Jacob became upset any time his mother would leave but was always easily calmed down when she returned. Which type of attachment style did Jacob have? a. distressed b. secure c. anxious-ambivalent d. avoidant 122. The basic components of Sternberg's triangular model of love relationships are: a. intimacy, trust, and passion. b. passion, attachment, and intimacy. c. intimacy, passion, and commitment. d. commitment, trust, and passion.

123. There is an increased activation of the dopamine-rich ventral tegmental area and the caudate nucleus when people in love: a. become jealous. b. are rejected. c. think about their beloved. d. fall out of love.

124. Which of the following statements BEST describes the relationship between love and marriage? a. Across all cultures, marriage is based on love. b. Across all cultures, marriage is based on family connections and arrangements. c. In some cultures, marriage is based on love, while in others marriage is based on family connections and arrangements. d. There are no cultural differences in love and marriage.

125. A child who has a difficult time calming down when her or his mother returns likely has which attachment style? a. distressed b. secure c. anxious-ambivalent d. avoidant Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_3e 126. Describe assortative mating and how it relates to the motivation of fairness in relationships.

127. Discuss love by applying Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion. Provide an example of this theory, and cite research to support your findings.

128. Imagine a friend asks you what to expect as her romantic relationship transitions from casual dating to more serious involvement. Based on theory and research, what would you tell her?

129. Describe the difference between romantic love and companionate love, according to Sternberg's triangular model of love relationships.

130. Describe the three strategies for conflict management according to Canary and colleagues. Provide an example for each.

131. Briefly describe how experiences as children influence adult relationships, according to attachment theory.

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Chap 15_3e 132. According to the research, describe the two points at which marital satisfaction declines the most, and why.

133. Discuss the social exchange model and equity theory. Describe the motivation behind each theory.

134. Describe Sternberg's triangular model of love. Discuss the critical facets of love and how they combine to generate different types of love.

135. Contrast equity theory with the social exchange model. Use an example to contrast the two models.

136. According to theory and research, discuss the factors that influence whether a person will stay in or leave a romantic relationship if they are having relationship problems.

137. Imagine that a friend who is getting married soon asks you for advice on how to have a successful marriage.

Based on the research on the determinants of lasting relationships, discuss the advice you would offer.

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Chap 15_3e 138. Describe how culture influences the conceptualization and experience of love and commitment. Discuss various cross-cultural examples of the different and similar conceptualizations of love.

139. Describe how romantic commitment varies between individualistic and collectivistic cultures.

140. Describe the concept of self-disclosure and explain how too much or too little of it can be a problem in romantic relationship.

141. Describe the vulnerability stress adaptation model, and explain when, according to this model, a relationship dissolves.

142. Describe the self-expansion model of relationships.

143. Describe the concept of parasocial relationships and how they differ from normal relationships.

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Chap 15_3e 144. Describe the relationship between intimacy and relational turbulence as specified by the relational turbulence model.

145. Describe interdependence theory.

146. Discuss how attachment theory provides a foundation for understanding adult romantic relationships. Include in your discussion the theories of Ainsworth and Bowlby. Discuss the enduring influences of childhood attachment styles on adult love relationships.

147. Describe four factors that cause a decline in marital satisfaction over time.

148. Briefly discuss the terror management perspective on romantic relationships.

149. Describe the social exchange model. Give one example of how this model might work in a relationship.

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Chap 15_3e 150. Describe how the two-factor theory explains love. Explain how the Dutton and Aron study (1974) supports this theory.

151. Explain how attachment style can influence the decision to break off or continue in an unhappy relationship.

152. Describe the EVLN model of managing relationship conflict and how this model can be used to help people deal with relationship problems more productively.

153. List Gottman's (1995) so-called four horsemen of the (relational) apocalypse and explain why their presence often precipitates relationship dissolution.

154. Define positive illusions, and describe how they can impact a relationship.

155. Describe the two dimensions of attachment and how they determine attachment style.

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Chap 15_3e 156. Describe the six components of closeness.

157. Describe how people can keep the passion alive and enhance relational satisfaction in their relationships over time.

158. List the three main facets of love according to Sternberg's triangular model of love relationships. State what kind of love exists when you have all three facets.

159. List the two major emotions that people experience during a breakup, and describe who is best able to deal with the dissolution of a relationship.

160. Describe the variables or qualities that distinguish a close relationship from parasocial and other types of relationships. Discuss the importance of close relationships.

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Chap 15_3e Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. c 7. b 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. d 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. d 16. d 17. d 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. d 22. d 23. b 24. c 25. d 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_3e 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. d 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. c 36. c 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. a 41. d 42. c 43. a 44. c 45. c 46. d 47. c 48. a 49. a 50. b 51. c 52. b 53. a 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_3e 55. a 56. d 57. b 58. a 59. d 60. d 61. b 62. d 63. c 64. a 65. c 66. c 67. b 68. a 69. d 70. c 71. d 72. a 73. b 74. b 75. c 76. a 77. b 78. c 79. c 80. a 81. b 82. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_3e 83. d 84. c 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. c 89. d 90. d 91. a 92. a 93. a 94. b 95. c 96. b 97. a 98. b 99. a 100. c 101. a 102. a 103. c 104. c 105. b 106. c 107. a 108. b 109. b 110. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_3e 111. c 112. c 113. d 114. a 115. d 116. a 117. a 118. d 119. a 120. d 121. b 122. c 123. c 124. c 125. c 126. Assortative mating is the idea that people are attracted to others who are similar to them in some kind of social hierarchy, such as one based on wealth or on physical attractiveness. This is not just a function of people's tendency to be attracted to others who are similar to themselves; it also helps to equalize the level of rewards and resources the two partners each bring to the relationship, and so it is an expression of the motivation of fairness.

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Chap 15_3e 127. According to Schachter's two-factor theory, emotion is a product of physiological arousal and a label that assigns the arousal an interpretation, based on available cues. Thus, the same arousal could be labeled as fear or anger.

Berscheid and Walster applied Schachter's theory to love, treated as a felt emotion. In this analysis, if a person is aroused in the presence of a member of the preferred sex, in a context that suggests romance, then the arousal may be labeled as love. Since the identification of a context as romantic is partly dependent on culture, cultural scripts play a role in determining whether our feelings get labeled as feelings of love.

The labeling may involve misattribution of arousal. For example, Samitra comes home from her date and her parents are angry with her for being out late. She is angry with them in return. Going upstairs, she reads a text message from her boyfriend and sees his picture, and interprets her state of arousal as a feeling of intense love for him, when in fact it is leftover excitation from her conversation with her parents. A study by Dutton and Aron confirmed the existence of this kind of phenomenon. Male participants were interviewed by an attractive female interviewer or by a male interviewer. Half of the participants were interviewed on a very safe and secure-looking bridge, while the other half were interviewed on a very narrow, wobbly, and scary-looking bridge. While on the bridge, the interviewer displayed a picture of a young woman covering her face with one hand and reaching out.

The participants were asked to write stories about the picture and were provided with the interviewer's phone number, in case they wanted to learn more about the study. Participants interviewed on the scary bridge wrote more sexual stories when interviewed by an attractive female, and they made more phone calls to her. It was hypothesized that they had interpreted their fear arousal as romantic attraction.

128. The model of relational turbulence suggests that this transition can lead to some difficulties, as each member of the couple learns to adapt to a more interdependent life. In other words, expect some turbulence while adjusting to a more serious relationship.

129. Romantic love is characterized by high intimacy and passion but a relatively low level of commitment. It may be a step on the way to consummate love, but in some cases the commitment is never made. Companionate love is characterized by high intimacy and commitment but a relatively low level of passion. It is more common among couples who have been together a long time.

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Chap 15_3e 130. Canary and colleagues identify three conflict management strategies: avoidant, distributive, and integrative.

The avoidant strategy is fine for minor issues that can be dealt with through a simple mental or behavioral adjustment. For example, if your partner doesn't put the dishes in the dishwasher the way that you want, that doesn't necessarily require a conversation. You can either rearrange the dishes yourself or else just learn to ignore the problem. The risk of the avoidance strategy is that, used on bigger problems, it can lead a person to brood and to lose positive regard for the partner.

The distributive strategy is competitive. It emphasizes individual goals and focuses on assigning blame. The problem, as you see it, lies with your partner's behavior, and so they need to change. An example would be telling your partner that they have a problem handling their anger, and they need to fix it. The usual result is that your partner then becomes defensive in return, so that the conversation degenerates into insults and hostility.

The integrative strategy is the best type of conflict management strategy. Here the focus is on shared relational goals, not individual goals. The problem is ours, not yours. This strategy involves direct and positive discussion, in search of ways to remedy the problem and express trust and positive regard for each other. For example, you might talk to your partner about what to do when one of you has had a bad day at work. What might you do for each other? Does the person who had the bad day need alone time? Do you need to focus on a joint activity? Do you need to talk it out? In this way you are stressing what both parties can do to try to come up with a solution that works for both of you and the relationship.

131. Attachment theory proposes that the experiences small children have with their caregivers create working models or cognitive schemas for how relationships work; these schemas persist and later determine how people approach their adult relationships. For instance, if as a child a person develops a secure attachment style, then in adulthood that person will see relationships with others as a source of security. On the other hand, a child that develops an anxious-ambivalent attachment style is likely in adulthood to find relationships stressful.

132. The first point is after the first year of marriage. As unrealistic expectations meet unpleasant reality, the two partners each start slacking off and taking the relationship for granted, and small annoyances begin to grate over time. The second is around eight years after marriage, which is probably, for the average couple, the time when the stress of raising children begins to take a larger toll on marital happiness.

133. The social exchange model takes an economic perspective and assumes that people approach relationships with an underlying motivation of self-interest. In this model, satisfaction equals rewards minus costs and also minus the comparison level, which is the expectation of how rewarding a relationship should be. Because of differing expectations, a relationship between two people for whom rewards and costs are comparable may be fairly satisfying for the one person, who perhaps had a troubled childhood, but not very satisfying for the other, who may have grown up in a stable, happy environment. Culture also plays a role in setting expectations.

Equity theory adopts a different perspective, from which fairness is seen as the prime concern. In this model each partner desires equality, between the two partners, of the proportion of outcomes to inputs. A person who feels that the partner is getting a higher proportion will feel angry and resentful, but on the flip side a person who feels unfairly advantaged will also feel guilty. Either way, the person will seek to restore balance by adjusting the distribution of inputs and outcomes between them and their partner. This can involve anything from a change in chore assignments to spontaneous gifts and other expressions of gratitude.

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Chap 15_3e 134. In Sternberg's triangular model, love relationships have three basic components, which can be combined into seven different types of love. The ideal type is consummate love, a combination of all three basic components: intimacy (liking, sharing, knowing, and emotional support), passion (excitement, sexual attraction, and longing), and commitment (investment in maintaining the relationship). Fatuous love is a combination of passion and commitment without intimacy, companionate love is intimacy and commitment without passion, and romantic love is intimacy and passion without commitment. The last three types are intimacy alone, also known as liking and sometimes found in non-romantic friendships; commitment alone, also known as empty love; and passion alone, also known as infatuation.

Consummate love often begins as romantic love, to which the element of commitment is then added. Some couples enter marriage in a state of fatuous love, before intimacy has had a chance to develop; such relationships often run into trouble as each spouse encounters unwelcome surprises while getting to know the other spouse better. Among older couples, some settle for mere commitment in the absence of passion or intimacy, simply because staying together is preferable to facing the world alone. Other older couples settle into companionate love as passion fades but intimacy remains, while some couples are able to meet the challenge of maintaining passion over the long haul.

135. The social exchange model is all about self-interest. Equity theory, by contrast, focuses on the fairness of relationships. It suggests that we do not simply try to gain benefits for ourselves. Instead, we try to balance what we get with what we give, so that the relationship will last and be beneficial for both partners. For example, with the social exchange model, if a person is benefiting financially, sexually, and socially in a relationship, but not emotionally, then the person would likely choose to stay in the relationship because the benefits outweigh the costs. According to equity theory, on the other hand, the person would also be concerned about the costs and benefits to the other party in the relationship and might, for instance, contribute more financially to the relationship in order to bring it into balance.

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Chap 15_3e 136. In the social exchange model, a person's commitment to a relationship is based on satisfaction. Interdependence theory adds two more factors, namely investments and perceived alternatives. People invest a lot of time and energy, and often fiscal resources, into a relationship. Generally, that kind of investment makes people more likely to stick with a relationship and less likely to bail out. This is especially true when the alternatives are not especially appealing, that is, when there is no opportunity for a more satisfying relationship with someone else. But when the comparison level for alternatives, as it is called, gets too high, when someone gets the general sense that better relationship opportunities exist, commitment to the present relationship wavers.

The decision whether to stay in a relationship or to leave can also be influenced by how well the relationship meets psychological needs. If a relationship doesn't provide a sense of competence and autonomy, which are core psychological needs, then people are more willing to leave the relationship. Here, however, attachment style matters, especially where it falls on the anxiety dimension. People who are low in anxiety are much readier to leave a relationship that is not meeting their needs than people high in anxiety, who would find leaving more stressful and may also feel unworthy of being in a better relationship. Research has confirmed this through experiments in which priming feelings of security led to a greater willingness to leave an unsatisfying relationship, while priming feelings of insecurity increased greater commitment to relationships, whether or not those were meeting the person's needs.

Another important factor is the style of conflict management. Both partners are more likely to stay in a relationship when they deal with conflict in ways that are both constructive and active (taking steps toward positive change) rather than destructive and passive (withdrawing and refusing to confront problems), and when they approach problems with an integrative strategy (our problem) rather than a distributive one (your problem and not mine).

137. There are many factors involved in a successful marriage, and it would obviously be hard to cover them all!

- It is crucial to have realistic expectations. Unrealistically high expectations can set one up for failure, because it becomes impossible to live up to them.

- Relationships need maintenance and nurturing. Keep working on the marriage, and don't stop trying to be courteous and kind.

- People tend to magnify small issues and make them into bigger problems than they really are. Try not to let the daily hassles bother you, and try not to overreact to quirks that over time get on your nerves.

- People need to learn how to be responsible with others' secrets and weaknesses, not carelessly sharing them and using them during arguments to hit their partner where it hurts.

- Be prepared for unpleasant surprises, such as the amount of stress that comes with parenting and the strain it can put on the parents' relationship with each other.

- Avoid what Gottman calls the four horsemen of the relational apocalypse: criticism, contempt, defensiveness, and stonewalling.

- According to interdependence theory, commitment to a relationship is a function not only of satisfaction but also of investedness and perceived alternatives. Putting time and effort into the relationship strengthens each partner's resolve to make the relationship work. And of course it also improves the relationship, lessening the likelihood that some alternative (a possible affair with a work colleague, etc.) will seem more attractive.

- Choose your conflict management strategy wisely. Avoidance is a good strategy if the issue is small. An integrative strategy seeks to present the problem as a challenge that both of you need to work together to solve.

This avoids pointing a finger and assigning blame. Try to avoid a distributive strategy where you are defensive and blame your spouse for the problem.

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Chap 15_3e 138. In its most general sense, love is a strong, positive feeling we have toward someone we care deeply about.

Romantic love, the kind of love most interesting to social psychologists, is love between adults that includes sexual attraction. Cross-cultural studies conducted by Fisher and others have found some recurring themes. For a person in love, the beloved person becomes the focus of one's attention, feelings, and sexual desire, a central source of meaning and value. Being in a committed romantic relationship usually brings with it a fair amount of emotional dependency: the beloved person's fortunes and the state of the relationship can determine whether one feels joy or despair, or contentment or jealousy. A threat to the relationship occasionally moves some people to violence.

These commonalities still leave room for cultural differences. Expressions of love in the United States and China are comparable in their level of passion, for example, but in China they are more likely to incorporate suffering and sadness. Cultures also differ in the extent to which they associate romantic love with marriage. In many cultures, such as the United States and Japan, love is considered a primary basis for marriage. But in other cultures, such as are found in parts of India and Pakistan, marriages are arranged by the couple's parents and are not based on love. Some of the cultural differences have to do with individualism versus collectivism. In collectivistic cultures, such as those in India and Pakistan or in China, the approval of one's family and the practical benefits of the marriage for each of the two families are more important than the partners' feelings of romantic love. Arranged marriages are much less likely to end in divorce than partner-selected ones, so that on a strictly behavioral level, the commitment appears to be on average much stronger. But studies comparing the happiness levels in arranged marriages and partner-selected ones have not found a simple, clear-cut pattern. In China and Turkey, partner-selected marriages are happier, but in India and Pakistan, over the long haul the arranged marriages are happier than the partner-selected ones, possibly because, in an example of the selffulfilling prophecy effect, couples in India and Pakistan expect this to be the pattern and do things that reinforce it.

139. In individualistic cultures, the individual has the largest say about whom they will date and decide to marry. In collectivistic cultures, family considerations and opinions have a much stronger influence. In a collectivistic culture, if the relationship fulfills the cultural expectation of maintaining communal cohesion and family unity, it is likely to remain intact. This partly explains why divorce rates are lower in collectivist cultures.

140. Self-disclosure refers to the sharing of information about oneself. This is an important aspect of forming and maintaining close relationships. However, there has to be the right amount of self-disclosure, as too much or too little of it can cause issues. Too much self-disclosure can be viewed as bizarre and off-putting, while too little selfdisclosure can hinder the progress of trust and intimacy.

141. The vulnerability stress adaptation model proposes that a relationship dissolves when personality traits (vulnerabilities) combine with an external situation to put strain on a relationship. For example, someone with low self-esteem and/or an anxious attachment style may be uncertain of their partner's feelings and may read more into a minor misunderstanding or conflict than they should. When this happens, they are liable to have a maladaptive response, for instance growing suspicious of their partner or deeply resentful and unforgiving. The negative impact of this response on both partners' satisfaction levels can lead to a breakup of the relationship.

142. The self-expansion model of relationships is the idea that romantic relationships serve the desire to expand the self and grow as a person. From this perspective, the romantic partner becomes incorporated into the self, thus helping expand or broaden the self. This model posits that the experience of self-expanding adds pleasure and excitement to relationships.

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Chap 15_3e 143. Parasocial relationships are individuals' relationships with people in the media, such as celebrities, television characters, and professional athletes. These relationships are distinct from normal relationships in that they are one-sided and lack interdependence. That is, the person in the media is not influenced directly by the fan, even though on the fan's side there may be knowledge of the media figure, caring about what happens to them, and a commitment to follow and support them.

144. According to the relational turbulence model, there is a curvilinear relationship between intimacy and relational turbulence. In the early stages of the relationship, when intimacy is relatively low, couples typically experience little conflict (i.e., turbulence) because they tend to not interfere with the other's routines or goals. As couples transition from casual to more serious relationships, there is often an increase in conflict as they begin to merge their lives together. If couples make it through this turbulent period, then they typically see a decrease in conflict as they learn to adjust to each other and accommodate each other's needs and goals.

145. The social exchange model emphasizes satisfaction as a basis for commitment to a relationship. Interdependence theory builds on the social exchange model by adding two more bases, namely investments and perceived alternatives. Investments in a relationship, in the form of time and resources, make people psychologically less likely to bail out. Perceived alternatives are the possibilities that tempt a person to leave the relationship. The less attractive those alternatives, the more likely a person is to remain committed to the present relationship.

Conversely, if the perceived alternatives are very attractive, even a relatively satisfied person might leave the relationship they are in.

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Chap 15_3e 146. Attachment theory was developed by John Bowlby and Mary Ainsworth. According to the theory, the prototypic experience of love is a young child's bond with the primary caregiver. The caregiver's responses to the child's cries, smiles, and other expressions of need and affection are a major influence on the attachment style the child forms. Ainsworth devised a staged scenario, called the strange situation test, in which a young child's primary caregiver leaves the child with a stranger for a short time and then returns. Based on how children responded in these scenarios, Ainsworth identified three attachment styles: 60% of children have a secure attachment style, in which the child regards the caregiver as a source of emotional security; 20% of children have an avoidant attachment style, in which the child is largely indifferent to the caregiver; and 20% of children are anxiousambivalent, meaning that they are by turns clingy and irritable, and rarely content. An avoidant style tends to be associated with emotionally distant caregivers, while an anxious-ambivalent style tends to be associated with caregivers who are inconsistent, sometimes unresponsive, and other times overly intrusive.

According to attachment theory, a person's childhood attachment style forms the basis for that person's style of attachment in adult relationships. Longitudinal studies have confirmed that a child's attachment style fairly reliably predicts whether in adulthood the child will be comfortable with close relationships, will avoid them, or will want them but will sometimes sabotage them with anxiety-motivated behavior. However, experiences in later life can alter a person's attachment style. A horrible relationship, marked by betrayal, can turn a securely attached person into an insecure one, and conversely a happy, stable relationship can sometimes shift an insecure person toward a secure style.

Later versions of attachment theory introduce two descriptive dimensions: anxiety and avoidance. Securely attached adults are low in anxiety and avoidance. They tend to have the most satisfying relationships. They react less negatively toward criticism and feedback. They generally enjoy sex, which they see as a way to enhance intimacy. Anxious-ambivalent adults are low in avoidance and high in anxiety. They have emotional highs and lows in relationships that are usually short and intense. They are more likely to see sex as a means of avoiding partner disapproval or of bolstering self-worth. Avoidantly attached adults have short, less-intimate relationships. They are more likely to engage in casual sex where intimacy is not a factor.

147. Several factors can play a role in the gradual decline of marital satisfaction. These factors are: (1) couples often start off with unrealistic expectations; (2) the frequency of acts of kindness and expressions of affection declines as people slack off; (3) small issues get magnified as they become recurring annoyances; (4) as people gradually come to know more about their partners, they become more able to say things that embarrass or wound; (5) unwelcome surprises arise, as people learn new, unwelcome things about their partners or begin to be more greatly bothered by things they already knew about; and (6) passionate love loses steam.

148. According to the terror management theory perspective on romantic relationships, romantic partners help each other manage the threat of mortality by giving life meaning and reinforcing self-worth. There are many lines of evidence supporting this idea. For example, in experiments, participants who have been reminded of death express greater commitment to their relationships and view more positively their romantic partners. Further, for those in romantic relationships, imagining the dissolution of their relationship increases the accessibility of deathrelated thoughts.

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Chap 15_3e 149. The social exchange model takes an economic perspective on relationships. It assumes that people approach relationships with the underlying motivation of self-interest and essentially perform a calculation of overall satisfaction: satisfaction equals rewards minus costs, minus comparison level. The comparison level is the expectation of how rewarding a relationship should be. For example, a person who is benefiting financially, sexually, and socially in a relationship, but not intellectually or emotionally, would choose to stay in the relationship if the person felt that most relationships don't provide as good a balance of rewards over costs.

150. The two-factor theory proposes that emotions result from the combination of a physiological arousal and a label for that arousal based on situational cues. Applied to love, the theory proposes that what turns a state of arousal into the emotion of love is a label applied based on the presence of a member of the preferred sex. The label could be a misattribution, if the arousal is in fact due to something else. Dutton and Aron demonstrated this by arranging for male subjects to be interviewed on either a bridge that was very safe and wide or a bridge that was scary and narrow. When interviewed by an attractive female on the scary bridge, the males were more likely to respond as though they felt attracted to the woman because of the fear aroused in them. Thus, the misattribution of arousal occurs.

151. People often find themselves in unhappy relationships and are faced with the choice of whether to leave the relationship or stick with it. One factor that contributes to this decision is attachment style. Research by Slotter and Finkel (2009) found that people low in attachment anxiety were likely to leave unhappy relationships, while people high in attachment anxiety were likely to cling on. This is consistent with other research on attachment anxiety that shows that people high in attachment anxiety often believe that they are unworthy of being in a good relationship.

152. In the EVLN model, individual responses to conflict are distinguished along two dimensions: active versus passive and constructive versus destructive. These two dimensions produce the four responses of EVLN: exit, voice, loyalty, and neglect.

Exit is an active response, which is good, but it is on the destructive side. It consists of conversational behavior like barraging a partner with reasons why they were in the wrong, and actions like walking out or engaging in physical and/or emotional abuse such as vandalizing a partner's property.

Neglect is the passive and destructive response. It consists of ignoring one's partner and withdrawing, quietly seething but refusing to confront the source of the relationship's problems.

Loyalty is constructive but passive. It consists of staying in the relationship and hoping for conditions to improve, and meanwhile making benign attributions (rather than ones that attribute bad character or malicious intent to the partner).

Voice, the best way to respond, is active and constructive. The voice response avoids blame and threats, and avoids responding in kind when a partner behaves passively or destructively. Instead, in conversation the voice response includes taking the partner's perspective and confronting relationship troubles integratively, as our problem, rather than distributively, as your problem and not my problem. The voice response includes changing one's own behaviors to improve the situation, and of seeking outside help if necessary.

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Chap 15_3e 153. According to the relationship researcher Gottman, the four horsemen of the (relational) apocalypse include criticism (telling the partner their faults), contempt (making sarcastic comments about the partner), defensiveness (denying responsibility), and stonewalling (avoiding). Gottman's research has shown that relationships that include these features are more likely to break up in the future, as the accompanying feelings of negativity can disrupt the sense of security that people seek from romantic relationships.

154. Positive illusions are idealized perceptions of romantic partners that highlight their positive qualities and downplay their faults. If the illusions are completely removed from reality, so that people project positive qualities on their partners that the partners simply do not have, then disappointment will likely result. If, however, people are aware of their partners' positive and negative qualities but choose to interpret them positively, then the people are likely to be more satisfied and to feel stronger love and trust. Another benefit of modestly positive illusions is that people will sometimes grow to be more like the idealized persons their partners perceive them to be.

155. The two dimensions of attachment are anxiety and avoidance. People's combined scores on these dimensions determine their style of attachment. (1) Low avoidance/low anxiety is secure attachment, the ideal style. (2) Low avoidance/high anxiety is preoccupied, another name for anxious-ambivalent. (3) Low anxiety/high avoidance is dismissive, a form of avoidant style marked by self-satisfaction and an apparent lack of need for closeness. (4) High avoidance/high anxiety is fearful, a form of avoidant style marked by low self-worth and fear of rejection.

156. Close relationships involve six components. Knowledge is the comfortable sharing of intimate, often confidential information about one's personal history. Caring is a feeling of affection for one another. Interdependence is a state in which what each person does significantly influences the other person over an extended time. Mutuality is the acknowledgment that the partners' lives are intertwined; they think of themselves as a couple, not two separate individuals. Trust is the expectation of being treated fairly and with responsiveness to one's needs, and not unnecessarily harmed. Finally, commitment is the investment of time, effort, and resources with the expectation that the relationship will last.

157. It is natural for passion to decline over time, so people must make a conscious effort to keep passion alive. Several strategies help with this: (1) a positive approach to the relationship; (2) constructive communication about problems; (3) mutual support of each partner's growth goals; (4) quality time together; and (5) fun and novel activities, which are not only enjoyable in themselves but also generate arousal that translates into increased romantic passion, as described by the two-factor theory.

158. According to Sternberg, the three main facets of love are intimacy (liking, sharing, knowing, and emotional support), passion (excitement, sexual attraction, and longing), and commitment (investment in maintaining the relationship). When all three are found, the result is consummate love.

159. The two major emotions that people feel during a breakup are anger, which starts out strong but diminishes quickly, and sadness, which is less severe at first but diminishes more slowly. Securely attached people are best able to accept the breakup, and so they recover more quickly.

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Chap 15_3e 160. Close relationships are distinguished from other types by the presence of six components: (1) knowledge about one another; (2) caring for one another; (3) interdependence of each person's behavior on the other's, over long periods of time; (4) mutuality, meaning an acknowledgment over lives being intertwined (us rather than me and you); (5) trust in one another; and (6) commitment to nurturing and preserving the relationship. When all six of these components are present, people are the closest and most satisfied. Closeness can, however, vary by degrees, and some components may be present where others are not.

A parasocial relationship is an individual's relationship with people in the media, such as celebrities, TV characters, and athletes. Even though people can feel close to such figures, some of the elements of a close relationship are necessarily missing. A fan's devotion to a media figure may include knowledge, caring, and commitment, but there is certainly no interdependence. In that respect it is a one-sided relationship. While not qualifying as true close relationships, parasocial relationships can meet a psychological need in some people.

Close relationships can be a source of extreme stress, frustration, and emotional pain, but when they are going well, they are a source of emotional support during hard times or when entering a threatening situation. Close relationships also provide some practical benefits, in that people's day-to-day needs are more easily met when labor is shared and resources are pooled.

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