SECTION 1 Test Questions
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CHAPTER 1
Principles of Mechanical Ventilation
1. Mechanical ventilation is used to support , and one of its most frequent uses in an acute care setting is to manage . conditions associated with A. hyperventilation; COPD B. hyperventilation; postanesthesia recovery C. hypoventilation; COPD D. hypoventilation; postanesthesia recovery 2. Dr. Johnson, a resident in the intensive care unit, asks a therapist to outline the strategies to minimize airflow resistance during mechanical ventilation. The therapist should suggest all of the following strategies except: A. maintain a patent airway. B. reduce length of endotracheal tube. C. reduce temperature of inspired gas. D. use largest endotracheal tube possible. 3. The simplified Poiseuille’s Law shows that the work of breathing increases 16 times of an airway is reduced when the by of its original size.
4. Which of the following patient conditions will least likely raise a patient’s airflow resistance? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Bronchiectasis C. Croup D. Chronic bronchitis 5. A therapist is reviewing the chart of a patient who was admitted to the hospital with chronic bronchitis. The chest radiography shows depressed hemidiaphragms, which is consistent with moderate gas trapping. To compensate for this condition, the patient will most likely use a breathing patthan normal. tern that is A. deeper and faster B. deeper and slower C. shallower and faster D. shallower and slower 6. While performing ventilator rounds, a therapist notices that the static compliance of a patient has been reduced. This condition is consistent with all of the following conditions except:
A. diameter; 25%
A. ARDS.
B. diameter; 50%
B. chest wall rigidity.
C. radius; 25%
C. postoperative sedation.
D. radius; 50%
D. atelectasis.
2
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CHAPTER 1 Principles of Mechanical Ventilation 3
7. During mechanical ventilation rounds, a therapist is trending the patient’s dynamic compliance measurements. The primary purpose of this procedure is to monitor changes in the patient’s:
11. The normal range of dynamic compliand this measance is between urement along with the PIP-PPLAT gradient may be used to evaluate the condition of . a patient’s
A. airway resistance.
A. 10 and 20 mL/cm H2O; airways
B. spontaneous tidal volume.
B. 30 and 40 mL/cm H2O; airways
C. inspiratory pressures.
C. 10 and 20 mL/cm H2O; lung parenchyma
D. lung compliance. 8. Mr. Keelan has a diagnosis of emphysema. During assessment, the therapist should expect to find an abnormally lung compliance along with in. complete A. high; inhalation B. high; exhalation C. low; inhalation D. low; exhalation 9. Dr. Abel asks a therapist to assess the elastic properties of a patient’s lungs. The therapist should trend the patient’s: A. static compliance. B. dynamic compliance. C. airway resistance. D. airway conductance. 10. All of the following statements are true regarding lung compliance except: A. Conditions causing changes in static compliance lead to similar changes in dynamic compliance. B. Bronchospasm reduces dynamic and static compliance.
D. 30 and 40 mL/cm H2O; lung parenchyma 12. The pulmonary measurements for an intubated postoperative patient are as follows: Corrected tidal volume = 900 mL, PEEP = 5 cm H2O, Peak inspiratory pressure = 60 cm H2O, Plateau pressure = 36 cm H2O. Based on this information, the dynamic compliance is about: A. 14 mL/cm H2O. B. 16 mL/cm H2O. C. 18 mL/cm H2O. D. 20 mL/cm H2O. 13. The normal range of static compliance and this measurement is between along with the PIP-PPLAT gradient may be used to evaluate the condition of a patient’s . A. 20 and 40 mL/cm H2O; airways B. 40 and 60 mL/cm H2O; airways C. 20 and 40 mL/cm H2O; lung parenchyma D. 40 and 60 mL/cm H2O; lung parenchyma
C. Atelectasis reduces dynamic and static compliance. D. Static compliance is greater than dynamic compliance.
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4 SECTION 1
Test Questions
14. The pulmonary measurements for a patient are as follows: Corrected tidal volume = 750 mL, PEEP = 8 cm H2O, Peak inspiratory pressure = 58 cm H2O, Plateau pressure = 49 cm H2O. Based on this information, the static compliance is about: A. 12 mL/cm H2O. B. 14 mL/cm H2O. C. 16 mL/cm H2O. D. 18 mL/cm H2O. 15. The volume of air in the conducting airdeadspace and ways is known as under normal conditions it can be estimated to be about mL per pound of ideal body weight. A. anatomic; one B. anatomic; five C. physiologic; one D. physiologic; five
18.
is a condition that may increase the patient’s VD/VT ratio. A. Atelectasis B. Aspiration C. Pulmonary embolism D. Myocardial infarction
19. Ms. Brandon has an admitting diagnosis of ventilatory failure. This condition is based on which of the following statements? A. Consumption of oxygen is less than availability. B. Consumption of oxygen is in excess of availability. C. Production of carbon dioxide is in excess of elimination. D. Elimination of carbon dioxide is in excess of production. 20. Alveolar volume may be increased by the tidal volume or the deadspace volume. A. increasing; increasing
16. Mr. John has a physiologic deadspace to tidal volume (VD/VT) ratio of 60%. This value is than normal and it may . be caused by
B. increasing; decreasing
A. higher; decreased cardiac output
D. decreasing; decreasing
B. higher; atelectasis C. lower; decreased cardiac output D. lower; atelectasis 17. A therapist is asked to calculate the VD/VT for Mr. Goosby, a 19-year-old patient who is being mechanically ventilated following a motor vehicle crash. The following information is available from the chart: PaO2 = 64 mm Hg, PaCO2 = 60 mm Hg, PECO2 =18 mm Hg, Minute ventilation = 16 L, FIO2 = 40%. The calculated VD/VT . is A. 40%
C. decreasing; increasing
21. The physician asks a therapist to calculate the patient’s physiologic shunt. The therapist should use the classic shunt equation with all of the following measurements except: A. CcO2. B. CvO2. C. PaO2. D. CaO2. 22. The gas diffusion coefficient for carbon times dioxide is approximately greater than that for oxygen.
B. 50%
A. 0.8
C. 60%
B. 19
D. 70%
C. 100 D. 200
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CHAPTER 1 Principles of Mechanical Ventilation 5
23. All of the following conditions are likely to impair the gas diffusion rate except: A. epiglottitis. B. higher altitudes. C. emphysema. D. pulmonary edema. 24. All of the following statements are true regarding oxygenation except: A. hypoxemia is present when the arterial oxygen levels drop below normal. B. hypoxia is present when organ and tissues receive inadequate levels of oxygen. C. hypoxia cannot occur with a normal PaO2. D. PaO2 level reflects the amount of available oxygen dissolved in plasma. 25. A patient in the emergency department has a carboxyhemoglobin saturation of 30 vol%. The therapist should expect this condition to cause hypoxia. A. histotoxic B. circulatory C. hypoxic D. anemic 26. Mr. Nix, a spontaneously breathing patient in the ICU, has been receiving 70% oxygen via a non-rebreathing mask. The PaO2 is persistently in the 50s (mm Hg). This finding suggests: A. oxygenation failure. B. oxygen toxicity. C. hyperoxia. D. hypoxia.
27. The arterial blood gas results for Mr. Lowel, a 58-year-old patient with COPD, are as follows: pH = 7.37, PaCO2 = 55 mm Hg, PaO2 = 46 mm Hg, FIO2 = 21%. The therapist should report to the physician that the patient has: A. normal oxygenation status. B. mild hypoxemia. C. moderate hypoxemia. D. severe hypoxemia. 28. When a patient is in oxygenation failure, mechanical ventilation may be used to: A. decrease deadspace volume and improve ventilation. B. decrease deadspace volume. C. provide oxygenation and minimize work of breathing. D. decrease deadspace volume and improve oxygenation. 29. Ms. Ponderosa has an admitting diagnosis of severe anemia. Her physician asks a therapist to evaluate the patient’s oxygenation status. The therapist should because this value measure the represents the total amount of oxygen available to the patient. A. SpO2 B. PaO2 C. CcO2 D. PvO2 30. Dr. Plauche asks a therapist to evaluate his patient in the CCU who has developed oxygenation failure secondary to congestive heart failure. In assessing the patient, the therapist may observe all of the following clinical signs except: A. eucapnia. B. tachycardia. C. dyspnea. D. tachypnea.
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CHAPTER 2
Effects of Positive Pressure Ventilation
1. Movement of air into the lungs following a drop in alveolar pressure below the atmospheric pressure describes:
4. The tidal volume that is delivered to the patient by a pressure greater than the alveolar pressure describes:
A. spontaneous breathing.
A. spontaneous breathing.
B. negative pressure ventilation.
B. negative pressure breathing.
C. positive pressure ventilation.
C. positive pressure breathing.
D. A and B only.
D. A and B only.
2. During the inspiratory phase of negative pressure ventilation, the pressure in the airways, alveoli, and pleural space:
5. During positive pressure ventilation, the pressure in the airways, alveoli, and pleural space:
A. increases.
A. increases.
B. decreases.
B. decreases.
C. remains constant.
C. remains constant.
D. increases initially and then decreases.
D. decreases initially and then increases.
3. During spontaneous breathing, the alveobarometric preslar pressure is sure at end-inspiration.
6. During the inspiratory phase of positive pressure ventilation, the pressure in the has the highest measurement.
A. higher than
A. trachea
B. lower than
B. segmental bronchi
C. equal to
C. bronchioles
D. not affected by
D. alveoli
6
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CHAPTER 2 Effects of Positive Pressure Ventilation 7
7. A therapist is assessing the condition of a 20-year-old patient with status asthmaticus who is being mechanically ventilated. The therapist notes that the peak inspiratory pressures as well as the patient’s work of breathing have steadily increased over the last 3 hours. The therapist should initially check the patient’s:
11. Mr. Patton, a patient receiving mechanical ventilation, has a mean airway pressure (mPaw) of 42 cm H2O (normal: <30 cm H2O). This condition may be improved . by A. decreasing the respiratory frequency B. increasing the PEEP
A. endotracheal tube.
C. extending the inspiratory time
B. breath sounds.
D. initiating inverse ratio ventilation
C. tidal volume setting. D. nasogastric tube. 8. Upon entering the patient’s room, the therapist hears a ventilator’s low pressure alarm sounding. The therapist should initially:
12. A patient in the CCU is being mechanically ventilated for two weeks. Which of the following is least likely to cause a reduction in the patient’s cardiac output? A. increased intrathoracic pressure B. increased alveoli pressure
A. check for airflow obstruction.
C. decreased stroke volume
B. check for air leak.
D. increased contractility
C. check for kinking of ventilator circuit. D. suction the endotracheal tube. 9. Under conditions of changing compliance or airway resistance, the tidal volume (VT) delivered by pressure-controlled ventilation is ; and the VT delivered by volume. controlled ventilation is A. generally constant; generally constant B. generally constant; variable C. variable; variable D. variable; generally constant 10. High levels of PEEP are better tolerated by the patient with noncompliant lungs because: A. there is more pressure transmitted to the thoracic cavity.
13. The severity of hemodynamic changes during positive pressure ventilation is least likely to be affected by the: A. inspiratory flow rate. B. level of airway pressures. C. mechanical tidal volume. D. patient’s lung compliance. 14. During positive pressure ventilation, an of blood volume is estimated shifted from circulation. A. 5% to 10%; pulmonary to systemic B. 15% to 20%; pulmonary to systemic C. 5% to 10%; systemic to pulmonary D. 15% to 20%; systemic to pulmonary
B. the pressure is transmitted to the venous system. C. a patient with noncompliant lungs requires less cardiac output. D. the dampening effect of the noncompliant lungs results in less pressure transmitted to the thoracic cavity.
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8 SECTION 1 Test Questions
15. Mr. Ilkerson is being mechanically ventilated. In monitoring his hemodynamic status, the therapist should expect his right ventricular output to be as a result of venous return to the right ventricle. A. increased; increased B. increased; decreased C. decreased; increased D. decreased; decreased 16. In the absence of any pulmonary artery pathology such as pulmonary hypertension, a decreased right ventricular stroke volume usually results in a(n) central venous pressure and a(n) pulmonary artery pressure. A. increased; increased B. increased; decreased C. decreased; increased D. decreased; decreased 17. Ms. Rowland has been receiving mechanical ventilation at pressures above 60 cm H2O. This condition may lead to a(n) right and left ventricular stroke volume and a(n) cardiac output.
19. The hemodynamic effects of PEEP, such as decreased aortic pressure and cardiac output, are results of a(n) intrathoracic pressure and a(n) left and right ventricular stroke volume. A. increased; increased B. increased; decreased C. decreased; increased D. decreased; decreased 20. Mr. Eilman is being mechanically ventilated at pressures above 65 cm H2O. His cardiac output has decreased to 75% of baseline value since initiation of 10 cm H2O of PEEP. The cardiac output may be partially corrected by: A. volume expansion. B. negative inotropic agent. C. diuretics. D. all of the above. 21. The kidneys are highly vascular and at any one time hold approximately of the body’s circulatory blood volume. A. 15% B. 25%
A. increased; increased
C. 35%
B. increased; decreased
D. 45%
C. decreased; increased D. decreased; decreased 18. The compression of pulmonary blood vessels by high levels of PEEP may cause which of the following hemodynamic changes? A. Increased pulmonary artery pressure B. Decreased pulmonary artery pressure C. Decreased central venous pressure D. Decreased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
22. Mr. Hines is being mechanically ventilated at a peak inspiratory pressure of around 60 cm H2O, and his cardiac output has been decreasing. This condition would cause a(n) blood flow to the kidneys and eventual renal failure and . A. increased; increased glomerular filtration B. decreased; increased glomerular filtration C. increased; fluid retention D. decreased; fluid retention
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CHAPTER 2 Effects of Positive Pressure Ventilation 9
23. In reviewing the chart of a 58-year-old patient, a therapist notices that the urine output is 300 mL in a 24-hour period. This finding implies that the patient’s urine output is and it provides waste removal. A. more than normal; adequate B. within normal limits; adequate C. lower than normal; borderline
27. Ms. Warren has the following laboratory results: prothrombin time: 5 sec, bilirubin level: 60 mg/L, albumin level: 13 g/L. This finding suggests impairment. A. vascular B. cardiac C. hepatic D. renal
D. lower than normal; inadequate 24. Ms. Jones has a diagnosis of renal failure. In reviewing her chart, the therapist should expect all of the following laboratory results to be higher than normal except:
28. A patient has an elevated intra-abdominal pressure secondary to bowel edema. The therapist should monitor the patient’s cardiopulmonary status since this condition may lead to:
A. blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
A. an increased capacity.
B. creatinine.
B. an increased tidal volume.
C. potassium.
C. compression of great vessels in the thorax.
D. bicarbonate. 25. Renal hypoperfusion results in higher drug concentrations in the serum through which of the following mechanisms? A. Decreased GFR B. Decreased renal tubular secretion C. Increased reabsorption D. All of the above. related to 26. Hepatic perfusion is the level of used during positive pressure ventilation. A. directly; PEEP B. inversely; PEEP C. directly; peak inspiratory pressure D. inversely; peak inspiratory pressure
functional
residual
D. all of the above. 29. Mr. Lange, a patient who has been mechanically ventilated for two weeks, develops gastrointestinal complications including stress-related mucosal damage. These complications are least likely caused by: A. positive pressure ventilation with PEEP. B. splanchnic hypoperfusion. C. excessive concentration of oxygen. D. side effects of medications. 30. The caloric cost (nutritional requirement) for a patient with COPD is about times that of a healthy individual because the work of breathing is than normal. A. 0.33; lower B. 0.5; lower C. five; higher D. 10; higher
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10 SECTION 1 Test Questions
31. In reviewing Mr. Johnson’s chart, the therapist notes that the patient is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). This means that Mr. Johnson could be receiving all of his nutritional needs provided by any of the following routes except: A. intravenous. B. intramuscular. C. intestinal. D. subcutaneous. 32. Mrs. Cameron, a patient with COPD and congestive heart failure, is being put on fluid restriction. What type of diet would be appropriate in providing an ideal source of energy for her? A. High glucose diet B. Low glucose diet
34. Mr. Weiseman, a 33-year-old patient with normal cardiopulmonary status, has an admitting diagnosis of traumatic head injury. Sustained respiratory alkalosis is implemented for his condition. Which of the following neurologic changes may result if hyperventilation is maintained beyond a 24-hour period? A. Leftward shift of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve B. Increased oxygen affinity for hemoglobin C. Cerebral tissue hyperoxia D. A and B only 35. Patients with neurologic impairment due to ventilatory and oxygenation failure will usually describe their headache as in the head.
C. High fat diet
A. coldness
D. Low fat diet
B. pressure
33. Sustained hyperventilation of up to hours may result in respiratory alkalosis. This condition reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure (ICP) and may be beneficial to patients suffering from . A. 24; blood loss B. 24; head trauma
C. lightness D. dizziness 36. The mental status of Mr. Kingston, a mechanically ventilated patient for the past three weeks, has been declining over the last few days. Which of the following should the therapist evaluate in order to determine the cause of his condition?
C. 48; blood loss
A. Oxygenation status
D. 48; head trauma
B. Ventilatory status C. Acid/base status D. All of the above.
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CHAPTER 3
Classification of Mechanical Ventilators
1. In mechanical ventilation, pressure is required to overcome the: A. airflow resistance. B. lung compliance. C. chest wall compliance. D. all of the above. 2. Compliance is defined as a change in . divided by a change in A. volume; flow B. volume; pressure
5. The system used by the ventilator to govern the drive mechanism is called a(n): A. control circuit. B. flow system. C. fluidic system. D. electric circuit. controller if 6. The ventilator is a the pressure waveform does not change when airflow resistance and compliance are changed.
C. pressure; volume
A. pressure
D. pressure; flow
B. flow
3. Ventilators may be powered by: A. a gas source. B. an electric source. C. a fluidic source. D. A and B only. 4. The system used by the ventilator to convert the input power to ventilatory work is called a: A. reducing valve. B. solenoid valve.
C. volume D. A or B 7. The ventilator is a volume controller if is measured and used as a the feedback signal to control the volume delivered. A. time B. pressure C. flow D. volume
C. drive mechanism. D. flow mechanism. 11
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12 SECTION 1
Test Questions
8. The can be determined if the constant flow rate (L/min) and inspiratory time (sec) are known. A. pressure B. volume C. flow D. time 9. When the ventilator delivers a breath every 5 sec, it is operating under the mode and the breaths are . considered A. SIMV; time-triggered B. SIMV; pressure-triggered C. control; time-triggered. D. control; pressure-triggered 10. A pressure-triggered breath is initiated and delivered by the ventilator when it senses the: A. drop in flow gradient in the ventilator circuit. B. drop in PEEP level in the ventilator circuit. C. patient’s inspiratory effort causing a slight positive pressure change. D. patient’s inspiratory effort causing a slight negative pressure change. 11. A flow-triggered breath is initiated and delivered by the ventilator when it senses the: A. drop in flow gradient in the ventilator circuit. B. drop in PEEP level in the ventilator circuit.
12. If the pressure is not allowed to go above the preset value, it is called: A. pressure-controlled. B. pressure-limited. C. pressure-regulated. D. pressure-cycled. 13. If the inspiratory flow ends when the preset pressure is reached, the inspiration is called: A. pressure-controlled. B. pressure-limited. C. pressure-supported. D. pressure-cycled. variables 14. PEEP and CPAP are because they are pressures measured at . A. pressure; end-inspiration B. pressure; end-expiration C. baseline; end-inspiration D. baseline; end-expiration 15. Volume-controlled ventilation allows the clinician to set the: A. peak inspiratory pressure. B. tidal volume. C. peak flow. D. inspiratory time. 16. During volume-controlled ventilation, the is variable depending on the compliance and airflow resistance characteristics of the patient-ventilator system. A. peak inspiratory pressure
C. patient’s spontaneous positive pressure effort.
B. tidal volume
D. patient’s spontaneous negative pressure effort.
D. inspiratory time
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C. peak flow
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CHAPTER 3 Classification of Mechanical Ventilators 13
17. During pressure-controlled ventilation, the is variable depending on the compliance and airflow resistance characteristics of the patient-ventilator system. A. peak inspiratory pressure C. delivered tidal volume D. inspiratory and expiratory time 18. Dual control within a breath usually refers to a combination of: A. flow and inspiratory time. B. inspiratory time and peak inspiratory pressure. pressure-
D. peak inspiratory pressure and expiratory time. 19. Pressure-regulated volume control is a dual control mode consisting of: A. pressure-controlled, time-cycled modes. B. pressure-limited, time-cycled modes. C. volume-controlled, time-cycled modes. D. volume-limited, time-cycled modes. 20. A mode that automatically compensates for the resistance of the artificial airway is called: A. automatic tube compensation. B. proportional assist ventilation. C. airway pressure release ventilation. D. automode. 21. Airway pressure release ventilation (APRV) with two distinct is a form of pressure levels. A. pressure-controlled ventilation B. volume-controlled ventilation C. continuous positive airway pressure D. positive end-expiratory pressure
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A. low pressure level rises to the high pressure level. B. high pressure level drops to the low pressure level.
B. set tidal volume
C. volume-controlled and controlled ventilation.
22. In APRV, exhalation and removal of CO2 occur when the:
C. high and low pressure levels reach the same level. D. high and low pressure levels reach 10 cm H2O or higher. 23. Which of the following represents the four common pressure waveforms available in mechanical ventilators? A. Descending, Exponential, Rectangular, Sine B. Ascending ramp, Exponential, Sinusoidal, Oscillating C. Rectangular, Exponential, Sinusoidal, Oscillating D. Rectangular, Oscillating
Constant,
Sinusoidal,
24. Which of the following represents the two common volume waveforms available in mechanical ventilators? A. Ascending ramp, Rectangular B. Ascending ramp, Sinusoidal C. Descending ramp, Rectangular D. Descending ramp, Constant 25. Which of the following represents the four common flow waveforms available in mechanical ventilators? A. Descending, Exponential, Rectangular, Sine B. Ascending ramp, Exponential, Sinusoidal, Oscillating C. Rectangular, Ascending ramp, Descending ramp, Sinusoidal D. Rectangular, Oscillating
Constant,
Sinusoidal,
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14 SECTION 1
26.
Test Questions
flow pattern begins with a low flow rate and increases linearly throughout the inspiratory phase of a mechanical breath.
28.
alarms are used to detect improper settings or parameters that are not within acceptable ranges or specifications in the operation of a ventilator.
A. Sine
A. Improper setting
B. Ascending ramp
B. Control circuit
C. Descending ramp
C. Range
D. Constant
D. Safety
27. Loss of electrical or pneumatic power to a ventilator is primarily alerted by the alarms. A. input power B. control circuit C. output
29. High/low pressure and high/low volume alarms. alarms are example of A. high/low limit B. control circuit C. output D. visual
D. audible
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CHAPTER 4
Operating Modes of Mechanical Ventilation
1. The pressure gradient that must be generated between the airway opening and alveoli in order to produce inspiratory flow is known as: A. transairway pressure. B. transthoracic pressure. C. transpulmonary pressure. D. transalveolar pressure. 2. Negative pressure ventilators create a transairway pressure gradient by decreasing alveolar pressure to a level: A. below airway opening pressure. B. below atmospheric pressure.
4. Normally, negative pressure breathing enhances venous return; however, venous return to the right atrium decreases with the use of a negative pressure ventilator because the: A. pressure is applied mechanically. B. patient is in a supine position. C. superior and inferior vena cavae are compressed. D. peripheral vasculature is also affected by the negative pressures. 5. One difficulty that limits ventilation with a chest cuirass is:
C. above airway opening pressure.
A. maintaining an airtight seal around the chest wall.
D. A and B only.
B. maintaining an airway.
3. In regard to the iron lung ventilator, all of the following statements are true except: A. patient’s body is enclosed except the head and neck. B. tidal volume is related to the negative pressure applied. C. an endotracheal tube must be in place. D. negative pressure is generated around the chest during inspiration.
C. the patient’s weak inspiratory effort. D. A and B only. 6. During positive pressure ventilation, a patient is complaining that she is not getting enough air for a larger breath. The therapist should make the adjustment below. A. Decrease the inspiratory flow. B. Increase the inspiratory time. C. Increase the peak inspiratory pressure. D. Increase the tidal volume. 15
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16 SECTION 1
Test Questions
7. In mechanical ventilation, a closed-loop system has a constant input and an output variable. A. The constant input is controlled by the patient. B. The constant input is a servo control. C. The output variable is dependent on the ventilator settings. D. The output variable is dependent on the changing characteristics of the patient. 8. Auto-PEEP increases the work of breath trigger because the patient must overcome the auto-PEEP level plus the: A. peak inspiratory pressure setting. B. positive end-expiratory pressure setting. C. sensitivity setting. D. mean airway pressure setting. 9. Auto-PEEP may be compensated by setlevel slightly the ting a auto-PEEP level. A. PEEP; above
11. Mr. Vicks has been on mechanical ventilation for five days with PEEP levels between 15 and 20 cm H2O. The therapist should monitor the patient closely for the development of the following complications except: A. barotrauma. B. decreased intracranial pressure (ICP). C. decreased renal function. D. decreased venous return. are less likely af12. Patients with fected by the hemodynamic effects of PEEP because the compliance of these patients is very . A. COPD; high B. COPD; low C. ARDS; high D. ARDS; low 13. Dr. Manning has ordered PEEP for a patient with severe refractory hypoxemia. You would initiate and use a PEEP level in order to minimize at or below the incidence of barotrauma.
B. PEEP; below
A. 5 cm H2O
C. PIP; above
B. 10 cm H2O
D. PIP; below
C. 20 cm H2O
10. A patient has developed refractory hypoxemia with a PaO2/FIO2 (P/F) index of 150 mm Hg. The most appropriate intervention for this condition is: A. positive end-expiratory pressure. B. mechanical ventilation. C. oxygen therapy. D. noninvasive positive pressure vent ilation.
D. 30 cm H2O 14. Ms. Dows is receiving a PEEP level of 6 cm H2O while the mandatory frequency is turned off. Since the patient is breathing spontaneously, she is essentially on: A. synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). B. pressure support ventilation (PSV). C. pressure-controlled ventilation (PCV). D. continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
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