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CHAPTER 1 1)

Which technique creates a three-dimensional dynamic image of blood vessels? A) Digital subtraction angiography B) Magnetic resonance imaging C) Dynamic spatial reconstruction D) Positron emission tomography

Magnetic resonance imaging is based on the movement of A) electrons in a magnetic field. B) carbons in a magnetic field. C) protons in a magnetic field. D) cells in a magnetic field.

3) The delivery of a radioactive compound to the body to study the metabolism of tissues is called_________blank. A) MRI B) PET C) DSA D) DSR

An anatomical image created from sound waves is a/an_________blank.

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A) radiograph B) CT scan C) MRI D) sonogram

A major limitation of radiographs is that they A) can only visualize bone. B) give only a flat, two-dimensional image of the body. C) are old technology that do not give good results. D) have very few applications.

The study of the body's organization by areas is_________blank. A) systemic anatomy B) regional anatomy C) molecular biology D) microbiology E) surface anatomy

7) The study of the external form of the body and its relationship to deeper structures is_________blank. A) systemic anatomy B) regional anatomy C) molecular biology D) microbiology E) surface anatomy

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The study of tissues is_________blank. A) cytology B) histology C) molecular biology D) microbiology E) surface anatomy

Anatomy is A) the study of function. B) a branch of physiology. C) the study of structure. D) the study of living organisms. E) the study of homeostasis.

10)

The study of the structural features and functions of the cell is_________blank. A) cytology B) histology C) molecular biology D) microbiology E) surface anatomy

11) Microscopic examination of a frozen tissue specimen is an application of which of the following disciplines?

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A) Histology B) Physiology C) Gross anatomy D) Radiology E) Regional anatomy

12)

Which subdivision of anatomy involves the study of organs that function together? A) Regional B) Developmental C) Systemic D) Histology E) Surface anatomy

13) An investigator who conducts an experiment to determine how changes in pH affect the function of enzymes on digestion is most likely to be a/an_________blank. A) neurologist B) anatomist C) engineer D) physiologist E) histologist

14)

An organelle is

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A) a small structure within a cell. B) a structure composed of several tissue types. C) the basic structural unit of all living organisms. D) a group of organs with a common set of functions. E) a group of cells with similar structure and function.

15)

An organ is A) a small structure within a cell. B) a structure composed of several tissue types. C) the basic structural unit of all living organisms. D) a group ofmolecules with a common set of functions. E) a group of cells with similar structure and function.

16)

A cell is A) a small structurewithin a molecule. B) a structure composed of several tissue types. C) the basic structural unit of living organisms. D) a group of organs with a common set of functions. E) a group of atomswith similar structure and function.

17)

A tissue is a A) structure contained within a cell. B) lower level of organization than a cell. C) group of organs that performs specific functions. D) group of cells with similar structure and function. E) structure that contains a group of organs.

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18)

An organ system is A) a small structure within a cell. B) a structure composed of several tissue types. C) the basic structural unit of all living organisms. D) a group of organs with a common set of functions. E) a group of cells with similar structure and function.

19) Which of the following systems carries necessary compounds like oxygen and nutrients throughout the body? A) Nervous B) Cardiovascular C) Urinary D) Lymphatic E) Respiratory

20)

Which organ system is the location of blood cell production? A) Cardiovascular B) Skeletal C) Digestive D) Nervous E) Endocrine

21)

Which body system would be affected by degeneration of cartilage in joints?

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A) Muscular B) Nervous C) Cardiovascular D) Skeletal E) Lymphatic

22)

The gallbladder, liver, and stomach are all part of the_________blank system. A) endocrine B) cardiovascular C) skeletal D) respiratory E) digestive

23)

The integumentary system A) regulates body temperature. B) breaks down food into small particles for absorption. C) controls intellectual functions. D) produces body movements. E) coordinates and integrates body function.

24) Which system removes nitrogenous waste products from the blood and regulates blood pH, ion balance, and water balance?

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A) Respiratory B) Lymphatic C) Cardiovascular D) Immune E) Urinary

25)

An organism's ability to use energy in order to swim is an example of_________blank. A) metabolism B) responsiveness C) organization D) maturation E) development

26)

The changes an organism undergoes through time is called_________blank. A) organization B) metabolism C) reproduction D) growth E) development

27) Nerve cells generate electrical signals in response to changes in the environment. This is an example of_________blank.

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A) respiration B) digestion C) movement D) filtration E) responsiveness

28)

An increase in the number of cells is_________blank. A) reproduction B) growth C) differentiation D) metabolism E) organization

29)

Which of the following is most consistent with homeostasis?

A) As blood pressure falls, blood flow to cardiac (heart) muscle decreases. B) As the mean blood pressure gradually increases in aging people, the blood vessel walls become thinner. C) People working in a hot environment drink large quantities of water, and their urine volume increases. D) As body temperature decreases, blood vessels in the periphery dilate. E) Elevated blood glucose levels cause insulin secretion to increase, which in turn, causes cells to take up glucose.

30)

Which of the following is consistent with homeostasis?

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A) As body temperature rises, sweating occurs to cool the body. B) When a person drinks large quantities of water, urine output decreases to raise blood volume. C) Elevated blood glucose levels cause insulin secretion to decline. D) Decreases in blood pressure cause a corresponding decrease in heart rate. E) As blood pressure falls, blood flow to the heart decreases.

31)

In a negative feedback mechanism, the response of the effector A) reverses the original stimulus. B) enhances the original stimulus. C) has no effect on the original stimulus. D) is usually damaging to the body. E) creates a cycle that leads away from homeostasis.

32) A researcher discovered a sensory receptor that detects decreasing oxygen concentrations in the blood. According to the principles of negative feedback, it is likely that stimulation of this sensory receptor will produce which of the following types of responses? A) A decrease in heart rate B) An increase in the respiratory rate C) An increase in physical activity D) Unconsciousness E) Both a decrease in heart rate and an increase in the respiratory rate will occur.

33)

Which of the following is NOT a component of a negative feedback mechanism?

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A) Effector B) Stabilizer C) Control center D) Receptor

34)

The anatomical term that means "away from the midline of the body" is_________blank. A) medial B) proximal C) distal D) lateral E) superficial

35)

The thumb is_________blank to the fifth digit (little finger). A) distal B) lateral C) medial D) proximal E) superficial

36)

Which of the following describes the position of the nose? A) Inferior to the chin B) Superior to the forehead C) Posterior to the ears D) Lateral to the eyes E) Superior to the mouth

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37)

The shoulder is_________blank to the elbow. A) lateral B) dorsal C) distal D) ventral E) proximal

38)

A term that means "toward the attached end of a limb" is_________blank. A) medial B) lateral C) superficial D) distal E) proximal

39)

Which of the following is most inferior in location? A) Pelvic cavity B) Mediastinum C) Diaphragm D) Pleural cavity E) Pericardial cavity

40) While Stacy is in the process of passing over the bar during a pole vault, her hips are considered to be

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A) anterior to her shoulders. B) posterior to her shoulders. C) inferior to her shoulders. D) superior to her shoulders. E) cephalic to her shoulders.

41)

Cephalic means A) toward the middleor midline of the body. B) away from the surface. C) closer to the head. D) closer than another structure to the point of attachment to the trunk. E) toward the back of the body.

42)

Posterior means A) toward the middle or midline of the body. B) away from the surface. C) closer to the head. D) closer than another structure to the point of attachment to the trunk. E) toward the back of the body.

43)

Medial means A) toward the middle or midline of the body. B) away from the surface. C) closer to the head. D) closer than another structure to the point of attachment to the trunk. E) toward the back of the body.

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44)

Proximal means A) toward the middle or midline of the body. B) away from the surface. C) closer to the head. D) closer than another structure to the point of attachment to the trunk. E) toward the back of the body.

45)

Deep means A) toward the middle or midline of the body. B) away from the surface. C) closer to the head. D) closer than another structure to the point of attachment to the trunk. E) toward the back of the body.

46) In the expression "Let your fingers do the walking," which of the following anatomical terms could be substituted for "fingers?" A) Tarsals B) Manuals C) Digits D) Carpals E) Metatarsals

47)

The anatomical arm refers to the part of the upper limb from the

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A) shoulder to the wrist. B) elbow to the wrist. C) shoulder to the elbow. D) elbow to the fingers. E) shoulder to the fingers.

48)

The lumbar region is the A) area in front of the elbow. B) chest area. C) lower back. D) bottom of foot. E) forearm.

49)

The antecubital region is the A) area in front of the elbow. B) chest area. C) lower back. D) bottom of foot. E) forearm.

50)

The antebrachial region is the A) area in front of the elbow. B) chest area. C) lower back. D) bottom of foot. E) forearm.

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51)

The pectoral region is the A) area in front of the elbow. B) chest area. C) lower back. D) bottom of foot. E) forearm.

52)

The plantar surface is the A) area in front of the elbow. B) chest area. C) lower back. D) bottom of foot. E) forearm.

53)

The brachial region is commonly known as the_________blank. A) groin B) buttock C) breastbone D) upper arm E) naval

54)

The inguinal region is commonly known as the_________blank.

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A) groin B) buttock C) breastbone D) upper arm E) naval

55)

The gluteal region is commonly known as the_________blank. A) groin B) buttock C) breastbone D) upper arm E) naval

56)

The sternal region is commonly known as the_________blank. A) groin B) buttock C) breastbone D) upper arm E) naval

57)

The umbilical region is commonly known as the_________blank. A) groin B) buttock C) breastbone D) upper arm E) naval

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58)

The cervical region is the_________blank. A) calf B) armpit C) hollow behind the knee D) neck E) thigh

59)

The popliteal region is the_________blank. A) calf B) armpit C) hollow behind the knee D) neck E) thigh

60)

The sural region is the_________blank. A) calf B) armpit C) hollow behind the knee D) neck E) thigh

61)

The femoral region is the_________blank.

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A) calf B) armpit C) hollow behind the knee D) neck E) thigh

62)

The axillary region is the_________blank. A) calf B) armpit C) hollow behind the knee D) neck E) thigh

63) A vertical plane that separates the body into right and left portions is called a_________blank plane. A) sagittal B) transverse C) frontal D) horizontal E) coronal

64)

"Cutting off your nose" would be a section in the_________blank plane.

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A) coronal B) nasal C) median D) transverse E) sagittal

65) The cavity of the body immediately inferior to the diaphragm is the_________blank cavity. A) pleural B) thoracic C) inguinal D) pelvic E) abdominal

66) The suffix "-itis" means inflammation. Which of the following terms means inflammation of the membrane lining the body cavity that contains the liver? A) Pericarditis B) Peritonitis C) Pleurisy D) Colitis E) Hepatitis

67)

The wall of the abdominopelvic cavity is lined by a serous membrane called the

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A) visceral pleural membrane. B) parietal peritoneum. C) visceral mediastinal membrane. D) visceral peritoneum. E) epicardium.

68)

The visceral pleura is

A) a double-layered serous membrane that anchors some of the abdominal organs to the body wall. B) the serous membrane that covers the lungs. C) the serous membrane that lines the abdominal and pelvic cavities. D) the space located between the visceral and parietal pleura. E) the membrane that lines the pericardial sac.

69)

The parietal peritoneum is

70)

The mesentery is

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71)

The pleural cavity is

72)

The parietal pericardium is

73)

Which branch of physiology would study the effects of sunbathing on the skin?

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A) Cell physiology B) Systemic physiology C) Regional physiology D) Organ physiology

74) Which of the following is not a function of the control center within a feedback mechanism? A) Receives and processes information B) Controls effectors C) Establishes a set point D) Detects a change in the value of a variable

75) the

In reference to the body temperature in living organisms, the set point can be defined as

A) ideal normal value. B) current specific value. C) amount of change that must occur for a condition to return to ideal normal value.

76)

Which of the following is not a characteristic of homeostatic variables? A) Their values can change. B) They must remain within a narrow change. C) They always remain at a fixed value.

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77) Imagine the following scernerio: Blood pressure decreases below normal levels.→ Blood flow to the heart decreases → Heart is unable to pump as much blood.→ Blood pressure decreases even more. This is an example of _________blank feedback.

A) positive B) negative

78) This figure illustrates changes in blood pressure when _________blank feedback mechanisms are in control.

A) positive B) negative

79) Imagine the following scenario: Platelets adhere to a damaged blood vessel → Platelets secrete various substances → Platelets adhere to a damaged blood vessel This is an example of _________blank feedback.

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A) positive B) negative

80) True or False? Positive feedback mechanisms are more commonly seen in _________blank individuals. A) healthy B) unhealthy

81)

A person lying with his/her face down is said to be in what position? A) Supine B) Prone C) Anatomical D) Reverse

82) Which of the following is not a term that describes a cut that separates the body into left and right portions? A) Sagittal B) Median C) Parasagittal D) Coronal

83) The plane that cuts the body lengthwise and separates the body into anterior and posterior portions is called _________blank.

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A) Transverse B) Frontal C) Sagittal

84)

A cut through the long axis of an organ is a/an _________blank section. A) longitudinal B) oblique C) transverse

85)

An example of a structure contained by the mediastinum is the _________blank. A) brain B) stomach C) esophagus D) sternum E) lung

86) There are more microbial cells than human cells in your body, and the health of this microbiota clearly influences human well-being. How many microbes are there? A) For every cell in your body, there are ten microbial cells. B) For every cell in your body, there are one hundred microbial cells. C) For every cell in your body, there are one thousand microbial cells. D) For every cell in your body, there are ten thousand microbial cells.

87) A molecular biologist discovers that if a specific drug effectively treats obesity in mice, what can researchers conclude?

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A) If the drug was effective in a large number of mice, it will therefore be effective in humans. B) If the drug was effective in a small proportion of mice, it will be effective in a small proportion of humans. C) The mice have provided a positive control in this experiment that proves the drug is effective in humans. D) The drug is effective in the mouse model; it must still be tested in humans. E) The effect of the drug on mice has no bearing on the effect of the drug on humans.

88) With regard to the validity of biomedical research in physiological studies, which statement is correct? A) Although the general homeostatic mechanisms may be the same in some animal species, the individual variables are often very different. B) Although the individual variables may be the same in some animal species, the general homeostatic mechanisms are often very different.

89)

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) The coordinated activity of the organ systems is necessary for normal function. B) Because organ systems are so interrelated, dysfunction in one organ system can have profound effects on other systems. C) An organism is any living thing considered as a whole, whether composed of one cell, such as a bacteria, or trillions of cells, such as a human. D) Living things are highly organized, and disruption of this organized state can lead to loss of function and death. E) All of these statements are true.

90) Which of the following lists examples of body structures from the simplest to the most complex?

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A) Mitochondrion,connective tissue, protein, stomach, adipocyte (fat cell) B) Protein,mitochondrion, adipocyte (fat cell), connective tissue, stomach C) Mitochondrion,connective tissue, stomach, protein, adipocyte (fat cell) D) Protein,adipocyte (fat cell), stomach, connective tissue, mitochondrion E) Protein, stomach,connective tissue, adipocyte (fat cell), mitochondrion

91) The fact that most of us have five lumbar vertebrae, but some people have six and some have four, is an example of_________blank variation among organisms. A) cellular B) holistic C) physiological D) anatomical E) reductionist

92) During exercise, one generates excess heat and the body temperature rises. As a response, blood vessels dilate in the skin, warm blood flows closer to the body surface, and heat is lost. This is an example of_________blank. A) negativefeedback B) positivefeedback C) dynamicequilibrium D) integrationcontrol E) set pointadjustment

93) When a woman is giving birth, the head of the baby pushes against her cervix and stimulates the release of the hormone oxytocin. Oxytocin travels in the blood and stimulates the uterus to contract. Labor contractions become more and more intense until the baby is expelled. This is an example of_________blank.

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A) negativefeedback B) positivefeedback C) dynamicequilibrium D) integrationcontrol E) set pointadjustment

94) Blood glucose concentration rises after a meal and stimulates the pancreas to release the hormone insulin. Insulin travels in the blood and stimulates the uptake of glucose by body cells from the bloodstream, thus reducing blood glucose concentration. This is an example of_________blank. A) negativefeedback B) positivefeedback C) dynamicequilibrium D) integrationcontrol E) set pointadjustment

95) The change in size of the bone marrow (where blood cells are produced) as an infant matures is an example of_________blank, whereas the transformation of blood stem cells into white blood cells is an example of_________blank. A) development;differentiation B) growth;development C) growth;differentiation D) differentiation;growth E) differentiation;development

96) Which of the following statements provides an accurate description of cellular physiology involving structures of the digestive system?

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A) Hepatocytes (liver cells) produce bile to aid in the breakdown of ingested lipids. B) Hemocytoblasts (blood stem cells) are located in the red bone marrow. C) Cardiac muscle cells contract to generate pressure that moves the blood through blood vessels. D) The epidermis, the superficial layer of the skin, is composed of multiple layers of cells.

97) If the thoracic cavity was cut along the midsaggital plane, which of the following descriptions of the two halves would be accurate? A) The midsaggital cut would create an anterior half that contained portions of the lungs and heart and a posterior half that contained the spinal cord. B) The midsagittal plane would produce a medial half and a lateral half, each containing a lung. C) The midsagittal plane would produce a right half that contained one lung and a left half that contained a lung and most of the heart. D) The midsagittal plane would produce an inferior half that contained portions of the heart and portions of both lungs and a superior half that contained portions of the lungs and the thymus.

98) Aldosterone is a hormone that increase the level of Na+ in the blood. Considering negative-feedback regulation of blood Na+ levels, which of the following events would most likely be an effect of aldosterone on the body in blood Na+ levels decreased? A) Aldosterone would cause a decrease in the amount of Na+ that was excreted as part of urine. B) Aldosterone would cause an increase in the amount of Na+ that was excreted as part of urine. C) Aldosterone would reduce activity in the brain that stimulated salty food cravings. D) Aldosterone would decrease the amount of Na+ that is absorbed at the small intestine.

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99)

Which structure is located inferior and lateral to the heart? A) Liver B) Brain C) Urinary bladder D) Lung

100) Which of the following structures is located in the right-lower quadrant but NOT in the right iliac region? A) Urinary bladder B) Appendix C) Large intestine D) All of the listed organs are in both the right-lower quadrant and the right iliac region.

101) A construction worker was injured when a metal rod penetrated the abdominal wall inferior to the umbilicus and in the hypogastric region. The rod passed through to the lumbar region. Which of the following structures was most likely damaged? A) Urinary bladder B) Stomach C) Kidney D) Liver

102) Parathyroid hormone functions to increase calcium ion levels in blood. If its secretion is regulated through negative feedback, under which conditions would this hormone normally be released?

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A) Parathyroid hormone secretion occurs when blood calcium levels are too low. B) Parathyroid hormone secretion occurs when blood calcium levels are too high. C) Parathyroid secretion is constant to maintain blood calcium levels. D) Parathyroid hormone secretion increases in the morning and decreases in the afternoon.

103)

Which of the following statements provides an example of responsiveness?

A) Sandra began to shiver while she walked from her lab to her dorm room, through the freezing rain. B) James finally saw the results of working out as the sleeves on his t-shirt were tighter around his biceps. C) Jarrod was happy to see that the wound he received from falling on the sidewalk was almost completely healed. D) None of the choices are correct.

104)

Which of the following would indicate dysfunction of the respiratory system? A) Change in blood pH B) Increase in blood glucose levels C) Increased blood pressure D) All of the choices are correct.

105) Which of the following statements best describes reseach focused on the physiology of the lymphatic system?

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A) Dr. Ali studies the signaling that occurs between defense cells and abnormal cells of the body. B) Dr. Johnson's research focuses on the factors that regulate blood pH. C) Dr. Salak is interested in the chemical signaling that maintains normal blood glucose levels. D) Dr. Woods is interested in the development of cell communication junctions associated with memory.

106) If the esophagus were cut from superior to inferior, as it occurs in the thoracic cavity, this would be considered a_________blank section. A) longitudinal B) transverse C) oblique D) cross

107) A cut along which plane would result in the anterior perspective of the body appearing normal, with no evident cuts? A) Frontal B) Midsaggital C) Parasagittal D) Transverse

108) Which of the following structures is most like the receptor of a homeostatic control mechanism?

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A) The mechanism that detects a decrease in tire pressure on an automobile B) The mechanism that opens the automatic door at the local grocery store C) The heating element of a hot water heater D) All of the choices are correct.

109)

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109.1) Here is a figure showing major body cavities and other structures. What does "A" represent? A) Diaphragm B) Mediastinum C) Pelvic cavity D) Thoracic cavity E) Abdominal cavity

109.2) Here is a figure showing major body cavities and other structures. What does "B" represent? A) Diaphragm B) Mediastinum C) Pelvic cavity D) Thoracic cavity E) Abdominal cavity

109.3) Here is a figure showing major body cavities and other structures. What does "C" represent? A) Diaphragm B) Mediastinum C) Pelvic cavity D) Thoracic cavity E) Abdominal cavity

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109.4) Here is a figure showing major body cavities and other structures. What does "D" represent? A) Diaphragm B) Mediastinum C) Pelvic cavity D) Thoracic cavity E) Abdominal cavity

109.5) Here is a figure showing major body cavities and other structures. What does "E" represent? A) Diaphragm B) Mediastinum C) Pelvic cavity D) Thoracic cavity E) Abdominal cavity

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110)

110.1) Directional terms are important in the study of anatomy. What does "A" represent?

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A) Median B) Right C) Left D) Inferior E) Lateral

110.2) Directional terms are important in the study of anatomy. What does "B" represent? A) Median B) Right C) Left D) Inferior E) Lateral

110.3) Directional terms are important in the study of anatomy. What does "C" represent? A) Median B) Right C) Left D) Inferior E) Lateral

110.4) Directional terms are important in the study of anatomy. What does "D" represent?

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A) Median B) Right C) Left D) Inferior E) Lateral

110.5) Directional terms are important in the study of anatomy. What does "E" represent? A) Median B) Right C) Left D) Inferior E) Lateral

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111)

111.1) This is a sagittal section through the abdominopelvic cavity. What structure does "A" represent? A) Visceral peritoneum (covers organs) B) Mesentery C) Parietal peritoneum (lines cavity) D) Retroperitoneal organs E) Peritoneal cavity

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111.2) This is a sagittal section through the abdominopelvic cavity. What serous membrane does "B" represent? A) Visceral peritoneum (covers organs) B) Mesentery C) Parietal peritoneum (lines cavity) D) Retroperitoneal organs E) Peritoneal cavity

111.3) This is a sagittal section through the abdominopelvic cavity. What serous membrane does "C" represent? A) Visceral peritoneum (covers organs) B) Mesentery C) Parietal peritoneum (lines cavity) D) Retroperitoneal organs E) Peritoneal cavity

111.4) This is a sagittal section through the abdominopelvic cavity. What cavity does "D" represent? A) Visceral peritoneum (covers organs) B) Mesentery C) Parietal peritoneum (lines cavity) D) Retroperitoneal organs E) Peritoneal cavity

111.5) This is a sagittal section through the abdominopelvic cavity. What structures does "E" represent? Version 1

A) Visceral peritoneum (covers organs) B) Mesentery C) Parietal peritoneum (lines cavity) D) Retroperitoneal organs E) Peritoneal cavity

112)

True or False? A CT scan allows for a three-dimensional image to be generated. ⊚ ⊚

113)

true false

True or False? Positive-feedback mechanisms are always damaging to the body. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) True or False? The part of the feedback mechanism that processes information, relates it to other information, and makes a decision of action is the receptor. ⊚ true ⊚ false

115) True or False? The control center compares input from a receptor with the ideal normal value for a condition called a set point. ⊚ true ⊚ false

116) True or False? Positive feedback mechanisms are less common in healthy individuals than negative feedback mechanisms.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

117) True or False? Whereas a 'plane' describes an imaginary flat surface, a 'section' describes a way to cut an organ. ⊚ true ⊚ false

118) True or False? The thoracic cavity is divided into right and left parts by a median partition called the sternum. ⊚ true ⊚ false

119) True or False? Both the spleen and the urinary bladder are contained within the pelvic cavity subdivision of the abdominopelvic cavity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

120) True or False? The kidneys are contained within the pelvic cavity subdivision of the abdominopelvic cavity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

121) True or False? Scientists believe that any significant change in the composition of the microbiome of the human integumentary system may increase a person’s susceptibility to autoimmune diseases. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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122) True or False? It has been suggested by some scientists that early exposure to antibiotics that significantly change the makeup of the microbes in the human intestines may increase a person’s susceptibility to autoimmune diseases like Crohn's disease and asthma. ⊚ true ⊚ false

123) True or False? Many undergraduate anatomy programs study cats and rats in laboratory settings. Use of these animals is ideal because they are inexpensive, and although they are physically smaller, the internal structures are identical to humans. ⊚ true ⊚ false

124) True or False? With regard to biomedical research, because rats, pigs, apes, and other mammals share over 90% of the same genes as humans, these animals are always good predictors for how humans will respond to a specific drug therapy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

125) True or False? With regard to biomedical research, it has been found that drugs that are toxic to one mammal species will be toxic to another mammal species. ⊚ true ⊚ false

126)

True or False? Rats and humans share over 90% of the same genes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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127)

True or False? A molecule of water is more complex than a mitochondrion (organelle). ⊚ ⊚

true false

128) True or False? Homeostasis and occupying space are both unique characteristics of living things. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chapter 01_13e_ VanPutte 1) A 2) C 3) B 4) D 5) B 6) B 7) E 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) B 21) D 22) E 23) A 24) E 25) A 26) E Version 1

27) E 28) B 29) E 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) B 34) D 35) B 36) E 37) E 38) E 39) A 40) C 41) C 42) E 43) A 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) C 48) C 49) A 50) E 51) B 52) D 53) D 54) A 55) B 56) C Version 1

57) E 58) D 59) C 60) A 61) E 62) B 63) A 64) A 65) E 66) B 67) B 68) B 69) C 70) A 71) D 72) E 73) D 74) D 75) A 76) C 77) A 78) A 79) A 80) B 81) B 82) D 83) B 84) A 85) C 86) A Version 1

87) D 88) A 89) E 90) B 91) D 92) A 93) B 94) A 95) C 96) A 97) C 98) A 99) A 100) A 101) A 102) A 103) A 104) A 105) A 106) A 107) A 108) A 109) Section Break 109.1) B 109.2) A 109.3) D 109.4) E 109.5) C 110) Section Break 110.1) B Version 1

110.2) C 110.3) A 110.4) E 110.5) D 111) Section Break 111.1) B 111.2) C 111.3) A 111.4) E 111.5) D 112) TRUE 113) FALSE 114) FALSE 115) TRUE 116) TRUE 117) TRUE 118) FALSE 119) FALSE 120) FALSE 121) FALSE 122) TRUE 123) FALSE 124) FALSE 125) FALSE 126) TRUE 127) FALSE 128) FALSE

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CHAPTER 2 1)

The amount of matter in an object is its_________blank. A) mass B) weight C) atomic number D) element E) ionic charge

The three forms of matter are A) air, water, andsolids. B) solids, liquids,and gases. C) blood, bone, andair. D) vapor, water, andsolid.

The four most abundant elements in the human body are A) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and iron. B) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. C) calcium, hydrogen, sodium, and potassium. D) carbon, oxygen, magnesium, and zinc. E) carbon, sulfur, calcium, and potassium.

4) The smallest particle of an element that still exhibits the chemical characteristics of that element is a/an_________blank.

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A) electron B) atom C) chemical bond D) orbital E) proton

Subatomic particles located around the nucleus of an atom are_________blank. A) protons B) electrons C) neutrons D) neutrinos E) photons

Electrons A) comprise the majority of the mass of an atom. B) are located in the nucleus of an atom. C) have a positive charge of one. D) are the subatomic particles most involved in bonding behavior of atoms. E) do not participate in the bonding of atoms.

X-rays can be used to view bones because A) x-rays pass through bone. B) x-rays react with bone. C) x-rays cannot pass through bone. D) bones are less dense than soft tissue.

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Which of the following is not a use of x-ray imaging? A) Breast cancer screening in mammography B) Upper digestive tract abnormalities following barium ingestion C) Brain tumor progression D) Vertebrae fractures

9) In an x-ray film of the skeletal system, the dense tissue areas appear _________blank because they _________blank the x-rays; the less dense tissues appear _________blank because they _________blank the x-rays. A) light; absorb; dark; do not absorb B) dark; absorb; light; do not absorb C) light; do not absorb; dark; absorb D) dark; do not absorb; light; absorb

10)

A neutral atom contains A) more protons than electrons. B) more electrons than protons. C) the same number of electrons and protons. D) only neutrons. E) None of the choices are correct.

11)

Which of the following best describes a proton?

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A) One negative charge, no mass, found in orbitals B) No charge, mass of one, found in nucleus C) One positive charge, mass of one, found in nucleus D) Subatomic particle with no electric charge E) None of the choices are correct.

12)

The mass number of an atom is the number of A) protons in the atom. B) neutrons in the atom. C) protons pluselectrons in the atom. D) electrons plusneutrons in the atom. E) neutrons plusprotons in the atom.

13) An atom has an atomic number of 19 and a mass number of 39. This atom will have_________blank neutrons. A) 19 B) 20 C) 39 D) 58 E) 30

14) An atom of chlorine has 17 protons and 18 neutrons. Which of the following statements is true?

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A) Chlorine atoms have 18 electrons. B) Chlorine has a mass number of 35. C) Chlorine has an atomic number of 18. D) Chlorine has 35 electrons. E) Chlorine has an atomic number of 35.

15)

Isotopes of the same element have A) the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons. B) different numbers of protons and electrons. C) the same mass number. D) the same atomic number but differ in their mass numbers. E) no mass number.

16)

The number of atoms in exactly 12 grams of carbon-12 is called_________blank number. A) Dalton's B) Socrates's C) Avogadro's D) Pasteur's E) Le Chatelier's

17)

A neutral atom will become a cation if it A) gains electrons. B) gains protons. C) loses electrons. D) loses protons. E) gains neutrons.

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18)

In ionic bonding, A) only non-polar molecules are involved. B) a "sea of electrons" forms. C) electrons are transferred from one atom to another. D) two hydrogen atoms share one pair of electrons. E) the charge of the ion does not play a role in the bond.

19)

Covalent bonds form when A) atomic nuclei fuse. B) molecules become ionized. C) neutrons are transferred from one atom to another. D) protons are lost from atoms. E) electrons are shared between two atoms.

20)

When ionic compounds dissolve in water, their ions A) cling tightly together. B) dissociate or separate from one another. C) lose their charge. D) get lost in the solvent. E) settle to the bottom of the container.

21) Molecules that form when electrons are shared unequally between atoms are called_________blank molecules.

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A) salt B) polar C) nonpolar D) lopsided E) None of the choices are correct.

22)

A substance composed of two or more different types of atoms is a/an_________blank. A) compound B) element C) ion D) molecule E) Both compound and molecule are correct.

23)

Sodium chloride is considered a/an_________blank. A) molecule B) compound C) Both molecule and compound are correct. D) element E) ion

24)

A molecule is A) a combination of atoms held together by chemical bonds. B) a positively charged ion. C) a negatively charged ion. D) a substance that conducts electricity when placed in solution. E) an alteration inthe three-dimensional structure of a protein.

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25)

Carbon dioxide is considered a/an_________blank. A) molecule B) compound C) Both molecule and compound are correct. D) element E) ion

26) When the hydrogen bonds that maintain a protein's three-dimensional shape are broken, the protein becomes nonfunctional, and is said to be_________blank. A) essential B) denatured C) structural D) unsaturated E) saturated

27) Hydrogen bonds form between molecules containing_________blank bonds; the hydrogen bond is between a hydrogen atom of one molecule and a partially_________blank charged atom of another. A) polar covalent;negatively B) polar covalent;positively C) nonpolar covalent;positively D) nonpolar covalent;negatively E) ionic; positively

28)

An individual hydrogen bond in a sample of water would be described as

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A) strong andintramolecular. B) strong andintermolecular. C) weak andintramolecular. D) weak andintermolecular.

29)

Cations and anions that dissociate in water are sometimes called A) nonelectrolytes, because they do not conduct an electrical current. B) molecules. C) electrolytes, because they can conduct an electrical current. D) nonelectrolytes and solutes. E) molecules andelectrolytes.

30)

Electrolytes are substances that A) form covalent bonds with water. B) conductelectricity when dissolved in water. C) cannot conduct electricity in solution. D) are NOT found in the human body in any appreciable amounts. E) are NOT charged particles.

31) Chemical substances that dissolve in water or react with water to release ions are known as_________blank. A) buffers B) enzymes C) bases D) inorganic compounds E) electrolytes

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32)

Intermolecular forces A) form dissociated ions. B) are electrostatic attractions between different molecules. C) evenly distribute electrical charge among all atoms in a sample. D) separate atoms and ions from one another. E) are found within molecules.

33)

A cation is A) a combination of atoms held together by chemical bonds. B) a positively charged ion. C) a negatively charged ion. D) a molecule thatconducts electricity when placed in solution. E) an alteration inthe three-dimensional structure of a protein.

34)

An anion is A) a combination of atoms held together by chemical bonds. B) a positively charged ion. C) a negatively charged ion. D) amolecule that conducts electricity when placed in solution. E) an alteration inthe three-dimensional structure of a protein.

35)

An electrolyte is

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A) a combination of atoms held together by chemical bonds. B) a positively charged ion. C) a negatively charged ion. D) a substance that conducts electricity when placed in solution. E) the alteration in the three-dimensional structure of a protein.

36)

Solubility refers to the ability of one substance to_________blank in another. A) react B) dissolve C) precipitate D) conduct E) None of the choices are correct.

37)

All of the synthesis reactions in the body are called_________blank. A) catabolism B) hydrolysis C) oxidation-reduction D) anabolism E) dissociation

38)

Which of the following is a synthesis reaction?

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A) Two amino acids are bonded together to form a dipeptide. B) Sucrose is chemically separated to form one molecule of glucose and one molecule of fructose. C) Sodium chloride is dissolved in water. D) Several dipeptide chains are formed from digestion of a long polypeptide chain. E) ATP is converted to ADP.

39)

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Synthesis reaction - two reactants combine to form a larger product B) Decomposition reaction - large reactant broken into smaller products C) Oxidation - gain of electrons D) Dehydration reaction - water is a product of the reaction E) Hydrolysis - water is used in decomposition reaction

40) In the reversible reaction, CO2 + H2O ↔ H2CO3 ↔ H+ + HCO3- , a decrease in respiration rate will increase the concentration of CO2 in the blood. What will this do to the amount of H+ in the blood? A) H+ willincrease. B) H+ willdecrease. C) H+ willbe unchanged.

41)

Reactions that use water to split molecules apart are called_________blank reactions.

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A) dehydration B) synthesis C) hydrolysis D) reversible E) oxidation

42) In a reversible reaction, when the rate of product formation is equal to the rate of reactant formation, the reaction is A) stopped. B) at equilibrium. C) in danger of exploding. D) a net decomposition reaction. E) a net synthesis reaction.

43) Chemical reactions with the property of being able to proceed from reactants to products and from products to reactants are called_________blank reactions. A) exchange B) synthesis C) decomposition D) reversible E) mirrored

44)

Why are cyanide compounds lethal to humans?

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A) They interfere with protein synthesis. B) They interfere with nerve impulses. C) They interfere with the production of ATP. D) They interfere with muscle contraction. E) All of the choices are correct.

45)

Potential energy stored in bonds of molecules is _________blank energy. A) mechanical B) thermal C) chemical D) molecular E) None of the choices are correct.

46)

Chemical energy A) moves matter. B) results from the position or movement of objects. C) is a form of potential energy within chemical bonds. D) comes from the sun. E) is not important in physiological processes.

47) If the potential energy in the chemical bonds of the reactants is greater than the potential energy in the chemical bonds of the product,

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A) energy must be supplied for the reaction to occur. B) energy is released by the reaction. C) the chemical reaction equalizes the potential energy levels. D) energy has not been gained or lost. E) energy is not a factor in the reaction.

48)

The energy stored in ATP is a form of_________blank energy. A) mechanical B) chemical C) kinetic D) heat E) electrical

49)

Potential energy is A) the form of energy that actually does work. B) movement of ions or electrons. C) energy that flows between objects with different temperatures. D) stored energy that could do work but is not doing so. E) energy that moves in waves.

50)

Kinetic energy is A) the form of energy that actually does work. B) movement of ions or electrons. C) energy that flows between objects with different temperatures. D) stored energy that could do work but is not doing so. E) energy that moves in waves.

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51)

Heat energy is A) the form of energy that actually does work. B) movement of ions or electrons. C) energy that flows between objects with different temperatures. D) stored energy that could do work but is not doing so. E) energy that moves in waves.

52) The minimum amount of energy that reactants must have to start a chemical reaction is called_________blankenergy. A) kinetic B) mechanical C) activation D) electromagnetic E) potential

53) The conversion between different states of energy (e.g. potential energy to kinetic energy) A) is not 100% efficient. B) is 100% efficient. C) typically generates heat. D) is not possible; energy cannot change its state. E) is not 100% efficient and typically generates heat.

54)

If the products of a chemical reaction contain less potential energy than the reactants,

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A) energy has been stored in the molecular bonds of the product. B) energy has been released by the breaking of molecular bonds. C) the reaction will be reversible without additional energy input. D) a synthesis reaction is likely to have occurred. E) All of the choices are correct.

55)

Enzymes are proteins that increase the rate of chemical reactions by A) increasing theactivation energy of the reaction. B) decreasing theactivation energy of the reaction. C) adjusting thetemperature of the reaction. D) increasing theconcentration of the reactants.

56) A substance that will increase the rate of a chemical reaction without being permanently changed is called a/an_________blank. A) solute B) catalyst C) oxidator D) reducing agent

57)

For most chemical reactions, an increase in temperature will cause the reaction rate to A) increase. B) decrease. C) remainunchanged.

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58)

Which of the following factors will influence the rate of chemical reactions? A) Temperature B) Concentration of reactants C) Presence of catalysts D) Presence of enzymes E) All of these factors will influence the rate of chemical reactions.

59)

Which of the following is an organic compound? A) Hydrochloric acid (HCl) B) Salt (NaCl) C) Sucrose (C12H22O11) D) Water (H2O) E) None of the choices are correct.

60) The hydrogen and oxygen atoms in a molecule of water are held together by_________blank bonds. A) ionic B) peptide C) savings D) polar covalent E) nonpolar covalent

61)

A group of water molecules are held together by_________blank bonds.

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A) savings B) hydrogen C) ionic D) nonpolar covalent E) polar covalent

62)

The molecular formula H2O means A) 1 hydrogen atom and 2 oxygen atoms. B) 1 hydrogen atom and 1 oxygen atom. C) 2 hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom. D) 2 hydrogen atoms and 2 oxygen atoms. E) None of the choices are correct.

63)

The presence of water in our bodies allows us to A) cool the body with sweat. B) maintain a fairly constant body temperature. C) provide an environment for chemical reactions. D) keep tissues moist and reduce friction. E) All of the choices are correct.

64)

Which of the following statements is false? A) Water allows the body to resist sudden temperature changes. B) Water transports nutrients in the body. C) Water serves as an effective lubricant in our bodies. D) Water evaporation cools the body. E) Water evaporation heats the body.

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65)

Substances dissolved in the liquid portion of a solution are called_________blank. A) solutes B) solvents C) catalysts D) osmoles E) insoluble

66)

A solution that contains one osmole of solute in one kilogram (kg) of water is called a A) 1% solution. B) 1 molar solution. C) 10% solution. D) 1 osmolal solution. E) None of the choices are correct.

67)

Two solutions, A and B, have the same osmolality. What does that mean? A) Solution A has more solute particles than solution B. B) Solution B has more solute particles than solution A. C) Both solutions have the same number of solute particles. D) Solution A is water and sugar; solution B is water and salt. E) Solution A is pure water, and solution B is water and salt.

68)

Why is water involved in most metabolic reactions in the human body?

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A) It can dissolve many chemical compounds. B) It can absorb and release heat without changing temperature very much. C) It has a high surface tension. D) Its bonds are nonpolar. E) It is a solute.

69) Hyperventilation causes the loss of large amounts of CO2 from the body, decreasing the amount of H+ in solution. As a result, A) the pH of body fluids will rise. B) the pH of body fluids will fall. C) the pH of body fluids will become neutral. D) the pH of body fluids will not be affected. E) None of these choices are correct.

70)

A base is a proton_________blank. A) donor B) converter C) acceptor D) creator E) Both acceptor and creator are correct.

71)

Which of the following is a proton donor?

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A) An acid B) A base C) A salt D) Glucose E) A neutral substance

72)

Sam adjusts solution A to increase its acidity. This means that the A) solution is closer to neutrality. B) pH of the solution has increased. C) solution will now accept more protons. D) number of hydrogen ions in the solution has decreased. E) number of hydrogen ions in the solution has increased.

73)

The pH value A) increases with acidity. B) is measured on a scale from 0 to 10. C) is determined by the concentration of H+ in a solution. D) reflects the Na+ content of body fluids. E) decreases with alkalinity.

74)

What particle is formed when an acid loses a proton (H+)? A) Buffer B) Conjugate acid C) Salt D) Conjugate base

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75) Solution A has a pH of 10, and solution B has a pH of 2. Which of the following statements about these solutions is true? A) Solution A and solution B are both basic. B) Solution B is basic. C) Solution A is acidic. D) Solution B has a higher H+ concentration than solution A. E) Solution A has a higher H+ concentration than solution B.

76)

A buffer will A) enhance changes in the pH of the solutions. B) resist drastic changes in the pH of the solutions. C) have no effect on the pH of the solutions. D) make a solution more acidic. E) make a solution more basic.

77)

Normal blood pH is maintained within a range of A) 7.35 - 8.5. B) 7.35 - 7.45. C) 4.5 - 5.5. D) 1.0 - 14.0. E) 6.5 - 9.5.

78)

Normal pH range for blood is 7.35 to 7.45. If blood pH falls below 7.35,

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A) an imbalance called alkalosis results. B) nothing happens as this is an acceptable deviation. C) an imbalance called acidosis results. D) the blood becomes saltier. E) the number of red blood cells decreases.

79)

Normal pH for blood is 7.35 to 7.45. Maintenance of the pH in this range is A) critical because enzymes work best within narrow ranges of pH. B) not critical because extreme pH values do not affect enzyme function. C) called denaturation. D) not required. E) None of the choices are correct.

80)

Which molecule is produced as a waste product of the metabolism of glucose by cells? A) Water B) Oxygen C) Carbon dioxide D) Carbon monoxide E) Nitrogen

81)

Large carbohydrates are formed from smaller units called_________blank. A) phosphate groups B) monosaccharides C) amino acids D) steroids E) lipids

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82)

Which of the following is a carbohydrate? A) Triglyceride B) Hemoglobin C) Cholesterol D) Animal fat E) Sucrose

83)

Polysaccharides A) are formed when sucrose and glucose combine. B) are the smallest carbohydrates. C) contain carbon, hydrogen, and phosphate atoms. D) contain long chains of monosaccharides. E) are not found in plants.

84)

Consider the following five terms. Which term does not belong with the other four terms? A) Disaccharide B) Sucrose C) Lactose D) Maltose E) Glucose

85) Which of the following lists includes only monosaccharides that are isomers of one another?

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A) Glycogen, glucose, sucrose B) Starch, glycogen, cellulose C) Glucose, fructose, galactose D) Ribose, glycogen, glucose E) Deoxyribose, glycogen, starch

86) The molecule used most frequently by cells as a fuel belongs to which of the following groups? A) Prostaglandins B) Carbohydrates C) Nucleic acids D) Steroids E) Phospholipids

87)

Glucose is the A) storage carbohydrate in animals. B) storage carbohydrate in plants. C) nondigestible plant polysaccharide. D) major nutrient for most body cells. E) sugar found in RNA.

88)

Glycogen is the

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A) storage carbohydrate in animals. B) storage carbohydrate in plants. C) nondigestible plant polysaccharide. D) major nutrient for most body cells. E) sugar found in RNA.

89)

Ribose is the A) storage carbohydrate in animals. B) storage carbohydrate in plants. C) nondigestible plant polysaccharide. D) major nutrient for most body cells. E) sugar found in RNA and ATP.

90)

Starch is the A) storage carbohydrate in animals. B) storagecarbohydrate in plants. C) nondigestible plant polysaccharide. D) major nutrient for most body cells. E) sugar found in RNA.

91)

Cellulose is the A) storage carbohydrate in animals. B) storage carbohydrate in plants. C) nondigestible plant polysaccharide. D) major nutrient for most body cells. E) sugar found in RNA.

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92)

Deoxyribose is a sugar found in_________blank. A) glycogen B) starch C) DNA D) RNA E) ATP

93)

Which of the following is NOT a function of carbohydrates in the body? A) Structural component of DNA B) Protection C) Bulk in feces D) Energy E) Structural component of RNA

94)

Which of the following statements accurately describes lipids? A) Lipids are the building blocks of carbohydrates. B) Lipids serve as buffers. C) Lipids are an important component of plasma membranes. D) Lipids tend to be water soluble. E) Lipids tend to be polarized.

95)

Triglycerides are composed of

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A) monosaccharides. B) amino acids. C) nucleotides. D) glycerol and fatty acids. E) None of the choices are correct.

96) Fatty acid A has 10 double covalent bonds scattered throughout its carbon chain while fatty acid B has only single covalent bonds between the carbons in its chain. A) Fatty acid A is saturated. B) Fatty acid B is unsaturated. C) Both fatty acids are saturated. D) Both fatty acids are unsaturated. E) Fatty acid B is saturated.

97)

Which of the following would be classified as a lipid? A) Cholesterol – a steroid B) Alanine – an amino acid C) Starch – a polysaccharide D) Catalase – an enzyme E) Sucrose – a disaccharide

98)

All of the following terms relate to lipids. Which does not belong with the other four?

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A) Cholesterol B) Estrogen C) Steroid D) Triglyceride E) Bile salts

99)

Phospholipids A) contain subunits called amino acids. B) are water-soluble. C) are a type of steroid. D) are fat-soluble vitamins. E) are found in plasma membranes.

100)

Lipids A) can insulate and help prevent heat loss. B) yield little energy per unit of weight. C) function as enzymes. D) are all water soluble. E) comprise the genetic material of cells.

101)

Eicosanoids A) are structural proteins. B) are fat-soluble vitamins. C) are components of the plasma membrane. D) comprise the genetic material. E) play a role in the response of tissues to injuries.

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102)

An example of a fat-soluble vitamin is A) vitamin C. B) vitamin D. C) vitamin B. D) vitamin F. E) vitamin H.

103)

Which of the following molecules is NOT made from cholesterol? A) Estrogen B) Bile salts C) Testosterone D) Prostaglandins E) Progesterone

104)

Phospholipids have a hydrophilic end which is A) polar and not water soluble. B) polar and water soluble. C) nonpolar and not water soluble. D) nonpolar and water soluble.

105)

Which function of proteins is NOT correctly matched with the example?

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A) Transport – hemoglobin B) Structure – collagen and keratin C) Regulation – enzymes and hormones D) Protection – packing around organs and glands E) Contraction – actin and myosin in muscles

106) An organic molecule consists of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur; the molecule is probably A) carbon dioxide. B) an amino acid. C) a triglyceride (fat). D) a monosaccharide. E) a phospholipid.

107)

The building blocks of proteins are_________blank. A) triglycerides B) phospholipids C) amino acids D) monosaccharides E) eicosanoids

108)

Proteins

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A) are the body's source of immediate energy. B) are the building blocks of nucleotides. C) provide much of the structure of body cells and tissues. D) contain the genetic information of the cell. E) insulate and cushion the body.

109)

Adjacent amino acids in a polypeptide chain are held together by_________blank bonds. A) hydrogen B) ionic C) Van der Waals D) peptide E) high energy

110)

Which of the following is a source of nitrogen for the body? A) Carbohydrates B) Water C) Proteins D) Glucose E) Lipids

111)

The primary structure of a protein is A) the number of polypeptide chains in the molecule. B) the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain. C) the folded, helical nature of the molecule. D) represented by multiple polypeptide chains. E) the hydrogen bonds between amino acids.

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112)

Denaturation is A) a combination of atoms held together by chemical bonds. B) a positively charged ion. C) a negatively charged ion. D) a substance that conducts electricity when placed in solution. E) a change in thethree-dimensional structure of a protein.

113)

Which of the following is the correct sequence from smallest to largest? A) Amino acid, cell, protein, atom B) Amino acid, atom, cell, protein C) Cell, protein, amino acid, atom D) Atom, amino acid, protein, cell E) Protein, cell, amino acid, atom

114) Which of the following is determined by the sequence of amino acids bound by peptide bonds? A) Amino acid B) Peptide bond C) Primary structure of protein D) Secondary structure of protein E) Denaturation

115)

Which of the following means a change in shape of a protein?

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A) Amino acid B) Peptide bond C) Primary structure of protein D) Secondary structure of protein E) Denaturation

116) What type of covalent bond is formed between amino acid molecules during protein synthesis? A) Amino bond B) Peptide bond C) Primary bond D) Hydrogen bond E) Electrovalent bond

117)

What is the building block molecule of a protein? A) Amino acid B) Nucleic acid C) Monosaccharide D) Glycerol E) Fatty acid

118) Which protein structure results from folding or coiling of a polypeptide chain caused by hydrogen bonds between amino acids?

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A) Quaternary structure B) Tertiary structure C) Secondary structure D) Primary structure E) Peptide structure

119)

Which of the following is mismatched? A) Ribose – RNA B) Enzyme – protein C) Cholesterol – nucleic acid D) Triglyceride – fat E) Eicosanoid – prostaglandin

120)

To which of the following organic groups does an enzyme belong? A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Lipid D) Nucleic acid E) Vitamin

121)

To which of the following organic groups does DNA belong?

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A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Lipid D) Nucleic acid E) Vitamin

122)

To which of the following organic groups does lactose belong? A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Lipid D) Nucleic acid E) Vitamin

123)

To which of the following organic groups does a steroid belong? A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Lipid D) Nucleic acid E) Vitamin

124)

To which of the following organic groups does hemoglobin belong? A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Lipid D) Nucleic acid E) Vitamin

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125) An organic molecule such as a vitamin that makes an enzyme functional is called a/an_________blank. A) buffer B) coactivator C) catalyst D) coenzyme

126)

The minimum energy required to start a chemical reaction A) moves in energy surges. B) results from random molecular movement. C) comes from ionic energy motion. D) is elevated by a catalyst. E) can be lowered by enzymes.

127)

An enzyme A) has a two-dimensional shape. B) is permanently changed in a chemical reaction. C) increases the activation energy needed in a chemical reaction. D) is a protein catalyst. E) cannot be denatured.

128)

Which of the following is NOT true of enzymes?

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A) They arecatalysts that increase the rate of a reaction. B) One enzyme can have many reactions. C) They may need a cofactor to be functional. D) The active site has a specific shape to match the reactant(s). E) A slight change in shape can affect function.

129)

The model that helps explain how an enzyme works is the_________blank model. A) activation B) lock-and-key C) three-dimensional D) denaturation

130)

Nucleotides A) are part of DNA molecules but not RNA molecules. B) hold the nucleus together. C) are the buildingblocks of nucleic acids. D) are proteins that function as enzymes. E) have nothing to do with the genetic information in the nucleus.

131)

Which of the following is a component of a nucleotide? A) Adenine – a nitrogen base B) Glucose – a monosaccharide C) Cholesterol – a steroid D) Calcium ions E) ATP

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132)

DNA A) must travel to ribosomes to function. B) contains the sugar deoxyribose. C) is a single-stranded molecule. D) is one of several amino acids. E) assembles amino acids to make proteins.

133)

Which of the following nitrogen bases is found in RNA but not DNA? A) Adenine B) Guanine C) Thymine D) Uracil E) Cytosine

134) Arrange the following from largest to smallest: (1) Nucleus (2) DNA molecule (3) Skin cell (4) Chicken eggs A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 4, 3, 1, 2 C) 3, 4, 2, 1 D) 2, 3, 1, 4 E) 4, 2, 3, 1

135)

Which of the following statements best describes RNA?

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A) RNA is found outside a cell. B) RNA contains the base thymine. C) RNA is a single-stranded molecule. D) RNA molecules areantiparallel. E) RNA is a double helix.

136)

Which of the following lists the components of a nucleotide? A) Phosphate, lipid, nitrogenous base B) Monosaccharide, nitrogenous base, sucrose C) Phosphate, monosaccharide, nitrogenous base D) Phosphate, sucrose, amino acid E) Monosaccharide, amino acid, phosphate

137)

Which of the following is the correct complementary strand to CATGTC? A) GTACAG B) CATGTC C) GUACAG D) AGCACA E) TCGTAT

138)

ATP A) is a nucleotide found in DNA. B) stores genetic information. C) is a sugar found in transfer RNA. D) serves as the energy currency of the cell. E) can store, but cannot release energy in the cell.

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139)

Which of the following statements correctly describes ATP? A) Can be synthesized from ADP B) Stores and releases energy in the cell C) Is associated with a reversible reaction D) Is associated with anabolism and catabolism E) All of the choices are correct.

140)

Which of the following chemical reactions best represents the decomposition of ATP? A) ATP + ADP → ATP B) ADP + ADP + ADP → ATP C) ATP + energy → ADP + H2O D) ADP + Pi + energy → ATP + H2O E) ATP + H2O → ADP + Pi + energy

141)

Which of the following chemical reactions best represents the synthesis of ATP? A) ATP + H2O → ADP + Pi + energy B) ADP + Pi + energy → ATP + H2O C) ADP + ADP + ADP →ATP + energy D) ATP + energy → ADP + H2O E) ATP + ADP → ATP

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142)

The sodium chloride molecule breaks apart in water. What does "D" represent?

A) Chloride ion B) Dissociation C) Water molecule D) Sodium ion E) Salt crystal

143) The mass of a chemical equal to its molecular weight in grams, containing 6.023 x 1023 molecules is a/an _________blank. A) mole B) molarity C) ion D) atomic mass unit

144)

Intermolecular forces are weak electrostatic attractions that exist between

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A) two molecules. B) two atoms. C) two protons.

145)

Hydrogen bonds are important for all of the following except A) producing surface tension in water. B) helping hold a protein structure together. C) helping hold DNA strands together. D) helping atoms give up or receive electrons.

146)

In an oxidation-reduction reaction, _________blank are transferred between molecules. A) electrons B) charges C) neutrons D) protons

147) Sucrose is formed when the simple sugars fructose and glucose are covalently bonded. This reaction releases water. What type of reaction is this? A) Catabolic B) Hydrolysis C) Dehydration D) Monomeric

148)

If the ratio of products and reactants are stable, the system is in _________blank.

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A) equilibrium B) steady state C) activation

149) Identify the material that would NOT be considered an important inorganic substances in our bodies. A) Glucose B) Oxygen C) Calcium D) Iron

150)

From the following list, select the one organic substance found in the human body. A) Oxygen B) Water C) Glucose D) Calcium

151) Inorganic chemists study substances _________blank carbon, while organic chemists study substances _________blank carbon. A) lacking; containing B) containing; lacking C) containing more than 1 mole of; with less than a mole of

152) In order to get energy (ATP) from food molecules in the final stage of respiration, humans require _________blank.

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A) oxygen B) sodium C) carbon dioxide D) ribose

153)

How does a buffer help a solution maintain pH? A) A buffer can act like a base if pH is acidic, and it can act like an acid if pH is basic. B) A buffer releases a base to neutralize an acid. C) A buffer forms both cations and anions to counteract acids. D) A buffer releases acid to maintain proper pH.

154) Sodium has an atomic number of 11 and an atomic mass of 23. Sodium has_________blank. A) 12 neutrons and 11protons B) 12 protons and 11neutrons C) 12 electrons and11 neutrons D) 12 protons and 11electrons E) 12 electrons and11 protons

155) Na (atomic no. 11) reacts with Cl (atomic no. 17) to become stable. In the reaction, Na will_________blank, while Cl will_________blank. A) accept one electron; give up one electron B) give up one proton; accept one proton C) share one electron with chlorine; share one electron with sodium D) become an anion; become a cation E) give up one electron; accept one electron

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156) Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and an atomic mass of 16. How many valence electrons does it have? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 16

157) Oxygen has an atomic number of eight. When two oxygen atoms come together, they form a/an_________blank bond. A) hydrogen B) nonpolar covalent C) polar covalent D) ionic E) Van der Waals

158) When jumping into water, you notice resistance. This resistance is caused by water's_________blank. A) adhesiveness B) cohesiveness C) hydrophobic tension D) hydrophilic tension E) osmotic equilibrium

159)

Which of these is hydrophobic?

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A) Glucose B) K+ C) ClD) Water E) Lipid

160) Blood contains NaCl, protein, and cells. The NaCl is in a/an_________blank, the protein is in a/an_________blank, and the cells are in a_________blank. A) emulsion; solution; suspension B) solvent; emulsion; colloid C) colloid; suspension; solution D) suspension; colloid; solution E) solution; colloid; suspension

161)

Which of these has the highest H+ concentration? A) Lemon juice, pH =2.3 B) Red wine, pH =3.2 C) Tomato juice, pH= 4.7 D) Saliva, pH =6.6 E) Householdammonia, pH = 10.8

162) The breakdown of glucose to yield carbon dioxide, oxygen, and ATP can be described as_________blank.

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A) anabolic andendergonic B) catabolic andexergonic C) anabolic andexergonic D) catabolic andendergonic E) anabolic andexothermic

163)

Which of the following terms encompasses all of the other ones? A) Catabolism B) Anabolism C) Metabolism D) Oxidationreactions E) Reductionreactions

164)

Which of the following is not an organic compound? A) C16H18N3ClS B) Na2HPO3(H2O)5 C) CH4 D) C3H7O2N

165)

_________blank is a monosaccharide, whereas_________blank is a polysaccharide. A) Fructose; sucrose B) Galactose; maltose C) Lactose; glycogen D) Glucose; starch E) Cellulose; glucose

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166)

Which of these molecules is hydrophobic? A) Glucose B) Cholesterol C) Amino acid D) Protein E) Disaccharide

167)

_________blank is the substrate of_________blank. A) Glucose; lactose B) Lactase; glucose C) Lactose; lactase D) Galactose; lactose E) Sucrase; sucrose

168)

Most enzymes are_________blank. A) cofactors B) proteins C) lipids D) carbohydrates E) nucleic acids

169)

An atom with 12 electrons, 13 neutrons, and 11 protons is a/an _________blank.

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A) anion B) cation C) free radical D) isotope E) both an anion and an isotope F) both an anion and a free radical

170)

In the following reaction, what is/are the product(s)? CO2 + H2O ---> H2CO3 A) H2CO3 B) CO2 and H2O C) CO2 and H2CO3 D) H2O and H2CO3

171)

Which of the following will increase the rate of a chemical reaction? A) An increase inreactant concentration B) An increase inproduct concentration C) A decreasedtemperature D) Enzymeinhibition

172) Metabolic water refers to the water molecules produced during normal cellular metabolism. Which types of metabolic reactions are important for the production of metabolic water? A) Dehydration reactions B) Hydrolysis reactions C) Catabolic reactions D) Reversible reactions

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173)

Which of the following scenarios appropriately represents kinetic energy? A) A student marking an answer on a exam paper B) A swinging door propped open C) A large truck parked at the top of a steep hill D) All of the choices are correct.

174) Considering the following analogy, determine which component represents ATP's role in the cells of the body. As the river flows past the old mill, it turns the water wheel, which in turns powers the movement of the millstone that grinds the wheat. A) Water wheel B) River C) Millstone D) Wheat

175) A student's science fair project examined changes in chemical reaction rate by mixing vinegar and baking soda together and observing the formation of carbon dioxide gas. The student noticed that as the volume of vinegar_________blank, there was a noticeable_________blank in bubbling in the beaker. A) increased; increase B) decreased; decrease C) increased; decrease D) decreased; increase

176) Which of the following isnot an example of an important inorganic substance necessary for normal human physiology?

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A) Iodide ions are important components of certain hormones in the body. B) The sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA form from covalent bonds between nucleotides. C) Calcium ions are important components of cellular communication. D) Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in cellular respiration, the process that generates much of the ATP in cells.

177) Substance A is added to a solution, resulting in a decrease in the pH of the solution. Substance A_________blank the H+ concentration; therefore, it is considered a/an_________blank. A) increased; acid B) increased; base C) decreased; acid D) decreased; base

178) Proteins in cells can act as important buffer systems. If intracellular pH rises, certain_________blank of proteins can_________blank H+ to return pH to normal conditions. A) amino acids; donate B) nucleotides; donate C) amino acids; accept D) nucleotides; accept

179) When someone eats a cookie, what happens to the carbon atoms in the sugar molecules after the cookie is ingested?

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A) The carbon atoms combine with hydrogen ions to buffer the stomach acids. B) The carbon atoms are released as part of carbon dioxide, which later is excreted as part of the urine. C) The carbon atoms are released as part of carbon dioxide, which later is excreted as part of exhaled air. D) The carbon atoms are stored in bones until they are needed for some other cellular process.

180) A weak acid was introduced to a solution. Which of the following accurately describes the condition of the solution after adding the weak acid? A) The solution would have an increase in H+ with some of the weak acid molecules still intact. B) The solution would have a decrease in H+ with some of the weak acid molecules still intact. C) The solution would have an increase in H+ with none of the weak acid molecules still intact. D) The solution would have a decrease in H+ with none of the weak acid molecules still intact.

181) Viruses are composed primarily of proteins and nucleic acids. Which of the following elements could be used to track the fate of viral proteins to determine if they entered the cell? A) Phosphate because proteins contain phosphate, but nucleic acids do not B) Sulfur because proteins contain sulfur, but nucleic acids do not C) Nitrogen because proteins contain nitrogen, but nucleic acids do not D) Oxygen because proteins contain oxygen, but nucleic acids do not

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182) An unknown molecule was detected in a tissue sample. The molecule is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen; appears to be a branching polymer; and is hydrophilic. This molecule is most likely a_________blank. A) carbohydrate B) lipid C) protein D) nucleic acid

183) Prions are pathogenic proteins that are linked to different neurodegenerative diseases. Investigations of some have indicated that normal cellular proteins and prions have the same amino acid sequence. How is this possible? A) Though the primary structure is the same between the prion and the normal cellular protein, differences at higher levels (secondary or tertiary) alter protein activity. B) The amino acid sequence is not important to the function of the protein because protein function is completely determined by the pH of the environment. C) The double helix structure of proteins is easily altered by separating the nitrogenous bases holding the strands together, allowing for a protein to act as a prion. D) The amino acids of the prion must have more hydrophilic sections, causing it to interact with the lipids of the plasma membrane and disrupting cell activity.

184) During the first step of gene expression, an RNA copy of a gene is made. Which of the following represents the correct sequence produced from a gene segment with the following sequence: GAACTAAGC? A) CUUGAUUCG B) GAACUAAGC C) CTTGATTCG D) GUUCTUUGC

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185) A research group is monitoring a series of reactions and have determined it is most likely a hydrolysis reaction because the number of_________blank. A) water molecules decreased B) water molecules increased C) oxygen molecules increased D) oxygen molecules decreased

186) Which of the following subatomic particles can be changed in number without affecting the element identity of the atom? A) Electrons B) Protons C) Neutrons D) Both "electrons" and "neutrons" are correct.

187) A polar covalent bond forms between Atom 1 and Atom 2. The Atom 1 side of the bond is slightly negative, and the Atom 2 side of the bond is slightly positive. Which atom has the higher electronegativity? A) Atom 1 B) Atom 2 C) Atom 1 and Atom 2 have equal electronegativity.

188) pH?

Which of the following best describes the effect that holding your breath has on blood

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A) Holding your breath increases blood pH by increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. B) Holding your breath decreases blood pH by increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. C) Holding your breath increases blood pH by decreasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. D) Holding your breath decreases blood pH by decreasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood.

189) If water accumulates between two sheets of glass, it is very difficult to separate them. Which of the following explanations best explains this situation? A) The cohesive property of water holds the two sheets of glass together. B) The adhesive property of water holds the sheets of glass together. C) The nonpolar covalent bonds in the class are attracted to the polar covalent bonds of the water, holding the two sheets of glass together.

190) If you were able to sort nucleotides into DNA nucleotides and RNA nucleotides, which component of the nucleotide would you use to do so? A) Pentose sugar B) Phosphate group C) Nitrogenous bases

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191)

191.1) Water accounts for 50% of the weight of a young adult female and 60% of a young adult male. What kind of bond is found at "A"? A) Hydrogen bond B) Water molecule C) Oxygen atom D) Hydrogen atom E) Polar covalent bond

191.2) Water accounts for 50% of the weight of a young adult female and 60% of a young adult male. What kind of bond is found at "B"?

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A) Hydrogen bond B) Water molecule C) Oxygen atom D) Hydrogen atom E) Polar covalent bond

191.3) Water accounts for 50% of the weight of a young adult female and 60% of a young adult male. What kind of atom is found at "C"? A) Hydrogen bond B) Water molecule C) Oxygen atom D) Hydrogen atom E) Polar covalent bond

191.4) Water accounts for 50% of the weight of a young adult female and 60% of a young adult male. What kind of atom is found at "D"? A) Hydrogen bond B) Water molecule C) Oxygen atom D) Hydrogen atom E) Polar covalent bond

191.5) Water accounts for 50% of the weight of a young adult female and 60% of a young adult male. What kind of molecule is found at "E"?

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A) Hydrogen bond B) Water molecule C) Oxygen atom D) Hydrogen atom E) Polar covalent bond

192)

192.1)

The sodium chloride molecule breaks apart in water. What does "A" represent?

A) Chloride ion B) Dissociation C) Water molecule D) Sodium ion E) Salt crystal

192.2) Version 1

The sodium chloride molecule breaks apart in water. What does "B" represent? 60

A) Chloride ion B) Dissociation C) Water molecule D) Sodium ion E) Salt crystal

192.3)

The sodium chloride molecule breaks apart in water. What does "C" represent?

A) Chloride ion B) Dissociation C) Water molecule D) Sodium ion E) Salt crystal

192.4) The sodium chloride molecule breaks apart in water. What does "E" represent (the process)? A) Chloride ion B) Dissociation C) Water molecule D) Sodium ion E) Salt crystal

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193)

193.1) Phospholipids are important components of the plasma membrane. What does "A" represent on the diagram? A) Phosphorus B) Oxygen C) Nitrogen D) Polar (hydrophilic) region E) Nonpolar (hydrophobic) region

193.2) Phospholipids are important components of the plasma membrane. What does "B" represent on the diagram? A) Phosphorus B) Oxygen C) Nitrogen D) Polar (hydrophilic) region E) Nonpolar (hydrophobic) region

193.3) Phospholipids are important components of the plasma membrane. What does "C" represent on the diagram?

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A) Phosphorus B) Oxygen C) Nitrogen D) Polar (hydrophilic) region E) Nonpolar (hydrophobic) region

193.4) Phospholipids are important components of the plasma membrane. What does "D" represent on the diagram? A) Phosphorus B) Oxygen C) Nitrogen D) Polar (hydrophilic) region E) Nonpolar (hydrophobic) region

193.5) Phospholipids are important components of the plasma membrane. What does "E" represent on the diagram? A) Phosphorus B) Oxygen C) Nitrogen D) Polar (hydrophilic) region E) Nonpolar (hydrophobic) region

194) True or False? The term mass describes the material that makes up all living and nonliving things. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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195)

True or False? Synthesis reactions are also called catabolic reactions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

196) True or False? The importance of O2 in the human body is to extract energy (ATP) from food molecules. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 02_13e_ VanPutte 1) A 2) B 3) B 4) B 5) B 6) D 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) C 12) E 13) B 14) B 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) C 19) E 20) B 21) B 22) E 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) B Version 1

27) A 28) D 29) C 30) B 31) E 32) B 33) B 34) C 35) D 36) B 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) A 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) B 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) C 52) C 53) E 54) B 55) B 56) B Version 1

57) A 58) E 59) C 60) D 61) B 62) C 63) E 64) E 65) A 66) D 67) C 68) A 69) A 70) C 71) A 72) E 73) C 74) D 75) D 76) B 77) B 78) C 79) A 80) C 81) B 82) E 83) D 84) E 85) C 86) B Version 1

87) D 88) A 89) E 90) B 91) C 92) C 93) B 94) C 95) D 96) E 97) A 98) D 99) E 100) A 101) E 102) B 103) D 104) B 105) D 106) B 107) C 108) C 109) D 110) C 111) B 112) E 113) D 114) C 115) E 116) B Version 1

117) A 118) C 119) C 120) B 121) D 122) A 123) C 124) B 125) D 126) E 127) D 128) B 129) B 130) C 131) A 132) B 133) D 134) B 135) C 136) C 137) A 138) D 139) E 140) E 141) B 142) C 143) A 144) A 145) D 146) A Version 1

147) C 148) A 149) A 150) C 151) A 152) A 153) A 154) A 155) E 156) C 157) B 158) B 159) E 160) E 161) A 162) B 163) C 164) B 165) D 166) B 167) C 168) B 169) E 170) A 171) A 172) A 173) A 174) A 175) A 176) B Version 1

177) A 178) A 179) C 180) A 181) B 182) A 183) A 184) A 185) A 186) D 187) A 188) A 189) B 190) A 191) Section Break 191.1) E 191.2) A 191.3) D 191.4) C 191.5) B 192) Section Break 192.1) E 192.2) D 192.3) A 192.4) B 193) Section Break 193.1) D 193.2) E 193.3) C 193.4) A Version 1

193.5) B 194) FALSE 195) FALSE 196) TRUE

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CHAPTER 3 1) In intestinal epithelial cells, Na+ is in higher concentrations outside of the cells. This gradient provides the energy for the symport of glucose into the cells. Which of the following explain how this transport mechanism works. (Check all that apply.) A) Active transport of sodium out of the cell B) Active transport of sodium into the cell C) Carrier mediated transport of glucose into the cells D) Carrier mediated transport of sodium into the cell E) Active transport of potassium out of the cell

Check all of the major hypotheses of aging. A) Damage to mitochondria B) Damage to the DNA from free radicals C) Damage to lysosomes D) Presence of a "cell death clock" E) Presence of "death genes"

Check all that occur at the cellular level as a result of aging. A) Cells experienceincreased metabolic functions. B) Cells experience adecreased ability to maintain homeostasis. C) The process ofcell division becomes faulty, resulting in a greater risk for cancer. D) The risk for unsuccessful completion of sex cell division and maturation decreases.

The structural and functional unit of all living organisms is the_________blank.

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A) ribosome B) cell C) organ D) organelle E) plasma membrane

All of the chemical reactions within a cell are known as cell_________blank. A) reproduction B) metabolism C) communication D) inheritance E) movement

6) Cells produce and respond to chemical and electrical signals as a means of_________blank. A) communicating B) metabolizing C) reproducing D) synthesizing E) using energy

The lower limit of resolution of a light microscope is_________blank.

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A) 100μm B) 0.1μm C) 10μm D) 0.01μm E) 1.0μm

Which of the following could be used to study general features of cells? A) A magnifying glass B) Scanning electron microscope C) Transmission electron microscope D) Binoculars E) Light microscope

Which of the following is NOT true of a transmission electron microscope (TEM)? A) The limit of resolution is about 0.1μm. B) Electrons are passed through the specimen. C) It gives the clearest three-dimensional images. D) The specimen must be fixed in plastic. E) The electron beam is focused with electromagnets.

10)

In order to study in detail the anatomy of internal cell parts, it would be best to use

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A) x-rays. B) flashlights. C) a transmission electron microscope (TEM). D) tissue cultures. E) a scanning electron microscope (SEM).

11)

Which of the following activities is a function of the plasma membrane? A) Digestion of unneeded cell organelles B) Recognition of bacterial cells by the immune system C) Transport of products from the nucleus to the endoplasmic reticulum D) Cell metabolism E) Detoxification

12)

The plasma membrane A) separates the nucleus from the rest of the cell. B) is a rigid protein membrane. C) is not permeable. D) has a single layer of phospholipids. E) regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell.

13) The environment outside the plasma membrane is most appropriately referred to as_________blank.

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A) intracellular B) extracellular C) multicellular D) centrocellular E) None of the choices are correct.

14)

Glycolipids would contain both lipids and_________blank. A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) electrolytes D) cholesterol E) amino acids

15)

The main components of the plasma membrane are A) carbohydrates,ions, and lipids. B) lipids andions. C) proteins and carbohydrates. D) proteins, lipids,and carbohydrates. E) ions,lipids, and proteins.

16) The collection of carbohydrates, glycolipids, and glycoproteins of the plasma membrane is called the_________blank.

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A) fluid mosaic B) extracellular membrane C) intercellular fluid D) phospholipid E) glycocalyx

17) When a sperm cell comes into contact with an egg cell, there is a change in the electrical charge across the plasma membrane and various channel proteins close. These channels would be called_________blank channels. A) open-gated B) voltage-gated C) chemical-gated D) ligand-gated E) nongated ion

18)

Plasma membrane phospholipids A) have polar (charged) tails. B) are arranged in a single layer. C) have tails that face the exterior of the membrane. D) are 95% cholesterol. E) have a hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails.

19)

Plasma membrane phospholipids

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A) have nonpolar fatty acid tails. B) form a bilayer. C) have polar phosphate heads. D) create a selectively permeable barrier. E) All of the choices are correct.

20)

The second most abundant of the lipids in the plasma membrane is/are_________blank. A) glycolipids B) saturated fats C) cholesterol D) phospholipids E) triglycerides

21)

The predominant lipid in the cell membrane is a_________blank. A) phospholipid B) glycolipid C) cholesterol D) prostaglandin E) triglyceride

22)

The fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane suggests that A) cholesterol forms the outermost layer of the membrane. B) proteins form a "liquid" sea in the membrane. C) phospholipids form a single lipid layer in the center of the membrane. D) the membrane isneither rigid nor static in structure. E) proteins are not a part of the membrane.

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23)

According to the most current model of the plasma membrane, A) cholesterol forms the innermost layer of the membrane. B) proteins are freeto move about within a double layer of phospholipids. C) phospholipids and cholesterol form a single lipid bilayer. D) the membrane is a rigid unchanging structure. E) the membrane is impermeable to all other molecules.

24)

Membrane proteins that extend into the lipid bilayer are called_________blank. A) peripheral proteins B) extrinsic proteins C) integral proteins D) glycoproteins E) lipoproteins

25)

Channel proteins A) are binding sites for other molecules. B) utilize the G protein complex to function. C) are found only on endoplasmic reticulum. D) allow cells to recognize one another. E) provide a tunnelthrough which ions or molecules can enter or leave the cell.

26) Molecules that serve as chemical signals to open or close gated ion channels are_________blank.

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A) isotopes B) ligands C) responders D) communicators E) membrane potentials

27)

Cells that respond to ligands A) possess receptor sites for specific ligands. B) generally produce the ligands. C) have lysosomes that destroy the ligands. D) are using electrical signals in cellular communication. E) are not functional.

28) Communication between cells occurs when chemical messengers from one cell bind to_________blank on another cell. A) channel proteins B) receptorproteins C) marker molecules D) second messengers E) integrins

29)

Membrane-bound receptors

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A) are small, lipid soluble molecules. B) have their receptor sites on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. C) can interact with DNA in the nucleus. D) do not exhibit specificity. E) have no effect on the cell.

30) Communication between cells is essential to coordinate the activity of the trillions of cells that make up the human body. Which of the following is/are directly involved in carrying out communication between cells? A) Lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane B) Receptor proteins of the plasma membrane C) Chemical signal molecules released by cells D) Mitochondria E) Both "Receptor proteins of the plasma membrane" and "Chemical signal molecules released by cells" are correct.

31) Which type of membrane proteins have an exposed site on the outer cell surface that can attach to a ligand? A) Marker molecules B) Channel protein C) Receptor proteins D) Enzymes E) Carrier proteins

32) Which type of membrane proteins are integral proteins that move ions or molecules across plasma membrane?

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A) Marker molecules B) Channel protein C) Receptor proteins D) Enzymes E) Carrier proteins

33)

Which type of membrane proteins form a passageway through the plasma membrane? A) Marker molecules B) Channel protein C) Receptor proteins D) Enzymes E) Carrier proteins

34)

Which type of membrane proteins allow cells to identify one another? A) Marker molecules B) Channel protein C) Receptor proteins D) Enzymes E) Carrier proteins

35) Which type of membrane proteins can catalyze chemical reactions on the inner or outer surfaces of the plasma membrane?

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A) Marker molecules B) Channel protein C) Receptor proteins D) Enzymes E) Carrier proteins

36)

Which type of attachment proteins attach cells to extracellular molecules? A) Ligands B) Integrins C) Adherins D) Cadherins

37)

Which of the following is NOT a G-protein complex protein? A) Delta B) Gamma C) Alpha D) Beta E) None of the choices are correct.

38)

Which of the following is NOT true of G-protein complex action? A) Stimulates a cell by means of extracellular chemical signals B) Stimulates a cell by opening ion channels in the plasma membrane C) Stimulates a cell by means of intracellular chemical signals D) Stimulates a cell by activating enzymes associated with the plasma membrane E) Acts as an intermediate between a receptor and other cellular proteins

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39)

Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched with its function? A) Channel proteins – are part of an intercellular communication system B) Marker molecules – are primarily steroids C) Receptor proteins – attach to ligand molecules D) Peripheral proteins – penetrate the lipid bilayer from one surface to the other E) Nongated ion channels – are always closed

40)

Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched with its description?

A) Channel proteins – catalyze chemical reactions inside the cell B) Cell identity molecules – are primarily steroids C) Receptor proteins – move specific ions or molecules using ATP D) Peripheral proteins – penetrate the lipid bilayer from one surface to the other E) Carrier proteins – move bound ions or molecules from one side of the membrane to the other

41) Which type of transport proteins use cell energy to move molecules across the plasma membrane? A) Cadherins B) Ligand-gated ion channels C) ATP-poweredpumps D) Leak-ion channels

42)

A symporter will transport_________blank across the plasma membrane.

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A) two different ions or molecules in opposite directions B) two different ions or molecules in the same direction C) two of the same ions or molecules in the same direction D) one specific ion or molecule E) two of the same ions or molecules in opposite directions

43)

In_________blank, ions or molecules move in opposite directions. A) symport B) uniport C) antiport D) comport E) ionport

44) In general, water-soluble molecules diffuse through the_________blank; and lipidsoluble molecules diffuse through the_________blank. A) membrane channels; membrane channels B) membrane channels; lipid bilayer C) lipid bilayer; membrane channels D) lipid bilayer; lipid bilayer E) None of the choices are correct.

45)

The plasma membrane is selectively permeable. This means

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A) only gases and water can pass through it. B) substances need permission to pass through it. C) only certain substances can pass through it. D) substances need carrier molecules to pass through it. E) ATP is always needed to move molecules across the plasma membrane.

46)

Vitamin A, a fat-soluble vitamin, would move across the plasma membrane into the cell A) in vesicles. B) through vitamin membrane channels. C) by dissolving in the lipid bilayer. D) by transport with carrier molecules. E) by active transport.

47) Which of the following statements concerning membrane transport across the plasma membrane is true? A) Polar molecules are transported more easily than nonpolar molecules. B) Lipid-soluble substances pass through the membrane by dissolving in the lipid bilayer. C) Water cannot move through the membrane. D) Generally, cations pass through the membrane more easily than anions. E) All molecules are moved across by active transport.

48) A group of cells was treated with a proteolytic (protein-digesting) enzyme. Which of the following processes would be least affected by this treatment?

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A) Diffusion of Na+ through membrane channels B) Diffusion of lipid-soluble molecules through the plasma membrane C) Use of carrier molecules in facilitated diffusion D) Sodium-potassium exchange pump E) Secondary active transport

49) The aroma of cookies baking in the kitchen reaches you in the living room. The distribution of this odor throughout the house is an example of_________blank. A) active transport B) dialysis C) osmosis D) filtration E) diffusion

50)

In the process of diffusion, net movement of substances is always from a region A) outside the cell to a region inside the cell. B) inside the cell to a region outside the cell. C) of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration. D) of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. E) None of the choices are correct.

51)

Which of the following will increase the rate of diffusion?

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A) An increase in the viscosity of the solvent B) An increase in the temperature C) An increase in the molecular weight of the diffusing particles D) An increase in the distance the molecules have to travel E) All of the choices are correct.

52) The movement of a substance from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called_________blank. A) active transport B) diffusion C) endocytosis D) facilitated diffusion E) osmosis

53) Salt was added to a beaker of distilled water (the water was not stirred). A sample taken from the bottom of the beaker was found to be 20% salt. At the same time, a sample taken from the top of the beaker was found to be 2% salt. After 24 hours A) the difference in the percentage of salt between the top and bottom samples would increase. B) the percentage of salt in the top and bottom samples would be approximately equal. C) the samples would still be 2% and 20% respectively. D) the salt would float to the top. E) None of the choices are correct.

54) The movement of oxygen from the alveoli of the lungs into the bloodstream is an example of_________blank.

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A) diffusion B) osmosis C) active transport D) bulk transport E) facilitated diffusion

55)

Osmosis is the diffusion of_________blank across a selectively permeable membrane. A) urea B) oxygen C) water D) sodium E) sugar

56) Solution A contains 5 grams of sugar per liter while solution B contains 2 grams of sugar per liter. The solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. If the solvent in both solutions is water, predict in which direction most of the water molecules will move. A) Most of the water will move by simple diffusion from solution A to solution B. B) Most of the water will move by osmosis from solution B to solution A. C) Most of the water will move by active transport from solution B to solution A. D) Most of the water will move by filtration from solution A to solution B. E) There will be no movement of water.

57)

The greater the concentration of a solution, the greater the

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A) tendency for water to diffuse from the solution. B) osmotic pressure of the solution. C) number of carrier molecules present. D) amount of solvent. E) rate of facilitated diffusion.

58)

A red blood cell that is placed in a hypertonic solution A) loses water. B) gains water. C) floats. D) ruptures. E) neither gains nor loses water.

59)

If 0.9% NaCl (saline) solution is isotonic to a cell, then a 0.5% saline solution A) is hypertonic to the cell. B) will cause crenation of the cell. C) is hypotonic to the cell. D) will shrink the cell. E) will not affect the cell.

60) be

If a 0.9% NaCl (saline) solution is isotonic to a cell, then a solution of 3.5% NaCl would

Version 1

A) hypertonic to the cell. B) isotonic to the cell. C) hypotonic to the cell. D) catatonic to the cell. E) All of the choices are correct.

61) A patient in a burn center is monitored carefully for systemic dehydration. This is because extensive skin damage results in evaporation of fluid from the surface of burned areas. As a result of the evaporation process, cells will tend to_________blank. A) shrink. B) swell. C) rupture. D) first swell and then resume their original shape. E) remain unchanged.

62) A runner produced hypotonic sweat while running a marathon in hot weather then, after the race, drank large volumes of water. As a result of this water intake, body cells will_________blank. A) shrink. B) swell. C) crenate. D) shrivel. E) not change.

63) The movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane is called_________blank.

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A) active transport B) diffusion C) endocytosis D) facilitated diffusion E) osmosis

64) _________blank pressure is the force required to prevent the movement of water by osmosis across a selectively permeable membrane. A) Hydration B) Hydrolic C) Osmotic D) Fluid E) Filtration

65)

Which of the following would increase the rate of mediated transport? A) Increase the number of available carrier molecules B) Change the shape of the binding site on the carrier molecule C) Increase the number of competitive molecules D) Fill all binding sites on carrier molecules E) Remove the binding site on the carrier molecule

66) A particular membrane transport process exhibits saturation, uses carrier molecules, but does NOT require ATP. The process is probably_________blank.

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A) active transport B) facilitated diffusion C) osmosis D) pinocytosis E) phagocytosis

67) Which of the following are consistent with facilitated diffusion? (1) Movement is against a concentration gradient (2) Movement is with a concentration gradient (3) Involves a carrier molecule (4) Involves cotransport (5) Involves counter transport (6) Exhibits competition and saturation A) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 B) 2, 3, 6 C) 2, 3, 5, 6 D) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 E) 2, 3, 4, 6

68)

Which of the following would increase the maximum rate of facilitated diffusion? A) Increase the concentration gradient of the transported molecule to the saturation point B) Decrease the concentration gradient of the transported molecule C) Increase the concentration of the competitive molecules D) Increase ATP synthesis E) None of the choices are correct.

69)

Active transport

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A) follows osmotic pressure gradients. B) can move substances along their concentration gradient. C) does not require metabolic energy (ATP). D) involves vesicle formation. E) requires ATP.

70)

Which of the following is NOT consistent with active transport? A) Movement is against a concentration gradient B) Movement is with a concentration gradient C) Involves a carrier D) Exhibits competition and saturation E) Uses cell energy

71)

Which transport process requires a carrier molecule but does not use cellular energy? A) Active transport B) Diffusion C) Endocytosis D) Facilitated diffusion E) Osmosis

72) The movement of molecules against their concentration gradient is called_________blank.

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A) active transport B) diffusion C) endocytosis D) facilitated diffusion E) osmosis

73) Cyanide stops the production of ATP. Which of the following processes would be affected? A) Simple diffusion B) Osmosis C) Active transport D) Facilitated diffusion E) Filtration

74)

The sodium-potassium pump located in the plasma membrane A) actively transports potassium into cells. B) osmotically moves sodium into cells. C) actively transports water out of cells. D) moves chlorine out of cells. E) actively transports sodium into cells.

75)

Which of the following events occurs in the secondary active transport of glucose?

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A) Na+ ionsand glucose are cotransported by the same carrier molecule. B) The Na+-K+ pump maintains a Na+ concentration gradient across the plasma membrane. C) Energy comes fromdiffusion of Na+ down their concentration gradient. D) Glucose is movedagainst its concentration gradient into the cell. E) All of the choices are correct.

76) Certain cells in the liver ingest bacteria and debris from damaged cells by a process called_________blank. A) pinocytosis B) phagocytosis C) biocytosis D) diffusion E) exocytosis

77)

Pinocytosis A) is a form of exocytosis. B) involves ingestion of liquids rather than particles. C) does not require ATP. D) forms vesicles only when large amounts of material are being transported. E) does not require the formation of vesicles.

78)

Endocytosis

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A) is movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane. B) is a process that requires a carrier molecule but does not use cellular energy. C) is the bulk uptake of material through the plasma membrane by vesicle formation. D) moves material out of the cell. E) ends cell functions.

79)

White blood cells engulf foreign particles by means of_________blank. A) macrocytosis B) pinocytosis C) exocytosis D) phagocytosis E) prestocytosis

80) All of the following processes can move substances out of a cell EXCEPT_________blank. A) exocytosis B) osmosis C) active transport D) phagocytosis E) diffusion

81) Arrange the following events of exocytosis in the correct sequence: (1) Vesicle membrane fuses with plasma membrane (2) Secretory vesicles migrate to plasma membrane (3) Vesicle contents are expelled from cell (4) Secretions accumulate within secretory vesicles

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A) 2, 1, 4, 3 B) 1, 4, 2, 3 C) 3, 1, 4, 2 D) 4, 2, 1, 3 E) 1, 2, 3, 4

82)

Receptor-mediated endocytosis A) does not need ATP; the receptors supply the energy. B) exhibits specificity. C) occurs if oxygen is available. D) is a type of passive transport. E) moves materials out of the cell.

83)

The bulk uptake of material by the formation of a vesicle is called_________blank. A) active transport B) diffusion C) endocytosis D) facilitated diffusion E) osmosis

84)

Cytoplasm is found A) in thenucleus. B) outside the nucleus but inside the plasma membrane. C) in the cisternae of the endoplasmic reticulum. D) on the cristae of the mitochondria. E) between the phospholipids in the plasma membrane.

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85)

The cytoplasm is made up of_________blank. A) cytosol B) cytogel C) organelles D) Both "cytosol" and "organelles" are correct. E) Both "cytogel" and "organelles" are correct.

86)

Which of the following cell structures is CORRECTLY matched with its function? A) Nucleolus – contains the genetic material of the cell B) Microtubules – cell support C) Mitochondria – protein synthesis D) Smooth ER – ATP production E) Ribosome – energy production

87)

The cytoskeleton consists of A) lipochromes, microfilaments, and microtubules. B) actin filaments, mitochondria, and intermediate filaments. C) microfilaments, mitochondria, and lipochromes. D) microtubules, actin filaments, and intermediate filaments. E) ribosomes, the nucleus, and the Golgi apparatus.

88)

Absence of a cytoskeleton might affect

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A) cell shape. B) the number of channel proteins in the plasma membrane. C) the ability of the cell to generate energy. D) vesicle formation. E) membrane transport.

89)

Microtubules A) are the smallest components of the cytoskeleton. B) contain the protein myosin. C) provide structure and support to the cytoplasm. D) are solid, supporting rods of protein. E) are a component of mitochondria.

90)

Which of the following is NOT an example of a cytoplasmic inclusion? A) Lipochrome B) Hemoglobin C) Actin filaments D) Melanin E) Lipid droplets

91)

Of the organelles listed, which one does NOT contain microtubules? A) Cilia B) Flagella C) Centrioles D) Microvilli E) All of the choices contain microtubules.

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92)

Organelles A) are extracellular structures. B) are unspecialized portions of a cell. C) generally lack membranes. D) vary in number and type depending on cell function. E) are structural, but not functional parts of the cell.

93)

The "control center" of the cell is the_________blank. A) nucleus B) ribosome C) mitochondrion D) plasma membrane E) endoplasmic reticulum

94)

Which of the following events occurs in the nucleus? A) ATP synthesis B) Ribosomal proteins formed C) Chromatin condenses to form chromosomes D) Production of phospholipids E) None of the choices are correct.

95)

Which of the following structures is found in the nucleus?

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A) Cristae B) Cytosol C) Cisternae D) Chromosome E) Flattened membrane sacs

96)

Which organelle contains chromosomes? A) Nucleus B) Ribosomes C) Lysosomes D) Smooth ER E) Centrioles

97)

Which mature cells do not have a nucleus? A) Columnar cells of upper respiratory tract B) Sperm cells C) Columnar cells of small intestines D) Red blood cells E) Macrophages (large, mobile white blood cells)

98)

The nucleus of a cell functions to A) digest lipids. B) produce ATP. C) produce secretory vesicles. D) control and coordinate cellular activities. E) synthesize proteins.

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99)

In the nucleus, DNA is wrapped with proteins. This complex is called_________blank. A) chromatin B) cytoplasmic organelles C) DNA particles D) nucleoli E) a DNA wrap

100)

In which structure are subunits of ribosomes manufactured? A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) Nucleolus D) Peroxisomes E) Flagellum

101)

Nucleoli A) are located in the cytoplasm. B) produce ribosomal subunits. C) have a distinct membrane. D) are important for the formation of the Golgi apparatus. E) regulate movement of materials into the nucleus.

102)

Which of the following correctly matches a nuclear structure with its function?

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A) Chromosomes – contains RNA and histones B) Nuclear envelope – contains the nucleolar organizer C) Nuclear pores – allow molecules to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm D) Chromatin – fluid portion of the nucleus E) Nucleolus – DNA synthesis

103)

The_________blank contains the genetic information of the cell. A) nucleolus B) ribosome C) nucleoplasm D) nucleus E) nucleosome

104) If a toxic drug inhibited mRNA synthesis, which of the following would be most directly affected? A) Protein synthesis B) Intracellular digestion C) Microtubule production D) Secretion of glycoproteins and lipoproteins E) Active transport

105)

Ribosomes are organelles responsible for

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A) protein synthesis. B) manufacturing lipids. C) cell movement and cell shape. D) packaging "cell products" for export. E) energy production.

106)

Which type of cell has abundant ribosomes? A) White blood cell, a phagocyte B) Red blood cell (transports oxygen) C) Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide D) Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP) E) Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)

107)

Cells that lack ribosomes cannot A) produce energy. B) eliminate wastes. C) engage in protein synthesis. D) package cellular products. E) ingest and phagocytize bacteria.

108)

Which organelles are the sites of protein synthesis? A) Nucleus B) Ribosomes C) Lysosomes D) Mitochondria E) Centrioles

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109) Skeletal muscle cells need large numbers of_________blank to make the many proteins they contain. A) centrosomes B) peroxisomes C) liposomes D) ribosomes E) lysosomes

110) The organelle that protects cells from the damaging effects of medications and toxins is the_________blank. A) ribosome B) microtubule C) secretory vesicle D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) mitochondria

111)

Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched? A) Mitochondria – cristae B) Golgi apparatus – cisternae C) Lysosomes – hydrolytic enzymes D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum – chromatin E) Cilia – basal bodies

112)

Which of the following organelles may or may not have ribosomes attached?

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A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) Nucleolus D) Peroxisomes E) Flagellum

113)

Endoplasmic reticulum with ribosomes attached to it is called_________blank ER. A) smooth B) dendritic C) nodular D) bumpy E) rough

114)

A cell that produces many proteins for secretion would have large numbers of A) rough ER and Golgi apparatus. B) lysosomes and Golgi apparatus. C) Golgi apparatus and microvilli. D) ribosomes and centrioles. E) mitochondria and cilia.

115) Arrange the following in correct sequence: (1) Protein moves through ER and then carried in vesicles to Golgi apparatus (2) Vesicle pinches off from the Golgi apparatus and carries product to plasma membrane (3) Golgi apparatus modifies protein and then packages them into vesicles (4) Protein made by ribosomes on rough ER

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A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 4, 1, 3, 2 C) 2, 3, 1, 4 D) 3, 2, 4, 1 E) 4, 3, 2, 1

116) If you compare a cell with a manufacturing plant that exports goods, the cell's_________blank could be compared to the manufacturing plant's shipping department. A) nucleus B) lysosome C) Golgi apparatus D) endoplasmic reticulum E) ribosome

117)

Which organelle packages materials for secretion from the cell? A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) Nucleolus D) Peroxisomes E) Flagellum

118)

The function of the Golgi apparatus is

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A) packaging and distribution of proteins and lipids. B) production of microtubules. C) excretion of excess salt. D) DNA replication. E) energy production.

119)

A toxic drug destroyed the Golgi apparatus. This would affect A) ribosomal RNA synthesis. B) intracellular digestion. C) energy production. D) microtubule production. E) packaging of glycoproteins and lipoproteins.

120)

Which cell type would have many Golgi apparatuses? A) White blood cell, a phagocyte B) Mucus cell (secretes mucus) C) Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide D) Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP) E) Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)

121)

Which type of cell would have an abundance of lysosomes? A) White blood cell, a phagocyte B) Mucus cell (secretes mucus) C) Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide D) Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP) E) Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)

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122)

Which type of cell would have an abundance of peroxisomes? A) White blood cell, a phagocyte B) Mucus cell (secretes mucus) C) Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide D) Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP) E) Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)

123) Which of the following organelles function in the destruction of nonfunctional organelles? A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Centrioles C) Basal bodies D) Lysosomes E) Mitochondria

124)

The intracellular digestive organelle of a cell is the_________blank. A) lysosome B) microtubule C) lipochrome D) rough endoplasmic reticulum E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

125)

Which organelle is a small vesicle containing oxidative enzymes?

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A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) Nucleolus D) Peroxisome E) Flagellum

126)

White blood cells digest other cells and so would be expected to A) have large numbers of lysosomes. B) possess cilia on their surfaces so they can move quickly. C) excrete excess salt as a result of all this eating. D) expel their nuclei to make room for all of the cells they eat. E) have mitochondriato energize them.

127)

Which of the following activities is associated with lysosomes? A) Exocytosis B) Intracellular support C) Destruction of nonfunctional organelles D) Energy production E) Endocytosis

128)

What is a large, active phagocytic cell? A) Columnar cells of upper respiratory tract B) Sperm cell C) Columnar cells of small intestines D) Red blood cells E) Macrophage (large, mobile white blood cell)

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129) You are looking at a cell with the electron microscope and you notice the following characteristics: presence of many mitochondria and lysosomes; few, if any, Golgi apparatus; and many ribosomes. Which of the following is the most likely function of that cell? A) Secretion of lipids B) Intracellular digestion C) DNA replication D) Modification of protein E) Absorption of nutrients

130)

The vesicles containing hydrolytic enzymes are called_________blank. A) nucleus B) ribosomes C) lysosomes D) mitochondria E) centrioles

131)

A cell with abundant peroxisomes would most likely be involved in A) secretion. B) storage of glycogen. C) detoxificationactivities. D) cellular communication. E) protein synthesis.

132) A cell that breaks down and recycles proteins would have large numbers of_________blank.

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A) rough ER B) lysosomes C) peroxisomes D) secretory vesicles E) proteosomes

133)

Which type of cell has abundant mitochondria? A) White blood cell, a phagocyte B) Mucus cell (secretes mucus) C) Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide D) Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP) E) Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)

134)

True or False? A mitochondrial disease is passed to offspring via the father. A) True B) False

135) A cell's ability to replenish ATP is reduced by a metabolic poison. Which organelle is being affected? A) Nucleus B) Centriole C) Microtubule D) Mitochondrion E) Ribosome

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136)

Experimental manipulation to increase the energy output of the cell might include A) rupturing the lysosomes in the cell. B) increasing the number of mitochondria. C) decreasing nuclear size. D) removing some of the ribosomes. E) increasing protein synthesis.

137)

Which of the following terms does NOT relate to the mitochondrion? A) Cristae B) Self-replicating C) Outer and inner membranes D) ATP E) Vitamin A storage

138) Olympic marathon runners train for several years. This endurance training causes which of the following organelles to increase in number in their muscle cells? A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum B) Enzymes for glycolysis C) Basal bodies D) Lysosomes E) Mitochondria

139)

Mitochondria

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A) contains DNA. B) have inner and outer membranes. C) have inner folds called cristae. D) are the cell's power plants. E) All of the choices are correct.

140)

Which organelle produces most of the cell's energy? A) Nucleus B) Ribosome C) Lysosome D) Mitochondrion E) Centriole

141)

A cell can meet increased energy demands by an increase in A) its overall size so it has more room to generate energy. B) the number of mitochondria. C) lysosomal enzyme and ribosome activity within the cell. D) nuclear DNA activity. E) ribosomal subunits.

142)

A cell uses centrioles in the process of A) cell division. B) energy generation. C) protein synthesis. D) RNA replication. E) nuclear centering.

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143)

The organelles involved with organization of the spindle fibers are the_________blank. A) nuclei B) ribosomes C) lysosomes D) mitochondria E) centrioles

144) The centrioles are found in a zone of cytoplasm close to the nucleus called the_________blank. A) cytogel B) cytosol C) vacuole D) centrosome E) proteasome

145)

Which type of cells are covered with microvilli for increased absorption? A) Columnar cells of upper respiratory tract B) Sperm cells C) Columnar cells of small intestines D) Red blood cells E) Macrophage (large, mobile white blood cell)

146)

At the base of each cilium is a structure called the_________blank.

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A) kinetochore B) basal body C) dynein arm D) centrosome E) None of the choices are correct.

147) The shaft of a flagellum contains_________blank microtubule doublets around its periphery. A) 2 B) 2 + 9 C) 9 D) 2+7 E) 7

148)

Cilia and flagella are distinguished from each other on the basis of A) width and numbers. B) length and numbers. C) depth and numbers. D) length and width. E) None of the choices are correct.

149)

Which of the following cell structures do not contain microtubules?

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A) Cilia B) Flagella C) Spindle fibers D) Centrioles E) All of the choices contain microtubules.

150)

Microvilli A) are extensions of the lysosomal membrane. B) function to make the cell mobile. C) are supported by microtubules. D) move the cell. E) increase the surface area of the cell.

151) Cells of the small intestine and kidney tubules have extensions called_________blank, which increase their surface area. A) cilia B) hairs C) rugae D) microvilli E) flagella

152)

Which of the following is an organelle of locomotion?

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A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) Nucleolus D) Peroxisomes E) Flagellum

153)

What is the only human cell with a flagellum? A) Columnar cell of upper respiratory tract B) Sperm cell C) Columnar cell of small intestine D) Red blood cell E) Macrophage (large, mobile white blood cell)

154)

Which of the following are ciliated cells? A) Columnar cells of upper respiratory tract B) Sperm cells C) Columnar cells of small intestine D) Red blood cells E) Macrophage (large, mobile white blood cell)

155) The transfer of information from DNA to messenger RNA (mRNA) is known as_________blank.

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A) transduction B) translocation C) translation D) transcription E) transmutation

156)

Which of the following sequences is correct? A) Translation → protein synthesis → transcription B) Transcription → translation → protein synthesis C) Transcription → protein synthesis → translation D) Translation → transcription → protein synthesis E) Protein synthesis → translation → transcription

157)

Which molecule(s) cause(s) a portion of a DNA molecule to unwind for transcription? A) RNA ploymerase B) Transcription factors C) Spliceosomes D) Poly—A tail E) 7—methylguanosine cap

158)

Transcription

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A) requires three types of RNA. B) synthesizes RNA from DNA. C) occurs at the ribosomes. D) copies information from mRNA to tRNA. E) synthesizes DNA from RNA.

159)

Translation A) requires three types of DNA. B) requires the pairing of codons on mRNA with anticodons on tRNA. C) involves synthesis of RNA from DNA molecules. D) takes place in the nucleus. E) requires replication of DNA.

160) A DNA base sequence is A T G C C G. The sequence of bases in a strand of mRNA transcribed from this sequence of bases in DNA would be A) T A C G G C. B) U T C G G U. C) U A C G G C. D) A U G C C G. E) T A G G G G.

161)

Messenger RNA

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A) is synthesized when a portion of a DNA molecule is transcribed. B) directs the synthesis of DNA. C) determines the sequence of nucleotides in the anticodons of tRNA. D) directs the synthesis of centrioles in the cytoplasm. E) is not involved in the synthesis of proteins.

162)

Which of the following molecules contains the anticodon? A) mRNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) DNA E) None of the choices are correct.

163)

The anticodon sequence GUA pairs with which of the following codons? A) CAT B) GUA C) CTU D) CAU E) CTT

164)

The structural RNA of ribosomes is a A) pre-mRNA. B) proenzyme. C) gene. D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA). E) codon.

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165)

A mRNA containing introns is a_________blank. A) pre-mRNA B) proenzyme C) gene D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) E) codon

166) If the amino acid coding region of an mRNA molecule is 1800 nucleotides (bases) in length, this molecule will contain_________blank codons. A) 400 B) 600 C) 800 D) 900 E) 1200

167)

Which of the following is NOT true of a gene? A) It is all the triplets needed to make a functional RNA or protein. B) It is a segmentof a DNA molecule. C) Each chromosome contains one gene. D) It is the functional unit of heredity. E) All of the choices are true.

168) The sequence of nucleotides in a messenger RNA molecule is needed to determine the sequence of

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A) nucleotides in a gene. B) amino acids in a protein. C) nucleotides in the anticodons of tRNA. D) codons in DNA. E) amino acids in DNA.

169)

All triplets required to code for synthesis of a protein are a_________blank. A) pre-mRNA B) proenzyme C) gene D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) E) codon

170)

Three adjacent nucleotides in mRNA are called a_________blank. A) pre-mRNA B) proenzyme C) gene D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) E) codon

171)

Posttranscriptional processing is the modification of A) proteins to form pro-proteins. B) mRNA to form tRNA. C) pre-mRNA to formfunctional mRNA. D) exons to form introns. E) DNA.

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172)

Which of the following is NOT posttranslational processing? A) Adding polysaccharide side chains to proteins B) Joining 2 or more amino acid chains C) Conversion of a pro-protein to a functional protein D) Removal of introns from pre-mRNA E) Conversion of a pro-enzyme to a functional enzyme

173) Portions of pre-mRNA that do NOT code for parts of a protein are called_________blank. A) introns B) start codons C) exons D) stop codons E) Introns, start codons, and stop codons code for parts of a protein.

174) A DNA nucleotide sequence that signals the beginning of a gene is called a_________blank. A) transcription factor B) promoter C) triplet D) terminator E) RNA polymerase

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175) Determine the sequence of the following events in a cell after exposure of the cell to a chemical signal. (1) Increased synthesis of a protein (2) The chemical signal combined with a cytoplasmic receptor (3) An increase in the nuclear concentration of the chemical (4) An increase in mRNA synthesis (5) Genes are activated A) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 B) 2, 4, 5, 3, 2 C) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 D) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 E) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

176)

A protein that is converted to an active enzyme is a_________blank. A) pre-mRNA B) proenzyme C) gene D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) E) codon

177)

Which of the following is NOT associated with interphase? A) The centrioles duplicate. B) The cell grows. C) The cell does what it is designed to do. D) The cell does nothing but rest. E) The DNA replicates.

178)

DNA replication occurs during

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A) the G1 phase of interphase. B) telophase. C) the S phase of interphase. D) anaphase. E) metaphase.

179)

DNA replication results in two new DNA molecules. Each of these new molecules

A) has two newly synthesized strands of nucleotides. B) has one strand of nucleotides from the parent DNA and one newly synthesized strand of nucleotides. C) has two strands of nucleotides from the parent. D) has a single strand of nucleotides. E) are incomplete copies of the original.

180)

In DNA replication, A) the leading strand is formed as a continuous strand. B) new nucleotides are added at the 5' end of the growing DNA strand. C) DNA polymerase splices the short segments of the lagging strand together. D) only introns are replicated. E) the two existing strands are not used as templates.

181)

The leading strand of DNA is formed as

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A) short segments called Okazaki fragments. B) a continuous strand, adding to the 3´ end. C) a continuous strand, adding to the 5´ end. D) a template. E) soon as the lagging strand is formed.

182)

As cell division begins, DNA in the nucleus condenses to form_________blank. A) RNA B) cytosol C) genes D) chromosomes E) chromatin

183)

Mitosis forms A) two daughter cells with half the DNA of the parent cell. B) two daughter cells with the same amount of DNA as the parent cell. C) daughter cells called gametes. D) two daughter cells with twice the amount of DNA as the parent cell. E) one daughter cell and another incomplete cell.

184)

In prophase, A) the chromosomes condense, shorten, and thicken. B) the spindle fibers disappear. C) the chromosomes replicate. D) cytokinesis occurs. E) DNA is synthesized.

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185)

Which of the following events occurs during anaphase? A) Chromatin strands condense to form chromosomes. B) Chromosomes migrate to opposite poles of the cell. C) Spindle fibers are formed. D) The nuclear envelope degenerates. E) Cytokinesiscompletes.

186)

In which part of the cell cycle do chromosomes align along the equator? A) Interphase B) Prophase C) Metaphase D) Anaphase E) Telophase

187)

Cytokinesis is completed at the end of this phase. A) Interphase B) Prophase C) Metaphase D) Anaphase E) Telophase

188)

The time between cell divisions is called_________blank.

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A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) telophase

189)

Chromatin condenses and nucleoli disappear during_________blank. A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) telophase

190)

Chromosomes begin migrating towards poles of the cell during_________blank. A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) telophase

191) Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution "B" relative to the RBC?

A) Hypotonic solution B) Hypertonic solution C) Isotonic solution

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192)

What is membrane potential?

A) The electrical charge difference across the plasma membrane resulting from differences in ion concentrations inside and outside the cell B) The ability of a membrane to actively transport carbohydrates out of the cytoplasm C) The rate of ATP production and transport by mitochondria D) The ability of molecules to pass through the nuclear envelope

193) Ion movement across the plasma membrane creates an electrical charge difference known as _________blank. A) membrane potential B) extracellular glycocalyx C) respiration D) transcription E) osmosis

194)

Which molecule determines the fluidity of the plasma membrane? A) Cholesterol B) Phospholipid C) Protein

195) Large molecules move across the plasma membrane with the help or assistance of protein carriers. This type of transport is generally called _________blank.

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A) Mediated transport B) Active transport C) Passive transport D) Vesicular transport

196)

What is mediated transport? A) The movement of molecules across a plasma membrane by means of a protein carrier B) The movement of vesicles by intermediate filaments C) The process of peptide synthesis on the surface of the ribosome D) The ability of molecules to pass through the nuclear envelope

197) In one form of endocytosis a molecule binds to a specific protein on the cell surface and triggers vesicle formation and endocytosis. What type of transport is this? A) Receptor-mediated endocytosis B) Pinocytosis C) Facilitated diffusion D) Active exocytosis

198) Internal structures of a cell that carry out specialized metabolic tasks are called _________blank. A) organelles B) ribosomes C) enzymes D) cytoskeletal elements

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199) Which term describes a small generic membrane-bound structure that transports substances to the plasma membrane for release by exocytosis? A) Secretory vesicle B) Centrosome C) Chromatid D) Proteosome granule E) Organelle

200)

The process by which there is programmed cellular death is _________blank. A) apoptosis B) differentiation C) mitosis D) cleavage

201) The presence of a cellular clock, presence of "death genes," and damage to DNA or mitochondria are all hypotheses of _________blank. A) aging B) death C) differentiation D) cleavage

202)

Which of these cells would most likely have the largest number of mitochondria? A) Bone cells B) Skeletal muscle cells C) Adipocytes D) Red blood cells E) Skin cells

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203) The RNA molecule that is synthesized in the nucleus from a DNA template is_________blank. A) tRNA B) mRNA C) rRNA D) All of the choices are correct.

204) In_________blank, carrier molecules move a substance against (up) its concentration gradient. A) simple diffusion B) exocytosis C) facilitated diffusion D) active transport E) endocytosis

205) Which of these molecules is correctly matched with its method of movement through the plasma membrane? A) Lipid-soluble molecules – pass through membrane channels B) Small, water-soluble molecules (ions) – dissolve in double phospholipid layer C) Large, water-soluble molecules – transported by carrier-mediated processes D) Glucose and amino acid molecules – pass through membrane channels E) All of the choices are correctly paired.

206) If all of the peroxisomes in a cell were suddenly removed, how would this affect the cell's function?

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A) The cell would no longer be able to break down glucose. B) The cell would be unable to produce proteins. C) The cell would be unable to perform transcription. D) The cell would no longer be able to break down fatty acids, hydrogen peroxide, and amino acids. E) The cell would no longer be able to break down proteins and nucleic acids.

207) Some cancer cells have mutations in the p53 gene, often called the guardian of the genome. It normally functions to help repair damaged DNA or cause the elimination of severely altered cells. Which of the following functions is likely regulated by p53? A) Anaerobic respiration B) Translation C) Apoptosis D) Both "anaerobic respiration" and "translation" are correct.

208) An abnormal cell appears to generate too many proteins, many of which are not necessary, except in the early stages of the cell's life cycle. Which structures are most likely not functioning properly in this cell? A) Proteosomes B) Peroxisomes C) Mitochondria D) Centrioles

209) Which organelle's function would be most affected if a cell was not able to carry out exocytosis?

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A) Secretory vesicle B) Lysosome C) Proteosome D) Peroxisome

210) Which of the following membrane proteins must be an integral protein to carry out its function? A) Ion channel B) Receptor protein C) Enzyme D) Marker molecule

211) Protein A is composed of 312 amino acids. Based on this information, which of the following statements is correct? A) The gene coding for Protein A is composed of at least 936 DNA nucleotides. B) The mRNA coding for Protein A is composed of at least 936 DNA nucleotides. C) The gene coding for Protein A is composed of at least 316 RNA nucleotides. D) Both "The gene coding for Protein A is composed of at least 936 DNA nucleotides" and "The mRNA coding for Protein A is composed of at least 936 DNA nucleotides" are correct.

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212)

212.1) The cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "A"?

A) Directs cellular activities, contains DNA B) Contains digestive enzymes C) Outer boundary of cell, controls entry and exit of substances D) Major site of ATP synthesis when oxygen is available E) Site of protein synthesis

212.2) The cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "B"?

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212.3) The cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "C"?

212.4) The cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "D"?

212.5) The cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "E"?

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213)

213.1)

What structure does "A" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?

A) Membrane channel protein B) Phospholipid bilayer C) Internal membrane surface D) Peripheral protein E) Integral protein

213.2) Version 1

What structure does "B" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane? 68

A) Membrane channel protein B) Phospholipid bilayer C) Internal membrane surface D) Peripheral protein E) Integral protein

213.3)

What structure does "C" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?

A) Membrane channel protein B) Phospholipid bilayer C) Internal membrane surface D) Peripheral protein E) Integral protein

213.4)

What structure does "D" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?

A) Membrane channel protein B) Phospholipid bilayer C) Internal membrane surface D) Peripheral protein E) Integral protein

213.5)

What structure does "E" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?

A) Membrane channel protein B) Phospholipid bilayer C) Internal membrane surface D) Peripheral protein E) Receptor protein

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214)

214.1) Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution "C" relative to the RBC? A) Hypotonic solution B) Hypertonic solution C) Isotonic solution

214.2) Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is the condition of the RBC in solution "C"? A) Phagocytized B) Normal C) Coagulated D) Hemolyzed E) Crenated

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214.3) Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is the condition of the RBC in solution "B"?

A) Phagocytized B) Normal C) Coagulated D) Hemolyzed E) Crenated

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214.4) Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution "A" relative to the RBC?

A) Hypotonic solution B) Hypertonic solution C) Isotonic solution

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215)

215.1)

Answer these questions about chromosome structure. What does "A" represent?

A) Chromatid B) Proteins C) Chromosome D) Centromere E) Chromatin

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215.2)

Answer these questions about chromosome structure. What does "B" represent?

A) Chromatid B) Proteins C) Chromosome D) Centromere E) Chromatin

215.3)

Answer these questions about chromosome structure. What does "C" represent?

A) Chromatid B) Proteins C) Chromosome D) Centromere E) Chromatin

215.4)

Answer these questions about chromosome structure. What does "D" represent?

A) Chromatid B) Proteins C) Chromosome D) Centromere E) Chromatin

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 03_13e_ VanPutte 1) [A, C, D] 2) [A, B, D, E] 3) [B, C] 4) B 5) B 6) A 7) B 8) E 9) C 10) C 11) B 12) E 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) E 17) B 18) E 19) E 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) E 26) B Version 1

27) A 28) B 29) B 30) E 31) C 32) E 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) A 38) A 39) C 40) E 41) C 42) B 43) C 44) B 45) C 46) C 47) B 48) B 49) E 50) D 51) B 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) C 56) B Version 1

57) B 58) A 59) C 60) A 61) A 62) B 63) E 64) C 65) A 66) B 67) B 68) A 69) E 70) B 71) D 72) A 73) C 74) A 75) E 76) B 77) B 78) C 79) D 80) D 81) D 82) B 83) C 84) B 85) D 86) B Version 1

87) D 88) A 89) C 90) C 91) D 92) D 93) A 94) C 95) D 96) A 97) D 98) D 99) A 100) C 101) B 102) C 103) D 104) A 105) A 106) E 107) C 108) B 109) D 110) D 111) D 112) A 113) E 114) A 115) B 116) C Version 1

117) B 118) A 119) E 120) B 121) A 122) C 123) D 124) A 125) D 126) A 127) C 128) E 129) B 130) C 131) C 132) E 133) D 134) B 135) D 136) B 137) E 138) E 139) E 140) D 141) B 142) A 143) E 144) D 145) C 146) B Version 1

147) C 148) B 149) E 150) E 151) D 152) E 153) B 154) A 155) D 156) B 157) A 158) B 159) B 160) C 161) A 162) C 163) D 164) D 165) A 166) B 167) C 168) B 169) C 170) E 171) C 172) D 173) E 174) B 175) C 176) B Version 1

177) D 178) C 179) B 180) A 181) B 182) D 183) B 184) A 185) B 186) C 187) E 188) A 189) B 190) D 191) B 192) A 193) A 194) A 195) A 196) A 197) A 198) A 199) A 200) A 201) A 202) B 203) D 204) D 205) C 206) D Version 1

207) C 208) A 209) A 210) A 211) A 212) Section Break 212.1) C 212.2) D 212.3) E 212.4) A 212.5) B 213) Section Break 213.1) B 213.2) A 213.3) E 213.4) D 213.5) C 214) Section Break 214.1) A 214.2) D 214.3) E 214.4) C 215) Section Break 215.1) C 215.2) E 215.3) D 215.4) A

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CHAPTER 4 1)

Identify the embryonic germ layers. (Check all that apply.) A) Ectodem B) Endoderm C) Epiderm D) Exoderm E) Mesoderm

Indicate the functions that apply to epithelial tissue. (Check all that apply.) A) Acting as a barrier B) Connecting tissue to each other C) Contraction in response to stimulation D) Secretion of substances

Which of the following represent functions of connective tissue? (Check all the apply.) A) Communication B) Contraction C) Cushioning D) Secretion of substances E) Enclosing organs F) Insulating G) Movement of body parts

Select all of the characteristics of connective tissue. (Check all that apply.)

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A) Bind other tissues and organs together B) Create new cells from other tissues C) Involved in delivering nutrients to the tissue D) Separate tissues from each other

5) Select all examples that demonstrate how inflammation protects the body. (Check all that apply.) A) Blood vessels become more permeable and allow white blood cells to move into damaged tissue more easily. B) Clotting that occurs helps to isolate injurious agents. C) During inflammation, blood vessels dilate, increasing the delivery of white blood cells to the area. D) Inflammation allows for the formation of antibodies that will help fight infectious agents.

6) Which of the following are considered major manifestations of inflammation? (Check all that apply.) A) Edema B) Heat C) Hemorrhage D) Pain E) Redness

Select the processes that result in the repair of injured tissue. (Check all that apply.)

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