Test Bank for Psychology and Work: Perspectives on Industrial and Organizational Psychology 1st Edit

1

What are the general criteria for admitting students to a graduate program in I/O psychology?

Answer: Feedback:

2

High Grade Point Average (GPA), high Graduate Record Examinations (GRE) scores, prior research experience, strong letters of reference.

In what way was Wilhelm Wundt an important figure in the early years of I/O psychology?

Answer: Feedback:

3

The beginnings of I/O psychology can be traced to psychologists trained in Wilhelm Wundt’s lab in Germany. Hugo Munsterberg and James McKeen Cattell trained under Wundt and later moved to the U.S.—both focused on the role of individual differences in human behavior. Another trainee of Wundt named Walter Dill Scott worked in the U.S. and published a series of essays describing the application of psychology to industry.

In what ways did the U.S. Civil Rights Act of 1964 influence personnel selection procedures?

Answer: Feedback:

4

It challenged organizations to ensure that they used fair selection procedures that were also defensible in court. In addition, this legislation awakened organizations to the importance of assuring that their hiring procedures are fair and valid, but also to the broader concepts of managing diversity in organizations and on teams.

How has increased globalization influenced the field of I/O psychology?

Answer: Feedback:

5

An increase in multinational organizations has resulted in people with diverse backgrounds working together with greater regularity. This has challenged I/O psychologists to understand issues such as how to deliver training across large, geographically dispersed organizations, how to develop hiring practices that are both legal and valid across cultures, and to understand how culture affects issues such as leadership and work motivation.

In recent years, I/O psychologists have become more interested in ""big data."" What are ""big data"" and what are some challenges I/O psychologists face when working with ""big data?""

Answer: Feedback:

6

Big data generally refers to the analysis of massive datasets that include the data of thousands or millions of people. Performance measures can be gathered about thousands of employees and can be used to conduct research on how to predict which employees have the greatest potential. The challenges are determining which types of employee data are acceptable to use and what types of research studies are acceptable from an ethics standpoint.

Why were World War I and World War II important time periods in the history of I/O psychology?

Answer: Feedback:

In WWI, the Army Alpha and Army Beta exams were adapted from the StandfordBinet cognitive ability test to help select and place new recruits; the adapted exams

were in a format that allowed the army to test a large number of individuals at one time. In WWII, I/O psychologists again assisted in the selection of enlistees, and made some original developments in the use of biographical data in selection.

Contributions were also made to the training of U.S. Army personnel.

7

Identify and briefly describe two current forces that are shaping the research and practice in I/O psychology.

Answer: Feedback:

8

Changes in the nature of work: increasing automation which decreases the need for low-skills jobs, and increasing use of telework.Diversity management: workforce is increasingly diverse in terms of race, gender, ethnicity, age, and sexual orientation.Aging, age-diverse workforce: the workforce is aging, as people continue to work beyond traditional retirement ages. Humanitarian work psychology: focuses on using organizational psychology to improve the welfare of people in both wealthy and low-income nations.Occupational health psychology: focuses on topics related to worker health and safety, and integrates concepts from fields such as I/O, clinical, and counseling.I/O as a growing field: the field is the fastest growing occupation in the U.S. in terms of percent growth (BLS, 2014).

SIOP's training guidelines states that a central tenet of I/O psychology is the ______ model.

(A)

Performance-Health

(B)

Teacher-Practitioner

(C)

Research-Teaching

(D)

Scientist-Practitioner

Answer:

9

(D) Scientist-Practitioner

The first I/O psychologists were trained in ________ lab.

(A)

James McKeen Cattell's

(B)

Wilhelm Wundt's

(C)

Hugo Munsterberg's

(D)

Walter Dill Scott's

Answer:

10

(B) Wilhelm Wundt's

This area of psychology specifically focuses on improving the welfare of people in lowincome nations, as opposed to just wealthy and industrialized nations.

(A)

world psychology

(B)

humanitarian work psychology

(C)

health psychology

(D)

occupational health psychology

Answer:

(B) humanitarian work psychology

11

What are the typical responsibilities of an I/O psychologist who works in an academic job?

Answer: Feedback:

12

Conducting research.Training graduate students.Teach undergraduate and graduate classes.Engaging in internal and external service work.

Outside of an academic setting, in what type of a setting and what type of work might an I/O psychologist perform?

Answer: Feedback:

13

Private industry: conduct research and apply I/O principles.Government: support human resources functions.Military: select and train personnel.Consulting: conduct research and support human resources functions for other organizations.

Outside of an academic setting, in what type of a setting and what type of work might an I/O psychologist perform?

Answer: Feedback:

14

Private industry: conduct research and apply I/O principles.Government: support human resources functions.Military: select and train personnel.Consulting: conduct research and support human resources functions for other organizations.

What are the typical responsibilities of an I/O psychologist who works in an academic job?

Answer: Feedback:

15

Conducting research.Training graduate students.Teach undergraduate and graduate classes.Engaging in internal and external service work.

In what way was Wilhelm Wundt an important figure in the early years of I/O psychology?

Answer: Feedback:

16

The beginnings of I/O psychology can be traced to psychologists trained in Wilhelm Wundt’s lab in Germany. Hugo Munsterberg and James McKeen Cattell trained under Wundt and later moved to the U.S.—both focused on the role of individual differences in human behavior. Another trainee of Wundt named Walter Dill Scott worked in the U.S. and published a series of essays describing the application of psychology to industry.

In what ways did the U.S. Civil Rights Act of 1964 influence personnel selection procedures?

Answer: Feedback:

17

It challenged organizations to ensure that they used fair selection procedures that were also defensible in court. In addition, this legislation awakened organizations to the importance of assuring that their hiring procedures are fair and valid, but also to the broader concepts of managing diversity in organizations and on teams.

How has increased globalization influenced the field of I/O psychology?

Answer:

Feedback:

18

An increase in multinational organizations has resulted in people with diverse backgrounds working together with greater regularity. This has challenged I/O psychologists to understand issues such as how to deliver training across large, geographically dispersed organizations, how to develop hiring practices that are both legal and valid across cultures, and to understand how culture affects issues such as leadership and work motivation.

In recent years, I/O psychologists have become more interested in ""big data."" What are ""big data"" and what are some challenges I/O psychologists face when working with ""big data?""

Answer: Feedback:

19

Big data generally refers to the analysis of massive datasets that include the data of thousands or millions of people. Performance measures can be gathered about thousands of employees and can be used to conduct research on how to predict which employees have the greatest potential. The challenges are determining which types of employee data are acceptable to use and what types of research studies are acceptable from an ethics standpoint.

Why were World War I and World War II important time periods in the history of I/O psychology?

Answer: Feedback:

20

In WWI, the Army Alpha and Army Beta exams were adapted from the StandfordBinet cognitive ability test to help select and place new recruits; the adapted exams were in a format that allowed the army to test a large number of individuals at one time. In WWII, I/O psychologists again assisted in the selection of enlistees, and made some original developments in the use of biographical data in selection.

Contributions were also made to the training of U.S. Army personnel.

Identify and briefly describe two current forces that are shaping the research and practice in I/O psychology.

Answer: Feedback:

21

Changes in the nature of work: increasing automation which decreases the need for low-skills jobs, and increasing use of telework.Diversity management: workforce is increasingly diverse in terms of race, gender, ethnicity, age, and sexual orientation.Aging, age-diverse workforce: the workforce is aging, as people continue to work beyond traditional retirement ages. Humanitarian work psychology: focuses on using organizational psychology to improve the welfare of people in both wealthy and low-income nations.Occupational health psychology: focuses on topics related to worker health and safety, and integrates concepts from fields such as I/O, clinical, and counseling.I/O as a growing field: the field is the fastest growing occupation in the U.S. in terms of percent growth (BLS, 2014).

What are the general criteria for admitting students to a graduate program in I/O psychology?

Answer: Feedback:

22

High Grade Point Average (GPA), high Graduate Record Examinations (GRE) scores, prior research experience, strong letters of reference.

An I/O psychologist would be qualified to investigate all of the following EXCEPT: (A)

how personality characteristics influence work behavior

(B)

how to best diagnose clinical disorders and offer therapy to employees

(C)

how individuals’ work affects their home life

(D)

how culture influences people's perceptions of their working environments

Answer: 23

______ refers to situations in which workers work from a remote location away from a work site or standard office.

(A)

Telework

(B)

Coworking

(C)

Satellitework

(D)

Peripheral spcialization

Answer: 24

(A)

efficient and effective performance management systems.

(B)

psychometrically sound worker assessments.

(C)

fair and valid selection procedures.

(D)

cost effective human resource management.

(C) fair and valid selection procedures.

An I/O psychologist would be qualified to investigate all of the following EXCEPT: (A)

how personality characteristics influence work behavior

(B)

how to best diagnose clinical disorders and offer therapy to employees

(C)

how individuals’ work affects their home life

(D)

how culture influences people's perceptions of their working environments

Answer:

26

(A) Telework

The U.S. Civil Rights Act of 1964 led I/O psychologists to place more of an emphasis on:

Answer:

25

(B) how to best diagnose clinical disorders and offer therapy to employees

(B) how to best diagnose clinical disorders and offer therapy to employees

______ refers to situations in which workers work from a remote location away from a work site or standard office.

(A)

Telework

(B)

Coworking

(C)

Satellitework

(D)

Peripheral spcialization

Answer: 27

The U.S. Civil Rights Act of 1964 led I/O psychologists to place more of an emphasis on: (A)

efficient and effective performance management systems.

(B)

psychometrically sound worker assessments.

(C)

fair and valid selection procedures.

(D)

cost effective human resource management.

Answer:

28

(A)

employee resumes stored in secured filing cabinets

(B)

applications submitted electronically

(C)

employees trained via online materials and trainers

(D)

applicant testing administered online and scored immediately

(A) employee resumes stored in secured filing cabinets

Sarah investigated the role of different levels of vibrations in the work environment, and how varying levels of vibrations might impact the productivity of assembly line workers. In her initial study, she had two conditions: low level of vibration and high level of vibration. To her surprise, participants in both conditions demonstrated nearly equal levels of productivity. When reviewing her notes from the study, it occurred to Sarah that research assistants were standing and ob (A)

Hawthorne Effect

(B)

Bystander Effect

(C)

Diffusion of Responsibility

(D)

Social Loafing

Answer: 30

(C) fair and valid selection procedures.

Which of the following is NOT a characterstic of the high-tech HR era?

Answer:

29

(A) Telework

(A) Hawthorne Effect

_______ used motion pictures to conduct time-and-motion studies aimed at understanding the most efficient ways to do work.

(A)

Hugo Musterberg

(B)

Walter Dill Scott, Frederick Taylor

(C)

Frank Gilbreth, Lillian Gilbreth

(D)

Wilhelm Wundt

Answer:

(C) Frank Gilbreth, Lillian Gilbreth

31

These I/O psychologists trained under Wilhelm Wundt and later moved to the U.S. Both focused on the role of individual differences in human behavior.

(A)

Walter Dill Scott, Frederick Taylor

(B)

Hugo Munsterberg, James McKeen Cattell

(C)

Frederick Taylor, James McKeen Cattell

(D)

Frank Gilbreth, Lillian Gilbreth

Answer: 32

The Hawthorne Effect refers to situations in which: (A)

research participants behave in a certain way because they know they are part of a study.

(B)

researchers investigate a psychological phenomenon that they have personally faced.

(C)

researchers are biased in favor of the organization over the worker.

(D)

research participants believe the researcher is colluding with the organization.

Answer:

33

(A)

Lillian Gilbreth

(B)

Frank Gillbreth

(C)

Walter Dill Scott

(D)

Frederick Taylor

(A) Lillian Gilbreth

This area of psychology specifically focuses on improving the welfare of people in lowincome nations, as opposed to just wealthy and industrialized nations.

(A)

world psychology

(B)

humanitarian work psychology

(C)

health psychology

(D)

occupational health psychology

Answer:

35

(A) research participants behave in a certain way because they know they are part of a study.

_______ is often cited as the first person to receive a Ph.D. in industrial psychology.

Answer:

34

(B) Hugo Munsterberg, James McKeen Cattell

(B) humanitarian work psychology

Sarah investigated the role of different levels of vibrations in the work environment on productivity. In her study there are two conditions: low level of vibration and high level of vibration. To her surprise, participants in both conditions demonstrated equal levels of productivity. When reviewing notes from the study, Sarah realized that her assistants were standing and observing participants where participants could see the researchers. The most likely reason for the unexpected results is:

(A)

Hawthorne Effect

(B)

Bystander Effect

(C)

Diffusion of Responsibility

(D)

Social Loafing

Answer: 36

Which of the following is NOT a characterstic of the high-tech HR era?

(A)

employee resumes stored in secured filing cabinets

(B)

applications submitted electronically

(C)

employees trained via online materials and trainers

(D)

applicant testing administered online and scored immediately

Answer:

37

(A)

Hawthorne Effect

(B)

Bystander Effect

(C)

Diffusion of Responsibility

(D)

Social Loafing

(A) Hawthorne Effect

_______ used motion pictures to conduct time-and-motion studies aimed at understanding the most efficient ways to do work.

(A)

Hugo Musterberg

(B)

Walter Dill Scott, Frederick Taylor

(C)

Frank Gilbreth, Lillian Gilbreth

(D)

Wilhelm Wundt

Answer: 39

(A) employee resumes stored in secured filing cabinets

Sarah investigated the role of different levels of vibrations in the work environment, and how varying levels of vibrations might impact the productivity of assembly line workers. In her initial study, she had two conditions: low level of vibration and high level of vibration. To her surprise, participants in both conditions demonstrated nearly equal levels of productivity. When reviewing her notes from the study, it occurred to Sarah that research assistants were standing and ob

Answer: 38

(A) Hawthorne Effect

(C) Frank Gilbreth, Lillian Gilbreth

These I/O psychologists trained under Wilhelm Wundt and later moved to the U.S. Both focused on the role of individual differences in human behavior.

(A)

Walter Dill Scott, Frederick Taylor

(B)

Hugo Munsterberg, James McKeen Cattell

(C)

Frederick Taylor, James McKeen Cattell

(D)

Frank Gilbreth, Lillian Gilbreth

Answer:

40

The Hawthorne Effect refers to situations in which: (A)

research participants behave in a certain way because they know they are part of a study.

(B)

researchers investigate a psychological phenomenon that they have personally faced.

(C)

researchers are biased in favor of the organization over the worker.

(D)

research participants believe the researcher is colluding with the organization.

Answer:

41

(A)

Lillian Gilbreth

(B)

Frank Gillbreth

(C)

Walter Dill Scott

(D)

Frederick Taylor

(A) Lillian Gilbreth

The first I/O psychology textbook was written by: (A)

James McKeen Cattell

(B)

Wilhelm Wundt

(C)

Hugo Munsterberg

(D)

Walter Dill Scott

Answer:

43

(A) research participants behave in a certain way because they know they are part of a study.

_______ is often cited as the first person to receive a Ph.D. in industrial psychology.

Answer: 42

(B) Hugo Munsterberg, James McKeen Cattell

(C) Hugo Munsterberg

SIOP's training guidelines states that a central tenet of I/O psychology is the ______ model.

(A)

Performance-Health

(B)

Teacher-Practitioner

(C)

Research-Teaching

(D)

Scientist-Practitioner

Answer: 44

The first I/O psychologists were trained in ________ lab.

(A)

James McKeen Cattell's

(B)

Wilhelm Wundt's

(C)

Hugo Munsterberg's

(D)

Walter Dill Scott's

Answer:

45

(D) Scientist-Practitioner

(B) Wilhelm Wundt's

The first I/O psychology textbook was written by: (A)

James McKeen Cattell

(B)

Wilhelm Wundt

(C)

Hugo Munsterberg

(D)

Walter Dill Scott

Answer:

(C) Hugo Munsterberg

1

If the correlation between two variables is .90, this indicates that there is a: (A)

strong positive association between the variables

(B)

strong negative association between the variables

(C)

weak positive association between the variables

(D)

no relationship between the variables

Answer: 2

Chang-qin developed a new measure designed to assess individuals' organizational identity. In a measure validation study, he finds that, as expected, the measure is not related to individuals' cognitive ability or emotional stability. This finding would illustrate which type of validity?

(A)

convergent

(B)

discriminant

(C)

face

(D)

content

Answer:

3

4

(A) strong positive association between the variables

(B) discriminant

In 2015, Sarah analyzed data from the 2010 U.S. Census in order to examine the relationship between education level and income. This source of data may best be labeled: (A)

naturalistic

(B)

case study

(C)

archival

(D)

meta-analysis

Answer:

(C) archival

When researchers want to evaluate and integrate quantitative findings across many studies, they use this research method. For instance, researchers may want to find the “true” relationship between job satisfaction and job performance, so they pull together all of the known studies investigating that particular relationship and then calculate a sample-size-weighted average of all of the correlations between job satisfaction and job performance. To which refer method does this refer?

(A)

field study

(B)

experimental design

(C)

meta-analysis

(D)

analysis of variance

Answer:

(C) meta-analysis

5

What is the difference between a field study and laboratory study?

(A)

A field study is conducted in heavily controlled artificial settings; a laboratory study is conducted in real organizations with real workers

(B)

A laboratory study is conducted in heavily controlled artificial settings; a field study is conducted in real organizations with real workers

(C)

A field study relies on inductive reasoning and introspection; a laboratory study relies on deductive reasoning and extrospection

(D)

A laboratory study relies on inductive reasoning and introspection; a field study relies on deductive reasoning and extrospection

Answer:

6

(B) A laboratory study is conducted in heavily controlled artificial settings; a field study is conducted in real organizations with real workers

Target is the second largest discount retail company in the U.S., and Google is a technology company that specializes in Internet-related products and services. When leaders at Target review a case study conducted at Google, they should be cautious when basing any decisions or interventions off of the Google case study. Why should the leaders at Target be cautious?

(A)

Google is a different company in a different industry with unique circumstances that may not generalize to Target.

(B)

Google is too similar to Target in terms of its workforce and industry.

(C)

Google and Target likely share the same customer base.

(D)

Google and Target are both U.S-based companies.

Answer:

7

(A) Google is a different company in a different industry with unique circumstances that may not generalize to Target.

A key difference between an interval scale and a ratio scale is: (A)

an interval scale has equal intervals; a ratio scale does not

(B)

a ratio scale has equal intervals; an interval scale does not

(C)

an interval scale has a true zero point; a ratio scale does not

(D)

a ratio scale has a true zero point; an interval scale does not

Answer:

8

(D) a ratio scale has a true zero point; an interval scale does not

Identify and briefly describe two current forces that are shaping the research and practice in I/O psychology.

Answer: Feedback:

Changes in the nature of work: increasing automation which decreases the need for low-skills jobs, and increasing use of telework.Diversity management: workforce is increasingly diverse in terms of race, gender, ethnicity, age, and sexual orientation.Aging, age-diverse workforce: the workforce is aging, as people continue to work beyond traditional retirement ages. Humanitarian work psychology: focuses on using organizational psychology to improve the welfare of people in both wealthy and low-income nations.Occupational health psychology: focuses on topics related to

worker health and safety, and integrates concepts from fields such as I/O, clinical, and counseling.I/O as a growing field: the field is the fastest growing occupation in the U.S. in terms of percent growth (BLS, 2014).

9

Why were World War I and World War II important time periods in the history of I/O psychology?

Answer: Feedback:

10

In WWI, the Army Alpha and Army Beta exams were adapted from the StandfordBinet cognitive ability test to help select and place new recruits; the adapted exams were in a format that allowed the army to test a large number of individuals at one time. In WWII, I/O psychologists again assisted in the selection of enlistees, and made some original developments in the use of biographical data in selection.

Contributions were also made to the training of U.S. Army personnel.

In recent years, I/O psychologists have become more interested in ""big data."" What are ""big data"" and what are some challenges I/O psychologists face when working with ""big data?""

Answer: Feedback:

11

Big data generally refers to the analysis of massive datasets that include the data of thousands or millions of people. Performance measures can be gathered about thousands of employees and can be used to conduct research on how to predict which employees have the greatest potential. The challenges are determining which types of employee data are acceptable to use and what types of research studies are acceptable from an ethics standpoint.

How has increased globalization influenced the field of I/O psychology?

Answer: Feedback:

12

Sean assessed organizational commitment by measuring how many times individuals smiled while working. Another researcher, however, argued that the number of times a person smiles at work is not a good measure of organizational commitment. In fact, the other researcher said that smiling at work is probably an indicator of job satisfaction and positive affect. The other researcher in this situation was disputing the ________ of the organizational commitment measure.

(A)

construct validity

(B)

reliability

(C)

content validity

(D)

criterion-related validity

Answer: 13

An increase in multinational organizations has resulted in people with diverse backgrounds working together with greater regularity. This has challenged I/O psychologists to understand issues such as how to deliver training across large, geographically dispersed organizations, how to develop hiring practices that are both legal and valid across cultures, and to understand how culture affects issues such as leadership and work motivation.

(A) construct validity

An I/O psychologist investigates the relationship between test length and test performance. After randomly assigning 100 workers to two conditions, she finds that workers who take longer tests receive higher test scores than workers who take shorter tests. The independent variable in this scenario is:

(A)

test performance

(B)

test length

(C)

number of participants

(D)

random assignment

Answer: 14

Dr. Dostoyevsky, an I/O psychologist, found that as job satisfaction increases, employee absenteeism decreases significantly. This is an example of a ____________ correlation.

(A)

positive

(B)

negative

(C)

nonlinear

(D)

bimodal

Answer:

15

(A)

analysis of variance

(B)

experimental design

(C)

meta-analysis

(D)

quasi-experimental design

(C) meta-analysis

The reliability of a test relates to its _____________, whereas the validity of a test relates to its _____________.

(A)

accuracy; generalizability

(B)

applicability; consistency

(C)

accuracy; consistency

(D)

consistency; accuracy

Answer: 17

(B) negative

Dr. Woolf is attempting to draw a general conclusion about the influence of job satisfaction on productivity by quantitatively synthesizing the results from a number of studies. Which statistic is she most likely using?

Answer: 16

(B) test length

(D) consistency; accuracy

Karl conducted an experimental study in which he randomly assigned participants to one of three conditions: room with dim lighting, room with normal lighting, and room with bright lighting. While the participants were in the room, he administered to them a timed multiplication test. What type of statistical test would be most appropriate to analyze the difference in means across the conditions?

(A)

correlation

(B)

t-test

(C)

ANOVA

(D)

meta-analysis

Answer:

(C) ANOVA

18

Rocio manipulates the level of stress that participants are exposed to, such that one group of 50 participants are randomly assigned to a low stress condition and another group of 50 participants are randonly assigned to a high stress condition. She later measures the participants' performance on a memory test. What is the independent variable (IV) in this example?

(A)

level of stress

(B)

number of participants

(C)

performance on the memory test

(D)

random assignment

Answer:

(A) level of stress

19

A researcher is interested in the effects of temperature on concentration. In a laboratory setting, the researcher randomly assigns participants to three temperature conditions: (a) 55 degrees, (b) 65 degrees, and (c) 75 degrees. Participants in each condition are instructed to complete a Sudoku puzzle as quickly as they can. To operationally define concentration, the researcher times how long it takes participants to complete the puzzle. The experiment runs participants through (A)

lighting

(B)

time of day

(C)

temperature

(D)

concentration

Answer: 20

Which of the following refers to the degree to which a measure is consistent over time?

(A)

Inter-Rater Reliability

(B)

Test-Retest Reliability

(C)

Criterion-Related Validity

(D)

Internal Consistency Reliability

Answer:

21

(D) concentration

(B) Test-Retest Reliability

__________ refers to the degree to which a measure is free of random error (and therefore more precise).

(A)

Reliability

(B)

Validity

(C)

Generalizability

(D)

Utility

Answer: 22

(A) Reliability

Which entity reviews and governs the research process at a university?

(A)

University Research Committee (URC)

(B)

Institutional Review Board (IRB)

(C)

Agency for Ethical Research (AER)

(D)

American Psychological Association (APA)

Answer:

23

(B) Institutional Review Board (IRB)

Observational methods involve: (A)

manipulation of an independent variable

(B)

random assignment to groups or conditions

(C)

measurement of participants on two variables

(D)

control group

Answer:

24

(C) measurement of participants on two variables

In what ways did the U.S. Civil Rights Act of 1964 influence personnel selection procedures?

Answer: Feedback:

It challenged organizations to ensure that they used fair selection procedures that were also defensible in court. In addition, this legislation awakened organizations to the importance of assuring that their hiring procedures are fair and valid, but also to the broader concepts of managing diversity in organizations and on teams.

1

The acronym "KSAO" stands for: (A)

Knowledge, Selection, Applicability, Other characteristics

(B)

Knowledge, Selection, Abilities, Other characteristics

(C)

Knowledge, Skills, Applicability, Other characteristics

(D)

Knowledge, Skills, Abilities, Other characteristics

Answer: 2

For a KSA criticality survey: (A)

a sample of SMEs rates each task identified by the job analysts from interviews in terms of criticality

(B)

a sample of SMEs document the degree to which the KSAOs really are needed to do the tasks

(C)

a job analyst documents examples of critical situations faced by job incumbents, examples of good and poor ways to handle them, and the results

(D)

a job analyst describes the general characteristics needed in jobs in an organization, especially within a series of jobs or across a range of jobs

Answer:

3

(A)

performance appraisal

(B)

task analysis

(C)

comparable worth

(D)

needs assessment

(C) comparable worth

The structure of a task statement should include the following elements: (A)

action verb, object, purpose

(B)

knowledge, skill, ability

(C)

observation, rating

(D)

competency, behavior, analysis

Answer: 5

(B) a sample of SMEs document the degree to which the KSAOs really are needed to do the tasks

A ________ assessment focuses on pay difference for different jobs that are traditionally associated with men versus those traditionally associatd with men.

Answer:

4

(D) Knowledge, Skills, Abilities, Other characteristics

(A) action verb, object, purpose

What is the difference between a job description and job specification?

Answer:

Feedback:

6

Job description: A simplified and abbreviated form of the information identified in a job analysis (usually 1-2 pages in length); can be provided to employees so that they might understand their main responsibilities.Job specification: Similar to a job description but instead provides a relatively brief overview of the characteristics needed to do a job; can include the minimum qualifications.

Clara works as a sale associate in large clothing retail store. While she has many different duties, one of her most critical tasks is to make the clothing displays look inviting and organized for customers. To do so, she folds each article of clothing and places it neatly on the display table. Given this information, write a task statement that encapsulates the information above.

Answer: Feedback:

7

Folds and places (action verbs) clothing neatly on the display table (object) to make the clothing look inviting and organized for customers (purpose).

In order to assess and assure the quality of job analysis data, what can a job analyst do?

Answer: Feedback:

8

Estimate accuracy of job analysis data: reliability of job analysis data (e.g., interrater reliability/agreement). Detect and remove SMEs who are providing poor ratings: use carelessness indices; select good SMEs; be especially careful when developing KSAO statements (as compared to task statements) due to typically lower reliability.Improve quality of SME ratings through training.

In the context of job evaluation, what is the primary difference between internal equity and external equity?

Answer: Feedback:

9

Internal Equity: fairness of relative pay values within the organization.External Equity: fairness of pay relatively to outside market forces.

Why might it be advantageous for an organization to use competency modeling to define jobs across countries? In this same context, why might competency modeling be challenging?

Answer: Feedback:

10

Potential challenge: Highly dependent on the culture/values of the organization.Potential advantage: Focuses on showing how the organization’s goals/values are reflected on the job, and thus may be helpful in transmitting organization’s goals/values across different parts of the organization.

Describe a potential advantage and a potential disadvantage of using the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) as the basis of a job analysis.

Answer: Feedback:

Advantages: Pre-made (“off-the-shelf”); does not require creating extensive lists of tasks or KSAOs from scratch; allows comparisons across jobs to look for differences; provides information about the relative value of jobs for making pay decisions.Disadvantages: Does not provide great detail about jobs, as it uses the 195 fairly generic descriptives; requires a fairly high reading level (college level), which can require the job analyst to complete the PAQ him/herself after interviewing SMEs about the job.

11

What are two ways in which the critical incidents technique provides value for key HR functions?

Answer: Feedback:

12

Can generate rich information that can be used to develop:Performance appraisal forms Work-related scenarios for trainingWriting interview and test questions for selection

Describe the general process for conducting a task-KSA analysis.

Answer: Feedback:

13

LeRoy uses the critical incidents technique to describe the characteristics of an office manager's job. Which job analysis framework is he most likely employing?

(A)

work-oriented

(B)

worker-oriented

(C)

job evaluation

(D)

competency modeling

Answer:

14

(A) work-oriented

For this job analysis data collection method, it is essential that a large number of employees participate.

(A)

survey

(B)

archival search

(C)

ride along

(D)

interview

Answer:

15

(a) Assemble List of tasks and KSAOs; (b) Conduct task and KSAO criticality survey; (c) Drop tasks and KSAOs with low mean (not critical) and high standard deviation (SMEs disagree); (d) Conduct linkage survey to assure that KSAOs are needed to perform the critical job tasks; (e) Determine final list of critical tasks and KSAOs.

(A) survey

Catherine conducts a job analysis on the job of police lieutenant at a local police precinct. As part of her data gathering process, Catherine accompanies a job incumbent for a full shift to observe what he does out in the field. Catherine's method of job analysis data collection can best be described as a(n): (A)

survey

(B)

archival search

(C)

ride along

(D)

interview

Answer:

(C) ride along

16

__________ is a systematic process for gathering information on important work- and worker-related elements of a job.

(A)

Job design

(B)

Job analysis

(C)

Job validity

(D)

Job reliability

Answer: 17

Jenn works as an administrative assistant at the headquarters for a large trucking company, while Julian works as a truck driver for the same company. They both work approximately 40 hours a week. Jenn, however, makes $35,000/year while Julian makes $55,000/year. Their respective salaries are representative of other employees who work in those jobs. Recently, Jenn lodged a complaint with management, as she contends that while the job of a truck driver and that of an a (A)

are benchmark jobs

(B)

demonstate external equity

(C)

are the same

(D)

have comparable worth

Answer:

18

(D) have comparable worth

Violet works as a job analyst. She has been asked to conduct new job analyes for key jobs at a local organization. The organization would ultimately like Violet to create several situational judgment tests based on the information gathered in the job analysis process. As such, it is necessary for Violet to document examples of important situations faced by job incumbents, good and poor ways to handle those situations, and the results of those situations. Given the requirements of the (A)

critical incidents technique

(B)

task-KSA analysis

(C)

competency modeling

(D)

functional job analysis

Answer:

19

(B) Job analysis

(A) critical incidents technique

When conducting a job analysis survey, it is important to collect data from a _____ number of employees.

(A)

very small

(B)

small

(C)

large

(D)

It doesn't matter how many employees complete the survey.

Answer: 20

________ involves describing the general characteristics needed in jobs in an organization-- especially within a series of jobs or across a range of jobs--and in accordance with an organization's goals, values, and/or culture.

(A)

competency modeling

(B)

functional job analysis

(C)

critical incidents technique

(D)

task-KSA analysis

Answer:

21

(A)

Job Design

(B)

Job Evaluation

(C)

Training

(D)

Selection

(B) Job Evaluation

One reason for conducting a job evaluation is to improve _______, which refers to the fairness of relative pay values within an organization.

(A)

benchmark jobs

(B)

compensable factors

(C)

external equity

(D)

internal equity

Answer: 23

(A) competency modeling

Identifying compensable factors is an important step of ______________.

Answer:

22

(C) large

(D) internal equity

_________ is the first step towards performing a job evaluation.

(A)

job design

(B)

job analysis

(C)

job validity

(D)

needs assessment

Answer:

(B) job analysis

24

Job analysis plays an important role in the process of choosing and developing valid _______ procedures to hire new people.

(A)

performance appraisal

(B)

recruitment

(C)

selection

(D)

training

Answer: 25

(C) selection

A medium-sized organization has received a lot of complaints about its pay structure.

For instance, employees in the research and development department argue that their work is worth more to the organization than the work of sales persons, yet the research and development employees are paid less compared to the sales persons.

This situation illustrates that there is most likely a problem with the organization's: (A)

internal equity

(B)

external equity

(C)

benchmark jobs

(D)

competency modeling

Answer:

26

(A) internal equity

A thorough and rigorous job analysis plays an important role in the process of developing _______ interventions by conducting a thorough needs assessment.

(A)

performance appraisal

(B)

recruitment

(C)

selection

(D)

training

Answer: 27

(D) training

As a type of job analysis, what does the job element method entail? Describe whether the method is work or worker-oriented and briefly describe the process of conducting a job analysis using this approach.

Answer: Feedback:

The Job Element Method is a worker-oriented method designed to specify the worker characteristics (elements) needed to do a job. After elements are identified, they are further specified into sub-elements. The method largely skips over the explicit definition of job tasks and instead focuses on describing worker characteristics. It is a good option for situations when a great deal of information is needed for what is actually done on the job.

1

A company set up a series of surveillance cameras around the building to monitor employees after office supplies went missing. Upon reviewing the videotapes, a human resource manager found that an employee named Jordan was stealing printer toner cartridges from the copy room every Monday morning. What type of behavior did Jordan demonstrate?

(A)

task performance

(B)

organizational citizenship behavior

(C)

abseenteeism

(D)

counterproductive work behavior

Answer: 2

Congratulating a coworker on a job well done mostly likely represents: (A)

contextual performance

(B)

adaptive performance

(C)

task performance

(D)

proactive performance

Answer:

3

(A) contextual performance

Kate works at an advertising firm. Her primary goal and the goal of her coworkers is to generate as many unique ideas as possible when brainstorming for a new adverstising campaign. What dimension of job performance would best capture this aspect of their work?

(A)

creative performance

(B)

adaptive performance

(C)

task performance

(D)

contextual performance

Answer: 4

(D) counterproductive work behavior

(A) creative performance

Xander previously conducted a job analysis for the job of an administrative assistant.

After identifying the core tasks and associated KSAs, Xander developed four actual criterion measures intended to capture the job performance domain of an administrative assistant. He now intends to use these four actual criterion measures to evaluate the effectiveness of a new training initiative for administrative assistants.

Xander decides that he will use a ______ approach and compute the sum of admini (A)

subjective-measure

(B)

criterion-composite

(C)

objective-measure

(D)

multiple-criteria

Answer: 5

(B) criterion-composite

What are criterion measures, and why are they important?

Answer: Feedback:

6

Criterion measures are outcome variables that capture performance or effectiveness of an employee or group of employees. It is important to conceptualize, operationalize, and measure job performance and other work outcomes in order to evaluate the effectiveness of organizational interventions, such as: selection procedures, training programs, and safety practices.

How do actual criteria differ from conceptual criteria?

Answer: Feedback:

7

Conceptual criteria are concepts or abstract ideas of the “essence” of a job—not something we can measure directly. We can use job analysis to get a better understanding of a job by collecting KSAOs and job behaviors, but we can never fully capture the entire essence of a job.Actual criteria are the measures actually used to try and capture the conceptual criterion. All actual criterion measures are flawed in some way because they have some degree of error.

What are two major problems associated with measuring job performance?

Answer: Feedback:

8

1) Never certain whether a job has been accurately and completely specified to determine the conceptual criterion (via job analysis).2) To capture conceptual criteria, actual criterion measures must be used, all of which contain some error.

When choosing multiple actual criterion measures that are intended to overlap with the same conceptual criterion, what is an important consideration?

Answer: Feedback:

9

It is important to choose actual criteria that overlap as much as possible with the conceptual criterion, but not with each other—in other words, choose actual criteria that are not redundant with each other. Ideally, we want each actual criterion to capture a unique aspect of the conceptual criterion. We don’t want a situation where the actual criterion measures substantially overlap with each other.

What are two characteristics of good actual criterion measures?

Answer: Feedback:

10

High reliabilityDetect differences among employeesAccepted by employees and supervisorsNot too costly or disruptive

Provide an example of a situation (real or hypothetical) in which it would be preferable to use a multiple-criteria approach (as opposed to a composite-criteria approach).

Answer: Feedback:

Example: The separate criterion measures are not highly correlated. In a training intervention, the unique criterion measures might respond differently to the training intervention, such that some might increase slowly over time, others might increase rapidly over time, and still others might stay the same. Creating a composite out of these criterion measures might result in an incomplete picture of what, specifically, the training is impacting and how.

11

Describe one challenge associated with using objective measures of performance.

Answer: Feedback:

12

Objective measures may be partially beyond the control of the employee. For instance, the number of sales made could depend upon the health of the economy. In addition, the number of units produced could depend upon the quality of the machinery or technology to produce them.

Given the respective challenges associated with both subjective and objective measures of performance, what should an organization do to measure performance?

Answer: Feedback:

13

The developers of a test aimed at assessing integrity discovered that their test inadvertently includes items that overlap with other concepts such as social desirability and general cognitive ability. Based on this information, one could conclude that the test aimed at assessing integrity demonstrates _______.

(A)

composite criteria

(B)

criterion deficiency

(C)

criterion contamination

(D)

objective measures

Answer:

14

(C) criterion contamination

Of the following, which is NOT a subjective criterion measure: (A)

customer satisfaction

(B)

sales revenue

(C)

supervisor ratings

(D)

coworker ratings

Answer:

15

The best strategy is to use multiple types of job performance measures that can complement each other in terms of strengths and weaknesses. For example, objective measures may compensate for some of the biases inherent in subjective performance ratings. And subjective ratings may compensate for some of the factors that are not captured by objective ratings.

(B) sales revenue

An HR consultant decides to combine three different criteria by calculating the average score across these three criteria for each employee. The HR consult has created a(n) _______.

(A)

objective measure

(B)

singular criterion

(C)

multiple criteria

(D)

criterion composite

Answer: 16

Donna is behind on an imminent deadline. Specifically, she has to write a 50-page financial report that is due in just two days—and she hasn’t even started yet. A colleague of Donna named Tori notices that Donna is really stressed out as she tries to meet the looming deadline. To help relieve Donna’s stress and to help Donna meet her deadline, Tori picks up a warm meal and coffee to give Donna extra energy and to lift her spirits. In addition, Tori provides Donna with verbal encourag (A)

organizational citizenship behavior

(B)

counterproductive work behavior

(C)

adaptive behavior

(D)

agreeableness

Answer:

17

(A)

degree to which the actual criterion overlaps with the conceptual criterion

(B)

degree to which actual criterion fails to overlap with the conceptual criterion

(C)

degree to which actual criterion includes something it should not, leading to error

(D)

difficulty of completely and accurately capturing performance with the actual criterion measures

(A) degree to which the actual criterion overlaps with the conceptual criterion

Aftering collecting job analysis data, Rahsaan found that computer programming knowledge was a key KSAO for a particular job. As his goal was to create a new selection procedure for the job, he developed a timed knowledge test aimed at assessing applicants' computer programming knowledge. What type of measure is Rahsaan's timed knowledge test?

(A)

conceptual criterion

(B)

objective measure

(C)

composite criterion

(D)

actual criterion

Answer: 19

(A) organizational citizenship behavior

Criterion relevance refers to:

Answer: 18

(D) criterion composite

(D) actual criterion

_____ is the plural form of the word criterion.

(A)

criterions

(B)

criteria

(C)

criteriones

(D)

criterias

Answer: 20

During a rigorous job analysis, an overarching goal is to gain a better understanding of the "essence" of a job, which cannot be measured directly. In other words, the job analyst strives to understand more completely which KSAOs and behaviors define the job. What is the term that best represents this?

(A)

job outcome

(B)

work characteristics

(C)

conceptual criterion

(D)

actual criterion

Answer:

21

(A)

degree to which the actual criterion overlaps with the conceptual criterion

(B)

degree to which actual criterion fails to overlap with the conceptual criterion

(C)

degree to which actual criterion includes something it should not, leading to error

(D)

difficulty of completely and accurately capturing performance with the actual criterion measures

(D) difficulty of completely and accurately capturing performance with the actual criterion measures

Ben has been training for a 400 meters running race. During practice sessions, his times for completing 400 meters usually range from 52 seconds to 55 seconds. In a recent race, he ran 400 meters in 49 seconds. Ben's race time most likely represents his _______ for 400 meters.

(A)

typical performance

(B)

maximum performance

(C)

subjective performance

(D)

reliable performance

Answer: 23

(C) conceptual criterion

What is the criterion problem?

Answer:

22

(B) criteria

(B) maximum performance

Staying late to help a coworker get caught up on his/her work is an example of: (A)

contextual performance

(B)

adaptive performance

(C)

creative performance

(D)

task performance

Answer: 24

(A) contextual performance

Adaptive performance includes all of the following behaviors EXCEPT: (A)

Dealing with uncertain and unpredictable work situations

(B)

Handling work stress

(C)

Maintaing personal discipline

(D)

Handling emergencies in crisis situations

Answer:

25

(C) Maintaing personal discipline

A group of job analysis experts concluded that high levels of the personality dimension of conscientiousness is needed to be successful in an administrative assistant job. As such, the job analysts attempted to develop a paper-and-pencil questionnaire to assess applicants' level of conscientiousness. They, however, found that they were unable to capture the entirety of the conscientiousness concept using their newly developed questionnaire. The job analysts' questionnaire mea (A)

criterion deficiency

(B)

multiple criteria

(C)

composite criterion

(D)

criterion contamination

Answer:

(A) criterion deficiency

26

______ refers to the level of performance an employee usually exhibits.

(A)

Typical performance

(B)

Optimal performance

(C)

General performance

(D)

Maximum peformance

Answer: 27

(A) Typical performance

Given that performance can change over time, what are the implications of conducting performance appraisals once a year?

Answer: Feedback:

If performance changes over time, a single time point performance evaluation may not capture a representative ""slice"" of workers' performance. It may overestimate or underestimate their true level of performance over the prior year. Further, while the average level of true performance over the course of a year may be the same two employees, one may experience an upward trajectory in performance while the other may experience a downward trajectory. By measuring only once a year, such trends may be missed, and as a result, tailored feedback and goal-setting may not be as effective.

1

Sheila supervises a group of nurses who work in an emergency department. In the past, she has only received job feedback from her direct supervisor. As part of a new development initiative, her department now requires that Sheila receive performance feedback from her direct supervisor, her subordinates, and other coworkers in her department. This type of performance feedback is best described as: (A)

360-degree

(B)

complete

(C)

comprehensive

(D)

holistic

Answer: 2

When delivering performance feedback, Erik's supervisor complimented him on how well he handled two challenging incidents with customers. His supervisor then suggested that his attention-to-detail needed improvement, as evidenced by multiple instances in which Erik entered the wrong product number into the point-of-service register system. Next, Erik's supervisor told him that his customer satisfaction scores were very high and that he should keep up the good work. What does (A)

the supervisor likes his employee

(B)

the supervisor uses the sandwich technique

(C)

the supervisor develops action plans

(D)

the supervisor uses a halo approach

Answer:

3

(B) the supervisor uses the sandwich technique

At a large Midwestern company, managers are required to place their employees into the folowing categories based on their peformance: high, medium, low. Managers must place 10% of their employees in the high performance category, 60% in the medium performance category, and 30% in the low performance category. This is an example of a(n) _____ system.

(A)

absolute appraisal

(B)

relative appraisal

(C)

objective measure

(D)

trait appraisal

Answer: 4

(A) 360-degree

(B) relative appraisal

Regular _____ can provide opportunities for managers and employees to discuss their peformance and set goals. Select the best response.

(A)

one-on-one meetings

(B)

training

(C)

diary keeping

(D)

accountability

Answer: 5

(A) one-on-one meetings

What are two things that a manager can do to help ensure that employees will perceive the performance appraisal process as fair?

Answer: Feedback:

6

Ensure a positive feedback context in which the rater and ratee have had an ongoing relationship.Rater should prepare for the meeting by gathering needed documents and ratings, as well as scheduling a private meeting space.Allow the ratee to contribute to discussion and limit the number of topics to be discussed.Use the sandwich technique for delivering feedback.Develop an action plan that describes goals for the future and what the rater and ratee will do to improve the ratee’s effectiveness.

What is the distinction between Performance Management and Performance Appraisal?

Which term is gaining more acceptance in I/O psychology today? Why? Answer: Feedback:

7

Performance appraisal connotes a singular event, while performance management implies a system of ongoing feedback, goal setting, and evaluation. Peformance management is gaining wider acceptance has it captures the goals of many top companies.

Describe one reason why employees may not view their company's performance appraisal system as useful.

Answer: Feedback:

8

Process can be policitical, such that ratings may be based influenced by factors other than performance (e.g., incentives, PA as motivational tool). Evaluation tool may not be based on a recent job analysis, and thus performance dimensions may be outdated. PA tool may be used inconsistently across employees, affecting perceptions of fairness.

According to the textbook, what are the six basic stages of a performance appraisal system?

Answer: Feedback:

9

Stage One: Design PA system with user involvement; Stage Two: Rater observes performance during year; Stage Three: Rater gives ongoing informal feedback to employee regularly along with coaching; Stage Four: Rater completes PA form when it is time for the appraisal; Stage Five: Rater and ratee discuss the PA feedback in a meeting, concluding with an action plan; Stage Six: Rater and ratee follow their action plan.

Performance appraisal can be thought of as both a cognitive process and a socialrelational process. To what do these two processes refer?

Answer: Feedback:

10

Cognitive Process: Observe performance as it occurs; Store information about performance to memory; Recall information when time to assess performance.SocialRelational Process: PA occurs within context of existing rater-ratee relation; Raters have goals beyond rating ratee objectively.

According to the textbook, what are the four main purposes of performance appraisal from the perspective of the organization? Provide an example of each purpose.

Answer: Feedback:

11

Developmental Reasons: conducted to develop future performance; Example: give employee feedback on goal-striving process and whether knew goal(s) should be set.Administrative Reasons: make decisions based on past performance; Example: use PA for determining who receives a financial incentive.Research Purposes: evaluate training effectiveness or validate selection tool; Example: develop a new training program, and look at PA ratings before and after training to see if training improved ratings.Legal Reasons: defense for organization faced with employment discrimination claim; Example: employee claims that a recent set of promotions resulted in adverse impact against a protected subgroup; organization demonstrates that the PA was developed using rigorous job analysis and that promotions were entirely job-related.

What is the primary difference between a trait appraisal and a behavior appraisal?

Name one potential problem for both types of appraisals.

Answer: Feedback:

12

Trait appraisals focus on measuring employee KSAOs, while behavior appraisals measure the frequency with which specific observable work behaviors occur. Potential problems with trait appraisals: Focus on the person rather than performance; Focus on factors that are intrinsic to the person and harder to change; Tend to increase common rating biases and errors due to vagueness of traits. Potential problems with behavior appraisals: Time-consuming to develop; Specific behaviors can result in assumption that there exists only one way to be a high performer.

In terms of the different types of performance appraisals, what is an outcome appraisal? What is an advantage of this type? What is a disadvantage?

Answer: Feedback:

13

Outcome Appraisals: focus on quantitative metrics—for example: Sales figures, Number of units produced, Level of absenteeism. Advantage: Less subject to many rating errors and perceived as fair when tied to most important elements of job.

Disadvantage: Tend to be less under employee control; May not cover all aspects of job; Can create ethical dilemmas, as they may incentivize or motivate problematic behavior.

What is an absolute appraisal rating scale? What is a relative appraisal rating scale?

State one strength and one limitation for each type of appraisal rating scale.

Answer: Feedback:

14

Absolute appraisal rating scales compare performance to pre-established criteria; strength: can provide a more meaningful indication of employee's performance in an absolute sense; limitation: may not be appropriate for making comparisons across employees. Relative appraisal rating scales compare performance of focal ratee to other ratees' performance; strength: can be useful for decision-making purposes because it forces raters to differentiate between different performers or levels of performance; limitation: becomes cumbersome as the number of ratees to be compared increases.

For the first 11 months of the fiscal year, Pablo exceeded his manager's expectations by meeting or exceeding all of his goals. In the last month of the fiscal year, however, Pablo experienced some problems at home that left him distracted at work. As a result, he failed to meet several of his goals during the month leading up to his performance appraisal meeting. During the performance appraisal meeting, Pablo's manager focuses primarily on the Pablo's peformance (A)

halo effect

(B)

contrast error

(C)

strictness error

(D)

recency error

Answer:

15

Nancy's manager views her as an exceptional employee. Nancy, however, struggles with her customer service skills–a core performance dimension for her job.

Nonetheless, Nancy's manager rates her highly across all performance dimensions during her performance appraisal, including the customer service dimension. What does this scenario most likely reflect?

(A)

halo effect

(B)

contrast error

(C)

leniency error

(D)

recency error

Answer: 16

(A)

developmental

(B)

administrative

(C)

accounting

(D)

legal

(C) accounting

All of the following are characteristics of an effective performance appraisal system EXCEPT: (A)

accurate

(B)

infrequent

(C)

practical

(D)

strategic fit with organization's objectives

Answer:

18

(A) halo effect

Performance appraisals are conducted for all of the following purposes EXCEPT:

Answer: 17

(D) recency error

(B) infrequent

As Lindy's manager, Ursula is required to observe and evaluate Lindy's performance.

Lately, Ursula has observed that Lindy has exerted a great deal of effort and persistence in achieving her goals; however, due to factors beyond her control, Lindy was unable to complete the majority of her work-related goals. Knowing this background information, Ursula decides to give Lindy a higher performance appraisal rating than she technically deserves because (a) she enjoys work (A)

automaticity

(B)

objectivity

(C)

cognitive process

(D)

social-relational process

Answer:

19

A large company uses performance appraisals to make employment-related decisions based on employees past performance.This company is conducting performance appraisals for _____.

(A)

administrative reasons

(B)

research purposes

(C)

developmental reasons

(D)

personal reasons

Answer:

20

(A) administrative reasons

_______ refers to the evaluation of employee performance based on pre-established criteria, as well as communication of this information to the employee.

(A)

compensation

(B)

selection

(C)

performance appraisal

(D)

training

Answer: 21

(D) social-relational process

(C) performance appraisal

At Lisa's company, managers complete performance appraisals twice annually for every employee. The performance appraisal form instructs managers to rate employees' level of various KSAOs, such as their honesty, perserverence, and friendliness. What type of appraisal is Lisa's company most likely using?

(A)

trait

(B)

results

(C)

outcome

(D)

behavior

Answer:

(A) trait

22

When Terren conducts a performance appraisal, she responds to five standardized questions about the focal employee's performance. She responds to each question by writing a narrative description (including specific examples) of the focal employee's performance over the last review period. This rating approach can best be classified as a(n) ________.

(A)

essay appraisal

(B)

behavior anchored rating scale appraisal

(C)

forced distribution appraisal

(D)

behavior observation scale appraisal

Answer:

23

Mark has been tasked with evaluating a new training program at his organization. As part of the evaluation process, he uses employees' performance appraisal data to assess whether their performance changed in response to the training program. Mark is using performance appraisals for _____.

(A)

administrative reasons

(B)

research purposes

(C)

developmental reasons

(D)

personal reasons

Answer: 24

(A)

trait

(B)

behavior

(C)

results

(D)

outcome

(B) behavior

The director of a large company notices that one unit manager gave all of his employees very high ratings. What rater error does this most likely reflect?

(A)

strictness

(B)

central tendency

(C)

contrast

(D)

leniency

Answer:

26

(B) research purposes

A company evaluates customer service representatives performance, in part, based on the frequency with which such employees are observed greeting customers in a friendly and professional manner. What type of appraisal does this represent?

Answer: 25

(A) essay appraisal

(D) leniency

At his company, Mario's performance evaluations are based on how many computers he assembles and how much waste he produces during the assembly process. What type of appraisal does this represent?

(A)

trait

(B)

behavior

(C)

results

(D)

outcome

Answer: 27

(D) outcome

Consider the following situation: A manager rates one employee's performance as lower than it actually is because the employee works with very high performers. What type of rater error does this represent?

(A)

strictness

(B)

central tendency

(C)

contrast

(D)

leniency

Answer: 28

(C) contrast

In a performance appraisal system, there are many different potential sources of ratings. Pick two sources and describe a potential limitation with each.

Answer: Feedback:

Manager: manager's opportunity to observe can be limited, especially when the manager and employee work in different locations; being rated by someone who rarely observes the ratee can be perceived as unfair. Peers: can be time-consuming to collect and administer, as well as difficult to maintain confidentiality.Customers: can be cumbersome to collect customer satisfaction information; customers are not required to justify their ratings and are typically anonymous, and are thus susceptible to various biases.Subordinates: challenging to collect because employees may be fearful that their ratings could be identifiable and damage their relation with the manager; can be biased by how much the subordinates personally like the manager.Self: those who have an inflated sense of their performance are least receptive to feedback. 360-degree: self-other rating discrepancies associated with more negative reactions toward appraisal feedback; administratively cumbersome.

1

The validity of personality tests can be improved by providing an "at work" frame of reference for test takers.

(A)

True

(B)

False

Answer: 2

This Big Five personality dimension includes facets such as orderliness, dutifulness, and achievement striving.

(A)

conscientiousness

(B)

extraversion

(C)

openess to experience

(D)

proactivity

Answer:

3

(A)

Structured Interviews

(B)

Unstructured Interviews

(C)

Semi-structured interviews

(D)

None of the above

(B) Unstructured Interviews

_______ refers to the tendency to recognize and act on opportunities in the environment.

(A)

conscientiousness

(B)

openness to experience

(C)

adaptability

(D)

proactive personality

Answer: 5

(A) conscientiousness

Of the following selection tools, which tends to have the lowest reliability?

Answer:

4

(A) True

(D) proactive personality

Core self-evaluations subsume the following constructs: (A)

conscientiousness, adaptability, emotional intelligence

(B)

proactive personality, adaptability, emotional intelligence

(C)

self-esteem, locus of control, self-efficacy, neuroticism

(D)

self-efficacy, openness to experience, self-esteem, conscientiousness

Answer: 6

(C) self-esteem, locus of control, self-efficacy, neuroticism

The following item would most likely be found on a(n) ______: ""I work quickly rather than paying attention to rules and details.""

(A)

personality-based integrity test

(B)

overt integrity test

(C)

adaptability test

(D)

proactive personality test

Answer:

7

(A) personality-based integrity test

____ tap into a person's preferences for certain types of work or work environments.

(A)

Vocational interests

(B)

Biodata

(C)

Assessment centers

(D)

Resumes

Answer:

8

(A) Vocational interests

Which of the following best exemplifies a psychomotor test?

(A)

test-taker makes a situationally-based judgment

(B)

test-taker completes in-basket task

(C)

test-taker completes parallel analogies

(D)

test-taker inserts pegs into boards

Answer: 9

(D) test-taker inserts pegs into boards

Of the following questions, which would be the most likely to be asked in a situational interview?

(A)

Think of a time when you were asked to find a bicycle that best fit a customer, what did you do?

(B)

If a customer asked you to find a bicycle that best fits him/her, what would you do?

(C)

How would you describe your relationship with your previous supervisor?

(D)

Do you work well under pressure?

Answer:

10

(B) If a customer asked you to find a bicycle that best fits him/her, what would you do?

Discuss the advantages and disadvantages for both paper-and-pencil tests and unproctored Internet testing.

Answer: Feedback:

11

Paper-and-pencil tests have the advantage of being scored easily. Further, they are often given in a testing center, which allows for supervision during testing and verification of identity. In many cases, however, paper-and-pencil tests require tht applicants come to the organization, which requires added resources from the organization (e.g., travel reimbursement) and from the applicant. Unproctored Internet testing gives applicants the freedom to complete a test online in the convenience of their own home or location of their choosing; or, organizations allow applicants to complete testing at a location that is away from a representative of the organization. A downside to unproctored Internet testing is that it may be difficult to verify applicants' identities.

Why is it important to differentiate between methods and constructs? What are they and how do they differ?

Answer: Feedback:

12

On the one hand, method is the approach/technique/format used to gather data. For instance, common selection methods include: structured interviews, assessment center, and paper-and-pencil tests. On the other hand, constructs refer to the concepts (or KSAOs) that are presumed to underlie job performance in a given job, as defined by a job analysis. For instance, common selection constructs include: general cognitive ability, integrity, and conscientiousness. It is important to distinguish between methods and constructs because selection tests are supposed to be job-related, and thus the appropriate job-related construct(s) should be assessed regardless of the method used. In other words, a single method can be be used to measure any number of constructs, and a single construct can be measured using a number of methods. For example, a structured interview could be designed to assess the level of applicants' conscientiousness, or it could be designed to assess the level of applicants' integrity.

What is a work sample test? What is one advantage and one disadvantage of using work sample tests?

Answer: Feedback:

13

Work sample tests assess how well an applicant does the actual job, usually by giving the applicant actual equipment and asking the to perform key tasks for the job.

Advantages: Have clear content validity; High psychological and physical fidelity.Disadvantages: Can be expensive and time intensive; Should not be used to assess job skills that applicants are expected to learn later on the job.

What is an assessment centert? What is one advantage and one disadvantage of using assessment centers?

Answer: Feedback:

14

Assessment centers put candidates for promotion to manager through a series of exercises that reflect the job. Advantages: Provide realistic context for assessing the strengths of candidates for promotion; Attractive to candidates because they really look like the job; Significant relationship with work performance; Help make decisions about promotion and provide rich feedback to candidates.Disadvantages: Relatively expensive to administer; Candidates who can correctly guess the dimensions being assessed successfully tend to do better than other candidates; Tend to show some degree of adverse impact.

What are some ways in which structure can be added to a selection interview?

Answer:

Feedback:

15

____ tests allow test-takers to go at their own pace, with no consideration for how quickly they can answer the questions.

(A)

Speed

(B)

Power

(C)

Group-administered

(D)

Cognitive

Answer: 16

(B) Power

_____ questions concerning an applicant’s education and past work and life experiences that can help decide how well the applicant can perform the job.

(A)

Work samples

(B)

Situational judgment tests

(C)

Biodata

(D)

Assessment centers

Answer:

17

(C) Biodata

____ tests require test-takers to work as quickly as possible within a short period of time.

(A)

Speed

(B)

Power

(C)

Group-administered

(D)

Cognitive

Answer:

18

Use the same, job-related questions for all applicants.Develop standardized rating scales.Note taking.Use multiple raters.Train raters.

(A) Speed

Personality refers to the ever-changing organization of a person’s characteristics.

(A)

True

(B)

False

Answer:

(B) False

Feedback:

Refers to the stable organization of a person's characteristics.

19

General cognitive ability is one of the best predictors of job performance across different types of jobs.

(A)

True

(B)

False

Answer:

20

(A) True

The validity of personality tests can be improved by providing an "at work" frame of reference for test takers.

(A)

True

(B)

False

Answer:

21

(A) True

Personality refers to the ever-changing organization of a person's characteristics.

(A)

True

(B)

False

Answer:

(B) False

Feedback:

Refers to the stable organization of a person's characteristics.

22

Integrity tests are a weak predictor of counterproductive work behaviors.

(A)

True

(B)

False

Answer:

(B) False

Feedback:

Integrity tests are a "strong" predictor…

23

A situational interview asks job-related questions about a past experiences that the applicant had.

(A)

True

(B)

False

Answer:

(B) False

Feedback:

A "behavioral interview" asks…

24

A lack of or very low levels of emotional stability is sometimes referred to as _______.

In other words, the concept of emotional stability is sometimes called by another term.

(A)

neuroticism

(B)

positive affectivity

(C)

agreeableness

(D)

conscientiousness

Answer:

(A) neuroticism

25

The following item would most likely be found on a(n) ______: ""I pay attention to details.""

(A)

integrity test

(B)

adaptability test

(C)

conscientiousness test

(D)

openness to experience test

Answer:

(C) conscientiousness test

26

In the final step of its selection procedure for a information technology position, a company places the remaining applicants at a desk with a malfunctioning computer and ask them to fix the computer. This type of selection procedure most likely represents a _____.

(A)

situational judgment test

(B)

personality test

(C)

work sample test

(D)

structured interview

Answer: 27

A hiring manager asks each applicant different questions, some of which are not necessarily job related. What type of selection procedure is the hiring manager most likely using?

(A)

structured interview

(B)

unstructured interview

(C)

personality test

(D)

biodata

Answer:

28

(C) work sample test

(B) unstructured interview

The Big Five personality dimensions are: (A)

Extraversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism, Conscientiousness, Openness

(B)

External Locus of Control, Internal Locus of Control, Positive Affectivity, Negative Affectivity, Self-Monitoring

(C)

Emotional Stability, Self-Efficacy, Self-Esteem, Internal Locus of Control, External Locus of Control

(D)

Verbal Ability, Quantitative Ability, Reasoning Ability, Spatial Ability, Perceptual Ability

Answer: 29

(A) Extraversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism, Conscientiousness, Openness

Which of the Big Five personality dimensions is the strongest and most consistent predictor of performance across a variety of job types?

(A)

Extraversion

(B)

Agreeableness

(C)

Locus of Control

(D)

Conscientiousness

Answer:

30

(D) Conscientiousness

All of the following EXCEPT _____ represent constructs.

(A)

integrity

(B)

assessment center

(C)

extraversion

(D)

proactive personality

Answer:

31

(B) assessment center

Accumulated evidence has demonstrated that general cognitive abiilty is one of the best predictors of job performance across a variety of jobs. Why is that some U.S. organizations refrain from using general cognitive ability tests or are very cautious when using them?

Answer: Feedback:

General cognitive ability tests have been demonstrated to result in adverse impact.

As such, organizations use cognitive ability tests cautiously and often in combination with other selection tools to mitigate any potential adverse impact. Finally, cognitive ability is a good indicator of what someone can do and not necessarily what they will do. Therefore, it's good practice to use other selection tools to try to anticipate a person's fit and motivation on the job.

1

Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary goals of recruitment?

(A)

Increase and maintain the diversity of applicants

(B)

Increase the quality of applicants

(C)

Increase the quantity of applicants

(D)

Increase the education level of applicants

Answer: 2

A _____ cutoff score approach sets the cutoff score as the average score scoer based on the norms of the applicant group.

(A)

norm-based

(B)

quota-based

(C)

subgroup-based

(D)

criterion-referenced

Answer:

3

(A)

personality tests

(B)

interviews

(C)

graphology

(D)

integrity tests

(B) interviews

When validity is very high (e.g., r = .90), there will be virtually zero ______ and ______.

(A)

true positives; true negatives

(B)

false positives; true negatives

(C)

true positives; false negatives

(D)

false negatives; false positives

Answer: 5

(A) norm-based

Accumulated evidence indicates that, regardless of the country, applicants react more positively to ______.

Answer:

4

(D) Increase the education level of applicants

(D) false negatives; false positives

To fill open sales positions, a company selects 130 applicants. Of those selected for the positions, 35 were Black and 95 were White. Further, in the applicant pool, there was a total of 80 Blacks and 165 Whites. What is the selection ratio for Black applicants?

(A)

0.27

(B)

0.37

(C)

0.44

(D)

0.62

Answer:

6

(C) 0.44

What are two common ways to recruit potential applicants?

Answer: Feedback:

7

Career websitesSocial networking sitesEmployee referral programsCareer fairs

What are two factors that affect potential applicant's attraction to an organization?

Answer: Feedback:

8

Characteristics of the job and of the organizationBehavior of the recruiterIndividuals’ perceptions of their potential fit in the organizationImage of the organization

Describe one potential benefit of using a multiple cutoff approach and one potential benefit of using a multiple hurdle approach.

Answer: Feedback:

9

Multiple cutoff approach: Good option for situations where administering the test and providing feedback in a timely manner is important because tests are given all at once.Multiple hurdle approach: This is an efficient and economic option because all tests are not given to every applicant.

What are the three steps in an adverse impact case? If the employer is able to show that the selection procedure is valid, what is the last recourse for the plaintiff?

Answer: Feedback:

10

In the U.S., executive orders govern the employment practices of _____.

(A)

private companies

(B)

state contractors

(C)

all organizations

(D)

federal contractors

Answer:

11

Step 1: Plaintiff demonstrates adverse impact.Step 2: Employer demonstrates test validity.Step 3: Plaintiff demonstrates other predictors were available.If the employer is able to show that the selection procedure is valid, the last recourse for the plaintiff is to show that other, equally valid selection procedures with lower adverse impact were available for the employer to use.

(D) federal contractors

Company X conducts a pen-and-paper test to select employees. The proportion of Black candidates rejected in the test, however, is unusually large in comparison to the proportion of White candidates rejected on the basis of the test. This situation would most likely be an example of:

(A)

racial discrimination

(B)

quid pro quo

(C)

adverse impact

(D)

disparate treatment

Answer:

(C) adverse impact

12

Adam and Dean graduate from the same university with the same grades. They apply for a job in a company. The company decides to hire Adam and not Dean because Dean suffers from lymphatic disorders. In this case, Dean is a victim of: (A)

adverse impact

(B)

disparate treatment

(C)

racial discrimination

(D)

quid pro quo

Answer:

13

__________ provides an organization with a pool of qualified potential job candidates.

(A)

job analysis

(B)

job design

(C)

recruitment

(D)

selection

Answer: 14

(B) disparate treatment

(C) recruitment

A selection ratio refers to: (A)

Number of individuals evaluated relative to the number of applicants in the applicant pool

(B)

Number of applicants tested relative to the number of applicants recruited

(C)

Number of individuals recruited relative to the number of applicants in the applicant pool

(D)

Number of applicants selected relative to the number of applicants in the applicant pool

Answer:

(D) Number of applicants selected relative to the number of applicants in the applicant pool

15

Content validity ___________.

(A)

relies on expert judgment

(B)

is based on statistical correlations between two measures

(C)

refers to the process of correlating a measure with some criterion

(D) Answer:

16

(A)

resumes

(B)

training and experience

(C)

cognitive ability tests

(D)

structured interview

(A)

Yes

(B)

No

(C)

Not possible to determine given the information provided

(A) Yes

A selection test can be said to have ____ content validity if the test items represent a comprehensive sampling of the conceptual criterion and very little criterion contamination.

(A)

zero

(B)

weak

(C)

strong

(D)

negative

Answer: 19

(C) cognitive ability tests

Madden Motors is concerned that its current selection system for engineers may be resulting in disparate (adverse) impact for female applicants. As an HRM consultant, you have been asked to determine whether there is evidence of disparate (adverse) impact based on last year’s selection data. The prior year’s selection data indicate that of the 100 male applicants who applied, 80 were selected; comparatively, of the 10 female applicants who applied, 6 were selected. Based on the d

Answer:

18

(A) relies on expert judgment

Of the following selection tools, which tends to be the strongest and most consistent predictor of job performance?

Answer:

17

assesses the consistency with which test items measure a single concept

(C) strong

When completing a test as part of selection battery, Siri can tell that one of the tests is definitely designed to assess her integrity. To Siri, this makes sense given that the job involves regularly handling large sums of money. For Siri, this test demonstrates ______.

(A)

high face validity

(B)

low face validity

(C)

high criterion-related validity

(D)

low criterion-related validity

Answer:

20

(A) high face validity

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) prohibits discrimination against employees over the age of ______ unless it is determined to be a business necessity.

(A)

30

(B)

40

(C)

50

(D)

60

Answer:

21

(B) 40

Define content validity, construct validity, and criterion-related validity. How are they related? How are they different?

Answer: Feedback:

Content validity refers to how well a measure samples from the theoretical construct domain it is intended to measure. Criterion-related validity refers to whether a measure predicts or relates to other measures it is expected to relate to. Construct validity refers to the degree to which we are accurately measuring what we intend to actually measure. Construct validity can be thought of as an overarching concept that subsumes the other two types of validity. Content validity has to do more so with how relevant a measure is with respect to its construct domain, while criterionrelated validity focuses on how a measure is related to other measures.

1

What is the first step in the training process? During this step the organization decides who will be trained and what needs to be trained, for example.

(A)

Evaluation

(B)

Attendance

(C)

Needs assessment

(D)

Method of training

Answer: 2

Which of the following is NOT a threat to internal validity when evaluating a training?

(A)

Maturation

(B)

Testing

(C)

Climate

(D)

Regression to the mean

Answer:

3

(C) Climate

Madden Motors is in the process of developing a new training program. The HR department wants to rigorously evaluate the effectiveness of their safety knowledge training program. Assume they have unlimited time, money, and resources to evaluate the training program. Which of the following represents the most rigorous training evaluation design?

(A)

After all employees have completed the safety knowledge training program, give all trainees a test to assess how much they learned in training.

(B)

Pick two units at Madden Motors and give them each a safety knowledge test. If both units have comparable levels of safety knowledge, send one of the two units to complete the safety knowledge training. For the other unit, do not provide them with the safety knowledge training. After one unit completes the training, give both units another safety knowledge test. Compare both units’ safety knowledge test results.

(C)

Pick two units at Madden Motors. Send one of the two units to complete the safety knowledge training. For the other unit, do not provide them with the safety knowledge training. After one unit completes the training, give both units a safety knowledge test.

Compare both units’ safety knowledge test results.

(D)

Administer a safety knowledge test to all employees. Send all employees to complete the safety knowledge training. After training, give all employees another safety knowledge test. Compare the safety knowledge test results from before and after training.

Answer:

4

(C) Needs assessment

(B) Pick two units at Madden Motors and give them each a safety knowledge test. If both units have comparable levels of safety knowledge, send one of the two units to complete the safety knowledge training. For the other unit, do not provide them with the safety knowledge training. After one unit completes the training, give both units another safety knowledge test. Compare both units’ safety knowledge test results.

Why should organizations care about training? What's at stake?

Answer: Feedback:

5

Organizations spend billions of dollars on training but don't often design evaluations or carefully consider how to design trainings.Training employees can result in positive ROI and increase employee job attitudes. Training can benefit employees, teams, organizations, and even society by increasing everyone's knowledge and competence.

What are the steps of a training needs assessment? What is the purpose of each?

Answer: Feedback:

6

Organization: assess organization factors that may affect training success.Job analysis: assess what tasks are performed and the necessary KSAs.Person analysis: assess which KSA's employees have and need.Demographic analysis: assess characteristics of trainees.

How might individual differences in trainees affect their ability to optimize their training experience?

Answer: Feedback:

7

Certain learning styles may be more conducive to certain types of training designs.Personality traits (i.e., proactive personality) may affect individual motivation, or how much effort individuals put into learning training material.Goal orientation may be a factor, depending on what the goal of the training is for the organization.

What are three factors that may affect transfer of training? Give at least three examples and explain why they are important.

Answer: Feedback:

8

Transfer climate: support needed for employees to use new KSAs on the job.Error management training: allow errors to occur during training as part of the learning process.Remove obstacles from the work environment: make sure trainees are able to actually use what they have learned on the job.

Which type of learning (spaced versus massed) is advantageous to organizations?

Answer: Feedback:

9

Both can be useful.Spaced is better for learning but may be costly, more timeconsuming, and complex in terms of logistics.Massed may not be as beneficial to learning but can be done at once and it may be the case that employees need to be trained on certain KSAs quickly.

While on-the-job training is popular and has its advantages, what are three ways in which on-the-job training could fall short of being an optimal training method?

Answer: Feedback:

10

Likely a lack of a formal training program designed according to a training needs assessment.Possible lack of consistency: employees may learn different things with the lack of a formal training program.May lack feedback, specific goals, or factors known to affect learning, and may not be evaluated.

How might motivational theories explain whether or not employees have high training motivation?

Answer:

Feedback:

11

Needs theories: employees may have different needs they are motivated to fulfill by participating in trainings.Goal-setting theory: employees may be motivated when specific, difficult goals are set by the trainer.VIE theory: employees need to believe that putting in effort will lead to desired behavior, and behavior will lead to desired rewards in order for them to be motivated in the training.

As part of your duties as a training coordinator for a large Fortune 500 company, you are asked to deliver a training to 200 new employees in five different cities over the course of 2 days. Describe at least two important decisions you might make with respect to the delivery, design, and evaluation of the training.

Answer: Feedback:

12

Training needs assessment: analyze each aspect of pre-training analysis.Delivery: programmed or recorded lecture.Provide quizzes learners can take on their own.Evaluation: questionnaires that can be administered online or easily without the presence of a trainer.

Juan has been hired to evaluate a new training program that is being administered at a large electronics retailer for new sales persons. Describe how Juan could evaluate the training program using Kirkpatrick's training evaluation framework. Provide specific examples.

Answer: Feedback:

13

Reactions: using a survey, ask participants whether they found the training useful.Learning: use short quizzes throughout the training to evaluate whether they learned the necessary KSAs.Behaviors: use observations by co-workers to assess whether employees are engaging in behaviors they learned in the training on the job.Results: assess improvements to organizational performance by determining whether sales increased for those who engaged in the training program.

What should be the first step for organizations when they want to deliver a training?

Answer: Feedback: 14

Training needs assessment

What is one factor that may affect transfer of training?

Answer: Feedback: 15

Examples: transfer climate, error management training

What are two commonly studied goal orientation types?

Answer: Feedback: 16

Learning goal orientation and performance goal orientation

What are the four levels of Kirkpatrick's training evaluation framework?

Answer: Feedback: 17

Reactions, learning, behaviors, results

Charlotte is required to take a diversity sensitivity training as a requirement for her job. She can do this by visiting a website in which modules have been prepared and quizzes created to teach about diversity sensitivity. What type of training method is this?

(A)

Simulation

(B)

On-the-job training

(C)

Programmed instruction

(D)

Lecture

Answer: 18

Laura returns from a day-long training and finds her boss would like her to forget the new skills she learned and continue to do her job just as she already had been doing.

Which term best describes this situation?

(A)

Low transfer climate

(B)

High transfer climate

(C)

Low determination climate

(D)

Low cognitive climate

Answer:

19

(A)

Person analysis

(B)

Organization analysis

(C)

Needs analysis

(D)

Evaluation analysis

(A) Person analysis

What term refers to whether training results in actual improvements on the job?

(A)

Exchange of ideas

(B)

Evaluation of needs

(C)

Motivation assessment

(D)

Transfer of training

Answer: 21

(A) Low transfer climate

Your organization has recently made a lot of new hires and they all need some degree of training on a new product. However, little is known about the abilities and knowledge of the new employees. What step in the training needs assessment may be particularly important in this scenario?

Answer: 20

(C) Programmed instruction

(D) Transfer of training

Which term refers to an individual's belief that they can succeed in training?

(A)

Self-regulatory ability

(B)

Learning self-efficacy

(C)

Competency modeling

(D)

Motivator need

Answer: 22

Which type of learning involves delivering small portions of a training over an extended period of time?

(A)

Transferred

(B)

Needs-based

(C)

Spaced

(D)

Massed

Answer: 23

(A)

Debriefing

(B)

Meta-cognition

(C)

Need satisfaction

(D)

Leadership analysis

(A) Debriefing

Executive coaching is an example of which type of training method?

(A)

Climate sensitivity

(B)

Managerial training method

(C)

Massed method

(D)

Leaderless group exercise

Answer:

25

(C) Spaced

What factor should be included especially when training is experiential, such as when it involves machine simulation?

Answer:

24

(B) Learning self-efficacy

(B) Managerial training method

Which type of training is used to educate recently hired employees on company values and policies?

(A)

New employee orientation

(B)

Diversity training

(C)

Refresher trainings

(D)

Leadership training

Answer: 26

Which of the following is NOT part of the training needs assessment?

(A)

Person analysis

(B)

Organization analysis

(C)

Leadership analysis

(D)

Demographic analysis

Answer:

27

(A)

Learning goal orientation

(B)

Satisfaction orientation

(C)

Relatedness orientation

(D)

Performance goal orientation

(A)

Learning oriented

(B)

Meta-cognitive

(C)

Physical strength

(D)

Transfer

(B) Meta-cognitive

An employee who does not want to put effort into learning the KSA's presented in a training may be suffering from low ____________________.

(A)

cognitive ability

(B)

extraversion

(C)

resource dependency

(D)

training motivation

Answer: 30

(A) Learning goal orientation

Providing assessments to trainees throughout a training may be a useful way help those individuals who may be relatively low in what type of skill?

Answer: 29

(C) Leadership analysis

Individuals with which type of goal orientation tend to emphasize knowledge gain over achievement during training?

Answer:

28

(A) New employee orientation

(D) training motivation

Which of the following is NOT factor in employee learning?

(A)

Leader personality

(B)

Feedback

(C)

Providing a schema

(D)

Over-learning

Answer: 31

Employee trainings in which a trainer demonstrates a behavior and then allows the trainees to replicate the behavior is an example of what?

(A)

Lecture

(B)

Behavior modeling training

(C)

Programmed instruction

(D)

Spaced learning

Answer:

32

(A)

Performance

(B)

Behavior

(C)

Learning

(D)

Reactions

(A) Performance

When organizations send managers offsite for a full day of training, what type of learning or training delivery is this?

(A)

Climate-based

(B)

Massed

(C)

Spaced

(D)

Repetitive

Answer: 34

(B) Behavior modeling training

Which is NOT one of Kirkpatrick's levels of training evaluation?

Answer:

33

(A) Leader personality

(B) Massed

Donna has a hard time learning material in trainings because she is not given ample opportunities to practice the new skills being taught. What type of learner best describes Donna?

(A)

Auditory

(B)

Advanced

(C)

Developing

(D)

Kinesthetic

Answer:

35

(D) Kinesthetic

What is one threat to internal validity?

Answer: Feedback:

Examples: maturation, history, testing regression to the mean

1

You have been elected as the chairperson of a fundraising effort in your community, and you will be using volunteers to gather the funds. Which theory of motivation covered in the textbook would you choose to motivate the volunteers to raise the funds? How would you apply this theory?

Answer: Feedback:

2

Many correct responses.

While needs-based theories are a useful way of conceptualizing motivation, what critiques can be said about this approach?

Answer: Feedback:

3

Difficult to measure needs or conceptualize needs accurately.Theories ignore individual cognition and emotions.The relative importance of needs is unclear (i.e., which needs are most important to motivation).

How do needs theories of motivation explain the motivation process? Give an example of one and explain how it conceptualizes motivation.

Answer: Feedback:

4

What are the two factors associated with Herzberg’s two-factor theory?

(A)

motivator; hygiene

(B)

existence, relatedness, growth

(C)

valence, instrumentality, expectancy

(D)

affiliation, power, achievement

Answer:

5

(A) motivator; hygiene

What are the needs associated with Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

(A)

Existence, Relatedness, Growth

(B)

Competence, Relatedness, Autonomy

(C)

Achievement, Affiliation, Power

(D)

Physiological, Security, Social, Esteem, Self-Actualization

Answer:

6

Needs must be fulfilled for an individual to be motivated.Maslow's hierarchy: physiological, security, social, esteem, self-actualization.5 needs, moving from lowerorder needs to higher when the lower needs are fulfilled.

(D) Physiological, Security, Social, Esteem, Self-Actualization

Acquired needs theory incorporates which of the following three needs?

(A)

Existence, Relatedness, Growth

(B)

Competence, Relatedness, Autonomy

(C)

Achievement, Affiliation, Power

(D) Answer:

7

Social, Esteem, Self-Actualization

(C) Achievement, Affiliation, Power

Evidence surrounding goal setting theory indicates that, in general, employees’ motivation is highest when they are given _________ and __________ goals.

(A)

specific; difficult

(B)

abstract; easy

(C)

abstract; difficult

(D)

specific; easy

Answer:

8

(A) specific; difficult

Gareth works as an HR professional in the manufacturing branch of a large automobile company. Currently, each worker is responsible for assembling one specific part of the car (e.g., attach doors, install transmission, etc.). In the past in order to boost productivity, the company implemented monetary incentives but found that worker productivity improved only temporarily before returning to baseline levels. As a proponent of the Job Characteristics Model, Gareth decides (A)

Provide recognition in the form of a plaque to the employee with the highest productivity at the end of each month

(B)

Introduce workers to customers whose lives were saved by the quality of the company’s cars

(C)

Allow workers to work in teams so that they can assemble a complete car from start-tofinish

(D)

Assemble workers into manufacturing teams and allow them to decide how to best distribute the workload among team members

Answer:

(B) Introduce workers to customers whose lives were saved by the quality of the company’s cars

9

Of the following core job characteristics, which refers to the discretion and freedom employees may exercise when organizing and completing their work?

(A)

task identity

(B)

skill variety

(C)

task significance

(D)

autonomy

Answer:

10

(D) autonomy

The core job characteristics of skill variety, task identity, and task significance influence the psychological state of: (A)

Perceived meaningfulness of work

(B)

Perceived responsibility for work

(C)

Perceived intensity of work

(D)

Knowledge of results

Answer:

11

(A) Perceived meaningfulness of work

What are SMART goals? How do they relate to motivation?

Answer: Feedback:

12

Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time Bound goals.Effective goals are set using these criteria.Goal-setting theory predicts these type of goals will lead to optimal performance.

While goal-setting theory has received widespread empirical support, in what ways may setting goals be related to negative outcomes?

Answer: Feedback:

13

Not meeting goals may lower self-efficacy and negatively influence future behavior.Striving for goals may encourage unethical behavior.Striving for goals may be exhausting and may deplete an employee's resources.

Expectancy theory proposes that V, I, & E are multiplied to calculate motivation. What are some practical implications of conceptualizing motivation this way?

Answer: Feedback:

14

If any factor is 0, motivation is 0.Individuals make rational calculations about each factor.No other factors affect motivation.

How does equity theory explain employee motivation?

Answer: Feedback:

15

Motivation is determined when employees compare inputs and outputs within themselves and compare them to others

What does goal-setting theory predict leads to high performance?

Answer: Feedback:

16

Specific, difficult goals will lead to higher performance, especially when feedback and commitment are utilized

Which job characteristics may affect employee motivation?

Answer: Feedback: 17

Examples: skill variety, task variety, task significance, feedback, autonomy

What do needs-based theories say about motivation?

Answer: Feedback:

Fulfilling needs drives motivation

18

Expectancy theory is what type of theory?

Answer: Feedback: 19

Process-based theory

A large nonprofit organization approaches your I/O consulting firm and asks you to help redesign jobs for new employees in order to increase their motivation. Using job characteristics theory, give three examples of what you could do to help your new client.

Answer: Feedback:

20

Task significance: recommend connecting all tasks and projects to the greater mission of the organization.Autonomy: whenever possible, encourage the organization to allow employees to complete tasks with as much freedom in their methods as possible.Skill variety: encourage the organization to design jobs that require employees to use various skills and build competencies in their positions.

It is often said that motivation pervades all issues of work studied by I/O psychologists. Give three examples that illustrate how this might be true.

Answer: Feedback:

21

Leadership: what motivates leaders to engage in effective behaviors?Job attitudes: which employees are motivated by might affect how they feel about their job.Training: employees may or may not be motivated to full dedicate themselves to learning during training.

Describe three current issues or controversies in the field of motivation.

Answer: Feedback:

22

How does motivation vary from day to day, within individuals?Are older workers more or less motivated than younger works?CEO compensation: what is an appropriate rate of compensation for CEO's?

For each of the three categories of work motivation theories (needs-based, processbased, application-based), give one example of each and describe how it relates to the main ideas behind the category it is in.

Answer: Feedback:

23

Hierarchy of needs: individuals seek to fulfill lower needs, progressing upwards, and needs fulfillment leads to motivation.VIE theory: valence, instrumentality, expectancy are cognitively calculated factors that drive motivation.Goal-setting theory: specific, difficult goals are best for motivation. This can be applied to virtually every aspect of work.

Which of the following core job characteristics refers to the degree to which a job affects the lives of other people?

(A)

feedback

(B)

autonomy

(C)

task significance

(D)

task identity

Answer: 24

According to the Job Characteristics Model, the five core job characteristics influence the following key psychological states: (A)

Skill variety, autonomy, task significance

(B)

Autonomy, social support, relatedness

(C)

Meaningfulness, knowledge of results, responsibility

(D)

Intensity, understanding, identity

Answer:

25

(A)

Self-regulation theory

(B)

Intrinsic theory

(C)

Job satisfaction theory

(D)

Acquired Needs Theory

(D) Acquired Needs Theory

When an organization provides a recognition award (e.g., gift certificate, plaque) to an employee who performs admirably, what is this an example of?

(A)

Organizational motivation

(B)

Positive reinforcement

(C)

Growth need satisfaction

(D)

Negative reinforcement

Answer: 27

(C) Meaningfulness, knowledge of results, responsibility

Which theory of motivation hypothesizes that each person is motivated by a constellation of three needs, such that the dominant need is the strongest drive of motivation?

Answer:

26

(C) task significance

(B) Positive reinforcement

Which job characteristic refers to the extent to which employees have control over their job and freedom to dictate their own approach to accomplish tasks?

(A)

Skill variety

(B)

Need satisfaction

(C)

Autonomy

(D)

Formalization

Answer:

(C) Autonomy

28

Which factor in goal setting theory refers to the determination of an individual to meet their goal?

(A)

Goal commitment

(B)

Goal growth

(C)

Organizational commitment

(D)

Extrinsic motivation

Answer: 29

Which term refers to the value a person places on a reward, according to expectancy theory?

(A)

Instrumentality

(B)

Justice

(C)

Valence

(D)

Extrinsic motivation

Answer: 30

(A)

Justice theory

(B)

Expectancy theory

(C)

Control theory

(D)

Needs theory

(B) Expectancy theory

Which theory of motivation postulates that individuals compare their inputs and outputs to those of others?

(A)

Equity theory

(B)

Self-determination theory

(C)

Transactional theory

(D)

ERG theory

Answer:

32

(C) Valence

Valence and instrumentality are factors in which theory?

Answer:

31

(A) Goal commitment

(A) Equity theory

What type of needs, according to Herzberg, theoretically lower motivation if they are not met but may not motivate when present?

(A)

Growth

(B)

Motivator

(C)

Hygiene

(D)

Relatedness

Answer: 33

Motivation that comes from within a person and is derived from tasks that are personally rewarding to them is _________ motivation.

(A)

intrinsic

(B)

extrinsic

(C)

authentic

(D)

faked

Answer: 34

(A)

intrinsic, satisfactory

(B)

direct, indirect

(C)

extrinsic, intrinsic

(D)

extrinsic, charismatic

(C) extrinsic, intrinsic

Which term is used by equity theory to refer to how much an individual prefers to receive an outcome relative to their inputs?

(A)

Control satisfaction

(B)

Equity sensitivity

(C)

Determination

(D)

Acquired sensitivity

Answer:

36

(A) intrinsic

Self-determination theory proposes that motivation ranges from fully ______ to fully _______.

Answer:

35

(C) Hygiene

(B) Equity sensitivity

Studies on goal setting theory suggest that performance can be enhanced through high levels of what factors?

(A)

Difficulty and commitment

(B)

Commitment and organization

(C)

Intelligence and commitment

(D)

Difficulty and authenticity

Answer: 37

This core job characteristic refers to employees’ perception that their job substantially influences the work, health, or well-being of other people.

(A)

feedback

(B)

autonomy

(C)

task significance

(D)

task identity

Answer:

38

(A)

Job rotation

(B)

Compensation increase

(C)

Job enrichment

(D)

Distributive justice

(C) Job enrichment

When an organization redesigns jobs and attempts to increase how much control employees have over completing tasks and the variety of tasks they complete, which theory of motivation are they applying to their work, in essence?

(A)

Job characteristics theory

(B)

Maslow's hierarchy of needs

(C)

Equity theory

(D)

Growth theory

Answer: 40

(C) task significance

Sarah works at a tech firm. She recently met with her supervisor and was told she would be given increased autonomy and control over how she did her job. What phenomenon is Sarah experiencing in this situation?

Answer:

39

(A) Difficulty and commitment

(A) Job characteristics theory

An employee who does not believe that increasing their effort will result in improved performance may need their __________ link strengthened, according to expectancy theory.

(A)

Valence

(B)

Instrumentality

(C)

Equity

(D)

Self-determination

Answer:

(B) Instrumentality

41

Sandra works for a consulting company and is paid $100,000 per year. She recently found out that a new hire was offered twice her salary, and as a result Sandra has reduced her productivity. Which theory might explain her behavior?

(A)

Equity theory

(B)

Self-determination theory

(C)

Intrinsic motivation theory

(D)

Engagement theory

Answer:

(A) Equity theory

42

Paul works at a job with good benefits, decent pay, and regular hours. However, the work is boring and exhausting. Paul is still with the company probably due to what type of motivation?

(A)

Direct

(B)

Intrinsic

(C)

Occupation-based

(D)

Extrinsic

Answer: 43

A job applicant takes a battery of selection tests they believe to be fair but they do not get the job, even though they felt they did well on the tests. What type of injustice are they likely experiencing?

(A)

Distributive

(B)

Occupational

(C)

Applicational

(D)

Interpersonal

Answer:

44

(A) Distributive

What type of motivation is present when an employee is working harder in order to receive a raise at work?

(A)

Intrinsic

(B)

Autonomous

(C)

Extrinsic

(D)

Negative reinforcement

Answer: 45

(D) Extrinsic

(C) Extrinsic

According to VIE theory, if an employee doesn't place a strong value on receiving a raise, what factor of motivation is likely low for the employee?

(A)

Goal commitment

(B)

Valence

(C)

Expectancy

(D)

Acquisition

Answer: 46

(B) Valence

Which phenomenon is defined by a set of forces that determine the form, direction, intensity, and duration of behavior at work?

(A)

Leadership

(B)

Job satisfaction

(C)

Work engagement

(D)

Work motivation

Answer:

(D) Work motivation

1

Leaders who are hostile towards employees and extremely demanding of them may be engaging in which type of leadership?

(A)

Motivational behavior

(B)

Intellectual stimulation

(C)

Servant leadership

(D)

Abusive leadership

Answer: 2

(D) Abusive leadership

The trait approach to leadership focuses on: (A)

stable characteristics of individuals

(B)

observable leader behaviors

(C)

contextual aspects of leadership

(D)

situational influences in leadership

Answer:

3

(A) stable characteristics of individuals

What approaches have been used to study leadership?

Answer: Feedback:

4

Examples: trait approach, behavioral approach

Which four behaviors characterize transformational leadership?

Answer: Feedback:

5

Inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, idealized influence, individualized consideration

What are some outcomes of positive LMX relationships in the workplace?

Answer: Feedback:

6

Examples: higher job satisfaction, higher organizational commitment, lower turnover

What does the contingency approach say about quality leadership?

Answer: Feedback:

7

Leader effectiveness may depend on the leader and the situational factors involved

What may be a danger involved with having a charismatic leader in the workplace?

Answer: Feedback:

Followers may not question the leader, even in circumstances where it may be appropriate or helpful to do so

8

What is the difference between leader emergence and leader effectiveness? Which is more important?

Answer: Feedback:

9

Emergence: how leaders become perceived as leaders.Effectiveness: what leaders accomplish.Organizations should care about both aspects.

Name two of the behaviors that characterize transformational leadership and describe how they contribute to effective leadership.

Answer: Feedback:

10

Intellectual stimulation: leaders encourage challenging commonly held assumptions and push followers to grow intellectually.Idealized influence: leaders have a charismatic vision for the future and they role model how to achieve their goals.

Compare and contrast two approaches to leadership. How do they describe what makes an effective leader?

Answer: Feedback:

11

Example: LMX versus trait.Trait: Certain traits make effective leaders, such as extraversion.LMX: Leadership is an exchange relationship that develops trust between employees and leaders.

Charisma is a highly sought-after trait for leaders. However, what might some downsides be for employees and the organization that employs a charismatic leader?

Answer: Feedback:

12

Extreme loyalty may lead to groupthink.Employees' loyalty may lead to over-work, stress, etc.Leader may take company in a bold but risky direction that may ultimately fail.

What was significant about Fiedler's contingency model of leadership? What did this contribute to research on leadership?

Answer: Feedback:

13

Proposed fitting leader to the situation was a key factor for leader effectiveness.Used LPC to determine leadership style.Systematic approach to determining situational fit for the leader.

Describe the progression of leadership theories, citing at least three specific approaches and indicating how each improved upon a past approach.

Answer: Feedback:

14

Trait approach: certain traits associated with leadership.Behavioral approach: not traits, but rather behaviors are associated with effective leadership.Contingency approach: leadership may depend on the situation.

What is the relationship between gender and leadership?

Answer: Feedback:

Complex relationship. Effective leadership may invoke both masculine and feminine traits.Perceived effectiveness is probably dependent on the situation and occupation.Women are underrepresented in leadership positions, but evidence suggests they are equally effective.

15

Identify and describe three advantages that contemporary theories of leadership have over the traditional approaches.

Answer: Feedback:

16

An individual who demonstrates __________ leadership tends to increase followers' awareness of work issues, provide support and encouragement, empower employees, and be charismatic (A)

translational

(B)

servant

(C)

transactional

(D)

transformational

Answer:

17

Empirical support: meta-analyses provide strong support for positive relationships between contemporary theories and positive organizational outcomes.More accurately and completely describe the phenomenon of leadership as it occurs in actual organizational life.Newer concepts can be trained or taught to managers who seek to improve their relationships with their followers.

(D) transformational

Identify the four main components of transformational leadership.

(A)

Interpretative understanding, intelligible reaction, intuitive authority, individualized acceptance

(B)

Inspirational followership, indeterminant drive, inglorious recognition, internetwork prowess

(C)

Individualized consideration, intellectual stimulation, inspirational motivation, idealized influence

(D)

Instantaneous action, insidious acknowledgement, inceptive influence, intentional initiation

Answer:

(C) Individualized consideration, intellectual stimulation, inspirational motivation, idealized influence

18

Power that comes from one’s organizational role or position is called: (A)

referent power

(B)

legitimate power

(C)

information power

(D)

authoriatarian power

Answer:

(B) legitimate power

19

Management by exception and contingent reward are examples of which type of leadership?

(A)

Transactional leadership

(B)

Transformational leadership

(C)

Considerate leadership

(D)

Active leadership

Answer:

20

Your supervisor at work is rarely present and usually unhelpful in most work situations. What type of leader do you have for your job?

(A)

Transformational

(B)

Laissez-faire

(C)

Charismatic

(D)

Intellectual

Answer:

21

(A)

Charismatic leadership

(B)

Leader emergence

(C)

Normative leadership

(D)

Transactional leadership

(D) Transactional leadership

A study is conducted to determine whether employees in a team with no designated leader become perceived as leaders by their colleagues. What topic is this research focused on?

(A)

Intrinsic motivation

(B)

Leader expectancy

(C)

Job satisfaction

(D)

Leader emergence

Answer:

23

(B) Laissez-faire

Joey's supervisor at the chemical plant has made it clear that as long as Joey does his job and avoids any errors, the supervisor will leave him to do his job. Which style of leadership best characterizes this situation?

Answer: 22

(A) Transactional leadership

(D) Leader emergence

An employee who feels inspired by their supervisor and experiences a boost in selfconfidence likely has a __________ leader.

(A)

transformational

(B)

leaderless

(C)

laissez-hedonistic

(D) Answer:

24

(A)

contingency

(B)

power

(C)

charisma

(D)

consideration

(A)

leader

(B)

construct

(C)

motivation

(D)

power

(B) construct

Authentic leadership (select the BEST option): (A)

is an approach where a leader sets goals for employees and encourages them to reach those goals

(B)

is an approach that defines the leader’s role as serving the needs of others

(C)

is an approach in which a leader makes sure employees are involved in decision making

(D)

is an approach in which a leader tries to stay true to themselves

Answer:

27

(D) consideration

One issue that the literature on leadership may face is ___________ proliferation, or an abundance of theories describing similar phenomena.

Answer: 26

(A) transformational

Donald's supervisor is a good listener and always concerned for Donald's well-being, but his supervisor rarely clarifies his role or communicates performance standards.

The supervisor is likely high in ___________ and low in initiating structure.

Answer:

25

behavioral

(D) is an approach in which a leader tries to stay true to themselves

__________ focuses on the quality of the dyadic relationships between a leader and each of his/her followers.

(A)

Theory X

(B)

Path-Goal Theory

(C)

Leader-Member Exchange Theory

(D)

Transactional Leadership Theory

Answer: 28

An instructor assigns grades based on his/her _________ power. Choose the BEST response.

(A)

legitimate

(B)

referent

(C)

information

(D)

emotion

Answer:

29

(A)

expert

(B)

coercive

(C)

reward

(D)

referent

(A) expert

Alejandra is the manager of her department. After performance evaluations, she gives those who have met their goals for the year a pay raise. She gives her employees their assignments and leaves them to do their work, but she does monitor them so that if she notices a potential problem, it gets resolved before causing difficulties. What kind of contemporary leadership style is Alejandra demonstrating?

(A)

Theory Y

(B)

Transformational

(C)

Transactional

(D)

Laissez-Faire

Answer: 31

(A) legitimate

Bing is the only financial analyst within a company. With regard to his unique knowledge and skills of finance, this has afforded him considerable _____ power among his peers when it comes to matters of finance. Pick the best response.

Answer:

30

(C) Leader-Member Exchange Theory

(C) Transactional

Research has found all of the following personality traits to be related to leadership EXCEPT: (A)

conscientiousness

(B)

agreeableness

(C)

extraversion

(D)

openness

Answer: 32

(B) agreeableness

A key element that drives the effectiveness of transformational leadership is the development and maintenance of ____ between a leader and her/his followers: (A)

dyad

(B)

creativity

(C)

openness

(D)

trust

Answer:

33

(D) trust

If you were hired as a consultant to improve leadership in a small tech start-up, which theories would you use to inform your action plan and why?

Answer: Feedback:

Many possible answers acceptable, except Great Man.LMX most likely since it has strong empirical support and is arguably most comprehensive theory of leadership.Other behavioral approaches such as transformational leadership could work as well because they are behaviors that can be trained, and are associated with effective leadership.

1

Companies that ask their employees to display certain emotions have emotional _______________.

(A)

labor guidelines

(B)

performance indicators

(C)

display rules

(D)

commitment factors

Answer: 2

(C) display rules

What are the three commonly studied dimensions of organizational commitment? How are they interrelated?

Answer: Feedback:

3

Affective: emotional attachment.Continuance: perceived cost of leaving the organization is too high to leave.Normative: commitment due to obligation or the sense that staying is the right thing to do.Each are related and may be experienced simultaneously, but different types may be related to different outcomes.

What is work engagement? How does it differ from other job attitudes?

Answer: Feedback:

4

Engagement: dedicated, absorbed, and excited about work.Christian meta-analysis indicates it is a separate construct from satisfaction or commitment.Conceptually, being satisfied is different from being absorbed in work, for instance.

What factors may affect job attitudes? What outcomes have been found to be connected with job attitudes?

Answer: Feedback:

5

Antecedents: job characteristics, leadership, stress, POS, justice, personality, P-E fit.Outcomes: performance, OCB's, absenteeism, turnover, unit performance.

What might the advantages and disadvantages of emotional display rules be for organizations?

Answer: Feedback:

6

Positive customer experiences and satisfaction.May be exhausting or effortful for employees and related to burnout or stress.May have detrimental effects on job attitudes.

Compare and contrast using global measures versus facet-based measures to assess job satisfaction. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each?

Answer: Feedback:

7

Global is an overall measure of job satisfaction; facet-based assess specific aspects.Some information is lost when using global measures, but they tend to be shorter and easier to administer.Facet-based measures collect specific information, but are often lengthy and require time to complete.

An organization approaches your I/O consulting firm and explains their employees job attitudes are at an all-time low. What questions might you ask or areas of the

organization might you examine to determine some likely causes of the diminished job attitudes?

Answer: Feedback:

8

Job characteristics: what is it about the design of the employees' jobs that may be contributing to poor attitudes (i.e., lack of autonomy?).Justice: have recent decisions in the company affected employee justice perceptions or affected their perceived organizational support?P-E fit: are employees working jobs that fit their KSA's and personalities well, or are there many occurrences of mismatches?

How might organizations increase performance in some way other than asking their employees to do more work? How would you explain how this might work?

Answer: Feedback:

9

Job attitudes are linked to higher performance.Provide employees with perks and give them benefits that increase their job attitudes.Employees who enjoy their jobs will perform higher and will even go above and beyond for organizations (i.e., organizational citizenship behaviors).

If you were to start a company from scratch, would you or would you not require emotional display rules? What would your answer depend on? Use theories and evidence to support your answer.

Answer: Feedback:

10

Opinion-based answer but it probably depends on the occupation, industry, etc.Some discussion of negative employees outcomes should be part of this answer.Theory of planned behavior: employees may develop negative attitudes about display rules, which may influence behavior.

What are some outcomes of job attitudes?

Answer: Feedback: 11

Examples: higher performance, higher OCB's, lower turnover

What are three types of organizational commitment?

Answer: Feedback: 12

Affective, continuance, normative

What are emotional display rules?

Answer: Feedback: 13

Requirements to show or hide certain emotions while on the job

What does Affective Events Theory say about emotions and job attitudes?

Answer: Feedback: 14

Day to day emotions in reaction to events at work may affect employee job attitudes

What are two types of emotional labor?

Answer:

Feedback: 15

Surface acting and deep acting

Based on Broaden and Build Theory, describe why negative emotions might lead to unsafe behavior and accidents/injuries in the workplace.

Answer: Feedback:

16

Negative emotions can lead to a narrowing of thought and fight or flight response.

These may result in employees who ignore or simply don't perceive harmful stimuli or hazards in the work environment.

Is the amount a person is paid (i.e., pay level) a strong predictor of how satisfied that person will be with his/her job in general? Why or why not?

Answer: Feedback:

17

There are social aspects, job characteristics, and other perquisites that a person might be satisfied with. Pay is just one of many aspects of a job that a person may evaluate.

Linda works at large manufacturing company located in the U.S. midwest. She supervises three assembly teams and has noticed lately that her supervisees seem to be growing increasingly dissatisfied with their jobs and less committed to the company. Linda worries that if this trend continues her supervisees' performance may decrease and she may lose them to voluntary turnover. What can Linda do to help increase her employees' job satisfaction and organizational commitment? Name two possibl

Answer: Feedback:

18

Based on evidence surrounding the nomological network of job satisfaction and organizational commitment, Linda could try to improve any one of these known antecedents:Job characteristicsLeadershipStressPerceived organizational supportJusticePersonalityPerson-environment fit

How might the Theory of Planned Behavior be used to explain how job attitudes may affect employee behavior?

Answer: Feedback:

19

In general, job attitudes are comprised of the following three components: (A)

rational, evaluative, emotional

(B)

affective, cognitive, behavioral

(C)

persistence, direction, magnitude

(D)

happiness, commitment, intention

Answer:

20

Behavior is a direct consequence of intentions.If employee's have a negative attitude about work, this may lead to negative behaviors.Norms and control may also affect behavior through intentions.

(B) affective, cognitive, behavioral

Juan is leading his team's weekly meeting. One of Juan's team members enters the meeting she appears visibly agitated and angry. Soon afterward, another team member enters who also appears to be upset and angry. Finally, the four other team members enter smiling and laughing. About 10 minutes into the meeting, Juan notices

that all six team members are now smiling and speaking excitedly. What is one possible explanation for why all of the team members are now smiling?

(A)

job satisfaction

(B)

employee engagement

(C)

job characteristics

(D)

emotional contagion

Answer: 21

When companies have display rules for emotions, they are likely asking employees to engage in what?

(A)

Emotional labor

(B)

Emotional turnover

(C)

Motivational labor

(D)

Path-goal emotions

Answer: 22

(A)

Performance

(B)

Turnover

(C)

Leadership

(D)

Organizational citizenship

(C) Leadership

Which type of emotional labor is usually not associated with higher experienced stress?

(A)

Surface acting

(B)

Dissonance acting

(C)

Deep acting

(D)

Newcomer display rules

Answer:

24

(A) Emotional labor

Which is NOT an outcome of job attitudes at work?

Answer:

23

(D) emotional contagion

(C) Deep acting

One particular group of employees that organizations may be able to target to effectively enhance their job attitudes are _______.

(A)

supervisors

(B)

newcomers

(C)

subordinates

(D)

contractors

Answer: 25

(B) newcomers

Which of the following is an antecedent to job satisfaction and organization commitment?

(A)

counter-productive work behaviors

(B)

absenteeism

(C)

performance

(D)

none of the above

Answer:

(C) performance

26

An employee at a company who does not believe in the company's mission but is required to display certain emotions is likely engaging in what type of emotional labor?

(A)

Normative acting

(B)

Surface acting

(C)

Contagion acting

(D)

Deep acting

Answer:

27

Jesse works in the HR department of a large company in which few employees ever leave for other jobs. When Jesse gets an offer to join another organization's HR department, he may experience what type of commitment?

(A)

Continuance commitment

(B)

Occupational commitment

(C)

Job commitment

(D)

Normative commitment

Answer: 28

(B) Surface acting

(D) Normative commitment

An employee at an automobile manufacturing plant is told she may lose her job in the next 90 days. What affect might this have on her job satisfaction?

(A)

Decreased due to job insecurity

(B)

Increased due to job insecurity

(C)

None

(D)

Increased organizational commitment

Answer: 29

Sarah is a computer programmer at Google. In the morning she has a positive interaction with a supervisor, and in the afternoon she solves a technical problem in some code that has been bothering her for weeks. Which theory might explain this process?

(A)

Job characteristics theory

(B)

Leadership theory

(C)

Stress theory

(D)

Broaden-and-build theory

Answer:

30

(A)

employee engagement

(B)

turnover intentions

(C)

organizational commitment

(D)

job satisfaction

(D) job satisfaction

An individual is considered to be high in ______ if he/she is dedicated, absorbed, energized, excited, and passionate about his/her work.

(A)

employee engagement

(B)

positive affectivity

(C)

organizational commitment

(D)

job satisfaction

Answer: 32

(D) Broaden-and-build theory

_____ refers to the pleasurable (or unpleasurable) feeling resulting from one's evaluation a job or job experience.

Answer:

31

(A) Decreased due to job insecurity

(A) employee engagement

______ refers to the transfer and sharing of emotion from an individual to others via automatic and unconscious processes.

(A)

emotional labor

(B)

emotional contagion

(C)

emotion regulation

(D)

emotional valence

Answer:

(B) emotional contagion

33

This type of emotional labor tends to have the most harmful consequences for employees who frequently engage in it.

(A)

surface acting

(B)

deep acting

(C)

genuine acting

(D)

regulation

Answer: 34

What is the difference between procedural justice and distributive justice?

(A)

Procedural justice relates to the outcome fairness; distributive justice relates to process fairness

(B)

Procedural justice relates to process fairness; distributive justice relates to interpersonal treatment fairness

(C)

Procedural justice relates to interpersonal treatment fairness; distributive justice relates to process fairnes

(D)

Procedural justice relates to process fairness; distributive justice relates to the outcome fairness

Answer:

35

(D) Procedural justice relates to process fairness; distributive justice relates to the outcome fairness

The effort, planning, and regulation required by employees to express organizationally desired or expected emotions during interactions with others is referred to as: (A)

emotional labor

(B)

emotional contagion

(C)

job satisfaction

(D)

employee engagement

Answer:

36

(A) surface acting

(A) emotional labor

A professional soccer player is no longer committed to his team but has an obligation to remain with the team until his three-year contract is fulfilled. This is an example of ___________.

(A)

affective commitment

(B)

continuance commitment

(C)

normative commitment

(D)

occupational commitment

Answer:

(C) normative commitment

37

Emerging evidence suggests that understanding job satisfaction trajectories (i.e., direction of change) may help organizations better predict turnover intentions and turnover (Chen et al., 2011). What steps can an organization take to capitalize on this finding?

Answer: Feedback:

An organization could begin measuring job satisfaction with greater frequency to identify whether employees' level of job satisfaction is generally increasing or decreasing. If job satisfaction appears to be decreasing for many employees, the organization can take steps to increase employees' job satisfaction–this could be accomplished through intervening on known antecedents of job satisfaction (e.g., job characteristics, justice perceptions).

1

Occupational Health Psychology is primarily concerned with what aspects of employees?

(A)

Motivation & productivity

(B)

Health & safety

(C)

Physical stressors

(D)

Top-down management

Answer: 2

A company finds they have a high frequency of employees using drugs while at work.

They institute a program in response that provides substance abuse counseling. This is an example of a(n) ______.

(A)

Individual stress management

(B)

Employee Assistance Program

(C)

OSHA inspection

(D)

Intervention study

Answer:

3

(A)

When there are too many job resources and not enough job demands

(B)

When there are too many job demands and not enough available job resources

(C)

When job resources increase over time

(D)

When job demands decrease over time

(B) When there are too many job demands and not enough available job resources

Which of the following relationships best captures the process of stress?

(A)

Stressor leads to Strain

(B)

Stimulus leads to Response

(C)

Demand leads to Resource

(D)

Resource leads to Demand

Answer: 5

(B) Employee Assistance Program

According to the Job Demands-Resources Model, when does an employee experience strain?

Answer:

4

(B) Health & safety

(A) Stressor leads to Strain

What are stressors and strain? How are they different?

Answer:

Feedback:

6

Stressor: anything that induces stress.Strain: response to or outcome of stress.Stressors induce stress and strains are the outcomes. This is how we often conceptualize stress.

Name three types of stressors and discuss their relationship with stress.

Answer: Feedback:

7

Role demands: role conflict/ambiguity related to lower job satisfaction.Interpersonal challenges: abusive supervision leads to increased strain and lowered job attitudes.Information overload: related to reduced focus & performance.

What are two theories of stress and how do they explain the stress process?

Answer: Feedback:

8

COR: loss of resources or threat to resources creates stress.JD-R: low resources and high demands create stress.

How are challenge stressors different from hindrance stressors? What might be some potential issues with this conceptualization of stress?

Answer: Feedback:

9

Challenge stressors: developmental and related to engagement.Hindrance stressors: negatively related to engagement.Certain stressors may be perceived as challenges to some and hindrances to others (i.e., appraisal).

What are antecedents to safety behavior? How might organizations promote these?

Answer: Feedback:

10

Safety climate: encouraging communication and role-modeling among supervisors.Safety motivation: increasing safety knowledge and making safety a clear priority.Safety priorities: specifically pointing out that safety is more important than performance (example from train crash)

A person who has worked as a firefighter and as an data entry specialist claims both jobs were equally stressful. Which theories of stress might explain how this is possible?

Answer: Feedback:

11

Transactional theory: depending on the appraisal and coping resources, both jobs could be viewed as stressful.COR theory: resource availability may be different at each job and could produce strain, depending on the situation.JD-R: a lack of resources and many demands will produce stress.

An organization in the tech industry approaches you as an OHP consultant and explains their employees are reporting high levels of stress and are quitting at a high rate. How would you recommend proceeding to reduce stress levels among employees?

Answer: Feedback:

Attempt secondary and tertiary interventions to address stressed employees, and eventually aim for primary intervention for long-term solution.Examples could include increasing EAP programs, providing stress education and stress management techniques, and eventually jobs could be redesigned to be less stressful.

12

A supervisor would like to encourage their employees to take on responsibilities that align with their personal interests and strengths. What are they likely referring to and what would your advice be in regards to how they should proceed?

Answer: Feedback:

13

Job crafting: performing job in a way that works best for them.Linked to increased resources and decreased burnout.May have a dark side if too much crafting occurs?

Should be some sort of way of keeping track of this at a higher organizational level.

How does the transactional theory explain the stress process?

Answer: Feedback:

14

Individual appraisals of the situation and how individuals can cope with the situation are factors in the stress process

How is a challenge stressor different from a hindrance stressor?

Answer: Feedback:

15

Challenge stressors may provide some sort of upside to employees. That is, challenge stressors are seen as obstacles to overcome that might lead to opportunities, while hindrance stressors are viewed as barriers to that inhibit progress.

Which stressors are commonly studied by occupational health psychologists?

Answer: Feedback: 16

Examples: role stressors, information overload, interpersonal challenges

How does conservation of resources explain the stress process?

Answer: Feedback: 17

A problem with measuring workplace safety using the frequency of accidents is the ______.

(A)

low base rate

(B)

lack of motivation

(C)

safety participation

(D)

safety climate

Answer: 18

Threat to resources or lost resources affect strain outcomes

(A) low base rate

Kelly works for a retail organization. Her supervisor encourages her to seek responsibilities at work that matches her personality and interests. This is an example of an organization encouraging what?

(A)

Job satisfaction

(B)

Climate improvement

(C)

Customer satisfaction

(D) Answer:

19

(A)

strain

(B)

exhaustion

(C)

role conflict

(D)

engagement

(C) role conflict

A _________ is anything that induces stress.

(A)

stressor

(B)

reaction

(C)

resource

(D)

challenge

Answer: 21

(D) Job crafting

David has two bosses who are asking him to work on two projects with incompatible demands at the same time. This is an example of ________.

Answer:

20

Job crafting

(A) stressor

What is the first stage of General Adaptive Syndrome?

(A)

stress

(B)

alarm

(C)

depletion

(D)

exhaustion

Answer:

(B) alarm

22

Which of the following is an example of a challenge stressor?

(A)

organizational politics

(B)

hassles

(C)

time urgency

(D)

constraints

Answer:

23

(C) time urgency

______ is a condition referring to long-term exhaustion and diminished interest in work.

(A)

Depression

(B)

Rumination

(C)

Job ambiguity

(D)

Burnout

Answer: 24

Research indicates which of the following can affect individual's stress?

(A)

Workaholism

(B)

Self-efficacy

(C)

Personality type

(D)

All of the above

Answer:

25

(A)

Social support

(B)

EAPs

(C)

Exercising

(D)

Adequate sleep

(B) EAPs

Which of the following is NOT an antecedent to stress?

(A)

role ambiguity

(B)

family-to-work conflict

(C)

information overload

(D)

job satisfaction

Answer: 27

(D) All of the above

Which of the following is NOT an individual approach to stress management?

Answer:

26

(D) Burnout

(D) job satisfaction

_____ is the shared perceptions employees have about the priority of safety in their organization.

(A)

Safety climate

(B)

Stress agreement

(C)

EAPs

(D)

Safety compliance

Answer: 28

A tech firm installed walking desks for all their employees. This is an example of _____.

(A)

Stress management

(B)

Decreased work-life conflict

(C)

Increased job control

(D)

Shift work

Answer:

29

(A)

Safety climate

(B)

Opportunity to perform

(C)

Safety motivation

(D)

Safety knowledge

(A)

Work-life balance

(B)

Social support

(C)

Motivation

(D)

Resources

(D) Resources

While challenge stressors are positively related to engagement, ____ stressors are negatively related to engagement.

(A)

Hindrance

(B)

Workload

(C)

Resource

(D)

Alarm

Answer: 32

(C) Safety motivation

Conservation of Resources theory proposes individuals seek _____ to protect themselves from stress.

Answer: 31

(A) Stress management

Which term refers to an employees desire for, and the importance they place on, safe behavior at work?

Answer:

30

(B) Stress agreement

(A) Hindrance

Which of the following is NOT an example of a psychological consequence of stress?

(A)

Anxiety

(B)

Depression

(C)

Cardiovascular disease

(D)

Rumination

Answer: 33

(C) Cardiovascular disease

If an organization wants to encourage their employees to get enough sleep, what behavior could they encourage?

(A)

Avoid afternoon caffeine

(B)

Check email before going to bed

(C)

Exercise late at night

(D)

Work extended shifts

Answer:

34

(A) Avoid afternoon caffeine

An employee who works extra hours compulsively and works because they feel guilty may be experiencing _____.

(A)

Job crafting

(B)

Workaholism

(C)

Depression

(D)

Engagement

Answer: 35

(B) Workaholism

What is job crafting?

Answer: Feedback:

Employees are allowed to complete their work in a way that works best for them

1

What is the term for a collection of individuals whose interactions impact each other?

(A)

Teamwork

(B)

Group

(C)

Work Team

(D)

Forming

Answer: 2

(B) Group

Of the following, which is NOT an outcome of teams with high levels of psychological safety?

(A)

group think

(B)

idea sharing

(C)

team motivation

(D)

ability to learn and perform

Answer:

3

(A) group think

What factors are related to team effectiveness?

Answer: Feedback:

4

Group composition (size, tenure, personality, diversity).Group processes (teamwork, norms, roles, conflict).Group affect/cognition (cohesion, psychological safety, collective efficacy).

What are 3 common types of teams in organizations, and what are their characteristics?

Answer: Feedback:

5

Production teams: make or process things.Advisory teams: make suggestions for improving a product.Project teams: idea-focused, cross-functional.

What are some potential threats to team effectiveness?

Answer: Feedback:

6

Social loafing.Groupthink.Faultlines.

What are some ways in which researchers have described how teams develop?

Answer: Feedback:

7

Tuckman's stages of group development.Punctuated equilibrium.Transition stage & action stage.

How does group composition relate to team effectiveness? List and explain three examples.

Answer:

Feedback:

8

Group personality: agreeableness positively related to team performance.Group diversity: mixed evidence.Group tenure: groups that are constantly gaining and losing members perform poorly compared to more stable groups.

Groupthink is a potential threat to high-quality decision making in teams. How might a manager avoid groupthink in their teams?

Answer: Feedback:

9

Explicitly acknowledge there is no pressure to conform in meetings.Avoid negatively stereotyping employees with dissenting opinions.Carefully considering challenges or warnings to the group's assumptions.

Global teams (i.e., teams consisting of members who live or work in different countries) have increased in prevalence over the last 2 decades. What challenges do these teams face as they seek to complete their assignments?

Answer: Feedback:

10

Group cohesion: difficult to form collective identity.Faultlines: geographic differences, time differences, cultural norms.Team mental models: difficult to form when depending on communicating via technology compared to face-to-face.

If you were in charge of creating several work groups and deciding which teams employees worked with, would you create teams with diverse characteristics? Why or why not?

Answer: Feedback:

11

Yes; selecting only similar employees may result in legal issues related to discrimination.Yes; diverse teams are likely more creative.Yes; technology makes it easier for group members in different countries to collaborate.

What is the relationship between conflict in teams and team effectiveness? Would you or would you not encourage some conflict if you were a formal team leader?

Answer: Feedback:

12

Hypothetical inverted-U relationship, while meta-analyses suggest no relationship or a negative relationship.Possible conflict related to the task - but not personal - may be helpful.May be better to encourage psychological safety and avoid conflict.

What is group cohesion?

Answer: Feedback: 13

Degree to which group members wish to continue working with their team

What are some different types of teams?

Answer: Feedback: 14

Examples: project team, management team, production team, advisory team

Why are teams useful in organizations?

Answer: Feedback:

Can be more effective than individuals and sharing of ideas can increase innovation

15

What are two phenomena that may occur in teams that can negatively affect team effectiveness?

Answer: Feedback: 16

According to Tuckman, what are the stages of group development?

(A)

Equilibrium, Punctuated Equilibrium, Punctuated Disequilibrium

(B)

Unfreezing, Changing, Refreezing

(C)

Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning

(D)

Investigation, Presentation, Bargaining, Closure

Answer:

17

(A)

Management team

(B)

Project team

(C)

Cohesion team

(D)

Diversity committee

(B) Project team

Lindsey is in a meeting with her team's leader. Each team member is agreeing with whatever the leader says, and although Lindsey doesn't agree with everything they say, she doesn't speak up. What may be occurring here is _______.

(A)

transactional leadership

(B)

groupthink

(C)

group cohesion

(D)

neuroticism

Answer: 19

(C) Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning

An airline tasks a team of individuals from various departments to determine ways to improve passenger's reported satisfaction with their flights. This is an example of what type of team?

Answer:

18

Groupthink and social loafing

(B) groupthink

A team that is focused on ideas and is often 'cross-functional' is a ______ team.

(A)

advisory

(B)

management

(C)

production

(D)

project

Answer: 20

(D) project

_______ is the phenomenon that occurs when individuals in a group put forth less effort than if they were working on their own.

(A)

Team norming

(B)

Work avoidance

(C)

Social loafing

(D)

Team effectiveness

Answer:

(C) Social loafing

21

What is the term that describes how a group approaches the process of doing its work?

(A)

Group processes

(B)

Group diversity

(C)

Group intelligence

(D)

Group faultlines

Answer:

22

Which of the following describes the degree to which individual conceptualizations are shared across teams?

(A)

Team mental models

(B)

Social loafing

(C)

Teamwork skills

(D)

Individual-team theory

Answer: 23

(A) Team mental models

Teams in which members are trained in multiple roles in addition to their own are what?

(A)

Cross-trained teams

(B)

Multi-role teams

(C)

Normed teams

(D)

Stormed teams

Answer: 24

(A) Group processes

(A) Cross-trained teams

Team ________ is a function of performance and viability, while team _____ is the belief a team has about their ability to perform.

(A)

Efficacy; performance

(B)

Effectiveness; groupthink

(C)

Teamwork; cohesion

(D)

Effectiveness, efficacy

Answer: 25

The ______ stage of group development may involve conflicts and group members testing one another.

(A)

Storming

(B)

Performing

(C)

Grouping

(D)

Disbanding

Answer:

26

(A)

brainstorming

(B)

leadership

(C)

barnstorming

(D)

teamwork

(A) brainstorming

Which of the following is NOT related to team effectiveness?

(A)

Group composition

(B)

Group processes

(C)

Group type

(D)

Group affect

Answer: 28

(A) Storming

Research suggests that writing ideas down before bringing them to a _______ session may be the most effective way of generating ideas in a group.

Answer: 27

(D) Effectiveness, efficacy

(C) Group type

What type of team would likely be asked to review the quality of a newly released cell phone, including reviewing online customer reviews?

(A)

Production team

(B)

Advisory team

(C)

Normative team

(D) Answer:

29

(A)

Positive, up to a point

(B)

Positive

(C)

Negative

(D)

Neutral (non-significant)

(A)

Higher accident frequency

(B)

Increased mistakes

(C)

Increased customer satisfaction

(D)

None of the above

(C) Increased customer satisfaction

In a large, multinational corporation in which teams are constantly shifting, the norm is to do 'icebreakers' (i.e., quick activities in which team members share something about themselves) whenever a team adds a new member. Which stage in the life cycle of a team is this most likely occurring?

(A)

Forming

(B)

Storming

(C)

Acting

(D)

Adjourning

Answer:

32

(B) Positive

Which of the following are potential outcomes of positive teamwork in organizations?

Answer: 31

(B) Advisory team

Team member agreeableness (i.e., a Big 5 personality trait) has a _____ relationship with team performance, according to research.

Answer:

30

Cohesion team

(A) Forming

After a long meeting at work your boss asks your team to stay for a few moments and review how the decisions that were made may effective your company. This is an example of a ______.

(A)

abusive leadership

(B)

storming

(C)

debrief

(D)

groupthink

Answer: 33

(C) debrief

What are some models that explain how teams operate in organizations?

Answer: Feedback:

Examples: Input-process-output model and Tuckman & Jensen's 5 stages

1

There can be a maximum of ___ joint tenants at law.

Answer:

2

four

What is organizational culture? Why is it important to study?

Answer: Feedback:

3

Shared assumptions that employees have that affect the way they perceive the environment.Culture may affect employee behavior.May not be official policies or in any handbook, but it can affect employee interactions and routines.

What is a lattice structure in organizations? How does it differ from other structures.

Answer: Feedback:

4

Characterized by no typical hierarchy and no assigned managers.Most structures (i.e., matrix, mechanistic) emphasize structure and assigned managers.Encourages employees to communicate and learn about other employees if they want to get them to join their project or team.

What are the advantages and disadvantages of a classical approach to organizational design?

Answer: Feedback:

5

This process results in an organization passing its culture to new employees.

(A)

onboarding

(B)

departmentalization

(C)

assessment

(D)

attrition

Answer:

6

Advantage: find a way to maximize productivity and perfect it.Advantage: method of efficiency could be tested and replicated in many organizations.Disadvantage: focus on efficiency ignores research on job attitudes, stress, leadership, etc.Disadvantage: classic approach may not align with the goals of every organization.

(A) onboarding

A large grocery store makes the decision to reduce the number of supervisors at its flagship store. In doing so, the remaining supervisors now have to supervise 50 production workers instead of 20. This change has increased the supervisors’ ______.

(A)

span of control

(B)

line staff

(C)

scalar function

(D)

formalization

Answer:

(A) span of control

7

Which of the following represent the stages of organizational change according to Lewin?

(A)

Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning

(B)

Preaction, Action, Reaction

(C)

Existence, Relatedness, Growth

(D)

Unfreezing, Changing, Refreezing

Answer: 8

(D) Unfreezing, Changing, Refreezing

Cubicles, core-values posters, free M&Ms for employees on Mondays, and a casual dress code are examples of organizational culture: (A)

beliefs

(B)

values

(C)

artifacts

(D)

assumptions

Answer:

(C) artifacts

9

Organizational culture consists of three levels: (A)

assumptions, values, artifacts

(B)

beliefs, values, artifacts

(C)

assumptions, orientations, beliefs

(D)

artifacts, beliefs, assumptions

Answer:

10

(A) assumptions, values, artifacts

Although climate and culture are quite similar, there are, however, (at least) three ways to distinguish climate from culture. What are three distinctions?

Answer: Feedback:

11

Perceptions of work unit or team likely refer to group climate; culture is often organization-wide.Psychological climate refers to individual perceptions, not shared perceptions.Climate tends to focus on a specific dimension (i.e., safety).

How might culture affect performance in organizations?

Answer: Feedback:

12

Cultures high in adhocracy may experience improved innovative performance.Market cultures are associated with higher profits and higher growth.Clan culture is related to positive job attitudes, which are related to organizational performance.

What are the advantages and disadvantages for an organization using matrix-style organization?

Answer: Feedback:

13

In a joint tenancy, as opposed to a tenancy in common, each owner is treated as being owner of ___.

Answer: 14

Employees may experience role stressors from reporting to several supervisors.Organizations can respond to specific client needs and put employees with expertise on certain projects.Employees may experience high workload if communication does not occur between supervisors on different projects.

the whole

What is a matrix organization?

Answer: Feedback: 15

Combines functional structure with project-based structure

What is organizational climate?

Answer: Feedback: 16

Shared beliefs about practices, policies, and procedures in an organization

What was the focus of classic organization theory?

Answer: Feedback: 17

Finding one effective way to run every organization

What are Lewin's three stages of change?

Answer: Feedback: 18

Unfreezing, change, refreezing

You decide to start a construction company in a city where a housing boom is happening. What decisions would you make in regards to your organization's structure?

Answer: Feedback:

19

Probably highly formalized, so new clients are treated uniformly.Relatively low centralization, since there will likely be many work sites some distance apart.May use departmentalization by geography if the city is large and clients are organized by location.

Which type of organizational structure (organic versus mechanistic) is likely better for organizational health? Explain your answer.

Answer: Feedback:

Probably depends on the industry and individual company. May not be a 'best' structure, according to situational paradigm.Organic is likely more appropriate for startups and smaller companies trying to make a name for themselves.Mechanistic is likely better for manufacturing, large companies and ones in which efficiency is highly important.

20

If you were a consultant tasked with assessing the culture of a company, how would you measure its culture?

Answer: Feedback:

21

Observation: artifacts such as dress code or building architecture.Questionnaires to assess values, or assess values through documentation such as mission statements.Interviews with employees to figure out what assumptions exist but are not documented.

Different cultures that emerge in different departments, units, or locations within the same organization are called ______.

(A)

subcultures

(B)

norms

(C)

climate

(D)

informal cultures

Answer:

(A) subcultures

22

Companies that are undergoing a change in which the aim is to change the culture of the organization are likely experiencing which type of organizational development approach?

(A)

Team building

(B)

Strategic change

(C)

Total quality management

(D)

Organizational flipside

Answer:

(B) Strategic change

23

Classic theories of organizational design emphasized that ___________ was the ideal form for an organization.

(A)

bureaucracy

(B)

matrix

(C)

startup

(D)

small size

Answer: 24

(A) bureaucracy

The subfield in I/O psychology that focuses on change in companies is called ____________________.

(A)

Organizational development

(B)

Organizational leadership

(C)

Change startup

(D) Answer:

25

Leadership development

(A) Organizational development

What aspect of culture is most observable or visible when researchers want to assess culture?

(A)

Assumptions

(B)

Strengths

(C)

Artifacts

(D)

Formalizations

Answer:

(C) Artifacts

26

Which term describes employees' share perceptions of policies, practices, and behaviors that are rewarded?

(A)

Organizational climate

(B)

Organizational matrix

(C)

Shared formalization

(D)

Organizational control

Answer: 27

(A) Organizational climate

An employee in which type of organization would likely report to both a functional manager and a project manager?

(A)

Formal

(B)

Departmentalized

(C)

Matrix

(D)

Mechanistic

Answer:

(C) Matrix

28

Which type of organizational structure emphasizes governance and regulations?

(A)

Organic

(B)

Spiral

(C)

Entrepreneurial

(D)

Mechanistic

Answer:

(D) Mechanistic

29

Contemporary researchers now tend to think that a _____________________ is the best way to think about organizational design (A)

matrix paradigm

(B)

bureaucratic paradigm

(C)

classical paradigm

(D)

situational paradigm

Answer: 30

Which movement influenced organizational design such that the objective was no longer simply to maximize performance?

(A)

Human Relations

(B)

Organizational Development

(C)

I/O Consulting

(D)

Relational theory

Answer: 31

(A)

Level of centralization

(B)

Degree of formalization

(C)

Width of motivation

(D)

Type of departmentalization

(C) Width of motivation

Employees in relatively ________________ organizations likely experience greater autonomy in their work.

(A)

decentralized

(B)

bureaucratic

(C)

formalized

(D)

large

Answer:

33

(A) Human Relations

Which is NOT an aspect of organizational structure?

Answer:

32

(D) situational paradigm

(A) decentralized

Units in an organization that have values that directly contradicts those of the organization may have a ___________.

(A)

formalized culture

(B)

leadership culture

(C)

clan

(D)

counterculture

Answer: 34

At your (maybe, hypothetical) company, a consultant is hired to help clarify roles and responsibilities in your work group. What approach to organization development are they using?

(A)

Virtual organization

(B)

Technostructural

(C)

Team building

(D)

Mechanistic approach

Answer: 35

(A)

Culture

(B)

Bureaucracy

(C)

Mechanistic

(D)

Counterculture

(A) Culture

Small social media companies tend to value innovation so they can brand themselves as unique in a saturated industry. What type of culture do they likely have?

(A)

Adhocracy

(B)

Clan

(C)

Autonomous

(D)

Intrinsic

Answer: 37

(C) Team building

Simon works in a large company and attends many meetings. Although no policy guiding this behavior exists, most meetings tend to start with everyone introducing themselves and stating what department they work in. What phenomena is Simon experiencing?

Answer:

36

(D) counterculture

(A) Adhocracy

Enrique meets with his supervisor regularly, but also sends reports to a project manager. What type of organization best describes Enrique's situation?

(A)

Matrix organization

(B)

Leaderless organization

(C)

Classic organization

(D) Answer:

38

(A)

Formalization

(B)

Departmentalization

(C)

Feedback

(D)

Task variety

(A)

Low-quality LMX

(B)

Evaluation apprehension

(C)

Work-family conflict

(D)

Role conflict

(D) Role conflict

One factor that may influence an organization's culture is what?

(A)

Attraction-selection-attrition

(B)

Founder's values

(C)

Organizational history

(D)

All of the above

Answer: 41

(A) Formalization

Which stressor may be more likely to be present in a matrix organization in which employees effectively have multiple supervisors?

Answer: 40

(B) Leaderless organization

Rachael works in alumni relations at a university and has very little autonomy in how she accomplishes her work. What aspect of organizational structure might be high or prevalent in this university?

Answer:

39

Situational organization

(D) All of the above

While organizational culture may be important, ____________ may matter more in some circumstances.

(A)

person-environment fit

(B)

formalization

(C)

departmentalization

(D)

matrixization

Answer:

(A) person-environment fit

42

Which theory of organizational design posited that one best way to structure work and design organizations?

(A)

Effective Motivational Theory

(B)

Classic Organization Theory

(C)

Motivational Organization Theory

(D)

Classic Leadership Theory

Answer:

(B) Classic Organization Theory