CHAPTER 01 – 12e 1) All cellular organisms can be placed into one of three_________blank, which includes theBacteria, Archaea, and theEukarya.
2)
Archaea are cellular organisms that have unique cell membrane_________blank.
3) Elie Metchnikoff discovered_________blank, which is a major feature of the host immune response.
4) An Italian physician,_________blank, challenged the concept of spontaneous generation by demonstrating that maggots do not arise from decaying meat but rather from developing fly eggs.
5) _________blank discovered that soil bacteria could oxidize iron, sulfur, and ammonia to obtain energy.
6) _________blank was the first to isolate a root nodule bacterium capable of nitrogen fixation.
7) The branch of microbiology that deals with diseases of humans and animals is called_________blank microbiology.
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8) The branch of microbiology that deals with the mechanisms by which the human body protects itself from disease-causing organisms is called_________blank.
9) _________blank _________blank microbiologists monitor community food establishments and water supplies in order to control the spread of communicable diseases.
10) The branch of microbiology that studies the relationship between microorganisms and their habitats is called _________blank _________blank.
11) _________blank microbiology involves the use of microorganisms to make products such as antibiotics, vaccines, steroids, alcohols, vitamins, amino acids, and enzymes.
12) Microbial_________blank are scientists who investigate the synthesis of antibiotics and toxins, the production of energy with microorganisms, and the ways in which microorganisms survive harsh environmental conditions.
13) Microbial_________blank focuses on the nature of heredity and how it regulates the development and function of cells and organisms.
14) A microbial _________blank is a collection of strains that share many stable properties and differ significantly from other groups of strains.
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15)
Protists contain all of the following forms of life EXCEPT _________blank. A) protozoa B) fungi C) slime molds D) algae
16) Cells with a relatively complex morphology that have a true membrane-delimited nucleus are called_________blank. A) prokaryotes B) eukaryotes C) urkaryotes D) nokaryotes
17) Cells with a relatively simple cell morphology that do not have a true membranedelimited nucleus are called_________blank. A) prokaryotes B) eukaryotes C) urkaryotes D) nokaryotes
18) The ribosomal RNA studies that led to the division of prokaryotic organisms into the Bacteria and the Archaea were begun by_________blank.
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A) Pasteur B) Woese C) Needham D) Watson
19)
Proteins function in modern cells as _________blank. A) catalysts B) hereditary information C) structural elements D) both catalysts and structural elements
20) RNA is a key intermediate molecule involved in the process that uses the information stored in DNA to ultimately produce _________blank. A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) lipids D) RNA
21) Which of the following distinguishes the field of microbiology from other fields of biology? A) The size of the organism studied. B) The techniques used to study organisms regardless of their size. C) Both the size of the organism studied and the techniques employed in the study of organisms. D) Neither the size of the organism studied nor the techniques employed in the study of organisms regardless of their size.
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22) In the following list of scientists, who developed a set of criteria that could be used to establish a causative link between a particular microorganism and a particular disease? A) Fracastoro B) Koch C) Pasteur D) Lister
23) In the following list of scientists who was the first to observe and accurately describe microorganisms? A) Pasteur B) Lister C) van Leeuwenhoek D) Tyndall
24) In the following list of scientists who provided the evidence needed to discredit the concept of spontaneous generation? A) Pasteur B) Koch C) Semmelweiss D) Lister
25) The concept that living organisms arise from nonliving material is called_________blank.
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A) biogenesis B) cell theory C) spontaneous generation D) germ theory
26) The concept that human and animal diseases are caused by microorganisms is called the_________blank. A) cell theory B) germ theory C) causative theory D) disease theory
27) Whose work on spontaneous generation first demonstrated the existence of a very heatresistant form of bacteria that are called endospores? A) Schwann B) Redi C) Tyndall D) Pasteur
28)
Antiseptic surgery was pioneered by_________blank. A) Pasteur B) Lister C) Jenner D) Kitasato
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29) Studies by Emil von Behring and Shibasaburo Kitasato demonstrated that inactivated toxins can induce the synthesis of antitoxins in the blood of rabbits. These antitoxins (antibodies) are the basis of_________blank. A) humoral immunity B) cell-mediated immunity C) antibiotic immunity D) phagocyte-mediated immunity
30)
The first surgical antiseptic to be used was_________blank. A) iodine B) ethanol C) phenol D) None of the choices are correct.
31) Old cultures of bacteria that have lost their ability to cause disease are said to be_________blank. A) impotent B) virulent C) pathogenic D) attenuated
32) Who is credited with developing and documenting the first vaccination procedure against smallpox?
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A) Koch B) Pasteur C) Jenner D) Lister
33)
Who is credited with developing a vaccine against chicken cholera? A) Koch B) Pasteur C) Jenner D) Lister
34) Who of the following first discovered that some blood leukocytes could engulf diseasecausing bacteria? A) von Behring B) Meister C) Metchnikoff D) Ivanowski
35)
The use of enrichment cultures and selective media was pioneered by_________blank. A) Beijerinck B) Jenner C) Pasteur D) von Behring
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36) Which of the following provides the best explanation for why viruses are not included in the three-domain system? A) Viruses are too small. B) Viruses have either DNA or RNA, not both. C) Viruses are not a cellular life form. D) Viruses show no evidence of evolution.
37) A new microbe has been discovered in the rumen of sheep. Microscopy shows no evidence of a nuclear membrane, and biochemical studies of the cell wall demonstrate the lack of peptidoglycan. Metabolic studies show that this microbe generates methane. This microbe would most likely be classified in _________blank. A) domain Bacteria B) domain Archaea C) domain Eukarya, Kingdom Fungi D) domain Eukarya, Protists
38) What is the most compelling reason why “protists” are not considered to be a taxonomic group? A) They are not cellular life forms. B) They are too small to be included among the eukaryotes. C) The group includes both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types. D) The organisms often included in this group are very diverse and don’t form a cohesive taxon.
39) Scientists study microorganisms on Earth today to search for life forms elsewhere, as well as to explore the origins of life on Earth. These microorganisms that are studied are referred to as _________blank.
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A) existing B) extant C) extinct D) extirpated
40) An important aspect of agar that makes it a useful ingredient for solidifying media for bacterial culture is _________blank. A) that it provides an excellent nitrogen source for bacteria B) that bacteria are unable to break it down so it stays solidified C) that it melts at 100oC and solidifies at temperatures below 40oC D) that it provides an excellent carbon and energy source for bacteria
41)
Which molecule is believed to have preceded the other two during the evolution of life? A) Proteins B) DNA C) RNA
42) What is the most compelling reason why DNA, rather than RNA, evolved to be the storage repository for genetic information in cellular life forms? A) DNA has deoxyribose rather than ribose. B) DNA molecules are more chemically stable than RNA molecules. C) DNA is double-stranded rather than single-stranded. D) DNA molecules are larger than RNA molecules.
43) Each of the following provides evidence in support of the primary role of RNA in the evolution of life EXCEPT _________blank. Version 1
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A) some RNA molecules are catalytic B) RNA catalyzes peptide bond formation during protein synthesis C) ATP (energy currency of the cell) is a ribonucleotide D) RNA is less chemically stable than DNA E) RNA can regulate gene expression
44) The appearance of organisms that carry out aerobic respiration likely evolved as organisms that release oxygen during photosynthesis gradually changed Earth's atmosphere. These photosynthetic organisms were the precursor for _________blank. A) chloroplasts B) mitochondria C) the last universal common ancestor D) eukaryotes
45)
Which term is most inclusive? In other words, which term includes all the others? A) Microbial species B) Microbial strain C) Biovars D) Serovars
46) Which of the processes named here is the least likely to contribute to the evolution of genetic diversity of bacteria and archaea? A) Mutation B) Sexual reproduction C) Binary fission D) Horizontal gene transfer
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47) A student is observing microorganisms in a sample of pond water. One organism of interest has an obvious nucleus, small oval structures containing a green pigment, and does not appear to be motile. In which of the following groups would this microbe most likely be classified? A) Eukaryotes (Fungi) B) Eukaryotes (Algae) C) Bacteria D) Archaea E) Eukaryotes (Protozoa)
48) A student is observing microorganisms in a sample of pond water. One organism of interest has an obvious nucleus and has been moving rapidly during observation and appears to have rows of cilia along its surface. In which of the following groups would this microbe most likely be classified? A) Eukaryotes (Fungi) B) Eukaryotes (Algae) C) Bacteria D) Eukaryotes (Protozoa)
49) Morphovars, serovars, biovars, and pathovars are examples of terms that refer to microbial _________blank. A) species B) strains C) types D) Archaea
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50) In a search for new antibiotics, a previously unknown organism has been recovered from the soil. It is nonmotile and is composed of long thread-like structures formed from nucleated cells. It is non-photosynthetic and absorbs its nutrients. This organism will most likely be classified among the _________blank. A) bacteria B) Archaea C) eukaryotes (fungi) D) eukaryotes (protozoa) E) eukaryotes (algae)
51) Three of the SSU rRNA sequences of three organisms have been compared. For organisms 1 and 2, two of the twelve nucleotides in the sequence are different. For organisms 1 and 3, six of the twelve nucleotides are different. Which organism has a greater evolutionary distance from organism 1? A) Organism 2 B) Organism 3 C) The evolutionary distance is the same. D) Evolutionary distance cannot be predicted from this data.
52) Which group of microbes contains organisms necessary for production of wine and bread? A) Bacteria B) Archaea C) Fungi D) Algae
53) You discover a new microbe while working on a citizen scientist project. The microbe is taken to a lab that specializes in placing organisms in their correct phylogenic niche. In order to determine its evolutionary relatedness to other microbes, the lab carries out_________blank.
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A) SSU rRNA analysis B) microscopic analysis C) biochemical tests D) DNA fingerprinting
54) You are a medical microbiologist in Dallas, TX. A small population of individuals spread throughout the city has been experiencing alarming yet similar symptoms affecting the liver that have physicians puzzled as to the etiology, although they all suspect it is microbial in nature. What steps would you take to elucidate the organism? A) 1. Sample the livers from affected patients to culture and compare organisms; 2. Grow the suspected organisms in culture; 3. Inoculate the cultured organisms into a laboratory animal and monitor for similar symptoms; 4. Culture and analyze the organism from the lab animal and determine relatedness. B) 1. Inoculate all suspected organisms into a laboratory animal and monitor for similar symptoms; 2. Biopsy the original patient's liver to look for organisms; 3. Grow the suspected organisms from the liver in culture; 4. Culture and analyze the organism from the lab animal and determine relatedness. C) Sample the livers of all sick individuals and culture the organisms, comparing symptoms and microscopic characteristics. D) 1. Biopsy the patient's liver to look for organisms; 2. Culture the organisms obtained from the liver and run biochemical tests to determine similarities to other known liver pathogens; 3. Inoculate liver pathogens into lab animals to compare symptoms.
55) According to genome analysis, a member of the genus_________blank is most closely related to the mitochondrion. A) Escherichia B) Agrobacterium C) Prochloron D) Rickettsia
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56)
According to the endosymbiosis hypothesis _________blank. A) the first endosymbiotic event involved an anaerobic bacterium B) the first endosymbiont was a fermentative organism C) the mitochondrion evolved from the same endosymbiont as the hydrogenosome D) All of the choices are correct.
57) The ancestors of modern_________blank performed the oxygenic photosynthesis responsible for converting our anoxic planet to an oxygenated one. A) Crenarchaeota B) Proteobacteria C) Firmicutes D) cyanobacteria
58) Extant microorganisms are organisms from the fossil record that are no longer present on Earth today. ⊚ true ⊚ false
59) Microbiologists study a variety of organisms, but all are considered either Bacteria or Archaea. ⊚ ⊚
60)
true false
All eukaryotes have a membrane-delimited nucleus.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
61) Viruses are not generally studied by microbiologists because they are not classified as living organisms. ⊚ ⊚
62)
true false
Viruses constitute the fourth domain of life in current biological classification schemes. ⊚ ⊚
true false
63) The earliest microbial fossils that have been found are dated from approximately 4.5 million years ago. ⊚ ⊚
64)
true false
Fanny Hesse first suggested that agar be used to solidify microbiological media. ⊚ ⊚
true false
65) M. J. Berkeley demonstrated that the great potato blight of Ireland was caused by a water mold (then thought to be a fungus). ⊚ true ⊚ false
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66) Invisible living creatures were thought to exist and cause disease long before they were ever observed. ⊚ ⊚
true false
67) Koch's postulates were instrumental in establishing that the intracellular parasite Mycobacterium leprae is the causative organism of leprosy. ⊚ ⊚
true false
68) Edward Jenner's work in preventing rabies led to the use of the term vaccination to describe a type of procedure used in the prevention of disease. ⊚ ⊚
true false
69) Although developed over 100 years ago, Koch's postulates continue to be used to find the causative organism for all known human infectious diseases. ⊚ ⊚
70)
true false
Viruses and bacteria were first cultured in the laboratory at about the same time. ⊚ ⊚
true false
71) Charles Chamberland developed porcelain filters that allowed other scientists to demonstrate that viruses are smaller than bacteria.
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⊚ ⊚
72)
true false
The first disease to be identified as being caused by a virus was tobacco mosaic disease. ⊚ ⊚
true false
73) John Tyndall demonstrated that microorganisms present in the air are carried on dust particles. ⊚ ⊚
true false
74) Agostino Bassi demonstrated that a type of silkworm disease was caused by a fungus and proposed that many diseases are caused by microorganisms. ⊚ ⊚
true false
75) The usefulness of agar in solidifying microbiological growth media is limited because it does not remain solid at temperatures above 28oC. ⊚ ⊚
76)
true false
Robert Koch developed a vaccine that could be used to prevent anthrax. ⊚ ⊚
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77) The endosymbiotic hypothesis is generally accepted as the origin of eukaryotic organelles. ⊚ ⊚
true false
78) The relationship between specific bacteria and specific diseases was first demonstrated by Koch. ⊚ ⊚
true false
79) Some microorganisms are useful in bioremediation processes that reduce the effects of pollution. ⊚ ⊚
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_12e_Willey 1) domains 2) lipids 3) phagocytosis 4) Redi 5) Winogradsky 6) Beijerinck 7) medical 8) immunology 9) Public health 10) microbial ecology 11) Industrial 12) physiologists 13) genetics 14) species 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) B Version 1
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27) C 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) B 34) C 35) A 36) C 37) B 38) D 39) B 40) B 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) A 45) A 46) B 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) C 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) A 55) D 56) D Version 1
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57) D 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE
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CHAPTER 02 – 12e 1) The_________blank_________blank is the point at which a lens focuses parallel beams of light.
2) The_________blank_________blank is the distance between the center of a lens and the point at which it focuses parallel beams of light.
3) The_________blank is the distance between the specimen and the objective lens when the specimen is in focus.
4) The useful magnification of a light microscope is limited by the_________blank of the light source being utilized.
5) The special dyes used in fluorescence microscopy that absorb light at one wavelength and emit light at a different wavelength are called_________blank.
6) In order to view a specimen with a total magnification of 400×, a_________blank objective must be used if the ocular is 10×.
7) The procedure in which a single stain is used to visualize microorganisms is called_________blank staining.
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8) _________blank is the process by which internal and external structures of cells and organisms are preserved and maintained in position.
9) Thin films of bacteria that have been air-dried onto a glass microscope slide are called_________blank.
10) A procedure that divides organisms into two or more groups depending on their individual reactions to the same staining procedure is referred to as_________blank staining.
11) An electron microscope uses_________blank lenses to focus beams of electrons onto a specimen.
12) _________blank breaks frozen specimens along lines of greatest weakness, often down the middle of lipid bilayer membranes so that they may be observed by transmission electron microscopy.
13) The_________blank microscope is capable of atomic resolution of specimens, even when they are immersed in water.
14) The designer of the first transmission electron microscope,_________blank, was awarded the 1986 Nobel Prize in physics.
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15)
Confocal microscopes exhibit improved contrast and resolution by_________blank. A) illumination of a large area of the specimen B) blocking out stray light with an aperture located above the objective lens C) use of light at longer wavelengths D) use of ultraviolet light to illuminate the specimen
16)
A 30× objective and a 20× ocular produce a total magnification of_________blank. A) 230× B) 320× C) 50× D) 600×
17)
A 45× objective and a 10× ocular produce a total magnification of_________blank. A) 900× B) 55× C) 450× D) 145×
18) A microscope that exposes specimens to ultraviolet, violet, or blue light and forms an image with the light emitted at a different wavelength is called a_________blank microscope.
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A) phase-contrast B) dark-field C) scanning electron D) fluorescence
19) Immersion oil can be used to increase the resolution achieved with some microscope lenses because it increases the_________blank between the specimen and the objective lens. A) optical density B) refractive index C) optical density and refractive index D) neither optical density nor refractive index
20) If the objective lenses of a microscope can be changed without losing focus on the specimen, they are said to be_________blank. A) equifocal B) totifocal C) parfocal D) optifocal
21) An instrument that magnifies slight differences in the refractive index of cell structures is called a(n)_________blank microscope. A) phase-contrast B) electron C) fluorescence D) densitometric
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22) The instrument that produces a bright image of the specimen against a dark background is called a(n)_________blank microscope. A) phase-contrast B) electron C) bright-field D) dark-field
23) As the magnification of a series of objective lenses increases, the working distance_________blank. A) increases B) decreases C) stays the same D) cannot be predicted
24) Prior to staining, smears of microorganisms must be heat-fixed in order to_________blank. A) allow eventual visualization of internal structures B) ensure removal of dust particles from the slide surface C) attach them firmly to the slide D) create small pores in cells that facilitates binding of stain to cell structures
25) Acid-fast organisms such asMycobacterium tuberculosis contain_________blank constructed from mycolic acids in their cell walls.
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A) proteins B) carbohydrates C) lipids D) peptidoglycan
26)
In the Gram-staining procedure, the primary stain is_________blank. A) iodine B) safranin C) crystal violet D) alcohol
27)
In the Gram-staining procedure, the decolorizer is_________blank. A) iodine B) safranin C) crystal violet D) ethanol or acetone
28)
In the Gram-staining procedure, the counterstain is_________blank. A) iodine B) safranin C) crystal violet D) alcohol
29)
In the Gram-staining procedure, the mordant is_________blank.
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A) iodine B) safranin C) crystal violet D) alcohol
30) After the primary stain has been added but before the decolorizer has been used, Grampositive organisms are stained_________blank and Gram-negative organisms are stained_________blank. A) purple; purple B) purple; colorless C) purple; pink D) pink; pink
31) After the decolorizer has been added, Gram-positive organisms are stained_________blank and Gram-negative organisms are stained_________blank. A) purple; purple B) purple; colorless C) purple; pink D) pink; pink
32) After the mordant has been added, Gram-positive organisms are stained _________blank and Gram-negative organisms are stained _________blank. A) purple; purple B) purple; colorless C) purple; pink D) pink; pink
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33) If the decolorizer is left on too long in the Gram-staining procedure, Gram-positive organisms will be stained_________blank and Gram-negative organisms will be stained_________blank. A) purple; blue B) purple; colorless C) purple; pink D) pink; pink
34) If the decolorizer is not left on long enough in the Gram-staining procedure, Grampositive organisms will be stained_________blank and Gram-negative organisms will be stained_________blank. A) purple; purple B) purple; colorless C) purple; pink D) pink; pink
35)
Which of the following is considered to be a differential staining procedure? A) Gram stain B) Acid-fast stain C) Both Gram stain and Acid-fast stain D) Leifson's flagella stain
36)
Basic dyes such as methylene blue bind to cellular molecules that are_________blank.
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A) hydrophobic B) negatively charged C) positively charged D) aromatic
37)
The Gram-staining procedure is an example of _________blank. A) simple staining B) negative staining C) differential staining D) fluorescent staining
38) Regions of a specimen with higher electron density scatter_________blank electrons and, therefore, appear_________blank in the image projected onto the screen of a transmission electron microscope. A) more; lighter B) more; darker C) fewer; darker D) fewer; lighter
39)
Scanning electron microscopy is most often used to reveal_________blank. A) surface structures B) internal structures C) both surface and internal structures simultaneously D) either surface or internal structures, but not simultaneously
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40)
Small internal cell structures are best visualized with a_________blank. A) light microscope B) dark-field microscope C) transmission electron microscope D) flagellar microscope
41) In transmission electron microscopy, spreading a specimen out in a thin film with uranyl acetate, which does not penetrate the specimen, is called_________blank. A) freeze-etching B) simple staining C) shadow staining D) negative staining
42) Atomic force microscopes use a scanning probe that maintains a fixed distance from the surface of the specimen. It is useful for specimens that_________blank. A) do not conduct electricity well B) have extremely uneven surfaces C) do not conduct electricity well, and have extremely uneven surfaces D) conduct electricity well, and have smooth surfaces
43)
If immersion oil was replaced with water, what would happen?
A) The refractive index would increase, improving resolution. B) The refractive index of water would be greater than air but less than oil, improving resolution less than oil. C) The refractive index of water would be less than that of air, decreasing resolution. D) There would be no difference.
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44) As the resolution of a microscope system improves, the size of the smallest object that can be seen clearly _________blank. A) is larger B) is smaller C) is not affected
45) If you forgot to heat fix a smear before doing a Gram stain, which of the following might occur? A) The stains would not adhere to the bacteria. B) The smear may not adhere to the slide. C) The decolorization step of the Gram stain would not work properly. D) Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria would both stain purple.
46) A specimen has been prepared for viewing with a transmission electron microscope, using uranyl acetate as a negative stain. The area stained by the uranyl acetate will be _________blank electron-dense compared to the specimen itself. A) more B) less C) equally
47) If you forgot the decolorization step while performing a Gram stain, which outcome would you expect? A) Gram-positive bacteria would stain pink B) Gram-negative bacteria would stain purple C) Gram-negative bacteria would be unstained D) Gram-positive bacteria would be unstained
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48) If you forgot to apply the safranin counterstain while performing a Gram stain, which outcome would you expect? A) Gram-positive bacteria would stain pink. B) Gram-negative bacteria would stain purple. C) Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria would be unstained. D) Gram-negative bacteria would be unstained.
49) Which type of microscopy would be preferred for creating a three-dimensional view of the distribution and arrangement of flagella on a bacterial cell surface? A) Bright-field microscopy B) Scanning electron microscopy C) Fluorescence microscopy D) Transmission electron microscopy
50) Which type of microscopy would be preferred for showing fine internal detail of the eukaryotic organelles? A) Bright-field microscopy B) Scanning electron microscopy C) Fluorescence microscopy D) Transmission electron microscopy
51) You are researching the structure of a transmembrane protein. Which type of microscopy would provide you the best view of this protein?
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A) Bright field microscopy B) Scanning electron microscopy C) Transmission electron microscopy D) Atomic force microscopy
52) If the strength of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length (1/f ), which of the following lenses will have the greatest strength? A) A lens with a focal length of 1cm B) A lens with a focal length of 100 mm C) A lens with a focal length of 0.1 mm D) A lens with a focal length of 1 mm
53)
Glass has a greater refractive index than air. This means that_________blank. A) the velocity of the light is slowed when it passes through the glass from the air B) the velocity of the light accelerates when it passes through the glass from the air C) the velocity of the light is slowed when it passes through the air from the glass D) the light is bent away from the normal when passing through glass from air
54) Light rays are refracted (bent) when they cross the interface between materials with different refractive indices. ⊚ ⊚
true false
55) A substage condenser is used to focus light onto the specimen, which increases the resolution of a light microscope.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
56) Confocal microscopes, in combination with specialized computer software, can be used to create three-dimensional images of cell structures. ⊚ ⊚
true false
57) A light microscope with an objective lens numerical aperture of 0.65 is capable of allowing two objects 400 nm apart to be distinguished when using light with a wavelength of 420 nm. ⊚ ⊚
true false
58)
Resolution improves when the wavelength of the illuminating light decreases. ⊚ true ⊚ false
59)
Immersion oil is used to prevent a specimen from drying out. ⊚ ⊚
true false
60) It is possible to build a light microscope capable of 10,000× magnification, but the image would not be sharp because resolution is independent of magnification. ⊚ ⊚
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61)
Immersion oil increases the amount of light entering the objective lens. ⊚ true ⊚ false
62) Gram staining divides bacterial species into two groups based on differences in cell wall structure. ⊚ true ⊚ false
63) Negative staining facilitates the visualization of bacterial capsules that are intensely stained by the procedure. ⊚ true ⊚ false
64) Negative staining with India ink can be used to reveal the presence of capsules that surround bacterial cells. ⊚ ⊚
65)
true false
Mordants increase the binding between a stain and specimen. ⊚ ⊚
true false
66) In order to stain flagella so that they may be readily observed by light microscopy, it is usually necessary to increase their thickness.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
67) The Gram-staining procedure is widely used because it allows rapid identification of a microorganism with little additional testing. ⊚ ⊚
true false
68) Because transmission electron microscopy uses electrons rather than light, it is not necessary to stain biological specimens before observing them. ⊚ ⊚
true false
69) Scanning electron microscopes bombard specimens with a stream of electrons; however, the specimen image is produced by electrons that are derived from atoms of the specimen itself rather than by the electrons used to bombard the specimen. ⊚ ⊚
true false
70) It was possible to view viruses only after the invention of the electron microscope because they are too small to be seen with a light microscope. ⊚ ⊚
true false
71) Scanning tunneling electron microscopes create a three-dimensional image of specimens at atomic-level resolution.
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⊚ ⊚
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17
Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_12e_Willey 1) focal point 2) focal length 3) working distance 4) wavelength 5) fluorochromes 6) 40× 7) simple 8) Fixation 9) smears 10) differential 11) magnetic 12) Freeze-etching 13) scanning tunneling 14) Ernst Ruska 15) B 16) D 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) C Version 1
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27) D 28) B 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) A 40) C 41) D 42) A 43) B 44) B 45) B 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) D 51) D 52) C 53) A 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE Version 1
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57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE
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CHAPTER 03 – 12e 1) The genus of bacteria that undergoes cell division in random planes, forming grapelike clusters of round bacteria, are the_________blank.
2)
Bacteria that do not have a fixed shape are said to be_________blank.
3)
A branched network of hyphae formed by the Actinomycetes is called a_________blank.
4)
Actinomycetes form long filaments called_________blank.
5) When the cell wall is removed from a Gram-negative bacterium without removing the outer membrane, the resulting form is called a(n)_________blank.
6) Molecules or regions of molecules that readily interact with water are said to be_________blank, whereas molecules or regions of molecules that are insoluble in water or do not readily interact with water are said to be_________blank.
7) A_________blank layer consists of diffuse unorganized polysaccharide material that lies outside the cell wall and is easily removed.
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8) A_________blank is a polysaccharide layer that lies outside the cell wall and is not easily removed.
9)
_________blank bind ferric iron and transport it into a bacterial cell.
10)
Nutrients that are used by bacteria in relatively large amounts are _________blank.
11) Endospores are resistant to most environmental stressors because they have_________blank_________blank complexed with calcium ions which stabilize DNA.
12) The most widely accepted current model for membrane structures is called the_________blank_________blank model.
13) Intracellular granules of organic or inorganic material that are stockpiled by bacteria for future use are called_________blank.
14) Bacteria have a region of the cytoplasm known as the_________blank, which is not bounded by a membrane but contains the chromosome.
15) Small circular DNA molecules capable of replicating and containing genes that are useful but not necessary to the bacterium are called_________blank.
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16) Some species of aquatic bacteria use inclusion bodies known as_________blank to orient themselves in Earth's magnetic field.
17)
_________blank are the site of protein synthesis in the cell.
18) Bacterial flagella are composed of three parts: the_________blank body, which is embedded in the cell, the hook, and the_________blank, which is the longest part of the flagellum.
19) Proteinaceous projections from the surface of a bacterium that are used to mediate conjugation are called sex_________blank, whereas projections that mediate attachment to surfaces such as host cells are called_________blank.
20) The bacterium E. coli swims in a straight line, called a_________blank, for a few seconds; then it stops, tumbles, then swims away in a new direction.
21) In many spirochetes, multiple flagella combine to form a bundle known as a(n)_________blank fibril, which winds around the cell and confers motility on the cell.
22) cell.
_________blank is the process through which endospores are formed within a vegetative
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23) _________blank is the main part of the process through which a vegetative cell is formed from an endospore.
24) _________blank are required organic compounds because they are essential cell components or precursors of such components that cannot be synthesized by the organism.
25)
Small organic molecules called_________blank function as enzyme cofactors.
26) Many bacteria facilitate the uptake of iron by secreting low molecular weight molecules, called_________blank, to form complexes with the iron that can then be readily transported into the cell.
27) Transport of two different substances can be linked. If the transport is in the same direction it is called_________blank; if the transport is in opposite directions it is called_________blank.
28) _________blank are carrier proteins embedded in the membrane that increase the rate of diffusion of specific molecules across selectively permeable membranes.
29) Predict how the plasma membrane fatty acid composition would change as the temperature of the habitat of an aquatic bacterial species warms from 2oC to 15oC during the spring and summer months. Version 1
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A) The percentage of saturated fatty acids would increase. B) The percentage of unsaturated fatty acids would increase. C) The percentage of saturated fatty acids would decrease. D) The percentage of saturated fatty acids would remain unchanged.
30) You discover a new transport system used by a newly discovered bacterial species. The sugars that are transported using this system are phosphorylated as they enter the bacterial cell. You would describe this transport system as a(n) _________blank. A) facilitated diffusion B) micronutrient regulator C) passive diffusion D) group translocation
31)
Which of the following structures is NOT found in an endospore? A) Capsule B) Coat C) Core D) Exosporium
32)
The concept of a prokaryote was first fully outlined in 1962 by_________blank. A) Watson and Crick B) Stanier and Van Niel C) Hershey and Chase D) Gilbert and Cech
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33)
Bacterial cells that are variable in shape are called_________blank. A) vibrio B) pleomorphic C) coccobacilli D) hyphal
34) The term used to describe bacteria that are intermediate in shape between spherical and rod-shaped is_________blank. A) cocci B) bacilli C) vibrio D) coccobacilli
35) Square planar arrangement of cells that forms when round bacteria remain attached to each other during reproduction are called_________blank. A) streptococci B) staphylococci C) tetrads D) sarcinae
36)
Flexible bacteria with a helical shape are called_________blank. A) vibrios B) spirilla C) spirochetes D) coccobacilli
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37)
Rigid bacteria with a helical cell shape are called_________blank. A) vibrios B) spirilla C) spirochetes D) coccobacilli
38)
The term used to describe bacteria that are shaped like curved rods is_________blank. A) coccus B) bacillus C) vibrio D) coccobacillus
39)
The term used to describe bacteria that are rod-shaped is _________blank. A) coccus B) bacillus C) vibrio D) coccobacillus
40)
The term used to describe bacteria that have a spherical shape is_________blank. A) coccus B) bacillus C) vibrio D) coccobacillus
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41)
The cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria_________blank.
A) retains the cytoplasm and its contents B) acts as a selectively permeable barrier, allowing some molecules to pass while preventing the movement of others C) is the major site of ATP synthesis in aerobes D) All of the choices are correct.
42) The lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria is also known as_________blank. A) exotoxin B) teichoic acid C) murein D) endotoxin
43)
Which of the following is/are true of capsules? A) They help bacteria escape phagocytosis by host cells. B) They retain water and help prevent desiccation of the bacteria. C) They prevent entry of many bacterial viruses. D) All of the choices are correct.
44) Proteins that are loosely associated with the cytoplasmic membrane are called_________blank proteins.
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A) peripheral B) integral C) external D) internal
45) Proteins that are embedded within the cytoplasmic membrane and not easily extracted are called_________blank proteins. A) peripheral B) integral C) external D) internal
46) Shrinkage of the plasma membrane away from the cell wall when the bacterium is placed in a hypertonic environment is called_________blank. A) osmolysis B) plasmolysis C) hydrolysis D) hypertonolysis
47)
Lipids with polar and nonpolar ends are said to be_________blank. A) amphipathic B) amphibolic C) bilateral D) None of the choices are correct.
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48) Although penicillin inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis, bacterial cells will continue to grow normally in the presence of penicillin in a(n)_________blank environment. A) hypotonic B) isotonic C) hypertonic D) nonpolar
49) All of the following statements about the periplasmic space are true except_________blank. A) it is found only in Gram-positive bacteria B) it is located between the plasma membrane and outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria C) it contains hydrolytic enzymes and binding proteins involved in nutrient acquisition D) a minimal periplasmic space may be observed between the plasma membrane and the peptidoglycan in some Gram-positive bacteria
50) Which of the following protects bacteria from lysis in dilute solutions and helps to determine their cellular morphology or shape? A) Plasma membrane B) Peptidoglycan C) Capsule D) Gas vacuoles
51)
Which of the following is not true of bacterial plasmids?
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A) They can replicate independently of the chromosome. B) They may carry genes for drug resistance. C) They are required for host growth and/or reproduction. D) They may carry genes that enhance survival of the bacterium under certain conditions.
52) Bacterial and archaeal ribosomes are known as_________blank ribosomes, based on their sedimentation coefficient. A) 50S B) 30S C) 80S D) 70S
53)
Export of flagellin subunits is mediated by_________blank.
A) an apparatus in the basal body of the flagellum that is related to the type II secretion pathway B) the type I secretion pathway C) an apparatus in the basal body of the flagellum that is related to the type III secretion pathway D) None of the choices are correct.
54)
The power used by most bacterial flagellar motors is produced by_________blank. A) synthesis of glucose B) ATP hydrolysis C) proton motive force (PMF) D) All of the choices are correct.
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55)
Chemotaxis is a process by which bacteria_________blank. A) move toward an attractant or away from a repellent B) avoid phagocytosis C) respond metabolically to the presence of autoinducer molecules D) move on solid surfaces by means of type IV fimbriae
56)
Twitching motility involves _________blank. A) peritrichous flagella B) periplasmic flagella C) type IV pili D) monotrichous flagella
57) Endospores represent a challenge to the fields of industrial and medical microbiology because_________blank. A) they are resistant to harsh environments, thus allowing survival of endospore-forming organisms under conditions in which non-endospore-forming cells would not survive B) endospore-forming organisms are often dangerous pathogens C) endospores are significantly smaller than vegetative cells D) endospores are resistant to harsh environments, thus allowing survival of endosporeforming organisms under conditions in which non-endospore-forming cells would not survive, and endospore-forming organisms are often dangerous pathogens
58) Elements that are required in relatively large amounts by microorganisms are called_________blank.
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A) multivitamins B) meganutrients C) macronutrients D) macromolecules
59)
Which of the following is not considered a macronutrient? A) Carbon (C) B) Calcium (Ca) C) Potassium (K) D) Cobalt (Co)
60)
Which of the following is not considered a micronutrient? A) Manganese (Mn) B) Magnesium (Mg) C) Zinc (Zn) D) Copper (Cu)
61)
Which of the following is not a major class of growth factors? A) Amino acids B) Purines and pyrimidines C) Vitamins D) Nucleic acids
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62) A wide variety of microorganisms are commercially used to manufacture_________blank for human consumption. A) sugars B) vitamins C) fatty acids D) None of the choices are correct.
63) Which of the following processes can be used to bring nutrients into a cell against a concentration gradient? A) Active transport B) Facilitated diffusion C) Passive diffusion D) Active transport and facilitated diffusion
64)
Which of the following is a characteristic of active transport? A) Saturable uptake rate B) Use of ATP or a proton gradient as a source of metabolic energy C) Can move materials against a concentration gradient D) All of the choices are correct.
65) The movement of molecules across a membrane from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration with the expenditure of energy is called_________blank.
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A) facilitated diffusion B) osmosis C) passive diffusion D) active transport
66) The movement of molecules across a membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration with the use of a carrier molecule embedded in the membrane is called_________blank. A) facilitated diffusion B) osmosis C) passive diffusion D) active transport
67) The movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration without the participation of specific carrier molecules is called_________blank. A) facilitated diffusion B) osmosis C) passive diffusion D) active transport
68)
Nutrients can be concentrated from dilute solutions by_________blank. A) pinocytosis B) endocytosis C) active transport and group translocation D) electron transport
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69)
_________blank membranes allow some molecules to pass but not others. A) Permeable B) Inverted monolayer C) Selectively permeable D) Impermeable
70) Motile bacteria have been placed in an environment with a gradient of a chemical attractant. Which of the following behaviors would you predict? A) Bacteria will randomly switch back and forth between runs and tumbles. B) The bacteria will only exhibit runs away from the chemical. C) The bacteria will reduce tumbling frequency. D) The bacteria will reduce run duration in the direction of the chemical. E) The bacteria will both reduce tumbling frequency and increase run duration in the direction of the chemical.
71)
How do spheroplasts and protoplasts differ? A) Spheroplasts retain the peptidoglycan but protoplasts do not. B) Spheroplasts retain their outer membrane but protoplasts do not. C) There is no difference; these terms are synonyms. D) Spheroplasts form from cocci and protoplasts form from bacilli.
72) A pathogenic bacterial species has mutated and is no longer able to synthesize a capsule. Which outcome would you predict?
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A) The mutated bacteria will be more virulent. B) The mutated bacteria will not be able to cause disease as readily. C) The mutated bacteria will be protected from plasmolysis in hypertonic environments. D) The mutated bacteria will undergo osmotic lysis in hypotonic environments.
73) Which of the following statements is false regarding why some scientists believe that the term “prokaryote” is a somewhat artificial designation ? A) Some bacteria have internal membranous structures B) Some bacteria have their genetic material enclosed within a membrane C) Some bacteria have 80S ribosomes D) Many bacteria have cytoskeletal elements
74) A strain of Neisseria gonorrhoeae has undergone a mutation and is no longer able to make pili. Predict the most likely outcome. A) The bacterial strain will no longer be able to transport certain sugars into the cell. B) The bacteria will become more virulent and will more readily establish infection. C) The bacteria will become more resistant to antibiotics. D) The bacteria will become less virulent and will not be able to readily establish infection.
75) Predict the change in surface area and volume of a spherical cell if the diameter of the cell doubles.
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A) The surface area will increase by a factor of 4, while the volume will increase by a factor of 8. B) The surface area will increase by a factor of 8 while the volume will increase by a factor of 4. C) The surface area and volume will both increase by a factor of 4. D) The surface area will increase by a factor of 2 and the volume will increase by a factor of 4.
76) A new protein has been described that transports a growth factor across the plasma membrane. This protein is most likely a(n) _________blank. A) peripheral membrane protein, facing outward B) peripheral membrane protein, facing the cytoplasmic side C) integral membrane protein D) cytoplasmic protein
77) Which bacterial structure may survive if temperatures applied during food preservation processes are too low? A) Flagella B) Endospores C) Plasma membranes D) Ribosomes
78) Which of the following contribute to the environmental resistance of bacterial endospores?
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A) Spore coat B) Low water content of endospore C) Presence of calcium dipicolinate D) Lower pH E) All of the choices are correct.
79) Which of the following is not part of the process by which an endospore transforms to become a vegetative cell? A) Germination B) Activation C) Induction D) Outgrowth
80) Structural differences between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria are observed following the Gram-staining procedure since_________blank. A) the thick layer of peptidoglycan in Gram-positive bacteria is dehydrated during the alcohol step, thus acting as an impermeability barrier retaining the crystal violet/iodine complex B) the thick layer of peptidoglycan in Gram-negative bacteria is dehydrated during the alcohol step, thus acting as an impermeability barrier retaining the purple stain C) the thin layer of peptidoglycan in Gram-positive bacteria is dehydrated during the alcohol step, thus acting as an impermeability barrier allowing the stain to wash out D) the thin layer of peptidoglycan in Gram-negative bacteria is dissolved during the alcohol step, thus acting as an impermeability barrier allowing the crystal violet/iodine complex to be retained
81) Which of the following statements is false regarding the differences between bacterial and eukaryotic cytoskeletal proteins?
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A) Eukaryotic cells have cytoskeletal fibers comprised of tubulin and actin proteins, whereas bacterial cells lack cytoskeletal proteins. B) Proteins in the cytoplasm of bacterial cells are structurally similar to the tubulin and actin found in eukaryotic cells. C) Cytoskeletal proteins in both eukaryotes and bacteria function in cell division, protein localization, and determination of cell shape. D) The bacterial protein FtsZ is a homologue of the eukaryotic protein tubulin, and MreB and Mbl are homologues of actin.
82) Discovery of the bacterial cytoskeletal protein FtsZ provided an important link in the evolution of cells since_________blank. A) is was also discovered in mitochondria and chloroplasts B) it is unrelated to any eukaryotic proteins C) it has no known function D) it is only present inE. coli
83) One benefit of transporting molecules via outer membrane vesicles and extracellular vesicles versus a typical section system is that_________blank. A) the vesicle contents are protected by the lipid bilayer that surrounds them, extending their viability outside of the cell B) it requires much less energy to transport the molecules in vesicles than it does to operate a secretion system C) transporting from one cell to another via a vesicle occurs at a much faster rate D) vesicles form regardless of the environmental conditions that surround the cell
84)
Extracellular vesicles formed by Gram-positive cells are_________blank.
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A) cytoplasm surrounded by plasma membrane B) peptidoglycan and plasma membrane surrounding the cytoplasm C) LPS, which surrounds the periplasm D) outer membrane, plasma membrane, and cytoplasm
85)
Which of the following statements is true regarding pili and flagella assembly?
A) Pili grow when protein subunits are added to the base, whereas flagellin proteins are added to the tip of the flagella during growth. B) Pili grow when protein subunits are added to the tip, whereas flagellin proteins are added to the base of the flagella during growth. C) Pili and flagella are synthesized in a similar fashion; the proteins are produced internally then added to the base of the growing appendage. D) Pili and flagella are synthesized in a similar, complex manner; approximately 20 different proteins are made inside the cell then secreted to extend the tip of the appendage.
86) Which of the following doesnot contribute to packaging the relatively large bacterial chromosome into the nucleoid region of the cell? A) Supercoiling B) Nucleoid-associated proteins C) Macromolecular crowding D) Thymine-rich domains
87) In order to fit the large bacterial chromosome into a relatively smaller space, it must be tightly packaged. What is the limiting factor in the process?
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A) It cannot be so tightly packaged that it cannot be replicated and transcribed. B) It cannot be so tightly packaged that mutations occur. C) It cannot be so tightly packaged that the DNA double helix is disrupted. D) They cannot be so tightly packaged that the cell density prevents binary fission.
88) Sterol-like molecules called hopanoids are thought to be important for the structural integrity of many bacteria because of their suspected role in membrane stabilization. ⊚ ⊚
true false
89) The cell membrane is a rigid structure that provides bacteria with their characteristic shapes. ⊚ ⊚
true false
90) Gram-positive bacteria have a thinner layer of peptidoglycan than Gram-negative bacteria. ⊚ ⊚
true false
91) Gram-positive bacteria have a structurally and chemically more complex cell wall than Gram-negative bacteria. ⊚ ⊚
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92) Bacteria growing at lower temperatures have more saturated fatty acids in their membranes. ⊚ ⊚
true false
93) Prokaryotes were once described based on structures that were present in eukaryotes, but absent in prokaryotes. ⊚ ⊚
true false
94) Growth factors are molecules that cannot be synthesized by the bacteria that use them and include amino acids, pyrimidines, and vitamins. ⊚ ⊚
true false
95) If you remove the peptidoglycan layer from a Gram-positive cell, it would still stain purple with a Gram stain. ⊚ true ⊚ false
96) The layers of peptidoglycan of the bacterial cell wall can be cross-linked by peptide intrabridges or by direct cross-linking. ⊚ ⊚
true false
97) Some photosynthetic aquatic bacteria produce gas vacuoles that lack a lipid-bound membrane in order to regulate their buoyancy.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
98) Sedimentation coefficients are proportional to the molecular weight of a particle and are not affected by the volume and shape of the particle. ⊚ ⊚
true false
99) During the assembly of the flagellar filament, the flagellin protein monomers assemble from the base of the flagellum within the cell envelope. ⊚ ⊚
100)
true false
The rotation of bacterial flagella is powered by ATP hydrolysis. ⊚ ⊚
true false
101) The trace amounts of micronutrients needed by microorganisms are usually supplied as inadvertent contaminants in water and regular media components. ⊚ ⊚
102)
true false
Zinc (Zn) is considered a macronutrient. ⊚ ⊚
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103)
Copper (Cu) is considered a micronutrient. ⊚ ⊚
104)
Sulfur can be obtained from inorganic sources only. ⊚ ⊚
105)
true false
Nitrogen can be obtained from either organic or inorganic sources. ⊚ ⊚
107)
true false
Phosphorus can be obtained from organic sources only. ⊚ ⊚
106)
true false
true false
Organisms usually have only a single transport system for any nutrient. ⊚ ⊚
true false
108) Different transport systems for the same nutrient that are part of the same organism are usually regulated in different ways.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
109) Permease proteins that aid in the transport of nutrients resemble enzymes in their specificity for the substance to be transported. Each carrier is selective and will transport only a closely related set of substances. ⊚ ⊚
true false
110) The extreme insolubility of ferric iron leaves little free iron available for transport into bacterial cells. ⊚ ⊚
true false
111) Endotoxic shock, resulting from the release of endotoxin by bacteria infecting a patient, is only caused by Gram-negative bacteria. ⊚ true ⊚ false
112)
Endospores are reproductive structures. ⊚ true ⊚ false
113) The original differentiation of prokaryotes and eukaryotes was based on structures found in prokaryotes that are lacking in eukaryotes. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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114) Membrane vesicles are used to transport material between cells as an alternative to protein secretion systems. Regardless of the nature of the bacterial envelope, all vesicles are produced by the same mechanism. ⊚ ⊚
true false
115) Extracellular vesicles (EVs) derived from Gram-negative bacteria differ from those originating in Gram-positive bacteria in that Gram-positive EVs contain peptidoglycan, whereas those from Gram-negative organisms lack peptidoglycan. ⊚ ⊚
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27
Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_12e_Willey 1) staphylococci 2) pleomorphic 3) mycelium 4) hyphae 5) spheroplast 6) [hydrophilic, hydrophobic] 7) slime 8) capsule 9) Siderophores 10) macronutrients 11) dipicolinic acid 12) fluid mosaic 13) inclusions 14) nucleoid 15) plasmids 16) magnetosomes 17) Ribosomes 18) [basal, filament] 19) [pili, fimbriae] 20) run 21) axial 22) Sporulation 23) Germination 24) Growth factors 25) vitamins 26) siderophores Version 1
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27) [symport, antiport] 28) Permeases 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) B 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) C 37) B 38) C 39) B 40) A 41) D 42) D 43) D 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) A 50) B 51) C 52) D 53) C 54) C 55) A 56) C Version 1
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57) D 58) C 59) D 60) B 61) D 62) B 63) A 64) D 65) D 66) A 67) C 68) C 69) C 70) E 71) B 72) B 73) C 74) D 75) A 76) C 77) B 78) E 79) C 80) A 81) A 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) A 86) D Version 1
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87) A 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) FALSE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) FALSE 106) TRUE 107) FALSE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) TRUE 111) TRUE 112) FALSE 113) FALSE 114) FALSE 115) FALSE
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CHAPTER 04 – 12e 1) Molecules or regions of molecules that readily interact with water are said to be_________blank, whereas molecules or regions of molecules that are insoluble in water or do not readily interact with water are said to be_________blank.
2) A(n)_________blank is a layer of protein or glycoprotein that exhibits a pattern resembling floor tiles.
3) _________blank is a peptidoglycan-like molecule found in the cell walls of some archaea.
4)
_________blank are the site of protein synthesis in the cell.
5)
External structures that are found in archaea but not bacteria are _________blank. A) pili B) flagella C) hami D) peptidoglycan
6)
A feature unique to some archaeal plasma membranes is that they may_________blank.
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A) consist of a lipid bilayer that lacks integral membrane proteins B) consist of a lipid bilayer with embedded proteins C) contain sterols such as cholesterol D) consist of a lipid monolayer
7) Bacterial and archaeal ribosomes are known as_________blank ribosomes, based on their sedimentation coefficient. A) 50S B) 30S C) 80S D) 70S
8)
Which statement correctly describes archaeal cell walls?
A) Some have an outer layer of complex polysaccharide. B) Some have an outer layer of protein. C) Many have peptidoglycan. D) Some have an outer layer of complex polysaccharide and some have an outer layer of protein.
9)
Which of the following is not true about archaeal ribosomes?
A) They are 70S like bacterial ribosomes. B) They may possess ribosome binding sites homologous to bacterial Shine-Dalgarno sequences. C) They have similar antibiotic sensitivities to those of bacteria. D) Differences in rRNA nucleotide sequences led to the division of the prokaryotes into two separate taxa.
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10) The primary lipid components of the membranes of extreme thermophiles are_________blank. A) sulfolipids B) cholesterol C) 40 carbon diglycerol tetraethers D) 20 carbon diglycerol diethers
11)
Archaeal membranes contain which of the following lipids? A) Phospholipids B) Sulfolipids C) Glycolipids D) All of the choices are correct.
12) The Archaea generally lack which of the following that are normally found in Gramnegative bacteria? A) Outer membrane B) A complex peptidoglycan network C) Lipopolysaccharide D) All of the choices are correct.
13) Which of the following contribute(s) to the differences between the members of the Domain Archaea and the Domain Bacteria?
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A) Archaea lack muramic acid. B) Archaea have isopranyl glycerol ethers rather than fatty acid esters in their membrane lipids. C) Archaea differ from bacteria in their tRNA composition, ribosome structure, and antibiotic sensitivity. D) All of the choices are correct.
14)
Archaeal cell walls_________blank. A) are disrupted by treatment with lysozyme or penicillin B) are similar to those of Gram-negative bacteria C) lack murein and D-amino acids D) are unlike bacterial cells; they all have the same composition
15)
Diglycerol tetraether lipids_________blank. A) are a characteristic feature of thermophilic Archaea B) tend to make the membrane less rigid C) are found in some bacteria and some Archaea D) form typical bilayer membranes in thermophilic Archaea of the genus Thermoplasma
16) The cell membranes of archaeons that lack a cell wall are strengthened by_________blank. A) diglycerol ethers B) glycoprotein or protein layers C) pseudomurein D) diglycerol tetraethers
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17)
Which of the following structures are external to both bacterial and archaeal cells? A) Ribosomes B) Hami C) Pili D) Peptidoglycan
18) Penicillin inhibits bacterial growth by preventing cross-linking during peptidoglycan synthesis. Why does penicillin not inhibit the growth of archaeal cells? A) Archaeal cells do not have a cell wall. B) Most archaeal cells have a cell wall, but it is not composed of peptidoglycan. C) Penicillin is unable to penetrate the lipid outer membrane that blocks access of penicillin to the peptidogycan crosslinking enzymes. D) Pencillin is unable to penetrate the S layer to reach the peptidoglycan layer underneath.
19) One type of archaeon, Haloquadratum walsbyi, is shaped like a postage stamp with dimensions of 2 µm x 3 µm x 0.25 µm. What advantage would this shape provide? A) This shape enables these bacteria to float on surfaces and obtain better light exposure. B) This shape increases the surface-to-volume ratio enabling more efficient nutrient uptake. C) This shape is difficult for phagocytic cells to attach to and engulf. D) This shape is more conducive to the formation of biofilm communities.
20) Which cellular shape is seen among members of domain Bacteria that is not found among the domain Archaea?
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A) Cocci B) Bacilli C) Comma-shaped D) Spiral or corkscrew shapes
21) You are studying a newly discovered prokaryotic microorganism and are attempting to determine whether it will be classified in the domain Bacteria or in the domain Archaea. All of the following would be helpful in making that distinction except _________blank. A) sequence of small subunit ribosomal RNA B) type of membrane lipids C) presence or absence of peptidoglycan in cell walls D) presence or absence of double-stranded circular DNA genome
22)
Which of the following is the most unique aspect of archaeon cell envelopes? A) The plasma membrane is composed of phospholipids. B) The cell walls contain a modified type of peptidoglycan. C) Archaeon capsules can be composed of protein or polysaccharide. D) Some archaeons have lipid monolayers in their plasma membrane.
23) Which type of membrane transport is most important for nutrient acquisition in nutrientpoor environments? A) Simple diffusion B) Facilitated diffusion through channel proteins C) Facilitated diffusion through membrane carrier proteins D) Active transport
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24)
Which statement correctly explains the Gram-stain reaction of archaeal cells?
A) They are Gram-positive due to the pseudomurein layer in their cell walls. B) They are Gram-negative due to the lack of peptidoglycan in their cell walls. C) They don’t stain – basic dyes used in the Gram stain don’t adhere to archaeal cells. D) Some are Gram-positive and some are Gram-negative due to the diverse chemical structure.
25)
Select the correct statement about archaeal ribosomes.
A) Archaeal ribosomal proteins are more similar to bacterial ribosomal proteins than to eukaryotic ribosomal proteins. B) Archaeal ribosomes are susceptible to antibiotics, similar to bacterial ribosomes. C) Archaeal ribosomes have subunits that are identical in shape and chemical components to those of bacteria. D) The chemical components of archaean ribosomes are more similar to those of eukaryotic ribosomes than to those of bacterial ribosomes.
26) In order to distinguish them from bacterial flagella, archaeal flagella have been renamed as archaella because _________blank. A) they are more slender than bacterial flagella B) some archaeon flagella don’t have hooks C) archaean flagella are solid and not hollow D) archaean flagella are composed of more than one type of flagellin subunit E) All of the choices are correct.
27) _________blank are hollow tube-like structures that hold some archaeal daughter cells together after cell division while _________blank are grappling hook-like structures that appear to attach archaeal cells to surfaces.
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A) Pili; hami B) Cannulae; hami C) Hami; fimbriae D) Cannulae; pili
28) You are working with a newly described microorganism that has flagella that are solid, 10 nm in diameter, and composed of more than one type of flagellin subunit. Based on the type of flagella, which type of organism is this? A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Protozoa D) Algae
29) Archaea often live in nutrient-poor environments. In order to ensure survival, they must_________blank. A) accumulate nutrients inside the cell at higher concentrations than the external environment, which requires active transport mechanisms B) acquire nutrients inside the cell at lower concentrations than the external environment, which requires passive transport mechanisms C) transport nutrients to the outside of the cell by facilitated diffusion D) develop metabolic pathways to synthesize their own nutrients using cytoplasmic molecules
30) A fundamental difference between bacterial and archaeal membranes is that_________blank.
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A) bacterial membranes are always comprised of phospholipid bilayers, whereas archaeal membranes can be bilayers or monolayers B) the phospholipids in archaea are comprised of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids vs. two fatty acids in bacteria C) archaeal membranes must be able to solidify due to the extreme habitats the organisms occupy D) archaeal membranes have a hydrophobic exterior and a hydrophilic interior vs. the reverse in bacterial membranes
31)
Cell walls of most archaea and bacteria contain peptidoglycan. ⊚ ⊚
true false
32) The hydrocarbons found in the membranes of archaea are identical to those found in bacteria. ⊚ ⊚
true false
33) Archaeal flagella (archaella) are superficially similar to bacterial flagella, although archaella are much thicker than bacterial flagella. ⊚ ⊚
true false
34) The DNA of some archaeons is stabilized by association with archaeal histone proteins forming particles resembling eukaryotic nucleosomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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35)
Many archaeal genomes include chromosomes and plasmids. ⊚ ⊚
true false
36)
Some archaeons are symbionts in animal digestive tracts. ⊚ true ⊚ false
37)
Some archaeal cells lack a cell wall. ⊚ ⊚
38)
true false
Unlike members of domain Bacteria, most archaeans have linear chromosomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false
39) Methanogens may contribute to the greenhouse effect and global warming due to methane production. ⊚ ⊚
40)
true false
Archaeal and bacterial pili are identical in structure and function. ⊚ ⊚
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41) In terms of membrane lipids, the plasma membranes of archaeons are more similar to those of the eukaryotes than to membranes of bacteria. ⊚ true ⊚ false
42) Archaeons power their flagella by proton motive force (PMF), whereas bacteria empower their flagella by ATP hydrolysis. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_12e_Willey 1) [hydrophilic, hydrophobic] 2) S-layer 3) Pseudomurein 4) Ribosomes 5) C 6) D 7) D 8) D 9) C 10) C 11) D 12) D 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) C 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) D 22) D 23) D 24) D 25) D 26) E Version 1
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27) B 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) FALSE 32) FALSE 33) FALSE 34) TRUE 35) TRUE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE 38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE
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CHAPTER 05 – 12e 1)
Which of the following eukaryotes typically have cell walls? (Check all that apply.) A) Algae B) Protozoa C) Fungi D) Animals E) Plants
2) Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) with many ribosomes attached is called_________blank ER, whereas endoplasmic reticulum that is mostly devoid of ribosomes is called_________blank ER.
3) Ribosomes synthesizing proteins that are to be excreted are located on the_________blank.
4) The inner membrane system of chloroplasts consists of flattened sacs called_________blank that form stacks called_________blank.
5) Long filaments containing microtubules and used for cellular locomotion are called_________blank, whereas short fibers containing microtubules and used for cellular locomotion are called_________blank.
6) Cilia beat with two distinctive phases. With the_________blank stroke, they stroke like an oar, thereby propelling the organism through the water. With the_________blank stroke, cilia bend along their length while they are pulled forward.
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7) Eukaryotic ribosomes may be free in the cytoplasm or attached to the_________blank_________blank.
8)
The region of the cell bounded by the plasma membrane is the _________blank.
9) Membrane delimited intracellular structures that perform specific functions in cells are called_________blank. A) organelles B) organs C) tissues D) systomis
10) The plasma membrane of eukaryotes contains all of the following except _________blank. A) phosphoglycerides B) sphingolipids C) sterols D) peptidoglycan
11)
Microdomains in eukaryotic plasma membranes can participate in_________blank.
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A) cell movement B) cell division C) signal transduction D) All of the choices are correct.
12)
The liquid component of the cytoplasm is known as the_________blank. A) thylakoid B) cytosol C) cytoskeleton D) stroma
13) Protein filaments with a diameter of 4–7 nm that play a role in cell movement and shape change are called_________blank. A) microtubules B) microfilaments C) intermediate filaments D) mycelia
14) Protein filaments with a diameter of about 10 nm that are major components of the cytoskeleton are called_________blank. A) microtubules B) microfilaments C) intermediate filaments D) mycelia
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15) A filamentous organelle comprised of tubulins with a diameter of 25 nm is called_________blank. A) microtubule B) microfilament C) intermediate filament D) mycelia
16)
The endoplasmic reticulum is composed of flattened sacs called_________blank. A) thylakoids B) cristae C) cisternae D) vacuomes
17) The process by which a cell imports large particles by enclosing them in vesicles pinched off from the plasma membrane is called_________blank. A) exocytosis B) phagocytosis C) pinocytosis D) nutrient cytosis
18)
The Golgi apparatus is responsible for the_________blank.
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A) the assembly of ribosomes B) packaging of materials for excretion C) formation of mesosomes D) replication of chromosomes
19)
A lysosome containing undigested material is called_________blank. A) a phagosome B) an endosome C) a residual body D) a coated vesicle
20) Which of the following organelles is involved in the modification, packaging, and secretion of materials? A) Lysosomes B) Golgi apparatus C) Mitochondria D) Centrioles
21)
Enzymes needed to hydrolyze all types of macromolecules are found in_________blank. A) lysosomes B) Golgi apparatus C) mitochondria D) centrioles
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22)
Proteins are synthesized on structures called_________blank. A) mesosomes B) lysosomes C) ribosomes D) chromosomes
23)
The major site of cell membrane synthesis is the_________blank. A) nucleus B) plasma membrane C) lysosome D) endoplasmic reticulum
24)
Which of the following parts of the Golgi complex receives materials from the ER? A) Cis face B) Trans face C) Cisternal edges D) None of the choices are correct.
25)
Receptor-mediated endocytosis_________blank.
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A) depends on the formation of clathrin-coated pits that pinch off B) is used to internalize molecules such as hormones, growth factors, iron, and cholesterol C) involves the formation of caveolae that are enriched in cholesterol and caveolin D) is typically used to internalize plasma membranes added by exocytosis E) depends on the formation of clathrin-coated pits that pinch off and is used to internalize molecules such as hormones, growth factors, iron, and cholesterol
26) The Golgi apparatus is comprised of flattened, saclike structures called_________blank, which may be clustered in one region or scattered throughout the cell. A) cristae B) thylakoids C) cisternae D) vesiculae
27)
Stacks of cisternae in the Golgi apparatus are referred to as_________blank. A) stigmata B) golgisomes C) dictyosomes D) lamellisomes
28) The nucleolar organizer is a part of a specific chromosome that directs the synthesis of_________blank.
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A) transfer RNA (tRNA) B) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) C) messenger RNA (mRNA) D) heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)
29) A(n)_________blank is a special type of lysosome used by a cell to selectively digest and recycle cytoplasmic contents, such as mitochondria. A) suicide vacuole B) turnover lysosome C) recycling vacuole D) autophagosome
30)
The nucleolus plays a major role in synthesis of_________blank. A) mRNA B) tRNA C) rRNA D) transcription activation proteins
31)
Which of the following is a function of the mitochondrion? A) Tricarboxylic acid cycle enzyme reactions B) Electron transport C) ATP synthesis D) All of the choices are correct.
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32) The organelle responsible for harvesting light as an energy source for photosynthesis is the_________blank. A) kinetoplast B) centriole C) chloroplast D) mitochondrion
33) The enzymes and electron carriers involved in electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation are located in the_________blank membrane of the mitochondrion. A) inner B) outer C) inner and outer D) neither inner nor outer
34) The formation of carbohydrate (CO2 fixation) in the dark reaction of photosynthesis, takes place in the_________blank. A) stroma B) cytoplasm C) thylakoid membrane D) nucleus
35) The light reactions of photosynthesis, which form ATP and NADPH, take place in the_________blank.
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A) stroma B) cytoplasm C) thylakoid membrane D) nucleus
36)
Construction of flagella and/or cilia is directed by the_________blank. A) axoneme B) tubulin C) centriole D) basal body
37) An arrangement of microtubules located in the matrix of cilia and flagella is called the_________blank. A) axial bundle B) axial filament C) axoneme D) axillary tubule
38)
Flimmer filaments_________blank. A) permit flagella to pull rather than push the cell B) function to move cells on solid surfaces C) are components of all eukaryotic flagella D) are found on whiplash flagella
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39) Which of the following is useful in distinguishing between bacterial, archaeal, and eukaryotic cells? A) The use of DNA for the storage of genetic information B) The presence of ribosomes for the synthesis of proteins C) The presence of membrane-delimited organelles within the cytoplasm D) All of the choices are correct.
40) The most important distinguishing feature of eukaryotes that is lacking in bacteria and archaea is _________blank. A) the presence of a cell wall in eukaryotes B) the cell respiration process which is fundamentally different in bacteria and archaea C) the DNA replication mechanism D) the division of the cell into compartments that are bound by membranes
41) All of the following processes are located within a membranous structure except _________blank. A) cell respiration – electron transport chain B) photosynthesis – light reactions C) intracellular digestion of food particles D) protein synthesis (translation)
42)
Which mechanism of nutrient acquisition occurs in eukaryotes but is not seen in bacteria? A) Simple diffusion B) Facilitated diffusion C) Endocytosis D) Active transport E) Group translocation
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43) A drug, colchicine, can be added to cells in culture and it stops the polymerization of microtubules. What effect would this have on mitosis? A) It would speed up mitosis by increasing the rate of DNA replication. B) It would slow or block mitosis by preventing DNA replication. C) It would slow or block mitosis by interfering with the spindle apparatus function. D) It would speed up mitosis by increasing the elongation rate of the dividing cell.
44)
Food vacuoles and phagocytic vacuoles are most similar to _________blank. A) mitochondria B) chloroplasts C) lysosomes D) Golgi apparatus
45) Each of the following plays a role in the recycling of proteins in a cell except _________blank. A) ubiquitin B) proteasomes C) ATP D) clathrin
46)
Endocytic events _________blank. A) add membrane to the cell surface B) remove the membrane from the cell surface C) have no effect on the plasma membrane D) change the membrane composition
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47)
Which of the following must leave the nucleus via the nuclear pore complexes? A) Immature ribosomal subunits B) tRNA C) mRNA D) Immature ribosomal subunits, tRNA, and mRNA
48)
Which of the following is most likely synthesized on free ribosomes? A) Polypeptide chains that form enzymes that function in glycolysis B) Electron carriers of the electron transport chain C) Polypeptide chains that form immunoglobulin molecules D) Lysosomal enzymes
49) In eukaryotic cells, the enzymes involved in the tricarboxylic acid cycle (Kreb’s cycle) are located _________blank. A) in the cytoplasm B) in the outer mitochondrial membrane C) in the inner mitochondrial membrane D) in the matrix of the mitochondria E) in the cristae
50) Which of the following are characteristics of hydrogenosomes that distinguish them from mitochondria? A) Hydrogenosomes generate ATP by fermentation. B) The inner membrane of hydrogenosomes is not highly folded. C) Hydrogenosomes have no DNA. D) All of the choices are correct.
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51) A newly discovered microorganism has a circular chromosome that is complexed with histones but not enclosed within a membrane. The plasma membrane lipids include glycerol dietethers and diglycerol tetraethers. There are no mitochondria or chloroplasts, but the cells do contain 70s ribosomes. This microbe most likely is _________blank. A) a bacterium B) an archaeon C) a protozoan D) a fungus
52) A newly discovered unicellular microbe has a nucleus containing linear chromosomes and is surrounded by a membrane. It has mitochondria, 80s ribosomes, and is covered by cilia. There is no cell wall external to the plasma membrane. This organism most likely would be a/an _________blank. A) bacterium B) archaeon C) protozoan D) fungus E) algae
53) Which cell type ranges in size from about 10–100 µm, has 80s ribosomes, and has internal compartments bounded by membranes? A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Eukarya
54)
Which types of eukaryotic cells have cell walls composed of cellulose?
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A) Algae B) Fungi C) Plants D) Protozoa E) Both algae and plants
55)
Where is the glycolysis pathway located in a cell?
A) Cristae of the mitochondria B) Matrix of the mitoconddria C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) Cytoplasm
56)
Which of the following has flagella that wave back and forth? A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Eukarya
57)
Which of the following has flagella that contain microtubules? A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Eukarya
58) The evolution of membrane-bound organelles and thus compartmentalization within eukaryotic cells likely arose due to all of the followingexcept _________blank. Version 1
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A) the need to increase surface area to maximize those processes that take place in a membrane, such as oxidative phosphorylation B) the need to spatially separate simultaneous processes in order to ensure independent control C) the need to increase the overall amount of cell membrane to maximize efficiency of transport systems D) the need to prevent mixing of cellular macromolecules such as proteins and polysaccharides
59)
Mitochondria differ from hydrogenosomes in that_________blank.
A) pyruvate is catabolized as a continuation of the respiratory pathway in mitochondria, whereas in hydrogenosomes, fermentation takes place B) mitochondria have a double membrane system, whereas hydrogenosomes have only a single membrane C) mitochondria generate ATP, whereas hydrogenosomes generate NADH D) mitochondria are found in eukaryotic cells, whereas hydrogenosomes are found in bacteria and archaea
60) Which of the following statements is true regarding formation of both microvesicles and exosomes? A) Both form when the cell membrane pinches off, surrounding the contents in a lipid bilayer. B) Both form when vesicle contents bud out from the outer membrane. C) Both form in a multi-step process of fusing and pinching across the intracellular membranes. D) Both originate in endosomes within the host cell cytoplasm.
61)
The distribution of lipids in the plasma membrane of eukaryotes is symmetrical.
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⊚ ⊚
62)
true false
Like prokaryotic cells, most eukaryotic cells have an external cell wall. ⊚ ⊚
true false
63) Lysosomes maintain an acidic environment by actively pumping protons into their interior. ⊚ ⊚
true false
64) The endoplasmic reticulum is mostly devoid of ribosomes (smooth ER) when cells are producing large quantities of lipid. ⊚ ⊚
true false
65) Coated pits containing clathrin do not permit concentration of ingested macromolecules prior to endocytosis. ⊚ ⊚
true false
66) The membrane-bound structure that contains the chromosomes of eukaryotes is called the nucleus. ⊚ ⊚
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67) Although similar in function, the eukaryotic ribosome is generally smaller and more complex than bacterial and archaeal ribosomes. ⊚ ⊚
true false
68) The nucleolus is a highly active region of the nucleus that is the site of ribosomal synthesis. ⊚ ⊚
69)
true false
Chloroplasts are the site for both the light and dark reactions of photosynthesis. ⊚ ⊚
true false
70) The majority of mitochondrial proteins are manufactured under the direction of the nuclear DNA by cytoplasmic ribosomes. ⊚ ⊚
true false
71) Electron transport reactions that occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotes take place on the inner membrane of that structure. ⊚ ⊚
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18
72) The genetic code is expressed differently in bacterial and archaeal cells than in eukaryotic cells. ⊚ ⊚
true false
73) The major difference between the vacuoles of eukaryotes and the inclusion bodies of bacteria and archaea is that the former are membrane-bound, whereas the latter are not. ⊚ true ⊚ false
74) Eukaryotes usually have more than one chromosome for the storage of genetic information. ⊚ ⊚
true false
75) A eukaryotic flagellum can either push a cell through a liquid environment or pull it through depending on the undulating pattern of movement. ⊚ true ⊚ false
76) Microvesicles and exosomes are both membrane-bound extracellular vesicles. They differ in that microvesicles are surrounded by a portion of the outer cell membrane following exocytosis, whereas exosomes form when an endomembrane pinches off inwardly. ⊚ ⊚
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_12e_Willey 1) [A, C, E] 2) [rough, smooth] 3) endoplasmic reticulum 4) [thylakoids, grana] 5) [flagella, cilia] 6) [effective, recovery] 7) endoplasmic reticulum 8) cytoplasm 9) A 10) D 11) D 12) B 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) B 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) E 26) C Version 1
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27) C 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) A 34) A 35) C 36) D 37) C 38) A 39) C 40) D 41) D 42) C 43) C 44) C 45) D 46) B 47) D 48) A 49) D 50) D 51) B 52) C 53) C 54) E 55) D 56) C Version 1
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57) C 58) D 59) A 60) A 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE
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CHAPTER 06 – 12e 1) _________blank are glycoprotein spikes that protrude from the outer surface of the viral envelope.
2) Icosahedral viruses are constructed from ring- or knob-shaped units called_________blank.
3)
Viruses that are polyhedrons with 20 sides are said to have_________blank symmetry.
4) Some viruses cause abnormal growth of cells rather than destruction. This is called_________blank.
5) Microscopic or macroscopic degenerative changes or abnormalities in infected host cells and tissues are called_________blank_________blank.
6) Localized areas of destruction occurring on plants that have been infected by a virus are referred to as_________blank lesions.
7) Viruses can infect all known cell types. Specifically, the viruses that infect bacterial cells are called_________blank.
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8)
Which isnot true of viruses? A) They can exist in an intracellular or extracellular phase. B) They infect animal and plant cells only. C) They can be observed with an electron microscope. D) They are acellular. E) They replicate only inside host cells.
9)
Which of the following is true of viruses in the extracellular phase?
A) They possess many different enzymes. B) They can reproduce independently of living cells but only at a slow rate. C) They behave as a macromolecular complex and are no more alive than are ribosomes. D) They possess many different enzymes and they can reproduce independently of living cells but only at a slow rate.
10)
A complete virus particle is called a_________blank. A) capsid B) nucleocapsid C) virion D) cell
11)
The nucleic acids carried by viruses usually consist of_________blank. A) DNA B) RNA C) either DNA or RNA D) both DNA and RNA simultaneously
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12)
Which of the following isnot true of viruses?
A) Viruses are acellular. B) Viruses consist of one or more molecules of DNA or RNA enclosed in a coat of protein and sometimes in other more complex layers. C) Viruses can exist in two phases: intracellular and extracellular. D) Viruses replicate by binary fission.
13)
Virus morphology does not include which of the following characteristics? A) Size B) Shape C) Presence or absence of an envelope D) Host range
14)
The simplest viruses consist of_________blank. A) RNA only B) protein only C) RNA or DNA in a protein coat D) RNA or DNA in a protein coat covered with a lipid envelope E) RNA, DNA, and enzymes in a protein coat with a lipid envelope
15)
Viral capsid protein subunits are called_________blank.
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A) auxomers B) elastomers C) protomers D) viromers
16) In an enveloped virus, the part of the virus including the nucleic acid genome and the surrounding protein coat but not the envelope is called the_________blank. A) capsid B) nucleocapsid C) matrix D) virion
17) Some complex viruses have icosahedral symmetry in the head region and helical symmetry in the tail. Overall, these viruses are said to have_________blank symmetry. A) bilateral B) binal C) complex D) radial
18) Glycoprotein spikes protruding from the outer surface of viral envelopes function as_________blank. A) toxins B) factors that bind to host cells C) cell lysis factors D) factors needed for site-specific recombination
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19) A_________blank genome exists as several separate, nonidentical molecules that may be packaged together or separately. A) diploid B) segmented C) polyploid D) fractionated
20)
Many of the enzymes found in virus particles are_________blank. A) required for viral attachment to host cells B) involved in viral entry into host cells C) involved in the replication of viral nucleic acid D) All of the choices are correct.
21)
Which of the following is/arenot true about viral envelopes?
A) The envelope proteins are virus-specific. B) The envelope lipids and carbohydrates are derived from the host. C) They are typical lipid monolayers with embedded viral proteins. D) The envelope proteins are virus-specific and the envelope lipids and carbohydrates are derived from the host.
22)
Viral envelopes are composed of_________blank.
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A) proteins B) lipids C) carbohydrates D) All of the choices are correct.
23)
Two major types of symmetry found in viruses include_________blank. A) icosahedral and radial B) icosahedral and helical C) helical and radial D) radial and bilateral
24)
The function of the viral protein coat is to_________blank.
A) protect the viral genetic material B) aid in the transfer of the viral genetic material between host cells C) elicit the production of protective antibodies D) protect the viral genetic material and aid in the transfer of the viral genetic material between host cells
25)
The protein coat surrounding the viral genome is called the_________blank. A) capsule B) capsid C) matrix D) envelope
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26)
Which of the following is true of a viral DNA genome?
A) It uses the same four nitrogenous bases found in prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA. B) It may have the normal bases found in prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA, or it may have one or more unusual bases. C) It is usually composed of unusual bases unique to viruses. D) Viruses use only RNA for their genome.
27)
Virion size ranges from_________blank. A) 1–40 nm B) 10–400 nm C) 600–1,000 nm D) 1,000–10,000 nm
28) Viral capsids are generally constructed without any outside aid once the subunits have been synthesized. This process is called_________blank. A) facilitated assembly B) self-assembly C) spontaneous maturation D) self-maturation
29) In which of the following stages of the viral infectious cycle do enveloped viruses usually acquire their envelopes?
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A) Penetration B) Component biosynthesis C) Assembly D) Release
30)
Most enveloped viruses use the host_________blank membrane as their envelope source. A) plasma B) nuclear C) mitochondrial D) None of these choices are correct.
31)
Poliovirus receptors are found_________blank. A) in cells of all tissues B) in the spinal cord anterior horn cells only C) in the nasopharynx, gut, and spinal cord anterior horn cells D) in gut cells only
32)
Nonenveloped viruses most often gain access to eukaryotic host cells by_________blank.
A) fusion with the host cell plasma membrane followed by entrance of the nucleocapsid into the cytoplasm B) endocytosis C) pinocytosis D) nucleic acid injection through the plasma membrane
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33) Which of the following represent(s) the way(s) in which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes? A) Budding through the plasma membrane. B) Budding through internal cellular membranes. C) Viral enzymes are responsible for production of the envelope. D) Some viruses bud through the plasma membrane while others bud through internal cellular membranes.
34)
Animal viruses have been cultivated in_________blank. A) suitable host animals B) embryonated eggs C) tissue cultures (monolayers of animal cells) D) All of the choices are correct.
35)
Which of the following can be used to cultivate plant viruses? A) Cultures of separated plant cells B) Whole plants C) Plant protoplast cultures D) All of the choices are correct.
36) 0.2 mls of a 10-4 dilution of a virus preparation yields 90 plaques. What is the number of plaque-forming units (PFUs) per ml in the undiluted virus preparation? A) 9.0 × 105 B) 4.5 × 106 C) 4.5 × 107 D) 9.0 × 108
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37) A _________blank assay is most useful for determining the viability of a viral preparation. A) direct (electron microscopic) count B) hemagglutination C) plaque D) PCR
38) Which of the following isnot a mechanism by which viruses cause cancer in eukaryotic animal cells? A) They carry a cancer-causing gene into the cell. B) They encode proteins that bind to and inactivate host cell proteins known as tumor suppressor proteins. C) They produce defective interfering particles. D) An expression of viral proteins results in abnormal expression of genes that regulate cell growth and reproduction.
39)
Which of the following isnot true of viroids? A) Viroids are small circular ssRNA molecules. B) Viroids have no protein capsids. C) Viroid RNA does not serve as mRNA nor does it direct the synthesis of mRNA. D) Extracellular viroids have a lipid bilayer envelope.
40)
Viroids are of economic significance because they cause disease in_________blank.
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A) plants B) animals C) humans D) All of the choices are correct.
41)
Viroids are_________blank. A) proteins that may infect man and other animals causing spongiform encephalopathy B) a class of so-called slow viruses C) a new class of small single-stranded DNA viruses that infect some animals D) short infectious single-stranded RNAs that can infect some plants
42)
Prions are of significance because they cause infections of_________blank. A) domestic animals and humans B) plants C) fungi D) prokaryotes
43)
Which of the following diseases is (are) caused by prions? A) Scrapie B) Mad cow disease C) Kuru and Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease D) All of the choices are correct.
44)
Which virion release process is most often used by enveloped viruses?
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A) Lysis B) Facilitated diffusion C) Budding D) Diffusion through a channel protein
45)
Which type of virus is most likely to be released by lysis of the host cell? A) Enveloped virus B) Nonenveloped virus
46)
For a temperate phage to produce more phage, which of the following must happen? A) Lysogeny B) Induction C) Lysogenic conversion D) Prophage formation
47) The production of cholera toxin by virulent strains of Vibrio cholera is dependent upon genes in a bacteriophage. This is an example of _________blank. A) lysogenic conversion B) induction C) bacterial transformation D) transduction
48) Diphtheria toxin is produced only by strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that are infected with a particular bacteriophage. This is an example of _________blank.
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A) conjugation B) induction C) lysis D) lysogenic conversion
49)
Which type of phage always lyses its host cell? A) Temperate B) Virulent C) Lysogenic D) Prophage
50)
Which of the following encodes its own capsid proteins? A) Satellite virus B) Satellite DNA C) Satellite RNA D) Prion
51)
Which of the following is/are necessary for the replication of a satellite virus? A) Host cell only B) Helper virus only C) Prion only D) Host cell and helper virus
52) The most notable difference between PrPC (normal protein) and PrPSc (prion protein) is _________blank.
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A) PrPC is a much longer polypeptide chain, compared to PrPSc B) PrPC causes a cell to undergo rapid apoptosis C) PrPc folds appropriately whereas PrPSc does not fold correctly D) PrPc is a functional glycolytic enzyme whereas PrPSc is nonfunctional
53)
All of the following are methods of prion disease transmission except _________blank. A) ingestion of infected tissue B) inheritance (genetic) C) organ or tissue transplantation D) contamination through use of inadequately processed surgical instruments E) inhalation (airborne)
54) What is the minimum number of phage that can initiate the development of a plaque in a bacterial lawn? A) 1 B) 5 C) 10 D) 25
55)
Virulent and temperate phages differ in that_________blank.
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A) virulent phages always result in the lysis of the host cell, whereas temperate phages may lyse the host cell, or they can enter a lysogenic cycle whereby they integrate their genome into the genome of the host cell B) temperate phages always result in the lysis of the host cell, whereas virulent phages may lyse the host cell, or they can enter a lysogenic cycle whereby they integrate their genome into the genome of the host cell C) temperate phages integrate their genome into that of the host cell, causing uncontrolled growth and ultimately lysis of the cell, whereas virulent phages remain in the lysogenic phase indefinitely D) virulent phages cause mutations in the host cell genome, whereas temperate phages have no genetic effect on the host cell
56) Diseases caused by prions that are seen in domesticated animals and humans have which of the following manifestations in common? A) All diseases cause neurodegeneration B) All diseases cause gastrointestinal upset C) All diseases affect the cardiovascular system D) All diseases affect the musculoskeletal system E) All diseases cause skin lesions
57)
Viruses have a typical cellular structure like other living organisms. ⊚ ⊚
58)
true false
Viruses in the extracellular state possess few, if any, active enzymes. ⊚ ⊚
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59)
Viruses infecting protists, including algae, have never been detected. ⊚ ⊚
true false
60) One way in which small viruses package more information into a very small genome is to use overlapping genes so that the same base sequence is read in more than one reading frame. ⊚ ⊚
61)
Almost all known plant viruses are RNA viruses. ⊚ ⊚
62)
true false
true false
The most common capsid morphologies are icosahedral and helical. ⊚ ⊚
true false
63) The largest of the viruses are similar in size to some small bacteria and are large enough to be seen with a light microscope. ⊚ ⊚
true false
64) The presence or absence of an envelope is not useful in classifying viruses because any given virus may at one time have an envelope and at another time not have an envelope. Version 1
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⊚ ⊚
true false
65) Viruses such as MS2 and Qß pack additional information into their genomes through the use of overlapping genes. ⊚ ⊚
true false
66) Enveloped viruses may enter their host cells by fusion of their envelope with the cytoplasmic membrane, thereby depositing their nucleocapsid within the cell. ⊚ ⊚
true false
67) Enveloped viruses may enter their host cells by engulfment within coated vesicles (endocytosis). ⊚ ⊚
true false
68) In a plaque assay, the number of infectious virions is usually identical to the number of virus particles present. ⊚ ⊚
true false
69) Like bacteria and eukaryotic microorganisms, most viruses can be cultured using artificial media. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1
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70) Bacterial viruses are so named because they have prokaryotic cell structures similar to their bacterial hosts. ⊚ ⊚
71)
true false
Prions consist of proteins and have no apparent nucleic acid genome. ⊚ ⊚
true false
72) Available evidence is consistent with the proposal that prion diseases are caused by infectious proteins. ⊚ ⊚
true false
73) The mechanism of pathogenesis by prions may involve a conformational change in the prion protein (PrP) to an abnormal form. ⊚ ⊚
74)
There are no known human diseases that have been linked to prions. ⊚ ⊚
75)
true false
true false
A temperate phage always lyses its host cell.
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⊚ ⊚
76)
true false
A PrPc protein can convert a PrPSc to a PrPc. ⊚ true ⊚ false
77) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is known to have been transmitted by surgical instruments and transplanted nerve tissue. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_12e_Willey 1) Peplomers 2) capsomers 3) icosahedral 4) transformation 5) cytopathic effects 6) necrotic 7) bacteriophages 8) B 9) C 10) C 11) C 12) D 13) D 14) C 15) C 16) B 17) B 18) B 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) D 23) B 24) D 25) B 26) A Version 1
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27) B 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) D 34) D 35) D 36) B 37) C 38) C 39) D 40) A 41) D 42) A 43) D 44) C 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) A 51) D 52) C 53) E 54) A 55) A 56) A Version 1
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57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE
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CHAPTER 07 – 12e 1) Growth media that will support the growth of many different types of microorganisms are called_________blank_________blank growth media, whereas those that are supplemented by blood or other rich nutrient sources in order to support the growth of fastidious organisms are called_________blank media.
2) Macroscopically visible growths or clusters of microorganisms on solid media are called_________blank.
3) The cell wall of bacteria constrains the_________blank_________blank that results from the osmolarity of the cytoplasmic contents.
4) Microbial_________blank is an increase in cell constituents that may or may not be accompanied by an increase in cell number.
5) The_________blank_________blank is the length of time it takes for a population of microorganisms to double in number.
6) Organisms that can grow in habitats with low water activity by maintaining a high internal salt concentration are called_________blank organisms.
7) Organisms that require high levels of sodium chloride in order to grow are called_________blank organisms.
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8) Organisms that have their optimum growth pH between 0.0 and 5.5 are called_________blank.
9) Organisms that have their optimum growth pH between 5.5 and 8.0 are called_________blank.
10) Organisms that have their optimum growth pH between 8.5 and 11.5 are called_________blank.
11) Organisms that grow best at pH levels above 10 are called_________blank_________blank.
12) Complex microbial communities that grow tightly adhered to surfaces are called_________blank.
13) Quorum sensing in Gram-positive bacteria generally involves the use of_________blank as the external signaling molecules.
14) Bacteria that live attached to surfaces are described as _________blank, whereas bacteria that are free-living, floating with a fluid environment are described as _________blank.
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15) A culture technique that encourages the growth of specific microbes while inhibiting the growth of others is _________blank.
16) When counting colonies during viable cell counts, the results are expressed as _________blank _________blank _________blank because it is impossible to determine that each colony arose from a single cell.
17) Media containing some ingredients of unknown chemical composition are called_________blank media. A) undefined B) complex C) defined D) synthetic
18) Agar is an excellent solidifying agent for microbiological media because_________blank. A) it is not degraded by most microorganisms B) solid agar remains solid until the temperature is raised to 90°C, and liquid agar remains liquid if the temperature is lowered to 45°C C) it is not degraded by most microorganisms and solid agar remains solid until the temperature is raised to 90°C, and liquid agar remains liquid if the temperature is lowered to 45°C D) agar provides an excellent source of nutrition for a variety of different microorganisms
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19) For surface cultivation of microorganisms, a sulfated polymer called agar can be extracted from_________blank and added to liquid media to solidify it. A) bacteria B) animal fat C) algae D) fungi
20) A growth medium that favors the growth of some microorganisms but inhibits the growth of other microorganisms is_________blank. A) a selective medium B) a differential medium C) both selective and differential D) neither selective nor differential
21) A growth medium that distinguishes among different groups of bacteria on the basis of their biological characteristics is called a(n)_________blank medium. A) selective B) differential C) enrichment D) transport
22) Mannitol salt agar (MSA) only allows the growth of halophiles (salt-loving microbes); nonhalophiles will not grow. Among the halophiles, mannitol fermenters will produce acid that turns the pH indicator yellow; mannitol nonfermenters leave the medium red. Onto MSA you inoculate a halophilic mannitol fermenter and a halophilic mannitol nonfermenter. In this case, the medium is acting __________.
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A) as a selective medium B) as a differential medium C) as both selective and differential media D) as an enrichment medium
23) Mannitol salt agar (MSA) only allows the growth of halophiles (salt-loving microbes). Among the halophiles, mannitol fermenters release acid that turns the pH indicator yellow; mannitol nonfermenters leave the medium red. Onto MSA you inoculate a halophilic mannitol nonfermenter and a nonhalophilic mannitol nonfermenter. Here the medium acts as a(n)_________blank medium. A) selective B) differential C) selective and differential D) enrichment
24) Mannitol salt agar (MSA) only allows the growth of halophiles (salt-loving microbes). Among the halophiles, mannitol fermenters release acid that turns the pH indicator yellow; mannitol nonfermenters leave the medium red. Onto MSA you inoculate a halophilic mannitol fermenter, a nonhalophilic mannitol fermenter, and a halophilic mannitol nonfermenter. In this case, it is_________blank. A) a selective medium B) a differential medium C) both selective and differential D) neither selective nor differential
25) Media in which all components and their concentration are known are called_________blank media.
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A) transport B) defined C) selective D) enrichment
26) You would like to culture a bacterium that is growing in the lung of a human patient with pneumonia. Which media would be of most use in culturing this organism? A) Transport media B) Mannitol salt agar C) MacConkey's agar D) Complex medium supplemented with whole blood E) None of the choices are correct.
27)
All fastidious microorganisms require which of the following for growth? A) Oxygen B) Temperatures near normal for the human body C) Extra nutrients (such as whole blood) D) Iron
28)
Which of the following can be used to isolate pure cultures of bacteria from mixtures? A) Spread plates B) Streak plates C) Pour plates D) All of the choices are correct.
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29)
Most bacterial and archaeal cells divide by_________blank. A) mitosis B) meiosis C) binary fission D) All of the choices are correct.
30)
Which of the following is the correct order for binary fission?
A) A septum forms at midcell, the cell elongates, replicates its chromosome, and separates the chromosome into the two parts of the cell. B) The cell elongates, a septum forms at midcell, the cell replicates its chromosome, and separates the chromosome into the two parts of the cell. C) The cell elongates, replicates its chromosome, and separates the chromosome into the two parts of the cell, and a septum forms at midcell. D) None of the choices are correct.
31) The_________blank is a group of proteins needed for DNA synthesis that assembles at the origin of replication. A) septum B) replisome C) prospore D) None of the choices are correct.
32) The process of forming a cross wall between two daughter cells is known as _________blank.
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A) replication B) septation C) sporulation D) mitosis
33) The site at which replication of DNA starts in bacterial cells is known as the_________blank. A) origin of replication B) initiation center C) replication initiation site D) start complex
34) The actin-like protein that seems to be involved in determining cell shape is_________blank. A) MreB B) ActA C) SpnC D) FtsZ
35)
During cytokinesis, a critical step in septation is the assembly of the_________blank. A) replisome B) spindle body C) Z ring D) cytoskeletal spiral
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36)
The limitation on microbial growth rate at high nutrient levels is/are _________blank. A) the rate of protein synthesis B) the rate of DNA replication C) the saturation of the transport proteins for nutrient uptake D) All of the choices are correct.
37) The total number of viable microorganisms remains constant in stationary phase because_________blank. A) there is a balance between cell division and cell death B) there is a cessation of cell division even though the cells may remain metabolically active C) either there is a balance between cell division and cell death or there is a cessation of cell division even though the cells may remain metabolically active D) None of the choices are correct.
38)
Cells may enter stationary phase because of_________blank. A) the depletion of an essential nutrient B) a lack of available oxygen C) the accumulation of toxic waste products D) All of the choices are correct.
39) A culture in a closed vessel to which no additional medium is added and from which no waste products are removed is called a_________blank culture.
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A) continuous B) batch C) fed-batch D) semicontinuous
40) Given a log phase bacterial culture with 1 x 106 cells per ml and a generation time of 30 minutes, how long does it take the culture to reach a density of 6.4 × 107 cells per ml? A) 1 hour B) 2 hours C) 3 hours D) 4 hours
41) Microorganisms are at their most uniform in terms of chemical and physiological properties during_________blank phase. A) lag B) exponential C) stationary D) decline
42) Which of the following is a reason for the occurrence of a lag phase in a bacterial growth curve?
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A) The cells may be old and depleted of ATP, essential cofactors, and ribosomes that must be synthesized before growth can begin. B) The medium may be different from the previous growth medium so that the cells must synthesize new enzymes to use different nutrients. C) The organisms may have been injured and require time to recover. D) All of these are potential reasons.
43)
The length of the lag phase of growth can vary depending on_________blank. A) the condition of the microorganisms B) the nature of the growth medium C) the temperature D) All of the choices are correct.
44) At 4:00 p.m. a closed flask of sterile broth is inoculated with 10,000 cells. The lag phase lasts 1 hour. At 9:00 p.m. the culture enters stationary phase with a population of approximately 41 million cells. At what time is the population half-maximal? A) 6:30 p.m. B) 7:20 p.m. C) 8:20 p.m. D) 8:40 p.m.
45) At 4:00 p.m. a closed flask of sterile broth is inoculated with 10,000 cells. The lag phase lasts 1 hour. At 9:00 p.m. the log phase culture has a population of approximately 41 million cells. The estimated number of generations that have occurred is_________blank.
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A) 5 B) 12 C) 21 D) 27
46) Which of the following can be used to estimate the number of microorganisms in a culture? A) Direct counts of microbial cells B) Counts of viable cells using colony growth procedures C) Measurements of microbial biomass D) All of the choices are correct.
47) Which of these methods can be used to determine the number of viable microorganisms in a sample? A) Light scattering in a spectrophotometer B) Measuring total cell mass C) Measuring colony forming units per ml D) Counting a known volume of cells in a hemocytometer
48) At 4:00 p.m. a closed flask of sterile broth is inoculated with 10,000 cells. The lag phase lasts 1 hour. At 9:00 p.m. the log phase culture has a population of approximately 41 million cells. The mean generation time is calculated as_________blank. A) 10 minutes B) 20 minutes C) 30 minutes D) 40 minutes
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49) A culture system with constant environmental conditions maintained through continual provision of nutrient and removal of wastes is called_________blank culture system. A) continuous B) batch C) fed-batch D) semicontinuous
50) An open system in which the growth rate is maintained by adding a nutrient (present in limiting quantities) at the same rate that medium containing microorganisms is removed is called a _________blank. A) manostat B) chemostat C) turbidostat D) culturostat
51) An open system in which the growth rate is maintained by the removal and addition of media at such a rate as to maintain a constant cell density is called a_________blank. A) manostat B) chemostat C) turbidostat D) culturostat
52) In a continuous culture system, the rate at which media is added and removed is called the_________blank rate.
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A) dilution B) chemostatic C) pass-through D) flow-through
53)
Which of the following is considered a cardinal growth temperature? A) The minimum temperature B) The maximum temperature C) The optimum temperature D) All of these are considered cardinal growth temperatures.
54) Organisms that grow well at 0°C and have optimum growth temperatures of 15°C or lower are called_________blank. A) psychrotrophs B) psychrophiles C) frigiphiles D) mesophiles
55) Organisms that grow at 0°C and have a maximum growth temperature of 35°C are called_________blank. A) psychrotrophs B) psychrophiles C) frigiphiles D) mesophiles
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56) Organisms that do not require oxygen for growth but grow better in its presence are called_________blank. A) facultative anaerobes B) microaerophiles C) aerotolerant D) anoxygenic
57) Organisms that ignore oxygen and grow equally well in its presence or absence are called_________blank. A) facultative anaerobes B) microaerophiles C) aerotolerant D) anoxygenic
58) Organisms that are damaged by the normal atmospheric levels of oxygen (20%) but require oxygen at levels of 2–10% for growth are called_________blank. A) facultative anaerobes B) microaerophiles C) aerotolerant D) anoxygenic
59) The membranes of psychrophilic bacteria have relatively high levels of _________blank fatty acids, which allow them to remain semifluid at cold temperatures.
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A) saturated B) unsaturated C) sterol D) aromatic
60) Organisms that are not drastically affected by increased pressure are called_________blank. A) barotolerant B) osmotolerant C) barophilic D) osmophilic
61) Organisms that require increased pressure for optimum growth are called_________blank. A) barotolerant B) osmotolerant C) barophilic D) osmophilic
62)
Most known microorganisms maintain their internal pH _________blank. A) near neutral (pH 7) B) near their optimum growth pH C) slightly acidic (pH 4–6) D) slightly alkaline (pH 8–10)
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63)
Organisms that grow near deep-sea volcanic vents are likely to be_________blank. A) psychrophilic B) psychrotrophic C) mesophilic D) thermophilic
64)
Organisms that grow near deep-sea volcanic vents are likely to be_________blank. A) alkalophilic B) acidophilic C) barophilic or barotolerant D) psychrophilic
65) Organisms that grow in mud under relatively nonturbulent bodies of water are likely to be_________blank. A) obligate aerobes B) thermophilic C) barophilic D) anaerobes
66) Membranes of thermophilic bacteria are stabilized by phospholipids with_________blank. A) fatty acids that tend to be more saturated B) fatty acids that have lower molecular weights C) fatty acids that have more double bonds D) All of the choices are correct.
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67)
Quorum sensing_________blank. A) is a phenomenon in which bacteria monitor their own population density B) depends on the sensing of signal protein molecules C) plays an important role in formation of biofilms by Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) All of the choices are correct.
68)
Bacteria reproductive strategies include all of the following except _________blank. A) binary fission B) budding C) multiple fission D) formation of multinucleoid filaments that break apart into uninucleate spores E) fusion of two bacterial cells that then split into four uninucleate cells
69)
How is budding of bacteria to produce daughter cells different from binary fission? A) The chromosome does not need to be replicated. B) The cytoplasmic division is unequal. C) The bud doesn’t receive any DNA. D) A septum must form during budding.
70)
How is the cell cycle of Sulfolobus spp. similar to that of eukaryotes?
A) Sulfolobus has microtubules composed of a tubulin homolog that separate the chromosomes. B) Sulfolobus demonstrates prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. C) A centrosome is apparent in Sulfolobus during G2. D) The cytokinesis process in Sulfolobus is similar to the process in eukaryotes.
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71) Which of the following is most similar between the cell cycle process of Sulfolobus and that of bacteria? A) The segregation of the chromosomes B) The cytokinesis process C) The timing of events during G1, S, and G2
72) Unlike Sulfolobus, some Archaea use _________blank protein(s) to accomplish cytokinesis. A) Tubulin B) Seg A and Seg B C) CdvA, CdvB, and CdvC D) FtsZ
73) Which of the following strategies enable non-acidophilic bacteria to endure lower pH environments? A) Presence of internal buffers B) Proton pumps that pump H+ out of the cell C) Synthesis of acid shock proteins that protect other cellular proteins D) All of the choices are correct.
74) Which of the following are used by airborne microorganisms and microorganisms on light-exposed surfaces to protect themselves from photooxidation? A) Catalase enzymes B) Peroxidase enzymes C) Carotenoid pigments D) Superoxide dismutase
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75) Which of the following proteins is central to starvation survival strategies in many bacteria? A) Fts Z B) RpoS C) Superoxide dismutase D) ATPase
76)
Which type of lifestyle is demonstrated by bacteria in biofilms? A) Planktonic B) Photoautotrophic C) Parasitic D) Sessile
77) A microbiologist is trying to isolate a pathogen expected to be present in very small numbers from a stool specimen in which there are abundant normal microbiota. Which strategy would most likely accomplish this purpose? A) Culture on enriched media B) Enrichment culture followed by culture on selective agar C) Culture on differential media D) Culture in an anaerobe jar
78)
All of the following are characteristics of spread plates except _________blank. A) they have colonies that grow on the surface of the agar B) specimens are typically diluted prior to inoculation of a spread plate C) spread plates readily grow anaerobic bacteria D) spread plates are typically inoculated with a bent glass rod
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79) Which of the following is a reason(s) for the decline in cell numbers during the death phase? A) Depletion of nutrients B) Accumulation of toxic waste materials C) <p>Depletion of D) All of the choices are correct.
80) One hypothesis regarding cells living in oligotrophic environments is that the cells aren’t all dying but instead remain alive but unable to grow when cultured, at least temporarily. These are known as _________blank. A) viable but nonculturable cells B) ghost cells C) death phase cells D) programmed death cells
81) Which of the following might be missed if viable counts are done on food and/or water specimens? A) Endospores B) Aerobic bacteria C) Viable but nonculturable cells D) Pathogenic bacteria
82) Which of the following methods could be used to detect the presence of viable but nonculturable cells of a pathogen in a water or food specimen?
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A) Culture on enriched agar B) Use of enrichment techniques C) Polymerase chain reaction D) Culture on selective agar
83)
Which of the following may form one colony? A) A single bacterial cell B) A short chain of bacteria C) A small clump of bacteria D) All of the choices are correct.
84) A microbiologist is testing the drinking water for a municipality. What would be the best method for testing the purified water? A) Viable plate count B) Measurement of microbial mass C) Direct microscopic count D) Membrane filtration
85) A microbiologist is studying the growth of a particular strain of bacteria to determine when it will transition from exponential growth to stationary phase and from stationary phase to death phase. Which of the following methods of measuring microbial growth would be best for this purpose? A) Direct microscopic count B) Determining dry weight of microbes C) Turbidimetric measurements using a spectrophotometer D) Viable plate count
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86) A microbiologist is attempting to determine the size of a microbial population and has employed several methods. She noticed that the direct count she obtained using a counting chamber and microscope was much higher than her estimate from doing a viable plate count. This discrepancy was encountered during multiple trials. What is the most likely reason for the discrepancy? A) She counted incorrectly. B) She did not correctly do the serial dilutions prior to the viable plate count. C) Many of the organisms viewed during the direct count may be dead. D) The medium and growth conditions used for the viable count will not support the growth of the organisms. E) The organisms were not readily cultured on the viable count, either because many were dead or because the medium and growth conditions used for the viable count will not support the growth of the microorganism.
87)
Aerotolerant anaerobes_________blank. A) synthesize superoxide dismutase, but not catalase B) synthesize both superoxide dismutase and catalase C) synthesize neither superoxide dismutase nor catalase D) synthesize catalase but not superoxide dismutase
88)
Facultative anaerobes differ from aerotolerant anaerobes in that_________blank.
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A) facultative anaerobes synthesize both superoxide dismutase and catalase for protection against reactive oxygen species (ROS), whereas aerotolerant anaerobes synthesize superoxide dismutase only, allowing survival in the presence of ROS, but they do not utilize O2 in their metabolic pathways B) aerotolerant anaerobes synthesize both superoxide dismutase and catalase for protection against reactive oxygen species (ROS), whereas facultative anaerobes synthesize superoxide dismutase only, allowing survival in the presence of ROS, but they do not utilize O2 in their metabolic pathways C) facultative anaerobes synthesize neither superoxide dismutase nor catalase so they lack protection against reactive oxygen species (ROS), whereas aerotolerant anaerobes synthesize both superoxide dismutase and catalase, allowing survival in the presence of ROS that form during respiration D) facultative anaerobes synthesize neither superoxide dismutase nor catalase so they lack protection against reactive oxygen species (ROS), whereas aerotolerant anaerobes synthesize superoxide dismutase only, allowing survival in the presence of ROS, but they do not utilize O2 in their metabolic pathways
89)
The ability to study microorganisms is hindered by the fact that_________blank. A) over 95% of microorganisms currently have noin vitro culturing system available B) space limitations prevent culture of all known organisms C) pathogens are too dangerous to isolate and study D) an oxygen-free environment cannot be created for strict anaerobes
90) Explain why a scientist would need to increase the dilution rate in a chemostat from 0.20 -1 hr to 0.50 hr-1.
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A) When the dilution rate is low, the availability of an essential nutrient is limited, creating an environment where the organism can expend energy on survival only, not growth and reproduction. Increasing the dilution rate enables an increase in cell density. B) When the dilution rate is low, cell reproduction is high, creating a space limitation for the rapidly-dividing organisms. Increasing the dilution rate slows growth to free up available space. C) When the dilution rate is low, the availability of an essential nutrient is limited, creating an environment where the organism synthesizes nutrients rapidly to overcome the deficit in the media thus producing toxic waste products. Increasing the dilution rate provides a greater quantity of the nutrient effectively slowing growth and minimizing the level of waste. D) When the dilution rate is low, the total available energy provided by the media exceeds the maintenance energy required by the culture. Increasing the dilution rate flushes out some of the organisms to strike a balance between available energy and maintenance energy.
91)
A given medium can be either selective or differential but not both. ⊚ ⊚
92)
true false
Blood agar is both a differential and enriched medium. ⊚ ⊚
true false
93) Isolating individual colonies using the streak-plate technique is not useful for rudimentary identification of a microorganism because most microorganisms produce colonies that are indistinguishable from one another. ⊚ ⊚
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94) Serial dilutions can be used to estimate the total number of bacterial cells, both living and dead, in a solution. ⊚ ⊚
95)
true false
All bacterial and archaeal cells are diploid. ⊚ ⊚
true false
96) The purpose of the penicillin-binding proteins is to link phospholipids together in the cellular membrane. ⊚ ⊚
true false
97) When a young, vigorously growing culture of bacteria is transferred to a fresh medium of the same composition, the lag phase is usually short or absent. ⊚ ⊚
98)
true false
During the lag phase of microbial growth, the cells are metabolically inactive. ⊚ ⊚
true false
99) When a young, vigorously growing culture of bacteria is transferred to fresh medium of different composition, the lag phase is usually short or absent.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
100) The growth rate of a given species of microorganism is dependent on the composition of the medium in which it is grown. ⊚ ⊚
true false
101) One of the major advantages of a continuous culture system is that the cells can be maintained in the exponential growth phase for extended periods of time. ⊚ ⊚
true false
102) Obligate anaerobes are usually poisoned by molecular oxygen but may grow in aerobic habitats if associated with facultative anaerobes that use up all available oxygen. ⊚ ⊚
103)
DNA of thermophiles is stabilized by binding of special nucleoid-associated proteins. ⊚ ⊚
104)
true false
true false
Membranes of some thermophilic Archaea are stabilized by ether-linked phospholipids. ⊚ ⊚
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105) A common type of autoinducer found in Gram-negative bacteria is acyl-homoserine lactones (AHL). ⊚ ⊚
true false
106) A microbial environment containing high nutrient concentrations is called an oligotrophic environment. ⊚ ⊚
true false
107) The process of segregating the daughter chromosomes in Sulfolobus is more similar to the process in eukaryotic cells than in bacterial cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false
108) During the cell division process, Sulfolobus segregates its chromosomes in a manner similar to bacteria, and performs cytokinesis in a manner similar to that of eukaryotes. ⊚ true ⊚ false
109) There doesn’t appear to be much diversity in the cell cycle processes of the Archaea, therefore Sulfolobus serves as an excellent model for all other Archaea. ⊚ true ⊚ false
110)
Most microorganisms live in eutrophic environments.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
111) All of the colonies form on the surface of a spread plate, whereas on a pour plate, colonies may be embedded in the agar as well as on the surface. ⊚ true ⊚ false
112) Researchers have successfully isolated the majority of microbes from their natural habitats and have cultured themin vitro on artificial media to facilitate extensive study. ⊚ ⊚
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_12e_Willey 1) [general purpose, enriched] 2) colonies 3) turgor pressure 4) growth 5) generation time 6) osmotolerant 7) halophilic 8) acidophiles 9) neutrophiles 10) alkalophiles 11) extreme alkalophiles 12) biofilms 13) oligopeptides 14) [sessile, planktonic] 15) enrichment 16) colony forming units 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) D Version 1
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21)
RNA polymerase II of eukaryotes is responsible for transcribing ________. A) rRNA B) mRNA C) tRNA D) All of the choices are correct.
22)
Which of the following statements is the best definition of a telomerase? A) Telomerase is an enzyme that helps separate DNA strands. B) Telomerase is an enzyme that helps proofread and correct newly synthesized DNA. C) Telomerase is an enzyme that helps solve the "end replication problem." D) Telomerase is an enzyme that cleaves introns and exons.
23) The process by which the base sequence of all or a portion of a DNA molecule is used to direct the synthesis of an RNA molecule is called __________. A) replication B) transcription C) reverse transcription D) translation
24) In eukaryotes a series of __________ residues are added to the 3' end of an RNA molecule as part of the posttranscriptional processing used to produce functional mRNA. A) adenine B) guanine C) cytosine D) uracil
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25)
The genetic code is translated in groups of __________ bases. A) two B) three C) four D) five
26)
________ molecules deliver amino acids to ribosomes during translation. A) Messenger RNA (mRNA) B) Transfer RNA (tRNA) C) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) D) Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)
27) The process by which the base sequence of an RNA molecule is used to direct the synthesis of a protein is called __________. A) replication B) transcription C) reverse transcription D) translation
28) What is the minimum number of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase enzymes needed to attach amino acids to all the various tRNA molecules?
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A) 20 B) 61 C) 64 D) Each tRNA requires its own aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
29) In __________, the ribosomes can attach to the mRNA and begin translation even though transcription has not been completed. A) bacteria B) eukaryotes C) fungi D) algae
30) Ribosomes consist of __________ separate subunits that come together as part of the initiation process and dissociate immediately after termination. A) two B) three C) four D) five
31) A complex consisting of a single mRNA molecule with several ribosomes is called a _______. A) polysome B) multisome C) maxisome D) complexisome
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32) In order to add a single amino acid to a growing polypeptide chain, a grand total of __________ molecules or ATP or GTP are utilized. A) two B) three C) four D) six
33)
Archaeal promoters are most similar to those of _________. A) viruses B) bacteria C) eukaryotes D) both viruses and bacteria
34)
Which of the following is incorrect about archaeal translation?
A) Archaeal translation uses 70S ribosomes, similar to bacterial ribosomes. B) Archaeal translation may recognize ribosome binding sites homologous to bacterial Shine-Dalgarno sequences. C) Archaeal translation uses no chaperone proteins for folding new polypeptides. D) Archaeal translation is coupled to transcription, similar to bacterial processes.
35)
Which of the statements best describes the function of telomerase?
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_12e_Willey 1) [A, B, C] 2) [A, C] 3) Shine-Dalgarno 4) 7-methylguanosine 5) fMet-tRNA 6) chaperones 7) chaperone 8) transcription 9) primer remover 10) silencer 11) silencers 12) RNAPII 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) C 21) B 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) B 26) B Version 1
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27) D 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) A 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE Version 1
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