Animal Physiology From Genes to Organisms 2nd Edition Sherwood Test Bank
Homeostasis and Integration: The Foundations of Physiology A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
b 1
1.
Physiology is the study of a. matter, energy and their interactions. b. how organisms function. c. the mind. d. temperament and character based on outward appearances.
a 1
2.
The process of maintaining physiological stability in the face of disturbance is referred to as a. homeostasis. b. homeothermy. c. home remedy. d. homeopathy.
c 1
3.
Which of the following statements is true? a. Structure/function relationships are evident at the organismal level, but not at the molecular level. b. Evolution by natural selection led to physiologic adaptation historically, but is not relevant to extant organisms. c. Homeostasis is the tendency toward relative stability in the internal environment of an organism. d. Feedback control refers specifically to the homeostatic mechanisms that help organisms stop eating when they’re satiated.
c 3
4.
The August Krogh Principle states that a. understanding physiology can only be accomplished through the study of evolution by natural selection. b. the shortest distance between two points is a straight line. c. understanding physiological phenomena is enhanced by studying model organisms that have adapted to deal with particular physiological challenges. d. salamanders are good for studying regeneration of limbs since what will be learned can be applied to human medicine.
a 6
5.
Which of the following is NOT part of the hypothetico-deductive method of scientific investigation? a. proving one's hypothesis b. asking questions about the natural world c. proposing explanations for phenomena in the natural world d. designing experiments that enable one to test a hypothesis e. conducting experiments and making observations
b 7
6.
The smallest unit of life is a. a DNA molecule. b. a cell. c. an organelle. d. a virus. e. a protein.
e 7
7.
The basic functions of all cells include a. self-organization. b. self-regulation. c. self-support (structural) and movement. d. self-replication. e. all of the above
d 2 13-17
8.
Which of the following terms have NO relationship? a. adaptations and cost-benefit ratio b. homologous traits and a common ancestry c. negative feedback and set point d. feedforward system and acclimiatization e. antagonistic control and two effectors
e 9, 10
9.
The primary types of tissues found in animals are a. muscular. b. nervous. c. epithelial. d. connective. e. all of the above
a 9
10.
Which of the following is NOT an example of connective tissue? a. muscle b. bone c. blood d. tendon e. cartilage
d 10 F 1-4
11.
Which of the following statements is true? a. The only physiological function for which surface-area-to-volume ratio is relevant is digestion. b. The only physiological function for which surface-area-to-volume ratio is irrelevant is reproduction. c. For any physiological function, a high surface-area-to-volume ratio is advantageous. d. Surface area increases as the square of the linear dimension while volume increases as the cube. e. All statements are true.
b 13
12.
With respect to thermoregulation, most fishes are a. regulators. b. conformers. c. warm-blooded. d. best fried.
c 13
13.
Enantiostasis is a. the maintenance of a nearly constant internal environment by direct compensatory mechanisms. b. the maintenance of one of two constant internal environments, in which the two environments are mirror images of each other. c. the maintenance of a nearly constant internal environment by an indirect compensatory mechanism. d. none of these.
b 17
14.
From a physiological perspective, the increase in pelage (i.e. fur) that some mammals experience in winter represents a. acclimation. b. acclimatization. c. adaptation. d. feedback inhibition.
b 17, 18
15.
Some hormones act to regulate the concentration of intracellular signals like cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cyclic AMP, or cAMP) by activating or inhibiting adenylyl cyclase, the enzyme responsible for its production, or by activating or inhibiting phosphodiesterases, which are responsible for its destruction. Cyclic AMP, in turn, functions by activating enzyme cascades that set certain metabolic pathways in motion. The regulation of cAMP levels in cells is an example of a. homeostasis. b. rheostasis. c. equilibrium. d. adaptation. e. all of these.
a 13, 14
16.
In physiological terms, a set point can be defined as a. the value of a parameter, such as the concentration of sugar in the blood, that homeostatic mechanisms aim to maintain. b. the value of a parameter, such as the concentration of sugar in the blood, that set homeostatic mechanisms in motion. c. the location in a thermal gradient at which a poikilothermic organism rests, reflecting is preferred body temperature. d. the winning stroke in a tennis match.
a 17
17.
Prior to being used as subjects, many laboratory animals are given a period of time to get used to the conditions in the laboratory, e.g., the light/dark cycle. The process they undergo during this time is referred to as a. acclimation. b. acclimatization. c. adaptation. d. adjustment. e. evolution.
a 21
18.
The nervous system is an example of a a. whole-body control b. maintenance c. support and movement d. reproductive e. solar plexus
e 21, 22
19.
Drinking, a behavioral effector of homeostatic control of body fluid levels, involves which of the following physiological systems? a. nervous b. endocrine c. muscular d. skeletal e. all of these
e 22
20.
Which of the following is NOT transported by the circulatory system? a. nutrients b. dissolved gases c. electrolytes d. heat e. none of these
e 3, 4
21.
Which of the following disciplinary courses of study contribute to understanding physiology? a. physics b. genomics c. evolution d. molecular biology e. all of these
system.
c 430
30.
In a normal ECG, no separate wave is detected for atrial repolarization because a. the amount of atrial tissue is too little for the current to be detected by the ECG electrodes. b. the time period between atrial depolarization and repolarization occurs too rapidly. c. atrial repolarization and ventricular depolarization are simultaneous, and the expected wave is masked by the QRS complex. d. None of these.
b 414
31.
At the onset of ventricular diastole, the A-V valves close as a result of a. higher pressure in the atria relative to the ventricles. b. higher pressure in the ventricles relative to the atria. c. higher pressure in the arteries (pulmonary and aorta) relative to the ventricles. d. higher pressure in the venae cavae relative to the atria. e. contraction of the small muscles which attach to the valves.
b 412
32.
Ventricular systole includes the periods of a. isometric contraction and ventricular ejection. b. isovolumetric contraction and ventricular ejection. c. isometric contraction and end-systolic volume. d. isovolumetric contraction and end-systolic volume. e. none of these
c 385
33.
Stroke volume is defined as a. the amount of blood pumped into the ventricles from the atria. b. the amount of blood ejected by each ventricle during a single contraction. c. the difference between the end diastolic volume and the end systolic volume for each ventricle. d. the amount of blood delivered by the vena cavae and ejected by the ventricles..
a 414
34.
Which of the following statements about cardiac output is true? a. Cardiac output is the mathematical product of heart rate and stroke volume. b. Cardiac output is the mathematical sum of heart rate and stroke volume. c. Cardiac output is regulated exclusively by adjusting heart rate. d. Cardiac output is regulated exclusively by adjusting stroke volume. e. None of these.
e 415
35.
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding sympathetic stimulation of the heart? a. It increases the rate of depolarization of the SA node. b. It increases excitability of the AV node. c. It results in stronger ventricular contractions. d. It increases venous return. e. None of these.
e 425
36.
Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart a. increases venous return to the heart. b. has an impact on the ventricular conduction pathway. c. increases the number of cross-bridges that can form during contraction. d. increases the strength of contraction. e. none of these.
d 417
37.
Venous return and by extension end-diastolic volume are examples of factors directly related to the control of stroke volume. a. endocrine b. nervous c. extrinsic d. intrinsic e. sympathetic
e 434
38.
Which of the following will cause local adjustments in an arteriole’s radius and hence vessel diameter? a. decreased O2 b. increased K+ c. increased O2 d. increased acid e. all of these.
e 447
39.
Venous return is affected by a. the cardiac suction effect. b. the respiratory pump. c. the skeletal muscle pump. d. none of these. e. all of these.
c 453
40.
Which of the following decreases with increased muscular activity? a. venous return b. mean arterial blood pressure c. peripheral resistance d. blood flow to brain e. none of these.
B.
True or False
True 429
1.
The total cross-sectional area of arteries is less than that of the arterioles.
False 431
2.
Arteries but not veins have elastic fibers in their walls.
True 433
3.
Differences in flow are determined by the amount of vascularization and the amount of resistance in the arterioles.
False 435
4.
Histamine whose release increases blood flow is released in response to local metabolic changes that require greater delivery of oxygen.
True 435
5.
Nitric oxide (NO) interferes with platelet function and blood clotting.
False 443
6.
Concentration gradients not bulk flow of solutes determines the distribution of extracellular fluids.
True 452
7.
While an individual is at rest about 20% of the total cardiac output goes to the kidneys.
False 393
8.
Both thrombocytes and platelets are living cells but they are found in different organisms.
True 395
9.
Thrombin is formed in a positive-feedback cycle.
True 399
10.
It is exposed collagen that initiates the clotting cascade.
C.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Open circulatory system Factor XII Erythrocytes Acetylcholine Thrombocytes Norepinephrine High density lipoprotein Sinus venosus Hemacyanin Hemoglobin
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
Hemolymph Hageman factor Oxygen transport Parasympathetic neurotransmitter Clotting Sympathetic neurotransmitter "good cholesterol" Elasmobranchs Copper Iron
D.
Essay
Page
No.
415
1.
Compare and contrast the effect of sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation on the SA node, AV node, arterial muscle, ventricular muscle, and veins.
426
2.
Describe the amphibian heart structure and the flow of blood through the heart and body.
416
3.
During periods stress and high anxiety, it may be important to have increased blood flow to skeletal muscle in particular. What are the overall effects of sympathetic stimulation on the heart and blood delivery.
417
4.
Although the Frank-Starling mechanism can be accounted for in terms of lengthtension relationships, one could also invoke increases in cytosolic calcium resulting from opening of stretch-activated calcium channels. What role does calcium play in muscle contraction, and why would increasing cytosolic calcium levels increase the amount of tension developed?
437
5.
Capillaries are the vessels with the smallest diameter, yet they offer less resistance to flow than the arterioles. How can these facts be reconciled, given that resistance (R) is inversely proportional to the radius raised to the 4th power (r4)?
Defense Systems A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
e 459
1.
Pathogens a. have the ability to produce a disease. b. may disrupt normal cellular processes and causing the release of nutrients. c. may be intracellular or extracellular organisms. d. two of these. e. all of these.
d 460
2.
Self-recognition in mammals depends in part on a. the presence of interleukins b. innate immunity. c. the presence of cytokines d. Toll-like receptors e. all of these.
e 460, 461
3.
Which of the following are NOT correctly paired? a. cytokines and nongland cells b. vertebrate immune cell communication and immunosynapse c. inflammation and second line of defense d. amoebocytes and hemocytes e. antimicrobial peptides and opsonin
b 464, 465
4.
Which of the following leukocytes are phagocytic? a. natural killer cells b. neutrophils c. eosinophils d. natural killer cells and neutrophils e. neutrophils and eosinophils
e 465
5.
Mast cells are . a. are transformed monocytes b. are a subset of B-cells c. a subset of T-cells d. are macrophages that remain in the circulation e. are analogous to sensing-integrating endocrine glands.
.
d 465
6.
The a. b. c. d. e.
is/are the origin of all leukocytes. lymph nodes spleen tonsils bone marrow thymus
d 465
7.
Which of the following is a type of protein that defends against viral infections? a. complement b. interleukin c. cytokines d. interferon e. complement and interferon
d 466
8.
Which of the following statements about sweat glands is NOT true? a. Sweat glands are derived from the epidermis. b. Sweat glands are important in thermoregulation. c. Sweat glands produce anti-microbial compounds. d. Sweat glands produce sebum. e. None of these.
a 466467
9.
Which of the following skin cells does NOT play a role in immune function? a. melanocytes b. keratinocytes c. dendritic cells d. Granstein cells e. All of these play a role in immune function.
c 466, 467
10.
The first line of defense against bacterial infection from coming in contact with a contaminated surface is a. macrophages. b. mast cells. c. the skin. d. mucous membranes. e. Langerhan cells.
a 468
11.
The secretion of histamine by mast cells causes a. vasodilation, bringing phagocytic cells to the site of infection. b. invading bacterial cells to lyse. c. invading bacterial cells to coagulate. d. all of these. e. none of these.