Test Bank & Solution Manual Physiology for Health Professions An Interactive Journey 4th Edition by TBtutors

Type:

Test Bank and Solution Manual

Physiology for Health Resource: Professions An Interactive Journey Edition:

4th Edition

Author(s):

Bruce Colbert Jeff Ankney Karen Lee

Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 4e (Colbert) Chapter 1 Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology 1.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Gross anatomy is also known as ________. A) microscopic anatomy B) pathologic anatomy C) macroscopic anatomy D) diagnostic anatomy Answer: C 2) An example of gross anatomy would be ________. A) viewing an x-ray B) using a microscope C) performing a complete cellular blood count D) determining the etiology of a disease Answer: A 3) The study of physiology deals with ________. A) disease B) genetics C) structures D) functions Answer: D 4) The potential outcome of a disease is the ________. A) etiology B) diagnosis C) prognosis D) treatment Answer: C 5) The study of disease is known as ________. A) neurology B) pathophysiology C) microbiology D) cytology Answer: B 6) The three basic parts of a medical term are ________. A) prefix, word root, suffix B) suffix, base, meaning C) prefix, stem, ending D) base, word root, stem Answer: A 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) What system is known as the mathematical language of anatomy and physiology? A) Abbreviation system B) Metric system C) English system D) Customary system Answer: B 8) Which of the following is NOT a vital sign? A) Heart rate B) Temperature C) Odor D) Respiratory rate Answer: C 9) When the physician has documented several signs and symptoms, he or she will be able to make a(n) ________. A) prognosis B) etiology C) cytology D) diagnosis Answer: D 10) The adjustments that maintain a stable environment within the body are known as ________. A) homeostasis B) metabolism C) syndrome D) pathology Answer: A 11) The body uses feedback loops to maintain homeostasis. The response that opposes an action is known as a(n) ________. A) depressing feedback loop B) negative feedback loop C) positive feedback loop D) affirmative feedback loop Answer: B 12) A positive feedback loop is necessary in which of the following situations? A) Blood pressure B) Coughing C) Bleeding D) Childbirth Answer: D

13) Vital signs include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) coloring B) heart rate C) respirations D) temperature Answer: A 14) RBC is the abbreviation for ________. A) really bad cut B) red and blue circulation C) red blood cells D) ruptured blood clot Answer: C 15) The nurse found a preoperative patient out of bed, barefoot, and watching TV while eating breakfast. "We have to cancel your surgery, because you're not NPO," the nurse said. What did the patient do wrong? A) The patient ate food. B) The patient watched TV. C) The patient walked barefoot. D) The patient left the hospital bed. Answer: A 16) A patient rang the call bell because he was in great pain. "I want my prn medication now," he said. Which medication timing is the nurse going to follow? A) Medications given in the morning B) Medications given at noontime C) Medications given in the evening D) Medications given when needed Answer: D 17) A lab technician finishes a test. "The CBC results are in the computer," she tells her supervisor. What body fluid did the technician examine? A) Saliva B) Urine C) Blood D) Cerebrospinal fluid Answer: C 18) All members of the Code Team have to take ACLS training annually. Which organs will they practice reviving? A) Eyes and ears B) Heart and lungs C) Nose and throat D) Stomach and colon Answer: B 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) If a patient complains of SOB, which body system is having a problem? A) Urinary B) Neurological C) Reproductive D) Respiratory Answer: D 20) The indicators that are essential for human life include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) coloring B) heart rate C) respirations D) temperature Answer: A 21) Which is NOT a definition for disease? A) Not at ease B) A condition in which the body fails to function normally C) Anything that is a normal structure or function D) Anything that upsets normal structure or function Answer: C 22) The term tachycardia means "________." A) fast heart rate B) slow heart rate C) rhythmic heart rate D) study of the heart rate Answer: A 23) Which is NOT a symptom of metabolic syndrome? A) High triglycerides B) Low HDL level C) High blood pressure D) Vomiting and diarrhea Answer: D 24) A sign that could be an indication of diabetes is breath that smells like ________. A) fruit-flavored chewing gum B) clay or starchy paste C) sweat D) maple Answer: A

25) The prefix hyper- means "________." A) small B) above normal C) below normal D) within Answer: B 26) The suffix -oma means "________." A) cutting into B) enlargement of C) surgically forming an opening D) tumor Answer: D 27) The suffix -algia means "________." A) inflammation B) cell C) pertaining to D) pain Answer: D 28) Most fevers are the body's way of ________. A) killing all pathogens B) breaking up the cells of pathogens C) making an inhospitable environment for pathogens to survive D) preventing pathogens from reproducing Answer: C 29) Sweating at night may indicate ________. A) tuberculosis B) Hodgkin's disease C) riboflavin deficiency D) skin cancer Answer: A 30) According to the rules of medical terminology, hepatitis is defined as "________." A) liver failure B) inflammation of the liver C) cirrhosis D) blood clotting Answer: B

31) The abbreviation used for "twice a day" is ________. A) q.i.d. B) t.i.d. C) prn D) b.i.d. Answer: D 32) Volumes expressed as ounces, pints, quarts, gallons, pecks, bushels, or cubic feet are examples of the ________. A) metric system B) English system C) scientific notation D) International System Answer: B 33) A nurse found the vital sign he measured in millimeters of mercury to be highly elevated. What condition does his patient have? A) Hypertension B) Fever C) Hyperalgia D) Heart attack Answer: A 34) A student concentrates on moving decimal points in the correct direction while completing her pharmacology homework. Which system of measurement is she using? A) English B) National C) British Imperial D) Metric Answer: D 35) Normal adult cardiac output is 6,000 milliliters every 60 seconds. How is this amount of blood being measured? A) Volume in English units B) Volume in metric units C) Length in English units D) Length in metric units Answer: B 36) "I always have to use a conversion table," a student complained. Which system of measurement is the student most likely using? A) English B) National C) American Imperial D) Metric Answer: A 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

37) Which system would most likely be used to calculate the amount of medication to give by weight to a premature infant? A) English B) National C) American Imperial D) Metric Answer: D 38) The coroner measures the size of the brain in a patient who died of Alzheimer's disease. Which unit dimension will she likely use to record the diameter? A) Milliliters B) Centimeters C) Kilograms D) Ounces Answer: B 39) The diagnostic procedure begins by determining the patient's ________. A) prognosis B) syndrome C) chief complaint D) laboratory tests Answer: C 40) ________ is the branch of medicine that studies the characteristics, causes, and effects of disease. A) Anatomy B) Physiology C) Pathology D) Pharmacy Answer: C 41) The term osteoma can be defined as "________." A) cutting of the skin B) tumor of the bone C) tumor of the eye D) cutting into the eye Answer: B 42) The normal heart rate for an adult is ________ beats per minute. A) 10-30 B) 70-120 C) 90-170 D) 60-100 Answer: D

43) The ________ is the prediction of the outcome of a disease. A) prognosis B) diagnosis C) acute determination D) syndrome Answer: A 44) A condition in which the body fails to function normally is ________. A) disease B) physiology C) nosocomial D) epidemiology Answer: A 45) The cause of a disease is called its ________. A) prognosis B) pathology C) nosocomial D) etiology Answer: D 46) A specific group of signs and symptoms that are related to a specific disease is known by which of the following names? A) Diagnosis B) Chief complaint C) Syndrome D) Relapse Answer: C 47) A patient with Syndrome X can exhibit which of the following common conditions? A) High blood sugar levels, low blood pressure, high blood level of HDL B) High blood sugar levels, high blood pressure, high triglycerides C) Low blood sugar levels, low blood pressure, high triglycerides D) Low blood sugar levels, high blood pressure, low blood level of HDL Answer: B 48) A patient who has metabolic syndrome is at an increased risk for all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) diabetes B) heart attack C) Hodgkin's disease D) stroke Answer: C

49) ________ is the physiological process that monitors and maintains a stable internal environment or equilibrium. A) Homeostasis B) Negative feedback loop C) Positive feedback loop D) Metabolism Answer: A 50) ________ is a mechanism in the body that continually senses the internal and external environment and makes adjustments to maintain homeostasis. A) Homeostasis B) A negative feedback loop C) A positive feedback loop D) Metabolism Answer: B 51) ________ is known as a "vicious cycle." In most cases, it is harmful if a vicious cycle cannot be broken. In some cases, however, it is necessary for a process to run to completion. A) Homeostasis B) Negative feedback C) Positive feedback D) Metabolism Answer: C 52) Which of the following is an example of a sign? A) Temperature B) Nausea C) Pain D) Weakness Answer: A 53) All of the following are symptoms EXCEPT ________. A) pain B) respiratory rate C) dizziness D) itchiness Answer: B 54) A condition in which the signs and symptoms develop gradually over time is called ________. A) chronic B) acute C) remission D) exacerbation Answer: A

55) A measure of the number of deaths attributed to a specific disease over a period of time is ________. A) pandemic B) epidemic C) morbidity D) mortality Answer: D 56) Simple compounds are built up and used to manufacture cellular materials in the process of ________. A) catabolism B) positive feedback C) anabolism D) negative feedback Answer: C 1.2 True/False Questions 1) In Greek, anatomy means "to cut apart." Answer: TRUE 2) Anatomy focuses on the function and vital processes of the human body. Answer: FALSE 3) Macro- means "small." Answer: FALSE 4) A bacterial infection is the prognosis for a staph infection. Answer: FALSE 5) Negative feedback is bad for the body because it increases a change away from normal. Answer: FALSE 6) Tachycardia is a slow heart rate. Answer: FALSE 7) Glyc/o- is the combining form for sugar. Answer: TRUE 8) Leuk/o- is the combining form for cell. Answer: FALSE 9) Hyp/o- means "above normal." Answer: FALSE 10) An appendectomy is surgical removal of the appendix. Answer: TRUE 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) STAT means "right away" or "immediately." Answer: TRUE 12) A microscope views small objects. Answer: TRUE 13) Disease is a condition in which the body fails to function normally. Answer: TRUE 14) Pain is the fifth vital sign. Answer: TRUE 15) A disease that is endemic spreads worldwide. Answer: FALSE

Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 4e (Colbert) Chapter 2 The Human Body 2.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Knowing the exact body region of a sign or symptom can help a healthcare worker determine the ________. A) proper diagnosis B) patient's size C) extent of injury D) proper medication Answer: A 2) A body in the prone position is ________. A) face up B) lying on its left side C) lying on its right side D) face down Answer: D 3) A plane is an imaginary line dividing the body into ________. A) squares B) sections C) organs D) tissues Answer: B 4) Directional terms are used as ________ within the body. A) vertical points B) horizontal points C) lateral points D) reference points Answer: D 5) The midsagittal plane divides the body into which parts? A) Superior and inferior B) Internal and external C) Right and left D) Anterior and posterior Answer: C

6) What directional term would you use to indicate the ankle if the knee is your point of reference? A) External B) Distal C) Internal D) Proximal Answer: B 7) A young girl falls while riding her bicycle. Initially she seems fine, but later she complains of severe femoral pain. Where is her pain? A) Her foot B) Her lower leg C) Her knee D) Her thigh Answer: D 8) The heart and lungs are located in the ________ cavity. A) posterior B) abdominal C) pelvic D) thoracic Answer: D 9) Which organ is located in a dorsal cavity? A) Diaphragm B) Brain C) Stomach D) Pancreas Answer: B 10) The hypochondriac region is located beneath the ________. A) ribs B) heart C) stomach D) liver Answer: A 11) A woman involved in a high-speed car accident initially seems fine, but soon develops difficulty breathing. You suspect she is bleeding into one of her body cavities. Given her symptoms, which one? A) Cranial B) Spinal C) Thoracic D) Abdominal Answer: C

12) The space within the mouth is known as the ________ cavity. A) nasal B) orbital C) cranial D) oral Answer: D 13) The belly button is located in which region? A) Epigastric B) Umbilical C) Iliac D) Hypogastric Answer: B 14) Pain in the ________ can be a sign of appendicitis. A) RUQ B) LUQ C) RLQ D) LLQ Answer: C 15) The cervical spine contains how many vertebrae? A) 12 B) 7 C) 5 D) 3 Answer: B 16) By placing your fingers at the T5 vertebra, you can locate which organ? A) Spleen B) Kidney C) Lung D) Brain Answer: C 17) Blood is most commonly drawn from ________. A) deep veins B) central veins C) superficial veins D) deep arteries Answer: C

18) Fowler's position facilitates ________. A) sleeping B) all treatments C) dizziness D) breathing Answer: D 19) An injury to the abdominopelvic cavity could include injury to the ________. A) brain B) heart C) spleen D) sternum Answer: C 20) The supine position ________. A) describes the body lying face upward B) is also called the anatomical position C) describes the body lying face downward D) allows the patient to sit up in bed Answer: A 21) Because humans stand and move upright, the term dorsal can be used in place of the term ________. A) inferior B) posterior C) anterior D) distal Answer: B 22) A ________ plane would divide the eyes from the back of the head. A) sagittal B) frontal C) transverse D) midsagittal Answer: B 23) The prone position ________. A) describes the body lying face upward B) is also called the anatomical position C) describes the body lying face downward D) helps move secretions from the lungs Answer: C

24) The ________ contains the heart, lungs, and large blood vessels. A) thoracic cavity B) abdominopelvic cavity C) cranial cavity D) spinal cavity Answer: A 25) The skin is ________ to the bones. A) superficial B) medial C) inferior D) deep Answer: A 26) The opposite of superficial is ________. A) deep B) inferior C) posterior D) medial Answer: A 27) A section that divides the body into mirror images would be a ________. A) frontal section B) cross section C) midsagittal section D) transverse section Answer: C 28) The liver can be found in the ________. A) right upper quadrant (RUQ) B) left iliac region C) hypogastric region D) right lower quadrant (RLQ) Answer: A 29) The ankle is a ________ structure. A) central B) peripheral C) thoracic D) superior Answer: B

30) If you like to sleep on your stomach, you prefer sleeping in the ________ position. A) supine B) prone C) Fowler's D) Sims' Answer: B 31) The ________ vertebrae are located in the neck. A) sacral B) thoracic C) cervical D) cranial Answer: C 32) The lungs are ________ to the heart. A) medial B) lateral C) superficial D) peripheral Answer: B 33) A plane that divides the body into upper and lower portions is a ________ plane. A) sagittal B) coronal C) midsagittal D) transverse Answer: D 34) Trendelenburg position may be contraindicated in patients with ________. A) cerebral injury B) hypertension C) skin disease D) lung secretions Answer: A 35) The thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities are separated by the ________. A) ribs B) spinal cord C) diaphragm D) sternum Answer: C

36) The large, dome-shaped muscle called the diaphragm is used for ________. A) circulation B) digestion C) reproduction D) breathing Answer: D 37) A patient is complaining of pain and the doctor suspects appendicitis. In which quadrant is the pain located? A) RUQ B) RLQ C) LUQ D) LLQ Answer: B 38) Your patient complains of pain in the area of the liver. In which quadrant is the pain located? A) LUQ B) LLQ C) RUQ D) RLQ Answer: C 2.2 True/False Questions 1) A person is in the anatomical position when he or she is standing erect and facing forward, with feet parallel and arms hanging at the side with palms facing backward. Answer: FALSE 2) Fowler's position is the best position for patients who are having trouble breathing. Answer: TRUE 3) The prone position is the best position for a pelvic exam. Answer: FALSE 4) Cranial means "superior." Answer: TRUE 5) Medial means "to the side." Answer: FALSE 6) The nose is inferior to the eyes and superior to the mouth. Answer: TRUE 7) A patient with central edema has swollen hands and feet. Answer: FALSE

8) Peripheral refers to the torso and head. Answer: FALSE 9) The opposite of superficial is lateral. Answer: FALSE 10) The cranial cavity houses the brain. Answer: TRUE 11) An orbital injury can cause damage to sight. Answer: TRUE 12) The pubic area is used for cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Answer: FALSE 13) Digital refers to fingers. Answer: TRUE 14) Cervical means relating to the knee. Answer: FALSE 15) Brachial means lower leg. Answer: FALSE

Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 4e (Colbert) Chapter 3 Biochemistry 3.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The smallest unit that retains the chemical properties of a particular type of matter is a(n) ________. A) atom B) molecule C) element D) ion Answer: C 2) Atoms or molecules that carry a charge are called ________. A) elements B) protons C) neutrons D) ions Answer: D 3) In a typical atom with three positively charged protons, how many negatively charged electrons would be present? A) 0 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C 4) In a person with diabetes, blood may often become more acidic than normal. What blood pH might you expect in a person with untreated diabetes? A) 7.4 B) 10.5 C) 7.1 D) 4.0 Answer: C 5) On which side of the pH scale do household cleaners such as bleach and ammonia belong? A) Acidic B) Neutral C) Concentrated D) Basic Answer: D

6) Which of the following is a characteristic of a covalent bond? A) Electrons are shared. B) Electrons are donated. C) The molecule is always polar. D) Protons are involved in the bond. Answer: A 7) The molecule paraffin has the formula C20H44. What does that tell you about the molecule? A) It is a protein. B) It is hydrophobic. C) It is a nucleic acid. D) It is polar. Answer: B 8) In a solution, the ________ is dissolved in the ________. A) molecule; element B) solute; solvent C) solvent; solute D) element; molecule Answer: B 9) Glycogen is a polysaccharide made of long chains of glucose. Glucose is a ________. A) polysaccharide B) disaccharide C) monosaccharide D) saccharin Answer: C 10) Which of the following is a type of lipid molecule important in the structure and function of cell membranes? A) Wax B) Phospholipid C) Triglyceride D) Estrogen Answer: B 11) The building blocks of proteins are ________. A) nucleic acids B) amino acids C) oleic acids D) Lewis acids Answer: B

12) Which molecules are scientists studying to understand the nature of cell control and genetics? A) Steroids B) Amino acids C) Phospholipids D) Nucleic acids Answer: D 13) A teenager with anorexia nervosa has an illness that seriously affects metabolism. Which process could be fatal? A) Anabolism B) Catabolism C) Cellular respiration D) Dehydration synthesis reactions Answer: B 14) The chief type of reaction used during catabolism is ________. A) dehydration synthesis B) hydrolysis C) hydration D) hydrogen bonding Answer: B 15) What do anabolic steroids do when taken as medication? A) Destroy tissue B) Fight infection C) Build up tissue D) Increase fertility Answer: C 16) Which molecules speed up the rate of biological reactions? A) Proteins B) Enzymes C) Antibodies D) ATP Answer: B 17) During which series of reactions do body cells use glucose to make energy? A) Metabolism B) Enzyme catalysis C) Cellular respiration D) Blood clotting Answer: C

18) A person with pancreatic cancer is prescribed some medications that help digest food by breaking down large molecules. What are these medications composed of? A) Amino acids B) Enzymes C) Phospholipids D) Steroids Answer: B 19) ________ is a high-energy molecule made and spent by cells during metabolism. A) ATP B) ADP C) AMP D) A&P Answer: A 20) Which of the following has the highest energy? A) ATP B) ADP C) AMP D) A&P Answer: A 21) A dietary source for iodine is ________. A) celery B) seafood C) beef D) pork Answer: B 22) Which of the following is a symptom of fluorine deficiency? A) Acne B) Hair loss C) Dental cavities D) Low blood pressure Answer: C 23) Decreased ability of the blood to carry oxygen may be due to a deficiency in ________. A) iron B) copper C) zinc D) gold Answer: A

24) The molecule that is stored in the liver to be used for extra energy is ________. A) glucose B) glycogen C) hemoglobin D) lipid Answer: B 25) Glucose is used by cells during a series of chemical reactions called ________. A) anabolism B) cellular ventilation C) cellular perfusion D) cellular respiration Answer: D 26) How much water loss, at a minimum, would a 150-pound person have to undergo to become dehydrated? A) Greater than 1.5 pounds B) Greater than 5 pounds C) Greater than 10 pounds D) Greater than 15 pounds Answer: A 27) A patient was tested for evidence of dehydration. Which sample would show the earliest signs? A) Organs B) Tissues C) Cells D) Blood Answer: D 28) Which protein allows cells to communicate with other cells? A) Antibody B) Insulin C) Collagen D) Albumin Answer: B 29) A person who is often tired and has frequent colds makes a New Year's resolution to eat more foods with molecules that can store energy and protect against infection. Which dietary component will this person increase? A) Fiber B) Fats C) Proteins D) Carbohydrates Answer: C

30) A patient had a goiter near his Adam's apple. Which simple dietary remedy did the patient's physician prescribe? A) Lean proteins B) Iodized salt C) Unsaturated fat D) Whole grains Answer: B 31) A body builder stirred wheat germ and pineapple bits into her yogurt. She pointed out to her colleague that her recipe was a double shot of an essential trace element. Which element was she referring to? A) Iron B) Manganese C) Zinc D) Copper Answer: B 32) One roommate was praising the health benefits of oysters to another roommate. The second roommate replied that he received the benefits of the same two trace elements from eating a different type of food. Which source is he referring to? A) Organ meats B) Legumes C) Green leafy vegetables D) Cheese Answer: A 33) Going up in levels from the individual atom to the entire organism, which body components are listed in ascending order? A) Molecules, tissues, organelles B) Tissues, cells, organs C) Cells, molecules, organs D) Organelles, cells, tissues Answer: D 34) Members of an aqua aerobics exercise class appreciate a property of their pool's contents. Which characteristic are they thankful for? A) Water heats up faster than air. B) Water cools down slower than air. C) Water and air heat up at the same rate. D) Water and air cool down at the same rate. Answer: B

35) A marathon runner was perspiring heavily. Which function of sweat was occurring? A) Absorbing heat into the body B) Absorbing enzymes into the body C) Releasing heat from the body D) Releasing enzymes from the body Answer: C 36) A sterile solution of normal saline with added antibiotics was slowly dripping into a patient's veins. Which solute is being used in the same concentration as in the blood? A) Sodium bicarbonate B) Sodium chloride C) Sodium hydroxide D) Sodium phosphate Answer: B 37) How does butter compare with vegetable oils? A) Butter is a saturated fat, and vegetable oils are unsaturated fats. B) Butter is an unsaturated fat, and vegetable oils are saturated fats. C) Butter has one double covalent bond, and vegetable oils have even more. D) Butter has a double covalent bond, and vegetable oils have a single covalent bond. Answer: A 38) Steroids are lipids that share a common function with insulin, which is a protein. Which function do they share? A) Banding tightly together B) Linking with nucleic acids C) Communicating between cells D) Handling waste products Answer: C 39) If there were a king of physiological ions, what would it be? A) Elements B) Molecules C) Electrons D) Electrolytes Answer: D 40) Which analogy best describes the relationship between hydrophilic molecules and hydrophobic molecules? A) Friendship B) Enemies C) Toleration D) Irritation Answer: B

41) An accident victim was unable to maintain a normal blood pH. Which of the victim's organs were likely damaged? A) Gallbladder and spleen B) Stomach and heart C) Kidneys and lungs D) Liver and bladder Answer: C 42) Which of the following is an endpoint on the pH scale? A) Left: High H+ and low OHB) Right: High H+ and low OHC) Left: Basic D) Right: Neutral Answer: A 43) Which analogy best describes the relationship between anabolism and catabolism? A) Building up and adding on B) Black and white C) Frontal and peripheral locations D) Biological and chemical Answer: B 3.2 True/False Questions 1) Ions are hydrophobic. Answer: FALSE 2) Physiologically important ions are called trace elements. Answer: FALSE 3) Water has hydrogen bonds, which give it its unique properties. Answer: TRUE 4) Lead is a biological molecule. Answer: FALSE 5) Covalent bonds are polar. Answer: FALSE 6) A solution with a pH of 8 is basic. Answer: TRUE 7) Water can store more heat than air. Answer: TRUE 8) Disaccharides are a type of lipid. Answer: FALSE 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) All steroids are unhealthy. Answer: FALSE 10) Many carbohydrates are energy storage molecules. Answer: TRUE 11) Proteins have peptide bonds. Answer: TRUE 12) Dehydration synthesis can happen easily at room temperature. Answer: FALSE 13) Enzymes can be inhibited. Answer: TRUE 14) During cellular respiration, no ATP is made. Answer: FALSE 15) Chemistry is not important in anatomy and physiology. Answer: FALSE

Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 4e (Colbert) Chapter 4 The Cells 4.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The organelles that provide 95% of the body's energy are ________. A) ribosomes B) mitochondria C) adenosines D) cytoplasm Answer: B 2) Sperm cells are able to move in a swimming motion by the use of ________. A) centrioles B) cilia C) vesicles D) flagella Answer: D 3) The molecule made by mitochondria that provides power to cells is ________. A) ATP B) RNA C) ADP D) DNA Answer: A 4) Which of the following is a series of channels found within the cytoplasm that is formed from folded membrane? A) Golgi apparatus B) Facilitated diffusion C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Cell membrane Answer: C 5) Given that they have lots of Golgi apparatuses, salivary glands and pancreatic cells must perform which function(s)? A) Lipid synthesis B) DNA synthesis C) Protein synthesis D) Secretion and storage Answer: D

6) The process of cleaning debris and waste from the cell is carried out by ________. A) lysosomes B) lipids C) filaments D) ribosomes Answer: A 7) The cell receives its shape from a network of microtubules and filaments known as the ________. A) cytoskeleton B) endoskeleton C) exoskeleton D) microskeleton Answer: A 8) ________ are short, hairlike projections found on the outer surface of some cells. A) Capsids B) Vesicles C) Cilia D) Flagella Answer: C 9) The most important molecules for making the cell membrane selectively permeable are ________. A) carbohydrates B) phospholipids C) cholesterol molecules D) ATP molecules Answer: B 10) Which microorganism enters another cell and hijacks the cell's parts, energy supply, and materials? A) Virus B) Fungus C) Bacterium D) Protozoan Answer: A 11) The process of allowing substances into and out of the cell is controlled by the ________. A) nucleus B) cell membrane C) lysosomes D) Golgi apparatus Answer: B

12) The cells that make up the human body are called ________. A) mitotic cells B) meiotic cells C) eukaryotic cells D) chromosomal cells Answer: C 13) What portion of the cell cycle is actually devoted to cell division? A) Interphase B) Cellphase C) Duophase D) Mitotic phase Answer: D 14) When the body performs cellular respiration, food is changed into a form of energy called ________. A) RNA B) ADP C) DNA D) ATP Answer: D 15) An organism that produces disease is known as a(n) ________. A) organelle B) pathogen C) crenation D) centriole Answer: B 16) Which microorganism is spread by the release of spores? A) Bacterium B) Virus C) Fungus D) Protozoan Answer: C 17) Which disease is caused by a protozoan? A) Candidiasis B) Shingles C) Malaria D) Strep Answer: C

18) Which substance is commonly transported during facilitated diffusion? A) Glucose B) Sodium C) Cytoplasm D) Potassium Answer: A 19) All of the following can reproduce asexually EXCEPT ________. A) animal cells B) plant cells C) viruses D) bacteria Answer: C 20) During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes split? A) Anaphase B) Metaphase C) Prophase D) Telophase Answer: A 21) Microorganisms that normally live within or on the human body are collectively called ________. A) cancer cells B) normal flora C) epithelial cells D) white blood cells Answer: B 22) Bacterial cells have no nucleus or organelles and reproduce easily through a process known as ________. A) chromatin B) eukaryosis C) interphase D) binary fission Answer: D 23) Which of the following is NOT a function of the cell membrane? A) Protein synthesis B) Regulation of what moves into and out of the cell C) Identifying the cell D) Holding the cell together Answer: A

24) Which organelles are called the "power plants" of the cell? A) Ribosomes B) Mitochondria C) Golgi apparatuses D) Lysosomes Answer: B 25) Which of these is NOT part of a cell? A) Plasma membrane B) Cytoplasm C) Nucleus D) Protozoa Answer: D 26) Which organelles contain powerful enzymes that take care of cleaning up intracellular debris and other waste? A) Ribosomes B) Smooth endoplasmic reticula C) Mitochondria D) Lysosomes Answer: D 27) ________ are the site of protein synthesis in the cell. A) Mitochondria B) Lysosomes C) Ribosomes D) Golgi apparatuses Answer: C 28) Which organelle consists of tiny flattened sacs that help process and package chemicals in the cell? A) Ribosome B) Mitochondrion C) Golgi apparatus D) Lysosome Answer: C 29) ________ is the movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher concentration through a membrane. A) Osmosis B) Diffusion C) Filtration D) Dialysis Answer: A

30) During the ________ portion of mitosis, the chromosomes split and the spindles pull them apart. A) telophase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) interphase Answer: B 31) During which phase of mitosis are chromosomes aligned in the center of the cell? A) Telophase B) Anaphase C) Metaphase D) Prophase Answer: C 32) What general process is utilized by cells for the intake of liquid and food when the substance is too large to diffuse across the cell membrane? A) Pinocytosis B) Endocytosis C) Exocytosis D) Phagocytosis Answer: B 33) ________ are unique because they cannot grow, "eat," or reproduce by themselves. A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Protozoans D) Viruses Answer: D 34) Most of a cell's life is spent in which phase of the cell cycle? A) Interphase B) Prophase C) Anaphase D) Metaphase Answer: A 35) An example of a fungal infection is ________. A) athlete's foot B) shingles C) the common cold D) malaria Answer: A

36) Malaria is caused by which of the following types of infections? A) Viral B) Bacterial C) Protozoan D) Fungal Answer: C 37) In which type of transport do solutes travel from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration without the addition of energy? A) Osmosis B) Diffusion C) Filtration D) Endocytosis Answer: B 38) A(n) ________ solution has less impermeable solutes in the solution surrounding the cell than what is inside the cell. A) osmotic B) isotonic C) hypertonic D) hypotonic Answer: D 39) Filtration of the blood takes place in which organ? A) Kidney B) Heart C) Lungs D) Stomach Answer: A 40) Which ion uses active transport pumps to "push" more of it into the cell? A) Glucose B) Sodium C) Potassium D) Water Answer: C 41) ________ are tube-shaped organelles that are usually found in pairs. A) Mitochondria B) Centrioles C) Lysosomes D) Ribosomes Answer: B

42) What term is used for the division of cells necessary for sexual reproduction? A) Meiosis B) Mitosis C) Metastasis D) Cytokinesis Answer: A 43) Which of these causes an abnormal folding of cellular proteins that results in holes in the affected tissue? A) Viruses B) Fungi C) Protozoa D) Prions Answer: D 4.2 True/False Questions 1) The stomach is an organelle. Answer: FALSE 2) Proteins prevent ions from crossing cell membranes. Answer: FALSE 3) Filtration is the ability of a substance to pull water toward an area of higher solute concentration. Answer: FALSE 4) Cellular respiration makes carbon dioxide as a waste product. Answer: TRUE 5) In the process of phagocytosis, water is transported across the cell membrane. Answer: FALSE 6) Cytoplasm is composed of water and organic and inorganic chemicals. Answer: TRUE 7) Chromatin is found in the nucleus. Answer: TRUE 8) All human cells have cell membranes. Answer: TRUE 9) The centriole is a whiplike organelle used for cell movement. Answer: FALSE 10) The Golgi apparatus has powerful enzymes that can eat cellular debris. Answer: FALSE 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) Lysis means "to break down." Answer: TRUE 12) Metastasis is the spreading of benign cancer cells. Answer: FALSE 13) Some bacteria are not pathogenic. Answer: TRUE 14) The four phases of mitosis are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Answer: TRUE 15) Telophase occurs when the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell. Answer: FALSE 16) Passive transport requires addition of energy throughout the transport process. Answer: FALSE 17) Exocytosis is the process in which a cell produces a substance and transports it to the cell surface to be released. Answer: TRUE

Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 4e (Colbert) Chapter 5 Tissues and Systems 5.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Cells that are arranged in several layers are called ________ cells. A) cuboidal B) stratified C) columnar D) squamous Answer: B 2) The lining of the urinary bladder is composed of which type of cell? A) Simple squamous B) Transitional C) Simple cuboidal D) Simple columnar Answer: B 3) This connective tissue has cells in lacunae in a gel-like matrix. A) Cartilage B) Areolar C) Regular D) Reticular Answer: A 4) Muscle tissue possesses contractility, also known as the ability to ________. A) swell B) mutate C) shorten D) strengthen Answer: C 5) This connective tissue has cells in a matrix composed mainly of calcium and phosphate. A) Cartilage B) Reticular C) Bone D) Blood Answer: C 6) Which membrane is the largest organ of the integumentary system? A) Cutaneous B) Mucous C) Parietal D) Visceral Answer: A 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) The colon is an organ included in which body system? A) Gastrointestinal B) Cardiovascular C) Integumentary D) Reproductive Answer: A 8) Which of the following is considered a nonvital organ? A) Heart B) Gallbladder C) Lung D) Liver Answer: B 9) The production of blood cells occurs within which body system? A) Cardiovascular B) Muscular C) Endocrine D) Skeletal Answer: D 10) Which type of muscle lines the blood vessels and airways of the body? A) Rough B) Glia C) Smooth D) Striated Answer: C 11) Your skin, after it is exposed to sunlight, will produce which vitamin? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D Answer: D 12) Receiving sensory messages, processing and interpreting those messages, and acting on those messages with motor functions are responsibilities of which body system? A) Muscular B) Nervous C) Sensory D) Endocrine Answer: B

13) Balance is the responsibility of which sensory organ? A) Ear B) Eye C) Nose D) Throat Answer: A 14) The symptoms of ________ are redness, swelling, heat, and pain. A) regeneration B) inflammation C) organization D) scarring Answer: B 15) Which of the following tissues regenerate well? A) Cardiac muscle and nervous tissue B) Nervous and epithelial tissue C) Cardiac and smooth muscle D) Bone and epithelium Answer: D 16) The movement of food is a function of ________ muscles. A) involuntary B) sensory C) cardiac D) striated Answer: A 17) Maintaining the proper acid-base balance of the blood is carried out by which body system? A) Skeletal B) Respiratory C) Musculoskeletal D) Integumentary Answer: B 18) Lymphocytes are specialized cells produced for which function? A) Producing red blood cells B) Genetic reproduction C) Saliva production D) Fighting infection Answer: D

19) Mucous is ________. A) a type of membrane B) the material that collects in the corner of the eye C) the actual substance secreted by membranes D) the substance secreted by synovial membranes Answer: A 20) Specialized infection-fighting WBCs are produced by the ________ system. A) cardiovascular B) lymphatic C) integumentary D) endocrine Answer: B 21) A patient who has difficulty conceiving most likely has a problem in the ________ system. A) nervous B) urinary C) reproductive D) cardiovascular Answer: C 22) One of the functions of the endocrine system is to help you deal with stresses produced by ________. A) trauma B) dizziness C) sleeplessness D) nausea Answer: A 23) The lungs eliminate ________ created as a result of cellular metabolism. A) carbon dioxide B) nitrogen C) energy D) foreign particles Answer: A 24) The body's largest organ is the ________. A) liver B) brain C) large intestine D) skin Answer: D

25) The skeletal system includes all but which of the following? A) Bones B) Cartilage C) Ligaments D) Voluntary muscle Answer: D 26) This type of muscle tissue is found in the stomach. A) Skeletal B) Voluntary C) Smooth D) Cardiac Answer: C 27) This type of muscle tissue is found in the heart. A) Skeletal B) Voluntary C) Smooth D) Cardiac Answer: D 28) Which of the following is NOT a gland in the endocrine system? A) Thyroid B) Pituitary C) Hypothalamus D) Salivary Answer: D 29) Which of these organs is an organ of the digestive system? A) Lymph node B) Spleen C) Small intestine D) Thymus Answer: C 30) This type of tissue provides rapid communication between various parts of the body. A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nervous Answer: D

31) This type of tissue covers the body and lines many of the parts of the body. A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nervous Answer: A 32) This is the most common tissue and is found throughout the body more than any other form. A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nervous Answer: B 33) This type of tissue specializes in movement of the body. A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nervous Answer: C 34) This type of tissue can be classified by the shape and arrangement of its cells. A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nervous Answer: A 35) The ________ system transports water, oxygen, and a variety of nutrients and other substances necessary for life to the cells and transports waste products away from the cells. A) cardiovascular B) urinary C) digestive D) respiratory Answer: A 36) When cells are arranged in a scalelike or flat arrangement, they are referred to as ________. A) squamous B) cuboidal C) columnar D) transitional Answer: A

37) Which of the following epithelial membranes is the largest organ of the integumentary system? A) Cutaneous B) Parietal C) Visceral D) Mucous Answer: A 38) Which of the epithelial membranes encases individual organs? A) Parietal B) Mucous C) Visceral D) Cutaneous Answer: C 39) Which membrane lines the wall of the thoracic cavity? A) Cutaneous B) Parietal C) Mucous D) Visceral Answer: B 40) Stem cells are undifferentiated or unspecialized cells that can be induced to become ________ cells. A) embryonic B) adult C) tissue- or organ-specific D) cancerous Answer: C 5.2 True/False Questions 1) Squamous cells are column-like. Answer: FALSE 2) Stretchy epithelial tissue is called transitional. Answer: TRUE 3) Mucus lubricates tissue. Answer: TRUE 4) Connective tissue is the most common tissue. Answer: TRUE 5) Blood is a connective tissue. Answer: TRUE 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) Involuntary muscle tissue is called skeletal muscle. Answer: FALSE 7) Fibroblasts cause tissue to regenerate. Answer: FALSE 8) Nervous tissue regenerates well. Answer: FALSE 9) A mucous membrane is a two-layered membrane with a potential space between the layers. Answer: FALSE 10) The liver is part of the urinary system. Answer: FALSE 11) The cardiovascular system is a control center for virtually all the body's organs. Answer: FALSE 12) Veins carry blood away from the heart. Answer: FALSE 13) The esophagus is in the gastrointestinal system. Answer: TRUE 14) Nitrogen waste is usually eliminated through the integumentary system. Answer: FALSE 15) Hormones are chemicals that circulate in the bloodstream. Answer: TRUE 16) Stem cells can be harvested from embryonic but not adult sources. Answer: FALSE

Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 4e (Colbert) Chapter 6 The Skeletal System 6.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which type of bone is cube-shaped in appearance? A) Short B) Long C) Regular D) Irregular Answer: A 2) The ends of long bones are known as the ________. A) medulla B) periosteum C) diaphysis D) epiphyses Answer: D 3) A narrow ridge of bone is known as the ________. A) crest B) head C) spine D) condyle Answer: A 4) A ________ is a groove or shallow depression on the surface of a bone. A) facet B) sinus C) fossa D) meatus Answer: C 5) An ________ is a mature bone cell. A) osteoprogenitor B) osteoblast C) osteoclast D) osteocyte Answer: D 6) Compact bone is created over the surface of spongy bone by ________. A) osteoprogenitors B) osteoclasts C) osteons D) osteoblasts Answer: D 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) Bone growth will continue for as long as the ________ plate exists. A) diaphyseal B) epiphyseal C) osteon D) medullary Answer: B 8) ________ is the type of connective tissue that helps to cushion the ends of long bones. A) Spongy bone B) Cartilage C) Bone marrow D) Synovium Answer: B 9) This type of joint is held together by connective tissue strands. A) Gliding B) Synovial C) Cartilaginous D) Fibrous Answer: D 10) What type of joint is formed when an oval-shaped bone fits into a depression and provides two directions of movement? A) Pivot B) Gliding C) Hinge D) Ellipsoidal Answer: D 11) The joints of the hips and shoulders are examples of ________ joints. A) pivot B) fibrous C) ball-and-socket D) saddle Answer: C 12) This movement occurs when you turn the sole of your foot inward to face the other foot. A) Eversion B) Inversion C) Pronation D) Flexion Answer: B

13) The primary ossification center in long bones is located in the ________. A) epiphyses B) diaphysis C) articular cartilage D) central canal Answer: B 14) The bone disease ________ is a degenerative disorder characterized by thinning bones. A) osteoporosis B) osteitis C) osteomyelitis D) osteosarcomas Answer: A 15) The last stage in bone repair is ________. A) remodeling B) bony callus formation C) soft callus formation D) hematoma formation Answer: A 16) Which mineral is included in the composition of bone? A) Iodine B) Calcium C) Potassium D) Iron Answer: B 17) The spinal column and bones of the middle ear are part of the ________ skeleton. A) superior B) axial C) inferior D) appendicular Answer: B 18) Lordosis is an abnormal curvature of the spine usually occurring in the ________. A) thorax B) upper back C) lumbar region D) midbuttocks Answer: C

19) Your textbook lists eight causative agents for bone and joint disorders other than osteoporosis and arthritis. Which of these is NOT one of them? A) Nutritional disorders B) Degenerative disorders C) Tumors D) Osteomalacia Answer: D 20) ________ is a nutritional disorder caused by a vitamin C deficiency. A) Osteomalacia B) Rickets C) Scurvy D) Chondrosarcoma Answer: C 21) Scoliosis is an example of what classification of disorders? A) Infection B) Congenital C) Trauma D) Secondary Answer: B 22) If the body is not in balance, regardless of the cause, spinal curvatures may be exaggerated, leading to any of the following EXCEPT ________. A) kyphosis B) scoliosis C) lordosis D) osteoporosis Answer: D 23) Which of these is NOT a type of arthritis? A) Rheumatoid B) Osteo C) Septic D) Cruciate Answer: D 24) A bone fracture in your arm would be part of the ________ division of the skeleton. A) thoracic B) appendicular C) axial D) spinal Answer: B

25) This refers to the shaft of a long bone. A) Epiphyses B) Periosteum C) Diaphysis D) Endosteum Answer: C 26) This is the strong, fibrous connective tissue covering the bone. A) Epiphyses B) Periosteum C) Diaphysis D) Endosteum Answer: B 27) Which specialized connective tissue holds together freely moving joints? A) Tendons B) Ligaments C) Epiphyses D) Muscles Answer: B 28) This membrane lines the spongy bone. A) Epiphyses B) Periosteum C) Diaphysis D) Endosteum Answer: D 29) This is the location in the bone where blood cell production occurs. A) Epiphyses B) Periosteum C) Diaphysis D) Medullary cavity Answer: D 30) The microscopic cylindrical-shaped unit of compact bone is called the ________. A) endosteum B) cancellous C) osteon D) trabeculae Answer: C

31) The bar- and platelike tissue of spongy bone is called ________. A) flagellite B) osteocytes C) osteon D) trabeculae Answer: D 32) Bone-building cells are called ________. A) osteoblasts B) osteoclasts C) osteocytes D) hemopoietics Answer: A 33) The skeleton can still grow as long as there is cartilage left in the ________. A) Haversian system B) diaphysis C) epiphyseal plate D) chondrocytes Answer: C 34) An abnormal sideways bend and sway in the vertebral column is called ________. A) lordosis B) kyphosis C) scoliosis D) convexities Answer: C 35) The number of pairs of true ribs is ________. A) 12 B) 14 C) 5 D) 7 Answer: D 36) These joints permit the widest range of movement. A) Hinge B) Pivot C) Saddle D) Ball-and-socket Answer: D

37) If the ends of a broken bone are not touching, then a medical procedure called ________ must be performed to set the bone. A) inflammation B) formation C) reduction D) remodeling Answer: C 38) Ensuring that young children have a sufficient amount of vitamin D will prevent ________. A) rickets B) osteomalacia C) osteoporosis D) Paget's disease Answer: A 39) Another name for a compound fracture is a(n) ________. A) open fracture B) closed fracture C) comminuted fracture D) impacted fracture Answer: A 40) ________ is a general term used to describe an inflammatory process of a joint or joints. A) Arthritis B) Osteoarthritis C) Gout D) Bursitis Answer: A 41) ________ is a degenerative condition in which joints wear out and become inflamed. A) Fracture B) Osteoarthritis C) Gout D) Bursitis Answer: B 42) ________ is an immune system dysfunction. A) Gout B) Bursitis C) Septic arthritis D) Rheumatoid arthritis Answer: D

43) ________ is the result of the infective process of a pathogen that was introduced to a joint. A) Rheumatoid arthritis B) Gout C) Septic arthritis D) Gigantism Answer: C 44) A cleft palate is an example of which of the following? A) Congenital disorder B) Degenerative disorder C) Infection D) Nutritional disorder Answer: A 45) Osteoporosis is an example of which of the following? A) Congenital disorder B) Infection C) Degenerative disorder D) Nerve disorder Answer: C 46) Osteomyelitis is a bone disorder caused by ________. A) endocrine system dysfunction B) a tumor C) trauma D) infection Answer: D 47) Both projecting structures and depressions can work together as joining or ________ points to form joints. A) articulation B) stress C) ball D) trochanter Answer: A 48) When pitching a baseball, which cordlike structures hold the pitcher's shoulder muscles to his bones? A) Shoulder tendons B) Shoulder ligaments C) Shoulder joint D) Shoulder nerves Answer: A

49) What is the purpose of the three ankle ligaments on the outside of the foot? A) Providing a place to grow pedal cartilage B) Giving form to the bony skeleton of the foot C) Preventing athletic sports injuries to the foot D) Holding together freely moving ankle joints Answer: D 50) ________ fractures are incomplete breaks in bones. A) Simple B) Compound C) Comminuted D) Greenstick Answer: D 51) Because they both connect to bone on one end, how do wrist ligaments differ from wrist tendons? A) Wrist ligaments are connected on the other end to muscle. B) Wrist tendons are connected on the other end to muscle. C) Wrist ligaments are connected on the other end to joints. D) Wrist tendons are connected on the other end to joints. Answer: B 52) The bones of the chest form a thoracic cage that is ________ because of cartilaginous connections that ________ movement during the process of breathing. A) rigid; prevent B) flexible; allow for C) tense; restrict D) loose; excite Answer: B 53) The pelvic girdle consists of each of these bones EXCEPT the ________. A) clavicle B) ischium C) ilium D) pubis Answer: A 54) Joint replacement procedures artificially replace the joint to eliminate pain, restore movement of that joint, and improve ________. A) ossification B) bone remodeling C) erythropoiesis D) activities of daily living Answer: D

6.2 True/False Questions 1) Bending your knee is an example of joint extension. Answer: FALSE 2) Rotation is when a bone draws a part forward. Answer: FALSE 3) Supination turns the palm downward. Answer: FALSE 4) One hundred twenty-six bones comprise the appendicular skeleton. Answer: TRUE 5) The appendicular skeleton includes bones of the thorax, spinal column, hyoid bone, bones of the middle ear, and skull. Answer: FALSE 6) The tarsals are the toe bones. Answer: FALSE 7) There are twelve thoracic vertebrae. Answer: TRUE 8) The skull has mainly synovial joints. Answer: FALSE 9) Once you reach puberty, bone stops regenerating. Answer: FALSE 10) The flexible parts of your nose and ears are spongy bone. Answer: FALSE 11) The patella is the kneecap. Answer: TRUE 12) Bone is covered by endosteum. Answer: FALSE 13) The lining of a freely moving joint is cartilage only. Answer: FALSE 14) Fibrous joints are not freely moving. Answer: TRUE 15) Arthritis is mainly caused by cracking your knuckles and slouching. Answer: FALSE 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) Vitamin D allows the body to absorb ingested phosphorous from the digestive tract. Answer: FALSE 17) The pelvic girdle in women has a greater pubic angle that facilitates childbirth. Answer: TRUE 18) Bones grow longitudinally to lengthen. Answer: TRUE 19) The osteoclasts' two jobs are to tear down bone material and help move calcium and phosphate into the blood. Answer: TRUE

Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 4e (Colbert) Chapter 7 The Muscular System 7.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Thin myofilaments are made up of the protein ________. A) Z lines B) myosin C) myofibril D) actin Answer: D 2) Muscles may be named according to ________. A) speed B) action C) age D) myofilament type Answer: B 3) When the nervous system signals a muscle to contract, ________ ion channels open. A) phosphorus B) sodium C) myosin D) actin Answer: B 4) Skeletal muscle produces body movement as well as maintains our ________ as we sit. A) strength B) vasodilation C) vasoconstriction D) posture Answer: D 5) The ________ is the prime elbow flexor. A) biceps femoris B) biceps brachii C) triceps brachii D) flexor digitorum Answer: B 6) The ________ muscle is located on the front of the lower leg. A) gastrocnemium B) latissimus dorsi C) tibialis anterior D) hamstring Answer: C 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) Which type of muscle will NOT regenerate once it is severely damaged? A) Smooth B) Visceral C) Cardiac D) Skeletal Answer: C 8) Which term is used to designate muscle pain? A) Myalgia B) Ataxia C) Paralysis D) Spasm Answer: A 9) Which disorder affects the peripheral nervous system usually with ascending paralysis starting in the feet? A) Muscular dystrophy B) Guillain-Barré syndrome C) Myasthenia gravis D) Tetanus Answer: B 10) Striated muscles, which appear to have stripes, are in which type of muscle? A) Skeletal B) Internal C) Visceral D) Smooth Answer: A 11) Blood is pumped through the heart by which type of muscle? A) Skeletal B) Smooth C) Cardiac D) Visceral Answer: C 12) The stationary attachment of the muscle is called the ________. A) point of movement B) point of insertion C) point of control D) point of origin Answer: D

13) The only muscle that possesses both voluntary and involuntary abilities is the ________. A) heart B) lung C) diaphragm D) brain Answer: C 14) Rotation occurs when you have movement around a(n) ________. A) axis B) vessel C) vertebrae D) ball and socket Answer: A 15) The muscle that enables a joint to bend is the ________. A) flexion B) flexor C) extension D) extensor Answer: B 16) Muscle cells are made up of ________. A) Z lines B) myosin C) myofibrils D) actin Answer: C 17) Shortened ________ shorten many muscle fibers to cause a muscle to contract. A) sarcomeres B) myosin C) actin D) Z lines Answer: A 18) Skeletal muscles are able to contract ________ times faster than smooth muscle. A) 20 B) 40 C) 50 D) 60 Answer: C

19) Almost ________ percent of the body's weight comes from its muscles. A) 15 B) 50 C) 65 D) 80 Answer: B 20) The muscle end that is attached to the moving bone is the ________. A) point of movement B) point of insertion C) point of control D) point of origin Answer: B 21) A running-related inflammatory condition of the connective muscles surrounding the tibia is commonly called ________. A) a sprain B) a hernia C) shin splints D) a strain Answer: C 22) Myasthenia gravis is a ________ disease with gradually increasing profound muscle weakness. A) cancerous B) cardiovascular C) skeletomuscular D) neuromuscular Answer: D 23) The cause of fibromyalgia is ________. A) unknown B) acute injury C) sudden, involuntary muscle spasms D) bacterial infection Answer: A 24) Muscular dystrophy is a(n) ________ muscular disease in which muscle fibers degenerate. A) autoimmune B) genetic C) cancerous D) acute Answer: B

25) The bacteria Clostridium tetani releases a toxin that causes ________, which creates rigid paralysis. A) tendonitis B) ataxia C) fibromyalgia D) tetanus Answer: D 26) A ________ is a tear or a break in a ligament. A) spasm B) sprain C) cramp D) strain Answer: B 27) Atrophy means muscles ________. A) have increased growth B) waste away C) will be scarred D) develop excessively in childhood Answer: B 28) The toxin used in Botox to treat wrinkles is ________. A) Botulinum toxin B) Clostridium tetani C) staph D) acetylcholine Answer: A 29) A strain is a tear or injury in muscles or ________. A) nerve fibers B) cartilage C) ligaments D) tendons Answer: D 30) The location of pain is confined to tender points in ________. A) muscular dystrophy B) tetanus C) myasthenia gravis D) fibromyalgia Answer: D

31) A voluntary muscle is ________. A) a muscle of organs B) visceral C) smooth D) under conscious control Answer: D 32) This type of muscle tissue contains striations. A) Involuntary muscle B) Cardiac muscle C) Smooth muscle D) Visceral Answer: B 33) Another name for visceral muscle is ________ muscle. A) cardiac B) voluntary C) smooth D) striated Answer: C 34) Strength training causes ________. A) muscle atrophy B) a decrease in blood vessels to a muscle C) muscle hypertrophy D) a decrease in the number of mitochondria in a muscle cell Answer: C 35) Muscles that cause movement are known as ________. A) antagonists B) agonists C) secondary movers D) points of insertion Answer: B 36) The triceps brachii and the biceps brachii ________. A) are synergistic for each other B) both have their origin in the forearm C) are antagonist to each other D) both have their insertions in the shoulder Answer: C

37) Intercalated discs are found in ________. A) striated muscle B) cardiac muscle C) smooth muscle D) tendons Answer: B 38) Wasting away or deterioration of muscle is called ________. A) hypertrophy B) ankylosis C) atrophy D) myositis Answer: C 39) ________ is tissue death. A) Tetanus B) Ataxia C) Hernia D) Necrosis Answer: D 40) A fibrous tissue that serves as an attachment for muscle to bone is ________. A) a ligament B) cartilage C) adipose tissue D) a tendon Answer: D 41) Muscles needed for endurance require ________ than do less demanding muscles. A) more nerves B) a richer blood supply C) less mass D) more heat Answer: B 42) The movement that is opposite of flexion is ________. A) abduction B) rotation C) extension D) supination Answer: C

43) ________ provides the energy to help the myosin heads form and break the crossbridges with actin. A) ATP B) Calcium C) Potassium D) Vitamin D Answer: A 44) All of the following can be used in naming a muscle EXCEPT ________. A) location of attachments B) size C) color D) shape Answer: C 45) Pectoralis major is located in the ________. A) elbow B) chest C) upper portion of the thigh D) front of lower leg Answer: B 46) When smooth muscle relaxation leads to ________ in a blood vessel, blood pressure can decrease. A) spasm B) necrosis C) vasoconstriction D) vasodilation Answer: D 47) During an asthma attack, smooth muscles in the airways of the lungs ________, making it difficult to get air into and out of the lungs. A) constrict B) dilate C) relax D) rupture Answer: A 48) Fibromyalgia may be one of the most common disorders for ________. A) men under age 40 B) women under age 40 C) children under age 10 D) elderly over age 65 Answer: B

49) This bacteria releases a toxin that causes tetanus. A) Meningitis B) E. coli C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Clostridium tetani Answer: D 50) A muscle that contracts involuntarily, suddenly, and violently for a prolonged period of time is said to have ________. A) ataxia B) fibromyalgia C) a cramp D) a strain Answer: C 51) Drooping of one or both of the upper eyelids is often the first sign of ________. A) ataxia B) fibromyalgia C) myasthenia gravis D) muscular dystrophy Answer: C 52) ________ are donut-shaped muscles that act as doors to let material in or out. A) Sphincters B) Intercalated discs C) Aponeuroses D) Primary movers Answer: A 53) Broad sheets of connective tissue that connect some facial and abdominal muscles to bone instead of tendons are called ________. A) tendons B) aponeuroses C) ligaments D) sphincters Answer: B 54) Which body feature do ultramarathon runners count on to give their muscles fuel for endurance? A) Richer blood supply B) Stronger long bones C) Toned ligaments and tendons D) Healthy cartilage Answer: A

55) When competing in a swimming meet, participants release fuel energy from their muscles. What does that activity produce? A) Red blood cells B) Glucose C) More energy D) Heat Answer: D 56) How do cardiac muscle fibers differ from the muscle fibers of the arms and legs? A) Longer muscle fibers than the limbs B) Non-striated fibers rather than striated fibers C) Poorer supply of blood than the limbs D) Routine involuntary movement Answer: D 57) Because the heart must work constantly, the cardiac muscles must ________. A) contract less often than other muscles B) receive a generous blood supply C) be under constant voluntary control D) contain longer fibers than other muscles Answer: B 7.2 True/False Questions 1) Smooth muscle is found in the stomach. Answer: TRUE 2) Ligaments attach muscle to bone. Answer: FALSE 3) The rectus femoris is in the arm. Answer: FALSE 4) Abduction moves a muscle away from midline. Answer: TRUE 5) Extension decreases the angle between two bones. Answer: FALSE 6) Vasoconstriction makes vessels smaller. Answer: TRUE 7) Cardiac muscle is only found in the heart. Answer: TRUE 8) Hypertrophy is muscle wasting. Answer: FALSE 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Ataxia is partial or total loss of the ability to move muscles. Answer: FALSE 10) Sprains are tears or breaks in ligaments. Answer: TRUE 11) Guillain-Barré syndrome is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system. Answer: TRUE 12) Electromyography is a test in which a muscle or group of muscles are stimulated with an electrical impulse. Answer: TRUE 13) A hernia is caused when tendons become inflamed. Answer: FALSE 14) The pectoralis major muscle is named for its action. Answer: FALSE 15) Smooth muscle is voluntary muscle. Answer: FALSE 16) The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a modified endoplasmic reticulum that stores calcium. Answer: TRUE 17) Muscle is a general term for all contractile tissue. Answer: TRUE 18) Only voluntary muscle has the ability to stretch, or extensibility. Answer: FALSE 19) Shivering is a way of generating heat via dilation of many blood vessels. Answer: FALSE

Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 4e (Colbert) Chapter 8 The Integumentary System 8.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) What is the layer of skin that we can see? A) Subcutaneous fascia B) Epidermis C) Stratum basale D) Dermis Answer: B 2) Patches of melanin found on the skin form ________. A) melanocytes B) freckles C) bilirubin D) carotene Answer: B 3) The condition of yellow jaundice occurs when the body builds up excess ________. A) carotene B) melanin C) bilirubin D) freckles Answer: C 4) Collagenous and elastic fibers of the ________ make it possible for the skin to flex with movement of the body. A) dermis B) subcutaneous C) epidermis D) fascia Answer: A 5) ________ sweat glands become active at puberty. A) Sebaceous B) Apocrine C) Salivary D) Eccrine Answer: B 6) The skin is attached to the muscles of the body by the ________ layer. A) epidermis B) dermis C) hypodermis D) subcutaneous Answer: C 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) Connective tissue of the skin is developed from ________. A) melanocytes B) fibroblasts C) collagen D) fascia Answer: B 8) What is the degree of burn in which all three layers of skin have been destroyed and the victim feels no pain? A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth Answer: C 9) The "rule of ________" is a system devised to assess the amount of body surface affected by a burn. A) injury B) nines C) many D) five Answer: B 10) After a severe burn, a patient may require a(n) ________, in which skin is removed from an unaffected area of his body and moved to the burned area. A) antibacterial patch B) heterograft C) donor site D) autograft Answer: D 11) Epidermal cells are sloughed off from the ________. A) basal layer B) clear layer C) horny layer D) dermal layer Answer: C 12) Specialized epithelial cells originating from the nail ________ form your nails. A) root B) cells C) bed D) base Answer: A

13) What color would you expect to see on a healthy nail bed? A) Blanche B) White C) Pink D) Tan Answer: C 14) By the time epidermal cells reach the surface of the epidermis, they are filled with ________. A) keratin B) carotene C) lunula D) granulosa Answer: A 15) The integumentary system plays an important role in regulating the body's ________. A) environment B) composition C) elasticity D) temperature Answer: D 16) Medication delivered into the skin is called ________. A) intravascular B) intramuscular C) intradermal D) intraspinal Answer: C 17) ________ is a disease in which there is reduced blood flow to the extremities. A) PVD B) Jaundice C) Dermatitis D) RBC Answer: A 18) Which of the following is a fungal infection? A) Dermatitis B) Tinea pedis C) Urticaria D) Psoriasis Answer: B

19) Fourth-degree burns penetrate to the ________, muscles, or tendons. A) epidermis B) dermis C) hypodermis D) bone Answer: D 20) The skin's ability to return back to normal after being deformed is called ________. A) carotene B) turgor C) melanin D) rigor Answer: B 21) Another name for the dermis is the ________. A) fascia B) stratum basale C) matrix D) corium Answer: D 22) Capillary refill time normally takes less than ________ seconds. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: A 23) Nail beds become ________ in tint as the oxygen level in the tissue decreases. A) reddish B) pinkish C) bluish D) blackish Answer: C 24) Hair, like the fingernails and toenails, is composed of a fibrous protein called ________. A) antigen B) bilirubin C) collagen D) keratin Answer: D

25) A lesion can include all of the following EXCEPT a(n) ________. A) wound B) injury C) single infected patch of skin D) infected follicle Answer: D 26) Dermatitis is an inflammatory process that can be caused by ________ or chemicals. A) scabies B) general warts C) acne D) plants Answer: D 27) Tinea refers to any ________. A) bacteria B) mite C) fungal skin disease D) skin cancer Answer: C 28) Basal cell carcinoma usually ________. A) spreads through organs B) penetrates to muscle and bone C) affects all melanocytes D) spreads locally Answer: D 29) Which statement is NOT true of the epidermis? A) It is a stratified squamous epithelium. B) It contains blood vessels. C) It is the outermost layer of skin. D) It contains the stratum corneum. Answer: B 30) The stratum corneum ________. A) is composed of mostly dead cells B) is the innermost layer of the epidermis C) contains melanocytes which give the skin color D) lies underneath the stratum basale Answer: A

31) The skin tans in response to sunlight because of the release of ________. A) keratin B) melanin C) sebum D) collagen Answer: B 32) ________ is a chronic skin condition marked by red, dry, crusty papules that form circular borders over the affected areas. A) Psoriasis B) Eczema C) Herpes zoster D) Scabies Answer: A 33) ________ is an eruption of extremely painful vesicles that occur in a belt-like pattern of patches. A) Scabies B) Pediculosis C) Herpes zoster D) Acne vulgaris Answer: C 34) A(n) ________ is a localized elevation of the skin often accompanied by itching. A) erosion B) wheal C) pustule D) macule Answer: B 35) Which of the following is NOT found in the dermis of the skin? A) Connective tissue B) Nerve endings C) Melanocytes D) Sweat glands Answer: C 36) The layer of epithelial tissue under the fingernail, actually part of the epidermis, is called the ________. A) nail body B) cuticle C) lunula D) nail bed Answer: D

37) This type of gland secretes oil for the skin and hair. A) Sebaceous B) Sudoriferous C) Eccrine D) Apocrine Answer: A 38) Burns that penetrate to the dermis and are characterized by blisters, pain, and redness are classified as ________. A) first-degree burns B) second-degree burns C) third-degree burns D) fourth-degree burns Answer: B 39) The rule of nines is used to determine the ________. A) depth of burns B) color of burns C) body surface area burned D) complications of burns Answer: C 40) This skin infection is also called furuncles. A) Tinea B) Impetigo C) Warts D) Boils Answer: D 41) What is TRUE about the transdermal route of administering medication? A) Frequent dosing is necessary. B) The medication is effective only for short periods. C) Medication is slowly absorbed into the bloodstream. D) Medicine is delivered subcutaneously. Answer: C 42) Individuals with a malfunctioning adrenal gland may have what color of skin? A) Blue B) Red C) Yellow D) Bronze Answer: D

43) What is NOT a place where large numbers of sweat glands are concentrated? A) On the forehead B) On the tops of the feet C) In the palms D) Under the arms Answer: B 44) A ________ is a large vesicle. A) bulla B) scale C) fissure D) nodule Answer: A 45) Fever blisters or cold sores are caused by the ________ virus. A) Herpes varicella B) Herpes zoster C) Herpes simplex type 1 D) decubitus Answer: C 46) In the the "rule of nines," the perineum accounts for ________ percent of the body surface area. A) 18 B) 9 C) 4.5 D) 1 Answer: D 47) Shingles is caused by the ________ virus. A) herpes varicella B) herpes zoster C) herpes simplex D) decubitus Answer: B 48) A(n) ________ results from mechanically scraping away a portion of the skin's layers. A) boil B) abrasion C) cold sore D) contusion Answer: B

49) What is NOT a complication of burns? A) Bacterial infection B) Heat loss C) Fluid loss D) Autografting Answer: D 50) ________ develops when sebaceous glands oversecrete sebum. A) A bedsore B) A contusion C) Acne D) Athlete's foot Answer: C 51) ________ is a common type of contagious fungal skin infection that occurs between the toes or on the palms of fingers. A) Tinea corporis B) Tinea unguium C) Tinea cruris D) Tinea pedis Answer: D 52) ________ is a fungal infection of the groin. A) Tinea corporis B) Tinea unguium C) Tinea cruris D) Tinea pedis Answer: C 53) A ________ ulcer is commonly known as a bedsore. A) decubitus B) herpes C) suction D) compression Answer: A 54) ________ is a superficial form of dermatitis that exhibits redness, papules, vesicles, and crusting. A) Malignant melanoma B) Eczema C) A contusion D) An abrasion Answer: B

55) What do sweat glands NOT excrete? A) Water B) Sebum C) Nitrogenous wastes D) Sodium chloride Answer: B 56) A burn victim comes into your local Emergency Room, and you are helping to assess the extent of their burns. In your assessment, you notice that the patient has burns on their head and neck, their right arm, their right leg, and the front of the torso. You determine that the patient has burns over ________ percent of their body. A) 45 B) 63 C) 54 D) 36 Answer: C 57) A grandmother kissed the scraped knee of her grandchild. "It develops nature's bandage," she told the child. Which skin feature is she referring to? A) Inflammation B) Pigment C) Blood clot D) Scab Answer: D 58) The diabetic patient faced amputation of his toes due to long-delayed wound healing in his foot. Which characteristic of his diabetic condition caused his medical crisis? A) Decrease in his white blood cell activity B) Increase in his blood flow C) High blood sugar D) Insulin reactions Answer: A 59) The young actress's face was attacked by a knife-wielding robber. Her wounds were deep. What response did her collagen fibers form to compensate? A) Scab B) Scar C) Pigment D) Inflammation Answer: B

60) A young man suffered a severe injury in a motorcycle accident. Rather than give him pain medications by IV or injections, his doctor ordered his pain medicines to be delivered through his skin. Which kind of patches work well this way? A) Topical B) Sublingual C) Transdermal D) Subcutaneous Answer: C 61) A woman had repeated angina attacks. She carried nitroglycerin tablets with her at all times. When needed, why did she place the nitroglycerin tablets under her tongue? A) To avoiding the pain of intramuscular injections B) To get rapid absorption into her bloodstream C) To not touch the taste buds on her tongue's surface D) To promote sustained release of her medication over time Answer: B 62) A dermatologist recommended a soothing waterproof ointment to be applied directly to a baby's skin. Which kind of medicine delivery did she prescribe? A) Topical B) Sublingual C) Transdermal D) Subcutaneous Answer: A 63) When outdoor temperatures reached a ten-year high, the mountain hiker appeared flushed. Which action made her blood vessels get larger in diameter, allowing her to lose heat to the environment? A) Vasomotor B) Vasodilation C) Vasoconstriction D) Vasopressor Answer: B 64) When shoveling snow from the driveway, the older man did not feel the bitter cold. Which action made his blood vessels get smaller in diameter, conserving heat in the warm core of his body? A) Vasomotor B) Vasodilation C) Vasoconstriction D) Vasopressor Answer: C

65) When ice skating at Rockefeller Center, a young skater got thoroughly chilled. Which of his body's reaction to the cold gave him "goose pimples"? A) Faster subcutaneous blood flow B) Dehydration of his skin surface by cold C) His skin hairs pulling his skin muscles together D) Contraction of erector muscles in his skin Answer: D 8.2 True/False Questions 1) Nicotine to aid smoking cessation can be delivered by transdermal patches. Answer: TRUE 2) Carotene gives a bluish hue to the skin. Answer: FALSE 3) Second-degree burns involve the entire depth of the epidermis and a portion of the dermis. Answer: TRUE 4) Formation of a keloid is a result of underproduction of connective tissue. Answer: FALSE 5) Each upper limb is considered nine percent of the body skin surface area. Answer: TRUE 6) Keratinization softens cells. Answer: FALSE 7) The part of the hair that you see outside the body is the follicle. Answer: FALSE 8) The white, half-moon shaped area of your fingernail is called the cuticle. Answer: FALSE 9) An infected blackhead is a papule. Answer: TRUE 10) As your temperature rises during activity, your body signals blood vessels to constrict. Answer: FALSE 11) Muscles in your skin are called arrector pili. Answer: TRUE 12) The most dangerous type of skin cancer is basal cell carcinoma. Answer: FALSE

13) Scabies is caused by egg-laying mites. Answer: TRUE 14) A vesicle is a small, fluid-filled, raised spot on the surface of the skin. Answer: TRUE 15) Eczema is a disorder that results primarily from an allergic reaction. Answer: FALSE 16) The life span of eyelashes is around 3-4 years. Answer: FALSE 17) The enzyme catalase neutralizes hydrogen peroxide produced in hair follicles. Answer: TRUE 18) A crust is a dry exudation seen in secondary lesions. Answer: TRUE

Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 4e (Colbert) Chapter 9 The Nervous System (Part I) 9.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The part of the nervous system that is located outside the brain and spinal cord is called the ________ system. A) endocrine B) central nervous C) sensory D) peripheral nervous Answer: D 2) The autonomic nervous system is divided into which two branches? A) Somatic, autonomic B) Sympathetic, parasympathetic C) Motor, sensory D) Input, output Answer: B 3) Myelin is a lipid insulation produced by the ________. A) microglia B) oligodendrocytes C) astrocytes D) ependymal cells Answer: B 4) Which part of the neuron is responsible for cell metabolism? A) Body B) Dendrite C) Axon D) Synapse Answer: A 5) Neurons with the ability to monitor the environment are called ________ neurons. A) accessory B) motor C) sensory D) output Answer: C

6) Neurons are able to generate tiny electrical currents by changing the ________ of their membranes. A) composition B) shape C) pathway D) permeability Answer: D 7) If a neuron is more positively charged than it is when resting, it is said to be ________. A) refractory B) repolarized C) depolarized D) polarized Answer: C 8) A neuron that is more negatively charged than it is at rest is ________. A) polarized B) hyperpolarized C) depolarized D) refractory Answer: B 9) Impulses are conducted more rapidly along a neuron if ________ is present. A) calcium B) sodium C) myelin D) spinal fluid Answer: C 10) Which of the following is a medical disorder in which the myelin in the CNS has been destroyed? A) Multiple sclerosis B) Meningitis C) Guillain-Barré syndrome D) Myasthenia gravis Answer: A 11) The nerves going to the upper limbs join the spinal cord at the ________ region. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral Answer: A

12) The third, innermost layer of the meninges is called the ________. A) dura mater B) arachnoid mater C) pia mater D) epidural mater Answer: C 13) Medication is often injected into the ________ space to alleviate pain. A) vertebral B) epidural C) subdural D) subarachnoid Answer: B 14) Which part of the spinal cord carries sensory information? A) Commissure B) Ventral root C) Column D) Dorsal root Answer: D 15) Which spinal cord tracts carry sensory information? A) Superficial B) Ventral C) Ascending D) Inferior Answer: C 16) Which of the following is NOT one of the three broad categories of causes of peripheral neuropathy? A) Trauma B) Paralysis C) Systemic disorders D) Infections Answer: B 17) A quadriplegic patient with damage high in the cervical spinal cord may have a paralyzed diaphragm, such that he cannot ________ on his own. A) breathe B) swallow food C) close his eyes D) speak Answer: A

18) The autonomic nervous system is a subdivision of the ________. A) central nervous system B) sympathetic nervous system C) peripheral nervous system D) parasympathetic nervous system Answer: C 19) Dendrites ________. A) are usually highly branched B) carry impulses away from the cell body C) are usually surrounded by myelin D) perform metabolic processes for the cell Answer: A 20) Sensory neurons are also called ________. A) interneurons B) input neurons C) output neurons D) glial cells Answer: B 21) Neurons that carry information between other neurons are called ________. A) interneurons B) efferent neurons C) motor neurons D) afferent neurons Answer: A 22) Which type of glial cell produces myelin for neurons in the brain? A) Microglia B) Oligodendrocytes C) Astrocytes D) Interneurons Answer: B 23) Infection of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord is called ________. A) encephalitis B) meningitis C) blepharitis D) polyneuritis Answer: B

24) Which type of glial cell attacks microbes and removes debris? A) Microglia B) Oligodendrocytes C) Astrocytes D) Schwann cells Answer: A 25) Which of the following statements is NOT true of multiple sclerosis? A) It is considered a myelin disorder. B) Patients may have disturbances in vision, balance, speech, or movement. C) It is more common in women than men. D) It is most often diagnosed in people over the age of 50. Answer: D 26) When a neuron becomes stimulated (excited), ________. A) the interior of the neuron becomes more negative B) sodium gates in the cell membrane close C) sodium gates in the cell membrane open D) the entire neuron remains at rest Answer: C 27) The outermost layer of the meninges is the ________. A) pia mater B) choroid plexus C) arachnoid mater D) dura mater Answer: D 28) Loss of motor and sensory control of the trunk of the body and lower extremities as a result of a spinal cord injury describes ________. A) peripheral neuropathy B) quadriplegia C) paraplegia D) a slipped disk Answer: C 29) Which disease is characterized by ascending paralysis? A) Myasthenia gravis B) Polio C) Guillain-Barré syndrome D) Botulism Answer: C

30) Which disease is characterized by progressive fluctuating muscle weakness starting in the facial or eye muscles? A) Myasthenia gravis B) Polio C) Guillain-Barré syndrome D) Carpal tunnel syndrome Answer: A 31) Patients who have an injury to their cervical spinal cord segment and are paralyzed in all four limbs are described as ________. A) paraplegic B) quadriplegic C) suffering from Guillain-Barré syndrome D) suffering from myasthenia gravis Answer: B 32) Patients with injuries to their thoracic spinal cord segment who are paralyzed in both legs are described as ________. A) paraplegic B) quadriplegic C) suffering from Guillain-Barré syndrome D) suffering from meningitis Answer: A 33) Which of the following is a potentially fatal condition that involves infection of the meninges? A) Polio B) Myasthenia gravis C) Meningitis D) Peripheral neuropathy Answer: C 34) Which inflammatory condition is a result of repetitive motion and leads to numbness in the palm and fingers? A) Carpal tunnel syndrome B) Meningitis C) Myasthenia gravis D) Botulism Answer: A 35) An injection of a local anesthetic into the spinal column is called a(n) ________. A) epiphysis B) epidural C) subdural D) cutaneous Answer: B 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

36) Which of the following directional terms are used for the spinal roots? A) Anterior and posterior B) Superior and inferior C) Dorsal and ventral D) Distal and proximal Answer: C 37) Which type of information can graded potentials convey to the central nervous system? A) Amount of electricity generated B) Size of environmental change C) Length of signal sent and received D) Same information as action potentials Answer: B 38) What material gives white matter its color? A) Myelinated axons B) Cell bodies C) Potassium channels D) Depolarizing axons Answer: A 39) Gray matter is present in a spinal cord in three horns. Surgically cutting across the horns would destroy which type of material? A) Myelinated axons B) Cell bodies C) Potassium channels D) Depolarizing axons Answer: B 40) What is the relationship between ions and myelin that prevents ions from passing through channels? A) Size: Ions are large in diameter and myelin is much smaller. B) Weight: Ions are light and myelin is much heavier. C) Electrical: Ions have negative charges and myelin has a positive charge. D) Solubility: Ions are water soluble and myelin is a lipid. Answer: D 41) Eating improperly prepared puffer fish can kill a person. Which chemical channels does the fish's toxin block? A) Acetylcholine B) Sodium C) Potassium D) Epinephrine Answer: B

42) A runner crossed the finish line without feeling pain from her blisters or other injuries. Which chemical neurotransmitter was involved? A) Acetylcholine B) Epinephrine C) Endorphins D) Serotonin Answer: C 43) A college student had a depressed mood and trouble falling asleep. Which chemical neurotransmitter could cause such problems? A) Acetylcholine B) Epinephrine C) Endorphins D) Serotonin Answer: D 44) What is the advantage of transmitting information by an electrical synapse? A) It is chemical free. B) It is hormone free. C) There is fast recovery. D) There is less toxicity. Answer: A 45) A woman suffers from chronic dizzy spells, resulting in difficulty keeping her body vertical. Which reflex is involved? A) Withdrawal reflex B) Vestibular reflex C) Startle reflex D) Patellar tendon reflex Answer: B 46) A taxi driver picked up a fare in a heavy rainstorm. Which reflex was activated when both the driver and the passenger unexpectedly heard a loud clap of thunder? A) Withdrawal reflex B) Vestibular reflex C) Startle reflex D) Patellar tendon reflex Answer: C 47) A pediatrician tapped the knee of a child. She found that the child's patellar tendon reflex was abnormal. Which of the child's body areas might have problems? A) Eyes, ears, or nose B) Tibias, ankles, or feet C) Knees, thighs, or hips D) Muscles, nerves, or spinal cord Answer: D 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) A premature child was born without working reflexes. Which function of reflexes is the child missing? A) Protective (avoiding harm) B) Informative (sharing facts) C) Collaborative (working together) D) Active (triggering movement) Answer: A 49) Vesicles that are released from a chemical synapse are filled with ________. A) calcium B) sodium C) neurotransmitters D) gap junctions Answer: C 50) A(n) ________ is a specialized synapse between somatic motor neurons and skeletal muscles. A) gap junction B) neuromuscular junction C) chemical synapse D) electrical synapse Answer: B 9.2 True/False Questions 1) The autonomic nervous system controls voluntary movement. Answer: FALSE 2) Oligodendrocytes make myelin. Answer: TRUE 3) Potassium ions move across the cell membrane during depolarization of a neuron. Answer: FALSE 4) There are eight cervical nerves. Answer: TRUE 5) For many reflexes, only the spinal cord (and not the brain) is a necessary participant. Answer: TRUE 6) The speed of nerve impulse conduction depends solely upon the diameter of the axon. Answer: FALSE 7) SSRIs prevent the cleanup of a neurotransmitter. Answer: TRUE

8) The peripheral nervous system is everything outside the brain and spinal cord. Answer: TRUE 9) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks and destroys acetylcholine receptors. Answer: TRUE 10) A synapse is a junction between two nodes of Ranvier. Answer: FALSE 11) Electrical synapses use neurotransmitters to send information to other cells. Answer: FALSE 12) Dendrites generate and send signals to other cells. Answer: FALSE 13) Action potentials are "all or none." Answer: TRUE 14) Cell bodies are myelinated. Answer: FALSE 15) Myelinated axons are white. Answer: TRUE 16) The wider an axon, the slower the speed of the action potential. Answer: FALSE 17) All neurotransmitters excite the receiving cell to cause an action potential. Answer: FALSE

Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 4e (Colbert) Chapter 10 The Nervous System (Part II) 10.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) What is the largest part of the brain? A) Cerebellum B) Cerebrum C) Brain stem D) Hypothalamus Answer: B 2) The grooves and ridges of the brain are known as ________. A) hemispheres B) lobes C) convolutions D) meninges Answer: C 3) Heartbeat, breathing, and the cardiovascular system are controlled by the ________. A) medulla oblongata B) midbrain C) cerebellum D) cerebrum Answer: A 4) The internal anatomy of the brain has which structure? A) White matter only B) White matter surrounded by gray matter C) Gray matter only D) Gray matter surrounded by white matter Answer: B 5) The right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum are connected by the ________. A) postcentral gyrus B) precentral gyrus C) corpus callosum D) ventricles Answer: C 6) Which structure in the diencephalon relays information to the cerebrum? A) Thalamus B) Hypothalamus C) Pineal body D) Pituitary gland Answer: A 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) Which cranial nerve is chiefly responsible for eye movements? A) Olfactory B) Facial C) Hypoglossal D) Oculomotor Answer: D 8) The vagus nerve is also known as cranial nerve ________. A) X B) II C) VIII D) XII Answer: A 9) To what sense does the term somatic sensation refer? A) Taste B) Touch C) Smell D) Vision Answer: B 10) Which tract carries information about fine touch and limb position to the somatic sensory cortex? A) Dorsal column tract B) Spinothalamic tract C) Spinocerebellar tract D) Ventral column tract Answer: A 11) Once touch information is sent to the brain, understanding will occur in the ________ area. A) sensory association relay B) ganglionic association C) somatic sensory cortex D) somatic sensory association Answer: D 12) After a plan for movement has been developed, it leaves the ________ and connects with neurons in the thalamus. A) nuclei B) limbic system C) motor cortex D) spinal tract Answer: C

13) Where are the neurons for the autonomic nervous system located? A) Corpus callosum B) Spinal cord and brain stem C) Cerebral cortex D) Inside neurotransmitters Answer: B 14) A woman falls down a flight of stairs carrying a large box. She is admitted to the hospital paralyzed on her right side and unable to speak. Where is the woman's injury? A) Spinal cord B) Temporal lobe C) Frontal lobe D) Brain stem Answer: C 15) During surgery, general anesthesia inhibits the ________, causing unconsciousness in the patient. A) reticular system B) basal nuclei C) limbic system D) hypothalamus Answer: A 16) Which of these is a type of paralysis? A) Spastic B) Bivalvular C) Reflexive D) Radical Answer: A 17) A brain injury with possible swelling and bleeding is known as a ________. A) TBI B) CP C) TIA D) CVA Answer: A 18) Which of the following statements is NOT true of the cerebellum? A) It is considered the "little brain." B) It is posterior to the brain stem. C) It is responsible for sensory and motor coordination and balance. D) It helps regulate water balance and sleep cycles. Answer: D

19) The somatic nervous system carries impulses from the brain and spinal cord to ________. A) cardiac muscle tissue B) skeletal muscles C) smooth muscles D) vital organs Answer: B 20) A mild brain injury is commonly known as a(n) ________. A) ischemic attack B) hemorrhage C) blood clot D) concussion Answer: D 21) A ________ is caused by disruption of blood flow to a portion of the brain due to either hemorrhage or blood clot. A) cerebrovascular accident B) concussion C) traumatic brain injury D) commissure Answer: A 22) A ministroke is known as a ________. A) TIA B) CVA C) concussion D) TBI Answer: A 23) Which fissure divides the brain into left and right hemispheres? A) Transverse B) Longitudinal C) Medial D) Sagittal Answer: B 24) Which lobe of the brain is responsible for vision? A) Occipital B) Frontal C) Parietal D) Temporal Answer: A

25) Which lobe of the brain is responsible for taste? A) Frontal B) Parietal C) Insula D) Occipital Answer: C 26) Which structure is responsible for the secretion of melatonin? A) Pituitary gland B) Thalamus C) Hypothalamus D) Pineal body Answer: D 27) Hydrocephalus results from an excess of what fluid? A) Blood B) CSF C) CNS D) ALS Answer: B 28) A group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS is called a(n) ________. A) ganglion B) glia C) dendrite D) axon Answer: A 29) Which system controls mood? A) Reticular B) Somatic C) Sympathetic D) Limbic Answer: D 30) Which of the following is a movement disorder exhibiting classic spastic paralysis? A) TBI B) Huntington's disease C) Cerebral palsy D) CVA Answer: C

31) What is the difference between the anatomy of the cranial nerves and that of the spinal nerves? A) Cranial nerves are input pathways and spinal nerves are output pathways for the brain. B) Cranial nerves can be sensory, motor, or mixed; spinal nerves are all mixed nerves. C) Spinal nerves are much more specialized than cranial nerves. D) Spinal nerves carry information related to the head, face, and neck; cranial nerves carry information related to visual, auditory, smell, or taste sensation. Answer: B 32) A dentist identified the source of a college student's pain while chewing food or gum. Which of the student's cranial nerves was inflamed? A) Olfactory B) Facial C) Vagus D) Trigeminal Answer: D 33) After a car accident in which his head hit the windshield, an injured man could no longer enjoy food through his sense of smell. Which of the man's cranial nerves was destroyed? A) Olfactory B) Facial C) Vagus D) Trigeminal Answer: A 34) In a hockey game, a player suffered an injury to his facial nerve. Which sense was damaged as a result? A) Vision B) Hearing C) Taste D) Smell Answer: C 35) The oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves control which movements? A) Tongue movements B) Eye movements C) Leg movements D) Arm movements Answer: B 36) Compared to spinal nerves, how specialized are cranial nerves? A) More specialized B) Less specialized C) Equally specialized D) Depends on age Answer: A 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

37) When a hiker encountered a bear in the wilderness, which part of her autonomic nervous system activated? A) Parasympathetic B) Sympathetic C) Limbic D) Somatic Answer: B 38) Waking up from a deep sleep, a homeowner heard a burglar breaking the panes in his sliding glass door. What hormone made the homeowner have an increased heart rate, increased blood pressure, sweating, and a dry mouth? A) Insulin B) Dopamine C) Estrogen D) Adrenaline Answer: D 39) In a long business meeting lasting well into the lunch hour, several participants' stomachs rumbled. Which part of their autonomic nervous system was responsible? A) Parasympathetic B) Sympathetic C) Limbic D) Somatic Answer: A 40) In the parasympathetic branch of the nervous system, which activity does acetylcholine NOT perform? A) Exciting skeletal muscles B) Inhibiting cardiac muscle activity C) Blocking smooth muscle activity D) Stimulating emotion and memory Answer: D 41) The gyrus that is located in the frontal lobe anterior to the central sulcus is the ________. A) postcentral gyrus B) frontal gyrus C) precentral gyrus D) anterior gyrus Answer: C 42) Which area in the brain controls motor output for speech? A) Wernicke's area B) Broca's area C) Somatic sensory association area D) Premotor area Answer: B 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

43) The blood-filled spaces between the layers of the dura mater are called ________. A) dural sinuses B) meninges C) dural spaces D) ventricles Answer: A 44) Ventricles in the brain allow for the circulation of ________ throughout the brain. A) blood B) cerebrospinal fluid C) lymph fluid D) nutrients Answer: B 45) The gray matter cortex and white matter center of the cerebellum is called the ________. A) fornix B) corpus callosum C) diencephalon D) arbor vitae Answer: D 10.2 True/False Questions 1) Gyri and sulci are known as convolutions. Answer: TRUE 2) The parietal lobes are responsible for vision. Answer: FALSE 3) The pons is inferior to the medulla oblongata. Answer: FALSE 4) The midbrain is the most superior portion of the brain stem. Answer: TRUE 5) The diencephalon controls hormone levels. Answer: TRUE 6) Thirst is regulated in the thalamus. Answer: FALSE 7) Respiratory arrest is a clear sign of brain damage after a fall. Answer: FALSE 8) The optic nerve controls smell. Answer: FALSE 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Pain is perceived in the skin. Answer: FALSE 10) The limbic system controls emotions and moods. Answer: TRUE 11) The parasympathetic nervous system controls the "fight or flight" response. Answer: FALSE 12) A brain tumor in the frontal lobe might cause significant changes in personality. Answer: TRUE 13) Paralysis is the inability to control voluntary movement. Answer: TRUE 14) Cerebral palsy usually begins after age 50. Answer: FALSE 15) Ministrokes are called TIAs. Answer: TRUE 16) The meninges of the brain are continuous with the spinal cord meninges. Answer: TRUE

Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 4e (Colbert) Chapter 11 The Senses 11.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is a visceral sense? A) Touch B) Pain C) Hunger D) Heat Answer: C 2) The ________ of the eye works similarly to the shutter of a camera. A) eyelid B) lens C) cornea D) iris Answer: D 3) Tears act as a lubricant and ________ to protect the eyes from microorganisms. A) antiseptic B) moisture C) bath D) glaze Answer: A 4) The cornea is found within the ________ of the eye. A) sclera B) choroid C) retina D) conjunctiva Answer: A 5) The eye receives its nourishment from the vessels within the ________. A) retina B) sclera C) conjunctiva D) choroid Answer: D 6) The vision center of the brain is located in the ________ lobe. A) optic B) occipital C) temporal D) hypothalamus Answer: B 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) Light enters the eye through what opening? A) Eyeball B) Lens C) Pupil D) Iris Answer: C 8) To help diagnose sleep disorders, doctors will measure which stage of sleep? A) REM B) Myopia C) PERLA D) Amblyopia Answer: A 9) The three tiny bones of the middle ear are collectively known as the ________. A) pinnas B) cerumen C) ossicles D) cochleas Answer: C 10) The ________ contain sensors necessary for equilibrium. A) cochleas B) semicircular canals C) vestibules D) incus Answer: B 11) The bony labyrinth is another name for the ________. A) auditory nerve B) outer ear C) middle ear D) inner ear Answer: D 12) The process by which nerve impulses travel to the brain to be interpreted as sound is known as ________ conduction. A) sound B) sensorineural C) bone D) neural Answer: B

13) ________ is the name given to the distinct taste of glutamates. A) Gustatory B) Umami C) Meniere D) Tinnitus Answer: B 14) Tactile corpuscles are the receptors for which sense? A) Taste B) Smell C) Hearing D) Touch Answer: D 15) Experiencing pain in the right shoulder due to liver disease is an example of ________ pain. A) referred B) disguised C) phantom D) pseudo Answer: A 16) Amblyopia develops most commonly in ________. A) adults B) children C) patients with astigmatism D) the elderly Answer: B 17) A patient who has itching in the ears due to a buildup of earwax could be said to have too much ________. A) cerumen B) fluid C) eustachian D) cochlea Answer: A 18) A person has a condition in which the eye's lens loses flexibility and transparency, making it more difficult for light to pass through the clouded lens. For which health problem should this person receive care? A) Blepharitis B) Cataract C) Clouding D) Astigmatism Answer: B

19) Receptors of the ________ senses receive the signal of nausea. A) visceral B) cutaneous C) accommodation D) labyrinthitis Answer: A 20) A person is diagnosed with cataracts. Which of the following is a primary risk factor for the development of this health problem? A) Aging B) Gender C) Congenital defects D) Trauma Answer: A 21) A person has a problem with sound conduction. Which ear structure should be the focus of further investigation? A) Stapes B) Malleus C) Cochlea D) Tympanic membrane Answer: D 22) A person is found to have otitis media. Which cause is least likely to be associated with this health problem? A) Bacteria B) Viruses C) Upper respiratory infection D) Older age Answer: D 23) Sight can be considered a ________. A) general sense B) special sense C) chemoreceptor D) cutaneous sense Answer: B 24) Which of the following are NOT associated with the retina? A) Rods B) Lens C) Cones D) Photopigments Answer: B

25) The external ear ends at the ________. A) auricle B) tympanic membrane C) external auditory canal D) tragus Answer: B 26) Which of the following is NOT a bone of the middle ear? A) Cochlea B) Stapes C) Incus D) Malleus Answer: A 27) Which of the following structures in the inner ear transmits sound? A) Bony labyrinth B) Semicircular canal C) Vestibule D) Cochlea Answer: D 28) A defect of the ________ results in difficulty in visual detection of color. A) lens B) cones C) rods D) cones and rods Answer: B 29) The sense of touch can be considered a ________. A) general sense B) special sense C) chemoreceptor D) visceral sense Answer: A 30) Which skin receptors allow the skin to adapt to changes in temperature? A) Nociceptors B) Photoreceptors C) Thermoreceptors D) Tactile corpuscles Answer: C

31) Which of the following is NOT one of the three layers of tissue that forms the eyeball? A) Conjunctiva B) Sclera C) Choroid D) Retina Answer: A 32) The sensor-receptive cells in the retina that function best in dim light and provide black-andwhite images in dark conditions are the ________. A) irises B) pupils C) rods D) cones Answer: C 33) ________ is an inflammation of the thin, transparent membrane covering the visible portion of the sclera and lining the inside of the eyelids. A) Conjunctivitis B) Choroiditis C) Corneal abrasion D) Lens distortion Answer: A 34) A cloudy or opaque area in the normally clear lens of the eye is called a ________. A) stye B) detachment C) cataract D) glaucoma Answer: C 35) Vision impairment as a result of old age and loss of elasticity in the lens is called ________. A) astigmatism B) myopia C) presbyopia D) diplopia Answer: C 36) ________ is a chronic disease of the inner ear marked by a recurring syndrome of vertigo, tinnitus, and progressive hearing loss. A) Cholesteatoma B) Otosclerosis C) Meniere's disease D) Mastoiditis Answer: C

37) A person is being examined for possible cataracts. What information in the person's health history should be identified as contributing to the development of cataracts? A) Trauma B) Congenital defects C) Sun exposure D) Increased eye pressure Answer: C 38) If left untreated, cataracts can lead to what? A) Blindness B) Presbyopia C) Myopia D) Hyperopia Answer: A 39) Farsightedness is also known as ________. A) hyperopia B) myopia C) presbyopia D) amblyopia Answer: A 40) Farsightedness that is due to the aging process is known as ________. A) hyperopia B) myopia C) presbyopia D) amblyopia Answer: C 41) Nearsightedness is also known as ________. A) hyperopia B) myopia C) presbyopia D) amblyopia Answer: B 42) Lazy eye is also known as ________. A) hyperopia B) myopia C) presbyopia D) amblyopia Answer: D

43) A person is recovering from amputation of a limb. On which potential type of pain should care be focused? A) Visceral B) Chronic C) Referred D) Phantom Answer: D 44) The ________ cranial nerve translates vibrations into interpretable sounds. A) sixth B) eighth C) seventh D) ninth Answer: B 45) A sensation of moving around in space is called ________. A) vertigo B) purulence C) eczema D) tinnitus Answer: A 46) Ringing in the ears is also known as ________. A) vertigo B) purulence C) eczema D) tinnitus Answer: D 47) A person has an infection of the middle ear structure that equalizes external and internal pressure, which makes it difficult for the eardrum to vibrate with incoming sound. Which structure(s) should care address? A) Ossicles B) Eustachian tube C) Semicircular canals D) Tympanic membrane Answer: B 48) A person has a disease process that alters pain receptors. For which branches of nerve fibers should care be provided? A) Nociceptors B) Extra sensors C) Visceral sensors D) Cutaneous sensors Answer: A

11.2 True/False Questions 1) The malleus is the outer ear. Answer: FALSE 2) The sense of smell is called the gustatory sense. Answer: FALSE 3) Within the ear, tiny hairlike receptors are stimulated by sound and conduct the signal to the brain via the vestibulocochlear nerve. Answer: TRUE 4) Sound signals are carried from the ear to the brain by the optic nerve. Answer: FALSE 5) The sense of smell arises from receptors located in the olfactory region, or the upper part of the nasal cavity. Answer: TRUE 6) Lacrimal glands are endocrine glands. Answer: FALSE 7) Eyelashes prevent gross particles from entering the eye. Answer: TRUE 8) Vitreous humor is watery. Answer: FALSE 9) Rods are active in dim light. Answer: TRUE 10) Photopigments undergo chemical changes when light hits them. Answer: TRUE 11) The innermost layer of the eye is the cornea. Answer: FALSE 12) Ciliary muscles surround the lens of the eye. Answer: TRUE 13) The lens is located behind the pupil. Answer: TRUE 14) Constant exposure to loud noises can actually lower blood pressure. Answer: FALSE