Test Bank for Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs A Prime, 7th ed

Type:

Test Bank

Planning, Implementing, & Resource: Evaluating Health Promotion Programs A Prime Edition:

7th Edition

Author(s):

James McKenzie Brad Neiger Rosemary Thackeray

Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs, 7e (McKenzie) Chapter 1 Health Education, Health Promotion, Health Education Specialists, and Program Planning 1) Health promotion was recognized for its potential to help control injury and disease and to promote health during the A) first quarter of the 20th century.

B) last quarter of the 20th century.

C) early 1800s.

D) beginning of the 21st century.

Answer: B 2) The publication considered to have been the document that gave great momentum to the health promotion and disease prevention movement in America was called A) Healthy People 2000.

B) Healthy People 2010.

C) Healthy People: The Surgeon General's Report on Health Promotion and Disease Prevention (Healthy People, 1979).

D) Healthy Nation 1970.

Answer: C 3) Which major area is NOT one of the responsibilities outlined in the Hierarchical Model of Responsibilities and Competencies for Health Education Specialist?

A) Assess Needs, Assets and Capability for Health Education B) Plan Health Education C) Conduct Evaluation and Research Related to Health Education D) Promote Healthy Behaviors Through Lifestyle Changes Answer: D 4) Those health education specialists who had an active CHES certification since 2005 and showed that they were practicing health education at an advanced level were granted the Master Certified Health Education Specialist (MCHES), this process was known as A) the Grandfather Law. B) testing out.

C) the Experience Documentation Opportunity.

D) the only way one can get the Master Certified Health Education Specialist Exam.

Answer: C 5) Both the CHES and MCHES examinations are given twice a year and consist of A) 150 scored questions and 15 pilot questions on a weighted amount of the seven responsibilities.

B) 100 scored questions on a randomly selected responsibility.

C) 100 essay questions on the seven responsibilities.

D) 150 scored questions and 50 pilot questions on a randomly selected responsibility.

Answer: A

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6) Which modifiable risk factor is the leading cause of death in 2000?

A) Lack of physical activity B) Poor nutrition C) Tobacco use D) Alcohol consumption Answer: C 7) Which is the most recent version of the Competency Based Framework for Health Education Specialists?

A) National Health Educator Job Analysis (HEJA-2010) B) National Health Educator Joint Association C) Health Education Specialist Practice Analysis (HESPA-2015) D) National Council for the Accreditation of Teacher Education (NCATE) Answer: C 8) Self-breast examinations would be considered which level of prevention?

A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Treatment Answer: B 9) Chemotherapy for cancer treatment is considered which level of prevention?

A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Priority Answer: C 10) When a person is healthy, without signs and symptoms of disease, illness, or injury, the level of prevention most appropriate would be A) primary prevention.

B) secondary prevention.

C) tertiary prevention.

D) low-priority prevention.

Answer: A 11) The three main uses of the Framework includes all of the following EXCEPT A) provides a guide for colleges and universities to use when designing and revising their curricula.

B) to provide a unified health education program for all health settings.

C) to develop the core criteria for certifying individuals as health education specialists national certification exams.

D) used by program accrediting and approval bodies to review college and university academic programs.

Answer: B 2 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Pre-planning is intended to answer questions related to all of the following EXCEPT A) the purpose of the program.

B) identifying and engaging partners.

C) the success rate of the evaluation methods.

D) the leadership structure.

Answer: C 13) Assumptions of health promotion include all of the following EXCEPT A) appropriate prevention strategies can be developed to deal with the identified health problems.

B) behavior can be changed and those changes can influence health.

C) initiating and maintaining a behavior change is difficult.

D) individual responsibility can best be viewed through victim blaming.

Answer: D 14) What are the sequential steps in the Generalized Model of program planning?

A) Assess, Goal Setting, Develop Intervention, Implementation, Evaluation B) Goal Setting, Assess, Develop Intervention, Implementation, Evaluation C) Evaluation, Assess, Goal Setting, Develop Intervention, Implementation D) Develop Intervention, Goal Setting, Assess, Implementation, Evaluation Answer: A 15) According to your text, many health education specialists' responsibilities are involved in some way with A) program planning, implementation, and evaluation.

B) program evaluation to create new models.

C) program measurement.

D) program failure rates.

Answer: A 16) It has been recommended that the profession de-emphasize the term health educator and use the term health education specialist in its place.

Answer: TRUE 17) In its simplest terms, health promotion is the process of educating people about health.

Answer: FALSE 18) In order to qualify for the Advanced Level of Practice 2, a Health Education Specialist must have a doctorate and at least 10 years of experience.

Answer: FALSE 19) Decision makers are those who have the authority to approve a plan such as a governing board.

Answer: TRUE 20) Stakeholders are those individuals who have a monetary interest in the program only.

Answer: FALSE 3 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

21) The priority population refers to those whom the program is intended to serve.

Answer: TRUE 22) One of the basic assumptions of health promotion is that health status can be changed.

Answer: TRUE 23) Properly trained health education specialists are aware of the limitations of the discipline and understand the assumptions on which health promotion is based.

Answer: TRUE 24) Cardiac rehabilitation is an example of secondary prevention.

Answer: FALSE 25) The results of the National Health Educator Competencies Update Project (CUP) in 1998 found that the seven areas of responsibility for health education specialists were no longer valid.

Answer: FALSE 26) List the seven Areas of Responsibility identified through the Role Delineation Project.

Answer: I. Assess Needs, Assets and Capability for Health Education; II. Plan Health Education; III. Implement Health Education; IV. Conduct Evaluation and Research Related to Health Education; V. Administer and Manage Health Education; VI. Serve as a Health Education Resource Person; and VII. Communicate and Advocate for Health and Health Education.

27) Describe how the new CUP model structure differs from the previous model for Areas of Responsibility, Competencies, and Sub-competencies for Health Educators.

Answer: The original model had an entry level, followed by three additional areas of responsibility for advanced levels. The new model is hierarchical, incorporating all competencies and sub-competencies within the same seven areas of responsibility. The new model also has three levels: Entry, Advanced I, and Advanced II, distinguished by degree and years of service.

28) List five of the nine health assumptions that must be in place before the health promotion process begins.

Answer: (any five of the following): • Health status can be changed.

• Health and disease are determined by dynamic interactions among biological, psychological, behavioral, and social factors.

• Disease occurrence theories and principles can be understood.

• Appropriate prevention strategies can be developed to deal with the identified health problems.

• Behavior can be changed, and those changes can influence health.

• Individual behavior, family interactions, community and workplace relationships and resources, and public policy all contribute to health and influence behavior change.

• Initiating and maintaining a behavior change is difficult.

• Individual responsibility should not be viewed as victim blaming, yet the importance of health behavior to health status must be understood.

• For healthy behavior change to be permanent, an individual must be motivated and ready to change.

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29) List out the steps in Generalized Model of program planning.

Answer: Assess, Goal Setting, Develop Intervention, Implementation, Evaluation 30) List four of the six areas of concern for preplanning and what questions need to be answered with each.

Answer: Purpose of program • How is the community defined?

• What are the desired health outcomes?

• Does the community have the capacity and infrastructure to address with the problem?

• Is a policy change needed?

Scope of the planning process • Is it intra or inter-organizational?

• What is the time frame for completing the project?

Planning process outcomes (deliverables) • Written plan?

• Program proposal?

• Program documentation or justification?

Leadership and structure • What authority, if any, will the planners have?

• How will the planners be organized?

• What is expected of those who participate in the planning process?

Identifying and engaging partners • How will the partners be selected?

• Will the planning process use a top-down or bottom-up approach?

Identifying and securing resources • How will the budget be determined?

• Will a written agreement (i.e., MOA — memorandum of agreement) outlining responsibilities be needed?

• If MOA is needed, what will it include?

• Will external funding (i.e., grants or contracts) be needed?

• Are there community resources (e.g., volunteers, space, donations) to support the planned program?

• How will the resources be obtained?

31) List four work settings where you would likely find health education specialists.

Answer: Hospitals, government, schools, work sites, voluntary agencies

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Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs, 7e (McKenzie) Chapter 2 Starting the Planning Process 1) Which of the following is NOT considered to be an appropriate source for building a rationale?

A) Needs assessment data B) Epidemiological data about a specific health problem C) Cost-effectiveness data of health promotion programs D) Wikipedia and similar websites Answer: D 2) When gaining support from decision makers, the term "resources" often refers to A) monies that could be used for staff, facilities, material supplies.

B) congruent organizational policies.

C) program and concept visibility.

D) a place at the organizational power.

Answer: A 3) The instrument to assess leadership support for health promotion programs in work settings is A) Health Promotion Inventory (HPI).

B) Health Programs Inventory (HPI).

C) Leading by Example (LBE).

D) Leaders Assessment Tool (LAT).

Answer: C 4) Data that describe the status of a health problem within a population based on distribution and determinants of health are referred to as A) social data.

B) political data.

C) epidemiological data.

D) statistical data.

Answer: C 5) In order for resources and support to flow into health promotion programming A) decision makers need to see values from the program.

B) taxes must be raised to offset costs.

C) planners must commit to fund raising efforts.

D) materials must be available from previous, similar programming.

Answer: A 6) The first step planners should take to gain the support of decision makers is to A) form a focus group.

B) write a plan.

C) develop a rationale.

D) conduct a needs assessment.

Answer: C 1 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) People willing to do the actual work needed to plan and implement a program are referred to as A) managers.

B) stakeholders.

C) doers.

D) interventionists.

Answer: C 8) Health education specialists can access and understand background information to develop a rationale by A) conducting a literature review.

B) conducting a longitudinal study.

C) selecting a planning model.

D) writing a grant proposal.

Answer: A 9) A program rationale A) should be no more than two pages long.

B) is the step that outlines each component of the program in detail.

C) can be focused on funding issues.

D) allows planners to sell the program to decision makers.

Answer: D 10) Which of the following is a benefit statement for INDIVIDUALS of a health promotion program?

A) Controls burden on taxpayers B) Lowers out-of-pocket costs for health care C) Improved price competitiveness D) Reduced pain and suffering Answer: B 11) Which of the following is a benefit for the COMMUNITY with health promotion programming?

A) Increased worker morale B) Retention and recruitment tools C) Improved price competitiveness D) Improved quality of life of citizens Answer: D 12) Which of the following is a benefit for the EMPLOYER with health promotion programming?

A) Enhanced worker performance/productivity B) Reduced pain and suffering from illness and accidents C) Provides model for other communities D) Improves the quality of life of citizens Answer: A 2 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) When starting the planning process, health educators A) use skills found in all Areas of Responsibility for Health Educators.

B) are most apt to concentrate on Area of Responsibility IV. C) cannot use any of the Areas of Responsibility.

D) draw from several of the Areas of Responsibility.

Answer: D 14) Often, the idea or big push for a health promotional program comes from top level people and not the community.

Answer: FALSE 15) Evidence-based practice is more likely to produce quality programs than other approaches.

Answer: TRUE 16) The most important initial step in the planning process is gaining the support of management.

Answer: TRUE 17) References do not need to be included at the rationale preparation stage.

Answer: FALSE 18) When ROI is less than 0, then the program is producing savings that exceed the cost of the program.

Answer: FALSE 19) Social math refers to inflating national statistic to make the health problem appear more serious to decision makers.

Answer: FALSE 20) Influencers are always much more important than doers in the planning process.

Answer: FALSE 21) Keeping the same planning committee members throughout the life of a program ensures success.

Answer: FALSE 22) Institutionalization refers to a program becoming imbedded within an organization.

Answer: TRUE 23) A rationale can be viewed as a 4x4 matrix, with each square of each level representing the next step.

Answer: FALSE 24) A planning committee is a group of individuals who are willing to serve in an advisory role and assist in program planning.

Answer: TRUE

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25) Two terms synonymous with planning committee are steering committee and advisory committee.

Answer: TRUE 26) The guidelines for how a planning committee operates are referred to as parameters.

Answer: TRUE 27) The most efficient and effective way to select planning committee members is to have them assigned by their employers for the task.

Answer: FALSE 28) Name at least three types of individuals who would be important to include on a planning committee.

Answer: (any three of the following) Representatives of all segments of the target population, Doers, Influencers, Representatives of the sponsoring agency, and Other stakeholders 29) List four methods for determining the values and benefits to be emphasized in a rationale.

Answer: • Examine recent or past meeting minutes, decisions, or comments that are relevant to the value placed on health and prevention.

• Find out from the individuals in a position to know why past decisions related to budget or employee benefits were made by the managers involved.

• Review past formal reports or evaluations of health program and benefits that have been commissioned or carried out on behalf of the decision makers.

• Conduct a formal survey of all or a portion of the key decision makers involved to determine what is the most important to them.

30) List, in order, the steps to include in a rationale.

Answer: Title, Identify the problem globally, Narrow the problem, State a proposed solution, State what can be gained from the program, State why the program will be successful, Provide references.

31) List and explain three sources that can be used to build a rationale for a program.

Answer: • Literature in the field — previous research and observations • Needs assessment data — show need for intervention by showing needs of target population • Epidemiological data — support your claim of need with statistics about the target population's health and the health status of similar populations • Values and benefits for decision makers — relates the benefits of the program to the values and benefits of the decision makers

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32) List two questions that planners should consider when looking for partners.

Answer: (any two of the following) • Who is also interested in meeting the needs of the priority population?

• Who also sees the unmet need of a priority population as a problem?

• Who has unused resources that could help solve a problem?

• Who would benefit from being your partner?

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Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs, 7e (McKenzie) Chapter 3 Program Planning Models in Health Promotion 1) Which of the following options describes the Setting Goals and Objectives step in the Generalized Model of Program Planning?

A) Process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the health needs of the population B) Identifies what will be accomplished through the intervention or program C) Putting intervention into action D) Improving the quality and effectiveness of the program Answer: B 2) Which of the following options describes the Evaluation step in the Generalized Model of Program Planning?

A) Process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the health needs of the population B) Identifies what will be accomplished through the intervention or program C) Putting intervention into action D) Improving the quality and effectiveness of the program Answer: D 3) Which of the following options describes the Developing Interventions step in the Generalized Model of Program Planning?

A) Process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the health needs of the population B) Identifies what will be accomplished through the intervention or program C) How the goals and objectives will be achieved D) Improving the quality and effectiveness of the program Answer: C 4) All of the following program models focus on linking the communities, local health departments, and the state level health department, EXCEPT A) PATCH. B) MAPP. C) PRECEED-PROCEDE. D) APEX-PH. Answer: C 5) Which of the following program plans was created to help guide public health and health education specialists' efforts to reach Healthy People 2020?

A) MAP-IT B) PATCH C) MAPP D) MATCH Answer: A

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6) The Educational and Ecological Assessment Phase of PRECEDE-PROCEED includes determining A) predisposing, reinforcing, and enabling factors.

B) educational strategies.

C) genetic and environmental factors.

D) health and policy strategies.

Answer: A 7) The benefits of the General Model of program planning include all of the following EXCEPT A) it streamlines the planning process with a common framework.

B) the principles are the building blocks for all other models.

C) it is linear and steps only flow in one direction in practice.

D) it aligns with grant writing process.

Answer: C 8) Which of the following would NOT be a factor for choosing a health planning model?

A) Preference of the health education specialist B) Time and funding restrictions C) Degree in which client/population are involved D) Resources for data collection Answer: A 9) When steps in the program planning process are sequential or build on one another, they have A) fluidity.

B) functionality.

C) flexibility.

D) formality.

Answer: A 10) When steps in the program planning process are adapted to the needs of stakeholders, they have A) fluidity.

B) functionality.

C) flexibility.

D) formality.

Answer: C 11) In PRECEDE-PROCEED, Phase ________, which seeks to subjectively define the quality of life of those in the priority population, is called ________.

A) II, Epidemiological Assessment B) III, Behavioral and Environmental Assessment C) IV, Administrative and Policy Assessment D) I, Social Assessment Answer: D

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12) Predisposing factors A) almost always involve punishment.

B) include knowledge and affective traits.

C) are nearly impossible to change.

D) are the same thing as reinforcing factors.

Answer: B 13) Refusing to wear a seatbelt because friends will tease you is an example of A) a reinforcing factor.

B) an enabling factor.

C) a predisposing factor.

D) a strategic factor.

Answer: A 14) Matching appropriate strategies and interventions with projected changes and outcomes occurs during which phase of PRECEDE-PROCEED? A) II, Epidemiological Assessment B) IV, Administrative & Policy Assessment C) V, Implementation D) VIII, Outcome Evaluation Answer: D 15) According to PRECEDE-PROCEED, which of the following is NOT considered Impact Evaluation?

A) Quitting smoking B) Weight loss C) Increased exercise D) Reduced incidence of heart attack Answer: D 16) Which of the following models was designed to fill a gap in health promotion practice by translating data collected in the PRECEDE phases of PRECEDE-PROCEED into appropriate interventions?

A) Generalized Model B) Health Plan It C) SWOT D) Intervention Mapping Answer: D 17) Which of the following models had the goal to be the planning guide or model used to assist communities in adapting Healthy People 2020 at the state or local level?

A) PRECEED PROCEDE B) SMART C) MAP-IT D) Health Communication Answer: C 3 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) The central focus of the SMART model is A) planners.

B) stakeholders.

C) constituents.

D) consumers.

Answer: D 19) Which of the following is NOT one of the five CHANGE sectors?

A) School sector B) Financial sector C) Community at large sector D) Worksite sector Answer: B 20) Which of the following was designed by the Healthy Communities Program to provide opportunities to create policy, systems, and environmental change?

A) SMART model B) PRECEDE-PROCEED model C) Generalized model D) CHANGE tool Answer: D 21) Good health programs are created by chance.

Answer: FALSE 22) Planners must also understand the interaction between a priority population and the communities in which they live.

Answer: TRUE 23) It is critical for health education specialists to select one program planning model per program, and to use all of its components.

Answer: FALSE 24) The best way to obtain epidemiological data is for health education specialist to do their own survey research among priority populations.

Answer: FALSE 25) Most health program models have uniquely different phases.

Answer: FALSE 26) The MAPP planning model represents a planning approach common to businesses and schools.

Answer: FALSE 27) Community ownership and diverse partnership are both characteristics of the Healthy Communities Framework.

Answer: TRUE 4 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) Intervention Mapping was designed to use the first three phases of the SMART model to fast track planning.

Answer: FALSE 29) SWOT Analyses are particularly useful for program planners who have ample time to do indepth planning.

Answer: FALSE 30) The final phase of the CHANGE tool is to evaluate program effectiveness.

Answer: FALSE 31) Most program planning models share some common steps. Name the model that represents these commonalities and list its steps.

Answer: Model: Generalized Model for Program Planning Steps: Assessing needs, Setting goals and objectives, Developing an intervention, Implementing the intervention, Evaluating the results 32) Responsibility II for the Health Education Specialist has four competencies. Name these competencies.

Answer: Competency 2.1: Involve priority populations and other stakeholders in the planning process Competency 2.2: Develop goals and objectives Competency 2.3: Select or design strategies and interventions Competency 2.4: Develop a scope and sequence for the delivery of health education 33) Describe and provide one example of each of the following components of the PRECEDEPROCEED model: Predisposing factors, reinforcing factors, enabling factors.

Answer: Predisposing factors: knowledge and attitudes — a belief that having sexual activity with multiple partners is ok.

Reinforcing factors: feedback and rewards from self or others, positive or negative — breathing more easily after quitting smoking.

Enabling factors: barriers or vehicles created by social systems — a mother can't get her children immunized because she has no transportation to get them to a clinic.

34) List the six phases of the MAPP framework.

Answer: Organizing for Success & Partnership Development; Visioning; Four MAPP Assessments; Identify Strategic Issues; Formulate Goals & Strategies; The Action Cycle 35) Name the seven phases of the SMART Model.

Answer: Preliminary planning; Consumer analysis; Market analysis; Channel analysis; Develop interventions, materials, and pretest; Implementation; Evaluation

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36) List the seven phases of the Evidence-Based Planning Framework for Public Health.

Answer: Community assessment; Quantifying the issue; Developing a concise statement of the issue; Determining what is known using scientific literature; Developing and prioritizing program and policy options; Developing an action plan and implementing interventions; Evaluating the program or policy

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Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs, 7e (McKenzie) Chapter 4 Assessing Needs 1) In the program planning process, the group who will be served is referred to as the A) key informants.

B) pilot population.

C) priority population.

D) general population.

Answer: C 2) The process by which those who are planning programs can determine what health problems might exist in any population is called A) survey.

B) evaluation.

C) research.

D) assessment.

Answer: D 3) Administering surveys, facilitating focus groups, and conducting interviews are examples of A) primary data collection.

B) secondary data collection.

C) tertiary data collection.

D) statistical data collection.

Answer: A 4) What type of data collection is most likely to be timely and expensive?

A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Statistical Answer: A 5) Which of the following is NOT an important question for a needs assessment?

A) What is the cost of the needs?

B) Who is the priority population?

C) Where are any subgroups located geographically?

D) What is currently being done to resolve identified needs?

Answer: A 6) Which of the following is NOT an example of primary data obtained through observation?

A) Windshield tours B) Walk-throughs C) Photovoice (participatory data collection) D) Individual surveys Answer: D

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7) Which is a main goal of Photovoice?

A) To enable people to record and reflect on their community's strengths and concerns B) To audio record the oral history of a community C) To highlight the key community members on tape D) To document preconceived ideas about the community Answer: A 8) Telephone interviews A) have only one reliable method of selecting participants.

B) can use random digit dialing.

C) are quite expensive compared to other methods.

D) make it easier to reach participants than other methods.

Answer: B 9) Funding that is earmarked or dedicated to a specific health problem or determinant is termed A) research funding.

B) strategic funding.

C) categorical funding.

D) temporary funding.

Answer: C 10) The American Cancer Society and the American Heart Association are examples of A) federal agencies.

B) fee-for-service organizations.

C) non-governmental agencies.

D) research arms of the CDC. Answer: C 11) One source of secondary data about substance abuse and mental health is A) SAMHSA. B) US Census Bureau.

C) NCI. D) EPA. Answer: A 12) Examples of health-focused data bases include all of the following EXCEPT A) Cumulative Index to Nursing & Allied Health Literature (CINAHL).

B) Medline.

C) PsycINFO. D) ERIC. Answer: D

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13) HIAs are based on four values, which of the following is NOT one of the values?

A) Democracy B) Equity C) Multiculturalism D) Ethical Use of Evidence Answer: C 14) Which of the following is NOT a step to increase the accuracy of self-reported data?

A) Conduct a pilot study B) Employ multiple methods C) Use experimental groups only D) Use multiple measures Answer: C 15) Data already collected by someone else are considered secondary data.

Answer: TRUE 16) Secondary data are often quite expensive to access.

Answer: FALSE 17) Key informants are strategically placed individuals who have knowledge and the ability to report on the needs of those in the priority population.

Answer: TRUE 18) The Nominal Group Process is highly structured.

Answer: TRUE 19) A good needs assessment considers both the needs identified by the planners and the concerns of the target population.

Answer: TRUE 20) The Basic Priority Rating Process (BPR) is a method to quantify the subjective process of prioritizing.

Answer: TRUE 21) A community forum involves a moderator who encourages those present from the priority population to share their concerns with others.

Answer: TRUE 22) One disadvantage of collecting secondary data is that a needs assessment instrument must to be developed.

Answer: FALSE 23) A windshield tour is a type of unobtrusive observation to look for indicators of community health and well-being.

Answer: TRUE 3 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) A benefit of using focus groups to collect needs assessment data is that they are very easy to conduct.

Answer: FALSE 25) The Delphi Technique is usually carried out in a room where planners and people from the target population sit down face-to-face to discuss needs.

Answer: FALSE 26) Why is assessing the needs of the priority population possibly the most critical step in the planning process?

Answer: It provides objective data to define important health problems, it sets priorities for program implementation, and it establishes a baseline for evaluating program impact.

27) What are three of the nine questions Petersen & Alexander and NACCHO suggest that a needs assessment should answer?

Answer: (any three of the following): Who makes up the priority group?

What are the needs of the priority population?

Why do these needs exist?

What factors create or determine the need?

Which subgroups within the priority population have the greatest need?

Where are these subgroups located geographically?

What resources are available to address the needs?

What is currently being done to resolve identified needs?

How well have the identified needs been addressed in the past?

28) Name three types of opinion leaders and three of their common characteristics.

Answer: (any three of the following types and characteristics): Types: political figures, CEOs, union leaders, administrators of school districts, and other highly visible and respected individuals Characteristics: They are discriminating users of the media, may be demographically similar to the priority population, are knowledgeable about community issues and concerns, are often early adopters of innovative behavior, and are apt to be active in persuading others to become involved in innovative behavior.

29) Explain the difference between primary and secondary data, and give three sources for each.

Answer: Primary data are those data you collect yourself that answer unique questions related to your specific needs assessment. Examples include single-step or cross-sectional surveys, multistep surveys, community forums, focus groups, nominal group process, observation, selfassessments.

Secondary data are those data already collected by somebody else and available for your immediate use. Examples include data collected by government agencies such as the US Department of Commerce, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, or state and local agencies as well as data from existing records and from the literature.

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30) List, in order, the six steps to conduct a needs assessment.

Answer: Determining the purpose and scope Gathering data Analyzing data Identifying the factors linked to health problem Identifying the program focus Validating the need 31) Explain the difference between single step and multi step surveys and give an example of each.

Answer: Single step surveys are a means of collecting primary data from the target population where they are only contacted once. An example would be a written questionnaire.

Multi step surveys require contacting those in the target population several times to collect the necessary data. An example is the Delphi Technique.

32) Define the term opinion leader and list three traits of an opinion leader.

Answer: Opinion leaders are individuals who are well respected in a community and who have an overall view of its needs. Three traits of opinion leaders are that they are active users of the media, they are knowledgeable about community issues, and they are early adopters of innovative behavior.

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Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs, 7e (McKenzie) Chapter 5 Measurement, Measures, Measurement Instruments, and Sampling 1) The process of assigning numbers or labels to objects, events, or people according to a particular set of rules is defined as A) data.

B) assessment.

C) measurement.

D) sampling.

Answer: C 2) Height in inches and weight in pounds are examples of A) nominal level measurement.

B) ordinal level measurement.

C) ratio measurement.

D) interval measurement.

Answer: D 3) Attitude and level of satisfaction with a programs are examples of A) nominal level measurement.

B) ordinal level measurement.

C) ratio measurement.

D) reliable measurement.

Answer: B 4) Exercise habits and sleep habits are examples of A) nominal level measurement.

B) ordinal level measurement.

C) ratio measurement.

D) reliable measurement.

Answer: C 5) Which of the following refers to a measurement instrument that measures only one concept?

A) Scale B) Questionnaire C) Survey D) Test Answer: A 6) Which of the following refers to consistency in the measurement process?

A) Validity B) Specificity C) Sensitivity D) Reliability Answer: D

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7) In order to test the internal reliability of survey, which of following tests would be appropriate?

A) Beta test B) Chronbach's alpha coefficient C) Cohen's kappa coefficient D) T-test Answer: B 8) Samples that provide an equal chance for all people in a population to be selected are known as A) probability samples.

B) non-probability samples.

C) reliability samples.

D) self-reporting.

Answer: A 9) The ability of a test to correctly identify those who do not have a disease or condition is called its A) sensitivity.

B) specificity.

C) accuracy quotient.

D) cultural appropriateness.

Answer: B 10) To effectively plan and evaluate health promotion programs, planners and evaluators must work to eliminate A) sensitivity.

B) bias.

C) cultural appropriateness.

D) internal consistency.

Answer: B 11) Which method of collecting self-reported data has the lowest response rate?

A) Telephone interview B) Written questionnaire C) Face-to-face interview D) Indirect observation Answer: B 12) For sampling purposes, a group of individuals specified by time or place is referred to as a A) sample.

B) universe.

C) population.

D) survey population.

Answer: C

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13) If health education specialists wish to be sure their sample reflects equal representation from the strata of the survey population, they should use the ________ method.

A) systematic sample B) matrix stratified sample C) fishbowl sample D) nonproportional stratified random sample Answer: D 14) The nonprobability sampling procedure that includes participants identified by investigators, and any other persons referred by those participants, is called a A) quota sample.

B) convenience sample.

C) snowball sample.

D) judgmental sample.

Answer: C 15) Which type of reliability is used to generate evidence of consistency over time?

A) Internal consistency B) Stability C) Rater D) Equivalence Answer: B 16) Quantitative measures tend to produce data in the language of the subjects, rarely with numerical values attached to observations.

Answer: FALSE 17) A measure is valid if it correctly measures the items under investigation.

Answer: TRUE 18) Intrarater reliability is important to consider when multiple observers rate the same event.

Answer: FALSE 19) The reliability of an instrument is far more important than its validity.

Answer: FALSE 20) The better the sensitivity, the fewer the false positives.

Answer: TRUE 21) One type of measurement that allows for responses along a continuum is a Likert scale.

Answer: TRUE 22) Face to face or in-depth interviews are an inexpensive method to collect data.

Answer: FALSE

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23) A disadvantage of using a group interview to collect data is that it has a very low response rate.

Answer: FALSE 24) The purpose of using a pilot test is to identify and correct any problems prior to implementation.

Answer: TRUE 25) Probability samples are samples in which everyone in the population did not have an equal chance of being selected.

Answer: FALSE 26) Snowball is a type of probability sample.

Answer: FALSE 27) Internal consistency is a common method of determining validity.

Answer: FALSE 28) The visual appearance of the survey is very important.

Answer: TRUE 29) List three methods to collect quantitative data, and three methods to collect qualitative data.

Answer: Quantitative: written questionnaires, telephone interviews, tests Qualitative: case studies, focus groups, in-depth interviews 30) Define bias and give three steps that you can take to minimize bias during data collection.

Answer: Bias occurs when a true answer is not provided by the respondent. Bias can be minimized by employing multiple methods of data collection, using experimental control groups, and conducting a pilot study with the control group.

31) Name one advantage and one disadvantage of using e-mail questionnaires as a method of data collection.

Answer: Advantage — low cost and quick to administer Disadvantage — provides access to a limited population 32) List the six components that every survey should have.

Answer: Cover page Survey title Purpose statement Statement about confidentiality of answers Instructions for how respondents should fill out the survey Instructions for what respondents are to do with the survey once they are completed

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33) List three of the basic guidelines for visual appearance of a survey.

Answer: (any three of the following): Allow for ample white space Indent the response options from the question stem Bold the question stem Indicate skip patterns List all questions and response options vertically, from top to bottom Group related questions together.

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Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs, 7e (McKenzie) Chapter 6 Mission Statement, Goals, and Objectives 1) Mission statements, goals, and objectives are closely linked with A) Areas II and IV of the Responsibilities and Competencies for Health Educators.

B) Areas II and VI of the Responsibilities and Competencies for Health Educators.

C) Areas III and IV of the Responsibilities and Competencies for Health Educators.

D) Areas III and VI of the Responsibilities and Competencies for Health Educators.

Answer: A 2) A mission statement can be described as a program A) goal.

B) objective.

C) overview.

D) assessment.

Answer: C 3) A goal is an expectation that A) is written to include all aspects or components of a program.

B) provides specific direction for a component of a program.

C) generally has a specific timeline.

D) is easily observed by program planners and implementers.

Answer: A 4) Terms such as distinguish, infer, prove, synthesize, and contrast are important in creating A) program strategies.

B) outcomes for objectives.

C) vision statements.

D) goal measurements.

Answer: B 5) Questions such as "Can the objective be realized during the life of the program?" and "Does the program have enough resources?" are appropriate when planners are A) assessing needs.

B) fine-tuning strategies.

C) selecting personnel.

D) developing objectives.

Answer: D 6) Which of the following is an example of the criterion element of an objective?

A) "Reduce the occurrence of" B) "After reading the pamphlets" C) "With 100% accuracy" D) "All employees of the company" Answer: C

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7) The words "explain" and "define" would be best suited for what type of objective?

A) Awareness B) Knowledge C) Behavior D) Environment Answer: B 8) The words "understand," "know" and "appreciate" would be best suited for writing A) objectives.

B) goals.

C) models.

D) strategies.

Answer: B 9) "Before the beginning of the program, all participants will have received a DVD containing all pertinent materials and short lessons" is a(n) A) learning objective.

B) outcome objective.

C) process objective.

D) participant objective.

Answer: C 10) "To increase the number of people who have access to primary health care," is an example of a program A) objective.

B) mission statement.

C) goal.

D) statement of purpose.

Answer: C 11) Objectives specify intermediate accomplishments or benchmarks that represent progress toward the goal.

Answer: TRUE 12) Healthy People 2010 was the first document of its kind in American public health history.

Answer: FALSE 13) "By the end of the program, the participants will be able to list five risk factors for heart disease" is an example of a process objective.

Answer: FALSE 14) Objectives of each level type should be included in a health intervention program.

Answer: TRUE 15) The learning objectives hierarchy begins with awareness objectives.

Answer: TRUE 2 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) Intermediate objectives occur soon after the program is implemented.

Answer: FALSE 17) Write an objective for an exercise program and label the four elements that make it an appropriate objective.

Answer: By the end of the 6 month training period, 75% of participants in the program will be walking three miles, three days a week.

Outcome — walking three miles, three days a week Conditions — by the end of the 6 month training period Criterion — 75% Priority population — participants 18) Describe how you, as a health education specialist, might use Healthy People 2020 when planning your programs.

Answer: Healthy People 2020 can serve as a guideline for developing goals and objectives for the program. You want your program to be aligned with the goals and objectives already established for the nation.

19) List the five main levels of objectives outlined in your textbook.

Answer: Process, Learning, Behavioral, Environmental, Outcome 20) Write an appropriate objective for a smoking cessation program.

Answer: By the end of the 10 week program, 10% of the participants will have quit smoking.

21) Name the four elements that must be present for a well-written objective.

Answer: The outcome to be achieved (what) The priority population (who) The conditions under which the outcome will be observed (when) The criterion for deciding whether the outcome has been achieved (how much) 22) What six questions should be considered when writing objectives?

Answer: Can the objective be realized during the life of the program or within a reasonable time thereafter?

Can the objective be realistically achieved?

Does the program have enough resources to achieve a specific objective?

Are the objectives consistent with the policies and procedures of the sponsoring agency?

Do the objectives violate any of the rights of those who are involved?

If a program is planned for a particular ethnic/cultural population, do the objectives reflect the relationship between the cultural characteristics of the priority group and the changes sought?

23) List the five characteristics of a SMART objective.

Answer: Specific Measurable Achievable Realistic Time-phased 3 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs, 7e (McKenzie) Chapter 7 Theories and Models Commonly Used for Health Promotion Interventions 1) The primary elements or the building blocks of a theory are A) models.

B) concepts.

C) constructs.

D) variables.

Answer: B 2) An example of a construct would be the A) Health Belief Model.

B) Social Cognitive Theory.

C) Perceived Barrier.

D) Likert Scale.

Answer: C 3) Which of the following is NOT true about theories?

A) They aid in identifying information.

B) They are needed before developing an intervention.

C) They provide a concrete framework which all health behaviors fit consistently into.

D) They aid in providing direction and justification for program activities.

Answer: C 4) The Areas of Responsibility that relate most directly to health promotion models and theories of behavior change are A) Area II and Area IV. B) Area I and Area II. C) Area III and Area V. D) Area VI and Area VII. Answer: A 5) According to the Stimulus-Response Theory, reducing health insurance benefits for employees who continue to participate in a health-harming behavior is an example of A) positive reinforcement.

B) negative reinforcement.

C) positive punishment.

D) negative punishment.

Answer: D 6) When a group facilitator provides positive verbal feedback to a participant, it is an example of A) self-reinforcement.

B) vicarious reinforcement.

C) direct reinforcement.

D) behavioral capability.

Answer: C 1 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) The Ecological Perspective recognizes multiple levels of intervention including all of the following EXCEPT A) interpersonal.

B) environmental.

C) institutional.

D) interracial.

Answer: D 8) According to the Theory of Reasoned Action, A) attitude is the person's history with the behavior.

B) intention is an indication of a person's readiness to perform a behavior.

C) subjective norm is the belief that the person can accomplish the change.

D) belief is knowing that the health education specialist will be able to make the change for the client.

Answer: B 9) If people are to exercise aerobically, first they must know that aerobic exercise exists, and second they need to know how to do it properly. This is an example of A) behavioral capability.

B) expectations.

C) self-control.

D) self-efficacy.

Answer: A 10) When a person exercises to achieve weight loss, prevent heart disease, and lower blood pressure he or she is acting according to which component of the Health Belief Model?

A) Perceived Barriers B) Perceived Susceptibility C) Perceived Benefits D) Perceived Seriousness Answer: C 11) When a person stops smoking because they recently had close friend die of lung cancer, which construct of the Health Belief Model is this consistent with?

A) Perceived Barriers B) Perceived Susceptibility C) Perceived Benefits D) Perceived Seriousness Answer: D 12) Which theory/model was originally designed to explain the effects of fear appeals on health attitudes and behaviors?

A) Protective Motivation Theory B) Elaboration Likelihood Model C) Information-Motivation-Behavioral Skill Model D) Social Cognitive Theory Answer: A 2 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) Which construct of the Transtheoretical Model focuses on weighing the pros and cons?

A) Stages of Change B) Process of Changes C) Decisional Balance D) Self Efficacy Answer: C 14) According to the Information-Motivation-Behavioral Skill Model, prevention motivation includes both A) personal and environmental motivation.

B) personal and social motivation.

C) internal and external motivation.

D) positive and negative motivation.

Answer: B 15) In what stage of the Transtheoretical Model does a person actively plan change?

A) Precontemplation B) Contemplation C) Preparation D) Action Answer: C 16) For Janice to lose weight, she must believe both that she is able to lose weight and that the weight loss will benefit her health. These beliefs are examples of A) self-esteem and efficacy.

B) efficacy and outcome expectations.

C) positive reinforcement and strategic change.

D) positive punishment and locus of control.

Answer: B 17) In the Elaboration Likelihood Model of Persuasion (ELM) A) there is only one route of attitude change, peripheral process.

B) the model specifies how persuasion can have an impact on variables.

C) elaboration means the amount of cognitive processing that a person puts into receiving messages.

D) the process has not been successful with message tailoring.

Answer: C 18) All of the following ways will increase a participant's exercise self-efficacy, EXCEPT A) walking on a treadmill.

B) watching one's peers exercise.

C) experiencing delayed-onset soreness from exercising.

D) encouraging words from a personal trainer.

Answer: C

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19) Which of the following models would best explain why women perform monthly self exams to reduce their risk of breast cancer?

A) Precaution Adaption Process Model B) Protective Motivation Theory C) Information-Motivation-Behavioral Skill Model D) Social Cognitive Theory Answer: A 20) The first group of individuals to adopt a new program are referred to as A) early adopters.

B) early majority.

C) laggards.

D) innovators.

Answer: D 21) Variables specify how a construct is to be measured in a specific situation.

Answer: TRUE 22) A model is a subclass of a theory.

Answer: TRUE 23) Program planning models help explain how behavior change takes place.

Answer: FALSE 24) An individual who has a lower cholesterol level after improved eating habits is experiencing negative reinforcement.

Answer: FALSE 25) Program planners have a much better chance of success if they select one behavior change theory and use it exclusively, rather than trying to use two or more.

Answer: FALSE 26) The Precaution Adoption Process Model (PAPM) is a stage model focused on how people come to the decision to take action, and translate the decision into action.

Answer: TRUE 27) An ex-smoker who believes that she can turn down a cigarette after a meal is said to have high self-efficacy.

Answer: TRUE 28) Social networks can impact health, but the specifics of who is the most impacted and how best to set up and use social networks are well known to health education specialists.

Answer: FALSE 29) At the intrapersonal level, theories of health behavior assume individuals exist within and are influenced by a social environment.

Answer: FALSE 4 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) Expectancies are values that individuals place on an expected outcome.

Answer: TRUE 31) Gaining control over our own behavior through monitoring and adjusting is known as reciprocal determinism.

Answer: FALSE 32) All of the theories that are commonly used to design interventions for health promotion programs have limitations.

Answer: TRUE 33) What are the four main ways individuals gain self-efficacy?

Answer: Through performance attainments (personal mastery of a task) Through vicarious experience (observing the performance of others) As a result of verbal persuasion (receiving suggestions from others) Through emotional arousal (interpreting one's emotional state) 34) Differentiate between the maintenance and termination stages of the Transtheoretical Model.

Answer: Maintenance refers to subjects having maintained their changed behavior for 6 months.

Termination refers to subjects having no chance of returning to the old behavior.

35) The Community Readiness Model has nine stages. What are they?

Answer: No awareness, denial, vague awareness, preplanning, preparation, initiation, stabilization, confirmation/expansion, professionalism 36) What is the difference between the terms lapse and relapse?

Answer: Lapse is a single slip or mistake, and relapse is an indication of total failure; a return to old patterns of behavior 37) The Diffusion Theory has five stages. What are they?

Answer: Knowledge, persuasion, decision, implementation, confirmation

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Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs, 7e (McKenzie) Chapter 8 Interventions 1) An intervention is a ________ strategy or experience to which those in the priority population will be exposed or in which they will take part.

A) theory-based B) self-regulated C) single-dose D) previously-discontinued Answer: A 2) Attending a small group meeting to learn about heart-healthy recipes is an example of a(n) A) intrapersonal communication channel.

B) interpersonal communication channel.

C) mass media communication channel.

D) organization & community communication channel.

Answer: B 3) ________ refers to the breadth and depth of material covered.

A) Sequence B) Curriculum item C) Scope D) Lesson plan Answer: C 4) ________ refers to the number of components or activities that make up the intervention A) Dose B) Multiplicity C) Treatment D) Curriculum Answer: B 5) In the Multidirectional Communication Model when information is presented by an expert, it is considered a(n) ________ message.

A) top down B) bottom up C) horizontal D) outward Answer: A 6) Which of the following intervention strategies generally has the highest penetration rate?

A) Health policy B) Health communication C) Health engineering D) Health education Answer: B 1 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) For the general public, writing at which grade reading level is usually best?

A) 6th B) 8th C) 10th D) 12th Answer: A 8) The route through which a message is disseminated to the priority population is called a A) health education specialist.

B) communication channel.

C) communication rate.

D) health risk appraisal.

Answer: B 9) Which of the following communication channels uses church bulletins or company newsletters?

A) Intrapersonal B) Interpersonal C) Organization D) Social Media Answer: C 10) The degree to which individuals have the capacity to access, process, interpret, communicate, and act on numerical, quantitative, graphical, biostatistical, and probabilistic health information needed to make effective health decisions is called A) health literacy.

B) health numeracy.

C) biostats.

D) health education.

Answer: B 11) The general principles of learning show that people learn best when the learning A) is recognized and encouraged by the instructor.

B) moves from complex to simple concepts.

C) connects concepts to only one settings.

D) is fast paced.

Answer: A 12) Personal visits to educate or lobby key people, community rallies, and telephone call campaigns are examples of A) community education activities.

B) community advocacy activities.

C) community outreach activities.

D) community development activities.

Answer: B

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13) Environmental change strategies A) are designed to change the structure or types of services, or systems of care, to improve the delivery of health promotion services.

B) include completing Health Risk Assessment forms.

C) require action on the part of those in the priority population.

D) are often offered in settings like grocery stores, malls, worksites, and mobile units.

Answer: A 14) Having access to medical facilities is an example of which of the following environments?

A) Service environment B) Cultural environment C) Psychological environment D) Political environment Answer: A 15) The culture of an organization can be thought of as its A) behavior.

B) goals.

C) success.

D) personality.

Answer: D 16) Penalizing merchants who sell tobacco to minors is an example of A) a worksite health program.

B) a public policy level disincentive.

C) an interpersonal level disincentive.

D) unlawful intervention.

Answer: B 17) A buddy system is an example of a A) 2 person group.

B) 3 person group.

C) 4 person group.

D) 5 person group.

Answer: A 18) The method of analysis that applies psychological insights into decision making is A) traditional economics.

B) behavioral economics.

C) decision fatigue.

D) neoclassical economics.

Answer: B 19) An intervention is sometimes referred to as treatment.

Answer: TRUE

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20) Support groups are an example of the interpersonal channel of communication.

Answer: TRUE 21) When creating health communication, one can calculate the reading level by using the SMART formula.

Answer: FALSE 22) When producing health education materials, it is important to use the same type of language for all populations.

Answer: FALSE 23) Personal counseling is usually an example of a low-cost communication strategy.

Answer: FALSE 24) Health policies are seldom easy to develop.

Answer: TRUE 25) The first three questions to ask when considering an intervention are, "What needs to change?" "What level of prevention?" and "What level of influence?"

Answer: TRUE 26) If best process and best practice intervention strategies are not available, planners can resort to best experience intervention strategies.

Answer: FALSE 27) An educational intervention that lasts about 60 minutes would not be a good intervention for preschool children.

Answer: TRUE 28) An intervention must be comprised of multiple activities.

Answer: FALSE 29) The "tone" set by the administration of an agency with regard to health behavior is an example of organizational culture.

Answer: TRUE 30) Mass transit systems are an example of the built environment.

Answer: TRUE 31) Name five types of health intervention strategies and give an example of each.

Answer: (any five of the following) Health communication — brochures Health policy — laws Health education — workshops Environmental Change — air bags in automobiles Health-related community service strategies — low cost flu shots Community mobilization strategies — community advocacy through lobbying 4 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) Give five examples of why communication strategies are useful in reaching health promotion program goals and objectives.

Answer: (any five of the following) Increase awareness, increase knowledge, influence attitudes, reinforce attitudes, maintain interest, provide cues and motivation for action, demonstrate simple skills, increase demand and support, influence perceptions of one's ability to perform a behavior, reinforce behaviors, build social norms 33) Name three categories of health education strategies and give two examples of each.

Answer: (any three of the following) Audiovisual materials and equipment — charts, slides, video tapes Technology-assisted instruction — World Wide Web, desktop publishing, video conferencing Printed educational materials — instructor-made handouts, pamphlets, text books Teaching strategies and techniques for the classroom — brainstorming, case studies, debates, discussion Teaching strategies and techniques for outside of the classroom — community resources, field trips, health fairs, museums 34) Name the two categories of incentives and give an example of each.

Answer: Material reinforcers — money, t-shirt Nonmaterial — special attention, social support 35) List five of the major factors that determine the effectiveness of incentives.

Answer: (any 5 of the following) Dollar value of the reward(s), Convertibility into item of personal value, Amount of effort needed to qualify, Clarity of messaging, Timing and repetition of messaging, Extent of distrust in employers' motives, Supporting messages from management, Ease of enrollment, Perceived complexity of requirements, Fairness and defensibility of requirements, Group or competitive nature, Desirability of required behavior, Readiness composition of population, Combination of pay values, Spousal eligibility, Compatibility of incentives with culture, Past wellness incentive performance 36) Name the two types of wellness programs defined in the ACA and briefly describe each.

Answer: Participatory wellness program — does not provide an incentive or does not tie an incentive to a health factor Health-contingent wellness program — requires individuals to meet a specific health-related standard to obtain an incentive

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37) List four common characteristics of well-planned and successful health promotion programs.

Answer: (any four of the following) Address one or more risk factors of the priority population Theory-driven Based on the best possible evidence Adhere to professional ethical standards Culturally appropriate Consistent with professional criteria, guidelines, or codes of practice Use resources efficiently Include an evaluation component

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Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs, 7e (McKenzie) Chapter 9 Community Organizing and Community Building 1) According to Israel and colleagues (1994), all the following are characteristics of communities EXCEPT A) membership — a sense of belonging.

B) common symbol systems — language, rituals.

C) shared values & norms.

D) different locations.

Answer: D 2) The bottom-up, grassroots mobilization of citizens for the purpose of undertaking activities to improve the condition of something in the community is best described as A) citizen participation.

B) community capacity.

C) community development.

D) community participation.

Answer: A 3) Methods of professional change that deal with issues beyond the individual, family, and small group level are called ________ methods.

A) community development B) citizen participation C) empowered community D) macro practice Answer: D 4) Assumptions that must be made by those who assist communities with organizing include A) people are reluctant to change.

B) communities need outside help to deal with their problems.

C) a holistic approach can handle problems that a fragmented approach cannot.

D) democracy requires a strong leader who is not afraid to make decisions.

Answer: C 5) The community organization and building typology model in the text compares and contrasts A) needs and strengths with consensus and conflict.

B) strengths and weaknesses with opportunities and threats.

C) needs and wants with abilities and assets.

D) plans and positions with challenges and communities.

Answer: A 6) What is the first step in community organizing and building?

A) Organizing the people B) Recognizing the issue C) Assessing the community D) Determining priorities Answer: B 1 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) The individuals who control, both formally and informally, the "political climate" of the community are referred to as A) active participants.

B) coalitions.

C) executive participants.

D) gatekeepers.

Answer: D 8) Skills and attributes of successful organizers include all of the following EXCEPT A) change vision attributes.

B) interactional skills.

C) frugality attributes.

D) technical skills.

Answer: C 9) People who become involved in community organizing on an irregular basis, usually only when major decisions are made, are called A) active participants.

B) occasional participants.

C) supporting participants.

D) intermediate participants.

Answer: B 10) People who are seldom involved in community organizing efforts, but contribute in nonactive ways or through financial contributions are called A) active participants.

B) occasional participants.

C) supporting participants.

D) sporadic participants.

Answer: C 11) Which of the following would be an example of an individual asset?

A) Hospitals B) Individual business C) Citizen's association D) Library Answer: B 12) The most accessible assets in community mapping are A) primary building blocks.

B) secondary building blocks.

C) potential building blocks.

D) tertiary building blocks.

Answer: A

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13) Ways to improve awareness of diversity within a community include A) try to group beliefs and feelings into a common denominator.

B) make statements about diverse groups to determine what reaction you will get.

C) avoid humor and cultural gestures.

D) read about current and emerging issues that concern diverse groups.

Answer: D 14) An empowered community is one in which individuals and organizations apply their skills and resources in collective efforts to meet their respective needs.

Answer: TRUE 15) Try to keep volunteers' schedules rigid so they don't have to deal with change.

Answer: FALSE 16) The most successful community organizing efforts have been those originating from within the community.

Answer: TRUE 17) A planner is someone who often lives outside the community where the problems reside.

Answer: TRUE 18) Coalitions are more successful when they employ consensus methods of decision-making.

Answer: TRUE 19) Hospitals, public schools, and libraries are all considered secondary building blocks or assets of a community.

Answer: TRUE 20) The final step in community organizing process is maintaining outcomes in the community.

Answer: FALSE 21) Describe four assumptions that those who assist community organizing must make.

Answer: (any four of the following) Communities of people can develop capacity to deal with their problems.

People want to change and can change.

People should participate in making, adjusting, or controlling the major changes taking place in their communities.

Democracy requires cooperative participation and action.

Changes in community living that are self-imposed have a meaning and permanence that imposed changes do not have.

A "holistic approach" can deal successfully with problems with which a "fragmented approach" cannot cope.

Frequently communities of people need help in organizing to deal with their needs, just as many individuals require help in coping with their individual problems.

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22) Describe five ways to better understand diversity when organizing a community.

Answer: (any five of the following) Become aware of differences by asking questions and getting involved in group discussions.

Seek involvement and input and listen to persons of different backgrounds without bias, and avoid being defensive.

Learn the beliefs and feeling of specific groups about particular issues.

Learn about the language, humor, gestures, norms, expectations and values of different groups.

Learn the facts before you make statements or form opinions about different groups.

Read about current and emerging issues that concern different groups and read literature that is popular among different groups.

Attend events that appeal to members of specific groups.

Become attuned to cultural clichés, stereotypes, and distortions you may encounter in the media.

Use examples to which persons of different cultures and backgrounds can relate.

23) Name three things people want to accomplish by being a volunteer.

Answer: (any three of the following) They want to be appreciated for the work they do.

They want to be busy with worthwhile and varied tasks.

They want to be provided with clear communication about tasks and expectations.

They want to develop themselves through training.

24) Describe six characteristics of a successful coalition.

Answer: (any six of the following) Continuity of coalition staff, in particular the coordinator position Ownership of the problem by coalition members Community leaders support the coalition and its efforts Active involvement of community volunteer agencies High level of trust and reciprocity among members Frequent and ongoing training for coalition members and staff Benefits of membership outweigh the costs Active involvement of members in developing coalition goals, objectives, and strategies Development of a strategic action plan rather than a project-by-project approach Consensus is reached on issues instead of voting Productive coalition meetings Large problems are broken down into smaller, solvable pieces Steering committee of elected leaders and staff guides coalition Task or work groups of members design and implement strategies Rules and procedures are formalized Local media are actively involved Coalition and its activities are evaluated continuously

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25) List and briefly describe four elements that define a community.

Answer: (any four of the following) Membership — a sense of belonging Common symbol systems — similar language, rituals, and ceremonies Shared values and norms Mutual influence — community members influence each other Shared needs and commitment to meeting those needs Shared emotional connection — common history, experiences, support

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Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs, 7e (McKenzie) Chapter 10 Identification and Allocation of Resources 1) In health education program planning, the term "resources" A) refers just to human assets.

B) only means fiscal assets.

C) can include physical space in which to hold a program.

D) should be based on behavioral theories.

Answer: C 2) "I have put something into this program, and therefore I am going to support it," is an example of A) cultural sensitivity.

B) in-kind support.

C) ownership.

D) peer education.

Answer: C 3) Which of the following Areas of Responsibility for Health Educators is NOT closely connected to resource identification and allocation?

A) Area II B) Area III C) Area IV D) Area V Answer: C 4) Teenagers helping other teenagers improve their exercise habits is an example of A) peer education.

B) external resources.

C) ownership.

D) expert counsel.

Answer: A 5) A staff worker who attends a health fair over their lunch break is an example of A) shared time.

B) flex time.

C) ownership.

D) internal resources.

Answer: B 6) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention acting as a resource to help a small US community build a community coalition for obesity is playing which of the following roles?

A) Volunteer B) Teamwork C) Technical Assistance D) Cultural factor Answer: C 1 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) A curriculum developed by an outside group for use by others is called a(n) A) peer reviewed program.

B) canned program.

C) independent program.

D) culturally competent program.

Answer: B 8) Providing free materials, copying services, space, or other resources is referred to as A) soft money.

B) hard money.

C) in-kind support.

D) internal resources.

Answer: C 9) When governmental agencies or philanthropic organizations have money to make available for health or other programs, they often find organizations to give the money to by starting with a(n) A) organizational request plan.

B) estimated donation form.

C) overview of gifts process.

D) request for proposals.

Answer: D 10) Funding provided by local health department is considered what type of funding?

A) Foundational B) Corporate C) Volunteer Agency D) Governmental Answer: D 11) Funding provided a Robert Wood Johnson Grant is considered what type of funding?

A) Foundational B) Corporate C) Volunteer Agency D) Governmental Answer: A 12) In a budget, the cost of a computer, prints, and cameras would fall under which of the following costs?

A) Unexpected B) Variable C) Hard money D) Soft money Answer: C

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13) Questions to ask about purchased product QUALITY include which of the following?

A) Did the vendor provide a reference list of other customers?

B) Will the vendor customize the product to meet your needs?

C) Is the cost competitive with other vendors?

D) Can the vendor provide services at the sites and times you desire?

Answer: B 14) The SAM process is designed to A) check the systems involved in resource acquisition.

B) help planners avoid silly accrediting mistakes.

C) simulate mistakes before they happen.

D) assess the suitability of materials.

Answer: D 15) Which of the following is NOT a method used when recruiting volunteers?

A) Mass media B) Social media C) Canvassing D) Word-of-mouth Answer: C 16) Having a basic understanding and appreciation of the importance of sociocultural factors is being culturally competent.

Answer: TRUE 17) Voluntary health agencies are often vendors of health promotion programs.

Answer: TRUE 18) Health education programs should not involve participant fees, as this may discourage attendance.

Answer: FALSE 19) An ongoing source of funds for a health promotion program is called soft money.

Answer: FALSE 20) Start-up dollars are often referred to as seed dollars.

Answer: TRUE 21) Since grant proposals need to be short, budget and personnel information should not be included.

Answer: FALSE 22) A budget is a formal statement of estimated revenues and expenditures.

Answer: TRUE

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23) Cost sharing means that employees must find someone external to their worksite to pay for their health programming.

Answer: FALSE 24) Although volunteers are not paid they are not free of cost.

Answer: TRUE 25) Describe two advantages and two disadvantages of using internal program personnel.

Answer: Advantages — reduced costs, internal arrangements can be made to free needed personnel, more control over those involved Disadvantages — Limited by staff interest, may have to train personnel, may reach fewer people because of increased development time 26) Describe two advantages and two disadvantages of using external program personnel.

Answer: Advantages — known expertise, responsibility lies with someone else, external personnel are sometimes more respected Disadvantages — usually more costly, subject to limitations of any given vendor, less control over the program 27) Describe the five major components of most canned programs.

Answer: A participant's manual, an instructor's manual, audiovisual materials, training for instructors, marketing materials 28) List four options planners have to select a curriculum and other instructional materials.

Answer: Develop in-house materials, purchase various outside materials from vendors, purchase an entire canned program from a vendor, or use a combination of the first three options.

29) List at three questions planners should ask before purchasing a canned program.

Answer: (any three of the following) Is the program based on best practices?

Is there evidence to show the program is effective?

Does the program include a long-term behavior modification component?

Is the program educationally sound?

Is the program motivational?

Is the program enjoyable?

Can the program be modified to meet the specific needs of the priority population?

30) List the items that are found in the direct and indirect cost Answer: Direct Cost Personnel, Supplies, Meeting Cost, Equipment, Travel, Advertising Indirect Cost Rent, Insurance, Telephone, Utilities

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Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs, 7e (McKenzie) Chapter 11 Marketing: Developing Programs That Respond to the Wants and Needs of the Priority Population 1) Key marketing principles that apply to social marketing in health include all of the following EXCEPT A) offer a benefit that the consumer values.

B) offer the product at "upper end" prices to make it more desirable.

C) continually focus on consumer wants.

D) promote the product in a consumer-attracting way.

Answer: B 2) In contrast to a tangible price of money for marketing, the intangible price in social marketing is A) ongoing choices to do a behavior.

B) other behaviors that give satisfaction.

C) time, effort, discomfort, etc.

D) behavior.

Answer: C 3) Measurable, substantial, accessible, differentiable, and actionable are criteria to consider when determining A) segmentation.

B) diffusion.

C) market demand.

D) social support.

Answer: A 4) All the following are ways to segment a population, EXCEPT by A) geographics.

B) demographics.

C) personality types.

D) behavioral.

Answer: C 5) Feeling good about yourself is an example of a(n) A) illusion.

B) augmented product.

C) core product.

D) incentive.

Answer: C

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6) Which of the following would be an example of a core product?

A) Helmet B) Contraceptives C) Recycle container D) Peace of mind Answer: D 7) For the purposes of program planning, the people who make up the market are the A) innovators.

B) stakeholders.

C) priority population.

D) sample groups.

Answer: C 8) In order for planners to develop effective message strategy, they must know A) what budget items can be deleted.

B) what may be motivating the priority population.

C) how many people they will reach.

D) how many workers will be on their planning team.

Answer: B 9) The four "P's" of marketing are A) product, price, priority, principle.

B) principle, place, product, promotion.

C) promotion, product, price, place.

D) place, promotion, price, priority.

Answer: C 10) Which the following promotional strategies includes increasing product awareness to the consumer?

A) Inform B) Persuade C) Reinforce D) Differentiate Answer: A 11) Which the following promotional strategies includes reminding the consumer that the product exists?

A) Inform B) Persuade C) Reinforce D) Differentiate Answer: C

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12) Which routes of promotion would include health care workers talking to patients about controlling high blood pressure with medicines?

A) Direct marketing B) Personal selling C) Sales promotions D) Public relations Answer: B 13) All of the following are synonymous with priority population EXCEPT A) consumer.

B) target audience.

C) market.

D) seller.

Answer: D 14) Saving money on the electrical bill is an example of which of the four Ps for social marketing?

A) Product B) Price C) Place D) Promotion Answer: A 15) A consumer-based health education program is designed around the priority population's wants, needs, desires and preferences.

Answer: TRUE 16) It is acceptable practice for planners to segment groups within a population either before or after surveying them.

Answer: TRUE 17) Audience segmentation is one small part of overall market segmentation.

Answer: FALSE 18) Segmenting a population by things such as social class, lifestyle, and attitudes is known as behavioral segmentation.

Answer: FALSE 19) It is best to charge for all programs so that participants feel ownership.

Answer: FALSE 20) Marketing is the planned attempt to influence the characteristics of voluntary exchange transactions.

Answer: TRUE

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21) To successfully facilitate a product exchange, planners must have an understanding of the consumers.

Answer: TRUE 22) Price is the same thing as barriers.

Answer: FALSE 23) Pretesting can be completed in two phases.

Answer: TRUE 24) Consumer orientation means that all marketing-related program decisions are based on what planners know about the priority population and their preferences.

Answer: TRUE 25) List five considerations planners should take into account when developing communication message and flow.

Answer: (any five of the following) What are the media habits of the target population?

What medium should be used?

What are the costs of each medium versus the benefits?

Can the medium's capability build on or multiply the effects of another medium?

Will the message reach a significant portion of the priority population?

Can the message reach a significant portion of the priority population?

Is the message culturally appropriate?

Through how many intermediaries must the message travel to reach the priority population?

How frequently should the message be delivered?

Can a medium be overused?

26) Name three distinct functions of the marketing process as they relate to the health care field.

Answer: (any three of the following) Using marketing research to determine needs and desires Developing a product that satisfies the needs and desires of clients Developing informative and persuasive communication flows Ensuring that the product is provided in an appropriate manner Keeping clients satisfied and loyal 27) What are four things planners should determine when considering the amount to be charged for a program?

Answer: Who are the clients?

What is their ability to pay?

Are co-payers involved?

Is the program covered under an insurance program?

What is the mission of the planner's agency?

What are competitors charging?

What is the demand for the program or product?

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28) List the four factors to consider when choosing pretesting methods.

Answer: What part of the social marketing strategy is being tested?

What type of responses do you want from the priority population?

What do you want the priority population to do?

Would the priority population talk about this product or message in a group setting?

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Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs, 7e (McKenzie) Chapter 12 Implementation: Strategies and Associated Concerns 1) Partnerships, equipment, and supplies are included in what portion of the logic model?

A) Inputs B) Outputs C) Outcomes D) Resources Answer: A 2) Improved quality of life would be an example of what type of outcome?

A) Short term B) Mid-term C) Long-term D) Impact Answer: C 3) Which of the following responsibilities of the Human Resource Manager would include recruiting and hiring personnel?

A) Planning B) Acquisition C) Development D) Sanction Answer: B 4) The process of developing and using systems to ensure that funds are spent for the purpose for which they have been appropriated is referred to as A) Human Resource Management.

B) Financial Management.

C) Technical Resource Management.

D) Accounting Management.

Answer: B 5) Pilot testing A) generally takes more resources than it is worth.

B) should be accomplished before field testing is started.

C) allows planners to work out any problems before the program is launched.

D) can be successfully accomplished with any group, whether or not it is like the priority population.

Answer: C

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6) By different offerings, by limiting the number of people, by location, and by ability are all approaches to A) piloting a program.

B) evaluating a program.

C) phasing in a program.

D) planning a program.

Answer: C 7) A complex program implementation chart comprised of a diagram and a timetable is A) PERT. B) GANTT. C) TDTL. D) key activity.

Answer: A 8) Failing to act in a reasonable manner is an act of A) prudence.

B) negligence.

C) liability.

D) commission.

Answer: B 9) When planners are aware of the participants' identities and have promised not to reveal those identities to others, they are practicing A) anonymity.

B) confidentiality.

C) secrecy.

D) omission.

Answer: B 10) HIPAA A) has guaranteed patient rights since the early 1900s.

B) set national standards to protect and guard against misuse of individual health information.

C) protects health information specialists from being sued.

D) guarantees that people can obtain the information they need about family health records.

Answer: B 11) A procedural manual A) should avoid over-standardization to keep options for variety in programming.

B) should eliminate excess background information.

C) can provide ideas for program facilitation.

D) can provide websites, but no formal citations.

Answer: C

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12) Which of the following is NOT important for a checklist for an emergency care plan?

A) Program staff can have time off after traumatic incidents B) Standing orders are available for common emergencies C) The care plan is updated regularly D) High-risk participants are known to program staff Answer: A 13) Which of the following is NOT an estimate of time for tasks in a PERT chart?

A) Optimistic B) Pessimistic C) Realistic D) Probabilistic Answer: C 14) No one should be allowed to participate in any health promotion program without giving his or her informed consent.

Answer: TRUE 15) A phased-in program has the advantage of involving many more people early in the program.

Answer: FALSE 16) Informed consent protects planners from being sued.

Answer: FALSE 17) In theory, all health promotion programs should be pilot tested.

Answer: TRUE 18) A news hook is apt to make the media want to cover the launch of a new program.

Answer: TRUE 19) The obligation to do no harm is called nonbeneficence.

Answer: FALSE 20) Planners may find it difficult to work through the three stages of implementation due to limited time and limited resources.

Answer: TRUE 21) The first day of implementation is an extension of the fourth "P" of marketing — promotion.

Answer: TRUE 22) The Code of Ethics for the Health Education Profession was discontinued because it had no real method or strategies for enforcement.

Answer: FALSE 23) List four reasons why planners should keep others informed about a program's progress.

Answer: Accountability, public relations, motivation of present participants 3 Copyright © 2017 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) List five issues that need to be included in an informed consent.

Answer: Explain the nature of the program, inform participants of any inherent risks or dangers, explain the expected benefits, inform participants of alternative programs that will accomplish the same thing, indicate to participants that they are free to discontinue participation at any time 25) Name the five general phases of program implementation.

Answer: Adoption of the program, identifying and prioritizing the tasks to be completed, establishing a system of management, putting the plans into action, ending or sustaining a program 26) List five ways to reduce the risk of legal liability.

Answer: (any five of the following) Be aware of legal liabilities, be aware of professional standards, keep knowledge and skills upto-date, select certified instructors, use good judgment in setting up programs, provide written guidelines for medical emergency procedures, inform participants about risks and dangers, require participants to obtain medical clearance before entering an exercise program, instruct staff not to "practice medicine," provide a safe environment, purchase adequate liability insurance for all staff.

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Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs, 7e (McKenzie) Chapter 13 Evaluation: An Overview 1) Which of the following people is NOT a stakeholder?

A) Program planner B) Administrator C) Evaluator D) Representative from the funding source Answer: C 2) Which of the following is NOT considered a critical purpose for program evaluation?

A) Adjusting costs B) Assessing quality C) Determining effectiveness D) Improving quality Answer: A 3) Which of the following evaluations employs pretesting?

A) Impact evaluation B) Process evaluation C) Outcome evaluation D) Formative evaluation Answer: D 4) Determining whether or not a program led to changes in health status is an example of A) impact evaluation.

B) process evaluation.

C) outcome evaluation.

D) formative evaluation.

Answer: C 5) Monitoring participants' reactions about program location, time, and speakers is called A) formative evaluation.

B) summative evaluation.

C) outcome evaluation.

D) impact evaluation.

Answer: A 6) The number of people who stopped smoking following a smoking cessation program is a measure of A) formative evaluation.

B) outcome evaluation.

C) process evaluation.

D) impact evaluation.

Answer: D

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7) One strength of having an external evaluator is A) links with the funding source.

B) familiarity with the program.

C) objectivity.

D) less expense.

Answer: C 8) The two evaluation categories in which health education specialists engage can be classified as A) formative and summative.

B) independent and dependent.

C) outside and inside.

D) organized and unorganized.

Answer: A 9) Which of the following is a benefit to having an internal evaluator?

A) More objective; fresh outlook B) More familiar with organization & program C) Brings global knowledge D) Typical brings more breath & depth of technical expertise Answer: B 10) Utility, feasibility, propriety, and accuracy are A) steps used to engage stakeholders.

B) principles of gathering credible evidence.

C) standards of evaluation within the framework for program evaluation.

D) important only when conclusions cannot be easily justified.

Answer: C 11) Which of the following types of evaluation assesses behavior change?

A) Outcome evaluation B) Formative evaluation C) Impact evaluation D) Process Evaluation Answer: C 12) Evaluation planning should occur early, while program goals and objectives are being developed.

Answer: TRUE 13) One barrier to effective program evaluation can be the time allotted for evaluation.

Answer: TRUE 14) The first step in the evaluation process is implementation.

Answer: FALSE

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15) A reason a stakeholder may want a program evaluated is to inform policy decisions.

Answer: TRUE 16) Institutional Review Board approval is not necessary for program evaluation research.

Answer: FALSE 17) Developing the evaluation design is a step within the data collection process.

Answer: FALSE 18) Data reflecting the initial status or interests of the participants are referred to as baseline data.

Answer: TRUE 19) An evaluation consultant should respect senior staff members' wishes for specific findings, and emphasize those findings in the report.

Answer: FALSE 20) Propriety standards ensure that an evaluation is ethical.

Answer: TRUE 21) List and define three types of evaluation.

Answer: Process — provides documentation during the program implementation to make adjustments for improvement if necessary Impact — assesses the overall success of a program in producing favorable knowledge, skills, attitudes, etc. in the target population Outcome — determines whether or not the program met the stated long-term goals and objectives 22) List four events that could hinder a successful evaluation.

Answer: The planner failed to build evaluation into program planning Changes in adults come slowly Some changes do not last Adequate procedures cost time and resources 23) List and describe three reasons for evaluating a program.

Answer: To demonstrate worth — an evaluation can help to determine if the program is moving in the right direction and whether or not it has had an impact on the target population and its health concerns To compare different types of programs — different programs can be compared to determine which are the most effective in reaching program goals and objectives To meet requirements of the funding source — many times the funding source requires evaluation to determine whether or not goals have been met.

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24) Describe the three advantages for using an internal evaluator and three advantages for using an external evaluator.

Answer: Internal — Advantages: More familiar with organization & program; Knows decision making style of organization; Present to remind people of results; Able to communicate results more frequently & clearly External — Advantages: More objective; fresh outlook; Can ensure unbiased evaluation outcome; Brings global knowledge; Typical brings more breath & depth of technical expertise 25) List three characteristics of a good evaluator.

Answer: (any three of the following) Experience in the type of evaluation needed Comfortable with quantitative data sources and analysis Able to work with a wide variety of stakeholders, including representatives of target populations Can develop innovative approaches to evaluation while considering the realities affecting a program (e.g., a small budget) Incorporates evaluation into all program activities Understands both the potential benefits and risks of evaluation Educates program personnel in designing and conducting the evaluation Will give the staff full findings (i.e., will not gloss over or fail to report certain findings)

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Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs, 7e (McKenzie) Chapter 14 Evaluation Approaches and Designs 1) The degree to which a program, activity, or service is tailored to the priority population is called A) justification.

B) consumer orientation.

C) inclusion.

D) interaction.

Answer: B 2) The presence of any confounding factors in the environment that may affect program participation or initial results is known as A) dose.

B) reach.

C) support.

D) context.

Answer: D 3) Which of the following is NOT an example of an element of process evaluation?

A) Fidelity B) Capacity C) Response D) Context Answer: B 4) Qualitative, in-depth interviews with individuals who understand the priority population are called A) informal interviews.

B) substantive interviews.

C) key-informant interviews.

D) targeted-individual interviews.

Answer: C 5) Which of the following is the type of bar or line chart that displays a program's time line or project schedule?

A) Gantt chart B) Protocol Check sheet C) Qualitative Circles D) Program Forms Answer: A

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6) Which of the following is NOT a qualitative method commonly used in evaluation?

A) Historical analysis B) Time-series C) Case studies D) Nominal group process Answer: B 7) Which one of the four premises below applies to using control groups in social program evaluation?

A) Individuals should not be restricted to the status-quo B) Individuals should not be informed of the purpose in order to avoid bias C) Individuals should be informed when they will be subjected to ineffective or harmful programs D) Individuals have a right to new services, and random selection gives all a chance to participate Answer: D 8) A ________ analysis can to determine the profit received from the dollars invested in the program.

A) cost-identification B) cost-benefit C) cost-utility D) cost-objective Answer: B 9) When individuals cannot be randomly assigned to an experimental or control group, this nonequivalent group may be formed.

A) Experimental group B) Intervention group C) Control group D) Comparison group Answer: D 10) Which of the following designs would be considered the gold standard to limit internal and external threats of validity?

A) Non-Experimental B) Quasi Experimental C) Experimental pretest /posttest design D) Experimental Posttest design Answer: C

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11) A threat to internal validity that involves the increased in strength due motor unit recruitment (meaning the body increases strength due to more muscle fibers being recruited by the nervous system and not muscle mass gain) is considered A) maturity.

B) testing.

C) instrumentation.

D) selection.

Answer: B 12) A threat to external validity that occurs when attitudes projected onto individuals cause them to act in a certain way is called the A) Hawthorne effect.

B) placebo effect.

C) social desirability effect.

D) expectancy effect.

Answer: D 13) Process evaluation focuses on making changes during the program to improve the quality of the program.

Answer: FALSE 14) Pilot testing involves collecting baseline data prior to the program implementation that will be compared with posttest data to measure the effectiveness of the program.

Answer: FALSE 15) The quantitative approach is inductive.

Answer: FALSE 16) The only effective way to combine quantitative and qualitative evaluation methods is to use qualitative methods to help develop quantitative measures and instruments.

Answer: FALSE 17) Quasi-experimental methods are much less stressful on program participants than experimental methods.

Answer: FALSE 18) A good example of observation in evaluation design would be pretests and posttests.

Answer: TRUE 19) The design O1 X O2 is a diagram of a quasi-experimental pretest posttest design.

Answer: FALSE 20) The threat to internal validity called attrition refers to having participants leave the study between pretest and posttest.

Answer: TRUE

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21) A study wherein participants, planners, nor evaluators know which group participants are in is called a triple blind study.

Answer: TRUE 22) List five questions you should ask yourself before choosing an evaluation design.

Answer: (any five of the following) How much time do you have? What financial resources are available? How many participants can be included in the evaluation? Are you more interested in qualitative or quantitative data? Do you have data analysis skills or access to computers and statistical consultants? In what ways can validity be increased? Is it important to be able to generalize your findings? Are the stakeholders concerned with validity and reliability? Can you randomize participants into experimental and control groups? Do you have access to a comparison group?

23) List three examples of potential threats to internal validity.

Answer: (any three of the following) History, Maturation, Testing, Instrumentation, Statistical regression, Selection, Attrition, Interaction, Compensatory equalization of treatments, Compensatory rivalry, Resentful demoralization of respondents receiving less desirable treatments 24) What is a major method to control for threats to internal validity?

Answer: Randomization.

25) Four threats to external validity are Answer: Social desirability, expectancy effect, Hawthorne effect, placebo effect.

26) List and describe the three types of blinding.

Answer: Blind — The participants do not know whether they have been assigned to the experimental group or the control group Double blind — The type of group participants are in is not known be either the participants or planners Triple blind — Neither the participants, planners, or evaluators know which group the participants are in 27) Differentiate between cost-benefit analysis and cost-effectiveness analysis.

Answer: Cost-benefit analysis — Determines dollar benefit received from the dollars invested in the program Cost-effectiveness analysis — Determines how much it costs to produce a certain effect.

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Planning, Implementing, & Evaluating Health Promotion Programs, 7e (McKenzie) Chapter 15 Data Analysis and Reporting 1) Which of the following would be considered an independent variable in a sex education intervention evaluation?

A) Proper demonstration of condom use on a model by the participants B) The attitude toward condom use of the participants C) How much knowledge of STD participants learn D) Year in school of the participants Answer: D 2) A dependent variable A) is controlled by the evaluator.

B) exerts some influence.

C) leads to changes in independent variables.

D) can be viewed as an outcome variable.

Answer: D 3) Demographic information about the participants typically uses A) univariate data analysis.

B) bivariate data analysis.

C) multivariate data analysis.

D) chi-square analysis.

Answer: A 4) Multiple regression analysis A) works well with nominal data.

B) can be used with interval data.

C) should be applied to ordinal data.

D) is descriptive in nature.

Answer: B 5) Which of the following is used to show trends over time?

A) Pie chart B) Cluster graph C) Line graph D) Mode Answer: C 6) Measures of central tendency include A) range.

B) median.

C) standard deviation.

D) variance.

Answer: B

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7) Data that are assigned labels so they can be understood by a computer are ________ data.

A) coded B) assigned C) randomized D) anticipated Answer: A 8) Checking a data set to be sure that all the entered values are valid and consistent is called A) coding the data.

B) reconciling the data.

C) cleaning the data.

D) firing the data.

Answer: C 9) The process of coding, cleaning and organizing data into usable format is termed data management.

Answer: TRUE 10) Range and standard deviation are used in univariate data analysis.

Answer: TRUE 11) It is best to err on the side of too simple an analysis than too complex an analysis in an evaluation report.

Answer: TRUE 12) If Jeremy wants to compare his clients to a larger group of clients across the state, he could use a chi-square test of significance.

Answer: TRUE 13) An alpha level of .05 means that there is a 50% chance that the outcome occurred by chance alone.

Answer: FALSE 14) The smaller the alpha level, the greater the possibility of a Type II error.

Answer: TRUE 15) Evaluators can use a t-test to determine whether a variable changed significantly in one group at two points in time.

Answer: TRUE 16) An Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) can be used to determine differences in test scores of more than two groups.

Answer: TRUE 17) The null hypothesis states that there is a difference between groups.

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18) If Andrew's stress level increases as his students' behavior deteriorates, this could be considered a negative correlation.

Answer: TRUE 19) What is ANOVA and how is it used?

Answer: ANOVA stands for Analysis Of Variance and is a statistical test used to compare the difference in means of two or more groups. It does not prove that there is a difference between groups, but it does allow evaluators to reject or retain the null hypothesis.

20) Figure the mean, median and mode for the following test scores: 98, 76, 66, 93, 69, 71, 88, 93, 77, 90, 82.

Answer: Mean — 82 Median — 82 Mode — 93 21) What are three benefits of preparing an evaluation report?

Answer: (any three of the following) It is a tangible product for your agency.

The discipline helps you critically analyze the results of the evaluation and think about any changes you should make as a result.

It is a record of your activities for use in planning future programs.

It provides evidence that your program or materials have been carefully developed.

It provides assistance to others who may be interested in developing similar programs or materials.

It provides a foundation for evaluation activities in the future.

22) Describe the difference between program and statistical significance.

Answer: Program significance measures the meaningfulness of a program regardless of statistical significance, which is determined by statistical testing. If a sample size is very large, it is much easier to demonstrate statistical significance but not see much practical benefit. By the same token, results may be practically very important or significant, and not reach a pre-set level of statistical significance.

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