Test Bank for Human Relations 7th Edition

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Human Relations

Edition:

7th Edition

Author(s):

Lowell Lamberton Leslie Minor-Evans

Student name:__________ 1) A(n) _____ is someone who organizes and assumes the risks of beginning a business enterprise.

2)

_____ is the generation that follows the Baby Boomers.

3) Middle-aged adults who support their elderly, dependent parents and raise their dependent children at the same time are often referred to as the "_____ generation."

4)

_____ is your feeling of confidence and worth as a person.

5)

_____ is the knowledge of how you are being perceived by others.

6) _____ is the process of letting other people know what you are really thinking and feeling.

7)

The term "_____" is used to describe the force that gets people to do their task.

8) A _____ mindset is the belief that our basic abilities can be developed and improved through dedication and hard work.

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9) The Knights of _____, an organization founded in 1869 and that was much like the labor unions that came later, denounced the bad working conditions and unfair treatment in many workplaces of the time.

10) In the early years of the 20th century, Frederick Taylor and others began a movement called _____ management.

11) One of Frederick Taylor's best-known victories was the invention of the _____ shovel, a step that made scientific management very popular.

12)

In her later life, Lillian Gilbreth became known as "The _____ Lady of Management."

13) The noted psychologist Abraham Maslow devised a(n) "_____ of needs," which teaches that people tend to satisfy their needs in a certain order.

14) Congress passed the _____ Act in 1935, which gave unions and union members more rights than they had enjoyed before.

15) McGregor's Theory _____ stated that workers lacked ambition, disliked work, and wanted security above all else.

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16) _____ is the idea that corporate culture is based on efficiency, calculability, predictability, and control.

17)

Identify an accurate statement about human relations.

A) Practicing effective human relations helps in finding quick fixes to ongoing personal issues.

B) It is a study in understanding human behavior in order to influence others for one's advantage.

C) It includes a desire to understand others and their talents and abilities.

D) Learning better human relations skills is a cure-all.

18)

_____ can be classified as internal customers.

A) Competitors B) Traditional customers C) Employees of a department D) Online customers

19) Which of the following is a reason for the widespread anti-American sentiment in the global marketplace?

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A) Americans appear to use poor human relations skills while engaging in business with other cultures.

B) Americans emphasize the process more than the product in the workplace.

C) Countries like China, India, and Japan have been unable to make a major impact on world markets compared with the United States.

D) Americans assume that having a college degree is no longer a ticket to a meaningful career.

20)

The study of human relations is important because

A) it emphasizes the knowledge of computers and technology.

B) it reduces diversity in the workplace.

C) it renews emphasis on working groups.

D) it stresses the importance of laying emphasis on the product rather than the process.

21)

Which of the following is a result of employee engagement?

A) decreased productivity B) decreased profitability C) reduced job satisfaction D) reduced turnover

22)

The generation of Americans born between 1965 and 1980 is referred to as

A) the Baby Boomer generation.

B) Generation X. C) Generation Y. D) the Millennial Generation.

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23)

Which of the following statements is true of the members of Generation Y?

A) They see workers mostly as people who need wages and disregard the complex needs of workers.

B) They feel that finding good, sustainable-wage jobs is hard and that advancement is very difficult.

C) They develop poor human relations with subordinates as they are influenced by hippie culture.

D) They see workers as lacking ambition, disliking work, and wanting security above all else.

24)

The generation of Americans born between 1946 and 1964 is referred to as

A) Generation X. B) the Millennials.

C) Generation Z. D) the Baby Boomers.

25)

Which of the following statements is true of competition in the workplace?

A) The increasing number of people doing business on the Internet has resulted in a decline in competition among businesses.

B) Competitiveness is yet to reach rural areas where small businesses still don't feel the pressure.

C) Because of increased competition, having a college degree is no longer a ticket to a meaningful career.

D) Countries such as China, India, and other Asian nations are yet to create an impact on the world markets.

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26)

Which of the following statements is true of current challenges in human relations?

A) Generation Y tends to find sustainable-wage jobs easy to come by but advancement a very difficult task.

B) Additional financial pressures in dual-career families cause workplace stress and difficulties for everyone involved.

C) Having a college degree guarantees a ticket to a meaningful career but seldom a well-paying job.

D) Small businesses seldom feel pressure to meet the high international standards of the foreign market and of the huge multinational companies that dominate the economy.

27)

People who belong to the sandwich generation

A) are currently entering the job market.

B) are mostly in management positions.

C) find themselves squeezed for time and finances.

D) see workers as lacking ambition and disliking work.

28)

Which of the following is not a characteristic of human relations?

A) Good human relations means being honest.

B) Human relations includes a desire to understand others.

C) Human relations skills must be developed throughout one's life.

D) Human relations is just common sense.

29) _____ and achievement of an organization's objectives are the two goals of the study of human relations.

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A) Formulation of quick fixes for personal problems B) Personal development and growth C) Enhancement of informal communication channels D) Identification of cure-alls for organizational problems

30)

Which of the following statements is true about self-esteem?

A) Higher self-esteem improves attitude and job morale.

B) Self-esteem plays a minor role in human relations issues.

C) High self-esteem results in little energy for cultivating mutual respect.

D) Alcoholism, anxiety, and depression can result from high self-esteem.

31)

What is the importance of healthy self-esteem in a workplace?

A) It is at the core of most strategic issues in organizations.

B) It enables an individual to understand group dynamics.

C) It is important for individuals working as islands of expertise.

D) It is the key to top performance and high-quality work.

32)

Mutual respect:

A) is the knowledge of how you are being perceived by others.

B) can exist only when a person's self-esteem is stable.

C) is the process of letting other people know what you are really thinking and feeling.

D) allows individuals to know what in their own behavior is being perceived as real by other people.

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33) _____ reflects the positive side of human relations by allowing others to see what feelings and thoughts you really have.

A) Self-disclosure B) Self-awareness C) Self-esteem D) Self-efficacy

34)

Which of the following statements is true of group dynamics?

A) It is related to a variety of mental health issues, including alcoholism, anxiety, and depression.

B) It excludes the areas related to conflict management.

C) It gives an individual the power to force group members to do as instructed.

D) It is a cornerstone in the study of human relations.

35) _____ stated that management is about human beings, and its task is to make people capable of joint performance, to make their strengths effective and their weaknesses irrelevant.

A) Frederick Perls B) Abraham Maslow C) Peter Drucker D) Stephen Covey

36)

Robert Owen influenced the industrialists of the early 19th century by

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A) introducing the idea that treating workers better would increase productivity and profits.

B) publishing a book called The Philosophy of Manufacturers.

C) recognizing the importance of careful hiring and in-depth training to increase workers' productivity.

D) conducting the Hawthorne Experiment.

37)

Which of the following reforms was introduced by Robert Owen?

A) building company towns where workers would live in company houses B) suggesting that workers should have medical help, hot tea on a regular basis, good ventilation, and even sick leave C) stopping the employment of young children in his factory and encouraging his workforce to stay sober D) reducing motions involved in bricklaying to five by inventing labor-saving devices and changing workers' routines

38) In the context of Elton Mayo's study of the Hawthorne Experiment, _____ are the driving force in workers' behavior.

A) human relations issues B) punishments C) creative competencies D) ambitions

39) Which of the following reforms was suggested by Andrew Ure in his book The Philosophy of Manufacturers?

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A) The work of the people in an organization should be done in an orderly way, with only one supervisor to whom each worker must answer.

B) Workers should have medical help, hot tea on a regular basis, good ventilation, and even sick leave.

C) One should identify "one best way" to perform a task to increase the productivity and profit.

D) Managers should carefully select and train workers for specific tasks.

40)

_____ was the model suggested by Max Weber to deal with favoritism and nepotism.

A) Adhocracy B) Hierarchy of needs C) Bureaucracy D) Total Quality Management

41) Max Weber's model "bureaucracy" helped in reducing favoritism and other unfair practices by:

A) assigning specific duties and responsibilities only on the basis of talent and ability.

B) assigning multiple supervisors to whom each worker must answer.

C) advocating careful selection and in-depth training of workers to motivate them.

D) implementing rules like standard work days, relaxed and regular lunch breaks, and rest periods.

42) How did Taylor's "optimum shovel" immediately increase the productivity at an eastern steel mill?

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A) The shovel design allowed maximum work without the need for frequent rest periods.

B) The shovel reduced the motions involved from eighteen to five.

C) The shovel was discarded to create new machinery that automatized operations and reduced human work.

D) The use of a single shovel for shoveling coal into the large smelters and loading cinders into waste containers ensured an increase in productivity.

43) Which human relations movement pioneer suggested that workers be involved in decisions affecting them?

A) Lillian Gilbreth B) Robert Owen C) Mary Parker Follett D) Max Weber

44)

What did Elton Mayo discover from the Hawthorne Experiment?

A) Strong bureaucracy in the organization would make up for a worker's lack of motivation, and thus the productivity would remain high.

B) Workers performed better because someone was paying attention to them, which was more than what they were accustomed to receiving at work.

C) Managers treated workers well because they knew that the workers would be hard to replace because of the scarcity of labor.

D) Workers' productivity increased because they used the optimum shovel, which allowed them to work the whole day without taking too many breaks.

45)

In the context of McGregor's management theory, Theory X managers see workers as

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A) lacking ambition.

B) being creative.

C) being able to assume responsibility.

D) requiring rigorous training and assistance.

46) Which of the following statements forms the cornerstone of Total Quality Management (TQM)?

A) Inflexible, static rules are potentially harmful to maintaining a productive workforce.

B) It places significant emphasis on the rights and needs of the individual person.

C) It assumes that all workers are happy to work, are able to assume responsibility, and are overall quite creative.

D) The process of whatever happens in an organization is more important than the product.

47)

What are the various facets of human relations?

48)

Why is human rights considered an important reason for studying human relations?

49)

Why are human relations skills important for a manager?

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50)

How have single-parent families and divorces affected the workplace?

51) People who think that human relations is an unnecessary skill believe that "common sense will carry you through." Is this viewpoint correct?

52)

Why is self-esteem at the core of most issues in human relations?

53)

Discuss the relationship between self-esteem and mutual respect.

54)

Why is group dynamics a cornerstone in the study of human relations?

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55) Describe company towns that were constructed during the first decades of the Industrial Revolution.

56)

Why did Max Weber develop the bureaucracy model?

57)

What is Frederick Taylor best known for? Discuss his invention of the optimum shovel.

58)

Describe the two major features of Taylor's approach to increasing efficiency.

59)

How did Taylor's "optimum shovel" increase the productivity of the steel mill?

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60)

What were the Gilbreths best known for?

61)

What are the three concepts of human relations that Mary Parker Follett advocated?

62) Describe the two important discoveries made by Elton Mayo and his Harvard colleagues from their study of the Hawthorne Experiment.

63)

Describe the workplace situation in America during World War II.

64)

Differentiate between McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y managers.

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65)

What were the major changes brought about in human relations during the 1960s?

66)

Write a short note on Total Quality Management (TQM).

67) The skill or ability to work effectively through and with other people is known as human relations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) An average performer at a workplace with good human relations skills often appears better to others than other average performers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Poor human relations skills can make an otherwise able person seem like a poor performer.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

70) Successful job applicants are now sought more for their technical or occupational skills than their soft skills. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) The ability to work with people is not an essential skill in e-commerce as there is no faceto-face interaction with customers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Small businesses feel pressure to meet the high international standards of the foreign market and of the huge multinational companies that dominate the economy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Generation Y is characterized by middle-aged adults who find themselves pressed for time and finances to support their own children along with their aging parents and parents-inlaw. ⊚ ⊚

74)

true false

Human relations depends significantly on ordinary good sense and judgment. ⊚ ⊚

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75) In the workplace, the key to top performance and high-quality work is healthy selfesteem. ⊚ ⊚

76)

true false

Without trust, mutual respect is meaningless. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) If your self-esteem is too fragile, you will have little energy left for cultivating mutual respect. ⊚ ⊚

78)

true false

Self-disclosure is the knowledge of how you are being perceived by others. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) Self-awareness allows individuals to know what in their own behavior is being perceived as real by other people. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

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80) Self-disclosure promotes genuineness and closeness in your relationships with other people. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) One’s listening level in communication is less important than the ability to express ideas and concepts precisely. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) Group dynamics is defined as the positive consideration or regard that two people have for each other. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) The Philosophy of Manufacturers, written by Andrew Ure, suggested that workers should have medical help, good ventilation, and even sick leave. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) According to Max Weber, human relations problems are caused by favoritism, nepotism, and other unfair practices. ⊚ ⊚

85)

true false

Max Weber is known as the pioneer of scientific management.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Careful hiring followed by in-depth training and motivation of workers for increasing productivity are the key features of Frederick Taylor's scientific management approach. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Frederick Taylor is universally criticized as someone who cared more about the needs of workers than about production. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) One of Taylor's best-known victories was the discoveries based on the Hawthorne Studies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Mary Parker Follett identified a system of bricklaying with more than double the productivity of the old system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) From the Hawthorne Studies, Elton Mayo found that the relationships that form naturally in a workplace make up what he called the "informal organization." ⊚ ⊚

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91) The most important improvement Elton Mayo brought to human relations and management was that managers began to understand the complex needs of workers instead of seeing them mostly as people who need wages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) The Wagner Act made it illegal for employers to use scare tactics or other techniques to prevent employees from forming or joining unions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) During World War II, scarcity of jobs made many employers feel that they could "fire the problems and hire the solutions." ⊚ ⊚

94)

true false

Theory X managers see workers as happy to work and able to assume responsibility. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Eric Berne's "Transactional Analysis" was a method of understanding interpersonal communication in a workplace. ⊚ ⊚

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96) Total Quality Management (TQM) emphasized that the final product was more important than the process of creating that product. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 01 Human Relations: A Background 1) entrepreneur 2) Generation X 3) sandwich 4) Self esteem 5) Self awareness 6) Self disclosure 7) motivation 8) growth 9) Labor 10) scientific 11) optimum 12) First 13) hierarchy 14) Wagner 15) X 16) McDonaldization 17) C 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) D 25) C 26) B Version 1

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27) C 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) A 34) D 35) C 36) A 37) C 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) A 42) A 43) C 44) B 45) A 46) D 47) Answer: Human relations is the skill or ability to work effectively through and with other people. Human relations includes a desire to understand others, their needs and weaknesses, and their talents and abilities. Human relations also involves an understanding of how people work together in groups, satisfying both individual needs and group objectives. If an organization is to succeed, the relationships among the people must be monitored and maintained.

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48) Answer: Today, managers and employees have a greater awareness of the rights of employees. This awareness calls for more skillful relations among employees, using tact, trust, and diplomacy with greater skill. The rights of all others involved in the dealings of an organization must be respected and protected as well.

49) Answer: For a manager, no skill area is more important than human relations abilities. A manager with good human relations skills will retain employees longer, be more productive, and provide employees with an enjoyable environment. The most common reason for failure in the job of manager is faulty human relations skills. Because interpersonal skills are so important, experts often suggest that new managers should put as much effort into studying people as they put into developing technical skills.

50) Answer: A divorced person typically has to go through a period of emotional recovery, during which many emotional issues can form. Such issues often negatively affect job performance and attitudes, harming relationships with coworkers, bosses, and fellow employees. Besides the already-heavy burdens of single parenthood that divorced, single workers have, they are often dealing with challenging issues of selfworth and self-esteem.

51) Answer: In the area of human relations, common sense (meaning ordinary good sense and judgment) is all too uncommon. The abuses of many workers on the job today, the misunderstandings that cost thousands of companies millions of dollars every year, the unhappiness of many workers with the jobs they have: all of these factors illustrate the need for human relations—even if much of it seems like simple common sense.

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52) Answer: Psychological research has shown that lower self-esteem is related to a variety of mental health problems, including alcoholism, anxiety, and depression—all of which cause problems on the job. Higher self-esteem, on the other hand, improves attitudes, job morale, and overall quality of life. In the workplace, healthy self-esteem is the key to top performance and high-quality work—especially when the work directly affects other people.

53) Answer: Mutual respect is the positive consideration or regard that two people have for each other. It can exist only when the self-esteem of the individuals involved is stable. If the self-esteem is too fragile, the individuals will have little energy left for cultivating mutual respect.

Mutual respect is meaningless without trust. Mutual respect and trust are critically important at all levels in an organization.

54) Answer: Whenever two or more people form a relationship, there is, in effect, a group. Once a group is formed, it immediately requires understanding, planning, and organizational tactics appropriate to groups. Thus, understanding group dynamics—the ways in which groups operate—is a cornerstone in the study of human relations.

55) Answer: Company towns were settlements, owned by the company, where workers would live in company housing, buy supplies at the company-owned store, and even send their children to a school owned by the firm. Though not popular today, this setup produced happier and more loyal workers in many cases, especially when the quality of the company town was considered high.

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56) Answer: Max Weber saw human relations problems as being caused by favoritism, nepotism (playing favorites with family members), and other unfair practices. In Weber's time, most European companies were managed like extended families. Employees were loyal to a single person, rather than to the company goals or mission statement. Weber came up with the bureaucratic organizations approach, a system that was meant to be impersonal and rational. This approach reduced favoritism and many other unfair practices.

57) Answer: In the early years of the 20th century, Frederick Taylor and others began a movement called scientific management. Most people today who have heard of Taylor think of him as an industrial engineer who tried to find the "one best way" to do a job. One of Taylor's best-known victories was the invention of the optimum shovel.

At an eastern steel mill, Taylor watched men shoveling coal for the large smelters. Using the same shovel, these men would also load cinders into waste containers. After carefully studying both processes, Taylor came up with two shovels: a much larger shovel for the light cinders and an optimum shovel for the coal. This shovel was exactly the right size and weight to allow the maximum work without the need for frequent rest periods. The productivity of the steel mill rose immediately, making Taylor and scientific management both very popular.

58) Answer: Taylor's approach contained two major features: (a) Managers should carefully select and train workers for specific tasks. (b) Managers should try to motivate workers to increase productivity.

Careful hiring and in-depth training do not seem very earthshaking today, but Taylor was among the first to recognize the importance of both.

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59) Answer: One of Taylor's best-known victories was the invention of the optimum shovel. At an eastern steel mill, Taylor watched men shoveling coal for the large smelters. Using the same shovel, these men would also load cinders into waste containers. After carefully studying both processes, Taylor came up with two shovels: a much larger shovel for the light cinders and an optimum shovel for the coal. This shovel was exactly the right size and weight to allow the maximum work without the need for frequent rest periods. The productivity of the steel mill rose immediately, making Taylor and scientific management both very popular.

60) Answer: The Gilbreths became especially well-known for their research study of bricklayers. Frank Gilbreth identified 18 different motions that had been used by bricklayers, apparently for as long as people had been laying bricks. By inventing some labor-saving devices and by changing the basic routine, the Gilbreths reduced those 18 motions to 5. Lillian Gilbreth was especially interested in studying workers and their reactions to working under stressful conditions. She taught the importance of standard work days, relaxed and regular lunch breaks, and periodic rest periods. Her life's work helped influence Congress to pass child labor laws.

61) Answer: Follett taught three concepts that were ahead of their time.

First, she held that workers should be allowed to be involved in decisions affecting them. Second, she stressed that the workplace is dynamic—that is, constantly changing. She felt that inflexible, static rules were potentially harmful to maintaining a productive workforce.

Finally, Mary Parker Follett believed that the main job of managers at all levels was to maintain positive relationships with workers.

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62) Answer: Two important discoveries came from this five-year study.

First, Mayo showed that the workers at Hawthorne performed better because someone was paying attention to them. This attention was more than they had been accustomed to receiving at work, and they responded with extra motivation. Second, Mayo found that the relationships that had formed naturally in the workplace made up what he called the "informal organization." On days when a worker would not be as motivated as usual, the expectations of the group would make up the difference, and productivity would remain high.

63) Answer: With hundreds of thousands of young workers going overseas to fight, employers were forced to hire nearly anybody who would work. Managers knew their employees would be very hard to replace, so treatment of workers temporarily improved. Cases of sexism, racism, and sexual harassment, however, were all too common.

64) Answer: Theory X managers see workers as lacking ambition, disliking work, and wanting security above all else. Theory Y managers, on the other hand, see workers as happy to work, able to assume responsibility, and overall quite creative.

65) Answer: A new emphasis was placed on the rights and needs of the individual person. For the first time, it was popular in this culture to "do your own thing." Perhaps even more importantly, other people were allowed to do their own thing as well. Also new was the revolutionary attitude toward success as having to do with people, rather than just with money. Many of today's middle managers were members of an emerging youth subculture at that time, sometimes referred to as hippies.

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66) Answer: This important school of thought held that the process of whatever happens in an organization is more important than the product.

Doing away with targets, "zero defects" programs, and slogans, the Total Quality Management (TQM) people concentrated on the process— which inevitably includes people and relationships. The work that was pioneered by Elton Mayo and others became refocused with a process emphasis. People in organizations participated at work to an extent unimagined before.

67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE Version 1

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89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE

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Student name:__________ 1)

_____ includes the ideal self, looking-glass self, self-image, and real self.

2)

The _____ self is the self that you assume others see when they look at you.

3) Carl Rogers believed that in order to have a healthy _____, people need to work on making the ideal and real selves much closer.

4) Low _____ occurs when individuals are unable to see themselves as capable, sufficient, or worthy.

5) Individuals experience lower _____ when they believe they have little value to offer the world.

6) Lower _____ is associated with low job satisfaction and has even been linked to a higher likelihood of unemployment.

7) When people with a(n) _____ self-esteem tackle problems, they tend to be more objective and constructive.

8) _____ is the confidence an individual has in his or her ability to deal with problems when they occur.

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9) According to Julian Rotter, _____ comes from an interaction of individuals with their environment.

10) A(n) _____ is someone who will walk you through experiences that are new to you but that he or she has already been through.

11)

_____ is positive self-image with high self-esteem.

12)

Which of the following statements is true about self-concept?

A) It is the tendency to turn an irrational belief into an imagined disaster for yourself.

B) It is the power that is based on your attractiveness to others.

C) It is the power that depends on the threat of possible punishment.

D) It is the foundation of all your thoughts about yourself.

13)

Seeing yourself as being efficient in a particular field is an example of A) cognitive dissonance.

B) self-concept.

C) self-disclosure.

D) self-effacement.

14) Sarah's manager had given her feedback on her low performance for a particular quarter.

As a result, Sarah started thinking of herself as unprofessional and an inefficient employee. This lowered her _____, and she tended to be even less productive than before.

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A) locus of control B) self-awareness C) social competence D) self-concept

15) Which of the following would be the most constructive way of behaving if you are stuck in a vicious cycle of negative self-concept leading to negative actions and vice versa?

A) trying to analyze who started the cycle B) establishing an external locus of control C) examining ways to stop the cycle D) providing conditional positive regard

16)

How would all the four parts of the self-concept occur in a perfect world?

A) All the four parts would intersect each other.

B) All the four parts would be one single circle.

C) The real self and the looking-glass self would be separate from each other.

D) The ideal self and self-image would be distinct from each other.

17) Everyone has some notion of what he or she would like to become. This vision is known as one's A) real self.

B) looking-glass self.

C) ideal self.

D) self-image.

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18) John is an introvert and a pessimist. He hopes to become an optimist and a more sociable person someday. This happy and positive person that John wants to become is his image of A) the real self.

B) the ideal self.

C) self-image.

D) the looking-glass self.

19)

Which of the following statements is most likely to be true of the ideal self?

A) Most people create an ideal self that is unrealistic and unattainable.

B) People always have a clear picture of their ideal self.

C) For most people, the ideal self and the real self always overlap to a large extent.

D) People accurately and quickly realize when they reach their ideal self.

20)

Which of the following statements is true about conditional positive regard?

A) It leads to the realization that knowing and taking care of the "real you" is quite possible without threatening others.

B) It helps children to achieve their goals and increases their level of happiness.

C) It is an assumption of most people that others think well of them much more than is true.

D) It means parents' provision of positive regard, praise, and approval depend upon their children behaving in ways that they think are correct.

21)

Which of the following statements is true of your self-image?

A) It can be programmed by your day-to-day behavior.

B) It is not affected by the things you say to yourself.

C) It is the way you actually are when nobody is around.

D) It is the self you assume others see when they look at you.

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22)

Your _____ is the way you truly feel about yourself.

A) self-image B) ideal self C) ego D) looking-glass self

23)

Developing your self-awareness is typically a process of A) giving positive self-suggestions.

B) establishing an external locus of control.

C) assuming a more positive looking-glass self.

D) discovering your real self.

24) _____ is defined as how a person actually is when nobody is around to approve or disapprove of his or her actions.

A) The real self B) The ideal self C) The looking-glass self D) Self-image

25) In the context of self-concept, which of the following is most likely true of the lookingglass self?

A) For most people, the looking-glass self is much more negative than it deserves to be.

B) The looking-glass self is unaffected by one's view of reality.

C) The process of developing one's looking-glass self is known as "self-awareness."

D) When nobody approves or disapproves one's actions, the looking-glass self develops.

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26) In the context of Carl Rogers's theory, which of the following statements is true about self-concept?

A) The main motivation for everything you do is to get away from a deep childhoodbased feeling that you are not as good as you should be.

B) Your internal locus of control is related to both high self-esteem and good physical health.

C) Your ideal self comes from the messages you receive from your parents and people around you about what you should be like.

D) You develop internal or external explanations for control based on your experiences.

27) Danica wants to excel as a student. However, she gets a D in her midterm exam. This shows that A) Danica's real self and ideal self are not very close.

B) Danica's looking-glass self is more positive than it deserves to be.

C) Danica's ideal self and her self-image do not match.

D) Danica's looking-glass self and ideal self overlap with each other.

28) According to Carl Rogers, how can one bring the ideal self and the real self closer to develop a healthy self-concept?

A) by adjusting the real self to fit the looking-glass self B) by working up to a more realistic and attainable ideal C) by adjusting the ideal self according to the messages received from the environment D) by paying more attention to the messages about one's ideal self

29) It is sometimes uncomfortable to be around people who really do not "need" anyone to like them because most people

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A) derive their purpose from displeasing others.

B) typically receive unconditional positive regard.

C) have an internal locus of control.

D) expect others to share their need for acceptance.

30)

Which of the following best defines the term "self-efficacy"?

A) the confidence an individual has in his or her ability to deal with problems B) deciding ahead of time which tasks are the most, and least, important C) the process of letting other people know what one is really thinking and feeling D) the knowledge of how one is being perceived by others

31)

Which of the following statements is true of self-esteem?

A) It is influenced by parents and starts to develop in early childhood.

B) It is invariably the same as self-concept.

C) It is what people assume when they look at a person.

D) It is the regard individuals hold for other people.

32)

_____ is defined as the use of a strength to make up for a real or perceived weakness.

A) Compensating B) Reinforcing C) Intervention D) Assertiveness

33) Which of the following terms best describes a psychological defense mechanism people may use to reduce embarrassment, shame, anxiety, guilt, or other negative emotions that arise internally when facing unpleasant truths?

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A) filtering B) compensating C) whistleblowing D) reinforcing

34) Lena, a former sprint runner, boasts about her speed and how she had surpassed her competitors in her prime days. Though she has not been in good shape for the last few years, she continues to talk about her fitness. Lena is trying to A) pay more attention to the messages she is receiving from her environment.

B) use a self-suggestion technique to improve her self-esteem.

C) discover her real self.

D) compensate in some way for her low self-esteem.

35) People who have high self-esteem are more likely to succeed in achieving their personal goals because they A) are motivated by a need to compensate through achievement.

B) are driven by a desire to see their dreams and goals achieved.

C) focus their energies on a single strength to make up for their overall weaknesses.

D) work hard to measure up to others' achievements and goals.

36)

Which of the following is a step toward combating low self-esteem?

A) performing a surface analysis of oneself and others B) listening for the inner critic and changing one's behavior C) studying the behavior and manner of timid people D) developing an external locus of control

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37) In an organizational context, which of the following is true of people with low selfesteem?

A) They are likely to work with little enthusiasm or commitment.

B) They readily accept criticism from others in their team.

C) They are objective while tackling a problem.

D) They usually receive unconditional positive regard from their colleagues.

38)

Self-efficacy is A) the use of a single strength to make up for a real or perceived weakness.

B) an individual's vision of his or her future self.

C) the way an individual conceives or sees himself or herself.

D) the confidence an individual has in his or her ability to deal with problems.

39)

Self-esteem is A) the messages that we receive from our parents and others around us.

B) the ideal self that we have.

C) the external locus of control that we develop during our childhood.

D) the emotional problems that we need to attend to.

40)

How did Carl Rogers revolutionize the way psychologists thought of therapy?

A) He developed theories about the inferiority complex and about the compensation for feelings of deficiency compared with others.

B) He believed clients understood their own problems and experiences and that a therapist's role was that of a consultant in assisting client treatment.

C) He refined the social learning theory to say that personality comes from an interaction of the individual with his or her environment.

D) He developed the theory of the self-fulfilling prophecy.

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41)

What is unconditional positive regard?

A) the acceptance of individuals as worthy when they behave in a certain way B) the acceptance of individuals as worthy and valuable regardless of their behavior C) the attempt by parents to improve their children's behavior by comparing them with

others D) the rejection of children by their parents as inherently worthless unless otherwise proven by their behavior

42)

How does conditional positive regard affect children?

A) Children may develop an unattainable real self.

B) Children will develop an external locus of control.

C) Children reject their parents' plan for them completely.

D) Children will never try to measure up to others' standards.

43)

_____ coined the term "inferiority complex."

A) Carl Rogers B) Julian Rotter C) Eric Bern D) Alfred Adler

44)

Which of the following is the most effective self-esteem affirmation?

A) "I want to be a great success."

B) "I am responsible for my own choices."

C) "I do not like myself and anyone around me."

D) "I want to be a good person."

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45)

Which of the following is a step toward achieving high self-esteem?

A) performing a surface analysis of oneself and others B) making a list of one's greatest talents C) developing an external locus of control D) studying timid people

46)

Which of the following statements is true about excessively high self-esteem?

A) It is an accurate and complete understanding of the real self.

B) It helps resolve problems in personal relationships and in the workplace.

C) Individuals with excessively high self-esteem are humble and capable of learning from their mistakes.

D) Individuals with excessively high self-esteem are narcissistic and have a sense of entitlement.

47)

The belief that abilities can be developed with work and practice is called A) fixed mindset.

B) growth mindset.

C) self-fulfilling prophecy.

D) internal locus of control.

48)

How does one's self-concept lead to a vicious cycle?

49)

List two common mistakes people make about their ideal self.

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50)

How do the things you say affect your self-image?

51)

What happens when the ideal self and the real self are not close to each other?

52) In the context of Mary Pipher's studies, explain how media messages affect young girls growing up in America.

53)

Why is liking and accepting yourself the most important skill you can learn in life?

54)

Why do some people brag about themselves?

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55)

How does a person with high self-esteem perform at his or her workplace?

56)

Describe the two types of self-esteem.

57)

In the context of Carl Rogers's studies, explain the source of self-esteem.

58)

How does conditional positive regard affect children?

59)

Describe locus of control and differentiate between internal and external locus of control.

60) If a student who failed in an exam has an external locus of control, how would he or she respond to the failure?

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61) How does reading biographies of people you admire help you achieve higher selfesteem?

62)

How does procrastination affect an individual?

63)

Describe a mentor.

64)

What is the difference between a role model and a mentor?

65)

List the benefits of positive self-talk.

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66)

Why are self-esteem affirmations effective?

67)

What is the inner critic?

68)

List the steps that can be used for combating low self-esteem by defeating the inner critic.

69)

What are the ways in which individuals can develop a growth mindset?

70)

Self-esteem is the way you conceive of, or see, yourself. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71) To minimize the effects of the vicious cycle of negative self-concept leading to negative behavior, you must analyze who started the cycle.

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⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

The ideal self is your vision of your future self. ⊚ true ⊚ false

73) Parents who present their children with a picture of how they must act to win approval are said to hold "conditional positive regard" for their children. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74)

Self-image is the self that you assume others see when they look at you. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75)

The looking-glass self is affected by your view of reality. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76)

Self-image can be programmed by the things you say to yourself or others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

77) The process of discovering your looking-glass self is known as developing your selfawareness. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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78) Having a healthy self-concept means not allowing yourself to be a slave to other people's opinions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

79)

The real self is the only part of the self-concept that need not be discovered. ⊚ true ⊚ false

80) Self-esteem can be defined as the extent to which an individual believes him- or herself to be capable, sufficient, and worthy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81) Most people who always need to talk about their accomplishments are actually compensating in some way for an unusually high self-esteem. ⊚ true ⊚ false

82) Focusing on a single strength to compensate for overall bad feelings about oneself is a good way to build higher self-esteem. ⊚ true ⊚ false

83) People with low self-esteem can readily accept their co-workers and take criticism from others in their work teams.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

84) Children are most likely to develop a healthy self-esteem when parents show "conditional positive regard" toward them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85) According to psychologist Carl Rogers, the sense of self is a guiding principle that structures the personality. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86) During childhood, parents are the most important people among those shaping selfesteem. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) According to Alfred Adler, the main motivation for everything people do, including efforts toward a successful career, is to get away from a deep childhood-based feeling that they are not as good as they should be. ⊚ true ⊚ false

88) People with an external locus of control feel that they are in control of events in their own lives and have more of a take-charge attitude. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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89) People with an external locus of control feel that the world and events in their lives are happening to them and that they have no control over the processes or outcomes of these events. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90) When Delilah got a D grade in one of her papers, she said to herself, "I should have studied instead of watching movies all night long with my friends; I'll do better next time." From this comment, we can conclude that Delilah has an external locus of control. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91)

Putting things off for too long and not working toward goals can lower your self-esteem. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92)

The fear of pain encourages people to avoid procrastinating for too long. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93) True mentoring involves two people communicating well, one mostly teaching and the other mostly learning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

94) A role model typically acts as a guide or teacher for a person, actively interacting with the person and leading that person through experiences.

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⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

Positive self-talk is also known as the power of self-suggestion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

96) Positive self-talk means telling your subconscious mind that you are a good person and doing fine. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) "Self-fulfilling prophecy" refers to the tendency for a prediction to actually occur once it is believed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

98) While forming affirmations for positive self-talk, you should be general rather than specific. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99) Self-fulfilling prophecies can come from your "buy-in" or taking as fact the beliefs that others hold about you. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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100) The stronger or higher a person's self-esteem is, the weaker the effect other people's negative statements will have on his or her behavior. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101)

A fixed mindset promotes personal growth. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102)

A flexible mindset is the belief that talents and abilities are inborn and unchangeable. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 02 Self-Concept and Self-Esteem in Huma...

1) Self-concept 2) looking-glass 3) self-concept 4) self-esteem 5) self-worth 6) self-esteem 7) healthy 8) Self-efficacy 9) personality 10) mentor 11) Self-respect 12) D 13) B 14) D 15) C 16) B 17) C 18) B 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) A 26) C Version 1

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27) A 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) D 35) B 36) B 37) A 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) B 42) C 43) D 44) B 45) B 46) D 47) B 70) FALSE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE Version 1

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79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) TRUE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) FALSE

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Student name:__________ 1) _____ refers to the ability to see yourself realistically, without a great deal of difference between what you are and how you assume others see you.

2)

The _____ pane of the Johari Window that increases in size as a friendship develops.

3) In the context of the Johari Window, in the _____ pane, people tend to retain their parents' unspoken prejudices and attitudes.

4) In the context of the Johari Window, if you are shy or secretive, your _____ pane might be quite large.

5) The _____ pane is the pane of the Johari Window that contains everything about you that other people can see but you cannot.

6)

_____ allows people to know themselves and those around them better.

7) The level of communication with the least amount of self-disclosure, including niceties such as "Have a nice day," is called _____ conversation.

8) In the context of the levels of communication that relate to self-disclosure, in _____ communication, human relationships develop and conflicts diminish.

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9) According to John Powell's levels of self-disclosure, what you say at the level of expressing ideas and _____ is filtered through some self-censorship.

10) According to John Powell, a(n) _____ communication experience occurs in times of turmoil, great change, or self-discovery.

11) John Powell believes that silence tends to promote involvement only in _____ relationships, which have little benefit for the individual or company.

12)

Which of the following is true about the Johari Window?

A) It is a simple yet powerful model that supports information on managing the mentoring process.

B) It is a technique designed for self-understanding that illustrates the ways of relating to others.

C) It is a four-dimensional questionnaire that is used to assess distress, depression, and anxiety.

D) It is a management tool based on four behavioral dimensions that explains leadership styles.

13)

Which of the following is a pane in the Johari Window?

A) the compliance pane B) the influence pane C) the feeling pane D) the unknown pane

14)

The responses in the Johari Window panes deal with

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A) the basic psychological and safety requirements of individuals.

B) the stages of cognitive development in human beings.

C) people's understanding of themselves.

D) ulterior, crossed, and parallel transactions between people.

15)

The upper-left pane of the Johari Window is the A) blind pane.

B) open pane.

C) hidden pane.

D) unknown pane.

16)

Identify the statement that accurately describes the open pane in the Johari Window.

A) It is the pane that contains information that you know about yourself and have no reason to hide from most people.

B) It is the pane that contains everything about you that other people can see but you cannot.

C) It is the pane that contains information and feelings that you are aware of but hide from other people.

D) It is the pane that brings out unknown talents as well as forgotten experiences and possibilities.

17)

How does the open pane in the Johari Window increase in size?

A) The pane size increases by uncovering more of your repressed childhood memories.

B) The pane size increases by having cliché conversations with strangers.

C) The pane size increases with your desire to be known and understood.

D) The pane size increases as you analyze your dreams and fantasies.

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18)

Identify the statement that accurately describes the hidden pane in the Johari Window.

A) This pane contains everything about you that other people can see but you cannot.

B) This pane can hide your good qualities as well as your bad traits.

C) This pane increases in size as your friendship with a person develops.

D) This pane contains information and feelings that you are aware of but hide from other people.

19)

How can you decrease the size of your hidden pane?

A) by increasing your trust in someone B) by withholding more details about yourself C) by analyzing your dreams and fantasies D) by increasing your self-awareness

20)

The bottom-right pane in the Johari Window is the A) open pane.

B) hidden pane.

C) unknown pane.

D) blind pane.

21) In the context of the Johari Window, who among the following most likely has the biggest blind pane?

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A) John, who loves to initiate small conversations with strangers B) Abigail, who is stressed because of time constraints at her workplace C) Mary, who refuses to accept her friends' view that she doesn't give others a chance to speak in conversations D) Danny, who hides his feelings and emotions from his friends and family because of his shy nature

22) Salim's friend Eliza is a professional bird photographer. One day, Salim and Eliza go on a bird photography trip, and Eliza asks Salim to try taking pictures of a few birds with her new camera. To her surprise, Salim takes some good shots. Eliza sees great potential in Salim and encourages him to try bird photography as a hobby. Salim buys a new camera and takes up bird photography. He finds that he is pretty good at it and decides to pursue it as a profession. In the context of the Johari Window, which of the following statements is true of this scenario?

A) Eliza's feedback increased the size of Salim's open pane.

B) Eliza's feedback reduced the size of Salim's blind pane.

C) Eliza's feedback increased the size of Salim's hidden pane.

D) Eliza's feedback reduced the size of Salim's unknown pane.

23)

The blind pane can shrink when a person A) pays heed to other people's feedback.

B) engages in cliché conversations with other people.

C) reports facts about other people.

D) avoids feelings of inadequacy.

24)

What information does the unknown pane of the Johari Window contain?

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A) the traits of your personality that others can see but you cannot B) the information that you are aware of but that is unknown to others C) information that is not apparent to anyone, including yourself D) information that you are ashamed or afraid of sharing with others

25) Which of the following panes of the Johari Window emphasizes the importance of listening to feedback for self-development?

A) the open pane B) the hidden pane C) the blind pane D) the unknown pane

26)

The unknown pane is more exciting than the blind pane because A) the unknown pane contains information that you are aware of but no one else can

see.

B) increased awareness of the unknown pane can help you develop stronger bonds in your relationships.

C) the unknown pane increases your desire to be known and understood by others.

D) increased awareness of the unknown pane can help you open avenues of selfknowledge and make changes in your life.

27) With reference to the Johari Window, analyzing your dreams, fantasies, and slips of the tongue is a way of reducing the size of your A) open pane.

B) unknown pane.

C) blind pane.

D) hidden pane.

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28) When people say that someone is "real" or "seems real," they are usually saying that the person A) is good at self-disclosure.

B) has a strong desire to get along with people.

C) is good at withholding personal information.

D) derives the purpose from pleasing others.

29) Which of the following is a step to arrive at an authentic, effective style of selfdisclosure?

A) being politically correct when speaking with colleagues B) discussing elaborately religious and political ideas in groups C) speaking one's mind in critical situations D) avoiding very personal disclosures

30)

People pull back from self-disclosure because

A) it allows them to get to know themselves and others around them better.

B) they want to develop a sense of self-awareness that requires them to spend time in solitude.

C) they learn very early in life to shut away large parts of themselves in the hidden pane.

D) they are often unaware of the qualities and hidden talents they possess.

31) Identify the childhood experience that most likely results in the avoidance of selfdisclosure in adults.

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A) early teachings of the practice of solitude and high self-esteem B) poor academic performance C) punishment for showing pride or anger D) early development of an internal locus of control

32)

In the context of cliché conversation, which of the following is the purpose of niceties?

A) to acknowledge the other person's presence and to present oneself as nonthreatening B) to apply genuine self-disclosure in order to make someone understand who one really

is C) to balance the need to nurture oneself with the need to be accepted by others D) to not to be slave of other people's opinions and to do one's own thing

33)

Which of the following is a possible consequence of keeping secrets?

A) It induces a strong feeling of pride.

B) It diminishes self-respect.

C) It saves people from losing their identity.

D) It decreases the need for belongingness.

34)

According to Frederick Perls, the purpose of self-disclosure is A) to take responsibility for others' feelings.

B) to accept one's own mistakes.

C) to own one's own feelings.

D) to reject the past and look forward to the future.

35)

Which of the following is an outcome of failing to self-disclose?

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A) becoming trapped or controlled by someone else B) losing a sense of identity C) losing ownership of ideas D) being rejected or belittled

36)

Which of the following statements applies to cliché conversations?

A) They reveal one's conscious thoughts and opinions.

B) They are characterized by honest self-disclosure.

C) They may not be rewarding but are necessary.

D) They are expressed openly and happen rarely.

37)

Which of the following is an example of nonconversation?

A) "What is your credit card number?"

B) "Please tell me more about your diversified investments."

C) "Congratulations, you have won the annual state lottery!"

D) "How is your family doing?"

38) According to John Powell's levels of self-disclosure, what do two people experience during peak communications?

A) They feel apprehensive and experience a general sense of foreboding.

B) They experience relief because the other person hasn't discovered who they truly are.

C) They remain emotionally stable because it is a risk-free conversation.

D) They feel an almost perfect and mutual empathy between themselves.

39)

Which level of self-disclosure identified by John Powell represents real communication?

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A) cliché conversation B) gut-level communication C) expressing ideas and judgments D) reporting facts about others

40) Denzel and Andy are brothers. After their mother's funeral, they discuss their childhood memories and the time spent with family with each other. They talk about their fears, weaknesses, and strengths in order to understand each other's flaws and fix them. In doing so, they feel a strong sense of respect and empathy for each other. Which of the following levels of self-disclosure does this scenario represent?

A) reporting facts about one another B) peak communication C) cliché conversation D) expressing ideas and judgments

41)

Which of the following helps in clearing up assumptions and hunches about others?

A) high self-awareness B) ethical values C) societal norms D) prompt decision making

42) In the context of how awareness-related barriers impact human relations, explain why people build walls around themselves.

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43)

Briefly describe the hidden pane of the Johari Window.

44)

Why is the unknown pane more exciting than the blind pane?

45)

Briefly describe the blind pane of the Johari Window.

46) List the reasons for avoiding self-disclosure that do not allow people to develop emotionally.

47)

Describe the reasons for avoiding disclosure that stem from childhood experiences.

48)

What are the ways to achieve an authentic, effective style of self-disclosure?

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49)

List the fears that stop people from self-disclosing.

50)

How does refraining from self-disclosure waste time and energy?

51)

List the five levels of self-disclosure identified by John Powell.

52)

Why is a cliché conversation a nonconversation in the real sense?

53) Do peak communications happen regularly? Provide examples of instances that may trigger them.

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54) According to John Powell's levels of self-disclosure, briefly describe the highest level of self-disclosure.

55)

How does gut-level communication improve relationships?

56)

Explain how a gut-level conversation brings out the honesty in others.

57)

What are the steps in achieving appropriate and balanced self-disclosure?

58)

When does overdisclosure occur?

59) In the context of paying attention to differences in conversations, explain the advantages of letting the other person in a conversation take the lead.

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60) List the three suggestions offered by Dale Carnegie for moving ahead even when fear is present.

61)

How do you prepare yourself to accept the worst possible outcome?

62) People develop traits such as secrecy, dishonesty, or other defenses to prevent others from determining their true thoughts and motives. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63)

The Johari Window is used in team member evaluation in performance management. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) The Johari Window deals with two factors: people's understanding of themselves and the way they interact with others based on that level of understanding. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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65) The four panes of the Johari Window always remain the same size for all relationships and interpersonal encounters of a person. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66) The open pane of the Johari Window contains information that you know about yourself and have no reason to hide from most people. ⊚ true ⊚ false

67) An individual's open pane of the Johari Window is usually quite large when he or she interacts with a stranger for the first time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68) The hidden pane of the Johari Window contains information that you know about yourself and have no reason to hide from most people. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69) The blind pane of the Johari Window can increase in size if individuals are encouraged to look into their blind areas to a greater extent. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70) As a close relationship develops and the open pane of the Johari Window grows bigger, the hidden pane becomes smaller.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

71) The blind pane of the Johari Window contains information about yourself that nobody— yourself, your friends, or your family—can see. ⊚ true ⊚ false

72) The blind pane of the Johari Window can hide good qualities in people as well as bad traits. ⊚ true ⊚ false

73) The blind pane of the Johari Window can be very disturbing to those who choose not to believe what others say about them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74) In most cases, people withhold information in order to avoid feelings of inadequacy or to feel safe from people who might challenge them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75) In the context of self-disclosure, it is best to avoid topics such as religion, politics, or non-work-related topics in the workplace. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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76)

The failure to self-disclose can result in the wastage of time and energy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

77)

Promotion of personal growth is one of the positive by-products of self-disclosure. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78)

Failure to self-disclose may facilitate one's self-acceptance and assertiveness. ⊚ true ⊚ false

79)

When you self-disclose, you risk losing your sense of identity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

80) According to John Powell, nonconversation is a way to describe the amount of actual conversation in cliché conversation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81) Author John Powell identified five general levels of self-disclosure: cliché conversation, reporting the facts about others, expressing ideas and judgments, expressing feelings and emotions on the "gut level," and peak communication. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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82) According to John Powell, "reporting the facts about others" is the level of self-disclosure that approaches honest expression because you reveal your conscious thoughts, opinions, and theories. ⊚ true ⊚ false

83) According to John Powell's levels of self-disclosure, gut-level communication is the level at which you begin to apply genuine self-disclosure. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84) According to John Powell, if you are honest and open, peak communication can happen regularly with your friends, colleagues, and family. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85)

According to John Powell, a peak communication experience does not occur very often. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86) Making gut-level communication work for you is a key step in the process of learning to self-disclose. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) When people communicate on the gut level in work environments, it translates into greater efficiency and productivity throughout the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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88) When people operate on hunches or perceptions they have about each other, they are operating on the gut level of self-disclosure. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89) overdisclosing often happens when a person feels socially awkward and is trying to make conversation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90)

The first step in dealing with fear is to decide how to respond to it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91) One of the ways to deal with the fear of self-disclosure is to consider the worst-case scenario as a possible outcome. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 03 Self-Awareness and Self-Disclosure 1) Self-awareness 2) open 3) unknown 4) hidden 5) blind 6) Self-disclosure 7) cliché 8) gut-level 9) judgments 10) peak 11) fraudulent 12) B 13) D 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) C 26) D Version 1

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27) B 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) C 32) A 33) B 34) C 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) D 39) B 40) B 41) A 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE Version 1

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77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1)

An attitude has three parts: thoughts, _____, and actions.

2) According to psychiatrist Carl Jung, the behavior of _____ is directed to the objects in the external world.

3) A(n) _____ is information given to people either on how well they are performing a task or on how clearly they are being understood.

4) According to author David Callahan, the "_____ economy" thinking makes it more likely than in the past that students will carry their questionable behavior into the workplace after they have finished school.

5) According to the cognitive dissonance theory, the failure to confront one's own problems is a behavior known as _____.

6)

_____ is explaining one's behavior so that one feels it is correct.

7)

People from other cultures will define your values by your _____.

8)

An attitude is best described as

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A) a perception of one's expectations and ambitions.

B) an evaluation of people, ideas, issues, situations, or objects.

C) the ability to act and make decisions on one's own without any undue interference.

D) the quality of a person to persuade others to follow a particular set of values.

9)

Identify a true statement about how pessimists cope with problems.

A) They tend to conclude that solutions to their problems do not exist.

B) They recover from catastrophic events quickly.

C) They tend to have an internal locus of control.

D) They direct their behavior outward toward the people around them.

10)

In the context of the characteristics of good attitudes, the term "extravert" describes A) how much an individual likes himself or herself.

B) individuals who direct their behavior outward toward others.

C) how an individual approaches problems or difficult situations.

D) individuals who believe that fate and luck control their circumstances.

11)

A healthy self-esteem is most likely to be accompanied by a(n) A) external locus of control.

B) positive attitude.

C) pessimistic attitude.

D) conditional positive regard.

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12) Mira is a social worker. Her job is difficult, and she relies on close friends and family to help her face particularly difficult issues. She never gives up and tends to look for the positive aspects of any troublesome situation she finds herself in. In the context of David Myers' four characteristics of happy people, Mira's traits would be categorized under A) healthy self-esteem.

B) extraversion.

C) optimism.

D) personal control.

13) In the context of the characteristics of happy people, identify a true statement about people with a positive attitude.

A) They tend to be highly susceptible to health-related problems later in their lives.

B) They internalize their feelings and direct their behaviors inward.

C) They rely on luck and fate to shape the events in their life.

D) They tend to look at the bright side even in problem situations.

14)

As compared to pessimists, optimists are more likely to A) have lower immune system response.

B) deny the existence of problems in their lives.

C) have a stronger external locus of control.

D) be better at coping with their problems.

15)

Which of the following is a characteristic that most happy people have in common?

A) a challenging occupation B) a wealthy lifestyle C) a belief in destiny D) an outgoing personality

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16) Mark tends to deny that there are problems that he needs to rectify in his life. In difficult situations, Mark focuses on his negative feelings instead of solving the problem at hand. Which of the following is true of Mark?

A) Mark is a pessimist.

B) Mark is an extravert.

C) Mark has an internal locus of control.

D) Mark has Theory X assumptions.

17) Which of the following terms refers to the power people perceive they have over their destinies?

A) personal control B) instrumental values C) cognitive dissonance D) terminal values

18)

Happy people can plan and manage their time well primarily because A) they believe in luck, fate, or chance.

B) they have a very positive looking-glass self.

C) they have an internal locus of control.

D) they derive their purpose from pleasing others.

19) In the context of positive attitudes, David Myers suggests that one can improve one's overall attitude

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A) by fulfilling expectations of people around oneself.

B) by making the choice to act happy on a regular basis.

C) by accepting that luck and fate oversee one's circumstances.

D) by directing negative emotions inward.

20)

When giving attitude-improving feedback, you should A) deal with opinions rather than facts.

B) stress on the development of an external locus of control.

C) deal with descriptions rather than judgments.

D) stress on the development of an introvert temperament.

21) In the context of changing existing attitudes, when giving attitude-improving feedback to employees, one should A) describe how taking certain actions would improve overall job attitude and success within an organization.

B) encourage the employees to put personal ambition aside to achieve the company's goals.

C) provide only positive feedback and avoid giving morale-damaging negative feedback.

D) focus on making the employees understand the negative consequences of their bad attitude.

22) Gina, a customer care executive, is an introvert who prefers to keep to herself. Her attitude has negatively affected the image of her company. Gina's supervisor has decided to give her feedback on how to improve her attitude. Which of the following feedback is likely to be most effective in changing Gina's attitude?

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A) "I think you are not fit for this job."

B) "Why don't you change your attitude?"

C) "Why don't you try being more friendly with your customers?"

D) "In my opinion, you need to be more sensitive toward others and not be selfabsorbed all the time."

23) In the context of changing attitudes toward introversion, which of the following is most likely to be true of Mateo, who is an introvert?

A) He is quite comfortable in new situations and has high self-esteem.

B) He is calm and observant and needs solitude to recharge.

C) He feels more energized in a large group than in a small one.

D) He takes risks without planning and assessing the options.

24) Reyna, a manager at an accounting firm, notices that her employees do not complete the tasks assigned to them within planned time limits. Further, they are often absent for unexcused reasons. Which of the following changes to workplace conditions can Reyna make to improve her employees' job attitudes?

A) She must increase the difficulty of the tasks assigned to her employees.

B) She should penalize employees who are absent for unexcused reasons.

C) She should give employees rewards that are in line with their individual ambitions.

D) She should encourage her employees to put the organization's goals above their individual ambitions.

25)

Which of the following best describes organizational citizenship behavior?

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A) It is an attitude of willingness to go above and beyond the behaviors that are generally associated with life in the workplace.

B) It is an attitude that results from healthy self-esteem, optimism, extraversion, and personal control.

C) It is the ability of one person to influence another person in the workplace.

D) It is the tendency of a person to justify unethical behavior with excuses.

26)

Which of the following scenarios illustrates organizational citizenship behavior?

A) Irene, the CEO of Azalea Pharmaceuticals, offers monetary incentives to employees who exceed their monthly sales targets by more than 10 percent.

B) Pam, a new employee at Azalea Pharmaceuticals, agrees to a night shift position in exchange for discounts at the company store.

C) Zelda, a worker at Azalea Pharmaceuticals, helps a non-English-speaking co-worker understand the company's leave application process.

D) Earl, the new HR manager at Azalea Pharmaceuticals, suggests outsourcing the company's cafeteria operations to reduce its operational costs.

27)

_____ are the worth or importance you attach to different factors in your life.

A) Values B) Attitudes C) Perceptions D) Beliefs

28) as

A system of shared values throughout any given company or other organization is known

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A) organization harmony.

B) corporate governance.

C) corporate culture.

D) organizational behavior.

29)

Which of the following statements is true of values and attitudes?

A) Attitudes are inborn, and values are developed on the basis of observation and attitudes.

B) Attitudes are much deeper than values, and they often conflict with the latter.

C) Values and attitudes are two different names for the same set of perceptions.

D) Values affect attitudes, and values conflicts with other people involve attitude problems.

30)

Which of the following best describes values?

A) It is the evaluation of people, ideas, issues, situations, or objects.

B) It is the way people conceive or see themselves.

C) It is the worth or importance people attach to different factors in their life.

D) It is the awareness of reality, which allows people to ponder and reflect.

31) Statistics expert Daniel Yankelovich believes that _____ give Americans a certain amount of self-worth and a fairly clear idea of who they are.

A) middle-class values B) terminal values C) egocentric values D) affiliation needs

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32) According to Daniel Yankelovich, which of the following is one of the value patterns that have emerged among Americans since the early 1970s?

A) Americans now strongly value character over personality.

B) Leisure time is more valued, mostly because it has become a rarer commodity.

C) The nature of a person's paid job is less significant.

D) Americans now insist much more strongly that jobs become more impersonal.

33)

The three value areas identified by Daniel Yankelovich have created more emphasis on A) reducing individual freedom of choice.

B) a movement away from flexible work systems toward rigid work systems.

C) a desire to live more closely with nature and community.

D) the autocratic style of management.

34)

The values of _____ were most affected by radio networks.

A) generation Y B) pre–baby boomers C) baby boomers D) generation X

35)

Which of the following is an example of terminal value?

A) independence B) social respect C) responsibility D) self-control

36)

Which of the following is a difference between terminal values and instrumental values?

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A) Instrumental values are likely to maintain a high priority throughout your life, whereas terminal values are short-term goals with little significance.

B) Instrumental values are end-point ideal values, whereas terminal values are everyday action-directed values.

C) Terminal values are end-point ideal values, whereas instrumental values are everyday action-directed values.

D) Terminal values help you reach your goals, whereas instrumental values are those goals you want to reach through the terminal values.

37)

In the context of the formation of values, identify a true statement about terminal values.

A) They reflect individuals' commitment to go above and beyond the duties expected at their place of work.

B) They are related to the long-term goals that individuals want to accomplish during their lifetime.

C) They reflect how individuals prefer to behave and are based on their attitudes.

D) They are formed late in individuals' life and are based on their experiences.

38)

Which of the following is a defining feature of instrumental values?

A) They are based on your actions and attitudes.

B) They typically maintain a high priority throughout your life.

C) They are related to long-term goals.

D) They are the goals you want to achieve during your lifetime.

39) Sydney needs to pay the rent for her apartment. She also needs to buy a new laptop to work on her college thesis. She is conflicted about which action to take, as taking either action would restrict her ability to perform the other. In this scenario, Sydney's internal conflict has resulted in

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A) cognitive dissonance.

B) an internal locus of control.

C) the formation of terminal values.

D) self-actualization.

40)

Which of the following is an instrumental value?

A) family security B) equal opportunity C) an enjoyable life D) open-mindedness

41) In the context of international values, identify a value stressed by the values system of the United States.

A) tolerance for uncertainty in work B) deferential attitude toward organizational superiors C) group values over individual achievements D) acceptance of managerial instruction without question

42)

What is the importance of attitude in an individual's life?

43)

In what ways does happiness relate to attitude?

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44)

Describe the nature of an extravert.

45)

How is extraversion related to one's level of self-esteem?

46)

How do optimists and pessimists deal with problem situations?

47)

Why is hopelessness the most dangerous kind of pessimism?

48) In the context of the characteristics of positive attitudes, identify a negative outcome of happiness.

49)

What constitutes effective attitude-improving feedback?

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50)

What determines an employee's degree of job satisfaction?

51)

List the working conditions that help job attitudes.

52)

What role do values play in establishing human relations?

53)

How do values differ from attitudes?

54)

How are personal values formed?

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55)

What are tangible and intangible values?

56) According to Daniel Yankelovich, which three value patterns related to work and home life have emerged since the early 1970s?

57)

How is the Internet changing consumer behavior?

58)

What are instrumental and terminal values?

59)

In the context of values conflicts, what is cognitive dissonance?

60)

How can a person deal with interpersonal values conflicts?

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61)

What is the usual reaction of people when they experience cognitive dissonance?

62) How do views on power and authority differ between emerging countries and the United States?

63)

How should North Americans deal with less time-focused cultures?

64) Your attitudes toward people are the result of the beliefs and feelings you have about yourself and about other people. ⊚ true ⊚ false

65) Attitudes range along a scale from positive to negative and change significantly over time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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66)

Happiness is directly proportional to a person's age. ⊚ true ⊚ false

67) Positive attitude is a position resulting from healthy self-esteem, optimism, extraversion, and personal control. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68)

Feeling hopeless leads to feeling helpless, which leads to giving up. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69) People with personal control believe that they are responsible for their own situations and life events. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70) A person with a positive attitude is more likely to have an external locus of control than a person with a negative attitude. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71) Positive attitude refers to a position that results from optimism, extraversion, personal self-control, and healthy self-esteem. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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72) Marion received poor grades in a recent examination. She believes that she was unlucky.

Marion is a person with an internal locus of control. ⊚ true ⊚ false

73) When someone else controls your choices, either large or small, your happiness will probably increase. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74)

When giving attitude-improving feedback, you should deal with opinions and judgments. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75) When giving attitude-improving feedback, you should deal with facts rather than opinions, and descriptions rather than judgments. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76) The giver of feedback should try to strike a balance between negative and positive feedback. ⊚ true ⊚ false

77) Giving two negative messages for every positive one is the best way to improve a person's attitude.

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⊚ ⊚

78)

true false

Individuals satisfaction with work is directly related to their attitude. ⊚ true ⊚ false

79) When job satisfaction is very high, employees are less likely to be absent for unexcused reasons. ⊚ true ⊚ false

80)

Good working conditions are sufficient to create high job satisfaction among employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81) Organizational citizenship behavior is defined as employees fulfilling their responsibilities within the limits of the behavior generally associated with life in the workplace. ⊚ true ⊚ false

82)

Self-esteem is the worth or importance you attach to different factors in your life. ⊚ true ⊚ false

83) Value systems are frameworks people use in developing beliefs about themselves, others, and how they should be treated.

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⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

Values exist not only within individuals, but in organizations as well. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85) Conflicts between employees, as well as between managers and employees, can be based on differences in values. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86)

When people refer to attitudes, they are referring to values. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) The place and time period of the first few years of most people's lives have a great effect on the formation of values. ⊚ true ⊚ false

88)

Values usually come from a list of priorities that one is consciously aware of. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89) According to statistics expert Daniel Yankelovich's study, Americans now insist much more strongly that jobs become more impersonal.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

90)

Personal values are formed in early childhood. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91)

Widespread use of the Internet has failed to make an impact on traditional values. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92) Instrumental values are more likely to maintain a high priority throughout your life as compared to terminal values. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93)

Instrumental values help you reach your goals, while terminal values are those goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

94)

Terminal values reflect the ways you prefer to behave. ⊚ true ⊚ false

95) Values conflict commonly happens when one set of values clashes with another, and a decision has to be made very quickly. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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96)

Values conflicts often involve a clash between the individual and the group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) In a group, if you are outnumbered greatly, changing the group values is possible but very unlikely. ⊚ true ⊚ false

98)

Interpersonal and internal conflicts can result in cognitive dissonance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99) Cognitive dissonance is the stress that is caused by holding two contradictory values or beliefs at the same time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100) When people experience cognitive dissonance, they always move toward trying to make actions consistent with values and beliefs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) When you are dealing with people from other cultures, you will tend to find differences in their views of power and authority. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 04 Attitudes and Values in Human Relations 1) feelings 2) extraverts 3) feedback 4) bottom-line 5) denial 6) Self-justification 7) behavior 8) B 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) C 13) D 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) C Version 1

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27) A 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) C 37) B 38) A 39) A 40) D 41) A 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE Version 1

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79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1) Increased responsibility, opportunities for personal growth, and the ability to participate in decision making are examples of _____ rewards.

2)

Impressive titles, performance ratings, and promotions are examples of _____ rewards.

3)

_____ occurs when individuals have fulfilled their potential.

4) The _____ principle says that someone who fails to reach a higher need level will sometimes become frustrated and regress to a lower need level, and stay there for some time— perhaps forever.

5) According to McClelland's manifest needs theory, successful entrepreneurs are driven more by a high need for _____ than by the profit margin.

6) _____ refers to the use of mechanics and design techniques found in video games to motivate and engage employees in work tasks.

7) _____theory explains human behavior in terms of the results—both good and bad—that have occurred under similar conditions in the past.

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8)

_____ is the willingness to make an effort toward accomplishment.

A) Hygiene B) Motivation C) Morale D) Work ethics

9) _____ refers to the emotional weather within an organization that reflects the norms and attitudes of the organization's culture and affects worker morale, attitudes, stress levels, and communication.

A) Corporate social responsibility B) Organizational climate C) Mission statement D) Job enrichment

10)

Which of the following is true of an effective organizational climate?

A) It encourages competent and efficient completion of tasks within deadlines.

B) It promotes the Theory X management approach.

C) It does not affect productivity and job performance.

D) It is not influenced by the low morale of employees.

11)

Morale is defined as the

A) overall mood of an individual or group, based on attitudes and satisfaction.

B) desire to act upon a psychological need.

C) willingness to make an effort toward accomplishment.

D) force of need or desire to act.

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12)

Which of the following statements is true of an intrinsic reward?

A) It is the internal feeling of satisfaction one gets from one's job.

B) It intends to provide motivational incentives, including salaries and bonuses.

C) It refers to the overall mood of an individual or a group.

D) It refers to the force of need or desire to act.

13) In the context of job motivation, which of the following is an example of an extrinsic reward as a motivator?

A) variety of job activities B) longer vacations C) increased responsibility D) more job freedom

14)

Which of the following statements applies to affiliation needs?

A) They occur when individuals reach their full potential.

B) They are desired by individuals who want to control and influence other people.

C) They occur in people who are goal-oriented and take personal responsibility for success.

D) They occur in people who want to be accepted and liked by others.

15) Apart from a general sense of satisfaction from a job, which of the following rewards is an intrinsic reward that acts as a strong motivator?

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A) longer vacations B) profit-sharing programs C) variety of job activities D) preferred office furnishings

16) In the context of Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following needs are considered primary needs?

A) esteem needs B) love and belongingness needs C) physiological needs D) safety and security needs

17)

Identify the esteem need.

A) having an orderly way of life B) recognition from peers and colleagues C) acceptance from family and friends D) reaching one's full potential

18)

An assumption underlying Maslow's theory is that

A) needs that are not yet satisfied will motivate or influence a person's behavior.

B) people move around on the hierarchy ladder to meet several needs at a time.

C) the order in which one progresses through the need fulfillment stages can be different for different people.

D) someone who fails to reach a higher need level will sometimes become frustrated and regress to a lower need level.

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19)

Which of the following statements is true of Alderfer's ERG theory?

A) The theory proposes five levels of needs that people progress through during their lifetime.

B) The order in which one progress through the three stages can be different for different people.

C) A need in the hierarchy will not be a motivator until those below it are already satisfied.

D) A person who fails to reach a higher need level will not become frustrated.

20)

Which of the following is a feature of the ERG theory of motivation?

A) emotional competence inventory B) stroke economy C) hygiene factors D) frustration-regression principle

21)

Clayton Alderfer's ERG (existence, relatedness, growth) theory is based on

A) David McClelland's manifest needs theory.

B) Victor Vroom's expectancy theory.

C) Abraham Maslow's hierarchy theory.

D) Frederick Herzberg's two-factor theory.

22) Antonio, an employee of a software company, has been trying hard to get promoted for a long time. He gives up on his efforts after two years and decides to remain satisfied with earning a decent living for his family. In terms of the ERG theory of motivation, this exemplifies

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A) the frustration-regression principle.

B) the expectancy theory.

C) a low emotional intelligence quotient.

D) an internal locus of control.

23)

Identify a true statement about David McClelland's manifest needs theory of motivation.

A) Unlike some needs theories, this theory is primarily a hierarchy.

B) The theory states that all people have three basic coexisting needs.

C) This theory judges whether a particular need is better or worse than the others.

D) According to this theory, everyone has the same needs in the same amounts and combinations.

24)

Which of the following is a need described by the manifest needs theory of motivation?

A) instrumentality B) affiliation C) expectancy D) existence

25) According to David McClelland's manifest needs theory, which of the following is a characteristic of people with high achievement needs?

A) They are motivated by a fear of failure.

B) They see high-risk situations as an investment.

C) They set goals that are moderately challenging.

D) They tend to blame their nonsuccess on others.

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26) According to the manifest needs theory, which of the following is true of high achievers and low achievers?

A) People with a high need for achievement consider high-risk and no-risk situations as a waste of time.

B) People who are driven by a high need for achievement would prefer high-risk situations that have little chance of success.

C) People with a low need for achievement are motivated by the expectation of success.

D) People with a low need for achievement prefer moderate-risk situations that are more likely to guarantee success.

27)

According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, hygienes

A) include feelings of accomplishment, of worth, and of a job well done.

B) are found either within the work itself or within a worker.

C) include a person's desire to avoid unpleasant working conditions.

D) are factors that make employees feel motivated to work harder.

28)

Which of the following is an example of a hygiene factor?

A) feelings of achievement B) increased responsibility C) recognition of work D) good relations with the supervisor

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29) Sam is an experienced engineer, but he works as a draftsperson. His company has a pleasant work atmosphere. Though he is well paid, he is frustrated with his job as he does not get a sense of meaning or accomplishment. He decides to quit his job by the end of that month. In the context of Herzberg's two-factor theory, which of the following factors is missing in Sam's company?

A) hygiene factors B) motivators C) extrinsic rewards D) dissatisfiers

30) According to J. Richard Hackman and Gerg Oldham, which of the following is a factor necessary for job enrichment to be effective?

A) hygienes B) dissatisfiers C) feedback D) valence

31)

What is meant by task significance?

A) The opportunity to use numerous different skills in one's position at work B) A worker's perception of the meaningfulness of a job C) The freedom to choose one's tasks and methods of work D) A worker's perception that the task directly affects other people's work or lives

32) Richard was working with a large manufacturing company. He voluntarily left his highpaying job because he felt that the company's products were of no significance to consumers and did more damage to the environment than it helped. Which of the following factors was most likely missing in Richard's job that demotivated him?

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A) skill variety B) task significance C) autonomy D) feedback

33)

_____ refers to the freedom to choose one's tasks and methods of work.

A) Autonomy B) Task significance C) Skill variety D) Task identity

34)

Which of the following statements best describes the term instrumentality?

A) It refers to any type of work that directly affects other peoples' work or lives.

B) It refers to the likelihood that something good or bad will come from an increase in effort.

C) It refers to the value a person places on achieving a reward.

D) It refers to the degree to which an individual shows serious concentration or emotion toward a job.

35) _____ describes the likelihood that if a person tries to perform better, that will really be the result.

A) Expectancy B) Instrumentality C) Power needs D) Affiliation needs

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36) David, an employee at a manufacturing company, wanted to be promoted to the post of supervisor. His company offered an incentive of a weeklong fishing trip for high performers.

This did not motivate David to perform well. This happened because the reward lacked

A) expectancy.

B) instrumentality.

C) valence.

D) autonomy.

37)

_____ is the value a person places on a reward.

A) Expectancy B) Instrumentality C) Valence D) Reinforcement

38)

Which of the following is an effective way of behavior modification?

A) informing an employee immediately of the behavior one does not like B) ignoring the behavior one does not like, hoping the employee will change C) rewarding the behavior one likes and ignoring the behavior one does not like D) giving freedom to the employees to identify their weaknesses and strengths

39) In the context of the reinforcement theory and behavior modification, which of the following is an example of an effective reinforcer in a workplace?

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A) employees from similar backgrounds B) a strong work ethic C) public posting of performance ratings D) social value of work and community roles

40)

Which of the following is a criticism against behavior modification theory?

A) It provides a reward or recognition for an effort or a job well done.

B) It manipulates people into doing what the reinforcer wants them to do.

C) It makes people move through the needs stages faster than they want to.

D) It shapes and molds people by making them feel that their dignity is threatened.

41)

What is organizational climate?

42)

What are the benefits of an effective climate within an organization?

43)

What are some common techniques to show appreciation in the workplace?

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44)

List the assumptions of Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory of motivation.

45)

What are the ways in which individuals can increase their self-actualization ?

46)

List and describe the three needs of Clayton Alderfer's ERG theory.

47)

How does ERG theory differ from Maslow's theory?

48)

How does McClelland describe a person with a high power need?

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49) According to David McClelland's manifest needs theory, what are the features of a person with high achievement needs?

50) In the context of Herzberg's two-factor theory, why are hygiene factors called dissatisfiers?

51)

What is job enrichment?

52)

What is task identity?

53)

What role does feedback play in job enrichment?

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54)

Briefly describe the expectancy theory developed by Victor Vroom.

55)

According to the expectancy theory, what is instrumentality?

56)

What was Skinner's belief about behavior modification?

57) According to the reinforcement theory, what kind of rewards should a manager use when trying to motivate employees?

58) List four suggestions on how organizations can increase employees' commitment to goals.

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59) According to the reinforcement theory, why is choosing the right type of reward important?

60)

Explain a criticism against behavior modification model.

61)

How is self-esteem related to job performance?

62)

Briefly describe the relationship between motivation and self-esteem.

63) To be truly motivated means feeling a desire to do whatever task needs to be accomplished to reach a goal or purpose. ⊚ ⊚

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64)

A good organizational climate is limited to people getting along well. ⊚ ⊚

65)

true false

To increase productivity in an organization, job morale has to be sacrificed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) An effective organizational climate allows people to work to their full potential without becoming a threat to others. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Allowing employees to have opportunities to suggest changes in an organization affects organizational climate. rev: 09_26_2018_QC_CS-140363 ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) In the context of work motivation, extrinsic factors often provide more powerful motives than intrinsic factors do. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

16

69)

Working does not allow one to satisfy one's intrinsic motives. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

Economic need is the primary motivator toward work. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Millennials and Generation Z are more likely to quit their jobs for intrinsic reasons than for extrinsic reasons. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) The amount of creativity allowed, the degree of responsibility, and the satisfaction of helping others are the extrinsic motivators of a job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory of motivation assumes that when a need has been satisfied, it will no longer motivate a person's behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory of motivation, people tend to satisfy their needs in a certain order: physiological needs, safety and security, belongingness and love, esteem, and finally, self-actualization.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

75) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory of motivation, esteem needs include recognition from peers and colleagues. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) In the context of Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, new employees are more likely to be working to meet esteem needs, while more established senior employees are likely motivated by security and safety needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) In terms of increasing one's self-actualization, Maslow suggested that whenever possible, one should choose growth rather than safety or security. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78)

Alderfer's ERG theory of motivation has only two areas: existence and growth. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) For managers, Maslow's main lesson on motivation is to notice the needs level of employees. ⊚ ⊚

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80) According to ERG theory, relatedness needs are the more internal esteem needs that we all have, along with what Maslow called self-actualization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Expectancy, reinforcement, and gamification are the main concepts of Clayton Alderfer's ERG theory. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

McClelland's manifest needs theory of motivation has a hierarchy of needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) According to McClelland, a manager without a need for power will generally be less effective than one with a strong power need. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) McClelland believed that someone with a strong affiliation need will generally make the best manager. ⊚ ⊚

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85) According to David McClelland's manifest needs theory, a person who has a strong need for achievement wants to control and influence other people. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) According to David McClelland, a person with a strong power need is competitive, wants to win, and likes conflict. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) People with a high achievement need are attracted to careers such as sales and business ownership. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) When people with high achievement needs fail, they place blame on others, on bad luck, or on fate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) According to McClelland, the three manifest needs are factors that people are simply born with. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, hygienes are factors connected with a job that make working there better.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

91) Hygienes are qualities in the workplace, such as company policies and job security, which are outside the job itself. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) In the context of expectancy theory, when a manager is attempting to motivate an employee, only extrinsic factors should be calculated. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Negative reinforcement has fewer unwanted side effects, and therefore, it is more effective that positive reinforcement . ⊚ ⊚

94)

true false

A manager trying to motivate employees should not use frequent praise. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Setting specific goals that are moderately difficult is effective in reaching higher performance levels. ⊚ ⊚

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96)

High self-esteem is the greatest motivator of all. ⊚ ⊚

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22

Answer Key Test name: Chapter 05 Motivation: Increasing Productivity 1) intrinsic 2) extrinsic 3) Self-actualization 4) frustration-regression 5) achievement 6) Gamification 7) Reinforcement 8) B 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) B 14) D 15) C 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) B 25) C 26) A Version 1

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27) C 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) B 33) A 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) C 38) C 39) C 40) B 41) Answer: Organizational climate refers to the emotional weather within an organization that reflects the norms and attitudes of the organization's culture and that affects worker morale, attitudes, stress levels, and communication.

42) Answer: An effective climate allows people to work to their full potential without becoming a threat to others. It encourages competent and rapid completion of tasks. It also allows employees to feel comfortable: employees in a positive and comfortable work climate can be themselves without feeling threatened.

43) Answer: People with a strong work ethic believe that not working is somewhat immoral and lazy. The work ethic is a belief that people have a moral obligation to be productive and avoid being idle.

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44) Answer: Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory of motivation makes the following assumptions: 1. Needs that are not yet satisfied will motivate or influence a person's behavior.

2. When a need has been satisfied, it will no longer motivate the person's behavior.

3. Needs are arranged by order of importance.

4. A need in the hierarchy will not be a motivator until those below it are already satisfied.

46) Answer: Alderfer's theory has three levels: existence, relatedness, and growth.

1. Existence needs are the needs that have to do with making one's way in life in a physical sense. A person's physical well-being as a human is the issue.

2. Relatedness needs refer to what Abraham Maslow called "belongingness" needs and the part of esteem needs that are external, or socially fulfilling.

3. Growth needs are the more internal esteem needs that all people have, along with what Maslow called self-actualization.

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47) Answer: ERG theory presents three very important differences from Maslow's famous "hierarchy." First, unlike Maslow's theory that includes the same order of progression for all people, ERG theory teaches that the order in which you progress through the three stages can be different for different people. This makes the theory more flexible and more generally useful. Second, some people can even approach these needs steps simultaneously, in other words, some people might be progressing in all three need areas at the same time. Most important, ERG theory features the frustration-regression principle. According to this principle, someone who fails to reach a higher need level will sometimes become frustrated and regress (go back) to a lower need level, and stay there for some time—perhaps forever.

48) Answer: According to McClelland, a manager without a need for power will generally be less effective than one with a strong power need.

A person who has a strong need for power wants to control and influence other people. This person is also competitive and wants to win.

This type of person also usually likes conflict—even confronting others and being confronted.

49) Answer: A person with a high need for achievement is usually very goal oriented, has a high energy level, and wants to take personal responsibility for achievements. This type of person tends to be attracted to careers such as sales and business ownership and likes to have some type of concrete feedback on how much he or she is achieving. If the work doesn't contain enough challenges, he or she will find a challenge elsewhere.

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50) Answer: Hygienes are factors connected with a job that make working there better. They are factors that workers don't want to go without. If someone were to take any of them away, workers would be unhappy—even to the point of quitting the job. However, even though people feel that way about them, hygienes—in themselves—do not motivate. According to Herzberg, factors such as these will keep workers from becoming dissatisfied; for that reason they are also called dissatisfiers.

51) Answer: Job enrichment refers to upgrading a job that makes it more interesting, meaningful, or rewarding, and it provides long-term motivation.

52) Answer: Task identity refers to the worker's perception of the meaningfulness of a job, often based upon the worker's permission to start a job and see it through to completion.

53) Answer: When a job allows individuals to know how well they are performing, the job is enriched considerably. No matter how much autonomy a worker has, feedback is still essential. Knowing results of one's work can help someone who has some autonomy decide which tasks to emphasize.

54) Answer: In the 1960s, Victor Vroom originally developed the expectancy theory to explain human behavior in terms of people's goals and choices and the expectation that goals will be reached. Its main concepts are expectancy, instrumentality, and valence.

55) Answer: Instrumentality refers to the likelihood that something good or bad will come from an increase in effort. High instrumentality also implies trust in one's company and its managers.

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56) Answer: Skinner believed that one can help shape and mold people without making them feel that their freedom and dignity are threatened.

The method consists of positive reinforcement: reward the behavior that one likes, and ignore the behavior that one does not like. Punishment can be very effective in changing someone's behavior, but this theory teaches that punishment has so many negative side effects that it will usually backfire on the manager. Positive reinforcement can be just as effective as negative reinforcement, and it has fewer unwanted side effects.

57) Answer: A manager trying to motivate employees should use sincere and frequent praise, letters of commendation, and other forms of recognition. To be effective, rewards must be given as soon as the desired behavior has happened. Even negative comments, if a manager must use them, can be reinforcing when carefully worded and told to an employee in a timely way.

58) Answer: Organizations can increase their employees' commitment to goals when they follow these four suggestions: 1. Have employees participate in the goal-setting process 2. Make goals challenging but attainable, specific, and attractive 3. Provide feedback on how the employees are doing in meeting the goals 4. Reward employees for reaching their goals 59) Answer: Choosing the right type of reward is important because reinforcement theory requires giving rewards that are valuable to the person getting them. As in some of the other theories, there must be a direct cause and effect between the reward and the action it is rewarding for that value to be effective.

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60) Answer: A criticism of behavior modification model is that some people see it as unfeeling and inhumane because it manipulates people into doing what the reinforcer wants them to do; others see it as bribery.

61) Answer: There are two ways that self-esteem ties in with overall performance on the job. First, if the job calls for creativity in decision making, low self-esteem may keep an individual from making risky decisions. Mediocre decisions might be made instead of exciting and challenging ones. Second, a person with low self-esteem may perform at exactly the level where others expect performance to be, so as not to threaten others' values.

62) Answer: As studies of motivational theories show, the desire to feel better about oneself is a main motivator in the workplace. In the same way, one is also motivated not to perform tasks that threaten one's selfesteem. This attempt to maintain self-esteem on the job is important in understanding one's motivation to do a task at all.

63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE Version 1

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77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) FALSE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1) _____ can be defined as the giving and receiving of ideas, feelings, and information among people.

2)

In communication, a(n) _____ is a point of reference, a place from which to begin.

3) In the context of gestures, the peace sign used by war protesters in the 1960s is an example of a(n) _____.

4) _____ communication is defined as messages that are communicated according to an organization's chain of command by flowing both upward and downward.

5)

Identify an accurate statement about communication.

A) Informal communication includes written accounts.

B) Listening and speaking constitute communication.

C) Nonverbal expressions should ideally be avoided in a formal communication.

D) Effective communication involves the use of red flag words.

6)

Which of the following is the most difficult job skill to teach an employee?

A) the ability to communicate well with others in a professional role B) the ability to delegate tasks to subordinates effectively in different roles C) corporate etiquette and mannerisms D) standard work procedures and techniques

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7) While having dinner with his friends in a crowded restaurant, Michael consciously ignores the noise around him. He makes an attempt to pay attention to his friends' discussions. In doing so, Michael is engaging in A) groupthink.

B) cognitive dissonance.

C) vertical communication.

D) selective listening.

8)

Identify an accurate statement about selective listening.

A) The listener intentionally chooses what he or she wants to hear.

B) It is the primary cause of information overload.

C) It is a probing strategy used by listeners to extract as much information as possible from speakers.

D) The listener is directed to a particular source by a moderator who mediates a conversation.

9)

Selective listening is justifiable when

A) the listener assumes that a subject is too difficult or easy to understand.

B) the listener wants something to be true so badly that he or she interprets the message to make it true.

C) the listener is overwhelmed with incoming information and has to decide which information will be processed and remembered.

D) the listener refuses to listen to other people due to prejudice.

10) Musa works as a supervisor at a local supermarket. He receives messages from his subordinates and superiors on a daily basis. He often finds himself being overwhelmed with the amount of data he has to process to create reports, and he fails to distinguish between the relevant and irrelevant parts. In this scenario, Musa is experiencing

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A) information overload.

B) cognitive dissonance.

C) content conflict.

D) dysfunctional conflict.

11)

The Ebbinghaus curve of forgetting shows that

A) an individual remembers less than half of what he or she has heard after an hour and about one-fourth after two months.

B) formal messages are remembered by an audience for a longer duration of time than informal messages.

C) verbal communication is remembered for a longer duration of time than nonverbal communication.

D) an individual remembers 80 percent of the information he or she has heard after an hour of receiving it.

12) In business meetings or conferences, individuals in the audience often allow their minds to wander because A) a big part of the message being delivered is understood through the speaker's nonverbal cues.

B) the human mind has a habitual inclination to indulge in selective listening and filter messages subconsciously.

C) most humans have a capacity for listening at a speed that far exceeds the ability of the fastest speaker.

D) the relatability of the message is low for the audience.

13)

Which of the following statements is true about red flag words?

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A) They are the core subject matter of a message.

B) They are used to enhance the meaning of a message.

C) They have implied meanings that are beyond their literal meaning.

D) They are used in written communication to mislead the reader.

14) According to listening expert Anthony Allesandra, which of the following is a major cause that underlies most poor listening habits?

A) Most people are trained to use red flag words to bring out a strong emotional response from the listener.

B) In modern society, everyone is constantly bombarded with messages, and no one can possibly give full attention to every message.

C) Most people are taught from childhood that talking requires energy, attention, and organization, but listening is a passive behavior.

D) Most people hear only what they want to hear because of their low self-esteem.

15) According to Anthony Allesandra, which of the following skills should be taught in schools to improve people's ability to listen?

A) selective listening B) active listening C) filtering D) nonverbal communication

16)

_____ refers to the emotional readiness of a listener to hear a message.

A) Emotional steadiness B) Emotional dissonance C) Emotional timing D) Emotional quotient

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17) Sasha, a supervisor at a manufacturing company, is in a bad mood due to quality-related issues in the organization. One of her subordinates asks her for a day's leave. Sasha refuses to listen to the subordinate's reason for the leave and rejects the request. Sasha's failure to listen to the message effectively is most likely a result of her poor A) relevance timing.

B) concept of self-esteem.

C) selective listening skills.

D) emotional timing.

18)

Which of the following best describes situational timing?

A) It refers to a listener's situation when a message is received.

B) It refers to the emotional readiness of a listener to hear a message.

C) It is a method listeners use to hear only what they want to hear in a given situation.

D) It means that communication should fit the other topics being discussed in a particular situation.

19) When Jack proposed a business idea to his boss in a crowded elevator, his boss just nodded his head and then forgot all about the idea. Jack's idea did not receive the response he had expected because of A) information overload.

B) cognitive dissonance.

C) bad situational timing.

D) poor filtering.

20) When Caira joined her friends for lunch at their favorite restaurant, they were excitedly talking about a movie that had released the week before. Caira suddenly shifted the discussion to office politics. None of her friends responded well to this and were annoyed as their discussion was abruptly brought to an end. What could be the most likely reason for this reaction?

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A) Caira's poor emotional timing B) Caira's poor relevance timing C) Caira's poor selective listening D) Caira's cognitive dissonance

21)

People typically filter the messages they receive because

A) they have a capacity for listening at a speed that far exceeds the ability of the fastest speaker.

B) they are overwhelmed with incoming information and have to decide which information will be remembered and processed.

C) they cannot give full attention to every message due to information overload.

D) sometimes they want something to be true so badly that they interpret the message to make it true.

22) During her performance appraisal meeting, Melissa's manager appreciated that she was being proactive. However, she was also advised to improve her interpersonal skills. The negative part of the appraisal was threatening to Melissa's self-esteem. Therefore, she chose to hear and retain only the good part. When her colleagues asked her about her performance, she stated that it was great and everything went well. This is an example of A) behavior modification.

B) cognitive dissonance.

C) filtering.

D) distancing.

23)

Identify a true statement about nonverbal communication.

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A) It is the most effective way of conveying a message.

B) It is displayed through the body language of a speaker.

C) It includes written communication.

D) It is a nonessential component of grapevine communication.

24)

Which of the following is an example of nonverbal communication?

A) gestures B) emails C) letters D) grapevine

25)

Which of the following is a type of gesture?

A) prosody B) intonation C) syntax D) illustrator

26)

Which of the following best defines illustrators?

A) gestures that are used to control the flow of communication B) gestures that are used like nonverbal punctuation marks C) gestures that are used to clarify a point D) gestures that are used in a specific manner because they have a specific meaning

27)

Which of the following is an example of a regulator gesture?

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A) pointing the way down the street when giving directions B) raising a hand in a class to get the instructor's attention C) pounding one's fist on a table D) peace signs used by war protesters

28) Which of the following gestures is used in a specific manner because it has a specific meaning?

A) an illustrator B) a regulator C) a display D) an emblem

29) The distance of physical space that you maintain between other people and yourself is known as A) proxemics.

B) chronemics.

C) kinesics.

D) haptics.

30)

In the context of proxemics, Americans typically preserve the first bubble of space for A) romantic partners.

B) close friends.

C) family members.

D) business contacts.

31)

Which of the following best defines a grapevine?

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A) messages that are communicated between you and your equals in a formal organization B) a network within an organization that communicates incomplete but somewhat accurate information C) a gossip network in an organization that produces mostly false information D) messages that are communicated in keeping with an organization's chain of command by flowing both upward and downward

32)

Which of the following is indicated by a slow rate of speech?

A) seriousness B) excitement C) nervousness D) urgency

33) Which of the following is considered appropriate in many Middle-Eastern and Asian cultures?

A) coming on strong in initial meetings B) tucking the feet underneath when sitting on the floor C) maintaining a large amount of space between oneself and others during communication D) using the index finger to point out people

34)

Which of the following countries is considered a high-context culture?

A) Japan B) Germany C) Switzerland D) United States

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35)

Why is communication important at work?

36)

Why is the need to be heard and understood crucial to human relations?

37)

Why do people practice selective listening?

38)

How do bad communication habits lead to poor listening?

39)

How do red flag words affect listening?

40)

What are the ways in which an individual can be an active listener?

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41)

How does poor situational timing affect communication?

42)

List the four functions of nonverbal communication.

43)

How does nonverbal communication clarify verbal messages?

44)

In the context of nonverbal communication, define the term "intensity."

45)

In the context of gestures, define displays.

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46) In the context of proxemics, describe the various bubbles of space that most people carry around themselves.

47)

What are vertical communication channels in organizations?

48)

What are informal organizations?

49)

In the context of organizational communication, what is a grapevine?

50)

How is a grapevine different from a rumor mill?

51)

Briefly describe one of the most important characteristics of a grapevine.

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52)

How is the grapevine important to organizations?

53)

List a characteristic of a low-context culture.

54) List some actions you can take while interacting with businesspeople from high-context cultures.

55)

The ability to communicate well on the job is an important job skill for employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56)

The personalization and "tone" of messages can get lost in brief e-mail or text messages. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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57) Offline communication is an essential business tool for internal and external communication. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58) Selective listening is a type of listening that occurs when a listener deliberately chooses to what he or she wants to pay attention. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59)

Information overload is one of the fallouts of selective listening. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) In the context of tuning out messages for communication, red flag words usually bring out an immediate, negative emotional response from a listener. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) In the contexts of effective listening, the process of doing business can be badly hampered by prejudice. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62)

Some red flag words can have implied meanings beyond their literal meaning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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63)

Active listening involves a high tolerance for distractions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) A major cause that underlies poor listening habits is that most people are taught from childhood that listening requires energy, attention, and organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

65)

Timing can be a major factor when a message becomes distorted and misunderstood. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66)

Emotional timing refers to the emotional quotient of a listener. ⊚ true ⊚ false

67)

Situational timing refers to the emotional readiness of a listener to hear a message. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68)

Bad situational timing can ruin an otherwise good business undertaking. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69)

Relevance timing means that communication should fit the other topics being discussed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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70) Filtering works in two ways: it reflects what a person decides to hear and what he or she decides to say. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71) When listeners engage in filtering, they receive messages correctly because they filter out the noise involved in the communication process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

72)

Written communication is a method of delivering nonverbal messages. ⊚ true ⊚ false

73) Verbal communication is communication that allows individuals to understand and interpret meaning in context. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74) Nonverbal communication includes an individual's dressing sense and utilization of gestures. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75)

Much of what a person communicates is done unconsciously. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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76)

When you communicate unconsciously, your internal climate is likely to give you away. ⊚ true ⊚ false

77)

While greeting a person, variations in facial expression rarely carry any significance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78) Your self-esteem level is indicated by the verbal mode of communication and not nonverbal communication signals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

79)

Illustrators are the gestures used to control the flow of communication. ⊚ true ⊚ false

80)

Displays involve facial expressions and general body movements. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81)

Intensity is the degree to which an individual shows a lack of concentration or emotion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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82)

In the context of proxemics, Americans reserve the third bubble for close friends. ⊚ true ⊚ false

83) In the United States, 18 inches to 4 feet is the accepted distance when communicating with business associates and casual acquaintances. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84) Horizontal messages are the messages that need to go through a chain of command in an organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85)

The grapevine is best described as a gossip network that produces false information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86) Organizational communication has both formal and informal dimensions and travels vertically and horizontally. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) Vertical communication are messages between individuals and their equals in the formal organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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88)

The use of red flag words while speaking most often leads to miscommunication. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89) In a high-context culture, one must be very careful about cultural norms and nonverbal behaviors on both sides during communication. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90)

People in high-context cultures need to know how to put you into context. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 06 Communication and Human Relations 1) Communication 2) context 3) emblem 4) Vertical 5) B 6) A 7) D 8) A 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) D 26) C Version 1

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27) B 28) D 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) B 34) A 55) TRUE 56) TRUE 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE Version 1

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77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1) The term _____ is commonly used to describe the relationship among employees with different skill sets who work together to create value for a business or organization.

2) Through conscious effort, a manager can build a team of employees who will function as a unit and achieve group goals. Such a group is known as a(n) _____ team.

3) _____ is a type of well-intended, warped thinking that results from groups "getting along too well."

4)

_____ leaders have both concern for people and concern for getting the job done.

5)

_____ power is based on the attractiveness a person has to others.

6)

_____ means remaining predictable and fair.

7)

Which of the following teams is an example of short-term team?

A) human resources team B) executive leadership team C) training or on-boarding team D) brand building team

8)

Which of the following teams is an example of long-term team?

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A) on-boarding team B) marketing team C) training team D) office events management team

9)

Which of the following occurs during the forming stage of team development?

A) The team leader and group come to an agreement regarding procedures and norms.

B) Team members try to observe how the team as a whole will respond to differences.

C) Team members begin to appreciate the value other members bring to the team.

D) The team leader stops being involved in decision-making processes.

10)

Which of the following occurs during the storming stage of team development?

A) The focus of the team's energy is on defining protocols for the team.

B) Team members compete with each other for the acceptance of their ideas.

C) Team members are anxious and uncertain about their place in the team.

D) The team makes most decisions without relying on the inputs of the team leader.

11) In which of the following stages does the collective team's goals, processes, and mission take precedence over individual goals and motivations?

A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing

12)

Which of the following occurs during the performing stage of team development?

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A) Team members feel satisfied with how the team operates.

B) Members reach their goals, or they complete their mission.

C) Team members start work effectively as a team.

D) The team leader and group agree on norms and procedures.

13)

Successful teams may remain indefinitely in the A) forming stage.

B) storming stage.

C) norming stage.

D) performing stage.

14) In which of the following stages involves the team's evaluation of its work to ascertain best practices for the future?

A) storming B) norming C) adjourning D) performing

15)

Which of the following is a defining characteristic of work teams?

A) They lead to increased income of the employees.

B) They lead to increased job satisfaction.

C) They lead to duplication of work.

D) They challenge an individual's expertise or abilities.

16)

Which of the following steps is likely to help build an effective team?

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A) encouraging the team members to practice groupthink B) building the trust of the team members C) promoting ethnocentrism among the team members D) rewarding people who engage in flattery

17)

Which of the following statements is true about status?

A) It comes from a variety of different sources.

B) It is the ability of an individual to avoid pressure or rejection by the rest of the group.

C) It is the control of an individual over groupthink.

D) It can kill creativity and discourage people from saying what is really on their minds.

18)

Which of the following is a reason for conformity in a group?

A) a desire to fulfill secret wishes that team members do not share with the team B) a desire to meet the team's shared objectives C) its tendency to lead to a groupthink D) its potential to lead to healthy conflicts

19)

Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with conformity?

A) group process B) cognitive dissonance C) groupthink D) hidden agenda

20)

Which of the following will be most effective in improving team effectiveness?

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A) encouraging the practice of flattery B) incorporating autocratic leadership C) encouraging groupthink D) changing ineffective norms

21)

Which of the following best describes hidden agendas?

A) individual members' secret agendas that are indirectly in line with a group objective B) discreet agendas, whose fulfillment lead to accomplishment of the group objective C) norms that a group member discreetly conforms to but opposes publicly D) individual members' secret wishes, hopes, desires, and assumptions that are hidden from their group

22)

Leadership is best defined as the ability to A) network and look good to others.

B) persuade a group to make its agenda fit the leader's own.

C) influence people toward the attainment of goals.

D) interact with other members of the group on either an individual or network basis.

23) _____ will often spend a great deal of time and energy discussing with followers to get information about what decisions should be made for the good of the organization.

A) Autocratic leaders B) Consultative leaders C) Participative leaders D) Free-rein leaders

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24) Dr. Haynes was a college president who would openly tell the members of the faculty and staff that he would "give them the world" if they would implement his policies without complaint. Everyone who worked at the college knew that if they openly disagreed with Dr. Haynes, they would be placed on his "blacklist." Dr. Haynes best exemplified a(n) A) consultative leader.

B) participative leader.

C) autocratic leader.

D) free-rein leader.

25)

The similarity between an autocratic and a consultative leader is that both types of leaders A) spend a great deal of time and energy getting information from followers.

B) are good listeners.

C) delegate certain tasks to their subordinates.

D) are solely responsible for making the final decisions.

26) In the context of various leadership styles, musicians in large orchestras can most likely expect a(n) A) free-rein leadership style.

B) autocratic leadership style.

C) consultative leadership style.

D) participative leadership style.

27)

Which of the following is a defining characteristic of laissez-faire leaders?

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A) These leaders are not comfortable delegating authority and take sole responsibility for their decisions.

B) These leaders make it very clear that they are in charge, and their followers usually have little or no freedom to disagree or to disobey.

C) These leaders consult with followers to get information about organizational decisions, but they take sole responsibility for the final decisions.

D) These leaders act as representatives for the group members, while allowing them to plan, control, and complete their tasks as they wish.

28) Which of the following power sources comes from a user's ability to control or influence others with something of value to them, such as praise or a promotion?

A) expert power B) reward power C) networking power D) charismatic power

29)

Which type of power is typically used to enforce policies and regulations?

A) coercive power B) expert power C) charismatic power D) networking power

30)

Which of the following sources of power is sometimes also called "connection power"?

A) networking power B) charismatic power C) expert power D) coercive power

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31)

_____ is primarily based not on what you know, but who you know in the organization.

A) Expert power B) Legitimate power C) Networking power D) Charismatic power

32)

Perception, structure, and interaction are part of A) culture stories.

B) corporate culture.

C) organizational climate.

D) psychological contract.

33)

_____ is the system of shared values in an organization.

A) Hidden agenda B) Group dynamics C) Corporate culture D) Valence

34) A way of describing the extent to which managers and others are truly willing to put the shared values and expectations of a culture into action is known as A) justice.

B) influence.

C) integrity.

D) equity.

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35) In the context of measuring the fairness level of an organization, _____ means that the reward must fit the achievement and that the punishment must fit the crime.

A) justice B) influence C) equity D) respect

36) In the context of measuring the fairness level of an organization, which of the following factors allows each member of the organization to have a stake in a wide range of activities, including goal setting, problem solving, and helping to make changes?

A) integrity B) influence C) respect D) expectations

37)

Which of the following is the basis of all fairness?

A) justice B) respect C) equity D) integrity

38)

Which of the following is true about psychological contract?

A) It is based on the principle of fairness.

B) It is based on the principle of authority.

C) It is an oral agreement between people.

D) It is a written agreement between people.

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39)

Define a group.

40)

Discuss the adjourning stage of team development.

41)

What is a work team?

42)

Explain the advantages of work teams.

43)

What are some of the ways to ensure that a meeting runs smoothly?

44)

What is conformity? Why do groups conform?

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45)

What is status? What are the sources of status?

46)

How does the degree of status acceptance of a group member affect a group?

47)

List three solutions for removing group effectiveness barriers.

48)

What is leadership?

49)

Elaborate on the free-rein style of leadership.

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50)

What type of a follower does a free-rein leader require in order to be successful?

51)

How is power different from authority?

52)

How does a follower's response to power determine its effectiveness?

53)

What is the source of legitimate power?

54)

When is coercive power used?

55)

Describe expert power.

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56)

What are the major qualities of organizational climate?

57)

How does a manager affect the organizational climate?

58)

What are culture stories?

59) Discuss some of the commonly accepted qualities that an organizational or corporate culture should have.

60) Discuss some of the main factors that shape the overall fairness of an organization, and in turn shape that organization's climate.

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61) Groups can connect individuals with new people from different backgrounds and experiences and can make them feel welcomed and accepted. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) Positive interaction, trust, and sense of fulfillment are the characteristics of a healthy setting for teams. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) Building a successful team in the workplace is a passive process that takes place instantly. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) When a team is committed to a constant evaluation of its effectiveness, its effectiveness is increased. ⊚ true ⊚ false

65)

In the forming stage, little is accomplished by way of tasks. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66)

In the storming stage, the team starts to come together and work effectively as a team. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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67)

Norming is the third stage of team development. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68)

Most of the teams make it to the performing stage. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69)

The fourth stage in Tuckman's stages of team development is the adjourning stage. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70)

Every team need not go through the storming stage. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71)

The adjourning stage is considered the termination phase for most teams. ⊚ true ⊚ false

72)

Effective communication is one of the critical factors in team productivity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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73) Building a work team requires efforts from everyone involved and usually takes quite a bit of time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74)

Work teams reduce employees' chances to have a say in their jobs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75)

Establishing goals is the first step in creating a team. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76) One reason members of teams conform is to avoid pressure or rejection by the rest of the team. ⊚ true ⊚ false

77) Too much of conformity can kill creativity and discourage people from saying what is really on their minds. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78)

A norm is a standard of behavior expected of group members. ⊚ true ⊚ false

79)

Groupthink is an advantage that arises from conformity in a formal group.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Whenever a team's composition is changed; it will again go through the team process stages. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81)

Authority is the ability of one person to influence another. ⊚ true ⊚ false

82)

Authority is the vested power to influence or command within an organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

83) The autocratic, consultative, participative, persuasive, and free-rein styles of leadership are based mostly on the extent to which the leader includes others in the process of making decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84) Followers directed by consultative leaders have little or no freedom to disagree or to disobey. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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85) For success with the laissez-faire leadership style, followers must be self-directed and motivated to act without intervention. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86)

Legitimate power is based on the position a person holds in an organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) Charismatic power primarily comes from a person's knowledge or skill in areas that are critical to the success of a firm. ⊚ true ⊚ false

88)

Organizational climate is synonymous with organizational culture. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89) Climate in a workplace can be influenced by environmental factors such as the color of the room, the noise level, and the way people dress. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90) Consistency in the workplace is the main tool for employees' confidence in management, and management's confidence in employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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91)

Culture stories are miniature myths. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 07 Teamwork and Leadership 1) team 2) work 3) Groupthink 4) Participative 5) Charismatic 6) Consistency 7) C 8) B 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) B Version 1

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27) D 28) B 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) B 37) B 38) A 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE Version 1

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79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1) _____ intelligence primarily deals with one's ability to understand and communicate well with other people.

2) The person who is high in _____ intelligence has an understanding of nature and natural processes.

3) According to Daniel Goleman, the _____ mind is aware of reality and allows us to ponder and reflect.

4) According to Daniel Goleman, there are two types of emotional competence: _____ competence and social competence.

5)

_____ means standing up for your rights without threatening the self-esteem of others.

6) Creating a distraction as a defensive behavior is called using a red _____, because it introduces a point or fact that is irrelevant to the issue at hand.

7) _____ scripts say that the Smiths are honest, the Johnsons are medical people, and the Kennedys enter politics.

8) The _____ Executive game is played by someone who uses being "too busy" as an excuse not to interact with others.

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9)

Which of the following statements is true of intelligence?

A) Intelligence is a one-dimensional concept.

B) Intelligence is based solely on a person's reasoning ability.

C) Intelligence is most accurately measured by standardized tests.

D) Intelligence comes in many forms that are reflected in various abilities and talents.

10) Which of the following psychologists suggested that there are eight separate areas in which creative people put their perceptiveness to work?

A) Robert Sternberg B) Howard Gardner C) Daniel Goleman D) Richard Boyatzis

11)

A person high in _____ intelligence is most likely to enjoy dealing with brain teasers.

A) verbal B) interpersonal C) kinesthetic D) logical

12)

Which of the following is a defining characteristic of people with spatial intelligence?

A) They are gifted writers, songwriters, poets, and speakers.

B) They are good at interpreting graphs, maps, and charts.

C) They have a strong relationship with sounds.

D) They enjoy reasoning and pattern recognition.

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13) Which intelligence involves physical movement or using body or body parts to solve problems?

A) existential intelligence B) emotional intelligence C) naturalist intelligence D) kinesthetic intelligence

14) In the context of the eight forms of intelligence, a kinesthetically intelligent person will most likely excel at A) writing songs.

B) composing music.

C) gymnastics.

D) teaching.

15)

A person with high naturalist intelligence is most likely to succeed working as a A) sculptor.

B) conservationist.

C) singer.

D) music composer.

16)

According to psychologist Howard Gardner, those with moral intelligence

A) are thought to have the capacity or sensitivity to tackle deep questions about human existence.

B) find pleasure in using the logical, reasoning parts of the brain and enjoy puzzles of logic.

C) can play, write, or read music with ease and enjoyment.

D) have the ability to teach other people.

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17) Which of the following types of intelligence was suggested by Howard Gardner recently as a potential tenth type of intelligence?

A) math and logic B) teaching-pedagogical C) music D) existential intelligence

18) Jamie works as the chief architect in a construction company. He has chosen this profession because he can picture how items would look if they were rearranged. In addition, he has always had a passion for stone carving. According to psychologist Howard Gardner, Jamie has a high level of A) math and logic ability.

B) moral intelligence.

C) spatial reasoning.

D) kinesthetic intelligence.

19) Which of the following refer to the ability to find the best solution to everyday problems or events?

A) analytical skills B) creative abilities C) practical abilities D) social awareness skills

20) According to writer Daniel Goleman, which of the following is a type of emotional competence?

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A) logical reasoning B) kinesthetic intelligence C) rational competence D) social competence

21)

According to writer Daniel Goleman, the emotional mind A) allows one to ponder and reflect.

B) is aware of reality.

C) lacks the ability to be impulsive.

D) is sometimes illogical.

22) Which of the following clusters of emotional intelligence enables an individual to communicate effectively and to build meaningful interpersonal connections both with individuals and with groups?

A) relationship management B) social awareness C) self-awareness D) self-management

23) Among the four different areas or "clusters" of emotional intelligence, self-awareness refers to the ability to A) understand when you are seen as underrating or overrating another person.

B) understand the politics at your own workplace.

C) hold yourself in check and not overreact when something or someone bothers you.

D) settle conflicts and disagreements between groups and between people.

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24) Individuals with healthy self-awareness can make safe decisions that might seem "intuitive" to others because such individuals A) focus on others' weaknesses rather than being preoccupied with their own weaknesses.

B) can understand the reactions of other people toward them.

C) are honest and do not hide their frustration during difficult times.

D) score very high on standardized intelligence tests.

25) According to the founders of emotional intelligence (EI), which intelligence allows you to understand the politics of your own workplace?

A) self-awareness B) kinesthetic intelligence C) personal competence D) social awareness

26) According to Richard Boyatzis, what is the most common mistake made by people who want to improve their emotional intelligence (EI)?

A) They think that knowing more about an issue will make their skills better.

B) They fall prey to the myth that EI cannot be improved and are inborn.

C) They assume that EI cannot be applied to the workplace.

D) They are unwilling to apply their knowledge of EI to real-life situations.

27)

Which of the following will be most effective in improving your emotional intelligence?

A) focusing on the weaknesses of others rather than being preoccupied with selfawareness B) engaging in dysfunctional conflicts to improve your self-management skills C) developing relationship management skills D) Reading materials on emotional intelligence

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28)

Which of the following steps should you take to control your anger?

A) identify the wrongdoers B) examine the damage your anger has caused C) give instant feedback using absolute words such as "always" and "never" D) try to analyze who started the vicious cycle of anger

29) Keira is a customer service executive in an insurance company. In a feedback meeting, her supervisor asks her why she sounded angry with one of the customers. Keira replied, "Well, if you think I am doing such a bad job, why don't you just go ahead and fire me? I know you don't like me." Which defensive reaction is Keira using?

A) passive-aggressive behavior B) red herring C) pointless explanation D) counterattack

30) In the context of defensive behaviors, a person who uses the _____ approach appears to be shutting down.

A) passive-aggressive B) counterattack C) red herring D) pointless explanation

31) Which defensive behavior seems to stem from a belief that the other person has been on the attack only because that person "doesn't understand"?

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A) counterattack B) pointless explanation C) passive-aggressive behavior D) creating a distraction

32) In the context of defensive behaviors, which of the following defense mechanisms involves a person bringing up something totally unrelated simply to sidetrack attention from the real issues or issue?

A) creating a distraction B) counterattack C) passive-aggressive behavior D) pointless explanation

33)

Identify an example of a cultural script.

A) "Protestants believe in hard work."

B) "Women can't read maps."

C) "The Johnsons are medical people."

D) "New Englanders are traditional and intelligent."

34)

Which of the following best exemplifies a religious script?

A) "Jews don't work on Saturdays."

B) "Men do not cry."

C) "Kennedys enter politics."

D) "New Englanders are traditional and intelligent."

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35) In the context of transactional analysis, which of the following is a characteristic of "games"?

A) First-degree games are most damaging.

B) Games do not provide any payoff to any of the parties involved.

C) Games involve at least one insincere statement.

D) Games are based on emotionless attitudes.

36)

_____ verge on being harmful and often cause anger.

A) Cultural scripts B) First-degree games C) Second-degree games D) Gender scripts

37) A team leader asks his team members for input on how a project should be completed and then just goes ahead and does what he had initially planned. Which game is the team leader playing?

A) a "Why Don't You … Yes, But" game B) a "Wooden Leg" game C) a "Harried" game D) a "Now I've Got You" game

38) A game in which one person tries to trap another in a mistake, a lie, or some other type of negative situation is known as a _____ game.

A) "Harried" B) "Now I've Got You" C) "Wooden Leg" D) "My Excuses Are Better Than Yours"

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39)

A _____ game is also known as "My Excuses Are Better Than Yours."

A) "Harried" B) "Now I've Got You" C) "Wooden Leg" D) "Why Don't You … Yes, But"

40)

A game in which excuses take the place of a job well done is known as a _____ game.

A) "Wooden Leg" B) "Why Don't You … Yes, But" C) "Harried" D) "Now I've Got You"

41) Sally works part-time at a bookstore. She is always busy playing multiple roles at home and work. She takes on everything and even asks for more. She agrees with her supervisor's criticisms as well. However, whenever her colleagues ask her to join them for dinner or a weekend party, she refuses by saying she has a lot of work that still needs to be done. Which of the following games is Sally playing in this scenario?

A) a "Why don't you … yes, but" game B) a "Wooden leg" game C) a "Harried" game D) a "Now I've got you" game

42) Which of the following can be seen as a large game in an organization that contains many combinations of games?

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A) office politics B) egocentrism C) grapevine D) rumor mill

43)

List the eight intelligences identified by Howard Gardner.

44)

Describe a person with verbal intelligence.

45)

What are the abilities of a person with spatial reasoning intelligence?

46)

What is the characteristic of a person with intrapersonal intelligence?

47)

Discuss the characteristics of people with intelligence in music.

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48)

Elaborate on the triarchic (three arches) theory.

49)

What are the characteristics of people with effective personal competence?

50)

Describe a person with social competence.

51)

Elaborate on the concept of self-awareness.

52)

How will a person with self-management skills perform at work?

53)

How can individuals improve their emotional intelligence (EI) level?

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54)

What are the three damaging and negative results of anger?

55)

List five steps of controlling anger.

56)

What is the difference between assertiveness and aggression?

57)

What are the steps that one can take to reduce defensiveness?

58) List some of the steps that will help individuals raise their Positive Intelligence Quotient (PQ) and defeat inner saboteurs.

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59)

Explain the concept of script that is used in transactional analysis.

60)

What are the four basic categories of scripts?

61)

What are the two characteristics that all games have in common?

62)

Describe games in terms of their intensity.

63)

Intelligence is exclusively based on a person's reasoning ability. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) The ability to put thoughts into words and to understand words is one of the areas of intelligence cited by Howard Gardner.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

65) Scientists and mathematicians find pleasure in using the logical, reasoning parts of the brain. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66)

Ideas and concepts form the basis of spatial reasoning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

67) The ability to use your body or parts of your body to solve problems is known as naturalist intelligence. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68)

A person with intrapersonal intelligence is rarely introspective. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69) Triarchic theory states that intelligent behavior arises from a balance between analytical, creative, and practical abilities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70) Robert Sternberg believed that people have analytical, creative, and practical skills in equal amounts.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

71) According to Daniel Goleman, intelligence quotient is a much better predictor of success in nearly every area of life than is emotional intelligence. ⊚ true ⊚ false

72)

The emotional mind is primarily aware of reality and is always logical. ⊚ true ⊚ false

73) According to Daniel Goleman, emotional competence is an extremely important factor in understanding emotional intelligence. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74) Social awareness as an emotional intelligence skill is the ability to understand the way you are "coming off" to other people. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75) A self-aware person will know when he or she is seen as underrating or overrating another person. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76)

Self-managed people are least likely to hide their temper.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

77) The best way to improve your emotional intelligence is to learn to apply and use your knowledge about an issue in a practical, real way. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78) Emotional intelligence is a competence people are born with, and it remains unchanged during their lifetime. ⊚ true ⊚ false

79) Anger becomes harmful when an individual interprets the behavior of other people as breaking the rules of appropriate behavior. ⊚ true ⊚ false

80) Anger makes individuals aware of their responsibility for the damage he or she has caused. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81)

Assertiveness involves putting others on the defensive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

82)

Aggression involves hurting others and putting them on the defensive.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

83) Workplace bullying is a form of aggression, which us meant to threaten, intimidate, or humiliate the targets and interferes with their ability to perform at their job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84)

Active responses are a lack of emotional or behavioral action. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85) Defensiveness is the appropriate reaction to another's behavior as though it were an attack. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86)

Defensiveness usually comes from high self-esteem. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) People who use counterattack as a defensive behavior typically use "red herring" as a technique. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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88) According to Chamine, a negative intelligence quotient is more important than either standard intelligence or emotional intelligence in helping individuals to successfully reach their goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89) According to transactional analysis, much of what we do and say in our daily lives is based on scripts that most people have heard repeatedly as children. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90)

Gender scripts say that women clean houses and cook and men should be able to fix cars. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91)

Psychological script is very much like a movie or a theater script. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92) A script can be defined as an encounter between two people that produces a "payoff" for one person at the expense of the other person. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93)

Negative game playing can hurt positive relationships. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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94) Game playing allows employees to enjoy open, honest relationships with others, and it saves company time and money. ⊚ true ⊚ false

95)

In terms of intensity, first-degree games are usually quite harmless. ⊚ true ⊚ false

96)

The "Wooden Leg" game makes an art out of creating excuses. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) The "Harried Executive" game is usually played by detail-oriented people who do not feel they are good at anything else. ⊚ true ⊚ false

98) The "Wooden Leg" game is one in which a person tries to trap another person in a mistake, a lie, or some other type of negative situation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 08 Achieving Emotional Control 1) Interpersonal 2) naturalist 3) rational 4) personal 5) Assertiveness 6) herring 7) Family 8) Harried 9) D 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) D 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) A 24) B 25) D 26) A Version 1

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27) C 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) C 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) A 41) C 42) A 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE Version 1

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77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) FALSE

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Student name:__________ 1)

List the seven categories of major changes happening in a person's life.

2)

List the basic characteristics that all seven major life changes have in common.

3)

List the seven stages of personal change.

4) Give a brief description of the denial stage involved in the seven stages of personal change.

5) What are the mistakes that an individual is likely to make in the "helplessness" stage of dealing with personal loss?

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6) Once the cycle of dealing with personal loss is complete, is it normal to go through occasional regression? Give reasons to support your answer.

7)

What is a disadvantage associated with the seven-step recovery diagram?

8)

What are the six steps for dealing with change suggested by Helmstetter?

9)

List the steps involved in the Lewin change model.

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10) According to Kurt Lewin, what are the three required levels in an organization where any change has to happen?

11)

Describe the unfreezing step of the Lewin change model.

12)

What is the current criticism of the Lewin change model?

13)

How can driving forces be strengthened in the force field analysis model?

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14)

What are the advantages of force field analysis?

15)

Briefly describe the five stages of logical incrementalism.

16)

Discuss the organizational change model developed by John Paul Kotter.

17)

Why do employees resist change?

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18)

Compare and contrast Six Sigma and lean approaches.

19)

Discuss the main elements upon which kaizen was found.

20)

Briefly describe organizational development (OD).

21) What are the values that organizational development (OD) change agents base their procedures on?

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22)

Why is organizational development (OD) often used as a tool for empowerment?

23) In the context of adjusting to personal changes, slipping backward to an earlier stage of growth is referred to as _____.

24) In the context of adjusting to personal changes, _____ is the process of returning to a point where you know who you are and feel good about yourself once again.

25) In the _____ stage of personal change, an individual starts experiencing normal curiosities and desires again.

26) According to the force field analysis model, the _____ forces are trying to take over and change the status quo.

27) In the context of the five main elements of kaizen, employees and managers share ideas, skills, resources, and technology in group meetings called _____ circles.

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28) Which of the following is a common characteristic of the major life changes that affect people?

A) These changes happen regularly to everyone.

B) Changes that are beyond one's control cause more stress.

C) People who have a hold over things they can control are not affected by major life changes.

D) People feel the results of the changes only after an event is over.

29)

Which of the following is one of the seven stages of personal change?

A) bottoming out B) unfreezing C) general concern D) refreezing

30)

_____ is the first stage of personal change.

A) Denial B) Experimenting C) Emotional standstill D) Bottoming out

31) Which of the following reactions to personal loss typically occurs in the emotional standstill stage?

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A) denial B) anger C) experimenting D) shock

32) In the context of the seven stages of personal change, identify a mistake made by people who have entered the neutral zone when dealing with personal loss.

A) sharing too much emotion with other people B) expressing their anger C) denying reality fully and completely D) allowing normal curiosities to emerge

33)

Which of the following is true of a person in the helplessness stage of personal change?

A) The person slips into a state of permanent regression.

B) The individual enters into a state of shock and denial.

C) The person enters a neutral zone, which is a temporary state of loss.

D) The normal curiosities and desires come back to the person and new experiences become evident.

34) Which of the following is a danger associated with the seven-step personal recovery process?

A) People may think that they should passively allow the steps to happen to them.

B) Most people are not aware that the steps in the process tend to fail to come through.

C) People may force themselves to go through the steps quicker than usual.

D) Most people slip backward to an earlier stage of growth even when they know the steps.

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35) In the _____ stage of the seven stages of personal change, the mind keeps the sufferer from accepting reality fully and completely.

A) denial B) anger C) emotional standstill D) bottoming out

36) In the context of the helplessness stage of personal change, what is the state of mind of a victim who has lost a loved one to death?

A) The victim accepts a major change but continues to deny it emotionally.

B) The victim is still suffering and is afraid to bottom out into total despair.

C) The victim disallows himself or herself to believe the loved one is really gone.

D) The victim is allowing the life-completing processes to take their course.

37) Which of the following statements is true about the bottoming out stage of the seven stages of personal change?

A) A victim disallows the life-completing processes to take their course.

B) The shock, denial, and anger that a victim feels are fresh.

C) An overwhelming grief experienced by a victim appears less often, and less intensely, over time.

D) A victim begins experimenting with tasks and opportunities that were left out or ignored previously.

38) In the context of the unfreezing step of Lewin's change model, structural changes in an organization are likely to be characterized by

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A) a focus on new hiring policies.

B) an emphasis on changing actual organizational relationships.

C) an emphasis on changing the reward system.

D) a focus on redesigning the organization.

39) Which of the following statements is true about the refreezing step of Kurt Lewin's change model?

A) Refreezing would hinder progress because of the growing number of change situations in the 21st century.

B) The actual changes are made in the refreezing level.

C) Research indicates that refreezing could promote growth and development in areas of high technology.

D) Kurt Lewin referred to the refreezing step as being "relatively insecure" against change.

40) Which of the following stages of logical incrementalism is characterized by organizations utilizing something important that gets everyone's attention to get the ball rolling?

A) development of a formal plan for change B) using an opportunity to begin the change plan C) broadcasting a general concern or idea without details D) ongoing adaptation of the plan

41) In the context of the five stages of logical incrementalism, development of a formal plan for change is characterized by

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A) a vague feeling or awareness of a threat or opportunity.

B) a new idea that is outlined both in terms of its nature and of the method of making it happen.

C) a use of a crisis that the change plan can solve to get the ball rolling.

D) a new idea that is tried out on others in general terms, with details to be filled in later.

42)

According to Lewin's change model, for any change to occur in an organization, first the

A) employees need to be guided to the necessary attitudes and behaviors required for a change.

B) individuals working for the company must be convinced that a change is essential.

C) the organizational climate must be adjusted.

D) systems of the organization need to be changed.

43)

Which of the following is the first step of Lewin's change model?

A) completion B) experimenting C) moving to another condition D) unfreezing

44) _____ is the step of Lewin's change model in which the actual organizational changes are made.

A) Unfreezing the status quo B) Diminishing the restraining force C) Moving to another condition D) Broadcasting a general concern

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45) Which of the following statements is true of the refreezing step of Lewin's change model?

A) It is during this stage that the company must ensure that the new behaviors actually become new norms or standards on the job.

B) It is during this step that the actual organizational changes are initiated.

C) It is the first step of the Lewin model and its primary focus is on changing people's habits and attitudes to adjust to the organizational changes.

D) It is the step of the Lewin model that is referred to as being "most unsecure" against change.

46)

Which of the following is the most important criticism against Lewin's change model?

A) It does not consider the changes that take place at the structural level.

B) Refreezing is not a realistic concept in today's business world.

C) Unfreezing the status quo would simply hinder the progress.

D) It is ineffective as it does not consider the cultural diversity of today's workplace.

47)

Refreezing is seen as an unrealistic concept in today's business because A) it is difficult to convince technology-savvy employees about the need for change.

B) employees are too comfortable in the status quo and hence highly resistant to change.

C) restraining forces are very strong because of advancements in technology.

D) environmental and technological changes are everyday realities.

48)

Which of the following statements is true of the force field analysis model?

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A) According to this model, the status quo is presented like a battlefield being fought for by two armies.

B) This model acknowledges that bringing about changes in a large organization is usually time-consuming and complicated.

C) This model measures the relative impact of many kinds of changes on the basis of their intensity and the adjustment problems they can create.

D) According to this model, the primary aim is to teach members of an organization how to solve the problems they face.

49)

Who developed the force field analysis model?

A) Peter Drucker B) James Brian Quinn C) Kurt Lewin D) William Bridges

50)

Who developed the logical incrementalism model?

A) Blake and Mouton B) Kurt Lewin C) Peter Drucker D) James Brian Quinn

51)

Which of the following is the first stage of the logical incrementalism model?

A) experimentation B) general concern C) unfreezing the status quo D) development of a formal plan

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52)

In which stage of logical incrementalism is the trial balloon procedure used?

A) development of a formal plan for change B) using an opportunity or crisis to begin the change plan C) ongoing adaptation of the plan D) broadcasting a general concern or idea without details

53)

Logical incrementalism is most successful when it is used

A) to bring a well-designed plan into general acceptance.

B) to implement changes that are poorly defined.

C) to measure the impact of many changes based on their intensity and adjustment problems.

D) as a coping measure to deal with a personal loss.

54)

Employees resist change because A) they experience the effect of change only after the event is over.

B) the management offers more intrinsic rewards than extrinsic rewards.

C) they know very less about the change and how it will impact them.

D) the firm supports the change agent who is responsible for the change.

55) Pixar Animation Studios uses quality control checks and iterative processes to reduce the risks of expensive movie failure. Which of the following continuous improvement model has Pixar adopted?

A) Six Sigma B) Kaizen C) Lean method D) Kotter's steps

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56) Which of the following statements is true about Six Sigma approach within an organization?

A) It follows a defined sequence of steps, and it has specific value targets.

B) It has a wider focus on every facet of the entire business than Lean method.

C) It involves restructuring every aspect of a system to ensure optimal efficiency.

D) It includes team building, role playing, sensitivity training, and survey feedback.

57)

Which of the following statements is true about Lean method?

A) It improves the quality of a firm's output by removing any causes of defects in the business processes.

B) It is a process of organizing and restructuring every aspect of a system to ensure optimal efficiency.

C) It is designed to provide maximum value to customers with the lowest possible amount of investment.

D) It is a process that brings employees and managers together to brainstorm to improve performance.

58)

Organizational development is best described as

A) the sum total of organizational culture.

B) a change management model for organizations that is based on logical incrementalism.

C) the process that measures the impact of a change on employees based on the intensity and the scope of readjustment.

D) a planned, companywide, systematic method of achieving change in an organization.

59) Which of the following is a value on which organizational development (OD) change agents base their procedures?

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A) emphasis on hierarchy B) minimizing survey feedback C) confrontation D) authoritative management

60)

An organizational development (OD) intervention is best described as a

A) planned, companywide, systematic method of achieving change in an organization.

B) training tool that teaches members of an organization how to solve their problems.

C) model that uses a five-step process to implement planned change in a large organization.

D) model in which the status quo is presented as a battlefield being fought for by two armies.

61)

Which of the following is an organizational development (OD) intervention technique?

A) introducing heavy-handed authority B) organizational goal setting C) survey feedback D) emphasis on hierarchy

62)

Stress-causing events are always negative and detrimental to one's health. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) A common characteristic of the seven major life changes is that they happen to everyone at least a few times throughout one's lifetime. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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64) According to William Bridges, "beginning" is the first of the three general steps involved in the process of acceptance of personal loss. ⊚ true ⊚ false

65)

In the event of an expected personal loss, the element of shock is absent. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66) The first reaction someone usually has to the news of a sudden death, for example, is to enter an emotional standstill or shock. ⊚ true ⊚ false

67) In the context of the seven stages of personal change, bottoming out means releasing the thoughts, tensions, memories, and emotions that force an individual to hold on to the past. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68) One danger with the seven-step recovery diagram is that people might be tempted to think they should passively let these steps happen to them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69)

Personal change can affect your self-concept. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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70) The Lewin change model contains three steps: the beginnings, the neutral zone, and the endings. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71)

Ending is the first of the three general steps in the acceptance of personal loss. ⊚ true ⊚ false

72) In the unfreezing step of the Lewin model, fear in some form is nearly always one of the major obstacles. ⊚ true ⊚ false

73) According to Kurt Lewin, the refreezing step of the change model is "relatively secure" against change. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74) The refreezing step in Kurt Lewin's change model might involve new hiring policies, so that employees hired after a change would be more accepting of the new system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75) The refreezing step of Kurt Lewin's change model is unrealistic when environmental and technological changes are everyday realities.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

76) In today's world, staying with the status quo as suggested by force field analysis is not realistic. ⊚ true ⊚ false

77) One of the benefits of force field analysis is that it gets the changers to plan for the change. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78) The logical incrementalism model maintains that forces inside a firm and not outside the firm can put pressure on those who are involved in a planned change. ⊚ true ⊚ false

79) Logical incrementalism starts with specific needs for change and then moves slowly to a general level. ⊚ true ⊚ false

80) The trial balloon procedure is used in the general concern stage of the logical incrementalism model. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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81) Many managers see logical incrementalism as an accurate description of how change occurs in most successful companies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

82) Logical incrementalism is most successful when used to bring a well-designed plan into general acceptance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

83) Organizational change is the change that a group of people must learn to accept and implement. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84) The major problem with getting organizational change to take place is nearly always the same: technology barrier. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85)

Good planning and preparation can lead to success even in a mistrustful climate. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86) The best time to deliver an organizational change message is immediately before the change is planned to begin. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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87)

Teamwork is the starting point for Kaizen. ⊚ true ⊚ false

88)

Lean method has a wider focus on every facet of the entire business than does Six Sigma. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89) Organizational development (OD) requires that the top management of a company is kept away from its planning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90) Organizational development (OD) interventions are training tools that teach members of an organization how to solve the problems they face. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91)

Today organizational development (OD) is often used as a tool for empowerment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 09 Individual and Organizational Change 23) regression 24) healing 25) experimenting 26) driving 27) quality 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) A 33) C 34) A 35) A 36) B 37) C 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) B 42) B 43) D 44) C 45) A 46) B 47) D 48) A Version 1

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49) C 50) D 51) B 52) D 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) A 57) C 58) D 59) C 60) B 61) C 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE Version 1

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79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1) _____ thinking is spontaneous and free-flowing, without constraints, and typically results in many new ideas rather than one solution to a problem.

2)

_____ is the way in which a person views the world.

3)

_____ motivators include money and fame.

4) The _____ phenomenon is a circumstance that exists when people make rules and then follow them even after the situations to which they originally applied no longer exist.

5)

_____ motivators are those that motivate a person from within.

6) In the context of some basic steps for becoming more creative, the _____ mode contains a certain amount of anxiety, not much humor, a lot of stress, and a definite element of fear—but it does not contain creativity.

7)

Creativity is best described as A) a practice of turning an irrational belief into an imagined disaster.

B) a type of spontaneous group discussion to help find multiple solutions to problems.

C) the ability to come up with original and effective solutions.

D) the process of changing behavior because of a reward or lack of a reward.

8)

Which of the following statements is true about creativity?

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A) It is limited by gender.

B) It is a personality type.

C) It can be developed.

D) It is same as intelligence.

9)

Psychologist Mihalyi Csikszentmihalyi describes creative people as A) having big "C" creativity instead of little "c" creativity.

B) having high IQ but low EQ. C) having original ideas but lacking the ability to know a good idea from a bad one.

D) having flexibility and fluency in ideas.

10) According to Csikszentmihalyi, _____ refers to the pleasure derived from the creative process of reaching a goal.

A) intrinsic motivation B) optimal experience C) procrastination D) serendipity

11)

Which of the following statements is true of optimal experiences?

A) They are intensely enjoyable and stimulate creativity.

B) They result from the pleasure felt by an individual on achieving a goal.

C) They result from the established ways of seeing things.

D) They are highly pleasurable and less demanding.

12) According to Csikszentmihalyi, which of the following is a component of the "flow experience" when performing a task?

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A) The activity is challenging enough to defeat the person involved.

B) The person's attention is completely absorbed by the activity.

C) The person is conscious of time and has a sense of self-awareness.

D) The activity has a broad scope with no clear goals.

13)

Which of the following characteristics has been shown to be most important to creativity?

A) academic genius B) scholastic ability C) intuition D) high IQ

14) Which of the following is true of Lewis Terman's study of intelligence, intelligence testing, and creativity?

A) Academic geniuses rarely succeeded in professional life.

B) Creative people are typically above average in intelligence.

C) Academic geniuses are not likely to be more creative than other people.

D) All academic geniuses are involved in producing highly creative work.

15)

Research has shown that true creativity results from A) more-than-average IQ. B) indulging in groupthink.

C) achieving academic excellence.

D) divergent thinking.

16)

According to psychologist Frank Barren, intuition mainly depends on

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A) scholastic abilities.

B) reasoning and verbal comprehension.

C) feelings and metaphor.

D) traditional intelligence.

17)

What do groups need to get past if they want to increase their creativity?

A) divergent thinking B) collective habits of thought C) childish questioning D) independent spirit

18)

Which of the following is typically a characteristic of creative people?

A) academic genius B) extrinsic motivation C) independent spirit D) conformity

19)

A creative person is usually motivated by A) the joy of the discovery process.

B) the need to conform to social norms.

C) extrinsic motivators.

D) money and fame.

20)

Which of the following statements is true of creative people?

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A) They attract recognition and attention.

B) They generally try to avoid working alone.

C) They are easily swayed by others' opinions.

D) They are often perceived as conformists.

21)

One of the characteristics of creative people is that they are A) close-minded or inhibited.

B) persistent and hard working.

C) easily swayed by others' opinions.

D) top experts in their field.

22) In the context of the various steps involved in the creative process, in which of the following steps has an individual's mind processed all of the information it has received, then offers the individual solutions?

A) incubation B) verification C) illumination D) perception

23) Jeremy, a mathematician, had been working on a tough problem. One day while having a drink with a few of his friends, he suddenly yelled "Aha!" "That's it!" He had found the answer to the problem that had given him sleepless nights for months. In this scenario, Jeremy is most likely in the _____ stage of the creative process.

A) preparation B) incubation C) verification D) inspiration

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24) Which of the following psychologists described the four basic steps of the creativity process?

A) Mihalyi Csikszentmihalyi B) Sigmund Freud C) Carl Jung D) Graham Wallas

25) The preparation stage of the creative process identified by Graham Wallas primarily involves A) transforming an idea into a solid, real concept.

B) proving a newly created concept, product, or service to be worthwhile.

C) considering the problem, or question to be solved.

D) turning the ideas over and over in your mind until a breakthrough finally takes place.

26) Which of the following is the first stage of the creative process identified by Graham Wallas?

A) incubation B) perception C) inspiration D) verification

27) The incubation step of the creative process identified by Graham Wallas primarily involves

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A) turning ideas over and over in your mind until a breakthrough finally takes place.

B) ensuring that your way of seeing the particular part of the world you are dealing with is useful and real.

C) transforming the new solution to your problem into useful action.

D) transforming your idea into a solid, real concept.

28) Which step of the creative process identified by Graham Wallas involves developing creativity into a solid, real concept?

A) incubation B) perception C) verification D) inspiration

29) Which of the following statements is true of the incubation step in the creative process identified by Graham Wallas?

A) It often includes research and experimentation.

B) It is the first step in the creative process.

C) It is in this step that a newly created concept is proven to be worthwhile.

D) It is also known as the "illumination" step.

30) In which step of the creative process is a newly created concept, product, or service proven to be worthwhile?

A) preparation B) incubation C) verification D) illumination

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31) In the context of managing creativity in the workplace, research has found that managers are confident in their own creative capabilities are A) likely to promote discussion about new work methods.

B) unlikely to be receptive to creative ideas generated by their staff.

C) likely to indulge in severe criticisms of new ideas.

D) unlikely to encourage creativity in the people around them.

32)

Which of the following statements is true of the first session of brainstorming?

A) It encourages statements such as "Get serious!" or "No way!"

B) It encourages participants to hitchhike on the ideas of others.

C) It allows participants to prioritize ideas.

D) It allows participants to criticize new ideas.

33)

In the second session of brainstorming, A) criticism of new ideas is forbidden.

B) a large quantity of ideas is encouraged.

C) idea duplications are eliminated.

D) silliness is encouraged.

34) _____ is a type of spontaneous group discussion to help find multiple solutions for problems.

A) Brainstorming B) Groupthink C) System justification D) Force field analysis

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35)

Which of the following activities is typically a part of the first session of brainstorming?

A) All ideas are analyzed and prioritized.

B) Idea duplications are eliminated.

C) All ideas are recorded.

D) Everyone gives evaluative input.

36) Which of the following observations concerning the different sessions of the brainstorming process is true?

A) In the first session, everyone gives their evaluative input.

B) In the first session, criticism of ideas is encouraged.

C) In the second session, all ideas are recorded.

D) In the second session, the adult part of everybody's personality takes over.

37) Which of the following rules is applied in the second session of the brainstorming process?

A) Hitchhiking on others' ideas is encouraged.

B) Participants return to rational mode.

C) Silliness is encouraged.

D) Participants speak in phrases.

38)

Which of the following is a step typically involved in the nominal group method?

A) Participants speak out various ideas in the form of phrases.

B) Group members hitchhike on each other's ideas.

C) Everyone is encouraged to be as wild and crazy as possible.

D) Each group member rates the ideas suggested by the other group members.

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39) Which of the following is a difference between brainstorming and the nominal group method?

A) Brainstorming encourages individual creativity within a group framework, whereas in the nominal group method, creativity of the entire group is stressed.

B) Brainstorming is effective with people who are shy, unsure of themselves, or simply not used to being assertive in public, whereas the nominal group method is a type of spontaneous group discussion to help find multiple solutions for problems.

C) In a brainstorming session, participants speak out various ideas in the form of phrases, whereas in the nominal group method, the ideas remain anonymous.

D) In brainstorming, each group member rates the ideas and votes, whereas in the nominal group method, the leader chooses the best idea.

40)

In the context of decision making, what does "second right answer" refer to?

A) It refers to a decision-making method where you see only one of two extremes as a possible solution.

B) It refers to decision-making errors that keep people from being as creative as they otherwise could be.

C) It refers to a decision-making strategy, created by Bob Eberle, to release your creative mind.

D) It refers to a decision-making method in which people get rid of the stumbling block that prevents them from looking for more than one answer.

41) be.

_____ are rules or beliefs that keep people from being as creative as they otherwise could

A) Intuitions B) Mental locks C) Self-images D) Perceptions

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42)

The term _____ is defined as what and how individuals believe themselves to be.

A) self-expression B) self-preservation C) self-determination D) self-perception

43) A common mistake in decision making is called the _____ fallacy, which sees only one of two extremes as a possible solution without really looking at the great number of compromises and other creative choices that might exist in between.

A) either/or B) intentionality C) gambler's D) Monte Carlo

44)

What is creativity?

45) According to Csikszentmihalyi, what is the difference between creativity with a big "C" and creativity with a little "c?"

46)

How does Mihalyi Csikszentmihalyi explain the concept of optimal experience?

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47) List the eight components as found by psychologist Mihalyi Csikszentmihalyi that are usually found in a flow experience.

48) What did Lewis Terman discover in his study of intelligence, intelligence testing, and creativity?

49)

List seven characteristics of creative people.

50)

How are creative people motivated?

51)

Describe the "perception" stage of the creative process identified by Graham Wallas.

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52)

Explain the "inspiration" step of the creative process identified by Graham Wallas.

53)

How do managers kill creativity at the workplace?

54)

How can organizations encourage creativity?

55)

List the rules applied in the first session of brainstorming.

56)

What are the rules applied in the second session of brainstorming?

57)

What happens after the second session of brainstorming?

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58)

What is reverse brainstorming?

59)

When is the nominal group method most effective?

60)

List the steps involved in the nominal group method.

61)

Why is group creativity important?

62)

What is an open mode, and how does it affect creativity?

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63)

How does self-perception affect creativity?

64) In the context of creative problem solving, list some of the steps that are likely to help an individual become more creative.

65)

Creative ideas are successful when they are paired with action. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66)

Creativity depends specific products or materials. ⊚ true ⊚ false

67) Creative people have flexibility and fluency in ideas, with the ability to know a good idea from a bad one. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68)

Optimal experiences have an adverse effect on a person's creativity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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69)

Csikszentmihalyi discovered that people are least likely to feel flow while at work. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70) Flow is the feeling of oneness with an activity that allows an individual to uniquely experience an event or activity by becoming totally engaged in the process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71)

Terman holds that a person has to be an academic genius to be creative. ⊚ true ⊚ false

72)

Creative people are usually average or above average in intelligence. ⊚ true ⊚ false

73)

True creativity requires divergent thinking. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74)

According to Arthur Koestler, habit is the stumbling block to creativity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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75)

Collective habits of thought typically increase curiosity in groups. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76)

Using the "childish" freedom of curiosity will decrease your creativity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

77) One of the characteristics of creative people is that they are more motivated by extrinsic factors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78)

Creative people are usually characterized by high emotional stability. ⊚ true ⊚ false

79)

Creativity does not do anyone much good if ideas are not followed through with action. ⊚ true ⊚ false

80) Work must be made rewarding, challenging, and fulfilling for a creative atmosphere to exist. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81) In the first stage of the brainstorming process, the members of a group criticize each other's ideas.

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⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

Brainstorming is useful only for solving simple, well-defined problems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

83) The nominal group method of group creativity discourages individual creativity within a group framework. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84)

In the nominal group method, employees put their ideas down in writing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85) There is transparency in the nominal group method, and the members of the group are required to explain their ideas to the entire group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86)

Extrinsic motivation is more powerful than intrinsic motivation in encouraging creativity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) New problem-solving strategies will be attempts to extract the greatest number of quality ideas from a group of people in a short time.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

88) The open mode is a state of mind where you are relaxed, expansive, less purposeful, and more fun than in the everyday closed mode. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89)

To be creative, you need to constantly remain in the open mode. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90) One of the biggest stumbling blocks to creativity is the belief that you somehow are not good enough to create anything worthwhile. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91) People settle for the one right answer out of a tendency to grab the first idea that comes to mind. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92)

The either/or fallacy helps a person arrive at creative solutions to problems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93) The Aslan phenomenon refers to situations in which people break existing rules to arrive at creative ways of doing a task.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

94) According to Roger von Oech, one of the "mental locks" that keeps people from being creative is "being practical." ⊚ true ⊚ false

95) A major stumbling block with traditional methods of learning is that people are taught to look for the one right answer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 10 Creativity and Human Relations 1) Divergent 2) Perception 3) Extrinsic 4) Aslan 5) Intrinsic 6) closed 7) C 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) C 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) D 25) C 26) B Version 1

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27) A 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) C 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) C 40) D 41) B 42) D 43) A 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE Version 1

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78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1) _____ is defined as friction or opposition resulting from actual or perceived differences or incompatibilities.

2) A(n) _____ conflict takes place when already formed groups have conflicts with each other.

3) A(n) _____ conflict occurs when a conflict factor is built into the structure or the policies of the organization.

4) A person with a(n) _____ style of conflict management uses his or her skills to blend differences of both sides together and form a workable alternative.

5) In the context of the Thomas–Kilmann conflict model, _____ are cooperative even at the expense of personal goals.

6) A person with a(n) _____ style of conflict management opens communication channels and learns about what issues each party feels are most important.

7)

_____ people are often angry people who express their anger silently and indirectly.

8) In the context of the types of conflict, which of the following statements is true of inner conflict?

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A) It refers to conflict between members of groups within an organization.

B) It is always dysfunctional.

C) It is conflict within an individual.

D) It takes place when already formed groups have conflicts among themselves.

9) Dennis has received two job offers with attractive employee benefits. He finds it difficult to choose one of the two offers as both are equally good. Identify the conflict that Dennis is facing.

A) inner conflict B) dysfunctional conflict C) content conflict D) negotiation-of-selves conflict

10) Rodin and Ian work in the marketing team of their company. Rodin considers Ian a red tape bureaucrat, while Ian considers Rodin unethical. They often have trouble working together on the same projects. The conflict between Ian and Rodin can be described as A) negotiation-of-selves conflict.

B) inner conflict.

C) person-versus-person conflict.

D) content conflict.

11) Which of the following conflicts is most likely to occur when a member of a group breaks its rules, or norms?

A) content conflict B) institutionalized conflict C) negotiation-of-selves conflict D) person-versus-group conflict

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12) Which conflict primarily focuses on disagreements over what a statement or a concept means?

A) values conflict B) content conflict C) institutionalized conflict D) negotiation-of-selves conflict

13)

Which of the following factors is typically involved in a content conflict?

A) argument over the existence of an idea B) argument over the values of another person C) differences in self-definition D) differences in belief systems

14) Michael has an argument with his supervisor over certain responsibilities assigned to him. He contends that the wording of his contract is ambiguous and believes that the duties assigned to him are not part of his job description. In the context of the sources of conflict, in this scenario, Michael's disagreement with his supervisor is an example of A) negotiation-of-selves conflicts.

B) values conflicts.

C) content conflicts.

D) institutionalized conflicts.

15)

Which of the following is a source of values conflict?

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A) disagreement over rightness of ideas B) difficulties with self-definition C) competition over resources within a company D) disagreement over basic beliefs

16) In the context of the sources of conflict, which of the following scenarios is an example of institutionalized conflict?

A) An employee speaks to her manager about the difficulties she has in completing her tasks and requests for work that she can cope with.

B) A sales company encourages employees to make as many sales as possible and rewards the top sellers at the end of every quarter.

C) A manager at a law firm disagrees with another manager over his practice of assigning unpaid interns complex and time-consuming work.

D) An employee complains to his manager about being harassed by another employee who is envious of his position within an organization.

17)

Which conflict erupts over differences in self-definition?

A) conflict arising from differences in values B) institutionalized conflict C) negotiation-of-selves conflict D) conflict arising from nonfulfillment of self-actualization needs

18) A manager at a bank believes that the bank's hiring budget should be increased so that experienced employees can be hired. Another manager disagrees with her and believes that hiring costs should be reduced. He suggests recruiting talented but inexperienced employees who will accept lower salaries. A conflict manager helps them work together to come up with a plan that allows them to hire both experienced and inexperienced people without increasing their budget. In the context of the styles of conflict management, the conflict manager in this scenario is a(n)

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A) collaborator.

B) avoider.

C) competitor.

D) accommodator.

19) Which of the following conflict resolution strategies uses democratic vote as a method to resolve conflicts?

A) collaborative approach B) lose–lose strategy C) win–win strategy D) win–lose strategy

20) The democratic vote approach is not as effective in resolving conflicts in organizations as it is in the political system because A) most organizations use a series of checks and balances before using democratic vote.

B) the majority vote leaves a minority of unhappy people without any real recourse.

C) it leaves people unhappy on both sides of the issue as nobody gets what they want.

D) it typically leads to a lose–lose situation.

21) In which of the following ways does the arbitrary approach of the win-lose strategy work?

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A) The conflict manager decides which side is right and which is wrong, then considers the issue to be resolved.

B) The conflict manager focuses on reaching a compromise in which nobody gets what they want, but everyone can live with the decision.

C) The conflict manager primarily focuses on satisfying as many of each side's needs as possible.

D) The conflict manager tries to make both sides feel that they have come out on top.

22) Which of the following conflict resolution strategies produces unhappy people on both sides of an issue?

A) win–win strategy B) win–lose strategy C) lose–lose strategy D) collaborative approach

23)

Which of the following is the main approach to the lose–lose strategy?

A) arbitration B) democratic vote C) collaboration D) compromise

24)

Which of the following is a characteristic of the win–win strategy of conflict resolution?

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A) This strategy focuses on compromise where everyone gives up something.

B) This strategy leads to a solution in which both sides feel that they have come out on top.

C) This strategy allows one side of a conflict to win at the expense of the other.

D) This strategy gives little attention to tracing the development of the conflict; thus, the solutions are mostly short term.

25) According to the Thomas–Kilmann Conflict Model, a conflict manager who tries to help parties avoid conflict through positive thinking is a(n) A) avoider.

B) compromiser.

C) competitor.

D) accommodator.

26) In the context of the Thomas–Kilmann Conflict Model, identify a true statement about "avoiders."

A) They are the most likely to try a win-lose approach to conflict resolution, especially if he or she is personally involved in the conflict.

B) They mistakenly assumes that if a conflict involves only other people, it should be left only to them.

C) They use their skills to blend the differences of all sides and form a workable alternative.

D) They try to resolve conflicts by bringing the conflicting parties together to discuss their issues.

27) According to the Thomas–Kilmann Conflict Model, which style has the highest respect for mutual support?

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A) win–lose style B) lose–lose style C) avoidance style D) problem-solving style

28) Which of the following statements best describes a conflict manager who is a "competitor?"

A) He or she is someone who would rather not be around conflict at all and values neutrality highly.

B) He or she is someone who brings both sides together for a discussion and is most likely to bring about a win–win solution.

C) He or she is someone who is most likely to try a win–lose approach to conflict resolution.

D) He or she is someone who wants to avoid conflict by engaging in positive thinking.

29) In the context of the styles of conflict management, a conflict manager who is a "competitor" A) will often leave people in a conflict to resolve their issues by themselves.

B) will ensure cooperation from all conflicting sides even at the expense of personal goals.

C) might try to ensure a win–win position for all the parties involved.

D) might use the lose–lose style to resolve an issue.

30)

Which of the following statements best describes a conflict manager who is an avoider?

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A) He or she is someone who would rather not be around conflict at all and values neutrality highly.

B) He or she is someone who is most likely to try a win–lose approach to conflict resolution, especially if he or she is personally involved in the conflict.

C) He or she is someone who uses his or her skills to blend differences and form a workable alternative.

D) He or she is someone who brings both sides involved in a conflict together for a discussion and is most likely to bring about a win-win solution.

31) In the context of the styles of conflict management, which of the following factors is more important to a compromiser than the issue itself?

A) allowing the conflicting groups to resolve their issues on their own B) arriving at a win–win solution for all groups involved in a conflict C) maintaining good relationships between the groups in conflict D) ensuring all sides come out on top

32) Krista is a conflict manager at Armitage Tech. She tends to focus on helping people reach agreements and work together instead of focusing on the issue that caused the conflict. She believes it is important for all parties in a conflict to maintain good relationships while they work to achieve their basic goals during the conflict resolution process. In the context of the styles of conflict management, Krista is a(n) A) avoider.

B) competitor.

C) compromiser.

D) accommodator.

33) Which of the following styles of conflict management is necessary for a win–win solution?

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A) collaboration B) accommodation C) compromising D) avoidance

34)

Which of the following statements is true of low conformers?

A) They like to fit in and work well in teams.

B) They think independently and solve problems creatively.

C) They are never happy and constantly discuss their problems with others.

D) The best way to deal with them is to force them to conform.

35) Which of the following practices is most likely to make working with low conformers less problematic?

A) avoiding excessive contact with them B) forcing them to conform C) labeling their method of self-expression as stubbornness D) learning to tolerate their honesty

36) Which of the following suggestions will be useful in dealing with an envious person at work?

A) avoiding functional conflict with the envious person B) building up the envious person's self-esteem C) avoiding confronting the envious person D) engaging in concession bargaining

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37) Which of the following steps is most likely to elicit meaningful feedback from a passive person?

A) confronting the person B) filling the space during a conversation C) making statements to help break the tension D) asking the person close-ended questions

38)

What are the common aspects involved in all types of conflicts?

39)

What is a functional conflict?

40)

In the context of the types of conflict, when does intragroup conflict occur?

41)

Briefly describe the sources of content conflicts.

42)

List the steps involved in the process of analyzing conflicts.

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43)

Suggest a potential solution to values conflict.

44)

Why is democratic vote not as effective in organizations as it is in the political system?

45)

Describe the arbitrary approach of conflict management.

46) In a win–win strategy, how is it possible for both sides of a conflict to end up feeling like winners?

47)

How would a conflict manager resolve a conflict if he or she is a competitor?

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48)

How would a compromiser deal with conflicts?

49) In the context of conflict management, what is the disadvantage of the accommodative style?

50)

Why is the collaborator style of conflict management necessary for a win–win solution?

51)

Why do many managers fall back on the competitor style of conflict management?

52)

Describe low conformers.

53)

Suggest ways to make working with low conformers less problematic.

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54)

Suggest ways for dealing effectively with an envious person at work.

55)

How would you deal with whiners and complainers at work?

56)

List suggestions to deal with passive and unresponsive people at work.

57)

What is concession bargaining, and when is it used?

58) In American business, the workplace contains a greater amount of conflict today than in the past, mainly because of the movement of the United States from an industrial economy to a service-dominated economy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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59)

Conflicts always affect the workplace negatively. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) Intragroup conflict occurs when a conflict arises among group members, and they choose sides and split off into factions within the existing group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) A manager should try whenever possible to change a dysfunctional conflict into a functional one. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62)

Conflict in a workplace is harmful because it can lead to groupthink. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) Person-versus-group conflict can involve someone who never was a member of the group, but who opposes it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) If you know what type of conflict you are involved in, that knowledge can help you discover how best to resolve it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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65)

Values conflicts tend to focus on disagreements over what a statement or concept means. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66) In the context of the sources of conflict, an organization can encourage conflict simply through the way it is structured even if it does not actively promote conflict. ⊚ true ⊚ false

67)

Difficulty with self-definition is typically the source of values conflict. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68) Negotiation-of-selves conflict primarily arises when a conflict factor is built into the structure or the policies of the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69) Values conflicts should be avoided as attempting to solve them is always counterproductive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70)

Institutionalized conflict erupts over differences in self-definition. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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71)

Democratic vote is a win–win approach to conflict resolution. ⊚ true ⊚ false

72) In the arbitrary approach to conflict resolution, a conflict manager decides which side is right and which is wrong, then considers the issue to be resolved. ⊚ true ⊚ false

73)

The main approach in the lose–lose strategy of conflict resolution is compromise. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74) A "competitor" is most likely to try the lose–lose approach to conflict resolution, especially if he or she is personally involved in the conflict. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75) According to the Thomas–Kilmann Conflict Model, avoiders typically say negative things about a conflict they have been involved in if someone else brings it up. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76) According to the Thomas–Kilmann Conflict Model, the needs of both parties involved are legitimate and important to the "collaborator." ⊚ true ⊚ false Version 1

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77) According to the Thomas–Kilmann Conflict Model, "competitors" demonstrate assertive but cooperative behavior. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78) According to the Thomas–Kilmann Conflict Model, it is important for a "compromiser" that all parties achieve basic goals and maintain good relationships. ⊚ true ⊚ false

79) A "compromiser" generally does not feel as much of a need to rush to a solution as a "competitor" does. ⊚ true ⊚ false

80) In the context of the styles of conflict management, "compromisers" have the strongest need to rush to a solution because they see "agreement" as more important than the issue itself. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81) The win–lose strategy of conflict resolution allows one side of a conflict to win at the expense of the other. ⊚ true ⊚ false

82) When a conflict manager has an avoidance style of managing conflict, he or she will deny the very validity of a problem.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

83) In an organization, high conformers think independently, solve problems creatively, and often cause some conflict in the process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84) Working with and managing low conformers requires a special capacity for patience and good will. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85) Managers will not be able to change a low conformer any more than they are likely to change a high conformer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86) One way of dealing effectively with envious people is to avoid excessive contact with them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87)

Whiners and complainers are good at taking advantage of sympathetic listeners. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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88) Passive people tend to be quiet, but they are responsive when they need to provide answers or input to a discussion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89)

One way to deal with passive people is to ask them open-ended questions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90) Concession bargaining is the process of getting each side in a conflict to willingly make concessions in exchange for concessions made by the opposing side. ⊚ ⊚

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20

Answer Key Test name: Chapter 11 Conflict Management 1) Conflict 2) intergroup 3) institutionalized 4) compromising 5) accommodators 6) collaboration 7) Passive 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) A 14) C 15) D 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) D 26) B Version 1

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27) D 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) D 36) B 37) C 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE Version 1

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77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1)

Define stress.

2)

Define a stressor.

3)

In the context of Hans Selye's theory, describe the two types of stress.

4)

What are chronic stressors?

5)

What are external stressors?

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6)

Why is inner conflict considered an external stressor?

7)

Describe the three types of inner conflict.

8)

Explain the process of cognitive appraisal.

9)

Explain Albert Ellis's ABC approach.

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10)

How do irrational beliefs cause anxiety and misery in people?

11) According to the type A and type B personality theory, why are type A people more likely to have health issues?

12) In the context of the folk wisdom around the type A and type B personality theory, explain why top executives are likely to be type B people.

13)

Why do people with a hardy personality handle stressful situations with ease?

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14) What are the reactions that take place in the alarm stage of the general adaptation syndrome?

15) How does the body react to a stressor in the second stage of the general adaptation syndrome?

16) According to the theory of general adaptation syndrome, what happens when you cannot adapt to a stressor?

17)

Explain the term "disease of adaptation."

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18)

What are the three basic functions of the immune system?

19)

How does chronic stress affect the immune system?

20)

How does workplace stress affect organizations?

21)

Discuss the physical and psychological problems associated with stress in the workplace.

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22) According to Christina Maslach and Michael P. Leiter, what are the six areas related to employee happiness and reduced job burnout?

23)

Discuss the ways in which individuals can reduce stress.

24) _____, or bad stress, is the kind of stress you might feel during an illness or when going through a divorce.

25) _____ stressors are stressors that include anything from outside sources that causes you pain, discomfort, frustration, or conflict.

26) According to psychologists, _____ stressors can include your own perceptions or interpretations of a stressor, as well as personality factors.

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27)

People who _____ convert an irrational belief into an imagined disaster.

28) According to the type A and type B personality theory, people with a _____ personality seem more likely to have cardiovascular problems such as heart attacks and strokes.

29) When you are not able to adapt to a stressor and end up using up all your physical resources, you enter the third stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), known as the stage of _____.

30) Job _____ is the physical and emotional exhaustion resulting from long-term stress or frustration in one's workplace.

31) According to psychologists, _____ can be defined as the nonspecific response of the body to any demand made on it.

A) depression B) anxiety C) conflict D) stress

32) Which of the following psychologists theorized that human bodies are nearly always in some kind of stress?

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A) Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi B) Hans Selye C) F. Skinner D) Eric Berne

33)

The positive stress that is felt when playing baseball is referred to as A) a chronic stressor.

B) distress.

C) conflict.

D) eustress.

34)

Which of the following statements is true of eustress?

A) It is a kind of pleasant and desirable stress.

B) It is the kind of stress you might feel during an illness.

C) It leads to pain, discomfort, and frustration.

D) It occurs when you are drawn toward and away from a desirable end at the same

time.

35) Which of the following kinds of stress will you most likely experience when you win a race?

A) distress B) hypostress C) hyperstress D) eustress

36)

Which kind of stress will you most likely experience when you are down with a cold?

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A) distress B) hypostress C) hyperstress D) eustress

37)

Which of the following is an example of a chronic stressor?

A) the excitement about a vacation B) the disappointment over the loss of a game of tennis C) the anger felt at being discriminated against because of your gender D) the grief at the death of a family member

38) Keilla works part time at a publishing firm. She loves her work and her colleagues. As an appreciation of her job performance, she is offered a promotion. Around the same time, Keilla's best friend asks her to join her as a partner in her bakery. Baking and making desserts is Keilla's passion. Keilla is unable to decide. Which type of inner conflict is Keilla facing?

A) an avoid-approach conflict B) an avoid-avoid conflict C) an approach-approach conflict D) a content conflict

39) Jacob was excited to get a promotion as a marketing manager, but the promotion also meant that he would have to relocate to another state. Jacob is reluctant to move. Which type of inner conflict will this situation create for Jacob?

A) an approach-avoid conflict B) an approach-approach conflict C) an avoid-avoid conflict D) a values conflict

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40)

Which type of inner conflict occurs when you are torn between two undesirable options?

A) a values conflict B) an approach-approach conflict C) an avoid-approach conflict D) an avoid-avoid conflict

41)

Which of the following is a source of an external stressor?

A) chronic worries B) relationship issues C) shy or unassertive personality D) aggressive or bossy personality

42)

Which of the following is an example of an internal stressor?

A) frustration B) inner conflict C) irrational beliefs D) relationship issues

43)

Which of the following best describes cognitive appraisal?

A) It is a way of thinking that causes internal stress by substituting a realistic belief with one that is destructive.

B) It is your "thinking evaluation" of an event or a situation.

C) It is the process of expanding an irrational belief into an imagined disaster.

D) It is a thinking that occurs when goals that you are trying to attain are blocked.

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44) Jenna constantly tries to please everyone around her. She believes that she must have the love and approval of all the people who are important to her. Consequently, she works late to finish tasks for her colleagues, constantly runs errands for her friends, and gets overloaded with work because she can never refuse sudden requests from her boss. The most likely reason for Jenna's unnecessary stress is A) her irrational belief system.

B) her faulty cognitive appraisal.

C) an avoid-avoid inner conflict.

D) an approach-avoid inner conflict.

45) Darin was promoted, but it meant leaving the bustling city life he loved and moving to a different state in a quiet part of the country. It would also mean that his wife will have to leave her present job and search for a new job. Darin's reluctance best exemplifies the A) avoid-avoid inner conflict.

B) approach-approach inner conflict.

C) approach-avoid inner conflict.

D) irrational belief system.

46) According to Albert Ellis's ABC approach, which of the following is the biggest culprit for an individual's emotional stress and anxiety?

A) the activating event B) the belief about the activating event C) the consequences of the activating event D) the chronic stressors of the activating event

47)

Who among the following is most likely to have a type A personality?

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A) John, who is flexible in delegating work to others and has a minimal sense of time urgency B) Derek, who has the ability to live in the present and quickly adapts to any situation C) Sarah, who is docile and submissive in nature D) Jessica, who is a perfectionist with a sense of time urgency and is often hostile

48)

Which of the following is a characteristic of people with a type B personality?

A) They have a sense of time urgency.

B) They are characterized by perfectionism.

C) They are more relaxed than a type A personality.

D) They are typically hostile and impatient.

49) According to the type A and type B personality theory, type B personality differs from type A personality in that people with a type B personality A) are typically hostile perfectionists.

B) are less relaxed and flexible.

C) have a greater sense of time urgency.

D) are better at delegating responsibility.

50)

The "three Cs," challenge, commitment, and control, are the characteristics of a A) hardy personality type.

B) type A personality.

C) type B personality.

D) distressed personality type.

51)

Identify a characteristic of people with the hardy personality type.

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A) They see themselves as passive beings.

B) They have an external locus of control.

C) They feel a sense of purpose or mission in life.

D) They are impatient, hostile perfectionists.

52) Which of the following best describes a resilient personality type, characterized by the ability to meet challenges, a sense of commitment, and a feeling of being in control of life?

A) type A personality B) a distressed personality C) a hardy personality D) type B personality

53) Which of the following is a theory developed by Hans Selye that tested the physical effect of stress on people?

A) the type A/type B personality theory B) the cognitive appraisal concept C) the operant conditioning concept D) the general adaptation syndrome

54) According to Hans Selye's general adaptation syndrome (GAS) theory, when the fight-orflight response is activated, the human body has entered the A) stage of adaptation.

B) alarm stage.

C) stage of exhaustion.

D) regression stage.

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55) According to Hans Selye's general adaptation syndrome (GAS) theory, the human body reacts to a stressor in the alarm stage by A) activating the sympathetic nervous system.

B) activating the parasympathetic nervous system.

C) simultaneously relaxing all the muscles in the body.

D) immediately exhausting all available physical reserves.

56)

Which of the following is the second stage of the general adaptation syndrome?

A) the alarm stage B) the stage of exhaustion C) the stage of adaptation D) the stage of succumbing to a disease of adaptation

57) According to Hans Selye's general adaptation syndrome theory, in which of the following ways does the body react in the stage of adaptation?

A) There is a sudden rush of adrenaline in the blood stream.

B) The sympathetic nervous system shuts down, and the parasympathetic nervous system is activated.

C) The heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration shoot up at this stage.

D) The body restores lost energy and repairs any damage done.

58) According to Hans Selye's general adaptation syndrome theory, which of the following statements is true of the stage of exhaustion?

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A) In this stage, the sympathetic nervous system shuts down, and the parasympathetic nervous system is activated.

B) In this stage, a person is unable to cope with a prolonged stressor and can become vulnerable to other stressors.

C) It is also known as the stage of adaptation or recovery.

D) It is a stage where people are able to cope with stressors and soon return to normal.

59) Before going on vacation, Philip worked almost 16 hours a day for a week to complete his work. Due to his stressful work schedule, he fell ill on the third day and spent the rest of his vacation recovering from the illness. In the context of the general adaptation syndrome, Philip is in the A) first stage.

B) stage of adaptation.

C) stage of exhaustion.

D) alarm stage.

60)

Which of the following statements is true of stress?

A) Even serious chronic illnesses such as cancer are linked to stress.

B) The human body reacts to the first signs of stress by shutting down the sympathetic nervous system.

C) It is not possible to recognize the fight-or-flight feelings of immediate stressors.

D) In the second stage of the general adaptation syndrome, the human body shuts down the parasympathetic nervous system to cope with stress.

61) According to the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), when the human body is first confronted with a stressor, it

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A) activates the fight-or-flight response.

B) shuts down the sympathetic nervous system.

C) succumbs to a disease of adaptation.

D) decreases heart rate and relaxes tensed muscles.

62)

What can managers do to reduce workplace stress?

A) challenge employees by giving excessive work B) be laid-back while making decisions for the team C) promote groupthink among employees D) encourage independent and creative thinking

63)

Stress is any reaction or response your body makes to a new situation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64)

Eustress is the kind of stress you are likely to feel when going through a divorce. ⊚ true ⊚ false

65)

A stressor is a situation or an event that causes the body to react. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66)

Stress can be caused by major life changes as well as by everyday hassles. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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67) Chronic stressors are more stressful than a major life change but not as stressful as daily hassles. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68)

Inner conflict is considered as an external stressor. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69) An approach-approach inner conflict occurs when you are drawn toward and away from something at the same time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70)

An avoid–avoid inner conflict occurs when you are torn between two undesirable options. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71)

Major life changes are internal sources of stress. ⊚ true ⊚ false

72)

People's cognitive appraisal remains constant for almost all situations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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73)

Frustration is the feeling people get when goals they are trying to attain are blocked. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74) The more stressors you encounter, the more comfortable you feel at adapting to new stressors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75)

According to psychologist Albert Ellis, irrational beliefs are a source of internal stress. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76) According to psychologist Albert Ellis, the biggest culprit in one's emotional stress and anxiety is the C (or consequences) part of the ABC. ⊚ true ⊚ false

77)

Irrational beliefs can lead to instances of catastrophizing an event. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78) Type A personalities are seen as impatient, hostile perfectionists with a sense of time urgency. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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79) According to folk wisdom, top-level executives are most likely to have type A personalities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

80) People with a hardy personality seem to have three things in common: challenge, commitment, and control. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81)

People with a hardy personality typically have an external locus of control. ⊚ true ⊚ false

82) According to the general adaptation syndrome, when you are first confronted with a stressor, your body responds with an activation of the parasympathetic nervous system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

83) According to Selye's theory, you enter the third stage of the general adaptation syndrome, the stage of exhaustion, when the fight-or-flight response is activated. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84) In the alarm stage of Selye's general adaptation syndrome, there is an increase in the heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration and a sudden release of adrenaline.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

85) According to Selye's theory, you enter the second stage of general adaptation syndrome when you cannot adapt to the stressor successfully and end up using all your physical resources. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86) According to Selye's theory, eustress does not produce physical and chemical changes in the fight-or-flight response. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) Chronic stress can actually weaken your immune system, and you may fall victim to an illness that you would normally fight off with ease. ⊚ true ⊚ false

88) Researchers have found that people under stress may act restless, impatient, competitive, and pressured. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89)

Medical research suggests that the effects of stress can strike back much later in life. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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90) Managers can reduce workplace stress by being soft and laid-back while making decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91) Managers can reduce stress in the working environment by providing authority and rewards commensurate with responsibilities and performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92)

Stress does not affect self-esteem. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93) Stressed employees are more likely than nonstressed employees to abuse alcohol or other drugs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

94) Stress impacts all areas of people's lives: physical health, mental health, social life, and job performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 12 Stress and Stress Management 24) Distress 25) External 26) internal 27) catastrophize 28) type A 29) exhaustion 30) burnout 31) D 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) A 37) C 38) C 39) A 40) D 41) B 42) C 43) B 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) C 49) D Version 1

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50) A 51) C 52) C 53) D 54) B 55) A 56) C 57) D 58) B 59) C 60) A 61) A 62) D 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE Version 1

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80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1)

According to Michael LeBoeuf, what are the two things that customers buy?

2)

Explain why the importance of high-quality customer service has increased.

3)

Discuss the importance of customer service.

4)

Why is it important to treat internal customers right?

5)

Describe ways of identifying a customer's unspoken needs.

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6)

List three basic human needs that all customers share.

7) How should a person treat a customer who is not interested in purchasing any product but just wants to be noticed? Substantiate your response.

8)

What kind of attitude should be avoided when dealing with customers?

9)

Why are bad news skills considered important for business?

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10)

What are the effective ways of delivering bad news to a customer?

11)

Why should firms encourage complaints from customers?

12)

Why should firms lay emphasis on the practice of listening to customer complaints?

13)

What are the various means of rewarding customers who complain?

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14) What are the two things to remember when dealing with unreasonable, angry, or overly demanding customers?

15)

What is the self-esteem trap?

16)

Using an example, describe the practice of "going the extra mile."

17)

Why is it important to act ethically in all dealings with customers?

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18) According to Christopher MacDonald, what are the ways in which customer service can become unethical?

19) Suggest practices that companies can employ to ensure the highest standards of professionalism and ethics in their delivery of customer service.

20) In the context of effective customer service, define the practice known as relationship selling.

21) In the context of issues in customer service, what should one keep in mind while suggesting a solution to a customer?

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22)

What should you do when customer service conflicts with ethics?

23) According to Michael LeBoeuf, customers buy only two things: good _____ and solutions to problems.

24) According to the American Management Association, 65 percent of a typical company's business comes from repeat business by _____ customers.

25) Good service, which nearly always includes good human ____, is the main reason for repeat business.

26) According to the rules for giving a customer bad news, one should avoid repeatedly apologizing for bad news and remember that customers want reasons and _____.

27) Reggie is a customer who never complains when the waiters of a restaurant are sloppy; he simply makes it a point to visit another restaurant if he continues to face the same issue with a particular restaurant. Reggie best exemplifies a(n) _____ customer.

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28)

To succeed with customers, you must learn to bolster their ____.

29) Dream Land manufactures children's toys. In its advertisements, the company stresses on its motto of making children happy. In doing so, the company is trying to A) sell good feelings.

B) resolve marketing problems.

C) earn extra profits.

D) use technology to make advanced toys.

30)

The most obvious reason for increased importance for high-quality customer service is A) greater competition.

B) a more diverse customer base.

C) stricter government rules.

D) greater cultural diversity.

31)

An internal customer is best described as a person who

A) buys good feelings and solutions to his or her problems.

B) depends on the other people in the company to provide the services and products for the external customer.

C) is a long-standing customer considered a part of the organization owing to his or her loyalty.

D) never complains but responds to bad service by taking his or her business elsewhere.

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32) Bruce is a customer service representative of GoodHomes appliances. He is responsible for providing solutions to customers' problems. To provide solutions to customers, Bruce depends on the team of technical experts in the company. From the given information, we can conclude that Bruce is a(n) A) internal customer.

B) "nice" customer.

C) mediator.

D) broker.

33)

Two of the simplest principles of customer service include A) Creating needs in your customers and trying to satisfy those needs B) Selling the product first and explaining how the product benefits the customer C) Preparing the idea for a service and finding a customer to fit the service D) Finding out what the customer needs and doing whatever is necessary to satisfy those

needs

34)

If a customer does not have a thorough understanding of what his or her own needs are A) you should focus on providing quality products.

B) you should consider revising your product and service offerings.

C) you should probe to find out the needs behind his or her surface statements.

D) you should try to satisfy his or her material needs and not basic human needs.

35) In the context of the two simple principles of customer services, if a customer is more interested in being noticed than in buying a product, one should

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A) redirect the customer to speak with one of the managers of the establishment.

B) treat the customer with the same cordiality one would treat a paying customer.

C) politely request the customer to come when he or she actually wants to purchase a product.

D) only pay attention to him or her after handling the needs of paying customers.

36) An elderly customer approaches Mara, a sales executive at a store that sells smartphones.

The customer seems confused by the variety of options available at the store, and he makes vague statements about how telephones looked and functioned very differently in his youth. In the context of the two simple principles of customer services, how should Mara deal with the customer?

A) She should explain the function of each smartphone to help him understand the quality of the products.

B) She should ask him a series of questions to find out what his needs are and which of the store's products would best fulfil them.

C) She should politely ask the customer to return to the store when he has decided which smartphone he needs.

D) She should redirect him to speak to a manager at her store and focus her efforts on helping paying customers.

37)

Which of the following is a faulty notion regarding customer service?

A) Knowing the issues involved in a business is important to develop the skills of effective customer service.

B) Customer service is of little importance as customers exist for the benefit of businesspeople.

C) The most obvious reason for increased importance for high-quality customer service is high competition.

D) Keeping customers happy and loyal simply makes good economic sense.

38)

In the context of a business environment, bad news skills refer to

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A) the skills necessary to deliver bad news to customers but still retain their business and goodwill.

B) the ability to receive bad news without being emotional or sentimental.

C) the ability of gossipmongers to spread rumors within an organization.

D) the required skills to bluntly deliver bad news to clients without wasting time sugarcoating the news.

39)

When delivering bad news to a customer, you should typically A) use an aggressive tone of voice.

B) avoid apologizing when the news is related to company policies.

C) use a polite tone of voice.

D) dwell on long apologies.

40)

Which of the following statements is a rule for giving bad news to a customer?

A) One must explain the bad news to the customer by citing company policies.

B) One must focus on talking to the customer about potential solutions for a problem.

C) One should repeatedly apologize to the customer while giving them the bad news.

D) One should cut off the customer if he or she rants after receiving the bad news.

41) Lana informs a customer that the car she purchased will be delivered three weeks later than expected. She speaks to the customer politely and clearly. She briefly apologizes and explains that the problems at the company's assembly plant caused the delay. Lana offers the customer a replacement car to use in the meantime, which the customer gratefully accepts. In the context of effective customer service, Lana has A) the ability to encourage customer complaints.

B) sound bad news skills.

C) fallen into the self-esteem trap.

D) prioritized customer service over achieving company goals.

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42)

Why should a firm encourage customer complaints?

A) Customer complaints that a firm receives have little impact on its positive image.

B) Complaints are a means of ensuring work for the customer service department.

C) Complaining customers can be segmented and treated as a separate group to be handled differently.

D) Customer complaints inspire improvements to service that would otherwise have gone unnoticed.

43)

A "nice" customer is best described as a person who

A) does not complain but responds to bad service by taking his or her business elsewhere.

B) is a long-standing customer and stays loyal in spite of bad service.

C) regularly provides feedback after using a product.

D) is a regular customer who helps a business serve better.

44)

Why are "nice" customers often considered detrimental to a business?

A) They have many complains about the products of a business.

B) They do not provide honest feedback.

C) They are difficult to satisfy.

D) They have an aggressive temperament.

45)

Which of the following scenarios illustrates the characteristics of a "nice" customer?

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A) Rebecca is unhappy with the quality of the food at a restaurant. Though she does not complain about it to the management, she never returns to the restaurant and tells all her friends to avoid going there.

B) Steve is disappointed with the quality of the paper he receives from a supplier.

However, he does not complain about it and continues to make further purchases from the supplier.

C) Mark receives a half-baked pie at a restaurant. He complains to his waiter about it and has his meal comped by the manager.

D) Mina realizes that she purchased a faulty printer from a store. She writes to the store about it, and they send her a replacement printer.

46)

Which of the following is true of a customer complaint?

A) It is a personal attack against the owner of a business.

B) It means that the relationship with the customer is broken permanently.

C) It is an opportunity for a business to improve.

D) It is typically an attempt to spoil the company's name.

47)

An emphasis on careful listening to customer complaints is important because A) it is typically an attempt to spoil the company's name.

B) it is a personal attack against your business.

C) it helps in retaining "nice" customers.

D) it sends the signal that yours is a customer-focused business.

48) When customers perceive that you are willing to listen to their problems and that you are encouraging their response, they are most likely to

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A) respond honestly and openly.

B) become suspicious and hold back their responses.

C) take this as a sign of weakness and take advantage of your courtesy.

D) demand compensation for their suggestions and feedback.

49)

Which of the following is the best way of soliciting complaints?

A) "How is our new cafe?"

B) "What are the factors that impressed you the most at our cafe?"

C) "Suggest one thing that we can do to improve your experience at our cafe."

D) "Name three unique things you noticed at our new cafe."

50)

Which of the following is the most important factor in the customer complaint process?

A) correcting the problems customers are complaining about B) rewarding the customers who complain with gifts C) making a database of all customer complaints D) encouraging more customers to register their complaints

51) In the context of handling difficult customers, when dealing with an unreasonable, angry, or overly demanding customer, one should A) repeatedly apologize about the issue to calm the customer down.

B) resist the urge to express one's own anger and frustration in return.

C) offer the customer a monetary incentive for complaining.

D) walk away from the customer to give him or her the chance to cool off.

52) In the context of handling difficult customers, when a customer has an emotional outburst about a problem, one must

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A) walk away from the customer to let him or her cool off.

B) express anger openly rather than bottling it up and letting it damage one's morale.

C) compliment the customer to bolster his or her self-esteem trap.

D) resist the urge to fall into the self-esteem trap.

53)

The self-esteem trap is best described as

A) the circumstance that arises when a customer with a low self-esteem fails to express his or her needs clearly.

B) the circumstance that comes from taking a customer's attack personally and letting it affect your own self-esteem.

C) the condition in which a person with a high self-esteem looks down upon people with low-self-esteems.

D) the subconscious activity that compares your self-image against your image of others.

54) When a company gives customers free products or services as a way of showing appreciation for their relationship with them, it is referred to as A) going the extra mile.

B) providing employee assistance programs.

C) practicing conditional positive regard.

D) compensating for a weakness.

55) of

Uranus, a retail store, provides supervised child care for its customers. This is an example

A) providing an employee assistance program.

B) providing intrinsic motivators.

C) practicing conditional positive regard.

D) going the extra mile.

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56) Which of the following questions is an effective self-check when deciding on an ethical approach to a situation?

A) "Would I want all of my procedures to be made public knowledge?"

B) "Would I want to continue with this customer?"

C) "Would this customer be pleased with my suggestions?"

D) "Would my actions lead to a solution to the issue?"

57)

Which of the following questions is the Golden Rule for ethical customer service?

A) "Is this customer a valuable resource to be considered with utmost importance?"

B) "Would you want to continue with this customer?"

C) "Are you treating the customer the way you would like to be treated in a similar situation?"

D) "Is there an easier, noncontroversial manner to resolve the customer's problem?"

58)

Which of the following strategies should be followed when dealing with customers?

A) You should take customers' complaints personally.

B) To succeed with customers, you must avoid bolstering their self-esteem.

C) You should be cautious when accepting feedback and suggestions from customers as, most often, these turn out to be personal attacks.

D) You should respect your customers and give them the highest-quality service but should never let them run your business.

59)

The American economy is based on delivery of services. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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60) The cost of finding a new customer is considerably lower than the cost of keeping one you already have. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) The term internal customer is used to describe the complex interaction among managers, employees, and external customers around a business or organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) An external customer is the person who provides services and products to other people in the same company. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) Unlike their internal counterparts, external customers are tied to a company more directly. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) When the person who is connected long term to a company is treated the way an external customer should be, the results are predictably negative. ⊚ true ⊚ false

65)

Of the two types of customers, internal customers walk away when the service is bad.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

66) The two simplest principles of customer service are finding out what the customer needs and doing whatever is necessary to satisfy those needs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

67)

Having quality products alone is enough for a business to succeed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68)

Treating nonpaying customers well is a good business practice. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69) When giving a customer bad news, one should avoid apologizing too much and focus on providing reasons and taking actions to fix the problem. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70) One of the most accepted and effective ways of handling impossible customer requests is to quote your company's policy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71) A "nice" customer is someone who never complains but responds by taking his/her business elsewhere.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

72)

A customer complaint is a personal attack and should be tackled as such. ⊚ true ⊚ false

73)

A customer complaint is an opportunity to improve. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74)

Customer complaints should be encouraged as they inspire improvements to service. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75) Questions such as "How was the service?" and "Was everything okay?" typically generate an honest and helpful response from customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76) Offering free food or a chance to win a prize are effective ways of rewarding customers who offer helpful complaints. ⊚ true ⊚ false

77)

A customer who is wrong, angry, and rude need not be treated with courtesy and civility. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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78) Instead of using your energy to show a difficult customer that you are right and that he or she is wrong, you should focus on getting the customer calmed down. ⊚ true ⊚ false

79) "Going the extra mile" refers to the helpful actions of some customers who provide valuable feedback and suggestions to improve the effectiveness of your service. ⊚ true ⊚ false

80) When a customer with an injured hand had to fill out a long customer survey form, Jason, the store manager, took time out to do it for her. Jason was "going the extra mile" for the customer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81) The customer service ethics of a company or organization is independent of the quality of the services its customers will receive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

82)

Unethical customer service can result in victimized customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

83) Regardless of company decisions, a loyal customer should be given the flexibility of going against the decisions if needed.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

84) When faced with an angry customer, cutting him or her off typically proves to be beneficial. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85)

You should take a customer's feedback personally as that helps your business grow. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86) The Golden Rule of ethical customer service is: Are you treating the customer the way you would like to be treated in a similar situation? ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) In the context of handling a difficult customer, identifying the source of an upset customer's fear is an important step in solving a clash with him or her. ⊚ true ⊚ false

88) Relationship selling reduces the chances that a customer would return and buy from you again. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89)

Empathy is the ability to put yourself in the other person's place.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

90) One effective way of dealing with customers is to avoid any outside distraction and make them feel important. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91) Thanking the customer for his or her patience and for bringing the problem to your attention is a positive way to end a customer interaction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92)

A brand promise represents the company's ideas, beliefs, and values. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93) A brand value is a short statement that tells customers what they can expect from a particular brand. ⊚ true ⊚ false

94) The better a company delivers on its brand promise, the stronger the brand value in the mind of customers and employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 13 Your External and Internal Customers 23) feelings 24) current 25) relations 26) action 27) nice 28) self-esteem 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) C 35) B 36) B 37) B 38) A 39) C 40) B 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) B 45) A 46) C 47) D 48) A Version 1

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49) C 50) A 51) B 52) D 53) B 54) A 55) D 56) A 57) C 58) D 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE Version 1

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79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1) Older people, homosexuals, ethnic groups, women, and other minorities contribute to a(n) _____ society.

2) The origins of prejudice can be divided into three broad categories: social causes, _____ causes, and emotional causes.

3)

Male chauvinism is also known as _____.

4) In the context of the problems women face in the workplace, employees who choose the _____ are expected to work extra hours, ask for extra work, and work nights and weekends.

5) The overall purpose of the _____ is to allow people with disabilities to enjoy most of the benefits that everyone else enjoys.

6) _____ prejudice occurs when a person believes prejudicial remarks and assumptions, and in turn accepts being treated in a discriminatory manner—which may include falling for the selffulfilling prophecy.

7)

_____ are your thoughts or beliefs about specific groups of people.

A) Prejudices B) Discriminations C) Self-fulfilling prophecies D) Stereotypes

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8)

_____ is the way you feel as a result of the stereotypes you believe in.

A) Prejudice B) Interdependence C) Virtue

9)

Identify a true statement about prejudice.

A) It is a result of fair and judicious thinking.

B) It reflects how a person feels as a result of the stereotypes he or she believes in.

C) It occurs when two people, who know each other extremely well, begin to judge each other.

D) It results in the economic empowerment of marginalized workers.

10)

Institutional prejudice occurs when

A) the employees of an organization are involved in groupthink because of time pressure, stress, and low collective self-esteem.

B) the policies in an organization that are not intentionally set to exclude members of specific groups have a discriminatory effect.

C) the employees of an organization turn an irrational belief into an imagined disaster.

D) an organization deliberately hires more men as compared with women.

11)

Which of the following statements is true of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?

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A) It excluded as employers government and other public institutions.

B) It covered any employer who employed at least 15 people for at least 20 weeks per year.

C) It established the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC).

D) It made it illegal to discriminate against anyone on the basis of age.

12) The _____ was established to monitor the amended Civil Rights Act of 1972 and related laws.

A) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) B) Better Business Bureau (BBB) C) U.S. Merit System Protection Board D) Human and Civil Rights Organizations of America (HCROA)

13)

Cognitive origin of prejudice deals with prejudice that arises from A) the need to feel higher in status than others.

B) a high level of self-esteem.

C) the ability to categorize people quickly.

D) a refusal to assign people to boxes.

14)

Which of the following statements is a social theory of prejudice?

A) Prejudices arise because people look for a target to blame when frustrated.

B) Prejudices arise from the need to categorize people quickly.

C) Prejudices arise when people try to raise their own self-esteem.

D) Prejudices arise because people see their own ethnic groups as the most normal.

15)

Cognitive categorization is best described as

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A) the process of identifying categories of stimuli before the mind starts processing any information.

B) the ability of some people to simultaneously process information belonging to different categories.

C) a process in which the mind quickly sorts information into categories to function efficiently.

D) a psychoanalytic tool used to probe the unconscious needs underlying our statements.

16)

Identify a cognitive cause of prejudice.

A) People need to feel accepted, leading them to rate other groups as inferior.

B) Sorting people quickly in order to function efficiently leads to prejudice.

C) People feel superior when they are able to identify other groups of people as inferior.

D) The struggle and resentment between the haves and the have-nots lead to prejudice.

17)

Scapegoating refers to the practice of A) accepting defeat in an organizational conflict.

B) assigning people to cognitive boxes and then negatively evaluating them.

C) discriminating against people over the age of 40.

D) unfairly blaming others when something goes wrong.

18)

Which of the following best exemplifies the practice of scapegoating?

A) Karl has a low self-esteem and, as a result, tries hard to please everyone around him.

B) Rex passes lewd comments about his female colleagues.

C) Tina believes that her ethnic group is superior to other ethnic groups.

D) Carl unfairly blames his African American team members for his failure to meet a deadline.

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19)

Ethnocentrism is an emotional source of prejudice because of

A) the ability of people to quickly sort information into categories to function efficiently.

B) the tendency of people to unfairly blame others (such as ethnic groups) when something goes wrong.

C) people's gut-level feelings about how right their group is and how wrong other groups are.

D) people's need to raise their self-esteem by identifying other groups as inferior.

20)

Which of the following statements is true of ethnocentrism?

A) Ethnocentrism is a cognitive source of prejudice.

B) It is the belief that people belonging to all ethnic groups are normal.

C) It is the belief that other ethnic groups are more normal than one's own ethnic group.

D) The phenomenon of ethnocentrism is not always intentional.

21)

Which of the following is a social cause of prejudice?

A) the need of people to define themselves and conform to a group's standards B) the tendency of people to view their own ethnic groups as the most normal C) the tendency of people to quickly sort information into categories to function efficiently D) the need of people to look for a target to blame when they are frustrated

22) Which of the following is a theory that has been put forth about how social factors cause prejudice?

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A) People feel that their own ethnic group is the most normal.

B) People feel superior when they identify other groups as inferior.

C) People have the ability and the need to categorize other people quickly.

D) People look for a target to blame when they are frustrated.

23) Valencia is of the opinion that her culture is superior to other cultures. She criticizes the beliefs of people belonging to other cultures. Valencia's attitude best exemplifies A) ageism.

B) nepotism.

C) sexism.

D) ethnocentrism.

24) Which of the following is a result of choosing the mommy track over the fast track when climbing the career ladder?

A) being asked to work extra hours B) fewer promotions or raises C) foregoing domestic responsibilities D) greater job satisfaction

25)

Which of the following statements is true of homosexuality?

A) It refers to people who are sexually attracted to multiple genders.

B) There is reason to believe that homosexuals are less reliable than heterosexuals as homosexuality is genetically determined.

C) There is no reason to believe that homosexuals do their jobs any better or worse than anyone else.

D) It has been established in the United States that homosexuality is a chosen lifestyle and should be a protected category.

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26)

Prejudice and discrimination toward older people are referred to as A) procrastination.

B) ageism.

C) egocentrism.

D) nepotism.

27)

Which of the following best exemplifies ageism?

A) Benson looks down on his female colleagues.

B) Lilac Star Inc. mostly hires white Americans.

C) Tara is of the opinion that her ethnic group is superior to other ethnic groups.

D) Blue Mark Inc. forces its employees to retire at 45.

28) In the United States, which of the following questions is most likely to be considered illegal in interviews when hiring?

A) "Susan, why should we hire you?"

B) "Susan, could you describe how you resolved any conflict, personal or professional, in your last organization?"

C) "Susan, you've been married for four years. So, when are you planning to have children?"

D) "Susan, what contribution would you make to our organization if given the job?"

29) When sexual harassment relates to indirect actions like posting pornography or talking about sex in a manner that makes others uncomfortable, this is called creating a(n)

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A) open culture.

B) sexist stereotype.

C) hostile environment.

D) gender-neutral environment.

30) Greg, the manager of a retail store, puts up pornographic images on the walls of his office cubicle. This act of Greg can be construed as A) ageism.

B) sexual harassment.

C) racial discrimination.

D) ethnocentrism.

31) Janice's manager, Mr. Stone, makes it a point to compliment her every day and sometimes comments on her perfect figure. These comments make Janice uncomfortable. Mr. Stone's behavior could be construed as A) sexual harassment.

B) racism.

C) ethnocentrism.

D) institutionalized prejudice.

32)

The worst reaction to incidents of sexual harassment is A) an institutional inquiry.

B) no response.

C) a lawsuit.

D) a police complaint.

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33)

The most important first step when faced with sexual harassment is A) reporting the incident to the top management.

B) threatening to inform fellow employees.

C) just asking or telling the person to stop.

D) filing a suit.

34)

Identify a true statement about sexual harassment.

A) The best response to sexual harassment is to create a hostile environment for the perpetrator.

B) Sexual harassment is limited to the harassment of female employees by male superiors.

C) Indirect actions like talking about sex in a manner that makes others uncomfortable are a form of sexual harassment.

D) The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) reports that the most common type of harassment consists of showing sexually explicit material.

35)

In 2017, Time magazine selected _____ for their "Person of the Year" award.

A) the "silence breakers" of the #MeToo movement B) the "pandemic warriors" working tirelessly to save lives C) rescue operatives who save lives when disasters strike D) ethical hackers who expose internet safety issues

36)

Identify an example of a self-fulfilling prophecy.

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A) Maria worked hard to top her calculus class to prove to the professor that women can excel in mathematics.

B) Dean regularly faced insults about his ethnicity at his predominantly white workplace.

C) Brian fired a 57-year-old employee over a minor error as he believed old people are not reliable at work.

D) Laura, a skilled programmer, performed poorly at her new coding job due to her male colleagues' overt sexism.

37)

A self-fulfilling prophecy is best described as

A) a process in which the mind quickly sorts information into categories to function efficiently.

B) the tendency for a prediction to actually occur once it is believed.

C) a calculated prediction regarding the behavioral tendencies of an employee.

D) a behavioral pattern that leads to a prediction of future behavioral tendencies.

38)

Equal status refers to the condition that occurs when

A) all employees feel equally discriminated within a company.

B) employees of the same status within a company have to face discrimination of the same nature.

C) different ethnic groups in a company cooperate with each other.

D) companies hire employees who are frequent targets of discrimination into all levels within the company.

39)

Which of the following is an important ingredient for reducing prejudice?

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A) competition B) proximity C) filtering D) compensating

40) Which of the following terms is defined as a relationship in which members of different groups not only must cooperate but also must rely on each other to reach common goals?

A) relatedness B) groupthink C) interdependence D) incrementalism

41)

Give an example each of a positive and a negative stereotype.

42)

Discuss prejudice and bias.

43) What are the measures taken by the U.S. government toward eliminating discrimination in the workplace?

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44)

What are the three categories of origins of prejudice?

45) List the various theories that have been put forth about how social factors cause prejudice.

46)

What is cognitive categorization?

47)

What is ethnocentrism?

48)

What leads to ethnocentrism?

49)

Describe racism.

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50)

What is economic prejudice?

51)

Discuss sexism.

52) What are the two tracks women have to choose from when climbing the career ladder in most companies?

53)

Discuss the controversy regarding homosexuality in the workplace.

54)

List three myths concerning hiring people with disabilities.

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55)

Discuss pregnancy as a cause of discrimination in the workplace.

56)

Define cultural intelligence and its importance, and how to increase it.

57)

What is a hostile environment?

58)

Suggest steps to stop sexual harassment at a workplace.

59)

Discuss Gordon Allport's stand on the victims of discrimination.

60)

Define self-fulfilling prophecy.

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61) What are the important ingredients that help reduce prejudice and discrimination in a workplace?

62)

List three steps that a manager can take to prevent sexual harassment in the workplace.

63) According to the labor force trends in the United States, the number of American companies that engage directly in competition with overseas companies will decrease in the coming years. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64)

Prejudice is one type of attitude. ⊚ true ⊚ false

65)

All attitudes have three parts: what you think, feel, and do. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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66)

Stereotypes, prejudice, and discrimination form the three parts of a prejudiced attitude. ⊚ true ⊚ false

67)

Prejudice is the way you behave as a result of your stereotypes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68) For a belief to be termed a stereotype, it has to be a negative belief about members of a given group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69) Whether positive or negative, a stereotype is potentially damaging because it lumps everyone into one group without recognizing his or her individual characteristics. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70)

Stereotypes hurt minorities, women, men, and members of other groups. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71) Hiring, promotions, and job evaluations are areas where stereotypes can affect who is accepted or passed over. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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72) A bias is a tendency to judge people before one knows them, basing the judgment only on their membership in some group or category of people. ⊚ true ⊚ false

73) Discrimination is acting or intending to act, or being inclined to act, on a prejudicial attitude. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74) Discriminatory policies in the workplace that are intentionally set to exclude members of specific groups or to treat them differently are known as exclusionary policies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75) The Civil Rights Act of 1964 makes it illegal to discriminate against anyone in the workplace because of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76) The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) was established to monitor the laws laid down by the Civil Rights Act of 1964. ⊚ true ⊚ false

77)

Ethnocentrism is the single source of all prejudices.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

78) It's easier for people to feel superior when they are able to identify other groups of people as inferior. ⊚ true ⊚ false

79) One of the theories on prejudice states that prejudice helps people define themselves and feel socially accepted. ⊚ true ⊚ false

80)

Scapegoating is the practice of blaming yourself unfairly when things go wrong. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81) Selective perception is a process in which the mind quickly sorts information into categories to function efficiently. ⊚ true ⊚ false

82) One way of avoiding prejudices is to assign people to cognitive boxes and then evaluate them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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83) Ethnocentrism is an emotional source of prejudice because of people's gut-level feelings about how right their group is. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84) One of the theories about the emotional causes of prejudice is that people look for a target to blame when they are frustrated. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85)

Ethnocentrism is making it easy to overcome racial prejudice. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86) Economic prejudice is defined as prejudice and discrimination by someone toward people who are poorer or wealthier than him or her. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87)

One of the theories of prejudice is that competition leads to frustration and aggression. ⊚ true ⊚ false

88) Unlike other prejudices, economic prejudice typically goes one way as it usually involves the rich looking down on the poor. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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89)

It is better for women to be put on a pedestal by men than being seen as inferior. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90)

Prejudice and discrimination based on gender are known as sexism. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91) Placing a woman on a pedestal is the solution to the sexist attitude of considering her as being of less worth. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92) A key ingredient for people to begin to understand and appreciate members of other groups is contact. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 14 Human Relations in a World of Diversity 1) diverse 2) cognitive 3) sexism 4) fast track 5) Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) 6) Internalized 7) D 8) A 9) B 10) B 11) B 12) A 13) C 14) C 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) D 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) B Version 1

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27) D 28) C 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) B 40) C 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE Version 1

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79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1)

_____ deals with the standards of conduct and morals in a particular society.

2) Ethical _____ results when people encounter someone in need and look the other way because other people's goals or a group's pressures override the need.

3) The term _____ refers to any group that a business interacts with, such as customers, competitors, unions, suppliers, consumer groups, and government agencies.

4) The ethical _____ of an organization nearly always originates in top management and moves downward.

5)

_____ occurs when one employee is given extra privileges and allowances.

6) _____ is a newer form of whistleblowing that uses computers and computer networks to promote political rights, free speech, human rights, and freedom of information ethics.

7)

Ethics

A) merely deals with an organization's performance guidelines.

B) addresses the deeper issues of fairness, equity, and compromise than morality.

C) deals with how behavior should generally conform to cultural ideals.

D) refers to the disciplinary practices mandated by the safety requirements of a company.

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8) _____ deals with how behavior should generally conform to cultural ideals of right and wrong.

A) Well-being B) Fudging C) Ethics D) Morality

9)

Identify a difference between laws and ethical standards.

A) Laws are based on common knowledge, whereas ethics is a subject of study and contemplation.

B) Laws are specific codes of conduct, whereas ethics deals with how behavior should generally conform to cultural ideals of right and wrong.

C) Law violations carry specific penalties, whereas ethics violations are not always punishable.

D) Laws refer to specific acts, whereas ethics is more of a feeling.

10) The common perception that business and ethics do not go together is based on the misunderstanding that A) one cannot make money in business without being corrupt.

B) it is difficult to pin down when ethics violations occur.

C) one cannot mix ethics that is rooted in religion with business.

D) it is not always possible to punish ethical violations.

11)

Identify an accurate statement about ethics.

A) Businesses generally uphold the highest ethical standards.

B) Businesses usually have written guidelines on how to act when ethics are violated.

C) Ethics are often based on written guidelines.

D) Ethical guidelines are narrower in scope than moral guidelines.

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12) _____ are formalized sets of guidelines, which deal with the standards of conduct and morals in a particular society, developed by some companies for use at all levels of an organization.

A) Articles of association B) Mission statements C) Ethical codes D) Value statements

13) The _____ is an ethical philosophy that holds that all decisions should be consistent, unbiased, and based on fact.

A) principle of justice B) principle of utilitarianism C) principle of individualism D) principle of relativity

14)

The principle of utilitarianism focuses on making sure that all A) decisions are consistent, unbiased, and based on fact.

B) decisions do the greatest good for the largest number of people.

C) primary goals should achieve long-term self-interests.

D) employees have easy and fast access to legal assistance.

15) The _____ is based on a belief that decisions should be made that benefit everyone, now and into the future, for our own families, societies, and the broader social environment.

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A) principle of justice B) principle of virtue C) principle of ethical relativism D) principle of the common good

16) According to Amatai Etzioni, the belief that ethics and business do not mix is a false perception, as A) striving for personal satisfaction is everyone's birthright.

B) ethics calls one to make sacrifices for the common good.

C) it is imperative in a society to work toward the common good.

D) the laws against unethical practices do not have teeth.

17) Which of the following rationalizations of unethical behaviors holds that people are more likely to behave unethically when they are tired?

A) rationalization error B) conforming C) fatigue D) obeying authority

18) _____ is a term that means finding an excuse for behavior that causes embarrassment, shame, anxiety, or pain.

A) Whistleblowing B) Rationalizing C) Dissonance reduction D) Social loafing

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19)

Identify a true statement about people with high self-esteem.

A) They are most likely to focus on the short-term benefits rather than the long-term benefits of rationalization.

B) They engage in rationalization to justify unethical behavior.

C) They engage in unethical behavior only when it is within legal limits and is helpful for the company.

D) They are most likely to act in a socially responsible way.

20) to

A piece of advice for people who find themselves having to employ "boss massaging" is

A) seek the short-term gains of unethical behavior.

B) remember that no one can force them to act unethically.

C) justify the action even though it seems unethical.

D) mentally manipulate the facts.

21)

Which of the following statements is true of the influence of group goals?

A) People who have learned helping behavior in their families and communities do not face difficulties transferring those behaviors to the workplace.

B) There is no evidence suggesting that people change their ethical standards between home and work.

C) When encountering someone in need, many people look the other way because other people's goals or a group's pressures override the need.

D) Employees seldom need to examine how their personal ethics fit into the ethics of the firm.

22) _____ refers to a clique of trusted family members, tribal members, or friends who are at the center of power or influence.

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A) Trust territory B) Inner circle C) Power group D) Primary network

23)

In the context of global ethics, which of the following is an example of an inner circle?

A) a company's agents and suppliers B) a supervisor and his subordinates at a manufacturing firm C) head members of a tribe on an island D) members of a parliament

24)

Which of the following statements is true of future favors?

A) This practice is called inner duty by the Kenyans and inner relationship by the Japanese.

B) This practice refers to the use of company expense budgets for items of doubtful use to the company.

C) This practice translates into "making decisions that promise to do the greatest good for the largest number of people."

D) This practice can be found in nearly any culture that respects the inner circle concept.

25) _____ is a practice seen in developing countries based upon mutual obligation and resulting in the exchange of privileges over years and even generations.

A) Laissez-faire B) Future favors C) Whistleblowing D) The categorical imperative

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26)

Which of the following is most likely related to the concept of the inner circle?

A) gift exchange B) a laissez-faire system C) content conflict D) a free-rein leadership

27) _____ means putting ethical standards to work in all areas of the global community in which an individual lives.

A) Social responsibility B) Hacktivism C) Socialism D) Morality

28)

Identify a true statement about traditional social responsibility.

A) It commits a company to having ethical responsibilities in making profit.

B) It holds that companies are responsible primarily to their stakeholders.

C) It focuses on customer satisfaction as its primary objective.

D) It states that an organization is responsible only to itself and to making a profit.

29)

The _____ view of social responsibility is often criticized as selfish and destructive.

A) traditional B) public C) stakeholder D) accountability

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30) In the context of social responsibility, _____ emerged in the 1930s during the Great Depression, when views on employee rights and human relations underwent significant progress.

A) traditional social responsibility B) affirmative social responsibility C) stakeholder social responsibility D) public social responsibility

31)

Which of the following is the most broadly based perspective of social responsibility?

A) traditional social responsibility B) individual social responsibility C) stakeholder social responsibility D) affirmative social responsibility

32) According to _____, companies should be expected to avoid creating social problems such as pollution and poverty, and to work toward goals that improve conditions for everyone.

A) reciprocal social responsibility B) traditional social responsibility C) affirmative social responsibility D) private social responsibility

33) Which of the following refers to the practice of turning in or otherwise exposing people who behave unethically in your company?

A) social loafing B) scapegoating C) ostracizing D) whistleblowing

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34)

Identify a true statement about whistleblowing.

A) Employees in the 21st century face very little resistance to whistleblowing.

B) The process of whistleblowing was simplified by the Lloyd–La Follette Act of 1912.

C) Most employees refrain from whistleblowing because of fears of retaliation at workplace.

D) Individual states have been denied the right to have their own whistleblower protection laws by the Supreme Court.

35)

The best solution against whistleblowing is A) stating the terms of whistleblowing at the recruitment or induction stage.

B) having the kind of leadership that makes whistleblowing unnecessary.

C) declaring a moratorium on whistleblowing.

D) discouraging whistleblowing through posters opposing it.

36)

_____ is a consequence of an organization's management having low ethical standards.

A) Striving for the benefit of stakeholders B) The impostor phenomenon C) The Aslan phenomenon D) Fudging with the expense budget

37)

Define morality.

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38)

How is ethics different from law?

39)

What is the common view on ethics and business?

40)

What are the two major misperceptions that affect people's understanding of ethics?

41)

Briefly discuss the ethical challenges of the Internet.

42)

Define ethical codes and list the ethical philosophies that act as the basis for these codes.

43)

Explain the principle of justice.

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44)

How is the principle of individual rights different from the principle of individualism?

45)

Discuss the rights or legal principle of ethics.

46)

Illustrate the principle of utilitarianism with an example.

47)

Briefly discuss the six basic rationalizations of unethical behavior.

48)

How does self-esteem affect ethical behavior?

49)

When does "getting ahead in the company" become unethical?

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50)

Briefly discuss the roots of American values.

51)

How does tradition influence the enforcement of law?

52)

Describe the concept of "the inner circle."

53) Define the concept of "future favors." How is it different from the similar American concept?

54)

Does gift exchange amount to bribery?

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55)

Describe the three views of social responsibility.

56)

Define whistleblowing and hacktivism.

57) Ethics deals with how behavior should generally conform to cultural ideals of right and wrong. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58) Ethics often addresses deeper issues of fairness, equity, and compromise than does morality. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59)

Morality deals with the standards of conduct and morals in a particular society. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) Laws are different from moral standards because they are always set down in writing, and descriptions of them are available to the public.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

61) The common public perception is that business and ethics are terms that do not belong together. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) A general fact about ethical problems is that they have simple solutions in which right and wrong are always obvious. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) A common public misconception is that ethics is simply a matter of complying with a set of rules or regulations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64)

Ethics violations are always punishable by law. ⊚ true ⊚ false

65)

Copyright infringement is one of the leading ethics issues in Internet ethics. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66) Value statements are formalized sets of ethical guidelines developed by some companies for use at all levels of an organization.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Codes of ethics are based on the principles of utilitarianism, universalism, virtue, rights/legal, justice, common good, and ethical relativism approaches. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68) The principle of justice focuses on making sure that all decisions are consistent, unbiased, and based on fact. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69) The principle of individual rights focuses on basic human rights and the dignity of the person. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70) The principle of utilitarianism means making decisions that promise to do the greatest good for the largest number of people. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71) The principle of justice is an ethical principle that results from the question, "What would the world—or my company—be like if everyone were to do this?" ⊚ true ⊚ false

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72)

Rationalizing is the preferred way to handle an unethical situation or incident. ⊚ true ⊚ false

73)

People are more willing to act unethically when a senior tells them to do so. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74)

A lack of transparency is one reason people justify unethical behaviors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75)

Rationalization is often done with conscious thought. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76) People with high self-esteem are more likely to seek the short-term gains of unethical behavior. ⊚ true ⊚ false

77) People with high self-esteem are more likely to feel a healthy connection with others around them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78)

Most people do not judge those who practice "boss massaging" because it is so common.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

79) People who find themselves in a "boss massaging" situation should remember that no one can force them to act unethically. ⊚ true ⊚ false

80) Research by social scientists shows that many people change their ethical standards between home and work. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81) If a compromise between personal ethics and the ethics of the firm you work for is necessary to continue as an employee, make sure that the compromise translates into a tangible gain for your personal or professional future. ⊚ true ⊚ false

82) The values and customs of countries other than those of the Western developed world are inferior, primitive, or degraded. ⊚ true ⊚ false

83) If the community is the enforcer of law, one can easily see why tradition would overcome any written law in most cases. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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84) Future favors refer to the practice of currying favor with a manager to achieve one's own goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85)

The practice of future favors can be found in cultures that ignore the inner circle concept. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86) Whistleblowing refers to the practice of turning in an offending person or people and exposing the truth. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 15 Business Ethics and Social Responsib...

1) Ethics 2) conflict 3) stakeholders 4) tone 5) Favoritism 6) Hacktivism 7) B 8) D 9) C 10) A 11) C 12) C 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) B 26) A Version 1

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27) A 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) B 36) D 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE Version 1

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77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1) _____ help employees get feedback on their job performance, make changes if necessary, and become more productive in the process.

2) Matching an individual to the job that needs to be done involves the consideration of the person's task _____.

3)

_____ means damaging our own credibility or competence.

4)

_____ is the act of putting off until later the things we should be doing now.

5)

Planning too many activities into one time slot leads to the _____ of time.

6) In the context of preparing for a career choice, the risk-taking entrance into one's own enterprise is known as _____.

7) Employees today need _____ care, which is day care not only for children but also for elderly family members.

8) The _____ generation consists of middle-aged adults taking care of both children and elderly parents at the same time.

9) _____ goals refer to the specific plans of action for things an individual would like to accomplish right now or in the immediate future.

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10) _____ goals are those things you decide to work for after developing a life plan for the future.

11) _____ psychology is the development in the field of psychology that focuses on what is right with people rather than what is wrong with people.

12) Which of the following statements holds true for the strategies involved in increasing productivity?

A) Short-term goals form a major part of these strategies.

B) Many of these strategies are out of the individual control of the employee.

C) Productivity can be increased only by improving the efficiency of the production process.

D) Efficiency can be increased only by gaining high output for low input.

13)

Which of the following is the first step to improve workplace morale?

A) discouraging communication between employees of different departments B) setting goals and communicate it to the workforce C) encouraging respectfulness and integrity within the organization D) being relaxed about individual and group accountability

14)

Morale is defined as the overall mood of an individual or a group based on

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A) task maturity.

B) income and security.

C) procrastination.

D) attitudes and satisfaction.

15) In the context of behaviors that reduce workplace productivity, which of the following steps should managers take to keep workplaces productive?

A) They should directly counsel employees they observe showing signs of substance abuse problems or violence in their personal lives.

B) They should penalize employees who abuse alcohol or drugs to show the nonacceptance of substance abuse at workplaces.

C) They should create training sessions to raise awareness of the assistance available for those dealing with violence and substance abuse problems.

D) They should reduce the accountability of troubled employees and give them the space to handle any violence or drug-related problems they might have.

16) Identify a true statement about the methods that can increase the morale of employees and boost workplace productivity.

A) Discouraging frequent communication between employees in different departments increases workplace productivity, which, in turn, boosts employee morale.

B) Employees must understand that achieving their individual goals is more important than achieving their companies' goals.

C) Increasing the individual level of involvement by employees leads to feelings of personal investment, which boosts morale and productivity.

D) Reducing individual accountability allows individual employees to focus on improving their skills, which dramatically improves the company's productivity.

17)

Being "stretchable" is the most important aspect in the S.M.A.R.T.S system because it

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A) should be applicable to companies with different organizational structures.

B) must be flexible enough to include assessments on technical and management skills.

C) needs to be stretched to include further psychometric assessments, if necessary.

D) should give the employee new goals and new horizons to grow into a new comfort zone.

18)

In the context of productivity at the workplace, an employee with task maturity A) is a new and junior member of a work group.

B) has performed a specific task several years ago.

C) possesses the skill set required for the job at hand.

D) is generally a member of the top management.

19)

Reasons for self-sabotage of our own efforts are tied to all of the following except A) lack of motivation.

B) low self-esteem or insecurity.

C) fear or apprehension.

D) lack of procrastination.

20)

Which of the following statements is true of procrastination?

A) Individuals cannot make a choice to stop procrastinating.

B) Procrastination merely refers to a form of self-sabotage.

C) Hidden benefits of procrastination exist.

D) Procrastination is form of relaxation.

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21) Serena is an employee at Castor Ceramics. She is part of the group responsible for testing the quality of the company's products. Even though she is young and relatively new to the job, she is able to handle all the tasks assigned to her with high efficiency. She also sets realistic targets for herself on a daily basis. In the context of productivity at the workplace, Serena A) has a fixed mindset.

B) has task maturity.

C) is aggressive.

D) is staid in her approach to work.

22) Which of the following terms refers to making poor use of the available time that we do have?

A) rationalizing B) fudging C) underutilizing D) overloading

23)

Which of the following statements is true of time management?

A) Grouping tasks together by location will allow individuals to save time by going to each location only once.

B) Setting priorities means that individuals identify which tasks take less time to complete and complete them first and leave the longer tasks to be completed toward the end.

C) While setting priorities, if all tasks seem equally important, then the individual should work on all tasks simultaneously.

D) Grouping smaller tasks into larger parts makes the project more complex, and thus motivates individuals into accomplishing them.

24)

Which of the following statements is true of workplace substance abuse policies?

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A) The policies should be kept confidential.

B) The policies should omit stating the testing and search procedures.

C) Employees and, if possible, their families, should receive drug awareness education.

D) Supervisors must be trained to ignore the symptoms of substance abuse in employees.

25)

What qualifies as drug abuse depends on A) whether the drug is legal or illegal.

B) whether the substance in use is actually considered a drug.

C) how the substance in use affects a person's behavior.

D) the age of the individual taking the drug.

26) A supervisor at a shipping and logistics firm notices that Carl, an employee, has had low workplace productivity in the last quarter. He has been arriving late to work and has been very irritable with his coworkers. Many other employees have also complained of a strong odor of alcohol on his breath. In the context of behaviors that reduce workplace productivity, Carl's behavior is characteristic of A) the impostor phenomenon.

B) procrastination.

C) low task maturity.

D) a substance abuse problem.

27)

Employees affected by family violence tend to: A) get preoccupied with their problems, causing low productivity.

B) stop trying to achieve anything for fear of criticism.

C) feel that they have gotten away with something.

D) feel that they do not possess either skills or talent.

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28)

In the context of behaviors that reduce workplace productivity, compulsive gamblers A) can be counseled directly by supervisors or managers.

B) are vulnerable to depression and relationship problems.

C) feel that they do not possess either skills or talent.

D) are not eligible to participate in employee assistance programs (EAPs).

29) Eric is the shop floor supervisor at Leo Engineering Inc. He finds that Brian, one of the machine operators, has a substance abuse problem. As a result, there is a drop in his productivity.

As a responsible supervisor, Eric should A) ignore Brian's substance abuse problem.

B) refer Brian to a community counseling center.

C) directly accuse Brian of having a drug problem.

D) openly criticize Brian for his poor productivity.

30) When supervisors become aware of substance abuse problems at the workplace, they should not directly accuse employees of having such problems because A) employers are responsible for seeking treatment for the employees' substance abuse problems.

B) supervisors have no say in this matter; it is the top management that should accuse the employee.

C) employees may respond with denial, and it could also lead to legal issues.

D) the freedom to consume any substance of their choice is guaranteed as a fundamental individual right for all citizens.

31) Company-sponsored programs that treat employees with substance abuse problems, marriage and family conflicts, and financial difficulties are known as

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A) time management programs.

B) employee assistance programs.

C) turnover reduction programs.

D) employee orientation programs.

32) _____ is the ability to teach or guide yourself to set up and carry out your goals and plans.

A) Fudging B) Self-discipline C) Self-deprecation D) Procrastination

33) _____ means feeling in control of your life, having the power to change things, and feeling comfortable about doing so.

A) Perspective-taking B) Taking responsibility C) Persistence D) Task maturity

34)

_____ is the ability to set short-term and long-term goals for yourself.

A) Self-direction B) Fudging C) Self-deprecation D) Procrastination

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35) In the context of personal success, successful people affected by the impostor phenomenon A) generally have weak human relations skills and fear being alone.

B) have difficulty believing that they have succeeded because of their own talents and hard work.

C) tend to see bad events or personal catastrophes as permanent crises that cannot be overcome.

D) tend to lack the entrepreneurial spirit that permits them to become involved in various fields of work.

36)

People who have fear of success may A) find the feeling of success to be fleeting.

B) fear failing and then being judged in a negative way.

C) feel that they have gotten away with something.

D) wish to rock the boat by applying new work principles.

37)

People who have fear of failure A) may feel that they have gotten away with something.

B) may find the feeling of success to be fleeting.

C) may stop trying to achieve anything new for fear of criticism.

D) always feel they are not talented and hard-working.

38)

Positive psychologists believe that

A) thinking in terms of catastrophes and defeat is important.

B) strengths such as optimism and perseverance cannot be learned through training.

C) everyone can overcome the barriers to self-development.

D) the strengths people build helps improve poor performance but does not prevent such problems from happening in the future.

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39)

Finding a niche involves A) searching for a job that offers moderate financial benefits and other perks.

B) searching for a job that offers utmost satisfaction and contentment.

C) making decisions that promise to do the greatest good for the largest number of

people.

D) finding an excuse for behavior that causes embarrassment, shame, anxiety, or pain.

40)

Finding a niche requires A) an understanding of one's skills and strengths.

B) the implementation of procrastination.

C) an understanding of company policies.

D) the skills to work effectively with people.

41) Susan enjoyed interacting with students during her internship at Wordsworth University.

As a result, she joins the university as an academic counselor. Her role involves guiding students in choosing suitable areas of specialization. She is immensely satisfied with her job. From the given example, it can be said that Susan A) exemplifies procrastination.

B) has found her niche.

C) exemplifies the impostor phenomenon.

D) has followed the categorical imperative principle.

42) In the context of finding a niche, describe the three "families" of skills related to careers identified by Richard Bolles.

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43)

Briefly discuss organizational strategies to improve efficiency in productivity.

44)

What is morale, and how does it affect productivity?

45)

What are the steps to improve morale in an organization?

46)

How are creative appraisal systems different from traditional appraisal systems?

47)

Why is being "stretchable" the most important part of the S.M.A.R.T.S system?

48)

How is task maturity related to productivity?

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49)

How can employee assistance programs be beneficial for companies?

50)

List the steps that help in stopping procrastination.

51)

Briefly describe the challenges to time management.

52)

Discuss the two most important strategies for improving time management.

53)

Describe how to work with a to-do list.

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54)

How does substance abuse affect the American economy?

55)

Describe the behavior of employees affected by family violence.

56)

How can supervisors contribute to the success of employee assistance programs (EAPs)?

57) What are the major aspects to be considered by companies when developing workplace substance abuse policies?

58)

What are the effects of substance abuse in the workplace?

59)

Explain how responsibility forms an important part of self-discipline.

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60)

What are the characteristics of people affected by the impostor phenomenon?

61) What do positive psychologists feel about the barriers to healthy self-development and the strengths needed to overcome these barriers?

62)

Productivity is defined as the ratio of an organization's inputs to its outputs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) Most strategies to improve productivity are always within the individual control of an employee. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) The overall mood of an individual or a group based on attitudes and satisfaction is referred to as groupthink. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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65) The first step to improve the morale of a workplace is to understand the existing morale of the workplace's environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66)

Morale is mostly a static force. ⊚ true ⊚ false

67) Encouraging communication among departments and within teams seldom contributes to improving the morale of a workplace. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68) Relieving employees from individual or group accountability is a means of sending a message that the company cares for them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69) Creative appraisal systems stimulate productivity by encouragement, two-way communication, and motivation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70) A yearly appraisal where the negatives saved over a year are presented to the employee is the most effective form of appraisal to improve morale.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Individual job performance can be increased by discovering and reducing behaviors we do to sabotage our own performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

72)

Task maturity refers to an employee's age or seniority on the job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

73) "Stretchable" in the S.M.A.R.T.S system means that an appraisal system should "stretch" the employee, giving him or her new goals and new horizons to grow into a new comfort zone. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74) In the context of time management, it is important to reward oneself after completing difficult individual tasks to boost morale. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75)

Insecurity is one of the reasons for self-sabotage. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76)

Procrastination is a major source of stress.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

77)

Hidden benefits of procrastination exist. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78)

Procrastination is a systemic disorder and cannot be altered. ⊚ true ⊚ false

79)

Combining small tasks into a complex job is a technique to stop procrastinating. ⊚ true ⊚ false

80)

Overloading and underutilizing are two essential skills of time management. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81)

Time management seldom requires planning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

82)

Procrastination is one cause of underutilization of time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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83) While setting priorities, if all tasks seem equally important, the individual should work on all tasks simultaneously. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84)

A to-do list is a list of what you need to do, when, and where. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85) In the context of behaviors that reduce workplace productivity, male workers are generally reluctant to seek help for personal problems that stem from familial and marital issues. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86) In cases of substance abuse by employees, supervisors should try to counsel or advise employees themselves so that the issue is handled before it requires expert counseling. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) Employee assistance programs (EAPs) are government programs that treat employees with substance abuse problems, marriage and family conflicts, and financial difficulty. ⊚ true ⊚ false

88) A company policy on substance abuse should omit stating the possible disciplinary actions that the company may take against employees who are abusing alcohol or other drugs.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Abuse of alcohol and other drugs together costs the American economy around $442 billion per year in healthcare costs, lost workdays, and reduced productivity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90)

Managers often feel they should not get involved with an employee's personal problems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91) Positive psychologists believe that we all have strengths that can overcome barriers to healthy self-development. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92)

Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) invented the 10-step program to help recovering alcoholics. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93)

Compulsive gambling is the inability to control one's betting habit. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 16 A Productive Workplace and Success 1) Appraisals 2) maturity 3) Self-sabotage 4) Procrastination 5) overloading 6) entrepreneurship 7) intergenerational 8) sandwich 9) Short-term 10) Long-term 11) Positive 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) C 17) D 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) C 26) D Version 1

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27) A 28) B 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) B 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) C 38) C 39) B 40) A 41) B 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE Version 1

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77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE

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