Recruitment and Selection in Canada 8th Edition Test Bank

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Recruitment and Selection in Canada

Edition:

8th Edition

Author(s):

Victor Catana Willi Wiesner Rick Hackett

1. The chapter opening article, “Signs That You Made a Bad Hire” suggests that the costs of bad hires can be reduced if the employer does what? a. discharges the new hire with a penalty b. trains the new hire to adapt to the company’s formal and informal requirements *c. transfers the new hire to another position for which he or she is better suited d. recruits a better qualified candidate and buddy the new hires up during their probationary period 2. Which of the following practices would NOT lead to an improvement in the hiring system of an organization? a. communicating to the hiring managers about their annoying interview habits b. using scientific methods and efficient selection methods c. determining the motivations of job seekers *d. knowing the going rates of pay and offering slightly more 3. What is the definition of recruitment? *a. generating an applicant pool b. choosing job candidates c. finding and hiring the best person for the job d. finding and screening job applicants 4. What is the definition of selection? a. generating an applicant pool b. finding and screening job applicants *c. choosing job candidates d. matching an applicant’s competencies with a job position 5. In the Human Resources System model outlined in the textbook, which of the following aspects does NOT relate to work environment? a. complaint resolution b. leadership

c. health and safety *d. vision and mission 6. In the Human Resources System model outlined in the textbook, which of the following is NOT part of the socioeconomic environment? *a. competition b. globalization c. marketplace d. demographics 7. In the Human Resources System model outlined in the textbook, within which environment does human rights belong? a. social b. economic c. political *d. legislative 8. What can effective recruitment and selection practices do for an organization? *a. improve the knowledge, skills, and abilities of its employees b. offer a limited impact on employee motivation c. encourage expensive high performers to leave the organization d. discourage poor performers from leaving an organization 9. What two important principles ensure a human resources system functions properly? a. Enhance communication between human resource functions and ensure ethical compliance. b. Assess the impact of legislative requirements and scan the socioeconomic environment for trends. c. Emphasize the roles of recruitment and selection and apply them to organizational strategy.

*d. Think in systems terms and coordinate human resource activities with all organizational units and people.

10. Which of the following elements are part of the socioeconomic external environment that affects recruitment and selection? a. national and international organization policies b. human resources information systems and management *c. globalization and demographics d. cost containment and marketplace 11. Why must Canadian organizations be cognizant of the influences of globalization when considering recruitment and selection? a. Globalization affects the pricing strategies for goods and services. b. Globalization creates higher trade barriers for entry. *c. Globalization demonstrates that best practices for staffing are necessary. d. Globalization threatens the survival of domestic retailers.

12. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of erecruiting, according to the Government of Canada? *a. higher tracking costs b. lower recruiting costs c. lower printing costs d. larger pool of candidates 13. Given the fact that technology reduces the need for labour, what is one strategy being applied by HR managers to cope with large numbers of employees approaching retirement? a. Employers have reduced their need to advertise with traditional media sources like newspapers. b. Employers have focused their search on younger and tech-savvy applicants.

c. Employers have limited their early-retirement incentives to managers only. *d. Employers have implemented layoffs that are not age-related.

14. Given that best practices in recruitment and selection are applied to an organization, which of the following results has NOT been supported with empirical studies? a. establishing employee trust *b. increasing the firm’s market price c. reducing employee turnover d. encouraging poor performers to leave 15. Given the application of progressive human resources practices, what might an organization expect from its employees? a. higher compensation costs *b. less dysfunctional behaviour c. higher operating costs d. lower unionization 16. According to the Work Foundation and Institute for Employment Studies in the United Kingdom, what percentage of investment in human resources will produce an approximate increase of $2800 of profit per employee? a. 1 percent b. 5 percent *c. 10 percent d. 50 percent 17. Which of the following organizations establishes national core standards for the HR profession in Canada? a. CSIOP *b. CPHR c. CPA d. CHRP 18. Why do growing numbers of employers require their human resources professionals to have professional designations?

*a. Certified human resources professionals must adhere to a code of ethics that dictates standards of performance. b. Certified human resources professionals clearly understand all legislation. c. Certified human resources professionals can enforce organizational conflict-of-interest policies and ethical codes of conduct. d. Certified human resources professionals are certified in their HR field of expertise, which requires less post-secondary education.

19. Why might you consider acquiring a professional designation in human resources? a. Ethical standards are defined, which will allow you to easily resolve workplace ethical dilemmas. b. It will certify you to provide advice concerning legal and ethical behaviour. *c. It will identify you as someone possessing HR knowledge, skills and abilities, and ethical behaviour. d. It is recognition of achievement of all the HR competencies, meaning that you will require minimal post-secondary education.

20. The HRM of Northshore Industries has not developed a code of ethical conduct for its employees because senior management believes that it places unnecessary constraints and limited flexibility on management decisions, such as recruitment and selection. With what might the HRM be most concerned? a. organizational culture *b. legal requirements and equitable practices c. conflict of interest d. poor leadership 21. Ethics can be defined in a variety of ways. According to the textbook, which of the following is NOT a definition of ethics? *a. knowing what is good from what is bad

b. determining what is moral from what is immoral c. identifying what may be done from what may not be done d. distinguishing what is right from what is wrong 22. The CEO of your company asks you to hire an older woman to avoid the significant family-related challenges and high turnover rate that comes with hiring younger administration employees. What is this is an example of? a. streamlining internal company staffing policies b. recruitment and retention constraints c. balancing the rights and interests of employees and management *d. the need for written codes and standards of conduct

Scenario 1-1 You are excited about your new position as the human resource manager for Scribe Engineering. The CEO of this medium-sized Canadian software development company has clearly stated that one of your first tasks is to deal with the difficulties the company is experiencing in recruiting and retaining employees for several of its office administration positions. The CEO wants hard evidence to back up your staffing costs.

23. Refer to Scenario 1-1. Upon what would you initially want to concentrate your efforts? a. understanding the external organizational factors affecting recruitment and selection *b. ensuring that human resource planning is integrated with the strategic planning of the organization c. determining which recruitment and retention processes are economically and technically feasible

d. ensuring that organizational information contained in the human resource information systems is current, secure, and confidential 24. Refer to Scenario 1-1. What is a current internal factor that may have an impact on Scribe Engineering’s recruitment and selection practices? a. human rights legislation *b. organization values, mission, and strategic goals c. knowledge, skills, and abilities available in the labour market d. industry and organization type and size 25. Refer to Scenario 1-1. What is a current economic challenge that may have an impact on the recruitment and selection practices at Scribe Engineering? a. human rights and total compensation issues *b. global competition c. rapid advances in information technology d. changing work force demographics

Scenario 1-2 You have recently been hired as the human resources manager for a small Canadian aviation company. The president of the company has asked you to review the staffing function to determine how ready the organization is to use technology in its recruitment and selection process. She is excited about the potential of utilizing staffing social networking technologies but wants to ensure you take the steps required to ensure success.

26. Refer to Scenario 1-2. What is TS Inc.’s goal for recruitment? a. to find and screen job applicants

b. to hire job candidates *c. to generate an applicant pool d. to find and hire the best aviation employees 27. Refer to Scenario 1-2. What is TS Inc.’s goal for selection? *a. to choose aviation candidates from an applicant pool b. to find the best possible aviation professionals to hire c. to find and hire the best person for each aviation position d. to generate and build a large aviation applicant pool 28. Refer to Scenario 1-2. What would indicate that the recruitment and selection process has been successful at TS Inc.? *a. the process is valid and reliable b. the continued use of effective but unproven practices c. the use of technology to facilitate and improve recruitment and selection d. a significantly large number of applications for job positions 29. Refer to Scenario 1-2. What two important principles should be followed if TS Inc.’s human resource system is to function properly? a. Build a sustainable staffing strategy and use Webbased technology. *b. Coordinate human resources activities with other parts of the organization and use a systems-thinking approach. c. Systematically integrate diversity and manage human resource information systems. d. Build a strong culture and enhance communication systems.

30. Refer to Scenario 1-2. What would be a critical initial question you would want to ask to assess TS Inc.’s recruitment and selection practices? a. What are the personnel needs of TS Inc.? *b. What are the external factors affecting the human resource and organizational strategies? c. What are the human resource information system needs of TS Inc.? d. How ready and committed is TS Inc. to moving beyond traditional practices to a more technical approach?

31. Refer to Scenario 1-2. What does TS Inc. accomplish by using technology in its recruitment and selection process? a. It provides access to a wide pool of candidates *b. It coordinates human resource activities with other parts of the organization by using a systemsthinking approach. c. It determines which recruitment and retention processes are economically and technically feasible. d. It guarantees that organizational information contained in human resource information systems is current, secure, and confidential.

32. Refer to Scenario 1-2. What current legislative requirement challenge may have an impact on TS Inc.’s recruitment and selection practices? *a. human rights, privacy, and security issues b. rapid advances in information technology c. changing work force demographics d. total compensation and reward strategy 33. Refer to Scenario 1-2. Why might TS Inc. state that a professional HR designation is required? *a. HRM professional associations define the competencies and ethical guidelines for human resources professionals. b. HR professionals clearly understand and can oversee employment legislation.

c. The certification sets a high standard that requires less training and the costs associated with continuing education. d. Professional ethical standards are defined, allowing HR professionals to easily resolve workplace ethical dilemmas.

[[insert c01-fo01-rsc8e, Figure 1.1 here]] 34. Refer to Figure 1.1. Which of the following are external factors that affect the HR system? *a. legal and socioeconomic environments b. vision, values, and mission c. strategic objectives and organizational requirements d. personnel competence, commitment, and effectiveness 35. Recruitment and selection, training and development, succession planning, and compensation are all functions within what process? a. performance management b. rewards management *c. talent management d. career management 36. What is an HRIS? a. a computerized version of an HR system b. a payroll and benefits processing method c. a method of identifying new recruits *d. a computer-based system that tracks and manages employee data

37. What important principles underlying Figure 1.1 are critical for the human resource system to function properly? a. two-way communication between human resource functions and business units b. assessment of the strengths and weaknesses of the external and internal environment *c. thinking in systems terms and coordinating human resource activities with all organizational units and people d. a focus on productivity and profitability through recruitment and selection processes 38. Which of the following best defines the awareness of the changing factors within and outside of an organization that could impact an organization’s effectiveness in serving their strategic objectives? a. competitive scan *b. environmental scan c. political, economic, social, and technological scan d. strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats scan 39. What percentage of the work force between the ages of 25 and 65 has achieved post-secondary educational credentials in Canada? a. 25.5 percent b. 38.3 percent *c. 64.8 percent d. 73.9 percent 40. Most collective agreements require the employer to do which of the following? a. Hire only union members. b. Ensure diversity in the workplace. c. Use seniority as the only requirement for candidate consideration. *d. Use selection procedures defined in the collective agreement.

41. Which of the following is a step that must be completed in the Recruitment and Selection Action Plan? a. Conduct short screening interviews. *b. Develop selection criteria. c. Conduct valid and reliable employment tests. d. Advertise vacancy to current employees.

42. Which of the following is NOT a principle for the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists? *a. support for diversity b. responsibility to society c. integrity in relationships d. respect for dignity of persons 43. Psychologists must follow ethical standards when carrying out employment tests. What type of issue are they NOT involved with in applying ethical standards? a. confidentiality of the test results *b. strategic contribution of tests to organization effectiveness c. informed consent of the test taker d. competence of test administrators and evaluators

True/False 44. Recruitment refers to the choice of job candidates from a previously generated pool of candidates. a. True *b. False 45. Effective recruitment and selection practices identify job applicants with the appropriate level of knowledge,

skills, abilities, and other requirements needed for successful performance in a job and organization. *a. True b. False 46. Human resources management is an independent function within an organization and generally acts in isolation to meet the human resource needs of the organization. a. True *b. False 47. Recruitment and selection are the most important talent management functions. a. True *b. False 48. HRM must coordinate human resource activities with all parts of the organization and its people. *a. True b. False 49. Bad hires may cost an organization as much as 30 percent of a new hire’s potential earnings. *a. True b. False 50. Talent management comprises the training and development of current employees. a. True *b. False 51. Empirical studies demonstrate that organizations using effective recruitment and selection practices gain a competitive advantage in the marketplace.

*a. True b. False 52. Recruitment and selection decisions must be coordinated with all parts of the organization, although final decisions must remain with HRM. a. True *b. False 53. Effective human resource managers are strategic thinkers. *a. True b. False 54. An environmental scan follows the development of the organization strategy. a. True *b. False 55. Two external factors that are elements of an environmental scan are the economic climate and work force demographics *a. True b. False 56. The Chartered Professionals in Human Resources (CPHR) designation is used in all Canadian provinces. a. True *b. False 57. Ethical decision-making is always clear-cut. a. True *b. False

58. Law is the means by which we distinguish what is right from what is wrong, what is moral from what is immoral, and what may be done and what may not be done in a profession. a. True *b. False 59. Ethical codes place constraints on what members may and may not do when practising human resources management, including recruitment and selection. *a. True b. False 60. Define and describe the differences between human resource planning, recruitment, and selection.

61. List several ways that recruitment and selection are important to organizations.

62. What factors can be assessed in order to measure the impact of effective human resources management practices?

63. Describe two examples of the current socioeconomic and demographic composition of the Canadian work force.

Identify how these factors may affect human resources recruitment and selection. (You may expand this question to incorporate “employer of choice.”)

64. Define strategy, and then explain how HR activities can support organizational strategy. To measure the value of recruitment and selection to the organization, refer to any organization’s strategy and show how HR supports the strategy. It is essential that human resource managers demonstrate the benefit, effectiveness, worth, and value of their staffing processes. This can be done by measuring specific criteria and analyzing the bottom-line costs and benefits. Describe three potential costs and benefits of an effective recruitment and selection process. Reflect on an organization you have worked for (or are familiar with),

and explain how you might measure the value of recruitment and selection to the organization’s bottom line.

65. Describe how mission, vision, and value statements affect recruitment and selection.

66. Describe five socioeconomic factors that influence Canadian organizations and that may comprise elements of an environmental scan.

67. What are the advantages of obtaining a professional designation, such as the CHRP? 68. What are the four major principles that apply to HR practitioners which are similar to those found in the CPA Code of Ethics?

69. What are ethics and how do they relate to recruitment and selection?

1. What is the first step in an organization’s selection process? a. reviewing the candidate pool for the job position b. identifying knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes for the job position *c. acquiring job analysis information for the job position d. developing performance indicators and job dimensions for the job position 2. Which of the following statements applies to a test by the UK Department of Work and Pensions (DWP), as described in the “Sham Psychometric Test” controversy? a. The test was appropriate because it had a valid goal: to help people find jobs. b. The test was appropriate because it came from a larger test that had been validated by the DWP. c. The test was inappropriate because it showed strengths but not weaknesses. *d. The test was inappropriate because it had not been validated for use by the DWP. 3. For what is job analysis information used? a. to ensure reliability throughout the selection process *b. to identify both the performance domain and the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes linked to job performance c. to ensure the selection process is fair, equitable, and unbiased d. to ensure utility throughout the recruitment and selection process 4. What is the best way for HR professionals to ensure that their selection decisions meet the standards set by courts and tribunals? a. completely eliminating factors such as age, gender, and disability when considering candidates *b. thoroughly analyzing required KSAOs for each position to be filled

c. avoiding making hiring decisions d. using intuitive and face-valid BFORs 5. What important step is used to validate the selection process? a. developing performance indicators for the individuals who were hired with the process b. gathering feedback from the individuals who were hired with the process *c. demonstrating that hiring decisions based on the selection system have utility d. demonstrating that hiring decisions based on the selection system are reliable 6. The Toronto Police Service requires candidates to show that they are Canadian citizens or permanent residents, are at least 18 years of age, have a valid driver’s licence with no more than six accumulated demerit points, and no record of criminal convictions for which a pardon has not been granted. What would these requirements be classified as? a. valid qualifications *b. screening criteria c. performance dimensions d. reliable qualifications 7. Which of the following is NOT a selection criterion for the Toronto Police Service? a. The applicant must meet the vision standard for the Toronto Police Service. *b. The applicant must have successfully completed four years of secondary school education. c. The applicant must be a Canadian citizen or permanent resident of Canada. d. The applicant must not have a criminal record for which a pardon has not been granted.

8. Which of the following is NOT a reason to use nonevidence-based selection approaches?

a. fit with organizational culture b. comfort with the process *c. consistency of the process d. flexibility and speed 9. What is a potential outcome of a science-based selection process? a. a significant number of qualified applicants *b. a defensible system with effective employees c. a flexible, quick process that fits the organization’s culture d. a process that is comfortable and flexible for all employees 10. What is a potential outcome of a non-evidence-based selection process? a. the effective use of structured and consistent procedures b. a defensible system with effective employees c. increased productivity and competitiveness *d. human rights litigation and marginal employees 11. What is a defining characteristic of a non-evidencebased selection process? a. It is defensible. *b. It is intuitive. c. It is system-wide. d. It is structured.

12. What is a defining characteristic of a science-based selection process? a. It is flexible. b. It is intuitive. *c. It is rational. d. It is subjective.

13. Which of the following terms refers to relationships between observations?

a. a variance *b. a construct c. a concept d. a validation 14. Which of the following is NOT a statement about reliability? a. Reliability is an indication of the stability of measurements. b. Reliability is the degree that observed scores are free from random errors. *c. Reliability is the amount of systemic error relative to the true score. d. Reliability is the consistency of a set of measurements over time.

15. What concept is defined as the degree to which observed scores are free from random measurement errors? a. validity b. fairness c. error score *d. reliability 16. What do you get when you square the reliability coefficient? a. the proportion of consistency in the true scores attributed to true differences on the measured characteristic b. the proportion of error in the error scores attributed to true differences on the measured characteristic c. the proportion of measurement error in the observed scores attributed to true differences on the measured characteristic *d. the proportion of variance in the observed scores attributed to true differences on the measured characteristic 17. Which of the following concepts is defined as the hypothetical difference between an individual’s observed

score on any particular measurement and the individual’s true score? *a. measurement error b. standard deviation c. lack of standardization d. test and retest 18. Which of the following is NOT a broad category of factors that affect reliability? a. lack of standardization b. temporary individual characteristics *c. seasonality d. chance 19. Which of the following is NOT a technical quality of a testing procedure? a. standardized test administration b. test reliability *c. validity evidence d. careful test development 20. To estimate reliability, it is important to adopt a strategy to develop approximations of parallel measures.

Which of the following is NOT such a strategy? a. internal consistency b. test and retest *c. intra-rater agreement d. alternate forms 21. An HR manager used the identical measurement procedure to assess the same characteristic over the same group of people on different occasions. What method of estimating reliability was used? *a. test and retest b. alternate forms c. internal consistency d. inter-rater reliability

22. Employers who are concerned about an applicant’s opinion about the usefulness of a test or certain questions on a test are considering what element in the proper use of tests? a. content validity b. validity generalization *c. face validity d. construct validity 23. To test validity, a content sampling strategy is often applied to the selection process. Which of the following is NOT a step in this content sampling strategy? a. A scoring scheme is developed for the selection assessments. b. Tasks of the target position are identified by job experts. *c. Job experts independently rate the reliability of each task. d. Job experts evaluate the relationship between performance and job success.

24. In their mid-1970s research, what procedure did researchers Schmidt and Hunter use to challenge the idea that a validity coefficient is specific to the context in which it is measured? a. validity generalization *b. meta-analysis c. range restriction d. attenuation 25. What could an employer do to establish concurrent validity? *a. compare test results with performance ratings of existing employees b. compare test results with employee performance ratings after one year on the job c. compare test results with results of previously validated tests d. have experts determine whether the test accurately measures the current content of the job

26. What two strategies are typical methods that a researcher uses to acquire evidence for test-criterion relationships? a. criterion-related and correlation b. inference and intuition c. differential and selective *d. predictive and concurrent 27. The head of HR at Megatherium Industries wants to use a cognitive ability test for applicants to a management position. If she wants to follow science-based methods in selection, but is unwilling to run a validation study, what approach should she use to test validation? a. use of intuitive best practices b. comparison of test results of high-performing and low-performing employees c. comparison of test questions with job content *d. use of validity generalization 28. Which of the following is correct? *a. A test can be reliable but not valid. b. Construct validity is another term for content validity. c. Bias refers to the reaction of test takers to a particular test. d. A test can be valid but not reliable.

29. What concept is defined as follows: the decrease in magnitude of the validity coefficient associated with measurement error of the predictor, the criterion, or both? a. sampling error b. regression *c. attenuation d. differential prediction 30. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Validity concepts in selection apply only to test scores. *b. U.S. Labor Department guidelines suggest that tests with validity coefficients above .35 are very beneficial. c. U.S. Labor Department guidelines suggest that only tests with reliability coefficients above .55 should be used in selection. d. Employment tests have been shown to have no adverse impact on applicants.

31. What concept is defined by the following: “systematic errors in measurement, or inferences made from those measurements, that are related to different identifiable group membership characteristics such as age, sex, or race?” a. discrimination b. unfairness *c. bias d. validity 32. Which of the following concepts refers to the use of different selection rules for different identifiable subgroups? a. subgroup differential b. subgroup bias *c. subgroup norming d. subgroup fairness 33. Which employment test has been identified as being biased in favour of males? *a. Bennett Mechanical Comprehension test b. Wonderlic Personnel test c. Toronto Police Service physical abilities test d. cognitive ability test 34. What concept is defined as the predicted average performance score of a subgroup? a. subgroup prediction

*b. differential prediction c. systematic prediction d. performance prediction 35. Refer to Figure 2.1. What occurs if the selection system does not have utility? *a. The job should be reanalyzed. b. The selection system should be reviewed. c. The selection system should be implemented. d. The selection system should be validated.

36. Refer to Figure 2.1. What relationship does line A represent? a. the relationship among job analysis, KSAOs, and performance management *b. the relationship between the performance domain and the KSAOs that contribute to the job performance c. the relationship between the KSAOs and performance competencies d. the relationship among job analysis, KSAOs, and performance criteria and dimensions 37. Refer to Figure 2.1. What process does line D represent? a. validating the job analysis and identifying performance criteria b. clarifying the performance domain and utilizing the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes’ constructs *c. defining the performance domain and developing related criterion measurements d. validating the selection system 38. Refer to Figure 2.1. What process does line C represent? a. validating the job analysis, knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes, and performance domain

b. utilizing the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes’ constructs to clarify the performance dimensions *c. translating the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes’ constructs into valid measurable predictors d. establishing criterion-related validity 39. Refer to Figure 2.1. What process does line E represent? a. validating the job analysis, knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes and performance domain *b. predicting which applicants will be successful in their position c. utilizing the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes constructs to clarify the performance dimensions d. translating the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes constructs into valid measurable predictors

True/False 40. Employers must know the legal and professional standards in order to increase the likelihood that their selection processes are compliant. *a. True b. False 41. The employer’s goal in selection is to hire an applicant who possesses the necessary knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes to perform the job being filled. *a. True b. False

42. The goal of selection is to identify job candidates who have those attributes required for success on the job. *a. True b. False 43. The HR manager focuses on one variable, usually job performance, in the selection process. a. True *b. False 44. If an employer does not have a reliable and valid selection process, it can still make a correct guess about an applicant that will have positive benefits for the organization. *a. True b. False 45. An employer’s employment decisions must be rational and intuitive. a. True *b. False 46. An employer’s recruitment and selection process goal is to attract and hire an applicant who possesses the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes to successfully perform the job. *a. True b. False 47. Hiring decisions must be defensible; they must meet legal requirements and professional standards of reliability and validity. *a. True b. False

48. The reliability coefficient is the degree that true scores correlate with one another. a. True *b. False 49. Measurement error can be thought of as the hypothetical difference between an individual’s observed score on any particular measurement and the individual’s true score. *a. True b. False 50. When candidates are asked different questions from one interview to the other, validity is reduced. a. True *b. False 51. Validity is the degree to which observed scores are free from random measurement errors. a. True *b. False 52. The principle that every test-taker should be assessed in an equitable manner is known as equity. a. True *b. False 53. Issues of fairness need to be determined statistically. a. True *b. False 54. Achieving fairness often requires compromise between conflicting interests. *a. True b. False

55. Choose a specific job you are familiar with and choose one characteristic that you think is critical to successfully performing that job. If you were the HR manager hiring for this position, what would you consider in measuring the characteristic and job performance to ensure reliability and validity?

56. How does science affect the selection process?

57. Describe the process and components of selection model in Figure 2.1.

58. What is reliability? Identify three factors affecting reliability.

59. What is validity in selection? Describe the three different validation strategies.

60. Discuss face validity and explain whether it is based on the perceptions of the test taker or of experts.

61. Scribe Engineering, a medium-sized information technology company, is having difficulties recruiting and retaining several of its administrative assistant positions. Traditionally, Scribe has used a practice-based selection process. As the new HRM, what would you suggest to the CEO? 62. Since TS Inc. is a small, growing aviation company, the CEO makes the hiring decisions based on his years of experience as well as his gut feeling. He started the business 10 years ago with 10 employees, and the company has grown to over 30 employees. The CEO has asked you, the HRM, to explain some of the differences between the use of his practice-based selection approach and an empiricalbased process and also to explain what challenges you anticipate he would face in using validation techniques.

63. What is bias in selection?

64. What is fairness? Why is it an important concept in selection?

1. What are the four legal means that affect employment practices in recruitment and selection? *a. constitutional law, human rights law, employment equity, and labour law b. constitutional law, criminal law, civil law, and labour law c. criminal law, labour law, employment equity, and federal law d. human rights law, employment equity, labour law, and civil law 2. Which of the following laws do NOT regulate recruitment and selection within an organization? a. Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms b. human rights legislation c. constitutional law *d. criminal law 3. With respect to recruitment and selection, what legislation has precedence over all other legislation? *a. constitutional law b. human rights law c. Canada labour law d. employment equity legislation 4. Which of the following is/are NOT covered by the Canadian Human Rights Act? a. crown corporations b. banks c. Canada Post *d. BC labour laws 5. Which of the following is responsible for the enforcement of the Canadian Human Rights Act? a. Canadian Human Rights Tribunal *b. Canadian Human Rights Commission c. Canadian Human Rights Labour Board d. Employment and Social Development Canada

6. A school teacher has HIV, and the parents of many of the students have asked that their children be transferred to another teacher or school. The school board has told the teacher that he must transfer to a position where he is not in contact with the children. Which statement applies to this situation? a. It is not discrimination because there is a safety concern for employees and students. b. It is not discrimination because the teacher would not be able to do his job. *c. It is a violation of human rights legislation, based on physical disability. d. It is a violation of human rights legislation, based on sex.

7. Which of the following statements best defines discrimination in employment? a. the duty of an employer to put in place modifications to discriminatory employment practices so as not to adversely affect the employment conditions of any current employee, based on that individual’s membership in a protected group b. any employment rule, practice, or policy that has a negative effect on the employment conditions of any current employee, based on that individual’s membership in a protected group *c. any refusal to employ, or to continue to employ, any person, or to adversely affect the employment conditions of any current employee, based on that individual’s membership in a protected group d. any unwelcome conduct or consequences that may detrimentally affect the work environment of any current employee, based on that individual’s membership in a protected group 8. What is the intent of the federal Employment Equity Act? a. to promote equal pay for male and female employees *b. to remove employment barriers for designated groups c. to ensure employees are able to join a union of their choice

d. to prohibit discrimination on prohibited grounds 9. A clothing store is recruiting seasonal employees. It is October, and the successful candidates will be offered three months’ work for the store’s busiest season. One applicant with a solid background in retail sales appears to be pregnant. The supervisor decides not to hire her.

What protection does the job applicant have under human rights law in this situation? *a. She is protected on the grounds of sex. b. She is protected on the grounds of family status. c. She is protected on the grounds of age. d. She is protected on the grounds of marital status.

10. The Canadian Human Rights Commission received 1,203 complaints in 2019. What percentage of these complaints were related to discrimination related to disabilities? a. 18 percent b. 28 percent c. 35 percent *d. 52 percent 11. Ann, who is four feet five inches tall, met with the manager of a liquor store to discuss employment as a cashier. The manager seemed receptive, and Ann left the store with the impression that the manager would call to arrange training. However, the manager hired someone else.

When Ann asked, the manager said Ann was too short to do the job. What protection does Ann have under human rights law in this situation? a. She is protected on the grounds of sex. *b. She is protected on the grounds of physical disability. c. She is protected on the grounds of national origin. d. She is protected on the grounds of source of income.

12. Which of the following is prohibited discrimination? a. education

b. tattoos c. weight *d. colour 13. Which of the following is NOT prohibited discrimination? *a. work experience b. race c. age d. religion 14. Within all Canadian jurisdictions, which of the following is prohibited employment discrimination? a. criminal conviction *b. religion c. dependence on alcohol or drugs d. language 15. To which of the following designated groups does employment equity apply? *a. women, visible minorities, Aboriginal peoples, and people with disabilities b. visible minorities, Aboriginal peoples, and people with disabilities c. immigrants, First Nations people, and people with physical handicaps d. Aboriginal peoples, people with disabilities, and international students 16. According to the textbook, what is the purpose of employment equity? *a. to achieve equality in the workplace b. to generate equal opportunity employers c. to encourage diversity management d. to promote unbiased and fair hiring practices 17. Which of the following situations characterizes employers that are subject to the Federal Contractors Program?

a. companies with more than 10 employees and more than $200 000 of business with the federal government b. companies with more than 50 employees and more than $500 000 of business with the federal government *c. companies with more than 100 employees and more than $1 000 000 of business with the federal government d. companies with more than 200 employees and more than $3 000 000 of business with the federal government 18. Which of the following is NOT a step in developing and implementing an employment equity plan? a. Monitor the changing composition of the internal work force over time. *b. Obtain government support for the employment equity effort. c. Set representative targets for designated groups based on availability of qualified workers. d. Make necessary changes to the employment equity intervention to bring designated groups up to future targets.

19. Which interview question is legally valid? a. How long have you lived in Canada? *b. What is your current address? c. What is your maiden name? d. Do you have child care arrangements?

20. Which one of the following questions can be asked of a potential candidate? a. Were you born in Canada? *b. Are you legally entitled to work in Canada? c. What is your name on your birth certificate? d. Is French your first language?

21. What would cause the selection rate for a protected group to be lower than that for the relevant comparison group?

a. indirect discrimination *b. adverse impact c. negative impact d. direct discrimination 22. What best describes the four-fifths rule? a. Outreach recruiting must result in four-fifths of applications from target groups. b. Employment equity candidates must be hired if they meet four-fifths of the minimum job requirements. *c. The selection rate for the protected group is less than four-fifths that of the comparison group. d. Four-fifths of discrimination situations are unintentional.

23. What legal term states that there is a justifiable reason for a discriminatory employment practice or policy based on the necessity for business operations? a. sufficient risk b. employment equity *c. bona fide occupational requirement d. affirmative action 24. Which of the following is an example of indirect discrimination? *a. an unsubstantiated requirement for local market experience b. a requirement that an attendant in a women’s locker room must be female c. a minimum score on certain employment tests d. a minimum height or weight requirement for police forces 25. Which of the following is an example of effective practices for nondiscriminatory recruiting? a. posting job advertisements in-house only b. relying solely on seniority when promoting employees c. relying on word-of-mouth advertising

*d. using outreach recruiting

Scenario 3.1 Marek, who has an arthritic condition, applied for a position as a private bus driver. He met all the conditions of the selection process but was rejected for employment by the company on the advice of the medical doctor who performed the mandatory medical examination.

26. Refer to Scenario 3.1. What protection does Marek have under human rights law in this situation? a. Marek is not being discriminated against because public safety requires a high standard of driving skills. *b. Marek is protected on the grounds of physical disability. c. Marek is protected by employment equity legislation. d. Marek is not being discriminated against as driving requires quick response of his hands and feet.

27. Refer to Scenario 3.1. In order NOT to be accused of discrimination, what should the employer have established prior to conducting medical exams on bus drivers? *a. that the absence of arthritis was a bona fide occupational requirement for private bus drivers b. that the medical examination was well established and valid as a screening and selection tool c. that the medical examination was consistent and reliable as a screening and selection tool d. that physical ability was a bona fide occupational requirement for a private bus driver

Scenario 3.2 Mr. Smith, a public elementary school custodian, is a Seventh Day Adventist. His religious beliefs prevent him from working from sundown Friday to sundown Saturday. The work schedule, which requires him to work a Friday shift from 3 p.m. to 11 p.m., is set out in the collective agreement between his employer and his union. Accommodating Mr. Smith’s religious beliefs would require allowing him to work hours different from those specified. The employer and the union can’t agree on a means of accommodating Mr. Smith. As a result, he is dismissed from his job.

28. Refer to Scenario 3.2. What legislation applies in this case? a. the Canada Labour Code b. the Employment Equity Act *c. provincial human rights law d. the Canadian Human Rights Act 29. Refer to Scenario 3.2. What legally protected ground may be violated in this situation? a. sex b. ethnic origin *c. religion d. race 30. Refer to Scenario 3.2. What human rights legal concept has emerged in this situation? a. accommodation *b. adverse effect discrimination c. employment equity d. sufficient risk

Scenario 3.3 You have recently been hired as the HR manager for KM Contracting, a medium-sized construction company with offices throughout Canada. Many of the company’s trades employees are unionized, and one of the company’s largest contracts is with the federal government. It has come to your attention that Ms. Ramos, an elderly woman who works as an office clerk, has been humiliated and treated disrespectfully regarding her obesity for 11 years. She has been called offensive names and heard comments about the way she “waddles.” During this time, her manager criticized her work performance and stated that “women are best working at home in the kitchen.” She has been passed over for promotions and no longer applies for other positions because of her low self-esteem resulting from the intimidating workplace environment.

The company’s discrimination policy states that it promotes a work environment that is free from discrimination. Managers have stated that they cannot always distinguish between inappropriate or illegal discrimination behaviours. The CEO has asked you to educate all levels of management about the legal requirements that must be met in recruitment and selection. He also wants you to develop some practical nondiscriminatory recruitment and selection guidelines for all employees.

31. Refer to Scenario 3.3. What are the four legal sources that affect KM Contracting’s employment practices in recruitment and selection? *a. constitutional law, human rights law, employment equity legislation, labour law b. constitutional law, criminal law, civil law, labour law c. criminal law, labour law, employment equity legislation, federal law d. human rights law, employment equity legislation, labour law, civil law 32. Refer to Scenario 3.3. As the HR manager, how would you best define discrimination to the managers?

a. any employment rule, practice, or policy that has a negative effect on employees b. the duty of an employer to put in place modifications to discriminatory employment practices *c. the denial of opportunity to a person or class of people based on a group characteristic such as age, colour, race, religion, marital status, or mental or physical disability d. any unwelcome conduct or consequences that may detrimentally affect the work environment 33. Refer to Scenario 3.3. As the HR manager, how would you describe Ms. Ramos’s situation? *a. She is being sexually harassed, a form of discrimination. b. She is not being discriminated against because obesity is not one of the human rights prohibitions (unless it is diagnosed as a disability). c. It is not a problem because a formal complaint has not been made over this 11-year period. d. She is being discriminated against based on age, sex, and family status.

34. Refer to Scenario 3.3. Who might be liable in this situation? a. the employer b. the employee c. the manager *d. the employer and manager 35. Refer to Scenario 3.3. In this situation, which of the following behaviours would NOT constitute discrimination? *a. behaviour that is based on a condition of employment b. behaviour that is a misuse of supervisory authority c. behaviour that is nonverbal and limited to only a few incidents d. behaviour that is unintended

36. Which of the following statements would apply to a requirement that a hospital nurse be female? *a. The requirement is a violation of the Canadian Human Rights Act. b. The requirement is a bona fide occupational requirement. c. The requirement is justified if the nurse works at the maternity ward of a hospital. d. The requirement is mandatory if determined by the Pay Equity Act. 37. What is the intent of the federal Employment Equity Act? a. to promote equal pay for male and female employees *b. to remove employment barriers for women, Aboriginal peoples, persons with disabilities, and visible minorities c. to ensure employees are able to join a union of their choice d. to prohibit discrimination on the grounds of race, colour, religion, age, gender, marital status, disability, or sexual orientation 38. Which of the following terms refers to the equal application of hiring policies or practices that result in a disproportionate number of a certain gender, racial group, or religious group being excluded? *a. systemic discrimination b. reasonable accommodation c. undue hardship d. bona fide hiring practices REFERENCES Employment Equity Legislation

Scenario 3.4 You are the HR manager for a Canadian university located in Ontario. An Asian university business professor has worked at that Canadian university for

15 years. He was denied a tenure position on several occasions. Three other faculty (all white) with less education and experience received tenured positions in the past two years.

39. Refer to Scenario 3.4. Under which jurisdiction does this university fall? a. federal *b. provincial c. national d. international 40. Refer to Scenario 3.4. What legislation applies in this case? a. the Employment Standards Act and labour law b. the Employment Equity Act and Canadian Human Rights Act *c. provincial human rights law and labour law d. the Canadian Human Rights Act and the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms 41. Refer to Scenario 3.4. What legally protected ground seems to be violated in this situation? a. age *b. race c. religion d. language 42. Refer to Scenario 3.4. What human rights legal concept has emerged in this situation? a. reasonable accommodation b. protected groups c. employment equity *d. racial discrimination 43. Refer to Scenario 3.4. There are many actions the HR manager can take. What would be an important initial step to deal with this situation?

a. Adopt employment equity policies and practices. *b. Ensure valid and reliable job-related criteria are used to assess applicants. c. Educate management on harassment prevention policies and practices. d. Initiate problem solving through a formal internal complaint process.

Scenario 3.5 TS Inc. is a small Canadian aviation company located in Sydney, BC. The company has more than 30 employees, primarily pilots and aircraft maintenance engineers.

The CEO informs you that you should come up with a recruitment and selection system that will screen out pro-union attitudes and also to keep this information confidential. Hanif, a practising Muslim, applied in person for an aircraft maintenance engineer position in response to a newspaper advertisement that listed two years of experience and industry certification. He was not contacted by TS Inc., even though he had more than eight years of experience. His ex-wife, who was close friends with the CEO, told Hanif that she had been contacted for a reference. Four months later he learned that the recent hirees had less than two years of experience.

44. Refer to Scenario 3.5. Under which jurisdiction does TS Inc. fall? *a. federal b. provincial c. national d. international 45. Refer to Scenario 3.5. What legal sources are relevant to this situation? a. the Employment Standards Act and labour law b. the Employment Equity Act and privacy legislation

c. provincial human rights law and the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms *d. the Canadian Human Rights Act 46. Refer to Scenario 3.5. What legally protected ground seems to be violated in this situation? a. age b. family status *c. religion d. marital status 47. Refer to Scenario 3.5. What human rights legal concepts emerged in this situation? a. individual accommodation and indirect discrimination b. direct discrimination and ethical challenges c. employment equity and labour rights *d. adverse impact and reasonable accommodation 48. Which of the following is NOT included in the threepart Meiorin test under which all workplace practices are screened? a. The standard is rationally connected to job performance. b. The standard was adopted in good faith. c. The standard is reasonably necessary. *d. The standard is applied over a long period of time.

49. An employer is not required to face which of the following challenges in providing accommodation to eliminate practices that prevent job equity for disadvantaged groups? a. additional costs *b. undue hardship c. negative reaction from other employees d. administrative difficulties

50. Why is the Renaud case from the Supreme Court of Canada important? a. It established that the employer was responsible to accommodate employees. b. It established that undue hardship was related to employee morale. *c. It established that the union could be found to have discriminated against its employees. d. It established that sufficient risk needs to incorporate both financial and nonfinancial aspects.

True/False 51. Constitutional law becomes an issue only when recruitment or selection practices are challenged in a human rights tribunal or court. *a. True b. False 52. Since the aviation industry is a federally regulated industry in Canada, airline company operations fall under the jurisdiction of federal law. *a. True b. False 53. In an employment interview, it is acceptable (legal) to ask candidates if they are prepared to travel or be transferred if those are requirements of the job. *a. True b. False 54. It is never acceptable to ask job candidates if they have a criminal record.

a. True *b. False 55. During the interview process, inquiries about the applicant’s religion may be justified if the interviewer seeks to establish the existence of a bona fide occupational requirement (i.e., if the job involves communicating religious values). *a. True b. False 56. Recruitment and selection practices that have an impact on careers or entry to occupations must be defensible with respect to legal requirements. *a. True b. False 57. Employment equity programs involve any human resource activities introduced into an organization to ensure equality for all employees in all aspects of employment, including recruiting, hiring, compensation, and training. *a. True b. False 58. Labour law regulates the minimum age of employment, hours of work, minimum wages, statutory holidays, and so forth. a. True *b. False 59. Collective agreements have little or no effect on personnel selection processes. a. True *b. False

60. Direct discrimination occurs when an employer adopts a practice or rule that on its face discriminates on a prohibited ground. *a. True b. False 61. It is appropriate to ask potential employees for a list of all their disabilities, limitations, or health problems. a. True *b. False 62. A situation in which an employer, in good faith, adopts a policy or practice that has an unintended negative impact on members of a selected group is referred to as adverse effect discrimination. *a. True b. False 63. When a manufacturer decides not to hire women in areas requiring heavy lifting, this is an example of indirect discrimination or adverse impact discrimination. a. True *b. False 64. Reasonable accommodation refers to the duty of an employer to put in place modifications to discriminatory employment practices or procedures to meet the needs of members of a protected group being affected by the employment practice or procedure. *a. True b. False 65. Accommodation is always applied to a group as opposed to individuals. a. True *b. False

66. What are the four legal means that affect employment practices in Canada? Identify and briefly describe each one.

67. Define discrimination in employment and describe some of the areas in recruitment and selection that can be discriminatory.

68. Define and give an example of three discriminatory grounds that are prohibited in all Canadian jurisdictions.

69. Every province and territory, as well as the federal government, has established a human rights code or act that prohibits discrimination in employment. The grounds for discrimination outlined in the Canadian Human Rights Act are race, colour, religion, age, sex, marital status, and mental or physical disability. Recruitment practices that are free of bias will attract the most qualified applicants. It is a discriminatory practice if interviewing procedures exclude a particular group directly or indirectly on a prohibited ground of discrimination.

70. What is employment equity? Which groups are affected by employment equity legislation? Does employment equity mean that unqualified individuals will be hired? What are the benefits of implementing employment equity in the workplace? Give an example of a specific strategy or equity practice an organization has used to increase employment equity.

71. Describe provincial labour law or the Canada Labour Code and its relevance to recruitment and selection.

72. Define and give an example of three important legal concepts in recruitment and selection.

73. Describe some practical guidelines for HR managers to ensure that recruitment and selection practices do not lead to illegal discrimination.

74. To what two causes can the success or failure of outreach recruitment be traced? Discuss three important questions an HR manager needs to ask to ensure that an organization’s hiring process is legally defensible.

1. Why is a job analysis important for recruitment and selection? *a. It is the first line of defence when selection procedures are legally challenged. b. It emphasizes selection skills and responsibilities while de-emphasizing effort and working conditions. c. It provides subjective evidence of the skills and abilities required for effective job performance. d. It establishes the worth of a job and defines it in measurable terms.

2. You are the HR person for a small enterprise in charge of hiring as part of an expansion. Which of the following questions would you ask prior to collecting information in a job analysis? *a. How will the company’s mission, vision, and values affect selection needs? b. What do you wish your new hires to accomplish? c. What do people who hold similar jobs think about the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes needed? d. Will the employees do different things on different days?

3. Which concept describes the process of collecting information about jobs by any method for any purpose? a. organizational analysis *b. job analysis c. work analysis d. needs analysis 4. What source of data is NOT typically used in a job analysis? a. employees b. managers *c. shareholders d. supervisors 5. Which of the following describes effective job analysis?

*a. a formal, structured process carried out under a set of guidelines established in advance b. a single evidence-based methodology c. breaking down a job into its constituent parts, rather than looking at the job as a whole d. focusing on jobs rather than positions 6. Which of the following would NOT typically be used as data for a job analysis? a. knowledge b. standards c. responsibilities *d. performance 7. Which of the following best defines job specifications? a. a collection of positions with related job activities and duties b. the different duties and responsibilities performed by one employee *c. the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes required to perform work d. the tasks, duties, and responsibilities associated with work 8. A hospital employs a variety of individuals as nurses, doctors, and technicians. How are these groups of employees classified? a. by position b. by role c. by worker *d. by job 9. What is the definition of a job? *a. a collection of positions that are similar in their significant duties b. the different duties and responsibilities performed by one employee c. the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform work

d. the tasks, duties, and responsibilities associated with work 10. Which of the following best describes a job family? a. a collection of positions with related job activities and duties *b. a set of related jobs that rely on the same knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes c. the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform work d. the tasks, duties, and responsibilities associated with work 11. For HR specialists making selection decisions what is the most important product of the job analysis process? a. job descriptions and job design b. job evaluation and performance measures c. organizational analysis and performance standards *d. job specifications 12. What is NOT a problem associated with job descriptions? *a. They may include duties that are prioritized and weighted. b. They may be vague or poorly written. c. They may focus on KSAOs of incumbents. d. They may not be updated regularly.

13. Which of the following best defines a job position? a. a collection of positions with related job activities and duties *b. the different duties and responsibilities performed by one employee c. the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform work d. the tasks, duties, and responsibilities associated with work

14. Which term refers to a written statement about what job occupants are required to do, how they are supposed to do it, and the rationale for any required job procedures? a. a job *b. a job description c. a job specification d. a job analysis 15. What would you include in the job requirements section of job descriptions? a. a description of the competency framework b. the responsibilities of and results to be accomplished in the job c. the specific performance requirements and tasks required to perform the job *d. the KSAOs needed to perform the job 16. What does the acronym KSAO mean? a. know-how, skills, abilities, and organizational alignment b. know-how, skills, attributes, and organizational fit c. knowledge, skills, attributes, and other abilities *d. knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes 17. Why are subject-matter experts (SMEs) needed when conducting a job analysis? a. They are an inexpensive source of information for an organization. *b. They are the most knowledgeable about a job and how it is currently performed. c. They add external validity to the organization with external comparisons to jobs. d. They provide more accurate information than job incumbents and supervisors.

18. According to the textbook, which group of individuals provides more accurate information when job information is being collected?

a. human resources managers *b. trained professional job analysts c. job incumbents using self-report and survey instruments d. supervisors 19. The Ontario Human Rights Commission has stated that “Organizations that have not defined the essential duties of a position, provided required accommodation and individually assessed ability to perform the essential duties will have difficulty defending themselves if a human rights complaint is filed.” To which legal principle does this refer? a. equal opportunity b. employment equity for designated groups c. discrimination on prohibited grounds *d. bona fide occupational requirements 20. To be legally defensible, a job analysis process should have all of the following features EXCEPT which one? *a. rely on a set of formal procedures b. be documented c. rely on input from the best subject-matter expert available d. be completed by a trained job analyst 21. Which of the following is the most important criterion for choosing a job analysis method? *a. validity b. availability c. standardization d. credibility 22. Which of the following is the structured questionnaire in which employees rate the job relevance of human abilities reflecting cognitive, psychomotor, physical, and sensory-perceptual performance?? a. Functional Job Analysis Survey *b. Fleishman Job Analysis Survey

c. Personality Oriented Job Analysis Survey d. Worker Traits Job Analysis Survey 23. Which of the following is NOT typically characterized as job context? *a. education b. work schedules c. organizational culture d. nonfinancial incentives 24. What source compiled by the Canadian government contains systematically standardized and comprehensive job descriptions in the labour market? a. Canadian Classification Dictionary of Occupations (CCDO) b. Dictionary of Occupational Titles (DOT) *c. National Occupational Classification (NOC) d. Occupational Information Network (O*NET) 25. Which of the following best defines work-oriented analysis? a. the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes that are needed by a job incumbent to do the work b. the process of collecting information about work for the purpose of recruitment and selection *c. the systematic process for gathering, documenting, and analyzing data about the work required for a job d. a review of the work of all similar positions 26. What job analysis technique emphasizes the characteristics of successful performers rather than standard duties? a. dynamic job analysis *b. worker-based analysis c. team-based analysis d. work-oriented analysis

27. What job analysis technique emphasizes general aspects of the jobs and describes perceptual, interpersonal, sensory, cognitive, and physical activities? a. work-oriented analysis b. self-monitoring analysis c. structured analysis *d. worker-oriented analysis 28. Which of the following is the job analysis method that was developed in order to allow subject matter experts to rate the positive or negative contribution of defined personality traits with job performance? a. Big Five Job Analysis *b. Personality Oriented Job Analysis c. Five Factor Model of Job Analysis d. Personality-Based Job Analysis 29. Which of the following types of job analysis surveys breaks down jobs into their component tasks? a. task specifications *b. task inventories c. task variety d. task statements 30. Which of the following is the best job analysis method? a. job evaluation b. behaviour anchored rating systems *c. worker traits inventories d. content validation 31. Which of the following is NOT a suggested guideline for a job analysis interview? a. Conduct interviews in a private location. b. Guide the session without being authoritative or overbearing. c. Ask open-ended questions, using relevant language to the interviewee. *d. Seek a directive from top management to make interviews mandatory for all employees.

32. What job analysis method utilizes work sampling and employee diaries or logs? a. interview b. questionnaire *c. direct observation d. combination 33. What is the structured job analysis questionnaire that focuses on the general worker behaviours that make up a job and includes 195 items and job elements organized into six dimensions? a. Common-Metric Questionnaire b. Work Profiling System *c. Position Analysis Questionnaire d. Functional Job Analysis 34. What type of interview method is recommended for job analysis purposes? a. behavioural b. situational *c. structured d. unstructured 35. What job analysis technique is worker-oriented? *a. Position Analysis Questionnaire b. Critical Incident Technique c. Functional Job Analysis d. Task Inventory 36. What is the objective of the critical incident method of job analysis? a. to prioritize job duties and responsibilities *b. to generate behaviour-focused descriptions of work activities c. to identify critical job duties, tasks, and competencies d. to provide information for job evaluation

37. Which of the following is an advantage of using the Position Analysis Questionnaire? *a. Results can be compared to the PAQ database. b. It is mostly suited to managerial jobs. c. It does not require an experienced analyst. d. It is written in easily understood language.

38. Which of the following is a drawback of the Critical Incident Method? a. Work is described in the worker’s own words. b. It has low validity and reliability. *c. It relies on memory of recent events. d. It does not focus on behaviours.

39. What job analysis method is adopted by organizations that operate in a rapidly changing environment in which jobs change regularly? a. dynamic job analysis *b. competency-based analysis c. team-based analysis d. work-oriented analysis 40. What term defines groups of related behaviours that are needed for successful job performance in an organization? a. traits inventories b. job elements *c. competencies d. specializations 41. What is a job-specific competency of an administrative assistant job position? a. time management *b. data entry c. written communication d. self-image

42. Which of the following is the best example of a core competency? *a. communication b. knowledge of customer service c. ability to gather information d. detail-oriented when following principles and procedures 43. Which of the following competencies is every member of an organization expected to possess? *a. core competencies b. functional competencies c. job-specific competencies d. knowledge-based competencies 44. In competency dictionaries, what do proficiency scales describe? a. expected behaviours for core employees b. expected behaviours at specific levels of competency *c. competency profiles for top performers d. job specific and functional KSAOs 45. What elements are included in a competency profile? a. job duties and responsibilities b. job-specific core competencies c. core competencies and job specifications *d. core, functional, and job-specific competencies 46. What might be a concern if an organization decides to use a competency-based job analysis? a. that characteristics and behaviours of successful performers cannot be defined b. that the unprecedented change in today’s workplace requires clear measurable job descriptions *c. the difficulty in predicting future job needs and the lack of validity and legal defensibility

d. the expectation that all employees should possess core competencies that relate to the organization’s goals 47. Which of the following statements best exemplifies the validation of competency-based selection systems?? a. It is more important to establish the reliability and validity of competency systems than of traditional job analysis systems. b. The reliability and validity of inferences based on narrow, behaviourally based competencies is better than that for broad strategic ones. *c. Approaches to validating job analysis data can be adapted to validating competency models. d. The standards for validating competency models are lower than that for traditional methods of job analysis.

Scenario 4-1 You have recently been hired as the HR manager for Scribe Engineering, a Canadian software development company. Scribe’s product is information systems. The company’s environment is competitive and constantly changing. There continues to be an increased demand for customized computer systems that improve the flow of information in a wide range of small Canadian businesses. Due to Scribe’s growth in sales, the company is anticipating the need for an increase from 150 to 200 employees. The company requires highly skilled software designers, computer programmers, sales professionals, and support staff. The majority of employees, from younger technical support staff to senior management, stated that work–life balance is important to them and that they want more flexibility in how and when their work gets done. Job demands are changing constantly because of the dynamic environment. There are concerns of sex, age, and family status discrimination with the office administration employees. The CEO has stated that

Scribe has a few outdated job advertisements but that the company never had time to write job descriptions.

Managers have expressed concerns that job descriptions are of limited value because positions need to adapt to the high speed of change and job descriptions limit managerial flexibility in supervising employees’ tasks.

48. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What major strategic focus in employee selection could distinguish Scribe Engineering as a high-performing organization rather than an underperformer? *a. a linkage between organizational goals and shortterm organizational needs b. a linkage between organizational goals and longterm organizational needs c. a linkage between organizational and human resource planning needs d. a linkage between long-term organizational and human resource goals 49. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What are the expected changes in Scribe Engineering’s external environment that may affect the company’s recruitment and selection process? a. organizational mission and goals b. job design c. organizational strategy *d. competition 50. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What internal influences are affecting the jobs and human resources at Scribe Engineering? a. the labour market b. customers c. the competition *d. job design 51. Refer to Scenario 4-1. Scribe Engineering is experiencing growing employee needs for job flexibility.

What are some flexible work options that Scribe Engineering could consider to retain its employees? *a. job sharing and telework b. ergonomically designed work stations c. elimination of routine jobs d. competency-based jobs 52. Refer to Scenario 4-1. How would you distinguish a job analysis from a job description for the managers at Scribe Engineering? a. A job analysis is the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes that are needed by a job incumbent to do well on a job. b. A job analysis is the process of collecting information about jobs for the purpose of recruitment and selection. *c. A job analysis is a systematic process for gathering, documenting, and analyzing data about the work required for a job. d. A job analysis is a review of the whole job, not the constituent parts.

53. Refer to Scenario 4-1. Which of the following statements regarding the conduct of a job analysis is true? a. A job analysis is a formal, structured process carried out under a set of pre-established guidelines. *b. A job analysis is carried out by subject-matter experts. c. A job analysis focuses on jobs, not positions. d. A job analysis is most effective when it focuses on competencies.

54. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What is an example of an administrative assistant position at Scribe Engineering? *a. the administrative assistant to the CEO of Scribe Engineering b. all administrative assistants at Scribe Engineering who perform similar duties

c. a set of different but related administrative jobs that require the same knowledge, skills, abilities, or other attributes or competencies d. the work that is done by administrative assistants 55. Refer to Scenario 4-1. Since job analysis data have the potential for many uses, it is important for Scribe Engineering to know how the company will use the information before deciding on an approach or method. What would be some recruitment and selection outcomes of Scribe Engineering’s job analysis process? a. a job summary and job description *b. a job description and job specification c. a job evaluation and performance criteria d. a job design and evaluation 56. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What process can you use to ensure the job analysis is anchored into the context of Scribe Engineering’s organizational mission and goals? a. person analysis b. needs analysis *c. organizational analysis d. task analysis 57. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What would NOT be potential outcomes of Scribe Engineering’s job analysis process? a. job descriptions and job design b. job evaluation and performance measures *c. new competitive marketing strategy d. person–job fit and person–organization fit 58. Refer to Scenario 4-1. The administrative assistant job description includes “the ability to use Excel and Word level II with a proficiency of 90%.” What is this an example of? a. main duties *b. a job specification c. a job responsibility d. a performance standard

59. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What would be the benefit of using a trained job analyst to carry out the job analysis at Scribe Engineering? a. The job analyst may be more objective than job incumbents when collecting job information. *b. Job analysts understand how jobs should be designed. c. This would eliminate the expense of using subjectmatter experts. d. Employees will be more likely to trust the results of the analysis.

60. Refer to Scenario 4-1. How might you deal with human rights issues of sex, family, and age discrimination with the office administration employees at Scribe Engineering? a. File a complaint immediately with the Human Rights Tribunal or Commission. *b. Conduct a job analysis as a legally acceptable way of determining job-relatedness. c. Ensure management practices do not have a negative effect on employees. d. Modify any discriminatory employment practices.

61. Refer to Scenario 4-1. Why would it be important for Scribe Engineering to conduct a job analysis? *a. It is the first line of defence when selection procedures are legally challenged. b. It emphasizes selection skills and responsibilities, and de-emphasizes effort and working conditions. c. It provides subjective and objective evidence of the skills and abilities required for effective job performance. d. It establishes the worth of a job and defines it in measurable terms.

62. Refer to Scenario 4-1. The managers at Scribe Engineering cannot clearly distinguish between a position and a job. Which of the following best defines a job?

*a. a collection of positions with related job activities and duties b. the different duties and responsibilities performed by one employee c. the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform work d. the tasks, duties, and responsibilities associated with work 63. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What job analysis technique should you utilize at Scribe Engineering? a. self-oriented b. work-oriented *c. worker-oriented d. group-oriented 64. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What data would NOT need to be considered in the job analysis? a. job performance standards b. job responsibilities and tasks *c. job predictor criteria and data d. job conditions and mental effort 65. Refer to Scenario 4-1. How might you approach managers at Scribe Engineering who are not receptive to a job analysis process? a. Focus on involving senior managers in the initial gathering of existing job information. *b. Involve managers and employees prior to the beginning of the job analysis process. c. Ensure that the completion of questionnaires is mandatory. d. Include all the hesitant managers in job analysis focus groups.

66. Refer to Scenario 4-1. In this situation, what is the most important consideration before you begin the job analysis?

*a. identifying objectives and ensuring management support and employee buy-in b. deciding on a job analysis method c. gathering existing job-related data d. communicating and explaining the job-analysis process to all employees 67. Refer to Scenario 4-1. Which of the following will help Scribe Engineering decide to use a competency framework if it needs to ensure that the assessed competency is a skill or ability associated with a high level? a. salary *b. job performance c. communication d. job analysis 68. Refer to Scenario 4-1. The technical support job description includes the following: “Ability and willingness to follow policies and procedures.” What is this an example of? a. a job summary *b. a competency c. a job specification d. a job responsibility

True/False 69. Recruitment and selection should be examined only in the context of the job and not in the context of the organization. a. True *b. False

70. Job analysis data include a description of the job and profiles the competencies people need to have in order to perform well on the job. *a. True b. False 71. Job analysis involves a single methodology to analyze jobs. a. True *b. False 72. Job analysis breaks down a job into its constituent parts rather than looking at the job as a whole. *a. True b. False 73. The job description indicates job duties and organizational-level requirements. a. True *b. False 74. The first step in job analysis is to interview job incumbents. a. True *b. False 75. Work analysis involves techniques that emphasize work outcomes and descriptions of the various tasks performed to accomplish these outcomes. a. True *b. False 76. The interview is the least commonly used technique for gathering job facts and establishing the tasks and behaviours that define a job.

a. True *b. False 77. Leadership, motivation, trust, communication, and interpersonal skills are examples of competencies. *a. True b. False 78. Competency-based selection systems take the view that employees must be capable of moving between jobs and carrying out the associated tasks for different positions. *a. True b. False 79. Job analysis and competency management frameworks are the means by which job and person variables are identified for the purpose of recruitment and selection. *a. True b. False 80. Core competencies are the characteristics that every member of an organization, regardless of position, function, job, or level of responsibility within the organization, is expected to possess. *a. True b. False 81. A best practice in competency modelling for analyzing competency information might include considering previous job requirements. a. True *b. False

82. Recent research shows that traditional job methods and competency-based methods of job analysis models are equally rigorous and reliable. a. True *b. False 83. “What would you do if a patient had an emergency medical problem you were not qualified to deal with and no physicians could be contacted?” This is an example of a behavioural question that could be used in an interview for a nurse. a. True *b. False 84. What is a job analysis? What data are included in a job analysis? What are three key considerations in job analysis?

85. What is the difference between a job, position, and job family? Give examples of each.

86. What is the difference between a job description and a job specification? What are KSAOs? 87. As the HR consultant responsible for the recruitment and selection of TS Inc. aviation employees, what suggestions would you make to the CEO to ensure that the following job description adequately reflects the responsibilities and KSAOs that the aircraft maintenance engineer will need to perform his or her job well? What specific changes should be made to ensure the job description is measurable, valid, reliable, and legally defensible?

88. TS Inc. has 30 employees. As the HR manager, would you suggest that the company conduct a job analysis? What questions could you ask in gathering job information that would help TS Inc. write a job description and job specifications for its aircraft maintenance engineers?

89. Job analysis can be categorized into work-oriented job analysis or worker-oriented job analysis, depending on the nature of the jobs and how the work is changing. Describe both methods and give an example of when an organization may choose that method.

90. Describe a job analysis technique (data collection method) you would use for a particular organization and job position of your choice. Summarize what the method would involve. Discuss its advantages and how you would deal with the disadvantages of the technique.

91. Describe one job analysis method.

92. The evolution toward rapidly changing jobs and organizations that demand flexibility of their workers has led some HR practitioners to search for alternatives to traditional job analysis techniques. What factors are impinging on traditional job analysis? What are competencies? What are the three competencies that comprise the architecture of a company’s competency model?

1. Which of the following best defines a type of factor analysis whereby the analyst tests a specific model linking performance measurement items to specific competencies or dimensions of job performance? a. singular regression analysis b. multiple regression analysis *c. confirmatory factor analysis d. exploratory factor analysis 2. Which measures of job performance attempt to capture individual differences among employees with respect to jobrelated behaviours? a. attributes b. behaviour *c. criteria d. performance indicators 3. Which of the following defines the concept that is described as activities or behaviours that are not part of a worker’s formal job description but that remain important for organizational effectiveness? a. task performance b. job performance *c. contextual performance d. dimensional performance 4. Which of the following best defines job criteria? a. organizational processes used to improve employee and organizational performance in the workplace *b. measures of job performance that attempt to capture individual differences among employees with respect to job-related behaviours c. organizational processes that evaluate employee job performance d. a means to reinforce an organization’s core values in addition to identifying performance differences among employees

5. Which of the following is an example of contextual behaviour? *a. extra effort b. leadership c. supervision d. personal discipline 6. Which of the following is job task behaviour for a retail worker? *a. explaining product benefits b. learning new technologies c. helping new workers d. handling work stress 7. Which performance behaviour is similar to contextual performance behaviour? a. organizational citizenship b. job-specific task proficiency *c. adaptive behaviour d. organizational culture 8. According to a research study investigating the use of personal Facebook pages to predict job performance, what advice should HR managers give to hiring managers concerning the use of Facebook posts by applicants to predict which candidates will be successful? a. It’s a valuable tool. b. It’s valuable for certain jobs. *c. It’s of no value. d. It should be used only by trained HR staff.

9. Which of the following best defines job performance? *a. the observable things employees do that are relevant to accomplishing the goals of the organization b. a means to reinforce an organization’s core values in addition to identifying performance differences among employees

c. organizational processes used to improve employee and organizational performance in the workplace d. organizational processes that evaluate employee job performance 10. Which of the following is a job task behaviour for an airplane pilot? a. promoting safety procedures *b. navigation c. mentoring junior pilots d. self-discipline 11. As the HR manager, you are responsible for defining sets of related behaviours that are derived from organizational goals and linked to successful job performance. What are these behaviours called? a. performance domains b. performance criteria *c. performance dimensions d. performance indicators 12. In Campbell’s theory of work performance, what concept refers to the degree to which individuals are committed to performing all job tasks, to working at a high level of intensity, and to working under adverse conditions? a. maintaining personal discipline b. supervision/leadership *c. demonstrating effort d. job-specific proficiency 13. Which concept refers to voluntary behaviours that violate significant organizational norms and, in so doing, threaten the well-being of an organization, its members, or both? a. contextual performance b. lack of personal discipline c. task behaviours *d. counterproductive work behaviours

14. Which of the following is NOT an objective measure of job performance? a. cost of accidents b. length of time in job c. number of spelling mistakes *d. earnings per share 15. Which of the following best defines the rating system whereby ratings are collected from multiple sources and consolidated by the supervisor for the purpose of providing employee feedback? a. balanced scorecard *b. 360-degree feedback c. frame-of-reference d. ultimate criterion 16. Which method allows the rater to compare the overall performance of each worker with that of every other worker being evaluated? *a. paired comparison b. forced distribution c. rank order d. relative percentile method 17. Which of the following performance management approaches provides feedback around both the internal business processes and external outcomes in order to continuously improve strategic performance and results? a. behavioural observation scale b. behaviourally anchored rating scale *c. balanced scorecard d. 360-degree feedback 18. Which type of rater training focuses on providing training to help calibrate raters so they agree on the level of effectiveness for individual employee behaviours? a. behavioural observation training b. critical incident training *c. frame-of-reference training

d. rater-error training 19. Which of the following concepts is known as the degree to which the criterion measure is influenced by one or more sources of error? a. criterion relevance *b. criterion contamination c. criterion deficiency d. unmeasured competencies 20. Which concept is defined as the degree to which the criterion measures or captures behaviours or competencies that constitute job performance? a. criterion contamination b. criterion deficiency *c. criterion relevance d. criterion reliability 21. Into which subcategories would you break job performance behaviours? a. competency, adaptive, contextual, and job-specific behaviours b. adaptive, task, contextual, and productive behaviours *c. task, contextual, adaptive, and counterproductive behaviours d. strategic job-specific, contextual, and organizational behaviours 22. Which of the following statements best exemplifies the evidence-based recommendations for employee performance monitoring (EPM)?? a. Use EPM for deterrence rather than learning and development. b. Use EPM capabilities (e.g., location) when employees are offsite engaging in non-work activities. *c. Inform employees whether or not they are being monitored.

d. Understand that active monitoring (e.g., real-time computer use) is considered less invasive than intermittent monitoring (e.g., monitoring emails).

23. Which of the following is synonymous with machine learning in terms of analyzing employee demographic, experience, and other individual difference factors to make analytic predictions about the propensity to meet prescribed performance targets? a. Conceptual similarity b. Adaptive intelligence c. Contextual similarity *d. Artificial intelligence 24. Which of the following is an absolute rating system? a. forced distribution b. relative percentile method *c. graphic rating scale d. paired comparisons

Scenario 5-1 You have just been hired as the recruitment and selection specialist for BCH, a health-care organization that oversees many diverse health services in British Columbia. You were offered the position due to your knowledge of legislation, experience in oral presentations and report writing, ability to effectively schedule complex projects, fit with BCH’s organizational culture, and selfdiscipline. The hiring manager stated that oral presentations and report writing were given the most weight in the hiring decision. He also mentioned that the importance of this job dimension influenced the raters’ ratings over the other job dimensions.

25. Refer to Scenario 5-1. What counterproductive performance dimension did BCH consider when hiring you? a. communication proficiency *b. maintaining self-discipline c. demonstrating effort d. knowledge of legislation 26. Refer to Scenario 5-1. Which of the following is NOT considered a counterproductive work behaviour? a. bullying b. theft c. sexual harassment *d. frustration 27. Refer to Scenario 5-1. What was BCH’s most important performance dimension in this hiring decision? a. management/administration b. maintaining self-discipline *c. communication proficiency d. knowledge of legislation 28. Refer to Scenario 5-1. What contextual performance factor did BCH hire you for? a. management/administration b. maintaining self-discipline *c. organizational culture fit d. knowledge of legislation 29. Refer to Scenario 5-1. What task performance behaviour did BCH hire you for? a. communication proficiency b. maintaining self-discipline c. demonstrating effort *d. ability to effectively schedule complex projects

Scenario 5-2 The CEO of KM Contracting, a medium-sized Canadian construction company, has decided to develop a performance management system so that the company can measure employee performance. As the HR manager, you believe that a lack of clear job standards has led to the selection of inappropriate candidates. Managers have stated that performance appraisals are usually conducted only when inappropriate and unsafe workplace behaviours have occurred. The three major performance dimensions of all the jobs are technical construction proficiency, demonstrating effort, and maintaining self-discipline.

30. Refer to Scenario 5-2. The managers at KM Contracting are not clear on the distinction between performance management and performance measurement. Which of the following best defines performance measurement? *a. a means to reinforce an organization’s core values in addition to identifying performance differences among employees b. assessments of job performance that attempt to capture individual differences among employees with respect to job-related behaviours c. organizational processes used to improve employee performance in the workplace d. organizational processes that evaluate employee job performance 31. Refer to Scenario 5-2. As the HR manager, you have clarified that the outcome of KM Contracting’s performance appraisals must be more than corrective discipline. What is the outcome of an effective performance appraisal system? a. achievement of organizational goals due to increased employee satisfaction and performance b. improvement in organizational processes that evaluate employee job performance *c. reinforcement of organizational core values in addition to identifying performance differences among employees

d. identification of employees who need development as well as progressive discipline 32. Refer to Scenario 5-2. The managers at KM Contracting are not clear on the distinction between job performance and job criteria. Which of the following best defines job performance? *a. the observable things employees do that are relevant to accomplishing the goals of the organization b. a means to reinforce an organization’s core values in addition to identifying performance differences among employees c. organizational processes used to improve employee and organizational performance in the workplace d. organizational processes that evaluate employee job performance 33. Refer to Scenario 5-2. The managers at KM Contracting are not clear on the purpose of performance management.

Which of the following best explains the purpose of performance management? a. performance management is a means to transform companies into results-oriented organizations b. performance management includes measures of job performance that attempt to capture individual differences among employees with respect to jobrelated behaviours *c. performance management works as a feedback loop that allows an organization to monitor the quality of employees and thereby to assess the quality of its recruitment and selection process d. performance management creates organizational processes that evaluate employee job performance 34. Refer to Scenario 5-2. Which of the following is NOT a subcategory of job performance? a. task performance b. contextual performance c. counterproductive work behaviour *d. interpersonal job performance

35. Refer to Scenario 5-2. Which contextual performance behaviours have been observed at KM Contracting? a. maintaining personal discipline *b. demonstrating effort c. technical construction proficiency d. engaging in unsafe work practices 36. Refer to Scenario 5-2. As the HR manager, you are responsible for defining sets of related behaviours that are derived from KM Contracting’s goals and linked to successful job performance. What are these behaviours called? a. performance domains b. performance criteria *c. performance dimensions d. performance indicators

Scenario 5-3 You have been hired as the recruitment and selection specialist for BCH, a health-care organization that oversees many diverse health services in British Columbia. The BCH community extended-care facilities have developed a performance appraisal system whereby managers evaluate all employees on their initiative and attitude toward helping patients. The hospitals use a different performance appraisal system that includes phrases such as “responds to patient medical needs within 2 minutes” and “failed to interpret the medical needs of the patient.” Some of the senior management obtain performance feedback from their superiors, peers, subordinates, and clients as well as complete their own self-ratings for professional development.

37. Refer to Scenario 5-3. In the health-care industry, performance extends beyond knowledge, skills, and abilities and requires performance that supports the organizational, social, and psychological environment in which the job is performed. What are these activities or behaviours called? a. job-specific task performance *b. contextual performance c. accepting diversity d. interpreting cultural differences 38. Refer to Scenario 5-3. What kind of performance behaviour occurs when a nurse shows enthusiasm and extra effort to help a patient? a. task *b. contextual c. organizational d. adaptive 39. Refer to Scenario 5-3. What performance appraisal method are the hospitals using? a. graphic rating scale b. results method *c. behaviourally anchored rating scale d. ranking system 40. According to the textbook, which of the following would NOT be a job-specific task proficiency to evaluate a security dispatcher? *a. persisting with extra effort b. properly secures lost and found articles c. activates appropriate emergency response teams as needed d. ensures confidentiality and security of information 41. Which of the following is refers to the ratings or rankings made by supervisors, peers, or others that are used in assessing individual job performance? *a. subjective performance measures b. management by objectives

c. graphic rating scale d. behaviourally anchored rating scales

True/False 42. Job performance domain refers to the set of related behaviours that are derived from an organization’s goals and linked to successful job performance. *a. True b. False 43. Performance is NOT the consequence or result of action; it is the action itself. *a. True b. False 44. Persisting with enthusiasm and extra effort as necessary to complete one’s own task activities successfully is an example of contextual performance. *a. True b. False 45. Contextual performance is closely related to organizational citizenship behaviour. *a. True b. False 46. Engaging in unsafe work practices is a counterproductive work behaviour. *a. True b. False

47. The usefulness of selection measures is assessed by how well they predict performance. *a. True b. False 48. Cognitive ability appears to be the best predictor of task performance across all job situations. *a. True b. False 49. To evaluate the effectiveness of selection systems, companies must measure the task performance, adaptive performance, contextual performance, and counterproductive work behaviours that are important for job success. *a. True b. False 50. Reliability is the degree to which the criterion measure captures behaviours or competencies that constitute job performance. a. True *b. False 51. Criterion deficiency is defined as those task performance behaviours or competencies that are NOT measured by the criterion. a. True *b. False 52. Performance measurement is always subjective and is not reliable to predict future performance. a. True *b. False

53. Absolute rating systems compare the performance of one worker with an absolute standard of performance. *a. True b. False 54. Behaviour observation scales are very similar to behaviourally anchored rating scales (BARS) in that the starting point is an analysis of critical job incidents by those knowledgeable about the job to establish performance dimensions. *a. True b. False 55. The perceived fairness and perceived justice of the performance appraisal process plays a central role in determining employee reactions. *a. True b. False 56. Define job performance and criteria. Why is it important to understand job performance and criteria as part of the recruitment and selection process?

57. Define performance management.

58. Describe two methods for measuring job performance.

59. John Campbell and his associates have developed a theory of work performance. Campbell proposes that the behaviours that people are expected to exhibit as part of their job appear to fall into eight job performance dimensions. You are applying for a position as an HR manager. Describe and give an example of two performance dimensions from Campbell’s model that you believe would be major performance components required of an HR manager.

Describe how these performances are expressed in relation to an organization’s mission and goals. How could this desired performance be measured? What criteria could be

used? What determines individual differences in Campbell’s eight job performance components? Why would you perform more effectively and efficiently than another candidate?

60. Job performance is a multidimensional construct composed of subcategories of behaviours: task, contextual, adaptive, and counterproductive. Define these four jobrelated behaviours, and give an example of how each of these behaviours is linked to factors that should be considered during recruitment and selection.

61. What is contextual performance? Briefly describe two categories of contextual performance.

62. Define criterion relevance, criterion contamination, and criterion deficiency.

63. Develop five job-specific task proficiencies using a behavioural observation scale to evaluate a security dispatcher.

64. Explain how human rights relate to performance appraisal processes.

1. What is the initial step in the selection process? *a. recruitment b. screening c. strategy d. legislation 2. Which term defines a set of potential candidates who may be interested in, and who are likely to apply for, a specific job? a. members of a protected group b. the labour market c. a contingent work force *d. an applicant pool 3. What concept refers to the generation of an applicant pool for a position in order to provide the required number of qualified candidates for selection or promotion? *a. recruitment b. human resource planning c. selection d. hiring 4. According to the opening vignette, which of the following illustrates how Shopify’s CEO finds talented people for this rapidly growing organization? a. Shopify’s CEO relies on the use of best practices b. Shopify’s CEO embraces traditional thinking with respect to finding talented people c. Shopify’s CEO relies on the use of reliable and valid selection practices *d. Shopify’s CEO embraces unorthodox thinking with respect to finding talented people 5. According to the textbook, which of the following is NOT an external factor affecting recruitment? a. labour market b. competition *c. sustainability d. legislation

6. Which of the following terms refers to contracting with an outside agent to take over specified human resource functions? a. contract work b. contingent work *c. outsourcing d. leasing 7. Which factor defines the intentional or unintentional exclusion of designated groups through recruitment and selection? a. direct discrimination *b. systemic discrimination c. indirect discrimination d. intentional discrimination 8. According to the textbook, which of the following internal factors affects recruitment? *a. supply of labour b. legal requirements c. strategic goals d. competition 9. What is the initial step in developing a recruitment action plan? a. Advertise for the position. b. Generate qualified applicants. *c. Develop a recruitment strategy. d. Meet current legal requirements.

10. Which of the following is NOT an internal method of recruitment? a. job postings b. company newsletters *c. job advertisements d. nominations

11. Which of the following external methods is associated with the highest retention rates? *a. referrals b. employment agencies c. university job fairs d. professional associations 12. In order to raise an organization’s profile in a positive manner to attract interest from job seekers, an organization sponsors a popular film festival. What is this an example of? *a. image advertising b. promotional recruitment c. branding d. publicity 13. What is the primary advantage of Internet recruiting? a. availability to candidates with technology access and know-how *b. reaching a large applicant pool at minimal cost c. fewer concerns about confidentiality d. receiving a large number of résumés 14. Which of the following is a disadvantage of internal job postings? a. It is expensive. b. It rewards long tenure. *c. There is a motivational impact on candidates not selected. d. Collective agreements prevent the best candidate from being hired.

15. What occurs during the recruitment and selection process when candidates form an opinion that they do not want to work in the organization for which they are being recruited? a. negative perception b. realistic job preview

c. opting out *d. self-selecting out 16. Which of the following would NOT be considered an effective recruiting guideline? *a. Give serious consideration to the content of information presented to candidates rather than the context in which it is presented. b. Present important information about the job and the organization to candidates by several different, reliable, and credible sources. c. Recognize that the behaviour of recruiters and other representatives gives an impression of the organization’s climate, efficiency, and attitude toward employees. d. Ensure that all recruiting information and materials given to job applicants present accurate and consistent information, whether positive or negative.

17. What term is defined as the process through which an organization reaches a decision that a job candidate fits the organization’s values and culture and has the attributes desired by the organization? a. person–job fit *b. person–organization fit c. cultural fit d. organizational fit 18. Which of the following is NOT an outcome of a mismatched individual relative to the job and the organization? a. absenteeism b. low productivity *c. presenteeism d. turnover 19. Which of the following statements best exemplifies how technology can be a solution to a labour problem?

*a. Efficiencies gained through automation can provide an alternative to hiring new employees b. Advancements in artificial intelligence can be helpful but will not replace the need to hire professional and knowledge-based workers c. Efficiencies gained through automation can provide an incentive for hiring new employees d. Advancements in artificial intelligence can be helpful but will not replace the need to hire traditional and manual labour workers 20. What type of measures used to evaluate recruiting methods includes turnover and absenteeism? a. attitudinal b. performance *c. behavioural d. subjective

Scenario 6-1 At TS Inc, a growing BC aviation company of 30 employees, recruitment rests on the shoulders of the president. Like most small companies, TS Inc. frequently uses employee referrals as a method of recruitment. The company wants to use Internet recruitment technologies but is not well versed in information technology. The CEO is very concerned about poor hiring decisions and turnover costs.

21. Refer to Scenario 6-1. From what labour market should TS Inc. recruit aircraft maintenance engineers? a. *b. regional c. global d. national

local

22. Refer to Scenario 6-1. What method of recruiting would be most suitable for hiring aircraft maintenance engineers for TS Inc.? a. internal *b. external c. internal and external d. recruiting agency 23. Refer to Scenario 6-1. What would be the LEAST effective e-recruitment method for recruiting aircraft maintenance engineers? *a. national and international Internet job boards (e.g., Workopolis.ca) b. professional and career websites (e.g., aviation professional and industry associations) c. technical school websites (e.g., recent aircraft maintenance engineer graduates) d. TS Inc.’s website 24. Refer to Scenario 6-1. Which of the following would TS Inc. need to be prepared for with a switch to Internet recruiting? a. much higher advertising costs b. much higher volume of applicants to manage c. long lead times *d. reduced number of local applicants 25. Refer to Scenario 6-1. What does TS Inc. need to consider to ensure a good person–organization fit? a. image advertising and branding b. creation of high expectations of the candidate c. sufficient orientation and training *d. accurate communication, perceptions, and expectations

Scenario 6-2 The shortage of professionals is a well-documented global issue occurring in countries with aging populations. As a result, an organization, such as BCH, a health-care organization that oversees many diverse unionized health services in British Columbia, is experiencing staff shortages in nursing. Patient waiting times have increased dramatically. Sixty percent of nurses will be eligible for retirement by 2022. Young graduate nurses are moving out of the province to health-care providers that are aggressively recruiting and providing new hires with incentives ranging from flexible work alternatives to educational funding support. Twenty percent of nurses are off the job due to illness or injury. Eighty percent of nurses are single parents, support an elderly parent(s), or are a primary caregiver. BCH believes that becoming an “employer of choice” is a way to attract and retain its health-care professionals.

26. Refer to Scenario 6-2. What is the goal of BCH’s nursing job-related selection system? a. to generate an applicant pool for nursing positions in order to provide the required number of qualified nurses for selection *b. to bring nurses into BCH who will perform at above-average levels and who will increase the productivity of the organization c. to conduct an organizational assessment and job analysis for nursing positions d. to develop a recruitment strategy and action plan for hiring nurses into BCH 27. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which of the following conditions is important, but not always the most influential factor, in attracting highly educated professional nurses to BCH? a. opportunity to incorporate their interests and values b. autonomy and decision-making authority c. opportunities for self-development

*d. security and income 28. Refer to Scenario 6-2. What is the term for BCH’s process of gathering information about demographics, such as nursing shortages and the aging population? a. needs analysis *b. labour market analysis c. organizational planning d. demographic analysis 29. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which two external factors are influencing BCH’s recruitment strategy? a. BCH’s business plan of becoming an employer of choice and its union contract b. the job expectations and the attitudes of nurse applicants c. BCH’s organizational and job analysis *d. the scarcity of qualified nursing labour and the legal environment 30. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which two internal factors are influencing BCH’s recruitment strategy? a. the scarcity of qualified nursing labour and the legal environment *b. BCH’s business plan of becoming an employer of choice and its union contracts c. the job expectations and the attitudes of the nurse applicants d. the part-time labour market and outsourcing 31. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which factors are LEAST important when BCH is developing its recruitment strategy? a. external factors *b. internal factors c. labour market factors d. legislative factors 32. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Upon what should BCH’s nursing recruitment decisions be based?

a. an assessment of the labour market b. new health legislation *c. organizational and job analyses d. review of mission statement 33. Refer to Scenario 6-2. What would be the most effective way to advertise for nurses? a. internal postings job board *b. nurses’ professional websites c. external job board d. national newspaper 34. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which of the following questions would NOT be relevant to a job advertisement campaign to target nursing applicants? *a. How will the costs of advertising be balanced by reaching the target applicant pool? b. What advertising media will reach the target applicant pool? c. How many applicants do we need to fill the position with qualified people? d. What type of ad content will attract the target applicant pool’s attention?

35. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which of the following has occurred when nurses form the opinion during recruitment that they do not want to work for BCH? a. negative organizational perceptions *b. self-selecting out c. realistic job preview d. negative job expectations 36. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which work alternatives may help BCH recruit and retain both its senior and younger new nurses? a. part-time positions b. contract positions c. temporary work *d. family-friendly practices

37. Refer to Scenario 6-2. What process is designed to raise BCH’s profile in a positive manner in order to attract job seekers’ interest? *a. image advertising b. branding c. person–job fit d. publicity 38. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which strategy is BCH using to establish its identity and perception in the marketplace as an employer of choice? a. image advertising b. human resource planning *c. branding d. strategic planning 39. Refer to Scenario 6-2. What does BCH need to consider to ensure a good person–organization fit? a. image advertising b. creating high expectations c. recruitment and selection training *d. accurate communication, perceptions, and expectations 40. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which of the following may result in a damage award to a nurse applicant? *a. Failing to accurately representation information about the nursing job as part of the recruiting process b. Promising raises for above average performance c. Failing to initiate a set of procedures that lowers the expectations of the nurse applicants to more realistic and accurate perceptions of BCH d. Promising promotions for above average performance

Scenario 6-3 You are an HRM consultant working with several municipal governments across Eastern Canada to help them recruit future managers. As the baby-boom generation retires, it is getting more difficult to find replacements to fill management-level publicsector positions. You have been involved in promoting several managers from within the organizations and have embarked on a program of leadership development and succession planning. In trying to recruit business school graduates, you have heard young job seekers state that they perceive government as a negative place to work and would not consider applying for government management positions.

41. Refer to Scenario 6-3. What is an important, but not always the most influential, factor when attracting young business graduates? a. opportunity to use their knowledge, skills, and abilities b. reputation of the organization and location c. flexible work schedule *d. security and income 42. Refer to Scenario 6-3. Which of the following is a prominent factor that can increase the attractiveness of municipal government jobs? *a. familiarity b. concise job advertisements c. being union-free d. strong health and safety record

True/False

43. Recruitment is done separately from the selection process. *a. True b. False 44. The best defence against charges of systemic discrimination is to document that every attempt has been made to attract members from the protected group. a. True *b. False 45. Employment equity involves policies and practices to increase the presence of visible minorities and gay individuals in the workplace. a. True *b. False 46. Mission and values do NOT play a role in the recruitment process. *a. True b. False 47. There is evidence that employees recruited by referral remain longer in the organization. a. True *b. False 48. Walk-in and write-in methods of job recruitment are inexpensive ways to fill entry-level positions, and they are more effective than referrals because there is no nepotism. *a. True b. False

49. One disadvantage of employee referrals is that they may lead to discrimination and inbreeding. a. True *b. False 50. According to the textbook, approximately 87 percent of respondents to a Jobvite survey indicated that they use some form of social media to recruit. *a. True b. False 51. Unlike job boards, there is no cost to joining a social network. *a. True b. False 52. One disadvantage of Internet recruiting is that it results in an overwhelming number of applicants, many of whom are unqualified. *a. True b. False 53. Social network sites for job applicants might be discriminatory if disabled individuals are required to post photographs of themselves. a. True *b. False 54. Social network sites protect the private information of job applicants, such as age, religion, and ethnicity, and are not discriminatory. *a. True b. False

55. One disadvantage of using Canada Employment Centres for recruitment is that hiring success is limited to certain occupational categories. *a. True b. False 56. Ensuring accurate job expectations during the recruitment and selection process helps develop a good organization–job fit between the person and the organization. *a. True b. False 57. Websites, such as Glassdoor.com, that provide anonymous reviews of the employer’s culture and work environment that can be accessed by job seekers, are known as third-party online reviews (TPORs). *a. True b. False 58. What is recruitment? What information does an organization need to make a decision to recruit?

59. Choose an organization you are familiar with. Describe three constraints affecting the organization’s recruitment and selection process.

60. Describe an organization you are familiar with.

Describe the current and potential influence that the organization’s external environment has on the human resource management planning, staffing and retention practices, and how the organization can respond to these challenges. Describe the organization’s internal environment and its relationship to the organization’s strategy and its human resource planning, recruitment, selection, and retention practices.

61. Shortages of health-care professionals are a welldocumented global issue occurring in countries with aging populations. As a result, organizations, such as BCH, a health-care organization that oversees many diverse unionized health services in British Columbia, are experiencing staff shortages in nursing. Patients’ waiting times have increased dramatically. Sixty percent of the nurses will be eligible for retirement by 2022. Young graduate nurses are moving out of the province to healthcare providers that are aggressively recruiting and providing new hires with incentives ranging from flexible work alternatives to educational funding support. Twenty percent of nurses are off the job due to illness or injury.

Eighty percent of nurses are single parents, support an elderly parent(s), or are a primary care giver. BCH believes that becoming an “employer of choice” is a way to attract and retain its health-care professionals. Develop a comprehensive recruitment strategy for nurses at BCH. 62. Choose an organization and specific job position you are familiar with. Describe three internal and/or external recruitment methods you would suggest for recruiting for your chosen position. Describe their advantages and how you would deal with the disadvantages of your chosen methods.

63. TS Inc. is a growing BC aviation company of 30 employees. The company requires an aircraft maintenance engineer. What would be the most effective recruitment method for reaching this applicant pool? Describe the specific methods you would use and their advantages.

Discuss how you would address the disadvantages of your chosen methods. Describe the steps you would take if you are unable to recruit sufficient employees for the job.

64. Social networks are increasingly being used as a powerful recruiting method by employers. What is social networking? As an applicant, what are the advantages and disadvantages of using social networks to apply for a position?

65. Why is corporate image important in recruiting efforts?

Explain the difference between image advertising and branding.

66. What is person job–organization fit? Why is it an important consideration in recruitment?

67. Scribe Engineering has experienced a shortage of qualified applicants for their available administrative assistant positions. What can Scribe Engineering do to ensure that the job ads for these administrative assistant positions are as effective as possible?

1. In which of the following tests is each candidate required to respond to a standardized set of short reports, notes, telephone messages, and memos of the type that most managers must deal with on a daily basis? a. work profile questionnaire (WPQ) b. job knowledge test *c. in-basket exercise d. situational judgement test

2. What is psychological testing NOT used for? a. to hire applicants b. to classify applicants selected into the most appropriate positions *c. to assist in screening applicants d. to identify applicant needs for training 3. Which one of the following criteria does NOT need to be met to be accepted as a professional testing standard? a. Tests must be reliable and valid. b. Tests must be fair and unbiased. c. Tests must have utility. *d. Tests must be cost effective.

4. Which of the following is described as an aptitude test? *a. Comprehensive Ability Battery (CAB) b. Work Personality Index (WPI) c. Wonderlic Personnel Test d. Otis-Lennon Mental Ability Test 5. Which of the following concepts refers to an enduring, general trait, or characteristic on which people differ and that they bring to a work situation? a. aptitude

b. attribute *c. ability d. attitude 6. Which concept refers to an individual’s degree of proficiency or competency on a given task that develops through performing the task? a. performance *b. skill c. proficiency d. aptitude 7. Suppose you are seeking an individual with quick finger dexterity for a keyboard operator position. In which of the following categories would dexterity be classified? a. aptitude b. attribute c. skill *d. ability 8. What kind of test is the Wonderlic Personnel Test? a. Personality Inventory *b. Cognitive Ability Test c. Vocational Interest Inventory d. Sensory Ability Test 9. What kind of knowledge is derived from experience when learning is not the primary objective? *a. tacit knowledge b. job knowledge c. procedural knowledge d. situational knowledge 10. Which of the following is NOT a psychological test used to select employees? a. an emotional intelligence test b. a cognitive ability test c. a psychomotor test

*d. a genetic test 11. What is the term for a specific, narrow ability, or skill that may be used to predict job performance? a. skill b. personality c. ability *d. aptitude 12. What is the term for an individual’s degree of proficiency or competency on a given task that develops through performing the task? a. knowledge b. ability c. attribute *d. skill 13. Which of the following is NOT considered a cognitive ability? a. reasoning *b. finger dexterity c. problem solving d. numerical ability 14. Which term refers to intelligence? a. job knowledge *b. cognitive ability c. general knowledge d. personal trait 15. Why is the use of general mental ability (GMA) tests for selection to be approached cautiously? a. Test scores have not been shown to correlate with job performance. *b. GMA tests have been shown to have an adverse impact on minority candidates. c. GMA tests are not useful in predicting job performance for low-skilled jobs.

d. Ability tests are valid only for predicting shortterm and long-term academic performance.

16. How can you avoid the adverse impact of cognitive ability tests? a. Use common sense. *b. Carry out structured interviews. c. Employ aptitude tests. d. Do field investigation.

17. Which of the following terms refers to knowledge that is derived from experience when learning is not the primary objective? a. job knowledge b. explicit knowledge c. implicit knowledge *d. tacit knowledge 18. Which of the following is the term used to describe the assessment of stable traits or abilities in the form of a decision-based activity? a. general cognitive assessment *b. gamified assessment c. multiple aptitude assessment d. knowledge-based assessment 19. Which of the following refers to the stable trait or ability to accurately perceive and appraise affect in oneself and others and to appropriately regulate and express those feelings? *a. emotional intelligence b. practical intelligence c. organizational citizenship d. personality 20. According to the textbook, which of the following is NOT an example of a psychomotor test? a. finger dexterity

b. motor coordination *c. oral ability d. manual dexterity 21. Which test has good predictive validity for measuring motor coordination in many industrial jobs? a. a general aptitude test b. a physical ability test *c. a psychomotor ability test d. a general ability test 22. What type of test would you use to assess finger dexterity of dentist applicants? *a. psychomotor ability test b. skill test c. physical abilities test d. sensory and perceptual test 23. Which of the following abilities corresponds to near and far vision, speech recognition, and colour discrimination? a. cognitive abilities b. psychomotor abilities c. physical abilities *d. sensory or perceptual abilities 24. What type of test would you use to assess construction worker applicants for their strength to lift construction material and for their balance to keep from falling off a roof? a. psychomotor ability b. skill and ability *c. physical and sensory/perceptual ability d. general cognitive ability 25. SeaWave is a company that builds and repairs ocean and lake marinas and docks in eastern Canada. The company hires deep-sea divers. What type of test should SeaWave use to select its applicants?

a. personality and honesty test b. psychomotor assessment c. physical ability assessment *d. physical fitness test and medical examination 26. What are physical fitness and medical examinations designed to do? a. screen out unhealthy or unfit employees who pose a liability to the employer b. reduce lost productivity, replacement costs, and legal damages from fellow workers and customers who have been injured through a worker’s actions *c. ensure that an applicant meets minimum standards of health to be able to cope with the physical demands of the job d. determine how the physical fitness and medical status of an applicant relates to the job analysis 27. When should a fitness test or medical examination be given to applicants? *a. after the applicant has been given an offer of employment, which is made conditional on the applicant’s passing the test or examination b. prior to the applicant being given an offer of employment c. as part of a structured assessment centre d. after reference checks have been completed 28. Which of the following statements regarding genetic testing is correct? *a. It is prohibited under federal legislation. b. It is allowed if the employee has given written consent. c. Its use often leads to higher health insurance premiums. d. It is acceptable if used by the employer in good faith.

29. Which “Big Five” personality trait has been found to be related to job success across most organizations and occupations? a. extroversion *b. conscientiousness c. openness to experience d. agreeableness 30. Theft is costing Canadian grocery stores millions of dollars a day. Many have implemented a controversial, inexpensive test to screen out potential thieves, and this has had a negative impact on public relations and left applicants feeling that their privacy has been invaded.

What type of test are the grocery stores using? *a. an honesty test b. a polygraph test c. a graphology test d. a personality test

Scenario 8-1 The Federal Transportation Safety Board recently stated Provincial Ferry Operators have failed to effectively enforce its zero-tolerance substance abuse policy. As part of its investigation into several fatal ferry accidents, the board revealed a pattern of crew use of illegal drugs. Data in the HRIS showed significant costs associated with employee accidents, absenteeism, turnover, and tardiness due to workplace drug use. The company president of one of the ferries wants the Transportation Board to implement mandatory employee drug testing. The union opposes mandatory testing and states that the issue has never been brought to the joint safety committee. Management is wondering why no one is standing up for what is right and reporting coworkers who are impaired on the job.

31. Refer to Scenario 8-1. If the Ferry Operators wanted to try to prevent impairment issues in the workplace as part of their selection efforts, then when should they administer a medical examination? *a. Only after an offer of employment has been presented. b. Never. c. Before an offer of employment has been presented. d. In very rare circumstances.

32. Refer to Scenario 8-1. Which of the following is the legislative component that requires medical or physical examinations of job candidates to be job related? a. The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms b. The Workers’ Compensation Act *c. The Human Rights Act d. The Public Transportation Legislation 33. Refer to Scenario 8-1. In this situation, what legally protected ground would mandatory employee drug testing violate? a. health and safety *b. mental and physical disability c. personal freedom d. workplace substance abuse 34. Refer to Scenario 8-1. Which of the following statements best exemplifies the conditions under which preemployment drug and alcohol testing in Canada is permitted? a. Pre-employment drug testing is permitted only for some types of drugs. b. Pre-employment drug testing is generally permissible. c. There are very broad conditions under which preemployment drug and alcohol testing in Canada is permitted. *d. There are very narrow conditions under which preemployment drug and alcohol testing in Canada is permitted.

35. Refer to Scenario 8-1. If the employee drug-use issues also include cannabis, then which of the following statements is accurate? a. Random testing is permissible only for illegal drug use. b. The same general rules regarding alcohol and drug testing do not apply to cannabis because cannabis is now legal to consume in Canada. c. Random testing is only permissible for legal drug use. *d. The same general rules regarding alcohol and drug testing also apply to cannabis.

36. Refer to Scenario 8-1. Which of the following legal and ethical best practices is least likely to be permissible in dealing with substance abuse in the workplace? a. drug and alcohol policies b. training and education for managers and employees c. confidential channels to access assistance *d. drug and alcohol testing 37. Refer to Scenario 8-1. Which ethical issue is particularly relevant to drug-testing methods? a. privacy *b. discrimination c. addiction d. costs 38. Refer to Scenario 8-1. According to the Canadian Human Rights Act, which of the following does NOT qualify as a prohibited ground for discrimination? a. physical or mental disability b. an employer’s perception that a disability makes an individual unfit to work c. a previous drug or alcohol problem *d. recreational use of illegal drugs

39. Refer to Scenario 8-1. All of the following are proactive measures to address workplace drug and alcohol problems EXCEPT which one? a. introducing an employee assistance program and/or health promotion program b. training staff to identify a person’s state of impairment c. training supervisors to confront employees about substandard performance that may be drug or alcohol related and offer help through the Employee Assistance Program *d. taking disciplinary action by terminating employment if the employee’s substance-abuse behaviour continues

Scenario 8-2 A new call centre, Quantum Inc., is hiring individuals with call centre telephone experience and skills. The minimum qualifications are a Grade 12 diploma.

Applicants must possess honesty, the ability to learn new skills, and telephone skills. Turnover in the call centre industry is very high, so the CEO of Quantum wants the company’s testing process to ensure that Quantum hires the most qualified applicants for the positions.

40. Refer to Scenario 8-2. Which testing method should Quantum Inc. use to test for honesty? *a. an integrity test b. a work sample c. a Big Five personality test d. an emotional intelligence test 41. Refer to Scenario 8-2. Which testing method should Quantum Inc. use to test for the ability to learn new skills?

*a. general cognitive ability test b. practical intelligence test c. multiple aptitude test d. tacit knowledge test 42. Refer to Scenario 8-2. Which testing method should Quantum Inc. use to test for telephone skills? a. an integrity test *b. a work sample c. a Big Five personality test d. an emotional intelligence test

Scenario 8-3 Armin, who has an arthritic condition, applied for a position as a private bus driver. He met all the conditions of the selection process but was rejected by the company on the advice of the doctor who performed the mandatory medical examination.

43. Refer to Scenario 8-3. Before requiring the medical examination, which of the following did the employer need to establish? *a. that the absence of arthritis was a bona fide occupational requirement for a private bus driver b. that the medical examination was valid c. that the medical examination was reliable d. that physical ability was a bona fide occupational requirement for a private bus driver 44. Refer to Scenario 8-3. What protection does Armin have under human rights law in this situation? a. Armin is protected by employment standards legislation. *b. Armin is protected on the grounds of physical disability.

c. Armin is protected by employment equity legislation. d. Armin is protected on the grounds of undue hardship.

45. Refer to Scenario 8-3. Which legislation applies in this case? a. the Occupational Health and Safety Act b. employment equity laws *c. human rights laws d. the transportation and logistics act 46. Refer to Scenario 8-3. What legally protected ground may be violated in this situation? a. privacy *b. mental and physical disability c. safety d. physical health 47. Which term refers to testing procedures that require job candidates to produce behaviours related to job performance under controlled conditions and that approximate those found on the job? a. proficiency b. aptitude test c. realistic job preview *d. work sample 48. According to the textbook, which concept refers to a simulation exercise designed to assess management, organizational, and communication skills? a. an organization-wide simulation *b. a leaderless group discussion c. a Markov analysis d. a situational exercise 49. Which of the following presents respondents with a series of short scenarios or problems and indirectly measures the implicit personality trait of interest?

a. Integrity Tests *b. Conditional Reasoning Tests c. General Cognitive Ability Tests d. Personality Tests 50. Which of the following is a simulated interpersonal interaction designed to assess communication skills, leadership potential, or problem-solving ability? *a. role plays b. assessment centres c. gamified assessments d. emotional intelligence tests 51. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for balancing validity and diversity in selection? a. Enhance applicant reactions. b. Use job analysis to carefully define the nature of performance on the job. *c. Use well-established predictor measurement methods when feasible. d. Decrease the cognitive loading of predictors and minimize verbal ability and reading requirements.

52. Applicants react most favourably when employers use which of the following selection methods? a. work samples and personality tests b. references and résumés *c. interviews and work samples d. skill tests and informal interviews

True/False 53. Integrity tests that try to predict whether employees will steal, be absent, or otherwise take advantage of an

employer don’t work very well in practice because so many people lie on these tests. a. True *b. False 54. Although people use many terms to describe different personalities, there are only four basic dimensions of personality as captured by the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI). a. True *b. False 55. Employees of companies that screen job applicants for values perform better than do employees screened for intelligence. a. True *b. False 56. Being very intelligent is a disadvantage for an employee working at a low-skilled job. a. True *b. False 57. The central requirement for any selection tests or assessment procedures is that they accurately assess the individual’s performance, or capacity to perform, the essential components of the job in question safely, efficiently, and reliably. *a. True b. False 58. The employer’s goal for employment testing is to select those candidates who best possess the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes that lead to successful job performance. *a. True

b. False 59. Gamified assessments could be useful for accommodating applicants with specific mental and/or physical disabilities. *a. True b. False 60. Psychological testing is a standardized procedure used to obtain a sample of a person’s behaviour and to describe the behaviour with the aid of some measurement scale. *a. True b. False 61. The common wisdom in the literature on employee selection—that cognitive ability testing is not biased against minority group members—is now being significantly challenged. *a. True b. False 62. There is minimal evidence that cognitive ability measurements can serve as a consistent predictor in training and on the job performance. a. True *b. False 63. A specific, narrow ability or skill that may be used to predict job performance is also called cognitive ability. a. True *b. False 64. General cognitive ability is among the most powerful predictors of success in training and job performance for a variety of occupational groups.

*a. True b. False 65. Physical requirements for occupational tasks usually fall into three categories: strength, endurance, and speed. a. True *b. False 66. A disability cannot be used to screen out applicants unless it can be demonstrated that the ability in question is a bona fide occupational requirement. *a. True b. False 67. The intent of physical fitness tests is to ensure that an applicant meets minimum standards of health to cope with the physical demands of the job. *a. True b. False 68. Employers have an obligation to accommodate all workers who have a medical or physical condition. a. True *b. False 69. Fitness testing or physical or medical examinations should be administered only after the applicant has been given an offer of employment, which is made conditional on the applicant’s passing the test or examination. *a. True b. False 70. Employers have an obligation to accommodate workers with medical or physical conditions on an individual basis. *a. True

b. False 71. Positive drug test results always lead to dismissal of the tested employee from the job. a. True *b. False 72. Canadian employers can discriminate on the basis of medical, genetic, or physical condition if the condition poses a serious and demonstrable impediment to the conduct of the work or poses serious threats to the health and safety of people. *a. True b. False 73. Work samples and simulations are testing procedures that require job candidates to produce behaviours related to job performance under controlled conditions that approximate those found in the job. *a. True b. False 74. Situational exercises assess aptitude or proficiency in performing important job tasks by using tasks that are abstract and less realistic than those performed on the actual job. *a. True b. False 75. Testing, as a stand-alone program, doesn’t provide employers with the best results. *a. True b. False

76. There is very little difference among personality inventories in terms of how well they predict an employee’s performance. a. True *b. False 77. Applicants react most favourably to tests that allow them to demonstrate their creativity. a. True *b. False 78. What is the goal of employment testing?

79. The only tests with any value in terms of hiring decisions are those that meet accepted professional standards for their development and use. Describe these testing standards.

80. Should general mental ability (GMA) testing be used when making important selection decisions? Explain and justify your response.

81. What do aptitude or ability tests measure? Explain the difference between an ability, skill, and aptitude, providing an example of each.

82. Discuss the key similarities and differences between work samples and simulations. Also provide some examples of employee skills and competencies that would make sense to assess with work samples and/or simulations.

83. What is personality, and what are two ways that personality can be measured?

84. Discuss the issues of applicant faking and social desirability responding in the context of selection testing. What types of selection tests are most prone to faking and social desirability responding?

85. If an organization is concerned about their applicants faking responses during selection testing, then what should the organization do to help try to mitigate applicant faking? Considering the issue of applicant faking, should personality assessments still be used in selection processes?

86. What are some examples of selection tests with low and high validity in terms of predicting job performance?

1. What is a screening employment interview best suited to assess? a. ability to orally communicate b. stress management c. job knowledge *d. information on the résumé 2. From the employer’s perspective, which of the following is NOT a benefit of conducting a job interview? *a. It can measure honesty. b. It can sell the job to the applicant. c. It can assess job knowledge. d. It can evaluate job fit.

3. According to Statistics Canada’s Workplace and Employee Survey, approximately what percentage of surveyed firms used interviews in their pre-hiring selection? a. 45 percent b. 60 percent *c. 80 percent d. 90 percent 4. According to Videotron, which of the following is NOT a benefit of speed interviewing? a. Potential biases of any one interviewer are cancelled out. *b. The performance of new employees can be ensured with standard questions. c. A large number of candidates can be assessed in a cost-effective manner. d. A large number of candidates can be assessed in an efficient manner.

5. What is the most significant potentially negative outcome of a pre-interview exchange of pleasantries and personal information between the interviewer and the interviewee? a. It is usually a waste of time and deemed unimportant in the screening process.

b. The conversation might lead the candidates to believe that the interviewer is interested in their social lives. c. The candidate might not think that the interview has started and be too relaxed. *d. Questions may uncover information on prohibited grounds.

6. Which concept refers to the interviewers’ beliefs about the requirements of the job and the characteristics of the applicants? a. initial impression b. stereotype *c. knowledge structure d. bias 7. What is a traditional method of interviewing that involves no constraints on the questions asked, no requirements for standardization, and a subjective assessment of the candidate? a. structured interview b. serial interview c. panel interview *d. unstructured interview 8. Which of the following defines how applicants attempt to create a favourable image of themselves by monitoring interviewer reactions and responding accordingly? a. creating a false impression *b. impression management c. organizational fit d. telling interviewers what they want to hear 9. Which type of interview consists of a standardized set of job-relevant questions and a scoring guide? a. serial interview b. formal interview *c. structured interview d. unstructured interview

10. Which of the following would NOT contribute to the structure of an employment interview? a. interview questions that are derived from a job analysis b. rating scales that are anchored with behavioural examples to illustrate scale points *c. questions from the candidate that are permitted throughout the interview d. a limited amount of prompting, follow-up questioning, and probing 11. Which of the following components is NOT a feature of most structured interview formats? a. Interview questions are standardized and derived from a job analysis. b. Questions from the candidate are not allowed until after the interview. c. All applicants are asked the same questions. *d. Interview questions focus on opinions and selfevaluations.

12. As outlined in the textbook, which of the following is NOT an element that contributes to a structured interview? a. Interview questions are job related. b. All applicants are asked the same interview questions. *c. Interview questions probe for opinions or selfevaluations. d. Interviewers engage candidates with open-ended questions.

13. Which interviews are conducted by two or more interviewers separately or in sequence? *a. serial interviews b. panel interviews c. selection committee interviews d. scheduled interviews

14. Which type of structured interview describes hypothetical on-the-job incidents and asks applicants what they would do? a. behaviour description interview *b. situational interview c. comprehensive structured interview d. behavioural sample interview 15. “You have scheduled a course, hired a teacher, and registered students. On the day of the course, students arrive; however, the teacher does not show up. What do you do?” What type of interview question is this? a. behavioural b. real-life *c. situational d. leading 16. You ask an applicant to recount past experiences relevant to the job position for which you are hiring. What type of interview question is this? a. hypothetical b. real-life c. situational *d. behavioural 17. Which of the following is NOT a structured employment interview technique? a. behavioural b. experience-based c. situational *d. puzzle 18. Which of the following is a key assumption of situational interviewing? a. There are patterns in people’s behaviour. b. Behaviour patterns are not easily changed. *c. People will behave in ways they say they will. d. Past performance may be a reliable indicator of a person’s future on-the-job performance.

19. An organization would like to use a structured interview in which the applicants are asked to describe what they did in given situations in the past. What type of interview will the organization use? *a. behaviour description interview b. situational interview c. comprehensive structured interview d. behavioural sample interview 20. Which of the following can be used by the interviewers to help applicants provide elaborate descriptions of the situation they faced, tasks they were in charge of, actions they took, and the outcomes? *a. STAR technique b. structured elaboration training c. unstructured elaboration training d. BARS technique 21. Which of the following is best suited to be assessed through an interview? *a. social skills b. job knowledge c. cognitive ability d. personality 22. Which of the following refers to an interview that is conducted over a long distance or via video recording? a. virtual interviews b. remote-proctored interviews c. speed interviews *d. technology-mediated interviews 23. Which of the following is NOT included in the major content areas to be covered in an interviewer training program? a. eliminating or reducing common sources of bias and perceptual errors

b. putting the applicants at ease *c. using closed-ended questions d. developing good listening skills

Scenario 9-1 Medical Office Assistant Okanagan Medical Clinic (OMC), Kelowna, B.C. We are looking for a Medical Office Assistant (MOA) to join our medical team. The primary focus of the MOA position is to provide office administration support services to two medical doctors. The essential functions and responsibilities include the following: as a primary point of contact, answers phones and gathers patient information, ensuring all patients are greeted professionally while showing respect and patience; and uses health-care software and Microsoft Office computer applications to schedule appointments and prepare reports, invoices, financial statements, letters, case histories, transcriptions, and medical records. The incumbent exercises adaptability, initiative, organization, time management, and independent judgment in the performance of assigned tasks.

The successful candidate must possess strong written and oral communication skills and an advanced knowledge of computer programs, including Microsoft Word, Excel, Outlook, Internet Explorer, Access, and PowerPoint. The applicant must be able to work and communicate effectively in a small business team environment and build effective interpersonal working relationships with professional employees and clients.

The standard office hours include some evening and weekend work. MOAs are routinely required to lift medical equipment and/or supplies weighing up to 10 kilograms and are regularly exposed to contagious diseases.

Required qualifications include completion of Grade 12 plus graduation from either an MOA or office

administration certificate program. Bookkeeping and medical industry experience would be considered a highly weighted asset.

This is a full-time position effective immediately.

The salary is competitive and will depend on education and experience. Please apply in confidence by email to omc@okanagan.bc.ca.

24. Refer to Scenario 9-1. Why does OMC use an employment interview? a. It is used as one of the first stages in the selection process. *b. It is used to assess the noncognitive attributes. c. It is used to reduce costs. d. It is used to confirm information that was provided in the résumé.

25. Refer to Scenario 9-1. A past MOA applicant’s résumé indicated that she had several years’ experience as a medical library assistant. She was very personable during the interview, and the interview committee was extremely impressed by her familiarity with medicine and medical research. She was hired and then terminated within three months. What went wrong? a. The doctors reviewed and shortlisted the applicants. b. The doctors doing the interview misunderstood what the position really involved. *c. The applicant’s interview behaviour was given more weight than were the required KSAOs. d. The applicant’s information was obtained and evaluated through several selection methods.

26. Refer to Scenario 9-1. The doctors are particularly concerned about the potential for increased costs if they use a multiple-phase selection process. For what would you NOT want to use the employment interview time? a. to assess applicants’ noncognitive attributes b. to assess applicants’ organizational fit *c. to assess applicants’ job knowledge

d. to assess applicants’ social skills 27. Refer to Scenario 9-1. What is the first step OMC would take at the interview stage of the selection process? a. Identify MOA behavioural indicators. b. Recruit and attract MOAs. *c. Define and prioritize MOA competencies. d. Screen and test MOAs. 28. Refer to Scenario 9-1. For which of the following would OMC screen and test? a. knowledge b. skills c. abilities *d. noncognitive attributes 29. Refer to Scenario 9-1. What do you call the attempt of MOA applicants to create a favourable image of themselves by monitoring an interviewer’s reactions and responding accordingly? a. creating a false impression *b. impression management c. organizational fit d. telling interviewers what they want to hear 30. Refer to Scenario 9-1. OMC has always used a traditional method of interviewing that involved no constraints on the questions asked, no requirements for standardization, and a subjective assessment of the candidate. What type of interview did the organization use? a. situational interview b. serial interview c. structured interview *d. unstructured interview 31. Refer to Scenario 9-1. OMC believes that “What are your strengths?” and “What are your weaknesses?” have always been good interview questions in the past. Which type of interview questions are these?

a. Multiple mini-interview questions. b. Structured interview questions. c. Speed interview questions. *d. Unstructured interview questions.

32. Refer to Scenario 9-1. OMC plans to incorporate all of the following to structure its employment interviews and ensure they are reliable and valid. Which one of the following will NOT help to ensure reliability and validity? a. deriving interview questions from a job analysis b. using standardized interview questions c. asking all applicants the same questions *d. asking interview questions that probe for opinions and self-evaluations 33. Refer to Scenario 9-1. OMC would like to use a structured interview in which the applicant is asked to describe what he or she did in given situations in the past. What type of interview is this? *a. behaviour description interview b. situational interview c. comprehensive structured interview d. behavioural sample interview 34. Refer to Scenario 9-1. What are three noncognitive attributes of the MOA that the OMC should interview for? *a. adaptability, initiative, and independent judgment b. organization, time management, and office computer applications c. scheduling appointments, preparing reports, and greeting patients professionally d. independent judgment, interpersonal working relationships, and office computer applications 35. Refer to Scenario 9-1. What are the MOA screening interviews best suited to assess? a. job knowledge b. employment skills c. aptitudes and abilities

*d. information not on the résumé 36. Refer to Scenario 9-1. Which of the following factors will have the weakest influence on whether MOA applicants will choose to work at the OMC? a. geographical location b. the job itself c. pay *d. the interviewer’s friendliness 37. Which of the following would be used as a preliminary interview designed to fill gaps left on the candidate’s application form or résumé? a. a behavioural interview *b. a screening interview c. a situational interview d. a sequential interview 38. Which of the following statements best exemplifies the research evidence regarding reactions to structured interviews? a. Many interviewers prefer conducting structured interviews. b. Most employers have begun using interviews with high levels of structure. *c. Applicants seem to like interviews more than any other selection device. d. Applicants perceive structured interviews to be less fair than other selection methods.

39. Which sentence does NOT describe frame-of-reference training? a. It helps interviewers understand the performance dimensions they are assessing. b. It contributes significantly to inter-rater reliability and rating accuracy. c. It defines and describes behavioural examples for different performance levels for each dimension.

*d. It allows interviewers to model the acceptable behaviours to the candidates they are interviewing.

40. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the multiple mini-interview (MMI)? a. It can involve simulations and role-playing exercises. b. It can be used to assess communication, collaboration, critical thinking, and ethics. *c. It has reliability ranging from 0.79 to 0.89 with a mean of 0.83. d. It processes applicants much more efficiently than is possible with one-on-one interviews.

41. Which approach to interviewing was popularized by Microsoft in the 1990s? *a. puzzle interviews b. speed interviews c. serial interviews d. behavioural interviews

True/False 42. Interviews are most frequently used as preliminary screening devices, as opposed to assisting in making final decisions at the end of a selection process. a. True *b. False 43. Interviews are best suited to the assessment of noncognitive attributes such as interpersonal relations or social skills, initiative, conscientiousness, dependability, perseverance, teamwork, and leadership. *a. True

b. False 44. Employment interviews are the most popular selection procedure among employers and employees. *a. True b. False 45. Employment interviews need to be based on a job analysis so that they assess job-relevant KSAOs. *a. True b. False 46. As job requirements change in response to the everchanging workplace, organizations are beginning to shift the focus of selection from specific job skills to organizational fit, transferable skills, and personality attributes. *a. True b. False 47. Interviews have been used in the termination of employees during a downsizing or “rightsizing” process. *a. True b. False 48. Before the interview begins, the interviewer already has an impression of the applicant and the degree to which the applicant appears suitable or unsuitable for the position. *a. True b. False 49. Factors such as the applicant’s physical appearance and nonverbal behaviours during the interview can affect the interviewer’s evaluation of the applicant.

*a. True b. False 50. Research on employment interviews indicates that structuring an interview appears to increase interview reliability and validity. *a. True b. False 51. Structuring factors include standardization, job relatedness of interview questions, and standardized scoring systems. *a. True b. False 52. An interview conducted by two or more interviewers together at one time is referred to as a panel interview. *a. True b. False 53. Serial interviews are also known as sequential interviews. *a. True b. False 54. An ideal answer to a situational interview question must be exactly as it is written in the scoring guide. a. True *b. False 55. A probe is an initial question asked by an interviewer to prompt a candidate about his or her current job knowledge. a. True *b. False

56. The situational interview is a highly structured interview in which hypothetical situations are described and applicants are asked what they would do. *a. True b. False 57. One concern with the behaviour description interview is that applicants could make up stories about events that never happened. *a. True b. False 58. The walk-through interview approach to the experiencedbased interview involves asking interviewees to describe in detail how they would perform a job-related task while visualizing themselves performing the task. *a. True b. False 59. Applicants react more positively to both phone and videoconference interviews as opposed to face-to-face interviews. a. True *b. False 60. Multiple mini-interviews were pioneered by researchers at the University of Toronto in 2002 in order to select applicants to its medical school. a. True *b. False 61. Describe three purposes of the employment interview.

62. As an HRM, what is the first step you would take at the interview stage of the selection process? What are employment interviews best suited to assess?

63. Employment interviews are complex interactions between interviewers and applicants that occur in the context of a larger selection system. The outcome of an employment interview can be strongly dominated by the impression that the interviewer has of the applicant. What sources of information create interview impressions that influence the interview process and outcomes?

64. What is an unstructured interview?

65. Several elements contribute to a structured interview.

Describe five of these.

66. What is the difference between a panel and a serial interview?

67. Describe the two effective ways of asking structured interview questions.

68. Total Rewards Assistant Municipality of Smithville Ontario (MOS) We are a dynamic and growing municipal government organization dedicated to providing the highest standard of services to our citizens. This position will provide administrative support in the implementation and management of Total Rewards programs including compensation and benefits administration and oversight of the region’s recognition events.

The ideal candidate will possess post-secondary education in human resources, business, or a related field with a minimum of three years’ experience in human resources environment. Knowledge of human resources functions such as job evaluation, performance management, benefit administration and training and development are essential.

Excellent communication and organizational skills are required to manage timelines associated with the region’s annual employee recognition event. Strong attention to detail and project management skills are essential as is

comprehensive experience with MS Office Suite including advanced knowledge of Excel and SAP. Duties: • Plans and coordinates annual long-service and recognition award programs and events.

• Assists with administrative support for job evaluation including rating documentation and job questionnaire development.

• Prepares employment letters to reflect changes in compensation, position, benefit entitlements, etc.

• Participates in and conducts non-union salary surveys with comparator municipalities. Analyzes survey results.

• Updates booklets and forms related to benefit administration and assists in communications to employees.

• Handles incoming queries from HR Contact Centre on general HR matters, redirecting where necessary.

• Assists with job evaluation and annual performance file management.

What are the key skills and attributes required for this position that could be explored in an employment interview?

Write a behaviour indicator for the competency you defined.

Write a behaviour description interview question based on the competency and behaviour indicator described. Include appropriate probes.

69. Write one example of a situational interview question and one example of a behaviour description interview question?

70. What are some of the alternatives to traditional, faceto-face interviews that are available to organizations?

1. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the use of computer-based decision systems in employee selection? a. There is a lot of research on the effectiveness of computer-based decision systems in employee selection. b. Most of the research on computer-based decision systems in employee selection has tended to come from the discipline of Human Resources. *c. Computer-based decision systems have the potential for improving employee selection decisions. d. Decision algorithms are excellent at avoiding biases.

2. In organizations that select candidates for the organization rather than for specific jobs, which of the following is NOT required? a. selecting for organizational fit *b. having strong external hiring policies c. possessing flexible job descriptions d. hiring to fill dynamic and changing jobs 3. Which concept refers to making an acceptable or adequate choice rather than the best or optimal choice? a. selection bias *b. satisficing c. sufficiency d. success rate 4. Some organizations collect and combine applicant information from objective sources, such as tests or biographical inventories, and the decision-maker examines these data to form an overall, subjective impression of the applicant’s suitability for the job. Which of the following terms refers to this approach? a. pure judgment b. trait rating *c. profile interpretation d. pure statistical

5. How are implicit theories defined? *a. They are theories about how certain behaviours, mannerisms, or personality characteristics go together without objective evidence. b. They are theories about how certain behaviours, mannerisms, or personality characteristics go together with objective evidence. c. They are theories about how certain behaviours, mannerisms, or personality characteristics go together with conscious awareness. d. They are theories about how certain behaviours, mannerisms, or personality characteristics differentiate between applicants.

6. What type of theories are personal beliefs that are held about how people or things function, without objective evidence and often without conscious awareness? a. explicit *b. implicit c. psychological d. attribution 7. What type of error occurs when an applicant who is assessed favourably turns out to be a poor choice? a. false negative error *b. false positive error c. leniency error d. strictness error 8. Which concept refers to the process in which statistical data are combined in a judgmental manner? a. pure statistical approach *b. profile interpretation c. pure judgment approach d. judgmental composite 9. Which approach to collecting and combining applicant information involves the decision-maker forming an overall impression of the applicant based on gut feelings or

implicit theories, rather than on explicit, objective criteria? *a. the pure judgment approach b. the trait rating approach c. the profile interpretation approach d. the judgmental composite approach 10. In which approach are judgmental data combined statistically? *a. trait rating b. profile interpretation c. judgmental composite d. pure judgment 11. In which approach are data combined statistically? a. judgmental composite b. pure judgment c. profile interpretation *d. pure statistical 12. In which approach to collecting and combining applicant information are a number of judgmental ratings made based on various sources of information, which are then combined statistically? *a. trait rating b. profile interpretation c. pure statistical d. judgmental composite 13. Which of the following is NOT related to the statistical composite approach? a. collecting both judgmental and statistical data b. combining data statistically c. combining the ratings or scores in a formula or regression equation *d. combining data in a judgmental manner

14. For employers who tend to have a holistic, intuitive decision-making style, what might convince them to use statistical approaches in the selection process? a. changes to HR policy manuals *b. more evidence and training c. technologically generated data d. data integrated to selection criteria 15. Which of the following does NOT reduce the objectivity of group decisions? a. group conformity b. power motives *c. organizational culture d. information asymmetry 16. What might team members of a selection committee uncover by discussing their rationales for candidate ratings during the selection process? a. expectancy errors b. person–organization fit c. negligent hiring *d. biases and errors 17. Which concept refers to the value, in terms of increased validity, of adding a particular predictor to an existing selection system? a. referent validity b. coefficient validity c. external validity *d. incremental validity 18. What is the term for the threshold at which those scoring at or above the score will pass and those scoring below will fail? a. minimum performance score *b. cutoff score c. pass-mark score d. threshold-level score

19. Which concept refers to the proportion of applicants who are hired for one or more positions? a. yield ratio b. applicant ratio *c. selection ratio d. employment ratio 20. Regarding the accepted standard for passing a course in most general undergraduate university degree programs, what cutoff score was established by convention? a. 80 percent b. 70 percent c. 60 percent *d. 50 percent 21. What is the simplest way of combining applicant information in the selection process? *a. Add the scores together. b. Apply weighted averages. c. Apply moving averages. d. Separate quantitative and qualitative data.

22. According to the textbook, which of the following is NOT a predictor score for a sales applicant? a. cognitive ability test *b. agreeableness scale c. structured interview d. reference check 23. What is a decision-making model in which applicants must pass the minimum cut-off for each predictor, in turn, before being assessed on the next predictor? a. multiple regression b. multiple cutoff *c. multiple hurdle d. multiple criteria

Scenario 10-1 For four months you have been employed as the parttime HRM for TS Inc., a small Canadian aviation company. In the past, recruitment and selection rested on the shoulders of the president and, like most small companies, TS Inc. used employee referrals and an informal interview process in selecting employees.

Since you have been hired, you have guided management through several stages of the recruitment and selection process to hire an aircraft maintenance engineer. TS Inc. has used proper selection methods, such as screening, testing, and structured interviews but is not sure about how to integrate the data from these various sources. In the past, the president has relied on his gut feeling about applicants and has made poor hiring decisions.

24. Refer to Scenario 10-1. There are several constraints and competing demands when making selection decisions.

Which is NOT a constraint for TS Inc.? a. time pressures b. satisficing *c. high level of applicant qualifications d. an insufficient number of suitable applicants 25. Refer to Scenario 10-1. TS Inc. has often selected the first applicant who met the minimum qualifications. What is this constraint? a. applicant knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes *b. satisficing c. implicit hiring d. judgmental procedure 26. Refer to Scenario 10-1. Based on an applicant’s unswerving eye contact, the president commented that the

applicant was honest and confident. What is this an example of? *a. implicit theory b. reflection behaviour c. false negative error d. true positive 27. Refer to Scenario 10-1. TS Inc. has made costly selection errors in the past when the company underestimated the potential of an aircraft maintenance engineer, which resulted in a no-hire decision. The applicant accepted a position with a competing aviation company, and the quality of his work led to an industry safety award for the company and resulted in increased contracts. What is this error called? a. a false positive error *b. a false negative error c. a positive error d. a negative error 28. Refer to Scenario 10-1. Why should TS Inc. management be concerned about false positive errors? a. lower turnover *b. lost productivity c. reduced termination costs d. loss of competencies 29. Refer to Scenario 10-1. Why should TS Inc. management be concerned about false positive errors? a. The high-performing applicants were not screened out. b. These could result in litigation and loss of employees’ competitive skills. *c. The low-performing applicants were hired. d. Individuals who had the qualifications were mistakenly eliminated.

30. Refer to Scenario 10-1. Which of the following approaches to collecting and combining applicant information would be the best option for TS Inc. to use? a. behaviour rating b. trait rating *c. pure statistical d. judgmental composite 31. Refer to Scenario 10-1. In the past, TS Inc. used solely subjective sources, such as unstructured interviews, to collect applicant information. What is this approach called? a. profile interpretation *b. pure judgment c. profile judgmental d. judgmental composite 32. Refer to Scenario 10-1. Currently, TS Inc. is using objective sources, such as test scores, to collect applicant information. How is this approach defined? *a. as statistical b. as subjective c. as biased d. as judgmental 33. Refer to Scenario 10-1. TS Inc. would like to use an approach to collecting and combining applicant information in which judgmental and statistical data are combined statistically. The applicants’ scores would be collected, and selection decisions would be based on each component, such as the structured interview and test. Which approach is this? a. trait rating b. pure statistical c. judgmental composite *d. statistical composite 34. Refer to Scenario 10-1. Which term defines TS Inc.’s president’s decision-making style, in which selection

decisions are based on whether the applicant is liked and how the applicant makes the president feel? a. implicit theory decision-making *b. intuitive decision-making c. rational decision-making d. logical decision-making 35. Refer to Scenario 10-1. TS Inc. wants the relationship between the actual number of people hired and the number who applied for a position to yield 0.8. What is this proportion of applicants called? a. applicant ratio b. standard deviation *c. selection ratio d. selection pool 36. Refer to Scenario 10-1. TS Inc. would like to use a decision-making model in which applicants’ scores on each predictor (i.e., tests, interviews, and reference checks) are weighted and summed to yield a total score (i.e., predicted job performance). What is this model called? *a. multiple regression model b. multiple cutoff model c. multiple hurdle model d. profile-matching model 37. What concept refers to grouping applicants based on ranges of scores? *a. banding b. profiling c. matching d. categorizing

True/False

38. The purpose of selection is to discriminate. *a. True b. False 39. Implicit theories are personal beliefs that are held about how people or things function, without objective evidence and often without conscious awareness. *a. True b. False 40. The belief that unwavering eye contact reveals honesty, directness, and confidence is an example of an implicit theory. *a. True b. False 41. A false negative error occurs when an applicant who is rejected would have been a good choice. *a. True b. False 42. A false negative error occurs when an applicant who is assessed positively turns out to be a poor choice. a. True *b. False 43. One example of an approach in which data are combined statistically is the judgmental composite method. a. True *b. False 44. In general, employers welcome statistical approaches to selection decision-making and use them widely. a. True

*b. False 45. Surveys indicate that in most organizations one individual makes selection decisions. a. True *b. False 46. Cutoff scores ensure that applicants meet some minimum level of ability or qualification to be considered for a job. *a. True b. False 47. In the multiple cutoff model, applicants are rejected if their scores on any of the predictors fall below the cutoff scores. *a. True b. False 48. In the multiple hurdle model, applicants must pass the minimum cutoff for each predictor, in turn, before being assessed on the next predictor. *a. True b. False 49. Although computer-based decision systems have the potential of improving selection decisions, whether they achieve their potential depends on how thoughtfully and carefully the decision algorithms are designed. *a. True b. False 50. Top-down selection is the proportion of applicants for one or more positions who are hired. a. True

*b. False 51. Banding involves ranking applicants on the basis of their total scores and selecting from the top down until the desired number of candidates has been selected. a. True *b. False 52. In banding, given scores falling within a band can be considered equivalent and, thus, employers are free to select individuals scoring in the same band on the basis of minority status. *a. True b. False 53. For an employment contract to be valid and enforceable there must be consideration. *a. True b. False 54. What are some of the constraints facing managers during the selection process?

55. Many employers believe they have a knack for making good selection decisions. Comment on this statement and be sure to define the impact of implicit theories on the selection process.

56. What are two common types of errors made in selection decision-making?

57. Describe one of the approaches that can be used for the collection and compilation of applicant information.

58. Why do most employers resist using statistical decision-making approaches?

59. What are some of the advantages of group decisionmaking in selection?

60. Describe three selection decision-making models. What are the advantages of each?

61. Describe some of the major challenges facing HR professionals with respect to decision-making in the recruitment and selection process.

62. Refer to an organization and job position you are familiar with. Describe the elements that should be used in making a final selection decision.