Nutrition Science and Applications, 3rd Edition Test Bank_Copy

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Nutrition Science and Applications

Edition:

3rd Edition

Author(s):

Lori A. Smolin Mary B. Grosvenor

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 1

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT considered a macronutrient? a) Carbohydrate b) Fat c) Protein d) Vitamins Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.2 Describe the classes and functions of nutrients.

Section Reference: Section 1.2 Food Provides Nutrients

2) Physiologic processes take place in the body to keep body temperature, heart rate, and blood sugar relatively constant. This stable state is called: a) anabolism. b) catabolism. c) homeostasis. d) metabolism.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.2 Describe the classes and functions of nutrients.

Section Reference: Section 1.2 Food Provides Nutrients

3) A processed food is defined as: a) having more than five ingredients. b) requiring heating or cooking before it can be eaten. c) a food which has had preservatives added. d) any food that has been changed from its natural state.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 1.1 Compare Americans' intake of milk, vegetables, and fruit to recommendations for a healthy diet.

Section Reference: Section 1.1 Nutrition and Our Diet

4) Which of the following statements about the typical American diet is true? a) Intake of whole grains is above the recommended level and less energy is consumed than expended. b) Intake of whole grains is low and more energy is consumed than expended. c) Intake of fiber is adequate and intake of fruits and vegetables is less than recommended. d) Intake of fiber is low and fruit and vegetable intake is above recommended levels.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.1 Compare Americans' intake of milk, vegetables, and fruit to recommendations for a healthy diet.

Section Reference: Section 1.1 Nutrition and Our Diet

5) Where do most people in the U.S. get their nutrition information? a) Dietitians b) Mass media, i.e., television, magazines and newspapers c) Physicians d) Talk radio Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.5 Describe how nutrition research studies are used to help better understand the relationships among people and their nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 1.5 Evaluating Nutrition Information

6) The correct sequence of events in the scientific method is: a) conduct the experiment, develop a hypothesis, form a theory, and make an observation. b) develop a hypothesis, conduct the experiment, make an observation, and form a theory. c) form a theory, conduct the experiment, develop a hypothesis, and make an observation. d) make an observation, develop a hypothesis, conduct the experiment, and form a theory.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition

7) When subjects do not know which treatment they are receiving in a clinical trial, but the researchers do, the study is called: a) anecdotal. b) collaboration. c) double blind. d) single blind.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition

8) Approximately 1000 college students were asked to keep a record of what supplemental vitamins they took and how many colds they had over the course of a year.

The amount of vitamin C consumed was compared with the students’ incidences of colds.

This is an example of a(an): a) clinical trial. b) epidemiological study. c) intervention study. d) laboratory study.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition

9) Which of the following is the BEST reason to include a placebo in the experimental design of a human intervention trial? a) The researchers do not know who is receiving an intervention and who is not.

b) Placebos reduce the cost of the study. c) It helps prevent the expectations of the subjects from biasing the research. d) It makes it possible to include a larger number of subjects in the experiment.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 1.5 Describe how nutrition research studies are used to help better understand the relationships among people and their nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 1.5 Evaluating Nutrition Information

10) One group of individuals is asked to eat a diet high in fruits, vegetables and dairy foods while a second group of individuals is asked to eat a diet with lower amounts of fruits, vegetables and dairy foods. The two groups’ blood pressure readings are monitored and compared. This is an example of a(an): a) case-control study. b) epidemiological study. c) intervention study. d) laboratory study.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition

11) Comparison of the amount of a particular nutrient consumed with the amount of the nutrient excreted is characteristic of a(an): a) balance study. b) collection study. c) depletion-repletion study. d) epidemiological study.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition

12) Which is NOT a true statement about nutritional studies using animals? a) Animal studies can be more easily controlled than human studies. b) The digestive system of some animals is quite different from humans, making these animals inappropriate choices for some studies. c) The choice of the animal studied may influence the outcome of the study. d) Results from animal studies can always be readily extrapolated to humans.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition

13) Which of the following describes a hypothesis? a) A conclusion based on many studies with similar outcomes. b) An idea based upon no observable phenomena. c) A fact stated in a textbook. d) An educated guess made to explain an observation.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition

14) When evaluating a nutritional study, which is the least important factor? a) The design of the study b) How many researchers were involved in the study c) How the study was funded d) Where the study was published Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.5 Describe how nutrition research studies are used to help better understand the relationships among people and their nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 1.5 Evaluating Nutrition Information

15) _____________________ protects human subjects in a study and limits the types of procedures that can be performed on them. a) Peer review b) Double blind design c) Prior authorization d) Informed consent Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition

16) Which of the following is a common source of anecdotal evidence? a) Peer-reviewed scientific literature b) Federal government web sites c) Registered dieticians d) Testimony of individuals Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.5 Describe how nutrition research studies are used to help better understand the relationships among people and their nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 1.5 Evaluating Nutrition Information

17) One important principle of a healthy diet is to eat a variety of foods. In this context, “variety” refers to: a) choosing at least one food from each food group on the Food Pyramid daily. b) including low calorie food choices to balance high calorie foods at each meal. c) choosing a variety of foods from within food groups as well as among food groups. d) making sure portion sizes are matched to energy needs.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.1 Compare Americans' intake of milk, vegetables, and fruit to recommendations for a healthy diet.

Section Reference: Section 1.1 Nutrition and Our Diet

18) Which of the following would be the LEAST reliable source of information about herbal supplements? a) A government publication b) A dietitian c) A pamphlet published by the health food store d) A peer-reviewed article available on the Internet Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.5 Describe how nutrition research studies are used to help better understand the relationships among people and their nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 1.5 Evaluating Nutrition Information

19) A substance found in plants which cannot be made by the body and is not necessary to sustain life, but has healthful benefits, is: a) an herbal supplement. b) a phytochemical. c) an enzyme. d) a zoochemical.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.2 Describe the classes and functions of nutrients.

Section Reference: Section 1.2 Food Provides Nutrients

20) Which of the following yields energy but is not considered a nutrient? a) Alcohol b) Carbohydrate c) Fat d) Protein Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.2 Describe the classes and functions of nutrients.

Section Reference: Section 1.2 Food Provides Nutrients

21) The energy provided by foods is measured in: a) BTUs. b) kilocalories. c) thermal equivalents. d) watts.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.2 Describe the classes and functions of nutrients.

Section Reference: Section 1.2 Food Provides Nutrients

22) Which of the following conditions does NOT represent a state of malnutrition? a) Weight loss as a result of increasing physical activity. b) Vitamin A toxicity as a result of excessive intake of vitamin supplements. c) Osteoporosis as a result of long-term inadequate intake of calcium and vitamin D. d) Overweight status as a result of regular ingestion of large portions of energy-dense foods.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 1.2 Describe the classes and functions of nutrients.

Section Reference: Section 1.2 Food Provides Nutrients

23) What is true regarding the differences between a hypothesis and a theory? a) A hypothesis is an educated guess and a theory is based on scientific study and reasoning. b) Hypotheses are not tested; theories are tested. c) Theories are the foundations of hypotheses. d) A hypothesis is tested using quantifiable data; theories are tested using subjective data.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition

24) Which of the following is likely to limit the availability of food?

a) Socioeconomic status b) Health status c) Where a person lives d) All of these statements are true Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the factors other than nutrition that affect food choices and the three principles of a healthy diet.

Section Reference: Section 1.3 Food Choices for a Healthy Diet

25) Continued acceptance of a scientific theory depends on: a) the ability of other scientists to duplicate the original research and results. b) increased funding for the research. c) the number of years since the theory was developed. d) how the hypothesis was formed.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition

26) A measure of the nutrient content of a food compared to its energy content is referred to as a) Healthy Food Index. b) nutrient score. c) dietary reference intake. d) nutrient density.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the factors other than nutrition that affect food choices and the three principles of a healthy diet.

Section Reference: Section 1.3 Food Choices for a Healthy Diet

27) Researchers are interested in whether caffeine has any effect on short-term memory.

A study is designed in which two groups of subjects are given capsules that look identical. Group A receives capsules containing caffeine and Group B receives capsules containing powdered sugar. Group B is being given a: a) catalyst. b) placebo. c) stimulant. d) simulation factor.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition

28) In a controlled study, if neither the subjects nor the investigators know which subjects are receiving treatment, the study is called a(n) a) double blind study. b) single blind study. c) variable study. d) undirected study.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition

29) The discipline which explores the relationship between genetic variation and nutrition is called: a) nutrigenomics. b) genetic nutritional variation. c) nutritional genomic analysis. d) nutrient gene factor identification.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.2 Describe the classes and functions of nutrients.

Section Reference: Section 1.2 Food Provides Nutrients

30) Which of the following nutrients are NOT organic molecules? a) Carbohydrates b) Lipids c) Proteins d) Minerals Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.2 Describe the classes and functions of nutrients.

Section Reference: Section 1.2 Food Provides Nutrients

31) Which of the following is LEAST likely to affect food choices? a) Cultural and family background b) Personal preference c) Weather d) Psychological and emotional factors Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the factors other than nutrition that affect food choices and the three principles of a healthy diet.

Section Reference: Section 1.3 Food Choices for a Healthy Diet

32) Which is an example of anecdotal information? a) Blood glucose levels in runners after they have run in a competition. b) A famous runner reports having more energy after eating a certain type of power bar. c) Runners are timed before and after eating one power bar a day for a month. d) People take a written test before and after eating power bars for a month; the results are scored.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.5 Describe how nutrition research studies are used to help better understand the relationships among people and their nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 1.5 Evaluating Nutrition Information

33) Eating turkey on Thanksgiving is an example of making a food choice based on: a) cultural and family background. b) personal preference. c) availability. d) psychological and emotional factors.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the factors other than nutrition that affect food choices and the three principles of a healthy diet.

Section Reference: Section 1.3 Food Choices for a Healthy Diet

34) Consuming nutrient-dense foods helps to ensure a proper diet. One effective strategy is: a) eating foods that have been minimally processed. b) consuming foods with a high nutrient content compared to the kcalories provided. c) limiting added fats and sugars. d) All of these are effective strategies Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the factors other than nutrition that affect food choices and the three principles of a healthy diet.

Section Reference: Section 1.3 Food Choices for a Healthy Diet

35) Processed foods and convenience foods tend to ______ compared to freshly prepared foods. a) provide more kcalories b) contain fewer nutrients c) be higher in fat, sugar, or salt d) All of these statements are true Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.1 Compare Americans' intake of milk, vegetables, and fruit to recommendations for a healthy diet.

Section Reference: Section 1.1 Nutrition and Our Diet

36) Which of the following functions is performed by members of all six classes of nutrients? a) Provide energy b) Form structures c) Regulate body processes d) All of these functions are performed by each of the six classes of nutrients Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 1.2 Describe the classes and functions of nutrients.

Section Reference: Section 1.2 Food Provides Nutrients

37) Under-nutrition does not include: a) starvation reflecting a deficiency of energy. b) eating too much saturated fat. c) the deficient intake of single nutrients. d) the inability to absorb a particular nutrient.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.2 Describe the classes and functions of nutrients.

Section Reference: Section 1.2 Food Provides Nutrients

38) An adverse or toxic reaction is most likely to occur if: a) an individual overuses vitamin and/or mineral supplements. b) the individual cannot absorb nutrients efficiently. c) the individual’s diet is not varied enough. d) the individual overeats a particular food.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.2 Describe the classes and functions of nutrients.

Section Reference: Section 1.2 Food Provides Nutrients

39) The recommendation to eat everything in “moderation” refers to: a) including each food group in the diet. b) including a variety of foods from within each food group. c) selecting appropriate portion sizes. d) varying the foods eaten from day to day, week to week and season to season.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the factors other than nutrition that affect food choices and the three principles of a healthy diet.

Section Reference: Section 1.3 Food Choices for a Healthy Diet

Question Type: Essay

40) Nutrients are classified according to their chemical properties. What are the six classes of nutrients? Which are macronutrients? Which are micronutrients?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.2 Describe the classes and functions of nutrients.

Section Reference: Section 1.2 Food Provides Nutrients Solution: Macronutrients Micronutrients Water Vitamins Carbohydrates Minerals Proteins Fats

41) A serving of hot chocolate provides 5 grams of fat, 2 grams of protein and 28 grams of carbohydrate. How many kcalories are in the serving of hot chocolate?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.2 Describe the classes and functions of nutrients.

Section Reference: Section 1.2 Food Provides Nutrients Solution: 5 X 9= 45 2 X 4= 8 28 X 4=112

165 kCalories

42) Americans are replacing more and more home cooked meals with meals from fast food restaurants. a) What are the nutritional impacts of this trend? b) How does this trend influence disease risk?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.1 Compare Americans' intake of milk, vegetables, and fruit to recommendations for a healthy diet.

Section Reference: Section 1.1 Nutrition and Our Diet Solution: a) Larger portions increase energy intake beyond needs; tend to be higher in fat, sodium, and sugar. b) Along with lack of physical activity, increases risk of chronic diseases such as diabetes, obesity, heart disease, and cancer.

43) Describe the three general functions of nutrients.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.2 Describe the classes and functions of nutrients.

Section Reference: Section 1.2 Food Provides Nutrients Solution: Provide energy: Carbohydrate, protein and lipids undergo biochemical reactions that provide energy for synthesis, basic body functions and physical activity Forming structures: bones, muscles, cells are formed from protein, fats, minerals Regulating Body Processes: all 6 classes of nutrients regulate various body processes and function to maintain homeostasis

44) Describe the typical American diet and explain how it could be improved. Is there anything you would like to change about the way you eat? Why or why not?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.1 Compare Americans' intake of milk, vegetables, and fruit to recommendations for a healthy diet.

Section Reference: Section 1.1 Nutrition and Our Diet Solution: Americans are consuming more food and calories than 30 years ago because portion sizes have increased and 32% of calories are from meals away from home. These meals tend to be higher in energy, fat, sugar and salt. Americans do not eat enough whole

grains, legumes, fruits, dairy foods, and dark green or yellow vegetables. Salt and sugar intake are higher than recommended.

45) Name some reliable sources of nutrition information.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.5 Describe how nutrition research studies are used to help better understand the relationships among people and their nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 1.5 Evaluating Nutrition Information Solution: Dietitians, Physicians, government recommendations, non-profit educational organizations, and universities.

46) Describe the steps involved in conducting a valid experiment using the scientific method.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition Solution: 1.

Make an observation and ask questions.

2.

Propose a hypothesis-a possible explanation of the observations.

3.

Design an experiment to test the hypothesis that provides objective data.

4.

Establish a theory based on experimental data from multiple studies.

47) Describe what is meant by the term control group and explain why a well designed experiment includes a control group.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition Solution:A group of participants in a study who are treated the same as subjects in an experimental group, except that no experimental treatment is implemented. They would receive a placebo to control bias. A control group is used as a basis of comparison.

48) What is the difference between a depletion-repletion study and a balance study? How is each used in the field of nutrition?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition Solution: Depletion-repletion: used to study the function and/or requirements of a nutrient. Subjects are fed a diet without the nutrient until symptoms appear, then the nutrient is added back until symptoms disappear.

A balance study also looks at functions and requirements but compares the amount of a nutrient that enters the body with what is excreted. When the amount consumed equals the amount excreted, the body is in balance. This technique measures the minimum amount of nutrient needed to replace losses.

49) What is the difference between a single-blind and a double-blind study? Why are double-blind techniques used?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition Solution: Single – the subject or researcher does not know who is receiving the intervention.

Double – neither the participants nor the researcher know who is in experimental group and who is in the control group. The double-blind technique is used so that neither the subjects’ nor the researchers’ expectations bias the results of the experiment.

50) What are two advantages of using animals instead of humans in nutrition experiments? What are two disadvantages?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition Solution: Advantages: may be less costly, easy to control food intake and measure excretions, changes appear quickly

Disadvantages: the best models are expensive and have long life span, most readily accessible animal models have short life spans so observed changes may not be identical to humans in how they develop 51) People’s food choices are affected by many factors other than the nutritional value of the food. Select two of the factors that affect food choices and explain how you would use this factor to help reinforce a dietary change an individual is trying to make for nutritional reasons.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the factors other than nutrition that affect food choices and the three principles of a healthy diet.

Section Reference: Section 1.3 Food Choices for a Healthy Diet Solution: The factors to choose from are: (actual answer will vary) Availability Cultural and Family Background Personal Preference Psychological and Emotional Factors Health Concerns

52) Recently, Trevor received an e-mail forwarded to him by a friend. The e-mail warns all recipients of the dangers of an FDA approved artificial sweetener, which, according to the original author, is responsible for several types of cancer, mental illness, and several other serious ailments. The author uses several anecdotal stories as the basis for her assertions. Curious, Trevor does a search on the Internet for the author but cannot find any information about her. a) What do you think of unsolicited e-mail as a source of nutrition advice? b) How likely is it this one FDA approved product causes several different diseases? c) What else makes you wonder about the validity of the information? d) How might you use the Internet to get more information about the artificial sweetener in question? e) How can you tell if nutrition information in a letter, in an article, or on television is accurate?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.5 Describe how nutrition research studies are used to help better understand the relationships among people and their nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 1.5 Evaluating Nutrition Information Solution: a) It is an unreliable source

b) Unlikely – an artificial sweetener would have to undergo extensive testing to demonstrate safety before being marketed. c) As above, the product would have to undergo extensive testing. It is unlikely that a product available for use would cause such a variety of problems. d) Go to the FDA website to search for the product testing history; do a search in a data base that references peer-reviewed published research; look for websites that have .gov, or .edu for information about the product. e) References and resources that provide an objective evidence base are provided. The person speaking has the education and experience to speak with authority.

53) Mrs. Sandoz’ fourth grade class spent several class periods learning about nutrition.

They learned about MyPyramid and how eating a healthy diet could benefit them. Mr. Danner’s fourth grade class, in the same building, did not have a unit on nutrition. After the nutrition unit was finished in Mrs. Sandoz’ class, researchers looked at the selections students made in the cafeteria and how much food was consumed and thrown away by each class to see if the nutrition education had an effect on the students’ eating habits. a) What type of study was this? b) Which classroom was the control classroom? c) Which classroom was the experimental group? d) What other factors affect students’ choice of food, besides what they know about health and food?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition Solution: a) Case control/Clinical Trial b) Mr. Danner’s c) Mrs. Sandoz’s d) Availability, Cultural and Family Background, Social Acceptability, Personal Preference, Psychological and Emotional Factors

54) What is epidemiology? Compare the type of information obtained from epidemiological studies to that obtained from human intervention studies.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Explain the steps of the scientific method and the types of experiment controls.

Section Reference: Section 1.4 The Science Behind Nutrition Solution: Epidemiology observes the relationships between diet and health among population groups and identifies patterns or correlations among patterns and disease.

Human intervention studies test hypotheses that arise from epidemiological studies.

Intervention studies use experiments to intervene in individual lives and test a hypothesis so that a theory may be developed.

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 2

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Recommended Dietary Allowances were first published in which decade? a) 1920s b) 1940s c) 1960s d) 1980s Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 2.1 Identify the reasons for population-wide nutritional recommendations.

Section Reference: Section 2.1 The Development of Nutrition Recommendations

2) Which is NOT a goal of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs)? a) Prescribing what a person should eat each day b) Prevention of nutrient deficiencies c) Promotion of healthful eating d) Reduction of chronic diseases Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes

3) The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) are estimated to meet the nutrient needs of what percentage of a healthy population group? a) 33% b) 50% c) 75% d) 97-98%

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes

4) The Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) for a selected nutrient would meet the needs of approximately what percentage of individuals in a population? a) 33% b) 50% c) 75% d) 99% Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes

5) Which is TRUE regarding Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (ULs)? a) For some groups, there is an established benefit of consuming nutrients at this level. b) It is a not a recommended level for consumption. c) Consuming nutrients at this level will probably cause adverse health effects. d) The UL is set at the level of intake that causes adverse effects in 5% of the population .

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes

6) Which is the FALSE statement regarding RDAs? a) RDAs recommend amounts of nutrients that can serve as a goal for individual intake. b) The RDAs are one component of the DRIs. c) The EARs are derived from the RDAs. d) RDAs are often used in menu planning.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes

7) Which would most likely be used to plan menus for a school breakfast and lunch program? a) AIs b) DRVs c) RDAs d) ULs Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes

8) Which is NOT included in the Dietary Guidelines for Americans? a) Limit your intake of saturated fat, cholesterol, and trans fat. b) Limit consumption of foods containing refined grains and added sugars. c) Exercise three times a week. d) Balance calories to maintain weight.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.3 Discuss the purpose and recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines.

Section Reference: Section 2.3 The Dietary Guidelines for Americans

9) The purpose of the AMDRs is to: a) make recommendations for the proportions of fats, carbohydrates and proteins that make up a healthy diet. b) inform people how to choose from all the different food groups. c) allow individuals to calculate their energy needs and to determine how their diet meets these needs.

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d) encourage individuals to make healthy food choices.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes

10) The variables used to calculate Estimated Energy Requirements include: a) age, BMI, weight and gender. b) age, gender, weight, height, and physical activity level. c) physical activity level, gender and BMI. d) gender, age, weight, physical activity level and proportions of kcals consumed as fats.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes

11) Which is NOT a goal or objective of the Healthy People Initiative? a) Eliminating health disparities among Americans b) Decreasing prevalence of obesity among adults c) Increasing the number of formula-fed infants in the U.S. d) Reduction of deaths due to heart disease Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.6 Describe nutrition recommendations that promote a healthy diet and lifestyle.

Section Reference: Section 2.6 Other Nutrition Guidelines

12) The nutritional analysis of a diet that follows The MyPlate recommendations would most closely resemble which DRI group? a) EARs b) RDAs c) AIs 4

d) ULs Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.4 Describe how MyPlate can be used to guide a healthy diet and apply MyPlate recommendations to someone of your age, gender, and activity level.

Section Reference: Section 2.4 MyPlate: Putting the Dietary Guidelines into Practice

13) Which is typically not found on a Nutrition Facts label? a) Calories from fat b) Calories per serving as compared to comparable products c) Percent daily values for key nutrients d) Serving size Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 2.5 Use the nutrition facts on food and supplement labels to help plan diets.

Section Reference: Section 2.5 Food and Supplement Labels

14) A healthy eating pattern emphasizes all of the following EXCEPT: a) nutrient-dense foods. b) medium amounts of high protein foods. c) consuming more oils than solid fats. d) eating 3 servings of foods containing refined grains per day.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 2.3 Discuss the purpose and recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines.

Section Reference: Section 2.3 The Dietary Guidelines for Americans

15) Which is the FALSE statement regarding the MyPlate guidelines? a) No matter your caloric requirements, MyPlate can be effectively used as a guide for eating. b) MyPlate Daily Food Plan does NOT include recommendations for physical activity.

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c) The amount of the plate covered by each food group is proportional to the amount each group should contribute to a healthy diet. d) MyPlate emphasizes proportionality, variety, moderation and nutrient density.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 2.4 Describe how MyPlate can be used to guide a healthy diet and apply MyPlate recommendations to someone of your age, gender, and activity level.

Section Reference: Section 2.4 MyPlate: Putting the Dietary Guidelines into Practice

16) How is the order in which ingredients are listed on a food label determined? a) By contribution to total weight b) By contribution to total volume c) By nutrient density d) In alphabetical order Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 2.5 Use the nutrition facts on food and supplement labels to help plan diets.

Section Reference: Section 2.5 Food and Supplement Labels

17) Which of the following is NOT an authorized health claim associating intake with a health consequence? a) Soluble fiber and coronary heart disease b) Dietary fat and cancer risk c) Sodium intake and blood pressure d) Vitamin A intake and risk of cataracts Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.5 Use the nutrition facts on food and supplement labels to help plan diets.

Section Reference: Section 2.5 Food and Supplement Labels

18) Which is the least logical use of information from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES)?

6

a) Determining priorities for funding government health programs b) Determining effectiveness of existing programs c) Eestablishing daily requirements for major nutrients in selected population groups d) Planning public policy and goals Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 2.7 Explain how evaluating the nutritional status of individuals and populations can identify nutritional needs and be used to plan diets to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 2.7 Assessing Nutritional Health

19) A system that scores the average American diet is the: a) Dietary Guidelines. b) Food Guide Pyramid. c) Exchange List. d) Healthy Eating Index.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.7 Explain how evaluating the nutritional status of individuals and populations can identify nutritional needs and be used to plan diets to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 2.7 Assessing Nutritional Health

20) Which of the following methods is MOST likely to provide accurate information about what a person typically eats? a) A computerized food frequency questionnaire b) A 3-day food record that includes a weekend day kept by the individual c) Analyzing all grocery store and restaurant receipts kept over a 60 day time period d) A diet history that includes a 24 hour recall and a food frequency questionnaire Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 2.7 Explain how evaluating the nutritional status of individuals and populations can identify nutritional needs and be used to plan diets to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 2.7 Assessing Nutritional Health 21) A question such as “Who does the grocery shopping in your house?” would most appropriately be included in a: 7

a) 24-hour recall. b) diet history. c) food frequency questionnaire. d) food record.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.7 Explain how evaluating the nutritional status of individuals and populations can identify nutritional needs and be used to plan diets to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 2.7 Assessing Nutritional Health

22) To manage weight and prevent unhealthy weight gain, the MyPlate guide recommends: a) a minimum of 150 minutes of activity weekly. b) 30 minutes most days of the week. c) 60 minutes 3 days of the week. d) 75-100 minutes of vigorous activity every 10 days.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.4 Describe how MyPlate can be used to guide a healthy diet and apply MyPlate recommendations to someone of your age, gender, and activity level.

Section Reference: Section 2.4 MyPlate: Putting the Dietary Guidelines into Practice

23) Which is NOT an anthropometric measurement? a) Blood glucose level b) Height c) Weight in kilograms d) Wrist circumference Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 2.7 Explain how evaluating the nutritional status of individuals and populations can identify nutritional needs and be used to plan diets to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 2.7 Assessing Nutritional Health

24) Daily Values are based on a ___________ kcalorie diet.

8

a) 1000 b) 1500 c) 2000 d) 2500 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes

25) Which of the following statements about the assessment of food intake is FALSE? a) Food frequency questionnaires do not give specific information about an individual’s food intake. b) Food records are reliable but individuals may change their usual intake while recording his or her intake. c) The most common error made in reporting food intake is to overestimate portion sizes. d) Food intake records should include one weekend day for greatest accuracy.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.7 Explain how evaluating the nutritional status of individuals and populations can identify nutritional needs and be used to plan diets to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 2.7 Assessing Nutritional Health

26) Nutrition Facts labels include information about which vitamins? a) A & C b) A & E c) A & D d) C & D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.5 Use the nutrition facts on food and supplement labels to help plan diets.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.5 Use the nutrition facts on food and supplement labels to help plan diets.

Section Reference: Section 2.5 Food and Supplement Labels 9

27) Nutrition Facts labels contain information about which minerals? a) Calcium and iron b) Calcium and zinc c) Iron and magnesium d) Iron and zinc Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.5 Use the nutrition facts on food and supplement labels to help plan diets.

Section Reference: Section 2.5 Food and Supplement Labels

28) The descriptor, Healthy, can legally be used on a food product when the product contains adequate levels of at least one selected nutrient and is low in: a) fat, saturated fat, sodium, and cholesterol. b) fat, fiber and protein. c) fat, sugar and cholesterol. d) fat, sodium and protein.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.5 Use the nutrition facts on food and supplement labels to help plan diets.

Section Reference: Section 2.5 Food and Supplement Labels

29) Exchange lists: a) are the basis of MyPlate. b) group foods according to macronutrient and energy content. c) simplify MyPlate for the general population. d) were first developed to help people lose weight.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.6 Describe nutrition recommendations that promote a healthy diet and lifestyle.

Section Reference: Section 2.6 Other Nutrition Guidelines 10

30) Which of the following is true regarding the Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010? a) Recommendations are made for specific amounts of individual nutrients. b) The DGA 2010 is based on the DRIs. c) They are intended to promote health and reduce the prevalence of overweight and obesity and the risk of chronic disease. d) These recommendations are designed for Americans 19 years and older.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.3 Discuss the purpose and recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines.

Section Reference: Section 2.3 The Dietary Guidelines for Americans

31) ____________ are used when not enough information is available to establish an EAR for a particular nutrient. a) AIs b) DRIs c) RDAs d) ULs Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes

32) The three main categories in the Exchange List are carbohydrate, meat and meat substitutes, and: a) protein. b) fiber. c) fruits & vegetables. d) fat.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy 11

Learning Objective: LO 2.6 Describe nutrition recommendations that promote a healthy diet and lifestyle.

Section Reference: Section 2.6 Other Nutrition Guidelines

33) Computer software can be used to analyze diets. The most appropriate time to use a nutrition analysis program would be when: a) checking for a clinical symptom of nutritional deficiency. b) you wanted to know how many third graders in a classroom ate breakfast. c) comparing the planned menu for children in an elementary school to the RDAs. d) determining the estimated energy requirements of senior citizens.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 2.7 Explain how evaluating the nutritional status of individuals and populations can identify nutritional needs and be used to plan diets to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 2.7 Assessing Nutritional Health

34) Which health claim on a food label is NOT allowed? a) Diets low in fat and rich in fruits and vegetables may reduce the risk of some types of cancer. b) Diets rich in vitamin C will reduce the incidence of colds and flu. c) Adequate calcium intake throughout life helps maintain bone health and reduce the risk of osteoporosis. d) Diets high in sodium may increase the risk of high blood pressure in some people.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.5 Use the nutrition facts on food and supplement labels to help plan diets.

Section Reference: Section 2.5 Food and Supplement Labels

35) Food Disappearance Surveys are used to identify: a) general trends in food intake among a population. b) processing losses. c) at-risk groups in the population. d) marketing trends.

Answer: a 12

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.7 Explain how evaluating the nutritional status of individuals and populations can identify nutritional needs and be used to plan diets to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 2.7 Assessing Nutritional Health

36) A complete nutritional assessment would include all of the following EXCEPT: a) laboratory measurements. b) past and present dietary intake information. c) setting nutritional goals. d) anthropometric measurements.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.7 Explain how evaluating the nutritional status of individuals and populations can identify nutritional needs and be used to plan diets to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 2.7 Assessing Nutritional Health

37) Using dietary information provided by ______________would be the most practical approach to evaluate your own diet. a) Exchange Lists b) Dietary Guidelines for Americans c) DRVs d) MyPlate Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 2.4 Describe how MyPlate can be used to guide a healthy diet and apply MyPlate recommendations to someone of your age, gender, and activity level.

Section Reference: Section 2.4 MyPlate: Putting the Dietary Guidelines into Practice

38) Tolerable Upper Intake Levels are most likely to be exceeded when: a) large quantities of food are consumed by highly trained athletes. b) people are recovering from surgery and need more kcalories. c) dietary supplements are taken. d) people eat meat from wild game animals.

Answer: c 13

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes

39) Which statement regarding foods selected in a restaurant is FALSE? a) A menu item labeled “low fat” must meet the same criteria as a packaged product with a “low fat” label. b) Nutrient claims about menu items must be backed up with appropriate nutrition information. c) A restaurant cannot make a health claim on its menu. d) Restaurants are not required to have food labels unless the establishment has 20 or more locations.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.5 Use the nutrition facts on food and supplement labels to help plan diets.

Section Reference: Section 2.5 Food and Supplement Labels

40) Analysis of blood can be used to determine: a) what someone ate the previous day. b) glucose and cholesterol levels. c) an individual’s overall nutritional status. d) bone mineral density.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.7 Explain how evaluating the nutritional status of individuals and populations can identify nutritional needs and be used to plan diets to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 2.7 Assessing Nutritional Health 41) Which of the following is true regarding “qualified” health claims? a) They result from significant scientific agreement. b) They must be accompanied by a statement of explanation. c) Their use on food labels does not require FDA approval. d) They can only be used on dietary supplements.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 2.5 Use the nutrition facts on food and supplement labels to help plan diets.

Section Reference: Section 2.5 Food and Supplement Labels

42) A food frequency questionnaire reveals that an individual has very low energy intake.

What other information would be needed before a diagnosis of malnutrition could be made? a) Anthropometric measurements b) Medical history c) Physical exam d) All of these analyses would be required.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 2.7 Explain how evaluating the nutritional status of individuals and populations can identify nutritional needs and be used to plan diets to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 2.7 Assessing Nutritional Health

43) Which statement about dietary supplements is true? a) The label must include all the ingredients in the dietary supplement. b) All dietary supplements are produced according to the same strict laws that govern drug manufacturing. c) All dietary supplements must be approved by the FDA to ensure safety and effectiveness. d) Dietary supplements cannot be removed from the market once they are introduced.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.5 Use the nutrition facts on food and supplement labels to help plan diets.

Section Reference: Section 2.5 Food and Supplement Labels

44) Which of the following statements is true about the Daily Values standards? a) DVs help consumers know if a food is a good source of a particular nutrient.

15

b) A DV of 5% or less on a food label indicates that the food is low in that nutrient. c) The DVs may overestimate nutrient needs for some populations but they would never underestimate the requirements for any group. d) All of these statements are true.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes

45) Which statement about proportionality is true? a) Proportionality means we need to eat more of some types of foods than others. b) Proportionality is represented by the area covered on the MyPlate logo. c) Proportionality indicates that grains, vegetables, fruits and dairy are the groups from which to eat the most foods. d) All of these statements are true.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.4 Describe how MyPlate can be used to guide a healthy diet and apply MyPlate recommendations to someone of your age, gender, and activity level.

Section Reference: Section 2.4 MyPlate: Putting the Dietary Guidelines into Practice

46) The recommendation of moderation in healthy diets: a) means limiting portion sizes and choosing nutrient-dense foods. b) means choosing nutrient dense foods as often as energy-dense foods. c) relates to consuming moderate amounts of complex carbohydrates. d) All of these statements are true.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.4 Describe how MyPlate can be used to guide a healthy diet and apply MyPlate recommendations to someone of your age, gender, and activity level.

Section Reference: Section 2.4 MyPlate: Putting the Dietary Guidelines into Practice

47) Empty calories are:

16

a) from added sugars and/or solid fats. b) contributed by junk foods and are completely banned in a healthy diet. c) suggested to be limited to ≤ 50% of the kcals in a healthy diet. d) the kcals consumed when an eating plan other than MyPlate is followed.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.4 Describe how MyPlate can be used to guide a healthy diet and apply MyPlate recommendations to someone of your age, gender, and activity level.

Section Reference: Section 2.4 MyPlate: Putting the Dietary Guidelines into Practice

48) Which of the following is true of structure/function claims? a) FDA approval is required. b) They do NOT have to be accompanied by a disclaimer. c) Some describe a benefit in relation to a nutrient-deficiency disease. d) Common examples are “high fiber and “fat free”.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.5 Use the nutrition facts on food and supplement labels to help plan diets.

Section Reference: Section 2.5 Food and Supplement Labels

49) The amount of a nutrient estimated to meet the needs of 50% of people in the same gender and life stage group is the: a) EAR. b) RAE. c) AI. d) RDA. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes

50) Which of the following is FALSE concerning the MyPlate web site?

17

a) The tools on the web site are only applicable to a 2000 kcal dietary requirement. b) Nutrition information can be personalized for individuals. c) The website allows individuals to analyze their diets for energy and nutrient intake. d) The website is of little use to those Americans without internet access.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.4 Describe how MyPlate can be used to guide a healthy diet and apply MyPlate recommendations to someone of your age, gender, and activity level.

Section Reference: Section 2.4 MyPlate: Putting the Dietary Guidelines into Practice

51) How would donuts be categorized in the MyPlate food plan? a) Grains & dairy b) Protein & grains c) Grains & empty calories d) Empty calories & vegetables Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.4 Describe how MyPlate can be used to guide a healthy diet and apply MyPlate recommendations to someone of your age, gender, and activity level.

Section Reference: Section 2.4 MyPlate: Putting the Dietary Guidelines into Practice

52) The MyPlate plan separates foods into groups to help Americans apply the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines to their individual diets. These groups are: a) milk, meat, grains, fruits & vegetables and legumes. b) meat, milk, beans & nuts, grains and fruits & vegetables. c) fruits, vegetables, grains, protein foods and dairy. d) grains, vegetables, fruits, dairy and meat, beans & nuts.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.4 Describe how MyPlate can be used to guide a healthy diet and apply MyPlate recommendations to someone of your age, gender, and activity level.

Section Reference: Section 2.4 MyPlate: Putting the Dietary Guidelines into Practice

53) On the MyPlate guide, oils are:

18

a) listed in the fat group. b) included and recommendations are given in teaspoons. c) not given specific consideration. d) considered empty calories.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.4 Describe how MyPlate can be used to guide a healthy diet and apply MyPlate recommendations to someone of your age, gender, and activity level.

Section Reference: Section 2.4 MyPlate: Putting the Dietary Guidelines into Practice

54) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010 considers all of the following healthy eating patterns EXCEPT: a) USDA Food Patterns. b) the Asian Cultural Food Consumption Program. c) Mediterranean-style eating pattern. d) the DASH Eating Plan.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.3 Discuss the purpose and recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines.

Section Reference: Section 2.3 The Dietary Guidelines for Americans

Question Type: Essay

55) How do Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) differ from the original RDAs? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes Solution: RDAs were focused on prevention of deficiencies. The DRIs are designed to promote health as well as prevent disease and address problems of excess and deficiency.

19

56) Explain the differences between the Estimated Average Requirement (EAR), Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs), Adequate Intakes (AIs) and Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (ULs).

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes Solution: EAR: Intakes that meet estimated nutrient needs of 50% of individuals in a gender and life-stage group.

RDA: Intakes sufficient to meet the nutrient needs of almost all healthy people (97-98%) in a gender and life-stage group.

AI: Intakes used as a goal when no RDA exists.

UL: Maximum daily intake level unlikely to pose a risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in a gender and life-stage group.

57) Explain the purpose of RDAs, EARs, and ULs. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes Solution: EAR: Evaluate nutrient intake of populations.

RDA: Goals for individual intake.

UL: Helps individuals prevent nutrient toxicities.

58) How do the goals and objectives of Dietary Guidelines for Americans and the Healthy People Initiative differ? How are they similar?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.3 Discuss the purpose and recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines.

Section Reference: Section 2.3 The Dietary Guidelines for Americans 20

Solution: The Dietary Guidelines are targeted to those over the age of 2 and provide overall diet and lifestyle choices that will promote health and reduce chronic disease in the U.S. HPI also promotes health and prevents illness, disability and premature death. There is a focus on increasing the quality and length of life and eliminating health disparities. It also includes recommendations for infant feeding.

59) Describe two uses for information gleaned from a national food disappearance survey.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 2.7 Explain how evaluating the nutritional status of individuals and populations can identify nutritional needs and be used to plan diets to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 2.7 Assessing Nutritional Health Solution: Estimate what food is available to the population; provide year to year comparisons; identify trends.

60) Describe the components of a complete nutritional assessment for an individual?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.7 Explain how evaluating the nutritional status of individuals and populations can identify nutritional needs and be used to plan diets to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 2.7 Assessing Nutritional Health Solution: Review of past and present dietary intake – to look for dietary deficiencies and excesses.

Clinical evaluation – body measurements, medical and physical history; measurements are compared to standards. Needs vary with health status and genetic background.

Laboratory assessment – used to detect nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

61) Jason is a 24-year-old computer programmer, working about 55 hours a week. He has gained a little weight recently and thinks he will have more energy and feel better if he made more healthful food selections. He cooks for himself at home and usually buys lunch at the company cafeteria. The following is a 24-hour recall from Jason:

Food Items Consumed

Serving Size

21

Number of Servings

Food Group

7 AM Cereal- chocolate rice puffs Whole milk White Toast with butter Banana Cola 12:30 PM Hamburgers, fried French fries Chocolate Cake with Fudge Frosting Orange juice

2 cups

2 ounces

Grain

2 cups 2 slices 2 tblsp 1 medium 12 oz

2 cups 2 ounces

Milk Grain Discretionary Fruit Discretionary

2 gr beef patties 2 buns 1 large fries

6 ounces 4 ounces 1 cup

½ cup

1 3” square piece

Meat/beans Grain Vegetable Discretionary

1 cup

1 cup

Fruit

1 medium

½ cup

Fruit

4 PM Apple 8 PM 2 Peanut butter sandwiches – white bread Vanilla Pudding Corn chips Cookies, chocolate chip, lowfat Banana Soda pop, regular

4 slices bread, 6 tblsp peanut butter 1/2 cup 1/2 cup 3 each 1 medium 12 oz.

4 ounces 1½ ounces

Grain Meat/beans

½ cup

Milk Discretionary Discretionary

½ cup

Fruit Discretionary

A. How does Jason’s diet compare to the MyPlate recommendations?

B. What would you suggest that Jason do to improve his diet?

C. If this 24-hour recall were typical of Jason’s diet, how would you evaluate it against the Dietary Guidelines for Americans?

D. If cookies are labeled “Low Fat” what does this tell you about the energy content, or kcalories, in the cookies?

E. What things might Jason do to incorporate more fruits and vegetables into his diet?

What kinds of foods would be good choices for snacks, especially if Jason decides to take some to work?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium 22

Learning Objective: LO 2.4 Describe how MyPlate can be used to guide a healthy diet and apply MyPlate recommendations to someone of your age, gender, and activity level.

Section Reference: Section 2.4 MyPlate: Putting the Dietary Guidelines into Practice Solution:A. It has too much grains, meat, discretionary calories and insufficient fruit & vegetables.

B. Decrease portion sizes of meat and grain, cut fat, reduce soda & sweets, eat more and a greater variety of fruits and vegetables.

C. Exceeds calories, too much fat, not enough fruit/veg.

D. Nothing, except that compared to a standard cookie without a claim, there are fewer grams of fat.

E. Eat fruit for dessert, have a salad instead of fries, take apples or other fruit to work in place of chips.

62) Indicate on the diagram where nutrient levels are set for the following standards.

Then, briefly define or describe the standard: Tolerable Upper Intake Levels, Recommended Dietary Allowance, Estimated Average Requirement.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.2 Describe the types and purposes of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) and how to calculate Estimates Energy Requirements (EERs).

Section Reference: Section 2.2 Dietary Reference Intakes Solution: EAR- vertical line in the middle of curve. Estimated intake that meets the needs of 50% of a population.

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RDA- vertical line on the right side of the curve. Intake level that meets the needs of 9798% of a population.

UL- vertical line on the far right side, off the curve. Level which should not be exceeded by individuals to avoid potential toxicities.

63) Identify the food group represented by each colored portion on MyPlate. List two foods to increase and two to reduce.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.4 Describe how MyPlate can be used to guide a healthy diet and apply MyPlate recommendations to someone of your age, gender, and activity level.

Section Reference: Section 2.4 MyPlate: Putting the Dietary Guidelines into Practice Solution: Red - fruits Green - vegetables Brown - grains Purple - protein Blue (off to the right of the plate) - dairy Foods to increase - fruits and vegetables, whole grains, fat-free or low fat milk Foods to decrease - foods high in sodium (e.g. soup, breads and frozen foods), sugary drinks 24

64) Indicate the nutrients that are low in this food, and those that are high, based on the Daily Value. Is this food a good choice for someone limiting their intake of saturated fat?

Why or why not?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.5 Use the nutrition facts on food and supplement labels to help plan diets.

Section Reference: Section 2.5 Food and Supplement Labels Solution: Low- Fiber, vitamins A & C, iron High- Total and saturated fat, cholesterol, sodium, calcium This food is a bad choice as the fat content is high, particularly since it is high in saturated fat and cholesterol, which are associated with the development of heart disease.

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65) A. What is the primary ingredient (greatest by weight) in this supplement?

B. Are the structure/function claims made on the label of this supplement approved by the FDA? C. How do you know if the claim is/is not approved?

D. Based on the label information, is it possible for this supplement to replace a food in the diet or does the supplement replace a component found in food? Explain your answer.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 2.5 Use the nutrition facts on food and supplement labels to help plan diets.

Section Reference: Section 2.5 Food and Supplement Labels Solution: A - Salmon oil B - No C - A disclaimer is required if it is not FDA approved.

D - Supplements should never replace whole foods. Foods contain many substances that promote health which are not necessarily present in supplements. Moreover, the 26

supplement industry is not tightly regulated so the contents may or may not be exactly as stated on the Nutrition Facts panel and contaminants may be present.

27

1 Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 3

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) _________ are units of matter that cannot be further broken down by chemical means. a) Organic compounds b) Cells c) Atoms d) Solvents Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.1 Describe the organization of life from atoms to organisms.

Section Reference: Section 3.1 Food Becomes Us 2) Nutrients classified as “organic molecules” have a molecular structure which contains the element: a) carbon. b) oxygen. c) nitrogen. d) sulfur.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.1 Describe the organization of life from atoms to organisms.

Section Reference: Section 3.1 Food Becomes Us

3) Which of the following sequences is organized from the simplest to the most complex arrangement? a) atoms : molecules : tissues : organs b) molecules : tissues : atoms : organs c) tissues: atoms : molecules : organs d) atoms : organs : tissues : molecules Answer: a

2

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.1 Describe the organization of life from atoms to organisms.

Section Reference: Section 3.1 Food Becomes Us

4) The movement of food through the digestive tract is regulated by: a) the endocrine and nervous systems. b) the lymphatic and muscular systems. c) the respiratory and urinary systems. d) the cardiovascular system.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.1 Describe the organization of life from atoms to organisms.

Section Reference: Section 3.1 Food Becomes Us

5) The most important roles of the digestive system include digestion and: a) metabolism. b) absorption. c) circulation. d) excretion.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.2 Explain the gastrointestinal tract structure and the roles of mucus, enzymes, nerves, and hormones in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.2 The Digestive System

6) The internal lining of the gastrointestinal tract is the: a) submucosa. b) serosa. c) muscularis. d) mucosa.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

3 Learning Objective: LO 3.2 Explain the gastrointestinal tract structure and the roles of mucus, enzymes, nerves, and hormones in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.2 The Digestive System

7) The digestive tract begins at the _________ and ends at the _________. a) esophagus; small intestine b) mouth; transverse colon c) esophageal sphincter; pylorus d) mouth; anus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.2 Explain the gastrointestinal tract structure and the roles of mucus, enzymes, nerves, and hormones in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.2 The Digestive System

8) Transit time is the rate at which food: a) moves through the digestive tract. b) is swallowed. c) is absorbed into the blood. d) is broken down into chyme.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.2 Explain the gastrointestinal tract structure and the roles of mucus, enzymes, nerves, and hormones in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.2 The Digestive System

9) Which of the following is NOT a product released by the GI tract? a) Mucus b) Enzymes c) Chyme d) Hormones Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

4 Learning Objective: LO 3.2 Explain the gastrointestinal tract structure and the roles of mucus, enzymes, nerves, and hormones in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.2 The Digestive System

10) Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the digestive system? a) Liver b) Pancreas c) Salivary glands d) Kidney Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.2 Explain the gastrointestinal tract structure and the roles of mucus, enzymes, nerves, and hormones in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.2 The Digestive System

11) Chewing is an important digestive function because it improves the functionality of: a) enzymes. b) hormones. c) mucus. d) peristalsis.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.2 Explain the gastrointestinal tract structure and the roles of mucus, enzymes, nerves, and hormones in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.2 The Digestive System

12) What enzyme prevents bacterial growth in the mouth? a) Amylase b) Lysozyme c) Bacteriocidase d) Lipase Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

5 Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

13) Which structure prevents swallowed food from entering the trachea? a) Tongue b) Pharynx c) Esophageal sphincter d) Epiglottis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

14) The pharynx is a cavity shared by the digestive tract and the: a) urinary tract. b) respiratory tract. c) pancreatic duct. d) common bile duct.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

15) Coordinated muscular contractions that move food through the GI tract are called: a) segmentation. b) muscular syncopation. c) gastroesophageal sphincterization. d) peristalsis.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

6 Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

16) When the gastroesophageal sphincter contracts, food: a) flows from the esophagus into the stomach. b) is prevented from reentering the esophagus from the stomach. c) leaves the stomach and enters the small intestine. d) is eliminated from the body through the anus.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

17) Which of the following is NOT true of the stomach? a) It produces pepsinogen. b) Parietal cells in gastric pits produce hydrochloric acid. c) The main function is absorption. d) It has 3 layers of smooth muscle.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

18) The formation of chyme occurs in which part of the GI tract? a) Small intestine b) Large intestine c) Gallbladder d) Stomach Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

7 Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

19) Activity in the digestive tract begins in response to the sight and smell of food. This is referred to as the _________ response. a) cephalic b) gastric c) intestinal d) cognitive Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

20) The hormone gastrin is released in response to: a) the presence of food in the stomach. b) contraction of the gastroesophageal sphincter. c) relaxation of the anal sphincter. d) the presence of the bacteria Helicobacter pylori in the stomach.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

21) The stomach wall is protected from the acidity of the gastric juice by: a) the bacterium Helicobacter pylori. b) a viscous mucus layer. c) the action of gastrin. d) pancreatic secretions.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

8 Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

22) Which of the following is most likely to inhibit gastric secretion and motility? a) The sight and smell of food b) The release of gastrin from the stomach c) The passage of chyme into the small intestine d) The release of bile from the gallbladder Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

23) The sphincter that regulates the flow of chyme from the stomach into the small intestine is the __________ sphincter. a) gastroesophageal b) celiac c) anal d) pyloric Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

24) Which of the following meals is likely to stay in the stomach the longest? a) Cheeseburger, small French fries, small soft drink, ice cream b) Grilled chicken breast, mashed potato with butter, green beans, skim milk c) Tuna sandwich on whole wheat, pickle, ice tea d) Rice Krispies, skim milk, blueberries, coffee Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

9 Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

25) Stomach emptying is affected by all of the following EXCEPT: a) the nutrient composition of a meal. b) the time of day the meal is consumed. c) the meal consistency (liquid versus solid). d) emotional states (sadness, anger, stress).

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

26) Which of the following accessory organs releases its secretions into the GI tract? a) Gallbladder b) Pancreas c) Salivary glands d) All of these are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

27) Pancreas secretions contain digestive enzymes and: a) bicarbonate ions. b) bile. c) cholecystokinin (CCK). d) chyme.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

10 Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

28) Chyme is neutralized in the small intestine by secretions from the: a) gallbladder. b) kidneys. c) liver. d) pancreas.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

29) The release of bile and pancreatic enzymes into the small intestine is controlled by: a) secretin and CCK. b) stimulation of stretch receptors in the stomach. c) gastrin. d) salivary amylase.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

30) The primary site of nutrient absorption is the: a) liver. b) large intestine. c) stomach. d) small intestine.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

11 Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

31) The absorption of nutrients by simple diffusion requires: a) a carrier molecule. b) energy. c) a concentration gradient. d) All of these choices are correct Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

32) Which of the following digestive organs is lined with fingerlike projections called villi? a) Esophagus b) Stomach c) Small intestine d) Large intestine Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

33) The absorptive surface of the small intestine is increased by the presence of: a) sphincters. b) microvilli. c) enterocytes. d) gastric pits.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

12 Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

34) Which of the following structures is located past (beyond) the ileocecal valve? a) Colon b) Common bile duct c) Stomach d) Pharynx Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

35) The primary function of the large intestine is to: a) prepare and store unabsorbed food residue for excretion. b) absorb digested nutrients. c) neutralize chyme. d) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

36) A diseased gallbladder can interfere with: a) chyme formation. b) the ability to chew. c) the ability to regulate blood glucose levels. d) fat digestion.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard

13 Learning Objective: LO 3.4 Describe how certain stages of life affect the type of foods that can be consumed and the function of the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.4 Digestion and Health 37) “Heartburn” is typically: a) caused by acidic stomach contents leaking back through the pyloric sphincter. b) more common in men and those who are underweight. c) caused when the stomach bulges through the diaphragm. d) All of the choices are true.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 3.4 Describe how certain stages of life affect the type of foods that can be consumed and the function of the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.4 Digestion and Health

38) The most common cause of ulcers is: a) chronic use of the pain reliever Tylenol. b) eating large amounts of acidic foods such as peppers and tomatoes. c) a bacterial infection. d) stress.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.4 Describe how certain stages of life affect the type of foods that can be consumed and the function of the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.4 Digestion and Health

39) Inflammation of the small intestinal mucosa reduces the ability of the intestine to absorb water or nutrients causing: a) constipation. b) diarrhea. c) gastroesophageal reflux disease. d) gallstones.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard

14 Learning Objective: LO 3.4 Describe how certain stages of life affect the type of foods that can be consumed and the function of the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.4 Digestion and Health

40) Which statement about Helicobacter pylori is true? a) These microorganisms are killed by the low pH of the stomach secretions. b) Dr. B. J. Marshall developed gastric inflammation after he drank a culture of H. pylori. c) H. pylori causes irritable bowel syndrome. d) H. pylori only causes ulcers if the stomach is already inflamed from stress.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.4 Describe how certain stages of life affect the type of foods that can be consumed and the function of the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.4 Digestion and Health

41) ___________ is when all essential nutrients are given directly into the blood stream. a) Enteral feeding b) Tube feeding c) Total parenteral nutrition d) Force feeding Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.4 Describe how certain stages of life affect the type of foods that can be consumed and the function of the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.4 Digestion and Health

42) During ________________, the digestive system can absorb whole intact proteins. a) infancy b) aging adulthood c) adulthood d) childhood Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

15 Learning Objective: LO 3.4 Describe how certain stages of life affect the type of foods that can be consumed and the function of the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.4 Digestion and Health

43) Which nutrient(s) are absorbed into the lymphatic system before entering the blood? a) Fat b) Water c) Water-soluble vitamins d) Glucose Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.5 Discuss the roles of the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems in nutrition.

Section Reference: Section 3.5 Delivering Nutrients to Body Cells

44) After water soluble nutrients are absorbed in the intestine, they are carried to the __________ via the ___________. a) kidneys; capillaries b) liver; hepatic portal vein c) gall bladder; bile duct d) pancreas; lacteals Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.5 Discuss the roles of the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems in nutrition.

Section Reference: Section 3.5 Delivering Nutrients to Body Cells

45) The hepatic portal circulation carries nutrients from the small intestine to the: a) brain. b) kidneys. c) stomach. d) liver.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

16 Learning Objective: LO 3.5 Discuss the roles of the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems in nutrition.

Section Reference: Section 3.5 Delivering Nutrients to Body Cells

46) The _____________ regulates the movement of molecules in and out of cells. a) cytoplasm b) mitochondria c) cell membrane d) cell wall Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

47) The sum of the chemical reactions that occur inside body cells is collectively referred to as: a) digestion. b) absorption. c) metabolism. d) hydrolysis.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.6 Discuss how glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids are used by the cells to provide energy.

Section Reference: Section 3.6 Metabolism of Nutrients: An Overview

48) Metabolic reactions that build molecules and body structures are referred to as: a) catabolic. b) anabolic. c) hydrolytic. d) deamination reactions.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

17 Learning Objective: LO 3.6 Discuss how glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids are used by the cells to provide energy.

Section Reference: Section 3.6 Metabolism of Nutrients: An Overview

49) The chemical breakdown of glucose to produce energy is an example of: a) catabolism. b) anabolism. c) digestion. d) excretion.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.6 Discuss how glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids are used by the cells to provide energy.

Section Reference: Section 3.6 Metabolism of Nutrients: An Overview

50) Which organ filters metabolic waste products out of the blood? a) Kidneys b) Small intestine c) Pancreas d) Spleen Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.7 Explain the ways that waste products are eliminated from the body.

Section Reference: Section 3.7 Elimination of Metabolic Wastes

51) The urinary and respiratory systems help the body to remove: a) unabsorbed food residue. b) metabolic waste products. c) excess calories. d) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

18 Learning Objective: LO 3.7 Explain the ways that waste products are eliminated from the body.

Section Reference: Section 3.7 Elimination of Metabolic Wastes

52) ________ are protein molecules that accelerate the rate of chemical reactions. a) Hormones b) Chylomicrons c) Enzymes d) Buffers Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

53) The function of sphincters in the digestive tract is: a) to coordinate muscular contractions that propel food forward. b) to regulate the flow of food. c) to control the release of bile. d) to regulate enzymatic reactions.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

54) As chyme moves out of the stomach, it passes through the: a) gastroesophageal sphincter. b) cecum. c) pyloric sphincter. d) cardiac sphincter.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

19 Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

55) Probiotics are: a) an example of total parenteral nutrition. b) substances that promote the growth of beneficial intestinal bacteria. c) are used to prevent bacterial overgrowth in the stomach. d) beneficial bacteria added to foods.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

56) The end-products of carbohydrate catabolism includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) water. b) carbon dioxide. c) energy (ATP). d) urea.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.6 Discuss how glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids are used by the cells to provide energy.

Section Reference: Section 3.6 Metabolism of Nutrients: An Overview

Question Type: Essay

57) Describe the organization of the human body beginning with atoms and ending with the major body systems.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

20 Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption Solution: Atoms are the smallest units of an element. Elements are atoms that cannot be broken down into products with different properties. In the body, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen are the most abundant elements, which are also the most abundant elements in food. Elements are linked together by forces called chemical bonds to form molecules, which are two or more atoms of elements bonded together. Molecules are organized into the smallest unit of life, the cell. Cells of similar structure and function are organized into tissues, and tissues into organs of discrete structure and function.

58) Describe the signals that regulate gastric secretion and motility.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.2 Explain the gastrointestinal tract structure and the roles of mucus, enzymes, nerves, and hormones in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.2 The Digestive System Solution: The sight and smell of food and presence of food in the gut stimulates nerves in the GI tract that stimulate movement and the release or inhibition of gastric secretions.

Hormones from the gut and accessory organs also regulate gastric motility and secretions.

Gastric function can also be affected by emotions, such as anger or aggression.

59) How do the gallbladder and pancreas contribute to the process of digestion?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption Solution: The pancreas secretes bicarbonate to neutralize gastric acid and digestive enzymes into the lumen of the small intestine. Amylase released from the pancreas digests carbohydrate, trypsin and chymotrypsin break down protein, and lipases aid in fat digestion. The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile formed in the liver. Bile release into the small intestine is triggered by various stimuli. In the lumen of the small intestine, bile emulsifies, or breaks down fat into smaller droplets facilitating the action of lipase and the absorption of fat across the intestinal mucosa.

60) Describe the major digestive events taking place in each of the following organs: a) mouth, b) stomach, c) small intestine, d) large intestine.

Answer:

21 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.1 Describe the organization of life from atoms to organisms.

Section Reference: Section 3.1 Food Becomes Us Solution: a) Mouth-chewing breaks food down for better digestion, mixes food with saliva for tasting and formation of bolus; salivary amylase initiates starch digestion. b) Stomach- bolus is mixed with acid secretions to form chyme; starch digestion stops and protein digestion begins with pepsin (and in infants, rennin); acidic secretions kill bacteria in food. c) Small intestine- primary site of digestion and absorption; starch is broken down by pancreatic amylase and brush border enzymes digest sugars. Protein is further digested by pancreatic enzymes; bile from gallbladder emulsifies fats and lipase from pancreas digests fat. d) Large intestine-water and some vitamins absorbed; microflora act on fiber, feces formed.

61) At different stages of life, special diets may be needed to maximize nutrient intake and absorption. How does the digestive system of an infant differ from that of an older adult?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.4 Describe how certain stages of life affect the type of foods that can be consumed and the function of the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.4 Digestion and Health Solution: Infants only consume liquids; the enzyme rennin, which aids in digestion of milk protein, is present in infants and not adults; gastric lipase is more important in infants and starch is not easily digested; absorption of whole proteins may cause food allergies; gut micro flora are different.

62) Explain how triglycerides and glucose differ in terms of absorption and circulation.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.1 Describe the organization of life from atoms to organisms.

Section Reference: Section 3.1 Food Becomes Us Solution: Triglycerides are broken down into free fatty acids, monoglycerides and glycerol. Glycerol and short- and medium-chain fatty acids diffuse into intestinal epithelial cells and travel directly into the blood stream. Long-chain fatty acids and monoglycerides form micelles which diffuse into intestinal epithelial cells, where they are formed into chylomicrons. Chylomicrons exit intestinal cells and enter the lacteals, which are lymph vessels within each villus. The lymph fluid with the absorbed chylomicrons eventually enters the blood circulation via the thoracic duct near the heart.

22 Glucose is absorbed directly across intestinal cells into the blood stream where it enters the hepatic portal circulation and goes first to the liver. The liver can store glucose as glycogen, release it to the circulation, or release glucose from glycogen stores if needed.

63) Explain why a person who consumes toast, fruit and coffee for breakfast is more likely to feel hunger sooner compared to a person who eats an egg and fried potatoes for breakfast.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.1 Describe the organization of life from atoms to organisms.

Section Reference: Section 3.1 Food Becomes Us Solution: There are several factors that influence the rate of gastric emptying, which include the size of the meal, solids vs. liquids, and the nutritional composition. Fat takes longer to leave the stomach because its presence in the stomach triggers the release of hormones that slow GI motility. Carbohydrate leaves the stomach at the fastest rate.

Toast, fruit and coffee is primarily carbohydrate and low in fat. Eggs and fried potatoes will contain a higher amount of fat.

64) What factors impact the rate at which food leaves the stomach?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption Solution:1) Meal composition: Fat slows gastric emptying.

2) Liquid content of food: Liquids leave the stomach faster than solids.

3) Exercise: Delays gastric emptying.

4) Emotions: Sadness and fear slow gastric emptying while aggression increases it.

65) What regulates the release of bile and pancreatic enzymes? Describe how this process works.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption

23 Solution: Two hormones secreted by the duodenal mucosa, secretin and cholecystokinin (CCK), control this process. Secretin signals the pancreas to secrete juice rich in bicarbonate and stimulates the liver to secrete bile into the gallbladder. CCK signals the pancreas to secrete digestive enzymes and causes the gallbladder to contract and release bile into the lumen of the duodenum. The net effect is to enhance the digestion of dietary carbohydrates, proteins and lipids.

66) There are several mechanisms whereby nutrients can be absorbed, including simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, and active transport. Explain each of these absorptive processes.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption Solution: Simple diffusion: particles move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. No energy or carrier is required Facilitated diffusion: movement of particles across a cell membrane from an area of higher concentration to area of lower concentration with the aid of a carrier molecule. No energy is required.

Active transport: movement of particle across a cell membrane with the aid of a carrier which requires energy. Movement may be against a concentration gradient (i.e. from an area of lower concentration to higher concentration).

67) What is the difference between probiotics and prebiotics? How can these be used to promote gastrointestinal health?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.1 Describe the organization of life from atoms to organisms.

Section Reference: Section 3.1 Food Becomes Us Solution: Probiotics are specific organisms found in fermented dairy products and supplements. They have been found to have some specific health benefits like aiding in the digestion of lactose, preventing or treating diarrhea, improving immune function in the gut and increasing the incidence of colon cancer. They have to be consumed regularly.

Prebiotics are indigestible carbohydrates found in foods such as onions, bananas and garlic that promote the growth of healthy intestinal bacteria that may provide health benefits.

24

68) What causes heartburn? What lifestyle changes can a person make to try to alleviate this problem?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.4 Describe how certain stages of life affect the type of foods that can be consumed and the function of the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.4 Digestion and Health Solution: Heartburn occurs when stomach acid leaks backward from the stomach into the esophagus. This happens when the gastroesophageal sphincter is relaxed. It may be caused by overeating, anxiety, stress, pregnancy or disease. Eat smaller, low fat meals, remain upright for several hours after eating, and take medications as prescribedcan help alleviate this problem.

69) Alternative feeding methods and/or special diets are necessary for individuals who are unable to consume food or properly digest and absorb nutrients. Explain how each of the following conditions might impact the process of digestion and nutrient availability. a) Diseased gallbladder b) Overuse/abuse of antacids c) Unable to chew and swallow d) Inflammation of the pancreas (pancreatitis) Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.4 Describe how certain stages of life affect the type of foods that can be consumed and the function of the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.4 Digestion and Health Solution: a) Diseased gallbladder- interferes with digestion and absorption of fat and fat soluble nutrients. b) Overuse/abuse of antacids- may provide excess amounts of sodium, starch, sugar or aluminum; may interfere with ability of gut to kill bacteria in food. c) Unable to chew and swallow – unable to break food down and mix with saliva and amylase; unable to safely get food into stomach. Nutritional needs may be met with enteral tube feeding. d) Inflammation of the pancreas (pancreatitis)- the enzymes of the pancreas may not be available which would impact the digestion and ability to absorb starch, protein, and triglycerides.

25 70) Identify the organs of the digestive system. Briefly describe the digestive process that occurs in each organ or section of the system.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption Solution: Mouth: Chews food and mixes it with saliva Salivary glands: Produce saliva, which contains a starch-digesting enzyme Pharynx: Swallows chewed food mixed with saliva Esophagus: Moves food to the stomach Liver: Makes bile, which aids in digestion and absorption of fat Gallbladder: Stores bile and releases it into the small intestine when needed Small intestine: Absorbs nutrients into blood or lymph; most digestion occurs here Stomach: Churns and mixes food; secretes acid and a protein-digesting enzyme Pancreas: Releases bicarbonate to neutralize intestinal contents; produces enzymes that digest carbohydrate, protein, and fat Large intestine: Absorbs water and some vitamins and minerals; home to intestinal

26 bacteria; stores and passes waste material Anus: Opens to allow waste to leave the body

71) Describe the type of absorption mechanism represented by each of the four separate parts in the figure.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 3.3 Discuss how nutrients are digested and absorbed in the digestive tract.

Section Reference: Section 3.3 Digestion and Absorption Solution: Simple diffusion; osmosis; facilitated diffusion; active transport

1

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 4

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following sequences represents a monosaccharide followed by a disaccharide followed by a polysaccharide? a) fructose, sucrose, starch b) lactose, glucose, dietary fiber c) glucose, maltose, lactose d) galactose, glycogen, starch Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.2 Discuss the structures and sources of simple and complex carbohydrates and soluble and insoluble fiber.

Section Reference: Section 4.2 Types of Carbohydrates

2) Carbohydrate loading, a training technique used by some endurance athletes, can help to increase _____________ stores. a) glycogen b) amylose c) sucrose d) lactase Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.2 Discuss the structures and sources of simple and complex carbohydrates and soluble and insoluble fiber.

Section Reference: Section 4.2 Types of Carbohydrates

3) Which of the following statements about Type 1 diabetes is correct? a) This type of disease occurs when cells are no longer sensitive to insulin. b) Obesity is a major risk factor for developing this disease. c) The immune system destroys the pancreatic cells that produce insulin. d) Type 1 is the most common type of diabetes.

2

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.5 Discuss how carbohydrate intake plays a role in health and disease.

Section Reference: Section 4.5 Carbohydrates and Health

4) Dietary fiber is categorized by: a) its solubility in water. b) its molecular weight. c) the ratio of carbon to hydrogen molecules. d) the number of branch points.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.2 Discuss the structures and sources of simple and complex carbohydrates and soluble and insoluble fiber.

Section Reference: Section 4.2 Types of Carbohydrates

5) The organ(s) which supplies enzymes required for starch digestion include(s) the: a) stomach. b) gallbladder. c) pancreas. d) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.3 Describe the steps of carbohydrate digestion.

Section Reference: Section 4.3 Carbohydrates in the Digestive Tract

6) Lactose intolerance is caused by: a) excess production of the enzyme lactase. b) an allergic reaction to proteins found in milk and milk products. c) inadequate production of the enzyme lactase. d) the inability to produce the hormone insulin.

3

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.3 Describe the steps of carbohydrate digestion.

Section Reference: Section 4.3 Carbohydrates in the Digestive Tract

7) The most important determinant for developing lactose intolerance is: a) ethnic background. b) gender. c) geographic location where a person lives. d) whether one is lean or obese.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.3 Describe the steps of carbohydrate digestion.

Section Reference: Section 4.3 Carbohydrates in the Digestive Tract

8) The concentration of glucose in the blood is primarily regulated by: a) pancreatic enzymes. b) pancreatic hormones. c) enzymes in the membranes of cells lining the small intestine. d) hormones released by the GI tract.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.4 Describe the steps involved in metabolizing glucose to produce energy.

Section Reference: Section 4.4 Carbohydrates in the Body

9) The _____________________ reflects a ranking of how specific foods affect blood glucose as compared to the response of a reference food. a) glycemic response b) glycemic index c) gluconeogenic index d) digestibility and solubility index Answer: b

4

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.4 Describe the steps involved in metabolizing glucose to produce energy.

Section Reference: Section 4.4 Carbohydrates in the Body

10) Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that: a) splits glucose into two molecules of pyruvate. b) generates glucose from glucogenic amino acids. c) synthesizes glycogen. d) creates glucose molecules from glycogen.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.4 Describe the steps involved in metabolizing glucose to produce energy.

Section Reference: Section 4.4 Carbohydrates in the Body

11) Diabetes is best characterized by: a) abnormally high blood glucose levels. b) elevated blood lipids. c) the presence of ketones in blood. d) blood glucose levels below the normal range.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.5 Discuss how carbohydrate intake plays a role in health and disease.

Section Reference: Section 4.5 Carbohydrates and Health

12) Which of the following types of diabetes is classified as an autoimmune disease? a) Gestational b) Type 2 c) Type 1 d) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Learning Objective: LO 4.5 Discuss how carbohydrate intake plays a role in health and disease.

Section Reference: Section 4.5 Carbohydrates and Health

13) Which of the following foods are the best sources of complex carbohydrates? a) Milk and dairy products b) Meat, fish, and poultry c) Fats and oils d) Cereals and grains Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.2 Discuss the structures and sources of simple and complex carbohydrates and soluble and insoluble fiber.

Section Reference: Section 4.2 Types of Carbohydrates

14) A diet high in dietary fiber can help reduce the risk of developing: a) diverticular disease. b) anemia. c) Type 1 diabetes. d) lactose intolerance.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.5 Discuss how carbohydrate intake plays a role in health and disease.

Section Reference: Section 4.5 Carbohydrates and Health

15) Dietary fiber can help reduce blood cholesterol levels by: a) binding cholesterol and bile acids in the GI tract. b) blocking reabsorption of bile acids in the GI tract. c) inhibiting cholesterol synthesis in the liver. d) All of the these choices are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Learning Objective: LO 4.5 Discuss how carbohydrate intake plays a role in health and disease.

Section Reference: Section 4.5 Carbohydrates and Health

16) A well-documented health problem associated with excess sugar intake is: a) dental caries. b) Type 1 diabetes. c) diverticular disease. d) constipation.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.5 Discuss how carbohydrate intake plays a role in health and disease.

Section Reference: Section 4.5 Carbohydrates and Health

17) An oligosaccharide is a: a) disaccharide found in fruits and vegetables. b) storage form of plant starch. c) carbohydrate containing 3-10 sugar units. d) form of artificial sweetener.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.2 Discuss the structures and sources of simple and complex carbohydrates and soluble and insoluble fiber.

Section Reference: Section 4.2 Types of Carbohydrates

18) The breakdown of dietary carbohydrates releases _____kcal/g of energy. a) 9 b) 4 c) 7 d) 2 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Learning Objective: LO 4.6 Discuss the health risks and benefits of diets high in unrefined carbohydrates and diets high in refined carbohydrates.

Section Reference: Section 4.6 Meeting Recommendations for Carbohydrate Intake

19) Fructose is found mostly in: a) dairy products. b) grains and cereals. c) meat. d) fruits and vegetables.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.2 Discuss the structures and sources of simple and complex carbohydrates and soluble and insoluble fiber.

Section Reference: Section 4.2 Types of Carbohydrates

20) Which food would NOT be recommended as a source of calcium to someone who is lactose intolerant? a) Soy milk b) Tofu c) Fortified orange juice d) Ice cream Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.3 Describe the steps of carbohydrate digestion.

Section Reference: Section 4.3 Carbohydrates in the Digestive Tract

21) Which of the following conditions is likely to increase ketone production? a) Untreated diabetes b) Starvation c) A very low carbohydrate diet d) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard

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Learning Objective: LO 4.4 Describe the steps involved in metabolizing glucose to produce energy.

Section Reference: Section 4.4 Carbohydrates in the Body

22) Carbohydrates promote dental caries by which of the following mechanisms? a) Sugar promotes the growth of bacteria that breakdown enamel. b) Bacteria metabolize carbohydrate to form acids, which break down enamel. c) Carbohydrates stick to teeth, preventing the removal of plaque. d) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.5 Discuss how carbohydrate intake plays a role in health and disease.

Section Reference: Section 4.5 Carbohydrates and Health

23) A 2000 calorie diet in which carbohydrate provides 50% of the calories would provide how many grams of carbohydrate? a) 140 b) 200 c) 250 d) 400 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.6 Discuss the health risks and benefits of diets high in unrefined carbohydrates and diets high in refined carbohydrates.

Section Reference: Section 4.6 Meeting Recommendations for Carbohydrate Intake

24) Which of the following is the best source of dietary fiber? a) 2 scrambled eggs b) 1 small doughnut c) A 4 ounce salmon filet d) 1 cup of broccoli Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Learning Objective: LO 4.2 Discuss the structures and sources of simple and complex carbohydrates and soluble and insoluble fiber.

Section Reference: Section 4.2 Types of Carbohydrates

25) Aspartame: a) is an artificial sweetener. b) consists of two amino acids linked together. c) is often found in soft drinks. d) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.6 Discuss the health risks and benefits of diets high in unrefined carbohydrates and diets high in refined carbohydrates.

Section Reference: Section 4.6 Meeting Recommendations for Carbohydrate Intake

26) Sugar alcohols are: a) derived from ethyl alcohol. b) a combination of amino acids. c) produced from oleic acid. d) structurally similar to dietary sugars.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.6 Discuss the health risks and benefits of diets high in unrefined carbohydrates and diets high in refined carbohydrates.

Section Reference: Section 4.6 Meeting Recommendations for Carbohydrate Intake

27) Aerobic metabolism occurs in: a) the cytoplasm of a cell. b) the mitochondria of a cell. c) the nucleus of a cell. d) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

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Learning Objective: LO 4.4 Describe the steps involved in metabolizing glucose to produce energy.

Section Reference: Section 4.4 Carbohydrates in the Body

28) Which of the following statements about glycogen is FALSE? a) Glycogen is a storage form of carbohydrate in humans and animals. b) Glycogen is composed of many glucose molecules. c) Glycogen is made and stored in liver and muscle. d) The primary role of muscle glycogen is to maintain blood glucose levels.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 4.2 Discuss the structures and sources of simple and complex carbohydrates and soluble and insoluble fiber.

Section Reference: Section 4.2 Types of Carbohydrates

29) Refined grain products contain predominantly what part(s) of the kernel? a) Husk and germ b) Stalk c) Germ and bran d) Endosperm Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.1 Compare the recommendations for carbohydrate consumption and the sources of carbohydrates in the typical American diet.

Section Reference: Section 4.1 Carbohydrates in Our Food

30) ___________ can be a concern for individuals with phenylketonuria. a) Aspartame b) Saccharin c) Acesulfame K d) Neotame Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Learning Objective: LO 4.6 Discuss the health risks and benefits of diets high in unrefined carbohydrates and diets high in refined carbohydrates.

Section Reference: Section 4.6 Meeting Recommendations for Carbohydrate Intake

31) Dietary fiber promotes a healthy intestinal microflora in part by: a) slowing the movement of food material in the gut. b) promoting the production of short chain fatty acids which provide metabolic fuel for colonic cells. c) decreasing the fluidity of the intestinal contents. d) producing natural antibiotics that kill pathogenic bacteria.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.3 Describe the steps of carbohydrate digestion.

Section Reference: Section 4.3 Carbohydrates in the Digestive Tract

32) Which of the following nutrients is NOT added to enriched grains? a) Thiamin b) Niacin c) Folate d) Vitamin E Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.1 Compare the recommendations for carbohydrate consumption and the sources of carbohydrates in the typical American diet.

Section Reference: Section 4.1 Carbohydrates in Our Food

33) Which sugar substitute contains phenylalanine, yet is safe for those with phenylketonuria? a) Sorbitol b) Saccharine c) Neotame d) Aspartame Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Learning Objective: LO 4.6 Discuss the health risks and benefits of diets high in unrefined carbohydrates and diets high in refined carbohydrates.

Section Reference: Section 4.6 Meeting Recommendations for Carbohydrate Intake

34) Which of the following is true of colon cancer? a) High fiber and whole grain intake may reduce the risk. b) Changes in DNA underlie the development of colonic tumors. c) Environmental carcinogens are thought to cause many cancers. d) All of these statements are true.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.5 Discuss how carbohydrate intake plays a role in health and disease.

Section Reference: Section 4.5 Carbohydrates and Health

35) Indigestible carbohydrates provide positive health benefits in part by: a) slowing fecal movement. b) increasing the bulk of the colonic contents. c) decreasing the amount of water in the colon. d) All of these choices are true.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.3 Describe the steps of carbohydrate digestion.

Section Reference: Section 4.3 Carbohydrates in the Digestive Tract 36) Carbohydrates provide 60% of the energy in John’s diet of 2700 kilocalories. This represents how many grams of carbohydrate? a) 100 b) 225 c) 300 d) 405 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

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Learning Objective: LO 4.6 Discuss the health risks and benefits of diets high in unrefined carbohydrates and diets high in refined carbohydrates.

Section Reference: Section 4.6 Meeting Recommendations for Carbohydrate Intake

37) The daily value for dietary fiber is 25 grams in a 2000 kilocalorie diet. A slice of whole-wheat bread is 8% of the daily value. The slice of whole-wheat bread contains how much fiber? a) 2 grams b) 4 grams c) 8 grams d) 16 grams Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.6 Discuss the health risks and benefits of diets high in unrefined carbohydrates and diets high in refined carbohydrates.

Section Reference: Section 4.6 Meeting Recommendations for Carbohydrate Intake

38) Of the following foods, ___________ is the best dietary source of resistant starch. a) apples b) chilled, cooked potatoes c) whole grain bread d) oatmeal Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.3 Describe the steps of carbohydrate digestion.

Section Reference: Section 4.3 Carbohydrates in the Digestive Tract

39) Treatment of diverticulitis usually includes: a) antibiotics and a temporary decrease in fiber intake. b) increasing fluid intake and antacids. c) insulin injections. d) exercise and weight loss.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Learning Objective: LO 4.5 Discuss how carbohydrate intake plays a role in health and disease.

Section Reference: Section 4.5 Carbohydrates and Health

40) Studies suggest that the incidence of colon cancer may be lowered with high fiber diets. How might this be explained? a) Fiber decreases contact between mucosal cells and colonic contents. b) Fiber decreases transit time. c) Fiber containing foods are usually high in phytochemicals and antioxidant vitamins. d) All of these statements are true.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 4.5 Discuss how carbohydrate intake plays a role in health and disease.

Section Reference: Section 4.5 Carbohydrates and Health

41) The AMDR for carbohydrate intake for a healthy diet has been set at ______ of the total energy required. a) 15-10% b) 30-45% c) 45-65% d) 65-80% Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.6 Discuss the health risks and benefits of diets high in unrefined carbohydrates and diets high in refined carbohydrates.

Section Reference: Section 4.6 Meeting Recommendations for Carbohydrate Intake

42) Sucrose is composed of: a) many molecules of glucose linked together. b) two molecules of glucose. c) a molecule of fructose and a molecule of glucose. d) two molecules of fructose.

Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.2 Discuss the structures and sources of simple and complex carbohydrates and soluble and insoluble fiber.

Section Reference: Section 4.2 Types of Carbohydrates

43) One possible adverse effect of excessive fiber consumption is: a) an increase in blood cholesterol. b) decreased absorption of calcium and iron. c) increased incidence of colon cancer. d) increased incidence of diverticulosis.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.3 Describe the steps of carbohydrate digestion.

Section Reference: Section 4.3 Carbohydrates in the Digestive Tract

44) The structure of glycogen consists of: a) highly branched chains. b) straight chains. c) short chains linked together. d) two monosaccharide units.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.2 Discuss the structures and sources of simple and complex carbohydrates and soluble and insoluble fiber.

Section Reference: Section 4.2 Types of Carbohydrates

45) In which individual would you expect the highest muscle glycogen content? a) A person on a high protein weight loss diet b) A person who eats a balanced diet of protein, carbohydrate and fat c) A sedentary person d) A trained athlete consuming 65-70% of kcals as carbohydrate Answer: d Difficulty: Hard

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Learning Objective: LO 4.2 Discuss the structures and sources of simple and complex carbohydrates and soluble and insoluble fiber.

Section Reference: Section 4.2 Types of Carbohydrates

46) Which hormone is most important for glucose uptake by body cells? a) Glucagon b) Insulin c) Prolactin d) Ghrelin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.4 Describe the steps involved in metabolizing glucose to produce energy.

Section Reference: Section 4.4 Carbohydrates in the Body

Question Type: Essay

47) What are the symptoms associated with lactose intolerance? Explain why these symptoms occur.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.3 Describe the steps of carbohydrate digestion.

Section Reference: Section 4.3 Carbohydrates in the Digestive Tract Solution: Abdominal distension, flatulence, cramping and diarrhea are the symptoms associated with lactose intolerance. This occurs because there is insufficient lactase to digest the disaccharide, lactose. The undigested lactose is metabolized by bacteria in the gut producing acid and gas, and it draws water into the gut.

48) Explain the phrase “carbohydrates spare body protein.”

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 4.4 Describe the steps involved in metabolizing glucose to produce energy.

Section Reference: Section 4.4 Carbohydrates in the Body

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Solution: When carbohydrate is in short supply, dietary or body proteins are broken down and glucogenic amino acids are used to generate pyruvate and oxaloacetate. The latter compounds are utilized in gluconeogenesis to produce glucose to support brain function.

This however, is not an efficient of use of proteins as they are required for other essential processes such as growth and maintenance, structure, fluid balance, etc. Therefore, always having some carbohydrate in the diet will spare proteins from being broken down to produce energy.

49) What are dietary approaches to treat constipation?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.5 Discuss how carbohydrate intake plays a role in health and disease.

Section Reference: Section 4.5 Carbohydrates and Health Solution: Increasing insoluble fiber and water intake will add bulk to the stool and increasing soluble fiber and resistant starch will draw water into the intestine, which will soften stool and make evacuation easier.

50) What would be the most efficient treatment for a diabetic experiencing low blood sugar levels?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.5 Discuss how carbohydrate intake plays a role in health and disease.

Section Reference: Section 4.5 Carbohydrates and Health Solution: Consume a source of quickly absorbed carbohydrate, such as juice or hard candy, followed by a meal within 30 minutes.

51) Why would cold pasta salad have a lower glycemic response than a hot pasta dish with similar ingredients?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 4.3 Describe the steps of carbohydrate digestion.

Section Reference: Section 4.3 Carbohydrates in the Digestive Tract Solution: Cold pasta contains resistant starch, which cannot be easily digested to glucose molecules; therefore, there would be less glucose appearing in the blood after consuming

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it. Hot pasta is primarily starch which is digestible, and would provide glucose molecules upon digestion.

52) How may excess sorbitol in the diet cause diarrhea?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.6 Discuss the health risks and benefits of diets high in unrefined carbohydrates and diets high in refined carbohydrates.

Section Reference: Section 4.6 Meeting Recommendations for Carbohydrate Intake Solution: Sorbitol is a sugar alcohol used as an alternative sweetener. It is neither digested nor absorbed and may attract water into the intestine, leading to diarrhea.

53) Discuss, compare, and contrast starch and cellulose.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.2 Discuss the structures and sources of simple and complex carbohydrates and soluble and insoluble fiber.

Section Reference: Section 4.2 Types of Carbohydrates Solution: Starch is a storage form of glucose in plants. It may occur as a straight chain of glucose units linked together, or highly branched chains of glucose units linked together.

Humans can digest starch with the enzyme amylase. Cellulose is a straight chain starch composed of glucose that is found in cell walls. Humans do not have the enzymes needed to break the links between the glucose units in cellulose. Therefore, cellulose is indigestible and classified as fiber rather than a source of glucose in the diet.

54) Discuss possible health outcomes associated with chronic high intake of refined carbohydrates.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.5 Discuss how carbohydrate intake plays a role in health and disease.

Section Reference: Section 4.5 Carbohydrates and Health Solution: Refined carbohydrates have been linked to dental caries. Further, high intake of refined carbohydrates has been suggested to increase the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes and obesity, secondarily leading to increased risk of developing heart disease.

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55) Identify the parts of a whole-grain kernel, and describe the nutrients that are found in each part. Then, describe the parts of the kernel that are used to produce white, enriched, “all-purpose” flour and identify the nutrients that would not be present in this flour.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 4.1 Compare the recommendations for carbohydrate consumption and the sources of carbohydrates in the typical American diet.

Section Reference: Section 4.1 Carbohydrates in Our Food Solution: Endosperm- starch, protein, some vitamins and minerals Bran- most of the fiber, good source of vitamins Germ- plant oils, vitamin E, fiber, B vitamins White, enriched flour is made predominantly from endosperm and thus is missing many nutrients including fiber, vitamin E, several minerals and B vitamins, and phytochemicals.

56) Describe in detail the metabolic breakdown of glucose to produce ATP. Answer:

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Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 4.4 Describe the steps involved in metabolizing glucose to produce energy.

Section Reference: Section 4.4 Carbohydrates in the Body Solution: The first step, glycolysis, is anaerobic and occurs in the cytoplasm of cells, leading to the production of 2 molecules of pyruvate. During this process, a small amount of ATP is generated and high energy electrons are produced which feed into the electron transport chain (ETC). In the presence of oxygen, pyruvate is then converted into acetyl CoA which feeds into the citric acid cycle in mitochondria, producing more ATP and high energy electrons. The ETC shuttles the high energy electrons resulting in the production of most of the ATP produced from glucose breakdown. The end products of the complete catabolism of glucose in the presence of oxygen are ATP, CO2 and H2O. 57) For each area of the digestive tract indicated, describe what process of carbohydrate digestion takes place in that area. Explain how the digestion of sugar, starches, and fiber are different from each other.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 4.3 Describe the steps of carbohydrate digestion.

Link to Learning Objective 2: LO 4.3.1 Describe the steps of carbohydrate digestion.

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Section Reference: Section 4.3 Carbohydrates in the Digestive Tract Solution: Digestible forms of dietary carbohydrate include disaccharides (sugars) and polysaccharides (starch), which can be broken into smaller molecules, and eventually into monosaccharides by enzymes in the digestive tract. Digestion begins in the mouth by salivary amylase, which is inactivated by the acidic contents of the stomach. In the lumen of the small intestine, pancreatic amylase continues carbohydrate breakdown. The final digestion step occurs by disaccharidases in the membranes of intestinal cells.

Monosaccharides are then absorbed by the intestine and transported to the liver. Dietary fibers cannot be broken down by enzymes in the digestive tract. Some fiber, especially soluble fiber, may be broken down by bacteria in the gut, but it will not provide glucose.

Some fiber will be excreted in the feces.

58) Describe changes in protein and fatty acid metabolism that occur when dietary carbohydrates are very low.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 4.4 Describe the steps involved in metabolizing glucose to produce energy.

Section Reference: Section 4.4 Carbohydrates in the Body Solution: Proteins are broken down to release glucogenic amino acids which are used in gluconeogenesis to produce glucose to fuel the brain. Ketogenic amino acids are used to produce acetyl CoA. Acetyl CoA is also produced from the breakdown of fatty acids. In the absence of dietary carbohydrate, acetyl CoA accumulates and cannot feed into the citric acid cycle. This results in the conversion of acetyl CoA to ketones which can be used to produce ATP by some tissues.

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 5

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Over the past 40 years, the fat intake of Americans has: a) significantly declined, resulting in less obesity. b) declined as a proportion of total kcalories consumed. c) declined as people tend to cook at home more frequently. d) risen significantly.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe sources of fat in food.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.2 Discuss the sources of fat in the American diet.

Section Reference: Section 5.1 Fats in Our Food

2) Which of the following is FALSE about eating a healthy diet? a) It is essential for most people to reduce total fat consumption by 25-50%. b) A healthy diet is low in saturated fat from meat and dairy. c) A healthy diet is low in processed fats like shortenings. d) Healthy diets include fats from fish, nuts and olive oil.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe sources of fat in food.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.2 Discuss the sources of fat in the American diet.

Section Reference: Section 5.1 Fats in Our Food

3) Most fatty acids in food and in the body are bound to a molecule called: a) cholesterol. b) phospholipids. c) lecithin. d) glycerol.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Compare the structures and food sources of saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, omega-6, omega-3, and trans fatty acids.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

4) The end of a fatty acid chain containing a methyl group is also referred to as the __________ end. a) omega b) alpha c) delta d) acid Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.1 Describe the structure of a triglyceride.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

5) Fatty acids are categorized based on the carbon chain length as well as: a) the number of sulfur-containing groups. b) their solubility in water. c) the types and locations of bonds between the carbons. d) the number of acid groups in the fatty acid chain.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Compare the structures and food sources of saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, omega-6, omega-3, and trans fatty acids.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

6) A fatty acid with only single bonds between carbon atoms is called a(n) ________ fatty acid. a) saturated b) unsaturated c) hydrophobic

d) hydrophilic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Compare the structures and food sources of saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, omega-6, omega-3, and trans fatty acids.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

7) Foods consisting mostly of fatty acids with only single bonds tend to be: a) solid at room temperature. b) soluble in water. c) liquid at room temperature. d) less stable than fatty acids with double bonds.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Compare the structures and food sources of saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, omega-6, omega-3, and trans fatty acids.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

8) An omega-6 fatty acid is an example of a(n): a) saturated fatty acid. b) trans fatty acid formed by hydrogenation. c) unsaturated fatty acid. d) a fatty acid found in tropical oils.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Compare the structures and food sources of saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, omega-6, omega-3, and trans fatty acids.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

9) Omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids are examples of: a) polyunsaturated fatty acids.

b) saturated fatty acids. c) hydrogenated fats. d) phospholipids.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.5.2 Explain why enough of, and the right balance of, omega3 and omega-6 fatty acids are needed in the diet.

Section Reference: Section 5.5 Lipid Functions in the Body

10) A(n) ___________ fatty acid has a carbon-carbon double bond with the hydrogen atoms on the same side of the double bond. a) cis b) trans c) essential d) nonessential Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Compare the structures and food sources of saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, omega-6, omega-3, and trans fatty acids.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

11) __________ fatty acids are not synthesized by the body. a) Nonessential b) Saturated c) Short chain d) Essential Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Discuss lipid functions in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.5.2 Explain why enough of, and the right balance of, omega3 and omega-6 fatty acids are needed in the diet.

Section Reference: Section 5.5 Lipid Functions in the Body

12) Essential fatty acids can be used by the body to synthesize: a) eicosanoids. b) cholesterol. c) vitamin D. d) phosphoglycerides.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Discuss lipid functions in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.5.2 Explain why enough of, and the right balance of, omega3 and omega-6 fatty acids are needed in the diet.

Section Reference: Section 5.5 Lipid Functions in the Body

13) Phospholipids consist of glycerol with __________ attached. a) three fatty acids b) three amino acids c) two fatty acids and a phosphate group d) two fatty acids and lecithin Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.3 Describe how the structure of phospholipids contributes to their function.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

14) __________ can help fat and water mix by breaking large fat globules into smaller ones. a) Bile b) Pancreatic lipase c) Eicosanoids d) Cholesterol Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.3 Describe how the structure of phospholipids contributes to their function.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

15) Which of the following is used as an emulsifier in foods? a) Lecithin b) Trans fatty acids c) Arachidonic Acid d) Safflower oil Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.3 Describe how the structure of phospholipids contributes to their function.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

16) Bile, vitamin D, and some hormones such as testosterone and estrogen are derived from: a) essential fatty acids. b) cholesterol. c) trans fatty acids. d) phospholipids.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.4 Explain why cholesterol is needed in the body, but is not essential in the diet.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

17) Dietary sources of cholesterol include all of the following EXCEPT: a) meat. b) eggs. c) fish. d) peanut butter.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.4 Explain why cholesterol is needed in the body, but is not essential in the diet.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

18) Which organ produces the lipase enzyme that accomplishes the bulk of lipid digestion? a) Stomach b) Pancreas c) Mouth d) Liver Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Describe lipid digestion and absorption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.1 Describe the steps involved in the digestion of triglycerides.

Section Reference: Section 5.3 Lipids in the Digestive Tract

19) The function of bile in triglyceride digestion is: a) to hydrolyze (split) the bond that attaches fatty acids to glycerol. b) to break fat into small globules. c) facilitate the formation of chylomicrons. d) to bind and transport lipids in the blood.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Describe lipid digestion and absorption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.1 Describe the steps involved in the digestion of triglycerides.

Section Reference: Section 5.3 Lipids in the Digestive Tract

20) Which of the following is formed in the LUMEN of the small intestine during lipid digestion? a) Micelles b) Cis fatty acids c) Chylomicrons d) LDL particles

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Describe lipid digestion and absorption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.2 Explain how micelles facilitate lipid absorption.

Section Reference: Section 5.3 Lipids in the Digestive Tract

21) If you were to analyze the composition of adipose tissue, you would likely find an abundance of: a) micelles. b) triglycerides. c) eicosanoids. d) cholesterol.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Discuss lipid functions in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.5.1 List four functions of lipids in the body.

Section Reference: Section 5.5 Lipid Functions in the Body

22) The precursor(s) for eicosanoids with health promoting properties is/are: a) arachidonic acid. b) omega-6 fatty acids. c) omega-3 fatty acids. d) oleic acid.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Discuss lipid functions in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.5.1 List four functions of lipids in the body.

Section Reference: Section 5.5 Lipid Functions in the Body

23) The primary function of lipoprotein lipase is to: a) convert nonessential fatty acids into essential fatty acids. b) transport lipids through the blood. c) convert cis fatty acids into trans fatty acids. d) help clear triglycerides from circulating lipoproteins in the blood.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Explain how lipids are transported to cells in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4.1 Describe how lipids are transported in the blood and cells.

Section Reference: Section 5.4 Lipid Transport in the Body

24) Chylocmicrons are formed in the: a) intestine. b) liver. c) lymph. d) blood.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Explain how lipids are transported to cells in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4.1 Describe how lipids are transported in the blood and cells.

Section Reference: Section 5.4 Lipid Transport in the Body

25) ___________________ promotes the uptake of fatty acids and glycerol by cells to be used as fuel or for storage. a) Lipoprotein lipase b) Lingual lipase c) Pancreatic lipase d) Glycerase Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Explain how lipids are transported to cells in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4.1 Describe how lipids are transported in the blood and cells.

Section Reference: Section 5.4 Lipid Transport in the Body

26) Which of the following lipoproteins contains the highest percentage of cholesterol? a) Chylomicrons

b) Low-density lipoproteins c) High-density lipoproteins d) Very-low density lipoproteins Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Explain how lipids are transported to cells in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4.2 Compare and contrast the functions of LDLs and HDLs. Section Reference: Section 5.4 Lipid Transport in the Body

27) Which of the following is required for cells to take up low-density lipoproteins? a) Lipoprotein lipase b) Homocysteine c) LDL receptors d) Insulin Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Explain how lipids are transported to cells in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4.2 Compare and contrast the functions of LDLs and HDLs. Section Reference: Section 5.4 Lipid Transport in the Body

28) Reverse cholesterol transport is accomplished by: a) chylomicrons. b) LDLs. c) VLDLs. d) HDLs. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Explain how lipids are transported to cells in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4.2 Compare and contrast the functions of LDLs and HDLs. Section Reference: Section 5.4 Lipid Transport in the Body

29) High levels of HDL in the blood are associated with: a) improved immune function. b) a reduced risk of heart disease.

c) increased risk of colon cancer. d) increased risk of breast and prostate cancer.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Explain how lipids are transported to cells in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4.2 Compare and contrast the functions of LDLs and HDLs. Section Reference: Section 5.4 Lipid Transport in the Body

30) When energy is ingested in excess of needs, the excess: a) is lost as heat. b) is converted into triglycerides and stored in adipose tissue. c) is converted into cholesterol and stored in the liver. d) is metabolized by the muscles and stored as ATP. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Discuss lipid functions in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.5.1 List four functions of lipids in the body.

Section Reference: Section 5.5 Lipid Functions in the Body

31) Hormone sensitive lipase: a) is activated during periods of fasting . b) is needed to deposit fatty acids into adipose tissue. c) is needed for phosphoglyceride digestion. d) is required for lipid digestion by cells lining blood vessels.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Discuss lipid functions in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.5.4 Discuss how fat is stored after a meal, and how stored fat is retrieved between meals and during fasting.

Section Reference: Section 5.5 Lipid Functions in the Body

32) In general, populations that have a high intake of total fat have a higher incidence of __________ than populations that have a lower intake. a) certain types of cancer

b) heart disease c) obesity d) all of these choices are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health

33) Which of the following is characteristic of atherosclerosis? a) Oxidation of LDL particles b) Inflammation of the lining of the colon c) High HDL levels d) Production of chylomicrons by cells lining the blood vessels Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6.1 Describe the events that lead to the development of atherosclerosis.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health

34) Immune cells within the lining of blood vessels have _____________ receptors which mediate the uptake of oxidized LDL cholesterol. a) LDL b) scavenger c) foam d) insulin Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6.1 Describe the events that lead to the development of atherosclerosis.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health

35) Women tend to develop heart disease later than men because:

a) women have lower levels of HDLs compared to men. b) women tend to consume more trans fatty acids than men. c) the hormone estrogen has a protective effect in women before menopause. d) women have a greater density of blood vessels than men which helps blood to circulate more efficiently.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6.2 Evaluate your risk of heart disease.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health

36) Trans fatty acids are most abundant in foods that contain: a) animal products. b) tropical oils. c) partially hydrogenated oils. d) omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Compare the structures and food sources of saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, omega-6, omega-3, and trans fatty acids.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

37) A dietary approach that protects against heart disease is the consumption of foods high in: a) omega-3 fatty acids. b) long chain fatty acids. c) omega-6 fatty acids. d) all of these provide protection against heart disease.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6.2 Evaluate your risk of heart disease.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health

38) Which of the following dietary practices does NOT help to protect a person from developing heart disease? a) Consuming recommended amounts of dietary fiber. b) Adequate consumption of antioxidant nutrients. c) Substituting monounsaturated fats for saturated fats. d) A diet which substitutes beef for fish.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6.2 Evaluate your risk of heart disease.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health

39) Current recommendations regarding fat intake suggest a healthy diet should: a) contain at least 20% of total kcals from saturated fats. b) provide 20 to 35% of total calories (kcal) from fat. c) limit the intake of foods high in monounsaturated fatty acids. d) All of these are healthy recommendations regarding fat intake.

Answer: b Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Apply recommendations for lipid intake.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.7.1 List the recommendations for total fat, saturated fat, trans fat and cholesterol intake.

Section Reference: Section 5.7 Meeting Recommendations for Fat Intake

40) Which of the following diets provides approximately 18% of the total Calories (kcal) from fat? a) 41 grams of fat; 2,385 kcal b) 67 grams of fat; 3,268 kcal c) 36 grams of fat; 1,154 kcal d) 17 grams of fat; 2,392 kcal Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Apply recommendations for lipid intake.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.7.1 List the recommendations for total fat, saturated fat, trans fat and cholesterol intake.

Section Reference: Section 5.7 Meeting Recommendations for Fat Intake

41) Which of the following most accurately describes the chemical structure of a fatty acid? a) A three carbon molecule bound to nitrogen. b) A carbon chain bound to a phosphate group. c) A multiple ring structure with a sugar group attached. d) A chain of carbon atoms linked together by chemical bonds.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.1 Describe the structure of a triglyceride.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

42) Which of the following is an example of tropical oil? a) Palm kernel oil. b) Soybean oil. c) Olive oil. d) Corn oil.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Compare the structures and food sources of saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, omega-6, omega-3, and trans fatty acids.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

43) Fish oils are a good dietary source of: a) emulsifiers. b) tropical oils. c) omega-3 fatty acids. d) trans fatty acids.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Compare the structures and food sources of saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, omega-6, omega-3, and trans fatty acids.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

44) The physical characteristics, texture and taste of fatty acids are determined by: a) the length of the fatty acid chain and the types of bonds between the carbon atoms. b) the number of acid groups. c) the extent of digestion in the body. d) the number of fatty acid chains bound to each glycerol molecule.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Compare the structures and food sources of saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, omega-6, omega-3, and trans fatty acids.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

45) Which of the following is used to make the lipid bilayer found in cell membranes in the body? a) Saturated fatty acids. b) Phospholipids. c) Trans fatty acids. d) Eicosanoids.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.3 Describe how the structure of phospholipids contributes to their function.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

46) Cholesterol is an example of a(n): a) trans fatty acid. b) phospholipid. c) essential nutrient. d) sterol.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.4 Explain why cholesterol is needed in the body, but is not essential in the diet.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

47) Which of the following organs is able to manufacture cholesterol? a) Liver. b) Pancreas. c) Gallbladder. d) All of these organs manufacture cholesterol.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.4 Explain why cholesterol is needed in the body, but is not essential in the diet.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

48) Eicosanoids are: a) hormone-like compounds. b) synthesized from omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids. c) needed to regulate important body processes. d) All of these statements are true.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Discuss lipid functions in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.5.2 Explain why enough of, and the right balance of, omega3 and omega-6 fatty acids are needed in the diet.

Section Reference: Section 5.5 Lipid Functions in the Body

49) Chylomicrons: a) transport lipids, from the food we eat into the body. b) are absorbed into the lymphatic system. c) are formed by the intestinal mucosal cell. d) All of these statements are true.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Describe lipid digestion and absorption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.1 Describe the steps involved in the digestion of triglycerides.

Section Reference: Section 5.3 Lipids in the Digestive Tract

50) When needed for a source of energy, fatty acids are broken down into: a) pyruvate. b) acetyl CoA. c) glucose. d) chylomicrons.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Discuss lipid functions in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.5.3 Describe how fatty acids are used to generate ATP. Section Reference: Section 5.5 Lipid Functions in the Body

51) The anti-inflammatory effects of omega-3 fats are beneficial in regards to: a) heart disease. b) rheumatoid arthritis. c) multiple sclerosis. d) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Discuss lipid functions in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.5.2 Explain why enough of, and the right balance of, omega3 and omega-6 fatty acids are needed in the diet.

Section Reference: Section 5.5 Lipid Functions in the Body 52) Which of the following health problems can increase a person’s risk of developing heart disease? a) Type 2 diabetes b) High blood pressure

c) Obesity d) All of these increase the risk Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6.2 Evaluate your risk of heart disease.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health

53) Which of the following profiles is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis? a) Total blood cholesterol in adults below 120 mg/100 mL of blood b) HDL cholesterol below 40 mg/100 mL of blood c) LDL levels between 120 and 129 mg/100 mL of blood d) All of these are associated with increased atherosclerosis risk.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6.2 Evaluate your risk of heart disease.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health

54) What initially causes an atherosclerotic plaque to begin developing? a) An essential fatty acid deficiency. b) Low blood pressure. c) An injury to the artery wall. d) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6.1 Describe the events that lead to the development of atherosclerosis.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health

55) All of the following foods EXCEPT _____________help reduce LDL cholesterol and reduce the risk of heart disease.

a) oats b) flaxseed c) nuts d) margarine containing partially hydrogenated vegetable oils Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Apply recommendations for lipid intake.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.7.3 Choose heart-healthy foods from each section of MyPlate.

Section Reference: Section 5.7 Meeting Recommendations for Fat Intake

56) An injury to an artery wall leading to inflammation could be caused by: a) high blood glucose. b) infectious microorganisms. c) free radicals formed during cigarette smoking. d) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6.1 Describe the events that lead to the development of atherosclerosis.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health

57) The oxidation of LDLs: a) recruits macrophages with scavenger receptors to the site. b) increases inflammation. c) results in the formation of foam cells. d) All of these statements are true.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6.1 Describe the events that lead to the development of atherosclerosis.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health

58) Consumption of all of the following tend to increase blood cholesterol EXCEPT: a) trans fatty acids. b) saturated fatty acids. c) monounsaturated fatty acids. d) dietary cholesterol.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Apply recommendations for lipid intake.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.7.1 List the recommendations for total fat, saturated fat, trans fat and cholesterol intake.

Section Reference: Section 5.7 Meeting Recommendations for Fat Intake

59) A strong correlation exists between the development of colon cancer and diets: a) high in fish. b) high in grains and cereals. c) with moderate amounts of alcohol. d) high in animal fats.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6.3 Discuss the relationship between dietary fat and cancer.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health

60) What is the most likely reason that high fat diets contribute to weight gain and obesity? a) Fat provides more kcals per gram than carbohydrate or protein. b) Fat does not provide as much satiety as carbohydrate. c) The conversion of dietary fat to stored fat is very efficient. d) All of these contribute.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6.4 Explain how dietary fat intake is related to obesity.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health

61) Which of the following foods is most likely to contain significant amounts of trans fats? a) Fish b) Commercially made crackers and cookies c) Salad dressings d) Avocado Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Compare the structures and food sources of saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, omega-6, omega-3, and trans fatty acids.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids

62) The AMDR for fat intake: a) is constant throughout the life cycle. b) is highest during adolescence. c) is highest for 1-3 year olds. d) increases over the life cycle.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Apply recommendations for lipid intake.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.7.1 List the recommendations for total fat, saturated fat, trans fat and cholesterol intake.

Section Reference: Section 5.7 Meeting Recommendations for Fat Intake

63) Which of the following is a good source of essential fatty acids? a) Walnuts b) Coconut oil c) Beef d) Milk Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Apply recommendations for lipid intake.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.7.1 List the recommendations for total fat, saturated fat, trans fat and cholesterol intake.

Section Reference: Section 5.7 Meeting Recommendations for Fat Intake

64) Which statement is true about hamburger that is labeled 80% lean? a) 80% of the kcalories are from protein and 20% are from fat b) This is the leanest ground beef that can be purchased. c) 20% of the weight of the meat is fat d) 80% of the kcalories are from fat Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Apply recommendations for lipid intake.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.7.4 Use food labels to choose foods that provide healthy fats.

Section Reference: Section 5.7 Meeting Recommendations for Fat Intake

65) A reduced fat food that contains a fat replacer consisting of millions of microscopic balls that slide over each other to give the creamy texture of fats is: a) a carbohydrate-based fat replacer. b) a protein-based fat replacer. c) mucilage. d) olestra.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Apply recommendations for lipid intake.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.7.4 Use food labels to choose foods that provide healthy fats.

Section Reference: Section 5.7 Meeting Recommendations for Fat Intake

66) Foods containing fat replacers: a) provide less fat and kcalories. b) cause fat soluble vitamins to be poorly absorbed. c) are not necessarily nutrient dense. d) All of these choices are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Apply recommendations for lipid intake.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.7.1 List the recommendations for total fat, saturated fat, trans fat and cholesterol intake.

Section Reference: Section 5.7 Meeting Recommendations for Fat Intake

Question Type: Essay

67) How do the structures of unsaturated and saturated fatty acids differ?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Compare the structures and food sources of saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, omega-6, omega-3, and trans fatty acids.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids Solution: Saturated fats have the maximum number of hydrogen ions possible bound to the carbon atoms in the molecule and there are no carbon-carbon double bonds.

Unsaturated fats have one or more carbon-carbon double bonds and therefore contain fewer hydrogen atoms.

68) What is hydrogenation and why do food manufacturers use hydrogenated fats in food production?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Compare the structures and food sources of saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, omega-6, omega-3, and trans fatty acids.

Section Reference: Section 5.2 Types of Lipids Solution: Hydrogen atoms are added to the double bonds of unsaturated fatty acids during the manufacturing process, making them more saturated. Hydrogenated fat is less susceptible to oxidation, increasing the shelf life of a product that contains it.

Hydrogenation also changes the melting point, making liquid fats more solid at room temperature.

69) Explain the steps of lipid digestion.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Describe lipid digestion and absorption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.1 Describe the steps involved in the digestion of triglycerides.

Section Reference: Section 5.3 Lipids in the Digestive Tract Solution: Lipid digestion begins with the action of lipases in the mouth and stomach; however, the primary site of digestion is the small intestine. Bile, made in the liver and secreted by the gallbladder, emulsifies fat which makes it possible for lipase from the pancreas to more effectively cleave fatty acids from glycerol. The fatty acids, monoglycerides, cholesterol and other fat soluble substances mix with bile to form micelles, which then enter the mucosal cells of the small intestine.

70) Explain why lipoproteins are necessary for lipid transport.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Explain how lipids are transported to cells in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4.1 Describe how lipids are transported in the blood and cells.

Section Reference: Section 5.4 Lipid Transport in the Body Solution: Lipids are not water soluble. Lipoproteins envelope the insoluble fatty acids and cholesterol within a hydrophilic protein and phospholipid shell that is soluble in aqueous blood, thus acting as a transport system for triglycerides, cholesterol and fat soluble vitamins.

71) Explain what happens after lipids are digested and absorbed into the intestinal cell.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Describe lipid digestion and absorption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.2 Explain how micelles facilitate lipid absorption.

Section Reference: Section 5.3 Lipids in the Digestive Tract Solution: Short and medium chain fatty acids and glycerol can be transported directly into the blood. Long chain fatty acids are reassembled into triglycerides in intestinal cells and these molecules along with cholesterol are formed into lipoprotein particles called chylomicrons. Chylomicrons are transferred into the lacteals of the lymphatic system and eventually enter the blood. They do not pass through the liver before entering the blood.

72) Explain the function of pancreatic lipase, lipoprotein lipase and hormone sensitive lipase.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Describe lipid digestion and absorption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.1 Describe the steps involved in the digestion of triglycerides.

Section Reference: Section 5.3 Lipids in the Digestive Tract Solution: Pancreatic lipase breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol in the lumen of the small intestine.

Lipoprotein lipase (LPL) is found on the membranes of cells that form the lining of blood vessels. LPL interacts with lipoproteins to remove triglyceride from the core and break them down into fatty acids and glycerol for absorption into cells.

Hormone sensitive lipase is an enzyme in adipose cells that will breakdown triglycerides that are stored there for release into the bloodstream when energy is required.

73) Explain the events that cause the buildup of cholesterol and plaque formation in arterial walls. Why do antioxidant nutrients help slow this process?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6.1 Describe the events that lead to the development of atherosclerosis.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health Solution: 1. The artery wall is damaged. Possible causes are hypertension, elevated blood glucose, smoking, infections, or free radicals.

2. LDLs enter the injured arterial wall via a means other than LDL receptor, and are modified, often being oxidized 3. Oxidized/modified LDL attracts white blood cells called macrophages into the artery wall; macrophages take up the modified LDL via scavenger receptors and are eventually converting to a foam cell.

4. As foam cells accumulate, plaque is formed.

Antioxidants may reduce the oxidation of LDL and therefore prevent the accumulation of foam cells in the artery wall.

74) Epidemiologists compared heart disease and cancer rates from 2 different communities. One community had significantly lower rates of heart disease, colon cancer and breast cancer than the other. After eliminating many risk factors associated with these diseases, the researchers believe that the high incidence of heart disease and

cancers may in part be due to dietary practices. As a follow-up, researchers would like to conduct interviews to evaluate dietary practices within each community. What dietary practices would you investigate and why?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health Solution: Dietary practices that protect against cancer and heart disease are similar and are focused on decreasing total and saturated fat and intake, especially from animal sources, and increasing the intake of plant foods. Therefore, the dietary practices that would be of interest are: -types of plant foods and relative proportion of total caloric intake from groups of plant foods -the way in which those foods are prepared -the relative proportion of fat kcal to total kcal intake -sources (types) of dietary fat 75) A new dietary recommendation promoted to help reduce a person’s risk of developing heart disease is to consume fish on a regular basis. What is the physiological basis for this recommendation?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Apply recommendations for lipid intake.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.7.3 Choose heart-healthy foods from each section of MyPlate.

Section Reference: Section 5.7 Meeting Recommendations for Fat Intake Solution: Fish is a rich source of the omega-3 fatty acids, EPA and DHA. These fatty acids contribute to the production of eicosanoids in the body that help to reduce blood pressure and decrease inflammation. They may also lower blood triglyceride levels. All of these protect against heart disease.

76) Discuss the relationship between the amount of fat in the diet and the incidence of obesity.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the role of lipids in health and disease.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6.4 Explain how dietary fat intake is related to obesity.

Section Reference: Section 5.6 Lipids and Health Solution: Fat contains twice as many kcalories as carbohydrates and protein. Fat has a lower satiety factor than carbohydrates or proteins. Additionally, the body converts excess energy from dietary fats to energy stores more efficiently than excess energy from carbohydrates or proteins. However, research supports the fact that it is excess kcalorie consumption that promotes weight gain and not the specific composition of the diet that will promote obesity. It is important to choose foods that provide more mono- and polyunsaturated fatty acids for the prevention of specific diseases; however, to manage weight, one should balance kcalorie intake with energy output.

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 6

Question Type: Multiple Choice 1) The primary source of protein for most of the world’s population is: a) meat. b) dairy. c) grains and vegetables. d) fruits.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.1 Discuss the sources of protein in the modern American diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.1 Protein in Our Food

2) In the US, most dietary protein comes from: a) animal sources. b) beans. c) nuts. d) vegetables.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.1 Discuss the sources of protein in the modern American diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.1 Protein in Our Food

3) Which statement about dietary protein sources is FALSE? a) Animal products are the most highly concentrated sources of protein. b) Plant sources of protein are typically rich in fiber and phytochemicals. c) Legumes provide about as much protein per ½ cup serving as a cup of milk. d) Most people in the U.S. need protein supplements to meet dietary requirements.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard

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Learning Objective: LO 6.1 Discuss the sources of protein in the modern American diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.1 Protein in Our Food

4) Which nutrient is found in plant protein foods but not in animal protein foods? a) Iron b) Zinc c) Calcium d) Fiber Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.1 Discuss the sources of protein in the modern American diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.1 Protein in Our Food

5) Which nutrient(s) found in animal protein foods is not found in plant protein foods? a) Saturated fat b) B vitamins c) Phytochemicals d) None of these nutrients are found in plant protein foods Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.1 Discuss the sources of protein in the modern American diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.1 Protein in Our Food

6) Protein differs from carbohydrate and lipid in that protein: a) does not provide the body with a source of energy. b) is classified as an inorganic molecule. c) contains the element nitrogen. d) is not considered to be an essential nutrient.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 6.2 Describe the general structure and function of an amino acid, a polypeptide, and a protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.2 Protein Molecules

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7) Which of the following terms can be used to describe a protein? a) Polypeptide b) Branched amino acid chain c) Polysaccharide d) Monopeptide Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.2 Describe the general structure and function of an amino acid, a polypeptide, and a protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.2 Protein Molecules

8) All of the following components are always associated with an amino acid EXCEPT: a) an amino group. b) an acid group. c) a phosphate group. d) a side chain (functional group).

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 6.2 Describe the general structure and function of an amino acid, a polypeptide, and a protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.2 Protein Molecules 9) Amino acids that cannot be made by the adult human body are termed: a) essential. b) hydrolyzable. c) incomplete. d) complete.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.2 Describe the general structure and function of an amino acid, a polypeptide, and a protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.2 Protein Molecules

10) Transamination refers to:

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a) the transfer of an amino group from one amino acid to a carbon-containing molecule to form a nonessential amino acid. b) the removal of the amine group from an amino acid. c) the interaction of amino acid side chains important for protein folding. d) the formation of a peptide bond between adjacent amino acids.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.2 Describe the general structure and function of an amino acid, a polypeptide, and a protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.2 Protein Molecules

11) A(n) ____________ bond links one amino acid to the next. a) disulfide b) ionic c) glycosidic d) peptide Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 6.2 Describe the general structure and function of an amino acid, a polypeptide, and a protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.2 Protein Molecules

12) Of ____ amino acids commonly found in food proteins, ____ are dispensible. a) 20; 9 b) 11; 9 c) 20; 11 d) 24: 16 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.2 Describe the general structure and function of an amino acid, a polypeptide, and a protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.2 Protein Molecules

13) The three-dimensional shape of a protein is determined by the:

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a) ratio of nonessential to essential amino acids present in the polypeptide chain. b) sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain. c) carbon to nitrogen ratio in the polypeptide chain. d) the number of peptide bonds present in the polypeptide chain.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 6.2 Describe the general structure and function of an amino acid, a polypeptide, and a protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.2 Protein Molecules

14) Which statement about amino acid absorption is FALSE? a) Absorption of larger polypeptides occurs commonly in healthy adults. b) Groups of similar amino acids share the same transport system. c) If one amino acid is supplemented, it can slow the absorption of other amino acids. d) Dipeptides and tripeptides are broken down to individual amino acids before leaving the mucosal cells of the small intestine.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 6.3 Explain how the body digests and absorbs protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.3 Protein in the Digestive Tract

15) The specific sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain is determined by a) the types of food proteins that a person consumes. b) DNA found in the nucleus of cells. c) GI tract peptidases. d) random interactions between free amino acids in the cytoplasm of cells.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.4 Discuss the functions of amino acids in the body.

Section Reference: Section 6.4 Amino Acid Functions in the Body

16) If the shape of a protein is altered due to a genetic mutation, the _______________ of the protein may be affected.

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a) nutritional value b) functionality c) taste d) texture Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.2 Describe the general structure and function of an amino acid, a polypeptide, and a protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.2 Protein Molecules

17) Protein denaturation can: a) alter the three-dimensional shape of a protein. b) decrease the nutritional value of a protein. c) alter the sequence of amino acids in a protein. d) break the peptide bonds holding a protein together.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.2 Describe the general structure and function of an amino acid, a polypeptide, and a protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.2 Protein Molecules

18) The enzymes trypsin and chymotrypsin: a) break large polypeptides into smaller peptides. b) are needed to denature proteins. c) rearrange the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide. d) are needed to make nonessential amino acids.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.3 Explain how the body digests and absorbs protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.3 Protein in the Digestive Tract

19) Food allergies can result when a protein in the diet: a) is not absorbed and is eliminated in the feces. b) is filtered out of the blood and into the urine. c) is absorbed without being completely digested.

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d) provides amino acids that are not normally found in the human body.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.3 Explain how the body digests and absorbs protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.3 Protein in the Digestive Tract

20) Food allergies involve an interaction between a dietary protein and: a) the immune system. b) the excretory system. c) DNA. d) RNA. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 6.3 Explain how the body digests and absorbs protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.3 Protein in the Digestive Tract

21) The amino acid pool refers to amino acids: a) which are soluble in bodily fluids. b) present in body tissues and fluids and that are available for protein synthesis or to generate ATP. c) which are used by the body for building muscle tissue. d) which the body is not able to make and must be supplied by the diet.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.4 Discuss the functions of amino acids in the body.

Section Reference: Section 6.4 Amino Acid Functions in the Body

22) The process of ___________ involves copying the DNA code from the gene to a molecule of mRNA. a) transcription. b) nuclear shuttling. c) transamination. d) translation.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.4 Discuss the functions of amino acids in the body.

Section Reference: Section 6.4 Amino Acid Functions in the Body

23) Gene expression and protein synthesis involve: a) messenger RNA. b) transcription c) translation. d) All of these choices.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.4 Discuss the functions of amino acids in the body.

Section Reference: Section 6.4 Amino Acid Functions in the Body

24) A limiting amino acid: a) does not supply the element nitrogen. b) is present in short supply relative to the body’s need. c) cannot be used by the body during protein synthesis. d) is used to synthesize non-protein molecules that contain nitrogen.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 6.4 Discuss the functions of amino acids in the body.

Section Reference: Section 6.4 Amino Acid Functions in the Body

25) The synthesis of glucose from certain amino acids involves: a) deamination. b) transcription. c) translation. d) transamination.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.4 Discuss the functions of amino acids in the body.

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Section Reference: Section 6.4 Amino Acid Functions in the Body

26) The waste product resulting from the deamination of a protein is: a) ketone bodies. b) urea. c) lactate. d) CO2.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 6.4 Discuss the functions of amino acids in the body.

Section Reference: Section 6.4 Amino Acid Functions in the Body

27) Hemoglobin is an example of: a) a defense protein. b) a transport protein. c) an enzyme. d) an immune protein (antibody).

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.5 Discuss the functions of body proteins.

Link to Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.3 Describe 4 types of proteins that help regulate and facilitate body processes.

Section Reference: Section 6.5 Functions of Body Proteins

28) An antibody: a) is a type of protein that helps protect the body from foreign substances. b) catalyzes chemical reactions in the body. c) helps circulate lipids in the blood. d) regulates the acid-base balance (pH) in the body.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.5 Discuss the functions of body proteins.

Section Reference: Section 6.5 Functions of Body Proteins

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29) Proteins regulate which of the following body processes? a) Acid-base balance b) Fluid balance c) Muscle contraction d) All of these are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 6.5 Discuss the functions of body proteins.

Section Reference: Section 6.5 Functions of Body Proteins

30) Protein-energy malnutrition is characterized by: a) increased susceptibility to food allergies. b) wasting and increased susceptibility to infection. c) excessive urinary output. d) hyperglycemia.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 6.6 Discuss the health consequences of protein malnutrition and the potential risks of a high-protein diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.6 Protein, Amino Acids, and Health

31) Kwashiorkor is best characterized by: a) severe protein deficiency in young children. b) increased susceptibility to food allergies in adults. c) misshapen (sickle-shaped) red blood cells. d) the inability to digest proteins from soy and other plant proteins.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 6.6 Discuss the health consequences of protein malnutrition and the potential risks of a high-protein diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.6 Protein, Amino Acids, and Health

32) Excessive intake of animal protein foods could cause:

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a) excessive bone mineralization, causing brittleness. b) a diet to be too low in energy. c) increased waste production overworking the liver. d) an increased risk of heart disease.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 6.6 Discuss the health consequences of protein malnutrition and the potential risks of a high-protein diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.6 Protein, Amino Acids, and Health

33) Adverse reactions including flushing, headache, rapid heartbeat, chest pain and weakness have been reported after the consumption of: a) phenylalanine. b) isoflavones. c) monosodium glutamate. d) dipotassium phosphate.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.6 Discuss the health consequences of protein malnutrition and the potential risks of a high-protein diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.6 Protein, Amino Acids, and Health 34) Protein requirements are in part based on a person’s: a) body weight. b) age. c) health status. d) All of these are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

35) Which of the following is a TRUE statement?

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a) Protein requirements decrease during injury and illness. b) Most Americans do not consume enough protein. c) The amount of protein used by the body is estimated by calculating nitrogen losses. d) All of these statements are true.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

36) Positive nitrogen balance can occur: a) when an individual is wasting as a result of protein-energy malnutrition. b) if protein intake does not meet an individual’s protein requirements. c) in a rapidly growing child. d) when total body nitrogen balance does not change for 30 days.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

37) Which group has the highest protein requirement (per unit of body weight)? a) Infants b) Adults who exercise regularly c) Adult women d) Elderly men Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake 38) To estimate protein requirements, you must know a person’s:

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a) body weight. b) urinary ammonia output. c) height. d) All of these would be required, Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

39) Protein quality is determined by: a) comparing the non-essential amino acid profile in a food with that in a reference protein. b) the biological activity of the actin and myosin filaments in meat products. c) how efficiently a protein in the diet can be used to make body proteins. d) the ratio of nonessential to essential amino acids present in a food.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

40) Obtaining protein from plant foods may be advantageous because plant foods: a) are typically good sources of fiber. b) may contain healthy poly- and mono- unsaturated fats. c) may lower blood cholesterol when consumed regularly. d) All of these statements are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.1 Discuss the sources of protein in the modern American diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.1 Protein in Our Food

41) Which of the following is TRUE of protein needs in athletes? a) Strength and endurance athletes may require 50-100% more protein than the RDA.

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b) Protein supplements are not typically necessary as long as kcal needs are met. c) It is unlikely that protein requirements in excess of the AMDR would be required. d) All of these statements are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

42) A chemical score is calculated by comparing the amount of the limiting amino acid in the test protein with the amount of that amino acid in a reference protein such as: a) egg protein. b) human muscle protein. c) wheat protein. d) soy protein.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

43) A pattern of food intake that eliminates all animal products is called: a) lacto-ovo vegetarian. b) vegan vegetarian. c) phyto vegetarian. d) pesco vegetarian.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

44) Protein complementation is a technique which: a) increases the biological value of a protein.

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b) increases the nitrogen content of dietary protein sources. c) minimizes nitrogen loss in the urine. d) combines proteins from different sources so that essential amino acids requirements are met.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

45) Protein complementation is most important for people who are: a) vegan vegetarians. b) recovering from surgery. c) lacto-ovo vegetarians. d) consumers of both plant and animal foods.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

46) __________________ are at increased risk of not getting adequate vitamin B12 in their diet. a) Lacto-ovo vegetarians b) Trained athletes c) Vegan vegetarians d) Pregnant and lactating women Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

47) Vegetarians have a lower risk of:

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a) diabetes. b) cardiovascular disease. c) high blood pressure. d) All of these are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

48) Vegan vegetarians may not get enough of which nutrient(s)? a) Iron and zinc b) Vitamin B12 c) Calcium and vitamin D d) All these nutrients could be low Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

49) Individuals with the genetic disorder phenylketonuria (PKU) should limit their intake of foods containing: a) carbohydrate. b) iron. c) monosodium glutamate. d) aspartame.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.6 Discuss the health consequences of protein malnutrition and the potential risks of a high-protein diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.6 Protein, Amino Acids, and Health

50) The basic building blocks of proteins are:

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a) monosaccharides. b) amino acids. c) sterols. d) ketone bodies.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 6.2 Describe the general structure and function of an amino acid, a polypeptide, and a protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.2 Protein Molecules

51) Heating a protein causes: a) transamination. b) deamination. c) denaturation. d) all of these.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.2 Describe the general structure and function of an amino acid, a polypeptide, and a protein.

Section Reference: Section 6.2 Protein Molecules

52) The AMDR for protein intake is _______% of energy intake. a) 20-35 b) 45-65 c) 30-45 d) 10-35 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

53) Which structure(s) is/are involved in protein translation? a) Ribosome and tRNA

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b) Nucleus and nucleosome c) Mitochondria d) Plasma membrane and trans-Golgi.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.4 Discuss the functions of amino acids in the body.

Section Reference: Section 6.4 Amino Acid Functions in the Body

54) Which metabolic waste product increases when amino acids are converted to other metabolic intermediates? a) Ammonia b) Pyruvate c) CO2 d) Bilirubin Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 6.4 Discuss the functions of amino acids in the body.

Section Reference: Section 6.4 Amino Acid Functions in the Body

55) Which of the following functions is performed by proteins in the body? a) Transport b) Structure c) Immunity d) All of these functions are performed by proteins.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.5 Discuss the functions of body proteins.

Section Reference: Section 6.5 Functions of Body Proteins

56) Which of the following is most likely to result from a chronic deficiency of protein and energy? a) PKU b) Marasmus c) Gallstones

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d) Increased resistance to infection Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 6.6 Discuss the health consequences of protein malnutrition and the potential risks of a high-protein diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.6 Protein, Amino Acids, and Health

57) Which of the following is a physical characteristic associated with Kwashiorkor? a) Bloated abdomen b) Excess sweating c) Tall stature d) Hypertrophic (enlarged) leg muscles Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.6 Discuss the health consequences of protein malnutrition and the potential risks of a high-protein diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.6 Protein, Amino Acids, and Health

58) Regular soy consumption may help: a) increase fertility. b) lower blood LDL cholesterol levels. c) improve athletic performance. d) reduce muscle fatigue.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.6 Discuss the health consequences of protein malnutrition and the potential risks of a high-protein diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.6 Protein, Amino Acids, and Health

59) Which of the following is the best dietary source of isoflavones? a) Whole milk b) Soy products c) Citrus fruits d) Beef

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.6 Discuss the health consequences of protein malnutrition and the potential risks of a high-protein diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.6 Protein, Amino Acids, and Health

60) Isoflavones are chemically similar to the hormone: a) testosterone. b) cortisol. c) estrogen. d) insulin.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.6 Discuss the health consequences of protein malnutrition and the potential risks of a high-protein diet.

Section Reference: Section 6.6 Protein, Amino Acids, and Health

61) A measure of protein quality determined by comparing the amount of nitrogen retained in the body with the amount absorbed from the diet is called the: a) chemical score. b) biological value. c) protein efficiency ratio. d) net protein utilization.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

62) A complete dietary protein: a) contains the element sulfur. b) has been hydrolyzed so that digestion is not necessary. c) provides essential amino acids in the proportion needed to support protein synthesis. d) has a low biological value.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

63) Complete protein sources can be found in which MyPyramid food group? a) Fats and oils b) Fruits and vegetables c) Dairy d) Grains Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 6.7 Discuss how protein needs are determined and how protein quality affects needs.

Section Reference: Section 6.7 Meeting Recommendations for Protein Intake

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 7

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Which statement about obesity is true? a) Obesity rates have remained constant over the last 50 years. b) Obesity is defined as having a BMI >25. c) Obesity rates tend to be constant across racial and ethnic groups. d) Obesity is defined as having a BMI >30.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.1 Discuss how the incidence of obesity has changed in the U.S. and around the world.

Section Reference: Section 7.1 The Obesity Epidemic 2) America’s obesity epidemic: a) has not affected children. b) is primarily caused by Americans eating more and exercising less. c) is relatively benign, causing few health effects. d) is unique since other countries have not experienced similar rises in obesity.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.1 Discuss how the incidence of obesity has changed in the U.S. and around the world.

Section Reference: Section 7.1 The Obesity Epidemic

3) After eating a large dinner, we feel full and satisfied. The term to describe this feeling is: a) appetite suppression. b) caloric equilibrium. c) hunger displacement. d) satiety.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.1 Discuss how the incidence of obesity has changed in the U.S. and around the world.

Section Reference: Section 7.1 The Obesity Epidemic

4) The energy content of a food is determined: a) by bomb calorimetry. b) with a specially adapted convection oven. c) using an indirect calorimeter. d) by underwater volumetric analysis.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

5) What is the function of a bomb calorimeter? a) It determines how much energy is spent when performing a specific exercise. b) It is utilized to “burn off” excess kcals. c) It determines the energy content of a particular food. d) It accurately measures percent body fat.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

6) Energy is stored in the body primarily as __________ and ___________. a) glycogen, triglycerides b) protein, glucose c) muscle, glycogen d) glucose, triglycerides Answer: a

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

7) What is the total energy content of a serving of granola that contains 7 grams of fat, 40 grams of carbohydrate and 4 grams of protein? a) 51 kcals b) 145 kcals c) 239 kcals d) 319 kcals Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance 8) Which of the following does NOT increase in an individual’s basal metabolic rate? a) Increasing age over 50 b) An increase in muscle mass c) An increase in body weight d) Running a fever Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

9) The energy expended to digest and store nutrients is called: a) basal metabolic rate. b) digestive capacity thermogenesis. c) consumptive heat capacity. d) thermic effect of food.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

10) As dietary nutrients are broken down to provide energy they are all converted to which metabolic intermediate? a) Pyruvate b) Acetyl CoA c) Lactate d) Ketone bodies Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

11) As foods are digested, the energy stored in the chemical bonds of carbohydrates, proteins and fats are converted to: a) electrical energy. b) carbon dioxide. c) ATP. d) electrons.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

12) Basal metabolism in a typical person accounts for approximately what percentage of total energy expenditure? a) 10-25 b) 40-55 c) 60-75 d) >90

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

13) To provide glucose to the body between meals: a) fat is broken down. b) glycogen is broken down. c) internal organs are liquified. d) snacks must be consumed.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

14) If no food is eaten for more than a few hours, gluconeogenesis occurs, forming glucose from: a) stored amino acids. b) functioning body protein. c) fatty acid deposits in adipose tissue. d) glycogen stores.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

15) Which nutrient(s), when consumed in excess of energy needs, is/are preferentially used to produce body adipose tissue? a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins c) Fats

d) Individual amino acids Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

16) Indirect calorimetry measures ________and _______ to estimate energy expenditure. a) food consumed, heat produced b) food consumed, water excreted c) oxygen consumed, carbon dioxide expired d) oxygen consumed, sweat produced Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 7.3 Explain how to calculate estimated energy requirements at various levels of activity.

Section Reference: Section 7.3 Estimating Energy Requirements

17) The three components of energy expenditure are: a) basal metabolism, energy consumption and protein metabolism. b) basal metabolism, physical activity and diet-induced thermogenesis. c) basal metabolism, resting heat conductance and consumptive capacity. d) physical activity, sleeping and eating.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

18) Which individual would have the lowest recommended energy intake, per unit of body weight? a) A 2-month old infant b) An 80-year old female c) A 26- year old woman, in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy

d) An adolescent male Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.3 Explain how to calculate estimated energy requirements at various levels of activity.

Section Reference: Section 7.3 Estimating Energy Requirements

19) Which type of calorimetry used for measuring energy expenditure quantifies heat production? a) Direct b) Indirect c) Thermic d) Bomb Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.3 Explain how to calculate estimated energy requirements at various levels of activity.

Section Reference: Section 7.3 Estimating Energy Requirements

20) Estimated energy requirements are NOT influenced by: a) height. b) level of physical activity. c) gender. d) body shape.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.3 Explain how to calculate estimated energy requirements at various levels of activity.

Section Reference: Section 7.3 Estimating Energy Requirements

21) An individual who exercises at moderate intensity for 60 minutes per day would be considered: a) sedentary. b) low active.

c) active. d) very active.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.3 Explain how to calculate estimated energy requirements at various levels of activity.

Section Reference: Section 7.3 Estimating Energy Requirements

22) One reason body weight increases as people age is: a) EER declines. b) higher fat food choices are more common. c) exercise increases. d) EER increases.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.3 Explain how to calculate estimated energy requirements at various levels of activity.

Section Reference: Section 7.3 Estimating Energy Requirements

23) The consequences of the high rate of childhood obesity are: a) primarily psychological. b) relatively benign since health risks are not increased. c) profound since the longer a person is overweight, the higher the health risks. d) unknown.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.4 Describe some health risks associated with excess body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.4 Body Weight and Health

24) Obesity is associated with an increased risk of: a) gallbladder disease. b) sleep apnea. c) arthritis.

d) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.4 Describe some health risks associated with excess body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.4 Body Weight and Health

25) Being underweight: a) is always the result of an eating disorder. b) is never a concern since people suffer no health risks. c) is associated with an increased risk of early death. d) is an unnatural condition that should always be remedied.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.4 Describe some health risks associated with excess body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.4 Body Weight and Health

26) Obesity increases the risk of some cancers because: a) the high fat foods typically consumed have abundant cancer-promoting substances. b) adipose tissue produces hormones which promote cell proliferation. c) high blood triglycerides commonly seen in obesity damage DNA in cells lining the major blood vessels. d) obese individuals tend to be sedentary.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 7.4 Describe some health risks associated with excess body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.4 Body Weight and Health 27) In order to calculate a person’s Body Mass Index, what information about the person must be known? a) Height & weight b) Lean body mass & body water

c) Lean body mass & fat stores d) Waist circumference & height Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.5 Describe the guidelines and tools used to determine a healthy body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.5 Guidelines for a Healthy Body Weight

28) According to BMI criteria, an individual with a body mass index (BMI) of 22 would be defined as: a) underweight. b) healthy weight. c) overweight. d) obese.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.5 Describe the guidelines and tools used to determine a healthy body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.5 Guidelines for a Healthy Body Weight

29) The distribution of body fat can be an indicator of health risk. Which of the following is associated with a higher risk of heart disease, diabetes and breast cancer? a) Subcutaneous fat deposited in the hips and thighs b) Visceral fat deposited around the waist c) A pear shaped body d) Brown fat tissue in the upper arms Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.5 Describe the guidelines and tools used to determine a healthy body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.5 Guidelines for a Healthy Body Weight

30) Which method to measure body composition relies on the poor ability of fat to conduct electricity?

a) MRI b) Bioelectric impedance c) DEXA d) Bod Pod Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.5 Describe the guidelines and tools used to determine a healthy body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.5 Guidelines for a Healthy Body Weight

31) Skinfold thickness measures: a) subcutaneous fat. b) visceral fat. c) total fat. d) body density.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.5 Describe the guidelines and tools used to determine a healthy body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.5 Guidelines for a Healthy Body Weight

32) The amount of visceral fat is best determined by: a) sophisticated imaging methods such as DXA. b) dilution methods. c) skinfold thickness. d) underwater weighing.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.5 Describe the guidelines and tools used to determine a healthy body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.5 Guidelines for a Healthy Body Weight

33) Which statement about BMI is correct? a) A BMI of 16-22 is defined as a healthy body weight.

b) BMI is an excellent tool for predicting health risks for all body types. c) A BMI of <20 is classified as underweight. d) A BMI over 30 is considered obese.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.5 Describe the guidelines and tools used to determine a healthy body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.5 Guidelines for a Healthy Body Weight

34) Which is a FALSE statement regarding the use of anthropometric measurements such as waist circumferences and skinfold thickness to estimate body composition? a) Measurements are more accurate in normal weight than in obese individuals. b) Although fairly accurate, skinfold measurement is relatively expensive. c) It is assumed that the subcutaneous fat is representative of total body fat. d) Accuracy is dependent upon the skill of the person using the skinfold calipers.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.5 Describe the guidelines and tools used to determine a healthy body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.5 Guidelines for a Healthy Body Weight

35) Body fat is stored in cells called: a) adipocytes. b) enterocytes. c) hepatocytes. d) β cells.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.6 Compare the impact of genetics and lifestyle on body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.6 What Determines Body Size and Shape?

36) Which brain region regulates long-term food intake and energy expenditure? a) Cerebellum b) Cortex

c) Frontal lobe d) Hypothalamus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.6 Compare the impact of genetics and lifestyle on body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.6 What Determines Body Size and Shape?

37) For many years, Erin’s weight has been stable at ~132 pounds. This weight is commonly described as her: a) maintenance level. b) set point. c) trigger point. d) weight stability setting.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.6 Compare the impact of genetics and lifestyle on body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.6 What Determines Body Size and Shape?

38) ______________ is produced by adipocytes and functions to maintain the amount of fat in the body at a constant or stable level. a) Thyroxine b) Leptin c) Ghrelin d) Insulin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.6 Compare the impact of genetics and lifestyle on body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.6 What Determines Body Size and Shape?

39) What is a common outcome of “yo-yo” dieting? a) Decreased likelihood that future weight loss efforts will be successful b) Malnutrition c) Anorexia nervosa d) Redistribution of subcutaneous body fat

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.7 Explain the concept of weight management and the recommendations for weight loss and maintenance of a health body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.7 Recommendations for Managing Body Weight

40) In order to lose fat, not lean tissue, what is the recommended rate of weight loss? a) 1/2 to 2 pounds per week b) 1 to 3 pounds per week c) 2 to 4 pounds per week d) No more than 30 pounds/month Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.7 Explain the concept of weight management and the recommendations for weight loss and maintenance of a health body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.7 Recommendations for Managing Body Weight

41) Which statement about obesity genes is FALSE? a) Abnormal obesity genes result in abnormal amounts of body fat. b) Obesity genes encode proteins. c) Obesity genes are the main culprit behind rising obesity levels. d) Obesity genes regulate food intake, energy expenditure or the deposition of body fat.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.6 Compare the impact of genetics and lifestyle on body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.6 What Determines Body Size and Shape?

42) A higher incidence of heart disease, high blood pressure, stroke and diabetes is associated with: a) fat on hips and thighs. b) subcutaneous fat. c) visceral fat. d) Any fat, no matter where it is deposited.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.5 Describe the guidelines and tools used to determine a healthy body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.5 Guidelines for a Healthy Body Weight

43) _________ is produced in the stomach and stimulates food intake. a) Ghrelin b) Cholecystokinin c) Peptide PYY d) Gastrin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.6 Compare the impact of genetics and lifestyle on body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.6 What Determines Body Size and Shape?

44) Which statement about the relationship of obesity to “thrifty metabolism” is FALSE? a) It allows more efficient energy use and fat storage. b) Those who inherited “thrifty genes” are more likely to be obese. c) Restricting food intake normally increases energy expenditure. d) Thrifty metabolism may have evolved to prevent starvation.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 7.6 Compare the impact of genetics and lifestyle on body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.6 What Determines Body Size and Shape?

45) Which statement about the relationship of obesity to activity is correct? a) Lean people use fewer calories for NEAT. b) Individuals with the most body fat tend to have the lowest levels of overall activity. c) When normal weight individuals are overfed, they all respond with similar increases in unplanned activity. d) Involuntary activity typically burns <100 kcal /day.

Answer: b

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 7.6 Compare the impact of genetics and lifestyle on body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.6 What Determines Body Size and Shape?

46) An individual’s actual weight is: a) determined solely by genetics, which is why identical twins gain similar amounts of fat over time. b) determined by lifestyle. c) determined by inherited genes and lifestyle/environment. d) determined by the climate in which you live.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.6 Compare the impact of genetics and lifestyle on body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.6 What Determines Body Size and Shape?

47) Which of the following does NOT help to explain why Americans are now eating more kcals than 30 years ago? a) Appetite is often triggered by ads for foods or the easy accessibility of foods. b) Average portion sizes have increased in homes and restaurants. c) People tend to eat in units regardless of the size of the unit. d) Genetic changes over the last 3 decades have led to Americans being hungrier.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.6 Compare the impact of genetics and lifestyle on body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.6 What Determines Body Size and Shape?

48) Americans are exercising less for all the reasons listed below EXCEPT: a) leisure time is often spent in sedentary activities. b) many jobs are less physically demanding than in the past. c) open spaces for outdoor activities are becoming limited. d) most people rely on automobiles for transportation rather than walking or biking.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.6 Compare the impact of genetics and lifestyle on body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.6 What Determines Body Size and Shape?

49) When a diet is very low in kcalories and carbohydrate for a long period of time, what is most likely to develop? a) Diabetes b) Hepatitis c) Hyperglycemia d) Ketosis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.8 Evaluate the appropriateness of various weight-management programs.

Section Reference: Section 7.8 Approaches to Weight Loss

50) A common problem associated with losing weight by drinking only low kcalorie weight loss products is: a) eating habits are not changed. b) the formula is available by prescription only, making the program inconvenient. c) formula plans are expensive. d) mixing the formulas require extensive calculation.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.8 Evaluate the appropriateness of various weight-management programs.

Section Reference: Section 7.8 Approaches to Weight Loss

51) Long term healthy weight loss is based on all the following principles EXCEPT: a) increasing physical activity. b) adopting lifelong changes in eating habits. c) eating foods in the “right” combinations to burn more calories. d) moderate portion sizes.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: LO 7.8 Evaluate the appropriateness of various weight-management programs.

Section Reference: Section 7.8 Approaches to Weight Loss

52) The recommended approach to dealing with overweight children is to: a) strictly limit kcalorie intake. b) encourage physical activity and moderate kcalorie intake. c) institute moderate levels of drug therapy. d) encourage liquid weight loss products at lunch.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.7 Explain the concept of weight management and the recommendations for weight loss and maintenance of a health body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.7 Recommendations for Managing Body Weight

53) Which guideline about weight loss is correct? a) All individuals with a BMI >25 should lose weight. b) If a child is obese, weight should be lost as quickly as possible so it doesn’t interfere with development. c) Most people can reduce health risks with a 5-15% weight loss. d) The health benefits of weight loss do not begin to accrue until normal weight is achieved.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.7 Explain the concept of weight management and the recommendations for weight loss and maintenance of a health body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.7 Recommendations for Managing Body Weight

54) For people who want to gain weight, which of the following is NOT a recommendation? a) Eat more frequently b) Drink more milk and fruit juices c) Exercise d) Eat more low-fat, bulky foods Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.7 Explain the concept of weight management and the recommendations for weight loss and maintenance of a health body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.7 Recommendations for Managing Body Weight

55) To determine how many kcalories are in a food item, the food undergoes combustion in a chamber surrounded by water. What information is most important to know in order to establish the caloric content of the food item? a) Change in temperature of the water surrounding the chamber b) Volume of the food item c) Surface area of the food item d) Density of water surrounding the chamber Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

56) Very-Low-Kcalorie diets: a) contain fewer than 1500 kcals/day. b) cause a rapid initial weight loss. c) increase metabolism. d) are more effective than other diets in the long term.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.8 Evaluate the appropriateness of various weight-management programs.

Section Reference: Section 7.8 Approaches to Weight Loss

57) The stimulus which prompts one to eat in response to internal physical cues is best described as: a) appetite. b) hunger. c) behavioral modification. d) satiety.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.1 Discuss how the incidence of obesity has changed in the U.S. and around the world.

Section Reference: Section 7.1 The Obesity Epidemic

58) The energy (kcalories) provided by one gram each of protein, fat, carbohydrate and alcohol is: a) 9,9,4,4. b) 4,4,4,9. c) 7,4,9,4. d) 4,9,4,7.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

59) Which of the following does not affect basal metabolic rate? a) Gender b) Lean body mass c) Level of physical activity d) Age Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

60) Which of the following statements is FALSE? a) A waist measurement >40 inches in men indicates a health risk. b) The distribution of fat in a person is determined by primarily by exercise habits. c) A waist measurement >35 inches in women indicates a health risk. d) Visceral fat storage is more common in men than in women.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.5 Describe the guidelines and tools used to determine a healthy body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.5 Guidelines for a Healthy Body Weight

61) Which is TRUE regarding the disadvantages of using Body Mass Index as a means of assessing chronic disease risk? a) Someone with a large amount of muscle mass will have a high BMI. b) BMI uses measurements which are cumbersome to obtain. c) Calculating BMI is relatively expensive. d) BMI calculations for men and women require different formulas.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.4 Describe some health risks associated with excess body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.4 Body Weight and Health

62) What is the approximate BMI of someone who weighs 145 pounds and is five foot, seven inches tall? a) 12.9 b) 22.7 c) 28.1 d) 35.2 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.4 Describe some health risks associated with excess body weight.

Section Reference: Section 7.4 Body Weight and Health

63) Ryan would like to lose weight. His energy needs are 2400 kcal/day. If he eats ~1900 kcals/day, in four weeks approximately how much weight will Ryan have lost? a) 2 pounds b) 4 pounds

c) 9 pounds d) 12 pounds Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.8 Evaluate the appropriateness of various weight-management programs.

Section Reference: Section 7.8 Approaches to Weight Loss

64) When selecting a weight loss program for long-term weight loss, which is the least important question to consider? a) Does the program require purchase of special foods? b) Does the program offer social support? c) Does the program incorporate and encourage physical activity? d) Is there a book available which explains the diet?

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.8 Evaluate the appropriateness of various weight-management programs.

Section Reference: Section 7.8 Approaches to Weight Loss

65) If a serving of tuna contains 1 gram fat, 0 carbohydrates and contains 69 calories, how many grams of protein are in one serving? a) 15 b) 30 c) 44 d) 60 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Explain the principle of energy balance and the processes involved in generating energy from food.

Section Reference: Section 7.2 Exploring Energy Balance

66) One problem with weight loss drugs is that: a) they have been shown to shorten life span.

b) weight is typically regained when the drug is stopped. c) they are not recommended for people with large amounts of weight to lose. d) over time, they typically cause people to become underweight.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.8 Evaluate the appropriateness of various weight-management programs.

Section Reference: Section 7.8 Approaches to Weight Loss

67) A surgical procedure that restricts the size of the stomach and bypasses a portion of the small intestine is: a) gastroplasty. b) gastric bypass. c) not successful in achieving weight loss. d) liposuction.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 7.8 Evaluate the appropriateness of various weight-management programs.

Section Reference: Section 7.8 Approaches to Weight Loss

68) Alli is an over-the-counter weight loss drug that: a) reduces appetite. b) increases energy expenditure. c) prevents triglyceride digestion and absorption. d) activates brown adipose tissue.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 7.8 Evaluate the appropriateness of various weight-management programs.

Section Reference: Section 7.8 Approaches to Weight Loss

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 8

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Vitamins may be lost when food is processed. When these vitamins are added back to the processed food at the same or higher level, the food is said to be: a) enhanced. b) fortified. c) enriched. d) supplemented.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.1 Describe the factors that affect the amount of a vitamin that is available to the body.

Section Reference: Section 8.1 What Are Vitamins?

2) When the vitamins lost in grain processing are restored, which is a nutrient typically NOT added back? a) Iron b) Thiamin c) Pantothenic acid d) Riboflavin Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 8.1 Describe the factors that affect the amount of a vitamin that is available to the body.

Section Reference: Section 8.1 What Are Vitamins?

3) The process of adding nutrients to foods is called: a) enrichment. b) fortification. c) milling. d) supplementation.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.1 Describe the factors that affect the amount of a vitamin that is available to the body.

Section Reference: Section 8.1 What Are Vitamins?

4) The ____________ is the site of most vitamin absorption into the body. a) large intestine b) stomach c) small intestine d) mouth Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.1 Describe the factors that affect the amount of a vitamin that is available to the body.

Section Reference: Section 8.1 What Are Vitamins?

5) Which term describes how well a vitamin is absorbed and used by the body? a) Adsorption b) Assimilation c) Bioavailability d) Functionality Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.1 Describe the factors that affect the amount of a vitamin that is available to the body.

Section Reference: Section 8.1 What Are Vitamins?

6) Which statement concerning vitamins is INCORRECT? a) Vitamins are organic compounds. b) If a vitamin is not provided by the diet, the body will synthesize it. c) The vitamin content of a food may be affected by cooking and processing. d) Vitamins are essential for growth, reproduction and health.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.1 Describe the factors that affect the amount of a vitamin that is available to the body.

Section Reference: Section 8.1 What Are Vitamins?

7) Many B vitamins function as ______, which bind to enzymes to promote their activity. a) provitamins b) transport proteins c) coenzymes d) hormones Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.1 Describe the factors that affect the amount of a vitamin that is available to the body.

Section Reference: Section 8.1 What Are Vitamins?

8) Folate deficiency symptoms are less of a problem recently because: a) grain products are now fortified with folate. b) green tea is more popular. c) more people are drinking low-fat milk. d) taking vitamin supplements is more common.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.1 Describe the factors that affect the amount of a vitamin that is available to the body.

Section Reference: Section 8.1 What Are Vitamins?

9) Which statement is NOT true? a) Vitamins provide energy. b) Deficiency of a fat-soluble vitamin is less likely than of a typical water-soluble vitamin. c) Vitamins are necessary in many biochemical reactions in the body. d) Vitamin deficiencies are rare in the United States.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.1 Describe the factors that affect the amount of a vitamin that is available to the body.

Section Reference: Section 8.1 What Are Vitamins?

10) Which statement regarding fortification of foods in the U.S. is NOT true? a) Fortification is always regulated by the FDA. b) Fortification can be an arbitrary act of the food manufacturer. c) Fortification can lead to nutrient imbalances and toxicities. d) Fortification of juice can help individuals meet their daily calcium requirement.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.1 Describe the factors that affect the amount of a vitamin that is available to the body.

Section Reference: Section 8.1 What Are Vitamins?

11) Beriberi is a disease caused by lack of ________ in the diet. a) riboflavin b) thiamin c) vitamin C d) niacin Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.2 Describe the functions of thiamin and the diseases that occur when thiamin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.2 Thiamin

12) Which of the following does NOT affect thiamin availability in food? a) Presence of other vitamins b) Enzymes found in raw fish c) Compounds found in blueberries, tea and coffee d) Heat, as generated in cooking Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.2 Describe the functions of thiamin and the diseases that occur when thiamin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.2 Thiamin

13) A primary function of thiamin is to: a) increase iron incorporation into hemoglobin. b) regulate cell differentiation. c) promote blood clotting. d) facilitate the production of energy from glucose.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.2 Describe the functions of thiamin and the diseases that occur when thiamin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.2 Thiamin

14) Which group of people is most at risk for developing thiamin deficiency? a) Tobacco users b) Endurance athletes c) Older adults d) Chronic alcoholics Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.2 Describe the functions of thiamin and the diseases that occur when thiamin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.2 Thiamin

15) Which is a good dietary source of thiamin? a) Sunflower seeds b) Pork c) Whole grains d) All of the above Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.2 Describe the functions of thiamin and the diseases that occur when thiamin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.2 Thiamin

16) The symptom(s) of thiamin deficiency best explained by its role in glucose metabolism are: a) depression and weakness. b) paralysis. c) hunger. d) atherosclerosis.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 8.2 Describe the functions of thiamin and the diseases that occur when thiamin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.2 Thiamin

17) A person consuming a diet deficient in dairy products but otherwise adequate, would have the most difficulty obtaining sufficient amounts of which vitamin? a) Niacin b) Riboflavin c) Iron d) Vitamin C Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.3 Describe the functions of riboflavin and the diseases that occur when riboflavin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.3 Riboflavin

18) Riboflavin is most easily destroyed when exposed to: a) light. b) vitamin C. c) oxygen. d) acid.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.3 Describe the functions of riboflavin and the diseases that occur when riboflavin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.3 Riboflavin

19) Riboflavin forms active coenzymes that do all the following EXCEPT: a) assist with energy production from carbohydrates, proteins and fats. b) function as electron carriers. c) participate in the citric acid cycle. d) relay signals between nerve cells.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 8.3 Describe the functions of riboflavin and the diseases that occur when riboflavin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.3 Riboflavin

20) Riboflavin supplementation: a) is recommended for those with low fiber intake. b) can decrease the high risk for deficiency in the American public. c) can improve vision. d) does not provide an energy boost.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.3 Describe the functions of riboflavin and the diseases that occur when riboflavin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.3 Riboflavin

21) Symptoms of ariboflavinosis do NOT include: a) inflammation of the eyes and mouth. b) scaly, greasy skin eruptions. c) confusion. d) megoblastic anemia.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.3 Describe the functions of riboflavin and the diseases that occur when riboflavin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.3 Riboflavin

22) Which disease is caused by niacin deficiency? a) Beriberi b) Scurvy c) Pellagra d) None of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.4 Describe the functions of niacin and the diseases that occur when niacin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.4 Niacin

23) Which is true regarding niacin? a) It can be synthesized in the body from the amino acid tryptophan. b) Eggs are a good source of preformed niacin. c) The niacin deficiency disease is beriberi. d) Corn has a protective effect against niacin deficiencies.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.4 Describe the functions of niacin and the diseases that occur when niacin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.4 Niacin

24) A common adverse effect of niacin toxicity is: a) dermatitis. b) flushing of the skin. c) dementia. d) hives.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 8.4 Describe the functions of niacin and the diseases that occur when niacin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.4 Niacin

25) Pellagra occurs when _________ is the staple grain in the diet and the diet does not provide a mixture of different foods. a) corn b) wheat c) rice d) barley Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.4 Describe the functions of niacin and the diseases that occur when niacin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.4 Niacin

26) Which statement about niacin is true? a) There is no UL established for niacin intake. b) Niacin is important in the production of energy from dietary nutrients. c) Niacin deficiency causes adverse effects in limited areas of the body. d) Niacin is needed to synthesize tryptophan.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 8.4 Describe the functions of niacin and the diseases that occur when niacin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.4 Niacin

27) Niacin supplements: a) are commonly used in the US since niacin deficiency is a public health concern. b) provide an essential energy boost. c) may decrease LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol. d) are associated with an increase in heart attacks.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 8.4 Describe the functions of niacin and the diseases that occur when niacin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.4 Niacin

28) Biotin is tightly bound by avidin, which prevents absorption of the vitamin. Avidin is commonly found in: a) egg whites. b) kidney beans. c) peanuts. d) spinach.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.5 Discuss the functions of biotin and describe the diseases that occur when biotin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.5 Biotin

29) Which is the FALSE statement regarding biotin? a) Biotin functions in the metabolism of some amino acids. b) An RDA for biotin has not been determined. c) Biotin is produced by enzymes in epithelial cells that line the small intestine. d) People on tube feedings may become deficient.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.5 Discuss the functions of biotin and describe the diseases that occur when biotin is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.5 Biotin

30) Which statement is FALSE regarding pantothenic acid? a) Deficiency has been associated with consumption of raw eggs. b) It is found only in a few select foods. c) Toxicity is a concern due to food enrichment in the U.S. d) All of the above are false.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 8.6 Describe the functions of pantothenic acid and the diseases that occur when pantothenic acid is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.6 Pantothenic Acid

31) Pantothenic acid forms part of which molecule? a) Coenzyme A b) Flavinadenine dinucleotide c) Pyridoxal phosphate d) Adenosine triphosphate Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.6 Describe the functions of pantothenic acid and the diseases that occur when pantothenic acid is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.6 Pantothenic Acid

32) Pantothenic acid is abundant in: a) raw spinach. b) sunflower seeds. c) apples. d) All of the above.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.6 Describe the functions of pantothenic acid and the diseases that occur when pantothenic acid is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.6 Pantothenic Acid

33) Vitamin B6 is NOT involved in which physiologic process? a) Formation of non-essential amino acids b) Hemoglobin synthesis c) Collagen formation d) Formation of white blood cells important for immunity Answer: c Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: LO 8.7 Describe the functions of vitamin B6 and the diseases that occur with vitamin B6 is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.7 Vitamin B6

34) Another name for vitamin B6 is: a) pantothenic acid. b) biotin. c) pyruvate. d) pyridoxine.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.7 Describe the functions of vitamin B6 and the diseases that occur with vitamin B6 is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.7 Vitamin B6

35) The RDA for B6 in adults ____________ with aging. a) increases b) decreases c) stays the same d) increases for males but decreases for females Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.7 Describe the functions of vitamin B6 and the diseases that occur with vitamin B6 is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.7 Vitamin B6

36) B6 deficiency does NOT cause: a) neurological symptoms. b) numbness in the extremities. c) anemia with large, deeply colored red blood cells. d) decreased antibody formation.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: LO 8.7 Describe the functions of vitamin B6 and the diseases that occur with vitamin B6 is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.7 Vitamin B6

37) Vitamin B6 status is affected by all of the following EXCEPT: a) the amount of fat in the diet. b) oral contraceptives. c) exposure of food to heat and light. d) alcohol ingestion.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.7 Describe the functions of vitamin B6 and the diseases that occur with vitamin B6 is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.7 Vitamin B6

38) Elevated homocysteine is associated with increased risk of cardiovascular disease. In clinical studies, which vitamins have been shown to decrease homocysteine levels in the blood? a) Vitamins A, C & E b) Riboflavin, A & folate c) B6, folate & B12 d) Pantothenic acid, riboflavin & biotin Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 8.7 Describe the functions of vitamin B6 and the diseases that occur with vitamin B6 is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 8.7 Vitamin B6

39) Which B vitamin decreases the risk of neural tube defects in developing babies? a) Riboflavin b) Biotin c) B12 d) Folic acid Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.8 Explain the functions of folate and why folate is important in cells that are rapidly dividing.

Section Reference: Section 8.8 Folate (Folic Acid)

40) Which food is the best source of folate? a) Lentils b) Chicken c) Cheese d) Brown rice Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.8 Explain the functions of folate and why folate is important in cells that are rapidly dividing.

Section Reference: Section 8.8 Folate (Folic Acid)

41) Folic acid supplements are most frequently recommended for: a) post-menopausal women. b) women who may become pregnant. c) toddlers. d) the elderly.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.8 Explain the functions of folate and why folate is important in cells that are rapidly dividing.

Section Reference: Section 8.8 Folate (Folic Acid)

42) High folate intake may: a) increase the incidence of colon cancer. b) cause other vitamin deficiencies because folate competes for absorption sites. c) mask a vitamin B12 deficiency, giving rise to permanent nerve damage. d) cause acne.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: LO 8.8 Explain the functions of folate and why folate is important in cells that are rapidly dividing.

Section Reference: Section 8.8 Folate (Folic Acid)

43) Which group is at risk for folate deficiency? a) Premature infants b) Elderly c) Smokers d) All of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.8 Explain the functions of folate and why folate is important in cells that are rapidly dividing.

Section Reference: Section 8.8 Folate (Folic Acid)

44) Low folate status increases the risk of: a) type 1 diabetes. b) heart disease. c) renal dysfunction. d) All of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.8 Explain the functions of folate and why folate is important in cells that are rapidly dividing.

Section Reference: Section 8.8 Folate (Folic Acid)

45) The role of folate in DNA synthesis makes it particularly important in: a) lipid synthesis. b) rapidly dividing cells. c) nerve cells. d) old age.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 8.8 Explain the functions of folate and why folate is important in cells that are rapidly dividing.

Section Reference: Section 8.8 Folate (Folic Acid)

46) Folate deficiency may cause all the following EXCEPT: a) development of cancer. b) microcytic anemia. c) poor growth. d) inflammation of the tongue.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 8.8 Explain the functions of folate and why folate is important in cells that are rapidly dividing.

Section Reference: Section 8.8 Folate (Folic Acid)

47) Meeting vitamin B12 needs from the diet is especially difficult for: a) athletes undergoing rigorous training. b) infants. c) vegans. d) pregnant women.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.9 Explain the functions of vitamin B12 and why a deficiency of vitamin B12 can interfere with folate function in the body.

Section Reference: Section 8.9 Vitamin B12

48) Absorption of vitamin B12 is dependent upon all of the following EXCEPT: a) adequate stomach acid. b) pepsin. c) intrinsic factor. d) amylase.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: LO 8.9 Explain the functions of vitamin B12 and why a deficiency of vitamin B12 can interfere with folate function in the body.

Section Reference: Section 8.9 Vitamin B12

49) Vitamin B12 deficiency caused by a lack of intrinsic factor results in: a) beriberi. b) scurvy. c) pernicious anemia. d) pellagra.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.9 Explain the functions of vitamin B12 and why a deficiency of vitamin B12 can interfere with folate function in the body.

Section Reference: Section 8.9 Vitamin B12

50) For which group is taking vitamin B12 supplements the LEAST beneficial? a) People eating diets high in animal products b) Older adults with significantly reduced stomach acid c) People who do not consume animal products d) Breast- fed infants whose mothers are vegans Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.9 Explain the functions of vitamin B12 and why a deficiency of vitamin B12 can interfere with folate function in the body.

Section Reference: Section 8.9 Vitamin B12

51) Which of the following statements about vitamin B12 deficiency is true? a) Connective tissue abnormalities are common. b) Symptoms can appear quite rapidly. c) Myelin degeneration can cause neurological symptoms. d) All of the above are true.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 8.9

Section Reference: Section 8.9 Vitamin B12

52) Which physiologic process requires vitamin B12? a) Division of red blood cells b) Synthesis of proteins c) Activation of niacin d) Maintenance of myelin and normal nerve transmission Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.9 Explain the functions of vitamin B12 and why a deficiency of vitamin B12 can interfere with folate function in the body.

Section Reference: Section 8.9 Vitamin B12

53) Which is the best source of vitamin C? a) Strawberries b) Corn c) Milk d) Beef Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.10 Describe the functions and sources of vitamin C. Section Reference: Section 8.10 Vitamin C

54) Which of the following is NOT recognized as a major function of vitamin C in the body? a) Formation of collagen b) Facilitating release of energy from glucose c) Protection against damage from free radicals d) Enhancing iron absorption Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.10 Describe the functions and sources of vitamin C. Section Reference: Section 8.10 Vitamin C

55) Consumption of orange juice enhances the absorption of which nutrient? a) Glucose b) Iron c) Zinc d) Fluoride Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.10 Describe the functions and sources of vitamin C. Section Reference: Section 8.10 Vitamin C

56) Which lifestyle factor increases the requirement for vitamin C? a) Drinking alcohol b) Exercising frequently and intensely c) Smoking cigarettes d) Eating a diet high in fiber Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.10 Describe the functions and sources of vitamin C. Section Reference: Section 8.10 Vitamin C

57) Which group is LEAST at risk for developing vitamin C deficiency? a) Adults who consume plenty of fruits and vegetables b) Infants fed cows’ milk c) Alcoholics d) Elderly people consuming nutrient poor diets Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.10 Describe the functions and sources of vitamin C. Section Reference: Section 8.10 Vitamin C

58) Which is the FALSE statement regarding vitamin C? a) Vitamin C may decrease the duration of the common cold.

b) People prone to developing certain types of kidney stones should avoid vitamin C supplementation. c) Vitamin C is efficiently stored in the liver, so deficiency symptoms take weeks or months to develop. d) Vitamin C supplements are unlikely to cause toxicity.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.10 Describe the functions and sources of vitamin C. Section Reference: Section 8.10 Vitamin C

59) Vitamin C deficiency causes: a) bleeding gums. b) hemolysis. c) pernicious anemia. d) megaloblastic anemia.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 8.10 Describe the functions and sources of vitamin C. Section Reference: Section 8.10 Vitamin C

60) Which statement about choline is correct? a) It has no identified, important roles in normal homeostasis. b) It is classified as a vitamin since it cannot be synthesized in the body. c) Deficiency causes kidney problems. d) There is an established UL for choline intake due to toxicity symptoms.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.11 Explain why choline is not considered a vitamin.

Section Reference: Section 8.11 Choline

61) Choline deficiency may contribute to all of the following EXCEPT: a) neurological disorders. b) development of diabetes. c) atherosclerosis.

d) liver disease.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 8.11 Explain why choline is not considered a vitamin.

Section Reference: Section 8.11 Choline

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 9

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Fat soluble vitamins require _______ and _______ for absorption into intestinal cells. a) bile and lymph b) lymph and dietary fat c) lymph and chylomicrons d) bile and dietary fat Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 9.1 Describe the fat-soluble vitamins and factors leading to deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.1 Fat-Soluble Vitamins in Our Diet

2) Fat soluble vitamins are transported from the intestine within ______________. a) chylomicrons b) VLDLs c) LDLs d) HDLs Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.1 Describe the fat-soluble vitamins and factors leading to deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.1 Fat-Soluble Vitamins in Our Diet

3) Which statement about fat soluble vitamins is FALSE? a) They can function in the control of gene expression. b) Fat soluble vitamins are only found in plant-based foods. c) Intake can vary without risking deficiency as long as the average intake is adequate. d) After absorption, they are transported in the lymphatic system.

Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.1 Describe the fat-soluble vitamins and factors leading to deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.1 Fat-Soluble Vitamins in Our Diet

4) Deficiencies of vitamins _____ and _____ are most common in developing countries. a) A & E b) D & K c) A & D d) E & K Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 9.1 Describe the fat-soluble vitamins and factors leading to deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.1 Fat-Soluble Vitamins in Our Diet

5) Reduced consumption of fruits and vegetables, tends to decrease intake of all of the following fat-soluble vitamins EXCEPT vitamin _____. a) A b) D c) E d) K Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 9.1 Describe the fat-soluble vitamins and factors leading to deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.1 Fat-Soluble Vitamins in Our Diet

6) The carotenoid with the most vitamin A activity is ____________. a) beta-carotene b) alpha-carotene c) beta-cryptoxanthin d) lycopene Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

7) Which of the following carotenoids has vitamin A activity in the body? a) Zeaxanthin b) Lycopene c) Lutein d) Alpha-carotene Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

8) Beta-carotene is LEAST plentiful in which food? a) Mangos b) Mustard greens c) Kiwis d) Carrots Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

9) Vitamin A is stable EXCEPT when exposed to: a) heat. b) light and oxygen. c) cold temperatures such as in a refrigerator. d) fat.

Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

10) When consumption of __________is insufficient, vitamin A absorption is decreased. a) protein b) fat c) carbohydrate d) water Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

11) Which statement about frozen foods is INCORRECT? a) Freezing vegetables causes nutrient losses. b) Fresh produce in grocery stores always has higher nutrient content than frozen produce. c) Produce is often frozen in the fields where it is grown. d) Freezing slows the loss of nutrients caused by exposure to heat, light and air.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.1 Describe the fat-soluble vitamins and factors leading to deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.1 Fat-Soluble Vitamins in Our Diet

12) Which statement about canned vegetables is FALSE? a) Canning exposes vegetables to high temperatures, reducing their nutrient content. b) Canned vegetables are typically high in salt. c) Canned vegetables have a very long shelf life. d) Current dietary recommendations are to rarely, if ever, consume canned vegetables.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.1 Describe the fat-soluble vitamins and factors leading to deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.1 Fat-Soluble Vitamins in Our Diet

13) Which transports preformed vitamin A from liver stores to tissues? a) Carotenoid circulating factor b) Chylomicrons c) Opsin d) Retinol binding protein Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

14) Vitamin A is essential for ____________. a) reproduction b) growth c) immune function d) All of these Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

15) Excessive intake of vitamin A from supplements could cause all of the following EXCEPT: a) liver damage. b) birth defects. c) increased incidence of bone fracture. d) acne.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

16) Retin A and Acutane, derived from vitamin A, can do all of the following EXCEPT: a) reduce skin wrinkles. b) treat acne. c) increase epithelial cell turnover. d) prevent one from getting the flu.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

17) Since vitamin A and carotenoids are bound to proteins in foods, ___________ is necessary to release them for absorption. a) pepsin b) bile c) amylase d) lactase Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

18) Which form of vitamin A is involved in vision? a) Beta-carotene b) Lycopene c) Retinal d) Retinoic acid Answer: c

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

19) A condition in which carotenoids accumulate in adipose tissue causing skin discoloration is: a) related to acute toxicity. b) caused by eating egg yolks. c) called hypercarotenemia. d) related to jaundice, when the whites of the eyes turn yellow.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

20) ___________ is a visual pigment that helps transform light energy into a nerve impulse sent to the brain. a) Retinoic acid b) Opsin c) Retinal d) Rhodopsin Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

21) When vitamin A is deficient, there is a delay in the regeneration of the visual pigment. Which statement is INCORRECT? a) This condition is called night blindness. b) This causes difficulty adapting to dim light after exposure to bright light. c) This is one of the first signs of a vitamin A deficiency. d) This condition is irreversible.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

22) When vitamin A is deficient, all of the following occur EXCEPT: a) new epithelial cells do not differentiate properly. b) epithelial cells produce a hard protein found in hair and fingernails. c) epithelial cells produce too much mucus. d) the likelihood of infection is increased.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

23) Differentiation, or the process by which cells become more specialized, is most affected by which form of vitamin A? a) Alpha-carotene b) Retinal c) Retinoic acid d) Retinol Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

24) Keratomalacia most severely effects the: a) eyes. b) liver. c) skin. d) tongue.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

25) Xerophthalmia occurs from: a) high intake of preformed vitamin A. b) vitamin A deficiency. c) low intake of carrots. d) excess consumption of cow’s milk.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

26) Which form(s) of vitamin A has antioxidant properties? a) Carotenoids b) Preformed vitamin A c) Retinal d) Retinoic acid Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

27) What is the purpose of retinol activity equivalents? a) To provide a factor for converting a quantity of carotenoids to an equivalent amount of vitamin A. b) To determine the amount of vitamin A lost in processing. c) To quantify the decrease in vitamin A function due to exercise or activity. d) To estimate the bioavailability of vitamin A from different food sources.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

28) Vitamin A toxicity occurs most frequently when large amounts of _________ is (are) ingested. a) carrot juice b) egg yolks c) polar bear liver d) preformed vitamin A supplements Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

29) The action of sunlight on 7-dehydrocholesterol forms: a) cholecalciferol. b) retinol. c) parathyroid hormone. d) 25-hydroxy vitamin D. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.3 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin D and the results of vitamin D deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.3 Vitamin D

30) The primary function of vitamin D in the body is to: a) prevent anemia. b) regulate calcium and phosphorus levels. c) modulate iron levels. d) support night vision.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 9.3 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin D and the results of vitamin D deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.3 Vitamin D

31) Vitamin D acts primarily in the: a) skin and liver. b) stomach and pancreas. c) intestine, kidney and bone. d) heart and lungs.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.3 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin D and the results of vitamin D deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.3 Vitamin D

32) A vitamin D-deficiency syndrome characterized by bone deformities in children is called: a) rickets. b) xerophthalmia. c) scurvy. d) osteomalacia.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.3 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin D and the results of vitamin D deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.3 Vitamin D

33) A vitamin D-deficiency disease in adults which is characterized by weak or soft bones is called: a) keratomalacia. b) osteomalacia. c) rickets. d) osteoporosis.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.3 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin D and the results of vitamin D deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.3 Vitamin D

34) Which statement about vitamin D toxicity is FALSE? a) It is likely to be caused by too much sunlight. b) It may be caused by over-supplementation or over-fortification. c) It results in calcium deposition in soft tissues. d) It may cause cardiovascular damage.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.3 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin D and the results of vitamin D deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.3 Vitamin D

35) Which statement about cholecalciferol is FALSE? a) It is the chemical name for vitamin D3. b) It is formed in the skin of humans by exposure to sunlight. c) It is derived from cholesterol. d) It is destroyed by UV light.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.3 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin D and the results of vitamin D deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.3 Vitamin D

36) The actions of vitamin D do NOT include: a) regulating thyroid hormone synthesis. b) stimulating intestinal calcium absorption. c) breaking down of bone to release calcium into the blood. d) increasing calcium reabsorption by the kidneys.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.3 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin D and the results of vitamin D deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.3 Vitamin D

37) Adequate vitamin D intake has been associated with: a) increasing cancer risk. b) stimulating insulin secretion and predisposing to development of type 2 diabetes. c) inhibiting the development of autoimmune disorders. d) increasing the risk of cardiovascular disease.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 9.3 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin D and the results of vitamin D deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.3 Vitamin D

38) African Americans are at increased risk of vitamin D deficiency for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a) their darkly pigmented skin filters out more light. b) they spend less time in the sun than people of other ethnic backgrounds. c) they consume less milk. d) they have a higher incidence of lactose intolerance.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.3 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin D and the results of vitamin D deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.3 Vitamin D

39) The primary function of vitamin E is: a) to act as an antioxidant. b) to increase absorption of calcium in the small intestine. c) to regulate acid-base balance. d) to regulate glucose levels.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 9.4 Describe the functions of vitamin E and the diseases that occur when vitamin E is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.4 Vitamin E

40) Which is NOT considered a good dietary source of vitamin E? a) Fortified breakfast cereals b) Soybean oil c) Peanuts d) Dark orange and yellow vegetables Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.4 Describe the functions of vitamin E and the diseases that occur when vitamin E is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.4 Vitamin E

41) The recommended intake of vitamin E is expressed in: a) REs. b) µgs. c) alpha-tocopherol equivalents. d) mgs of alpha-tocopherol.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.4 Describe the functions of vitamin E and the diseases that occur when vitamin E is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.4 Vitamin E

42) As the intake of polyunsaturated fats increases, the need for vitamin E: a) increases. b) decreases. c) changes in complex ways determined according to intake of antioxidant nutrients. d) There is no known relationship.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.4 Describe the functions of vitamin E and the diseases that occur when vitamin E is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.4 Vitamin E

43) Vitamin A may be lacking in diets of people in North America because: a) vitamin A rich foods are in scarce supply. b) people choose diets which contain low amounts of vitamin A. c) vitamin A is found in summer fruits, and is not available during the winter. d) information about vitamin A in foods is not available to consumers.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

44) Vitamin E deficiency in the U.S. is most likely to be a problem in: a) older adults. b) premature infants. c) teenagers. d) pregnant women.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.4 Describe the functions of vitamin E and the diseases that occur when vitamin E is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.4 Vitamin E

45) Vitamin E is essential for: a) fertility. b) the prevention of rashes. c) the healing of scars. d) bone formation.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.4 Describe the functions of vitamin E and the diseases that occur when vitamin E is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.4 Vitamin E

46) Which is true regarding vitamin E in the diet? a) Natural alpha-tocopherol is about twice as active as the synthetic type. b) Vitamin E in supplements is identical to the naturally occurring vitamin in foods. c) Most nutrition facts panels underestimate the amount of functional vitamin E. d) Several naturally occurring forms of vitamin E in foods can be converted with similar efficiencies to the active form of the vitamin.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 9.4 Describe the functions of vitamin E and the diseases that occur when vitamin E is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.4 Vitamin E

47) Which statement about the stability of vitamin E is FALSE? a) It can be destroyed when oil is repeatedly heated to high temperatures. b) It is destroyed by exposure to oxygen. c) It is sensitive to light. d) It is often completely destroyed in the normal cooking process.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.4 Describe the functions of vitamin E and the diseases that occur when vitamin E is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.4 Vitamin E

48) In the liver, vitamin E is incorporated into _______ and from there delivered to cells. a) LDLs b) VLDLs c) chylomicrons d) HDLs Answer: b

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 9.4 Describe the functions of vitamin E and the diseases that occur when vitamin E is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.4 Vitamin E

49) Which of the following is not a role of vitamin E? a) Protects membranes b) Maintains the integrity of red blood cells c) Protects against some environmental pollutants d) Prevents blood clotting Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.4 Describe the functions of vitamin E and the diseases that occur when vitamin E is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.4 Vitamin E

50) Cystic fibrosis increases the risk of vitamin E deficiency because: a) vitamin E use increases in the body. b) fat absorption is reduced. c) vitamin E excretion increases. d) vitamin E-containing foods taste bitter to affected individuals.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.4 Describe the functions of vitamin E and the diseases that occur when vitamin E is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.4 Vitamin E

51) Which fat soluble vitamin can be synthesized by intestinal bacteria? a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin K Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: LO 9.5 Describe the functions of vitamin K and the diseases that occur when vitamin K is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.5 Vitamin K

52) Vitamin K is required to produce prothrombin, which is needed for: a) antioxidant functions. b) blood clotting. c) bone calcification. d) night vision.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 9.5 Describe the functions of vitamin K and the diseases that occur when vitamin K is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.5 Vitamin K

53) The best way to increase antioxidant intake is to: a) eat more fruits, vegetables, and whole grains. b) eat more meat. c) consume more dairy foods. d) take an antioxidant-containing supplement.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 9.1 Describe the fat-soluble vitamins and factors leading to deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.1 Fat-Soluble Vitamins in Our Diet

54) Long term use of antibiotics may result in vitamin K deficiency because: a) antibiotics may interfere with absorption of the vitamin. b) antibiotics require vitamin K as a co-factor to function properly. c) antibiotics may change the bacterial flora in the gut, decreasing vitamin K production. d) most antibiotics promote blood clotting, increasing vitamin K requirements.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: LO 9.5 Describe the functions of vitamin K and the diseases that occur when vitamin K is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.5 Vitamin K

55) ____________ is an anticoagulant that interferes with the action of vitamin K. a) Cyclosporin b) Aspirin c) Dicumarol d) Penicillin Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.5 Describe the functions of vitamin K and the diseases that occur when vitamin K is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.5 Vitamin K

56) ______ is necessary for proper vitamin A transport and metabolism. a) Calcium b) Iron c) Phosphorus d) Zinc Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A 57) Which vitamin is referred to as the “sunshine vitamin”? a) A b) D c) E d) K Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: LO 9.3 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin D and the results of vitamin D deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.3 Vitamin D

58) Children in developing nations are most likely to develop deficiency symptoms associated with which vitamin? a) A b) D c) E d) K Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

59) Which group of people is most at risk for vitamin D deficiency? a) Elderly b) Light skinned children c) Pregnant women d) Teenagers Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.3 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin D and the results of vitamin D deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.3 Vitamin D

60) Which food contains the highest amount of vitamin E? a) Almonds b) Cheese c) Oatmeal d) Beef liver Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 9.4 Describe the functions of vitamin E and the diseases that occur when vitamin E is deficient.

Section Reference: Section 9.4 Vitamin E

61) Which vitamin has the best known role in cell differentiation? a) A b) D c) E d) K Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

62) Vitamin D regulates ________ and _________ balance in the body. a) calcium; phosphorus b) energy; fat c) sodium; potassium d) estrogen; progesterone Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 9.3 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin D and the results of vitamin D deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.3 Vitamin D

63) Vitamin A deficiency can result in: a) hemolytic anemia. b) goiter. c) osteomalacia. d) xerophthalmia.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: LO 9.2 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin A and the results of vitamin A deficiency and toxicity.

Section Reference: Section 9.2 Vitamin A

64) The food that contains the most vitamin D is: a) whole-wheat bread. b) cranberry juice. c) peanut oil. d) whole milk.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 9.3 Describe the sources and functions of vitamin D and the results of vitamin D deficiency.

Section Reference: Section 9.3 Vitamin D 65) Which statement is true about the need for dietary supplements? a) Women of child-bearing age need extra folate. b) Supplement use increases overall health in all populations. c) Vitamin A should be given in high doses to the elderly. d) Vegans usually need supplements of Vitamin A. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 9.6 Describe the potential benefits and risks of taking dietary supplements.

Section Reference: Section 9.6 Meeting Needs with Dietary Supplements

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 10

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Approximately what percentage of the adult human body is water? a) 20% b) 40% c) 60% d) 80% Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

2) Water found inside cells of the body is called: a) intercellular fluid. b) extracellular fluid. c) intracellular fluid. d) interstitial fluid.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

3) Osmosis requires all of the following EXCEPT: a) glucose. b) a selectively permeable membrane. c) dissolved solutes. d) water.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

4) The loss of body fluid in ways not obvious or noticeable to us is called: a) insensible losses. b) interstitial decreases. c) transitory losses. d) undetectable losses.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

5) Water is polar because: a) it is an ion. b) the electrons are equally shared among the O and H atoms. c) the electrons spend more time around the O atom than the H atoms. d) the electrons spend more time around the H atoms than the O atom.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

6) When table salt is dissolved in water, the sodium and chloride ions: a) form a covalent bond. b) dissociate. c) form an ionic bond. d) associate.

Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

7) Positively and negatively charged ions in water are called: a) solvents. b) non-polar. c) electrolytes. d) inert.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

8) The role of water in urine is: a) as a transport medium. b) to provide a medium for chemical reactions. c) to detoxify. d) to maintain acid base balance.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

9) The function of synovial fluid is to: a) allow excess heat to escape from the body. b) lubricate joints. c) provide a protective cushion around the developing fetus. d) lubricate the mouth.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

10) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the role of water in regulating body temperature? a) Water changes temperature slowly, helping to maintain body temperature. b) When body temperature rises, sweat is produced; this evaporates to cool the body. c) Low body temperature causes restricted blood flow to the skin to conserve body heat. d) High body temperature increases blood flow to the kidneys increasing urine production, thus dissipating excess heat.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

11) A reaction that breaks large molecules into smaller ones by the addition of water is called a(n): a) exchange reaction. b) catalysis reaction. c) hydrolysis reaction. d) condensation reaction.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

12) The normal pH of the body fluids of 7.4 is considered: a) slightly basic. b) slightly acidic. c) very basic. d) very acidic.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

13) Of the following, the tissue with the lowest water content is: a) blood. b) bone. c) fat. d) muscle.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

14) Extracellular fluid does NOT include: a) blood. b) lymph. c) fluid within cells. d) interstitial fluid.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

15) The shrinking of a strawberry from water loss after being sprinkled with sugar is an example of: a) condensation. b) osmosis. c) alkalosis. d) diffusion.

Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

16) Most body water comes from: a) moisture absorbed through the skin. b) fluids we drink. c) the food we eat. d) metabolism.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

17) Water is absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract by: a) active transport. b) Brownian motion. c) osmosis. d) endocytosis.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

18) A water loss of _______ of body weight can impair physical and cognitive performance. a) 1-2% b) 5-7% c) 10% d) 20% Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

19) Drinking plain water after a long period of excessive sweating can do all of the following EXCEPT: a) dilute the sodium in the blood. b) cause water toxicity. c) result in nausea, muscle cramps and confusion. d) increase potassium in the blood causing high blood pressure.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

20) Which of the following individuals is at risk for dehydration? a) An athlete, exercising in cool weather b) An elderly woman, just returning from a 4 hour flight c) A child recovering from diarrhea d) All are potentially at risk for dehydration Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

21) Kevin lost 3 pounds during his workout. He should consume a minimum of ________ liters of liquid to replace lost fluid. a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 1.5 d) 2

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

22) Which hormone signals the kidneys to reabsorb water back into the bloodstream? a) Angiotensinogen b) Antidiuretic hormone c) Calcitonin d) Adrenal hormone Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

23) Which property makes water a good solvent? a) Covalent nature c) Electroneutrality c) Hydrophobicity d) Polarity Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

24) Sodium, chloride, and potassium in cells and body fluids are examples of: a) phytates. b) electrolytes. c) condensates. d) solvents.

Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

25) Which of the following is LEAST likely to result in an increased need for water? a) High potassium intake b) A low-calorie diet c) Consuming many high protein foods d) Lactation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

26) Fluid requirements for infants are proportionately greater than those for adults because: a) infants have less surface area for evaporation. b) infants are more active than adults. c) infants weigh less than adults. d) infants have immature kidneys that are not able to concentrate urine.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Explain the functions, distribution, and role of water in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.1 Water: The Internal Sea

27) Most of the salt consumed by Americans is: a) found naturally in food. b) added during home preparation. c) added at the table. d) added to food during processing and manufacturing.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

28) Salt is added to processed food for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a) to balance potassium content. b) to inhibit the growth of bacteria. c) to enhance flavor. d) as a preservative.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

29) The human diet has: a) always been high in salt. b) historically been higher in potassium and lower in sodium than at present. c) historically been lower in both sodium and potassium than at present. d) historically been higher in both sodium and potassium than at present.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

30) Which of the following best describes the distribution of sodium and potassium in the body? a) Sodium is primarily intracellular; potassium is primarily extracellular. b) Sodium and potassium are primarily extracellular. c) Sodium and potassium are primarily intracellular. d) Sodium is primarily extracellular; potassium is primarily intracellular.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

31) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding maintenance of electrolyte concentrations across cell membranes? a) The sodium potassium ATPase is a key player. b) The process involves an active transport system. c) The input of large amounts of energy is required. d) Depolarization of cell membranes is necessary.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

32) An electrical charge or membrane potential exists across nerve cell membranes because: a) the membrane is permeable to sodium ions. b) the cell membrane allows more positively charged ions to leak out than to leak in. c) the membrane is impermeable to all ions. d) water can flow freely across the membrane.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

33) When a nerve cell depolarizes, all of the following occur EXCEPT: a) an electrical current is generated. b) it causes a muscle contraction. c) permeability of the cell membrane to sodium changes. d) a nerve impulse is sent.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

34) All of the following occur when the concentration of sodium in the blood rises EXCEPT: a) renin is released. b) water moves into the blood. c) blood pressure rises. d) blood volume rises.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

35) The hormone that increases sodium reabsorption by the kidneys is: a) aldosterone. b) renin. c) angiotensin. d) adrenaline.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

36) Which of the following statements about intestinal absorption of sodium, chloride and potassium from the diet is true? a) They are readily absorbed. b) Absorption is regulated according to body needs. c) Sodium absorption is tightly regulated, while chloride and potassium absorption is largely unregulated. d) Minor changes in intake from day to day can upset normal homeostasis.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

37) The UL for sodium intake is _______ mg/day.

a) 1000 b) 1850 c) 2300 d) One has not been established Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

38) The AI for potassium intake is: a) similar to that for sodium. b) not established. c) >2x than that of sodium. d) less than 20% of that for sodium.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

39) Electrolyte deficiency most likely occurs: a) when people don’t choose foods carefully. b) when losses are extreme. c) when fewer than 8 glasses of water are consumed per day. d) as a result of decongestant medications.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

40) Which statement concerning electrolyte imbalance is true? a) It can cause sudden heart failure. b) It can occur in anorexia nervosa. c) It can disturb acid base balance.

d) All of these statements are true.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

41) Diets high in sodium have been linked to _____________ in some people. a) diabetes b) cancer c) hypertension d) All of these Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 10.3 Explain how blood pressure is regulated and the symptoms and consequences of hypertension.

Section Reference: Section 10.3 Hypertension

42) Hypertension is very common, affecting _____ of adults in the U.S. a) 1/10 b) 1/4 c) 1/3 d) 1/2 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.3 Explain how blood pressure is regulated and the symptoms and consequences of hypertension.

Section Reference: Section 10.3 Hypertension

43) Good sources of potassium include all of the following EXCEPT: a) tomatoes. b) bananas. c) snack crackers. d) potatoes.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

44) Nerve conduction and muscle contraction depend on which minerals? a) Chloride & potassium b) Phosphorous & calcium c) Sodium & fluoride d) Sodium & potassium Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

45) Which organ is responsible for regulating sodium and chloride concentrations in the body? a) Brain b) Kidneys c) Liver d) Pancreas Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

46) Which of the following acts to increase blood pressure? a) Angiotensin II b) Calcitonin c) Estrogen d) Parathyroid hormone Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 10.3 Explain how blood pressure is regulated and the symptoms and consequences of hypertension.

Section Reference: Section 10.3 Hypertension

47) Healthy blood pressure is defined as ___________________ mm of mercury. a) ≤ 120/80 b) ≤ 140/90 c) ≤ 160/100 d) between 120/80 and 140/90 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.3 Explain how blood pressure is regulated and the symptoms and consequences of hypertension.

Section Reference: Section 10.3 Hypertension

48) Which is LEAST likely to be implicated as a contributor to hypertension? a) High levels of carbonated beverage consumption b) Stress c) Heavy alcohol consumption d) Lack of physical activity Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.3 Explain how blood pressure is regulated and the symptoms and consequences of hypertension.

Section Reference: Section 10.3 Hypertension

49) The DASH (Dietary Approach to Stop Hypertension) diet is best characterized by: a) high intake of fruits and vegetables, but no dairy foods. b) plenty of fruits, vegetables & whole grains, with lean protein and low-fat dairy foods. c) abundant whole & refined grains and high-protein foods, but low in dairy. d) plenty of high-protein and dairy foods.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 10.3 Explain how blood pressure is regulated and the symptoms and consequences of hypertension.

Section Reference: Section 10.3 Hypertension

50) High blood pressure results in all of the following EXCEPT: a) an increased diabetes risk. b) weakening of and damage to artery walls. c) the heart working harder. d) an increased risk of stroke.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 10.3 Explain how blood pressure is regulated and the symptoms and consequences of hypertension.

Section Reference: Section 10.3 Hypertension

51) In most people, hypertension results from: a) no obvious external cause. b) diabetes. c) kidney disease. d) atherosclerosis.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.3 Explain how blood pressure is regulated and the symptoms and consequences of hypertension.

Section Reference: Section 10.3 Hypertension

52) The risk of hypertension is lowest for which of the following groups? a) Non-hispanic whites b) Diabetics c) Obese individuals d) African Americans Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 10.3 Explain how blood pressure is regulated and the symptoms and consequences of hypertension.

Section Reference: Section 10.3 Hypertension

53) The DASH diet is: a) high in calcium and magnesium while low in sodium and potassium. b) high is sodium while low in calcium, magnesium and potassium. c) high in potassium, calcium and magnesium while low in sodium. d) high in sodium and potassium while low in calcium and magnesium.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.3 Explain how blood pressure is regulated and the symptoms and consequences of hypertension.

Section Reference: Section 10.3 Hypertension

54) In the United States, the typical diet is high in _______ and low in ________. a) sodium; potassium and chloride b) sodium; phosphorous c) iron; potassium d) sodium and chloride; potassium Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Discuss electrolyte functions in the body.

Section Reference: Section 10.2 Electrolytes: Salts of the Internal Sea

55) The best source of potassium per calorie comes from: a) fruits and vegetables. b) whole grains. c) lean protein. d) low-fat dairy.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 10.4 Discuss the recommendations for electrolyte intake.

Section Reference: Section 10.4 Healthy Electrolyte Intakes

56) All of the following are ways to reduce sodium intake in your diet EXCEPT: a) replacing processed foods with unprocessed foods. b) choosing canned vegetables rather than frozen vegetables. c) choosing roasted turkey rather than bologna. d) preparing your meals at home.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 10.4 Discuss the recommendations for electrolyte intake.

Section Reference: Section 10.4 Healthy Electrolyte Intakes

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 11

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is true about minerals? a) Minerals are organic molecules. b) Minerals can be structural components. c) Minerals are destroyed by heat. d) All of these statements are true.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.1 Explain the sources and functions of minerals in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.1 What are Minerals?

2) Which food group provides the largest variety of minerals? a) Vegetables b) Fruits c) Dairy d) Meat and beans Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.1 Explain the sources and functions of minerals in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.1 What are Minerals?

3) Which mineral is found in varying amounts in food depending on where it is grown? a) Calcium b) Iodine c) Magnesium d) Pyridoxine Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 11.1 Explain the sources and functions of minerals in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.1 What are Minerals?

4) Which statement about the processing of foods is true? a) Processing destroys minerals. b) The processing of grains causes the loss of magnesium, selenium and zinc. c) Sodium is typically absent in processed foods. d) Potassium is often added during food processing.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.1 Explain the sources and functions of minerals in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.1 What are Minerals?

5) Which statement about mineral supplements is FALSE? a) They can be toxic. b) Supplements of one mineral can decrease the bioavailability of other minerals. c) Supplements can help individuals meet their dietary needs. d) They should always be avoided.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.1 Explain the sources and functions of minerals in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.1 What are Minerals?

6) The following minerals all compete with each other for absorption EXCEPT: a) calcium. b) sodium. c) copper. d) zinc.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.1 Explain the sources and functions of minerals in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.1 What are Minerals?

7) The absorption of some minerals is regulated by: a) interaction with phospholipids. b) starches. c) transport proteins. d) binding to amino acids.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.1 Explain the sources and functions of minerals in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.1 What are Minerals?

8) The most abundant mineral in the body is: a) calcium. b) sodium. c) potassium. d) magnesium.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

9) Which statement describes the relationship of bone calcium to blood calcium? a) If dietary calcium is low, both blood and bone levels will decline. b) If dietary calcium is low, bone calcium is sacrificed to maintain blood calcium. c) If dietary calcium is low, blood calcium is sacrificed to maintain bone calcium. d) Blood levels of calcium are a good indicator of the calcium status of bone.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

10) The consumption of soda:

a) provides necessary nutrients. b) has led to a decrease in the consumption of milk. c) has remained constant for the last 20 years. d) is not of nutritional concern.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

11) As calcium intake increases: a) the percentage absorbed declines. b) active transport becomes more important. c) more vitamin C is required. d) more iron is absorbed.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

12) Which statement about vitamin D is correct? a) It promotes active transport of calcium across the intestine. b) It is required for the passive transport of calcium across the intestine. c) Vitamin D is most necessary when calcium intake is high. d) Adequate consumption increases the absorption of calcium to 50%.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

13) Calcium absorption is highest in: a) infancy.

b) young adults. c) older adults. d) after menopause.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

14) The recommended intake of calcium for adults is __________ mgs/day. a) 500-700 b) 800-1000 c) 1000-1200 d) 1300-1500 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

15) Which of the following is NOT a function of calcium? a) Muscle contraction b) ATP stabilization c) Blood pressure regulation d) Neurotransmitter release Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

16) When blood calcium is low, parathyroid hormone raises levels by doing all of the following EXCEPT: a) increasing appetite for calcium containing foods.

b) activating vitamin D. c) reducing calcium excretion by the kidney. d) stimulating calcium release from bone.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

17) Which statement about tetany is FALSE? a) It occurs when the extracellular calcium concentration is too low. b) Tetany causes muscles to contract. c) It can cause death. d) Tetany is caused by a dietary calcium deficiency.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

18) Whether an element is classified as a major or as a trace mineral is determined by: a) the amounts needed daily by the body. b) where they are absorbed in the digestive tract. c) how critical they are for metabolic processes. d) where they are found on the periodic table.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.1 Explain the sources and functions of minerals in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.1 What are Minerals?

19) Which of the following compounds has NOT been found to interfere with mineral absorption? a) Ascorbic acid b) Oxalates

c) Phytates d) Tannins Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.1 Explain the sources and functions of minerals in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.1 What are Minerals?

20) Which of the following functions to inhibit calcium release from bone? a) Calcitonin b) Parathyroid hormone c) Calmodulin d) Insulin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

21) Which of the following is NOT likely to result from prolonged low calcium intake? a) A lower peak bone mass in young adult females b) Problems with cell signaling and regulation c) Fractures in the elderly d) Development of osteomalacia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

22) Milk-alkali syndrome is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: a) excessive use of calcium containing antacids. b) high blood calcium. c) increased secretion of PTH. d) calcification of the kidney.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

24) The matrix of bones is: a) a protein framework. b) made up primarily of collagen. c) imbedded with hydroxyapatite. d) All of these are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

25) The hard compact layer found on the surface of bones is called __________ bone. a) cortical b) enameled c) extrinsic d) trabecular Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

26) After 35 to 45 years of age: a) bone formation exceeds bone breakdown. b) bone formation is equal to bone breakdown. c) bone breakdown exceeds bone formation. d) the skeleton is typically weak and fractures easily.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

27) _________ are cells that build bone, while _________are cells that break down bone. a) Osteocytes; corticulocytes b) Corticulocytes; osteocytes c) Osteoblasts; osteoclasts d) Osteoclasts; osteoblasts Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

28) Peak bone mass in women is typically achieved in: a) infancy. b) early childhood. c) early adulthood. d) the menopausal period.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

29) Significant loss of bone mass and increased risk of fractures associated with aging is termed: a) osteopenia. b) osteomalacia. c) osteoporosis. d) osteopropensia.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

30) Which statement about osteoporosis is FALSE? a) It relates to a decrease in bone density. b) It has no early symptoms. c) Osteoporosis may result in a loss of height. d) It is primarily an American disease.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

31) Which statement about age-related bone loss is true? a) It occurs primarily in females. b) It is not typically associated with any dietary changes. c) Age related bone loss proceeds at ~0.3-0.5% per year. d) It is usually related to over-activation of vitamin D in the kidney.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

32) Which of the following is NOT a typical reason why women are at increased risk of osteoporosis? a) Women achieve a lower peak bone mass than men. b) Bone breakdown accelerates after menopause. c) Calcium absorption declines for a few years post-menopause. d) The hormonal changes that accompany menopause affect appetite for calciumcontaining foods.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

33) Approximately what percentage of those affected by osteoporosis are women? a) 20 b) 45 c) 80 d) >90 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

34) The group with the highest bone density is: a) African Americans. b) Asians. c) Hispanics. d) Non-Hispanic whites.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

35) Which is the correct relationship between smoking and drinking and osteoporosis risk? a) Smoking increases risk while drinking decreases it. b) Smoking and drinking both increase risk. c) Smoking decreases risk while drinking increases it. d) Smoking and drinking both decrease risk.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

36) All of the following decrease the risk of osteoporosis EXCEPT:

a) weight bearing exercise. b) low body weight. c) increased muscle mass. d) high body weight and fat.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

37) The most significant dietary factor contributing to osteoporosis is: a) vitamin D. b) calcium. c) vitamin C. d) protein.

Answer: b Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

38) Which group contains the highest proportion of individuals who do not meet their calcium requirement? a) Boys 9-17 years b) Girls 9-17 years c) Adult men d) Adult women Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

39) Which statement regarding lactose intolerance is true? a) It must be treated with calcium supplements to avoid osteoporosis. b) It means a person can eat no dairy products. c) The symptoms can be avoided by using products treated with lactase. d) Lactose intolerance is common in individuals of all ethnic backgrounds.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

40) Postmenopausal bone loss is primarily associated with decreased levels of the hormone: a) aldosterone. b) estrogen. c) progesterone. d) secretin.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

41) Which group could benefit from calcium supplements if needs are not met by diet? a) Young people who have not yet achieved peak bone mass. b) Post-menopausal women. c) Individuals with decreased bone density. d) All these groups could benefit.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

42) Which of the following has NOT been associated with loss of bone mass in women? a) Alcohol consumption b) Excessive walking c) High sodium intake d) Smoking

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

43) Which is the least plentiful source of calcium? a) Carrots b) Eggs c) Sardines d) Yogurt Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

44) Two hormones regulate blood calcium levels; ________ raises blood calcium and __________ lowers blood calcium levels. a) calcitonin; aldosterone b) calcitonin; parathyroid hormone c) parathyroid hormone; calcitonin d) thyroid stimulating hormone; calcitonin Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

45) Which of the following has been the most effective in decreasing post-menopausal bone loss? a) Fluoride treatment b) Hormone replacement therapy c) Supplemental vitamin C d) Aerobic exercise plus multi-vitamins

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

46) Bisphosphonates treat osteoporosis by/through: a) their hormone action. b) inhibiting the action of osteoclasts. c) encouraging weight gain. d) providing more energy for exercise.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health

47) Which of the following is NOT a major function of phosphorus in the body? a) Contributor to bone and teeth structure b) Constituent of DNA c) pH balance d) Regulating blood pressure Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.4 Describe the sources and functions of phosphorus in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.4 Phosphorus

48) Which of the following is a good source of phosphorus? a) Dairy b) Whole grains c) Nuts d) All of these Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: LO 11.4 Describe the sources and functions of phosphorus in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.4 Phosphorus

49) Phosphorus is essential for energy production since it is part of: a) ATP. b) NADH. c) FADH2. d) DNA. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.4 Describe the sources and functions of phosphorus in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.4 Phosphorus

50) When phosphorus intake is high, the most likely consequence is that: a) blood levels rise drastically. b) less is absorbed across the intestine. c) more is lost in the urine. d) it is stored in additional creatine phosphate.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.4 Describe the sources and functions of phosphorus in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.4 Phosphorus

51) The RDA for phosphorus is ______ mg/d for adults. a) 500 b) 700 c) 1000 d) 1200 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: LO 11.4 Describe the sources and functions of phosphorus in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.4 Phosphorus

52) Which of the following groups is LEAST at risk for phosphorus deficiency? a) Healthy adults b) Vegans c) Elderly d) Alcoholics Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.4 Describe the sources and functions of phosphorus in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.4 Phosphorus

53) Which statement about phosphorus is correct? a) Toxicity is common in the U.S. because of increased use of phosphorus-containing food additives. b) Toxicity causes uncontrolled muscle contractions. c) Toxicity may cause bone resorption. d) High intake increases the energy available to cells, eventually leading to exhaustion.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 11.4 Describe the sources and functions of phosphorus in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.4 Phosphorus 54) Magnesium’s major functions in the body include all of the following EXCEPT: a) blood clotting. b) being a cofactor for many enzymes. c) stabilizing ATP. d) maintenance of bones.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 11.5 Describe the sources and functions of magnesium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.5 Magnesium

55) Good sources of magnesium include all of the following EXCEPT: a) leafy green vegetables. b) processed foods. c) nuts. d) whole grains.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.5 Describe the sources and functions of magnesium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.5 Magnesium

56) Most of the magnesium in the body is in: a) bones. b) extracellular fluid. c) intracellular fluid. d) the blood.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.5 Describe the sources and functions of magnesium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.5 Magnesium

57) Blood levels of magnesium are regulated primarily by: a) the liver. b) the amount consumed in the diet. c) absorption across the small intestine. d) the kidneys.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 11.5 Describe the sources and functions of magnesium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.5 Magnesium

58) The typical magnesium intake in the US is: a) below the RDA. b) at risk of providing toxic levels. c) slightly above the RDA. d) right at the RDA. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.5 Describe the sources and functions of magnesium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.5 Magnesium

59) Which statement concerning magnesium deficiency is FALSE? a) Deficiency is common in the general population. b) Symptoms include changes in heartbeat and blood pressure. c) It can be caused by diuretics. d) All of these statements are false.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.5 Describe the sources and functions of magnesium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.5 Magnesium

60) Which statement concerning magnesium toxicity is FALSE? a) It may occur with consumption of Mg-containing laxatives or antacids. b) It is characterized by high blood pressure. c) It is more common in the elderly with impaired kidney function. d) Magnesium toxicity would most likely occur from supplements.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.5 Describe the sources and functions of magnesium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.5 Magnesium

61) In the body, sulfur plays an important part in the structure of: a) adipose tissue. b) bones and teeth. c) enzymes. d) some amino acids and vitamins.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.6 Describe the sources and functions of sulfur in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.6 Sulfur

62) The recommended intake of sulfur for adults is _____ mg/d. a) 500 b) 700 c) 1000 d) There is no recommended intake.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Describe the sources and functions of sulfur in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.6 Sulfur

63) Which is the FALSE statement about absorption of calcium? a) Calcium absorption decreases during pregnancy. b) Calcium supplements may interfere with absorption of copper and iron. c) Lactose enhances the rate of calcium absorption. d) Vitamin D enhances calcium absorption.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

64) Which of the following statements regarding calcium is true? a) Infants get adequate calcium from breast milk. b) Diets high in phytates increase calcium absorption. c) Pregnant women need more calcium to supply the needs of the growing fetus. d) Women who breast feed need more calcium in their diets.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium

Question Type: Essay

65) How do phytates, tannins and oxalates affect the absorption of minerals?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.1 Explain the sources and functions of minerals in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.1 What are Minerals?

Solution: Phytates, tannins, and oxalates can bind to minerals in the intestine and thereby inhibit absorption.

66) Explain the process of bone remodeling.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health Solution: Bone is a living, metabolically active tissue that is constantly being broken down and reformed. Bone is formed by osteoblasts and broken down or resorbed by osteoclasts.

67) At what point in one’s lifetime is peak bone mass achieved?

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health Solution: Peak bone mass is achieved in young adulthood, usually between the ages of 16 and 30 years.

68) How does menopause affect bone density?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health Solution: Bone loss is accelerated for women for about 5 years after menopause. This bone loss is due to a drop in estrogen levels, leading to increased bone breakdown and decreased calcium absorption from the diet.

69) What are lifestyle factors that affect bone mass?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health Solution: Gender, age, race, family history (i.e. genetics), body size and weight, smoking, exercise, alcohol abuse, and diet can all affect bone mass.

70) How do parathyroid hormone and calcitonin maintain blood calcium levels?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium Solution: Parathyroid hormone raises blood calcium, by stimulating the release of calcium from bone, reducing calcium excretion from the kidneys, and activating vitamin D. Calcitonin lowers blood calcium primarily by inhibiting the release of calcium from bone.

71) What functions does phosphorus have in the body?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.4 Describe the sources and functions of phosphorus in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.4 Phosphorus Solution: Phosphorus provides rigidity to bones and is a component of phospholipids which are essential to the structure of cell membranes. Phosphorus is a major constituent of DNA and RNA as well as the high-energy molecule ATP. It also plays a role in pH balance of the body fluids.

72) What are good dietary sources of calcium? Phosphorus? Magnesium?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.1 Explain the sources and functions of minerals in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.1 What are Minerals?

Solution: Calcium: yogurt, milk, cheese, sardines, tofu; Phosphorus: Yogurt, sardines, milk, cheese, garbanzo beans, sunflower seeds; Magnesium: Spinach, whole wheat bread, sunflower seeds, almonds, garbanzo beans.

73) Calcium in the blood can be measured. Is this a good indicator of bone health? Why or why not?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium Solution: Blood calcium is not a good indicator of bone health, as levels remain quite stable. Slight changes in blood calcium trigger responses that quickly raise or lower them back to normal levels. This maintenance of calcium levels may be at the expense of bone, if dietary intake is inadequate.

74) Describe the role of magnesium as a cofactor, use specific examples.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: LO 11.5 Describe the sources and functions of magnesium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.5 Magnesium Solution: Magnesium is a cofactor for over 300 enzymes in the human body. It is necessary for carbohydrate, protein, and lipid metabolism. Magnesium is also needed for the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, which maintains electrolyte concentrations across cell membranes and is important for nerve fiber signal transmission and muscle contraction.

75) How is sulfur different from the other major minerals? Why is there no recommended intake?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Describe the sources and functions of sulfur in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.6 Sulfur Solution: Sulfur is needed in the diet as preformed organic molecules such as the amino acids methionine and cysteine. There is no RDA because of sulfur’s organic complexes.

76) Helen is 53 years old, her daughter Sharon is 27 years old and her granddaughter, Mikayla, is 5.

A) What is the probable status of bone density in each of these three females?

B) What lifestyle risk factors are associated with osteoporosis?

C) What can each of the three females do to decrease the risk of osteoporosis in their lifetimes?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health Solution: A. Helen is probably suffering from age-related bone loss. Sharon is at the age when peak bone mass is achieved. Mikayla is in a stage of significant bone growth. B. Smoking, long-term alcohol abuse, maintaining a below-normal body mass, lack of exercise, and eating a diet poor in calcium and vitamin D increase risk for osteoporosis.

C. All three females should make sure they are getting plenty of calcium and vitamin D in their diets. They should also engage in regular weight-bearing exercise and maintain a healthy body weight, as well as avoid lifestyle choices that increase risk.

77) If Sharon were to become pregnant and have another baby, how would her calcium needs change throughout pregnancy and lactation?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health Solution: Calcium needs do not change during pregnancy or lactation as extra calcium is provided from stores in bone. If Sharon were to become pregnant again her calcium absorption from the intestine would increase during the pregnancy to meet the needs of the fetal skeleton. During lactation, calcium is excreted in the breast milk. However, Sharon’s calcium loss during that time will be regained following weaning. Sharon needs to consume 1000 mg/day of calcium.

78) What stimulates the secretion of parathyroid hormone? What are the specific actions of this hormone?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Discuss the sources and functions of calcium in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.3 Calcium Solution: PTH is secreted in response to low blood calcium. PTH stimulates calcium release from bone, increases calcium reabsorption from the kidneys, and activates vitamin D thus leading to an increase in intestinal calcium absorption.

79) Which cells are responsible for bone formation?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health Solution: Osteoblasts are responsible for bone formation.

80) How does gender affect bone mass at different stages of the life cycle?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Discuss the structure, formation, and breakdown of bone.

Section Reference: Section 11.2 Minerals, Osteoporosis, and Bone Health Solution: Until puberty, girls and boys have similar increases in bone mass. At puberty males see a rapid increase in bone density. Both males and females experience a peak bone mass in young adulthood and a gradual decrease in bone density after age 35.

When a woman reaches menopause she sees a significant decrease in bone density in the five years following menopause. Men do not see this drastic change in bone density.

81) How do the phosphorus content of oranges, yogurt, and chicken compare? Which is the BEST source of phosphorus?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 11.4 Describe the sources and functions of phosphorus in the diet and in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.4 Phosphorus Solution: Yogurt is an excellent source of phosphorus, containing approximately 350 mg per 1 cup serving. Chicken is intermediate with about 200 mg of phosphorus in a 3 oz serving. Oranges contain the least amount of phosphorus, 10 mg per medium orange.

82) What is the role of a mineral cofactor?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 11.1 Explain the sources and functions of minerals in the body.

Section Reference: Section 11.1 What are Minerals?

Solution: A cofactor combines with the incomplete enzyme to form the active enzyme.

Several minerals, including magnesium, act as cofactors in a wide variety of reactions.

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 12

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) The trace minerals are difficult to study in humans because: a) some of them are required in such small amounts that environmental contamination can obscure experimental results. b) they are so small, they are difficult to identify. c) they are required in such small amounts that deficiencies do not occur. d) biological tests are imprecise.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.1 Discuss the trace minerals and bioavailability.

Section Reference: Section 12.1 Trace Minerals in Our Diet

2) Iron is a component of the protein, ______ that binds and transports oxygen in the bloodstream. a) ferritin b) albumin c) hemoglobin d) myoglobin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe)

3) Lack of which trace element is the most common nutritional deficiency worldwide? a) Copper b) Zinc c) Iron d) Iodine

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe)

4) Which of the following is NOT a good source of heme iron? a) Beef b) Chicken c) Salmon d) Spinach Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe)

5) All of the following are adequate sources of nonheme iron EXCEPT: a) apples. b) enriched white rice. c) garbanzo beans. d) spinach.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe)

6) Which of the following is NOT a true statement? a) Cooking in iron skillets can provide dietary iron. b) Vitamin C enhances iron absorption. c) Phytates in cereal enhance the absorption of iron. d) Calcium supplements decrease iron absorption.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe)

7) Which of the following is a copper-containing plasma protein that converts iron to a form that can be transported and stored? a) Ceruloplasmin b) Ferritin c) Hemoglobin d) Transferrin Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of copper in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.4 Copper (Cu)

8) Which is the most sensitive indicator of iron stores in the body? a) Ferritin b) Hematocrit c) Hemoglobin d) Transferrin Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe)

9) Which is the true statement about iron loss? a) When red blood cells die, the iron in the cells is excreted. b) Most loss of iron from the body is associated with blood loss. c) There is significant loss of iron through the urinary tract. d) Iron from red blood cells binds to calcium and is excreted through the large intestine.

Answer: b

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe)

10) Which of the following is a true statement about iron requirements? a) The RDA for young adult women is higher than the RDA young adult men. b) For adolescents 14 to 18 years-of-age, the RDA is the same for males and females. c) Iron requirements increase after menopause. d) Babies should not be fed iron-containing formulas, because of the risk of toxicity.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe)

11. A compulsion to eat non-food items such as laundry starch, clay or ice is called: a) anemia. b) obsessive-compulsive disorder. c) pica. d) retrogression.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe)

12) Iron stores that are higher than normal but not at a toxic level may be associated with: a) an increased risk of cancer and heart disease. b) hyper-hemoglobinemia. c) an improved immune system. d) increased stamina and endurance.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe)

13) _______________ is an inherited condition that causes individuals to absorb and accumulate too much iron. a) Hemochromatosis b) Hematocrit absorption syndrome c) Hyperferritosis d) Reverse anemia Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe)

14) Which of the following would NOT enhance absorption of the iron found in supplements? a) Consuming the supplement with a meal containing beef b) Taking it with a calcium supplement c) Taking the supplement with a meal containing fish d) Consuming it with orange juice Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe)

15) When the intake of __________ is high, copper absorption into the blood is inhibited. a) iodine b) fluoride c) chromium d) zinc Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.3 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of zinc in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.3 Zinc (Zn)

16) Zinc deficiency in Iranian and Egyptian men occurred because: a) they did not eat meat. b) the diet was low in zinc since local soils were low in zinc. c) they consumed diets high in animal protein, which inhibits zinc absorption. d) phytates in the diet bound zinc, decreasing its bioavailability.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.3 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of zinc in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.3 Zinc (Zn)

17) The symptoms of zinc deficiency include all of the following EXCEPT: a) hair loss. b) impaired reproduction. c) anemia. d) reduced immune function.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.3 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of zinc in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.3 Zinc (Zn)

18) Which of the following groups is at risk for zinc deficiency in the United States? a) Children aged 1-3 years b) Adults older than 71 years of age c) Adolescent boys d) All of the above Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.3 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of zinc in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.3 Zinc (Zn)

19) Which statement about zinc toxicity is FALSE? a) It can lower HDL cholesterol. b) It may occur from food and beverage contamination by galvanized containers. c) Zinc toxicity interferes with the function of iron in superoxide dismutase. d) It can decrease immune function.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 12.3 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of zinc in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.3 Zinc (Zn)

20) One form of the enzyme superoxide dismutase (SOD), which has antioxidant properties, contains the trace element __________. a) iron b) copper c) sulfur d) sodium Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1:12.4 Section Reference: Section 12.4 Copper (Cu)

21) Identify the most accurate statement regarding copper. a) Copper deficiency usually causes iron-deficiency anemia. b) Copper deficiency may result in zinc deficiency. c) High copper intake can cause osteoporosis. d) Copper excess may cause changes in hair color.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: LO 12.4 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of copper in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.4 Copper (Cu)

22) Which is NOT a plentiful source of zinc? a) Beef b) Refried beans c) Saltine crackers d) Yogurt Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 12.3 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of zinc in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.3 Zinc (Zn)

23) High intakes of zinc stimulate the synthesis of _____________ in the mucosal cells. a) ferritin b) metallothionein c) transferrin d) zinc oxide dismutase Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.3 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of zinc in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.3 Zinc (Zn)

24) Which statement is FALSE regarding the function of zinc in the body? a) Zinc is a cofactor for many enzymes. b) Zinc is needed for development of sex organs. c) Zinc is needed for growth and tissue repair. d) Zinc is needed for synthesis of vitamin E. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 12.3 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of zinc in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.3 Zinc (Zn)

25) Which of the following statements is true regarding copper absorption? a) Zinc promotes the absorption of copper. b) About 80% of copper is absorbed. c) Vitamin C enhances copper absorption. d) By inhibiting zinc absorption, phytates may enhance the copper absorption.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 12.4 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of copper in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.4 Copper (Cu)

26) The following are physiologic roles of copper EXCEPT: a) connective tissue synthesis. b) maintenance of heart muscle. c) normal sexual development. d) functioning of the central nervous system.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 12.4 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of copper in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.4 Copper (Cu)

27) Copper deficiency is most likely to occur in: a) pre-term infants. b) children aged 1-3. c) adolescents. d) the elderly.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 12.4 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of copper in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.4 Copper (Cu)

28) The best dietary sources of manganese are: a) fruits and vegetables. b) nuts and whole grains. c) meats. d) dairy products.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.5 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of manganese in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.5 Manganese (Mn)

29) Manganese homeostasis is maintained through: a) excretion by the kidneys. b) no controlled process. c) regulation of absorption and excretion in the bile. d) competition with other minerals.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.5 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of manganese in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.5 Manganese (Mn)

30) Which statement about manganese toxicity is FALSE? a) Toxic levels can occur in mineworkers exposed to manganese dust. b) Manganese toxicity damages the nervous system. c) Manganese toxicity is not the result of eating manganese-containing foods. d) Manganese toxicity is a common cause of birth defects.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 12.5 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of manganese in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.5 Manganese (Mn)

31) Which of the following is an excellent source of selenium? a) Salmon b) Kiwi c) Potato d) Drinking water Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 12.6 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of selenium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.6 Selenium (Se)

32) Proteins containing selenium as a component of their amino acids are called: a) glutathione peroxidases. b) selenoenzymes. c) selenoproteins. d) superoxide dismutases.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.6 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of selenium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.6 Selenium (Se)

33) Which of the following statements about Keshan disease is FALSE? a) A virus appears to be involved. b) It causes an enlarged heart and poor heart function. c) Middle aged men are most at risk. d) Keshan disease occurred in areas of China where soil selenium is very low.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: LO 12.6 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of selenium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.6 Selenium (Se)

34) In most people, taking selenium supplements to increase intake over the RDA: a) will protect against environmental pollutants. b) will prevent heart disease. c) will not provide any additional benefits. d) will slow the aging process.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.6 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of selenium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.6 Selenium (Se)

35) Which statement regarding antioxidant supplements is FALSE? a) Some antioxidant supplements can actually enhance oxidation. b) The optimum dose of each antioxidant is unknown. c) Supplements cannot replace the benefits of eating antioxidant-rich foods. d) Antioxidant enzyme supplements have been shown to boost defenses.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 12.6 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of selenium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.6 Selenium (Se)

36) Which mineral protects against oxidative damage and also helps synthesize thyroid hormone? a) Copper b) Manganese c) Selenium d) Zinc Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 12.6 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of selenium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.6 Selenium (Se)

37) A low selenium diet has been most highly associated with: a) arthritis. b) cancer. c) dementia. d) diabetes.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.6 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of selenium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.6 Selenium (Se)

38) Which of the following is the POOREST source of iodine? a) Apricots b) Milk c) Shrimp d) Iodized salt Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 12.7 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of iodine in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.7 Iodine (I)

39) The primary role of iodine in the body is: a) as an antioxidant. b) as a cofactor in hemoglobin synthesis. c) as a component of thyroid hormones. d) participation in carbohydrate metabolism Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: LO 12.7 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of iodine in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.7 Iodine (I)

40) Iodine deficiency often causes an enlarged thyroid gland resulting in: a) blockage of arteries leading to the heart. b) a Dowager’s hump. c) a goiter. d) shortness of breath.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 12.7 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of iodine in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.7 Iodine (I)

41) Iodine deficiency during pregnancy may cause ____________ in the offspring. a) cretinism b) neural tube defects c) fetal goiter syndrome d) hypoglycemia Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.7 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of iodine in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.7 Iodine (I)

42) Substances that interfere with the utilization of iodine or with the function of the thyroid gland are called: a) thyroxin interference aggregates. b) goitrogens. c) homeostatic decoupling agents. d) cretinoids.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 12.7 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of iodine in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.7 Iodine (I)

43) Marginal chromium deficiency has been linked to: a) breast cancer. b) polio. c) strokes. d) type 2 diabetes.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.8 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of chromium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.8 Chromium (Cr)

44) Of the following, the best source of chromium is: a) dairy. b) whole grains. c) vegetables. d) fruits.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 12.8 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of chromium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.8 Chromium (Cr)

45) Chromium is thought to work by: a) binding to insulin. b) slowing the absorption of glucose. c) interacting with the insulin receptor. d) stimulating the pancreas.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: LO 12.8 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of chromium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.8 Chromium (Cr)

46) Which statement about overt chronic chromium deficiency is correct? a) It may in part explain the obesity epidemic in the US. b) It is common in the U.S. since so many processed foods are consumed. c) Overt chronic chromium deficiency may occur in malnourished children. d) Chromium deficiency results in high blood pressure and increased risk of stroke.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.8 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of chromium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.8 Chromium (Cr)

47) Which statement about chromium supplementation is the most accurate? a) Supplementation may improve the symptoms of type 2 diabetes. b) Chromium supplementation increases lean body mass. c) It leads to weight loss. d) It may improve athletic performance.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.8 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of chromium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.8 Chromium (Cr)

48) The POOREST source of fluoride among the following is: a) toothpaste. b) foods cooked with Teflon. c) tea. d) pork.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: LO 12.9 Describe the sources, functions, and role of fluoride in maintaining dental health.

Section Reference: Section 12.9 Fluoride (F)

49) Fluoride has shown to be most effective in preventing: a) colon cancer. b) dental caries. c) osteomalacia. d) obesity.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 12.9 Describe the sources, functions, and role of fluoride in maintaining dental health.

Section Reference: Section 12.9 Fluoride (F)

50) Excess fluoride consumption may cause: a) arthritis. b) diarrhea. c) hives and dermatitis. d) mottled teeth.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.9 Describe the sources, functions, and role of fluoride in maintaining dental health.

Section Reference: Section 12.9 Fluoride (F)

51) Which statement about fluoride is FALSE? a) Fluoride is poorly absorbed, with only ~20% transported across the intestine. b) Calcium containing foods decrease fluoride absorption. c) Fluoridated water typically contains 0.7-1.2 ppm fluoride. d) Fluoride has the greatest effect on caries prevention before age 13.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 12.9 Describe the sources, functions, and role of fluoride in maintaining dental health.

Section Reference: Section 12.9 Fluoride (F)

52) ____________is needed to activate enzymes and in the production of uric acid. a) Chromium b) Molybdenum c) Selenium d) Zinc Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.10 Explain the primary sources and functions of molybdenum.

Section Reference: Section 12.10 Molybdenum (Mo)

53) ___________ is not a component of an antioxidant enzyme. a) Copper b) Iodine c) Selenium d) Zinc Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.7 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of iodine in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.7 Iodine (I)

54) Which is NOT a factor in determining the rates of iron absorption? a) Blood glucose levels b) Levels of iron stores c) Presence of vitamin C in foods d) Form of iron ingested Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe)

55) Of the following, _______ is (are) the best source of zinc. a) apples b) refined grains c) chocolate d) red meat Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.3 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of zinc in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.3 Zinc (Zn)

56) ___________ is a component of the antioxidant enzyme gluthathione peroxidase. a) Molybdenum b) Nickel c) Selenium d) Boron Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.6 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of selenium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.6 Selenium (Se)

57) Iodine deficiency during childhood and adolescence has been known to cause: a) premature baldness. b) impaired mental function. c) cancer risk in later life. d) sudden death.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 12.7 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of iodine in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.7 Iodine (I)

58) Most of the fluoride in the U.S. comes from: a) drinking water and toothpaste. b) dark green and yellow vegetables. c) tea. d) seafood and treated salt.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 12.9 Describe the sources, functions, and role of fluoride in maintaining dental health.

Section Reference: Section 12.9 Fluoride (F)

59) The richest source(s) of copper in the diet is (are): a) organ meats such as liver and kidney. b) brewer’s yeast. c) avocados. d) chicken and turkey.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.4 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of copper in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.4 Copper (Cu)

60) Molybdenum is required for all of the following EXCEPT: a) the metabolism of sulfur containing amino acids. b) the production of uric acid. c) the synthesis of collagen. d) the metabolism of nitrogen containing compounds in RNA and DNA. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 12.10 Explain the primary sources and functions of molybdenum.

Section Reference: Section 12.10 Molybdenum (Mo)

Question Type: Essay

61) What is the function of hemoglobin in the body?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe) Solution: Hemoglobin is an iron-containing protein in red blood cells that binds oxygen and transports it through the bloodstream to cells.

62) What factors enhance iron absorption? What are factors that interfere with iron absorption?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe) Solution: Enhance absorption: consuming heme iron such as is found in beef, fish or poultry; consuming vitamin C at the same meal Interfere with absorption: consuming fiber, phytates, tannins, oxalates, and other minerals, such as calcium, at the same meal

63) How iron levels maintained in the body?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe) Solution: Since no regulated excretory system exists, body iron levels are controlled by intestinal absorption. When body iron stores decrease, iron absorption increases and when iron stores are high it decreases.

64) For which population groups is iron deficiency most likely? Why? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe) Solution: Iron deficiency is most common in women of reproductive age because of iron loss during menstruation. Iron deficiency is common in infants and children due to rapid growth and in adolescents due to rapid growth and changes in muscle mass. Athletes are also at risk due to low iron intake and increased losses due to prolonged training.

65) How can a person increase their intake of dietary iron?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe) Solution: The best sources of absorbable iron are read meats and organ meats such as liver and kidney. Good nonheme sources are legumes, dried fruits, leafy greens, and fortified grain products. Consuming these foods with vitamin C (e.g. orange juice) and without foods containing phytates, oxalates or polyphenols (e.g. in tea) will enhance absorption.

66) What factors influence copper absorption into the body?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 12.4 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of copper in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.4 Copper (Cu) Solution: Copper absorption is reduced by high intakes of zinc, iron, manganese, molybdenum, vitamin C, and antacids.

67) What are consequences of a zinc deficient diet?

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.3 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of zinc in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.3 Zinc (Zn) Solution: The symptoms of zinc deficiency include poor growth and development, skin rashes, hair loss, diarrhea, neurological changes, impaired reproduction, skeletal abnormalities, and reduced immune function.

68) What are common physiologic functions of manganese?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.5 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of manganese in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.5 Manganese (Mn) Solution: Manganese-containing enzymes are involved in amino acid, carbohydrate, and cholesterol metabolism; cartilage formation; urea synthesis; and antioxidant protection.

Manganese is needed for superoxide dismutase.

69) What is the role of selenium in Keshan disease?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.6 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of selenium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.6 Selenium (Se) Solution: Keshan disease has been linked to a selenium deficiency, primarily in regions of the world where soil levels of selenium are deficient.

70) Why are adequate intakes of iodine essential to good health? What are characteristics of iodine deficiencies?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.7 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of iodine in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.7 Iodine (I) Solution: Iodine is needed for synthesis of thyroid hormones. Iodine deficiency is characterized by reduced production of thyroid hormones leading to goiter. Goiter leads

to an enlargement of the thyroid gland. Iodine deficiency during pregnancy increases risk of stillbirth and spontaneous abortion and may cause cretinism in the offspring.

71) What are good dietary sources of iodine?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 12.7 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of iodine in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.7 Iodine (I) Solution: Most of the iodine in the North American diet comes from salt fortified with iodine, referred to as iodized salt. Is it also found naturally in coastal plants and seafood.

72) What is a goitrogen? What are common sources?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.7 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of iodine in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.7 Iodine (I) Solution: Goitrogens are substances in food that interfere with the utilization of iodine or with thyroid function. Common sources include turnips, rutabaga, cabbage, cassava, and millet.

73) What role does chromium play in the body?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.8 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of chromium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.8 Chromium (Cr) Solution: Chromium is involved in carbohydrate and lipid metabolism. Chromium enhances the effect of insulin, improving insulin sensitivity.

74) Why is fluoride commonly added to drinking water?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: LO 12.9 Describe the sources, functions, and role of fluoride in maintaining dental health.

Section Reference: Section 12.9 Fluoride (F) Solution: Fluoride is essential for bone and dental health. Fluoride is commonly added to drinking water because there are few food sources of fluoride and the content in water is highly variable. Fluoridation of public water supplies decreases the incidence of dental caries particularly in children less than 13 years-of-age.

75) The water supply in the small city where you live is not fluoridated. There is an initiative on an upcoming ballot to add fluoride in small amounts to the water in order to decrease dental caries. What is your opinion on the issue?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.9 Describe the sources, functions, and role of fluoride in maintaining dental health.

Section Reference: Section 12.9 Fluoride (F) Solution: Fluoridated water is the primary source of fluoride for most Americans.

Fluoride is essential for bone and dental health. When fluoride is deficient tooth decay is more common. However, too much fluoride can lead to a condition called fluorosis, resulting in mottling of the tooth enamel. Citizens of the small city should be educated about the potential of fluorosis. However, they should also know that this condition is most often a result of chronic ingestion of toothpaste, not water containing fluoride.

76) Which population groups would benefit the most from fluoridation of the water?

Why? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.9 Describe the sources, functions, and role of fluoride in maintaining dental health.

Section Reference: Section 12.9 Fluoride (F) Solution: Fluoridation of water has the greatest benefit to young children, during the period maximum tooth development up to the age of 13.

77) If the initiative does not pass and fluoride is not added to the drinking water, what are other means by which the dental health of children in the community could be protected?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: LO 12.9 Describe the sources, functions, and role of fluoride in maintaining dental health.

Section Reference: Section 12.9 Fluoride (F) Solution: The American Academy of Pediatrics suggests a fluoride supplement for children ages 6 months to 3 years-of-age in communities where fluoride is not added to the water. Once children are able to brush teeth without swallowing toothpaste, generally around age 3, fluoridated toothpastes may be used.

78) How is iron transported in the blood?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.2 Compare the sources, functions, deficiency, and toxicity of iron with the other trace elements.

Section Reference: Section 12.2 Iron (Fe) Solution: Iron is transported bound to transferrin in the blood.

79) What are the best food sources of zinc?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 12.3 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of zinc in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.3 Zinc (Zn) Solution: Beef and crab are both excellent food sources of zinc. Zinc is more readily absorbed from animal foods than from plant foods.

80) What role does zinc play in reducing the prevalence and severity of the common cold?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.3 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of zinc in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.3 Zinc (Zn) Solution: For individuals consuming adequate zinc, there is no evidence that extra is beneficial. In individuals with mild zinc deficiency, supplementation may result in improved wound healing, immunity, and appetite.

81) What role does soil selenium content play in Keshan Disease?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 12.6 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of selenium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.6 Selenium (Se) Solution: Regions with low soil contents of selenium have a higher incidence of Keshan Disease. However, it is believed that Keshan Disease is not entirely caused by selenium deficiency; a viral infection also appears to be involved. Interestingly, some regions of China have very high levels of selenium in the soil leading to possible toxicity symptoms.

82) What role does chromium play in glucose uptake into cells?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 12.8 Describe the sources, functions, and nutritional recommendations of chromium in the body.

Section Reference: Section 12.8 Chromium (Cr) Solution: Chromium enhances the activity of insulin. When chromium is deficient it takes more insulin to produce the same effect. Glucose uptake by the cell is greater when chromium is present.

Question Type: Multiple Choice

83) A naturally occurring molybdenum deficiency: a) has never been reported. b) is most common in the elderly. c) is more common in women than men. d) is becoming more and common.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 12.10 Explain the primary sources and functions of molybdenum.

Section Reference: Section 12.10 Molybdenum (Mo) 84) There is not sufficient data to establish an AI or an RDA for the element:

a) molybdenum. b) nickel. c) chromium. d) selenium.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 12.11 Name some other trace elements and their functions.

Section Reference: Section 12.11 Other Trace Elements

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 13

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Which is true regarding the overload principle? a) When you exercise, you should work until complete exhaustion. b) The body will adapt to the stresses placed on it. c) If people over-exercise, they will not improve fitness. d) Overload is to be avoided.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health

2) Which is true regarding maximum heart rate? a) When a person is fit, it takes less effort to reach his/her maximum heart rate. b) Maximum heart rate declines with age. c) Maximum heart rate is the number of times that the heart beats per minute while a person it at rest. d) Maximum heart rate is derived from an individual’s weight and height.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health

3) Which of the following statements about aerobic capacity is FALSE? a) It relates to ATP generation by aerobic metabolism during exercise. b) It is dependent on the ability of the cardiorespiratory system to deliver oxygen to cells. c) Aerobic capacity is dependent on the ability of cells to use oxygen to produce energy. d) The smaller a person’s aerobic capacity, the more intense the activity that can be performed before lack of oxygen affects performance.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health

4) Aerobic exercise does all the following EXCEPT: a) enhances oxygen delivery by the circulatory system. b) decreases resting heart rate. c) decreases stroke volume. d) increases oxygen use by cells resulting in enhanced energy production.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health

5) Lifting heavy weights stresses muscles over time causing an adaptation called: a) hypertrophy. b) myoadaptive response. c) atrophy. d) kinetic thickening.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health

6) Which of the following statements about flexibility is FALSE? a) Flexibility determines range of motion. b) Flexibility reduces injury. c) Increased flexibility enhances muscle mass. d) Flexibility can increase speed.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health

7) The health benefits of exercise include all of the following EXCEPT: a) decreased blood pressure. b) increased HDL cholesterol. c) decreased insulin sensitivity of tissues. d) reduced risk of osteoporosis.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health

8) Endorphins released with exercise do all of the following EXCEPT: a) increase muscle mass. b) cause a natural euphoria. c) reduce stress. d) reduce the perception of pain.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health

9) Decrease in ____________ is generally NOT characteristic of the aging process. a) maximum heart rate b) proportion of adipose tissue c) lean body mass d) cardiovascular endurance Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health

10) ______________is NOT generally associated with a sedentary lifestyle. a) Obesity b) Osteoporosis c) Some types of cancer d) Anorexia nervosa Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health

11) The American College of Sports Medicine recommends an exercise regimen that consists of which of the following? a) Aerobic exercise b) Strength training c) Stretching routines d) All of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.2 Discuss the components of a well-planned exercise regimen.

Section Reference: Section 13.2 Exercise Recommendations

12) Which of the following is the WORST advice to give someone regarding long-term maintenance of an activity program? a) Check with your physician, especially if you are over age 45 b) Do an activity you enjoy c) Exercise as hard as you can, at least six days a week d) Make the exercise convenient; fit it into your day

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.2 Discuss the components of a well-planned exercise regimen.

Section Reference: Section 13.2 Exercise Recommendations

13) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends that children spend _______ minutes per day performing an age-appropriate exercise. a) 10 b) 30 c) 60 d) 120 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.2 Discuss the components of a well-planned exercise regimen.

Section Reference: Section 13.2 Exercise Recommendations

14) To reduce the risk of chronic disease, the DGA 2010 recommend at least ___ minutes of moderate-intensity or ____minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity weekly. a) 240:180 b) 100:50 c) 150:75 d) 120:80 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.2 Discuss the components of a well-planned exercise regimen.

Section Reference: Section 13.2 Exercise Recommendations

15) What is the estimated maximum heart rate for a 20-year-old female (in beats/min)? a) 80 b) 168 c) 188 d) 200

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.2 Discuss the components of a well-planned exercise regimen.

Section Reference: Section 13.2 Exercise Recommendations

16) Todd is 30 years old. If his target heart rate during aerobic activity is 60-90 % of his maximum heart rate, how fast should his heart beat during exercise (in beats/min)? a) 60-90 b) 114-171 c) 132-198 d) 160-220 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.2 Discuss the components of a well-planned exercise regimen.

Section Reference: Section 13.2 Exercise Recommendations

17) When a person begins exercising, the first metabolic fuel used is: a) ATP and creatine phosphate. b) fatty acids. c) glucose. d) stored glycogen.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism

18) Which macronutrient(s) can be utilized to produce ATP in the absence of oxygen? a) Carbohydrates b) Fats c) Proteins d) All of the above

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism

19) Lactic acid is produced from _________in muscles when _________ is not available. a) glucose; acetyl CoA b) glucose; oxygen c) glycogen; ATP d) triglycerides; pyruvate Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism

20) The end products of glucose breakdown in the presence of oxygen are: a) water, carbon dioxide and citric acid. b) ATP, water and lactic acid. c) water, ATP and carbon dioxide. d) electrons, ATP and ketones.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism

21) ______________ is needed for transport of fatty acids into mitochondria. a) Acetyl-CoA b) Fatty acid interacting protein (FAIP) c) Carnitine d) Creatine

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism

22) Whether an activity is preferentially fueled by aerobic or anaerobic metabolism primarily depends on: a) the intensity and duration. b) environmental conditions such as ambient temperature and relative humidity. c) the composition of the last meal. d) All of the above contribute more or less equally in determining fuel usage Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism

23) During prolonged, intense exercise, most energy used by the body is derived from: a) fatty acids. b) creatine phosphate. c) glucose. d) protein.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism 24) “Hitting the wall”, or experiencing a sudden feeling of overwhelming fatigue, occurs after __________ stores are depleted. a) ATP b) fatty acid c) creatine phosphate d) glycogen

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism

25) Body glucose can be derived from all EXCEPT: a) fatty acids. b) stored glycogen. c) amino acids. d) dietary sources.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism

26) Training leads to all of the following adaptations EXCEPT: a) increased numbers of capillaries in muscles. b) decreased numbers of mitochondria in muscle fibers. c) an expanded blood volume. d) increased aerobic capacity.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism

27) Muscle fatigue most directly relates to: a) ketoacidosis. b) lactic acid accumulation. c) creatine phosphate degradation. d) glycogen depletion.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism

28) Effects of long-term, rigorous training include all of the following EXCEPT: a) the heart becomes larger. b) the stroke volume of the heart increases. c) blood hemoglobin levels fall. d) numbers of red blood cells increases.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism

29) Which is the LEAST important factor in determining the total amount of energy a person requires for activity? a) Their waist circumference b) Intensity of the activity c) Their weight d) Amount of time spent exercising Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism

30) Regarding weight loss in athletes, which is the LEAST accurate? a) Weight loss of no more than 2 pounds a week is recommended. b) Losing weight during the “off” season is usually better than losing weight while training and competing. c) Fluid can be safely restricted if energy is also restricted when rapid weight loss is desired.

d) Severe calorie restriction in young female athletes can delay sexual maturation Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.4 Describe the nutrient needs of athletes and non-athletes as well as the nutrients at risk for deficiency in athletes.

Section Reference: Section 13.4 Energy and Nutrient Needs for Physical Activity

31) It is recommended that athletes consume diets with the following approximate proportions: a) 45% protein, 35% fat, 15-20% carbohydrate b) 15-20% protein, 20-25% fat, 60% carbohydrate c) 10-15% protein, 30-35% fat, 35-45% carbohydrate d) 25% protein, 35% fat, 40% carbohydrate Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.4 Describe the nutrient needs of athletes and non-athletes as well as the nutrients at risk for deficiency in athletes.

Section Reference: Section 13.4 Energy and Nutrient Needs for Physical Activity

32) Which athlete is LEAST likelyto need dietary protein in excess of the RDA? a) An endurance runner b) A long distance cyclist c) A weight lifter d) A ballerina Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.4 Describe the nutrient needs of athletes and non-athletes as well as the nutrients at risk for deficiency in athletes.

Section Reference: Section 13.4 Energy and Nutrient Needs for Physical Activity

33) Of the following, meeting dietary requirements for vitamins and minerals is MOST difficult for: a) soccer players with high energy needs. b) basketball players trying to gain weight.

c) distance runners consuming large volumes of fluid. d) female athletes consuming low energy diets.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.4 Describe the nutrient needs of athletes and non-athletes as well as the nutrients at risk for deficiency in athletes.

Section Reference: Section 13.4 Energy and Nutrient Needs for Physical Activity

34) Iron deficiency in athletes is LEAST likely to be caused by: a) following a strict vegan diet. b) limiting total energy consumption. c) resistance exercise. d) avoiding red meat in the diet.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.4 Describe the nutrient needs of athletes and non-athletes as well as the nutrients at risk for deficiency in athletes.

Section Reference: Section 13.4 Energy and Nutrient Needs for Physical Activity

35) Amenorrhea has the greatest effect on the homeostasis of which mineral in a female athlete? a) Calcium b) Fluoride c) Iron d) Magnesium Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.4 Describe the nutrient needs of athletes and non-athletes as well as the nutrients at risk for deficiency in athletes.

Section Reference: Section 13.4 Energy and Nutrient Needs for Physical Activity

36) Low energy intake and excessive exercise in female athletes may result in low levels of________ that in turn contributes to _________.

a) estrogen; reductions in bone mineral density b) thyroid stimulating hormone; goiter c) secretin; increased hydrochloric acid production d) prolactin; increased risk of stress fractures Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.4 Describe the nutrient needs of athletes and non-athletes as well as the nutrients at risk for deficiency in athletes.

Section Reference: Section 13.4 Energy and Nutrient Needs for Physical Activity

37) During hot weather, athletes should consume fluids ______ exercise. a) before b) during c) after d) All of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.5 Discuss the recommended fluid needs for the body and some conditions that can occur if these recommendations are not met.

Section Reference: Section 13.5 Fluid Needs for Physical Activity

38) An athlete exercising at a moderate level for more than two consecutive hours will benefit MOST from consuming: a) a beer. b) a cup of black coffee. c) a sports beverage. d) an energy shot.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.5 Discuss the recommended fluid needs for the body and some conditions that can occur if these recommendations are not met.

Section Reference: Section 13.5 Fluid Needs for Physical Activity

39) During intense exercise, important functions of water include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) producing sweat. b) transporting oxygen and nutrients. c) eliminating metabolic waste products. d) preventing body temperature change.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.5 Discuss the recommended fluid needs for the body and some conditions that can occur if these recommendations are not met.

Section Reference: Section 13.5 Fluid Needs for Physical Activity

40) Which statement about replenishing fluid losses is correct? a) Athletes do not need to worry about replenishing fluid losses in cold, dry weather. b) A hot environment increases fluid needs a maximum of 2-fold. c) Sometimes it is not possible to drink enough to compensate for fluid losses. d) Fluid replacement is only important for serious athletes.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.5 Discuss the recommended fluid needs for the body and some conditions that can occur if these recommendations are not met.

Section Reference: Section 13.5 Fluid Needs for Physical Activity

41) Which statement about the impact of dehydration during exercise is FALSE? a) A body water loss of 2-3% can impair performance. b) It can eventually decrease stroke volume of the heart and decrease blood pressure. c) It is likely to result in hypothermia. d) Reductions in body weight reflect water losses.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.5 Discuss the recommended fluid needs for the body and some conditions that can occur if these recommendations are not met.

Section Reference: Section 13.5 Fluid Needs for Physical Activity

42) Heat related illness is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

a) decreased blood volume. b) increased blood pressure. c) rise in core body temperature. d) reduced sweat production.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.5 Discuss the recommended fluid needs for the body and some conditions that can occur if these recommendations are not met.

Section Reference: Section 13.5 Fluid Needs for Physical Activity

43) Which statement about hyponatremia is FALSE? a) It occurs when water is used to replace large sweat losses. b) It is a reduction of the sodium concentration in the blood. c) Severe occurrences lead to alterations in blood potassium levels eventually resulting in impaired heart function. d) The early symptoms may be similar to dehydration.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.5 Discuss the recommended fluid needs for the body and some conditions that can occur if these recommendations are not met.

Section Reference: Section 13.5 Fluid Needs for Physical Activity

44) For exercise lasting less than one hour, the preferred drink is: a) water. b) half water and half fruit juice. c) sports drinks. d) any type of fruit juice.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.5 Discuss the recommended fluid needs for the body and some conditions that can occur if these recommendations are not met.

Section Reference: Section 13.5 Fluid Needs for Physical Activity

45) The term, cardiorespiratory endurance, refers to:

a) heart rate times the number of breaths taken per minute. b) how long a person can exercise or continue a physical task. c) respiratory rates. d) how long it takes a person to walk or run 1000 meters.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health

46) Glycogen supercompensation involves a two-part regimen during the week before competition. The two elements of the program are: a) progressively increasing exercise, while decreasing carbohydrate intake. b) progressively increasing exercise, while increasing carbohydrate intake. c) progressively decreasing exercise, while increasing carbohydrate intake. d) progressively decreasing exercise, while decreasing carbohydrate intake.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.6 Discuss how nutrient intake before, during, and after competition can affect athletic performance.

Section Reference: Section 13.6 Food and Drink to Maximize Performance

47) A major goal of pre-competition meals is to: a) maximize liver glycogen stores. b) maximize fat stores. c) enhance electrical activity of the gut. d) stimulate fat mobilization from adipose tissue.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.6 Discuss how nutrient intake before, during, and after competition can affect athletic performance.

Section Reference: Section 13.6 Food and Drink to Maximize Performance

48) To maximize performance, the best priorities for post-competition meals is:

a) to replace lost sodium. b) to rehydrate and consume high amounts of carbohydrate and moderate amounts of protein. c) to rehydrate and replace fat losses. d) to replenish body potassium levels and provide high amounts of protein.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.6 Discuss how nutrient intake before, during, and after competition can affect athletic performance.

Section Reference: Section 13.6 Food and Drink to Maximize Performance

49) Endurance is greatest when the diet contains a higher proportion of calories from: a) individual amino acid supplements. b) protein. c) carbohydrate. d) fat.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.6 Discuss how nutrient intake before, during, and after competition can affect athletic performance.

Section Reference: Section 13.6 Food and Drink to Maximize Performance

50) Which pre-competition meal will probably give a basketball player the greatest benefit without negative side effects? a) Two slices of pepperoni pizza and a diet soda b) Fried chicken and mashed potatoes and gravy c) Two cups of whole-wheat pasta with tomato sauce, a slice of bread and a glass of water d) Two donuts and a glass of chocolate milk Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.6 Discuss how nutrient intake before, during, and after competition can affect athletic performance.

Section Reference: Section 13.6 Food and Drink to Maximize Performance

51) Which of the following could be considered an ergogenic aid? a) Hypnosis to overcome pre-game jitters b) Vitamin E supplements taken by female varsity volleyball players c) Magnets in an endurance runner’s shoes d) Any of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.7 Create a risk/benefit analysis of an ergogenic aid.

Section Reference: Section 13.7 Ergogenic Aids: Do Supplements Enhance Athletic Performance?

52) Which is LEAST likely to be true of aerobic exercise? a) Sustained regular aerobic exercise decreases resting heart rate b) Aerobic exercise increases VO2 max c) A major benefit of aerobic exercise is that it builds muscles d) Aerobic exercise involves activity that raises the heart rate Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health

53) The proportion of lean body tissue can be best increased by: a) taking bee pollen. b) increasing protein intake. c) lifting weights regularly. d) vitamin E supplements.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.7 Create a risk/benefit analysis of an ergogenic aid.

Section Reference: Section 13.7 Ergogenic Aids: Do Supplements Enhance Athletic Performance?

54) If Dahlia expends an extra 300 kcals exercising each day and reduces her energy intake by 200 kcals/ day, approximately how long will it take her to lose 5 pounds? a) 1 week b) 15 days c) 35 days d) 45 days Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health

55) People in which group are most likely to suffer from heat exhaustion and dehydration? a) Adult athletes b) Children c) Weight lifters d) Women Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.5 Discuss the recommended fluid needs for the body and some conditions that can occur if these recommendations are not met.

Section Reference: Section 13.5 Fluid Needs for Physical Activity

56) Supplements of ___________ are marketed to athletes to enhance energy production, even though it is unlikely that well fed athletes are deficient in these nutrients. a) vitamin E b) B vitamins c) vitamin C d) beta-carotene Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.7 Create a risk/benefit analysis of an ergogenic aid.

Section Reference: Section 13.7 Ergogenic Aids: Do Supplements Enhance Athletic Performance?

57) Supplements of __________ can be of benefit to many female athletes. a) vanadium b) zinc c) selenium d) iron Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.7 Create a risk/benefit analysis of an ergogenic aid.

Section Reference: Section 13.7 Ergogenic Aids: Do Supplements Enhance Athletic Performance?

58) Supplementation of __________ may improve performance in high intensity exercise lasting 30 seconds or less. a) chromium b) caffeine c) creatine d) vitamin C Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.7 Create a risk/benefit analysis of an ergogenic aid.

Section Reference: Section 13.7 Ergogenic Aids: Do Supplements Enhance Athletic Performance?

Question Type: Essay 59) Give four examples of aerobic exercise. What defines “aerobic exercise”?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health Solution: Walking, jogging, bicycling, swimming, cross country skiing, and dancing are examples of aerobic exercise. Aerobic exercise increases heart rate and requires oxygen for metabolism.

60) What is aerobic capacity? How is it determined? Will a trained athlete or an untrained person have a higher aerobic capacity?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health Solution: Aerobic capacity is the maximum amount of oxygen that can be consumed by the tissues during exercise. Aerobic capacity can be determined in an exercise laboratory by measuring oxygen uptake during exercise. A trained athlete will have a higher aerobic capacity.

61) What are components of an exercise program that lead to long-term maintenance of routine exercise?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.2 Discuss the components of a well-planned exercise regimen.

Section Reference: Section 13.2 Exercise Recommendations Solution: An exercise program should be integrated into an active lifestyle that includes a variety of everyday activities, enjoyable recreational activities, and a minimum amount of time spent on sedentary activities. The program should be fun, convenient, and safe.

62) Describe metabolic sources of energy as an athlete runs an endurance race for four hours. What is used first, second, third, etc.? What can such an athlete drink or eat to maximize performance?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism Solution: When exercise first begins, breathing and heart rate have not yet had enough time to increase the amount of oxygen available to muscles, so anaerobic metabolism predominates. During the first 10 seconds or so, stored ATP and creatine phosphate fuel the muscles. As exercise continues, the body begins to break down glycogen in both the muscle and liver to provide glucose. An endurance athlete will thus rely heavily on glycogen stores in the muscle. When an athlete runs out of glycogen they experience a

feeling of overwhelming fatigue. An endurance athlete should eat a diet rich in carbohydrates. They should consume a carbohydrate-containing sports drink during the event to provide glucose as exhaustion relates directly to depletion of glycogen stores.

63) How does exercise intensity affect the source of fuel used by the body?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism Solution: ATP and creatine phosphate are the primary source of energy during highintensity short-duration activity. As the exercise continues at this high-intensity anaerobic metabolism takes over. ATP can be produced very rapidly, but only glucose can be used as a fuel. As the intensity of the exercise decreases the body relies more readily on glycogen stores and mobilization of fatty acids from fat stores.

64) How does regular moderate-intensity exercise affect the heart, blood volume, and red blood cells?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health Solution: Regular moderate-intensity exercise strengths the heart muscle, reduces resting heart rate, and decreases the heart’s work load. Stroke volume, blood volume, numbers of red blood cells and oxygen carrying capacity of the blood all increase.

65) What types of athletes may benefit from slightly increased intake of protein?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.6 Discuss how nutrient intake before, during, and after competition can affect athletic performance.

Section Reference: Section 13.6 Food and Drink to Maximize Performance Solution: Competitive athletes participating in endurance and strength sports may require more protein.

66) What risks are associated with high intakes of amino acid supplements?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.7 Create a risk/benefit analysis of an ergogenic aid.

Section Reference: Section 13.7 Ergogenic Aids: Do Supplements Enhance Athletic Performance?

Solution: High intakes of amino acid supplements are not recommended as they may interfere with the absorption of other amino acids from the diet. If they are consumed in excess of energy needs, they will contribute to increased body fat stores and body weight.

67) Why are very thin female athletes often at risk for osteoporosis?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.6 Discuss how nutrient intake before, during, and after competition can affect athletic performance.

Section Reference: Section 13.6 Food and Drink to Maximize Performance Solution: Osteoporosis is most common in female athletes due to excess exercise combined with restricted food intake, leading to hormonal abnormalities that affect calcium metabolism and put bone health at risk.

68) What are benefits and risks associated with taking creatine supplements?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.7 Create a risk/benefit analysis of an ergogenic aid.

Section Reference: Section 13.7 Ergogenic Aids: Do Supplements Enhance Athletic Performance?

Solution: Creatine supplementation has been shown to improve performance in highintensity exercise lasting 30 seconds or less. Creatine may also increase muscle mass and strength. Long-term supplementation appears to be safe at intakes up to 5 grams per day.

Athletes taking creatine should consume plenty of water and may experience stomach upset.

69) How does hydration status affect athletic performance? What precautions should be taken by an athlete who is exercising in hot weather? Describe how dehydration can affect cool-weather athletes, such as skiers and biatheletes.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 13.5 Discuss the recommended fluid needs for the body and some conditions that can occur if these recommendations are not met.

Section Reference: Section 13.5 Fluid Needs for Physical Activity Solution: During exercise, water is needed to eliminate heat and to transport both oxygen and nutrients to the muscles and waste products away from muscles. Dehydration hastens the onset of fatigue and makes maintaining a given intensity more difficult.

Athletes exercising in hot weather should consume plenty of fluids before, during, and after exercise. They should be accustomed to exercising in hot and humid weather, wear light-weight breathable clothing, and stop exercising if experiencing cramps, exhaustion, or mental confusion. Dehydration can occur in cold weather due to changes in evaporative loss; insulated clothing increasing sweat losses, and fluid intakes may be restricted due to the athlete being cold.

70) Describe a carbohydrate loading regimen. How are exercise and diet affected during the week before competition?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.6 Discuss how nutrient intake before, during, and after competition can affect athletic performance.

Section Reference: Section 13.6 Food and Drink to Maximize Performance Solution: Carbohydrate loading is a regimen of diet and exercise training designed to maximize muscle glycogen stores before an athletic event. Carbohydrate loading commences 1-2 weeks before a competition. The intensity and duration of exercise decreases allowing for more rest and the carbohydrate content of the diet increases as the event gets closer.

71) When should an athlete eat after competition? What are good choices for a postcompetition meal? Why is this re-feeding period important?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.6 Discuss how nutrient intake before, during, and after competition can affect athletic performance.

Section Reference: Section 13.6 Food and Drink to Maximize Performance Solution: An athlete should consume a high-carbohydrate meal or drink as soon as possible after and again every 2 hours for 6 hours after the event. The meals should provide 0.7-1.5 grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of body weight. High carbohydrate foods, such as pasta, rice, and bread should be considered. This re-feeding period is important in replenishing glycogen stores.

72) How can you determine if an ergogenic aid is beneficial for you?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.7 Create a risk/benefit analysis of an ergogenic aid.

Section Reference: Section 13.7 Ergogenic Aids: Do Supplements Enhance Athletic Performance?

Solution: To evaluate the efficacy of an ergogenic agent, you can evaluate the intensity and duration at which you are able to exercise. You can also monitor feelings of fatigue before, during, and after exercise, and look at changes in body composition.

73) Glen is 45 years old and has maintained a regular running and swimming program for many years. He is now interested in an Ironman competition, which will be held nine months from now. He has started to train vigorously and regularly, running, biking and/or swimming several hours each day.

A. How should Glen distribute his intake of protein, fat and carbohydrate to maximize his performance?

B. Glen thinks if he can lose 10 pounds now, he will be able to run faster. Is this a good time to try to lose weight? Why or why not?

C. When Glen competes in the Ironman, which he thinks will take him about 12 – 14 hours, what should he eat and drink during the race? What would you suggest for a meal the night before?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 13.6 Discuss how nutrient intake before, during, and after competition can affect athletic performance.

Section Reference: Section 13.6 Food and Drink to Maximize Performance Solution: A – Glen should consume 15-20% of his calories from protein, 55-60% from carbohydrates, and less than 30% from fat. B- This is not a good time for Glen to lose weight. Glen should not restrict calories as he needs this energy to train. C- Glen will need to eat a diet rich in carbohydrates before, during, and after the triathlon. A pasta dinner the night before the event would be appropriate. He should consume plenty of carbohydrate-rich drinks during the event to maintain hydration and replenish glycogen stores.

74) Mitchell wants to build up his muscles. He works our regularly at the gym and eats a very high protein diet, along with drinking protein supplement drinks. Do you think the protein contributes to increased muscle mass? Why or why not?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.7 Create a risk/benefit analysis of an ergogenic aid.

Section Reference: Section 13.7 Ergogenic Aids: Do Supplements Enhance Athletic Performance?

Solution: Muscle mass can only be increased through regular physical activity, working the muscle. Muscles break down during and after exercise. Protein in the diet is needed to rebuild those muscles. A very high protein diet and protein supplement drinks are not both needed and could potentially lead to adverse effects due to excessive protein intake.

75) How does body fat differ in a fit adult male versus female?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.1 Describe the characteristics of a fit individual and how being fit impacts health.

Section Reference: Section 13.1 Exercise, Fitness, and Health Solution: Body fat in a fit adult male will be around 12% and in an adult fit female around 25%.

76) How do a person’s energy needs change as they go from being sedentary to engaging in regular exercise. How does REE change?

Answer.

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism Solution: The average sedentary individual needs to consume 2000 calories per day. If that same person now increases their physical activity to 30 minutes of moderate activity per day their caloric needs increase to 2300 calories per day. REE (i.e. metabolic rate) does not change drastically, but is increased slightly in a person who exercises regularly.

77) How often, and for how long, should Americans engage in moderate aerobic activity per week?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 13.2 Discuss the components of a well-planned exercise regimen.

Section Reference: Section 13.2 Exercise Recommendations Solution: Americans should participate in moderate aerobic activity 5 to 7 days per week for 30 to 60 minutes.

78) How does fatty acid use change with time in a person out for a 45-minute jog?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 13.3 Explain how the duration and intensity of exercise and training affects the generation of ATP. Section Reference: Section 13.3 Exercise and Energy Metabolism Solution: Carbohydrates initially supply energy for a person engaging in long-during aerobic activities. As the activity progresses the proportion of energy coming from fatty acids increases substantially, especially at moderate intensity levels.

79) What type of diet will be prolong time to exhaustion in a long-distance cyclist?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 13.6 Discuss how nutrient intake before, during, and after competition can affect athletic performance.

Section Reference: Section 13.6 Food and Drink to Maximize Performance Solution: A high-carbohydrate diet significantly improves time to exhaustion in endurance athletes.

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 14

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) The cell produced by the union of sperm and ovum during fertilization is called a(n): a) embryo. b) fetus. c) zygote. d) trophoblast.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

2) The ___ is a fluid-filled membrane that surrounds the unborn baby and provides protection. a) placenta b) amniotic sac c) trophoblast d) blastocyst Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

3) One function of the ___ is to transfer nutrients and oxygen from the maternal blood to the baby through a network of blood vessels. a) placenta b) amniotic sac c) zygote d) chorion membrane

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

4) Which of the following is NOT a function of the placenta? a) Secretes hormones necessary to maintain pregnancy b) Transports waste products from the baby to the mother’s blood for elimination c) Provides the site where fertilization occurs d) Delivers nutrients and oxygen from the maternal blood to the baby Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

5) Which of the following is the correct sequence of gestational events? a) embryo; fetus; zygote b) zygote; embryo; fetus c) fetus; embryo; zygote d) zygote; fetus; embryo Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

6) Infants born at 35 weeks of gestation are classified as: a) pre-gestational. b) small-for-gestational-age. c) premature. d) postterm.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

7) Infants born weighing 4.5 pounds are classified as: a) large-for-gestational-age. b) premature. c) low-birth-weight infants. d) very-low-birth-weight infants.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

8) The recommended weight gain during pregnancy for a healthy, normal weight woman is _______ pounds. a) 5 - 10 b) 15 - 20 c) 25 - 35 d) 40 - 50 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

9) Weight gain recommendations during pregnancy are based on: a) weight at the time of conception. b) ethnicity. c) waist-to-hip circumference ratio at the time of conception. d) ultrasound results (used to size the infant) taken during the first trimester of pregnancy.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy 10) Excess weight gain during pregnancy can increase the mother’s risk for: a) premature delivery. b) having a low-birth-weight infant. c) pelvic stress fractures. d) gestational diabetes.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

11) Women who enter pregnancy with excess weight (BMI ~29) should: a) lose 5-10 pounds. b) not gain any additional weight. c) gain at least 15 pounds. d) limit themselves to 500 - 600 kcals/day.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

12) Hormonal changes during pregnancy may be the cause of minor problems such as: a) heartburn. b) constipation. c) morning sickness. d) All of these.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

13) Gestational diabetes is best characterized by: a) no detectable insulin production. b) decreased urinary output. c) elevated blood glucose levels. d) difficulty with gaining weight during the pregnancy.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

14) Which of the following is associated with preeclampsia? a) Elevated blood glucose levels b) Increased blood pressure c) Low fasting blood glucose levels d) Severe diarrhea Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

15) To meet protein requirements during pregnancy, an additional ____ grams of protein should be consumed during the second and third trimester. a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 25 Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy

16) Neural tube defects in offspring are most closely associated with: a) maternal folate status. b) inadequate calcium intake. d) excess protein intake. d) alcohol consumption during pregnancy.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy

17) Which of the following is characteristic of neural tube defects? a) Improper closure of the hard and/or soft palate b) Developmental defects of the heart c) Abnormalities in the long bones of the legs and arms d) Structural abnormalities associated with the spine and/or brain Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy

18) The maternal energy requirement in the first trimester is: a) unchanged. b) increased by 100 kcal/day. c) increased by 250 kcal/day. d) increased by 500 kcal/day.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy

19) During pregnancy, enhanced red blood cell formation and cell division increase the requirements for which of the following micronutrients? a) Iron b) Vitamin B12 c) Zinc d) All of these Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy

20) Pica is defined as: a) an abnormal craving for and ingestion of unusual food and nonfood substances. b) nausea and vomiting that occurs typically during the first trimester of pregnancy. c) swelling due to the buildup of extracellular fluid in body tissues. d) consistently elevated blood glucose that develops during pregnancy.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy

21) The risk of having a baby born with Down syndrome is most closely associated with: a) alcohol consumption during pregnancy. b) impaired folate status. c) maternal age at time of conception. d) inadequate (low) weight gain during pregnancy.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.3 Describe the factors that increase the risks of pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.3 Factors that Increase the Risks of Pregnancy

22) A teratogen is defined as: a) an abnormal craving for and ingestion of unusual food and nonfood substances. b) a baby born with an extra digit (finger and/or toe). c) a substance that can cause birth defects. d) the unexplained death of an infant, usually during sleep.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.3 Describe the factors that increase the risks of pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.3 Factors that Increase the Risks of Pregnancy

23) During pregnancy, critical periods correspond to: a) times during growth and development when an organism is more susceptible to harm from poor nutrition or other environmental factors. b) socioeconomic factors that increase the risk of poor pregnancy outcomes. c) maternal weight gain. d) the positioning of the infant in the pelvic cavity.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.3 Describe the factors that increase the risks of pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.3 Factors that Increase the Risks of Pregnancy

24) Which of the following is an example of a teratogen? a) Nicotine in cigarette smoke b) Some vitamins c) Alcohol d) All of these Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.3 Describe the factors that increase the risks of pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.3 Factors that Increase the Risks of Pregnancy

25) The leading cause of preventable birth defects and mental retardation during pregnancy is: a) tobacco use. b) coffee consumption. c) cocaine abuse. d) alcohol abuse.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.3 Describe the factors that increase the risks of pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.3 Factors that Increase the Risks of Pregnancy

26) Cigarette smoking during pregnancy can: a) increase risk of preterm delivery. b) affect brain development. c) reduce oxygen delivery to the fetus. d) All of these are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.3 Describe the factors that increase the risks of pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.3 Factors that Increase the Risks of Pregnancy

27) Which of the following stimulates the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland? a) Infant suckling on the breast b) Stretching of the cervix during labor c) Estrogen secretion from the ovaries d) All of these Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.4 Understand the physiology and maternal nutrient needs of lactation.

Section Reference: Section 14.4 Lactation

28) The “let-down” reflex refers to: a) hormonal changes which initiate the process of birth. b) postpartum depression that mothers experience following birth. c) muscular contractions which push the infant through the birth canal. d) a hormonal reflex that causes milk to be released from the milk ducts and flow to the nipple.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.4 Understand the physiology and maternal nutrient needs of lactation.

Section Reference: Section 14.4 Lactation 29) The hormone responsible for the “let-down” reflex is: a) prolactin. b) estrogen. c) oxytocin. d) prolactin stimulating hormone.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.4 Understand the physiology and maternal nutrient needs of lactation.

Section Reference: Section 14.4 Lactation

30) Energy requirements per unit of body weight in newborn infants are __________ those of an adult. a) greater than b) less than c) approximately equal to d) dependent on the size of the infant Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.5 Contrast the nutrient and micronutrient needs of newborns with those of adults.

Section Reference: Section 14.5 The Nutritional Needs of Infancy

31) During the first 6 months, the macronutrient that contributes the most energy to an infants’ diet is: a) carbohydrate. b) protein. c) fat. d) Kcals should be evenly divided between the energy providing nutrients.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.5 Contrast the nutrient and micronutrient needs of newborns with those of adults.

Section Reference: Section 14.5 The Nutritional Needs of Infancy

32) Most newborns receive a shot of ___________ to prevent hemorrhage. a) iron b) folate c) vitamin K d) vitamin A Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.5 Contrast the nutrient and micronutrient needs of newborns with those of adults.

Section Reference: Section 14.5 The Nutritional Needs of Infancy

33) An infant weighing 7 pounds at birth should weigh ~_________ by 4 months of age. a) 14 pounds b) 9 pounds c) 21 pounds d) 10 pounds Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.5 Contrast the nutrient and micronutrient needs of newborns with those of adults.

Section Reference: Section 14.5 The Nutritional Needs of Infancy

34) “Failure to thrive” refers to: a) infants that are formula fed rather than breast fed. b) the inability of a child’s growth to keep up with normal growth curves. c) changes in the mother’s physiology due to hormonal changes after giving birth. d) inadequate (low) weight gain during pregnancy.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.5 Contrast the nutrient and micronutrient needs of newborns with those of adults.

Section Reference: Section 14.5 The Nutritional Needs of Infancy 35) Solid foods should be introduced into the infant’s diet: a) shortly after birth (within 2 weeks). b) around 4 to 6 months of age. c) around 1 year of age. d) around 1 month of age.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.6 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of breastfeeding and bottle-feeding.

Section Reference: Section 14.6 Feeding the Newborn

36) Compared to formula-fed babies, babies receiving breast milk: a) grow faster. b) have fewer allergies, ear infections and respiratory illness. c) are frequently overfed. d) walk sooner.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.6 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of breastfeeding and bottle-feeding.

Section Reference: Section 14.6 Feeding the Newborn

37) An indication that a breastfed baby is getting an adequate amount of milk is: a) the frequency in which they soak diapers a day. b) how often they cry. c) how long they sleep during the night. d) All of these.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.6 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of breastfeeding and bottle-feeding.

Section Reference: Section 14.6 Feeding the Newborn

38) Colostrum: a) is a type of formula that has essential fatty acids (EPA and DHA) added. b) is the first fluid that is produced by the breast after delivery. c) is the first stool passed by the infant after delivery. d) is another name for the mature milk produced by the breast.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.6 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of breastfeeding and bottle-feeding.

Section Reference: Section 14.6 Feeding the Newborn

39) Nursing bottle syndrome refers to: a) sore nipples from excessive breastfeeding. b) excessive crying due to pain from gas buildup in the gastrointestinal tract. c) tooth decay in the upper teeth resulting from putting a child to bed with a bottle containing milk or other sweetened liquids. d) irritable infant behavior associated with weaning from a bottle to a cup.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.6 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of breastfeeding and bottle-feeding.

Section Reference: Section 14.6 Feeding the Newborn

40) Colic: a) can occur in both breast- and bottle-fed infants. b) is the most common cause of extended hospital stays in infants. c) is an inflammation of the mammary glands during lactation. d) is a genetic abnormality that prevents the normal metabolism of phenylalanine.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.6 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of breastfeeding and bottle-feeding.

Section Reference: Section 14.6 Feeding the Newborn

41) In humans, a full-term pregnancy is approximately: a) 35 weeks. b) 40 weeks. c) 45 weeks. d) 24 weeks.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

42) An important role of the placenta is to : a) secrete hormones. b) protect the fetus. c) provide a site for embryo implantation. d) maintain maternal blood glucose levels.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

43) There is a strong correlation between length of gestation and:

a) the gender of the fetus. b) birth order. c) an infant’s birth weight. d) All of these.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

44) Which of the following women should gain the most weight during pregnancy? a) A women with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 22 b) A 43-year-old woman c) A woman carrying twins d) A women with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 29 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

45) Gestational diabetes increases the risk for having: a) a small-for-gestational-age infant. b) a large-for-gestational-age infant. c) an infant born with PKU. d) an infant with a neural tube defect.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

46) Morning sickness, as well as other discomforts associated with pregnancy, is most likely caused by:

a) shifting positions of internal organs. b) increased blood volume. c) hormonal changes. d) a decrease in metabolic rate.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

47) During pregnancy, __________ is caused by the buildup of extracellular fluid in the tissues, particularly in the lower extremities. a) edema b) constipation c) gestational diabetes d) pica Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

48) The most severe form of pregnancy-induced hypertension is called: a) gestational hypertension. b) preeclampsia. c) eclampsia. d) hyperkalemia.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy 49) Recommendations for the management of pregnancy-induced hypertension include

a) bed rest. b) weight loss. c) exercise. d) All of these.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy

50) Before and during pregnancy, consumption of foods fortified with _________ reduces the incidence of _________ in infants in the U. S. a) iron; high blood pressure b) vitamin B12; diabetes c) calcium; cognitive deficits d) folic acid; neural tube defects Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy

51) Older women (>40 years of age) are at increased risk of having a baby born with: a) PKU. b) Down syndrome. c) fetal alcohol syndrome. d) All of these.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.3 Describe the factors that increase the risks of pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.3 Factors that Increase the Risks of Pregnancy

52) Down Syndrome is: a) due to a chromosomal abnormality.

b) caused by poor folate intake early in pregnancy. c) strongly related to drinking alcohol during pregnancy. d) the result of exposure to radiation (x-rays) during the first trimester of pregnancy.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.3 Describe the factors that increase the risks of pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.3 Factors that Increase the Risks of Pregnancy 53) The hormonal reflex triggered by the infant’s suckling that causes milk to be released from the milk ducts is called the _________ reflex. a) trickle down b) flow rate c) let down d) rooting Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.4 Understand the physiology and maternal nutrient needs of lactation.

Section Reference: Section 14.4 Lactation 54) The term which describes the inability of a child’s growth to keep up with normal growth curves is: a) let-down. b) failure to thrive. c) small-for-gestational age. d) delay syndrome Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.5 Contrast the nutrient and micronutrient needs of newborns with those of adults.

Section Reference: Section 14.5 The Nutritional Needs of Infancy

55) Colic is a term used to describe: a) delayed growth patterns during infancy.

b) inconsolable crying believed to be due to pain from gas buildup in the gastrointestinal tract or immaturity of the central nervous system. c) infants who are developmentally and physically slow. d) infants who are unable to latch onto a nipple and suck.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.6 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of breastfeeding and bottle-feeding.

Section Reference: Section 14.6 Feeding the Newborn

56) Which statement best describes dietary fat requirements during pregnancy? a) Extra fat is required to provide fuel for the developing fetus. b) Fat should make up 45% of the kcalories consumed. c) Total fat does not need to increase, however, there is an increased requirement for essential fatty acids. d) Fish oil supplements are highly recommended.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy

57) Which statement about water requirements during pregnancy is FALSE? a) A pregnant woman needs to drink an additional 4 glasses of water per day. b) Extra water intake supports the needs of the fetus. c) More water is required to provide for the amniotic fluid. d) Higher water requirements support the increase in blood volume.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy

58) To supply the developing fetus with the calcium required for teeth and bones, pregnant women should: a) take 1200 mg of supplemental calcium per day. b) consume an additional 2 servings of dairy products daily. c) consume the same amount of calcium that is recommended for non-pregnant women. d) increase calcium intake by 600 mg/day.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy

59) Which statement is FALSE regarding vitamin D during pregnancy? a) African-Americans have a higher percentage of deficiency. b) Dietary requirements increase by 50%. c) Vitamin D is important to support absorption of dietary calcium. d) 70% of pregnant women have low vitamin D levels.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy

60) Which statement about the use of cocaine during pregnancy is FALSE? a) The effects of cocaine are limited to the very early life of the infant. b) Cocaine reduces the flow of oxygen and nutrients to the fetus. c) Cocaine increases the risk of miscarriage. d) Cocaine negatively impacts attention span and learning throughout childhood.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.3 Describe the factors that increase the risks of pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.3 Factors that Increase the Risks of Pregnancy

Question Type: Essay

61) Differentiate between infants classified as premature, low birth weight, small-forgestational-age, and large-for-gestational-age.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy Solution: A premature baby is born before 37 weeks of gestation. Low birth weight is a baby born weight less than 5.5 lbs. A small-for-gestational-age infant is one born at term weighing less than 5.5 lbs. A large-for-gestational-age infant is one born at term weighing more than 8.8 lbs.

62) Describe the function of the placenta during pregnancy.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy Solution: The placenta is a network of blood vessels and tissues that allows nutrients and oxygen to be transferred from mother to fetus and waste products to be transferred from the fetus to the mother’s blood for elimination. The placenta also secretes hormones necessary to maintain pregnancy.

63) Describe weight gain recommendations for the following pregnant women: A) women within an ideal weight range B) women below an ideal weight range C) women exceeding an ideal weight range Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy Solution: Women within an ideal weight range should gain 25-35 lbs. Women below an ideal weight range should gain up to 40 lbs. Women exceeding an ideal weight range should gain 15-25 lbs.

64) Physiological changes during pregnancy can cause minor digestive discomforts (morning sickness, heartburn and constipation). Explain why each of these discomforts may occur and how they may be alleviated.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy Solution: Morning sickness generally affects women during the first few months of pregnancy and is believed to be related to hormonal changes of pregnancy. Symptoms may be alleviated by eating small frequent snacks of dry starchy foods, such as plain crackers or bread. Heartburn is caused by stomach acid leaking up into the esophagus. It too is a result of hormonal changes as well as the growing baby crowding the stomach.

Heartburn can be reduced by avoiding caffeine, chocolate, high-fat foods, fried foods, rich desserts, spicy foods, and other foods/drinks known to make symptoms worse.

Eating small meals, sitting up after eating, limiting food consumption before bedtime, and sleeping with extra pillows are all recommended. Constipation too is caused by pregnancy-related hormones and is a frequent complaint during pregnancy. Regular physical activity and consuming plenty of water, fruits, and vegetables are recommended.

65) For each of the following nutrients, explain the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy that increase the requirement for that nutrient.

A) iron B) zinc C) folate Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy Solution: Iron – Needs are high during pregnancy to allow for synthesis of hemoglobin and other iron-containing proteins in both the maternal and fetal tissues. Zinc – Needs are increased during pregnancy due to its essential role in growth and development. Zinc is involved in the synthesis and function of DNA and RNA and in the synthesis of proteins. Folate – Needs are high during pregnancy to allow for synthesis of DNA and cell division. Folate is essential as cells multiply to form the placenta, expand maternal blood, and allow for fetal growth.

66) Explain how maternal age can influence pregnancy outcomes.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.3 Describe the factors that increase the risks of pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.3 Factors that Increase the Risks of Pregnancy Solution: Pregnancy after the age of 35 carries additional risks because the older woman is more likely to start pregnancy with a pre-existing medical condition. Gestational diabetes, pregnancy-induced hypertension, and other complications are more common in older women. There is also a higher incidence of low-birth-weight deliveries and chromosomal abnormalities (e.g. Down syndrome).

67) Summarize the health benefits for the mother and for the infant associated with breastfeeding.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.4 Understand the physiology and maternal nutrient needs of lactation.

Section Reference: Section 14.4 Lactation Solution: Infant – Breast milk meets the unique nutritional needs of the newborn, requires no special preparation, and the amount available varies with demand. Breast milk has beneficial effects on the GI tract, is easily digested, and reduces risk of infection in the newborn. Mother – Breastfeeding is a relaxing and enjoyable experience for most women. It is also convenient, inexpensive, and has immunological and physiological benefits for both mother and child.

68) Summarize the nutrient recommendations during pregnancy for each of the following nutrients. a) protein b) calcium c) iron d) folate Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy Solution: Protein – The RDA is increased to meet needs as protein is essential for formation and growth of new cells. An additional 25 grams, or 1.1 grams per kilogram of body weight, are recommended for the second and third trimesters of the pregnancy.

Calcium – The AI for calcium does not change, pregnant women 19-years-of-age and older need 1000 mg/day. Iron – Iron needs are higher during pregnancy. The RDA for iron during pregnancy is 27 mg/day. Folate – A woman who is planning on becoming pregnant should consume 400 ug/day of synthetic folate. Needs are increased to 600 ug/day during pregnancy.

69) Describe the impact of drinking alcohol, smoking cigarettes, and caffeine consumption during pregnancy on the growth and development of the unborn child.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 14.3 Describe the factors that increase the risks of pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.3 Factors that Increase the Risks of Pregnancy Solution: Consuming large amounts of caffeine during pregnancy may increase risk for miscarriage and delivering a low-birth weight baby. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy is one of the leading causes of preventable birth defects. Alcohol is particularly damaging to the central nervous system. Smoking cigarettes during pregnancy affects the baby both during the pregnancy and throughout life. Compounds in tobacco smoke bind to hemoglobin and reduce oxygen delivery to fetal tissues.

70) Compare the nutrient/kcaloric needs of a woman during pregnancy and the nutrient/kcaloric needs of a woman who is breastfeeding a newborn.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy Solution: Pregnancy – During the first trimester of pregnancy, energy needs do not change significantly. During the second and third trimester of pregnancy however, energy needs are increased by 340-450 kcals/day. An additional 25 grams of protein per day are needed then as well. Fluid needs are also increased due to changes in maternal blood volume. Lactation - A breastfeeding mother needs an additional 330-400 kcals/day.

Protein needs are increased by 25 grams per day. The RDA for carbohydrates and AIs for essential fatty acids are also higher during lactation. A breastfeeding mother needs to be well-hydrated as approximately 2.5 to 3.75 cups of milk is produced per day.

71) How can a woman best ensure that her pregnancy will be full-term and that her baby will have a healthy birth weight? Explain how lifestyle can influence the health of an unborn child.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy Solution: To ensure that her pregnancy will be full-term and that her baby will have a healthy birth weight, a woman should be at a healthy body weight prior to conception, eat a well-balanced diet rich in protein, vitamins, minerals, and water. She should engage in regular physical activity, limit her caffeine consumption, and avoid alcohol and drugs.

The woman should also have a healthy family and friend support unit.

72) Which organ is essential for secreting hormones, transferring nutrients and oxygen from the mother’s blood to the fetus, and removing waste?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy Solution: Placenta

73) What is responsible for the greatest proportion of maternal weight gain during pregnancy?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy Solution: The average newborn baby is 7-8 lbs. Maternal fat stores can increase 4-11 lbs during the pregnancy. As such, either the fetus or maternal fat stores contribute most significantly to weight gain.

74) How does gaining TOO LITTLE weight during pregnancy affect fetal birth weight?

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.1 Discuss prenatal growth and development as well as the physical changes, discomforts, and complications that occur during pregnancy.

Section Reference: Section 14.1 The Physiology of Pregnancy Solution: Gaining less than 15 lbs during pregnancy significantly increases the risk of delivering a low-birth weight baby. The incidence is close to 7.5%, as compared to 2-3% in women gaining 25-35 lbs (the recommendation for normal weight women).

75) For which nutrients is there no increase in need for either pregnant or lactating women?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 14.2 Compare nutrient intake and needs during pregnancy with those of a nonpregnant woman.

Section Reference: Section 14.2 The Nutrition Needs of Pregnancy Solution: There is no change in need for Vitamin D, Vitamin K, Calcium, and Phosphorus. For several of these nutrients, the percent absorbed from the GI tract increases.

76) How much should a baby boy weigh at 15 months of age if they are at the 50th percentile of growth as established by the CDC? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 14.5 Contrast the nutrient and micronutrient needs of newborns with those of adults.

Section Reference: Section 14.5 The Nutritional Needs of Infancy Solution: A baby boy at the 50th percentile of growth should weigh about 24 lbs at 15 months of age.

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 15

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Which statement about the diets of American children is correct? a) Most do not get enough sodium. b) Most do not get enough essential fats. c) Most get too much saturated fat. d) Most get too much calcium.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 15.1 Discuss how eating patterns learned in childhood can affect long-term health.

Section Reference: Section 15.1 Starting Right for a Healthy Life

2) From a nutritional perspective, as the typical American child gets older, the quality of the diet: a) improves. b) improves by consuming fewer sugars, but worsens by consuming more fat. c) worsens as they eat less fruit and drink less milk. d) worsens as they eat less meat.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 15.1 Discuss how eating patterns learned in childhood can affect long-term health.

Section Reference: Section 15.1 Starting Right for a Healthy Life 3) Over the last 25 years, children’s intake of _________ has declined. a) cheese b) fruits c) juices d) milk

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.1 Discuss how eating patterns learned in childhood can affect long-term health.

Section Reference: Section 15.1 Starting Right for a Healthy Life 4) Over the last 25 years, children’s intake of ________________ has increased. a) sweetened beverages b) vegetables c) eggs d) grains Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.1 Discuss how eating patterns learned in childhood can affect long-term health.

Section Reference: Section 15.1 Starting Right for a Healthy Life

5) All of the following contribute to the increase in energy consumption in American children over the last 25 years EXCEPT: a) eating more meals away from home. b) larger portion sizes. c) more snacking. d) consumption of low fat diets, which do not provide satiety, so children eat more.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.1 Discuss how eating patterns learned in childhood can affect long-term health.

Section Reference: Section 15.1 Starting Right for a Healthy Life

6) Over the last 25 years child and adolescent obesity rates have: a) increased to ~32%. b) increased to ~17%. c) declined. d) stayed the same.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 15.1 Discuss how eating patterns learned in childhood can affect long-term health.

Section Reference: Section 15.1 Starting Right for a Healthy Life

7) Issues faced by obese children include all of the following EXCEPT: a) shorter terminal height. b) diabetes. c) discrimination. d) hypertension.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.1 Discuss how eating patterns learned in childhood can affect long-term health.

Section Reference: Section 15.1 Starting Right for a Healthy Life

8) Which statement about type 2 diabetes is FALSE? a) Type 2 diabetes never occurs in people under 40. b) Type 2 diabetes progresses in severity the longer an individual has it. c) Little is known about type 2 diabetes in children. d) The risk of type 2 diabetes is reduced by keeping weight in the normal range and maintaining an active lifestyle.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 15.1 Discuss how eating patterns learned in childhood can affect long-term health.

Section Reference: Section 15.1 Starting Right for a Healthy Life

9) Which statement about heart disease risk in children is true? a) Elevated cholesterol during childhood is associated with higher death rates from heart disease in adulthood. b) The recommended level for blood cholesterol in children is 100 mg/100 ml. c) Children’s blood cholesterol is not considered high until it is 240 mg/ 100 ml. d) To avoid heart diseases, most fats in the diet should come from dairy products.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.1 Discuss how eating patterns learned in childhood can affect long-term health.

Section Reference: Section 15.1 Starting Right for a Healthy Life

10) Which statement about childhood eating patterns is FALSE? a) Much of what we choose to eat as adults depends on what we learned to eat as children. b) Children’s eating habits will mirror those of their caregivers. c) Since children are sensitive to strong flavors, it is better to wait until they are 8 or 9 years old to try and establish good eating habits. d) Childhood eating habits can affect how healthy people will be as they age.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.1 Discuss how eating patterns learned in childhood can affect long-term health.

Section Reference: Section 15.1 Starting Right for a Healthy Life

11) Which food is most appropriate for a 5-month-old infant? a) Whole cow’s milk b) Iron-fortified infant rice cereal c) Raw carrots d) Eggs Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

12) Which of the following are NOT ways in which the labels on foods intended for children under the age of 2 are different from other food labels? a) Much of the information on fat is not included b) Serving sizes are based on servings appropriate for small children

c) Health claims are largely excluded d) Iron is not listed to discourage parents from limiting it Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

13) Which statement about lactose intolerance is correct? a) It is a food allergy. b) It is an allergic reaction to milk proteins. c) It as classified as a food intolerance. d) All of these are correct.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

14) ___________________ should not be served to children less than a year old because it/they may contain spores of Clostridium botulinum? a) Eggs b) Fresh fruits such as cherries and apricots c) Whole cow’s milk d) Honey Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

15) A food allergy involves a reaction between an allergen and: a) digestive enzymes. b) the endocrine system.

c) the immune system. d) the respiratory system.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

16) Food allergies: a) are more common in breastfed babies than formula fed babies. b) can result when incompletely digested proteins are absorbed through the intestine and enters the lymph and/or bloodstream. c) tend to be more common in older children than in infants. d) are not serious unless they occur in children over the age of 6.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children 17) An “elimination diet” can be used to detect: a) foods that children like and dislike. b) foods that cause weight gain in children. c) the cause of a food allergy. d) foods that cause children to wake up during the night.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

18) Which of the following can help to decrease the risk of developing a food allergy? a) Breast feeding b) Formula feeding

c) Early introduction of solid foods (around 2 months of age) d) Positioning infants on their backs while sleeping Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

19) As children grow, their energy and protein requirements per unit of body weight: a) increase. b) decrease. c) stays about the same. d) This requirement is independent of growth.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

20) Which of the following is a TRUE statement? a) The rate of growth in the second year of infant life is greater than the rate of growth during the first year of life. b) Growth charts are used to determine an infant’s energy requirements. c) Growth charts are used to predict ultimate adult weight and height of infants. d) Clinicians use growth charts to compare an infant’s growth to standard growth patterns.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

21) Young infants are at increased risk of developing allergies as compared to older children because:

a) they are unable to produce adequate amounts of digestive enzymes. b) the kidneys have not matured and they are unable to hydrolyze proteins. c) the lining of the intestine is more permeable to large molecules. d) their stomach is structured differently, allowing more undigested nutrients to be absorbed through the gastric wall.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

22) Which of the following statements regarding iron in young children is FALSE? a) Children between 4 and 8-years-of-age need more iron than adult men. b) Milk is an excellent source of iron. c) Iron supplements may be prescribed for anemia. d) Iron deficiency can cause learning deficits and lower resistance to infection.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

23) Dietary supplements containing added ___________ have a high potential for toxicity in children. a) vitamin C b) iron c) protein d) calcium Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

24) School lunches must provide approximately _____ % of the RDA for protein, energy, vitamins A and C, iron and calcium. a) 10 b) 25 c) 33 d) 50 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

25) As compared to children that do eat breakfast, those that do NOT: a) have less emotional and behavioral problems. b) are more likely to be hyperactive. c) are less likely to be absent or tardy. d) perform better academically.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

26) A food jag is: a) when a child begins to consume new foods regularly. b) a contaminant found in some processed foods. c) an allergic reaction. d) a period when a child will eat only one food and nothing else.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

27) Which statement about eating environment is correct? a) Caregivers should sit with children and eat what they eat. b) Small children should eat before adults. c) Children should watch television while they eat, to distract them from the food items that they don’t like. d) Children should be limited in the amount of time they have to eat so they don’t get in the habit of dawdling.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

28) Consuming adequate __________ can help to decrease dental caries. a) calcium b) iron c) zinc d) fluoride Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 15.3 Describe examples of how environment can influence children’s nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.3 Nutrition and Health Concerns in Children

29) Lead poisoning is more dangerous for children than adults because: a) children do not excrete it as efficiently. b) children are closer to the sources of lead since they are shorter. c) children absorb lead more efficiently. d) All of these are correct.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.3 Describe examples of how environment can influence children’s nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.3 Nutrition and Health Concerns in Children

30) Lead accumulates in all of the following organs EXCEPT the: a) bones. b) stomach. c) brain. d) kidneys.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.3 Describe examples of how environment can influence children’s nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.3 Nutrition and Health Concerns in Children

31) Lead exposure causes which of the following? a) Iron-deficiency anemia b) Nervous system dysfunction c) Learning disabilities in children d) All of these Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 15.3 Describe examples of how environment can influence children’s nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.3 Nutrition and Health Concerns in Children

32) The number of young children with elevated blood lead levels has changed from >80% in the late 1970s to approximately what percentage by 1999-2002? a) 90%. b) 53%. c) 10% d) <1% Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.3 Describe examples of how environment can influence children’s nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.3 Nutrition and Health Concerns in Children

33) Low income children are more likely to have elevated levels of lead in their blood because: a) they are more likely to live in older buildings with lead paint. b) they have lower IQs. c) they are less likely to have their blood levels checked. d) their parents do not provide proper guidance.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.3 Describe examples of how environment can influence children’s nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.3 Nutrition and Health Concerns in Children

34) The period during which an individual undergoes physical changes that result in sexual maturity is called: a) senescence. b) puberty. c) menopause. d) menarche.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 15.4 Discuss how sexual maturation affects nutrient requirements in adolescents and how to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 15.4 Adolescents

35) Menarche refers to: a) the onset of menstruation. b) a period in life characterized by rapid growth. c) the development of secondary sex characteristics. d) irregularities in the menstrual cycle.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 15.4 Discuss how sexual maturation affects nutrient requirements in adolescents and how to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 15.4 Adolescents

36) For teens, protein requirements reach the adult recommendation by what age? a) 13 b) 15 c) 17 d) 19 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.4 Discuss how sexual maturation affects nutrient requirements in adolescents and how to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 15.4 Adolescents

37) Snacks provide typical teens with about _______ % of their energy intake. a) 10 b) 25 c) 33 d) 50 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.4 Discuss how sexual maturation affects nutrient requirements in adolescents and how to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 15.4 Adolescents

38) Puberty is associated with: a) changes in body composition. b) maturation. c) growth. d) All of these.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 15.4 Discuss how sexual maturation affects nutrient requirements in adolescents and how to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 15.4 Adolescents

39) Of the following, the strongest relationship exists between childhood obesity and: a) skipping breakfast. b) the amount of time children watch television. c) birth order (oldest versus youngest). d) participation in the school lunch program.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.3 Describe examples of how environment can influence children’s nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.3 Nutrition and Health Concerns in Children

40) The adolescent growth spurt: a) occurs earlier in females than males. b) occurs before sexual development. c) is associated with an overall decrease in body fat in females. d) All of these are true.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.4 Discuss how sexual maturation affects nutrient requirements in adolescents and how to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 15.4 Adolescents

41) The rate of growth (increase in weight/height per year): a) can be used to predict whether a child will be obese as an adult. b) is slower during childhood (> age 1) compared to infancy (< age 1). c) is not a good indicator of nutrient intake. d) corresponds to birth weight; the higher the birth weight, the faster the rate of growth.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

42) A 1-year-old child requires __________ protein per kilogram of body weight than a 5- year-old child. a) less b) about the same amount of c) more d) This requirement is based on size but not age Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

43) Which of the following is a TRUE statement? a) Sugar consumption is the most common cause of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder in children. b) Sugar is a common food allergen. c) High sugar diet contributes to dental caries. d) All of these are true statements.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.3 Describe examples of how environment can influence children’s nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.3 Nutrition and Health Concerns in Children

44) The best approach to encourage a child to try new foods is for a parent to: a) withhold the child’s favorite food until they eat the new food. b) pay the child $0 .25 per bite. c) offer the child the food, but not force them to try it. d) reward the child for trying the new food with an extra helping of dessert Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

45) Feeding problems (e.g. not willing to try new foods) that may develop during the preschool years should be viewed by parents as: a) normal/typical behavior for children that age. b) delayed motor skill development. c) a sign of impending food allergies. d) a sign of a serious metabolic disorder.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

46) Which of the following is a TRUE statement? a) Obesity is uncommon in American children. b) Obese children should be put on a very low-kcal diet (<500 kcal/day) c) Children in the 10th percentile or below on growth charts are classified as obese. d) Obese children are more likely to develop the chronic diseases common in obese adults (type 2 diabetes, high blood cholesterol, high blood pressure).

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.3 Describe examples of how environment can influence children’s nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.3 Nutrition and Health Concerns in Children

47) Which of the following foods should not be given to young children (< 1 yr) because of the risk of choking? a) Carrots b) Hot dogs c) Grapes d) All of these should be avoided.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

48) Which of the following is NOT age-appropriate for a 9-month-old infant? a) Bananas b) Cheerios c) Whole cow’s milk d) Crackers Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

49) Which of the following is an example of a food intolerance? a) Inability to digest lactose causing diarrhea and cramping b) A food phobia caused by an extreme dislike of a food c) The removal of certain foods from foodservice menus to observe religious holidays d) None of these Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

50) A food jag is: a) a period when children eat only certain foods and nothing else. b) a dance that children do when they are hungry. c) the inability to digest certain foods due to insufficient digestive enzymes. d) a form of anorexia observed in children.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

51) Which of the following is TRUE regarding attention deficit hyperactive disorder? a) It is an example of a food intolerance. b) It is caused by excess sugar in the diet. c) It is a type of food allergy. d) It is characterized by a short attention span and a high level of activity.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.3 Describe examples of how environment can influence children’s nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.3 Nutrition and Health Concerns in Children

52) Iron requirements increase during adolescence because of the: a) expansion of blood volume and increase in muscle mass. b) increases in length and mass of major bones in the legs and arms. c) development of the immune system. d) decreased ability to store iron.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.4 Discuss how sexual maturation affects nutrient requirements in adolescents and how to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 15.4 Adolescents

53) A popular dietary supplement taken by adolescent athletes to improve performance is: a) creatine. b) omega-3 fatty acids. c) ginkgo biloba. d) isoflavones.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.5 Describe how the various special teenager concerns can affect their nutrition and overall health.

Section Reference: Section 15.5 Special Concerns of Teenagers

54) Which of the following nutrients is most likely to be deficient in a vegetarian diet? a) Iron b) Complex carbohydrates c) Vitamin C d) Potassium Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.5 Describe how the various special teenager concerns can affect their nutrition and overall health.

Section Reference: Section 15.5 Special Concerns of Teenagers

55) Which statement about vegetarians is FALSE? a) Vegetarians are more likely to get sufficient fruits and vegetables than nonvegetarians. b) Vegetarian diets are automatically healthy since they only contain healthy foods. c) Vegetarian diets must be carefully planned. d) A well planned vegetarian diet can meet all the nutrient needs of children.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.5 Describe how the various special teenager concerns can affect their nutrition and overall health.

Section Reference: Section 15.5 Special Concerns of Teenagers

56) Which of the following statements about smoking is FALSE? a) Smoking increases the risk of heart disease and lung cancer. b) Many teens start smoking to promote weight loss. c) Smokers have an increased requirement for vitamin C. d) It has been shown that smokers do not gain weight in the first year after quitting.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.5 Describe how the various special teenager concerns can affect their nutrition and overall health.

Section Reference: Section 15.5 Special Concerns of Teenagers

Question Type: Essay

57) Differentiate between a food intolerance and a food allergy.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children Solution: A food intolerance generally involves a response from the gastrointestinal tract which results in a problem in the appropriate digestion of a particular food. A food allergy is a response of the body due to an antigen in the food causing an immune response resulting in hives, swelling of tissues or a more serious anaphylactic response.

58) Describe the growth patterns during infancy, childhood and adolescence for both males and females.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake. /15.4 Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children/15.4 Solution: During infancy, growth occurs very quickly up to 1 year and then tapers off by 2 years. There is little difference between males and females in growth patterns until adolescence. During childhood, there is a slow but steady growth in height, but not much weight gain. At adolescence, males and females each have growth spurts, with the ultimate result that males have more lean mass and females have more adipose tissue at the conclusion. The adolescent growth spurt typically occurs earlier in girls.

59) What growth parameters are used to assess nutritional status in children? How do these parameters change in response to inadequate energy intake?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children

Solution: Typically, growth parameters are compared to the standard patterns supplied by growth charts. For infants, charts are available to monitor weight-for-age, length-for-age and head circumference-for-age. For children over 2, until the adolescent years, BMI charts are used as BMI-for-age growth charts. All of these are used to determine over and under-weight children. With inadequate energy intake, all of the parameters identified above would be low-for-age.

60) Describe how feeding practices and nutritional requirements change from infancy to childhood.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children Solution: During early infancy, the main emphasis is on appropriate breast-feeding, while during the latter part of the first year of life, the emphasis is in transitioning the infant to foods that are appropriate and will not cause allergic responses or provide choking hazards. During childhood, the main concern is trying to provide a variety of foods for children and a setting that will encourage appropriate eating behavior. In addition, exercise needs to be emphasized so that obesity does not present as a problem.

61) Explain why infants are at greater risk of developing food allergies compared to older children.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children Solution: Infants are at greater risk for developing food allergies because their small intestine allows larger peptides to enter into the body, which will result in their immune systems producing antibodies to these allergens. In the older child, the maturity of the small intestine does not allow the passage of these partially digested proteins into the blood.

62) Describe the adolescent growth spurt and how it influences nutrient requirements for calcium, energy, iron, and zinc.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 15.4 Discuss how sexual maturation affects nutrient requirements in adolescents and how to meet them.

Section Reference: Section 15.4 Adolescents Solution: While energy needs surpass even those of a mature adult of similar stature, protein needs per kg body weight are about the same as an adult by the age of 19. While males do require a larger amount of iron for various purposes, they usually can obtain it from dietary sources; however, females may have to take supplements because their needs for body iron as well as menstrual losses are greater than their dietary intake. Both adolescent boys and girls generally do not consume enough calcium because the requirement is so great for building bone. Zinc is generally adequate in females, while there is often inadequate intake in males, due to greater needs.

63) Summarize the current guidelines and recommendations for the treatment of childhood obesity?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.3 Describe examples of how environment can influence children’s nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.3 Nutrition and Health Concerns in Children Solution: In general, the plan is prevention-focused; however, treatment would include behavior change to reduce eating, the consumption of healthy foods to replace those with excessive fat and calories, and increasing activity.

64) What factors have contributed to the increased incidence of childhood obesity in the United States?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.3 Describe examples of how environment can influence children’s nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.3 Nutrition and Health Concerns in Children Solution: Several factors have been noted including excessive watching of television, substitution of juice drinks and carbonated sweetened beverages for milk and inactivity.

65) What are limitations associated with growth charts in terms of assessing growth (weight and height) in children?

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children Solution: The growth charts represent averages of specific populations of children.

Children who are not part of that population may not conform to that particular growth pattern.

66) Studies have found a positive relationship between hours spent watching television and obesity. How can television influence a child’s weight?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.3 Describe examples of how environment can influence children’s nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.3 Nutrition and Health Concerns in Children Solution: A child’s weight can be influenced in several ways by excessive television viewing. These include: lack of physical activity and encouragement of snacking behavior. In addition, indirectly, many of the commercial sponsors are advertising food sources that will encourage weight gain.

67) You have been asked by a local daycare center to develop a policy for daycare providers on feeding practices for young children (toddlers age 4-5). This policy should emphasize a positive environment that promotes sound eating habits in children.

Describe your top five feeding priorities.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 15.2 Explain the nutrient needs of infants and children and why growth is the best indicator of nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.2 Nourishing Infants, Toddlers, and Young Children Solution: My feeding priorities include the following: 1) emphasize a variety of foods, 2) do not serve an abundance of juice beverages or sweetened soft drinks, 3) eat with the children so that they develop a positive role model, 4) emphasize fruits, vegetables and whole grains, and 5) encourage exercise for the children.

68) What criteria is used to assess weight in children? What are the recommended approaches for weight management in obese children? What advice do you have for parents who are concerned about their child’s weight?

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 15.3 Describe examples of how environment can influence children’s nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.3 Nutrition and Health Concerns in Children Solution: Usually the BMI-for-age chart is used to assess weight in children.

Recommendations include changing behavior to discourage passive activity, switching food intake from calorie dense foods to those that are less calorie dense, and discourage snacking behavior. For parents that express a concern about a possibly overweight child, my advice would be to be a good role model at home by eating fresh fruits, fresh vegetables and whole grain foods, do more family activities that emphasize activity and do not encourage television viewing or other passive activities in excess.

69) Type 2 diabetes typically is a condition that affects primarily adults. What changes/factors in the U.S. have contributed to the rise in type 2 diabetes among America’s youth? What preventative measures can be taken?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.3 Describe examples of how environment can influence children’s nutrient intake.

Section Reference: Section 15.3 Nutrition and Health Concerns in Children Solution: Children develop eating patterns at a very young age. In contemporary U.S. society, children are consuming large amounts of calories compared to their needs. Type 2 diabetes is largely a reflection of this problem. Preventative measures would include more emphasis on eating smaller portion sizes of food and on nutrient-dense rather than energy-dense choices. This can be dealt with by legislation concerning school meals as well as commercial fast-food establishments to conform to more appropriate portion sizes and appropriate choices.

70) What are the risks of taking performance enhancement drugs to build muscle mass for adolescents?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 15.5 Describe how the various special teenager concerns can affect their nutrition and overall health.

Section Reference: Section 15.5 Special Concerns of Teenagers Solution: Many athletes experiment with anabolic steroids and creatine. While it is clear that steroids can cause severe short and long-term damage to both genders including

changes in genitals as well as cancer risk, so far no serious risk has been shown for creatine use.

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 16

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) The LEAST significant factor contributing to the rate of aging is: a) genetics (i.e. family history). b) environment. c) gender. d) lifestyle choices.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 16.1 Define the term aging and how it affects Americans’ life expectancy and health.

Section Reference: Section 16.1 What Is Aging?

2) The maximum age to which a human can live is defined as: a) life expectancy. b) life span. c) life tendency. d) compression of morbidity.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.1 Define the term aging and how it affects Americans’ life expectancy and health.

Section Reference: Section 16.1 What Is Aging?

3) By 2030, it is projected that nearly _____ % of the US population will be over 65. a) 5 b) 10 c) 20 d) 30 Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.1 Define the term aging and how it affects Americans’ life expectancy and health.

Section Reference: Section 16.1 What Is Aging?

4) “Programmed cell death” theorizes that: a) genes determine the life span of cells; aging occurs as cells die. b) aging occurs when cells become damaged, due to wear and tear in the body. c) cells are programmed to begin emitting toxins, which cause the body to age. d) cell deaths are influenced by the presence of free radicals.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.2 Discuss factors that contribute to the aging process.

Section Reference: Section 16.2 What Causes Aging?

5) Energy restriction has been shown to increase the life span of all of the following EXCEPT: a) worms. b) humans. c) rodents. d) insects.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.1 Define the term aging and how it affects Americans’ life expectancy and health.

Section Reference: Section 16.1 What Is Aging?

6) Energy restriction may increase life span by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT: a) increasing the inflammatory response of the immune system. b) causing low level stress and thus enhancing the animal’s coping mechanisms. c) reducing blood glucose and insulin levels. d) limiting oxidative damage.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.1 Define the term aging and how it affects Americans’ life expectancy and health.

Section Reference: Section 16.1 What Is Aging?

7) What is the average healthy life span of a person living in the United States? a) 59 years b) 63 years c) 70 years d) 74 years Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.1 Define the term aging and how it affects Americans’ life expectancy and health.

Section Reference: Section 16.1 What Is Aging?

8) Postponing the onset of chronic or debilitating disease in an older population is termed: a) chronic disease deferral. b) compression of morbidity. c) mortality extension. d) suspended morbidity.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 16.1 Define the term aging and how it affects Americans’ life expectancy and health.

Section Reference: Section 16.1 What Is Aging?

9) Which statement about aging is FALSE? a) Mechanisms of aging are thought to be fully understood. b) As aging occurs, the ability of the organism to maintain homeostasis declines. c) As organisms age, the efficiency of cellular functions decreases. d) The number of cells decreases during aging.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.1 Define the term aging and how it affects Americans’ life expectancy and health.

Section Reference: Section 16.1 What Is Aging?

10) Which of the following supports the “programmed cell death” hypothesis? a) Cells grown in the laboratory will divide a defined number of times before they die. b) When cells continue dividing, organ function is compromised. c) Cells from older individuals will divide more times than those from younger people. d) Cells from longer lived species will divide fewer times.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.1 Define the term aging and how it affects Americans’ life expectancy and health.

Section Reference: Section 16.1 What Is Aging?

11) The “wear and tear” hypothesis proposes that aging: a) is the result of an accumulation of cellular damage. b) occurs when cell numbers decline, causing damage to remaining cells. c) results from metabolic abnormalities. d) is a result of genetically determined organ breakdown.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.1 Define the term aging and how it affects Americans’ life expectancy and health.

Section Reference: Section 16.1 What Is Aging?

12) During aging, which of the following is a possible source of cell damage? a) Errors in DNA synthesis b) Free radicals c) Elevated glucose levels d) All of these Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.1 Define the term aging and how it affects Americans’ life expectancy and health.

Section Reference: Section 16.1 What Is Aging?

13) In older adults, energy expenditure is less because BMR decreases ______% every decade of life after age 20. a) 0.5-1 b) 2-3 c) 3-5 d) 5-10 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

14) The RDA for protein in older adults is _______, as compared to younger adults. a) lower b) the same c) higher d) not specifically determined Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

15) The recommendations for fat intake in older adults: a) reflect their decreased ability to digest and absorb it. b) reflect their decreased ability to metabolize fat. c) are very strict because of their decreased energy requirement. d) are the same as for younger adults.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

16) A diet with adequate fiber can help prevent and manage all of the following EXCEPT: a) arthritis. b) diabetes. c) cardiovascular disease. d) obesity.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

17) The RDA for vitamin B6 is increased in older adults because: a) inflammation of the stomach lining reduces absorption. b) it reduces damage of cells. c) higher intakes are needed to maintain the same functional levels. d) loss of intestinal enzymes reduces absorption.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

18) The requirement for ___________ decreases in women older than 50. a) vitamin D b) calcium c) magnesium d) iron Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

19) What proportion of older adults consumes the recommended 5 servings of fruits and vegetables per day? a) 12% b) 28% c) 35% d) 52% Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

20) Which of the following does NOT contribute to iron-deficiency anemia in older adults? a) An increase in the requirement b) Low stomach acid c) Antacid use d) Chronic blood loss Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

21) Inadequate zinc status in older adults can cause which of the following? a) Reduced immune function b) Reduced wound healing c) Loss of taste acuity d) All of these Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

22) ____________________ describes a condition that occurs when a person is having difficulty acquiring enough food to meet his/her needs. a) Food insecurity b) Food sensitivity c) Malnutrition d) Food-seeking immobility Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

23) Which of the following is NOT part of the DETERMINE checklist? a) Questions about dental health; e.g. can the person chew properly? b) Asking about money; e.g. is buying nutritious food a problem? c) Questions regarding health insurance; e.g. are medical costs covered? d) Asking about a person’s social situation; e.g. do they eat alone?

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 16.5 Explain how exercise and a nutritious diet affect the degenerative changes of aging.

Section Reference: Section 16.5 Keeping Older Adults Healthy 24) The “reserve capacity” of an organ or organ system is influenced MOST by: a) age. b) body size. c) amount of sleep. d) diet.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.2 Discuss factors that contribute to the aging process.

Section Reference: Section 16.2 What Causes Aging?

25) Diets high in ________________ may slow or prevent development of macular degeneration and cataracts. a) antioxidants b) complex carbohydrates c) animal protein d) vitamin B12 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

26) Aging contributes to all of the following EXCEPT: a) changes in the abilities to taste and smell. b) changes in immune function. c) increased migraine headaches. d) periodontal disease or dental problems.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

27) Decreased saliva production in older adults may cause all of the following EXCEPT: a) making swallowing more difficult. b) decreasing the taste of food. c) increasing the likelihood of periodontal disease d) increasing susceptibility to viral infection.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

28) More than ____% of elderly patients in nursing homes and hospitals suffer from constipation. a) 26 b) 34 c) 56 d) 75 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

29) Which statement about body weight and composition in older adults is FALSE? a) Weight loss in the elderly should emphasize the prevention of muscle and bone mass. b) Low BMI is associated with a higher risk of mortality. c) Body fat tends to decrease as people age. d) Obesity rates have increased in the elderly over the past two decades.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

30) Sarcopenia is defined as: a) the increase of abdominal fat that occurs with age. b) the decrease of fat on hips and thighs that occurs with age. c) the decrease of muscle mass and strength that occurs with age. d) the gains in lean body mass that occur when elderly people perform resistance exercise.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

31) Which statement about menopause is FALSE? a) It slows the rate of bone breakdown. b) Menopause decreases the risk of breast cancer. c) It increases the risk of heart disease. d) Menopause causes skin changes.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

32) Atrophic gastritis interferes with absorption of all of the following EXCEPT: a) calcium. b) iron. c) vitamin B12. d) vitamin C. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

33) Which of the following is the LEAST preferred way for individuals to prevent constipation? a) Take daily laxatives b) Increase fiber intake c) Increase fluid intake d) Maintain regular exercise Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

34) Which of the following changes in body composition naturally occur as a person ages past 50? a) Body fat increases, bone density decreases b) Muscle mass increases, body fat increases c) Muscle mass increases, bone density increases d) Body fat decreases, muscles mass decreases Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

35) A decrease in the hormone melatonin is most likely to result in: a) a decline in the sense of taste. b) decreased appetite. c) disrupted sleep patterns. d) hair loss.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

36) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding menopause? a) After menopause, a woman’s risk of heart disease increases. b) Menopause decreases a woman’s risk of breast cancer. c) After menopause, a woman’s risk of osteoporosis decreases. d) Menopause has been associated with a change in body composition.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

37) Dementia, or diminished mental state, is LEAST likely to be associated with: a) alcoholism. b) Alzheimer’s disease. c) strokes. d) vitamin C intake levels.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition 38) Which is FALSE regarding Alzheimer’s disease? a) Aluminum accumulates in the brains of affected individuals. b) Diets high in meat and full-fat dairy foods decrease the risk. c) Antioxidants may prevent or delay disease progression. d) Alzheimer’s patients show an accumulation of an abnormal protein in the brain.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

39) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the use of medications in the elderly? a) Mineral oil-based laxatives increase absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. b) Over-the-counter medications can interfere with the action of prescription drugs. c) Prolonged use of some antacids can contribute to increased bone loss. d) Prescription and over-the-counter drugs can interfere with nutrient absorption.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

40) Among older adults, which is LEAST likely to be a problem? a) Adequate calorie intake b) Adequate fluid intake c) Adequate protein intake d) Adequate fat intake Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

41) The amount of energy needed for _________________ decreases as adults ages. a) physical activity b) digesting and absorbing food c) basal metabolism d) All of these Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

42) Meals and snacks for the elderly should include plenty of _____________ to prevent dehydration? a) grains b) fiber c) milk and dairy d) water Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

43) Of the following choices, which is MOST likely to result in a decreased risk of a fractured bone in an older person? a) Eating plenty of calcium-containing foods as a teenager b) Eating plenty of eggs and dairy foods after the age of 50 c) Taking a glucosamine supplement d) Limiting one’s exposure to the sun Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

44) The DETERMINE checklist is most likely used to: a) assess the risk of malnutrition in older adults. b) avoid adverse interactions between foods and prescription medications. c) decide if an older person should be hospitalized when they are ill. d) qualify recipients for food stamps.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.5 Explain how exercise and a nutritious diet affect the degenerative changes of aging.

Section Reference: Section 16.5 Keeping Older Adults Healthy

45) Which statement about immunity and the elderly is FALSE? a) The effectiveness of immunizations declines with age. b) The incidence of autoimmune disorders increases with age. c) High doses of zinc, copper and iron stimulate the immune system. d) The ability of the immune system to fight disease declines with age.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

46) Which of the following physical changes is NOT common in the elderly? a) Decreased capacity to smell b) Increased sensitivity to taste c) Increased incidence of blindness d) Decreased stomach acid Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

47) Vision problems in the elderly are LEAST likely to be linked to: a) diabetes. b) macular degeneration. c) accidents leading to injury to the eye. d) cataracts.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

48) What is NOT TRUE regarding body weight and composition, and exercise in older adults? a) After about age 70, the risks of regular exercise outweigh the benefits. b) Weight may stay constant during aging, but the proportion of muscle decreases. c) Stable weight usually is a sign of good health. d) Unintentional weight loss may be an indication of a health problem.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

50) During aging, insulin: a) secretion increases. b) contributes to the development of osteoporosis. c) secretion decreases and may be less effective at the cellular level. d) is responsible for decreased thyroid function.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

51) Factors contributing to a better quality of life and better nutrition for the elderly include all of the following EXCEPT: a) intact dentures or teeth. b) staying at home more due to decreased mobility. c) a support system consisting of family and caregivers. d) adequate income.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 16.5 Explain how exercise and a nutritious diet affect the degenerative changes of aging.

Section Reference: Section 16.5 Keeping Older Adults Healthy

52) Which disease or debilitating condition occurring in the elderly is LEAST likely to be related to nutrition? a) Dementia b) Diabetes c) Heart disease d) Osteoporosis Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

53) What condition most commonly causes decreased mobility in older adults? a) Hypertension b) Arthritis c) Diabetes d) Heart disease Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

54) Fluid balance may be a problem for elderly adults for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a) constipation. b) decrease in the thirst sensation. c) increased output of urine. d) limited access to water.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

55) Getting enough vitamin D may be a problem for older adults due to: a) drinking too much milk. b) drinking carbonated beverages with artificial sweetener. c) taking multiple pharmaceutical drugs. d) limited exposure to sunlight.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

56) The nutrient needs of the elderly remain essentially the same although their energy needs decrease. Because of this, the best advice for them is to: a) eat larger portions of food. b) consume a more nutrient dense diet. c) eat less and exercise more. d) eat more concentrated sweets.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

57) The supplement that is probably of LEAST value to an older adult who already eats a healthful diet is: a) calcium. b) vitamin B12. c) vitamin C. d) vitamin D. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults

58) The hormone which influences sleep patterns most is: a) insulin. b) melatonin. c) thyroxine. d) testosterone.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

Question Type: Essay

59) Describe and compare the two major hypotheses that are proposed to explain why aging occurs.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.1 Define the term aging and how it affects Americans’ life expectancy and health.

Section Reference: Section 16.1 What Is Aging?

Solution: The two hypotheses include that of “preprogrammed cell death” also known as apoptosis, and that of the decline of cells due to “wearing out”. While apoptosis is supported by the notion that cells can only reproduce a finite number of times, the decline of cells is supported by evidence showing that cells accumulate more damage over time, eventually becoming dysfunctional.

60) How is compression of morbidity affected by lifestyle choices?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.1 Define the term aging and how it affects Americans’ life expectancy and health.

Section Reference: Section 16.1 What Is Aging?

Solution: Since compression of morbidity means that the individual will be healthy for a longer duration, lifestyle choices like diet, exposure to toxins like cigarette smoke, and a concern for one’s physical safety would enhance the amount of time an individual would be healthy.

61) Define food insecurity. What are common causes of food insecurity?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition Solution: Food insecurity refers to the notion that an individual is not able to receive an adequate supply of nutritious food. This can be caused by being isolated from others, by poverty or by limited mobility.

62) What is the purpose of the Nutrition Screening Initiative and the DETERMINE checklist?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.5 Explain how exercise and a nutritious diet affect the degenerative changes of aging.

Section Reference: Section 16.5 Keeping Older Adults Healthy Solution: These tools are a systematic method for evaluating whether a senior individual has access to nutritious food, and is capable of living without assistance and preparing appropriate foods.

63) How do the abilities to taste and smell change as a person ages? How can these changes affect diet?

Answer: Difficulty: Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition Solution: The appeal of food declines, since so much of appetite depends upon sensory factors associated with taste and smell.

64) What gastrointestinal changes commonly accompany aging in the elderly? How do these changes affect nutritional health?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition Solution: The changes include reduced salivation, reduced stomach emptying, reductions in gastric secretions including acid, reductions in the secretion of digestive enzymes, and

decreased motility and elasticity of the colon. These changes affect nutritional status by decreasing the amount of available nutrients, reducing appetite and food intake, and possibly causing constipation.

65) In general, how does body composition and weight change as men and women age past 30?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition Solution: In general, there is a tendency to have a greater percentage of fat and lesser amounts of lean tissue. In addition, there is usually an increase in body weight.

66) How does the occurrence of menopause affect a woman’s risk of heart disease and breast cancer?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition Solution: With menopause, her risk of heart disease increases, while her risk of breast cancer decreases.

67) How do energy and macronutrient needs change as people age past 50?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults Solution: Typically, energy needs begin to decrease, while for the most part, macronutrient needs remain about the same.

68) How does the need for water change as a person ages? Why does staying hydrated present more of a challenge for the elderly?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults Solution: The actual requirement for water stays the same; however, the elderly have a diminished thirst sensation, may lose more water due to bowel movements and medicine intake, and also may refrain from water consumption voluntarily so they do not need to use the bathroom as frequently.

69) The risk of which vitamin and mineral deficiencies increase in the elderly population?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults Solution: Among the vitamins, there are increased deficiencies seen for folate, B6, B12 and vitamins C, D and E. For the minerals, most concerns relate to deficiencies of calcium, zinc and iron.

70) Why is it especially important for the elderly to eat a nutrient dense diet?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.5 Explain how exercise and a nutritious diet affect the degenerative changes of aging.

Section Reference: Section 16.5 Keeping Older Adults Healthy Solution: The elderly have a reduced ability to use energy, yet do not have a reduced need for nutrients, so they need to eat foods that have lots of nutrients for a small amount of energy.

71) What nutritional standards must meals served in Congregate and Home-Delivered Nutrition Programs meet?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults Solution: They must provide one meal a day for 5 days of the week. Each meal must provide a third of the RDA for nutrients.

72) Describe the social and economic status of the elderly population most at risk for nutrition-related problems.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults Solution: Generally, they are experiencing economic hardship and have reduced social support.

73) Sam and Marge are both in their 80s and live on a limited income in a medium sized city. They usually eat at home and have almost the same diet every day of the week.

They are finding that shopping and preparing three meals a day takes a lot of their energy. Marge especially has lost interest in cooking and sometimes only has tea and toast for dinner. Because neither Sam nor Marge drives, shopping means a bus trip to the store and back, along with walking several blocks.

A) What type of assistance programs could Sam and Marge take advantage of to help them get adequate nutrition while relieving them of some of the shopping, cooking and cleaning chores?

B) What steps would you take to assess the diet of an elderly person like Sam or Marge?

What dietary standards would be most useful?

C) How do the nutritional needs of an older couple like Sam and Marge differ from those of middle-aged people?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.5 Explain how exercise and a nutritious diet affect the degenerative changes of aging.

Section Reference: Section 16.5 Keeping Older Adults Healthy Solution: A) Federal home-delivered or congregate meals assistance programs may be useful. B) I would evaluate their iron status, vitamin D status as well as BMI for age. I would also do a 3-day dietary recall for each. The dietary standards most useful would include medical tables associated with adequacy for the nutrients surveyed in body fluids

and an assessment of the adequacy of their intake as shown by comparison to the DRI’s for their age. C) Their needs for nutrients other than calories are fairly similar.

74) Drinking enough fluid to maintain hydration is often a problem for the elderly. What are some ways that an older adult might keep track of how much fluid they’ve had during the day? What types of food contain a high percentage of water?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.5 Explain how exercise and a nutritious diet affect the degenerative changes of aging.

Section Reference: Section 16.5 Keeping Older Adults Healthy Solution: It would be useful to purchase a liter size jug of water and then see how much is not consumed by the end of the day. The foods usually highest in water are fruits and vegetables.

75) Discuss why aging is considered to be a continuous process.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 16.1 Define the term aging and how it affects Americans’ life expectancy and health.

Section Reference: Section 16.1 What Is Aging?

Solution: Aging is considered to be continuous because it begins with conception and continues throughout the life.

76) Although people are living longer, why is it important that natural and social scientists improve their quality of life in their later years?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.1 Define the term aging and how it affects Americans’ life expectancy and health.

Section Reference: Section 16.1 What Is Aging?

Solution: Average healthy life expectancy is only 69 of the more than 77 years of total life expectancy. Poor quality of life is associated with depression, which can lead to poor intake and increase the risk of malnutrition.

77) Compare the nutritional needs of older adults with younger adults and identify those nutrients that may need to be supplemented in the diets of older adults.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Describe health and nutrition factors that contribute to malnutrition in older adults.

Section Reference: Section 16.4 Nutritional Needs and Concerns of Older Adults Solution: Older adults compared to younger adults need: less total energy, similar protein (i.e. still relative to lean body weight), fat and carbohydrate; slightly less fiber; more vitamin B6, vitamin B12, calcium, vitamin D and less iron. Supplementation of calcium and vitamin D may be needed as they are difficult to obtain in the diet; B12 supplements may also be needed.

78) Explain why older adults have differing nutritional needs due to physiological changes as well as disease and prescription drug use. How can good exercise and dietary habits prevent deterioration due to aging?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition Solution: Changes in the gastrointestinal tract can alter appetite/ food appeal, nutrient digestion and absorption and nutrient requirements. As people age, there is a decrease in stored nutrients and immune function. Many older adults also have at least one chronic disease, which can change dietary intake. Medications can have side effects of suppressing appetite, and effecting nutrient absorption, metabolism and excretion. Good nutrition/ diet and exercise can extend ‘healthy life years’ by preventing malnutrition and preventing or delaying chronic illness. Exercise will also maintain lean tissue, and allow for greater food intake so nutritional needs are more likely to be met. Exercise will also help maintain balance so falls are less likely and will help to prevent bone loss/osteopenia.

79) Why do the changes in body composition seen during aging affect energy needs?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 16.3 Explain the various nutritional needs and concerns of older adults and how to assess adequate nourishment for them.

Section Reference: Section 16.3 Aging and the Risk of Malnutrition

Solution: As people age, there tends to be an increase in body fat relative to lean tissue which decreases overall energy needs.

80) How do Federal and other programs assist seniors in improving their dietary intake and how does the “DETERMINE” checklist identify appropriate candidates for the various programs?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 16.5 Explain how exercise and a nutritious diet affect the degenerative changes of aging.

Section Reference: Section 16.5 Keeping Older Adults Healthy Solution: Meals can be provided in a communal or home delivery system; elders also have access to SNAP (Food stamps). DETERMINE is a checklist that can be used by the individual, family members or caregivers to assess the risk of malnutrition. It is an acronym for a series of situations that should be assessed. Specific needs that are identified can then be appropriately managed.

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 17

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) It is estimated that __________ Americans contract food related illnesses each year. a) 3,000 b) 128,000 c) 4.8 million d) 48 million Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.1 Describe the causes of foodborne illness and how it is related to contaminants in food.

Section Reference: Section 17.1 How Can Food Make Us Sick?

2) The most likely source of fish and seafood contamination is: a) the passing of bacteria from adults directly to eggs. b) contaminants in the waters where they live. c) molds. d) toxins produced by the fish.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.1 Describe the causes of foodborne illness and how it is related to contaminants in food.

Section Reference: Section 17.1 How Can Food Make Us Sick?

3) Which of the following statements is true? a) Substances that are stored in the body are more likely to be toxic because they accumulate over time. b) Poor health status decreases the body’s ability to store toxins. c) The absorption of mercury is enhanced by high dietary selenium. d) Lead absorption is enhanced by the presence of iron.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.1 Describe the causes of foodborne illness and how it is related to contaminants in food.

Section Reference: Section 17.1 How Can Food Make Us Sick?

4) The HACCP system places responsibility for food safety on: a) consumers. b) regulatory agencies. c) manufacturers. d) distributors.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe

5) Which of the following contributes the LEAST to differences in the way people react to food-borne pathogens? a) Age b) Health and nutritional status c) Body size d) Gender Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.1 Describe the causes of foodborne illness and how it is related to contaminants in food.

Section Reference: Section 17.1 How Can Food Make Us Sick?

6) The major goal of the National Food Safety Initiative is: a) to document food-borne illness outbreaks. b) to provide education to employees in the food industry. c) to provide a reporting system to the Center for Disease Control (CDC). d) to substantially reduce the risk of food-borne illness.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 17.1 Describe the causes of foodborne illness and how it is related to contaminants in food.

Section Reference: Section 17.1 How Can Food Make Us Sick?

7) The HACCP system uses critical control points, which are: a) steps in food production processes where contamination can occur or be prevented. b) steps in the food production process where food is checked for nutritional value. c) used to track the origin of food-borne illnesses. d) areas in the country where large outbreaks have occurred.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe 8) A “use by” date indicates: a) the last day that a product can be safely consumed. b) the last day the product is likely to be at peak flavor, freshness and texture. c) the last day that a store can sell a product. d) the date by which significant deterioration has already occurred.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe

9) Which statement about food-borne illness is FALSE? a) Food is more likely to be contaminated in retail establishments because of the large volume of food and the number of people involved. b) Food-borne illness outbreaks occurring in commercial establishments usually involve more people per incidence. c) Food-borne illness outbreaks in commercial establishments are more likely to be reported.

d) Most food-borne illnesses are caused by food prepared in commercial establishments.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe

10) Pasteurization of milk or eggs involves the use of: a) chemicals. b) antibiotics. c) heat. d) high pressure.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe

11) Which of the following is NOT true of a HACCP system? a) Designing and implementing the system is the responsibility of the food processor. b) HACCP is a system that focuses on preventing problems. c) Having periodic inspections is the basis of an effective HACCP plan. d) An effective HACCP plan requires extensive record-keeping.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe

12) HACCP stands for: a) Hazard Analysis Central Critical Points. b) Hazard Assurance Critical Control Plan. c) Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point.

d) Hazard Assurance Critical Care Plan.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe

13) Which governmental agency is responsible for inspection of meat and poultry? a) Center for Disease Control b) Food and Drug Administration c) Environmental Protection Agency d) United States Department of Agriculture Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe

14) Which governmental agency publishes the Food Code? a) Food and Drug Administration b) Center for Disease Control c) United States Department of Agriculture d) Environmental Protection Agency Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe

15) The amount of a toxin that has a harmful effect is LEAST affected by: a) prior exposure to the toxin. b) the potency of the toxin. c) the nutritional status of the consumer. d) weight and age of the exposed individual.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 17.1 Describe the causes of foodborne illness and how it is related to contaminants in food.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe

16) Wiping a soiled counter with a cloth, then wiping a cutting board with the same cloth is an example of: a) a critical control point transfer. b) cross-contamination. c) HACCP. d) a potentiated zone.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe

17) Which of the following will help prevent food-borne illnesses? a) Thoroughly cooking hamburger, chicken and eggs b) Storing food properly c) Preventing cross-contamination d) All of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe 18) E. coli can be eliminated by cooking foods to ____o F. a) 85 b) 120 c) 160 d) 185

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

19) The most common food(s) implicated in cases of Salmonella-linked food-borne infection is/are: a) beef and pork. b) dairy products. c) eggs and chicken. d) shellfish.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

20) Which microorganism grows at refrigeration temperature and can cause meningitis? a) Campylobacter jejuni b) E. coli O157:H7 c) Listeria monocytogenes d) Salmonella Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

21) Which is true regarding a food-borne intoxication? a) Food-borne intoxication is caused by consuming food contaminated with a virus. b) Food-borne intoxication is caused by consuming water contaminated with bacteria. c) A food-borne intoxication is caused by consuming a food contaminated with a toxin produced by a pathogenic organism.

d) Food-borne intoxications only occur when large numbers of microorganisms are present in the food.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food 22) Food such as hamburgers must be cooked to _____o F to kill E. coli O157:H7 bacteria and toxin. a) 140 b) 160 c) 212 d) cooking does not destroy E. coli 0157:H7 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

23) Which particularly lethal microorganism has been found in honey and home canned foods? a) Clostridium botulinum b) Clostridium perfringens c) E. coli O157:H7 d) Salmonella Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

24) _____________ is a virus that is destroyed by chlorination of drinking water. a) Shigella

b) Giardia lamblia c) Hepatitis A d) E. coli O157:H7 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

25_____________ is a parasite that has caused illnesses among hikers and children in day care centers. a) Hepatitis A b) Giardia lamblia c) E. coli O157:H7 d) Shigella Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

26) Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a source of parasitic infection? a) Fish b) Hamburger patties c) Pork d) Wild game, such as bear or rabbit Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

27) Which food presents the greatest risk of food-borne illness? a) Hot dogs left in the refrigerator for four days

b) A bruised banana c) A turkey thawed at room temperature d) Milk two days past the “sell by” date Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

28) Raw hamburger patties are taken to the grill on a platter. After they are cooked, the patties are returned to the same, unwashed platter and served. This is an example of: a) cross-contamination. b) efficient use of kitchen equipment. c) food adulteration. d) food intoxication.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe

29) Which of the following statements regarding Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) is true? a) BSE can be passed from a cow to humans via unpasteurized milk. b) BSE can be prevented by cooking meat to 160°. c) BSE is caused by pathogenic proteins called prions. d) BSE is caused by a slow growing virus.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

30) The governmental agency that establishes tolerable limits of pesticides in food is the:

a) Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms. b) Environmental Protection Agency. c) Food and Drug Administration. d) United States Department of Agriculture.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food

31) Which statement about microbial foodborne illness is FALSE? a) Many microbial food-borne illnesses have similar symptoms. b) Most microbial food-borne illnesses are mild and are often mistaken for the “flu”. c) Microbial food-borne illness afflicts 50% of Americans each year. d) Microbial food-borne illness can cause kidney failure and death.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

32) Which statement about bacteria is FALSE? a) Consumption of even a few bacterial cells can cause food-borne illnesses. b) Most environmental bacteria are harmless. c) Bacteria are present on most surfaces in our homes. d) Some bacteria are beneficial.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

33) Which statement about mold toxins is FALSE? a) Aflatoxin ingestion causes nausea and diarrhea.

b) Aflatoxin is a potent carcinogen. c) Aflatoxin is produced by the mold Aspergillus flavus. d) More than 250 mold toxins have been identified.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

34) Which of the following is the most frequent cause of diarrhea from food contamination, not due to bacteria or viruses? a) Giardia lamblia b) Cryptosporidium parvum c) Trichinella spiralis d) Anisakis simplex Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

35) Which of the following organisms invades the stomach and intestinal tract, and can be acquired from eating raw fish? a) Giardia lamblia b) Cryptosporidium parvum c) Trichinella spiralis d) Anisakis simplex Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

36) Pesticide residue in foods may be more of a concern for young children because:

a) children are smaller; therefore the amount of residue tends to be greater per unit of body weight. b) children may have been exposed to pesticides prenatally and have developed tolerances for them. c) children often cannot read warning labels about pesticides. d) pesticides are increasingly more prevalent, as well as becoming more toxic.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food

37) Limiting chemical application of pesticides while introducing non-chemical methods of pest control in an orchard is an example of: a) establishing tolerable limits. b) genetic engineering. c) organic farming. d) integrated pest management (IPM).

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food

38) Which statement about pesticides is FALSE? a) Pesticides are applied to crops after harvest to prevent spoilage and extend shelf life. b) Crops grown using pesticides produce higher yields and look more appealing. c) Pesticides can be found in untreated products like meat, poultry and dairy. d) Pesticides are only applied to crops while they are growing.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food

39) Which of the following is NOT an example of a biopesticide? a) The introduction of birds that eat pests b) Naturally occurring substances that control pests c) Microorganisms that control pests d) Pesticides introduced into plants through genetic modification Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food

40) Which statement about organic farming techniques is FALSE? a) Organic produce can cause microbial food-borne illness. b) Organic farming is more ecologically sound than standard farming methods. c) Organic foods are usually cheaper. d) Organic farming decreases, but does not eliminate, pesticides in foods.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food

41) The hormone, bovine somatotropin (bST), is injected into cows to: a) accelerate muscle (meat) growth. b) increase milk production. c) increase the likelihood of multiple births. d) reduce infections.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food

42) Which statement about antibiotics is FALSE?

a) Antibiotic use in animals may contribute to the creation of antibiotic resistant bacteria. b) Almost half of the antibiotics produced in the US are used to prevent disease in animals. c) Antibiotics are used to promote growth in animals. d) Antibiotic use in animals is not regulated.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food

43) PCB exposure: a) is no longer a problem since these chemicals break down quickly. b) occurred when runoff from manufacturing plants contaminated water. c) causes the accumulation of PCBs in lean body tissues. d) is not a concern for breast feeding women.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food

44) Which is MOST likely to contain the highest level of industrial contaminants? a) Small fish from large lakes b) Large fish from large lakes c) Small ocean fish caught far offshore d) Large ocean fish caught far offshore Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food

45) To limit consumption of pesticide residue in fresh fruits and vegetables, all of the following are recommended EXCEPT: a) buying locally grown produce. b) discarding the outer leaves on heads of lettuce and cabbage. c) soaking fruits for two hours in warm water. d) washing or peeling fruits to remove wax and surface pesticide residues.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food

46) BHT is an example of: a) a direct additive. b) an indirect additive. c) a source of accidental contamination. d) adulteration.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.5 Explain the benefits and risks of temperature, irradiation, chemical additives, and packaging in today’s food and agricultural technology.

Section Reference: Section 17.5 Food Technology

47) A food preservation method in which microorganisms metabolize components of a food is called: a) marinazation. b) metabalomics. c) fermentation. d) degradation.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.5 Explain the benefits and risks of temperature, irradiation, chemical additives, and packaging in today’s food and agricultural technology.

Section Reference: Section 17.5 Food Technology

48) A method that places sterilized food in a sterilized package using a sterile process is called: a) sterilized processing. b) aseptic processing. c) food preservation. d) bacterial elimination processing.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.5 Explain the benefits and risks of temperature, irradiation, chemical additives, and packaging in today’s food and agricultural technology.

Section Reference: Section 17.5 Food Technology

49) Which of the following statements about food irradiation is FALSE? a) It is also called cold pasteurization. b) It causes food to be slightly radioactive. c) It is considered a food additive. d) It is used to destroy pathogens and increase shelf life.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.5 Explain the benefits and risks of temperature, irradiation, chemical additives, and packaging in today’s food and agricultural technology.

Section Reference: Section 17.5 Food Technology

50) Which legislative action prohibits the use of any food additive that has been shown to produce cancer in animals at any dose? a) Delaney Clause b) GRAS list c) Pure Food Act d) Standard of Identity Act Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.5 Explain the benefits and risks of temperature, irradiation, chemical additives, and packaging in today’s food and agricultural technology.

Section Reference: Section 17.5 Food Technology

51) To limit the effects of nitrosamines, compounds known to be carcinogenic in animals, one should do all of the following EXCEPT: a) limit consumption of nitrate- and nitrite-containing foods, such as hotdogs. b) limit consumption of dried fruits treated with sulfites. c) consume adequate amounts of antioxidants, such as vitamins C and E. d) limit consumption of cured meats to 3-4 ounces per week.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.5 Explain the benefits and risks of temperature, irradiation, chemical additives, and packaging in today’s food and agricultural technology.

Section Reference: Section 17.5 Food Technology

52) Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) are a concern because of: a) their cancer-causing potential. b) their ability to bind nutrients in the food. c) their potential to cause heart attacks. d) the fact that they contain E. coli O157:H7.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 17.5 Explain the benefits and risks of temperature, irradiation, chemical additives, and packaging in today’s food and agricultural technology.

Section Reference: Section 17.5 Food Technology

53) Fresh pasta is packaged in a sealed container and sold in the refrigerated section of the grocery store. There is a “sell by” date on the container and the directions indicate that the product should be kept refrigerated until used. How is the pasta probably preserved? a) Aseptic packaging b) Fermentive consolidation c) Irradiation d) Modified atmosphere packaging Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 17.5 Explain the benefits and risks of temperature, irradiation, chemical additives, and packaging in today’s food and agricultural technology.

Section Reference: Section 17.5 Food Technology

54) The primary advantage of irradiating food is: a) it destroys microorganisms and insects and prolongs the shelf life of the product. b) it makes the growing plant more insect resistant. c) it is the most economical method of food preservation. d) it boosts the nutritional value of the food product.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.5 Explain the benefits and risks of temperature, irradiation, chemical additives, and packaging in today’s food and agricultural technology.

Section Reference: Section 17.5 Food Technology

55) Which group is LEAST likely to suffer serious complications if food-borne illness is contracted? a) Pregnant women b) People undergoing treatment for cancer c) Adult men d) Children Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.1 Describe the causes of foodborne illness and how it is related to contaminants in food.

Section Reference: Section 17.1 How Can Food Make Us Sick?

56) If mold is found on a loaf of banana bread, what is the best course of action? a) Scrape off the mold; eat the rest of the bread soon b) Remove the mold plus about 2 inches of bread on all sides c) Freeze and rethaw the bread, scraping off the mold d) Throw it away Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

57) Parasites can be destroyed by all of the following methods EXCEPT: a) freezing. b) canning. c) cooking to a high temperature. d) marinating.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

58) Which is NOT true regarding pesticides? a) There are “natural pesticides” in some plants that are toxic to humans. b) In general, pesticides have less toxic effects than they did several years ago. c) The level of pesticide residue in most foods is well below the tolerable level. d) Food grown in other countries is subject to the same pesticide tolerances as food grown in the USA. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food

59) The GRAS list was part of the 1958 Food Additives Amendment. GRAS stands for: a) Generally Recognized as Safe. b) Greatly Reduced Additive Supply. c) Green Resource Action Section. d) Generally Reputable As a Source.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: LO 17.5 Explain the benefits and risks of temperature, irradiation, chemical additives, and packaging in today’s food and agricultural technology.

Section Reference: Section 17.5 Food Technology

Question Type: Essay

60) Although more cases of food-borne illness originate in the home than away from home, public eating facilities are often thought to be responsible when someone becomes ill. Why? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe Solution: In general, there is a greater level of reporting of food-borne illness when it originates in public eating facilities.

61) Why are some people more susceptible to food-borne illness than others?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.1 Describe the causes of foodborne illness and how it is related to contaminants in food.

Section Reference: Section 17.1 How Can Food Make Us Sick?

Solution: There are a variety of reasons including the age of the individual, the nutritional status, whether pregnant or not and general health conditions.

62) What does HACCP stand for? What are Critical Control Points? How does the identification of CCPs contribute to an effective HACCP system?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe Solution: HACCP stands for Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point. The critical control points are points in the handling of food where chemical, physical, or microbial contamination can be prevented, controlled, or eliminated. If these points are correctly

identified by the manufacturer, then they can anticipate where problems in food safety may occur and take corrective action.

63) What areas of food safety does the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) oversee?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe Solution: The FDA ensures the safety and quality of all foods sold across state lines except for red meat, poultry and egg products. It inspects food processing plants as well as most imported foods. It also enforces regulations for food labeling, food and color additives and food sanitation.

64) Give an example of how cross-contamination can occur in your kitchen.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food Solution: It can occur if we use a cutting-board to prepare raw food, then wash the food and place it back on the unwashed cutting-board.

65) What are the minimum and maximum temperatures of the “danger zone”, where bacteria grow best?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food Solution: Between 40 and 135o F is the “danger zone” where bacteria grow best.

66) How does contamination with E. coli O157:H7 occur? How can it be prevented?

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food Solution: Since this bacterium grows even at refrigerator temperatures and is often found in ground meat, often even after heating the surface to a temperature of 160o F, the bacteria in the center will survive since the temperature there is often lower due to some cooking practices. The meat should thus be cooked until the internal temperature reaches 160o F (as determined by using a meat thermometer).

67) How is Hepatitis A transmitted? How can its spread be curtailed?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food Solution: This virus is transmitted from infected humans or their waste products either directly from infected food workers or from foods that have been exposed to fecal material. Its spread can be curtailed by cooking the food and good sanitation practices.

68) Why are hikers particularly susceptible to Giardia? How can they prevent being infected?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food Solution: Giardia is often contracted by hikers who drink untreated stream water which is contaminated. They should use precautions such as sterilizing all water from streams that they wish to drink. Using a pump to filter the water or adding iodine to it should ensure safety.

69) Why are industrial contaminants more likely to be found in large animals than in small animals?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food Solution: Large animals will accumulate more industrial contaminants because of their bigger size and in general, because they usually have a greater lifespan than small animals.

70) Which agency is responsible for setting limits for pesticide use?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food Solution: The EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) sets these limits.

71) What are objections to the use of bST in cows? What is the FDA’s position regarding use of bST? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food Solution: Bovine somatotropin is objected to by some consumers because they allege that this hormone may cause problems for the cows and also for consumers of the milk and beef that is consumed from the treated cows. The FDA does not accept these allegations and presumes there are no long- or short- term problems created by the use of this hormone in cows.

72) What are the advantages to buying locally grown produce over that which is grown in another region or country?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.5 Explain the benefits and risks of temperature, irradiation, chemical additives, and packaging in today’s food and agricultural technology.

Section Reference: Section 17.5 Food Technology Solution: Typically, locally grown produces uses less preservatives since it does not have to be transported over great distances.

73) Contrast the purposes of the GRAS list and the Delaney Clause.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.5 Explain the benefits and risks of temperature, irradiation, chemical additives, and packaging in today’s food and agricultural technology.

Section Reference: Section 17.5 Food Technology Solution: The purpose of the GRAS list is to establish a baseline of additives that can be used safely in foods until otherwise proven unsafe; while the Delaney Clause assures that no additive will be used in food that may cause cancer, regardless of its initial status.

74) Discuss the risks and benefits of adding nitrates and nitrites to cured meat products.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.5 Explain the benefits and risks of temperature, irradiation, chemical additives, and packaging in today’s food and agricultural technology.

Section Reference: Section 17.5 Food Technology Solution: The risk of adding these materials is that to some extent they will form nitrosamines, which have been implicated as cancer-causing chemicals, in the gut. The benefit of using these additives is that they will reduce bacterial growth in foods like cured meats, hot dogs, etc. that are often kept at refrigerated temperatures.

75) Terry packs lunches every weekday for his children to take to school. Although his children buy cold milk at school, there are no facilities to keep lunches refrigerated.

What types of food are potentially hazardous in the lunches? What steps might Terry take to ensure the safety of the lunches?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.5 Explain the benefits and risks of temperature, irradiation, chemical additives, and packaging in today’s food and agricultural technology.

Section Reference: Section 17.5 Food Technology Solution: Foods which are susceptible to bacterial growth may include those which have mayonnaise, fish, meat products or even juices. Terry should either encourage his children to use ice packs in their lunches to keep the food cold or use sterile-packed foods or give them foods not susceptible to bacterial growth.

76) Many people think that if beef patties were irradiated, the risk of E. coli O157:H7 in beef would be significantly decreased. Do you think irradiating beef patties is a good idea? What are drawbacks to irradiation of the nationwide supply of beef patties?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food Solution: It is probably a good idea, as this would dramatically cut back on the risk of contagion. However, it would also be costly and some people may simply refrain from purchasing the patties because they are scared of what may occur to the food due to irradiation.

77) A case of foodborne illness is suspected to have originated in a local fast food restaurant. If a HACCP system were in place at the restaurant, what records might the investigators be interested in? How might having a HACCP system make the investigation more efficient?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe Solution: HACCP records would show where the critical points in the process may have been inadequate. In addition, some records would also indicate where the product may have been distributed.

78) Alicia recently became pregnant. She read that women who are pregnant should avoid some types of fish because of possible danger to the growing fetus. Why do you think this recommendation exists? What recommendations do you have for Alicia?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food Solution: She is wise to avoid those fish that typically have high levels of mercury such as white albacore tuna, swordfish and other large ocean fish. She may also want to avoid those fish that are caught in lakes as they too may have contamination. These

recommendations are important because the growing fetus is more susceptible to these contaminants in fish.

79) Identify the primary causes of food-borne illness in the United States and why some individuals are more susceptible to toxicity from food than others. How can people reduce the risk of food-borne illness?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.1 Describe the causes of foodborne illness and how it is related to contaminants in food.

Section Reference: Section 17.1 How Can Food Make Us Sick?

Solution: Pathogens, which are microorganisms that can cause disease, and toxins produced by pathogens are the primary cause of food borne illnesses. Also, chemical contaminants for processing and packing and physical contaminants can lead to foodborne illness. Body size, nutritional status and how one metabolizes the substance will all affect vulnerability. The role of the consumer is to carefully evaluate what foods and where they purchase and consume, and to practice safe food handling at home (clean, separate, cook and chill).

80) Give one example of a governmental agency and how it is attempting to protect the food supply. How can HACCP also work to protect the food supply?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.2 Describe the responsibilities of the government, food manufacturers and retailers, and consumers in keeping food safe.

Section Reference: Section 17.2 Keeping Food Safe Solution: FDA inspects food plants, imported foods, oversees the feeding of food producing animals and enforces regulations for food sanitation. HACCP establishes standard procedures to prevent, control or stop contamination before food reaches the consumer (i.e. instead of dealing with it after food safety problems occur).

81) Describe how a virus found in food can infect intestinal cells.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.3 Explain how different pathogens have the potential to cause foodborne illness.

Section Reference: Section 17.3 Pathogens in Food

Solution: Viruses enter cells and change their function. The virus will transfer its genetic material into the intestinal cell, so now the intestinal cell makes new virus particles. The infected cells are eventually killed, sloughed off and the virus is released to infect more cells.

82) How do chemicals used in agriculture make their way to humans? How could various aspects of packaging and chemical additives protect the food supply? What are the risks and benefits of some of these food additives?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food Solution: They are taken up by plants, which can be eaten by humans, or the plants can be eaten by animals, which humans may then eat. The contaminants are more concentrated in the animal product than in the plant product. Labeling on packages can include safe handling information, such as “use/sell by” date. Chemical additives can prevent spoilage by preventing bacteria from growing. The benefits are a decrease in the risk of contaminated foods; the risks are that in some individuals the additives may cause harm, such as birth defects, if consumed by pregnant women, and some cancers in the general population.

83) How does the USDA define an “organic food”? What advantages are there to purchasing these foods?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 17.4 Discuss how chemicals used in agriculture and industry make their way into our food supply and how we can minimize the risk of contamination.

Section Reference: Section 17.4 Agricultural and Industrial Chemicals in Food Solution: Organic food is produced, processed, and handled in accordance with the standards of the USDA National Organic Program. It is produced without conventional pesticides, synthetic fertilizers, etc. The advantage to organic foods is a decrease in pesticide exposure to farm workers and in the environment.

Package Title: Test Bank Course Title: Smolin3e Chapter Number: 18

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Worldwide, over ___ of the deaths in children under the age of 5 are due to undernutrition. a) 10% b) 20% c) 1/3 d) 1/2 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition

2) Which statement about malnutrition is FALSE? a) Malnutrition is only a serious problem for people who are undernourished. b) Malnutrition shortens life expectancy. c) Overweight individuals suffer from malnutrition. d) Malnutrition causes high levels of sickness and disability.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition

3) The nutrition transition is accompanied by: a) decreased life expectancy. b) an increase in low birth weight babies. c) an increase in the incidence of heart disease and diabetes. d) a decrease in the use of natural resources.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition

4) Which statement about the prevalence of obesity is correct? a) The number of underweight people worldwide is two times higher than the number of overweight people. b) India must contend with significant levels of both under-nutrition and over-nutrition. c) Obesity rates worldwide are decreasing. d) The population of urban Samoa has the lowest obesity rate in the world.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition

5) The cycle of malnutrition: a) begins when infants are weaned and appropriate substitutes for milk are unavailable. b) ends after the adolescent growth spurt. c) is an inability to meet nutrient needs at some stages of life. d) affects both the health and productivity of a population.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition 6) “Infant mortality rate” refers to: a) the number of deaths during the first 24 hours of life per 100 live births. b) the number of deaths during the first 24 hours of life per 1,000 live births. c) the number of deaths during the first year of life per 100 live births. d) the number of deaths during the first year of life per 1,000 live births.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition

7) The cycle of malnutrition can be broken by: a) providing better health care for children. b) arranging for better nutrition and healthcare for women during pregnancy. c) increasing availability of nutritious foods for adults. d) Any of these.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition

8) Decreased growth in height in children is referred to as: a) shunting. b) stature suppression. c) stunting. d) malnutritional growth suppression.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition

9) Which country has the higher infant mortality rate? a) El Salvador b) Cuba c) Sierra Leone d) India

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition

10) Stunting refers to: a) decreased average weight during the first year of life. b) increased body mass index (BMI). c) depression of intelligence quota (IQ). d) a decreased rate of linear growth.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition

11) Stunting increases the risk of all of the following EXCEPT: a) abdominal obesity. b) being a larger adult. c) reduced work capacity. d) low-birth-weight babies in the next generation.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition

12) Which statement about malnutrition and infectious disease in children is FALSE? a) Approximately 20% of all deaths in children under the age of 5 are due to infectious diseases. b) Undernourished children have depressed immune systems. c) Vaccines may be ineffective in undernourished children. d) Undernourished children can die from infectious diseases that would not be lifethreatening in well-nourished children.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition

13) Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of famine? a) It typically affects only a small number of people. b) It is caused by a disaster. c) It includes a collapse in the food production system. d) A collapse in the food marketing system occurs.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

14) Currently, which bears the LEAST responsibility for worldwide food shortages? a) Inability of worldwide food producers to keep up with consumption b) Poverty c) Overpopulation in some regions d) Lack of environmental resources Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

15) Which statement about chronic food shortages is FALSE? a) Chronic food shortages affect far fewer people than famines. b) Chronic food shortages can be the result of cultural or religious practices. c) Chronic food shortages can be a result of misusing environmental resources. d) Chronic food shortages can be the result of economic inequities.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

16) More than ___________ people in developing countries earn less than $1.25 per day. a) 100 million b) 500 million c) 750 million d) 1 billion Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

17) The single greatest cause of food insecurity is: a) natural disasters. b) poverty. c) lack of education. d) famine.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

18) As the prevalence of food insecurity in a population INCREASES, so does: a) access to healthcare systems. b) the number of deaths due to cardiac problems. c) the infant mortality rate. d) over-nutrition.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

19) The growth of the human population is: a) occurring mostly in the developing world. b) keeping the same pace as the growth in the ability to produce food. c) currently about an additional 8 million people per year. d) allowing developing countries to catch up economically with the developed world.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

20) Which is NOT a product made from a renewable resource? a) Paper towels b) Gasoline c) Bread d) A wooden crate Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

21) Deficiency of which nutrient is NOT a world health problem? a) Iodine b) Iron c) Sodium d) Vitamin A Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

22) Which statement about renewable resources is FALSE? a) Renewable resources will always be restored and replaced by natural processes. b) Renewable resources can be used faster than natural processes can restore them.

c) Renewable resources can become depleted. d) Soil and water are renewable resources.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

23) Modern, large-scale farming can do all of the following EXCEPT: a) result in increased yields in food production. b) result in depleted soil. c) use very little energy. d) contaminate groundwater.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

24) A child who consumes adequate calories but insufficient amounts of protein is most at risk for developing: a) beriberi. b) goiter. c) kwashiorkor. d) marasmus.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

25) Which statement about the impact of raising farm animals is FALSE? a) It takes 40 kcals of fossil fuel to obtain 1 kcal of beef protein. b) Animals raised on small farms consume scraps, crop wastes and grasses that people cannot eat. c) Animals raised in agribusiness are so efficiently raised that the impact on the environment is quite small.

d) Livestock raised in the US consume 7 times the amount of grain as consumed by the human population.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

26) The most common nutritional problem worldwide is a deficiency of: a) protein. b) iodine. c) iron. d) thiamin.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

27) Iron deficiency is LEAST likely to result from: a) parasitic infections. b) increased physical workloads. c) limited availability and consumption of red meat. d) chronic infections.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

28) Lack of _________ in the diet causes goiter. a) fluoride b) iron c) iodine d) zinc Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

29) The need for vitamin A is increased by which of the following? a) Rapid growth b) Development c) Frequent infections d) All of these Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

30) Short term food aid: a) brings food quickly into areas where people are starving. b) consists of foods well planned for their nutrient content. c) can prevent future famine. d) fosters economic development.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger

31) Which of the following factors promotes control of population growth? a) When the labor of children is needed to work farms b) High infant mortality rates c) Economic security d) When children provide the primary support for elders Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger

32) Biotechnology can most effectively increase food production by: a) creating plants resistant to insects or diseases. b) inspiring improvements in irrigation. c) improving agricultural practices. d) hybridizing local varieties of crops.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger

33) Which statement about international trade is FALSE? a) International trade can help countries provide for their people even if they cannot grow enough food within the country. b) International trade is most effective for countries with vast natural resources. c) International trade is mostly a benefit to the developed world. d) An increase in food imports helped decrease the number of hungry people in newly industrialized countries in Asia.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger

34) Which statement about cash crops is FALSE? a) Cash crops can provide revenue to purchase nutritious foods for local people. b) Production of cash crops may limit the ability of local people to produce enough food to feed their families. c) Cash crops are typically raised for local consumption. d) Coffee is a cash crop.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger

35) Which is a term used to describe a system that endeavors to maintain natural resources such as soil and water while producing food products? a) Ecological conservation b) Food self-sufficiency c) Restorative farming d) Sustainable agriculture Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger

36) Which is NOT a true statement about organizations dedicated to relieving world hunger? a) The goal of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) is to provide assistance in disasters. b) The World Bank finances food supplementation and fortification projects. c) UNICEF works to improve the health and lives of children. d) World Health Organization (WHO) emphasizes prevention of nutritional problems.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger

37) Which is NOT a true statement about population control in countries where hunger is a problem? a) When women are better educated, the birthrate declines. b) The rate of population growth has slowed in Singapore, Thailand, Colombia and Costa Rica.

c) To be effective, national or regional family planning efforts must take into consideration cultural and religious practices. d) Families tend to be larger when a country’s economy appears secure.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger

38) The capacity of a region to produce enough food to feed its population is termed: a) food self-sufficiency. b) food sovereignty. c) sustainable agriculture. d) economic viability.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger

39) To conserve natural resources, which is the LEAST effective option? a) Purchase fewer individually packaged foods; buy more in bulk b) Buy more imported foods c) Purchase products that use minimal packaging d) Reduce consumption of animal products Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger

40) Which of the following is NOT considered a sustainable agriculture practice? a) Dedicating individual fields to a single crop that is grown repeatedly b) Terracing

c) Agroforestry d) Organic agriculture Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger

41) Areas of the U.S. that lack access to affordable foods which constitute a healthy diet are called: a) food deserts. b) food voids. c) impoverished pockets. d) urban produce voids.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.4 Discuss the causes of undernutrition and programs developed to address these causes in the United States.

Section Reference: Section 18.4 Hunger at Home

42) Population groups likely to experience food insecurity in the U.S. are: a) people living in inner cities. b) Hispanic populations. c) Native Americans. d) All of these.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.4 Discuss the causes of undernutrition and programs developed to address these causes in the United States.

Section Reference: Section 18.4 Hunger at Home

43) Which federal program targets pregnant and lactating women, and infants and children for nutritional food assistance and education? a) Emergency Food Assistance Program

b) Food Stamp Program c) State Foodservice Program for Women and Children d) Women, Infants and Children (WIC) Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.4 Discuss the causes of undernutrition and programs developed to address these causes in the United States.

Section Reference: Section 18.4 Hunger at Home

44) Which of the following dietary changes would one NOT expect to see as the average income of a developing country increases? a) Consumption of a wider variety of foods b) Eating less processed foods c) Consumption of more animal products d) Consumption of more foods high in vitamin A and iron Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition

45) Approximately what portion of households in the U.S. experience food insecurity at some point during the year? a) 4.5% b) 9.5% c) 14.5% d) 20.5% Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.4 Discuss the causes of undernutrition and programs developed to address these causes in the United States.

Section Reference: Section 18.4 Hunger at Home

46) Crops that are grown and consumed locally are called:

a) sustainable crops. b) cash crops. c) subsistence crops. d) support crops.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger

47) Which is NOT generally associated with iron-deficiency anemia? a) Low-birth-weight infants b) Decreased resistance to infection c) Increased maternal mortality d) Blindness Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger

48) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding vegetarian diets and the environment? a) Having many animals confined together can affect water quality. b) Feeding grain to livestock is the most efficient way to produce enough calories for a population. c) Cutting down forests to create grazing land is a problem that is linked to global warming. d) When animals are integrated into farming, animal waste products can provide valuable sources of fuel.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger

49) Foods selected for fortification should be: a) centrally processed. b) produced in small local facilities. c) foods which are used in small quantities. d) foods which require refrigeration.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger

50) Of all households in the United States, approximately what percentage persists at or below the poverty line? a) 10 b) 15 c) 25 d) 35 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.4 Discuss the causes of undernutrition and programs developed to address these causes in the United States.

Section Reference: Section 18.4 Hunger at Home

51) Risk for malnutrition among the elderly is associated with: a) strong family support. b) educational level. c) access to vitamin supplements. d) more hospital admissions.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.4 Discuss the causes of undernutrition and programs developed to address these causes in the United States.

Section Reference: Section 18.4 Hunger at Home

52) Which area has the lowest rates of poverty? a) Inner cities b) Suburbs c) Native American reservations d) Remote rural areas Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.4 Discuss the causes of undernutrition and programs developed to address these causes in the United States.

Section Reference: Section 18.4 Hunger at Home

53) Which of the following is true regarding level of education and household income? a) The higher the level of education, the higher the income level. b) The highest household incomes were in families where a family member had a Bachelor’s degree. c) High school graduates typically make more than those who attended college but did not graduate. d) There is no direct relationship.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.4 Discuss the causes of undernutrition and programs developed to address these causes in the United States.

Section Reference: Section 18.4 Hunger at Home

54) Malnutrition may occur in which individuals even when the rest of the household is adequately fed? a) Pregnant women b) Infants c) Children d) All of these Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.4 Discuss the causes of undernutrition and programs developed to address these causes in the United States.

Section Reference: Section 18.4 Hunger at Home

55) The Emergency Food Assistance Program distributes ___________ for home and institutional use. a) funds to buy food b) meals c) grocery store vouchers d) commodity foods, such as peanut butter and pasta Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.4 Discuss the causes of undernutrition and programs developed to address these causes in the United States.

Section Reference: Section 18.4 Hunger at Home

56) Which is NOT generally regarded as an indicator of nutritional status of a population? a) Maximum life span b) Infant mortality rate c) Incidence of low birth weight d) Stunting

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition

Question Type: Essay

57) Explain how malnutrition cycles from one generation to the next.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition

Solution: Women who consume inadequate nutrients during pregnancy give birth to infants susceptible to illness and early death. Those who survive may be small and weak.

They grow into undernourished adults and the women in this next generation are likely to be poorly nourished and repeat the cycle.

58) Identify three population groups in the U.S. which are most affected by hunger.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.4 Discuss the causes of undernutrition and programs developed to address these causes in the United States.

Section Reference: Section 18.4 Hunger at Home Solution: Women, infants and children are most affected.

59) What causes stunting?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition Solution: Stunting is a consequence of decreased linear growth in a population, usually due to nutritional deficiencies.

60) What is the difference between subsistence crops and cash crops?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger Solution: Subsistence crops are those needed for their nutritional value to a population and grown locally, while cash crops are grown locally but generally exported for funds.

61) How can kwashiorkor be prevented?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition Solution: It can be prevented by providing higher quality protein to developing children in a population.

62) How does iron deficiency affect people of different life stages?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition Solution: During pregnancy, it can have an impact in increasing the risk of maternal and fetal mortality. When occurring in infants and children, it can stunt growth, both mentally and physically. In older children and non-pregnant adults it can cause fatigue and decrease productivity.

63) How are overpopulation and under-nutrition related?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition Solution: When population growth is reduced, there is more access to food.

64) Explain the term, sustainable agriculture. What are characteristics of a sustainable agriculture system?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger Solution: It uses food production methods that prevent damage to the environment and allow the land to restore itself so food can be produced indefinitely. It is typified by crop rotation and prevention of soil erosion.

65) How does lack of education contribute to food insecurity among the poor?

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition Solution: If there is a lack of education, then people do not know how to prepare foods safely and which foods are good nutrient sources.

66) What special problems do the homeless encounter that increases their risk of malnutrition?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.4 Discuss the causes of undernutrition and programs developed to address these causes in the United States.

Section Reference: Section 18.4 Hunger at Home Solution: They usually lack cooking facilities and food-storage facilities. This results in their dependence upon ready-to-eat foods and upon soup kitchens and shelters for sustenance.

67) How do plant-based and animal-based diets affect the environment differently?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger Solution: Animal-based diets require much more energy from non-renewable resources and also tend to destroy the environment through pollutants from the animals. Plantbased diets tend to require less non-renewable energy resources and also do not generally have as much of an impact in ruining the environment.

68) A family down the street has five children. Both parents recently lost their jobs.

What resources are available to help them provide adequate meals for their family?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.4 Discuss the causes of undernutrition and programs developed to address these causes in the United States.

Section Reference: Section 18.4 Hunger at Home

Solution: There are many resources and programs including the SNAP, the National School Breakfast and Lunch programs, the Special Milk Program and the Emergency Food Assistance Program among others.

69) If you were putting together a promotional campaign designed to lessen the effects of over-nutrition, who would be your target audience? Which chronic diseases are associated with over-nutrition? What are appropriate general recommendations to this group?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition Solution: My target audience would be affluent Americans and people in transition, globally. I would focus upon obesity as a risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, stroke, type 2 diabetes and some cancers. My recommendations would include returning to a lifestyle with more activity and consuming fewer high-calorie commodities.

70) What choices can a person living in a highly developed country make that can impact the status of those living in undeveloped countries?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.4 Discuss the causes of undernutrition and programs developed to address these causes in the United States.

Section Reference: Section 18.4 Hunger at Home Solution: They can volunteer to help educate the populations in the other countries.

71) A family in a developing country has adequate food supplies, yet some of the family members suffer the consequences of malnutrition. What factors contribute to this paradox?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger Solution: Often, the needs of the women and small children for some nutrients are greater than for the others. In addition, the staples of the diet may provide inadequate protein for the growth of infants and children.

72) Why are there two major types of malnutrition? What occurs when a population is undergoing “nutrition transition”?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition Solution: The 2 major types of malnutrition are hunger/ under-nutrition and overnutrition/ obesity. These co-exist in developing countries as they shift food production from traditional to modern/ Western foods while still having citizens with inadequate access to food. The Westernization leads to a diet that is more varied and could contain more food, while at the same time, there is a decrease in physical activity from changes in occupation, transportation, etc; this combination increases the risk of obesity. A country in transition has both under-nourished and over-nourished (obese) citizens.

73) At what points can the “cycle of malnutrition” be broken? Why might there be inadequate food for individuals and populations in several places in this cycle?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.1 Describe the two faces of malnutrition in the world today and how this is related to the concept of nutrition transition.

Section Reference: Section 18.1 The Two Faces of Malnutrition Solution: The cycle of malnutrition starts with women being poorly nourished during pregnancy; the children produced are low birth weight and set for unhealthy childhood; females who survive childhood could go on to becoming pregnant and have poorly nourished infants. This cycle can be broken at any point by providing adequate and nutritious foods. Inadequate availability of food at any point in the cycle can be from famine due to natural disasters.

74) Nutritional deficiencies are recognized as a deterrent to world health. Identify several nutrients that are in short supply globally that contribute to poor health outcomes? Why is it so important to work to eliminate poverty as a long-term goal for the prevention of hunger?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.2 Describe the factors that contribute to world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.2 Causes of Hunger and Undernutrition Solution: Protein, iron, iodine, vitamin A, some B vitamins and C, and zinc. Poverty creates food insecurity or limited access to nutritious/ safe foods. Poverty also leads to less health care, which can lead to untreated illness.

75) Why is sustainability so important to long-term nutritional goals worldwide and why are short-term solutions usually not very much associated with sustainability?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger Solution: Sustainability is critical to meeting long-term nutritional goals as the methods used for food production allow for indefinite use of natural resources. A sustainable farm has a total agriculture ecosystem instead of just one crop. Short term solutions are to feed the current hungry population; food is brought in from other countries; however the hungry population does not change and the food from other countries is finite. Longer term solutions are more complex, involving people outside and within the country and plan for continued food production and supply within the country and population control.

76) The symbol used for iodine fortification is important because the foods that were chosen for fortification with this mineral were based upon significant thought. What are the criteria useful in determining the appropriate foods to fortify?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 18.3 Describe some of the short-term and long-term solutions that have been implemented to address the problems of world hunger.

Section Reference: Section 18.3 Eliminating World Hunger Solution: Food chosen for fortification has to be consistently eaten by the majority of the population, readily available and non-perishable.

77) Identify some of the reasons there is under-nutrition in various populations in the United States? Indicate several important programs that are in place to aid people caught in this cycle of poverty and malnutrition?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: LO 18.4 Discuss the causes of undernutrition and programs developed to address these causes in the United States.

Section Reference: Section 18.4 Hunger at Home Solution: Poverty is the root cause of under-nutrition as it leads to food insecurity; lack of education, leading to problems with food selection, safety and lack of knowledge of how to prepare nutritious foods; inadequate health care; and homelessness. Federal programs to combat poverty include Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP/Food Stamp Program); Women, Infant and Children (WIC) for pregnant women/ infants/ children; school breakfast/ lunch; EFNEP (Expanded Food and Nutrition Education Program).

Answers for Review Questions Chapter 1: Nutrition: Food for Health 1. How does the typical U.S. diet compare to recommendations for a healthy diet?

We eat more kcalories than we need and we are not eating enough of the foods that make up a healthy diet. Recommendations suggest a diet based on whole grains, vegetables, and fruits, with smaller amounts of low-fat dairy products and lean meats and limited amounts of sweets and certain types of fats. As a population, we don’t eat enough whole grains, legumes, fruits, or dairy foods. We frequently choose potatoes, often fried, for a vegetable but consume few nutrient-rich dark green and deep yellow vegetables. Our diets are high in snack foods and desserts that supply us with more salt and sugar than is recommended (Table 1.1). Instead of milk or water we are choosing sweetened beverages, especially carbonated soft drinks. This dietary pattern along with a lack of physical activity increases the risk of developing chronic diseases, such as diabetes, obesity, heart disease, and cancer, which are the major causes of illness and death in our population.

2. What does the science of nutrition study?

The science of nutrition studies all the interactions that occur between living organisms and food.

3. What is an essential nutrient?

Essential nutrients must be supplied in the diet to support life; they either cannot be made by the body or cannot be made in large enough quantities to meet needs.

4. List six classes of nutrients and indicate which provide energy.

1. Carbohydrates 2. Lipids 3. Proteins 4. Water 5. Vitamins 6. Minerals Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins provide energy.

5. List three functions provided by nutrients.

1. Energy 2. Structure 3. Regulation.

6. List three ways in which what you eat today can affect your health.

If you consume a diet that is deficient in one or more nutrients it can lead to nutrient deficiency disorders. If your diet is too high or too low in energy it can lead to weight gain or loss, respectively. If your diet is too high in some nutrients, it can contribute to the development of a number of chronic diseases such as heart disease and diabetes. If your diet today, is healthy, and includes variety, balance, and moderation it can lead to vitality, healthy body weight, decreased infectious disease, decreased chronic disease and longevity.

7. What is malnutrition?

Malnutrition is any condition resulting from an energy or nutrient intake either above or below that which is optimal.

8. List three factors other than biological need that influence what we eat.

Our food choices and food intake are affected what is available to us, where we live, what is within our budget and compatible with our lifestyle, what we like, what is culturally acceptable, what our emotional and psychological needs are, and what we think we should eat.

9. Why is it important to choose a variety of foods?

No one food can provide all the nutrients the body needs for optimal health. Eating a variety of foods helps ensure an adequate nutrient intake.

10. How does moderation help maintain a healthy weight?

Moderation means everything is okay, as long as you don’t overdo it. It means watching your portions and passing up the super sizes. Moderation means not consuming too much energy, too much fat, too much sugar, too much salt, or too much alcohol. Choosing moderately will help you maintain a healthy weight and help prevent some of the chronic diseases like heart disease and cancer that are on the rise in the U.S. population.

11. List the steps of the scientific method.

1. Observation: Make an observation and ask questions about the observation.

2. Hypothesis: Propose a hypothesis, or explanation for the observation.

3. Experimentation: Design experiments to test the hypothesis. The experiments must provide objective results that can be measured and repeated.

4. Theory: If the experimental results do not prove the hypothesis to be wrong, a theory, or a scientific explanation based on experimentation, can be established.

12. What type of information can be obtained using epidemiology?

Epidemiology can identify correlations between patterns of diet, health, and disease.

Epidemiology does not determine cause and effect relationships—it just identifies patterns through observational studies, often collected over either a short or long term period of time to identify correlations.

13. Why are animals used to study human nutrition?

Because studying humans is costly, time consuming, inconvenient for subjects, and in some cases impossible for ethical reasons, many studies are done using experimental animals. Animal metabolism and physiology shares many similarities with human metabolism and physiology.

14. What factors should be considered when judging nutrition claims?

When judging nutrition claims consider whether the information makes sense, whether it came from a reliable source, whether the study was well done and accurately interpreted, who stands to benefit from making the claim, and whether it has stood the test of time; ie, if multiple studies from unrelated researchers have reached similar conclusions, and have not found contradictory results.

15. What is a control group?

A control group is a group of participants in an experiment that is identical to the experimental group except that no experimental treatment is used. It is used as a basis of comparison.

16. What is a placebo?

A placebo is a fake medicine or supplement that is indistinguishable in appearance from the real thing. It is used to disguise the control and experimental groups in an experiment.

17. What is a double-blind study?

A double-blind study is an experiment in which neither the study participants nor the researchers know who is in a control or an experimental group.

Answers to Review Questions Chapter 2: Nutrition Guidelines: Applying the Science of Nutrition 1. Which types of DRI standards can be used as a goal for individual intake?

Two sets of values, the Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) and the Adequate Intakes (AIs) recommend specific amounts of nutrients for individuals. These values are designed to be goals for individual intake and can be used to plan or evaluate individual diets.

2. What type of DRI standard can be used to evaluate the adequacy of nutrient intake in a population?

The Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) can be used to evaluate the nutrient intake of populations.

3. Which DRI standard can help you determine if a supplement contains a toxic level of a nutrient?

The Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (ULs) helps individuals prevent nutrient toxicities.

4. What is the purpose of the Dietary Guidelines?

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans is a set of diet and lifestyle recommendations designed to promote health and reduce chronic disease risks in the American population. The Dietary Guidelines suggest overall diet and lifestyle choices that will promote health.

5. How does the MyPlate graphic promote a varied diet?

No one food or food group can provide all of the nutrients the body needs, which is why variety is so important. The MyPlate icon illustrates the proportions of food recommended from each of five food groups: Fruits, vegetables, grains, protein foods, and dairy. Half of your plate should be fruits and vegetables, about a quarter grains and about a quarter protein foods. Dairy should accompany meals as shown by the glass to the side. The amounts recommended from each food group for an individual depends on their energy needs.

6. Why is variety important to a healthy diet?

Variety is important for a healthy diet because no one type of food provides all the nutrients and food components needed. One cannot reasonably expect to attain 100% RDA for each nutrient daily. Variety over a few days ensures that deficiencies one day will be compensated for over the next few days.

7. Explain how the MyPlate graphic illustrates proportionality.

Proportionality means that we need to eat more of some types of food than others. The MyPlate icon shows how much of your plate should be filled with foods from various group groups. Fruits and vegetables should comprise half of your food intake.

8. Name two foods from each food group that are low in empty calories and two foods that are high in empty calories.

GRAINS Low: whole-wheat bread, oatmeal, brown rice High: blueberry muffin, doughnut, croissant VEGETABLES Low: steamed broccoli, green beans, sweet potatoes High: french fries, onion rings, fried zucchini

FRUITS Low: strawberries, fresh peaches, raw apple High: apple pie, frozen sweetened strawberries, canned peaches in heavy syrup DAIRY Low: fat-free or low-fat milk, nonfat yogurt High: whole milk, sweetened yogurt, cheddar cheese PROTEIN Low: lean skinless chicken breast, kidney beans High: sausage, bologna, pepperoni 9. Why do the Dietary Guidelines and MyPlate recommend limiting solid fats and added sugar?

Fats that are solid at room temperature, such as butter, margarine, or shortening, are animal fats.

They provide saturated and trans fats. They are empty calories and should be limited in the diet.

Added sugars are also empty calories that provide little to no nutrients, but add calories to the diet.

10. Why are serving sizes standardized on food labels?

The use of standard serving sizes allows comparisons to be made easily between products.

11. How do the Daily Values help consumers determine how foods fit into their overall diets?

The Daily Values are standards used on food labels. The % Daily Value is the amount of a nutrient in a food as a percentage of the recommendation for a 2000-kcalorie diet. This helps people assess whether an individual food provides a little or a lot of a particular nutrient. As a general rule, a Daily Value of 5% or less indicates that the food is low in that nutrient and a Daily Value of 20% or more indicates that it is high. For most nutrients, the Daily Value is a target for intake, but for some, such as total fat, saturated fat, and cholesterol, it is a maximum recommended amount.

12. What determines the order in which food ingredients are listed on a label?

The ingredients section of the label lists the contents of the product in order of their prominence by weight.

13. How are the Exchange Lists used in planning diets?

The Exchange Lists is a food group system that is useful in planning diets to meet specific energy and macronutrient goals. The latest revision of the Exchange Lists divides foods into three main groups based on their macronutrient content: the carbohydrate group, the meat and meatsubstitute group, and the fat group. The exchanges are designed so that each serving within a list contains approximately the same amount of energy, carbohydrate, protein, and fat. The exchange system can be used to design diets to meet individual tastes and preferences at specific energy and macronutrient levels.

14. What is nutritional status?

Nutritional status is the state of health as it is influenced by the intake and utilization of nutrients.

15. List the components of individual nutritional assessment.

An individual nutritional assessment includes a review of past and present dietary intake, a clinical assessment that evaluates body size and includes a medical history and physical exam, and laboratory measurements.

16. How does food disappearance data help monitor the nutritional health of populations?

Data obtained through Food Disappearance Surveys monitors the food available to a population including all that is grown, manufactured, or imported for sale in the country. Food use or “disappearance” is estimated by measuring what food is sold. These types of surveys are used to estimate what is available to the population, provide year-to-year comparisons, and identify trends in the diet; but they tend to overestimate actual intake because they do not consider losses that occur during processing, marketing, and home use. Also, the surveys do not consider how food is distributed throughout the population.

Answers to Review Questions Chapter 3: Digestion, Absorption, and Metabolism 1. What is the smallest unit of plant and animal life?

In any living system, molecules are organized into structures that form cells, the smallest unit of life.

2. List three organ systems involved in the digestion and absorption of food.

The endocrine system secretes chemical messengers that help regulate food intake and absorption. The nervous system aids in digestion by sending nerve signals that help control the passage of food through the digestive tract. Once absorbed, nutrients are transported to individual cells by the cardiovascular system. The body’s urinary, respiratory, and integumentary systems allow for the elimination of metabolic waste products.

3. How do teeth function in digestion?

Adult humans have 32 teeth, specialized for biting, tearing, grinding, and crushing foods. This increases the surface area of the food mass to allow enzymes better access.

4. What is peristalsis? What is segmentation?

PERISTALSIS: Coordinated muscular contractions that move food through the GI tract.

SEGMENTATION: Rhythmic local constrictions of the intestine that mix food with digestive juices and speed absorption by repeatedly moving the food mass over the intestinal wall.

5. List two functions of the stomach.

The stomach serves as a temporary storage place where the bolus is mixed with highly acidic stomach secretions to form a semiliquid food mass called chyme. Some digestion takes place in the stomach, specifically the beginning of protein digestion. The stomach also helps regulated the movement of material through the GI tract by controlling the rate of stomach emptying..

6. How is the movement of material through the digestive tract regulated?

Nerve signals and hormones.

7. List three mechanisms by which nutrients are absorbed. (Choose 3) 1. Simple diffusion, which requires no energy moves material from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration without the help of a carrier molecule.

2. Osmosis is the diffusion of water. The water molecules move from an area with a low solute concentration to an area with a high solute concentration. No energy is required and no carrier molecule is needed.

3. Facilitated diffusion, which requires no energy, moves material from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration with the help of a carrier.

4. Active transport, which requires energy and a carrier, can move material from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration.

8. Where do most digestion and absorption occur?

The small intestine is the primary site of digestion of food and absorption of nutreints.

9. How does the structure of the small intestine aid absorption?

The structure of the small intestine includes three features which increase the surface area available for nutrient absorption. First, the intestinal walls are arranged in circular or spiral folds.

Second, its entire inner surface is covered with finger-like projections called villi. And, finally, each of these villi is covered with tiny microvilli. Together, these features maximize nutrient absorption by providing a surface area about the size of a tennis court.

10. What products of digestion are transported by the lymphatic system?

Fat soluble materials such as triglycerides, cholesterol, and fat soluble vitamins are incorporated into particles that are too large to enter the intestinal capillaries and so instead pass from the intestinal mucosa into the lacteals, the smallest of the lymph vessels, which drain into larger lymph vessels.

11. How does the digestive tract protect us from harmful microorganisms?

When harmful microorganisms infect the GI tract, diarrhea (as well as vomiting) helps to flush them out.

There are 300 to 500 species of bacteria that reside in the large intestine. The right mix of these intestinal bacteria is important for immune function, proper growth and development of colon cells, and optimal intestinal motility and transit time. Having healthy microflora can inhibit the growth of harmful bacteria and has been shown to prevent the diarrhea associated with antibiotic use and to reduce the duration of diarrhea resulting from intestinal infections and other causes.

12. What causes food allergies?

Food allergies occur when the body sees a food protein, called an allergen , as a foreign substance. The first time the protein is consumed and a piece of it is absorbed intact, the immune system is stimulated.

When the protein is consumed again, the immune system recognizes it and mounts an attack, causing an allergic reaction.

13. Explain what causes heartburn and GERD. Heartburn occurs when some of the acidic stomach contents leaks up and out of the stomach into the esophagus, causing a burning sensation. The more technical term for the leakage of stomach contents back into the esophagus is gastroesophageal reflux. If it occurs more than twice a week, it may indicate a condition called gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), which can eventually lead to more serious health problems such as peptic ulcers and cancer. Symptoms can be reduced by eating small meals and avoiding spicy foods, fatty and fried foods, citrus fruits, chocolate, caffeinated beverages, tomato-based foods, garlic, onions, and mint. Remaining upright after eating, wearing loose clothing, avoiding smoking and alcohol, and losing weight may also help relieve symptoms. A number of medications are also available to reduce reflux symptoms.

14. What path does an amino acid follow from absorption to delivery to the cell? Compare this to the path a large fatty acid would follow from absorption to delivery to the cell.

Amino acids are water-soluble molecules that can be absorbed into the capillary blood vessels in the intestinal villi. The capillaries merge to form venules at the base of the villi. The venules merge to form larger and larger veins, which eventually form the hepatic portal vein. The hepatic portal vein delivers the amino acid to the liver, which determines whether or not it will be released into the general circulation.

Large fatty acids and other fat-soluble materials are incorporated into particles that are too large to enter the capillaries. Instead they pass from the intestinal mucosa into lacteals. These small lymph vessels drain into larger lymph vessels. The lymph vessels from the intestine and most other organs of the body drain into the thoracic duct, which empties into the blood stream near the neck. Therefore, large fatty acids do not pass through the liver before entering the general circulation.

15. What is the form of energy used by cells?

ATP can be thought of as the energy currency of the cell.

16. Explain what occurs during the citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain.

In the citric acid cycle, the two carbons of acetyl-CoA are removed one at a time, forming carbon dioxide molecules, releasing electrons, and generating a small amount of ATP. The electrons, which are high in energy, are passed to shuttling molecules for transport to the electron transport chain (Figure 3.21).

The electron transport chain consists of a series of molecules that accept electrons from the shuttling molecules and pass them from one to another down the chain. As electrons are passed along the electron transport chain, their energy is released and used to make ATP. The final molecule to accept electrons in the electron transport chain is oxygen. When oxygen accepts electrons it is reduced and forms a molecule of water.

17. What happens to material that is not absorbed in the small intestine?

Substances that cannot be absorbed in the small intestine, such as fiber, pass into the large intestine. Here some of these substances are modified by bacterial enzymes and what remains is excreted in the feces.

18. How do the lungs and kidneys help eliminate metabolic waste products?

At the lungs, red blood cells release their load of the waste product carbon dioxide, which is then exhaled. In addition to carbon dioxide, a significant amount of water is lost from the lungs by evaporation.

The kidney is the primary site for the excretion of water, metabolic waste products, and excess minerals. Each kidney filters blood and allows molecules that have been filtered out of the blood to be reabsorbed. Substances that are not reabsorbed or needed are passed to the bladder and excreted in the urine.

Answers to Review Questions Chapter 4: Carbohydrates: Sugars, Starches and Fiber 1. What foods are good sources of unrefined complex carbohydrates?

Unrefined simple carbohydrates?

Whole grains, legumes, and fruits and vegetables are good sources of unrefined complex carbohydrates. Unrefined simple carbohydrates are found in fruits, some vegetables, and milk.

2. What is the basic unit of carbohydrate?

A single sugar or monosaccharide.

3. List three common simple carbohydrates. Where are they found in the diet? Where are they found in the body?

Glucose – found in blood sugar.

Galactose – it occurs most often as part of lactose, the disaccharide in milk.

Fructose – found in fruits, vegetables and honey.

Maltose – formed during the digestion of starch Sucrose – Found in the diet as common table sugar Lactose – the sugar found in milk 4. Describe three types of complex carbohydrates.

OLIGOSACCHARIDES: Short chain carbohydrates containing 3 to 10 sugar units.

STARCH: Polysaccharides that are made up of many glucose units and serve as a storage form of energy in plants GLYCOGEN: Polysaccharide made of many glucose molecules linked together in a highly branched structure. It is the storage form of carbohydrate in animals.

FIBER: Polysaccharides and lignin found in plants. These molecules cannot be broken down by human digestive enzymes 5. Why is added sugar considered a source of empty kcalories?

The refined sugar added to foods has been separated from its original plant source and therefore is not consumed with the fiber, vitamins, minerals, and other substances found in the original plant. It therefore contributes only kcalories.

6. How much energy is provided by a gram of carbohydrate?

4 kcals/gram.

7. Explain how fiber affects gastrointestinal health.

Indigestible carbohydrates such as fiber affect GI motility, the type of intestinal microflora, nutrient absorption, and the amount of intestinal gas. Fiber increases the amount of material and the amount of water in the colon. This promotes healthy bowel function because the extra bulk stimulates peristalsis, causing the muscles of the colon to work more, become stronger, and function better. Diets high in fiber promote the maintenance of beneficial species of bacteria in the colon, but the large amount of material available for bacterial metabolism increases the production of intestinal gas. The increased volume of material and the viscous solutions formed by soluble fiber slow nutrient absorption. This can slow glucose absorption, thus reducing fluctuations in blood glucose.

8. What is the main function of glucose in the body?

Energy production.

9. Explain why drinking a sugar-sweetened beverage causes a person’s blood glucose to rise faster than it does after eating a bean burrito.

Refined sugars and starches generally cause a greater glycemic response than unrefined carbohydrates that contain fiber. This is because sugars and starches consumed alone leave the stomach quickly and are rapidly digested and absorbed, causing a sharp, swift rise in blood sugar. For example, when you drink a can of soda on an empty stomach, your blood sugar increases within minutes. Eating a high-fiber food causes a slower, lower increase in blood sugar.

The presence of fat and protein also slows stomach emptying, and therefore foods high in these macronutrients generally cause a smaller glycemic response than foods containing sugar or starch alone.

10. Compare the roles of insulin and glucagon in regulating blood glucose.

A rise in blood glucose triggers the pancreas to secrete the hormone insulin, which allows glucose to be taken into muscle and adipose tissue cells. Insulin also stimulates protein synthesis, and in fat-storing cells, it stimulates lipid synthesis. These actions remove glucose from the blood, decreasing its level.

When no carbohydrate has been consumed for a few hours, the glucose level in the blood—and consequently the glucose available to the cells—begins to decrease. This triggers the pancreas to secrete the hormone glucagon. Glucagon signals liver cells to break down glycogen into glucose, which is released into the bloodstream.

11. Describe what happens during the process of glycolysis.

Glycolysis breaks glucose into two 3-carbon pyruvate molecules. A small amount of ATP is produced and electrons are released.

12. What are the end products of cellular respiration? During which step is each produced?

Carbon dioxide – Produced during acetyl CoA formation and the Citric Acid Cycle Water – Produced when electrons are given to oxygen at the end of the electron transport chain ATP – A small amount is produced during glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. Most is produced during the electron transport chain (uses the energy from the electrons).

13. Explain why carbohydrate is said to spare protein.

Since adequate dietary carbohydrate eliminates the need to use amino acids from protein to synthesize glucose, carbohydrate is said to spare protein.

14. What is diabetes and what are the long-term complications of this disease?

Diabetes is a disease caused by either insufficient insulin production or decreased sensitivity of cells to insulin. It results in elevated blood glucose levels.

It can cause damage to the large blood vessels, leading to an increased risk of heart disease and stroke. It also causes changes in small blood vessels and nerves. In the United States diabetes is the leading cause of blindness in adults and accounts for 44% of all new cases of kidney failure and over 60% of nontraumatic lower-limb amputations.

15. Why is ketosis a problem only in type 1 diabetes?

In type 1 diabetes insulin is absent so no glucose can be used by the cells. Without carbohydrate the cells cannot completely metabolize fatty acids so ketones are formed. Ketosis is not a problem in type 2 diabetes because some insulin is present so enough glucose is available to prevent excess ketone formation.

16. Why does a diet high in sucrose promote tooth decay?

Sucrose is the most cariogenic carbohydrate because it is needed for plaque formation and is rapidly metabolized by bacteria to form acid, which damages enamel.

17. What health benefits are associated with a diet high in unrefined carbohydrates?

Diets high in unrefined carbohydrates make weight loss and weight maintenance easier, may reduce the risk of heart disease is by reducing blood cholesterol levels, can help manage diabetes, can relieve or prevent certain bowel disorders that are caused by pressure in the lumen of the colon, help soften stools and prevent constipation, and may lower the risk of colon cancer.

18. How can you use the information on food labels to help you identify foods that are high in added sugars? In fiber?

Food labels list the grams of sugars in foods, but identifying packaged foods that are high in added refined sugar isn’t always easy because food labels don’t differentiate between added and natural sugar. What’s listed in the Nutrition Facts is the total number of grams of sugars, which includes both added and naturally occurring monosaccharides and disaccharides. Some foods include a nutrition claim such as “no added sugar” or “without added sugar” which indicates that no sugars or sugar-containing ingredients were added in processing (see Table 4.5). For products that do not contain descriptors such as these you can sort out their sugar sources by reading the ingredient list, which will include all sources of added sugar in order of prominence by weight.

Total fiber is given in grams and as a percent of the Daily Value. The amounts of soluble and insoluble fiber may also be listed if manufacturers choose to include them but are not required.

Descriptors such as “high fiber” and “a good source of fiber” can help you find high-fiber products.

Food labels may also carry health claims related to fiber and chronic disease risk.

19. What are the risks and benefits of alternative sweeteners?

Alternative sweeteners have been shown to reduce the incidence of dental caries and can be helpful for managing blood sugar levels in diabetes, but their usefulness for weight loss has been more controversial. The use of alternative sweeteners has not been shown to be a health risk.

Answers to Review Questions Chapter 5: Lipids 1. How have the sources of fat in the American diet changed over the past 40 years?

In the 1960s most fat came from high-fat cuts of beef, eggs, whole milk, butter, and cheese. But beginning in the 1970s when Americans were told fat was making them fat and increasing their risk of heart disease and cancer, they replaced beef with chicken, ate fewer eggs, switched to low-fat milk, and put less butter on their toast. In the 1980s, food manufacturers offered an endless assortment of reduced-fat products such as low-fat cheese, fat-free cookies, and snack foods that were baked instead of fried. As a result, Americans reduced their fat intake from about 40% of energy in the 1960s and 1970s to about 33% today. However, the average total grams of fat ingested has not changed much; indicating that Americans are eating more total kcalories.

2. Name two functions of fat in foods.

Fats contribute to the texture, flavor, and aroma of food. Fat also adds kcalories to food.

3. What is a lipid?

Lipids are organic molecules, most of which do not dissolve in water. They include fatty acids, triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols.

4. Name four types of lipids found in the body.

Triglycerides, fatty acids, phospholipids, and sterols.

5. What distinguishes a saturated fat from a monounsaturated fat? From a polyunsaturated fat?

A fatty acid in which each carbon in the chain is bound to two hydrogens is saturated with hydrogens and is therefore called a saturated fatty acid. Triglycerides with a high proportion of saturated fatty acids are saturated fats.

A fatty acid with one double bond in its carbon chain is a monounsaturated fatty acid and a fatty acid with more than one double bond in its carbon chain is said to be a polyunsaturated fatty acid.

Triglycerides with high proportions of monounsaturated fatty acids and polyunsaturated fatty acids are called monounsaturated fats and poly unsaturated fats, respectively.

6. What type of processing increases the amounts of trans fatty acids?

Artificial trans fat that we eat comes from products that have undergone hydrogenation.

7. List four functions of fat in the body.

Structure, lubrication, regulation, energy production 8. Is essential fatty-acid deficiency common in developed countries? Why or why not?

Essential fatty-acid deficiency is not a common occurrence in developed countries, such as the United States. The typical intake of essential fatty-acids exceeds recommendations. Infants, young children consuming very low-fat diets, and individuals who are unable to absorb lipids are the exceptions who may experience deficiency.

9. Why is the ratio of omega-3 to omega-6 fatty acids in the diet important?

Omega-3 and omega-6 make eicosanoids, hormone-like molecules crucial in regulating blood pressure, clotting, immune function, and other body processes. The effect an eicosanoid has on these functions depends on the fatty acid from which it is made.

10. What is the advantage of storing energy as body fat rather than as carbohydrate?

Fat provides 9 kcalories per gram, compared to only 4 kcalories per gram for carbohydrate, so by using fat to store energy rather than carbohydrate the body can store more energy with a smaller increase in body size or weight. That is, for the same amount of weight, more energy can be

stored. This is a benefit to animals (including humans), who have to carry that stored weight as they move. In contrast, plants store most of their energy as carbohydrate (starch).

11. What is the function of bile in fat digestion and absorption?

In the small intestine, bile from the gallbladder helps break fat into small globules. Separating large globules of fat into small globules of fat increases the surface area of triglycerides available to lipases, which can only digest on the outer surface of the globule. The triglycerides in these globules are digested by lipases from the pancreas, which breaks them down into fatty acids and monoglycerides. These products of triglyceride digestion, cholesterol, and other fat-soluble substances including fat-soluble vitamins mix with bile to form smaller droplets called micelles.

Micelles have a fat-soluble center surrounded by a coating of bile acids. They facilitate the absorption of lipids into the mucosal cells of the small intestine by allowing these substances to get close enough to the brush border to diffuse across into the mucosal cells. Most of the bile acids in micelles are also absorbed and returned to the liver to be reused 12. How do HDLs differ from LDLs? High-density lipoproteins (HDLS): Lipoproteins that pick up cholesterol from cells and transport it to the liver so that it can be eliminated from the body. A high level of HDL decreases the risk of cardiovascular disease.

Low-density lipoproteins (LDLS): Lipoproteins that transport cholesterol to cells. Elevated LDL cholesterol increases the risk of cardiovascular disease.

13. How are blood levels of LDLs and HDLs related to the risk of cardiovascular disease?

High blood levels of LDL cholesterol increase the risk of heart disease; a high level of HDL decreases the risk of cardiovascular disease.

14. What types of foods contain cholesterol?

Cholesterol is found only in foods from animal sources.

15. How does an atherosclerotic plaque form?

Although the deposition of lipids within the artery wall is an important component of the process, we now know that inflammation, which is the process whereby the body responds to injury, is what drives the formation of atherosclerotic plaque. The process begins as a response to an injury to the lining of the artery wall. The injury causes the lining of the artery to become more permeable to LDL particles, which migrate into the artery wall. Once inside the LDL particles are modified, often by oxidation, to form oxidized LDL cholesterol. Oxidized LDL promotes inflammation. Macrophages are attracted to the area and migrate into the artery wall where scavenger receptors on their surface bind to and take up oxidized LDL cholesterol. They become cholesterol-filled foam cells, which burst and deposit cholesterol in the artery wall. The macrophages and foam cells secrete growth factors and other chemicals that continue the inflammatory response and promote growth of the plaque. Smooth muscle cells migrate in and secrete fibrous proteins. Platelets become sticky and clump. A fibrous cap eventually forms over the mixture of white blood cells, lipids, and fibrous material.

16. What is the AMDR for total dietary fat intake?

The AMDR for total fat intake of 20% to 35% of energy for adults.

17. What information about dietary fat is included on food labels?

The Nutrition Facts section provides the number of kcalories from fat, the number of grams of total fat, saturated fat, and trans fat, and the number of milligrams of cholesterol in a serving. With the exception of trans fat, these are also presented as a percent of the Daily Value.

17. List two foods that are sources of monounsaturated fatty acids, two that are sources of omega-3 fatty acids, and two that that are sources of cholesterol?

Monounsaturated fatty acids: olive and canola oil Omega-3 fatty acids: walnuts and canola oil Cholesterol: Egg yolks and shellfish organ meats

Answers to Review Questions Chapter 6: Proteins and Amino Acids 1. List some plant sources of protein.

Lentils such as soybeans, peanuts, black-eyed peas, chickpeas, and dried beans; nuts and seeds; and grain products such as bread, rice, and pasta.

2. What are amino acids?

The building blocks of proteins. Each contains a central carbon atom bound to a hydrogen atom, an amino group, an acid group, and a side chain.

3. Describe the general structure of a protein.

To form proteins, amino acids are linked together by peptide bonds to form long chains of amino acids called polypeptides. A protein is made of one or more polypeptide chains folded into a complex three-dimensional shape. The order and chemical properties of the amino acids in the polypeptide chains determines the three-dimensional shape of the protein. It is the shape of the final protein that determines its function.

4. What is an essential amino acid?

These amino acids, called essential or indispensable amino acids, are amino acids that must be consumed in the diet because they cannot be synthesized by the human body in sufficient amounts to meet needs.

5. What is the “amino acid pool” and where do these amino acids come from?

The amino acid pool refers to all of the amino acids in body tissues and fluids that are available for use by the body.

6. List three structural and/or regulatory functions of proteins in the body. fluid balance regulation, acid base balance, energy production.

7. Explain how proteins are synthesized.

The amino acids used to synthesize body proteins come from the amino acid pool. The instructions that dictate which amino acids are needed, and in what order they should be combined, are contained in stretches of DNA called genes. When a protein is needed, the process of protein synthesis is turned on.

The first step in protein synthesis involves copying, or transcribing, the DNA code from the gene into a molecule of messenger RNA (mRNA). This process is called transcription. The mRNA then takes this information from the nucleus of the cell to ribosome in the cytoplasm where proteins are made. Here the information in mRNA is translated through another type of RNA, called transfer RNA (tRNA). Transfer RNA reads the code and delivers the needed amino acids to form a polypeptide chain. This process is called translation. After translation proteins typically undergo further chemical modifications before achieving their final structure and function.

8. Why is protein deficiency most common in infants and children?

Protein deficiency is most common in infants and children because their protein requirements are high in oder to support their rapid growth rate. Their stomachs are small so they cannot consume a large volume of food. Therefore to provide enough protein their diet must contain foods that are more concentrated sources of protein – these are often not available in the developing world.

9. Compare and contrast the causes and symptoms of kwashiorkor and marasmus.

KWASHIORKOR: A form of protein-energy malnutrition in which only protein is deficient.

Symptoms include poor growth, an increased susceptibility to infection, changes in hair color, flaking skin, a bloated belly, and the death of cells lining the digestive tract so nutrient absorption

is impaired. The bloated belly typical of this condition is a result of both fat accumulating in the liver, because there is not enough protein to transport it, and fluid accumulating in the abdomen, because there is not enough protein to keep fluid in the blood. Children with kwashiorkor retain some body fat stores and do not experience ketosis because the diet contains carbohydrate – it is just deficient in protein.

MARASMUS: A form of protein-energy malnutrition in which a deficiency of energy (including lack of protein) in the diet causes severe body wasting. Symptoms include some of the same symptoms as kwashiorkor, but there are also differences. In marasmus individuals appear emaciated because their body fat stores have been used to provide energy. Since fat is a major energy source and carbohydrate is limited, ketosis may occur in marasmus.

10. How does the typical protein intake in North America compare to recommendations?

In a typical North American diet, protein provides about 20% of the energy. This is equal to approximately 100 grams of protein—which is about twice the requirement.

11. What health problems are associated with a diet high in animal proteins?

Protein excess increases the amount of urea that must be excreted by the kidneys and increases calcium lost in the urine, but these effects are not a problem for healthy people who consume adequate amounts of calcium. High-protein diets can affect long-term health if they are high in saturated fat and cholesterol and low in fiber.

12. What effect does moderate exercise have on protein needs?

Most athletes can meet their protein needs by consuming the RDA of 0.8 gram per kg of body weight per day. Only endurance athletes and strength athletes, such as triathletes and body builders, require more than the RDA. 13. What does nitrogen balance suggest about the balance between protein synthesis and protein breakdown in the body?

If the body breaks down more protein than it synthesizes then nitrogen balance is negative; this means more nitrogen is lost than ingested. This indicates that body protein is being lost. Negative nitrogen balance can occur when intake is too low or when the amount of protein breakdown has been increased by a stress such as injury, illness, or surgery.

If the body is synthesizing more protein than it breaks down, nitrogen balance is positive; this indicates that the body is using dietary protein for the synthesis of new body proteins. Positive nitrogen balance occurs when new tissue is synthesized, such as during growth, pregnancy, wound healing, or muscle building 14. What is protein quality?

A measure of how efficiently a protein in the diet can be used to make body proteins.

15. What is protein complementation?

Combining proteins from different sources so that they collectively provide the proportions of amino acids required to meet needs.

16. What nutrients are at risk of deficiency in vegan diets?

Vitamin B12, calcium. Vitamin D, iron, zinc, omega-3 fatty acids including EPA and DHA.

Answers to Review Questions Chapter 7: Energy Balance and Weight Management 1. What changes in the U.S. environment and lifestyle have contributed to the obesity epidemic?

Changes in the American lifestyle over the past 40 years have led to people eating more and expending less energy. Supermarkets, fast-food restaurants, and convenience marts make palatable, affordable food readily available to the majority of the population 24 hours a day. Increasingly busy schedules lead to eating when it’s convenient rather that eating healthy. Portion sizes have vastly increased. Inactivity has increased. People are more inclined to drive cars rather than walk or bike or take the elevator rather than the stairs. Television and video games have often replaced physical activity, especially in children and adolescents.

2. Explain how energy balance is related to body weight.

The principle of energy balance states that when energy consumption equals energy expenditure, weight remains constant. It simply means that body weight is not changing. If, less energy is taken in than expended, energy balance is negative and weight will be lost. If the amount of energy taken in exceeds the amount expended, energy balance is positive and the extra energy will be stored in the body causing weight to increase.

3. Which nutrients provide energy? How much does each provide?

Carbohydrate and protein provide about 4 kcalories per gram. Fat provides 9 kcalories per gram.

4. What is basal metabolic rate?

Basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the rate of energy expenditure under resting conditions. It does not include the energy needed for activity or for processing food. BMR is measured in the morning in a warm room before the subject rises and at least 12 hours after food intake or activity.

5. What is NEAT? How does it affect energy balance?

The energy expended for daily activities is called nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) and includes the energy expended for everything that is not sleeping, eating, or sports-like exercise. NEAT accounts for the majority of the energy expended for activity and varies enormously, depending on an individual ’s occupation and daily movements.

6. What is the thermic effect of food?

The energy required for the digestion of food and the absorption, metabolism, and storage of nutrients. It is equal to approximately 10% of daily energy intake.

7. Explain why the energy in dietary fat is stored in body fat more efficiently than the energy in dietary carbohydrate.

To convert dietary fat into body fat requires only the removal and reattachment of fatty acids from the glycerol molecule and thus only 2 to 3% of the energy in the fat is used to store it. In contrast, to convert the energy in dietary carbohydrate into body fat is more energy costly. It requires that the glucose be converted to acetyl-CoA and the acetyl-CoA molecules be assembled into fatty acids. The fatty acids must then be attached to a molecule of glycerol to form triglyceride for storage.

8. Describe three methods for measuring energy expenditure.

DIRECT CALORIMETRY: A method of determining energy use that measures the amount of heat produced.

INDIRECT CALORIMETRY: A method of estimating energy use that compares the amount of oxygen consumed to the amount of carbon dioxide expired.

DOUBLY-LABELED WATER METHOD: A technique for measuring energy expenditure based on

measuring the disappearance of isotopes of hydrogen and oxygen in body fluids after consumption of a defined amount of water labeled with both isotopes.

9. What is EER and what variables are used in its calculation?

The amount of energy calculated to maintain body weight in a healthy person based on age, gender, size, and activity level.

10. List five health problems that are associated with excess body fat. (Choose 5) Carrying excess body fat increases the risk of a host of chronic health problems including high blood pressure, heart disease, high blood cholesterol, diabetes, stroke, gallbladder disease, arthritis, sleep disorders, respiratory problems, and cancers of the breast, uterus, prostate, and colon.

11. Explain what is meant by a healthy body weight.

Guidelines for a healthy body weight are based on the weight at which the risk of illness and death are lowest. These risks are associated not only with body weight, but also with the amount and location of body fat, therefore assessment of a healthy body weight must consider body composition. A healthy body weight is defined as a BMI between 18.5 to 24.9 kg/m 2.

12. How is BMI calculated and why is it commonly used to assess body weight?

BMI is calculated from a ratio of weight to height according to the following equation: BMI = weight in kg/(height in m)2.

Although BMI does not directly assess percent body fat, BMI values correlate well with body fat in most people and are more accurate at approximating body fat than measuring body weight alone.

13. List five methods for determining the amount of body fat a person has.

Bioelectric Impedance Analysis, Skinfold thickness, Underwater weighing, air displacement (BOD POD) Dilution methods, Radiologic methods.

14. How does the distribution of body fat affect the risks of excess body fat?

Fat that is located under the skin, called subcutaneous fat, carries less risk than visceral fat, which is deposited around the organs in the abdomen. An increase in visceral fat is associated with a higher incidence of heart disease, high blood pressure, stroke, and diabetes. Generally, fat in the hips and lower body is subcutaneous, whereas fat deposited around the waist in the abdominal region is primarily visceral fat. Therefore, people who carry their excess fat around and above the waist have more visceral fat. Those who carry their extra fat below the waist in the hips and thighs have more subcutaneous fat.

15. List some social and environmental factors that affect energy balance and discuss how these might interact with an individual’s genetic predisposition to a particular body weight.

Some environmental factors include the increase in the availability of palatable, affordable, convenient food to the majority of the population, an increase in portion sizes both in restaurants and at home, and an increase in the use of cars and conveniences at home that decrease the amount of activity needed for daily living.

Some social factors include an increase in the number of single-parent households and households with two working parents, which limits the time families have to prepare meals at home; an increase in the dependence on prepackaged, convenience, and fast foods, which are typically higher in energy than meals prepared at home; less active jobs; busy schedules and long days at work and commuting that leave people no time for active recreation; and an increase in the prevalence of televisions, electronic games, and computers that give people sedentary ways to spend their leisure time.

16. Explain three mechanisms that make you stop eating when you have eaten enough at a meal.

Physical sensations that tell people to eat or stop eating are triggered by 1) signals from the GI tract, 2) levels of circulating nutrients, and 3) messages from the brain. The simplest type of signal about how much food has been eaten comes from local nerves in the walls of the stomach and small intestine that sense the volume or pressure of food and send a message to the brain to either start or stop eating. Once food is consumed, nutrients in the GI tract send information directly to the brain and trigger the release of gastrointestinal hormones such as cholecystokinin that signal eating to stop. Once nutrients have been absorbed, circulating levels of nutrients, including glucose, amino acids, ketones, and fatty acids, are monitored by the brain and may trigger signals to eat or not to eat. Nutrients that are taken up by the brain may affect neurotransmitter concentrations, which then affect the amount and type of nutrients consumed.

Absorbed nutrients also affect metabolism in the liver because absorbed water-soluble nutrients go there directly. Changes in liver metabolism, in particular the amount of ATP, are believed to be involved in regulating food intake.

17. Discuss the role of leptin in regulating body weight.

Leptin is a hormone that is produced by the adipocytes and acts in the hypothalamus. The amount of leptin produced is proportional to the size of adipocytes—more leptin is released as fat stores increase. Leptin exerts its effect on food intake and energy expenditure by binding to leptin receptors present in the hypothalamus. This triggers mechanisms that affect energy intake and expenditure. When leptin levels are high, mechanisms that increase energy expenditure and decrease food intake are stimulated, and pathways that promote food intake and hence weight gain are inhibited. When fat stores shrink, less leptin is released. Low leptin levels in the brain allow pathways that decrease energy expenditure and increase food intake to become active.

Thus, leptin acts like a thermostat or lipostat to keep body fatness from changing.

18. Explain why weight loss might be recommended for one overweight individual, but not for another of the same BMI. If one’s BMI is above the healthy range it generally means that weight loss would improve longterm health, but this is not always the case. Some people with a high BMI, such as weight lifters, may have a large amount of muscle mass but not more body fat than is recommended, and thus weight loss is not needed. Weight loss may also not be recommended for someone in the overweight range who has excess body fat, but has a healthy lifestyle and none of the health conditions associated with excess body fat.

19. How many kcalories must be expended to lose a pound of fat?

About 3500 kcalories must be expended to lose a pound of fat.

20. What is the best approach to weight management? Why? Weight-management should help promote or maintain a healthy body weight over the long term by addressing lifestyle patterns that led to weight issues. When selecting a program look for one that is based on sound nutrition and exercise principles, suits your individual food preferences, promotes long-term lifestyle changes, and meets your needs in terms of cost, convenience, and time commitment It generally means to eat less and exercise more.

21. List some risks and benefits of weight-loss drugs.

Prescription drugs available for the treatment of obesity may be beneficial by decreasing food intake, by affecting the activity of brain neurotransmitters, or by decreasing energy intake by reducing fat absorption. The weight loss promoted by these drugs can improve the health of those whose health is seriously compromised by their body weight. Risks would include weight regain when the drug is discontinued and expected or unexpected side effects.

22. How does weight-loss surgery cause negative energy balance?

Weight-loss surgery causes weight loss by reducing the amount of food that can be consumed, limiting the amount that can be absorbed, or both.

Answers to Review Questions Chapter 8: The Water-Soluble Vitamins 1. What is a vitamin?

A vitamin is an organic compound needed in the diet in small amounts to promote and regulate the chemical reactions and processes needed for growth, reproduction, and maintenance of health.

2. List four factors that affect how much of a vitamin is available to the body.

1. How much of the vitamin can be absorbed. This can be affected by the composition of the diet.

For example, the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins is reduced if the amount of fat in the diet is very low. The presence of other substances in the diet that interfere with absorption are also important. For example, antithiamin factors may destroy the thiamin in some foods.

2. How much of a vitamin can be absorbed is also affect by digestive processes. For example, if the amount of acid in the stomach is low it may prevent some vitamins from being released from foods.

3. Once inside the body the availability of transport proteins needed to transport vitamins in the blood affect how much is available to the body 4. The amount of a vitamin that is available is also affected by conditions in the body, such as the ability to convert a provitamin to its active form.

3. Define coenzyme and describe the coenzyme functions of five vitamins.

Coenzymes are small nonprotein organic molecules that act as carriers of electrons or atoms in metabolic reactions and are necessary for the proper functioning of many enzymes.

The active coenzyme form of thiamin is needed for reactions in which carbon dioxide is lost from larger molecules.

Riboflavin coenzymes function as electron carriers in reactions of the citric acid cycle and reactions involved in the breakdown of fatty acids.

Niacin coenzymes are electron carriers that are needed for reactions of glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, the electron transport chain, and the synthesis of fatty acids and cholesterol.

Biotin is a coenzyme for a group of enzymes that add an acid group to molecules.

The coenzyme form of vitamin B6 is needed for enzymes involved in transamination, deamination, and the removal of acid groups from amino acids, as well as many other reactions involved in the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.

Folate coenzymes are needed for reactions that transfer chemical groups containing a single carbon atom.

Vitamin B12 conenzymes are needed to completely metabolize certain fatty acids and to convert homocysteine to methionine.

Vitamin C is a coenzyme in reactions that add a hydroxyl group to other molecules, such as in the synthesis of collagen.

Vitamin K is a fat-soluble coenzyme needed for proper blood clotting. It is discussed more in chapter 9 4. Why is thiamin deficiency common in alcoholics?

Alcoholics are particularly vulnerable to thiamin deficiency because thiamin absorption is decreased due to the effect of alcohol on the GI tract. In addition, the liver damage that occurs with chronic alcohol consumption reduces conversion of thiamin to active coenzyme forms; thiamin intake also may be low due to a diet high in alcohol and low in nutrient-dense foods.

5. Why should milk be packaged in opaque containers?

Opaque milk containers protect riboflavin from destruction by light.

6. What is pellagra?

Pellagra is the disease resulting from a deficiency of niacin. The symptoms of pellagra include the 3 Ds: dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.

7. How is vitamin B6 involved in protein metabolism?

Vitamin B6, also known as pyridoxine, comprises a group of compounds including pyridoxal, pyridoxine, and pyridoxamine. All three forms can be converted into the active coenzyme form, pyridoxal phosphate. This is particularly important for protein and amino acid metabolism.

Pyridoxal phosphate is needed to synthesize the nonessential amino acids and the conditionally essential amino acid cysteine. Pyridoxal phosphate is also needed to synthesize hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells.

8. Why is low folate intake of particular concern for women of childbearing age?

Folate intake is a particular concern for women of child bearing because if the woman becomes pregnant low folate status is associated with an increased risk of a type of birth defect called a neural tube defect that affects the unborn child’s brain or spinal cord. For the extra folic acid to be beneficial, it must be consumed for at least a month before conception and continued for a month after. Since many pregnancies are not planned, it is recommended that all women of childbearing age consume 400 g of folic acid from fortified foods or supplements.

9. Why would someone who has had his stomach removed (or had gastric bypass surgery) need to receive injections of vitamin B12 to meet his needs?

Injections would be needed because without the stomach no intrinsic factor would be produced.

Intrinsic factor is a protein produced in the stomach that is needed for the absorption of adequate amounts of vitamin B12. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed normally.

Injections of vitamin B12 bypass the gastrointestinal tract, and thus the need for intrinsic factor.

10. Why are vegans at risk for vitamin B12 deficiency? The elderly?

Vitamin B12 deficiency is a concern among vegans because vitamin B12 is only found in foods of animal origin.

The elderly are at risk of vitamin B12 deficiency because about 10% to 30% of individuals over 50 years of age are unable to absorb food-bound vitamin B12 normally because they have atrophic gastritis. This causes a reduction in stomach acid. When stomach acid is reduced, the enzymes that release protein-bound vitamin B12 cannot function properly and the bound vitamin B12 cannot be released and absorbed. Atrophic gastritis also causes microbial overgrowth in the intestine. These microbes reduce vitamin B12 absorption by competing for available vitamin B12.

To ensure adequate amounts of B12 it is recommended that individuals over the age of 50 meet their RDA by consuming foods fortified with vitamin B12 such as breakfast cereals or soy-based products or by taking a vitamin B12-containing supplement.

11. Explain why a deficiency of vitamin B6, folate, or vitamin B12 can all cause an increase in homocysteine levels.

Vitamin B6, vitamin B12, and folate are all involved in homocysteine metabolism. Vitamin B6 is needed to convert homocysteine to cysteine. Vitamin B12 and folate are needed to convert homocysteine to methionine. A deficiency of any of these vitamins can lead to the accumulation of homocysteine, which is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease.

12. Why does vitamin C deficiency cause poor wound healing?

Vitamin C is needed for the synthesis of healthy collagen. Since collagen is needed to synthesize the tissue that heals wounds a deficiency of vitamin C would prevent normal wound healing.

13. What are reactive oxygen molecules, and how do they cause damage?

Reactive oxygen molecules such as free radicals are highly reactive molecules that come from environmental sources such as air pollution or cigarette smoke or from normal oxygen-requiring reactions inside the body. Free radicals cause damage by snatching electrons from DNA, proteins, carbohydrates, or unsaturated fatty acids. This results in changes in the structure and function of these molecules. DNA damage is hypothesized to be a major reason for the increase

in cancer incidence that occurs with age. Free radical damage to lipoproteins and lipids in membranes is implicated in the development of atherosclerosis.

14. What is the role of antioxidants and pro-oxidants in oxidative stress?

Oxidative stress is a condition that occurs when there are more reactive oxygen molecules than can be neutralized by available antioxidant defenses. It can occur because antioxidant defenses are deficient. Agents that can induce oxidative stress by causing an increase in reactive oxygen molecules, a decrease in antioxidant defenses, or an increase in oxidative damage are called pro-oxidants.

15. Does choline fit the definition of a vitamin? Why or why not?

Yes and no. Choline can be synthesized to a limited extent by humans and is not currently classified as a vitamin. However, there is evidence that it is essential in healthy men. There is not enough information to determine if choline is also essential in the diets of women, infants, and children.

Choline is needed to synthesize a number of important molecules, including a phospholipid found in cell membranes, the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, and the methyl donor betaine. It is also an important source of carbon atoms in biochemical reactions.

Answers to Review Questions Chapter 9: The Fat-Soluble Vitamins 1. List two food sources of preformed vitamin A and two of provitamin A. Animal foods such as liver, fish, egg yolks, and dairy products provide preformed vitamin A. Plant foods containing provitamin A compounds include dark orange fruits and vegetables such as mangos, apricots, cantaloupe, carrots, red peppers, pumpkins, and sweet potatoes as well as in leafy greens.

2. How is vitamin A involved in the perception of light?

In the eye, the retinal form of the vitamin combines with the protein opsin to form the visual pigment rhodopsin. Rhodopsin helps transform the energy from light into a nerve impulse that is sent to the brain. This nerve impulse allows us to see.

3. How does vitamin A affect the proteins made by a cell?

Vitamin A affects protein synthesis through its effect on gene expression. The retinoic acid form of vitamin A enters the nucleus of the cell and binds to a protein receptor. The retinoic acidprotein receptor complex then binds to a regulatory region of DNA, changing the amount of mRNA made by the gene and hence the amount of protein synthesized. In this way vitamin A can turn on or turn off the production of certain proteins that regulate functions within cells and throughout the body. By affecting gene expression, vitamin A can also determine what type of cell an undifferentiated cell will become.

4. Why does a deficiency of vitamin A cause night blindness? Dry eyes?

Vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness because it causes a delay in the regeneration of rhodopsin, which causes difficulty in adapting to dim light after experiencing a bright light.

Vitamin A deficiency causes dry eyes because of its role in cell differentiation. When vitamin A is deficient the mucus-secreting cells on the surface of the eye are replaced by keratin secreting cells. This results in a lack of mucus and a buildup of keratin, causing the cornea to dry and leaving the eye open to infection.

5. What is beta-carotene?

A carotenoid that has more provitamin A activity than other carotenoids. It also acts as an antioxidant.

6. Explain why beta-carotene is not toxic, but preformed vitamin A is.

Carotenoids are not toxic because their absorption from the diet decreases at high doses, and once in the body, their conversion to retinoids is limited.

Preformed Vitamin A is toxic because it is absorbed more efficiently than beta-carotene and does not need to be converted to an active form once inside the body.

7. Why is vitamin D called the “sunshine vitamin?”

Vitamin D is known as the “sunshine vitamin” because it can be produced in the skin by exposure to ultraviolet light.

8. Name two sources of vitamin D in the diet.

Only a few foods are natural sources of vitamin D. These include liver; fatty fish such as salmon, mackerel, and sardines; cod liver oil; and egg yolks. The predominant food sources of vitamin D in the United States are fortified milk and fortified breakfast cereals.

9. What is the primary function of vitamin D? The principal function of vitamin D is to maintain levels of calcium and phosphorus in the blood that favor bone mineralization.

10. Describe the symptoms of vitamin D deficiency in children.

In children who are deficient in vitamin D, bones are weak because they do not contain enough calcium and phosphorus. This syndrome, called rickets, is characterized by bone deformities such as narrow rib cages known as pigeon breasts, and bowed legs.

11. Explain how vitamin D’s affect on gene expression alters calcium absorption.

Active vitamin D functions by binding to vitamin D receptor proteins at target tissues and affecting gene expression. Its effect at the intestines causes calcium absorption to increase because vitamin D increases the expression of genes in the intestinal cells that code for the production of intestinal calcium transport proteins. This enhances the active transport of dietary calcium from the intestinal lumen into the body.

12. What is the function of vitamin E? Vitamin E functions primarily as a fat-soluble antioxidant.

13. Name two sources of vitamin E in the diet.

Dietary sources of vitamin E include nuts and peanuts; plant oils, such as soybean, corn, and sunflower oils; leafy green vegetables; and wheat germ 14. What is the main function of vitamin K? Vitamin K is a coenzyme needed for the production of the blood-clotting protein prothrombin and other specific blood-clotting factors.

15. What are the symptoms of vitamin K deficiency?

Abnormal blood coagulation is the major symptom of vitamin K deficiency.

16. Explain why certain groups need supplements to meet their nutrition needs.

Supplements may be the only way for some people to meet certain nutrient needs for various reasons: they have low intakes, increased needs, or excess losses. For example, cigarette smokers require additional vitamin C intake. Iron and folic acid supplementation is recommended for pregnant women.

Vegans may take vitamin B12 supplements to compensate for the lack of animal products in their diet.

Answers for Review Questions Chapter 10: Water and the Electrolytes 1. Describe the functions of water in the body.

In the body, water serves as a medium in which chemical reactions take place; it also transports nutrients and wastes, provides protection by acting as a lubricant and a cushion against shock, helps regulate temperature, and participates in chemical reactions and acid-base balance.

2. How is the total amount of water in the body regulated?

The kidneys serve as a filtering system that regulates the amount of water and dissolved substances retained in the blood and excreted in urine.

3. How is the amount of water in each body compartment regulated?

The body can regulate the amount of water in each compartment by adjusting the concentration of solutes and relying on osmosis to move water.

4. What is the recommended water intake for adults?

The DRIs recommend 3.7 liters (3700 grams) per day for men and 2.7 liters (2700 grams) per day for women.

5. List three factors that increase water needs.

Water needs may vary depending on activity, heat and humidity, and diet.

6. Define electrolyte. How is the term used in nutrition?

Substances that dissociate in water to form charged ions are called electrolytes. Electrolyte solutions conduct electricity. In nutrition, the term electrolyte is used to refer to the minerals sodium, potassium, and chloride.

7. How do sodium, potassium, and chloride function in the body?

These are the principal electrolytes in body fluids. They help regulate fluid balance and are important for nerve conduction and muscle contraction.

8. Explain how blood pressure that is too low is returned to normal.

When blood pressure decreases, the kidneys release the enzyme renin, beginning a series of events leading to the production of angiotensin II. Angiotensin II increases blood pressure both by causing the blood vessel walls to constrict and by stimulating the release of the hormone aldosterone, which acts on the kidneys to increase sodium (and chloride) reabsorption. Water follows the reabsorbed sodium, helping to restore blood volume and, consequently, blood pressure. The increase in blood pressure then inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone so that blood pressure does not continue to rise.

9. What are the consequences of untreated hypertension?

Hypertension can lead to atherosclerosis, heart attack, stroke, kidney disease, and early death.

10. What types of foods contribute the most sodium to the North American diet?

Most of the sodium in the American diet comes from processed foods where it serves as a flavor enhancer, a preservative, and an aid to processing and handling. Specific foods include processed meats, cheese, and canned vegetables and fruits.

11. What types of foods are good sources of potassium?

Fresh fruits and vegetable are the best sources of potassium. Unprocessed meats, milk, and cereal products are also good sources of potassium but the form in these foods is not as readily available for absorption.

12. What is the relationship between dietary sodium and blood pressure?

Recent intervention trials have examined the effect of different levels of sodium intake on blood pressure. It was found that the lower the amount of sodium in the diet the lower the blood pressure. When compared to an intake of 3300 mg of sodium (the average level consumed by Americans) an intake of 2400 mg of sodium reduced blood pressure in those with and without hypertension, and even more significant reductions were seen when sodium intake was reduced to 1500 mg of sodium per day. These studies and others are the basis for the current DRIs and Dietary Guidelines recommendation for Americans to consume less than 2300 mg of sodium per day. Despite the general effect of sodium intake on blood pressure, not everyone who consumes more than the recommended amount of sodium a day will develop hypertension. Individuals with hypertension, diabetes, and chronic kidney disease, as well as older individuals and African Americans tend to be more sensitive to salt intake.

13. What is the DASH diet, and how does it affect blood pressure?

DASH stands for “Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension. It is a healthy eating plan for Americans and can be effective in lowering blood pressure. The DASH dietary pattern is high in fruits and vegetables and low-fat dairy products with limited intake of lean meats. It is high in potassium, calcium, magnesium, and fiber and low in total fat, saturated fat, and cholesterol.

Answers to Review Questions Chapter 11: Major Minerals and Bone Health 1. Explain the difference between major minerals and trace elements.

The major minerals include those needed in the diet in amounts greater than 100 mg per day or present in the body in amounts greater than 0.01% of body weight. The trace elements or trace minerals are minerals required by the body in an amount of 100 mg or less per day or present in the body in an amount of 0.01% or less of body weight.

2. List four factors that can affect mineral bioavailability.

1. The body’s ability to absorb specific minerals 2. The composition of the diet 3. Nutritional status 4. Life stage of the consumer 3. Describe the structure of bone.

Bone consists of a framework or matrix made up primarily of the protein collagen.

Imbedded in this protein matrix are solid mineral crystals known as hydroxyapatite. There are two types of bone: cortical or compact bone, which accounts for about 80% of the skeleton and forms the sturdy, dense outer surface layer, and trabecular or spongy bone, which forms an inner lattice that supports the cortical shell.

4. What is bone remodeling?

The process whereby bone is continuously broken down and re-formed to allow for growth and maintenance.

5. How does the rate of bone formation and breakdown change throughout life?

Most bone is formed early in life. In the growing bones of children, bone formation occurs more rapidly than breakdown. Even after growth stops, bone mass continues to increase into young adulthood when peak bone mass is achieved, somewhere between the ages of 16 and 30.When bone breakdown and formation are in balance bone mass remains constant. After about age 35 to 45, the amount of bone broken down begins to exceed that which is formed. If enough bone is lost, the skeleton is weakened and fractures occur easily, a condition known as osteoporosis.

6. How does the level of peak bone mass affect the risk of osteoporosis?

The lower the peak bone mass, the greater the risk of osteoporosis.

7. How is calcium intake related to the risk of osteoporosis?

Low calcium intake is the most significant dietary factor contributing to osteoporosis. Calcium is necessary for bone development. Adequate calcium intake during childhood and adolescence is an important factor in maximizing bone density; low calcium intakes during the years of bone formation result in a lower peak bone mass. If calcium intake is low after peak bone mass has been achieved, the rate of bone loss may be increased and, along with it, the risk of osteoporosis.

8. What factors other than calcium intake are related to the risk of osteoporosis?

Factors other than calcium intake that increase the risk of osteoporosis include female gender, White or Asian race, older than age 60, low body weight and body mass index (BMI), Family history of osteoporosis, history of previous fractures, estrogen depletion due to menopause or other causes, lifestyle issues including lack of exercise throughout life, cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, inadequate calcium and vitamin D intakes.

9. What is the major source of calcium in the North American diet?

The main source of calcium in the North American diet is dairy products such as milk, cheese, and yogurt.

10. What is the function of calcium in bones and teeth?

Calcium provides structure to bones and teeth, by forming crystals with phosphorus that harden the matrix of bone and teeth.

11. What are the roles of calcium in body fluids?

The calcium in body fluids plays critical roles in cell communication and the regulation of body processes. Calcium is essential for blood clotting, for the release of neurotransmitters, for the interaction of actin and myosin needed for muscle contraction, and for the regulation of blood pressure.

12. What happens to restore blood calcium levels when they drop too low? Rise too high?

If the level of blood calcium falls too low, PTH is released, stimulating the release of calcium from bone, reducing calcium excretion by the kidney, and activating vitamin D. Activated vitamin D increases the amount of calcium absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and, with PTH, stimulates calcium release from the bone and calcium retention by the kidney (see Chapter 9).

The overall effect is to rapidly increase blood calcium levels.

If blood calcium levels become too high, the secretion of PTH is shut off. In the absence of PTH, excretion of calcium by the kidney increases; less vitamin D is activated, reducing absorption of dietary calcium; and less calcium is released from bone. High blood calcium also stimulates the secretion of calcitonin. Calcitonin acts primarily on bone to inhibit the release of calcium.

Together, low PTH levels and the presence of calcitonin cause a decrease in blood calcium levels.

13. List sources of dietary calcium acceptable to those who are lactose intolerant.

Lactose-free calcium sources include dark-green leafy vegetables such as kale, broccoli, and mustard greens; soy products processed with calcium; fish consumed with the bones, and milk treated with the lactose-digesting enzyme, lactase (Lactaid milk). Fermented dairy products such as yogurt and cheese contain less lactose so may be tolerated by many who are lactose intolerant. Other ways to get calcium and avoid the symptoms of lactoe intolerance include consuming lactase pills to help digest the lactose consumed with a meal taking calcium supplements, or using calcium-fortified foods such as breakfast cereals and juice products.

14. Name some food sources of phosphorous.

Like calcium, phosphorus is found in dairy products such as milk, yogurt, and cheese, but meat, cereals, bran, eggs, nuts, and fish are also good sources. Food additives used in baked goods, cheese, processed meats, and soft drinks also contribute to dietary phosphorus.

15. What are the functions of phosphorus in the body?

Phosphorus forms hydroxyapatite crystals that provide rigidity to bones. Phosphorus is a component of the water-soluble head of phospholipid molecules, which form the structure of cell membranes. Phosphorus is a major constituent of the genetic material DNA and RNA and it is essential for energy production and storage because the high-energy bonds of ATP are formed between phosphate groups. Phosphorus is also a component of other high-energy compounds, including creatine phosphate, which provides energy to exercising muscles. Phosphoruscontaining molecules are important in relaying signals to the interior of cells to mediate hormone action and other metabolic activities. Phosphorus is involved in regulating enzyme activity because the addition of a phosphate group can activate or deactivate certain enzymes. It is also part of the phosphate buffer system that helps regulate the pH in the cytoplasm of all cells so that chemical reactions can proceed normally.

16. Name some food sources of magnesium.

Magnesium is found in leafy greens such as spinach and kale because it is a component of chlorophyll. Nuts, seeds, bananas, and the germ and bran of whole grains are also good sources 17. What is the function of magnesium in the body?

Magnesium is essential for the maintenance of bone structure. Most of the remaining body magnesium is present inside cells, where it is the second most abundant positively charged intracellular ion (after potassium). Magnesium is also involved in regulating calcium homeostasis and is needed for the action of vitamin D and many hormones including PTH. Magnesium is a cofactor for over 300 enzymes.

18. Where is sulfur found in the body?

In the body, sulfur is found in the sulfur-containing amino acids methionine and cysteine which are needed for protein synthesis. Sulfur is also found in the antioxidant molecule glutathione and as a part of the structure of the vitamins thiamin and biotin. Sulfur-containing ions are also present in body fluids where they help regulate acid-base balance.

Answers to Review Questions Chapter 12: The Trace Elements 1. What are the functions of iron in the body?

Iron in the body is essential for the delivery of oxygen to cells. Iron is also essential for energy production as a part of several proteins involved in the citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain. Iron- containing proteins are involved in drug metabolism and immune function. Iron is also part of the enzyme catalase, which protects the cells from oxidative damage by destroying hydrogen peroxide before it can form free radicals.

2. Why does iron deficiency cause red blood cells to be small and pale?

When iron is deficient, hemoglobin cannot be produced. When not enough hemoglobin is available, the red blood cells that are formed are small (microcytic) and pale (hypochromic) and unable to deliver adequate oxygen to the tissues.

3. List three life-stage groups at risk for iron deficiency anemia and explain why they are at risk. (Choose 3) Women of reproductive age are at risk for iron deficiency anemia because of iron loss due to menstruation.

Infants and children are at risk because their rapid growth increases iron needs.

Toddlers may also be at risk because finicky eating habits often reduce intake Adolescent boys are at risk because rapid growth and an increase in muscle mass and blood volume increase iron need.

Adolescent girls are at increased risk because iron needs are increased by weight gain, which is almost as great as in boys, and by increased iron losses caused by the onset of menstruation 4. List several good sources of iron in the diet and indicate if they contain heme or nonheme iron.

Meat, poultry, and fish are good sources of heme iron. Good nonheme sources are legumes, dried fruit, leafy greens such as spinach and kale, and whole and enriched grain products.

5. Discuss three dietary factors that affect iron absorption. (Choose 3) 1. Whether the iron is heme or nonheme. Heme iron is absorbed more efficiently than nonheme iron.

2. The presence of foods containing acids, such as ascorbic acid (vitamin C), citric acid, or lactic acid enhance nonheme iron absorption because the acids help to keep iron in the ferrous (Fe2+) form.

3. The presence of meat, fish, or poultry in a meal increases the absorption of the nonheme iron from that meal.

4. The presence of fiber, phytates, tannins, or oxalates can prevent absorption by binding to iron in the gastrointestinal tract.

5. The presence of other minerals, such as calcium consumed in the same meal, can reduce iron absorption.

6. Explain the roles of ferritin, transferrin, and hepcidin in regulating the amount of iron in the body.

Ferritin is the body’s major iron storage protein. Transferrin is the protein responsible for transporting iron to liver, bone, and other body cells. Hepcidin is the primary regulator of iron homeostasis. Hepcidin is a peptide hormone released by the liver. When body iron levels are low, little hepcidin is released, allowing intestinal mucosal cells to transfer iron into the blood, where it binds to transferrin. Hepcidin also inhibits body cells that store iron, such as liver cells and macrophages, from releasing iron into the blood when iron levels are high.

7. What is hemochromatosis?

An inherited condition that results in increased iron absorption.

8. How does zinc affect the synthesis of proteins?

Zinc is needed by enzymes that function in the synthesis of DNA and RNA, which are needed for protein synthesis. Zinc also affects protein synthesis through its role in gene expression. Zinc is an important structural component of DNA-binding protein receptors that facilitate the function of hormones and vitamins that affect gene expression.

9. How does a high zinc intake reduce the amount of zinc that enters the blood?

The amount of zinc that enters and leaves the mucosal cell can be regulated by increasing or decreasing the synthesis of proteins that transport zinc in versus those that transport it back out into the lumen of the intestine. When zinc intake is high, expression of zinc transport proteins that move zinc from the lumen into the mucosal cells will decrease relative to the expression of proteins that export zinc out of the mucosa. Therefore more zinc will move from the mucosal cells back into the lumen and less will be available for entry into the blood. The amount of zinc that passes from the mucosal cell into the blood is regulated by a metal-binding protein called metallothionein. When zinc intake is high, more metallothionein is synthesized. Zinc in the mucosal cell binds to metallothionein, slowing its transfer into the blood; this provides more opportunity for export of zinc back into the lumen when zinc intakes are high or for it to be lost if the mucosal cell dies.

10. Why does excess zinc cause a deficiency of copper?

Excess zinc stimulates the synthesis of the metal binding protein metallothionein, which binds to copper more tightly than it does to zinc, preventing its absorption.

11. Explain why a deficiency of copper can contribute to anemia.

The most common manifestation of copper deficiency is anemia. This is due primarily to the importance of copper-containing proteins for iron transport. In copper deficiency, even if iron is sufficient in the diet, iron cannot be transported out of the intestinal mucosa.

12. What is the role of selenium in the body?

Selenium is a mineral that functions mostly through association with proteins called selenoproteins. Several of these, including glutathione peroxidase, are enzymes that help protect cells from oxidative damage.

13. Why does selenium decrease the need for vitamin E? Selenium is a part of the enzyme glutathione peroxidase, which prevents the formation of free radicals from peroxides. This can reduce the need for vitamin E because vitamin E is needed to stop the action of free radicals once they are produced.

14. What is a goiter and why does iodine deficiency cause it to form?

A goiter is an enlargement of the thyroid gland caused by a deficiency of iodine. A goiter forms when reduced thyroid hormone levels cause thyroid stimulating hormone to be released, stimulating the thyroid gland to make more thyroid hormones. Because iodine is unavailable, the hormones cannot be made and the stimulation continues, causing the thyroid gland to enlarge 15. What is the role of chromium in the body?

Chromium is needed for normal glucose utilization.

16. What do zinc, copper, and manganese have in common?

Besides each being a trace mineral, they also each function as cofactors for antioxidant enzyme systems.

17. How does adequate fluoride prevent dental caries in children and adults?

Fluoride helps reduce the risk of tooth decay. Fluoride has its greatest effect on dental caries prevention early in life, during maximum tooth development up to the age of 13. During this time it can be incorporated into tooth enamel making the enamel more acid resistant. It has also been shown to protect teeth in other ways, making it beneficial for adults as well as children. Fluoride in saliva reduces cavities by reducing acid produced by bacteria, inhibiting the dissolution of tooth enamel by acid, and increasing enamel remineralization after acid exposure.

Answers to Review Questions Chapter 13: Nutrition and Physical Activity 1. What characterizes a fit individual?

The ability to perform routine physical activity without undue fatigue.

2. What is aerobic exercise?

Endurance exercise such as jogging, swimming, or cycling that increases heart rate and requires oxygen in metabolism.

3. How does aerobic exercise affect resting heart rate?

Regular aerobic exercise strengthens the heart muscle and increases stroke volume, which is the amount of blood pumped with each beat of the heart. This in turn decreases resting heart rate, which is the rate at which the heart must beat to supply blood to the tissues at rest.

4. What is strength training?

Strength training is repeatedly using muscles in activities that require moving against a resisting force. It includes activities such as weight lifting 5. What causes muscle hypertrophy? Muscle atrophy?

Muscle hypertrophy is caused by stressing or overloading the muscle, which causes it to adapt by increasing in size and strength. Muscle atrophy, which is the wasting or decrease in the size of a muscle, is caused by lack of use.

6. List five of the health benefits of exercise.

A regular exercise program makes it easier to maintain a healthy body weight; helps maintain muscles, bones, and joints; and reduces the risk of osteoporosis. It can help to prevent or delay the onset of cardiovascular disease, hypertension, diabetes, and colon cancer. It can also prevent depression and improve mood, sleep patterns, and overall outlook on life.

7. How much of what types of exercise is recommended?

The most recent recommendations, made by the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, advise 30 minutes of moderate exercise every day to reduce the risk of chronic disease. Greater health benefits can be obtained by engaging in more vigorous activity or activity of longer duration. Sixty minutes of moderate to vigorous intensity activity on most days of the week is recommended to help manage body weight and prevent weight gain; for those who have lost weight and want to keep it off, 60 to 90 minutes of moderate intensity activity is recommended. Ideally these exercise activities should include cardiovascular conditioning, stretching exercises for flexibility, and resistance exercises or calisthenics for muscle strength and endurance.

8. What is aerobic capacity? How is it affected by training?

Aerobic capacity or VO2 max is the body’s maximum ability to generate ATP by aerobic metabolism during exercise. Training increases aerobic capacity by improving cardiorespiratory fitness and muscle strength.

9. From where does the ATP to fuel the first few minutes of exercise come?

During the first few seconds of activity small amounts of stored ATP can be used. When these are gone ATP can be regenerated by breaking down creatine phosphate. Supplies of creatine phosphate are limited so after about 10 to 15 seconds the anaerobic breakdown of glucose supplies ATP. Aerobic metabolism does not predominate until the cardiorespiratory system has had time to increase the delivery of oxygen to the muscles.

10. What fuels are used to produce ATP in anaerobic metabolism?

Anaerobic metabolism can produce ATP very rapidly, but can only use glucose as a fuel.

11. Why is aerobic metabolism more efficient than anaerobic metabolism?

Aerobic metabolism produces ATP at a slower rate than anaerobic metabolism but is much more efficient, producing about 18 times more ATP for each molecule of glucose. In addition, aerobic metabolism can use fatty acids, and sometimes amino acids from protein, to generate ATP. 12. What factors affect the availability of oxygen at the muscle cell and the type of fuel used during exercise?

The type of fuel used during exercise is affected by the availability of oxygen and the ability to use oxygen at the tissues. When oxygen is available aerobic metabolism can proceed and glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids can be used for fuel. When oxygen is unavailable anaerobic metabolism predominates and only glucose can be used as a fuel source. The availability of oxygen is affected by factors such as the stroke volume, number of capillary blood vessels in the muscles, total blood volume, and the number of red blood cells/hemoglobin. The ability to use oxygen at the muscles is affected by the number and size of muscle-cell mitochondria. Living and working at high altitudes, where the atmosphere contains less oxygen, causes adaptations that improve the ability of the cardiorespiratory system to deliver oxygen.

13. What fuels are used in exercise of long duration, such as marathon running?

The primary fuel used during endurance events such as marathons is fatty acids. Although body stores of fat provide enough energy to support the needs of even the longest endurance events, some carbohydrate is also needed to maintain blood glucose levels during exercise and some protein is also used for energy and to maintain blood glucose.

14. What are the recommendations for fluid intake before, during, and after exercise?

Exercisers should drink generous amounts of fluid in the 24 hours before the exercise session and about 2 cups of fluid 2 hours before exercise. On warm days, athletes should consume an additional 1 to 2 cups about 30 to 60 minutes before exercising. During exercise, whether casual or competitive, exercisers should try and drink enough water to prevent weight loss. Drinking 6 to 12 oz of fluid every 15 to 20 minutes beginning at the start of exercise should maintain adequate hydration. To restore lost water after exercise, each pound of weight lost should be replaced with 16 to 24 oz (1 to 1.5 lbs) of fluid.

15. How does exercise affect protein needs?

Competitive athletes participating in endurance and strength sports may require more protein. In endurance events such as marathons, protein is used for energy and to maintain blood glucose so these athletes may benefit from 1.2 to 1.4 grams of protein per kilogram per day. Strength athletes who require amino acids to synthesize new muscle proteins may benefit from 1.4 to 1.8 grams per kilogram per day.

16. What is glycogen supercompensation or carbohydrate loading?

A regimen of diet and exercise training designed to maximize muscle glycogen stores before an athletic event.

17. Explain why supplements of creatine and of β-alanine are ergogenic. What types of athletes would benefit?

Creatine supplements have been shown to increase levels of both creatine and creatine phosphate in muscle. Higher levels of these provide muscles with more quick energy for shortterm maximal exercise. Creatine supplementation has been shown to improve performance in high-intensity exercise lasting 30 seconds or less. It is therefore beneficial for exercise that requires explosive bursts of energy, such as sprinting and weight lifting, but not for long-term endurance activities such as marathons. No deleterious effects of creatine have been reported in healthy humans, but any well-controlled studies on the long-term effects of this supplement do not yet exist.

Answers to Review Questions Chapter 14: Nutrition during Pregnancy and Lactation 1. List three physiological changes that occur in the mother’s body during pregnancy.

Maternal blood volume increases by 50%, and the heart, lungs, and kidneys work harder to deliver nutrients and oxygen and remove wastes. The placenta develops and the hormones produced by it orchestrate other changes: They promote uterine growth; they relax muscles and ligaments to accommodate the growing fetus and allow for childbirth; they promote breast development; and they increase fat deposition to provide the energy stores that will be needed during late pregnancy and lactation.

2. How much weight should a woman gain during pregnancy?

The recommended weight gain for healthy, normal-weight women is 25 to 35 lbs (11.4 to 15.9 kg) 3. How do the recommendations for weight gain differ for underweight, overweight, and obese women?

Women who are underweight or overweight at conception should still gain weight at a slow, steady rate. Weight gains of up to 40 lbs (18 kg) are recommended for women who begin pregnancy underweight. Overweight women should gain less, only about 15 to 25 lbs (6.8 to 11.4 kg) over the course of pregnancy. It is recommended that obese women should not exceed a weight gain of 20 lbs (9 kg) during pregnancy.

4. What kind of exercise is safe during pregnancy?

For healthy, well-nourished women, carefully chosen moderate exercise is recommended during pregnancy. Low impact activities such as walking are recommended. Swimming and other activities in the water are particularly good because the buoyancy compensates for changes in weight distribution. Activities with a risk of abdominal trauma, falls, or joint stress should be avoided.

5. List three common digestive system discomforts that afflict pregnant women and explain why they occur?

Morning sickness is a syndrome of nausea and vomiting that is most common between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy. It is believed to be due to the hormonal changes of pregnancy.

Heartburn, a burning sensation caused by stomach acid leaking up into the esophagus, is common during pregnancy because the hormones produced to relax the muscles of the uterus also relax the gastroesophageal sphincter, allowing the stomach contents to more easily leak into the esophagus.

Constipation is common during pregnancy because the pregnancy-related hormones that cause muscles to relax also decrease intestinal motility and slow transit time.

Hemorrhoids are more common during pregnancy, as a result of both constipation and physiological changes in blood flow.

6. Explain why the hypertensive disorders of pregnancy can be a risk to the mother and baby?

Pregnancy-induced hypertension is a risk factor for maternal and fetal illness and death. The mildest form of pregnancy-induced hypertension, gestational hypertension is an abnormal rise in blood pressure that occurs after the twentieth week of pregnancy. If not monitored this can progress to preeclampsia, which involves elevated blood pressure accompanied by excretion of protein in the urine and edema. Preeclampsia can progress to a more severe form of pregnancyinduced hypertension called eclampsia, in which life-threatening seizures occur.

7. Why does gestational diabetes increase the risk of large for-gestational-age babies?

Because glucose in the mother’s blood passes freely across the placenta, when the mother’s blood levels are high, the growing fetus receives extra glucose kcalories. This extra energy

promotes rapid growth, resulting in babies who are large for gestational age and consequently at increased risk of complications during delivery.

8. How do energy and protein requirements change during pregnancy?

During the first trimester, total energy expenditure changes little, so the EER is not increased above nonpregnant levels. During the second and third trimesters, an additional 340 and 452 kcalories per day, respectively, is recommended. Protein needs are not increased during the first trimester, but an additional 25 grams of protein per day above the RDA for nonpregnant women or 1.1 grams per kilogram per day is recommended for the second and third trimesters of pregnancy.

9. Why does the recommendation for iron intake increase during pregnancy and decrease during lactation?

Iron needs are high during pregnancy to allow for the synthesis of hemoglobin and other ironcontaining proteins in both maternal and fetal tissues. Iron needs are not increased during lactation because little iron is lost in milk, and, in most women, losses are decreased because menstruation is absent.

10. Why are folic acid supplements recommended even before pregnancy for women of childbearing age?

Adequate folate intake is important for reducing the risk of neural tube defects. Folate status needs to be high even before conception because rapid cell division occurs in the first days and weeks of pregnancy. An increase in folate intake after the pregnancy was confirmed would be too late to have an impact.

11. Are vegetarian diets safe for pregnant women? Why or why not?

Vegetarian diets are generally safe for pregnant women but vegans must consume foods fortified with vitamin B12 or take vitamin B12 supplements daily to meet the needs of mother and fetus.

12. Why does malnutrition early in pregnancy have different effects than malnutrition during the last trimester?

In general, poor nutrition early in pregnancy affects embryonic development and the potential of the embryo to survive and poor nutrition in the latter part of pregnancy affects fetal growth. This is because the early part of pregnancy is when most of the cell differentiation and organ formation is occurring, whereas later in pregnancy all of the organ systems have been formed but need to grow to full size.

13. How does maternal age affect nutrient requirements during pregnancy?

Age affects the nutrient requirements of adolescent girls because they continue to grow and mature physically for about 4 to 7 years after menstruation begins. Therefore the diet of a pregnant teen must provide both for her growth and that of her baby. Because the nutrient needs of a pregnant teen may be higher than those of a pregnant adult, the DRIs include a special set of nutrient recommendations for pregnant teens.

The nutritional requirements for older women during pregnancy are no different than for women in their twenties, but pregnancy after the age of 35 does carry additional risks because older women are more likely to start pregnancy with medical conditions such as cardiovascular disease, kidney disease, obesity, and diabetes. During pregnancy, they also are more likely to develop gestational diabetes, pregnancy-induced hypertension, and other complications.

14. How does alcohol consumed by a woman during pregnancy affect the child?

Alcohol is a teratogen that is particularly damaging to the developing central nervous system. It also indirectly affects fetal growth and development because it is a toxin that reduces blood flow to the placenta, thereby decreasing the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the fetus. The use of alcohol can also impair maternal nutritional status, further increasing the risk to the embryo or fetus.

15. Why is the need for energy and some nutrients greater during lactation than pregnancy?

This is because the mother provides for all of the energy and nutrient needs of the infant, but the infant is growing faster and is more active than the fetus and so requires more energy.

16. What is the best indicator of adequate nutrition in an infant?

The best indicator of adequate nourishment is normal growth.

17. What are the advantages of breast-feeding?

Breast milk meets the nutrient needs of the human newborn, requires no special preparation, and the amount available varies with demand. The nutrient composition of breast milk is specifically designed for the human infant and changes over time as the infant develops, meeting the nutrient needs of the child for up to the first year of life. Breast milk contains immune factors that are transferred to the infant. Breast-feeding can be a relaxing, emotionally enjoyable interaction for both mother and infant. In addition to its nutritional advantages breast-feeding is convenient, inexpensive, and has physiological benefits for both mother and child 18. When is bottle-feeding a better choice?

Bottle-feeding may be a better option for an infant who is small or weak and may not have the strength to receive adequate nutrition from breast-feeding. It is also a better choice for women who are using alcohol or other drugs that can pass into breast milk. Women with tuberculosis or certain viral infections that can be transmitted to the infant in breast milk are also counseled to breast feed. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the virus that causes AIDS, can be transmitted to the infant in breast milk. In the United States, women who are infected with HIV are advised not to breastfeed, but in developing nations, the risk of malnutrition associated with not breastfeeding outweighs the risk of passing this infection on to the infant.

Answers to Review Questions Chapter 15: Nutrition from Infancy to Adolescence 1. How does nutrient intake during childhood affect health later in life?

Nutrient intake during childhood affects health later in life because it determines whether a child will grow to their potential and affects the risk of developing chronic diseases later in life. Nutrient intake during childhood and adolescence can also affect sexual development.

2. What improvements should be made in the diets of American children?

Consume less saturated fat and sodium and more calcium and fiber. Eat more fruits and vegetables and whole grains and less processed foods that are high in fat, salt, or sugar.

3. How can parents and caregivers influence children’s food choices?

Children learn by example, therefore the eating patterns, attitudes, and feeding styles of their caregivers influence what they learn to eat. When caregivers drink milk, choose whole grains, and eat plenty of fruits and vegetables, children follow their example. Parents and caregivers can also influence food choice by offering a variety of healthy choices and educating children about healthy eating with tools such as MyPyramid for kids.

4. What is the best way to determine if a child is eating enough?

The best indicator that a child is receiving adequate nourishment, neither too little nor too much is a normal growth pattern.

5. What factors influence the maximum height a child will reach?

The ultimate size (height and weight) that a child will attain is affected by genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors.

6. What nutritional problems can be signaled by sudden changes in weight patterns?

A sudden change in weight patterns could indicate a decrease in food intake and an increased risk of malnutrition. This may be caused by physical, social, or psychological problems. An increase in weight relative to growth in height may indicate that the child is consuming too much energy or not being active enough.

7. How do the recommendations for fat intake change as a child gets older?

Infants need a high-fat diet (40% to 55% of energy intake) to support their rapid growth and development, but as they grow, the recommended proportion of kcalories from fat is reduced to provide adequate energy without increasing the risk of developing chronic disease. The acceptable range for fat intake is 30% to 40% of energy for children ages 1 to 3 years and 25% to 35% of energy for those 4 through 18 years of age compared to 20% to 35% for adults.

8. When should solid and semisolid foods be introduced into an infant’s diet?

By 4 to 6 months of age the early reflex to bring the tongue to the front of the mouth to suckle has diminished, and the tongue is held farther back in the mouth, allowing solid food to be accepted without being expelled. By this age, the infant also can hold his or her head up steadily and is able to sit, either with or without support. Internally, the digestive tract has developed, and enzymes are present for starch digestion. The kidneys are more mature and better able to concentrate urine. With all of these changes, the child is ready to begin a new approach to eating.

9. How should new foods be introduced to monitor for the development of food allergies?

Rice cereal is the recommended first food because it is easily digested and rarely causes allergic reactions. After rice has been successfully included in the diet, other grains can be introduced, with wheat cereal offered last because it is most likely to cause an allergic reaction. To monitor for food allergies when solid foods are introduced to infants, it is important to introduce new foods one at a time. Each new food should be offered for a few days without the addition of any other new foods. Foods that commonly cause allergies include wheat, peanuts, eggs, milk, nuts,

seafood, and soy. Breast-feeding can reduce the risk of food allergies and is recommended for infants from families with a history of allergies.

10. Why is anemia a problem in young children? In teenage girls?

Anemia is a problem in young children because requirements are high due to rapid growth, but poor food choices often mean that intake is low.

Iron-deficiency anemia is common in adolescence because needs are high due to developmental changes that occur at this time. Iron is needed to synthesize hemoglobin for the expansion of blood volume and myoglobin for the increase in muscle mass. Because blood volume expands at a faster rate in boys than in girls, boys require more iron for tissue synthesis than girls. However, the iron loss due to menstruation makes total needs greater in young women.

11. Why are snacks an important part of children’s diets?

Children have small stomachs and high nutrient needs; therefore they should consume nutritious meals and snacks throughout the day.

12. Why are malnourished children at greater risk of lead toxicity than adults or wellnourished children?

Children are in general at greater risk of lead toxicity than adults because they absorb lead more efficiently. Malnourished children are at particular risk because malnutrition increases lead absorption due to the fact that lead is better absorbed from an empty stomach and when other minerals such as calcium, zinc, and iron are deficient.

13. How does watching TV impact the nutritional status of children?

Watching TV impacts nutritional status by reducing activity and encouraging unhealthy snacking.

Food is the most frequently advertised product category on children’s TV. The majority of these ads target highly sweetened products such as sweetened breakfast cereals; sweets such as candy, cookies, doughnuts, and other desserts; snacks; and beverages, and more recently, the proportion from fast-food meal promotions has been growing. It has been found that the more hours of TV a child watches, the more he or she asks for specific food items, and the more likely these items are to be in the home. Television also promotes snacking behavior. Although snacks are an important part of a growing child’s diet, while watching TV many children snack on sweet and salty foods that are low in nutrient density. In terms of overall diet, more hours of TV watching have been associated with higher intakes of energy, fat, sweet and salty snacks, and carbonated beverages and lower intakes of fruits and vegetables.

14. How can fast foods be incorporated into a healthy diet?

A fast food meal is only one part of the total diet. It can be incorporated into a healthy diet either by making healthier fast food choices, or by compensating for its excesses and deficiencies in other meals. For example, choosing carefully from the old fast-food standbys such as plain, single patty hamburgers or newer low-fat options such as grilled chicken sandwiches can keep fat and energy intake reasonable. Choosing salads, yogurt, fruit, or milk can add nutrients often missing form fast food. Even if these healthier options are not chosen, if the missing milk, fruits, and vegetables are consumed at other times during the day and energy intake balances output, the total diet can still be healthy.

15. How does the treatment of childhood obesity differ from treatment in adults?

Schools and parents are targeted to assist in obesity prevention/treatment efforts. Dieting is discouraged and rather it is encouraged that children make healthier food choices and increase exercise to prevent further weight gain and grow into their weight, if possible.

16. What is the adolescent growth spurt? How does it affect nutrient requirements?

During adolescence, there is an 18- to 24-month period of peak growth velocity, called the adolescent growth spurt. This rapid growth increases nutrient requirements to a level that is greater than at any other time in life.

17. Describe two physiological differences between males and females after puberty that affect their nutrient needs.

After puberty boys have a greater body size and have more muscle mass than girls. This results in energy and protein requirements being greater in boys than girls. Girls have a greater proportion of body fat and begin menstruating. Menstruation increases iron losses and therefore makes the iron requirement of girls greater than that of adolescent boys.

18. Explain why soda intake among teens may be contributing to osteoporosis.

Since the 1970s teens have doubled their consumption of soft drinks while they have cut their consumption of milk by more than 40%. Milk is an important source of calcium in the North American diet. The reduction in milk consumption may be contributing to low calcium intake, lower peak bone mass, and hence a greater risk of osteoporosis.

19. Why are vegetarian diets not always healthier than diets that include meat?

As with any diet, vegetarian foods must be carefully chosen to meet nutrient needs and avoid excesses.

Potentially, meatless diets can be low in iron and zinc, and vegan diets, which contain no animal products, may put teens at risk of vitamin B 12 deficiency and inadequate calcium and vitamin D intake. If the diet includes high fat dairy products, it can be high in saturated fat and cholesterol. If only refined grains are chosen and fruit and vegetable intake goals are not met, the diet can be low in fiber. The key to a healthy vegetarian diet, like all healthy diets, is to choose a variety of nutrient dense vegetables, fruits, grains, legumes, and dairy products (or other calcium sources).

20. Why is eating breakfast important for children and adolescents?

Children who eat breakfast have healthier diets than those who skip breakfast. Breakfast eaters are more likely to meet nutrient intake recommendations and they have higher daily intakes of vitamins A and C, riboflavin, folic acid, calcium, zinc, iron, and fiber and lower intakes of fat and cholesterol compared with breakfast skippers. The extra calcium is a critical nutritional issue for children and adolescents because the most rapid bone calcium accretion occurs during late childhood and the adolescent growth spurt. Children and adolescents who skip breakfast do not, on average, make up the nutrient deficits at other meals during the day. Breakfast may also help maintain a healthy weight. Breakfast also provides energy and nutrients to the brain so energy does not need to be supplied by body stores. By alleviating hunger and supplying glucose to the brain is it believed to improve cognitive performance.

21. Why might participation in athletics contribute to the development of eating disorders in adolescents?

Teens are particularly susceptible because of the social and physical changes that occur at this time of life. As children grow, the pressure of taking on the responsibilities of adulthood, combined with pressure from peers and society to be thin, may contribute to the development of eating disorders. While participation in athletics can encourage a healthy means of exercise, the desire to excel in a sport can potentially cause adolescent athletes to take dietary supplements, use anabolic steroids, or consume inappropriate training diets and experiment with fad diets, all of which can impact health. Many of the most dangerous practices associated with adolescent sports are those that attempt to control body weight. Popular sports such as football, gymnastics, ballet, and wrestling all have an emphasis on body type and weight ideal for performance.

Answers for Review Questions Chapter 16: Nutrition and Aging: The Adult Years 1. What is life expectancy? How does it differ from healthy life expectancy? How does it differ from life span?

Life expectancy is the average length of time that a person can be expected to live. In the United States today it is over 77 years. However, the average number of years a person can expect to stay healthy, or health life expectancy is less, only about 69 years.

Life span refers to the maximum, rather than average, age to which members of a species can live.

2. What is meant by compression of morbidity?

The postponement of the onset of chronic disease such that disability occupies a smaller and smaller proportion of the life span.

3. What factors determine at what age the consequences of aging become apparent?

The age at which the consequences of aging become apparent depends the genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors that impact an individual and determine the rate that cells and cell function is lost.

4. Why are older adults at risk for malnutrition?

Low energy intakes and poor food choices put many older adults at risk of malnutrition. In addition, many of the physiological changes associated with aging can affect nutritional status.

For example a decline in the sense of smell and taste can decrease the appeal of food and changes in the GI tract can reduce nutrient absorption. The elderly also have a higher frequency of acute and chronic illnesses and are therefore more likely to be taking multiple medications, both of which can affect nutrient intake, absorption, or losses and contribute to malnutrition. There are also social and economic changes that are common with aging that increase the risk of food insecurity and, consequently, malnutrition.

5. List three physiological changes that occur with aging. (Choose three.)

Sensory decline, alterations in GI function, changes in body composition, reduced hormone levels, changes in immune function.

6. How can nutrition affect the risk of developing macular degeneration?

Oxidative damage is believed to cause both macular degeneration and cataracts. Therefore, a diet high in foods containing antioxidant nutrients might slow or prevent these eye disorders.

7. Should obese adults over 70 years of age lose weight? Why or why not?

Yes. Although the risk of death associated with obesity is lower in older than in younger adults, obesity still increases the risk of health complications that reduce the quality of life. It contributes to a higher risk of cardiovascular disease, certain cancers, hypertension, stroke, sleep apnea, type 2 diabetes, and arthritis. Obesity also contributes to suboptimal physical functioning.

8. Explain how physical disabilities and mental illness affect nutritional status.

Physical limitations affect the ability to maintain good nutritional health by making it hard to shop, prepare food, get around the house, or go out to eat.

Altered mental status can affect nutrition by interfering with the response to hunger and the ability to eat and to obtain and prepare food.

9. List three ways in which medication use and nutrition interact.

Medications can affect nutritional status by altering appetite, nutrient absorption, metabolism, or nutrient excretion. The more medications taken, the greater the chance of side effects such as increased or decreased appetite, changes in taste, constipation, weakness, drowsiness, diarrhea,

and nausea. Illness related to incorrect doses or inappropriate combinations of medications is also a significant health problem in the elderly.

10. What social and economic factors increase nutritional risk among the elderly?

Social and economic factors affect nutritional status by decreasing the motivation to eat and the ability to acquire and enjoy food. For example, many older adults must live on a fixed income when they retire from their jobs, making it difficult to afford healthcare, especially medications, and a healthy diet. Food is often the most flexible expense in one’s budget, so limiting the types and amounts of foods consumed may be the only option available for older adults trying to meet expenses. Substandard housing and inadequate food preparation facilities can make the situation worse because food cannot easily be prepared and eaten at home. Without help, many older adults may be unable to get to markets and food programs, restricting the types of food available to them. Those in nursing homes are at increased risk for malnutrition because they are more likely to have medical conditions that increase nutrient needs or that interfere with food intake or nutrient absorption, and because they are dependent on others to provide for their care.

Depression can make meals less appetizing and decrease the quantity and quality of foods consumed, thereby increasing the risk of malnutrition.

11. Why are the energy needs of older adults reduced?

Adult energy needs typically decline with age. This is due to a decrease in all components of total energy expenditure. Basal metabolic rate (BMR) decreases as adults get older, in part due to a decrease in lean body mass. The thermic effect of food also declines with age and is about 20% lower in older than in younger adults. Decreased physical activity is estimated to account for about one-half of the decrease in total energy expenditure that occurs with aging. The decrease in activity also contributes to the reduction in lean body mass and BMR. 12. Why are older adults at risk for vitamin B12 deficiency? Vitamin D deficiency?

Vitamin B12 is a nutrient of concern for older adults because of both reduced absorption of foodbound B12 due to an inflammation of the stomach lining, which reduces stomach acid, and low dietary intakes, especially among the poor.

Vitamin D deficiency is a concern in the elderly for a number of reasons. Intakes of this vitamin are often low in the elderly population, usually due to limited consumption of milk, which is fortified with vitamin D. The amount of provitamin D formed in the skin is also reduced in the elderly. This occurs both because the capacity to synthesize provitamin D when the skin is exposed to sunlight is reduced and because the elderly spend less time outdoors or tend to wear clothing that covers or shades their skin when they go out. Even if adequate amounts of provitamin D are consumed or formed, the capacity to activate provitamin D in the kidney decreases with age.

13. Why is it so important that elderly individuals consume a nutrient-dense diet?

Because older adults need less energy but the same amounts of most micronutrients, their food choices must be nutrient dense.

14. Compare the MyPlate recommendations of a 65-year-old and 85-year-old male.

Because older adults need less energy but the same amounts of most micronutrients, their food choices must be nutrient dense. Meals and snacks should include plenty of liquids because dehydration is a common problem. The 85-year-old man may benefit from supplementing particular nutrients. Vitamin D supplements may be advantageous because production of this vitamin in the skin is decreased in the elderly and exposure to sunlight may be limited. As vitamin B 12 absorption decreases with age, he might also benefit from vitamin B 12 supplements or fortified foods.

15. List some activities that are appropriate for older adults to improve endurance, strength, flexibility, and balance.

Endurance activities appropriate for older adults include low-impact aerobic activities such as walking, biking, and swimming. Resistance-training has been shown to increase strength and lean body mass as well as to slow the decrease in bone density common in the elderly. Lifting small weights or stretching elastic bands at a level that requires some physical effort can provide resistance training. Weight machines and calisthenics can also be used to increase strength.

Flexibility exercises should include those that move the muscle through a full range of motion such as arm circles, as well as those that stretch a muscle its full length and hold it for 10 to 30 seconds. Balance exercises should include those that improve balance while standing still, such as balancing on one leg or standing upright with the eyes closed, as well as those that improve balance while moving around, such as walking along a straight line or heel to toe walking. Tai chi is a low-impact activity that improves muscle tone and balance. All can be incorporated into regular daily routines.

16. What is the purpose of the DETERMINE checklist?

It is a checklist to help identify physiological, medical, and socioeconomic situations that increase the risk of malnutrition among the elderly.

Answers to Review Questions Chapter 17: Food Safety 1. Discuss five pathogens that are common causes of food-borne illness in the U.S. today.

Most of the foodborne illness in the United States is caused by the contamination of food with pathogens, that is, microorganisms or microbes that can cause disease. Five common pathogens include: Listeria in cantaloupe; Escherichia coli ( E. coli ) in meat and apple juice; Salmonella in eggs, on vegetables, and in cereal; Cyclospora on fruit; Cryptosporidium in drinking water 2. List three factors that determine the likelihood that a contaminant will cause foodborne illness in an individual.

The potential of a substance to cause harm depends on how potent it is, the amount or dose that is consumed, how frequently it is consumed, and who consumes it.

3. How is the federal government involved in ensuring a safe food supply?

Federal agencies set standards and establish regulations for the safe and sanitary handling of food and water and for the information on food labels. They regulate the use of agricultural chemicals, additives, and packaging materials; inspect food-processing and storage facilities; monitor both domestic and imported foods for contamination; and investigate outbreaks of foodborne illness.

4. Explain what HACCP is and how it can prevent food contamination.

HACCP, which stands for Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point, is a food safety system that focuses on identifying and preventing hazards that could cause foodborne illness.

It is based on identifying points in the handling of food, called critical control points, where chemical, physical, or microbial contamination can be prevented, controlled, or eliminated. The HACCP system requires the food manufacturing and food service industries to anticipate where contamination might occur. And it establishes record-keeping procedures to verify that the system is working consistently. The advantages of the HACCP system over standard inspections by the FDA are that the plan is preventative rather than punitive, is easier to manage, and the responsibility for food safety is placed on the manufacturer, not the regulatory agencies.

5. What is the difference between a foodborne infection and a foodborne intoxication?

A foodborne infection is an illness produced by the ingestion of food containing microorganisms that can multiply inside the body and cause injurious effects.

A foodborne intoxication is an illness caused by consuming a food containing a toxin.

6. List three common bacterial food contaminants. What can be done to avoid the foodborne illnesses caused by them?

Some common causes of bacterial infections include Salmonella, E. coli, Campylobacter jejuni, Listeria monocytogenes, and Vibrio vulnificus. (Choose 3) Bacterial foodborne illness can be prevented by cooking food thoroughly, keeping hot foods hot and cold foods cold, preventing cross contamination, and washing hands and utensils.

7. What temperature range allows the most rapid bacterial growth?

Growth is the most rapid between 40 degrees and 135 degrees F. 8. Explain how cross-contamination can occur in home kitchens.

Cross contamination may occur when foods that are eaten raw are prepared on the same surfaces as foods that are going to be cooked or when uncooked foods containing live microbes come in contact with foods that have already been cooked or when sauces used to marinate uncooked foods are used as a sauce on cooked food.

9. How do pesticides applied to crops find their way into animal products?

Compounds used in agricultural production contaminate the environment and are taken up by plants and consumed by small animals. These plants and animals are then eaten by larger animals, which are in turn eaten by still larger animals, thus passing the contaminants up through the food chain to all levels of the food supply. Contaminants are found in the greatest concentration in foods of animal origin because animals are at the top of the food chain.

10. How are pesticides regulated to ensure safety?

The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulates pesticide levels and must approve all pesticides before they can be sold in the United States. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), the FDA, and the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) share the responsibility for limiting consumers’ exposure to pesticides. The EPA sets limits, or pesticide tolerances, well below levels that harm the environment or human health.

11. How does organic food production differ from traditional farming?

Organic food is produced without using most conventional pesticides, fertilizers made with synthetic ingredients, antibiotics, or growth hormones. Organic food production recycles natural resources to protect the environment, but it is not risk-free. Animal manure is often used for fertilizer and runoff can pollute lakes and streams.

12. List some food-processing techniques that reduce foodborne illnesses.

Drying, smoking, fermentation, adding sugar or salt, and heating or cooling, irradiation, and specialized packaging.

13. What is food irradiation? What are the benefits and risks?

Food irradiation, also called cold pasteurization, is a process that exposes foods to radiation to kill contaminating organisms and retard ripening and spoilage of fruits and vegetables.

Irradiation does cause the production of unique compounds in the irradiated food, but irradiated food is safe at the allowed levels of radiation because the amounts of these unique compounds produced are almost negligible and have not been found to be a risk to consumers.

14. What is the GRAS list?

A group of chemical additives that are generally recognized as safe based on their long-standing presence in the food supply without obvious harmful effects.

15. List four reasons for using food additives.

Prevent spoilage, improve nutrient content, color, texture, and flavor.

Answers to Review Questions Chapter 18: World Hunger and Malnutrition 1. What is meant by the statement, “world nutrition policies must address the two faces of malnutrition”?

It means that nutrition policies must seek to alleviate hunger and nutrient deficiencies while at the same time prevent changes in eating and exercise patterns that lead to obesity in some segments of the population. The overweight and the undernourished both suffer from malnutrition and experience high levels of sickness and disability, shorter life expectancies, and lower levels of productivity. These two faces of malnutrition exist together and complicate the goal of solving the problem of malnutrition worldwide.

2. What is the cycle of malnutrition?

A cycle in which malnutrition is perpetuated by an inability to meet nutrient needs at all life stages.

3. What is meant by nutrition transition?

The shift in dietary pattern that occurs as incomes increase—from a diet high in complex carbohydrates and fiber to a more varied diet higher in fat, saturated fat, sugar, and other refined carbohydrates.

4. How does overpopulation contribute to food shortage?

Overpopulation exists when a region has more people than its natural resources can support. If the number of people increases too much, resources are overwhelmed and food shortages occur.

5. How does poverty contribute to world hunger?

Poverty is central to the problem of hunger and undernutrition; in most parts of the world their incidence is almost identical. Poverty creates what is called food insecurity, or the limited ability to acquire nutritious, safe foods. Poverty reduces access to healthcare so disease goes untreated. When left untreated, illness increases nutrient needs and further limits the ability to obtain an adequate diet, contributing to malnutrition. Lack of immunizations and medical treatment result in an increased incidence of morbidity from infectious disease and a decrease in survival rates from chronic diseases, such as cancer. Lack of health care also increases infant mortality and the incidence of low-birth-weight births.

The poor have less access to education, which reduces the opportunities to escape poverty. It also increases the risk of undernutrition and disease because lack of education leads to inadequate care for infants, children, and pregnant women. A lack of education about food preparation and storage can affect food safety and the health of the household—unsanitary food preparation increases the incidence of gastrointestinal diseases, which contribute to malnutrition.

6. How are economic growth and population growth related?

Economic growth leads to a decline in population growth. This is because in some situations more children mean greater economic security. Children are needed to work the farms, support the elders, and otherwise contribute to the economic survival of the family. When infant mortality rates are high people choose to have many children to ensure that some will survive. Programs that foster economic development and ensure access to food, shelter, and medical care have been shown to cause a decline in birthrates because people feel secure having fewer children.

7. What segments of the world population are at greatest risk for undernutrition?

Those living in poverty, women, infants, children, and the elderly.

8. List three micronutrient deficiencies that are world health problems.

Iron, iodine, and Vitamin A. 9. Why are environmental issues important in maintaining the world’s food supply?

Sometimes the methods used to increase food production have damaging long-term effects on the environment.

10. How can sustainable agriculture reduce environmental damage?

Sustainable agriculture uses food production methods that prevent damage to the environment and allow the land to restore itself so food can be produced indefinitely.

11. How can food fortification be used to help eliminate malnutrition?

Food fortification will not provide energy to a hungry population, but it can increase the overall quality of the diet and eliminate micronutrient deficiencies.

12. List four population groups in the United States who are at risk for undernutrition.

Women, infants, children, the elderly, and the homeless.

13. List three federal programs that address malnutrition in the United States. (Choose any three) Food Stamp Program, Commodity Supplemental Food Assistance Program, Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC), WIC Farmers Market Nutrition Program, National School Breakfast Program, National School Lunch Program, Special Milk Program, Summer Food Service Program, Child and Adult Care Food Program, Team Nutrition, Head Start, Nutrition Program for the Elderly, Senior Farmers’ Market Program, Homeless Children Nutrition Program, The Emergency Food Assistance Program, Healthy People 2010, Expanded Food and Nutrition Education Program (EFNEP), Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF), Food Distribution Program on Indian Reservations