Introductory Chemistry Essentials, 4E Nivaldo J. Tro Test Bank

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Introductory Chemistry Essentials

Edition:

4th Edition

Author(s):

Nivaldo J. Tro

Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 1 The Chemical World True/False Questions 1) Chemicals make up everything around you, including your own body.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.1 2) Chemists study the properties of substances and the particles that compose those substances.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.1 3) When a sealed can of soda pop is opened, the carbon dioxide gas fizzes out because the pressure is released.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.1 4) The properties of water do not depend on how the atoms are bonded together in the molecule.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.1 5) Both carbon dioxide molecules and water molecules consist of three atoms bonded together in a straight line.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.1 6) Molecules are responsible for scattering light which causes the colors of the sunset.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.2 7) Atoms and molecules determine how matter behaves.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.3 8) Chemistry is the science that seeks to understand what matter does by studying living organisms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.3 9) The scientific method emphasizes reason as the way to understand the world.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 10) A hypothesis can never be proven as wrong.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 11) A theory is always true and can never be proven as wrong.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 1 ..

12) Theories can be tested and validated through experimentation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 13) If experimental results contradict a hypothesis, the hypothesis must be either revised or discarded.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 14) The Greek philosophers used observation and experimentation to understand the world.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 15) A scientific law is a brief statement that summarizes past observations and predicts future ones.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 16) The law of conservation of mass states, "In a chemical reaction matter can be created and destroyed."

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 17) Antoine Lavoisier observed that burning objects in a closed container resulted in a loss of mass.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 18) A scientific theory describes the underlying reasons for observations and laws.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 19) The scientific method ensures that poor theories are eliminated over time and good theories remain.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 20) A theory is the equivalent of an opinion.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 21) Antoine Lavoisier proposed the atomic theory.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 22) John Dalton proposed the atomic theory.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 23) The first step in acquiring scientific knowledge is often the observation or measurement of some aspect of nature.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4

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24) If a hypothesis is falsifiable, it means that the hypothesis was once considered true but is now considered false.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 25) Observations from experiments are used to test theories.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 26) A theory can only exist after many experiments have validated a hypothesis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 27) Scientific theories are also called models.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 28) The atomic theory explains why the law of conservation of mass is true.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 29) An established theory is the pinnacle of scientific understanding.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 30) Quantification is an important tool in understanding chemistry.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.5 31) Quantification involves measurement as part of an observation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.5 32) Lavoisier developed the law of conservation of mass.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.5 33) The phlogiston theory of combustion is still considered correct today.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.5

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Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements about soda pop is FALSE? A) Soda pop is a chemical mixture of mostly sugar, water and carbon dioxide.

B) The molecules important to fizzing are carbon dioxide and water.

C) The carbon dioxide is forced to mix with the water by the presence of sugars.

D) When a can is opened, the pressure release allows carbon dioxide to form bubbles.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.1 2) Which of the following items does NOT contain chemicals?

A) drain cleaner B) organically grown vegetables C) air D) insecticides E) All of the above contain chemicals.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.2 3) A good definition of chemistry is: A) the science that seeks to understand what matter does by studying what atoms and molecules do.

B) the science that seeks to understand what living organisms do by studying the molecules that make up the organism.

C) the science that seeks to understand what the universe does by studying interactions of molecules with atoms.

D) the science that seeks to understand the interactions of molecules for the sake of advancing human control over nature.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.3 4) Which statement about the scientific method is TRUE? A) The scientific method emphasizes reason as the way to understand the world.

B) The scientific method emphasizes observation and reason as the way to understand the world.

C) The scientific method emphasizes observation and experimentation as the way to understand the world.

D) The scientific method emphasizes scientific laws as the way to understand the world.

E) All of the above statements are false.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 5) Which of the statements below is NOT part of the scientific method?

A) observation and measurement B) formation of a hypothesis C) testing of a hypothesis by experimentation D) refinement of a hypothesis as needed E) All of the above steps are part of the scientific method.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4

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6) Which statement about a hypothesis is TRUE? A) It is a tentative interpretation or explanation.

B) It has the potential to be proven wrong.

C) It can be tested by experiments.

D) It is part of the scientific method.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 7) The definition of a scientific law is: A) the same as a hypothesis.

B) a way of learning that emphasizes observation and experimentation.

C) the underlying reason for a scientific theory.

D) a number of similar observations generalized into a brief statement summarizing past observations and predicting new ones.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 8) What term best describes a brief statement that summarizes many past observations and predicts new ones?

A) experiment B) hypothesis C) scientific law D) theory E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 9) Who discovered the law of conservation of mass?

A) John Dalton B) Antoine Lavoisier C) Nivaldo Tro D) John Dalton and Antoine Lavoisier E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 10) Which of the following is an example of a scientific law?

A) All matter is composed of small, indestructible particles called atoms.

B) In a chemical reaction, matter is neither created nor destroyed.

C) When a can of soda pop is opened, a fizzing sound is heard.

D) Flammable objects contain phlogiston.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4

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11) What is the definition of a scientific theory?

A) a brief statement that summarizes past observations and predicts future ones B) a model that explains the underlying reasons for observations and laws C) the equivalent of a scientific opinion which others may disagree with D) a method of learning that emphasizes reason as the way to understand the world E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 12) Who discovered the atomic theory?

A) John Dalton B) Antoine Lavoisier C) Nivaldo Tro D) John Dalton and Antoine Lavoisier E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 13) Which of the following is an example of an observation?

A) All matter is composed of small, indestructible particles called atoms.

B) Reactions occur due to the transfer of electrons.

C) When a can of soda pop is opened, a fizzing sound is heard.

D) Flammable objects contain phlogiston.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 14) A sample of wood with a mass of 3.0 grams was burned in an open dish. The ashes weighed 1.2 grams.

What happened to the rest of the wood?

A) The remaining mass was destroyed.

B) The remaining 1.8 grams was converted into gaseous compounds.

C) Nothing, the burned wood simply has a mass of 1.2 grams.

D) The remaining 1.8 grams was converted into heat.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 1.4 15) Which statement accurately describes the purpose of experiments?

A) Experiments are designed to produce the results predicted by a theory.

B) Experiments can be replaced by a simple, logical reasoning of known facts.

C) Experiments are designed to produce unexplainable results for further investigation.

D) Experiments look for other observable predictions of a theory.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4

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16) Which of the following would be considered a theory?

A) Glass is fragile.

B) Hot air rises.

C) Gasoline has a very strong odor.

D) Helium balloons float because helium is less dense than air.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 17) The key to success in chemistry is: A) curiosity.

B) mathematical skills.

C) commitment.

D) practice.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.5

Essay Questions 1) What is chemistry?

Answer: Chemistry is branch of science that explains the properties and behavior of different forms of matter, in the broadest sense, by helping us understand the atoms and molecules that compose them.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1.3 2) What are the important characteristics of the scientific method?

Answer: The important characteristics of the scientific method include the observation of phenomena, the formulation of a hypothesis to explain the observed phenomena, the testing of the hypothesis by experiment, and the formulation of laws and theories.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 1.4 3) What is the difference between a scientific law and a scientific theory?

Answer: A statement based on a number of similar observations that may predict future outcomes of similar experiments is a scientific law. Laws are subject to further experiments and may be proven wrong or be validated.

Theories are models of the way nature behaves, and are the products of several well-established and tested scientific laws.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 1.4 4) Charcoal was burned in a barbecue grill. The ashes that remained weighed considerably less than the charcoal that was burned. Does this mean that the law of conservation of mass is wrong? Explain.

Answer: No. The gaseous products formed during the combustion of charcoal escaped into the air and are not accounted for. If all those products could have been collected and weighed along with the ashes, the total mass of the products would have been equal to the mass of the charcoal.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 1.4

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Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 2 Measurement and Problem Solving True/False Questions 1) Numbers are usually written so that the uncertainty is in the last reported digit.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.1 2) The decimal number 0.0000010 expressed in scientific notation is 1.0 × 106.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 3) The decimal number 0.0210 expressed in scientific notation is 2.10 × 10-2.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 4) The mass of an object, 4.55 × 10-3 g, expressed in decimal notation is 0.000455 g.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 5) If you count 7 pennies, you can only report one significant figure in that measurement.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 6) Exact numbers have an unlimited number of significant figures.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 7) Zeros located between two numbers are not significant.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 8) Zeros located after a number and after a decimal point are significant.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 9) Trailing zeros at the end of a number, but before an implied decimal point, are ambiguous.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 10) The number 0.010100 has five significant figures.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 11) The number 4,450,000.0 has 3 significant figures.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 1 ..

12) The number 7.20 × 103 contains three significant figures.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 13) When the temperature of an object is reported as 23.7°C, the actual temperature can be assumed to be between 23.6°C and 23.8°C. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 14) Scientific numbers are reported so that every digit is certain except the last, which is estimated.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 15) When the number 65.59 is rounded to contain 2 significant figures, it becomes 66.0.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 16) When the number 2.35 is rounded to contain 2 significant figures it becomes 2.4.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 17) In multiplication and division calculations, the answer will have the same number of decimal places as the number carrying the fewest decimal places.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 18) In multiplication or division calculations, the answer will have the same number of decimal places as the number carrying the most decimal places.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 19) In addition or subtraction, the result carries the same number of decimal places as the quantity carrying the fewest decimal places.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 20) The mass of an object depends on gravity.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 21) The standard unit of length in the SI system is the cm.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 22) The standard unit of mass in the SI system is the kg.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5

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23) The prefix nano represents the multiplier 0.000000001.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 24) The prefix micro represents the multiplier 0.001.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 25) A nine gigagram mass is heavier than a nine nanogram mass.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 26) There are 1000 kilometers in one meter.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 27) You do not need to write units in calculations as long as you can remember them.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 28) Conversion factors are constructed from any two quantities known to be equivalent.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 29) A conversion factor is a fraction with one unit on top and a different unit on the bottom.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 30) A solution map diagrams the steps required to get from the starting point to the end point of a calculation problem.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 31) A solution map is the section near the back of the textbook that provides the answers to assigned problems.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 32) One mile measures 5,280 feet long, so one square mile is equivalent to 5,280 square feet.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.8 33) Given that 1 inch equals 2.54 centimeters, then 1 cubic inch equals 16.387 cubic centimeters.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.8 34) All solids have the same density.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.9

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35) Suppose a perfectly symmetric metal rod of the element lead has a density of 11.4 g/cm 3. If this rod is cut in half, the density of each piece is now 5.7 g/cm3.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 36) If you are given the mass and density of an object, you can calculate the volume by using the equation: V = m/d.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 37) If you know the density of a liquid and its volume, the mass of the liquid may be calculated using the equation: m = V/d.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.9

Multiple Choice Questions 1) The correct scientific notation for the number 0.00050210 is: A) 5.0210 × 104 B) 5.021 × 10-4 C) 5.021 × 104 D) 5.0210 × 10-4 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 2) The correct scientific notation for the number 500.0 is: A) 5 × 102 B) 5.00 × 102 C) 5.000 × 102 D) 5 × 10-2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 3) The distance between the two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of water is 0.000000000172 m. Express this distance in scientific notation.

A) 1.72 ×10-9 m B) 1.72 × 10-10 m C) 0.172 × 10-10 m D) 17.2 × 109 m E) 1.72 × 1010 m Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.2

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4) The wavelength of blue light is 0.00000045 m. Express this wavelength in scientific notation.

A) 4.5 × 10-6 m B) 4.5 × 106 m C) 4.5 × 10-7 m D) 4.5 × 107 m E) 0.45 × 10-7 m Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 5) The correct decimal representation of 1.201 × 10 -7 is: A) 12010000 B) 0.0001201 C) 0.0000001201 D) 1201.000 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 6) The correct decimal representation of 6.453 × 10 3 is: A) 6,453 B) 0.006453 C) 6.5 × 103 D) 6.453 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 7) Suppose a thermometer has marks at every one degree increment and the mercury level on the thermometer is exactly between the 25 and 26 degree Celsius marks. We should properly report the temperature measurement as A) 25°C B) 26°C C) 25.5°C D) 25.50°C E) 25.55°C Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 8) In the number 48.93, which digit is estimated?

A) 4 B) 8 C) 9 D) 3 E) None of the above, all digits are certain.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3

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9) There are exactly 2.54 centimeters in 1 inch. When using this conversion factor, how many significant figures are you limited to?

A) 1 B) 3 C) ambiguous D) depends on if you are using it in multiplication/division or addition/subtraction E) infinite number of significant figures Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 10) The correct number of significant figures in the number 865,000 is: A) 3 B) 6 C) 4 D) ambiguous E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 11) The correct number of significant figures in the number 1.250100 is: A) 5 B) 7 C) 4 D) ambiguous E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 12) The correct number of significant figures in the number 0.027090 is: A) 7 B) 6 C) 5 D) ambiguous E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 13) The correct number of significant figures in the number "9.080 x 10-4" is A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) ambiguous E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3

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14) The correct number of significant figures in the number 4.0 × 10-2 is: A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) ambiguous.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 15) The correct number of significant figures in the number 0.002320 is: A) 7 B) 4 C) 3 D) ambiguous E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 16) Which of the following statements is NOT part of the rules for determining significant figures?

A) Non-zero digits at the end of a number are not significant.

B) Zeroes between two numbers are significant.

C) Zeroes to the left of the first non-zero number are not significant.

D) Zeroes at the end of a number, but before a decimal are ambiguous.

E) All of the above statements are part of the rules.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 17) When the value 4.449 is rounded to two significant figures, the number should be reported as: A) 4.4 B) 4.5 C) 4.44 D) 4.45 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 18) How many significant digits should be reported in the answer to the following calculation?

(4.3 - 3.7) × 12.3= A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.4

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19) Determine the answer for the equation below with correct number of significant figures: 3.215 × 13.2 ÷ 0.218 = ________ A) 194.669 B) 195 C) 194.7 D) 194.67 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.4 20) Determine the answer for the equation below with correct number of significant figures: 1.2 × 1.79 = ________ A) 2.148 B) 2.15 C) 2.1 D) 2.2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.4 21) Determine the answer to the following equation with correct number of significant figures: 106 ÷ 9.02 × 1.9 = ________ A) 22.32816 B) 22.328 C) 22.3 D) 22 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.4 22) Determine the answer to the following equation with correct number of significant figures: 2.02 + 8.102 - 0.0297 = ________ A) 10.0923 B) 10.09 C) 10.1 D) 10.092 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.4 23) Determine the answer to the following equation with correct number of significant figures: 13.96 - 4.9102 + 71.5 = ________ A) 80.5498 B) 81 C) 80.5 D) 80.55 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.4 8 ..

24) Determine the answer to the following equation with correct number of significant figures: (4.123 × 0.12) + 24.2 = ________ A) 25 B) 24.695 C) 24.70 D) 24.7 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.4 25) Determine the answer to the following equation with correct number of significant figures: (17.103 + 2.03) × 1.02521 = ________ A) 19.6153 B) 19.62 C) 19.6 D) 20 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.4 26) The correct prefix for the multiplier 1,000,000 is: A) mega.

B) milli.

C) micro.

D) nano.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 27) The correct prefix for the multiplier 1,000 is: A) mega.

B) milli.

C) micro.

D) nano.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 28) The correct prefix for the multiplier 0.1 is: A) tera.

B) deci.

C) femto.

D) pico.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5

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29) The correct prefix for the multiplier 0.000001 is: A) mega.

B) milli.

C) micro.

D) nano.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 30) The correct prefix for the multiplier 1,000,000,000 is: A) mega.

B) milli.

C) tera.

D) giga.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 31) The correct multiplier for the prefix pico is: A) 10-3 B) 10-6 C) 10-9 D) 10-12 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 32) The correct multiplier for the prefix femto is: A) 10-15 B) 10-12 C) 1012 D) 109 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 33) The correct multiplier for the prefix milli is: A) 10-3 B) 10-6 C) 10-9 D) 10-12 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5

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34) The correct multiplier for the prefix micro is: A) 103 B) 10-6 C) 10-9 D) 106 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 35) What is the standard SI unit for length?

A) mile B) centimeter C) foot D) meter E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 36) What is the standard SI unit for mass?

A) kilogram B) gram C) pound D) ton E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 37) The standard SI unit for temperature is: A) Fahrenheit.

B) Kelvin.

C) Celsius.

D) atmospheres.

E) none of the above.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 38) Which measurement below represents the heaviest mass?

A) 1 mg B) 1 kg C) 1 pg D) 1 Mg E) 1 dg Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5

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39) Which of the following sets of units is NOT in the order of increasing size?

A) μg < g < kg B) mL < dL < L C) ns < ms < s D) cm < μm < km E) μmol < mmol < mol Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.5 40) An American nickel five cent coin has a mass of approximately 5 grams. Five grams is equivalent to which term?

A) 5000 kilograms B) 5000 milligrams C) 50 centigrams D) 5000 micrograms E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.5 41) Which of the following would NOT be considered a correct conversion factor?

A) 1 dozen eggs = 12 eggs B) 12 eggs = 1 dozen eggs C) 1 pair of shoes = 1 shoe D) 100 pennies = 1 dollar E) 5 cents = 1 nickel Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 42) The common English unit in which the speed of an automobile is expressed is miles/hr. What is the set of standard SI units for speed?

A) mile/s B) km/hr C) km/s D) m/s E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 2.5 43) The typical problem-solving procedure involves four steps in the order: A) sort, strategize, solve, check B) strategize, solve, sort, check C) check, strategize, sort, solve D) solve, sort, check, strategize Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.6

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44) How many inches are in 25.8 cm?

A) 0.10 B) 28.3 C) 0.0984 D) 10.2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.6 45) How many inches are in 2.80 ft?

A) 34 B) 33.6 C) 0.233 D) 4.29 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.6 46) How many grams are in 1.48 × 107 μg?

A) 1.48 × 103 B) 1.48 × 1013 C) 1.48 D) 14.8 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.6 47) How many milliliters are in 17.5 L? A) 175 B) 1.75 × 10-2 C) 1.75 × 103 D) 1.75 × 104 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.6 48) How many microliters are in 41.0 mL? A) 4.1 × 103 B) 4.1 × 1010 C) 0.041 D) 4.10 × 104 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.6

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49) How many liters are in 333 mL? A) 3.33 × 105 B) 0.333 C) 33.3 D) 3.33 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.6 50) How many low dose 81 mg aspirin tablets can be made from 1.21 kg of aspirin?

A) 1.5 × 103 tablets B) 1.5 × 104 tablets C) 1.5 × 105 tablets D) 1.21 × 103 tablets E) 1.21 × 104 tablets Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.7 51) A 12-oz can of soda pop costs fifty cents. A 2.00 L bottle of the same variety of soda pop costs $1.29. How many times more expensive it is to buy the 12-oz can of pop compared to buying it in a 2.00 L bottle? (1.00 L = 1.057 quart and 1 quart contains 32 oz) A) 1.9 B) 2.2 C) 2.6 D) 2.8 E) 4.2 Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 2.7 52) How many cm3 are there in 2.5 m3?

A) 2.5 × 106 B) 2.5 × 10-2 C) 2.5 × 102 D) 2.5 × 10-6 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.8 53) How many cm3 are there in 1.25 ft3?

A) 38.1 B) 5.49 × 103 C) 246 D) 3.54 × 104 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.8

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54) A room has dimensions of 10.0 ft × 20.0 ft × 8.00 ft. Given that there are three feet in a yard, what is the volume of the room in yd3?

A) 178 B) 59.3 C) 1.60 × 103 D) 533 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 2.8 55) What is the volume of a cube with dimensions 11.0 cm × 11.0 cm × 11.0 cm in m 3?

A) 1.331 × 10-3 B) 1.33 × 103 C) 1.33 × 10-3 D) 1.3 × 103 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.8 56) Which term below is equivalent to one milliliter?

A) 1 cc B) 1 mL C) 1 cm3 D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.8 57) A plastic block has dimensions of 2.2 cm × 3.0 cm × 1.5 cm and a mass of 12.4 grams. Will the block float in water and why?

A) Yes, because the density of the block is 1.3 g/mL which is less than the density of water.

B) Yes, because the density of the block is 0.80 g/mL which is less than the density of water.

C) No, because the density of the block is 1.3 g/mL which is greater than the density of water.

D) No, because the density of the block is 0.80 g/mL which is greater than the density of water.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 2.9 58) Suppose a boat engine leaks 938 milliliters of oil into a lake. The mass of this spilled oil is 823 grams. The oil will not mix with the lake water. Which statement is true?

A) The oil will sink because its density of 0.877 g/mL is greater than the density of water.

B) The oil will float because its density of 0.877 g/mL is less than the density of water.

C) The oil will sink because its density of 1.14 g/mL is greater than the density of water.

D) The oil will float because its density of 1.14 g/mL is less than the density of water.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 2.9

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59) A lead ball has a mass of 55.0 grams and a density of 11.4 g/cm 3. What is the volume of the ball?

A) 0.207 mL B) 0.207 L C) 4.82 mL D) 4.82 L E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.9 60) Given the density of Au is 19.3 g/cm3, determine the mass of gold in an ingot with the dimensions of 10.0 in × 4.00 in × 3.00 in.

A) 3.80 × 104 B) 102 C) 2.32 × 103 D) 0.161 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.9 61) What is the density (g/mL) of an object that has a mass of 14.01 grams and, when placed into a graduated cylinder, causes the water level to rise from 25.2 mL to 33.6 mL? A) 0.60 B) 1.7 C) 1.8 D) 2.4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 2.9 62) An object weighing 1.840 kg has a volume of 0.0015 m 3. What is the density of the object in g/cm3?

A) 1.2 B) 0.0012 C) 0.82 D) 0.0028 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 2.9 63) Given the following list of densities, which materials would float in a molten vat of lead provided that they do not themselves melt? Densities (g/mL): lead = 11.4, glass = 2.6, gold = 19.3, charcoal = 0.57, platinum = 21.4.

A) gold and platinum B) glass and charcoal C) gold, platinum, glass and coal D) gold and charcoal E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.9

16 ..

64) A popular science demonstration is to take several liquids that will not mix together and "stack" these liquids in a tall glass cylinder. Suppose the following three liquids were placed in the same tall, narrow glass cylinder: SUBSTANCE DENSITY g/mL vinegar 1.01 motor oil 0.87 corn syrup 1.36 These liquids would stack in which order?

A) corn syrup on top, motor oil in the middle, vinegar on the bottom B) vinegar on top, motor oil in the middle, corn syrup on the bottom C) motor oil on top, corn syrup in the middle, vinegar on the bottom D) corn syrup on top, vinegar in the middle, motor oil on the bottom E) motor oil on top, vinegar in the middle, corn syrup on the bottom Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.9 65) The distance from New York City to Washington, DC is approximately 235 miles. Identify the correct solution map to convert from miles to kilometers using the prefix multipliers and the given conversion factors: 1 mile = 5280 ft; 1 ft = 12 in; 1 in = 2.54 cm.

A) 235 mile ×

×

×

×

B) 235 mile ×

×

×

×

C) 235 mile ×

×

×

D) 235 mile ×

×

×

×

E) 235 mile ×

×

×

×

× ×

×

×

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 2.10 66) The Olympic Games shot put field event uses a 16 pound (lb) shot. Identify the correct solution map to convert from pounds to kilograms using prefix multipliers and the given conversions of 16 0z = 1 lb and 453.6 g = 16 oz.

A) 16 lb ×

×

×

B) 16 lb ×

×

×

C) 16 lb ×

×

×

D) 16 lb ×

×

×

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 2.10 17 ..

Algorithmic Questions 1) The exponential 104 is equal to which decimal number?

A) 10,000 B) 1 C) 10 D) 100 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 2) The decimal value 10 is equal to which exponential?

A) 104 B) 103 C) 102 D) 101 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 3) The decimal value 0.01 is equal to which exponential?

A) 10-3 B) 10-2 C) 10-4 D) 10-5 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 4) The exponential 10-3 is equal to which decimal number?

A) 0.1 B) 0.001 C) -0.00001 D) -0.0001 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 5) How would the number 8,155 be written in scientific notation?

A) 8.155 × 103 B) 8.155 × 10-1 C) 8.155 × 101 D) 8.155 × 10-3 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 18 ..

6) How would the number 1.09 × 101 be expressed in decimal form?

A) 109 B) 0.109 C) 1.09 D) 10.9 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 7) How many significant digits are in the number 2903?

A) 2 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 8) When rounding the number 2.348615 to 4 significant digits, what is the correct value?

A) 2.3490 B) 2.340 C) 2.349 D) 2.348 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.4 9) How many significant figures should be reported in the answer to the following calculation?

(8.50) × (29.0) × (1.0947) = A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.4 10) How many significant digits should be reported in the answer to the following calculation?

(13.21)(14.021) = (2.00) A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 5 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.4

19 ..

11) How many significant digits should be reported in the answer to the following calculation?

(4.921) + (16.2) = A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) 4 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.4 12) How many significant digits should be reported in the answer to the following calculation?

(43.980) × (19.0023 + 25) = A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) 1 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.4 13) The prefix micro represents which multiplier?

A) 0.000001 B) 1,000,000 C) 0.001 D) 1,000 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 14) The multiplier 0.01 is represented by which prefix?

A) kiloB) deciC) centiD) milliE) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 15) How many inches are in 6.32 cm?

A) 16.1 B) 2.49 C) 3.78 D) 8.86 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.6

20 ..

16) How many in3 are in 2.20 cm?

A) 36.1 B) 10.6 C) 0.1340 D) 7.45 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.8 17) What is the density of 96 mL of a liquid that has a mass of 90.5 g?

A) 0.94 g/mL B) 1.1 g/mL C) 186.5 g/mL D) 28.4 g/mL E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.9 18) What is the volume of 12.8 g of a liquid that has a density of 0.789 g/mL? A) 12.8 mL B) 16.2 mL C) 10.7 mL D) 13.6 mL E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2.9

21 ..

Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 3 Matter and Energy True/False Questions 1) Matter is defined as anything that is visible to the human eye.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.2 2) An amorphous solid has long range, repeating order.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 3) Gases are the only form of matter that is compressible.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 4) Liquids have definite volume and indefinite shape.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 5) Solids have indefinite shape and volume.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 6) In a solid substance, the atoms or molecules oscillate and vibrate about a fixed point.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 7) Liquid and gas molecules can be compressed while in a solid, the molecules are incompressible.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 8) A compound is a substance that cannot be broken down into a simpler substance.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 9) Water is a mixture.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 10) Saltwater is a homogeneous mixture.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 11) Skim milk is a heterogeneous mixture.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 1 ..

12) Air is a pure substance.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 13) Sugar is a pure substance.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 14) Chemical properties of a substance are those that can be observed without changing the composition of a substance.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.5 15) Flammability of gasoline is a chemical property.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.5 16) The odor of gasoline is a chemical property.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.5 17) In a chemical reaction, the substances present after the chemical change are called reactants.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 18) The melting of ice is a physical change.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 19) Mixtures of miscible liquids that differ in their boiling points may be separated by distillation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 20) The corrosion of iron is a physical change.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 21) An example of a chemical change is burning a wood log to give a pile of ashes.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 22) In physical changes, the atoms or molecules that compose the matter do not change their identity, even though the matter may change its appearance.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 23) When you dissolve solid sugar into water, this new solution will taste sweet. The sugar went through a chemical change.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 2 ..

24) A chemical change occurs when matter does not change its composition.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 25) Matter can be destroyed in a combustion reaction (such as burning fuel).

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.7 26) Like mass, energy can neither be created nor destroyed.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 27) The energy of position is called kinetic energy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 28) A moving bowling ball has kinetic energy.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 29) Electrical energy is associated with the flow of electrical charge.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 30) A melting scoop of ice cream is an example of an exothermic process.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.9 31) When a chemical "cold pack" is activated, the chemical reactants absorb heat from the surroundings.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.9 32) The process of boiling water is an endothermic process.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.9 33) A chemical change that will lower the potential energy of the chemical results in an endothermic reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.9 34) An energy diagram that shows the products having higher energy than the reactants illustrates an endothermic reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.9 35) Temperature is simply a measure of the motion of atoms and molecules.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.10

3 ..

36) Temperature is defined as the transfer of thermal energy caused by a temperature difference.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 37) The coldest temperature possible is 0 K. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 38) Temperatures reported in the Kelvin scale cannot be negative.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 39) Absolute zero is equivalent to a temperature of -273 K. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 40) A kelvin degree is the same size as a Celsius degree.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 41) The temperature of 0°F is colder than the temperature of 0°C. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 42) The amount of heat energy needed to increase the temperature of an object will vary depending on the heat capacity of the object.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.11 43) The heat capcity of a substance is the quantity of thermal heat required to change the temperature of a given amount of the substance by 100°C. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.11 44) The large heat capacity of water produces large fluctuations in temperature near bodies of water during the summer months.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.11

4 ..

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements about matter is FALSE? A) Matter occupies space and has mass.

B) Matter exists in either a solid, liquid or gas state.

C) Matter is ultimately composed of atoms.

D) Matter is smooth and continuous.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.2 2) Which of the following is NOT an example of matter?

A) a pencil eraser B) a balloon full of helium C) a dust particle D) heat from a burning candle E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.2 3) A solid form of matter in which there is long range repeating order is called ________.

A) amorphous B) rigid C) crystalline D) fixed E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 4) Which state of matter has atomic spacing that is close together and indefinite shape?

A) liquid B) solid C) gas D) plasma E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 5) Which state of matter has indefinite shape and is compressible?

A) liquid B) solid C) gas D) plasma E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.3

5 ..

6) Which state of matter has atomic spacing that is close together and definite shape?

A) liquid B) solid C) gas D) plasma E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 7) Which among the following statements is FALSE? A) A solid has a definite shape and a definite volume.

B) A liquid has a definite volume; but it has no definite shape.

C) A gas has neither definite volume nor definite shape.

D) Both solids and liquids are incompressible while gases are compressible.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 8) Which state of matter has atomic spacing that is far apart and definite shape?

A) liquid B) solid C) gas D) plasma E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 9) A pure substance is: A) composed of two or more different types of atoms or molecules combined in variable proportions.

B) composed of only one type of atom or molecule.

C) composed of two or more regions with different compositions.

D) composed of two or more different types of atoms or molecules that has constant composition.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 10) Which of the following items is a pure substance?

A) air B) seawater C) brass D) ice E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4

6 ..

11) Which of the following items is a mixture?

A) water B) helium C) brass D) sugar E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 12) Which of the following is a heterogenous mixture?

A) milk B) sugar water C) raisin bran D) air E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 13) Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?

A) trail mix B) stainless steel C) water D) molten iron E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 14) Which of the following statements about compounds is TRUE? A) A substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances.

B) A pure substance that has variable composition throughout.

C) A substance composed of two or more elements in fixed, definite proportions.

D) A substance that is not as common as pure elements.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 15) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Matter may be a pure substance or it may be a mixture.

B) A pure substance may either be an element or a compound.

C) A mixture may be either homogeneous or heterogeneous.

D) Mixtures may be composed of two or more elements, two or more compounds, or a combination of both.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4

7 ..

16) How would you classify salt water?

A) pure substance-compound B) mixture-heterogeneous C) pure substance-element D) mixture-homogeneous E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 17) How would you classify raisin bran?

A) pure substance-compound B) mixture-heterogeneous C) pure substance-element D) mixture-homogeneous E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 18) How would you classify sugar?

A) pure substance-compound B) mixture-heterogeneous C) pure substance-element D) mixture-homogeneous E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 19) A solution is an example of a (an) A) pure substance.

B) element.

C) compound.

D) homogeneous mixture.

E) heterogeneous mixture.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 20) Physical properties are: A) those that a substance displays only through changing its composition.

B) those that cause atoms and molecules to change.

C) those that a substance displays without changing its composition.

D) identical for all solid matter.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.5

8 ..

21) All of the following can be considered physical properties EXCEPT A) taste.

B) color.

C) flammability.

D) density.

E) boiling point.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.5 22) Which of the following items is a physical property?

A) the corrosive action of acid rain on granite B) the odor of spearmint gum C) the combustion of gasoline D) the tarnishing of a copper statue E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.5 23) Which of the following items is a chemical property?

A) the paint color on a new red Corvette B) the odor of spearmint gum C) the melting and boiling point of water D) the tarnishing of a copper statue E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.5 24) Which of the following statements about physical and chemical changes is FALSE? A) In a chemical change, matter changes its composition.

B) In a physical change, matter does not change its composition.

C) Phase changes are always physical changes.

D) Chemical reactions are chemical changes.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 25) If you hold a solid piece of pure gallium metal in your hand, your body heat will melt the gallium into its liquid form. This illustrates which of the following?

A) distillation B) physical change C) chemical change D) chemical property E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.6

9 ..

26) Which statement below best describes the process of the paint on a vehicle fading over time?

A) Chemical change because the paint molecules are changing composition.

B) Physical change because the paint molecules are still paint molecules.

C) Chemical change because the paint molecules are changing phases.

D) Physical change because the paint molecules have risen to the surface of the clear coat finish.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 27) When methane is burned with oxygen the products are carbon dioxide and water. If you produce 36 grams of water and 44 grams of carbon dioxide from 16 grams of methane, how many grams of oxygen were needed for the reaction?

A) 32 B) 80 C) 96 D) 64 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.7 28) When methane is burned with oxygen, the products are carbon dioxide and water. If you produce 18 grams of water from 8 grams of methane and 32 grams of oxygen, how many grams of carbon dioxide were produced in the reaction?

A) 40 B) 22 C) 58 D) 18 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.7 29) When methane is burned with oxygen, the products are carbon dioxide and water. If you produce 9 grams of water and 11 grams of carbon dioxide from 16 grams of oxygen, how many grams of methane were needed for the reaction?

A) 4 B) 20 C) 31 D) 40 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.7 30) Which of the following statements about energy is FALSE? A) An object possessing energy can do work on another object.

B) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.

C) Energy is the single main component of the universe.

D) Energy is the capacity to do work.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 10 ..

31) Which type of energy is associated with motion?

A) chemical B) electrical C) potential D) kinetic E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 32) Which type of energy is associated with position?

A) chemical B) electrical C) potential D) kinetic E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 33) What type of energy is associated with the burning of gasoline?

A) kinetic B) potential C) electrical D) chemical E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 34) Which of the following items is NOT a common unit of energy?

A) joule B) torr C) calorie D) kilowatt-hour E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 35) How many calories are there in a 255 Calorie snack bar?

A) 2.55 × 105 B) 1.07 × 103 C) 60.9 D) 1 × 103 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.8

11 ..

36) How many joules are there in a 255 calorie snack bar?

A) 2.55 × 105 B) 1.07 × 106 C) 1.07 × 103 D) 6.09 × 104 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3.8 37) How many kilojoules are there in 95.0 Calories?

A) 2.27 × 107 B) 3.97 × 10-4 C) 397 D) 22.7 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3.8 38) If a particular process is endothermic, the reverse process must be a (an) A) chemical change.

B) isothermal process.

C) exothermic process.

D) endothermic process.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.9 39) An energy diagram that shows the reactants having greater energy than the products illustrates an A) endothermic reaction.

B) exothermic reaction.

C) isothermic reaction.

D) impossible reaction.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.9 40) If a solid piece of shiny sodium metal is exposed to chlorine gas, a large amount of heat is released and the white solid sodium chloride (table salt) forms. Based on this information, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) This process represents a physical change.

B) Mass is lost during this process.

C) Sodium chloride is an element.

D) This process was exothermic.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.9, 3.4, 3.6

12 ..

41) In order, what is the freezing point, room temperature and boiling point of water according to the Fahrenheit scale?

A) 32-75-212 B) 0-75-100 C) 0-25-100 D) 0-298-373 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 42) In order, what is the freezing point, room temperature and boiling point of water according to the Celsius scale?

A) 32-75-212 B) 0-75-100 C) 0-25-100 D) 0-298-373 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 43) The boiling point of water is (1) 212 °F (2) 0°C A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) all of 1, 2, and 3 E) none of 1, 2, and 3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3.10

(3) 373 K

44) What is the value of 27°C on the Kelvin temperature scale?

A) 273 B) 246 C) 300 D) 81 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 45) What is the value of 27°C on the Fahrenheit temperature scale?

A) -6.8 B) 106 C) 300 D) 81 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.10

13 ..

46) What is the value of 98 °F in units of °C? A) 72 B) 37 C) 371 D) 22 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 47) What is the value of 335 K on the Celsius temperature scale?

A) 62 B) 167 C) 608 D) 66.4 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 48) Melting point can be defined as the temperature when a solid becomes a liquid. The melting point of the chemical acetone is -95°C. Which state of matter would you expect to exist for acetone at a temperature of -94°C? A) solid B) liquid C) gas D) plasma Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3.10 49) In calculating the relationship between the amount of heat added to a substance and the corresponding temperature change, the specific heat capacity is usually represented by which symbol?

A) C B) q C) ΔT D) m E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 3.11 50) A 15.0 gram lead ball at 25.0°C was heated with 40.5 joules of heat. Given the specific heat of lead is 0.128 J/g∙°C, what is the final temperature of the lead?

A) 21.1°C B) 46.1°C C) 77.8°C D) 0.844°C E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 3.11

14 ..

51) What is the specific heat (J/g∙°C) of a metal object whose temperature increases by 3.0°C when 17.5 g of metal was heated with 38.5 J? A) 4.18 B) 0.15 C) 0.73 D) 1.4 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 3.11 52) How much heat (kJ) is needed to raise the temperature of 100.0 grams of water from 25.0°C to 50.0°C? A) 10450 B) 0.598 C) 1.05 D) 10.5 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3.11 53) From the following list of substances and heat capacities, choose the one that will have the lowest temperature after absorbing 100.0 kJ of heat. Assume identical masses of each substance start at the same initial temperature.

A) lead-0.128 J/g∙°C B) copper-0.385 J/g∙°C C) ethanol-2.42 J/g∙°C D) water-4.18 J/g∙°C E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 3.11 54) Consider the following specific heats of metals.

Metal Aluminum Copper Gold Iron Silver

Specific Heat (J/g∙°C) 0.903 0.385 0.128 0.449 0.235

If the same amount of heat is added to 50.0 g samples of each of the metals, which are all at the same temperature, which metal will reach the highest temperature?

A) aluminum B) copper C) gold D) iron E) silver Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 3.11

15 ..

55) When 49.5 J of heat was transferred to 7.3 g iron at 22°C, the temperature of iron increases to 37°C. What is the specific heat of iron in J/g∙°C? A) 4.5 B) 0.45 C) 2.2 D) 24 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 3.11 56) Suppose it took 108 joules of energy to raise a bar of gold from 25.0°C to 29.7°C. Given that the specific heat capacity of gold is 0.128 J/g∙°C, what is the mass (in grams) of the bar of gold?

A) 6.5 × 101 g B) 1.8 × 102 g C) 1.28 × 102 g D) 1.08 × 102 g E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3.12

Algorithmic Questions 1) How many Calories are in 575.0 calories?

A) 575,000 B) 0.5750 C) 137.6 D) 2,404 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 2) How many joules are in 55.2 calories?

A) 13,200 B) 55,200 C) 13.2 D) 231 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 3) What is the value of -25°C on the Kelvin scale?

A) 248 B) -32 C) -13 D) -298 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 16 ..

4) What is the value of 27°C on the Fahrenheit scale?

A) 73 B) 52 C) 81 D) 91 Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 3.10 5) What is the value of 783 K in units of °C? A) 417 B) 1441 C) 510.

D) 1056 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 6) Given the table of specific heat values below, what is the identity of a 10.0 g metal sample that increases by 14.0°C when 62.9 J of energy is absorbed?

Element Au Ag Cu Fe Al

Specific Heat(J/g°C) 0.128 0.235 0.385 0.449 0.903

A) Fe B) Al C) Au D) Ag E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.11

17 ..

7) Given the table of specific heat values below, what is the identity of a 26.2 g metal sample that increases by 8.5°C when 100.0 J of energy is absorbed?

Element Au Ag Cu Fe Al

Specific Heat(J/g°C) 0.128 0.235 0.385 0.449 0.903

A) Fe B) Al C) Au D) Ag E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.11 8) How much heat (kJ) is absorbed by 948.0 g of water in order for the temperature to increase from 25.00°C to 32.50°C? A) 7.5 B) 31.4 C) 30.2 D) 29.7 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 3.11 9) What is the final temperature of 25.0 grams of water at 22.0°C after it absorbs 454 J of heat?

A) 17.7 B) 4.29 C) 26.3 D) 15.8 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 3.11 10) How many grams of water when supplied with 348 J of heat will gain a temperature of 5.2°C? A) 15 B) 17 C) 19 D) 16 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3.11

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Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 4 Atoms and Elements True/False Questions 1) The smell of the ocean is caused by atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.1 2) The atom is the fundamental building block of everything we hear, feel, see, and experience.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.1 3) An atom is the smallest identifiable unit of a compound.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.1 4) John Dalton was the first person recorded as thinking that matter was ultimately composed of atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.2 5) John Dalton formalized an atomic theory that gained acceptance in the early 19th century.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.2 6) You can continually divide matter into smaller and smaller pieces without ever coming to an end.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.2 7) The plum pudding model proposed that negatively charged electrons were held in a sphere of positive charge.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 8) J.J. Thomson discovered the existence of protons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 9) Ernest Rutherford proved the existence of electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 10) The gold foil experiment proved that large regions of the atoms consisted of empty space.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 11) The nucleus of an atom is a very small, dense region that contains over 99.9% of the atomic mass.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 1 ..

12) Protons and electrons each have a mass of 1 amu.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 13) A positive charge attracts negative charges and repels other positive charges.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 14) The mass of a proton is exactly the same as the mass of a neutron.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 15) The charges on electrons and neutrons cancel each other to give neutral atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 16) Protons and neutrons have similar masses and similar electrical charges.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 17) An atom containing 8 protons, 9 neutrons, and 8 electrons would be considered charge-neutral.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 18) If two atoms each contain different numbers of protons, the atoms must be from different elements.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 19) All elemental symbols are comprised of a two-letter abbreviation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 20) The elemental symbol for manganese is Mg. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 21) All carbon atoms have exactly 6 protons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 22) The atomic number of nitrogen is 14.01.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 23) Mendeleev is best remembered for his pioneering work on determining atomic structure.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6

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24) Mendeleev's early periodic table predicted the existence of elements that had yet to be discovered.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 25) In the modern periodic table, elements are listed in order of increasing atomic number rather than increasing relative mass.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 26) Metals are located on the left side of the periodic table.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 27) The elements within a group on the periodic table tend to have similar properties.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 28) Group 2A elements are called alkali metals.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 29) Aluminum is one of the most commonly used metalloids.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 30) An element is discovered that is a solid, has one valence electron, and readily forms a 1+ ion. This element would be correctly classified as a nonmetal.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4.6 and 4.7 31) Main-group elements tend to form ions that have the same number of total electrons as the nearest halogen.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 32) A cation forms when an atom gains an electron.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 33) Halogens form anions with a 1- charge.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 34) Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have a different numbers of neutrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 35) The atomic mass of individual atoms of an element may vary.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 3 ..

36) The relative amount of each different isotope in a naturally occurring sample of an element is always the same.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 37) All elements have three or more naturally occurring isotopes.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 38) The atomic mass of a single carbon atom is equal to exactly 12.011 amu.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.9

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements about atoms is FALSE? A) Atoms compose all matter.

B) Atoms are responsible for the sensation of smell.

C) Atoms are the basic building block of nature.

D) An atom is the smallest identifiable unit of an element.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.1 2) Which statement below accurately describes the contributions of Democritus?

A) ancient Greek philosopher who proposed that matter was not continuous B) created the modern periodic table C) proposed the modern Atomic Theory D) discovered the existence of electrons E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.2 3) Which statement below accurately describes the contributions of Dalton?

A) ancient Greek philosopher who proposed that matter was continuous B) created the modern periodic table C) proposed the modern Atomic Theory D) discovered the existence of electrons E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.2

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4) Which of the following is NOT part of Dalton's Atomic Theory?

A) Each element is composed of tiny indestructible particles called atoms.

B) All atoms of a given element have the same mass and other properties that distinguish them from the atoms of other elements.

C) Atoms combine in simple, whole-number ratios to form compounds.

D) Most of the atom's mass and all of its positive charge is contained in a small core called the nucleus.

E) All of the above are part of the atomic theory.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.2 5) Which statement below accurately describes the contributions of Thomson?

A) ancient Greek philosopher who proposed that matter was continuous B) created the modern periodic table C) proposed the modern Atomic Theory D) discovered the existence of electrons E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 6) Which of the statements about the discovery of electrons is FALSE? A) Because atoms are neutral, the existence of a negatively charged particle implied there must be a positively charged component of an atom.

B) Thomson proposed that electrons were small particles held within a positively charged sphere.

C) Rutherford proved the plum-pudding model correct.

D) The negatively charged electron is located outside the nucleus.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 7) Which statement below is NOT consistent with the nuclear theory of the atom as proposed by Rutherford?

A) Most of the atom's mass and all of its positive charge is contained in a small core called the nucleus.

B) Electrical charge is a fundamental property of protons and electrons in which like charges repel and opposite charges attract.

C) Most of the volume of the atom is empty space occupied by tiny, negatively charged electrons.

D) There are as many electrons outside the nucleus as there are protons inside the nucleus in a neutral atom.

E) All of the above statements are consistent.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 8) Which statement reflects the results of Rutherford's gold foil experiments?

A) Almost all of the alpha particles were deflected back in the direction from which they came.

B) Almost all of the alpha particles sputtered gold atoms off of the surface of the foil.

C) Almost all of the alpha particles were deflected while passing through the foil.

D) Almost all of the alpha particles passed directly through the foil.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.3

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9) An atom containing 7 protons, 8 neutrons, and 7 electrons A) is charge-neutral.

B) is an ion.

C) is an oxygen atom.

D) cannot exist.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 10) The atomic mass unit is defined as: A) the mass of the hydrogen atom containing only one proton.

B) the mass of electrons found in a carbon atom containing six protons and neutrons.

C) 1/12 the mass of a carbon atom containing six protons and six neutrons.

D) 1/14 the mass of a nitrogen atom containing 7 protons and 7 neutrons.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 11) Which of the following statements about the nature of electrical charge is FALSE? A) Electrical charge is a fundamental property of protons and electrons.

B) Positive and negative electrical charges attract each other.

C) Positive-positive or negative-negative charges repel each other.

D) Positive and negative charges cancel each other so that a proton and electron, when paired, are charge neutral.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 12) Which of the following subatomic particles has a mass of 1.67 × 10 -27 kg?

A) electrons only B) protons only C) neutrons only D) protons and neutrons E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 13) Which of the following elements has an atomic number of 4?

A) H B) C C) He D) Be E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.5

6 ..

14) Which of the following elements has only 12 protons?

A) C B) Zn C) Mg D) O E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 15) What is the atomic symbol for silver?

A) S B) Ag C) Au D) Si E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 16) What is the atomic symbol for tin?

A) Sn B) Ti C) Tn D) Si E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 17) What is the correct chemical symbol for mercury?

A) Hm B) Hy C) Me D) My E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 18) Which of the following is NOT a correct name, symbol combination?

A) beryllium, Be B) magnesium, Mg C) iron, I D) manganese, Mn E) silicon, Si Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.5

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19) Which of the following is NOT a correct name, symbol combination?

A) beryllium, Be B) phosphorus, P C) iron, Fe D) manganese, Mg E) silicon, Si Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 20) Which of the following is NOT a correct name, symbol combination?

A) calcium, Ca B) gold, Au C) manganese, Mn D) chromium, Cr E) potassium, P Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 21) The names of the elements whose symbols are Si, P, Mn, and S are respectively, A) silicon, potassium, magnesium, and sulfur.

B) silver, phosphorus, magnesium, and sulfur.

C) silicon, phosphorus, manganese, and sulfur.

D) silicon, phosphorus, magnesium, and sulfur.

E) silicon, potassium, magnesium, and sodium.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 22) Metals are located where on the periodic table?

A) left side B) right side C) middle D) zig-zag diagonal line E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 23) Nonmetals are located where on the periodic table?

A) left side B) right side C) middle D) zig-zag diagonal line E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6

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24) Metalloids are located where on the periodic table?

A) left side B) right side C) middle D) zig-zag diagonal line E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 25) Group 1A elements are also called: A) noble gases.

B) halogens.

C) alkaline earth metals.

D) alkali metals.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 26) Group 7A elements are also called: A) noble gases.

B) halogens.

C) alkaline earth metals.

D) alkali metals.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 27) Group 8A elements are also called: A) noble gases.

B) halogens.

C) alkaline earth metals.

D) alkali metals.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 28) Group 2A elements are also called: A) noble gases.

B) halogens.

C) alkaline earth metals.

D) alkali metals.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6

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29) Mg is a member of which family?

A) noble gases B) halogens C) alkaline earth metals D) alkali metals E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 30) Xe is a member of which family?

A) noble gases B) halogens C) alkaline earth metals D) alkali metals E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 31) Examine the elements listed below and identify the one element that is from a different periodic table group than the others.

A) Si B) Sn C) Ti D) Ge E) All of these are from the same group.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 32) Cr is a member of which family?

A) noble gases B) halogens C) alkaline earth metals D) alkali metals E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 33) All of the following statements about different elements are true EXCEPT: A) Barium is an alkaline earth metal.

B) Manganese is a transition metal.

C) Sulfur is considered a metalloid.

D) Krypton is one of the noble gases.

E) Iodine is a halogen.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6

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34) Identify the element that is a nonmetal, a gas, and has an elemental symbol that starts with the letter "A." A) Ac B) Ar C) Au D) Al E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 35) Ions are formed when atoms A) gain or lose protons.

B) gain or lose electrons.

C) gain or lose neutrons.

D) Each of these results in ion formation.

E) None of these results in ion formation.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 36) When an atom loses an electron, the resulting particle is called A) a proton.

B) an anion.

C) a cation.

D) an isotope.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 37) When an atom gains an electron, the resulting particle is called A) a proton.

B) an anion.

C) a cation.

D) an isotope.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 38) Which of the following statements about ions is INCORRECT? A) Cations are positive ions and anions are negative ions.

B) Cations are formed when an atom loses electrons.

C) Anions are formed when an atom gains electrons.

D) Cations always have the same number of protons as electrons.

E) All statements are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.7

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39) What is the correct formula for a potassium ion with 18 electrons?

A) P+ B) K+ C) KD) PE) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4.7 40) How many electrons are in Br-?

A) 4 B) 7 C) 34 D) 36 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4.7 41) How many protons and electrons are present in O2-?

A) 8 protons and 8 electrons B) 10 protons and 8 electrons C) 8 protons and 10 electrons D) 16 protons and 8 electrons E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4.7 42) What is the charge on the barium ion?

A) 1B) 2C) 1+ D) 2+ E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 43) What is the charge on the ion formed by selenium?

A) 1B) 2C) 1+ D) 2+ E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.7

12 ..

44) There is very little of the element astatine (symbol = At) on earth. If astatine formed an ion, it would most likely have the charge of: A) 1+ B) 1C) 2+ D) 2E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 45) What is the charge on the ion formed by aluminum?

A) 5B) 3C) 13+ D) 3+ E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 46) What is the charge on the cesium ion?

A) 1B) 2C) 1+ D) 2+ E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 47) How many electrons would be in a -2 charged anion of sulfur?

A) 2 B) 16 C) 18 D) 36 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 48) Isotopes are: A) atoms of the same element that have different number of neutrons.

B) atoms of the same element that have different number of protons.

C) atoms of the same element that have different number of electrons.

D) atoms of the same element that have the same number of neutrons.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.8

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49) The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom A) is called the atomic number.

B) is given the symbol "Z." C) identifies the atom as a particular element.

D) is the same for all isotopes of an element.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 50) The nucleus of an atom consists mainly of A) neutrons and electrons.

B) protons and electrons.

C) protons and neutrons.

D) protons, neutrons, and electrons.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 51) How many neutrons are present in Ne-22?

A) 12 B) 10 C) 22 D) 32 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4.8 52) How many neutrons are present in C-14?

A) 14 B) 12 C) 6 D) 8 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4.8 53) What is the mass number of the hydrogen isotope that contains 2 neutrons?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4.8

14 ..

54) How many protons and neutrons are in Cl-37?

A) 20 protons, 17 neutrons B) 17 protons, 37 neutrons C) 17 protons, 20 neutrons D) 37 protons, 17 neutrons E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4.8 55) An isotope represented as S-34 A) is an isotope of sodium.

B) contains exactly 18 neutrons.

C) has 34 protons.

D) must have exactly 18 electrons.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4.8 56) An atom of a carbon-14 isotope would contain A) 6 protons, 8 neutrons,and 6 electrons.

B) 8 protons, 6 neutrons,and 8 electrons.

C) 6 protons, 8 neutrons,and 8 electrons.

D) 14 protons, 6 neutrons,and 6 electrons.

E) 20 protons, 6 neutrons,and 20 electrons.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 57) An atom that has the same number of neutrons as 138 56 Ba is: A) 138 55 Cs B) 136 56 Ba C) 137 57 La D) 136 54 Xe E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 4.8 58) A specific isotope of an element is known to have 15 protons and 16 neutrons. Which symbol would properly represent this isotope?

A) 15 31 Ga 31 B) 15 P

C) 16 15 X 31 D) 16 S

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 4.8

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59) A fictional element has two naturally occurring isotopes with the natural abundances shown here: ISOTOPE

ABUNDANCE

18 40.0% 20 60.0% Which statement is TRUE for this element?

A) The atomic mass would be less than 18.

B) The atomic mass would be closer to 18 than to 20.

C) The atomic mass would be exactly 19.

D) The atomic mass would be closer to 20 than to 18.

E) The atomic mass would be greater than 20.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 4.9 60) A fictional element has two isotopes, each making up 50% of the population. Isotope 1 has a mass of 80.0 amu, Isotope 2 has a mass of 85.0 amu. Calculate the atomic mass of the fictional element.

A) 82.5 amu B) 42.5 amu C) 40 amu D) 165 amu E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 4.9 61) A fictional element has two isotopes and an atomic mass of 87.08 amu. If the first isotope is 86 amu and the second isotope has a mass of 90 amu. Which isotope has the greatest natural abundance?

A) 86 amu B) 90 amu C) There are equal amounts.

D) Not enough information provided.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4.9 62) A fictional element named Nivadium is found to have three naturally occurring isotopes with the natural abundances shown here: MASS (amu) 22.1760 23.1847 24.1934

ABUNDANCE

45.00% 45.00% 10.00%

The calculated atomic mass of Nivadium is A) 7.61 amu B) 22.83 amu C) 23.18 amu D) 69.55 amu E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 4.9 16 ..

63) Chlorine has two stable isotopes, Cl-35 and Cl-37. If their exact masses are 34.9689 amu and 36.9695 amu, respectively, what is the natural abundance of Cl-35? (The atomic mass of chlorine is 35.45 amu) A) 75.95% B) 24.05% C) 50.00% D) 35.00% E) 37.00% Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 4.9

Algorithmic Questions 1) What is the charge on an ion that has an atomic number of 24 and contains 22e-?

A) 2+ B) 2C) 1+ D) 1E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4.7 2) What is the charge on a lithium atom that contains 2 e-?

A) 2+ B) 3+ C) 1D) 1+ E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4.7 3) How many neutrons are found in Ne-21?

A) 11 B) 21 C) 10 D) 0 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4.8 4) How many protons are found in C-14?

A) 8 B) 14 C) 6 D) 0 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4.8

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5) Given that the molecular mass of bromine is 79.90 grams, which of the following isotopes would you expect to have the greatest natural abundance?

A) Br-79 B) Br-80 C) Br-81 D) Br-82 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4.9

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Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 5 Molecules and Compounds True/False Questions 1) When elements combine to form compounds, their properties only change slightly.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.1 2) The properties of a compound are an average of the properties of the individual elements.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.1 3) Life could not exist with just 91 elements if they did not combine to form compounds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.1 4) Although some substances we encounter in our routine lives are elements, most occur in the combined state.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 5) The law of constant composition states: All samples of a given compound have the same proportions of their constituent elements.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 6) The fact that water has an oxygen-to-hydrogen mass ratio of 8.0 illustrates the law of conservation of mass.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 7) The subscripts in a chemical formula represent the relative mass of each atom in a chemical compound.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 8) The subscripts in a chemical formula do not change for a given compound.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 9) Chemical formulas normally list the most metallic elements first.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 10) The formula of a compound comprised of two nitrogen atoms and one oxygen atom should be written properly as ON2.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.3

1 ..

11) Molecular elements do not exist in nature.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 12) The element nitrogen normally exists in nature as a diatomic molecule.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 13) Carbon dioxide is an example of a molecular compound.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 14) The basic unit of an ionic compound is called the formula unit.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 15) SO2 is an ionic compound.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 16) Ionic compounds have a net charge of zero.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 17) Ionic compounds always contain positive and negative ions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 18) In ionic compounds the net positive charge always equals the net negative charge.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 19) The ionic compound that forms between aluminum and oxygen is AlO. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 20) The ionic compound that forms between Mg and O is MgO. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 21) The correct formula for calcium fluoride is CaF3.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 22) Ionic compounds are usually made up of a metal and a nonmetal.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.7

2 ..

23) The ionic compound MgO is named manganese oxide.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 24) The name of KNO3 is potassium nitratide.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 25) The correct formula for sodium permanganate is NaMgO4.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 26) Type II metal cations are usually found in the section of the periodic table known as the transition metals.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 27) If there are two ions in a series of oxoanions, the one with more oxygen is given the ending "-ite."

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 28) The proper name for SF6 is sulfur tetrafluoride.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.8 29) The proper name for the acid HF is hydrofluoric acid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.9 30) The proper name for for HI is hydroiodic acid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.9 31) The correct name for HNO3 is hydronitric acid.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.9 32) The correct name for H2SO3 is sulfurous acid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.9

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Multiple Choice Questions 1) When elements combine to form compounds, A) their properties are an average of all elements in the compound.

B) their properties change completely.

C) their properties do not change.

D) their properties are completely random.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.1 2) The first chemist to formally state the law of constant composition was ________.

A) Dalton B) Mendeleev C) Rutherford D) Proust E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 3) The law of constant composition states: A) Matter cannot be either created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.

B) The nucleus is a dense region of positive charge that always contains protons and neutrons.

C) All samples of a given compound have the same proportions of their constituent elements.

D) All atoms of a given element have a constant composition and are different than atoms of any other element.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 4) The oxygen-to-hydrogen mass ratio of water is always 8.0 is an example of what fundamental law?

A) Law of Constant Composition B) Law of Constant Mass Ratio C) Law of Conservation of Mass D) Law of Constant Whole Number Ratio E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.2 5) What is the oxygen-to-hydrogen mass ratio for H2O2?

A) 0.125 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.2

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6) The phosphorous-to-hydrogen mass ratio is 10.2 for a compound. This ratio could correspond to the compound A) PH. B) PH2.

C) PH3.

D) PH6.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 5.2 7) What is the oxygen-to-sulfur mass ratio of sulfur dioxide?

A) 0.5 B) 1.0 C) 2.0 D) 16 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.2 8) Which of the following statements about chemical formulas is FALSE? A) The subscripts represent the relative number of each type of atom in the compound.

B) The subscripts represent the relative mass of each type of atom in the compound.

C) The subscripts do not change for a given compound.

D) Different compounds made of the same elements have different subscripts.

E) All of the statements are true.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 9) How many total atoms are in the formula Al2(CO3)3?

A) 8 B) 9 C) 12 D) 14 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.3 10) How many carbon atoms are in the formula Al2(CO3)3?

A) 3 B) 9 C) 1 D) 6 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.3

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11) How many oxygen atoms are in the formula Al2(CO3)3?

A) 3 B) 9 C) 1 D) 6 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.3 12) Which formula shows the proper use of parentheses?

A) Ca(F)2 B) Ca(SO4) C) (NH4)3(PO4) D) Ca(NO3)2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 13) How many of each type of atoms are there in the formula NH 4C2H3O2?

A) N = 4, H = 7, C = 2, O = 2 B) N = 1, H = 4, C = 2, O = 2 C) N = 1, H = 3, C = 2, O = 2 D) N = 1, H = 7, C = 2, O = 2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.3 14) How many of each type of atom are there in the formula Ca 3(PO4)2?

A) Ca = 3, P = 1, O = 4 B) Ca = 3, P = 2, O = 4 C) Ca = 3, P = 2, O = 8 D) Ca = 3, P = 1, O = 8 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.3 15) How many of each type of atom are there in the formula (NH 4)2HPO4?

A) N = 2, H = 9, P = 1, O = 4 B) N = 1, H = 5, P = 1, O = 4 C) N = 2, H = 5, P = 1, O = 4 D) N = 2, H = 8, P = 1, O = 4 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.3

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16) What is the correct formula for a compound that has three oxygen atoms and one sulfur atom?

A) O3S B) SO3 C) 3OS D) SO3 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.3 17) What is the correct formula of a compound that has ten oxygen atoms and four phosphorus atoms?

A) O10P4 B) 10OP4 C) 4PO10 D) P4O10 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.3 18) Carbon is considered which of the following?

A) atomic element B) molecular element C) molecular compound D) ionic compound E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 19) Which among the following elements does NOT exist as a diatomic molecule in nature?

A) hydrogen B) nitrogen C) fluorine D) neon E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 20) Carbon monoxide is considered which of the following?

A) atomic element B) molecular element C) molecular compound D) ionic compound E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.4

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21) Fluorine is considered which of the following?

A) atomic element B) molecular element C) molecular compound D) ionic compound E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.4 22) Ammonium fluoride is considered which of the following?

A) atomic element B) molecular element C) molecular compound D) ionic compound E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.4 23) Which of the following species is a molecular element?

A) neon B) sodium C) chlorine D) carbon dioxide E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.4 24) Which of the following is a molecular compound?

A) barium sulfide B) calcium acetate C) potassium hydroxide D) nitrogen monoxide E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.4 25) What is the formula for an ionic compound made of barium and nitrogen?

A) Ba3N2 B) Ba2N3 C) BaN D) Ba2N4 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.5

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26) What is the formula for an ionic compound made of magnesium and sulfur?

A) MgS B) MgS2 C) Mg2S D) Mg2S3 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.5 27) What is the formula for an ionic compound made of carbon and oxygen?

A) CO2 B) C2O C) CO D) CO3 E) Carbon and oxygen do not form an ionic compound.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.5 28) The ionic compound that forms between potassium and oxygen is A) K2O. B) KO. C) KO2.

D) K2O2.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 29) What is the formula for an ionic compound made of aluminum and oxygen?

A) AlO2 B) Al2O3 C) Al3O2 D) AlO E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.5 30) What is the name of the ionic compound made of beryllium and chlorine?

A) beryllium(II) chloride B) beryllium dichloride C) beryllium chloride D) monoberyllium dichloride E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.7

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31) What is the name of the compound made from lithium and oxygen?

A) lithium dioxide B) lithium(I) oxide C) oxygen lithide D) lithium oxide E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.7 32) Which metal atom below would NOT be involved in formation of a Type II compound?

A) Cr B) Mn C) Fe D) Ba E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 33) What is the name of CoS? A) cobalt(II) sulfide B) cobalt sulfide C) cobalt monosulfide D) cobaltous sulfur E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.7 34) What is the name of Ca(NO3)2?

A) calcium dinitrite B) calcium nitrate C) calcium nitride D) calcium nitrite E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.7 35) Which formula shown is incorrect for the name given?

A) magnesium nitrite: Mg(NO2)3 B) calcium carbonate: CaCO3 C) aluminum sulfate: Al2(SO4)3 D) sodium hydrogen carbonate: NaHCO3 E) potassium hydroxide: KOH Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.7

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36) Which formula shown is incorrect for the name given?

A) strontium carbonate: SrCO3 B) ammonium cyanide: NH4CN C) potassium acetate: KC2H3O2 D) calcium nitrate: Ca(NO3)2 E) lithium sulfate: LiSO4 Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.7 37) What is the name of the compound whose formula is Na 2O? A) sodium monoxide B) disodium oxide C) disodium monoxide D) sodium oxide E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.7 38) What is the formula for the acetate polyatomic ion?

A) C3H2O3B) C2H3O22C) C2H3O2D) C2H3OE) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 39) What is the correct formula for potassium dichromate?

A) K(CrO4)2 B) KCr2O7 C) K2CrO4 D) K2Cr2O7 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.7 40) What is the correct formula for ammonium hydrogen sulfate?

A) NH4HSO4 B) (NH4)2HSO4 C) (NH4)2SO4 D) Am2HSO4 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.7

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41) The formula for potassium chlorate is KClO3. The formula for magnesium chloride is MgCl2. What is the formula for magnesium chlorate?

A) MgClO3 B) Mg2ClO3 C) Mg(ClO3)2 D) Mg2(ClO3)3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.7 42) The charge of a vanadium ion in the compound V 2O5 is: A) 5+ B) 2+ C) 10+ D) 10E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.7 43) What is the correct formula for the hypochlorite polyatomic ion?

A) ClOB) ClO2C) ClO3D) ClO4E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 44) What is the correct name for the BrO4 1- ion?

A) hypobromite B) perbromate C) bromite D) bromate E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 5.7 45) Choose the pair of names and formulas that do NOT match.

A) copper(I) nitrate: CuNO3 B) copper(II) nitride: Cu3N2 C) copper(II) nitrate: Cu(NO3)2 D) copper(II) nitrite: Cu(NO2)2 E) all of these are correct Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 5.7

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46) The name trisodium phosphate is incorrect for the compound Na3PO4 because A) this compound should be called trisodium monophosphate.

B) the sodium has a negative 3 charge.

C) you cannot use a prefix for the first element in a molecular compound.

D) you cannot use a prefix for the first element of an ionic compound.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 and 5.8 47) What is the name of the molecular compound SF5?

A) sulfur hexafluoride B) sulfur heptafluoride C) monosulfur tetrafluoride D) sulfur pentafluoride E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.8 48) What is the name of the molecular compound SO3?

A) sulfur oxide B) sulfur(IV) oxide C) sulfur trioxide D) sulfur tetraoxide E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.8 49) What is correct name of the compound whose formula is N 2O4?

A) nitrogen dioxide B) nitrogen tetroxide C) dinitrogen oxide D) dinitrogen tetroxide E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.8 50) What is correct name of the compound whose formula is BF 3?

A) boron trifluoride B) boron fluoride C) monoboron trifluorine D) boron(III) fluoride E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.8

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51) What would the formula of diiodine pentasulfide be?

A) I5S2 B) I2S5 C) I4S9 D) I2S7 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.8 52) What is the correct formula for the molecular compound heptaphosphorus octafluoride?

A) P5F8 B) P 7F6 C) P6F7 D) P7F8 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.8 53) What is the proper name for HBr (aq)?

A) hydrobromous acid B) hydrousbromic acid C) hydrobromic acid D) bromous acid E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.9 54) What is the name of HI (aq)?

A) hydroiodous acid B) hydroiodic acid C) iodic acid D) iodous acid E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.9 55) What is the name of HIO3?

A) iodic acid B) hydroioidic acid C) hydroiodous acid D) iodous acid E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.9

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56) What is the name of HNO2?

A) Nitric acid B) Nitrous acid C) hydronitrous acid D) hydronitric acid E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.9 57) A certain oxyacid is derived from the oxyanion SO 32-. The formula for the oxyacid is A) H2SO4.

B) HSO3.

C) H2SO3.

D) H3SO3.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.9 58) What is the formula mass of sulfurous acid?

A) 82.08 amu B) 98.08 amu C) 83.09 amu D) 66.08 amu E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.11 59) What is the formula mass for potassium nitrate?

A) 92.99 amu B) 117.11 amu C) 85.11 amu D) 101.10 amu E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.11 60) What is the formula mass for diboron tetrachloride?

A) 127.98 amu B) 198.89 amu C) 234.34 amu D) 163.43 amu E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.11

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61) What is the formula mass of copper(II) fluoride?

A) 101.55 B) 146.10 C) 90.00 D) 165.10 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 5.11 62) Which of the following has the largest formula mass?

A) CO2 B) SO2 C) NO2 D) SiO2 E) H2O Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 5.11 63) Which of the following compounds have the smallest formula mass?

A) CO2 B) SO2 C) NO2 D) SiO2 E) H2O Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 5.11 64) A compound has a formula mass of 61.98 amu and is comprised of atoms of sodium and oxygen in a definite ratio. The name of the compound described here is A) sodium monoxide.

B) disodium oxide.

C) sodium oxide.

D) sodium dioxide.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 5.11

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Algorithmic Questions 1) What is the mass ratio of Na to S in sodium sulfide?

A) 7.17 B) 55.06 C) 0.717 D) 1.43 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.2 2) If the mass ratio of K to F in a compound is 2.06:1, how many grams of F are needed to react with 97.5 g of K? A) 0.0211 B) 47.3 C) 4.73 D) 2.11 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 5.2 3) How many C atoms are in ammonium acetate?

A) 5 B) 2 C) 1 D) 3 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.7 4) How many O atoms are present in sodium chlorite?

A) 2 B) 6 C) 4 D) 1 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5.7 5) What is the formula mass of magnesium sulfide?

A) 88.45 B) 80.69 C) 56.4 D) 144.83 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 5.11

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Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 6 Chemical Composition True/False Questions 1) The chemical formula clearly indicates the relationship between the mass of each element in the formula.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.1 2) Mass is used as a method of counting atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.2 3) The numerical value of the mole is defined as being equal to the number of atoms in exactly 12 grams of pure carbon-12.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.2 4) The mole has a value of 6.023 × 1022.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 5) Avogadro's Number is 6.022 × 1023.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 6) The number 6.022 × 1023 is six times larger than the number 6.022 × 1022.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 7) The lighter the atom, the less mass in one mole of that atom.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 8) One mole of argon has more atoms in it than one mole of neon.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 9) One mole of nitrogen gas contains (2) × (6.022 × 10 23) nitrogen atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 10) One mole of copper atoms is 6.022 × 10 23 copper atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.3

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11) One mole of chlorine gas has a mass of 35.45 grams.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 12) One mole of zinc contains 65.39 zinc atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 13) One mole of I2 has more atoms in it than one mole of Na. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 14) Two moles of cobalt atoms have a mass of 117.87 grams.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 15) Six grams of carbon contains 3.008 × 10 23 atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 16) The mass of 2.0 moles of H2O is greater than the mass of 1.0 mole of CO2.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 17) One mole of CO2 gas contains 1 mole of carbon atoms and 2 moles of oxygen atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.4 18) One mole of water contains 16 grams of oxygen atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.4 19) One mole of water contains 6.022 × 1023 hydrogen atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 20) One mole of lead(II) nitrate contains six moles of oxygen atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 21) The chemical formula CuBr2 indicates that this compound is composed of 1 gram of copper and 2 grams of bromine.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 22) There are 6 grams of carbon in 22 grams of carbon dioxide.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 2 ..

23) The molar mass of a compound serves as a conversion factor between grams and moles.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 24) The correct formula for calculating mass percent of X in compound XY is:

Mass of X in a sample of the compound = Mass % X Mass of Y in a sample of the compound Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.6 25) Water is 11.2% hydrogen by mass.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.7 26) C2H3O2 could be an empirical formula.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 27) C2H6O3 could be an empirical formula.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 28) An empirical formula gives the specific number of each type of atom in a molecule.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 29) An empirical formula gives the smallest whole number ratio of each type of atom in a molecule.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 30) C2H6O4 could be an empirical formula.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 31) The empirical formula for C6H6 is C3H3.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 32) The molecular formula is equal to the empirical formula multiplied by a whole number integer.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.9 33) The empirical formula mass is 18.0 and the molecular formula mass is 90, therefore n = 5.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.9

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34) The empirical formula mass must be 25.0 if the molecular formula mass is 250 and n = 5.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.9 35) A molecule that has an empirical formula of HO and a molar mass of 34.02 gram must have a molecular formula of H2O2.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.9

Multiple Choice Questions 1) What is the correct value for Avogadro's number?

A) 6.022 × 1023 B) 6.022 × 1033 C) 6.023 × 1022 D) 6.022 × 102.3 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 2) Which of the following statements about the mole is FALSE? A) The size of a mole of atoms has a reasonable mass.

B) A mole of a monatomic element corresponds to one Avogadro's number of atoms.

C) One mole of a monatomic element has a mass equal to its atomic mass expressed in grams.

D) One mole of water contains 1/2 mole of oxygen atoms.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3 3) How many atoms are in 5.80 moles of He? A) 6.02 × 1023 B) 1.03 × 1023 C) 4.00 D) 3.49 × 1024 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3 4) How many atoms are in 1.50 moles of fluorine gas?

A) 6.022 × 1023 B) 9.03 × 1023 C) 18.98 D) 1.81 × 1024 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3

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5) How many moles of Cu are in 1.48 × 10 25 Cu atoms?

A) 0.0408 B) 24.6 C) 1.54 × 1025 D) 6.022 × 1023 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3 6) How many moles of Pb are in 4.71 × 1021 Pb atoms?

A) 0.00782 B) 2.84 × 1045 C) 207.2 D) 6.022 × 1023 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3 7) One mole of boron has a mass of ________ g.

A) 9.012 B) 6.022 × 1023 C) 5 D) 10.811 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3 8) One mole of oxygen gas has a mass of ________ g.

A) 16.0 B) 32.0 C) 6.022 × 1023 D) 8 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3 9) What is the mass in grams of 5.40 moles of lithium?

A) 6.94 B) 37.5 C) 1.29 D) 3.25 × 1024 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3

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10) What is mass of 0.560 moles of chlorine gas?

A) 19.9 B) 63.3 C) 127 D) 39.7 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3 11) You have 10.0 g each of Na, C, Pb, Cu and Ne. Which contains the largest number of moles?

A) Na B) C C) Pb D) Cu E) Ne Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.3 12) You have 10.0 g each of Na, C, Pb, Cu and Ne. Which contains the smallest number of moles?

A) Na B) C C) Pb D) Cu E) Ne Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.3 13) How many moles of iron are contained in 1.75 kg of iron?

A) 3.13 × 10-2 B) 3.13 × 10-4 C) 31.3 D) 3.13 × 104 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.3.

14) How many moles are there in 17.5 grams of sodium?

A) 22.99 B) 1.05 × 1025 C) 0.761 D) 1.31 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3

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15) How many moles are there in 82.5 grams of iron?

A) 4.97 × 1025 B) 55.85 C) 0.677 D) 1.48 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3 16) How many moles of bromine gas are in 37.7 grams?

A) 0.236 B) 0.472 C) 3.01 × 103 D) 79.9 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3 17) How many atoms are in 15.6 grams of silicon?

A) 2.64 × 1026 B) 3.34 × 1023 C) 0.555 D) 438 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3 18) How many hydrogen atoms are in 35.0 grams of hydrogen gas?

A) 4.25 × 1025 B) 2.09 × 1025 C) 2.12 × 1025 D) 1.05 × 1025 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.3 19) Which of the following contains 9.02 × 10 23 atoms?

A) 4.00 g H2 B) 9.00 g H2O C) 28.0 g N2 D) 32.0 g O2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.3

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20) What is the mass of 3.09 × 1024 atoms of sulfur in grams?

A) 9.64 × 1022 B) 9.91 × 1025 C) 165 D) 0.160 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3 21) What is the mass of 1.56 × 1021 atoms of magnesium in grams?

A) 4.72 × 10-5 B) 0.0630 C) 0.142 D) 1.07 × 10-4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3 22) The mass of one mole of carbon dioxide is ________ g.

A) 28.01 B) 384.4 C) 32.00 D) 44.01 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.4 23) In comparing 1 mole of carbon atoms to one mole of magnesium atoms, which statement is TRUE? A) The mass of 1 mole of carbon is greater than the mass of 1 mole of magnesium.

B) The mass of 1 mole of magnesium is greater than the mass of 1 mole of carbon.

C) The mass of 1 mole of carbon is the same as the mass of 1 mole of magnesium.

D) There are more atoms in 1 mole of magnesium than in 1 mole of carbon.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.4 24) In comparing a balloon containing 25 grams of helium to a balloon containing 25 grams of neon, which one of the following statements is TRUE? A) Each balloon has an equal number of atoms.

B) The helium balloon has more atoms.

C) The neon balloon has more atoms.

D) This scenario cannot happen because gases have no mass.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.4

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25) How many molecules of sulfur trioxide are in 78.0 grams?

A) 5.87 × 1023 B) 7.33 × 1023 C) 3.76 × 1027 D) 0.974 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.4 26) How many molecules of nitrogen monoxide are in a 22.5 gram sample?

A) 5.86 × 1023 B) 7.33 × 1023 C) 4.51 × 1023 D) 4.06 × 1023 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.4 27) If 3.011 × 1023 molecules have a mass of 20.04 grams, what is the molar mass of this substance?

A) 40.08 g/mol B) 10.02 g/mol C) 20.04 g/mol D) 6.658 × 10-23 g/mol E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.4 28) If 2.01 × 1023 atoms of an element from Group IA of the periodic table has a mass of 7.675 grams, this element is most likely A) Li. B) Na. C) K. D) Rb. E) Cs. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.4 29) One mole of (NH4)2HPO4 contains how many moles of hydrogen atoms?

A) 4 B) 2 C) 8 D) 9 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.5

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30) One mole of ammonium nitrate contains: A) 3 moles of hydrogen.

B) 2 moles of oxygen.

C) 2 moles of nitrogen.

D) 1 mole of nitrogen.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.5 31) One mole of ammonium nitrite contains: A) 2 moles of nitrogen atoms.

B) 4 moles of hydrogen atoms.

C) 2 moles of oxygen atoms.

D) All of A, B, and C. E) None of A, B, and C. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 32) One mole of potassium sulfate contains: A) 4 moles of oxygen.

B) 2 moles of sulfur.

C) 1 mole of potassium.

D) 3 moles of potassium.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.5 33) Calculate the molar mass of ammonium carbonate.

A) 78.05 g/mol B) 88.05 g/mol C) 96.09 g/mol D) 112.09 g/mol E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.5 34) Calculate the molar mass of calcium nitrate.

A) 136.03 g/mol B) 102.09 g/mol C) 132.10 g/mol D) 164.10 g/mol E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.5

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35) What is the molar mass of aluminum sulfate?

A) 123.0 g/mol B) 278.0 g/mol C) 306.2 g/mol D) 315.2 g/mol E) 342.2 g/mol Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.5 36) How many moles of carbon are in 3.5 moles of calcium carbonate?

A) 10.5 B) 3.5 C) 7 D) 100.09 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.5 37) How many moles of fluorine are in 3.2 moles of xenon hexafluoride?

A) 22.4 B) 12.8 C) 19.2 D) 16 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.5 38) If a sample of carbon dioxide contains 3.8 moles of oxygen atoms, how many moles of carbon dioxide are in the sample?

A) 1.9 B) 3.8 C) 7.6 D) 11.4 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.5 39) A 15.5 gram sample of diphosphorous pentoxide contains how many grams of phosphorous?

A) 3.38 B) 1.69 C) 6.76 D) 13.5 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.5

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40) A 42.7 gram sample of potassium nitrate contains how many grams of potassium?

A) 39.1 B) 16.5 C) 21.4 D) 8.54 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.5 41) An iron ore sample is found to be 35.00% Fe by mass. How many grams of ore are needed to obtain of Fe? A) 1297 B) 158.9 C) 295.1 D) 350.0 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.6 42) A 500. gram iron ore sample was determined to contain 242 grams of iron. What is the mass percent of iron in the ore?

A) 93.7 B) 48.4 C) 51.6 D) 32.6 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.6 43) Bauxite is an ore that contains the element aluminum. If you obtained 108 grams of aluminum from an ore sample that initially weighed 204 grams, what is the mass percent of aluminum in this bauxite ore?

A) 52.9 B) 15.6 C) 0.53 D) 47.1 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.6 44) What is the mass percent of hydrogen in water?

A) 33.3 B) 88.8 C) 5.60 D) 11.2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.6

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45) What is the mass percent of chlorine in hydrochloric acid?

A) 2.8 B) 35.5 C) 97.2 D) 70.1 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.6 46) What is the mass percent of carbon in oxalic acid, H 2C2O4?

A) 2.24 B) 13.3 C) 26.7 D) 34.5 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.6 47) Which of the following compounds has the highest mass percent of "O"?

A) MnO B) MnO2 C) Mn2O3 D) Mn3O2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.7 48) Which of the following statements about empirical formulas is incorrect?

A) An empirical formula represents a molecule.

B) An empirical formula gives the smallest whole number ratio of each type of atom in a molecule.

C) An empirical formula must be multiplied by an integer to obtain the molecular formula.

D) The molecular formula can be the same as the empirical formula in some situations.

E) All statements are correct.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.8 49) The empirical formula of a compound: A) describes the mass relationships in a molecule.

B) is the same as the molecular formula.

C) indicates the structure of the molecule.

D) indicates the simplest ratio of atoms in the compound.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.8

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50) The simplest formula for hydrogen peroxide is HO. To determine its molecular formula, it is necessary to know A) the properties of hydrogen peroxide.

B) the density of hydrogen peroxide.

C) the molar mass of hydrogen peroxide.

D) the number of moles of hydrogen peroxide in 1.00 g of the substance.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.8 51) Which of the following is already in its empirical formula?

A) C22H34O10 B) C6H6 C) C6H12O3 D) C5H12O2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 52) The chemical formula CH2O can be classified as: A) not enough information B) molecular only.

C) empirical only.

D) empirical, possibly molecular.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.8 53) A chromium oxide compound contains 104.0 grams of chromium and 48.0 grams of oxygen. What is the most likely empirical formula of this compound?

A) CrO B) CrO2 C) CrO3 D) Cr2O3 E) Cr3O2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.8 54) An iron chloride compound contains 55.85 grams of iron and 106.5 grams of chlorine. What is the most likely empirical formula for this compound?

A) FeCl B) FeCl2 C) Fe2Cl D) FeCl3 E) Fe3Cl Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.8 14 ..

55) A 7.96 gram sample of silver reacts with oxygen to form 8.55 gram of the metal oxide. What is the formula of the oxide?

A) AgO B) AgO2 C) Ag2O D) Ag3O E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.8 56) Determine the empirical formula of a compound containing 60.3% magnesium and 39.7% oxygen.

A) MgO B) MgO2 C) Mg2O3 D) Mg2O E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.8 57) Determine the empirical formula of a compound containing 83% potassium and 17.0% oxygen.

A) KO B) KO2 C) K2O3 D) K2O E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.8 58) Vitamin C is known chemically by the name ascorbic acid. Determine the empirical formula of ascorbic acid if it is composed of 40.92% carbon, 4.58% hydrogen, and 54.50% oxygen.

A) CHO B) CH2O C) C2H3O2 D) C3H4O3 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.8 59) Determine the correct empirical formula of a compound containing 26.68% carbon, 2.24% hydrogen, and 71.08% oxygen.

A) CHO B) CHO2 C) C0.5H0.5O1 D) C2H2O4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.8 15 ..

60) What is the molecular formula of a compound given the molar mass of the compound is 186.5 grams and the empirical formula is C2H7?

A) C4H14 B) C3H21 C) C2H7 D) C2H14 E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.9 61) An estrogen compound with the empirical formula C12H17O2 has a molecular mass of 386.6 g/mol. What is the value of n necessary to find the molecular formula?

A) 0.2 B) 1 C) 2 D) 20 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.9 62) What is the value of n when the empirical formula is C3H5 and the molecular mass is 205.4 g/mol?

A) 0.02 B) 5 C) 10 D) 140 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.9 63) What would the empirical formula be for the molecular compound C 6H9O4?

A) C2H3O2 B) CH3O2 C) C3H6O2 D) C3H9O4 E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.9 64) What is the molecular formula of a compound given the molar mass of the compound is 30.04 gram and the empirical formula is NH? A) NH B) N2H2 C) N2H6 D) N4H4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.9 16 ..

65) A compound has a molar mass of 180.15 g/mol. Given the following percent composition, calculate the molecular formula: A) CH3O2 B) CH2O C) C3H6O3 D) C6H12O6 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.9 66) An unknown acid has a molar mass of 60.05 g/mol. Given the following percent composition, what is the molecular formula? 40% C, 6.7% H, 53.3% O A) C3H4O3 B) CH2O C) C2H4O2 D) C6H12O6 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.9

Algorithmic Questions 1) Bananas cost 33¢ per pound. If you spent $0.77, how many pounds of bananas did you purchase?

A) 2.33 B) 1.73 C) 0.429 D) 2.01 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.2 2) How many atoms are present in 2.5 moles?

A) 6.6 x 1023 B) 6.6 x 10-25 C) 1.5 x 1024 D) 6.02 x 1023 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3

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3) If you have 1.81 x 1024 atoms of copper, how many moles of copper do you have?

A) 0.330 B) 3.00 C) 0.750 D) 2.00 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.3 4) What is the mass of 3.91 x 1024 sulfur atoms?

A) 208 B) 4.93 C) 155 D) 32.07 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.3 5) How many moles of potassium are in 156.4 g?

A) 39.10 B) 4.000 C) 0.2500 D) 5.050 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.3 6) How many atoms of lithium are in 11.8 g?

A) 1.35 x 1024 B) 1.70 x 1024 C) 1.02 x 1024 D) 2.22 x 1024 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.3 7) How many moles of oxygen are in 3.70 moles of NaClO4?

A) 3.70 B) 0.270 C) 21.5 D) 14.8 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.5

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8) What is the mass percent of Mg in magnesium chloride?

A) 12.3 B) 40.7 C) 25.6 D) 68.3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.6 9) What is the mass percent of oxygen in sodium oxide?

A) 17.0 B) 25.8 C) 44.4 D) 39.7 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6.6 10) Given that sodium chloride is 39.0% sodium by mass, how many grams of sodium chloride are needed to have 750. mg of Na present?

A) 1.92 B) 0.293 C) 1,920 D) 29.3 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6.6

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Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 7 Chemical Reactions True/False Questions 1) The reaction of baking soda and vinegar to produce carbon dioxide gas is an example of a precipitation reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.1 2) The reaction of carbonate ion with magnesium ion to form solid magnesium carbonate is an example of an oxidation reduction reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.1 3) Combustion reactions are a subcategory of oxidation-reduction reactions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.1 4) Color change is evidence that a chemical reaction has occurred.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.2 5) The formation of a gas is evidence of a chemical reaction while the emission of light is not.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.2 6) The formation of either a solid or a gas is evidence of a chemical reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.2 7) Bubbles in water that appear during boiling show that a chemical reaction is occurring.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.2 8) When balancing a chemical equation you may alter the coefficients but not the subscripts in the equation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.3 9) The following equation IS balanced: CH 4 + 2O2 → CO2 + H2O Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 10) The following reaction IS balanced: BaCl 2 + H2SO4 → 2HCl + BaSO4 Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.4

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11) The following equation is balanced: 2 C 4H10O + 13 O2 → 8 CO2 + 10 H2O Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.3 12) The following reaction IS balanced: AgNO3 + 2NH4Cl → AgCl + (NH4)2NO3 Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.4 13) The following equation IS balanced: HNO3 + NaHSO3 → NaNO3 + H2O + SO2 Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.4 14) A strong electrolyte solution contains ionic compounds that completely dissociate in water.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 15) An insoluble compound will partially dissolve in water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 16) When compounds containing polyatomic ions dissolve, the polyatomic ions usually dissolve as intact units.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 17) Li+, Na+, K+ and NH4+ compounds are soluble.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 18) Cl-, Br-, and I- are mostly insoluble.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 19) Mixing two aqueous solutions will always result in formation of a precipitate.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.6 20) A precipitation reaction occurs when water is formed as a product.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.6 21) The key to predicting a precipitation reaction is the formation of an insoluble compound from soluble compounds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.6 22) A precipitation reaction will occur when sodium chloride is mixed with potassium nitrate.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.6 2 ..

23) A precipitate will form when you mix solutions of potassium chloride and lead nitrate.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.6 24) We remove the spectator ions from the complete ionic equation to form the net ionic equation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 25) A net ionic equation shows all ionic species that are present in solution.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 26) A spectator ion is one that does not actively participate in a chemical reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 27) Mixing HNO3 (aq) and NaHCO3 (aq) will produce carbon dioxide gas as a product.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 28) One of the characteristics of an acid-base reaction is that this type of reaction forms water.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 29) An acid-base reaction always produces a salt plus carbon dioxide.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 30) Carbon dioxide gas is a product when an acid reacts with a carbonate or a bicarbonate.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 31) The net ionic equation for the reaction of sodium hydroxide plus hydrochloric acid is Na+ + Cl- → NaCl. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 32) An oxidation-reduction reaction must involve reaction with oxygen.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 33) Evidence of a redox reaction is when a substance reacts with elemental oxygen.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 34) Evidence of a redox reaction is when one substance transfers protons to another substance.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.9

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35) In an oxidation-reduction reaction, if one substance loses electrons, then another substance must gain electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 36) Combustion reactions emit heat and so can be classified as endothermic.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 37) Decomposition reactions usually require energy to initiate the reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.10

Multiple Choice Questions 1) A reaction which forms a gaseous product is an example of a(n)________.

A) oxidation-reduction reaction B) combustion reaction C) precipitation reaction D) gas evolution reaction E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.1 2) A reaction which forms a solid product is an example of a(n)________.

A) oxidation-reduction reaction B) combustion reaction C) precipitation reaction D) gas evolution reaction E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.1 3) A reaction in which a substance reacts with oxygen, emitting heat and forming oxygen-containing compounds is an example of a(n) A) acid-base reaction.

B) combustion reaction.

C) precipitation reaction.

D) gas evolution reaction.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.1

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4) Which of the following is NOT evidence that a chemical reaction has occurred?

A) color change when chemicals are contacted with each other B) solid formation when chemicals are contacted with each other C) gas formation when chemicals are contacted with each other D) emission of light when chemicals are contact with each other E) All of the above are evidence of a chemical reaction.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.2 5) Which of the following is NOT a sign of a chemical reaction?

A) absorbing heat when chemicals are contacted with each other B) emission of heat when chemicals are contacted with each other C) emission of light when chemicals are contacted with each other D) absorbing light when chemicals are contacted with each other E) All of the above are signs of a chemical reaction.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.2 6) When water is heated, bubbles form in the water. Is this evidence of a chemical reaction? Why? A) No, boiling water is a physical change.

B) Yes, the formation of a gas is evidence of a chemical reaction.

C) No, the formation of gas bubbles is a secondary chemical reaction which is ignored.

D) Yes, the formation of a gas is proof a new compound has been made.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.2 7) Which of the following statements about balancing reactions is FALSE? A) If there is no coefficient or subscript, a one is implied.

B) When coefficients are added the type of compounds is changed in the chemical reaction.

C) Subscripts are multiplied by the coefficients to determine the number of atoms in a compound.

D) Coefficients are added to compounds to ensure both sides of the reaction have equal numbers of each atom.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.3 8) Before a chemical equation can be written, one must know A) the atomic mass of all the elements involved.

B) the molar mass of all the compounds.

C) the symbols and formulas of all reactants and products.

D) the number of moles of all reactants and products.

E) none of the above.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.3

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9) When the equation, ___N2 + ___H2 → ___NH3 is balanced, the coefficient of hydrogen is: A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.4 10) When the equation, ___O2 + ___C5H12 → ___CO2 + ___H2O is balanced, the coefficient: of O2 is: A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 8 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.4 11) What are the coefficients for the following reaction when it is properly balanced? ___HCl + ___Mg → ___MgCl2 + ___ H2 A) 2, 1, 1, 1 B) 2, 1, 2, 2 C) 1, 2, 1/2, 1 D) 1, 1, 1, 2 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.4 12) What are the coefficients for the following reaction when it is properly balanced? ___O2 + ___CH4 → ___CO2 + ___H2O A) 2, 1, 3, 1 B) 2, 3, 2, 2 C) 1, 3, 2, 1 D) 2, 1, 1, 2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.4

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13) What are the coefficients for the following reaction when it is properly balanced? ___Na3PO4 + ___Ba(NO3)2 → ___NaNO3 + ___Ba3(PO4)2 A) 2, 1, 1, 3 B) 2, 3, 1, 6 C) 2, 3, 6, 1 D) 6, 1, 3, 2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.4 14) What are the coefficients for the following reaction when it is properly balanced? ___nitric acid + ___sodium hydroxide → ___sodium nitrate + ___water A) 2, 1, 1, 1 B) 2, 3, 2, 2 C) 5, 2, 2, 1 D) 1, 1, 1, 1 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.4 15) What are the coefficients for the following reaction when it is properly balanced? ___potassium iodide + ___lead (II) acetate → ___lead (II) iodide +___potassium acetate A) 2, 1, 1, 1 B) 2, 1, 1, 2 C) 3, 2, 2, 1 D) 1, 1, 2, 2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.4 16) What are the coefficients for the following reaction when it is properly balanced? ___nitrogen monoxide + ___carbon monoxide → ___nitrogen +___carbon dioxide A) 2, 1, 1, 2 B) 2, 2, 1, 2 C) 2, 2, 2, 1 D) 1, 1, 2, 2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.4

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17) When the equation __Ca3N2 + __H2O → __Ca(OH)2 + __NH3 is balanced, the coefficient of H2O is: A) 2 B) 3 C) 6 D) 12 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.4 18) When the equation __NO2 + __H2O + __O2 → __HNO3 is balanced, the coefficient of HNO3 is A) 2.

B) 3.

C) 4.

D) 5.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.4 19) Which of the following equations is NOT balanced properly?

A) 2Cr + 6HCl → 2CrCl3 + 3H2 B) 2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O C) Cr2(SO4)3 + 6KOH → 2Cr(OH)3 + 3 K2SO4 D) 4NH3 + 14O2 → 4NO2 + 6H2O E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.4 20) Sodium metal reacts with water to form aqueous sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. Which equation below best describes the balanced equation for this reaction?

A) Na + H2O → NaOH (aq) + H (g) B) S + H2O → SOH (aq) + H (g) C) Na + H2O → NaOH (aq) + H2 (g) D) 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH (aq) + H2 (g) E) 2Na + H2O → Na2OH (aq) + H (g) Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.4 21) An aqueous solution is: A) any liquid with another compound dissolved in it.

B) an ionic compound with water dissolved in it.

C) water with a molecular compound dissolved in it.

D) water with another compound dissolved in it.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.5

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22) Which of the following compounds is INSOLUBLE? A) potassium acetate B) lithium carbonate C) magnesium bromide D) aluminum sulfide E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 23) Which of the following compounds is INSOLUBLE? A) magnesium phosphate B) magnesium sulfate C) magnesium iodide D) magnesium nitrate E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 24) Which of the following compounds is SOLUBLE? A) copper carbonate B) calcium carbonate C) potassium carbonate D) strontium carbonate E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 25) Which of the following compounds is SOLUBLE? A) aluminum hydroxide B) aluminum sulfide C) aluminum carbonate D) aluminum sulfate E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 26) All of the following compounds are soluble in water EXCEPT A) NaCl. B) CaCl2.

C) FeCl3.

D) NH4Cl. E) PbCl2.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.5

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27) The compound sodium sulfate is soluble in water. When this compound dissolves in water, which ion listed below would be present in solution?

A) SO42B) S2C) O2D) Na22+ E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.5 28) When solid NaCl is stirred into water, which of the following is NOT true?

A) Individual sodium and chloride ions are present.

B) The solution will conduct electricity.

C) The solution will taste salty.

D) The NaCl will fail to dissociate.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 29) If you had an aqueous mixture that contained Ag +, K+, and Pb+2 cations, how many different solids could precipitate if a chloride solution was added?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) no solids will precipitate Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.5 30) In writing the chemical equation for a precipitation reaction, what abbreviation of the physical state must appear with one of the products?

A) (s) B) (g) C) (l) D) (w) E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.6 31) What type of a reaction occurs when a potassium nitrate solution is mixed with a barium acetate solution?

A) precipitation B) acid-base neutralization C) oxidation-reduction D) gas evolution E) no reaction Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.6

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32) A precipitate is expected to be formed when an aqueous solution of sodium sulfate is added to an aqueous solution of A) iron(III) chloride.

B) potassium chloride.

C) magnesium chloride.

D) barium chloride.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.6 33) What would be the formula of the precipitate that forms when Pb(NO 3)2 (aq) and K2SO4 (aq) are mixed?

A) K(NO3)2 B) PbSO4 C) PbK2 D) H2O E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.6 34) Considering the following precipitation reaction: Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) Which compound would not form ions in the complete ionic equation?

A) PbI2 B) KNO3 C) Pb(NO3)2 D) KI E) All compounds form ions in the complete ionic equation.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.7 35) Considering the following precipitation reaction: Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) Which ion would NOT be present in the complete ionic equation?

A) Pb2+ B) K+ C) NO3D) IE) All the above ions are in the complete ionic equation.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.7

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36) Considering the following precipitation reaction: Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) Which ion(s) would NOT be present in the net ionic equation?

A) Pb2+, NO3B) K+, NO3C) K+, Pb2+ D) K+, IE) All the above ions are in the net ionic equation.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.7 37) Considering the following precipitation reaction: Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) Which ion(s) would NOT be spectator ions?

A) Pb2+, NO3B) K+, IC) NO3-, Pb2+ D) Pb2+, I E) All the above ions are in the net ionic equation.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.7 38) Considering the following precipitation reaction: Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) What is the correct complete ionic equation?

A) Pb2+ + (NO3)2- + 2K+ + 2I- → PbI2(s) + 2K+ + 2NO3B) Pb2+ + 2NO3- +2K+ + I- → PbI2(s) + 2K+ + NO3C) Pb2+ + 2NO3- + 2K+ + 2I- → PbI2(s) + 2K+ + 2NO3D) Pb2+ + 2NO3- + 2K+ + 2I- → Pb2+ + 2I- + 2K+ + 2NO3E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.7

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39) Considering the following precipitation reaction: Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) What is the correct net ionic equation?

A) Pb2+ + I2- → PbI2(s) B) 2NO3- + 2K+ → 2KNO3 C) Pb2+ + 2NO3- + 2K+ + 2I- → PbI2(s) + 2K+ + 2NO3D) Pb2+ + 2I- → PbI2(s) E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.7 40) Which of the following statements about writing molecular, complete and net ionic equations is FALSE? A) A molecular equation is a chemical equation showing the complete, neutral formulas for every compound in a reaction.

B) A complete ionic equation is a chemical equation showing all of the species as they are actually present in solution.

C) A net ionic equation is an equation showing only the species that actually change during the reaction.

D) A spectator ion remains unchanged in the reaction and appears on both sides of the equation.

E) All of the statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.7 41) Which is a spectator ion from the following complete ionic equation: Ag+(aq) + NO3-(aq) + K+ (aq) + Br-(aq) → AgBr(s) + K+(aq) + NO3- (aq) A) Ag+ B) BrC) K+ D) AgBr E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 42) Which of the following everyday substances does NOT typically contain an acid?

A) lemons B) vinegar C) soap D) limes E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.8

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43) What type of a reaction occurs when a silver nitrate solution is mixed with sodium chloride solution?

A) precipitation B) acid-base neutralization C) oxidation-reduction D) gas evolution E) no reaction Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.8 44) What type of a reaction occurs when a sodium hydroxide solution is mixed with an acetic acid solution?

A) precipitation B) acid-base neutralization C) oxidation-reduction D) gas evolution E) no reaction Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 45) What is the net ionic equation for the reaction of hydrochloric acid with potassium hydroxide?

A) H+ + Cl- + K+ + OH- → H2O + K+ + ClB) HCl + KOH → H2O + KCl C) H+ + OH- → H2O D) 2H+ +2Cl- + K2+ + 2OH- → H2O + K2+ +2 ClE) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.8 46) What is the molecular equation for the reaction of hydrochloric acid with potassium hydroxide?

A) H2Cl + 2KOH → H2O +2KCl B) 2HCl + K(OH)2 → 2H2O + KCl2 C) H+ + OH- → H2O D) HCl + KOH → H2O + KCl E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.8 47) What is the complete ionic equation for the reaction of hydrochloric acid with potassium hydroxide?

A) H+ + Cl- + K+ + OH- → H2O + K+ + ClB) H+ + Cl- + K+ + OH- → 2H+ + O2- + K+ + ClC) H+ + OH- → H2O D) 2H+ +2Cl- + K2+ + 2OH- → H2O + K2+ +2 ClE) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.8

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48) When a solution of MgCl2 and one of AgNO3 are mixed, the net ionic equation is: A) Mg2+(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) + 2Ag+(aq) + 2NO3- (aq) → Mg2+(aq) + 2NO3-aq) + 2AgCl(s) B) Mg2+(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) + 2Ag+(aq) + 2NO3- (aq) → Mg(NO3)2 (aq) + 2 AgCl(s) C) Mg2+(aq) + 2NO3-(aq) → Mg(NO3)2(aq) D) Cl-(aq) + Ag+(aq) → AgCl(s) E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.8 49) Which of the following types of compounds will NOT undergo a gas evolution reaction when acid is added?

A) sulfides B) carbonates C) hydroxides D) bisulfites E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 50) What is the gas produced when hydrochloric acid is reacted with ammonium carbonate?

A) ammonia B) chlorine C) hydrogen D) carbon dioxide E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 51) What type of a reaction occurs when a hydrochloric acid solution is mixed with a sodium bicarbonate solution?

A) precipitation B) acid-base neutralization C) oxidation-reduction D) gas evolution E) no reaction Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 52) Which of the following would NOT be a product from mixing hydrochloric acid with a solution of sodium sulfite?

A) H2O (l) B) SO2 (g) C) NaCl (aq) D) H2 (g) E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.8

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53) What type of a reaction occurs when potassium metal reacts with fluorine gas?

A) precipitation B) acid-base neutralization C) oxidation-reduction D) gas evolution E) no reaction Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 54) Identify the oxidation-reduction reactions among the following: 1. Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s) 2. 2 Na(s) + Cl2(aq) → 2NaCl(s) 3.

2 Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2 MgO

A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) None of 1, 2, and 3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.9 55) Methane gas (CH4), on complete combustion in air, produces: 1.

CO2

2.

H2

3.

H2O

A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1 and 2 only E) None of Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.9 56) A redox reaction has occurred ________.

A) when a substance reacts with elemental oxygen B) when an alkali metal reacts with an alkaline earth metal C) when one substance transfers protons to another D) when one substance forms a solid E) when all of the above occur Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.9

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57) Which of the following statements about redox reactions is FALSE? A) Oxidation is the loss of electrons.

B) Reduction is the gain of electrons.

C) A reaction can result in either oxidation or reduction, not both.

D) A reaction involving elemental oxygen is a redox reaction.

E) All of the above statement are true.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 58) The reaction CH4 (g) + 2 O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2 H2O (g) is A) a combustion reaction.

B) a redox reaction.

C) an exothermic reaction.

D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 59) What type of reaction is the generic equation A + B → AB? A) synthesis/combination B) decomposition C) single displacement D) double-displacement E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.10 60) What type of reaction is the generic equation A + BC → AC + B? A) synthesis/combination B) decomposition C) single displacement D) double-displacement E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.10 61) What type of reaction is the generic equation AB + CD → AD + CB? A) synthesis/combination B) decomposition C) single displacement D) double-displacement E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.10

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62) What type of reaction is the generic equation AB → A + B? A) synthesis/combination B) decomposition C) single displacement D) double-displacement E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.10 63) What must be supplied for most decomposition reactions to happen?

A) energy B) heat C) electrical current D) light E) any of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.10 64) Identify the double displacement reactions among the following: 1. KCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) → AgCl(s) + KNO3(aq) 2. Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq) 3. H2SO4((aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2SO4((aq) + 2H2O(l) A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) None of 1, 2, and 3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7.10 65) Which statement about ozone is TRUE? A) Ozone normally forms in the upper atmosphere.

B) Chlorofluorocarbons deplete the ozone layer.

C) Ozone protects life on Earth from harmful ultraviolet light.

D) None of the above statements are true.

E) All the of the first three statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7.10

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Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 8 Quantities in Chemical Reactions True/False Questions 1) Greenhouse gases affect the temperature of the earth by blocking sunlight from reaching earth.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 2) Global warming is due to the greenhouse gases preventing heat from Earth escaping into space.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 3) The primary greenhouse gas is carbon dioxide.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 4) The primary source for the rising carbon dioxide levels is respiration of the Earth's growing population.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 5) One of the advantages of burning fossil fuels is that it produces O 2 for humans to breathe.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 6) Stoichiometry is a chemist's version of following a recipe.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.2 7) Given the recipe: 2 cups flour + 1 egg + 3 oz blueberries → 4 muffins.

You can make 9 muffins from 3.5 cups of flour.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.2 8) Given the recipe: 2 cups flour + 1 egg + 3 oz blueberries → 4 muffins.

You can make 1 dozen muffins from 3 eggs.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.2 9) If it takes 2 cups of milk and 1 cup of cocoa mix to make three servings of hot chocolate, and you only have 1 cup of each, then you cannot make any hot chocolate.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.2 10) Given the reaction: 2 Na(s) + Cl2(g) → 2 NaCl(s) The conversion factor for chlorine gas to sodium metal is: 2 mol Cl ≡ 2 mol Na Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 1 ..

11) Given the reaction: 2 Na(s) + Cl2(g) → 2 NaCl(s) The conversion factor for chlorine gas to sodium chloride is: 1 mol Cl 2 ≡ 2 mol NaCl Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 12) Given the chemical equation: 2 Ca + O2 → 2 CaO, if 2 moles of CaO are formed in this reaction, then 2 moles of O2 must have reacted.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 13) Before determining conversion factors, it is necessary to make sure the equation is properly balanced.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 14) The conversion factor between mass and moles for a compound is the molar mass.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.4 15) The conversion factor for moles of carbon dioxide to mass of carbon dioxide is: 1 mole CO2 ≡ 44.01 g Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.4 16) The limiting reactant is the reactant that produces the maximum amount of product.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 17) The theoretical yield is the amount of each reactant needed in order to make the maximum amount of product.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 18) The limiting reactant is the product that is completely consumed in a chemical reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 19) The actual yield is the amount of product actually produced by a chemical reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 20) The percent yield is calculated by dividing the actual yield by the theoretical yield times 100.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 21) Given the recipe: 2 cups flour + 1 egg + 3 oz blueberries → 4 muffins If you have 5 cups of flour, 3 eggs and plenty of blueberries, the limiting reactant is the eggs.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 2 ..

22) Given the recipe: 2 cups flour + 1 egg + 3 oz blueberries → 4 muffins If you have 9 cups of flour, 4 eggs and plenty of blueberries, the theoretical yield of muffins is 16.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.5 23) The actual yield is the same as the theoretical yield if the reaction goes to completion and there is no loss of product.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 24) The limiting reactant determines what the actual yield is.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 25) The limiting reactant is not necessarily the reactant with the least mass.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 26) When viewing a chemical equation, the limiting reactant can never be a chemical on the product side of the equation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 27) The percent yield can never be greater than 100%.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 28) For the following reaction you have 8 grams of hydrogen and 2 grams of oxygen.

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O The limiting reagent is the oxygen.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 29) For the following reaction you have 8 grams of hydrogen and 2 grams of oxygen.

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O The theoretical yield of the reaction is 4 grams of water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.6 30) For the following reaction you have 8 grams of hydrogen and 2 grams of oxygen.

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

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The excess reactant is the oxygen.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.6 31) If the theoretical yield of a reaction is 144 grams and the actual yield of the reaction is 72 grams, the percent yield of the reaction is 200%.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.6 32) The enthalpy of reaction, △H rxn, is the amount of thermal energy that flows when a reaction occurs at constant temperature.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.7 33) Thermal energy flows into the reaction and out of the surroundings in an endothermic reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.7 34) An exothermic reaction has a negative enthalpy of reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.7 35) Given the following generic equation, 2 A + 3B → A2B3 △H rxn = +444 kJ, if you completely reacted 1 mole of compound A, the amount of heat absorbed would be 222 kJ. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.7

Multiple Choice Questions 1) The average global temperature depends on all factors EXCEPT what?

A) the amount of incoming sunlight B) the amount of outgoing heat lost to space C) the amount of greenhouse gases D) the angle of the earth's surface in relation to the incoming sunlight E) All of the above are factors.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 2) Which of the below statements about global warming is FALSE? A) Some greenhouses gases are needed to keep the proper temperature balance.

B) Greenhouse gases prevent heat from leaving the earth.

C) Greenhouse gases allow sunlight to reach and heat the earth.

D) If the level of greenhouse gases increases, the temperature will decrease.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.1

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3) The primary cause of increasing greenhouse gases is: A) the burning of vast amounts of rain forests.

B) the production of CO2 by respiration.

C) the increased use of natural gas, petroleum and coal.

D) the release of CO2 by decreasing solubility in the ocean.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 4) Which of the following is TRUE? A) Stoichiometry shows the numerical relationship between chemical quantities in a balanced chemical equation.

B) Stoichiometry allows prediction of the amounts of products that form in a chemical reaction based on the amounts of reactants.

C) Stoichiometry allows prediction of how much of the reactants are necessary to form a given amount of product.

D) All of the above are true.

E) None of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 5) How many waffles can be made from 1 dozen eggs, assuming you have enough of all other ingredients?

Given: 2 cups flour + 3 eggs + 1 tbs oil → 4 waffles A) 48 B) 12 C) 4 D) 16 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.2 6) How many eggs are needed to make 1 dozen waffles, assuming you have enough of all other ingredients?

Given: 2 cups flour + 3 eggs + 1 tbs oil → 4 waffles A) 48 B) 9 C) 12 D) 16 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.2 7) How many moles of water are made from complete reaction of 2.2 moles of oxygen gas with hydrogen gas?

Given the reaction: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O A) 4.4 B) 1.1 C) 2.2 D) 3.3 E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.3 5 ..

8) How many moles of water are made from complete reaction of 1.4 moles of hydrogen gas?

Given the reaction: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O A) 2.8 B) 0.7 C) 1.4 D) 2.1 E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.3 9) How many moles of H2 can be made from complete reaction of 3.0 moles of Al? Given: 2 Al + 6 HCl → 2 AlCl3 + 3 H2 A) 3 moles B) 3.0 moles C) 4.5 moles D) 9.0 moles E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.3 10) How many moles of aluminum are needed to make 9 moles of molecular hydrogen?

Given the reaction: 2 Al + 6 HCl → 2 AlCl3 + 3H2 A) 2 moles B) 3 moles C) 4 moles D) 6 moles E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 11) How many moles of chlorine gas are needed to make 0.6 moles of sodium chloride?

Given the reaction: 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl A) 0.6 B) 0.3 C) 1.2 D) 3.6 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.3 12) How many moles of sodium metal are needed to make 3.6 moles of sodium chloride?

Given the reaction: 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl A) 0.9 B) 7.2 C) 1.8 D) 3.6 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.3 6 ..

13) Suppose two chemical reactions are linked together in a way that the O2 produced in the first reaction goes on to react completely with Mg to form MgO in the second reaction.

Reaction one: 2 KClO3 → 3 O2 + 2 KCl Reaction two: 2 Mg + O2 → 2 MgO If you start with 4 moles of KClO3, how many moles of MgO could eventually form?

A) 2 moles B) 4 moles C) 6 moles D) 12 moles E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.3 14) Given the balanced equation CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2 H2O, which of the following is NOT a correct conversion factor?

A) 2 mole H2O = 18.02 g B) 1 mole O2 = 32.00 g C) 1 mole CH4

2 mole H2O

D) 2 mole O2

1 mole CO2

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.4 15) How many grams of water are made from the reaction of 4.0 grams of hydrogen gas?

Given the reaction: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O A) 18 B) 72 C) 36 D) 4.5 E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.4 16) How many grams of water are made from the reaction of 16.0 grams of oxygen gas?

Given the reaction: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O A) 18 B) 9 C) 36 D) 16 E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.4

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17) How many grams of chlorine gas are needed to make 117 grams of sodium chloride?

Given the reaction: 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl A) 71.0 B) 142 C) 35.5 D) 48.2 E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.4 18) How many grams of sodium metal are needed to make 29.3 grams of sodium chloride?

Given the reaction: 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl A) 46.0 B) 5.75 C) 23.0 D) 11.5 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.4 19) Given that 4 NH3 + 5 O2 → 4 NO + 6 H2O, when 4.50 mol of H2O are formed, the amount of NO formed is A) 1.50 mol.

B) 3.00 mol.

C) 4.50 mol.

D) 6.75 mol.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.4 20) Given that 4 NH3 + 5 O2 → 4 NO + 6 H2O, if 3.00 mol NH3 were made to react with excess of oxygen gas, the amount of H2O formed would be A) 2.00 mol.

B) 3.00 mol.

C) 4.50 mol.

D) 6.00 mol.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.4 21) Iron metal reacts with oxygen to produce iron(III) oxide. If you have 12.0 moles of iron for complete reaction, you need A) 9.0 moles of O2 and produce 3.0 moles of Fe2O3.

B) 12.0 moles of O2 and produce 24.0 moles of Fe2O3.

C) 9.0 moles of O2 and produce 6.0 moles of Fe2O3.

D) 4.5 moles of O2 and produce 3.0 moles of Fe2O3.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.4 8 ..

22) Many metals react with halogens to give metal halides. For example, 2 Al (s) + 3 Cl2(g) → 2 AlCl3 (s) If you begin with 13.5 g of aluminum, A) you will need 23.6 g Cl2 for complete reaction and will produce 66.7 g of AlCl3.

B) you will need 53.2 g Cl2 for complete reaction and will produce 66.7 g of AlCl3.

C) you will need 26.6 g Cl2 for complete reaction and will produce 49.0 g of AlCl3.

D) you will need 11.8 g Cl2 for complete reaction and will produce 49.0 g of AlCl3.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.4 23) A chemist wishes to perform the following reaction: N 2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3 If only 14.0 g of N2 is available, what is the minimum amount, in grams, of H2 needed to completely react with this quantity of N2?

A) 1.01 g B) 1.51 g C) 3.03 g D) 6.06 g E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.4 24) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The limiting reactant is completely consumed in a chemical reaction.

B) The theoretical yield is the amount of product that can be made based on the amount of limiting reagent.

C) The actual yield is the amount of product actually produced by a chemical reaction.

Actual Yield D) The percent yield = × 100% Theoretical Yield E) All of the above are true statements.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.5 25) Which ingredient is the limiting reactant if you have 5 cups of flour, 9 eggs and 3 tbs of oil?

Given: 2 cups flour + 3 eggs + 1 tbs oil → 4 waffles A) flour B) eggs C) oil D) waffles E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.5

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26) What is the theoretical yield of waffles if you have 5 cups of flour, 9 eggs and 3 tbs of oil?

Given: 2 cups flour + 3 eggs + 1 tbs oil → 4 waffles A) 10 B) 12 C) 6 D) 4 E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.5 27) Which ingredient is the limiting reactant if you have 6 cups of flour, 9 eggs and 2 tbs of oil?

Given: 2 cups flour + 3 eggs + 1 tbs oil → 4 waffles A) flour B) eggs C) oil D) waffles E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.5 28) A tricycle factory uses the following items to produce one tricycle: 3 tires, 1 frame, and 2 pedals.

If the factory has available 270 tires, 90 frames, and 170 pedals, which item would limit the amount of complete tricycles that can be assembled.

A) tires B) frames C) pedals D) both tires and frames are limiting E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.5 29) What is the theoretical yield of waffles if you have 6 cups of flour, 9 eggs and 2 tbs of oil?

Given: 2 cups flour + 3 eggs + 1 tbs oil → 4 waffles A) 10 B) 12 C) 8 D) 4 E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.5 30) Consider the following generic chemical equation: 2A + 5B → C + 3D If you react 4 units of A with 10 units of B, which statement is TRUE? A) Substance A will be the limiting reactant.

B) Substance B will be the limiting reactant.

C) There is just enough of A and B so that everything reacts completely.

D) Substance C cannot be formed from this reaction.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.5 10 ..

31) Consider the following generic chemical equation: 2W + 3X → 3Y + Z When 5 units of W and 6 units of X are allowed to react, the limiting reactant would be: A) W B) X C) Y D) Z E) There is no limiting reactant in this situation.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.5 32) Determine the theoretical yield of C when 3 units of A and 10 units of B are reacted in the following generic chemical equation: 2A + 5B → 4C. A) 3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.5 33) Given the balanced equation CO2 + Si → SiO2 + C, if you were to react 1 mole of CO2 with 1 mole of Si, which statement is TRUE? A) The CO2 is the limiting reactant.

B) The Si is the limiting reactant.

C) The SiO2 is the limiting reactant.

D) You have equal stoichiometric amounts of reactants.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.5 34) If the theoretical yield of a reaction is 42.0 grams of product and the percent yield is 75%. How many grams were actually produced?

A) 5400 B) 56 C) 32 D) 1.8 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.5 35) The theoretical yield of a reaction is 75.0 grams of product and the actual yield is 42.0g. What is the percent yield?

A) 75.0 B) 56.0 C) 31.5 D) 178 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.5 11 ..

36) What is the theoretical yield of a reaction if 25.0 grams of product were actually produced from a reaction that has a 88% yield?

A) 28.4 B) 22.0 C) 3.52 D) 352 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.5 37) What is the limiting reactant for the following reaction given we have 3.4 moles of Ca(NO3)2 and 2.4 moles of Li3PO4?

Reaction: 3Ca(NO3)2 + 2Li3PO4 → 6LiNO3 + Ca3(PO4)2 A) Ca(NO3)2 B) Li3PO4 C) LiNO3 D) Ca3(PO4)2 E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.5 38) What is the excess reactant for the following reaction given we have 3.4 moles of Ca(NO3)2 and 2.4 moles of Li3PO4?

Reaction: 3Ca(NO3)2 + 2Li3PO4 → 6LiNO3 + Ca3(PO4)2 A) Ca(NO3)2 B) Li3PO4 C) LiNO3 D) Ca3(PO4)2 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.5 39) How many moles of lithium nitrate are theoretically produced if we start with 3.4 moles of Ca(NO 3)2 and 2.4 moles of Li3PO4?

Reaction: 3Ca(NO3)2 + 2Li3PO4 → 6LiNO3 + Ca3(PO4)2 A) 7.2 B) 6.8 C) 1.2 D) 1.1 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.5

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40) How many grams of calcium phosphate are theoretically produced if we start with 3.40 moles of Ca(NO 3)2 and 2.40 moles of Li3PO4?

Reaction: 3Ca(NO3)2 + 2Li3PO4 → 6LiNO3 + Ca3(PO4)2 A) 310 B) 248 C) 1054 D) 351 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.5 41) How many grams of NO2 are theoretically produced if we start with 1.20 moles of S and 9.90 moles of HNO 3?

Reaction: S + 6HNO3 → H2SO4 + 6NO2 + 2H2O A) 7.20 B) 331 C) 455 D) 786 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.5 42) What is the limiting reactant for the following reaction given we have 2.6 moles of HCl and 1.4 moles of Ca(OH)2?

Reaction: 2HCl + Ca(OH)2 → 2H2O + CaCl2 A) Ca(OH)2 B) HCl C) H2O D) CaCl2 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.5 43) What is the excess reactant for the following reaction given we have 2.6 moles of HCl and 1.4 moles of Ca(OH)2?

Reaction: 2HCl + Ca(OH)2 → 2H2O + CaCl2 A) Ca(OH)2 B) HCl C) H2O D) CaCl2 E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.5

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44) How many moles of calcium chloride are theoretically produced for the following reaction given we have 2.6 moles of HCl and 1.4 moles of Ca(OH)2?

Reaction: 2HCl + Ca(OH)2 → 2H2O + CaCl2 A) 0.7 B) 1.0 C) 1.4 D) 1.3 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.5 45) How many grams of water are theoretically produced for the following reaction given we have 2.6 moles of HCl and 1.4 moles of Ca(OH)2?

Reaction: 2HCl + Ca(OH)2 → 2H2O + CaCl2 A) 25.2 B) 50.4 C) 46.8 D) 103.6 E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.5 46) In order to determine the limiting reactant in a particular reaction, one must know each of the following EXCEPT A) the mass of each reactant present.

B) the molar mass of each reactant present.

C) the coefficient of each reactant in a balanced equation.

D) the mass of each product formed.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.5 47) What is the limiting reactant for the reaction below given that you start with 2.50 grams C and 2.50 grams SiO2?

Reaction: C + SiO2 → SiC + O2 A) C B) SiO2 C) SiC D) O2 E) There is no limiting reactant.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.6

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48) What is the limiting reactant for the reaction below given that you start with 10.0 grams of Al and 19.0 grams of O2?

Reaction: 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3 A) Al B) O2 C) Al2O3 D) both Al and O2 E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6 49) What is the excess reactant for the reaction below given that you start with 10.0 grams of Al and 19.0 grams of O2?

Reaction: 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3 A) Al B) O2 C) Al2O3 D) both Al and O2 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6 50) How many moles of aluminum oxide are produced according to the reaction below given that you start with 10.0 grams of Al and 19.0 grams of O2?

Reaction: 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3 A) 0.396 B) 0.185 C) 0.741 D) 5.00 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6 51) How many grams of aluminum oxide are produced according to the reaction below given that you start with 10.0 grams of Al and 19.0 grams of O2?

Reaction: 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3 A) 40.4 B) 5.00 C) 0.185 D) 18.9 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6

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52) If 16.0 grams of aluminum oxide were actually produced, what is the percent yield of the reaction below given that you start with 10.0 g of Al and 19.0 grams of O2?

Reaction: 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3 A) 75.0% B) 100% C) 84.7% D) 39.6% E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6 53) A sample of 8.5 g NH3 on oxidation produces 4.5 g of NO. Calculate the percent yield.

Reaction: 4 NH3 + 5 O2 → 4 NO + 6 H2O A) 15 % B) 30% C) 60% D) 70% E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6 54) The reaction for the oxidation of NH3 is given as: 4 NH3 + 5 O2 → 4 NO + 6 H2O Under certain conditions the reaction will proceed at 29.8% yield of NO. How many grams of NH 3 must be made to react with excess oxygen to yield 70.5 g of NO? A) 134 B) 237 C) 21.0 D) 2.37 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6 55) How many grams of the excess reactant are left over according to the reaction below given that you start with 10.0 g of Al and 19.0 grams of O2?

Reaction: 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3 A) 8.90 B) 10.1 C) 1.1 D) 14.6 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6

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56) How many moles of NH3 can be produced by the reaction of 2.00 g of N2 with 3.00 g H2?

Reaction: N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) A) 0.143 B) 0.0567 C) 0.235 D) 1.00 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6 57) Calculate the maximum number of grams of NH3 that can be produced by the reaction of 2.00 g of N2 with 3.00 g H2.

Reaction: N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) A) 0.964 B) 2.43 C) 4.00 D) 17.0 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6 58) A 24.0 g sample of nitrogen gas reacts with an excess of hydrogen gas to give an actual yield of 3.85 g NH3.

What is the percent yield for this reaction?

Reaction: N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) A) 86.8% B) 73.6% C) 26.4% D) 13.2% E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6 59) Which is the excess reactant in the following reaction given that you start with 15.5 g of Na 2S and 12.1 g CuSO4?

Reaction: Na2S + CuSO4 → Na2SO4 + CuS A) Na2S B) CuSO4 C) Na2SO4 D) CuS E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6

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60) Which is the limiting reactant in the following reaction given that you start with 15.5 g of Na2S and 12.1 g CuSO4?

Reaction: Na2S + CuSO4 → Na2SO4 + CuS A) Na2S B) CuSO4 C) Na2SO4 D) CuS E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6 61) Which is the limiting reactant in the following reaction given that you start with 42.0 g of CO2 and 99.9 g KOH? Reaction: CO2 + 2KOH → K2CO3 + H2O A) K2CO3 B) H2O C) CO2 D) KOH E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6 62) What is the theoretical yield in grams of CuS for the following reaction given that you start with 15.5 g of Na2S and 12.1 g CuSO4?

Reaction: Na2S + CuSO4 → Na2SO4 + CuS A) 0.0758 B) 0.198 C) 18.93 D) 7.25 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6 63) What is the percent yield of CuS for the following reaction given that you start with 15.5 g of Na2S and 12.1 g CuSO4? The actual amount of CuS produced was 3.05 g.

Reaction: Na2S + CuSO4 → Na2SO4 + CuS A) 16.1% B) 42.1% C) 18.93% D) 7.25% E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6

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64) How many grams of the excess reactant remain assuming the reaction goes to completion and that you start with 15.5 g of Na2S and 12.1 g CuSO4?

Reaction: Na2S + CuSO4 → Na2SO4 + CuS A) 0.05 B) 15.45 C) 9.58 D) 5.92 E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.6 65) Consider the reaction: 2 Al + 3Br2 → 2 AlBr3 Suppose a reaction vessel initially contains 5.0 mole Al and 6.0 mole Br 2. What is in the reaction vessel once the reaction has occurred to the fullest extent possible?

A) 1.0 mole Al; 0 mole Br2; 4.0 mole AlBr3 B) 0 mole Al; 0 mole Br2; 11.0 mole AlBr3 C) 2.0 mole Al; 3.0 mole Br2; 2.0 mole AlBr3 D) 0 mole Al; 1.0 mole Br2; 4.0 mole AlBr3 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.6 66) The reaction of one mole of nitrogen gas with three moles of hydrogen gas releases 92 kJ of thermal energy to the surroundings. Which of the following is TRUE? A) This reaction is exothermic.

B) This reaction has a negative enthalpy of reaction.

C) Complete reaction of two moles of nitrogen gas would release 184 kJ of thermal energy in this reaction.

D) All of the above are true.

E) None of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.7 67) Consider the following reaction: 2 Mg + O2 → 2 MgO △H rxn = -1203 kJ Calculate the amount of heat (in kJ) associated with complete reaction of 4 moles of Mg. A) -1203 kJ B) -2406 kJ C) -601.5 kJ D) -4812 kJ E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8.7

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68) Consider the following equation: CO + 2 H2 → CH3OH △H rxn = -128 kJ Calculate the amount of heat (in kJ) associated with complete reaction of 8.08 g H 2.

A) -1024 kJ B) -1034 kJ C) -256 kJ D) -512 kJ E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8.7

Algorithmic Questions 1) How many moles of water are needed to react with 2.2 moles of Li2O? Given: Li2O + H2O → 2 LiOH A) 4.4 B) 1.1 C) 1.5 D) 2.2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.3 2) How many grams of water are needed to react with 27.2 grams of Given: Li2O + H2O → 2 LiOH

O?

A) 0.910 B) 16.4 C) 1.51 D) 38.94 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.3 3) If the theoretical yield of the reaction below corresponds to 99.2 g and the actual yield was 60.9 g, calculate the percent yield.

Given: Li2O + H2O → 2 LiOH A) 16.0 % B) 71.8 % C) 38.0 % D) 61.4 % E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.5

20 ..

4) If the theoretical yield of the reaction below corresponds to 25.3 g and the percent yield of the reaction is known to be reproducibly 81.1%, calculate the actual yield.

Given: Li2O + H2O → 2 LiOH A) 20.5 g B) 48.9 g C) 45.8 g D) 81.1 g E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.5 5) Starting with 156 g Li2O and 33.3 g H2O, decide which reactant is present in limiting quantities.

Given: Li2O + H2O → 2 LiOH A) lithium oxide B) water C) lithium hydroxide D) insufficient data E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8.5

21 ..

Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 9 Electrons in Atoms and the Periodic Table True/False Questions 1) When the elements are arranged in order of increasing number of protons, certain sets of properties recur periodically.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.1 2) The early scientists who developed the quantum-mechanical model were bewildered by the model and it altered our fundamental view of matter.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.1 3) Light is a type of matter.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 4) Light travels through space at a speed of 3.00 × 10 8 m/s.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 5) A red shirt appears red to our eyes because the shirt absorbs the red wavelengths of visible light.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 6) A particle of light is called a packet.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 7) A photon of red light contains the same amount of energy as a photon of blue light.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 8) The shorter the wavelength of light, the more energy it has.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 9) Wavelength of visible light determines color.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 10) The most energetic photons are gamma rays.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.3

1 ..

11) Visible light makes up the largest portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 12) X-rays damage biological molecules.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 13) Ultraviolet light produces suntans and sunburns.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 14) The heat you feel when you place your hand near a hot object is ultraviolet radiation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 15) In order for a substance to be heated in a microwave, it must contain water.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 16) The great success of the Bohr model of the atom is that it predicted the emission spectrum lines of multielectronic elements like helium.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 17) Bohr showed that the emission spectrum of hydrogen was continuous with no interruption across the entire visible wavelength range.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 18) Each element produces its own unique and distinctive emission spectrum.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 19) An emission spectrum results when light emitted by glowing gas is passed through a prism.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 20) When an atom absorbs energy, it often re-emits that energy as heat.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 21) The energy of an electron orbit is quantized.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 22) The energy of each Bohr orbit increases with increasing value of "n", but levels become more closely spaced as "n" increases.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 2 ..

23) Electrons behave like particles and we can describe their exact paths.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 24) An orbital is a probability map showing exactly where an electron can be found in an atom.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.5 25) The higher the principal quantum number, the lower the orbital energy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 26) The possible values for the principal quantum numbers are: n = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 27) The subshells of the orbital are represented by the possible letters: s, p, d, or f.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 28) A principal shell with a value of n=3 would contain s, p, d, and f orbitals.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 29) All subshells within the same principal shell have the same energy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 30) The ground state is when an electron in an atom is excited into the lowest possible vacant orbital.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 31) The correct electron configuration for fluorine is: 1s 22s22p5.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.6 32) Transition metal elements always contain at least one "d" block electron.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 33) The Pauli exclusion principle states that orbitals may hold no more than two electrons of identical spins.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 34) The orbital diagram for fluorine shows 1 unpaired electron in a p orbital.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6

3 ..

35) The correct electron configuration for magnesium is: 1s22s22p63s3.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.6 36) The element manganese (symbol = Mn) has five valence electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 37) Bromine has 17 valence electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 38) Bromine has 28 core electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 39) The elements will lose or gain electrons as needed to have an electron configuration that matches a noble gas.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.8 40) The ionization energy of lithium is higher than that of fluorine.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.9 41) The atomic size of lithium is larger than the atomic size of nitrogen.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.9 42) Based on relative location on the periodic table, a carbon atom is larger in atomic size than a phosphorous atom.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.9

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements about light is FALSE? Answer: All of the above statements are true.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 2) Which of the statements about light is FALSE? A) Light travels through space at a speed of 3.00 × 108 m/s.

B) Light travels much faster than sound.

C) A packet of light energy is called a photon.

D) A characteristic feature of light that determines its color is its wavelength.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.2

4 ..

3) The distance between adjacent wave crests is called A) wavelength.

B) frequency.

C) trough.

D) nu.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 4) The number of cycles of a wave that passes a stationary point in one second is called its A) wavelength.

B) frequency.

C) crest.

D) trough.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 5) Which among the following statements is TRUE? A) The wavelength of light is inversely related to its energy.

B) As the energy increases, the frequency of radiation decreases.

C) As the wavelength increases, the frequency also increases.

D) Red light has a shorter wavelength than violet light.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 6) Which color of the visible spectrum has the shortest wavelength (400 nm)?

A) red B) orange C) green D) violet E) yellow Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 7) Which color of the visible spectrum has the longest wavelength (750 nm)?

A) red B) orange C) green D) violet E) yellow Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.2

5 ..

8) Which color of the visible spectrum has photons with the most energy?

A) red B) orange C) green D) violet E) yellow Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 9) How are wavelength and frequency of light related?

A) Wavelength is one-half of the frequency.

B) Wavelength is double the frequency.

C) Wavelength increases as frequency increases.

D) Wavelength increases as the frequency decreases.

E) Wavelength is independent of frequency.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.2 10) What is the correct order of the electromagnetic spectrum from shortest wavelength to longest?

A) Gamma Rays→X-rays→Ultraviolet Radiation→Visible Light→Infrared Radiation→Microwaves→Radio Waves B) Visible Light→Infrared Radiation→Microwaves→Radio Waves→Gamma Rays→X-rays→Ultraviolet Radiation C) Radio Waves→X-rays→Ultraviolet Radiation→Visible Light→Infrared Radiation→Microwaves→Gamma Rays D) Gamma Rays→X-rays→Visible Light→Ultraviolet Radiation→Infrared Radiation→Microwaves→Radio Waves E) Gamma Rays→X-rays→Infrared Radiation→Visible Light→Ultraviolet Radiation→Microwaves→Radio Waves Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.3 11) Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the shortest wavelength?

A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 12) Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the longest wavelength?

A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 13) Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the highest frequency?

A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays 6 ..

E) Infrared Radiation Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 14) Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the lowest frequency?

A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 15) Which form of electromagnetic radiation has photons with the highest energy?

A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 16) Which form of electromagnetic radiation has photons with the lowest energy?

A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 17) What happens to an atom when it absorbs energy?

A) The atom stores the energy for later use.

B) The extra energy increases the speed of the electrons in their orbitals.

C) The atom re-emits the energy as heat.

D) The atom re-emits the energy as light.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.4

7 ..

18) When sunlight is passed through a prism, what is observed?

A) continuous spectrum B) nothing C) bright spots and lines D) white light E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 19) When neon light is passed through a prism, what is observed?

A) continuous spectrum B) nothing C) bright spots or lines D) white light E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.4 20) Which statement below does NOT follow the Bohr Model?

A) When energy is absorbed by atoms, the electrons are promoted to higher-energy orbits.

B) When an atom emits light, electrons fall from a higher orbit into a lower orbit.

C) The energy emitted from a relaxing electron can have any wavelength.

D) Electrons exist in specific, quantized orbits.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 21) Which of the following statements about the quantum-mechanical model is FALSE? A) Orbitals are a probability map of finding electrons.

B) Electrons do not behave as particles.

C) Orbitals are specific paths electrons follow.

D) Electron paths cannot be described exactly.

E) All of the above are correct statements.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.5 22) The principal quantum number (n): A) specifies the 3-D shape of the orbital.

B) specifies the subshell of the orbital.

C) specifies the maximum number of electrons.

D) specifies the principal shell of the orbital.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6

8 ..

23) The subshell letter: A) specifies the 3-D shape of the orbital.

B) specifies the principal quantum number of the orbital.

C) specifies the maximum number of electrons.

D) specifies the principal shell of the orbital.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 24) How many subshells are there in the n = 4 principal shell?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.6 25) How many subshells are there in the n = 2 principal shell?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.6 26) The n = ________ principal shell is the lowest that may contain a d-subshell.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.6 27) Which subshell letter corresponds to a spherical orbital?

A) s B) p C) d D) f E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6

9 ..

28) Which one of the following is the correct orbital diagram for nitrogen?

A) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↓ ↓ ↑ B) ↑↓ ↓↓ ↓ ↑ ↑ C) ↑↓ ↓↓ ↑ ↑ ↑ D) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑ E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.6 29) Which subshell letter corresponds to a 4-leaf clover orbital pattern?

A) s B) p C) d D) f E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.6 30) Which statement is NOT true about "p" orbitals?

A) A subshell contains three "p" orbitals.

B) These orbitals are shaped like dumbbells.

C) A 3p orbital has a higher energy than a 2p orbital.

D) All three of these statements are true.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.6 31) The "d" subshell can hold a maximum of ________ electrons.

A) 2 B) 5 C) 6 D) 10 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 32) How many electrons can exist in an orbital?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6

10 ..

33) The lowest energy orbital in the quantum-mechanical model is the A) zero orbital.

B) 1a orbital.

C) 1p orbital.

D) 1s orbital.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 34) Which orbital would the electron of a ground state hydrogen atom occupy?

A) 1s B) 2p C) 0s D) 1p E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 35) How many electrons are unpaired in the orbitals of carbon?

A) 12 B) 6 C) 4 D) 2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.6 36) How many electrons are unpaired in the orbitals of nitrogen?

A) 14 B) 5 C) 9 D) 3 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.6 37) "When filling orbitals of equal energy, electrons fill them singly first with parallel spins." This is known as: A) Hund's rule.

B) Pauli exclusion principle.

C) Bohr's model.

D) Ground state.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.6

11 ..

38) An accepted abbreviation format is to write an electron configuration that includes a noble gas symbol in brackets. If you were writing an electron configuration for a bromine atom, which elemental symbol would you place in the bracket?

A) He B) Ne C) Ar D) Kr E) Xe Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 39) Which element is represented by the electron configuration 1s22s22p2?

A) C B) He C) Be D) O E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 40) What is the electron configuration for Kr? A) 1s22s22p63s23p43d104s24p6 B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d24p6 C) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p6 D) 1s22s22p63s23p24s23d104p6 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.6 41) What is the electron configuration for Ga? A) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p6 B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p1 C) 1s22s22p63s23p53d104s24p1 D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s24d104p1 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.6 42) What is the electron configuration for P? A) [Ar]3s23p64s23d104p3 B) [Ne]1s21p62s22p3 C) [Ne]3s23p3 D) [Ar]3s23p3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.6

12 ..

43) How many core electrons are in a chlorine atom?

A) 1 B) 17 C) 10 D) 7 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 44) How many valence electrons are in a chlorine atom?

A) 1 B) 17 C) 10 D) 7 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 45) The element with a completely filled p-subshell is A) Na. B) Al. C) P. D) Ar. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.7 46) What is the element in which at least one electron is in the d-orbital?

A) Ar B) K C) Ca D) Sc E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.7 47) What do the alkali metals all have in common?

A) They all undergo similar reactions.

B) They all have similar physical properties.

C) They all form +1 ions.

D) They all have the same number of valence electrons.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.7

13 ..

48) Which of the following elements has the electron configuration of 3s 23p4 in its outermost shell?

A) Al B) Si C) S D) Cl E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.7 49) Chlorine and bromine have very similar chemical properties. This is best explained by the fact that both elements A) are gases.

B) are in period 3 of the Periodic Table.

C) have the same number of valence electrons.

D) have equal number of protons and electrons.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.8 50) Consider the electron configuration of the ion to determine which ion shown below has an incorrect ionic charge?

A) Al3B) Se2C) Rb+ D) Ba2+ E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.8 51) Which one of the following species has the electron configuration of 1s22s22p6?

1. Na+ 2. O23. FA) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2, or 3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.8

14 ..

52) If the electron configuration of a ground state potassium atom is 1s 22s22p63s1, the electron configuration of the potassium cation (K+) would be: A) 1s22s22p63s2 B) 1s22s22p6 C) 1s22s22p63s1 D) 1s12s22p63s1 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.8 53) Choose the answer that best completes the following statement: When an aluminum atom reacts so as to attain a noble gas electron configuration, A) the atom gains five electrons.

B) the result is a configuration of 1s22s22p6.

C) a 3- ion forms.

D) the noble gas configuration of argon is achieved.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9.8 54) The size of an atom generally increases A) down a group and from right to left across a period.

B) up a group and from left to right across a period.

C) down a group and from left to right across a period.

D) up a group and from right to left across a period.

E) up a group and diagonally across the Periodic Table.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.9 55) Which of the following elements has the lowest ionization energy?

A) Rb B) Na C) C D) F E) He Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 9.9 56) Which of the following elements has the highest ionization energy?

A) Ba B) Ca C) Al D) Cl E) Ne Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 9.9

15 ..

57) Which of the following atoms is the largest?

A) Li B) Na C) K D) Rb E) Cs Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.9 58) Which of the following atoms is the smallest?

A) Li B) Be C) B D) O E) Ne Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.9 59) Which of the following atoms has the least metallic character?

A) Li B) Na C) K D) Rb E) Cs Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9.9 60) Which of the following atoms has the greatest metallic character?

A) Cs B) Be C) Cu D) Ti E) Au Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 9.9

16 ..

Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding True/False Questions 1) Bonding theories are used to predict how atoms bond together to form molecules.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.1 2) Drugs to fight HIV have been developed using bonding theory models.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.1 3) Li : is the proper Lewis structure (dot structure) for lithium.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.2 4) A chemical bond is classified as a covalent bond if it involves the transfer of electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.2 5) The Lewis structure of oxygen should have 8 valence electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.2 6) Lewis structures only use the valence electrons in determining the bonding.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.2 7) Having eight valence electrons is very stable and is called an octet.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.2 8) A correct Lewis structure for an atom of carbon would have eight dots surrounding the symbol of the element.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.2 9) The correct Lewis structure for potassium in KCl is: K+.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 10) Chlorine has 8 valence electrons in the Lewis structure for KCl. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 11) The Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound of magnesium and sulfur is MgS 2.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 1 ..

12) The Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound made of sodium and fluorine is NaF. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 13) Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound made of aluminum and phosphorus is AlP. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 14) The Lewis structure of water has two sets of lone pair electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 15) The structure

is a proper representation of the bonding in the H2 molecule.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 16) The Lewis structure for O2 contains a triple bond.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 17) The double bond is shorter and stronger than a single bond.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 18) The triple bond present in diatomic nitrogen, N2, is what makes this molecule so reactive.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 19) When calculating the number of electrons for the Lewis structure of a polyatomic ion, subtract one electron for each negative charge.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 20) The correct Lewis structure for CO2 shows that the molecule contains two double bonds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 21) The correct Lewis structure for CO2 shows that the carbon atom has two sets of lone pair electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 22) The sulfate ion contains 28 valence electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 23) The ammonium ion contains 10 valence electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 2 ..

24) Boron forms compounds that violate the octet rule.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 25) Resonance structures are the best representation we can draw but do not accurately reflect the true structure.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.6 26) Carbon monoxide contains resonance Lewis structures.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.6 27) The VSEPR theory predicts that the angle between the central carbon atom and the two oxygen atoms in CO 2 measures 180°.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 28) The VSEPR theory predicts that the H-C-H angle in CH4 measures 120°.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 29) It is important to identify lone pairs around a central atom because they do not repel other electron groups.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 30) The electron geometry of a molecule is never the same as its molecular geometry.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 31) When you have 2 electron groups and none are lone pairs, the molecular geometry is linear.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 32) When you have 4 electron groups and 1 of them is a lone pair, the molecular geometry is bent.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 33) When you have 4 electron groups and none of them are lone pairs, the molecular geometry is trigonal pyramidal.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 34) When you have 4 electron groups, the electron geometry is tetrahedral.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 35) The compound H2S contains polar bonds but the molecule is nonpolar.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 3 ..

36) Water and oil do not mix because water molecules are nonpolar and molecules that compose oil are generally polar.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.8

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements about Lewis structures is FALSE? A) An octet is when an atom has 8 valence electrons.

B) A duet is a stable electron configuration for helium.

C) An ionic bond occurs when electrons are transferred.

D) A covalent bond occurs when electrons are shared.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.2 2) Which Lewis structure below correctly represents KCl? A) K⁺ [

]⁻

B) K⁺ [:

:]⁻

C) K :

D) :

:

::

:

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.3 3) Which Lewis structure below correctly represents the compound formed between magnesium and sulfur?

A) Mg⁺ [:

:]⁻

B) Mg⁺ [:

:]⁻2 Mg⁺

C) [:

:]⁻ Mg⁺2 [:

D) Mg⁺2 [:

:]⁻

:]⁻2

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.3

4 ..

4) Lewis theory predicts that the formula of a compound formed between bromine and aluminum is: A) AlBr B) Al2Br C) AlBr3 D) AlBr2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 5) Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound between fluorine and calcium is: A) CaF B) Ca2F C) CaF2 D) CaF3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.3 6) Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound between barium and sulfur is: A) BaS B) Ba2S C) BaS2 D) BaS3 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.3 7) Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound between potassium and sulfur is: A) KS B) K2S C) KS2 D) K3S E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.3 8) When a nonmetal bonds with a nonmetal A) a molecular compound forms.

B) a covalent bond is involved.

C) electrons are shared.

D) all of the above are true E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.4

5 ..

9) What is the correct Lewis structure for water?

A) H-:

B) :

:-H

-

-

:

C) H=

=H

D) H-

-H

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.4 10) What is the correct Lewis structure for Br2?

A) Br-Br B) :

-

C)

=

:

D) : Br≡ Br : E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.4 11) What is the correct Lewis structure for O2?

A) O-O B) :

-

C)

=

:

D) : O ≡ O : E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.4

6 ..

12) What is the correct Lewis structure for N2?

A) N-N B) :

-

C)

=

:

D) : N ≡ N : E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.4 13) The Lewis structure for carbon monoxide is A) 4 lone pairs and 1 bonding pair.

B) 4 lone pairs and 3 bonding pairs.

C) 2 lone pairs and 3 bonding pairs.

D) 2 lone pairs and 1 bonding pair.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.4

This structures shows

14) Which sequence below represents the proper order of increasing bond strength?

A) single < double < triple B) double < single < triple C) single < triple < double D) triple < double < single E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 15) How many valence electrons are in the nitrate ion?

A) 18 B) 22 C) 23 D) 24 E) 26 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.5 16) The total number of electrons to be counted for the Lewis structure of the PO 43- polyatomic ion is A) 8.

B) 26.

C) 29.

D) 32.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 7 ..

17) The central atom in the chlorate anion, ClO3- is surrounded by A) two bonding and two unshared pairs of electrons.

B) one bonding and three unshared pairs of electrons.

C) three bonding and one unshared pair of electrons.

D) two double bonds and no unshared pairs of electrons.

E) none of the above.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.5 18) The central atom in the chlorite anion, ClO2- is surrounded by A) one bonding and three unshared pairs of electrons.

B) two bonding and two unshared pairs of electrons.

C) two bonding and one unshared pair of electrons.

D) two double bonds and no unshared pairs of electrons.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.5 19) What is the correct Lewis structure for CO2?

A) :

-

-

:

B) :

=

=

:

C) :

= C=

:

D) :

= C=

:

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.5

20) The Lewis structure, [:

-

=

] represents

A) NO2+ B) NO2C) NO2 D) both NO2+ and NO2E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.5

8 ..

21) What is the correct Lewis structure for CN⁻?

A) [C-N]⁻ B) [:

-

:]⁻

C) [

=

:]⁻

D) [: C≡ N :]⁻ E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.5 22) The correct Lewis structure for BF3 would have exactly: A) 1 double bond.

B) 2 double bonds.

C) 1 triple bond.

D) no double bonds.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.5 23) Which symbol should be used between two structures that represent resonance structures?

A) → B) ← C) ↔ D) ≡ E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.6 24) Which set shows the correct resonance structures for SeO2?

A) :

-

-

:↔

B) :

=

-

:↔:

C) :

=Se=

D)

=

-

=

=

-

=

:

↔ : O≡ Se-

:↔ :

:↔:

=

-

-Se≡ O :

E) SeO2 does not have a resonance structure.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.6

9 ..

25) Which of the following compounds have resonance structures?

A) CH4 B) H2O C) NH3 D) O3 E) None of the compounds have resonance structures.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.6 26) Consider the Lewis structures for the compound SO3 and the polyatomic ions SO32- and SO42-. Which of these would exist as a set of resonance structures?

A) SO3 only B) SO32- only C) SO42- only D) all of these show resonance E) none of these show resonance Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 10.6 27) What is the angle between electron groups in the linear electron geometry?

A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 28) What is the angle between electron groups in the trigonal planar electron geometry?

A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 29) What is the angle between electron groups in the tetrahedral geometry?

A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7

10 ..

30) Which of the following is considered a single electron group?

A) a lone pair of electrons B) a single bond C) a double bond D) a triple bond E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 31) What is the electron geometry if you have 4 electron groups around the center atom?

A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 32) What is the electron geometry if you have 2 electron groups around the center atom?

A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 33) What is the electron geometry if you have 3 electron groups around the center atom?

A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 34) What is the molecular geometry if you have 3 single bonds and 1 lone pair around the central atom?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7

11 ..

35) What is the molecular geometry if you have 4 single bonds around the central atom?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 36) What is the molecular geometry if you have a double bond, a single bond and 1 lone pair around the central atom?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 37) What is the molecular geometry of ozone, O3?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 38) Which of the following compounds would have a linear molecular geometry?

1. N2 2. H2S 3. CO2 A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1,2 and 3 E) neither 1, 2,or 3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 39) What is the molecular geometry of carbon dioxide, CO2?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 12 ..

40) What is the molecular geometry of PH3?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 41) What is the molecular geometry of SiH4?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 42) What is the molecular geometry of CCl4?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 43) What is the molecular geometry of SCl2?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 44) What is the molecular geometry of NH4+?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7

13 ..

45) The electron geometry and the molecular geometry of ammonia (NH 3) are, respectively, A) trigonal planar, bent.

B) tetrahedral, tetrahedral.

C) tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal.

D) tetrahedral, bent.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 46) The electron geometry and the molecular geometry of water are, respectively, A) trigonal planar, bent.

B) tetrahedral, tetrahedral.

C) tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal.

D) tetrahedral, bent.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.7 47) Which of the following has a tetrahedral electron geometry and a trigonal pyramidal molecular geometry?

A) Br2O B) GeH4 C) SO2 D) PF3 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 10.7 48) Which term matches the definition: A separation of charge within a bond.

A) coulombic attraction B) dipole moment C) polar covalent D) nonpolar covalent E) electronegativity Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8 49) The elements with the highest electronegativity values tend to be found in the: A) upper right-side of the periodic table.

B) lower right-side of the periodic table.

C) upper left-side of the periodic table.

D) lower left-side of the periodic table.

E) center of the periodic table.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10.8

14 ..

50) Which term matches the definition: The ability of an element to attract electrons within a covalent bond?

A) coulombic attraction B) dipole moment C) polar covalent D) nonpolar covalent E) electronegativity Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8 51) Which molecule listed below has a nonpolar covalent bond?

A) NaCl B) H2O C) H2 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8 52) Which molecule listed below has a polar covalent bond?

A) NaCl B) H2O C) H2 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8 53) Which molecule listed below is a polar molecule?

A) NH3 B) H2O C) HCN D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8 54) Which substance listed below is a polar molecule?

A) NH41+ B) Cl2O C) SiCl4 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8

15 ..

55) Which molecule listed below is a nonpolar molecule?

A) CCl4 B) CO2 C) BH3 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8 56) Which compound listed below will dissolve in water?

A) CCl4 B) SiO2 C) NH3 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8 57) Which compound listed below will dissolve in NH 3?

A) H2S B) CO2 C) O2 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8 58) Which compound listed below will dissolve in carbon tetrachloride, CCl 4?

A) NaCl B) CS2 C) NH3 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8 59) Which of the following statements is TRUE for the covalent molecule HCl? A) Chlorine is more electronegative and the shared electron pair is likely to be found on the hydrogen atom.

B) Chlorine is more electronegative and the shared electron pair is likely to be found on the chlorine atom.

C) Hydrogen is more electronegative and the shared electron pair is likely to be found on the hydrogen atom.

D) Hydrogen is more electronegative and the shared electron pair is likely to be found on the chlorine atom.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8

16 ..

60) Which of the following statements about the water molecule is TRUE? A) A water molecule has two dipole moments and they cancel each other.

B) A water molecule is symmetrical and therefore is nonpolar.

C) A water molecule is asymmetric and therefore is polar.

D) The electronegativities of hydrogen and oxygen are equal and therefore a water molecule is nonpolar.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8 61) Which of the following statements are TRUE about the BF 3 molecule?

A) BF3 has a trigonal planar molecular geometry.

B) BF3 violates the octet rule for the central atom.

C) BF3 is nonpolar.

D) All of the above statements are true.

E) None of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8 62) The electronegativity value for N is 3.0 and that for O is 3.5. Based on these values, which of the following statements is TRUE about the compound NO? A) NO is an ionic compound.

B) NO is a pure covalent compound.

C) NO is a polar covalent compound.

D) There is not enough enough information to determine the nature of NO. E) None of the above statements is true.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8 63) The electronegativity value for Mg is 1.2 and the value for O is 3.5. Based on these values, what type of bond is expected for a compound formed between Mg and O? A) Ionic B) Pure covalent C) Polar covalent D) not enough information E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8 64) How does soap work?

A) Soap works by breaking grease molecules into smaller molecules that dissolve in water.

B) Soap works by making water into a nonpolar liquid which grease can dissolve in.

C) Soap works by having a polar end and a nonpolar end which allows the water and oil to interact indirectly.

D) Soap works by by having a polar end which attaches to the grease molecule and polarizes it and turns the grease molecule into another soap molecule. This is a chain reaction.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10.8

17 ..

Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 11 Gases True/False Questions 1) Straws work because sucking creates a pressure difference.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.1 2) Gases are a collection of particles in constant, unpredictable motion.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 3) Gas particles act independently of each other.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 4) Gas particles lose energy every time they collide with each other or the container wall.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 5) There is a large distance between gas particles as compared to their relative size.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 6) As you increase temperature, you increase the average energy of the gas particles.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 7) Gases and liquids are compressible, but solids are not.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 8) Gases fill the entire volume of their container.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 9) The expected order of density for matter is gases < liquids < solids.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 10) Pressure is calculated by: P =

Area .

Force

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3

1 ..

11) The unit of pressure known as the atmosphere (atm) is defined as the average pressure found at the top of Mount Everest.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 12) Pressure depends on how many gas particles are in a container.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 13) As we climb a mountain to a higher altitude, we experience a pressure decrease.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 14) If the column of mercury in a barometer drops to a lower reading, this means the measured pressure has decreased.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 15) A pedometer is a device created by Torricelli to measure pressure.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 16) The conversion factor for pressure is 1 mm Hg = 1 atm.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 17) Boyle's law states that as the volume of a gas increases so does the pressure.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.4 18) A sealed bag of potato chips will expand when taken to a higher altitude. This is an example of Boyle's law.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.4 19) The volume of a gas is independent of the temperature.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 20) For all gas law calculations, the temperature must be in kelvins.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 21) Charles's Law provides an explanation of why hot air balloons float.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 22) Absolute zero refers to 0°C. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 2 ..

23) If the temperature of a gas is doubled, the volume is doubled provided that the pressure and the number of particles remains constant.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 24) The volume of a gas and the number of particles is inversely proportional.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 25) One mole of F2 gas at STP would take up twice the volume of one mole of Ar gas at STP. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 26) If the number of gas particles is halved, the volume of the gas will be halved given that the temperature and pressure do not change.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 27) If the number of gas particles is tripled, the volume will be 1/3 of the original given that temperature and pressure do not change.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 28) If a slow leak in an inner tube has reduced the volume of the tube to one-third its original inflated volume, this means that one-third of the moles of gas have escaped the tube. (Assume constant temperature and pressure.)

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.7 29) If you had a five liter balloon of argon gas and a five liter balloon of xenon gas, and you removed 10 grams of gas from each balloon, the balloons would both shrink down to the same size.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.7 30) The main component of the air we breathe is oxygen gas.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 31) A gas may not behave ideally under conditions of low pressure or high temperature.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 32) Dalton's law of partial pressure is: P =

nRT .

V

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.8

3 ..

33) "Molar Mass" can be calculated using the formula: Molar mass =

moles . mass

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 34) Using pure oxygen in scuba diving tanks is a good method of preventing the nitrogen bends.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 35) Vapor pressure of water increases with increasing temperature because the higher temperature causes more water molecules to evaporate.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 36) The vapor pressure of water is independent of temperature.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 37) The molar volume of any gas at conditions of standard temperature and pressure is 22.4 liters.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.10 38) STP conditions are 273 K and 760 mm Hg. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.10 39) The volume of 9.00 grams of water vapor at STP is 11.2 L. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.10

4 ..

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements about pressure is FALSE? A) Pressure is caused by gas molecules colliding with surfaces.

B) The atmosphere has a pressure as the components of air collide with surfaces.

C) After creating a pressure difference, the atmospheric pressure can push liquid up a straw.

D) A deep well dug in the ground must have the pump located at the bottom of well in order to have the water come to the surface.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.1 2) Which of the following is NOT part of the Kinetic Molecular Theory?

A) Gas particles do not repel each other.

B) There is a large distance between gas particles as compared to their relative size.

C) The size of the actual gas particles is small compared to the volume of the whole gas.

D) The average energy of the particles is dependent on the molecular mass of the particle.

E) All of the above statements are part of the Kinetic Molecular Theory.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 3) Which of following statements are consistent with the Kinetic Molecular Theory?

A) Gases are compressible because the volume of atoms is almost entirely open space.

B) Gases assume the shape and volume of their container because they are in constant, straight-line motion.

C) Gases have a low density because there is so much empty space between the particles.

D) Gas particles collide with each other and surfaces without losing any energy.

E) All of the above statements are consistent with the Kinetic Molecular Theory.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 4) All of the following statements are consistent with the kinetic molecular theory of gases EXCEPT A) The size of the gas molecules is negligible compared to the total volume of the gas.

B) The average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas is proportional to the temperature of the gas in kelvins.

C) The gas molecules collide with each other and with the surfaces around them.

D) Strong attractive forces hold the gas molecules together.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 5) 1 atm is equal to: A) 760 mm Hg. B) 760 torr.

C) 101,325 Pa. D) 14.7 psi.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3

5 ..

6) 1 torr is equal to: A) 760 mm Hg. B) 1 mm Hg. C) 1 Pa. D) 14.7 psi.

E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 7) A barometer uses mercury because: A) it is a convenient, safe, lightweight material.

B) the density of mercury is very large which allows the barometer to be short.

C) it is the traditional substance used, water could be as easily used.

D) it is the only liquid metal at room temperature.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 8) What is the equivalent pressure of 0.905 atm in units of mm Hg? A) 688 B) 840 C) 0.905 D) 13.3 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 9) What is the equivalent pressure of 1520 torr in units of atm?

A) 203,000 B) 380.

C) 2.00 D) 1520 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 10) What is the equivalent pressure of 760 torr in units of mm Hg? A) 760 B) 1 C) 14.7 D) 29.92 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3

6 ..

11) What is the equivalent pressure of 968 mm Hg in units of atm?

A) 1.27 atm B) 0.785 atm C) 968 atm D) 1.30 atm E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 12) Which of the following statements is TRUE for gases?

1. The temperature of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.

2. The volume of a gas is directly proportional to the pressure in torr.

3. The pressure of a gas is due to collisions of the gas molecules.

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 only E) 1 and 3 only Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 13) Boyle's Law is expressed as: 1 A) V is proportional to P B) P is proportional to V 1 C) V is proportional to T D) V is proportional to T E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.4 14) To solve problems using Boyle's Law, which mathematical equation should be used?

P P A) 1 = 2 V2 V1 B) P1V1 = P2V2 C)

V V1 = 2 P2 P1

D) P2V1 = P1V2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.4

7 ..

15) One liter of a gas is in a sealed chamber containing a moveable piston. If the piston is moved so that the volume of the gas is compressed to a volume of one-half liter, what will happen to the pressure on the gas?

(Assume the temperature is constant and no gas particles are lost.)

A) The pressure will remain the same.

B) The pressure will be half of the original value.

C) The pressure will be twice the original value.

D) It would be impossible to move the piston since gases are not compressible.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.4 16) A balloon filled with 0.500 L of air at sea level is submerged in the water to a depth that produces a pressure of 3.25 atm. What is the volume of the balloon at this depth?

A) 1.63 L B) 0.154 L C) 6.50 L D) 0.615 L E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.4 17) Divers often inflate heavy duty balloons attached to salvage items on the sea floor. If a balloon is filled to a volume of 3.00 L at a pressure of 2.50 atm, what is the volume of the balloon when it reaches the surface?

A) 7.50 L B) 1.20 L C) 0.833 L D) 5.50 L E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.4 18) The initial volume of a gas cylinder is 750.0 mL. If the pressure of a gas inside the cylinder changes from 840.0 mm Hg to 360.0 mm Hg, what is the final volume the gas occupies?

A) 3.151 L B) 630.0 mL C) 1.750 L D) 321.4 mL E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.4

8 ..

19) Charles's Law is expressed as: 1 A) V is proportional to P B) P is proportional to V 1 C) V is proportional to T D) V is proportional to T E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 20) To solve problems using Charles's Law, which mathematical equation should be used?

V V A) 1 = 2 T2 T1 B) T1V1 = T2V2 C)

P1 P = 2 V2 V1

D) P2V1 = P1V2 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 21) Which one of the following is impossible for an ideal gas?

T 1 1 A) = 1 ( ) V2 T2 V1 V V B) 1 = 2 T2 T1 T2 C) V2 = ( ) V1 T1 D) V1T1 = V2T2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 22) A gas sample occupies 3.50 liters of volume at 20.°C. What volume will this gas occupy at 100.°C (reported to three significant figures)?

A) 0.224 L B) 2.75 L C) 4.46 L D) 17.5 L E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.5

9 ..

23) What is the final volume of a balloon that was initially 500.0 mL at 25°C and was then heated to 50°C? A) 461 mL B) 193 mL C) 1.00 L D) 542 mL E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.5 24) If the volume of a gas container at 32.0°C changes from 1.55 L to 755 mL, what will the final temperature be?

A) 149°C B) 353°C C) 273°C D) -124°C E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.5 25) What is the initial temperature of a gas if the volume changed from 1.00 L to 1.10 L and the final temperature was determined to be 255.0°C? A) 480°C B) -41°C C) 232°C D) 207°C E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.5 26) A balloon originally had a volume of 0.439 L at 44°C and a pressure of 729 torr. To what temperature must the balloon be cooled to reduce its volume to 378 mL if the pressure remained constant?

A) 0°C B) 38°C C) 95°C D) 273°C E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.5 27) Gas density can be calculated by dividing the mass of gas by its volume. If you took a balloon of gas and then warmed the balloon in a sunny window, what can now be said about the density of the gas in the balloon?

A) The gas density will remain the same.

B) The gas density will increase.

C) The gas density will decrease.

D) The density of gases is independent of temperature.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.5

10 ..

28) What is the proper form of the combined gas law?

PT PT A) 1 1 = 2 2 V2 V1 VT VT B) 1 1 = 2 2 P1 P2 P1V1 P2 V2 C) = T1 T2 D) P1V1T1 = P2V2T2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.6 29) A certain volume of gas was confined in a rigid container. If the pressure of the gas sample in the container was doubled, what happened to the temperature?

A) The temperature became one half.

B) The temperature doubled.

C) The temperature increased four times.

D) The temperature decreased one-third.

E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.6 30) Suppose a balloon was released from the ground and rose to such a height that both the atmospheric pressure and atmospheric temperature decreased. Which statement is TRUE? A) Both the temperature and pressure changes act to increase the balloon's volume.

B) Both the temperature and pressure changes act to decrease the balloon's volume.

C) The temperature change acts to increase the balloon's volume.

D) The pressure change acts to decrease the balloon's volume.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.6 31) If the initial pressure of a system was 1.00 atm and the volume was halved and the temperature was tripled, what is the final pressure?

A) 2.00 atm B) 0.667 atm C) 1.50 atm D) 6.00 atm E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.6

11 ..

32) A 325 mL sample of gas is initially at a pressure of 721 torr and a temperature of 32°C. If this gas is compressed to a volume of 286 mL and the pressure increases to 901 torr, what will be the new temperature of the gas (reported to three significant figures in °C)?

A) 35.2°C B) 335°C C) 62.4°C D) 215°C E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11.6 33) A sample of helium gas initially at 37.0°C, 785 torr and 2.00 L was heated to 58.0°C while the volume expanded to 3.24 L. What is the final pressure in atm?

A) 517 B) 0.681 C) 1.79 D) 3.21 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11.6 34) What is the final volume of a 500.0 mL gas container that increased in temperature from 299 K to 333 K while the pressure increased from 1.00 atm to 1.54 atm?

A) 0.691 L B) 2.77 L C) 0.362 L D) 1.45 L E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11.6 35) What is the initial temperature (°C) of a system that has the pressure decreased by 10 times while the volume increased by 5 times with a final temperature of 150 K? A) 27 B) 75 C) -198 D) 300 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11.6

12 ..

36) Avogadro's Law is expressed as: 1 A) V is proportional to n B) P is proportional to n 1 C) n is proportional to T D) V is proportional to n E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 37) To solve problems using Avogadro's Law, which mathematical equation should be used? n n2 A) 1 = P1 P2 B) n1V1 = n2V2 C)

V V1 = 2 n2 n1

D) P1V1 = P2V2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 38) What happens to the volume of a gas when you double the number of moles of gas while keeping the temperature and pressure constant?

A) The volume is halved.

B) The volume doubles.

C) The volume decreases, but more information is needed.

D) The volume increases, but more information is needed.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.7 39) How many moles of gas were added to a balloon that started with 2.3 moles of gas and a volume of 1.4 L given that the final volume was 7.2 L? A) 9.5 B) 4.4 C) 12 D) 0.085 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11.7

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40) If each of the following gas samples have the same temperature and pressure, which sample has the greatest volume?

A) 1 gram of O2 B) 1 gram of Ar C) 1 gram of H2 D) all have the same volume E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.7 41) For an ideal gas, which of the following pairs of variables are inversely proportional to each other (if all other factors remain constant)?

A) P, V B) P, T C) V, T D) n, P E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 42) The ideal gas law is: A) PV = nRT nRT B) P = V PV C) T = nR nRT D) V = P E) All of the above are forms of the ideal gas law.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 43) A sample of 0.255 mole of gas has a volume of 748 mL at 28°C. Calculate the pressure of this gas.

(R= 0.0821 L ∙ atm / mol ∙ K) A) 8.42 atm B) 0.784 atm C) 0.00842 atm D) 7.84 × 10-4 atm E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.8

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44) What is the pressure of a 3.00 L gas vessel that has 18.0 grams of helium at 25°C? (R= 0.0821 L atm/ mol K) A) 147 atm B) 36.7 atm C) 32.6 atm D) 1.81 atm E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.8 45) What is the temperature (°C) of 2.48 moles of gas stored in a 30.0 L container at 1559 mm Hg? (R= 0.0821 L atm/ mol K) A) 302 B) 189 C) 29 D) -84 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.8 46) Which conditions can cause nonideal gas behavior by 1) decreasing the space between gas particles or 2) by slowing gas particles so that interactions are significant?

A) 1) high pressure; 2) high temperature B) 1) high pressure; 2) low temperature C) 1) low pressure; 2) high temperature D) 1) low pressure ; 2) low temperature E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 47) A 3.76 g sample of a noble gas is stored in a 2.00 L vessel at 874 torr and 25°C. What is the noble gas?

(R= 0.0821 L atm/ mol K) A) He B) Ne C) Ar D) Kr E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11.8

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48) Which of the following diatomic elements would have a mass of 19.08 grams stored in a 3.82 L container at 3,632 mm Hg and 100°C? A) H2 B) Br2 C) F2 D) O2 E) not enough information.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11.8 49) What is the major component of the air we breathe?

A) nitrogen B) oxygen C) argon D) carbon dioxide E) smog Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 50) What is the third most abundant component of dry air?

A) carbon dioxide B) oxygen C) nitrogen D) argon E) smog Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 51) If a mixture of gases contained 78% nitrogen at a pressure of 984 torr and 22% carbon dioxide at 345 torr, what is the total pressure of the system?

A) 1,329 atm B) 17.5 cm Hg C) 639 torr D) 1.75 atm E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.9 52) A gas cylinder contains only the gases radon, nitrogen, and helium. The radon has a pressure of 222 torr while the nitrogen has a pressure of 446 torr. If the total pressure inside the cylinder is 771 torr, what is the pressure that is due to the helium?

A) 771 torr B) 668 torr C) 549 torr D) 103 torr E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 16 ..

53) A "shielding gas" mixture of argon and carbon dioxide is sometimes used in welding to improve the strength of the weld. If a gas cylinder of this two-part mixture was at 4.0 atm pressure and this mixture was 90.% argon, what would be the pressure due to the carbon dioxide gas component?

A) 3.6 atm B) 0.40 atm C) 10. atm D) 4.0 atm E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.9 54) What problem could happen if deep sea divers used pure oxygen in their tanks?

A) hypoxia B) oxygen toxicity C) nitrogen narcosis D) rapture of oxygen E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 55) Human lungs have evolved to breathe oxygen at a pressure as that in the atmosphere, 0.21 atm. If a particular heliox mixture to be carried by a scuba diver is at a pressure of 7.00 atm, what should be the partial pressure due to helium in order to maintain the pressure due to oxygen at 0.21 atm?

A) 0.21 atm B) 7.00 atm C) 6.79 atm D) 7.21 atm E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.9 56) The vapor pressure of water at 20.0°C is 17.5 mm Hg. If the pressure of a gas collected over water was measured to be 453.0 mm Hg. What is the pressure of the pure gas?

A) 0.0230 atm B) 0.619 atm C) 0.573 atm D) 0.596 atm E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.9

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57) Hydrogen gas produced in the laboratory by the reaction of zinc and hydrochloric acid was collected over water at 25°C. The barometric pressure at the time was 742.5 mm Hg. What is the pressure of dry hydrogen gas if the vapor pressure of water at 25°C is 23.8 mm Hg? A) 742.5 mm Hg B) 718.7 mm Hg C) 766.3 mm Hg D) 760.0 mm Hg E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.9 58) Which set of conditions reflect STP? A) 298 K, 1 atm B) 25°C, 14.7 psi C) 373 K, 760 torr D) 273 K, 1 Pa E) 273 K, 760 mm Hg Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.10 59) At STP, 12.69 g of a noble gas occupies 14.09 L. What is the identity of the noble gas?

(R= 0.0821 L atm/ mol K) A) He B) Ne C) Ar D) Kr E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.10 60) Suppose you had a balloon containing 1 mole of helium at STP and a balloon containing 1 mole of oxygen at STP. Which statement is TRUE? A) The balloons will have the same volume.

B) The balloons will have the same mass.

C) Both A) and B) are true.

D) Neither A) nor B) are true.

E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.10 61) Ammonia gas decomposes according to the equation: 2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g) If 15.0 L of nitrogen is formed at STP, how many liters of hydrogen will be produced (also measured at STP)?

A) 15.0 L B) 30.0 L C) 45.0 L D) 90.0 L E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11.10 18 ..

62) Water can be formed according to the equation: 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (g) If 8.0 L of hydrogen is reacted at STP, exactly how many liters of oxygen at STP would be needed to allow complete reaction?

A) 4.0 L B) 2.0 L C) 1.0 L D) 8.0 L E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.10 63) How many liters of O2 (g) are needed to react completely with 56.0 L of CH 4 (g) at STP to produce CO2 (g) and H2O (g)?

Given: CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + H2O (g) A) 28.0 L B) 56.0 L C) 84.0 L D) 112. L E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11.10

Algorithmic Questions 1) What is the pressure of 760 mm Hg when expressed in units of in Hg? A) 29.92 in Hg B) 101,325 in Hg C) 760 in Hg D) 1 in Hg E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 2) What is the final pressure of a system (atm) that has the volume increased from 0.75 L to 1.1 L with an initial pressure of 1.25 atm?

A) 1.1 B) 0.85 C) 1.8 D) 1.2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.4

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3) What is the final volume (L) of 10.0 L system that has the pressure quartered?

A) 0.250 B) 17.1 C) 2.50 D) 40.0 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11.4 4) What is the final volume of a gas that initially occupies 2.50 L at 298 K and is subsequently heated to 321 K? A) 2.69 L B) 2.96 L C) 2.23 L D) 2.32 L E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.5 5) What is the change in temperature of a 2.50 L system when it is compressed to 1.75 L if the initial temperature was 298 K? A) 209 K B) 290 K C) -89 K D) -98 K E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.5 6) What is the final volume (L) of a 1.00 L system at 315 K and 1.10 atm if STP conditions are established?

A) 1.05 B) 0.935 C) 1.50 D) 0.953 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.6 7) What is the final pressure (atm) of a 3.05 L system initially at 724 mm Hg and 298 K that is compressed to a final volume of 2.51 L at 273 K? A) 1.06 B) 1.60 C) 806 D) 860 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.6

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8) If the number of moles of a gas initially contained in a 2.10 L vessel is doubled, what is the final volume of the gas in liters? (Assume the pressure and temperature remain constant.)

A) 6.30 B) 1.05 C) 4.20 D) 8.40 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11.7 9) What is the molecular weight of a gas if a 15.0 g sample has a pressure of 836 mm Hg at 25°C in a 2.00 L flask?

(R= 0.0821 L atm/ mol K) A) 176 amu B) 1.35 amu C) 167 amu D) 11.1 amu E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.8 10) What is the pressure of a 1.0 L flask containing 0.60 g of He at 25°C? (R= 0.0821 L atm/ mol K) A) 98 atm B) 3.7 atm C) 7.3 atm D) 15 atm E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.8 11) What is the volume of 28.0 g of nitrogen gas at STP? A) 33.6 L B) 11.2 L C) 22.4 L D) 44.8 L E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11.10

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Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 12 Liquids, Solids, and Intermolecular Forces True/False Questions 1) Intermolecular forces are the attractive forces between atoms within a compound.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.1 2) The shapes of protein molecules are determined by intermolecular forces.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.1 3) Intermolecular forces determine if a substance is a solid, liquid or gas at room temperature.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.1 4) Gases typically have high densities in comparison to solids.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.2 5) Liquids can be easily compressed.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.2 6) Atoms in a solid are always arranged in a well-ordered pattern.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.2 7) Solids usually have much greater densities than gases because molecules of a solid are much farther apart.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.2 8) Without intermolecular forces, solids and liquids would not exist and all matter would be gaseous.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.3 9) The strength of the surface tension is inversely related to the strength of the intermolecular forces.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.3 10) Liquids that are viscous flow more slowly than liquids that are not viscous.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.3 11) Viscosity increases with increased intermolecular force because the molecules attract each other strongly which hinders the flow.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.3 1 ..

12) Evaporation is decreased by increasing the intermolecular forces.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 13) Compounds with very high vapor pressures must have very minimal intermolecular forces.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 14) The rate of evaporation will increase if you pour a liquid out onto a large surface.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 15) Increasing the temperature increases the vaporization rate of a liquid because the excess energy is used to break covalent bonds.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 16) Oil would be considered a nonvolatile liquid while gasoline would be considered volatile.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 17) The boiling point is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a solution is equal to the intermolecular forces.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 18) Evaporation is an endothermic process.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 19) Evaporation and condensation are opposite processes.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 20) The process of heating a pot of water from room temperature to boiling temperature is an exothermic process.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 21) Water has a heat of vaporization of 44.0 kJ/mol while the chemical diethyl ether has a heat of vaporization of 27.1 kJ/mol. This shows that one mole of water would vaporize more easily than would one mole of diethyl ether.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 22) When one mole of water vapor at 100°C condenses, it will release an amount of energy equivalent to its heat of vaporization (40.7 kJ).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4

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23) Intermolecular forces hold atoms and molecules in place in a solid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 24) The melting point is reached when sufficient energy has been added to the molecules in a substance to overcome the intermolecular forces holding them stationary.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 25) Heat is released when a liquid freezes into a solid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 26) A glass of ice water containing nine ice cubes will be colder than a similar-size glass of ice water containing only three ice cubes.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 27) Sublimation is the process of a liquid being converted directly to a gas.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 28) The heat of fusion for water is significantly more than the heat of vaporization for water because fusion requires complete separation of one molecule from another.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 29) Dispersion forces result from the temporary distortion of the electron cloud in an atom or molecule which increases in magnitude with increasing size.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 30) Dipole-dipole forces are weaker than dispersion forces.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 31) H2 boils at a higher temperature than He because H2 undergoes hydrogen bonding.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 32) Hydrogen bonding occurs whenever hydrogen is present.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 33) For hydrogen bonding to occur, a molecule must have a hydrogen atom bonded directly to a fluorine, oxygen, or nitrogen atom.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6

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34) Ice is an example of a molecular solid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 35) Atomic solids, such as graphite, have a weak dispersion force holding them together.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 36) Attraction between the Na+ cation and Cl- anion holds the solid lattice of sodium chloride together.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 37) Water has unusual physical properties which enable life to exist on earth.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.8 38) Ice can float in a glass of liquid water because the solid form of water is more dense than the liquid form.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.8 39) Compounds that are similar to water in molecular mass all exist as solids.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.8

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Intermolecular forces are responsible for: A) the taste sensations.

B) the shape of protein molecules.

C) the function of DNA. D) the existence of liquids and solids.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.1 2) Which state of matter has a high density and an indefinite shape?

A) solids B) liquids C) gases D) both solids and liquids E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.2

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3) Which state of matter has a high density and a definite volume?

A) solids B) liquids C) gases D) both solids and liquids E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.2 4) Which state of matter has a low density and an indefinite volume?

A) solids B) liquids C) gases D) both solids and liquids E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.2 5) Which state of matter has a low density and is easily compressed?

A) solids B) liquids C) gases D) both solids and liquids E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.2 6) Which statement about surface tension is FALSE? A) Liquids tend to minimize their surface area.

B) Molecules on the surface of the liquid have fewer molecules to interact with.

C) Increased intermolecular forces increase surface tension.

D) Items with densities lower than water will sink due to surface tension.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.3 7) The tendency of a liquid to minimize its surface area is called: A) capillary action.

B) viscosity.

C) surface tension.

D) vaporization.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.3

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8) The measure of the resistance to the flow of a liquid is called: A) vapor pressure.

B) sublimation.

C) viscosity.

D) condensation.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.3 9) The change of a substance from a liquid to a gaseous form is called: A) dynamic equilibrium.

B) heat of fusion.

C) condensation.

D) vaporization.

E) volatile.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 10) A situation where two opposite processes are occurring at equal rates, and no net change is taking place, is called: A) vaporization.

B) condensation.

C) evaporation.

D) dynamic equilibrium.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 11) Increasing the intermolecular forces of a liquid will do which of the following?

A) increase the viscosity B) decrease the evaporation rate C) increase the surface tension D) decrease the vapor pressure E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 12) You can increase the vapor pressure of a liquid by: A) increasing temperature.

B) increasing the viscosity.

C) establishing dynamic equilibrium.

D) using a nonvolatile compound.

E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4

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13) Which statement about boiling point is FALSE? A) The boiling point is higher for compounds with strong intermolecular forces.

B) The boiling point is higher for compounds with a high viscosity.

C) The boiling point of a compound is an absolute constant.

D) The boiling point of a compound is higher for nonvolatile compounds.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 14) Evaporation is: A) increased by increasing temperature.

B) an endothermic process.

C) the opposite process as condensation.

D) a cooling process for humans when they sweat.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 15) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Evaporation is an endothermic process.

B) A puddle of water cools down as it evaporates.

C) As a liquid is converted into a gas, the liquid absorbs heat.

D) All of the above are true.

E) None of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12.4 16) The opposite process of freezing is: A) evaporation.

B) sublimation.

C) boiling.

D) condensation.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 17) The rate of vaporization of a liquid can be increased by 1. increasing the surface area 2. increasing the temperature 3. increasing the strength of the intermolecular forces A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 only E) 2 and 3 only Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4

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18) Liquids that have high vapor pressure and low boiling points are called A) abnormal liquids.

B) volatile liquids.

C) non-volatile liquids.

D) viscous liquids.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 19) The amount of heat required to melt one mole of a solid is called the: A) heat of vaporization.

B) heat of fusion.

C) heating curve.

D) cooling curve.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 20) What is the heat of vaporization(kJ/mol) if it takes 3,452 J of heat to completely vaporize 2.68 moles of the liquid at its boiling point?

A) 1288 B) 1.29 C) 0.776 D) 12.2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12.4 21) How many joules of heat are needed to completely vaporize 24.40 grams of water at its boiling point?

Given ΔHvap = 40.6 kJ/mol A) 54.97 B) 5.50 x 104 C) 29.98 D) 3.00 x 104 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12.4 22) How many kilojoules of heat are needed to completely vaporize 42.8 g of C4H10O at its boiling point?

Given ΔHvap = 26.5kJ/mol A) 74.12 B) 9.49 C) 15.3 D) 16.3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12.4

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23) Compare a small pot of water that is boiling vigorously to a large pot of water that is boiling gently. Which statement is TRUE? A) The small pot is boiling at higher temperature than the large pot.

B) The large pot is boiling at a higher temperature than the small pot.

C) Both pots are boiling at the same temperature.

D) The vapor pressure of the liquid is greater than the pressure above the pot in each case.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12.4 24) When sufficient quantity of heat has been added to reach the boiling point of a solution, what happens to any additional heat added?

A) Additional heat is used to evaporate the liquid as the process is endothermic and requires continued input of energy.

B) Additional heat raises the temperature of the liquid which in turn increases the rate at which boiling occurs.

C) Additional heat lowers the intermolecular forces of the liquid which in turn increases the volatility of the liquid.

D) Additional heat alters the viscosity and the surface tension of the liquid which raises the vapor pressure and increases the boiling point which is why you must continually heat the solution.

E) None of the above are correct statements.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12.4 25) What happens as you start to add heat to a solid substance?

A) Thermal energy causes the components of the solid to vibrate faster.

B) When the melting point is reached, the thermal energy is sufficient to overcome intermolecular forces holding the components at their stationary points.

C) Increasing the rate of heating of a substance at its melting point only causes more rapid melting.

D) Heating of the now formed liquid results in increasing the liquid temperature.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 26) If we supply additional heat to a solid in equilibrium with its liquid at the melting point, the thermal energy added is used to: A) overcome the intermolecular forces that hold the solid together.

B) expand the solid.

C) change the liquid back to solid.

D) change solid to liquid.

E) raise the temperature of the solid above its melting point.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.5

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27) When you make ice cubes: A) it is an endothermic process.

B) it is an exothermic process.

C) the heat of vaporization must be removed.

D) the process is referred to scientifically as sublimation.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 28) Which statement is TRUE in describing what occurs when a solid melts to a liquid?

A) The process is endothermic and the heat of fusion is positive.

B) The process is endothermic and the heat of fusion is negative.

C) The process is exothermic and the heat of fusion is positive.

D) The process is exothermic and the heat of fusion is negative.

E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 29) How much energy does it take to melt a 16.87 g ice cube? ΔHfus = 6.02 kJ/mol A) 102 kJ B) 108 kJ C) 936 J D) 5.64 kJ E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12.5 30) How many grams of C4H10O can be melted by 1.00 x 103 J? Given ΔHfus = 7.27 kJ/mol A) 14.5 B) 3.64 C) 20.4 D) 74.1 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12.5 31) In northern climates, it is common to have a layer of frost form on cars that have been out overnight in the winter. During the day the frost layer disappears despite its temperature remaining below freezing. How? A) The frost melts due to the sun heating the surface of the car above the melting point.

B) The frost evaporates due to the sun heating the solid.

C) The frost cycles as does the saturation level of moisture in the winter air does from night to day.

D) The frost sublimes directly from solid ice to water vapor.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.5

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32) A mothball can change directly from its solid phase to its gaseous phase. This process is known as: A) deposition.

B) melting.

C) condensation.

D) sublimation.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 33) Which intermolecular force is present in all molecules and atoms?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) X-forces E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 34) Which intermolecular force is due to the formation of an instantaneous dipole?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) X-forces E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 35) Which intermolecular force increases with increasing molar mass?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) X-forces E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 36) Which noble gas has the highest boiling point?

A) He B) Ne C) Ar D) Kr E) Xe Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6

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37) Assuming that the molecules carbon monoxide (CO) and nitrogen (N 2) have similar electron clouds, which statement below is TRUE? A) CO has the higher boiling point because it experiences dipole-dipole forces.

B) N2 has the higher boiling point because it experiences dipole-dipole forces.

C) The N2 has the higher boiling point because it has greater dispersion forces.

D) Both CO and N2 must have the same boiling point.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12.6 38) Which intermolecular force is common to all polar molecules but NOT nonpolar molecules?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) X-forces E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 39) Substance A is a molecular compound that dissolves in gasoline but not in water. The molecules of A are very likely: A) metallic.

B) nonmetallic.

C) polar.

D) nonpolar.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 40) Which substance is most likely to be miscible with water?

A) CF4 B) Br2 C) CS2 D) CHCl3 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12.6 41) Which statement below is FALSE? A) A hydrogen bond is the strongest of the intermolecular forces.

B) A hydrogen atom must be bonded directly to fluorine, oxygen, or nitrogen to exhibit hydrogen bonding.

C) The large electronegativity difference between hydrogen and an F, O, or N atom is essential for the formation of a hydrogen bond.

D) A hydrogen bond is only 2-5% the strength of a typical covalent bond.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12.6

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42) Which molecule below has hydrogen bonding?

A) CH4 B) HCl C) H2 D) CH3CH2OH E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 43) Which molecule below has hydrogen bonding?

A) NH3 B) CH3OH C) H2O D) HF E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 44) Which compound will have the highest boiling point?

A) CH4 B) CH3 CH3 C) CH3C(O)CH3 D) CH3CH2OH E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 45) Which substance would be expected to have the highest boiling point?

A) N2 B) O2 C) CO2 D) CO E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12.6 46) Which compound in liquid form will have the highest vapor pressure?

A) CH4 B) CH3CH3 C) CH3C(O)CH3 D) CH3CH2OH E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6

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47) Which intermolecular force is the strongest?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) X-forces E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 48) Which intermolecular forces are found in CCl4?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) X-forces E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 49) Which intermolecular forces are found in CO2?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) dispersion forces and dipole-dipole forces E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 50) Rank the compounds NH3, CH4, and PH3 in order of increasing boiling point.

A) NH3 < CH4< PH3 B) CH4< NH3 < PH3 C) NH3 < PH3< CH4 D) CH4 < PH3 < NH3 E) PH3< NH3 < CH4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12.6 51) Which intermolecular force found in CCl2H2 is the strongest?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) X-forces E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12.6

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52) What types of forces exist between I2 molecules?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) ion-dipole forces E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12.6 53) Dry ice (solid CO2) is which type of solid?

A) molecular solid B) ionic solid C) covalent atomic solid D) nonbonding atomic solid E) metallic atomic solid Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 54) NaCl is which type of solid?

A) molecular solid B) ionic solid C) covalent atomic solid D) nonbonding atomic solid E) metallic atomic solid Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 55) Silicon is which type of solid?

A) molecular solid B) ionic solid C) covalent atomic solid D) nonbonding atomic solid E) metallic atomic solid Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 56) Copper is which type of solid?

A) molecular solid B) ionic solid C) covalent atomic solid D) nonbonding atomic solid E) metallic atomic solid Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.7

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57) Which atomic solid has the highest melting point?

A) Cu B) Si C) Xe D) Fe E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 58) What are the principal forces holding ice together?

A) dispersion forces only B) electrostatic attraction C) intermolecular forces D) sea of electrons E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 59) Why is water considered an unusual molecule?

A) No molecule of similar size is a liquid at room temperature.

B) No molecule of similar size has as high a boiling point.

C) Water can dissolve many polar and ionic compounds.

D) Water expands upon freezing.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.8 60) The reason for many of the unique properties of water is: A) dispersion forces.

B) the ability to form hydrogen bonds.

C) high surface tension and low volatility.

D) moderate viscosity and expanding upon freezing.

E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.8 61) Which sequence correctly shows the increasing density of the three phases of water?

A) solid < liquid < gas B) gas < liquid < solid C) gas < solid < liquid D) liquid < gas < solid E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12.8

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Algorithmic Questions 1) How many kJ of heat are needed to completely vaporize 3.30 moles of H2O? The heat of vaporization for water at the boiling point is 40.6 kJ/mole.

A) 12.3 B) 134 C) 67.0 D) 2.26 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12.4 2) How many kJ of heat are needed to completely vaporize 23.4 g of H2O? The heat of vaporization for water at the boiling point is 40.6 kJ/mole.

A) 31.2 B) 52.8 C) 23.4 D) 2.26 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12.4 3) A 250 gram sample of water at the boiling point had 45.0 kJ of heat added. How many grams of water were vaporized? Heat of vaporization for water is 40.6 kJ/mole.

A) 1.11 B) 20.0 C) 0.902 D) 16.2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12.4 4) How many kJ of heat are needed to completely melt 1.70 moles of H2O, given that the water is at its melting point? The heat of fusion for water is 6.02 kJ/mole.

A) 30.6 B) 10.2 C) 3.54 D) 63.7 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12.5

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5) How many kJ of heat are needed to completely melt 17.3 g of H2O, given that the water is at its melting point?

The heat of fusion for water is 6.02 kJ/mole.

A) 0.961 B) 5.79 C) 1.04 D) 6.26 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12.5

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Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 13 Solutions True/False Questions 1) The tragedy at Lake Nyos in Cameroon, West Africa was due to the sudden release of excessive amounts of nitrogen dissolved in the lake water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.1 2) The tragedy at Lake Nyos in Cameroon, West Africa, was due to the sudden release of excessive amounts of carbon monoxide dissolved in the lake water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.1 3) A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 4) Air is an example of a gaseous solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 5) Steel is an example of a solid solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 6) The minor component in a solution is called the solvent.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 7) The major component in a solution is called the solute.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 8) The fact that the oceans contain salt water shows that polar solvents dissolve ionic solutes.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 9) Ionic solutes typically dissolve in nonpolar solvents.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 10) When a chunk of gold is melted and poured into the shape of an ingot, an aqueous solution of gold has been created.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.2

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11) Solubility is formally defined as the amount of a compound that can be dissolved in water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 12) A saturated solution holds the maximum amount of solute under the solution conditions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 13) A supersaturated solution is unstable and crystallization usually occurs.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 14) Salt water is an example of a strong electrolyte solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 15) A sugar solution is an example of a weak electrolyte solution.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 16) The solubility of solids in water generally increases with increasing temperature.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 17) Tap water contains dissolved nitrogen and oxygen.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 18) The solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 19) Warm beer goes flat quicker than cold beer.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 20) The solubility of gases in water increases with increasing pressure above the water.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 21) Sugar solutions conduct electricity because the dissolved particles are molecules.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 22) Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin, so it is likely that this vitamin is polar.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3

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23) A solution that is 35 percent by mass NaCl contains 35 grams of NaCl dissolved in 100 grams of water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.5 24) A solution that is 13.58 percent by mass of sugar contains 13.75 grams of sugar dissolved in 87.5 grams of water.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.5 25) Molarity is defined as the moles of solute per liter of solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 26) The molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 15.0 grams of NaCl in 1000 mL water is 0.15 M. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.6 27) One liter of 6.0 M HNO3 contains the same number of H+ ions as does one liter of 6.0 M H2SO4.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.6 28) If 50 grams of salt dissolves into 250 grams of water, the resulting solution must have a mass of 300 grams.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.7 29) A stock solution is a more concentrated form than what is typically used in a lab. It often requires further dilution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.7 30) Upon completing a dilution from a stock solution, you will always have more volume of solution than you started with and it will have a lower concentration than the stock solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.7 31) Molality is calculated by dividing grams of solute by kilograms of solution.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 32) Colligative properties are independent of the amount of solute in solution.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 33) Adding a nonvolatile solute to a liquid will cause boiling point depression and freezing point elevation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.9

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34) A sample of salt water will freeze at a higher temperature than a sample of pure water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 35) A 0.10 molality solution of the sugar glucose (molecular weight = 180.10 g/mol) and a 0.10 molality solution of sucrose (molecular weight = 342.34 g/mol) would both boil at the same temperature.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 36) A semipermeable membrane allows only half the amount of a substance to pass through it.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.10 37) Osmosis is the process in which a solvent moves from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.10 38) Osmotic pressure is the pressure required to completely reverse the direction of solvent movement in osmosis.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.10

Multiple Choice Questions 1) The tragedy at Lake Nyos in Cameroon, West Africa, was caused by: A) the release of excessive amounts of nitrogen gas that had been dissolved in the water at the bottom of the lake.

B) the release of excessive amounts of oxygen gas that had been dissolved in the water at the bottom of the lake.

C) the release of excessive amounts of carbon dioxide that had been dissolved in the water at the bottom of the lake.

D) the release of excess water stored in the volcanic lake which flooded the village below.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.1 2) Which of the following substances is NOT a solution?

A) air B) brass C) vodka D) copper E) All of the above are solutions.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.2

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3) Which of the following substances is NOT a solution?

A) humid air B) beer C) oxygen D) steel E) All of the above are solutions.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 4) Which of the following substances is NOT a solution?

A) homogenized milk B) bronze C) sea water D) soda E) All of the above are solutions.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 5) Suppose a vodka martini contains 30% alcohol with the remaining portion of the drink composed of water.

What is the solute in this type of martini?

A) water B) alcohol C) ice D) olive E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 6) The oxygen in the air we breath is classified as: A) the solute in a homogeneous gas mixture.

B) the solvent in a homogeneous gas mixture.

C) the solute in a heterogeneous gas-liquid mixture.

D) the solvent in a simple mixture.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 7) Hexane, a nonpolar solvent, will dissolve which of the following substances?

A) sodium chloride B) oil C) ammonium acetate D) vinegar (acetic acid) E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.2

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8) Which of these compounds would you expect to be least soluble in water?

A) CH3OH B) NaCl C) N2 D) NH3 E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 9) In order for a solute to dissolve in solution: A) the solute-solvent forces must be greater than the solute-solute forces.

B) the solute-solute forces must be greater than the solute-solvent forces.

C) the solute-solvent forces must equal the solute-solute forces.

D) the polarity of the solute and solvent must be opposite.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 10) If the solubility of sodium acetate (Molar mass = 82 g/mol) is 76 grams per 100 grams of water, which of the following solutions would be considered supersaturated?

A) 8.5 moles of sodium acetate dissolved in 1 L of water B) 5.5 moles of sodium acetate dissolved in 500 mL of water C) 1.8 moles of sodium acetate dissolved in 300 mL of water D) 1.2 moles of sodium acetate dissolved in 200 mL of water E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.3 11) If the solubility of sodium chloride is 36 grams per 100 grams of water, which of the following solutions would be considered unsaturated?

A) 5.8 moles of NaCl dissolved in 1 L of water B) 3.25 moles of NaCL dissolved in 500 ml of water C) 1.85 moles of NaCl dissolved in 300 ml of water D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.3 12) The solubility of Pb(NO3)2 is 55 grams per 100 g H2O at 20°C. Which term would properly describe a solution where 44 grams of Pb(NO3)2 is added to 100 grams of water at this temperature?

A) insoluble B) unsaturated C) saturated D) supersaturated E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3

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13) If you prepare a solution by adding sufficient amount of solute so that after heating and cooling the solution there is a visible amount of solid solute left in the bottom of the beaker, the solution would be considered ________.

A) unsaturated.

B) saturated.

C) supersaturated.

D) thermally saturated.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 14) Which of the following compounds is a strong electrolyte?

A) HCl B) NaCl C) NH4Cl D) NaC2H3O2 E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 15) Which of the following compounds is a strong electrolyte?

A) C6H12O6 B) C7H14O5 C) C4H8O2 D) NaC2H3O2 E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 16) The solubility of solids in water: A) is independent of the temperature.

B) increases with increasing temperature.

C) decreases with increasing temperature.

D) Solids are not soluble in water.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 17) The solubility of solids in water: A) is independent of pressure above solution.

B) increases with increasing pressure above solution.

C) decreases with increasing pressure above solution.

D) Solids are not soluble in water.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3

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18) When an ionic compound dissolves in water: A) the solvent-solute attractive forces overcome the solute-solute attractions.

B) the positive end of water dipoles attract the negative ions.

C) the negative end of water dipoles attract the positive ions.

D) each of the above (A, B, and C) occurs.

E) none of the above (A, B, or C) occurs.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 19) Which among the following is NOT true about the solubility of a solid in water?

A) The solubility is not affected by pressure.

B) The solubility generally increases as temperature increases.

C) Solid crystallizes when a saturated solution is prepared at a higher temperature and then cooled.

D) A saturated solution prepared at a lower temperature becomes unsaturated when heated to a higher temperature.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 20) Solubility of gases in water: A) is independent of pressure above solution.

B) increases with increasing pressure above solution.

C) decreases with increasing pressure above solution.

D) Gases are not soluble in water.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 21) The solubility of gases in water: A) is independent of temperature.

B) increases with increasing temperature.

C) decreases with increasing temperature.

D) gases are not soluble in water.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 22) The solubility of a gas in a liquid can always be increased by: A) increasing the temperature of the solvent.

B) decreasing the polarity of the solvent.

C) decreasing the pressure of the gas above the solvent.

D) increasing the pressure of the gas above the solvent.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.4

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23) A solution is saturated in both nitrogen gas (N2) and sodium iodide (NaI) at 50°C. When the solution is cooled to 25°C, which of the following is most likely to occur?

A) Some nitrogen gas bubbles out of solution.

B) Some sodium iodide will precipitate out of solution.

C) Both A) and B) will happen.

D) Nothing will happen.

E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.4 24) When preparing sodium hydroxide solution, it is best to use water that does not contain any dissolved carbon dioxide as it reacts with the sodium hydroxide. Removing the carbon dioxide can be accomplished by: A) vigorously stirring the solution.

B) using water fresh out of the purification system.

C) boiling the water.

D) Nothing can be done to remove dissolved gases.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 25) We dissolve 2.45 g of sugar in 200.0 g water. What is the mass percent of sugar in the solution?

A) 1.21% B) 1.23% C) 2.42% D) 123% E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.5 26) A solution contains 100.0 g water, 10.0 g NaCl, and 15.0 g methanol. What is the weight percent of methanol in the solution?

A) 8.00% B) 10.0% C) 12.0% D) 15.0% E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.5 27) What is the mass percent of a solution prepared by dissolving 18.9 grams of solid into 39.5 grams of water?

A) 47.8% B) 58.4% C) 32.4% D) The identity of the compound must be known.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.5

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28) What is the mass percent of an ammonium carbonate solution prepared by dissolving 33.2 grams of solid into of water?

A) 84.1% B) 72.7% C) 45.7% D) 54.3% E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.5 29) What is the mass percent of a sodium fluoride solution prepared by dissolving 0.64 moles of sodium fluoride into 63.5 grams of water?

A) 26.9% B) 42.3% C) 70.3% D) 29.7% E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.5 30) How many grams of a 23.4% by mass NaF solution is needed if you want to have 1.33 moles of NaF? A) 55.9 B) 31.1 C) 13.1 D) 239 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.5 31) How many moles of NaF are in 34.2 grams of a 45.5% by mass NaF solution?

A) 0.814 B) 75.2 C) 15.6 D) 0.371 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.5 32) What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 10.7 g NaI in 0.250 L? A) 42.8 B) 0.0714 C) 2.86x 10-4 D) 0.286 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.6

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33) You need to prepare 2.00 L of 0.100 M Na 2CO3 solution. The best procedure is to weigh out A) 10.6 g Na2CO3 and add 2.00 L of water to it.

B) 21.2 g Na2CO3 and add 2.00 L of water to it.

C) 10.6 g Na2CO3 and add water until the final solution has a volume of 2.00 L. D) 21.2 g Na2CO3 and add water until the final solution has a volume of 2.00 L. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.6 34) Given that you wished to use exactly 0.325 mole of NaCl to prepare a 2.50 M NaCl solution, how many milliliters of solution must you prepare?

A) 130. mL B) 0.130 mL C) 7.69 mL D) 0.813 mL E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 35) How many moles of KOH are contained in 750. mL of 5.00 M KOH solution?

A) 6.67 mol B) 3.75 × mol C) 56.1 mol D) 3.75 mol E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 36) What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 54.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 into 355 mL of water?

A) 0.331 M B) 0.932 M C) 0.117 M D) 1.99 M E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.6 37) A 90.0 g sample of NaOH is dissolved in water and the solution is diluted to give a final volume of 3.00 liters.

The molarity of the final solution is ________.

A) 0.500 M B) 0.750 M C) 1.00 M D) 2.25 M E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.6

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38) How many grams of KCl are needed to make 50.0 mL of 2.45 M KCl? A) 9.13 B) 1.52 C) 91.3 D) 0.123 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.6 39) How many grams of LiF would be present in 575 mL of 0.750 M LiF solution?

A) 11.2 B) 0.0338 C) 1.12 × 104 D) 19.9 E) 33.8 Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.6 40) How many liters of a 2.18 M solution can be made from 200.0 g K2S? A) 0.832 B) 1.81 C) 0.252 D) 1.20 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.6 41) A 0.15 M solution of BaCl2 contains: A) 0.15 M Ba2+ ions and 0.15 M Cl- ions.

B) 0.15 M Ba2+ ions and 0.30 M Cl- ions.

C) 0.30 M Ba2+ ions and 0.15 M Cl- ions.

D) 0.30 M Ba2+ ions and 0.30 M Cl- ions.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.6 42) What are the ion concentrations in a 0.12 M solution of AlCl 3?

A) 0.36 M Al3+ ions and 0.12 M Cl- ions B) 0.12 M Al3+ ions and 0.040 M Cl- ions C) 0.12 M Al3+ ions and 0.36 M Cl- ions D) 0.040 M Al3+ ions and 0.040 M Cl- ions E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.6

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43) Which solution below contains the highest total quantity of dissolved sodium ions?

A) 100. mL of 4.0 M NaCl B) 75.0 mL of 3.0 M Na2SO4 C) 50.0 mL of 8.0 M NaOH D) 50.0 mL of 2.0 M Na3PO4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.6 44) After you have completed the task of diluting a solution, which statement below must be TRUE? A) The new solution has more volume but has a lower concentration than before.

B) The new solution has more volume but has a higher concentration than before.

C) The new solution has less volume but has a lower concentration than before.

D) The new solution has less volume but has a higher concentration than before.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 45) Oftentimes solubility of a compound limits the concentration of the solution that can be prepared. Use the solubility data given with each compound shown below to determine which compound would allow the preparation of a 10.0 Molar solution.

A) AgNO3 (solubility = 122 g/100 g H2O) B) KCl (solubility = 34.0 g/100 g H2O) C) NaNO3 (solubility = 89.0 g/100 g H2O) D) NH4Cl (solubility = 41.1 g/100 g H2O) E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.6 46) What is the final concentration of a solution prepared by diluting 35.0 mL of 12.0 M HCl to a final volume of ?

A) 0.504 M B) 3.50 M C) 0.420 M D) 0.350 M E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.7 47) What volume of 12.0 M HCl is required to make 75.0 mL of 3.50 M HCl? A) 21.9 mL B) 0.560 mL C) 257 mL D) 560. mL E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.7 48) What volume of 9.00 M nitric acid is needed to make 6.50 L of 1.25 M solution?

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A) 903 mL B) 1.73 L C) 1.10 L D) 748 mL E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.7 49) What molarity should the stock solution be if you want to dilute 25.0 mL to 2.00 L and have the final concentration be 0.103 M? A) 0.206 M B) 8.24 M C) 4.12 M D) 0.243 M E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.7 50) If you add 4.00 mL of pure water to 6.00 mL of 0.750 M NaCl solution, what is the concentration of sodium chloride in the diluted solution?

A) 0.250 M B) 0.450 M C) 0.500 M D) 1.13 M E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.7 51) How many grams of barium sulfate are produced if 25.34 mL of 0.113 M BaCl2 completely react given the reaction: BaCl2 (aq) + Na2SO4(aq) → BaSO4 (s) + 2NaCl (aq) A) 5.90 B) 26.3 C) 1039 D) 0.668 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.8 52) What is the concentration of sodium chloride in the final solution if 25.34 mL of 0.113 M BaCl2 completely reacts and the total volume of the reaction is 110.4 mL, given the reaction: BaCl2 (aq) + Na2SO4(aq) → BaSO4 (s) + 2NaCl (aq) A) 0.226 B) 0.0259 C) 0.0519 14 ..

D) 0.667 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.8 53) How many mL of 0.218 M sodium sulfate react with exactly 25.34 mL of 0.113 M BaCl2 given the reaction: BaCl2 (aq) + Na2SO4(aq) → BaSO4 (s) + 2NaCl (aq) A) 13.1 B) 5.52 C) 24.6 D) 2.86 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.8 54) How many milliliters of 0.755 M H2SO4 solution is needed to react with 55.0 mL of 2.50 M KOH solution?

Given: 2 KOH (aq) + H2SO4 (aq) → 2 H2O (l) + K2SO4 (aq) A) 51.9 mL B) 182 mL C) 91.1 mL D) 17200 mL E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.8 55) Which of the following statements about colligative properties is FALSE? A) The boiling point of a solution is increased by the addition of salt.

B) The freezing point of a solution is lowered by the addition of salt.

C) The change in temperature is proportional to the molality.

D) The identity of the solute is not a factor.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 56) In comparing a 0.25 molality aqueous NaCl solution to a 0.25 molality aqueous CaCl 2 solution, A) the NaCl solution has the higher boiling point and the lower freezing point.

B) the CaCl2 solution has the higher boiling point and the lower freezing point.

C) the NaCl solution has the higher boiling point and the CaCl 2 solution has the lower freezing point.

D) the CaCl2 solution has the higher boiling point and the NaCl solution has the lower freezing point.

E) both solutions have the same boiling point and the same freezing point.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.9

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57) What is the molality of a solution made by dissolving 14.7 g of C6H12O6 into 150.0 mL of water? Assume the density of water is 1.00 g/mL. A) 0.544 B) 0.0816 C) 10.2 D) 0.980 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.9 58) What is the change in the boiling point of a solution made by dissolving 14.7 g of C 6H12O6 into 150.0 mL of water? The density of water is 1.00 g/mL and Kb = 0.512°C/m.

A) 0.502°C B) 5.22°C C) 0.0418°C D) 0.279°C E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.9 59) What is the change in the freezing point of a solution made by dissolving 14.7 g of C6H12O6 into 150.0 mL of water? The density of water is 1.00 g/mL and Kf = 1.86°C/m.

A) 0.152°C B) 1.01°C C) 18.97°C D) 1.82°C E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.9 60) Why is NOT a good idea to drink seawater when people are lost at sea?

A) The high concentration of salt forces water out of the cells lining your stomach and intestine.

B) The osmotic pressure builds up in the cells of your intestine until they potentially rupture.

C) The semipermeable membrane protecting your stomach is ruptured during osmosis.

D) The seawater has fish urine in it and who wants to drink that?

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.10 61) What will happen if a healthy red blood cell is placed into a container of pure water?

A) The cell will totally dissolve in the water.

B) The cell will remain unchanged.

C) The cell will become swollen.

D) The cell will shrink.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.10

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62) Solution A has a concentration of 0.10 M sugar and Solution B has a concentration of 0.20 M sugar. If the two solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane, which of the following occurs during osmosis?

A) Solvent molecules move from B into A. B) Sugar molecules move from B into A. C) The molarity of A increases.

D) The molarity of B increases.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.10 63) An osmosis cell is constructed of a "U" shaped tube with a semipermeable membrane separating the two arms of the tube. Suppose a concentrated solution is placed in the left arm of the U-tube, and a dilute concentration of the same substance is poured into the other arm to the same height. After a period of time has elapsed, you would expect to find that A) the level of liquid in the left arm is now higher.

B) the level of the liquid in the right arm is now higher.

C) the levels in both arms stay at the same height.

D) no molecules of any type cross the membrane.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.10 64) Osmotic pressure is: A) the pressure required to stop the flow of solvent from a region of high solute concentration to a region of low solute concentration.

B) the pressure required to stop the rupture of the semipermeable membrane.

C) the pressure required to reverse the flow of solvent through a semipermeable membrane during osmosis.

D) the pressure required to stop the flow of solvent from a region of low solute concentration through a semipermeable membrane into a region of high solute concentration.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13.10

Algorithmic Questions 1) Calculate the mass percent of a NaCl solution prepared by mixing 47.0 g NaCl with 125.0 mL of pure water.

A) 27.3 B) 72.3 C) 47.0 D) 37.6 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.5

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2) Calculate the molarity of a KCl solution prepared by dissolving 0.525 moles of KCl in 250. mL of water.

A) 0.476 B) 0.00210 C) 2.10 D) 2.02 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.6 3) Calculate the molarity of a KCl solution made by dissolving 24.7 g of KCl in a total volume of 500. mL. A) 0.331 B) 0.663 C) 0.166 D) 6.04 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.6 4) How many moles of KCl are present in 95.3 mL of2.10 M KCl? A) 0.0500 B) 5.00 C) 20.0 D) 0.200 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.6 5) How many grams of KCl are present in 75.0 mL of 2.10 M KCl? A) 5.59 B) 117 C) 2.66 D) 11.7 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.6 6) What volume (L) of 2.00 M KCl solution contains 25.0 g of KCl? A) 0.335 B) 0.168 C) 0.672 D) 1.49 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.6

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7) What is the final concentration (M) of a solution prepared by diluting 50.0 mL of a 6.00 M KCl solution to a volume of 0.500 L? A) 1.67 B) 0.600 C) 0.0167 D) 3.0 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.7 8) How many mL of 0.112 M Pb(N O3)2 are needed to completely react with 25.0 mL of 0.105 M KI? Given: Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2 (s) + 2KNO3(aq) A) 11.7 B) 23.4 C) 0.147 D) 5.85 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.8 9) Calculate the molality of a solution prepared by dissolving 19.9 g of KCl in 750.0 mL of water.

A) 0.200 B) 0.356 C) 4.99 D) 0.267 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13.9 10) Given that the freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86°C kg/mol, calculate the change in freezing point for a 0.907 M sugar solution.

A) 0.488°C B) 2.05°C C) 0.592°C D) 1.69°C E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 13.9

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Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 14 Acids and Bases True/False Questions 1) Acids have a bitter taste.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.1 2) Acids produce H⁺ ions in solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.1 3) Acids turn litmus paper blue.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.2 4) The main component of stomach acid is sulfuric acid.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.2 5) The main component of vinegar is acetic acid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.2 6) Bases have a bitter taste.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 7) Bases feel slippery.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 8) Bases feel slippery because they react with oils on your skin to form soap-like substances.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 9) Sodium hydroxide is often used in the manufacturing of soap.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 10) The sour taste of bases warns humans against eating poisonous alkaloids found in some plants.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 11) An Arrhenius base is a proton acceptor.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 1 ..

12) A Bronsted-Lowry acid is a proton donor.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 13) H⁺ is called the hydronium ion.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 14) A conjugate acid-base pair are two substances related to each other by the transfer of a proton.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 15) The conjugate base to HSO4- is SO42-.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.4 16) H2SO3 and H2SO4 are considered an acid-base conjugate pair.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 17) The products of a neutralization reaction are carbon dioxide and water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.5 18) The salt that forms due to neutralization of phosphoric acid by calcium hydroxide has the formula Ca 3P2.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.5 19) When a metal reacts with an acid it produces salt and water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.5 20) Aluminum is one of the few metals that dissolves in a strong base.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.5 21) In a titration, the indicator is used to signal when the endpoint has been reached.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.6 22) A 100 mL sample of 4.0 M H2SO4 could be neutralized by 100 mL of 4.0 M NH3.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.6 23) A strong acid is one that completely dissociates into ions in solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.7

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24) The equation HCl (aq) + H2O (l) ↔ H3O+ (aq) + Cl- (aq) properly depicts the behavior of hydrochloric acid in water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 25) A strong acid must also be a strong electrolyte.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 26) A strong acid is one that is very concentrated.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 27) A weak acid is a dilute acid that is not very powerful.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 28) In general, the stronger the acid, the weaker is its conjugate base.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 29) Water always acts as an acid in reactions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 30) A neutral solution does not contain any H⁺ or OH⁻.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 31) The ion product constant for water (Kw) is best stated as Kw = [H2O] [H+].

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 32) A solution of pH 2 contains ten times more H3O+ than a solution of pH 3.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 33) The pH of 0.001 M HCl is 3.0.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 34) The pH of a 0.0001 M NaOH solution is 4.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 35) A solution that has a pH of 8.5 is considered a weak base.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 3 ..

36) A pH of 7 is equivalent to a pOH of 7.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 37) A solution that has a pH of 10 would also have a pOH of 4.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 38) A buffer resists a change in pH by being able to react with an acid or a base.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.10 39) The burning of fossil fuels produces nitrogen oxides and sulfur oxides which can react to form acid rain (nitric and sulfuric acids).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.11 40) Rain is naturally somewhat acidic because of atmospheric carbon dioxide.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.11

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is NOT a property of acids?

A) Acids have a slippery feel.

B) Acids have a sour taste.

C) Acids turn litmus paper red.

D) Acids dissolve many metals.

E) All of the above are properties of acids.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.2 2) Which of the following statements about acids are TRUE? 1. An acid is used in car batteries.

2. The active ingredient of vinegar is an acid.

3. Acids are used for cleaning metals.

A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2, or 3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.2

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3) Carboxylic acids can be found in A) grapes.

B) apples.

C) lemons.

D) all of the above E) none of these Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.2 4) Which among the following acids is commonly used for etching and frosting glass?

A) Hydrochloric acid B) Nitric acid C) Hydrofluoric acid D) Hydrobromic acid E) All of the above are used.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.2 5) Which of the following acids is commonly used for manufacturing fertilizer?

A) HCl B) HN C) HF D) HBr E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.2 6) Which of the following is NOT a property of bases?

A) Bases have a slippery feel.

B) Bases have a bitter taste.

C) Bases turn litmus paper blue.

D) Bases dissolve many metals.

E) All of the above are properties of bases.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 7) Which of the following statements about a base are TRUE? 1. Bases are used in the manufacturing of soap.

2. Bases have a sour taste.

3. Fertilizer manufacture and cotton processing use bases.

A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2, or 3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.3

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8) Which of the following common bases is commonly used for manufacturing fertilizer?

A) NH3 B) NaHCO3 C) KOH D) NaOH E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 9) Which of the following is the active ingredient of baking soda?

A) NH3 B) NaHCO3 C) KOH D) NaOH E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 10) The Arrhenius definition of an acid is: A) a proton donor.

B) a proton acceptor.

C) produces H⁺ in solution.

D) produces OH⁻ in solution.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 11) The Bronsted-Lowry definition of a base is: A) a proton donor.

B) a proton acceptor.

C) produces H⁺ in solution.

D) produces OH⁻ in solution.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 12) The Bronsted-Lowry definition of an acid is: A) a proton donor.

B) a proton acceptor.

C) produces H⁺ in solution.

D) produces OH⁻ in solution.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.4

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13) Which of the following is NOT true?

A) The Bronsted-Lowry Model applies to a wider range of acid-base phenomena than does the Arrhenius Model.

B) The Arrhenius Model of acids and bases was developed before the Bronsted-Lowry Model.

C) The Bronsted-Lowry Model can apply to bases that do not contain hydroxide ions.

D) The Arrhenius Model of acids and bases applies toward substances that are nonaqueous.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 14) In examining the formula for acetic acid, HC 2H3O2, the ionizable hydrogen atom(s) is/are A) the H on the left.

B) one of the H's on the right-side.

C) all of the H's on the right-side.

D) all four H's.

E) none of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 15) Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair?

A) H2CO3 and HCO3B) H2O and OHC) H2S and OHD) NH4+ and NH3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.4 16) In the following reaction: HCO3- (aq) + H2O (aq) → H2CO3 (aq) + OH- (aq) A) HCO3- is an acid and H2CO3 is its conjugate base.

B) H2O is an acid and OH- is its conjugate base.

C) HCO3- is an acid and OH- is its conjugate base.

D) H2O is an acid and H2CO3 is its conjugate base.

E) H2O is an acid and HCO3- is its conjugate base.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.4 17) In the following reaction: NH4+ (aq) + H2O (aq) → NH3 (aq) + H3O+ (aq) A) NH4+ is an acid and H2O is its conjugate base.

B) H2O is a base and NH3 is its conjugate acid.

C) NH4+ is an acid and H3O+ is its conjugate base.

D) H2O is a base and H3O+ is its conjugate acid.

E) NH4+ is a base and H2O is its conjugate acid.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.4

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18) What is the conjugate acid of OH⁻?

A) O2B) H2O C) NaOH D) OH⁻ E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.4 19) What is the conjugate base of H2O? A) O2B) H2O+ C) NaOH D) OH⁻ E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.4 20) A substance that acts as an acid or a base is called A) isoprotic.

B) a salt.

C) amphoteric.

D) hydrophillic.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 21) What are the products of a neutralization reaction?

A) salt and carbon dioxide B) carbon dioxide and water C) water and salt D) oil and water E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.5 22) When an acid reacts with a metal, what is one of the usual products?

A) water B) salt C) carbon dioxide D) hydrogen gas E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.5

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23) A neutralization reaction between an acid and sodium hydroxide formed water and the salt named sodium sulfate. What was the formula of the acid that was neutralized?

A) H2S B) H2SO4 C) HCl D) Na2SO4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.5 24) A 25.0 ml sample of 0.105 M HCl was titrated with 31.5 ml of NaOH. What is the concentration of the NaOH? A) 0.0833 M B) 0.132 M C) 0.105 M D) 0.075 M E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 14.6 25) A 35.0 mL sample of 0.225 M HBr was titrated with 42.3 mL of KOH. What is the concentration of the KOH? A) 0.157 M B) 0.303 M C) 0.272 M D) 0.186 M E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 14.6 26) Exactly 17.0 mL of a H2SO4 solution was required to neutralize 45.0 mL of 0.235 M NaOH. What was the concentration of the H2SO4 solution?

GIVEN: H2SO4 (aq) + 2NaOH (aq) → 2H2O (l) + Na2SO4 (aq) A) 5.63 M B) 0.622 M C) 0.00529 M D) 0.311 M E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 14.6 27) Pure water cannot conduct electricity so why do we have to be careful with electrical appliances near water?

A) OSHA regulations B) Water can be broken down by electricity.

C) Water always has some ions dissolved in it.

D) Water dissociates fully into its ions.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.7

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28) Which of the following acids is diprotic?

A) HClO4 B) HNO3 C) HI D) H2SO4 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.7 29) Which of the following acids is a diprotic, weak acid?

A) sulfuric acid B) phosphoric acid C) hydrobromic acid D) carbonic acid E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.7 30) Which of the following acids is a monoprotic, strong acid?

A) sulfuric acid B) phosphoric acid C) hydrobromic acid D) carbonic acid E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.7 31) A 0.10 M solution of an electrolyte has a pH of 4.5. The electrolyte is: A) a strong acid.

B) a strong base.

C) a weak acid.

D) a weak base.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.7 32) What is the concentration of H⁺ in 2.0 M acetic acid, HC2H3O2?

A) 1.0 M B) 2.0 M C) >2.0 M D) < 2.0 M E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.7

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33) What is the concentration of H⁺ in 0.50 M hydroiodic acid?

A) 0.50 M B) 1.0 M C) <0.50 M D) 1.50 M E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.7 34) Which of the following is a weak base?

A) calcium hydroxide B) sodium fluoride C) potassium hydroxide D) ammonia E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 35) Ammonia (NH3) ionizes in water to form a basic solution. What is the concentration of OH - ions in a 0.75 M NH3 solution?

A) 0.75 M B) < 0.75 M C) > 0.75 M D) No OH- ions exist in a solution of NH3.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.7 36) Consider a 1.6 × 10-3 M solution of HNO3. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A) This solution would turn litmus to red.

B) This solution could neutralize a base.

C) This solution has a pH of 11.20.

D) This solution could dissolve metal.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 37) Substances that can act both as an acid and as a base are called: A) neutral.

B) buffers.

C) indicators.

D) amphoteric.

E) none of these Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.8

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38) What is the concentration of the hydronium ions in a neutral solution?

A) 0.0 M B) 1.0 × 10-7 M C) 1.0 × 10-14 M D) > 1.0× 10-7 M E) < 1.0× 10-7 M Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.8 39) What is the concentration of the hydroxide ions in an acidic solution?

A) 0.0 M B) 1.0× 10-7 M C) 1.0 × 10-14 M D) > 1.0× 10-7 M E) < 1.0× 10-7 M Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.8 40) What is the concentration of the hydronium ions in an acidic solution?

A) 0.0 M B) 1.0 × 10-7 M C) 1.0 × 10-14 M D) > 1.0 × 10-7 M E) < 1.0 × 10-7 M Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.8 41) What is the value of the ion product constant for water (Kw)?

A) 0.0 B) 1.0 × 10-7 C) 1.0 × 10-14 D) 1.0 × 1014 E) 1.0 × 107 Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.8 42) What is the concentration of the hydroxide ion given that the concentration of the hydronium ion is 1.5 × 10-5 M? A) 6.7 × 10-10 M B) 1.5 × 109 M C) 1.0 × 10-14 M D) 1.0 × 10-19 M E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.8 12 ..

43) What is the concentration of hydronium ions in a solution given that the concentration of hydroxide ions is 2.31 × 10-4 M? A) 4.33 × 10-11 M B) 2.31 × 1010 M C) 2.31 × 10-18 M D) 1.01 × 10-5 M E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 14.8 44) Which solution below has the highest concentration of hydroxide ions?

A) pH = 3.21 B) pH = 12.49 C) pH = 7.00 D) pH = 10.12 E) pH = 7.93 Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.8 45) The pH of a solution is 5.00. Which of the following is TRUE about the solution?

A) Its [H3O+] is 1.0 × 10-9 M B) Its [H3O+] is 1.0 × 10-5 M C) Its [H3O+] is 1.0 × 105 M D) It is more acidic than a solution whose pH is 4.00.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.8 46) In order for a solution to be acidic, A) [H3O+] < [OH-] B) [H3O+] > [OH-] C) [H3O+] = [OH-] D) pH = pOH E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.8 47) In order for a solution to be basic, A) [H3O+] > [OH-] B) [H3O+] < [OH-] C) [H3O+] = [OH-] D) pH = pOH E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.8

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48) In a solution that has a pH = 7.0, A) [H3O+] > [OH-] B) [H3O+] < [OH-] C) [H3O+] = [OH-] D) [H3O+] + [OH-] = Kw E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.8 49) A solution at 25°C has a hydrogen ion concentration of 2.6 × 10 -5 M. Which of the following is TRUE? A) [H3O+] > [OH-] B) [H3O+] < [OH-] C) [H3O+] = [OH-]

[OH- ] D) [H3O+] = Kw E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.8 50) Which solution below is considered to have basic character?

A) pOH = 7 B) pH = 2 C) pOH = 4 D) pOH = 13 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 51) What is the pH of a solution that has a H⁺ concentration equal to 1.76 × 10-5 M? A) 4.77 B) 5.20 C) 0.22 D) 10.20 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.9 52) If the pH of an aqueous solution changed from 9.10 to 4.67, what happened to the hydronium ion concentration?

A) It decreased.

B) It became zero.

C) It became less than zero.

D) It increased.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.9

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53) What is the pOH of a solution that has a OH- concentration equal to1.36 × 10-10 M? A) 9.89 B) 4.29 C) -4.3 D) 4.12 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.9 54) What is the [H⁺] in a solution that has a pH of 3.35?

A) 1 × 103.35 M B) 2.2 × 103 M C) 4.5 × 10-4 M D) 3.35 × 10-14 M E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.9 55) What is the [OH-] in a solution that has a pOH of 9.65?

A) 4.5 × 10-9 M B) 4.5 × 105 M C) 9.8 × 10-1 M D) 2.2 × 10-10 M E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.9 56) Which of the following is TRUE of alkaloid compounds?

A) Alkaloids are organic bases.

B) Alkaloids occur naturally in many plants.

C) Some narcotic drugs are alkaloids.

D) Some alkaloids are addictive.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.10 57) A buffer solution is all of the following EXCEPT: A) a solution that resists a change in pH when a base is added.

B) a solution that resists a change in pH when an acid is added.

C) a solution that contains both a weak acid and its conjugate base.

D) a solution that regulates pH by the addition of a strong acid or base.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.10

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58) Which of the following statements are TRUE of buffer solutions?

1. A buffer solution can be made by mixing equal concentrations of acetic acid and sodium acetate.

2. A buffer solution can be made by mixing equal concentrations of hydrochloric acid and sodium chloride.

3. A buffer solution resists changes in pH when small quantities of acid or base are added.

A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) None of 1, 2, and 3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.10 59) Which combination below will be a buffer solution?

A) HCl and Cl⁻ B) HNO3 and NaNO3 C) HC2H3O2 and NaC2H3O2 D) NaBr and NaOH E) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.10 60) Which of the following contributes to acid rain?

A) The use of volatile acids in industry.

B) The reaction of metal oxides with water.

C) The reaction of nonmetal oxides with water.

D) The reaction of alkali metals with water.

E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.11 61) Acid rain legislation targeted the release of which compound by industry?

A) CO2 B) SO2 C) dioxin D) benzene E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14.11

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Algorithmic Questions 1) The titration of 25.00 mL a 0.125 M HClO4 solution required 21.37 mL of KOH to reach the endpoint. What is the concentration of the KOH? A) 0.292 M B) 0.0668 M C) 0.146 M D) 0.134 M E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 14.6 2) What is the concentration of H+ in a 0.121 M HCl solution?

A) 1.0 × 10-14 M B) < 0.121 M C) 0.121 M D) not enough information E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.7 3) What is the concentration of H+ in solution given the [OH⁻] = 2.54 × 10-4?

A) 3.94 × 10-11 M B) 2.54 × 10-11 M C) 1.0 × 1014 M D) not enough information E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 14.8 4) What is the pH of a solution that has a [H+] = 0.0045 M? A) 1.35 B) 2.35 C) 3.35 D) 7.0045 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.9 5) What is the concentration of H+ in a solution with pH = 2.00?

A) 5.0 M B) 1.1 M C) 0.010 M D) 0.30 M E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14.9 17 ..

Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 15 Chemical Equilibrium True/False Questions 1) Equilibrium involves the ideas of sameness and constancy.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.1 2) Living things are in equilibrium with their surroundings.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.1 3) The rate of a chemical reaction is the amount of reactant that changes to product in a specific amount of time.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 4) Collisions between reactant molecules do not always lead to the formation of product molecules.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 5) Reaction rates generally increase as a reaction proceeds.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 6) The rate of a reaction increases with increasing concentrations of reactants because you have more collisions occurring in a given time period.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 7) The rate of a chemical reaction is inversely proportional to the temperature.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 8) A reversible reaction is one that can be stopped and then restarted as needed.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 9) Dynamic equilibrium occurs when the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 10) Dynamic equilibrium is established when the rate of the forward reaction goes to zero.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.3

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11) When dynamic equilibrium is achieved, the concentrations of reactants is equal to the concentrations of the products.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 12) When dynamic equilibrium is achieved, the rate of the forward and backward reactions go to zero.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 13) The Equilibrium Constant, Keq, is a way to quantify the relative concentrations of the reactants and products of a reaction at equilibrium.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 14) It is not necessary to have a balanced equation before writing an equilibrium constant expression.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 15) The larger the equilibrium constant, the greater is the concentration of reactants relative to products at equilibrium.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 16) As long as Keq > 1, all reactants will eventually be consumed and leave us exclusively with product molecules.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 17) Placing a [ ] around the formula of a chemical means that we are referring to the molar concentration of that chemical.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 18) A reaction that has Keq = 2.0 × 108 will have high concentrations of products.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 19) A reaction that has Keq = 2.0 × 10-8will have high concentrations of products.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 20) For a given chemical equation, the coefficients for each substance become the exponents for each substance in the written equilibrium expression.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 21) If Keq = 2 for the reaction X ⇌ Y, then the Keq, for Y ⇌ X will be 1/2 (or 0.5).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 2 ..

22) The equilibrium expression for the reaction:

.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.5 23) The equilibrium expression for the reaction: .

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.5 24) The equilibrium expression for the reaction:

.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.5 25) The equilibrium constant, Keq, for an equilibrium reaction will always be the same (at a given temperature) regardless of what the initial concentrations of reactants and products were.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.6 26) Le Chatelier's principle states that a chemical system must have a shift in direction in order to force the system to reach equilibrium.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.7 27) Le Chatelier's principle states that when a chemical system at equilibrium is disturbed, the system shifts in a direction that minimizes the disturbance.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.7 28) Increasing the amount of carbon in the reaction below will cause the reaction to proceed to the left so that equilibrium will be restored.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 29) Decreasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the reaction below will cause the reaction to proceed to the right so that equilibrium will be restored.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 3 ..

30) If you have a chamber of gases at equilibrium, compressing the gases to half the original volume would have the same effect as doubling the pressure.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 31) Decreasing the volume of the system below causes the reaction to shift towards the right.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 32) Increasing the volume of the system below causes the reaction to shift towards the right.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 33) In an exothermic reaction, you can consider the emitted heat as a reactant in this system.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 34) Adding heat to an endothermic reaction causes the reaction to shift to the right.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 35) Adding heat to an exothermic reaction will cause the reaction to remain unchanged.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 36) If the equilibrium constant, Keq, for a reaction increases upon heating, the reaction must have been endothermic.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.10 37) If an equilibrium reaction shifts to the right when the system is cooled, this indicates that the reaction is endothermic.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.10 38) A compound with a relatively small Ksp value indicates that the compound is only partially soluble.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 39) A compound with a very large Ksp value is generally considered to be only partially soluble.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.11

4 ..

40) Dissolving the compound PbCl2 into water can be represented as , so the equilibrium expression is Ksp =

.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 41) Iron(II) carbonate (Ksp = 3.07 ×10-11) is more soluble than calcium fluoride (Ksp = 1.46 ×10-10).

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.11

Multiple Choice Questions 1) A description of life is: A) Living things maintain and control their sameness.

B) Living things maintain and control their changelessness.

C) Living things maintain and control their equilibrium.

D) Living things maintain and control their disequilibrium.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.1 2) According to the collision theory of chemical reactions: A) high energy collisions result in few successful reactions as there isn't sufficient time for the products to react.

B) low energy collisions result in many successful reactions as there is sufficient time for the reactants to form products.

C) high energy collisions lead to the successful formation of products.

D) low energy collisions do not occur in the gas phase.

E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 3) Which of the following changes will increase the reaction rate?

A) an increase in the concentration of the products B) a decrease of the reaction temperature C) allowing more time for the reaction D) an increase in the concentration of reactants E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.2

5 ..

4) Which of the following changes will increase reaction rate?

1. An increase in the concentration of reactants 2. An increase in temperature 3. Higher-energy collisions between reacting molecules A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2, or 3 Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 5) Why does the rate of the reaction decrease over time?

A) Exothermic reactions lose heat which cools the reaction which decreases reaction rate.

B) As the reaction proceeds, the concentration of the products results in fewer collisions.

C) As the reaction proceeds, a decrease in the concentration of reactants results in fewer successful collisions.

D) Not all molecules will react and some choose to stay in their present form.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 6) Which of the following is TRUE for a system that is in dynamic equilibrium?

A) The forward reaction goes to 100% completion.

B) The reaction rate of the forward reaction approaches zero.

C) The concentration of products is equal to the concentration of the reactants.

D) Both the forward and reverse reactions come to a halt.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 7) Which of the following is TRUE about a chemical system in equilibrium?

A) No reaction takes place.

B) Temperature changes have no effect on reaction rate.

C) Addition of more reactants have no effect on reaction rate.

D) Reaction rate remains stable as long as temperature and pressure are stable.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 8) Suppose a wall divides a playground, and twenty balls lie on the ground on the east side, while forty balls lie on the west side. If a child on the east side of the wall always tosses a ball over the wall at the same time a child on the west side tosses a ball over the wall, then A) equilibrium has been established.

B) all balls will eventually end up on one side.

C) equilibrium will be established once thirty balls are on each side.

D) this system can never reach equilibrium.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 6 ..

9) A chemical equilibrium exists when A) reactants are completely changed to products.

B) there are equal amounts of reactants and products.

C) the rate at which reactants form products becomes zero.

D) the sum of reactant and product concentrations equals one mole.

E) the rate at which reactants form products is the same as the rate at which products form reactants.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 10) A system is said to be in dynamic equilibrium when: A) there is no longer any net change in the concentrations of products or reactants.

B) the forward and reverse reactions come to a halt.

C) the sum of the concentrations of the reactants is equal to the sum of the concentrations of the products.

D) you have let the reaction proceed for approximately 30 minutes and can assume there will be no more changes.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.3 11) Given N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) ⇌ 2 NH3 (g), which scenario will allow you to eventually reach an equilibrium mixture involving these chemicals?

A) Place only N2 into a sealed vessel.

B) Place only H2 into a sealed vessel.

C) Place only NH3 into a sealed vessel.

D) All of the above scenarios.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 12) For the reaction aA + bB ⇌ cC + dD, the equilibrium expression is: A) Keq = B) Keq = C) Keq = D) Keq = E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.4

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13) For the reaction 2A + B ⇌ 2C + 3D, the equilibrium expression is: A) Keq = B) Keq = C) Keq = D) Keq = E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.4 14) The chemical equation that would generate the equilibrium expression (Assume all substances are gases in this reaction.)

A) C + 2B ⇌ 3A B) 3A ⇌ 2B + C C) A ⇌ B + C D) 1/2 B + C ⇌ 1/3 A E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 15) For the reaction S2F6 ⇌ 2SF2 + F2, the equilibrium expression is: A) Keq = B) Keq = C) Keq = D) Keq = E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.4

8 ..

is ________.

16) Which equilibrium constant represents a reaction that favors the formation of the products to the greatest extent?

A) Keq = 100 B) Keq = 1.0 ×108 C) Keq = 1.0 × 10-3 D) Keq = 1.0 ×10-18 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.4 17) Which equilibrium constant represents a reaction that favors the reactants to the greatest extent?

A) Keq = 100 B) Keq = 1.0 × 108 C) Keq = 1.0 × 10-3 D) Keq = 1.0 × 10-18 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.4 18) Which of the following is TRUE of a system for which Keq << 1?

A) It will take a long time to reach equilibrium.

B) It will take a short time to reach equilibrium.

C) The equilibrium favors the reverse reaction.

D) The equilibrium favors the forward reaction.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 19) Which of the following is TRUE of a system for which Keq >> 1?

A) It will take a short time to reach equilibrium.

B) It will take a long time to reach equilibrium.

C) The equilibrium favors the reverse reaction.

D) The equilibrium favors the forward reaction.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.4

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20) Identify the equation for which Keq = [Cu+]2[S2-].

A) Cu2S(s) ⇌ Cu+(aq) + 2 S2- (aq) B) CuS(s) ⇌ Cu2+(aq) + S2- (aq) 1 1 2C) Cu2S(s) ⇌ Cu+(aq) + S (aq) 2 2 D) Cu2S(s) ⇌ 2 Cu+(aq) + S2- (aq) E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.4 21) What must be TRUE for a reaction possessing a large equilibrium constant?

A) The reaction rate is fast.

B) The reaction rate is slow.

C) The forward reaction is favored.

D) The reverse reaction is favored.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 22) When writing the expression for an equilibrium constant, which type of substance IS included?

A) solids B) pure liquids C) gases D) all of the above E) none of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.5 23) For the reaction 2 H2O (l) ⇌ 2H2 (g) + O2 (g), the equilibrium expression is: A) Keq = [H2O]2 B) Keq = [H2]2 [O2] C) Keq = D) Keq = E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.5

10 ..

24) For the reaction Cu2S(s) ⇌ 2Cu+(aq) + S2-(aq), the equilibrium expression is: A) Keq = B) Keq = C) Keq = [Cu+]2[S2-] D) Keq = [Cu2S] E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.5 25) For the reaction 2 A ⇌ B, the equilibrium concentrations are as follows: [A] = 0.056 M and [B] = 0.12 M. Calculate the equilibrium constant (Keq ) for the reaction.

A) 2.6 × 10-2 B) 0.26 C) 2.1 D) 38 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.6 26) For the reaction S2F6 (g) ⇌ 2SF2 (g) + F2 (g), [SF2] = 0.18 M, [F2] = 0.54 M. The quilibrium constant is: A) 0.44 B) 0.15 C) 2.3 D) 6.7 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.6 27) For the reaction S2F6 (g) ⇌ 2SF2 (g) + F2 (g), the equilibrium concentrations are as follows: [S2F6] = 0.000430 M, [SF2] = 2.08 M, [F2] = 1.32 M. The equilibrium constant is: A) 7.53 ×10-5 B) 1.19 × 10-4 C) 8.43 × 103 D) 1.33 × 104 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15.6

11 ..

28) For the reaction Cu2(s) ⇌ 2Cu+(aq) + S2- (aq), the equilibrium concentrations are as follows: [Cu+ ] = 1.0 × 10-5 M, [S2-] = 1.0 × 10-2 M. The equilibrium constant is: A) 1.0 ×10-7.

B) 1.0 ×107.

C) 1.0 ×10-12.

D) 1.0 × 10-9.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15.6 29) For the reaction LiOH (s) ⇌ Li+ (aq) + OH- (aq), Keq = 4.6 × 10-3, and the equilibrium concentration for hydroxide ion is [OH-] = 0.042 M. What is [Li+] at equilibrium?

A) 0.11 M B) 0.0046 M C) 0.042 M D) An answer cannot be determined without [LiOH] value.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15.6 30) For the reaction Ag2S(s) ⇌ 2 Ag+ (aq) + S2- (aq), Keq = 2.4 × 10-4 and the equilibrium concentration of silver ion is [Ag+] = 2.5 × 10-1 M. What is [S2-] at equilibrium?

A) 0.0038 B) 9.6× 10-4 C) 2.6 × 102 D) 1.0× 103 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15.6 31) For the reaction Ag2S(s) ⇌ 2 Ag+ (aq) + S2- (aq), Keq = 2.4 × 10-4, and the equilibrium concentration of sulfide ion is [S2-] = 0.0023 M.. What is [Ag+] at equilibrium?

A) 0.052 M B) 0.32 M C) 0.015 M D) 0.10 M E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15.6

12 ..

32) Le Chatelier's Principle states that: A) a disturbing force must be applied to a system in order for it to reach equilibrium.

B) when a system at equilibrium is disturbed, a new equilibrium constant is established.

C) when a chemical system at equilibrium is disturbed, the system shifts in order to minimize the effect.

D) when a chemical system is at equilibrium it is no longer possible to alter the system.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.7 33) For the reaction Ag2S(s) ⇌ 2 Ag+ (aq) + S2- (aq), what happens to the equilibrium position if aqueous ammonium sulfide is added?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 34) For the reaction Ag2S(s) ⇌ 2 Ag+ (aq) + S2- (aq), what happens to the equilibrium position if ammonium sulfate is added?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 35) For the reaction Ag2S(s) ⇌ 2 Ag+ (aq) + S2- (aq), what happens to the equilibrium position if the amount of solid silver sulfide is doubled?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 36) For the reaction Ag2S(s) ⇌ 2 Ag+ (aq) + S2- (aq), what happens to the equilibrium position if the amount of silver ion is halved?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 13 ..

37) Consider the reaction: 2 N2O(g) ⇌ O2 (g) + 2 N2 (g). Which of the following will cause a shift in the equilibrium to the right?

1. Add more N2O 2. Remove O2 3. Remove N2 A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2, or 3 Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 38) Consider the reaction: 2 N2O(g) ⇌ O2 (g) + 2 N2 (g). Which of the following will cause a shift in the equilibrium to the left?

1. Remove N2O 2. Remove O2 3. Add N2 A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2, or 3 Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 39) We have the following reaction at equilibrium in a flask, CaSO4(s) ⇌ Ca2+(aq) + SO42+(aq) What will happen to [Ca2+] if additional CaSO4 is added to the flask?

A) It will decrease.

B) It will increase.

C) It will not change.

D) Cannot tell with the information provided.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 40) For the reaction 2 N2O(g) ⇌ O2 (g) + 2 N2 (g), what happens to the equilibrium position if the pressure increases?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.9

14 ..

41) For the reaction H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) ⇌ 2 HCl (g), what happens to the equilibrium position if the pressure increases?

A) shifts to the right B) shifts to the left C) does nothing D) doubles E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 42) For the reaction 2 N2O(g) ⇌ O2 (g) + 2 N2 (g), what happens to the equilibrium position if the pressure decreases?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 43) For the reaction 2 N2O(g) ⇌ O2 (g) + 2 N2 (g), what happens to the equilibrium position if the volume decreases?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 44) For the reaction 2 N2O(g) ⇌ O2 (g) + 2 N2 (g), what happens to the equilibrium position if the volume increases?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 45) What happens to the equilibrium position of an exothermic reaction when you add heat?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 15 ..

46) What happens to the equilibrium position of an exothermic reaction when you remove heat?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 47) What happens to the equilibrium position of an endothermic reaction when you add heat?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 48) What happens to the equilibrium position of an endothermic reaction when you remove heat?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 49) Which compound is the most soluble?

A) CuS, Ksp = 1.27 × 10-36 B) PbS, Ksp = 9.04 × 10-29 C) AgCl, Ksp = 1.77 × 10-10 D) AgI, Ksp = 8.51 × 10-17 E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 50) Which compound is the least soluble?

A) CuS, Ksp = 1.27× 10-36 B) PbS, Ksp = 9.04× 10-29 C) AgCl, Ksp = 1.77 × 10-10 D) AgI, Ksp = 8.51× 10-17 E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.11

16 ..

51) What is the Ksp expression for the ionic compound Li2CO3?

A) Ksp = [Li+] [CO32-] B) Ksp = [Li+]2 [CO32-] C) Ksp = 2[Li+] [CO32-] D) Ksp = [Li2CO3]3 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15.11 52) What is the [Cu2+] at equilibrium, given CuS, Ksp = 1.27 × 10-36?

A) 1.27 × 10-36 M B) 6.35× 10-37 M C) 1.13 × 10-18 M D) 1.61× 10-72 M E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15.11 53) What is the [Ag+] at equilibrium, given AgCl, Ksp = 1.77 × 10-10?

A) 1.77 × 10-10 M B) 1.33 × 10-5 M C) 8.85 × 10-11 M D) 3.54 × 10-10 M E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15.11 54) What is the molar solubility, (S), of FeS if the Ksp = 5.9 × 10-19 for this substance?

A) 1.2 × 10-18 M B) 5.9 × 10-19 M C) 7.7 × 10-10 M D) 3.5 × 10-37 M E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15.11 55) Which statement about activation energy is FALSE? A) Activation energy is an energy hump that normally exists between reactants and products.

B) The higher the activation energy, the slower the reaction rate.

C) The lower the activation energy, the faster the reaction rate.

D) Increasing the temperature lowers the activation energy.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.12 17 ..

56) The effect of a catalyst is to: A) increase the number of collision between reactants.

B) increase the temperature of the reactants whereby more products are formed.

C) change the position of the equilibrium.

D) change the stoichiometry of the reaction.

E) lower the activation energy of a reaction whereby making it easier for the reactants to get over the energy hump.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.12 57) Comparing a reaction with a catalyst to the same reaction without the catalyst, each of the following statements is true EXCEPT A) The rate for the reaction with a catalyst is faster.

B) The products are the same.

C) The catalyzed reaction follows a different pathway.

D) Both reactions would have the same value for the equilibrium constant.

E) The activation energy is the same for both the catalyzed and uncatalyzed reaction.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.12 58) Which statement below is FALSE? A) The rate of a reaction can be increased by increasing concentrations of reactants.

B) The rate of a reaction can be increased by altering the temperature.

C) The rate of a reaction can be increased by adding a catalyst.

D) A catalyst alters the equilibrium constant.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.12 59) What happens to the equilibrium constant when a catalyst is added to the reaction mixture?

A) increases B) decreases C) does not change D) varies E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.12 60) Which of the following is FALSE about enzymes?

A) They act as biological catalysts.

B) They lower the activation energy of biological reactions.

C) They increase the temperature of biological reactions to speed them up.

D) They are highly specific in their catalytic activity.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15.12

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Algorithmic Questions 1) Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction below given that [Cl2] = 0.11 M, [H2] = 0.15 M, and [HCl] = 0.95 M at equilibrium.

Given: Cl2 (g) + H2 (g) → 2HCl(g) A) 0.017 B) 0.018 C) 58 D) 55 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15.6 2) Calculate the concentration of NO2 in an equilibrium mixture given that the concentration of N2O4 = 0.200 M. and Keq = 45.5 for the reaction: 2 NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g).

A) 0.0663 M B) 0.00440 M C) 227.3 M D) 15.1 M E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15.6 3) Calculate [M+] at equilibrium given that the Ksp = 3.7 × 10-2 for the reaction MX(s) → M+ + X-.

A) 0.0185 M B) 0.0 M C) 0.19 M D) not enough information given E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15.11 4) What is the concentration of the Mg2+ ion in solution when [CO32-] = 0.25 M given that the Ksp = 6.82 × 10-6 for the following reaction: MgCO3(s) ⇌ Mg2+ (aq) + CO32- (aq)?

A) 5.2 × 10-2 B) 3.7 × 104 C) 2.7 × 10-5 D) 19.2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15.11

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5) What is the value for the Ksp for a compound MX(s) if at equilibrium [M+] = 1.0 × 10-3 M? A) 0.0020 B) 1.0 × 10-6 C) 1.0 × 10-3 D) not enough information E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 5.11

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Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 16 Oxidation and Reduction True/False Questions 1) Cars are being developed that run on hydrogen gas and the only emission is water.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.1 2) Fuel cells are based on the tendency of some elements to gain electrons from gasoline.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.1 3) Reactions involving the transfer of electrons are called redox reactions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.1 4) Oxidation can be defined as the gain of oxygen atoms by another element.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 5) Reduction can be defined as the gain of oxygen atoms by another element.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 6) Redox reactions must involve the gain or loss of oxygen atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 7) Oxidation and reduction cannot both occur in the same chemical reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 8) The oxidizing agent is the substance being reduced.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 9) The reducing agent is reduced during the reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 10) Reduction is the gain of electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 11) Oxidation is the loss of electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 1 ..

12) The sum of the oxidation numbers of all atoms in K 2Cr2O7 equals zero.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 13) The oxidation number of a chlorine atom is -1.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 14) The oxidation number of sodium in NaI is +1.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 15) The oxidation number of sulfur in SO3 is -6.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 16) The oxidation number of manganese in MnO41- is +7.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 17) The reaction 2 NO2 → N2O4 would not be considered a redox reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 18) The half-reaction 2 Br 1- → Br2 + 2 e- is balanced with respect to mass but it is not balanced with respect to charge.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.4 19) Given that the Activity Series shown below is accurate, then Li(s) + K+(aq) → Li+ (aq) + K(s) is a spontaneous reaction.

Activity Series =

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5 20) Most acids dissolve metals by the oxidation of H+ ions to hydrogen gas.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5

2 ..

21) Ca2+ (aq) + 2Na (s) → Ca (s) + 2 Na+ (aq) is a spontaneous reaction.

Activity Series =

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5 22) Gold metal is found at the bottom of the activity series of metals since it is the most difficult metal to oxidize.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 23) It can be shown that copper metal lies below H2 on the activity series of metals. This means that copper will dissolve in hydrochloric acid.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 24) An electrochemical cell is based on the coupling of a spontaneous redox reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 25) Oxidation occurs at the cathode.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 26) The cathode is the electrode at which reduction occurs.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 27) Electrical current can be used to drive a nonspontaneous redox reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 28) A galvanic cell is a spontaneous electrochemical cell.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 29) The driving force that causes electrons to flow through a wire is called current.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 30) Flashlight batteries are called dry cells.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.6

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31) Alkaline batteries are used in automobiles.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 32) To achieve the largest battery voltage possible, the battery should be assembled from a metal high on the activity series list with a metal ion low on the activity series list.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 33) An electrolytic cell is a spontaneous redox reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.7 34) A spontaneous redox reaction can be used to produce electrical current.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.7 35) Electrolysis is used to recover many metals from their oxide ores.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.7 36) Corrosion of metals may be prevented by keeping them dry at all times.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.8 37) The rusting of iron is an example of the process known as corrosion.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.8 38) Rusting of iron requires the presence of both oxygen and water.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.8 39) A sacrificial electrode works by being reduced which prevents the metal from being oxidized.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.8

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Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which fact about fuel cells is FALSE? A) Fuel cell automobiles are powered by water and the only emission is hydrogen.

B) Fuel cells are based on the tendency of some elements to gain electrons from other elements.

C) Fuel cell automobiles are whisper quiet.

D) Fuel cell automobiles are environmentally friendly.

E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.1 2) Oxidation typically involves: A) the loss of electrons.

B) the loss of oxygen.

C) the gain of electrons.

D) the gain of water.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 3) Reduction typically involves: A) the loss of electrons.

B) the gain of oxygen.

C) the gain of electrons.

D) the gain of water.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 4) The reducing agent typically: A) gains electrons.

B) always remains unchanged during a reaction.

C) is the oxidized substance.

D) is itself reduced.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 5) The oxidizing agent typically: A) loses electrons.

B) gains oxygen.

C) is the reactant that is reduced.

D) is oxidized.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.2

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6) Which of the following are typically TRUE of an oxidizing agent?

1. It causes oxidation.

2. It gains electron(s).

3. It is the reduced substance.

A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2, or 3 Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 7) Which of the following are typically TRUE of a reducing agent?

1. It causes reduction.

2. It gains electron(s).

3. It is the oxidized substance.

A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2 or 3 Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 8) Identify the substance being oxidized in the following reaction: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O. A) CH4 B) O2 C) CO2 D) H2O E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.2 9) Identify the substance being reduced in the following reaction: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O. A) CH4 B) O2 C) CO2 D) H2O E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.2 10) Identify the reducing agent in the following reaction: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O. A) CH4 B) O2 C) CO2 6 ..

D) H2O E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.2 11) Identify the oxidizing agent in the following reaction: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O. A) CH4 B) O2 C) CO2 D) H2O E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.2 12) For the reaction Si (s) + O2 (g) → SiO2 (g), the reducing agent is A) Si. B) O2.

C) SiO2.

D) O. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.2 13) In the following reaction, Mg (s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Mg2+ (aq) + Cu (s): A) Mg is the reducing agent and Cu is the oxidizing agent.

B) Mg2+ is the reducing agent and Cu is the oxidizing agent.

C) Cu is the reducing agent and Mg2+ is the oxidizing agent.

D) Cu2+ is the reducing agent and Mg is the oxidizing agent.

E) Mg is the reducing agent and Cu2+ is the oxidizing agent.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.2 14) In the following reaction, Zn (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s) A) Zn is the reducing agent and CuSO4 is the oxidizing agent.

B) CuSO4 is the reducing agent and Zn is the oxidizing agent.

C) ZnSO4 is the reducing agent and Cu is the oxidizing agent.

D) Cu2+ is the reducing agent and Zn2+ is the oxidizing agent.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.2

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15) The oxidation number of Cr in Cr2O72- is A) +2.

B) -2.

C) +7.

D) +6.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3 16) What is the oxidation state of the underlined element in the compound: H2SO4?

A) +1 B) +2 C) -2 D) +6 E) +4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3 17) What is the oxidation state of the underlined element in the compound: H2SO4?

A) +1 B) +2 C) -2 D) +6 E) +4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3 18) What is the oxidation state of the underlined element in the compound: CO2?

A) +1 B) +2 C) -2 D) +4 E) +6 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3 19) What is the oxidation state of the underlined element in the reaction: NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + CO2 + H2O A) 0 B) +1 C) -1 D) +2 E) -2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3

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20) What is the oxidation state of the underlined element in the reaction: NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + CO2 + H2O A) 0 B) +1 C) -1 D) +2 E) -2 Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3 21) What is the oxidation state of the underlined element in the reaction: NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + CO2 + H2O A) 0 B) +1 C) -1 D) +2 E) -2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3 22) What is the oxidation state of the underlined element in the reaction: Cl2 + Mg → MgCl2 A) 0 B) +2 C) -2 D) +4 E) -4 Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3 23) What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in N2O3?

A) 0 B) +1 C) +2 D) +3 E) +6 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3 24) What is the oxidation state of sulfur in SO32-?

A) 0 B) -2 C) +3 D) +4 E) +6 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3

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25) The oxidation state of Na in Na2SO4 is: A) +1 B) +2 C) +4 D) -1 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3 26) The oxidation state of Mn in KMnO4 is: A) +1 B) -1 C) +5 D) +7 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3 27) Which substance below would contain a nitrogen atom with the highest oxidation number of all those shown?

A) NH4 1+ B) N2 C) NO2 D) NO3 1E) NH3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3 28) Assign the oxidation state of each atom in potassium chlorate, KClO 3.

A) K = +1, Cl = +1, O = -2 B) K = -1, Cl = -1, O = +2 C) K = +1, Cl = +5, O = -2 D) K = +1, Cl = -1, O = 0 E) K = -1, Cl = +1, O = 0 Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3 29) Assign the oxidation state of each atom in sodium sulfate, Na 2SO4.

A) Na = +1, S = +4, O = -2 B) Na = +1, S = -2, O = +4 C) Na = +2, S = +6, O = -2 D) Na = +1, S = +6, O = -2 E) Na = +2, S = -2, O = 0 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3

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30) Oxidation involves which of the following?

1. Loss of electron(s).

2. Gain of electron(s).

3. Increase in oxidation state.

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 only E) 2 and 3 only Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3 31) Reduction involves which of the following?

1. Loss of electron(s).

2. Gain of electron(s).

3. Decrease in oxidation state.

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 only E) 2 and 3 only Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.3 32) What must be done to the following half-reactions before they can be added together?

Mn (s) → Mn 2+(aq) + 2eFe 3+ (aq) + 3 e- → Fe (s) A) Double the Mn half-reaction.

B) Double the Mn half-reaction and triple the Fe half-reaction.

C) Triple the Mn half-reaction and double the Fe half-reaction.

D) Add H+ ions to the left-side of the Mn reaction.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16.4 33) What is the balanced oxidation half-reaction for the following unbalanced redox reaction: Ca(s) + Ag+(aq) → Ca2+(aq) + Ag(s) A) Ca → Ca2+ + 2 eB) Ag+ → Ag + eC) 2 e- + Ca → Ca2+ D) 2 Ag+ + 2 e-→ 2Ag E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.4

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34) What is the balanced reduction half-reaction for the following unbalanced redox reaction: Ca(s) + Ag+(aq) → Ca2+(aq) + Ag(s) A) Ca → Ca2++ 2 eB) Ag+ → Ag + 1 eC) 2 e- + Ca → Ca2+ D) 2Ag+ + 2 e-→ 2Ag E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.4 35) Balance the redox reaction: Br-(aq) + Cr2O72-(aq) → Cr3+ + Br2 (l) A) 4 Br- + Cr2O72- + 7 H+ → 2 Cr3+ + 2 Br2 + 7 H2O B) 6 Br- + Cr2O72- + 147 H+ → 2 Cr3+ + 3 Br2 + 7 H2O C) 2 Br-+ Cr2O72- + 147 H+ → 2 Cr3+ + Br2 + 7 H2O D) 2 Br- + 2 Cr2O72- + 147 H+ → 4 Cr3++ Br2 + 14 H2O E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 16.4 36) If you properly balance the following half reaction in acid solution, how many electrons would appear on the product side of the equation? NO (g) → NO31- (aq) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 16.4 37) Balance the following half reaction in acid solution: MnO4- → Mn2+ (aq) A) MnO4- → Mn2+ + 3 eB) MnO4- + 8 H+→ Mn2+ + 4 H2O C) MnO4- + 8 H+→ Mn2+ + 4 H2O +5 eD) MnO4- + 8 H+ + 5 e-→ Mn2+ + 4 H2O E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 16.4

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38) If you properly balance the following half reaction in base solution, how many electrons would appear on the product side of the equation? Al (s) → Al(OH)41- (aq) A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 16.4 39) Balance the following half reaction in base solution: H20 (l) → H2 (g) A) 2H2O (l) + 2 e- → H2 (g) + 2 OH- (aq) B) 2H2O (l) → 2H2 (g) + 2 e- + O2 C) 2H2O (l) → H2 (g) + 2 H+ + 2eD) H2O (l) → 2H+ + 2OHE) 2H2O (l) → H2 (g) + 2OH- (aq) + 5 eAnswer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 16.4 40) What is the balanced oxidation half-reaction for the following unbalanced redox reaction?

Ca(s) + Ag+(aq) → Ca2+(aq) + Ag(s) A) Ca → Ca2+ + 2 eB) Ag+ → Ag + eC) 2 e- + Ca → Ca2+ D) 2 Ag+ + 2 e-→ 2Ag E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.4 41) From the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion is the most easily oxidized?

Activity Series =

A) Na B) Ca C) Na+ D) Li E) Li+ Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5

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42) From the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion is the most difficult to oxidize?

Activity Series =

A) Na B) Ca C) Na+ D) Li E) Li+ Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5 43) From the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion is the most difficult to reduce?

Activity Series =

A) Na B) Ca C) Na+ D) Li E) Li+ Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5 44) From the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion is the easiest to reduce?

Activity Series =

A) Na B) Ca C) Na+ D) Li E) Li+ Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5

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45) From the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion will spontaneously react with

?

Activity Series = A) Na B) Ca C) Na+ D) Li E) Li+ Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5 46) From the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion will spontaneously react with Ca?

Activity Series =

A) Na B) K+ C) Na+ D) Li E) Li+ Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5 47) From the activity list included in this problem, which element will not dissolve in dilute hydrochloric acid?

Activity Series =

A) Sn B) Pb C) H2 D) Cu E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5

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48) From the activity list included in this problem, which element will displace Pb2+ ions from solution?

Activity Series =

A) Sn B) Pb C) H2 D) Cu E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5 49) From the activity list included in this problem, which element will react with Cu?

Activity Series =

A) Sn B) Pb C) H2 D) Cu E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5 50) Using the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion listed below is the most easily oxidized?

Activity Series =

A) Sn+2 B) Pb C) H2 D) Cu+2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5

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51) Using the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion is the most resistant to oxidation?

Activity Series =

A) Sn+2 B) Pb C) H2 D) Cu+2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5 52) Using the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion is the most resistant to reduction?

Activity Series =

A) Sn+2 B) Pb C) H2 D) Cu+2 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5 53) From the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion is the easiest to reduce?

Activity Series =

A) Sn+2 B) Pb C) H2 D) Cu+2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.5

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54) In an electrochemical cell, which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The anode is electrode where oxidation occurs.

B) A salt bridge provides electrical contact between the half-cells.

C) The cathode is the electrode where reduction occurs.

D) A spontaneous electrochemical cell is called a galvanic cell.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.6 55) In an electrochemical cell, which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Oxidation occurs at the anode.

B) Reduction occurs at the cathode.

C) Electrons flow through the salt bridge to complete the cell.

D) A spontaneous electrochemical cell is called a voltaic cell.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.6 56) Which battery system is based on half reactions involving zinc metal and manganese dioxide?

A) alkaline batteries B) fuel cells C) lead-acid storage batteries D) dry-cell batteries E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.6 57) Which battery system is completely rechargeable?

A) alkaline batteries B) fuel cells C) lead-acid storage batteries D) dry-cell batteries E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.6 58) In electrolysis: A) a spontaneous redox reaction produces electricity.

B) a nonspontaneous redox reaction is forced to occur by applying an electric current.

C) only pure, drinkable water is produced.

D) you have a cell which reverses the flow of ions.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.7

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59) Corrosion is the: A) oxidation of nonmetals.

B) loss of electrons.

C) oxidation of metals.

D) formation of an insoluble hydroxide.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.8 60) Corrosion can be prevented by all of the following EXCEPT: A) painting.

B) galvanizing.

C) sacrificial anode.

D) sacrificial cathode.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.8 61) From the activity list included in this problem, which element below would serve as a sacrificial electrode for iron?

Activity Series =

A) Zn B) Fe C) Ni D) all of these E) none of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.8

Essay Questions 1) Distinguish between a galvanic (voltaic) cell and an electrolytic cell.

Answer: In a galvanic (voltaic)cell, an electric current is produced as a result of a spontaneous redox reaction.

An electrolytic cell uses electric current to produce a redox reaction. The resulting reaction is nonspontaneous.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.6, 16.7 2) Suggest two methods to reduce corrosion of a metal such as iron and briefly explain how each method works.

Answer: 1. Galvanizing: This is a process in which the metal such as iron is coated with zinc. Zinc is higher on the activity series than iron and is more readily oxidized than iron. The zinc oxide formed also acts as a protective coating.

2. Sacrificial anode: These are metals that are more readily oxidized than iron which in turn prevent iron from being oxidized.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16.8

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Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 17 Radioactivity and Nuclear Chemistry True/False Questions 1) Radioactivity is the emission of tiny, invisible radio signals by the nuclei of certain atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.1 2) Radioactive particles can pass through matter.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.1 3) Antoine-Henri Becquerel discovered X-rays.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.2 4) Madam Curie discovered two new elements.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.2 5) 209 F contains 11 protons and 9 neutrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 6) The alpha particle (α) is: 43 He .

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 7) When an atom emits an alpha particle, it becomes a different element.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 8) Alpha particles have lower penetrating power than the other types of radioactive emissions..

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 9) A beta particle can also be called an electron.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 10) During beta decay, neutrons are converted to protons and electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3

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11) When an atom emits a beta particle, its atomic number increases by one because it now has one additional proton.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 12) A gamma ray is a high energy photon.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 13) A gamma ray has no charge and no mass.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 14) The symbol for a positron is -10 e .

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 15) A positron particle comes from the decay of a proton into a neutron and a positron.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 16) Nuclear equations do not need to be balanced since a new element forms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 17) A nuclear reaction typically changes the identity of the element involved.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 18) In a Geiger-Muller counter, radioactive particles pass through NaI which emits UV-Vis light.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.4 19) All elements with atomic numbers above bismuth are naturally radioactive.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 20) All unstable elements have the same rates of radioactive decay.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 21) Nuclides that decay slowly have long half-lives.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 22) A nuclide with a shorter half-life would be considered more active than a nuclide with a longer half-life.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.5

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23) During the first half-life you lose half of the radioactive material, during the second half life you lose the remaining half.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 24) Radioactive elements become stable isotopes after emitting one of the radioactive particles Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 25) Carbon-14 dating is based on the fact that C-14 is continuously being made in the upper atmosphere.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.6 26) C-14 dating has been verified using old iron ore samples of known age.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.6 27) Uranium-235 is capable of undergoing a fission chain reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.7 28) The effort to build an atomic bomb during WWII was prompted by a fear that Germany was already working on nuclear weapons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.7 29) Nuclear power plants produce energy by fission reactions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.8 30) One danger of a nuclear power plant is that a chain reaction could produce a bomb.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.8 31) The hydrogen isotope known as tritium contains three neutrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.9 32) The energy of the sun comes from fusion reactions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.9 33) The combination of two light nuclei to form a heavier one is known as nuclear fission.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.9 34) A fusion reaction emits large amounts of energy while a fission reaction absorbs large amounts of energy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.9 3 ..

35) Nuclear fission reactions produce ten times more energy per gram than fusion reactions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.9 36) Exposure to nuclear radioactivity can produce genetic defects in offspring.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.10 37) One method of nuclear medicine uses radioactive isotopes to scan specific regions of the body.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.11 38) A patient having radiotherapy uses radioactivity to kill infected cells while trying to minimize the effect on the healthy cells.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.11

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Radioactive elements are used for: A) medical diagnosis.

B) medical treatment.

C) determining age of fossils and rocks.

D) generating electricity.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.1 2) Who discovered radioactivity?

A) Antoine Becquerel B) Pierre Curie C) Marie Curie D) Ernest Rutherford E) Benjamin Franklin Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.2 3) How was radioactivity discovered?

A) Rutherford was investigating the structure of Au atoms and discovered alpha particles.

B) Marie Curie was investigating the existence of uranic rays that occurred in some minerals.

C) Becquerel was studying X-rays and phosphorescence to see if they were related.

D) Benjamin Franklin was studying the creation of electrical current from the ionization of gases due to radioactive particles.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.2

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4) During the career of Marie Curie, she: A) won a Nobel prize in chemistry.

B) won a Nobel prize in physics.

C) discovered the element polonium.

D) discovered the element radium.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.2 5) Which of the following isotopes contains the most number of neutrons?

A) 179 86 Rn B) 170 83 Bi C) 174 87 Fr D) 178 84 Po E) 177 86 Rn Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 6) How many protons and neutrons are in 34 16 S ?

A) 16 p and 34 n B) 16 n and 34 p C) 16 n and 18 p D) 16 p and 18 n E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 7) How many protons and neutrons are in 235 92 U ?

A) 92 p and 235 n B) 92 n and 235 p C) 92 n and 143 p D) 92 p and 143 n E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 8) How many protons and neutrons are in 119 50 Sn ?

A) 50 p and 169 n B) 50 n and 69 p C) 50 n and 119 p D) 50 p and 69 n E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3

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9) Which statement about alpha particles is FALSE? A) symbol is: 42 He B) has high ionization power C) has low penetrating power D) are a harmless form of radiation E) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 10) If the 232 90Th isotope emits an alpha particle, what would be the atomic number of the resulting atom?

A) 90 B) 88 C) 92 D) 228 E) 236 Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 11) What happens to the mass number of a nucleus that emits an alpha particle?

A) It remains the same.

B) It decreases by two.

C) It decreases by four.

D) It increases by two.

E) It increases by four.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 12) In a nuclear equation A) the daughter nuclide appears on the right-side of the arrow.

B) the sum of the atomic numbers on both sides must be equal.

C) the sum of the mass numbers on both sides must be equal.

D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 13) What is the main product when 235 92 U undergoes alpha decay?

A) 235 94 Am B) 231 90Th C) 239 92 U D) 235 90Th E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3

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14) What is the main product when 231 91 Pa undergoes alpha decay?

A) 239 93 Pu B) 231 89 Ac C) 227 92 Ac D) 227 89 Ac E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 15) Which of the following statements about beta particles is FALSE? A) The symbol is: -10 e .

B) Beta particles are created when neutrons become protons and electrons.

C) They have intermediate ionizing power.

D) They have intermediate penetrating power.

E) They are a safe form of radioactivity.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 16) Which of the following types of radiation has the highest penetrating power?

A) alpha particles B) beta particles C) gamma rays D) positrons E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 17) Which of the following is NOT a type of radioactive emission?

A) alpha rays B) beta rays C) gamma rays D) positrons E) All of the above are types of radioactive emissions.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 18) Which type of emission has a negative charge?

A) alpha B) beta C) positron D) gamma E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3

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19) What happens to the atomic number of a nucleus that emits a beta particle?.

A) It remains the same.

B) It increases by one.

C) It decreases by one.

D) It increases by two.

E) It decreases by two.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 20) What is the main product when 232 90Th undergoes beta decay?

A) 228 88 Ra B) 232 89 Ac C) D)

232 91 Pa 232 90Th

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 21) What is the main product when 235 92 U undergoes beta decay?

A) 231 90Th B) 235 93 Np C) D)

235 91 Pa 232 90Th

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 22) Which of the following nuclides will undergo beta decay to produce 243 95 Am ?

A) 244 97 Bk B) 243 93 Np C) 243 94 Pu D) 247 96 Cm E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3

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23) What is the missing particle?

A) positron B) beta particle C) alpha particle D) gamma particle E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 24) What is the missing particle?

A) positron B) beta particle C) alpha particle D) gamma particle E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 25) What is the missing particle?

A) positron B) beta particle C) alpha particle D) gamma particle E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 26) Which statement about gamma radiation is FALSE? A) The symbol is: 00 γ .

B) They have low ionization energy.

C) They have high penetrating power.

D) They are high energy photons.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3

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27) What type of radioactive decay produces a daughter nuclide that is the same element as the parent nuclide?

A) alpha B) beta C) gamma D) positron E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 28) How does the emission of a gamma particle effect the radioactive atom?

A) The atom has a lower amount of energy.

B) The atomic number decreases.

C) The atomic mass increases.

D) The atom gains energy for further radioactive particle emission.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 29) Which statement about positron emission is FALSE? A) occurs when a proton is converted into a neutron and a positron B) symbol is: +10 e C) occurs with alpha and beta decay D) alternative symbol is β+ E) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 30) What happens to the atomic number of nucleus that emits a positron?

A) It remains the same.

B) It increases by one.

C) It decreases by one.

D) It increases by two.

E) It decreases by two.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 31) What happens to the mass number of a nucleus that emits a positron?

A) It remains the same.

B) It increases by one.

C) It decreases by one.

D) It increases by two.

E) It decreases by two.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3

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32) The emitted particle with the mass of an electron but carrying a 1+ charge is named the A) proton.

B) proelectron.

C) positron.

D) plusion.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 33) Radon-219 decays to radon-218 by releasing A) -10 e .

B) gamma rays.

C) 01 n .

D) +10 e .

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 34) Which type of particle can be emitted by an unstable nucleus?

A) 42 He B) +10 e C) -10 e D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 35) A Geiger-Muller counter detects radioactivity by: A) developing film which is exposed by radioactive particles.

B) emission of light from a NaI crystal when radioactivity passes through the crystal.

C) ionization of argon gas in a chamber which produces an electrical signal.

D) analyzing the mass and velocity of each particle.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.4 36) A scintillation counter detects radioactivity by: A) developing film which is exposed by radioactive particles.

B) emission of light from a NaI crystal when radioactivity passes through the crystal.

C) ionization of argon gas in a chamber which produces an electrical signal.

D) analyzing the mass and velocity of each particle.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.4

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37) Atomic nuclei whose atomic number is greater than which element are considered to be radioactive?

A) Uranium B) Radium C) Barium D) Bismuth E) Lead Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.5 38) Which of the following statements regarding radiation are FALSE? A) Radioactivity is a natural part of our environment.

B) All elements heavier than bismuth are radioactive.

C) All radioactive elements are spontaneously decaying towards formation of a stable element.

D) The time for half of the original sample to spontaneously decay is called the half-life (t1/2).

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.5 39) The rate of spontaneous nuclear decay: A) can be increased by increasing the temperature.

B) can be increased by increasing the concentration of the radioactive element.

C) is independent of concentration or temperature.

D) can be increased by addition of a nuclear catalyst.

E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.5 40) If the half-life of a radioactive isotope is 32 days, how many half-lives must pass before a 3.0 gram sample is less than 0.03 g?

A) 2 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 E) More information is needed.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17.5 41) Iodine-131 has a half-life of 8 days. How much of a 1000 milligram sample of iodine-131 would be left after 32 days?

A) 500 milligram B) 250 milligram C) 125 milligram D) 62.5 milligram E) 31.25 milligram Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.5

12 ..

42) Tritium ( 31 H ) is an isotope of hydrogen that is sometimes used to make the hands of watches glow in the dark. The half-life of tritium is 12.3 years. After 49 years, approximately how much of the original tritium remains?

A) 50% B) 25% C) 12.5% D) 6.25% E) 3.12% Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.5 43) The radioactive gas radon A) is a product of the radioactive decay series of uranium.

B) is the single greatest source of human radiation exposure.

C) is more hazardous for smokers than nonsmokers.

D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 44) Which fact about carbon-14 dating is FALSE? A) C-14 is formed by neutron bombardment of nitrogen in the upper atmosphere.

B) C-14 dating can only work on items that come from a living source.

C) C-14 dating only works as far back as 50,000 years.

D) C-14 accuracy is verified by dating antique items of a known age.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.6 45) If an object has 6.25% of the C-14 (t1/2 = 5,730 yrs) activity as a living organism, the age of the item is: A) 11,460 years.

B) 17,190 years.

C) 22,920 years.

D) 28,650 years.

E) More information is needed.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.6 46) If an object has 25% of the C-14 (t1/2 = 5,730 yrs) activity as a living organism, the age of the item is: A) 11,460 years.

B) 17,190 years.

C) 22,920 years.

D) 28,650 years.

E) More information is needed.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.6

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47) If an object is 28,650 yrs old, what is the C-14 (t1/2 = 5,730 yrs) activity as compared to a living organism?

A) 6 half-lives B) 5 half -lives C) 4 half-lives D) 3 half-lives E) More information is needed.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.6 48) If an object is 17,190 yrs old, what is the C-14 (t1/2 = 5,730 yrs) activity as compared to a living organism?

A) 6 half-lives B) 5 half-lives C) 4 half-lives D) 3 half-lives E) More information is needed.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.6 49) The first person to artificially cause a nucleus to undergo a fission reaction was: A) Otto Hahn.

B) Lise Meitner.

C) Fritz Strassman.

D) Enrico Fermi.

E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17.7 50) The self-amplifying reaction in which neutrons produced by the fission of one nucleus would induce fission in other nuclei is called A) critical mass.

B) chain reaction.

C) nuclear fusion.

D) positron emission.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.7 51) Why can U-235 produce a chain reaction?

A) Extremely high amounts of energy are released in the reaction.

B) Neutrons produce the fission reaction and are also a product of the reaction.

C) All elements above bismuth (#83) can undergo fission based chain reactions.

D) Chain reactions merely need sufficient mass (critical mass) to start.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.7

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52) Which of the following statements about the creation of the nuclear bomb is FALSE? A) Einstein lobbied President Roosevelt to pursue creation of the bomb.

B) American war intelligence feared the Germans were ahead of the Allies in developing nuclear weapons in WWII. C) J.R. Oppenheimer headed the Manhattan Project.

D) The Germans were defeated by the time the bomb had been developed.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.7 53) Nuclear power: A) generates 20% of the electricity needed in the US. B) generates heat which boils water and turns a steam turbine to produce electricity.

C) generates no air pollution or greenhouse gases.

D) uses almost no fuel compared to fossil fuel plants.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.8 54) The control rods of a nuclear reactor: A) regulate the chain reaction because they contain catalysts.

B) regulate the chain reaction because they absorb the U-235 atoms.

C) regulate the chain reaction because they absorb the neutrons.

D) regulate the chain reaction because they produce positrons.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.8 55) Nuclear power is criticized because: A) of long term storage issues of radioactive wastes.

B) it is an expensive form of energy.

C) it is not as efficient as burning fossil fuels.

D) of the danger of detonation into a nuclear bomb.

E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.8 56) Nuclear fusion: A) is the formation of heavier elements from lighter ones.

B) releases a larger amount of heat than nuclear fission.

C) is the energy source of the sun and stars.

D) produces non-radioactive elements.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.9

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57) Nuclear fusion: A) requires intense temperatures that make it impossible to harness as an energy source with our current technology.

B) is the basis of the hydrogen bomb.

C) can be done but requires the detonation of a traditional fission bomb.

D) is a possible energy source of the future.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.9 58) Which of the following is NOT a unit used for expressing radioactivity: A) roentgen B) geiger C) rem D) curie E) All of the above are units used to express radioactivity.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.10 59) Acute radiation damage: A) results from lower doses of radiation over extended periods of time.

B) results from exposure to lower amounts of radiation in a short period of time.

C) can result in death.

D) results in an increased chance of cancer.

E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.10 60) Isotope scanning involves: A) radioactive isotopes that are used in place of x-rays.

B) radioactive isotopes that are absorbed by specific organs.

C) destroying cancerous cells by intense radiation levels.

D) acute radiation exposure.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.11 61) Radiation therapy involves: A) radioactive isotopes that are used in place of x-rays.

B) radioactive isotopes that are absorbed by specific organs.

C) destroying cancerous cells by intense radiation levels.

D) acute radiation exposure.

E) none of the above.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.12

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Algorithmic Questions 1) When 232 90Th undergoes alpha decay, what is the atomic mass of the element that is produced?

A) 88 B) 228 C) 236 D) 92 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17.3 2) When 232 90Th undergoes Beta decay, what is the atomic number of the element that is produced?

A) 88 B) 91 C) 89 D) 92 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17.3 3) When 228 89 Ac undergoes positron emission, what is the atomic number of the element that is produced?

A) 87 B) 90 C) 88 D) 91 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17.3 4) A 1.2 kg sample of Th-228 has a half-life of 1.9 years. How many grams of Th is left after 11.4 years?

A) 18.8 B) 9.4 C) 37.5 D) 0 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17.5 5) A C-14 dating experiment revealed that an artifact had 50.0% of the activity of a modern organism. Given the half-life of C-14 is 5730 years, approximately how old is the artifact?

A) 28,650 B) 34,380 C) 22,920 D) 5,730 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17.6

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Essay Questions 1) Briefly describe the main features of the three types of radiation: alpha, beta, and gamma. Also explain what happens to the nucleus of an atom when it is exposed to each of these.

Answer: 1. Alpha radiation occurs when the nucleus of an atom emits a particle that consists of two protons and two neutrons (mass number = 4) and an atomic number 2. An alpha particle is a helium nucleus. When the nucleus undergoes alpha decay, its mass number decreases by four and its atomic number decreases by two.

2. Beta radiation occurs when an unstable nucleus emits an electron. A beta particle has a mass number of 0 and an atomic number of -1. When a nucleus undergoes beta decay, its mass number remains the same and its atomic number increases by one.

3. Gamma rays consist of high energy photons. Since gamma radiation which is simply electromagnetic radiation has neither mass number nor atomic number, it does not change the mass number or the atomic number of the atom.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.3 2) Briefly distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.

Answer: Nuclear Fission is the splitting of an atom such as Uranium-238 by bombarding it with neutrons. Two or more smaller nuclei and additional neutrons are produced during fission. The neutrons set off a chain reaction which results in the emission of enormous amounts of energy. These reactions have been used in nuclear reactors and in atom bombs.

Nuclear fusion is the combination of two lighter nuclei to produce a heavier nucleus. Nuclear fusion results in the production of enormous amounts of energy. These reactions have been used in hydrogen bombs. However, scientists have not been able to successfully harness nuclear fusion to produce electrical energy.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17.9

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Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 18 Organic Chemistry True/False Questions 1) All organic molecules contain carbon but not all carbon compounds are organic compounds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.1 2) The study of carbon-containing compounds and their reactions is called carbonyl chemistry.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.1 3) It was originally thought that organic compounds had to come from living things.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.2 4) Organic compounds have to come from living things.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.2 5) Carbon must always form four bonds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.3 6) Hydrocarbons contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.4 7) A noncyclical alkane hydrocarbon containing eight carbon atoms should also contain eighteen hydrogen atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.4 8) Alkanes contain double and single bonds.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.5 9) The formula of n-octane is: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.5 10) An ethyl group can be symbolized as -CH3.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.5

1 ..

11) As the number of carbon atoms increases in n-alkanes, so does their boiling point.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.5 12) Isomerism is very rare in organic compounds.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.6 13) Isomers are compounds with the same structures but different formulas.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.6 14) The compound with the formula CH4 has four possible isomers.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.6 15) Alkynes are compounds with at least one triple bond.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.8 16) Alkenes and alkynes are unsaturated hydrocarbons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.8 17) 1-hexene and 1-hexyne are isomers.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.8 18) Combustion reactions always produce water and carbon monoxide.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 19) Hydrocarbon combustion reactions are highly endothermic - they absorb large amounts of heat.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 20) Alkanes undergo addition reactions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 21) When an alkene undergoes an addition reaction to form an alkane, a saturated compound has been converted to an unsaturated compound.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 22) Aromatic compounds contain a benzene ring.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.10

2 ..

23) R OH is an ether functional group.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.11 24) R O R is an ether functional group.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.11 25) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH is named 5-pentanol.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.12 26) The formula for ethyl propyl ether is: CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.13 27) Aldehydes and ketones both contain a carbonyl group.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.14 28) The generic condensed structural formula for carboxylic acids is RCOOH. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.15 29) The formula of propanoic acid is: CH2CH2COOH. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.15 30) The formula of methyl propanoate is: CH3CH2COOCH3.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.15 31) Esters are best known for their awful odors such as that associated with the smell of rotten fish.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.16 32) Amines are nitrogen- containing organic compounds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.16 33) The compound CH3NH2 can be classified as an amine.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.16 34) A polymer is a long chainlike compound containing a random arrangement of organic molecules called monomers.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.17 3 ..

35) Production of the synthetic polymer "polyethylene" uses an alkene as a starting monomer unit.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.17

Multiple Choice Questions 1) What chemical reaction was used by the German chemist Friedrich Wohler to synthesize urea for the first time?

A) evaporating urine B) heating ammonium cyanate C) heating ammonium cyanide D) combining the elements carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.2 2) Which of the following statements about carbon is FALSE? A) Carbon must always have four bonds.

B) Carbon can bond to itself.

C) Carbon can have either a tetrahedral, trigonal planar or linear geometry.

D) Carbon can form into linear, branched and cyclic compounds.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.3 3) What is the molecular geometry of the underlined carbon atom in the following compound,

?

A) tetrahedral B) trigonal planar C) linear D) bent E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.3 4) What is the molecular geometry of the underlined carbon atom in the following compound, A) tetrahedral B) trigonal planar C) linear D) bent E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.3

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?

5) What is the molecular geometry of the underlined carbon atom in the following compound,

?

A) tetrahedral B) trigonal planar C) linear D) bent E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.3 6) What will be the molecular geometry of an open-chain noncyclical hydrocarbon with the generic molecular formula CnH2n-2?

A) linear B) tetrahedral C) trigonal planar D) trigonal pyramidal E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 18.4 7) Based on the molecular formulas shown below, which compound shown below would NOT be classified as a noncyclical alkane?

A) C4H10 B) C3H8 C) C5H12 D) C12H24 E) C9H20 Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.4 8) Hydrocarbons are commonly used for: A) fuel.

B) wax.

C) fabrics.

D) plastics.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.4 9) Which type of hydrocarbon is classified as being saturated?

A) alkanes B) alkenes C) alkynes D) all of these E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.4

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10) Which compound below is an alkane?

A) C4H10 B) CH3CH2CH3 C) C7H16 D) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.5 11) Consider the following n-alkanes: CH4, C2H6, C3H8, C4H10 Which of these would you expect to have the highest boiling point?

A) CH4 B) C2H6 C) C3H8 D) C4H10 E) all n-alkanes have the same boiling point Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.5 12) Which of the following is the formula for heptane?

A) C4H10 B) C3H8 C) C7H16 D) C2H6 E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.5 13) Which formula represents butane?

A) C4H10 B) C3H8 C) C7H16 D) C2H6 E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.5 14) Which is the name of C5H12?

A) n-butane B) n-hexane C) n-heptane D) n-pentane E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.5 6 ..

15) Which is the name of C6H14?

A) n-butane B) n-hexane C) n-heptane D) n-pentane E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.5 16) A straight chain saturated hydrocarbon has eight carbon atoms. Its molecular formula is A) C8H14.

B) C8H16.

C) C8H18.

D) C8H24.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.5 17) Two compounds are considered as isomers if they have the A) same molecular formula AND different structure.

B) same molecular formula AND same structure.

C) different molecular formula AND different structure.

D) different molecular formula AND same structure.

E) same molecular formula OR same structure.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.6 18) Which of the following structural formulas is an isomer to n-hexane?

A) C C C C

B) C

C C

C) C

C

D)

C

C

C

C

C

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.6

7 ..

19) How many isomers exist for the alkane whose molecular formula is C 4H10?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.6 20) Which of the following structural formulas is an isomer to n-nonane?

A) C C C C

C

B) C

C

C

C) C

C

C C

D)

C

C

C C C

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.6

21) Name the following alkane:

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH3

A) 1,3-dimethylhexane B) 4-methylheptane C) 2-propylpentane D) 1-methyl-1-propylbutane E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.7 22) The prefix "but-" means that the base chain contains how many carbon atoms?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.7

8 ..

23) Name the following alkane: CH3

CH2

A) 3-isopropylbutane B) 3,4-dimethylpentane C) 2,3-dimethylpentane D) 2-isopropylbutane E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.7 24) Which of the following compounds is an alkene?

A) C2H6 B) C3H6 C) C4H6 D) C5H12 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.8 25) Which of the following compounds is an alkyne?

A) C2H6 B) C3H6 C) C2H2 D) C5H12 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.8 26) What is the formula for propene?

A) C3H8 B) C3H6 C) C3H4 D) C3H3 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.8 27) What is the formula for propyne?

A) C3H8 B) C3H6 C) C3H4 D) C3H3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.8

9 ..

CH3

28) What is the name of the following compound:

?

A) 4-pentane B) 4-ene-pentane C) 1-pentene D) 2-pentane E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.8 29) What is the name of the following compound:

?

A) 3-butene B) 1-butyne C) 2-butene D) 1-butene E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.8 30) Name the following alkane: CH3

C

C

CH2

CH3

| | CH3 CH3 A) 2-propyl-2-isobutene B) 1-propyl-2-butene C) 1,1,3-trimethyl-1-pentene D) 3,4-dimethyl-2-pentene E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.8 31) The compound named 2,3-dimethylpentane would have how many total number of carbons?

A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 8 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.8 32) What are the products from the combustion of 2-methyl-3-ethyloctane?

A) variety of small hydrocarbons B) carbon monoxide, carbon trioxide and water C) carbon dioxide and water D) carbon monoxide and water E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 18.9

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33) The combustion of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes produces: A) water and carbon.

B) oxygen and hydrogen.

C) carbon dioxide and hydrogen.

D) hydrogen and water.

E) carbon dioxide and water.

Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 18.9 34) Which of the following compounds will undergo a substitution reaction?

A) C2H4 B) C2H2 C) C2H6 D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.9 35) Which of the following compounds will undergo an addition reaction?

A) C3H8 B) C2H4 C) C2H6 D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.9 36) What are the product(s) of: C2H6 + Cl2 → ?

A) C2H6Cl2 B) C2H4Cl2 + H2 C) C2H5Cl + HCl D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.9 37) What will be the major product(s) when C2H4 undergoes an addition reaction with Cl2?

A) C2H3Cl2 B) C2H4Cl2 C) C2H2Cl2 D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.9

11 ..

38) What will be the major product(s) when C2H2 undergoes an addition reaction with Cl2?

A) C2HCl+ HCl B) C2H2Cl2 C) C2Cl2 + H2 D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.9 39) The reaction CH3CH3 + Br2 → CH3CH2Br + HBr would best be described as: A) substitution.

B) combustion.

C) addition.

D) hydrogenation.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.9 40) The reaction CH2=CH2 + H2 → CH3CH3 would best be described as: A) substitution.

B) combustion.

C) addition.

D) hydrogenation.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.9 41) The reaction CH2=CH2 + Br2 → CHBrCHBr would best be described as: A) substitution.

B) combustion.

C) addition.

D) hydrogenation.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.9

12 ..

42) Name the aromatic compound shown below:

A) Phenyl bromide B) Benzyl bromide C) Bromobenzene D) Phenol E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.10 43) How many carbon atoms would be in the compound named chlorobenzene?

A) 1 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.10 44) In naming disubstituted benzenes, "1,2" substitution is also known as: A) ortho substitution.

B) meta substitution.

C) para substitution.

D) isomer substitution.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.10

13 ..

45) Which of the following are correct names for the compound shown in the figure?

1) 1,2-Dibromobenzene 2) 1,3-Dibromobenzene 3) m-Dibromobenzene A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) None of 1, 2, and 3 Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.10 46) Which of the following functional groups represents an alcohol?

A) R

B) R

R

C) R

OH

D) R

OR

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.11

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47) Which of the following functional groups represents an ester?

A) R

B) R

R

C) R

OH

D) R

OR

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.11 48) Which of the following functional groups represents a ketone?

A) R

B) R

R

C) R

OH

D) R

OR

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.11 49) Which of the following functional groups represents an aldehyde?

A) R

B) R

R

C) R

OH

D) R

OR

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.11

15 ..

50) Which compound below represents isopropyl alcohol?

A) CH3

CH3

B) CH3 CH2 C) HO CH2 CH2 CH3 D) CH3 CH3 OH CH3 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.12 51) Name the following compound: CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 O CH2 CH3 A) butyl ethyl ether B) hexyl ether C) ethyl butylone D) 2-hexone Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.13

52) Name the following compound: A) propanone B) 2-methyl-2-ethanone C) propanal D) isopropanol E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.14 53) A compound named "propanal" would be classified as an A) alcohol.

B) amine.

C) aldehyde.

D) ether.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.14

16 ..

54) Name the following compound: A) ethanoate B) ethanoic acid C) ethanal D) ethanone E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.15 55) Ethyl propanoate is a(n): A) ether.

B) carboxylic acid.

C) ester.

D) ketone.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.15 56) Which of the following terms could NOT be applied to the compound CH 2=CHCH2CH2OH? A) unsaturated B) an alcohol C) an alkene D) a carboxylic acid E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.15 57) Amines are: A) organic compounds containing nitrogen.

B) known for their awful odors.

C) named according to the hydrocarbon groups attached to nitrogen.

D) based on NH3 with hydrogen groups being replaced by alkyl groups.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.16 58) Which of the following is NOT considered a type of polymer?

A) addition polymer B) condensation polymer C) natural polymer D) synthetic polymer E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18.17

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59) Which of the following is an example of a polymer?

A) DNA B) Protein C) Nylon D) Plexiglass E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.17 60) Which of the following statements is FALSE about polymers?

A) Several monomer units link together without eliminating any atom or group to form addition polymers.

B) During condensation polymerization an atom or group is eliminated.

C) Copolymers contain more than one kind of polymer.

D) Nylon 6,6 and polyurethane are examples of copolymers.

E) none of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.17

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Matching Questions Match the following: A)

CH3 I)

CH2 CH3

B) R

OH

J) CH2 CH3

C) R

OR'

K) R

R

L)

CH3

D) R

O

R'

E) CH2CH2CH2CH3

M) CH2 CH2 CH3 F)

CH2

CH3 N) R OH

G)

CH2

CH3 O)

H) R

1) sec-butyl Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.4 2)methyl Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.7 3) ethyl Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.7 4) propyl Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.7 5) isopropyl Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.7 6) butyl Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.7 7) isobutyl Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.7 19 ..

CH3

8) alcohol Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.11 9) ester Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.11 10) aldehyde Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.11 11) ketone Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.11 12) carboxylic acid Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18.11

Answers: 1) I 2) A 3) J 4) M 5) O 6) E 7) F 8) N 9) C 10) H 11) K 12) B

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Introductory Chemistry, 4e (Tro) Chapter 19 Biochemistry True/False Questions 1) The human genome project was embarked upon in the late 1970s with the goal of mapping the entire DNA molecule.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.1 2) Biochemistry is the study of chemical substances and process that occur in plants, animals and microorganisms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.1 3) The four main classes of biochemical compounds are carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and nucleic acids.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.2 4) The smallest structural unit of a living organism is the cell nucleus.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.2 5) Carbohydrates provide short term energy storage in cells.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 6) A carbohydrate that cannot be broken down into simpler carbohydrates is called a monosaccharide.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 7) Glucose is an example of a monosaccharide.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 8) Monosaccharides typically rearrange in aqueous solution to form double helix structures.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 9) Fructose is an example of a hexose, a six-carbon sugar.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 10) A pentose sugar contains more carbon atoms than does a hexose sugar.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.3

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11) The many OH groups present in carbohydrates such as glucose make them quite insoluble in water and blood.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 12) Humans are better able to digest cellulose than starch because of differences in the link between the glucose units in the polysaccharide.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 13) Lipids are soluble in aqueous solutions such as blood and cytoplasm.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 14) Lipids are considered to be more soluble in water than in other solvents.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 15) The term hydrophilic indicates a substance is repelled by water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 16) The polar section of a phospholipid is said to be hydrophobic.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 17) The nonpolar part of a phospholipid is repelled by water and is said to be hydrophilic.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 18) A fatty acid has a long chain of carbon atoms that ends with a carboxylic acid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 19) A triglyceride is a fat or oil that contains a fatty acid bonded to three glycerol molecules.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 20) Saturated fats tend to be solid at room temperature.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 21) Enzymes that act as catalysts are called proteins.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.5 22) Proteins are polymers of amino acids.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.5 2 ..

23) Amino acids are molecules that contain a side chain, a main chain, an amine group, a carboxylic acid group and a protein group.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.5 24) Protein structures are expressed in terms of amino acid sequence, the short-term repeating pattern, the longterm bend and folds and finally how proteins structures interact with themselves.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 25) The exact shape that a protein takes depends on the types of amino acids and their sequence in the protein chain.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 26) Pleated sheet is a tertiary protein structure.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 27) Quaternary protein structure is simply the sequence of amino acids in that protein's chain.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 28) The pattern Gly-Val-Gln-Cys-Cys-Ala-Ser-Val is an example of a primary protein structure.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 29) Nucleic acids contain a chemical code that ensures the correct amino acid sequence for proteins.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.7 30) DNA and RNA are the two types of nucleic acids.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.7 31) Nucleotides contain a phosphate, a sugar and an amino acid.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.7 32) A gene is a portion of DNA that codes for a single protein.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.7 33) DNA contained within the nucleus of most cells contains a complete set of instructions to make all of the proteins in the human body.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.8

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34) Protein synthesis occurs at the ribosome.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 35) Humans must synthesize some of the proteins they need because they cannot obtain them from the foods they eat.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 36) The complementary strand of DNA to the pattern GAATC is TCCGA. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 37) The bases on one strand of DNA pair with bases on the other strand of DNA through hydrogen bonding.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 38) A codon is a section of DNA that specifies a single amino acid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.8

Multiple Choice Questions 1) The human genome project showed that humans have approximately ________ genes.

A) 46 B) 20,000 C) 36,000 D) 3 Million E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.1 2) A roundworm has approximately ________ genes.

A) 46 B) 20,000 C) 32,000 D) 3 Million E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.1 3) The human genome project is expected to: A) help identify people who are susceptible to certain diseases.

B) help develop new ways to develop needed drugs our bodies make.

C) help develop new drugs to fight genetic diseases.

D) help understand the genetic basis for intelligence.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.1 4 ..

4) The portion of the cell that contains the genetic information is called: A) cytoplasm.

B) membrane.

C) nucleus.

D) mitochondria.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.2 5) The region of the cell that contains specialized structures that carry out the cell's work is called ________.

A) nucleus B) cell wall C) cell membrane D) cytoplasm E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.2 6) The region of the cell that holds the contents of the cell together is called ________.

A) nucleus B) mitochondria C) cell membrane D) cytoplasm E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.2 7) Which sequence below lists the order of the components of a cell, listed in order from inside to outside?

A) nucleus, cell membrane, cytoplasm B) cytoplasm, nucleus, cell membrane C) nucleus, cytoplasm, cell membrane D) cell membrane, nucleus, cytoplasm E) cell membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.2 8) The main chemical components of the cell are ________.

A) carbohydrates, alcohols, proteins and amines B) alcohols, proteins, amines and nucleic acids C) proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, and carbohydrates D) amines, lipids, nucleic acids and proteins E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.2

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9) An example of a monosaccharide is ________.

A) glucose B) sucrose C) cellulose D) glycogen E) both C and D Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 10) A seven-carbon sugar is known as A) tetrose.

B) sevose.

C) hexose.

D) heptose.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.3 11) An example of a disaccharide is A) glucose B) sucrose C) cellulose D) glycogen E) both C and D Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 12) Which of the following is NOT true regarding disaccharides?

A) The disaccharide link is so strong that it cannot be broken during digestion.

B) The link between the monosaccharides is called a glycosidic linkage.

C) Water is eliminated when two monosaccharides react to form a disaccharide.

D) A disaccharide is a carbohydrate composed of two simpler carbohydrates.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.3 13) During digestion, sucrose breaks down into ________.

A) glucose and galactose B) galactose and fructose C) fructose and lactose D) glucose and fructose E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.3

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14) An example of a polysaccharide is: A) glucose.

B) sucrose.

C) cellulose.

D) glycogen.

E) both C and D Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.3 15) Which of the following statements is FALSE about polysaccharides?

A) They are long chain structures containing large number of repeating monosaccharide units.

B) Starch, cellulose, and glycogen are polysaccharides.

C) Table sugar is a polysaccharide.

D) They break down to produce monosaccharides during digestion.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.3 16) All of the following are usable forms of carbohydrates by humans EXCEPT: A) glucose.

B) sucrose.

C) cellulose.

D) glycogen.

E) both C and D Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.3 17) All of the carbohydrates below are hexoses EXCEPT: A) glucose.

B) fructose.

C) galactose.

D) both A and B E) Glucose, fructose and galactose are all hexoses.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.3 18) The only difference between starch and cellulose is: A) starch is a linear arrangement of glucose units and cellulose is a branched arrangement of glucose units.

B) starch is a linear arrangement of sucrose units and cellulose is a linear arrangement of glucose units.

C) starch is a linear arrangement of fructose units and cellulose is a branched arrangement of fructose units.

D) starch is a linear arrangement of glucose units with alpha linkages and cellulose is a linear arrangement of glucose units with beta linkages.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.3

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19) A lipid is a chemical component of the cell that is A) insoluble in water but soluble in methanol.

B) soluble in nonpolar solvents and insoluble in water.

C) soluble in water and insoluble in nonpolar solvents.

D) soluble in both water and nonpolar solvents.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.4 20) Lipids include all of the following compounds EXCEPT: A) fatty acids.

B) fats.

C) oils.

D) amino acids.

E) All of the above are lipids.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.4 21) Lipids include all of the following compounds EXCEPT: A) phospholipids.

B) glycolipids.

C) carboxylic acids.

D) steroids.

E) All of the above are lipids.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.4 22) Which of the following is a saturated fatty acid?

A) oleic acid B) linoleic acid C) linolenic acid D) capric acid E) All of the above are saturated fatty acids.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.4 23) Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?

A) oleic acid B) palmitic acid C) myristic acid D) butyric acid E) All of the above are saturated fatty acids.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.4

8 ..

24) Which of the following statements about fats and oils is FALSE? A) Fats and oils are made of a fatty acid with three glycerides bonded to it.

B) The bonds between the fatty acids and the glycerol is an ester linkage.

C) A saturated fatty acid contains only single bonds between carbon atoms.

D) An unsaturated fatty acid contains some double or triple bonds.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.4 25) Which of the statements regarding phospholipids is FALSE? A) A phospholipid has nearly the same structure as a triglyceride.

B) Unlike triglycerides, phospholipids have a polar region.

C) Phospholipids are common in the cell membrane.

D) A cell membrane is a bilayer of phospholipids and glycolipids.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.4 26) Which of the following statements about proteins is FALSE? A) Proteins are polymers of amino acids.

B) Proteins can act as biological catalysts.

C) Proteins are the structural component of muscle and cartilage.

D) Proteins are a main source of energy for cells.

E) All of the statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.5 27) Which of the following statements about amino acids is FALSE? A) Amino acids are the monomers of protein molecules.

B) Amino acids all have an amine group, a side chain, and a carboxylic acid.

C) Amino acids bond to each other through a peptide bond.

D) Amino acids all have very similar physical properties.

E) All of the statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.5 28) Amino acids contain a(n): A) amine group.

B) carboxylic acid group.

C) "R" side chain.

D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.5

9 ..

29) Which factor causes the main difference in chemical properties between different amino acids?

A) amine group B) carboxylic acid group C) R group (side chain) D) molecular weight E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.5 30) Which of the following statements correctly explains the formation of a peptide bond between two amino acids?

A) The amine end of one links with the amine end of the other.

B) The carboxylic acid end of one links with the carboxylic acid end of the other.

C) The amine end of one links with the carboxylic acid end of the other and eliminates a water molecule.

D) The carboxylic acid end of one links with the carboxylic acid end of the other and eliminates a water molecule.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.5 31) Which protein structure provides the amino acid sequence?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 32) Which protein structure provides the arrangement of polypeptides?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.6 33) Which protein structure provides the large-scale bends and folds in the protein?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.6

10 ..

34) Which protein structure provides the short-range repeating patterns?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.6 35) The most common repeating pattern that is found along the secondary structure of a protein chain is A) α-helix.

B) β-pleated sheet.

C) β-turn.

D) random coil.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.6 36) The primary interactions that determine the tertiary structure of proteins include A) hydrogen bonds.

B) disulfide linkages.

C) hydrophobic interactions.

D) all of A, B, and C E) none of A, B, and C Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.6 37) Cys-Ala-Val-Cys-Gln is an example of which type of structure?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.6 38) A globular shape is an example of which type of structure?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.6

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39) An alpha helix is an example of which type of structure?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.6 40) Which type of structure is maintained by interaction between R-groups on amino acids that are separated by long distances on the same chain?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.6 41) Which type of structure is maintained by interaction between R-groups on amino acids that are on separate chains?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.6 42) Which type of structure is maintained by interaction between R-groups on amino acids that are separated by short distances on the same chain?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.6 43) Which of the following statements about nucleic acids is FALSE? A) Nucleic acids contain the code to make lipids.

B) Nucleic acids specify the order of amino acids in proteins.

C) Nucleic acids are either DNA or RNA. D) Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides.

E) All of the statements are true.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.7

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44) Which base is found in RNA but NOT in DNA? A) uracil B) thymine C) guanine D) cytosine E) adenine Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.7 45) A nucleotide contains: A) phosphate, sugar, amino acid.

B) phosphate, lipid, base.

C) phosphate, lipid, amino acid.

D) phosphate, sugar, base.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.7 46) A codon is: A) a series of three bases that specifies one of the twenty amino acids.

B) a series of three phosphates that specifies one of the twenty amino acids.

C) a series of three sugars that specifies one of the twenty amino acids.

D) a series of three proteins that specify one of the twenty amino acids.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.7 47) A gene is: A) a structure within the cell nucleus that houses DNA. B) a portion of DNA that codes for a single protein.

C) a sequence of three nucleotides that codes for a single amino acid.

D) a portion of a protein that codes for a single amino acid.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.7 48) A chromosome is: A) a structure within the cell nucleus that houses genes.

B) a portion of DNA that codes for a single protein.

C) a sequence of three nucleotides that codes for a single amino acid.

D) a portion of a protein that codes for a single amino acid.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.7

13 ..

49) Which sequence below represents the correct base pairs that can exist in DNA? A) A with T and C with G B) A with C and T with G C) A with G and C with T D) A with U and T with G E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 50) The complementary base sequence to GTAGCT is: A) CATCGA. B) ACGATC. C) GCAGTA. D) AGTCGA. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.8 51) The structure of DNA is: A) the pleated sheet.

B) the alpha helix.

C) the beta helix.

D) the double helix.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.8 52) The synthesis of a protein involves: A) DNA transfers the code to m-RNA which then goes to the nucleus to synthesize the protein.

B) DNA transfers the code to m-RNA which then goes to the mitochondria to synthesize the protein.

C) DNA transfers the code to m-RNA which then goes to the ribosome to synthesize the protein.

D) DNA transfers the code to m-RNA which then goes to the codon to synthesize the protein.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.8 53) The two strands that form the double helix of DNA are held to each other by: A) peptide bonds.

B) covalent bonds.

C) hydrogen bonds.

D) ester linkages.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.8

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54) The "m" in the term mRNA represents A) meta.

B) mini.

C) mitosis.

D) messenger.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19.8

Essay Questions 1) It is expected that the Human Genome Project by mapping DNA can lead to the development of new drugs in two ways. Briefly explain how new drugs can be developed as a result of the Human Genome Project.

Answer: 1. Understanding of the function of specific genes will allow scientists to design drugs that will carry out the functions related to the genes.

2. Scientists can also take the blueprints contained in human genes and put them in bacteria which will synthesize the needed drugs. Such drugs are then isolated from the bacteria and given to patients.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.1 2) What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?

Answer: The carbon chains in saturated fatty acids do not contain double bonds while unsaturated fatty acids contain at least one double bond.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.4 3) Summarize the main features of the four categories of protein structure.

Answer: 1. Primary structure is the sequence of amino acids in the protein chain.

2. Secondary structure refers to the short-range repeating patterns found along the protein chain.

3. Tertiary structure consists of large-scale twists and folds within the protein due to the interactions between the R- groups of amino acids that are separated by large distances in the protein sequence.

4. Quaternary structure refers to the arrangement of chains in proteins. Quaternary structure is maintained by interactions between amino acids on the individual chains.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19.6

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