Introduction to Information Systems Enabling and Transforming Business, 3rd Edition International St

Type:

Test Bank

Introduction to Information Resource: Systems Enabling and Transforming Business Edition:

3rd Edition

Author(s):

R. Kelly Rainer Casey G. Cegielski

File: ch01, Chapter 1: The Modern Organization Functioning in a Global Environment

True/False

1. The overall performance of an organization has little to do with how well it manages its business processes.

Ans: False Response: Business Processes and Business Process Management Difficulty: Easy

2. Business process management includes methods and tools to support the design, analysis, implementation, management, and optimization of business processes.

Ans: True Response: Business Processes and Business Process Management Difficulty: Easy

3. Information technology typically requires a small investment, but a rather long period of time.

Ans: False Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Easy

4. A combination of your high school grades, application essays, letters of recommendation, and Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) scores would be considered information.

Ans: True Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Easy

5. A university registrar who uses her experience with university admissions along with your high school grades, application essays, letters of recommendation, and Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) scores, would be applying her knowledge in your application process.

Ans: True Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Easy

6. A list of football scores with the names of the teams that played the games would be considered information.

Ans: True Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Easy

7. Information technology deals with the planning, development, management, and use of management information tools to help people perform all the tasks related to information processing and management.

Ans: False Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Easy

8. IT services include data management, systems development, and security concerns.

Ans: True Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Easy

9. The information technology environment is the combination of social, legal, economic, physical, and political factors that affect business activities.

Ans: False Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

10. In general, labor costs are higher in developed countries than in developing countries.

Ans: True Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

11. Developed countries usually pay higher fringe benefits than developing countries.

Ans: True Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

12. Information technology is facilitating the entry of a wide variety of employees into the workforce.

Ans: True Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

13. Internet access in the United States is not particularly related to household income.

Ans: False Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

14. In general, government deregulation decreases competition.

Ans: False Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

15. Ethical issues are important because, if handled poorly, they can damage the image of an organization.

Ans: True Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

16. Build-to-stock is a strategy of producing customized products and services.

Ans: False Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

17. In mass production, a company produces a large quantity of identical items.

Ans: True Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

18. In mass customization, companies produce items in large quantity, with each item tailored to fit the desires of each customer.

Ans: True Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

19. The more highly skilled IT jobs are being offshored.

Ans: False Response: Why Are Information Systems Important to You? Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. The impact that information technology had on Rapa Nui in the chapter opening case was mainly which of the following?

A. individual B. organizational C. societal D. global E. none of the above Ans: C Response: Chapter Opening Case Difficulty: Medium

2. The main impacts of information technology on Rapa Nui include which of the following?

A. track erosion B. encourage sustainable development C. simulate erosion patterns D. track diseases E. all of the above Ans: E Response: Chapter Opening Case Difficulty: Medium

3. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. To succeed in today’s environment, it is often necessary to change business models and strategies.

B. IT enables organizations to survive in the face of business pressures.

C. IT requires small investments over a long period of time.

D. Organizations can leverage their platforms to develop Web-based applications, products, and services.

Ans: C Response: Chapter Opening Case Difficulty: Medium

4. The fact that you practice continuous computing means all of the following except: A. You are surrounded by a movable information network.

B. You can pull information about almost everything from anywhere all the time.

C. You can push your ideas to the Web. D. Your daily routines are the same as students 20 years ago, but you can do your tasks much more quickly and with less effort.

Ans: D Response: Chapter Opening Case Difficulty: Medium

5. _____ relates to any computer-based tool that people use to work with information and to support the information processing needs of the organization.

A. Information technology architecture B. Information technology infrastructure C. Information technology D. An information system E. A Computer-Based Information System Ans: C Response: Chapter Opening Case Difficulty: Easy

6. _____ deal(s) with the planning for – and the development, management, and use of – technology to help people perform their tasks related to information processing.

A. IT architecture B. IT infrastructure C. Information technology D. Management information systems E. IT services Ans: D Response: Chapter Opening Case Difficulty: Easy

7. A(n) _____ is a collection of related activities that produce a product or a service of value to an organization.

A. workflow pattern B. business process C. supply chain D. information system E. management technique Ans: B Response: Business Processes Difficulty: Easy

8. _____ conveys understanding, accumulated learning, and expertise as they apply to a current problem.

A. Data B. Information C. Knowledge D. Experience E. Wisdom Ans: C Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Easy

9. _____ is (are) data that have been organized to have meaning and value to a recipient.

A. Insights B. Information C. Knowledge D. Experience E. Wisdom Ans: B Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Easy

10. The list of all your purchases from Amazon (books bought, price paid, dates) would be considered to be: A. data B. information C. knowledge D. experience E. wisdom Ans: B Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Easy

11. If Amazon uses a list of all your purchases (books bought, price paid, dates) to be able to recommend other books to you, then Amazon is applying its _____.

A. data B. information C. knowledge D. experience E. wisdom Ans: C Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Easy

12. A listing of all courses offered at your university would be considered _____, where a listing of all courses required in your major would be considered _____.

A. information, data B. knowledge, information C. information, knowledge D. data, information E. data, knowledge Ans: D Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Easy

13. You are registering for the next semester at your university. The combination of your major, the courses you need, the prerequisites for each course, the times you take each course, and the professors teaching each section, as well as your work schedule, means that you are using _____ to select your class schedule.

A. information B. knowledge C. experience D. wisdom E. data Ans: B Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Medium

14. An organization’s information technology architecture: A. provides a guide for current operations.

B. provides a blueprint for future directions.

C. integrates the information requirements of the organization and all users.

D. is analogous to the architecture of a house.

E. all of the above Ans: E Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Easy

15. _____ is/are the computer hardware, software, and communications technologies that are used by IT personnel to produce IT services.

A. IT components B. IT services C. Information technology D. An information system E. A computer-based information system Ans: A Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Easy

16. An organization’s _____ consists of the physical facilities, IT components, IT services, and IT management that will support the entire organization.

A. information technology architecture B. information technology infrastructure C. information technology D. information system E. computer-based information system Ans: B Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Easy

17. IT personnel use _____ to produce _____.

A. IT components, IT services B. computer-based information systems, IT architecture C. IT infrastructure, IT architecture D. IT infrastructure, IT platform Ans: A Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Medium

18. _____ added to _____ equals IT infrastructure.

A. IT components, IT services B. IT components, IT personnel C. IT services, IT personnel D. IT personnel, computer-based information systems Ans: A Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Medium

19. _____ is the integration of economic, social, cultural, and ecological facets of life, enabled by information technologies.

A. Regionalization B. Nationalization C. Globalization D. Business environment Ans: C Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Easy

20. The global, Web-based platform enables individuals to do which of the following?

A. connect, compute, communicate, collaborate, and compete everywhere and all the time B. access information, services, and entertainment C. exchange knowledge D. produce and sell goods and services E. all of the above Ans: E Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Medium

21. The force behind globalization in _____ was the amount of muscle, horsepower, wind power, or steam power that a country could deploy.

A. Globalization 1.0 B. Globalization 2.0

C. Globalization 3.0 D. None of these Ans: A Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Easy

22. A convergence of Friedman’s 10 flatteners is driving _____.

A. Globalization 1.0 B. Globalization 2.0 C. Globalization 3.0 D. None of these Ans: C Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Easy

23. Falling telecommunications costs from the telephone, computer, satellites, and fiber-optic cable drove (or drives) globalization in _____.

A. Globalization 1.0 B. Globalization 2.0 C. Globalization 3.0 D. None of these Ans: B Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Easy

24. Falling transportation costs (e.g., steam engine, railroads) drove (or drives) globalization in _____.

A. Globalization 1.0 B. Globalization 2.0 C. Globalization 3.0 D. None of these Ans: B Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Easy

25. Multinational companies were the force behind globalization in _____.

A. Globalization 1.0 B. Globalization 2.0 C. Globalization 3.0 D. None of these Ans: B Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Easy

26. The global, Web-based platform appeared in _____.

A. Globalization 1.0 B. Globalization 2.0 C. Globalization 3.0 D. None of these Ans: C Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Easy

27. The force behind globalization in _____ is (was) biotechnology, cloning, and gene sequencing.

A. Globalization 1.0 B. Globalization 2.0 C. Globalization 3.0 D. None of these Ans: D Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Easy

28. The global economy began to appear in _____.

A. Globalization 1.0 B. Globalization 2.0 C. Globalization 3.0 D. None of these Ans: B Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Easy

29. Globalization 1.0 focused on _____, Globalization 2.0 focused on _____, and Globalization 3.0 focuses on _____.

A. companies, groups, countries B. countries, groups, companies C. countries, companies, groups D. groups, companies, countries E. groups, countries, companies Ans: C Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Medium

30. The fall of the Berlin Wall had all of the following consequences except: A. collapse of the Soviet Union B. the rise of the European Union C. a move toward centrally planned economies

D. people thinking about the world as a single economy Ans: C Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Medium

31. The consequences of uploading include all of the following except: A. growth of the open-source software movement B. shift toward a static, passive approach to media C. increased collaboration over the Web D. growth of blogs and Wikis Ans: B Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Medium

32. _____ enables computer applications to interoperate without human interaction.

A. Supply-chaining B. Informing C. Uploading D. Work-flow software E. Outsourcing Ans: D Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Easy

33. _____ involves taking a specific function that your company was doing itself, having another company perform that same function for you, and then integrating their work back into your operation.

A. Informing B. Insourcing C. Offshoring D. Outsourcing E. Uploading Ans: D Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Easy

34. If UPS is taking Dell computers at the loading dock, and then shipping them to Dell customers, then Dell is practicing which of the following?

A. informing B. insourcing C. offshoring D. outsourcing E. uploading Ans: B

Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Medium

35. _____ means that you can create content and send or post it to the Web. A. Informing B. Insourcing C. Delivering D. Participating E. Uploading Ans: E Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Easy

36. If your university hires a company to manage its entire human resources function, then your university is practicing _____.

A. insourcing B. outsourcing C. offshoring D. temporary hiring E. consulting Ans: B Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Medium

37. The zero-footprint IT model provides all of the following to organizations except: A. the ability to react quickly to changing business conditions B. “greener” business operations C. the ability to move systems and data rapidly to new offices D. a reduced carbon footprint E. reduced staffing Ans: C Response: IT’s About Business 1.1 Difficulty: Difficult

38. The zero-footprint IT model is enabled by all of the following except: A. the global, Web-based platform B. faster, cheaper computers C. the Internet D. high-speed communications E. hiring additional employees Ans: E Response: IT’s About Business 1.1 Difficulty: Difficult

39. Market pressures include which of the following?

A. global economy B. moderately strong competition C. homogeneous workforce D. weak customers E. high-cost labor offshore Ans: A Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

40. In general, labor costs are _____ in developed countries than in developing countries.

A. lower B. higher C. about the same D. decreasing faster E. decreasing slower Ans: B Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

41. The workforce in developed countries has all of the following characteristics except: A. it is more diversified B. including more women C. including more single parents D. including fewer persons with disabilities E. including more minorities Ans: E Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

42. Today’s customers have which of the following characteristics?

A. less knowledge about products B. less sophistication C. difficulty in finding information about products D. higher expectations E. difficulty in comparing prices Ans: D Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

43. The digital divide is an example of which type of societal pressure?

A. social responsibility

B. government regulations C. protection against terrorism D. ethics E. information overload Ans: A Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

44. The impact of the global, Web-based platform on microlenders such as Kiva includes which of the following?

A. bringing increased numbers of borrowers and donors together B. reducing transaction costs C. making the lending process more efficient D. reducing administrative costs E. all of the above Ans: E Response: IT’s About Business 1.2 Difficulty: Medium

45. Verizon’s centralized IT department performs all of the following roles except: A. ensuring that the business operates efficiently.

B. directly supporting the strategy of the individual business units.

C. helping define the company’s strategy.

D. keeping abreast of new technologies.

E. examining ways to incorporate new technologies into the operations of the business.

Ans: B Response: IT’s About Business 1.2 Difficulty: Difficult

46. When identical items are produced in large quantities, it is called: A. strategic systems.

B. customer focus.

C. continuous improvement.

D. mass production.

E. mass customization.

Ans: D Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

47. When customized items are produced in large quantities, it is called: A. strategic systems.

B. customer focus.

C. continuous improvement.

D. mass production.

E. mass customization.

Ans: E Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Easy

48. The Bodymetrics Body Scanner is best an example of: A. mass production.

B. customer focus.

C. real-time customer input.

D. mass customization.

E. continuous improvement.

Ans: D Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Medium

49. Which of the following is not a fact about IT careers?

A. The four-fastest growing U.S. jobs that require college degrees from 2002 through 2012 are IT-related.

B. Highly-skilled IT jobs will typically not be offshored.

C. There are no computing jobs.

D. MIS majors usually receive high starting salaries.

Ans: C Response: Why Are Information Systems Important to You? Difficulty: Medium

50. Product lifecycle management software has enabled Santa Cruz Bicycles to do all of the following except: A. speed up simulations of the bicycle’s suspension.

B. capitalize on the company’s patented suspension.

C. produce prototypes more slowly, but more accurately.

D. speed up the overall production process.

E. improve quality control.

Ans: C Response: Chapter Closing Case Difficulty: Difficulty

Short Answer

1.

Differentiate between management information systems and information technology.

Response: Chapter Opening Case Difficulty: Medium

2.

Describe examples of business processes at your university.

Response: Business Processes Difficulty: Medium

3.

Differentiate among data, information, and knowledge.

Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Medium

4.

Differentiate between information technology architecture and information technology infrastructure.

Response: Information Systems: Concepts and Definitions Difficulty: Medium

5.

Describe the global, Web-based platform proposed by Friedman.

Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Medium

6.

Describe what Friedman calls “the steroids.”

Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Medium

7. Discuss the business pressures that face organizations today.

Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Medium

8. Discuss organizational responses to today’s business pressures.

Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Medium

9. Differentiate between mass customization and mass production.

Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Medium

10. Describe why information systems and information technologies are integral to your lives.

Response: Why Are Information Systems Important to You? Difficulty: Medium

Essay

1. Explain by giving examples of how information technology impacts individuals, organizations, and the globe.

Response: Chapter Opening Case Difficulty: Hard

2. What does it mean to say that you practice continuous computing?

Response: Chapter Opening Case Difficulty: Hard

3. Discuss Friedman’s three stages of globalization.

Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Hard

4. Describe how Google and Amazon (among other companies) are using the global, Web-based platform to develop and deliver applications.

Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform and chapter opening and closing cases Difficulty: Hard

5. Describe Friedman’s 10 flatteners.

Response: The Global, Web-Based Platform Difficulty: Hard

6. What does social responsibility mean and how does IT contribute to social responsibility?

Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Hard

7. Describe how the One Laptop per Child project contributes to closing the digital divide.

Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Hard

8. Are the IT platforms of Google and Amazon considered to be strategic systems? Support your answer.

Response: Business Pressures, Organizational Responses, and IT Support Difficulty: Hard

9. Discuss and debunk four myths about careers in information technology.

Response: Why Are Information Systems Important to You? Difficulty: Hard

10. Is the product lifecycle management system at Santa Cruz Bicycles a strategic information system?

Why or why not? Support your answer.

Response: Chapter Closing Case Difficulty: Hard

File: ch02, Chapter 2: Information Systems and the Modern Organization

True/False

1. The two major determinants of information systems support are the functions that employees perform within organizations and the cost of the information systems.

Ans: False Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

2. Information systems tend to follow the structure of organizations and they are based on the needs of employees.

Ans: True Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

3. Software is a set of programs that enable the hardware to process data.

Ans: True Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

4. Procedures are the set of instructions about how to use information systems to process information and generate desired output.

Ans: True Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

5. Enterprise resource planning systems tightly integrate the functional area information systems via a common database.

Ans: True Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

6. Transaction processing systems tightly integrate the functional area information systems via a common database.

Ans: False

Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

7. Transaction processing systems provide the input for the organization’s databases.

Ans: True Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

8. An organization’s supply chain describes the flow of materials, information, money, and services from raw material suppliers through factories and warehouses to the end customers.

Ans: True Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

9. Supply chains are composed of only physical product flows.

Ans: False Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

10. If you order a computer from Dell, the process of approving your credit card is an information flow along Dell’s supply chain.

Ans: True Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

11. Clerical workers are supported mainly by office automation systems.

Ans: True Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

12. Functional area information systems summarize data and prepare reports, and provide the major support for middle-level managers.

Ans: True Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

13. Lower level managers make tactical decisions, which generally deal with activities such as short-term planning, organizing, and control.

Ans: False Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

14. Dashboards provide rapid access to timely information and direct access to structured information in the form of reports.

Ans: True Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

15. Competitive advantage helps a company control a market and generate larger-than-average profits.

Ans: True Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

16. Michael Porter concludes that the overall impact of the Internet is to increase competition, which positively impacts profitability.

Ans: False Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

17. The Internet increases traditional barriers to entry into a market.

Ans: False Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

18. The Internet decreases customers’ bargaining power.

Ans: False Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

19. Information-based industries face the most danger from substitutes.

Ans: True Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

20. The music industry is a good example of the extremely low variable costs of digital products.

Ans: True Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

21. The introduction of the ATM in the banking industry is an example of the innovation strategy.

Ans: True Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

22. Information technology makes managers more productive.

Ans: True Response: Why Are Information Systems Important to Organizations and Society?

Difficulty: Easy

23. Information technology increases the number of employees who can report to a single manager.

Ans: True Response: Why Are Information Systems Important to Organizations and Society?

Difficulty: Easy

24. As computers gain in intelligence and capabilities, the competitive advantage of replacing people with machines is decreasing rapidly.

Ans: False Response: Why Are Information Systems Important to Organizations and Society?

Difficulty: Easy

25. End user computing is when employees directly use computers in their work.

Ans: True Response: Managing Information Resources Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. What was the main problem at Johnny’s Lunch?

A. a weak brand B. a lack of customers C. lack of new product offerings D. difficulty in expanding nationally E. lack of profits Ans: D Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

2. Pitney Bowes SmartSite solution at Johnny’s Lunch did which of the following?

A. enabled Johnny’s Lunch to expand its product offerings B. helped Johnny’s Lunch to pinpoint optimal sites for new restaurants C. enabled Johnny’s Lunch to increase profits D. enabled Johnny’s Lunch to hire additional managerial and IT employees Ans: B Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

3. Which of the following statements about information systems is not correct?

A. Information systems are concentrated in the IS Department.

B. Information systems tend to follow the structure of the organization.

C. Information systems are based on the needs of employees.

D. Any information system can be strategic.

E. Managing information systems is difficult.

Ans: A Response: Discussion immediately following Chapter opening case Difficulty: Medium

4. A collection of related files, tables, and so on that stores data and the associations among them is _____.

A. hardware B. software C. a database D. a network E. procedures Ans: C Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

5. A set of programs that enable the hardware to process data is _____.

A. hardware B. software C. a database D. a network

E. procedures Ans: B Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

6. Which of the following is not a major capability of information systems?

A. perform high-speed, high-volume numerical computations B. provide fast, accurate communications among organizations C. store large amounts of information in a very large space D. increase the effectiveness and efficiency of people working in groups E. automate semiautomatic business processes Ans: C Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

7. Two information systems that support the entire organization are: A. enterprise resource planning systems, dashboards B. transaction processing systems, office automation systems C. enterprise resource planning systems, transaction processing systems D. expert systems, office automation systems E. expert systems, transaction processing systems Ans: C Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

8. _____ systems are designed to correct a lack of communications among _____.

A. Office automation systems, expert systems B. Transaction processing systems, functional area information systems C. Enterprise resource planning systems, functional area information systems D. Dashboards, office automation systems E. Functional area information systems, enterprise resource planning systems Ans: C Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

9. Refer to IT’s About Business 2.1. The Gameday Management Group uses IT for which of the following?

A. to help the National Football League (NFL) increase profits B. to help the NFL strengthen its brand C. to enable the NFL to find optimal cities for expansion D. to ensure that the Super Bowl operations function smoothly E. to help the NFL decide on new product offerings for each NFL franchise Ans: D

Response: IT’s About Business 2.1 Difficulty: Hard

10. When your purchases are swiped over the bar-code reader at the point-of-sale terminals at Wal-Mart, a _____ records the data.

A. transaction processing system B. functional area information system C. dashboard D. enterprise resource planning system E. office automation system Ans: A Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

11. Supply chain systems are which type of information system?

A. departmental information systems B. enterprisewide information systems C. interorganizational information systems D. end-user computing systems E. individual information systems Ans: C Response: Types of Information System Difficulty: Easy

12. Which information system is the most closely associated with the Internet?

A. transaction processing systems B. functional area information systems C. electronic commerce systems D. office automation systems E. individual information systems Ans: C Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

13. _____ deal with the day-to-day functioning of the organization and make routine decisions.

A. Clerical workers B. First-line supervisors C. Middle managers D. Senior managers E. Staff personnel Ans: B Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

14. _____ are professional people who act as advisors and assistants to both top and middle managers and are often subject-area experts in a particular area.

A. Clerical workers B. Operational managers C. Knowledge workers D. Middle level managers E. Executives Ans: C Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

15. _____ make decisions that deal with situations that may significantly change the manner in which business is done.

A. Knowledge workers B. Staff C. Middle managers D. Operational managers E. Senior managers Ans: E Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

16. _____ attempt to duplicate the work of human experts by applying reasoning capabilities.

A. Expert systems B. Dashboards C. Functional area information systems D. Decision support systems E. Business intelligence systems Ans: A Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

17. An information system that analyzes credit card applications and suggests approval or denial is a(n): A. expert system B. dashboard C. functional area information system D. decision support system E. business intelligence system Ans: A Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

18. _____ provide rapid access to timely information and direct access to structured information in the form of reports.

A. Expert systems B. Dashboards C. Functional area information systems D. Decision support systems E. Business intelligence systems Ans: B Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

19. Information-based industries are most susceptible to which one of Porter’s five forces?

A. threat of entry of new competitors B. bargaining power of suppliers C. bargaining power of customers D. threat of substitute products E. rivalry among existing firms in an industry Ans: D Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

20. Competitive advantage for an organization manifests as all of the following except: A. Lower costs B. Higher quality C. Increased time to market D. Increased profits E. Increased speed Ans: C Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

21. For most companies, the Web _____ the threat that new competitors will enter the market by _____ traditional barriers to entry.

A. decreases, increasing B. increases, decreasing C. increases, increasing D. decreases, decreasing Ans: B Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

22. _____ is a feature that must be offered by a competing organization for it to survive in the marketplace.

A. Competitive advantage B. Entry barrier

C. Strategic advantage D. Rapid time-to-market E. One-to-one marketing Ans: B Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

23. The threat of competitors’ entering the automobile manufacturing industry is _____ because barriers to entry are so _____.

A. low, low B. high, high C. high, low D. low, high E. cheap, expensive Ans: D Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

24. The threat of competitors’ entering a market is very high in industries that perform a(n) _____ role, and in industries where the primary product or service is _____.

A. intermediation, physical B. broker, physical C. sales, financial D. financial, digital E. intermediation, digital Ans: E Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Hard

25. The Internet has had which of the following impacts on the way you purchase your textbooks?

A. The Internet gives you fewer choices.

B. The Internet increases your bargaining power.

C. The Internet provides you with less information.

D. The Internet decreases your bargaining power.

E. The Internet increases your switching costs.

Ans: B Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

26. Buyer power is _____ when buyers have many choices from whom to buy and _____ when buyers have few choices.

A. high, the same B. high, low C. low, low

D. low, high E. low, the same Ans: B Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

27. The costs of delivering products in the _____ channel are much higher than delivering products in the _____ channel.

A. e-commerce, digital B. digital, e-commerce C. digital, physical D. physical, financial E. physical, digital Ans: E Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

28. Porter’s competitive forces model helps organizations identify _____, where his value chain model helps organizations identify specific _____.

A. competitive opportunities, activities B. general strategies, activities C. activities, competitive opportunities D. activities, general strategies E. primary activities, support activities Ans: B Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

29. _____ activities create value for which customers are willing to pay, where _____ activities do not add value directly to the firm’s products or services.

A. Support, primary B. Human resource management, inbound logistics C. Procurement, operations D. Primary, support E. Accounting, outbound logistics Ans: D Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

30. If there are _____ substitutes for an organization’s products or services, then the threat of substitutes is _____.

A. many, high B. few, few C. few, high

D. many, few E. few, negligible Ans: A Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

31. New technologies can produce new products very _____, which _____ the threat from substitute products.

A. slowly, decreases B. slowly, increases C. slowly, does not affect D. quickly, increases E. quickly, does not affect Ans: D Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

32. The visibility of Internet applications on the Web makes proprietary systems more difficult to keep secret. This is an example of which of Porter’s five forces?

A. threat of entry of new competitors B. bargaining power of suppliers C. bargaining power of customers D. threat of substitute products E. rivalry among existing firms in an industry Ans: E Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

33. Wal-Mart’s automatic replenishment system, which enables the company to reduce inventory storage requirements, is an example of which strategy for competitive advantage?

A. cost leadership B. differentiation C. innovation D. operational effectiveness E. customer-orientation Ans: A Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

34. Offering different products, services, or product features is which strategy for competitive advantage?

A. cost leadership B. differentiation C. innovation D. operational effectiveness

E. customer-orientation Ans: B Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

35. Introducing new products and putting new features in existing products is which strategy for competitive advantage?

A. cost leadership B. differentiation C. innovation D. operational effectiveness E. customer-orientation Ans: C Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

36. The introduction of ATM machines by Citibank was a classic example of which strategy for competitive advantage?

A. cost leadership B. innovation C. differentiation D. operational effectiveness E. customer-orientation Ans: B Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

37. Refer to IT’s About Business 2.2. Under Armour’s SAP system enabled the company to do which of the following?

A. Save costs B. Decrease staff C. Manage a more diverse inventory D. Expand its number of storefronts E. Design better athletic clothes Ans: C Response: IT’s About Business 2.2 Difficulty: Hard

38. Southwest Airlines’ low-cost, short-haul strategy is an example of which strategy for competitive advantage?

A. cost leadership B. differentiation C. innovation D. operational effectiveness

E. customer-orientation Ans: B Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

39. Improving the manner in which internal business processes are executed is which strategy for competitive advantage?

A. cost leadership B. differentiation C. innovation D. operational effectiveness E. customer orientation Ans: D Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

40. When Amazon welcomes you by name back to its Web site on your second visit, this is an example of which strategy for competitive advantage?

A. cost leadership B. differentiation C. innovation D. operational effectiveness E. customer orientation Ans: E Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

41. Refer to IT’s About Business 2.3. The major problem that Chubb had with its new information system was which of the following?

A. adoption of the new system by agents B. increased costs C. increased IT staff D. speed of the new system was too slow E. clients were not able to access the new system Ans: A Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Hard

42. The impact of IT on managers’ jobs is all of the following except: A. gives managers time to get into the field B. managers can spend more time planning C. managers can spend more time “putting out fires” D. managers can gather information more quickly E. none of the above

Ans: C Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

43. Porter’s _____ help(s) companies identify general strategies, where his _____ help(s) to identify specific activities where companies can use the strategies for greatest impact.

A. value chain model, competitive forces model B. primary activities, support activities C. competitive forces model, primary activities D. competitive forces model, value chain model E. value chain model, support activities Ans: D Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

44. Which of the following statements about the impact of IT on managers is not correct?

A. IT makes managers more productive.

B. IT increases the number of employees who can report to one manager.

C. IT will increase the number of managerial levels in an organization.

D. IT will reduce the number of line and staff managers.

Ans: C Response: Why Are Information Systems Important to Organizations and Society?

Difficulty: Medium

45. Which of the following statements concerning information resources is not correct?

A. Information resources include all the hardware, information systems and applications, data, and networks in an organization.

B. Without their information resources, organizations cannot function.

C. Information resources typically do not change quickly.

D. Information resources are expensive to acquire, operate, and maintain.

Ans: C Response: Managing Information Resources Difficulty: Medium

46. _____ is the direct use of information systems by employees in their work.

A. Transaction processing systems B. Executive information systems C. Decision support systems D. Management information systems E. End-user computing Ans: E Response: Managing Information Resources Difficulty: Easy

47. Dividing the responsibility for developing and maintaining information resources between the Information System Department and end users depends on all of the following except : A. Size of the organization B. Amount and type of information resources in the organization C. Organization’s revenue and profits D. Organization’s attitude toward computing E. Maturity level of the organization’s information technologies Ans: C Response: Managing Information Resources Difficulty: Medium

48. Which of the following is a traditional, major IS function?

A. Managing systems development B. Partnering with the firm’s executives C. Managing outsourcing D. Educating non-IS managers about IT E. Incorporating the Internet and electronic commerce into the business Ans: A Response: Managing Information Resources Difficulty: Medium

49. The role of the director of the Information Systems Department is changing from more _____ to more _____.

A. hands-on, managing B. technical, managerial C. operational, strategic D. hands-on, decision-making E. managerial, technical Ans: B Response: Managing Information Resources Difficulty: Medium

49. Refer to IT’s About Business 2.4. Pitney Bowes changed the strategic vision of its IT department for which of the following reasons?

A. reorganization of the company B. to reduce costs in the IT department C. to gain more innovation from the IT department D. to gain flexibility in application development E. to respond to users more effectively Ans: C Response: Chapter closing case Difficulty: Medium

Short Answer Questions

1. Define computer-based information systems and their components.

Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

2. Discuss the major capabilities of information systems.

Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

3. Discuss the classification of information systems by breadth of support in the organization.

Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

4. Differentiate among the various types of employees in the organization.

Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

5. Discuss the computer support provided for each level of employees in the organization.

Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

6. Differentiate among transaction processing systems, enterprise resource planning systems, office automation systems, functional area information systems, decision support systems, expert systems, and dashboards.

Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

7. Differentiate between primary activities and support activities in Porter’s value chain model.

Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

8. Describe several ways that IT is changing the manager’s job.

Response: Why Are Information Systems Important to Organizations and Society?

Difficulty: Medium

9. Describe the management of an organization’s IT resources.

Response: Managing Information Resources Difficulty: Medium

Essay Questions

1.

Discuss how Pitney Bowes MapInfo Smart Site solution is a strategic information system for Johnny’s Lunch.

Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

2.

Explain why functional area information systems are located at the top of Figure 2.1.

Response: Types of Information Systems Difficulty: Hard

3.

Explain the five forces of Porter’s competitive forces model and how the Internet impacts each one.

Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Hard

4.

Discuss why the variable cost of digital products is extremely low.

Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Hard

5.

Provide an example for each of the five strategies for competitive advantage. (Do not use the examples provided in the book).

Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Hard

6.

Discuss the effect that various information technologies had on the risk that Under Armour undertook in developing its new running shoe.

Response: IT’s About Business 2.2 Difficulty: Hard

7. Describe how Google effectively handled the problem with its search results.

Response: Competitive Advantage and Strategic Information Systems Difficulty: Hard

8.

Describe various ways in which robots are impacting our lives.

Response: Why Are Information Systems So Important to Organizations and Society?

Difficulty: Hard

File: ch03, Chapter 3: Information Systems: Ethics, Privacy, and Information Security

True/False

1. An individual or organization faced with an ethical decision is basically considering whether to break the law.

Ans: False Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Easy

2. A code of ethics is a collection of principles that are intended to guide decision making by members of the organization.

Ans: True Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Easy

3. Improvements in information technologies are leading to a decreasing number of ethical problems.

Ans: False Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Easy

4. When you interview for a job at a company, it is likely that the company will Google you and search social networking sites for information on you.

Ans: True Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Easy

5. The security of each computer on the Internet is independent of the security of all other computers on the Internet.

Ans: False Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

6. The computing skills necessary to be a hacker are increasing.

Ans: False Response: Threats to Information Security

Difficulty: Easy

7. To defend itself against downstream liability, a company must prove that it practices due diligence in information security.

Ans: True Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

8. Human errors cause more than half of the security-related problems in many organizations.

Ans: True Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

9. The higher the level of an employee in organization, the lower the threat that he or she poses to the organization.

Ans: False Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

10. In reverse social engineering, the employees approach the attacker.

Ans: True Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

11. Dumpster diving is always illegal because it involves trespassing on private property.

Ans: False Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

12. Trojan horses are software programs that hide in other computer programs and reveal their designed behavior only when they are activated.

Ans: True Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

13. In a distributed denial-of-service attack, a coordinated stream of requests is launched against a target from many compromised computers at the same time.

Ans: True Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

14. Zero-day attacks use descriptive e-mails to acquire sensitive personal information.

Ans: False Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

15. When companies require users to accurately select characters in turn from a series of boxes, attackers use screen scrapers to capture this information.

Ans: True Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

16. In most cases, cookies track your path through Web sites and are therefore invasions of your privacy.

Ans: False Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

17. Cyberterrorism and cyberwarfare can attack supervisory control and data acquisition systems to cause widespread physical damage.

Ans: True Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

18. Purchasing insurance is a type of risk acceptance.

Ans: False Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Easy

19. A password refers to “something the user is.”

Ans: False Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Easy

20. Public-key encryption uses two different keys, one public and one private.

Ans: True Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following is the most important issue raised by the numerous security breaches at NASA? A. Is it possible to secure the Internet?

B. Is it possible to secure NASA’s information assets?

C. Is NASA spending too little money on its defenses against cyberespionage?

D. Should NASA even be connected to the Internet?

E. Should NASA be required to detail its problems with cyberespionage to the taxpayers?

Ans: A Response: Chapter Opening Case Difficulty: Hard

2. In its study of various organizations, the Ponemon Institute found that the most common cause of data breaches was which of the following?

A. weak passwords B. unattended computers C. employee negligence D. contract labor, such as consultants E. poor antivirus software Ans: C Response: Chapter Opening Case: What We Learned from this Case Difficulty: Hard

3. Various organizations that promote fair and responsible use of information systems often develop _____: A. a code of ethics B. a strategic plan C. a mission statement D. responsibility charters E. a goals outline Ans: A Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Easy

4. What is _____ is not necessarily _____.

A. Illegal, unethical B. Ethical, illegal C. Unethical, illegal D. Unethical, legal E. Ethical, legal Ans: C Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Medium

5. _____ issues involve collecting, storing and disseminating information about individuals.

A. Privacy B. Accuracy C. Transferability D. Property E. Accessibility Ans: A Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Easy

6. _____ issues involve the authenticity and fidelity of information that is collected and processed.

A. Privacy B. Accuracy C. Transferability D. Property E. Accessibility Ans: B Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Easy

7. _____ issues involve who may obtain information and how much they should pay for this information.

A. Privacy B. Accuracy C. Transferability D. Property E. Accessibility Ans: E Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Easy

8. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. An individual’s right to privacy is absolute.

B. It is difficult to determine and enforce privacy regulations.

C. An individual’s right to privacy supersedes the needs of society.

D. Advances in information technologies have not affected individual privacy.

E. The Internet has increased individuals’ privacy.

Ans: B Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Medium

9. The process of profiling: A. increases individual privacy.

B. decreases individual privacy.

C. has no effect on individual privacy.

D. is illegal in over one-half of the states.

E. is legal, but unethical.

Ans: B Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Medium

10. What is the relationship between advances in information technology and the practice of profiling?

A. Advances in IT make it more difficult to profile individuals.

B. Advances in IT have no impact on profiling.

C. Advances in IT make it more expensive to profile individuals.

D. Advances in IT make it easier to profile individuals.

Ans: D Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Medium

11. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Employees have limited protection against surveillance by employers.

B. The large majority of organizations monitor employee Internet usage.

C. The large majority of organizations use URL filtering.

D. As with normal first-class mail, employers cannot read employee e-mail.

E. Employees should be aware that surveillance is legal.

Ans: D Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Medium

12. How does society keep owners of electronic bulletin boards from disseminating offensive or untrue content? This is a difficult question because it involves the conflict between _____ on one hand, and _____ on the other.

A. the public, the individual B. the public, ethics C. freedom of speech, privacy D. the individual, freedom of speech E. ethics, security Ans: C

Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Hard

13. Privacy advocates prefer which model of informed consent?

A. Opt-in B. Opt-out C. Either A or B D. Neither A nor B Ans: A Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Easy

14. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. International privacy and security laws are very consistent.

B. Consistent international privacy and security laws help companies with their regulatory requirements from country to country.

C. Consistent international privacy and security laws enable information to flow freely among countries.

D. International privacy and security laws have led to a complex global legal framework.

E. Consistent international privacy and security laws are followed by all countries.

Ans: D Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Medium

15. Which of the following factors are not increasing the threats to information security?

A. smaller computing devices B. downstream liability C. the Internet D. limited storage capacity on portable devices E. due diligence Ans: D Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Medium

16. The computing skills necessary to be a hacker are decreasing for which of the following reasons?

A. More information systems and computer science departments are teaching courses on hacking so that their graduates can recognize attacks on information assets.

B. Computer attack programs, called scripts, are available for download from the Internet.

C. International organized crime is training hackers.

D. Cybercrime is much more lucrative than regular white-collar crime.

E. Almost anyone can buy or access a computer today.

Ans: B Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Hard

17. Your company’s computers have been taken over by an attacker and used to attack another organization’s information systems. Your problem is which of the following?

A. poor security policies and procedures B. lack of due diligence C. downstream liability D. poor service-level agreements E. users have a lack of information security awareness Ans: C Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Medium

18. Rank the following in terms of dollar value of the crime, from highest to lowest.

A. robbery – white collar crime – cybercrime B. white collar crime – extortion – robbery C. cybercrime – white collar crime – robbery D. cybercrime – robbery – white collar crime E. white collar crime – burglary – robbery Ans: C Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

19. A(n) _____ is any danger to which an information resource may be exposed.

A. vulnerability B. risk C. control D. threat E. compromise Ans: D Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

20. A(n) information system’s _____ is the possibility that the system will suffer harm by a threat.

A. vulnerability B. risk C. control D. danger E. compromise Ans: A Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

21. The most overlooked people in information security are:

A. consultants and temporary hires.

B. secretaries and consultants.

C. contract laborers and executive assistants.

D. janitors and guards.

E. executives and executive secretaries.

Ans: D Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

22. Employees in which functional areas of the organization pose particularly grave threats to information security?

A. human resources, finance B. human resources, management information systems C. finance, marketing D. operations management, management information systems E. finance, management information systems Ans: B Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

23. Unintentional threats to information systems include all of the following except: A. malicious software B. tailgating C. power outage D. lack of user experience E. tornados Ans: A Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Medium

24. _____ involves building an inappropriate trust relationship with employees for the purpose of gaining sensitive information or unauthorized access privileges.

A. Reverse social engineering B. Hacking C. Spoofing D. Social engineering E. Spamming Ans: D Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

25. In _____, the attacker approaches employees, where in _____ the employees approach the attacker.

A. social engineering, reverse social engineering B. phishing, social engineering

C. social engineering, phishing D. reverse social engineering, social engineering E. phishing, reverse social engineering Ans: A Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Medium

26. _____ occurs when attackers seek to learn who knows whom in an organization and how.

A. Social engineering B. Reverse social engineering C. Phishing D. Social data mining E. Spear fishing Ans: D Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

27. Dumpster diving is: A. always illegal because it is considered trespassing.

B. never illegal because it is not considered trespassing.

C. typically committed for the purpose of identity theft.

D. always illegal because individuals own the material in the dumpster.

E. always legal because the dumpster is not owned by private citizens.

Ans: C Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Medium

28. A(n) _____ is intellectual work that is known only to a company and is not based on public information.

A. copyright B. patent C. trade secret D. knowledge base E. private property Ans: C Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

29. A pharmaceutical company’s research and development plan for a new class of drugs would be best described as which of the following ?

A. Copyrighted material B. Patented material C. A trade secret D. A knowledge base

E. Public property Ans: C Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

30. A(n) _____ is a document that grants the holder exclusive rights on an invention for 20 years.

A. copyright B. patent C. trade secret D. knowledge base E. private property notice Ans: B Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

31. An organization’s e-mail policy has the least impact on which of the following software attacks?

A. virus B. worm C. phishing D. zero-day E. spear phishing Ans: D Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Hard

32. _____ are segments of computer code that attach to existing computer programs and perform malicious acts.

A. Viruses B. Worms C. Trojan horses D. Back doors E. Alien software Ans: A Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

33. _____ are software programs that hide in other computer programs and reveal their designed behavior only when they are activated.

A. Viruses B. Worms C. Trojan horses D. Back doors E. Alien software

Ans: C Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

34. _____ are segments of computer code embedded within an organization’s existing computer programs that activate and perform a destructive action at a certain time or date.

A. Viruses B. Worms C. Trojan horses D. Back doors E. Logic bomb Ans: E Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

35. _____ uses deception to fraudulently acquire sensitive personal information by masquerading as an official e-mail.

A. Zero-day attack B. Denial-of-service C. Distributed denial-of-service D. Phishing E. Brute force dictionary attack Ans: D Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

36. In a(n) _____ attack, a coordinated stream of requests is launched against a target system from many compromised computers at the same time.

A. phishing B. denial-of-service C. worm D. back door E. distributed denial-of-service Ans: E Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

37. _____ is clandestine software that is installed on your PC through duplicitous channels, but is not very malicious.

A. Alien software B. Virus C. Worm D. Back door E. Logic bomb

Ans: A Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

38. _____ is designed to use your computer as a launch pad for sending unsolicited e-mail to other computers.

A. Spyware B. Spamware C. Adware D. Virus E. Worm Ans: B Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Easy

39. When companies attempt to counter _____ by requiring users to accurately select characters in turn from a series of boxes, attackers use _____.

A. keyloggers, screen scrapers B. screen scrapers, uninstallers C. keyloggers, spam D. screen scrapers, keyloggers E. spam, keyloggers Ans: A Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Medium

40. Which attack method would most typically be used in cyberwarfare?

A. virus B. distributed denial of service C. supervisory control and data acquisition D. worm E. distributed denial-of-service Ans: C Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Medium

41. _____ is the process in which an organization assesses the value of each asset being protected, estimates the probability that each asset might be compromised, and compares the probable costs of each being compromised with the costs of protecting it.

A. Risk management B. Risk analysis C. Risk mitigation D. Risk acceptance E. Risk transference

Ans: B Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Easy

42. In _____, the organization takes concrete actions against risks.

A. risk management B. risk analysis C. risk mitigation D. risk acceptance E. risk transference Ans: C Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Easy

43. In _____, the organization purchases insurance as a means to compensate for any loss.

A. risk management B. risk analysis C. risk mitigation D. risk acceptance E. risk transference Ans: E Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Easy

44. Which of the following statements is not correct concerning the difficulties in protecting information resources?

A. Computing resources are typically decentralized.

B. Computer crimes often remain undetected for a long period of time.

C. Rapid technological changes ensure that controls are effective for years.

D. Employees typically do not follow security procedures when the procedures are inconvenient.

E. Computer networks can be located outside the organization.

Ans: C Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Medium

45. _____ controls restrict unauthorized individuals from using information resources and are concerned with user identification.

A. Access controls B. Physical controls C. Data security controls D. Administrative controls E. Input controls Ans: A Response: Protecting Information Resources

Difficulty: Easy

46. Access controls involve _____ before _____.

A. biometrics, signature recognition B. authentication, authorization C. iris scanning, voice recognition D. strong passwords, biometrics E. authorization, authentication Ans: B Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Easy

47. Biometrics are an example of: A. something the user is.

B. something the user wants.

C. something the user has.

D. something the user knows.

E. something the user does.

Ans: A Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Easy

48. Voice and signature recognition are examples of: A. something the user is.

B. something the user wants.

C. something the user has.

D. something the user knows.

E. something the user does.

Ans: E Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Easy

49. Passwords and passphrases are examples of: A. something the user is.

B. something the user wants.

C. something the user has.

D. something the user knows.

E. something the user does.

Ans: D Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Easy

50. Which of the following is not a characteristic of strong passwords?

A. should be difficult to guess B. should contain special characters C. should not be a recognizable word D. should not be a recognizable string of numbers E. should be shorter rather than longer so the password can be remembered Ans: E Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Medium

51. Bob is using public key encryption to send a message to Ted. Bob encrypts the message with Ted’s _____ key and Ted decrypts the message using his _____ key.

A. public, public B. public, private C. private, private D. private, public E. none of these Ans: B Response: See Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Easy

52. In a process called _____, a company allows nothing to run unless it is approved, where in a process called _____, the company allows everything to run unless it is not approved.

A. whitelisting, blacklisting B. whitelisting, encryption C. encryption, whitelisting D. encryption, blacklisting E. blacklisting, whitelisting Ans: A Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Medium

53. _____ means verifying processing by checking for known outputs using specific inputs.

A. Auditing around the computer B. Auditing through the computer C. Auditing with the computer D. Auditing without the computer E. Auditing through the network Ans: A Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Easy

Short Answer

1. Discuss the various ethical issues involved with information technology.

Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Medium

2. Describe the unintentional threats to an information resource.

Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Medium

3. Define social engineering and reverse social engineering and discuss why these two attacks are so dangerous.

Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Medium

4. Define identity theft and discuss the problems that people have when it happens to them.

Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Medium

5. Discuss the various types of software attacks.

Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Medium

6. Describe public key encryption.

Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Medium

Essay Questions

1. Discuss the relationship between surveillance and privacy.

Response: Ethical Issues Difficulty: Hard

2. Discuss the factors which are contributing to the increasing vulnerability of organizational information assets.

Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Hard

3. Define downstream liability and describe how an organization could be successfully sued in a downstream liability lawsuit.

Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Hard

4. Describe how supervisory control and data acquisition systems could be used by terrorists in an attack.

Response: Threats to Information Security Difficulty: Hard

5. Describe the principle of least privilege and discuss how an organization’s senior executives might view the application of this principle.

Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Hard

6. Describe what it means that anti-malware software is reactive.

Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Hard

7. Describe how a digital certificate works.

Response: Protecting Information Resources Difficulty: Hard

File: ch04, Chapter 4: Managing Knowledge and Data

True/False

1. Data are centralized in organizations.

Ans: False Response: Managing Data Difficulty: Easy

2. An increasing amount of external data needs to be considered in making organizational decisions.

Ans: True Response: Managing Data Difficulty: Easy

3. The end result of the Data Life Cycle is the generation of data.

Ans: False Response: Managing Data Difficulty: Easy

4. It is important for applications and data to be dependent on each other.

Ans: False Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

5. A negative value for a student’s grade point average is an example of a data integrity problem.

Ans: True Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

6. An entity is a person, place, thing, or event about which information is maintained.

Ans: True Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

7. An attribute is any characteristic or quality describing a particular entity.

Ans: True Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

8. The secondary key is a field that has some identifying information but does not identify a record with complete uniqueness.

Ans: True Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

9. Entity-relationship diagrams are documents that show the entities, attributes, and relationships of a conceptual data model.

Ans: True Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

10. You would be an instance of your university’s STUDENT class.

Ans: True Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

11. Database management systems are software programs (or groups of programs) that provide access to a database.

Ans: True Response: Database Management Systems Difficulty: Easy

12. The relational database model is based on the concept of two-dimensional tables.

Ans: True Response: Database Management Systems Difficulty: Easy

13. Structured query language is a relational database language that enables users to perform complicated searches with relatively simple statements.

Ans: True Response: Database Management Systems

Difficulty: Easy

14. The data dictionary stores definitions of data elements, characteristics that use the data elements, physical representation of the data elements, data ownership, and security.

Ans: True Response: Database Management Systems Difficulty: Easy

15. When data are normalized, attributes in the table depend on the primary key and any secondary keys.

Ans: False Response: Database Management Systems Difficulty: Easy

16. In a data warehouse, data are constantly purged as new data come in.

Ans: False Response: Data Warehousing Difficulty: Easy

17. Operational data are usually kept in an organization’s data warehouse.

Ans: False Response: Data Warehousing Difficulty: Easy

18. Online analytical processing involves the analysis of accumulated data by end users.

Ans: True Response: Data Warehousing Difficulty: Easy

19. Data marts are designed for the end-user needs in a strategic business unit or department.

Ans: True Response: Data Warehousing Difficulty: Easy

20. Master data are generated and captured by operational systems.

Ans: False

Response: Data Governance Difficulty: Easy

21. Tacit knowledge is the more objective, rational, and technical types of knowledge.

Ans: False Response: Knowledge Management Difficulty: Easy

22. Explicit knowledge, the cumulative store of subjective learning, is personal and hard to formalize.

Ans: False Response: Knowledge Management Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. Your _____ is the collection of traceable data that is captured when you use various information technologies such as credit cards or the Internet.

A. data profile B. data shadow C. database file D. database record E. database element Ans: B Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Medium

2. Over time, your data shadow _____.

A. decreases in size B. stays approximately the same size C. increases your privacy D. does not affect your privacy E. increases in size Ans: E Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

3. In the chapter opening case, Mediatech’s primary use of its customers’ data shadows involved which of the following systems or procedures?

A. business intelligence B. data analysis

C. direct mail marketing D. transaction processing E. decision support Ans: C Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

4. In the chapter opening case, Mediatech’s principal problem with managing data was which of the following?

A. There was too much data to manage B. Capturing and storing the data was too expensive C. Outdated database management systems D. Degraded data E. Company did not have an effective data warehouse Ans: D Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

5. It is very difficult to manage data for which of the following reasons?

A. The amount of data stays about the same over time.

B. Data are scattered throughout organizations.

C. The decreasing amount of external data needs to be considered.

D. Data security is easy to maintain.

E. Data are stored in the same format throughout organizations.

Ans: B Response: Managing Data Difficulty: Medium

6. When customers access a Web site and make purchases, they generate _____: A. tracking cookies B. information C. clickstream data D. Web data E. hyperlink data Ans: C Response: Managing Data Difficulty: Easy

7. Which of the following is not a source for external data?

A. commercial databases B. corporate databases C. sensors D. satellites E. government reports

Ans: B Response: Managing Data Difficulty: Easy

8. The end result of the Data Life Cycle is the generation of _____.

A. information B. data C. knowledge D. wisdom E. decisions Ans: C Response: Managing Data Difficulty: Easy

9. Place the following members of the data hierarchy in the correct order: A. bit – byte – field – record – database – file B. bit – field – byte – record – file – database C. byte – bit – record – field – database D. bit – byte – field – record – file – database E. bit – record – field – byte – file -- database Ans: D Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

10. No alphabetic characters in a Social Security Number field is an example of _____ : A. data isolation B. data integrity C. data consistency D. data redundancy E. application/data dependence Ans: B Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

11. _____ occurs when applications cannot access data associated with other applications.

A. Data isolation B. Data integrity C. Data consistency D. Data redundancy E. Application/Data dependence Ans: A Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

12. _____ occurs when the same data are stored in many places.

A. Data isolation B. Data integrity C. Data consistency D. Data redundancy E. Application/Data dependence Ans: D Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

13. _____ occurs when various copies of the data agree.

A. Data isolation B. Data integrity C. Data consistency D. Data redundancy E. Application/Data dependence Ans: C Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

14. You have moved to a different apartment, but your electricity bill continues to go to your old address.

The Post Office in your town has a problem with its data management, which is: A. Data redundancy B. Data inconsistency C. Data isolation D. Data security E. Data dependence Ans: B Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Medium

15. In the data hierarchy, the smallest element is the _____.

A. record B. bit C. byte D. character E. file Ans: B Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

16. A(n) _____ is a logical grouping of characters into a word, a small group of words, or a complete number.

A. byte B. field C. record D. file E. database Ans: B Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

17. A(n) _____ is a logical grouping of related fields.

A. byte B. field C. record D. file E. database Ans: C Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

18. A(n) _____ is a logical grouping of related records.

A. byte B. field C. record D. file E. database Ans: D Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

19. A(n) _____ represents a single character, such as a letter, number, or symbol.

A. byte B. field C. record D. file E. database Ans: A Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

20. In a database, the primary key field is used to _____.

A. specify an entity B. create linked lists

C. identify duplicated data D. uniquely identify a record E. uniquely identify an attribute Ans: D Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

21. _____ are fields in a record that have some identifying information but typically do not identify the record with complete accuracy.

A. Primary keys B. Secondary keys C. Duplicate keys D. Attribute keys E. Record keys Ans: B Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

22. As an individual student in your university’s student database, you are a(n) _____ of the STUDENT class.

A. instance B. individual C. representative D. entity E. relationship Ans: A Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Medium

23. At your university, students can take more than one class, and each class can have more than one student. This is an example of what kind of relationship?

A. one-to-one B. one-to-many C. many-to-one D. many-to-many E. some-to-many Ans: D Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

24. In a university’s relational database, the student record contains information regarding the student’s last name. The last name is a(n): A. attribute B. entity

C. primary key D. object E. file Ans: A Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Easy

25. A database management system is primarily a(n) _____.

A. file handling program B. data modeling program C. interface between applications and a database D. interface between data and a database E. interface between queries and a database Ans: C Response: Database Management Systems Difficulty: Easy

26. In the relational database model, related tables can be joined when they contain common _____.

A. primary keys B. rows C. records D. columns E. files Ans: D Response: Database Management Systems Difficulty: Medium

27. _____ tell the database management system which records are joined with others in related tables.

A. Primary keys B. Secondary keys C. Common attributes D. Common files E. Common fields Ans: A Response: Database Management Systems Difficulty: Medium

28. Data dictionaries perform all of the following functions except: A. Providing information on each record B. Providing information on why attributes are needed in the database C. Defining the format necessary to enter data into the database D. Providing information on name of attributes E. Providing information on how often attributes should be updated

Ans: A Response: Database Management Systems Difficulty: Medium

29. In a relational database, every row represents a _____.

A. file B. record C. attribute D. primary key E. secondary key Ans: B Response: Database Management Systems Difficulty: Easy

30. A standardized language used to manipulate data is _____.

A. MS-Access B. Oracle C. query-by-example language D. structured query language E. data manipulation language Ans: D Response: Database Management Systems Difficulty: Easy

31. Data dictionaries provide which of the following advantages to the organization?

A. reduce data inconsistency B. provide for faster program development C. make it easier to modify data and information D. all of the above Ans: D Response: Database Management Systems Difficulty: Easy

32. _____ is a method for analyzing and reducing a relational database to its most streamlined form.

A. Structured query B. Normalization C. Query by example D. Joining E. Relational analysis Ans: B Response: Database Management Systems Difficulty: Easy

33. When data are normalized, attributes in the table depend only on the _____.

A. secondary key B. common attribute C. primary key D. common row E. common record Ans: C Response: Database Management Systems Difficulty: Easy

34. Refer to IT’s About Business 4.1. The benefits of electronic medical records include all of the following except: A. help eliminate duplicate medical tests B. provide correct medical information to medical professionals C. reduce administrative costs D. help to prevent serious illnesses E. increase patients’ information security Ans: E Response: IT’s About Business 4.1 Difficulty: Hard

35. The data in a data warehouse have which of the following characteristics?

A. They are organized by subject.

B. They are coded in different formats.

C. They are updated in real time.

D. They are typically retained for a defined, but limited, period of time.

E. They are organized in a hierarchical structure.

Ans: A Response: Data Warehousing Difficulty: Medium

36. The data in a data warehouse: A. are updated constantly in real time.

B. are updated in batch mode, approximately once per day.

C. are not updated.

D. are purged constantly as new data enter.

E. are available for MIS analysts, but not users.

Ans: C Response: Data Warehousing Difficulty: Medium

37. The process of moving data from various sources into the data warehouse is called: A. uploading.

B. extracting, transforming, and loading.

C. online transaction processing.

D. master data management.

E. online analytical processing.

Ans: B Response: Data Warehousing Difficulty: Easy

38. Compared to data warehouses, data marts have which one of the following characteristics?

A. cost less B. have longer lead time for implementation C. have central rather than local control D. contain more information E. are harder to navigate Ans: A Response: Data Warehousing Difficulty: Medium

39. Refer to IT’s About Business 4.2. Unum decided it needed a data warehouse for all of the following reasons except : A. to improve data collection efforts.

B. to support data integration.

C. to support centralized reporting.

D. to provide consistent performance metrics across the organization.

E. to enhance management’s understanding of product performance.

Ans: A Response: IT’s About Business 4.2 Difficulty: Hard

40. _____ is a formal approach to managing data consistently across an entire organization.

A. Database management B. Enterprise information management C. Data warehousing D. Data governance E. Data mart Ans : D Response : Data Governance Difficulty : Easy

41. _____ provide(s) companies with a single version of the truth for their data.

A. Data warehouses B. Data marts C. Databases D. Master data management

E. Enterprise information management Ans: D Response: Data Governance Difficulty: Easy

42. Organizations are turning to data governance for which of the following reasons?

A. They have too little data.

B. They are responding to federal regulations.

C. Their data are typically structured.

D. Their data are usually located in the organizations’ databases.

E. Data across their organizations are generally consistent.

Ans: B Response: Data Governance Difficulty: Hard

43. _____ describe the activities of the business, where _____ categorize(s), aggregate(s), and evaluate(s) data generated by the organization’s activities.

A. Transaction data, master data B. Source data, transaction data C. Operational data, master data D. Master data, source data E. Business dimensional data, databases Ans: A Response: Data Governance Difficulty: Medium

44. _____ is a process that helps organizations identify, select, organize, disseminate, transfer, and apply expertise that are part of the organization’s memory and typically reside inside the organization in an unstructured manner.

A. Discovery B. Knowledge management C. Decision support D. Online analytical processing E. Data mining Ans: B Response: Knowledge Management Difficulty: Easy

45. _____ can be exercised to solve a problem, where _____ may or may not be able to be exercised to solve a problem.

A. Knowledge, information B. Data, information C. Information, data D. Information, knowledge

E. Data, knowledge Ans: A Response: Knowledge Management Difficulty: Medium

46. Explicit knowledge has which of the following characteristics?

A. objective B. personal C. slow D. costly to transfer E. ambiguous Ans: A Response: Knowledge Management Difficulty: Medium

47. Tacit knowledge has which of the following characteristics?

A. codified B. objective C. unstructured D. rational E. technical Ans: C Response: Knowledge Management Difficulty: Medium

48. Historically, management information systems have focused on capturing, storing, managing, and reporting _____ knowledge.

A. tacit B. explicit C. managerial D. geographical E. cultural Ans: B Response: Knowledge Management Difficulty: Medium

49. The most important benefit of knowledge management systems is: A. improved customer service.

B. they make best practices available to employees.

C. retention of scarce knowledge if employees retire.

D. improved morale.

E. more efficient product development.

Ans: B

Response: Knowledge Management Difficulty: Medium

50. Refer to IT’s About Business 4.3. The major problem associated with CNA’s Knowledge Network is which of the following?

A. It is difficult to quantify the benefits of the new system.

B. The new system is not being used by enough employees to be of value to the organization.

C. Company experts are reluctant to provide their expertise to other employees.

D. The new system is too slow to be of value.

E. The new system is too costly for its intended benefits.

Ans: A Response: IT’s About Business 4.3 Difficulty: Hard

Short Answer Questions

1. Discuss the difficulties in managing data.

Response: Managing Data Difficulty: Medium

2. Define each element of the data hierarchy, in order from smallest to largest.

Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Medium

3. Discuss the advantages of the database approach.

Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Medium

4. Describe entity-relationship modeling.

Response: The Database Approach Difficulty: Medium

5. Describe the relational database model.

Response: Database Management Systems Difficulty: Medium

6. Describe the characteristics of a data warehouse.

Response: Data Warehousing Difficulty: Medium

7. What are the advantages of a data mart?

Response: Data Warehousing Difficulty: Medium

8. Differentiate between explicit knowledge and tacit knowledge. Use examples of each.

Response: Knowledge Management Difficulty: Medium

9. Describe the six steps of the knowledge management system cycle.

Response: Knowledge Management Difficulty: Medium

Essay Questions

1. Describe the various new sources for data and give an example of each.

Response: Material immediately following chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

2. Refer to IT’s About Business 4.1. If you were a Wal-Mart employee, would you store your medical records in the health records database? Why or why not? Support your answer.

Response: IT’s About Business 4.1 Difficulty: Hard

3. Discuss the impacts that mergers and acquisitions have on data management.

Response: IT’s About Business 4.2 Difficulty: Hard

4. Differentiate between master data and transaction data.

Response: Data Governance Difficulty: Hard

5. Why is data governance so important for organizations?

Response: Data Governance Difficulty: Hard

6. Discuss why it is so important for Procter & Gamble to be able to manage its documents efficiently and effectively.

Response: Chapter closing case Difficulty: Hard

File: ch05, Chapter 5: Network Applications, Web 2.0, Distance Learning and Telecommuting

True/False

1. Standalone computers increase employee productivity as much as computer networks.

Ans: False Response: Material immediately following chapter opening case Difficulty: Easy

2. Computers can exchange data over networks of clearly delineated size.

Ans: False Response: Material immediately following chapter opening case Difficulty: Easy

3. The major problem of discovery is the huge amount of information available.

Ans: True Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

4. Metasearch engines search several engines at once and integrate the findings of the various search engines.

Ans: True Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

5. The quality of automatic translation of Web pages is usually just as good as human translation.

Ans: False Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

6. Commercial portals are intended for broad audiences and offer fairly routine content.

Ans: True Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

7. Industrywide portals are intended for broad audiences and offer fairly routine content.

Ans: False Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

8. Electronic mail is the largest-volume application running over the Internet.

Ans: True Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

9. With Voice-over-IP, every call opens up a dedicated circuit for the duration of the call.

Ans: False Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

10. A blog is a personal Web site, open to the public, in which the site creator expresses his or her feelings or opinions.

Ans: True Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

11. A Wiki is a personal Web site, open to the public, in which the site creator expresses his or her feelings or opinions.

Ans: False Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

12. Businesses should pay close attention to what bloggers are writing about them and their products.

Ans: True Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Medium

13. Web 1.0 sites were interactive, where Web 2.0 sites deliver information to users, who receive it passively.

Ans: False Response: Web 2.0

Difficulty: Easy

14. Really simple syndication is a Web development technique that allows portions of Web pages to reload with fresh data instead of requiring the entire Web page to reload.

Ans: False Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

15. If you want to construct your own customized newspaper, you would use really simple syndication.

Ans: True Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Medium

16. Social networking sites can be a useful way to find like-minded people online.

Ans: True Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

17. Aggregators take content from other Web sites and combine that content to create a new kind of content.

Ans: False Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

18. Technorati is a good example of a mashup.

Ans: False Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

19. Web services are applications, delivered over the Internet, that users can select and combine through almost any device.

Ans: True Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

20. E-learning is only done in virtual classrooms, where all coursework is done online.

Ans: False Response: E-Learning and Distance Learning Difficulty: Easy

21. Virtual universities are online universities from which students take classes from home or at an off-site location, via the Internet.

Ans: True Response: E-Learning and Distance Learning Difficulty: Easy

22. Employees who telecommute have generally found that the experience enhances their careers.

Ans: False Response: Telecommuting Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. The main reason that Del Monte decided to use social networks was: A. to reduce transaction costs.

B. to better understand its customer base.

C. to increase corporate profits.

D. to streamline its production processes.

E. for more effective human resources management.

Ans: B Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

2. Fundamental points about network computing in organizations include all of the following except: A. Computers constantly exchange data.

B. Computer data exchange provides significant advantages to organizations.

C. Networks can be of any size, from small to enormous.

D. Networks have had limited impact on organizational productivity.

E. Networks support new ways of doing business.

Ans: D Response: Material immediately following chapter opening case Difficulty: Medium

3. Networks enable which of the following applications?

A. Discovery B. Communications

C. Collaboration D. Web services E. All of the above Ans: E Response: Material immediately following chapter opening case Difficulty: Easy

4. Which of the following are advantages of computer networks?

A. They enable organizations to be more flexible.

B. They enable companies to share hardware, computer applications, and data.

C. They enable geographically dispersed employees to work together.

D. They provide a critical link between businesses and their customers.

E. All of the above Ans: E Response: Material immediately following chapter opening case Difficulty: Medium

5. Which network application enables users to access information located in databases all over the world?

A. Discovery B. Communications C. Collaboration D. Web services E. None of the above Ans: A Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

6. Search engines and metasearch engines are examples of which network application?

A. Discovery B. Communications C. Collaboration D. Web services E. None of the above Ans: A Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

7. Which of the following statements about publication of material in foreign languages is not correct?

A. It is a competitive necessity.

B. It must be accurate.

C. It is expensive.

D. Content must be localized to the needs of people in local markets.

E. It should support English and Chinese.

Ans: E Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Medium

8. The amount of information on the Web _____ approximately each year.

A. stays about the same B. decreases C. doubles D. quadruples E. triples Ans: C Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

9. _____ portals offer content for diverse communities and are intended for broad audiences.

A. Industrywide B. Personal C. Affinity D. Corporate E. Commercial Ans: E Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

10. _____ portals support communities such as hobby groups or a political party.

A. Industrywide B. Personal C. Affinity D. Corporate E. Commercial Ans: C Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

11. _____ portals coordinate content within relatively narrow organizational and partners’ communities.

A. Publishing B. Personal C. Affinity D. Corporate E. Commercial Ans: D Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

12. Many organizations have implemented corporate portals for which of the following reasons?

A. to cut costs B. to free up time for busy managers C. to improve profitability D. to offer customers self-service opportunities E. all of the above Ans: E Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

13. Portals are an example of which network application?

A. Discovery B. Collaboration C. Communications D. Web services E. None of the above Ans: A Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

14. With _____, every call opened up a dedicated circuit for the duration of the call.

A. voice over IP B. plain old telephone service C. chat rooms D. teleconference E. internet relay chat Ans: B Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

15. With _____, phone calls are treated as just another kind of data.

A. voice over IP B. plain old telephone service C. chat rooms D. teleconference E. internet relay chat Ans: A Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

16. Skype is an example of: A. Teleconference

B. Telepresence C. Plain old telephone service D. Voice over IP E. Videoconference Ans: D Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

17. Workflow, groupware, and telepresence systems are examples of which network application?

A. Discovery B. Communications C. Collaboration D. Web services E. None of the above Ans: C Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

18. The newest type of videoconferencing technology is: A. Teleconferencing B. Telepresence C. Work group analysis software D. Workflow software E. Groupware Ans: B Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

19. In a _____ system, participants are able to seamlessly and electronically share data, voice, images, graphics, and animation.

A. teleconference B. group decision support C. telepresence D. videoconference E. None of the above Ans: C Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

20. Google is developing and deploying applications in which network application?

A. Discovery B. Communications C. Collaboration D. Web services

E. All of the above Ans: E Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Easy

21. Unlike _____ sites, _____ sites are not so much online places to visit, as they are services to get something done, usually with other people.

A. affinity portals, commercial portals B. Web 1.0, Web 2.0 C. commercial portals, affinity portals D. Web 2.0, Web 1.0 E. Web 1.0, Wikis Ans: B Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Medium

22. Key developments of the first generation of the Web were: A. Creation of Web sites B. Heavy user interactivity with Web sites C. Commercialization of the Web D. A and B E. A and C Ans: E Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Medium

23. Characteristics of Web 2.0 sites include all of the following except: A. They harness collective intelligence.

B. They encourage user collaboration and participation.

C. They feature remixable applications and data.

D. They deliver functionality as prepackaged software.

E. None of the above Ans: D Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Medium

24. Users typically have little interaction with _____, which provide information that users receive passively.

A. affinity portals B. Web 1.0 sites C. Web 2.0 sites D. Wikis E. Web 3.0 sites

Ans: B Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

25. _____ is a Web development technique that allows portions of Web pages to reload with fresh data rather than requiring the entire page to reload.

A. AJAX B. Tagging C. Really simple syndication D. A Wiki E. Blogging Ans: A Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

26. A process that allows users to place information in multiple, overlapping associations is called _____.

A. AJAX B. tagging C. really simple syndication D. a Wiki E. blogging Ans: B Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

27. A process that enables users to create a personal Web site containing his or her thoughts, feelings, and opinions is called _____.

A. AJAX B. tagging C. really simple syndication D. A Wiki E. blogging Ans: E Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

28. A Web site on which anyone can post material and make changes to other material is a(n) _____.

A. blog B. Wiki C. affinity portal D. really simple syndication feed E. podcast Ans: B Response: Web 2.0

Difficulty: Easy

29. Only the author may make changes to a(n) _____, where anyone can make changes to any content on a(n) _____.

A. blog, really simple syndication feed B. blog, Wiki C. podcast, Wiki D. podcast, really simple syndication feed E. Wiki, blog Ans: B Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Medium

30. Which of the following statements concerning Wikis is not correct?

A. Users should always question the authenticity of the content.

B. Organizations are using Wikis for knowledge management.

C. Organizations are using Wikis for project management.

D. Users should accept the authenticity of the content.

E. There are documented examples of biased content on Wikis.

Ans: D Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Medium

31. Which of the following technologies would be most suited for project management?

A. Blogs B. AJAX C. Wikis D. Really simple syndication feeds E. Tagging Ans: C Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Medium

32. _____ allows users to receive customized information when they want it, without having to surf thousands of Web sites.

A. AJAX B. Tagging C. Blogging D. Podcasting E. Really simple syndication Ans: E Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

33. A(n) _____ is a digital audio file that is distributed over the Web for playback on portable media players or personal computers.

A. really simple syndication feed B. blog C. podcast D. videocast E. Wiki Ans: C Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

34. Refer to IT’s About Business 5.2. Stormhoek decided to use a blog as its corporate Web site for all of the following reasons except: A. visitors can see the latest company news posed by employees.

B. to reduce the costs of operating its Web site.

C. the blog supports video links.

D. the blog supports RSS feeds.

E. the blog allows visitors to purchase promotional items.

Ans: B Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Hard

35. _____ Web sites allow users to upload their content to the Web, in the form of text, voice, images, and videos.

A. Aggregators B. Mashups C. Social networking D. Affinity portals E. Really simple syndication Ans: C Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

36. A particularly valuable business-oriented social networking site is: A. MySpace B. FaceBook C. Flickr D. LinkedIn E. Twitter Ans: D Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

37. _____ are Web sites that provide collections of content from all over the Web. A. Aggregators B. Social networks C. Mashups D. Corporate portals E. Really simple syndications Ans: A Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

38. A(n) _____ is a Web site that takes content from other Web sites and puts it together to create a new type of content.

A. aggregator B. social network C. mashup D. corporate portal E. really simple syndication Ans: C Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

39. Technorati is a good example of which kind of Web 2.0 site?

A. Aggregators B. Social networks C. Mashups D. Corporate portals E. Really simple syndication Ans: A Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

40. Skibonk is a Web site that provides a clearinghouse of skiing information (e.g., locations, snow conditions, weather, equipment, rentals, etc.). Skibonk is which kind of a Web 2.0 site?

A. Aggregators B. Social networks C. Mashups D. Corporate portals E. Really simple syndication Ans: C Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Medium

41. _____ allow(s) users to receive the information they want, when they want it, without having to surf the Internet.

A. Aggregators B. Social networks C. Mashups D. Corporate portals E. Really simple syndication Ans: E Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

42. Refer to IT’s About Business 5.3. Useful Twitter applications include all of the following except: A. Customer reactions to products and services B. Medical applications C. Corporate transaction processing D. News E. Small business applications Ans: C Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Medium

43. _____ are applications, delivered over the Internet, that use shared protocols to interoperate without human intervention.

A. Portals B. Web services C. Service-oriented architectures D. Wikis E. Webcrawlers Ans: B Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

44. _____ is a protocol that makes it easier to exchange data among a variety of applications and to validate and interpret such data.

A. Extensible markup language B. Simple object access protocol C. Web services description language D. Universal description, discovery, and integration E. Hypertext markup language Ans: A Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

45. _____ is a set of rules that define how messages can be exchanged among different network systems and applications.

A. Extensible markup language B. Simple object access protocol C. Web services description language D. Universal description, discovery, and integration E. Hypertext markup language Ans: B Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

46. _____ is used to create the document that describes the tasks performed by various Web services.

A. Extensible markup language B. Simple object access protocol C. Web services description language D. Universal description, discovery, and integration E. Hypertext markup language Ans: C Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Easy

47. Which of the following statements about widgets is not correct?

A. Widgets are Web services.

B. Widgets resemble a small window on the user’s desktop or Web page.

C. Users use widgets one time and then typically discard them.

D. Widgets are often branded.

E. Widgets are useful and entertaining.

Ans: C Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Medium

48. The benefits of e-learning include which of the following?

A. increased content retention B. current, high-quality content C. consistency D. flexibility E. all of the above Ans: E Response: E-Learning and Distance Learning Difficulty: Easy

49. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of telecommuting for employees?

A. decreased feelings of isolation B. possible loss of fringe benefits

C. lower pay (in some cases) D. no workplace visibility E. slower promotions Ans: A Response: Telecommuting Difficulty: Easy

50. The major problem that caused Aurora Health Care to implement a services-oriented architecture was which of the following?

A. The company had too many information systems.

B. The company had large amounts of inaccessible data.

C. The company was spending too much money on maintaining its data.

D. The company did not have enough data on which to base decisions.

E. The company had to completely replace its existing IT infrastructure.

Ans: B Response: Chapter closing case Difficulty: Hard

Short Answer

1. Describe the benefits of networks to organizations.

Response: Material immediately following chapter opening case Difficulty: Medium

2. Describe the four network applications.

Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Medium

3. Describe the various types of portals.

Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Medium

4. What is blogging and how might blogging affect organizations?

Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Medium

5. Describe social networking sites, aggregators, and mashups.

Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Medium

6. What are the benefits and limitations of telecommuting? For individuals? For organizations?

Response: Telecommuting Difficulty: Medium

Essay Questions

1. What does the following statement mean: “Without networks, the computer on your desk would be merely another productivity tool, just like the typewriter once was.”

Response: Material immediately following the opening case Difficulty: Hard

2. What are the implications of telepresence systems? Include in your answer the uncertain safety in many parts of the world.

Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Hard

3. Discuss the advantages of voice over IP for organizations.

Response: Network Applications Difficulty: Hard

4. What are the implications of Web 2.0 sites harnessing collective intelligence? Include in your answer marketing applications, product development applications, and others.

Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Hard

5. What are the impacts of AJAX on Web 2.0 sites and visitors who access these sites?

Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Hard

6. Think of a mashup that your university could use. Describe it and the impacts that you envision it would have on your university.

Response: Web 2.0 Difficulty: Hard

File: ch06, Chapter 6: Electronic Commerce: Applications and Issues

True/False

1. In traditional commerce, one or more of the product or service, the process, and the delivery agent can be digital.

Ans: False Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Easy

2. Going to the Web site of a car manufacturer (e.g., www.gm.com), entering the specifications for the car you want, and then picking up your car at your local dealership is an example of partial electronic commerce.

Ans: True Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Easy

3. eBay is a good example of business-to-consumer electronic commerce.

Ans: False Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Easy

4. Forward auctions are used mainly as a selling channel.

Ans: True Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Easy

5. Even though B2C EC is much larger by volume, B2B is more complex.

Ans: False Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

6. An electronic storefront is a Web site on the Internet representing a single store.

Ans: True Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

7. You can make a purchase in a referral mall.

Ans: False Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

8. Selling products such as books and computers on the Internet may reduce vendors’ selling costs by 20 to 40 percent, with further reductions being difficult because the products must be delivered physically.

Ans: True Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

9. Virtual banks are those banks dedicated only to Internet transactions.

Ans: True Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

10. Channel conflict occurs when click-and-mortar companies have problems with their regular distributors when they sell directly to customers online.

Ans: True Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

11. Internet advertising is impersonal, one-way mass communication.

Ans: False Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

12. Banners are the most common form of advertisement on the Internet.

Ans: True Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

13. Hacking is the indiscriminate distribution of electronic ads without permission of the receiver.

Ans: False

Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

14. Business-to-consumer applications comprise the majority of electronic commerce volume.

Ans: False Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

15. The key mechanisms in the sell-side marketplace are customized electronic catalogs and reverse auctions.

Ans: False Response: Business-to-Business (B2B) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

16. The buy-side marketplace is similar to the business-to-consumer model.

Ans: False Response: Business-to-Business (B2B) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

17. Horizontal exchanges connect buyers and sellers across many industries.

Ans: True Response: Business-to-Business (B2B) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

18. In most cases, traditional payment systems are not effective for electronic commerce.

Ans: True Response: Electronic Payments Difficulty: Easy

19. Smart cards can be used as credit cards, debit cards, and/or loyalty cards.

Ans: True Response: Electronic Payments Difficulty: Easy

20. Each buyer needs only one e-wallet for all merchants.

Ans: False Response: Electronic Payments Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. In the chapter opening case, Facebook’s biggest problem is: A. lack of performance in its data center B. out-of-control costs C. an inability to manage inappropriate content on its Web site D. an inability to generate sufficient income from its business model E. lawsuits resulting from inappropriate content on its Web site Ans: D Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

2. The fastest growing group on Facebook is: A. individuals over the age of 55 B. individuals over the age of 65 C. teenagers D. business people E. college students Ans: A Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Medium

3. The major problem with generating advertising revenue on Facebook is: A. it is too costly to produce the ads B. it is too costly to develop the additional IT infrastructure to display the ads on the Web site C. user resistance D. the inability to product target ads for each different group on Facebook E. not enough members of various Facebook groups to make advertising worthwhile for the company Ans: C Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

4. The nature of business competition is changing drastically as a result of all of the following except: A. new online companies B. new business models C. the diversity of EC-related products and services D. the increase in the number of digitizable products E. companies are having difficulty integrating their physical and electronic channels

Ans: E Response: Material immediately following chapter opening case Difficulty: Medium

5. Electronic commerce provides opportunities for companies to do all of the following except: A. expand their reach B. expand at relatively high cost C. put rich information on their Web sites D. increase market share E. adopt new business models Ans: B Response: Material immediately following chapter opening case Difficulty: Medium

6. _____, which is a broader concept than _____, is the buying and selling of goods and services, as well as servicing customers, collaborating with business partners, and performing transactions within an organization.

A. Business-to-business electronic commerce, business-to-customer electronic commerce B. Electronic commerce, electronic business C. Business-to-customer electronic commerce, business-to-business electronic commerce D. Business-to-business electronic commerce, intrabusiness electronic commerce E. Electronic business, electronic commerce Ans: E Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Medium

7. The degree of digitization relates to all of the following except: A. the product or service sold B. the process by which the product is produced C. the delivery agent or intermediary D. the size of e-commerce transactions E. none of the above Ans: D Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Medium

8. In this type of e-commerce, the sellers and buyers are organizations.

A. government-to-citizen B. consumer-to-consumer C. business-to-business D. business-to-consumer E. consumer-to-business Ans: C Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce

Difficulty: Easy

9. In this type of e-commerce, an organization provides information and services to its workers.

A. business-to-employee B. consumer-to-consumer C. consumer-to-business D. business-to-consumer E. government-to-business Ans: A Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Easy

10. Direct payment of Social Security benefits is an example of which type of e-commerce?

A. government-to-citizen B. consumer-to-consumer C. consumer-to-business D. business-to-consumer E. business-to-business Ans: A Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Easy

11. If you are an employee managing your fringe benefits over your company’s intranet, you are engaging in which of the following?

A. business-to-business B. business-to-consumer C. consumer-to-consumer D. business-to-employee E. government-to-citizen Ans: D Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Easy

12. Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between electronic commerce and search is not correct?

A. Purchases often follow successful online searches.

B. Shopping carts are often abandoned after unsuccessful online searches.

C. Retailers will provide fewer product details to avoid information overload for customers.

D. Customers will be able to find the closest store offering the product that they want.

E. Customers will have more relevant product information in the near future.

Ans: C Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Medium

13. In _____ auctions, there is one buyer who wants to buy a product. Suppliers submit bids and the lowest bid wins.

A. forward B. static C. reverse D. physical E. simple Ans: B Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Easy

14. eBay uses a _____ auction.

A. forward B. static C. reverse D. physical E. simple Ans: A Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Easy

15. _____ auctions employ a request for quotation.

A. Forward B. Static C. Reverse D. Physical E. Simple Ans: C Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Easy

16. _____ auctions are the most common auction model for large purchases.

A. Forward B. Static C. Reverse D. Physical E. Simple Ans: C Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Easy

17. In which of the following business models do businesses request quotes from suppliers and use B2B with a reverse auction mechanism?

A. find-the-best-price B. electronic tendering system C. name-your-own-price D. online direct marketing E. affiliate marketing Ans: B Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Easy

18. Vendors ask partners to place logos or banners on partners’ site. If customers click on a logo, go to the vendor’s site and buy, then the vendor pays commissions to its partners. This is which business model?

A. find-the-best-price B. electronic tendering system C. name-your-own-price D. online direct marketing E. affiliate marketing Ans: E Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Easy

19. Which type of electronic commerce is the largest by volume?

A. business-to-employee B. consumer-to-consumer C. business-to-business D. business-to-consumer E. none of the above Ans: C Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

20. Which type of electronic commerce does Amazon practice?

A. business-to-employee B. consumer-to-consumer C. consumer- to-business D. business-to-consumer E. employee-to-business Ans: D Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

21. This type of e-commerce is known as e-tailing.

A. business-to-business

B. collaborative commerce C. intrabusiness D. business-to-consumer E. consumer-to-business Ans: D Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

22. The advantages for consumers include all of the following except : A. You can buy from home 24 hours per day, 7 days per week.

B. You have a wider variety of products to choose from.

C. You typically cannot access additional information, so you do not have information overload.

D. You can easily compare prices and features.

E. You can find unique items.

Ans: C Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Medium

23. Which of the following is not an electronic commerce application?

A. home banking B. buying stocks C. evaluating an employee D. conducting an auction E. buying real estate Ans: C Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

24. Which of the following is not an advantage of e-tailing?

A. you can buy from home, 24 hours per day B. you have just a few products to choose from C. you can obtain detailed information on products D. you can compare competitor’s products and prices E. all of the above Ans: B Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Medium

25. When middlemen are eliminated in a fully automated electronic commerce transaction, this is called _____.

A. disintegration B. supply chain integration C. direct sales D. disintermediation

E. falue-added services Ans: D Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Medium

26. Cyberbanking offers all of the following advantages except: A. It is convenient for customers.

B. It saves time for customers.

C. It includes inexpensive transactions for the bank.

D. The chance of recruiting remote customers.

E. It is more expensive for the customer.

Ans: E Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Medium

27. With regard to travel services and the airlines, a problem that can arise is which of the following?

A. Too many fares B. Mistakes in fares C. Too few fares D. No fares offered on certain routes E. Too many fares offered on certain routes Ans: B Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Medium

28. When Ford Motor Company decided to avoid direct online sales, the company was trying to eliminate which of the following?

A. federal sales taxes B. customer irritation C. channel conflict D. channel integration E. state sales taxes Ans: C Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Medium

29. Refer to IT’s About Business 6.2. The overall and most important benefit from REI’s realignment of all its channels is: A. The company now presents an integrated retail experience for its customers.

B. Customers now can pick up their online orders in stores.

C. The business units can now exchange data as data silos have been eliminated.

D. Cross-channel communication has increased.

E. Company-wide logistics are now consolidated.

Ans: A Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Hard

30. Difficulties in order fulfillment are most closely associated with which of the following?

A. business-to-business EC B. business-to-consumer EC C. government-to-citizen EC D. business-to-employee EC E. mobile commerce Ans: B Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Medium

31. Internet advertising improves on traditional advertising in all of the following ways except: A. Internet ads can be updated at any time at minimal cost.

B. Internet ads can reach large numbers of potential buyers all over the world.

C. Internet ads are always more effective than other types of advertising.

D. Internet ads can make effective use of multimedia.

E. Internet ads are current.

Ans: C Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Medium

32. A(n) _____ is automatically launched by some trigger and appears behind the active window.

A. keyword banner B. random banner C. pop-up ad D. pop-under ad E. text box Ans: D Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

33. _____ offer(s) consumers incentives to accept advertising and e-mail voluntarily.

A. Viral marketing B. Personalized marketing C. Permission marketing D. Paper catalogs E. Direct mail Ans: C Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

34. _____ refers to online word-of-mouth marketing.

A. Permission marketing B. One-to-one marketing C. Personalized marketing D. Viral marketing E. Direct mail Ans: D Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

35. In the _____ marketplace model, organizations attempt to sell their products or services to other organizations electronically.

A. buy-side B. sell-side C. group purchasing D. desktop purchasing E. electronic exchange Ans: B Response: Business-to-Business (B2B) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

36. The key mechanisms of the _____ marketplace model are electronic catalogs that can be customized for each large buyer and forward auctions.

A. buy-side B. sell-side C. group purchasing D. desktop purchasing E. electronic exchange Ans: B Response: Business-to-Business (B2B) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

37. In the _____ marketplace model, EC technology is used to streamline the purchasing process in order to reduce the cost of items purchased, the administrative cost of procurement, and purchasing cycle time.

A. buy-side B. sell-side C. auctions D. group purchasing E. electronic exchange Ans: A Response: Business-to-Business (B2B) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

38. In the _____ B2B application, the orders of many buyers are aggregated so that they total to a large volume, in order to merit more seller attention.

A. buy-side B. sell-side C. auctions D. group purchasing E. electronic exchange Ans: D Response: Business-to-Business (B2B) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

39. In _____, direct and indirect materials in one industry are purchased on an as-needed basis.

A. horizontal exchanges B. vertical exchanges C. buy-side marketplaces D. functional exchanges E. sell-side marketplaces Ans: B Response: Business-to-Business (B2B) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

40. _____ connect buyers and sellers across many industries and are used mainly for indirect materials.

A. horizontal exchanges B. vertical exchanges C. buy-side marketplaces D. functional exchanges E. sell-side marketplaces Ans: A Response: Business-to-Business (B2B) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Easy

41. Which of the following is not a limitation of traditional payment methods in electronic commerce?

A. Cash cannot be used because there is no face-to-face contact.

B. It takes time for payment in the mail.

C. Not all organizations accept credit cards.

D. It is more secure for the buyer to use the telephone than to complete a secure transaction on a computer.

E. None of the above Ans: D Response: Electronic Payments Difficulty: Medium

42. _____ are a payment mechanism similar to regular bank checks but transmitted electronically, with a signature in digital form.

A. Electronic checks B. Electronic credit cards C. Electronic cash D. Electronic wallet E. Electronic debit cards Ans: A Response: Electronic Payments Difficulty: Easy

43. _____ use credit card numbers, transmitted electronically over the Internet, to pay for goods and services and are unencrypted or encrypted, with coded data readable by an intermediary between the buyer’s and seller’s banks.

A. Electronic checks B. Electronic credit cards C. Electronic cash D. Electronic wallet E. Electronic debit cards Ans: B Response: Electronic Payments Difficulty: Easy

44. _____ are typically used for unplanned B2B purchases for amounts under $2000.

A. Electronic checks B. Stored-value money cards C. Purchasing cards D. Smart cards E. Person-to-person payments Ans: C Response: Electronic Payments Difficulty: Easy

45. A form of e-cash, _____ allows you to store a fixed amount of prepaid money and then spend it as necessary.

A. electronic checks B. stored-value money cards C. purchasing cards D. smart cards E. person-to-person payments Ans: B Response: Electronic Payments Difficulty: Easy

46. _____ contain a chip that can store information and can be used for several purposes.

A. Electronic checks

B. Stored-value money cards C. Purchasing cards D. Smart cards E. Person-to-person payments Ans: D Response: Electronic Payments Difficulty: Easy

47. _____ enable two individuals to transfer funds without using a credit card.

A. Electronic checks B. Stored-value money cards C. Purchasing cards D. Smart cards E. Person-to-person payments Ans: E Response: Electronic Payments Difficulty: Easy

48. _____ are software mechanisms that provide security measures and convenience for electronic commerce purchasing.

A. Electronic checks B. Digital wallets C. Purchasing cards D. Smart cards E. Person-to-person payments Ans: B Response: Electronic Payments Difficulty: Easy

49. The practice of using similar but not identical domain names is called _____.

A. domain spoofing B. domain masquerading C. domain tasting D. cybersquatting E. domain fraud Ans: C Response: Ethical and Legal Issues in E-Business Difficulty: Easy

50. _____ refers to the practice of registering or using domain names for the purpose of profiting from the goodwill or trademark belonging to someone else.

A. Domain spoofing B. Domain masquerading C. Domain tasting

D. Cybersquatting E. Domain fraud Ans: D Response: Ethical and Legal Issues in E-Business Difficulty: Easy

Short Answer

1. Differentiate between pure and partial electronic commerce. Give examples of companies in each category.

Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Medium

2. Discuss the various types of electronic commerce.

Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Medium

3. Differentiate between forward and reverse auctions.

Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Medium

4. Discuss the following electronic commerce business models and give examples of each type: online direct marketing, electronic tendering system, name-your-own-price, find-the-best-price, affiliate marketing, and viral marketing.

Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Medium

5. Differentiate between electronic storefronts and electronic malls and give examples of each.

Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Medium

Essay Questions

1. Discuss the benefits and limitations of electronic commerce.

Response: Overview of E-Business and E-Commerce Difficulty: Hard

2. Discuss the various business-to-consumer applications (e.g., e-tailing, electronic storefronts, electronic malls).

Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Hard

3. Discuss the various methods of online advertising.

Response: Business-to-Consumer (B2C) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Hard

4. Differentiate between sell-side marketplaces, buy-side marketplaces, and electronic exchanges.

Response: Business-to-Business (B2B) Electronic Commerce Difficulty: Hard

5. Describe the various types of electronic payments.

Response: Electronic Payments Difficulty: Hard

6. What is domain tasting? Should it be made illegal?

Response: Ethical and Legal Issues in E-Business Difficulty: Hard

File: ch07, Chapter 7: Wireless Technologies and the Modern Organization

True/False

1. Wireless computing does not really affect productivity.

Ans: False Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Easy

2. Wireless is a term used to describe telecommunications in which electromagnetic waves carry the signal between communicating devices.

Ans: True Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Easy

3. Wireless technologies are not changing the ways that organizations are doing business, but they are enabling organizations to do business faster.

Ans: False Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Easy

4. Short message service allows for the sending of short text messages on digital cell phones.

Ans: True Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Easy

5. Microwave transmissions are affected by environmental conditions such as storms.

Ans: True Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Easy

6. The higher the orbit of a satellite, the larger its footprint.

Ans: True Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Easy

7. The global positioning system is supported by GEO satellites.

Ans: False Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Easy

8. Radio transmissions are highly secure.

Ans: False Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Easy

9. Bluetooth is a wireless standard that enables temporary, short-range connection between mobile devices.

Ans: True Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Easy

10. A hotspot is a small geographical perimeter within which a wireless access point provides service to a number of users.

Ans: True Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Easy

11. Wi-Fi provides excellent security.

Ans: False Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Easy

12. Personalization means that a mobile device can provide real-time communication, independent of the user’s location.

Ans: False Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce Difficulty: Easy

13. Micropayment technology has a limited number of possible applications.

Ans: False Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce

Difficulty: Easy

14. Mobile wallets enable users to make purchases with a single click from a mobile device.

Ans: True Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce Difficulty: Easy

15. Telemetry is the science that measures physical remoteness by means of wireless transmissions from a remote source to a receiving station.

Ans: True Response: Difficulty: Easy

16. Pervasive computing and virtual reality are just different names for the same thing.

Ans: False Response: Pervasive Computing Difficulty: Easy

17. In a mesh network, the motes must transmit their data to a central computer.

Ans: False Response: Pervasive Computing Difficulty: Easy

18. Mesh networks are reliable, efficient, and fault tolerant.

Ans: True Response: Pervasive Computing Difficulty: Easy

19. Rogue access points can be set up by employees.

Ans: True Response: Wireless Security Difficulty: Easy

20. War driving is the act of locating wireless networks while driving around a certain area.

Ans: True

Response: Wireless Security Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following is not a strategy that Digicel uses in developing countries to start and grow its mobile telephone business?

A. spend large amounts of money on the network B. have clean stores C. have polite, knowledgeable staff in the store D. make contributions to the election campaigns of politicians E. offer large discounts for mobile service Ans: D Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

2. _____ means that virtually every object has processing power with wind or wireless connections to a network.

A. Wireless computing B. Mobile computing C. Pervasive computing D. Fixed computing E. Continuous computing Ans: C Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

3. Individuals are finding it convenient and productive to use wireless devices for which of the following reasons?

A. To make use of time that was formerly wasted B. To become more efficient C. Work locations are more flexible D. To be able to allocate working time around personal and professional obligations E. All of the above Ans: E Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Medium

4. Microbrowsers have all of the following capabilities except: A. small file size B. all the features of regular browsers C. can work with small screen size on wireless devices D. can work with relatively low bandwidth of some wireless devices

E. can work with intermittent wireless signals Ans: B Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Medium

5. Of the following, which is the major problem with smart phones?

A. They are too slow.

B. They are too expensive.

C. They can be used to compromise security.

D. Their screens are too small.

E. Their browsers are not fully functional.

Ans: C Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Medium

6. The capabilities of smart phones include all of the following except: A. calculator B. e-mail C. global positioning system D. corporate transaction processing E. full-function Internet browser Ans: D Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Easy

7. Unfortunately, many managers consider smart phones as only _____, rather than as _____ that can transmit wirelessly.

A. phones, digital cameras B. phones, pagers C. digital cameras, phones D. digital cameras, pagers E. cheap, expensive devices Ans: A Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Medium

8. Microwave transmission systems are used for _____ volume, _____ distance, _____ communications.

A. low, long, broadcast B. low, short, line-of-sight C. high, long, broadcast D. high, short, broadcast E. high, long, line-of-sight Ans: E

Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Medium

9. Which type of satellite has the largest footprint?

A. low earth orbit B. medium earth orbit C. geostationary D. polar orbit E. equatorial orbit Ans: C Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Easy

10. The area of the earth reached by a satellite’s transmission is called _____.

A. a hotspot B. coverage C. a footprint D. a zone E. the wireless area Ans: C Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Easy

11. The greatest problem with GEO satellites is which of the following?

A. Propagation delay B. Expense C. Orbital life D. Size of footprint E. Relative speed with respect to a point on the earth’s surface Ans: A Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Easy

12. _____ is a satellite-based tracking system that enables the determination of a person’s position.

A. Bluetooth B. Wireless application protocol C. Short message service D. Wi-fi E. Global positioning system Ans: E Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Easy

13. Which of the following is not an advantage of radio?

A. no metallic wires needed B. propagate easily through office walls C. devices are inexpensive D. creates no electrical interference problems E. devices are easy to install Ans: D Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Medium

14. The main problem with radio transmission is which of the following?

A. Radio waves cannot travel through walls.

B. When you travel too far from the source, the signal fades.

C. Devices are difficult to install.

D. Radio waves are slow.

E. Devices are expensive to install.

Ans: B Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Medium

15. The most common wireless technology for TV and DVD remote control devices is: A. Bluetooth B. Ultra wideband C. Near field communications D. Wi-Max E. Infrared Ans: E Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Easy

16. _____ is a wireless standard that enables temporary, short-range connection between mobile devices.

A. Bluetooth B. Wireless application protocol C. Short message service D. Wi-fi E. Global positioning system Ans: A Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Easy

17. Which of the following is the most appropriate wireless networking standard for creating personal area networks?

A. Wi-Fi

B. Cellular radio C. Microwave D. Bluetooth E. Wi-Max Ans: D Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Easy

18. Which of the following is the most appropriate wireless technology for real-time location of caregivers and mobile equipment in health-care environments?

A. Wi-Fi B. Microwave C. Ultra wideband D. Infrared E. Bluetooth Ans: C Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Medium

19. _____, with the shortest range of any wireless network, is designed to be used with contactless credit cards.

A. Near field communications B. Bluetooth C. Ultra-wideband D. Wi-Fi E. Infrared Ans: A Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Easy

20. Which of the following statements about Wi-Fi is not correct?

A. Wi-Fi provides simple Internet access.

B. Laptop PC scans contain chips that can send and receive Wi-Fi signals.

C. Many companies offer free Wi-Fi access in their stores.

D. Wi-Fi requires encryption for secure transmissions.

E. Wi-Fi is expensive to set up.

Ans: E Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Medium

21. Which of the following is not an inhibitor of faster Wi-Fi expansion?

A. Users cannot roam from hotspot to hotspot if the hotspots use different Wi-Fi network services.

B. There is a lack of security.

C. The growth of Wi-Max

D. Unless the service is free, users have to log on to separate accounts for each hotspot.

E. Wi-Fi services may not survive in the face of free hotspot access.

Ans: C Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Hard

22. A small geographical perimeter within which a wireless access point provides service to a number of users is called: A. a transceiver B. a hotspot C. local reception D. a wireless network E. GPS location Ans: B Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Easy

23. Today, most wireless local area networks use the _____ standard, which can transmit up to 54 Mbps and has a range of about 300 feet.

A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11c D. 802.11g E. Wi-Max Ans: D Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Easy

24. _____ use multiple Wi-Fi access points to create a wide area network.

A. Mesh networks B. Pervasive networks C. Global networks D. Fixed networks E. Ubiquitous networks Ans: A Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Easy

25. _____ communicate(s) via radio waves using radio antennas placed within adjacent geographic areas.

A. Bluetooth B. Cell phones C. A satellite D. Ultra-wideband E. Near field communications

Ans: B Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Easy

26. The _____ standard can transmit up to 75 Mbps and has a range of 31 miles.

A. Wi-Fi B. 802.11b C. 802.11c D. 802.11g E. Wi-Max Ans: E Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Easy

27. Mobile computing has two major characteristics that differentiate it from other forms of computing.

What are these two characteristics?

A. mobility, broad reach B. mobility, lack of expense C. security, broad reach D. security, mobility E. broad reach, localization Ans: A Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce Difficulty: Medium

28. With regard to mobile computing, _____ means that it is easy and fast to access the Web and other mobile devices.

A. ubiquity B. convenience C. instant connectivity D. b and c E. a, b, and c Ans: D Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce Difficulty: Medium

29. With regard to mobile computing, _____ means that knowing where a user is physically is a key to offering relevant products and services.

A. ubiquity B. convenience C. instant connectivity D. personalization E. localization of products and services

Ans: E Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce Difficulty: Easy

30. The development of mobile commerce is driven by all of the following factors except: A. widespread availability of mobile devices B. the cell phone culture C. increasing prices D. bandwidth improvement E. no need for a PC Ans: C Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce Difficulty: Medium

31. Which of the following is not a mobile application in financial services?

A. transaction processing systems B. mobile banking C. wireless electronic payment systems D. micropayments E. wireless wallets Ans: A Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce Difficulty: Medium

32. Parking meters that you can pay via your mobile telephone are an example of: A. mobile banking B. wireless electronic payment C. wireless wallet D. brokerage service E. money transfer Ans: B Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce Difficulty: Easy

33. If you buy a hot dog at a concession stand using your contactless credit card, you are using: A. a wireless money transfer B. a wireless wallet C. a wireless bill payment D. a micropayment E. a wireless electronic payment system Ans: E Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce Difficulty: Medium

34. Putting ads on top of taxicabs in New York City that change as the cabs travel around the city is an example of: A. viral marketing B. permission advertising C. geographical advertising D. location-based advertising E. direct marketing Ans: D Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce Difficulty: Medium

35. _____ refer(s) to the wireless communication of location-based information and control messages to and from vehicles and other mobile assets.

A. Location-based services B. Telematics C. Pervasive services D. RFID E. Wi-Fi Ans: B Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce Difficulty: Easy

36. Sense networks track users by all of the following except: A. GPS B. traffic cameras C. cell towers D. Wi-Fi networks E. None of the above Ans: B Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce Difficulty: Medium

37. _____ is the science that measures physical remoteness by means of wireless transmission from a remote source to a receiving station.

A. Telemetry B. Wireless access point C. Cellular radio D. Microwave E. Wireless positioning Ans: A Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce Difficulty: Easy

38. The generic term for technologies that use radio waves to automatically identify individual items is: A. telemetry B. bar codes C. shipping labels D. radio-frequency identification E. wireless access point Ans: D Response: Pervasive Computing Difficulty: Easy

39. Which of the following is not a limitation of barcodes?

A. They require line-of-sight to the scanning device.

B. They are printed on paper.

C. They identify the manufacturer, product, and item.

D. They are difficult to use in a manufacturing plant.

E. They are useless in determining expiration date.

Ans: C Response: Pervasive Computing Difficulty: Medium

40. The major problem with RFID has been: A. expense B. bandwidth C. location D. RFID readers E. RFID tags Ans: A Response: Pervasive Computing Difficulty: Easy

41. Based on the RFID discussion in Chapter 7, what would be the best use of RFID in a business?

A. Transaction processing B. Supply chain management C. Personnel tracking D. Enabling communications with customers E. Decreasing network costs Ans: B Response: Pervasive Computing Difficulty: Medium

42. The advantages of RFID tags to Staples include all of the following except: A. accurate inventory B. precise location of each item in stores

C. reduced transaction costs at checkout D. movement history of each item through the store to moment of sale E. labor savings Ans: C Response: Pervasive Computing Difficulty: Hard

43. The advantages of RFID tags at the Beijing Olympics included all of the following except: A. protection against counterfeit tickets B. ensured safety of perishable food C. enabling China to sell more tickets internationally D. ensuring security of athletes E. protecting against counterfeit credentials Ans: C Response: IT’s About Business 7.3 Difficulty: Hard

44. _____ collect data from many points over an extended space.

A. Bluetooth networks B. Ultra-wideband networks C. Wireless sensor networks D. Wi-Max networks E. Wi-Fi networks Ans: C Response: Pervasive Computing Difficulty: Easy

45. _____ is a wireless networking protocol that relies on magnetic rather than electrical energy.

A. Zigbee B. Bluetooth C. Wi-Fi D. RFID E. RuBee Ans: E Response: Pervasive Computing Difficulty: Easy

46. Which of the following may be used for reading utility meters without a person having to get out of a truck?

A. RuBee B. ZigBee C. Wi-Fi D. Near field communications E. RFID

Ans: B Response: Pervasive Computing Difficulty: Easy

47. The basic benefits of the Greenbox smart grid system include all of the following except: A. to provide decision support capabilities for utility company managers B. to save money on energy savings for homeowners C. to educate homeowners on energy consumption D. to enable variable rate pricing for energy for homeowners E. to enable homeowners to compare their energy consumption with their neighbors Ans: A Response: IT’s About Business 7.4 Difficulty: Hard

48. The act of locating wireless local area networks while moving around a city is called: A. war dialing B. war driving C. war hacking D. war cracking E. war chalking Ans: B Response: Wireless Security Difficulty: Easy

49. A(n) _____ allows unauthorized entry into a wireless network.

A. lack of encryption B. disgruntled employee C. open node D. illegal server E. rogue access point Ans: E Response: Wireless Security Difficulty: Easy

50. _____ refers to efforts by unauthorized users to access data traveling over wireless networks.

A. RF jamming B. War driving C. Eavesdropping D. War chalking E. Installing rogue access points Ans: C Response: Wireless Security Difficulty: Easy

51. In _____, a person or a device intentionally or unintentionally interferes with your wireless network transmissions.

A. RF jamming B. war driving C. eavesdropping D. war chalking E. installing rogue access points Ans: A Response: Wireless Security Difficulty: Easy

52. Although rogue access devices can be installed innocently, these devices can be installed by an attacker trying to gain unauthorized access to a wireless network. In such cases, these devices are called an _____.

A. unencrypted node B. evil twin C. open node D. illegal server E. unauthorized rogue access point Ans: B Response: Wireless Security Difficulty: Easy

53. The problems with the Census Bureau’s failed attempt to implement wireless technology in time for the 2010 census included all of the following except: A. poor communication between the Census Bureau and Harris Corporation B. poor communication between census takers and citizens C. poor contract estimates D. poor program management E. poor executive governance Ans: B Response: Chapter closing case Difficulty: Hard

Short Answer

1. Describe the difference between the traditional working environment and the wireless working environment.

Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Medium

2. Describe the convergence of functions in today’s smart phones.

Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Medium

3. Differentiate among the three types of satellite.

Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Medium

4. Define Bluetooth and give examples of its uses.

Response: Wireless Technologies Difficulty: Medium

5. Describe the 802.11 family of standards.

Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Medium

Essay Questions

1. What are the problems with Wi-Fi? Response: Wireless Computer Networks and Internet Access Difficulty: Medium

2. What are the two characteristics of mobile computing and what are the five value-added attributes of mobile computing?

Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce Difficulty: Medium

3. Describe the services that telemedicine can provide. Would you want to be a patient being treated via telemedicine? Why or why not?

Response: Mobile Computing and Mobile Commerce Difficulty: Hard

4. Describe pervasive computing and the two technologies that provide its infrastructure.

Response: Pervasive Computing Difficulty: Medium

5. Define the four major threats to wireless networks.

Response: Wireless Security Difficulty: Medium

File: ch08, Chapter 8: Information Systems that Support Organizations

True/False

1. The functional area information systems are the most fundamental information systems in the organization.

Ans: False Response: Functional Area Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

2. The data processed by transaction processing systems provide the inputs for other organizational information systems.

Ans: True Response: Transaction Processing Systems Difficulty: Easy

3. In general, organizations try to automate data entry as much as possible.

Ans: True Response: Transaction Processing Systems Difficulty: Easy

4. Functional information systems support the entire enterprise or major portions of it.

Ans: False Response: Functional Area Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

5. Exception reports show a greater level of detail than is included in routine reports.

Ans: False Response: Functional Area Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

6. Information systems can be function-specific.

Ans: True Response: Functional Area Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

7. Historically, the functional area information systems were developed independently of one another.

Ans: True Response: Functional Area Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

8. Information silos were particularly efficient when business processes crossed functional boundaries in an organization.

Ans: False Response: Enterprise Resource Planning Systems Difficulty: Easy

9. Business processes may be located within one functional area or may span multiple functional areas.

Ans: True Response: Enterprise Resource Planning Systems Difficulty: Easy

10. Best practices are the most successful solutions or problem-solving methods for achieving a business objective.

Ans: True Response: Enterprise Resource Planning Systems Difficulty: Easy

11. Enterprise resource management is an enterprise-wide effort to acquire and retain customers.

Ans: False Response: Enterprise Resource Planning Systems Difficulty: Easy

12. Financial management, operations management, and human resource management are extended ERP modules.

Ans: False Response: Enterprise Resource Planning Systems Difficulty: Easy

13. When ERP systems are not appropriate in an organization, then that organization can use an enterprise application integration system.

Ans: True Response: Enterprise Resource Planning Systems Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. UPS has all of the following IT initiatives underway except: A. development of translation software for Eastern European languages B. development of live chat capability C. a system to improve the quality of international documentation on packages D. the UPS Worldport E. development of a system to enhance managerial decision making Ans: E Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

2.The IT initiatives at UPS are mainly targeted at which functional area of the organization?

A. accounting B. operations management C. human resources D. marketing E. finance Ans: B Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Medium

3. Organizational transactions are typically _____ volume, _____, and therefore _____ to computerize.

A. low, repetitive, difficult B. high, repetitive, easy C. high, different, difficult D. low, different, easy E. high, different, easy Ans: B Response: Transaction Processing Systems Difficulty: Medium

4. The most fundamental information systems in an organization are: A. office automation systems B. decision support systems C. functional area information systems D. transaction processing systems E. business intelligence systems

Ans: D Response: Transaction Processing Systems Difficulty: Easy

5. When interest is credited to your savings account at your bank, it is called a: A. process B. function C. calculation D. transaction E. decision Ans: D Response: Transaction Processing Systems Difficulty: Medium

6. Data that have been processed by the organization’s _____ are inputs into the organization’s database.

A. office automation systems B. functional area information systems C. transaction processing systems D. decision support systems E. digital dashboards Ans: C Response: Transaction Processing Systems Difficulty: Easy

7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a transaction processing system?

A. small amounts of data are processed B. sources of data are mainly internal C. low computation complexity D. high level of accuracy, data integrity, and security E. high level of detail Ans: A Response: Transaction Processing Systems Difficulty: Easy

8. Transaction processing systems are essential to Elavon for all of the following reasons except: A. so Elavon managers can make better decisions B. to provide high-quality customer service C. to process customer transactions quickly and efficiently D. to allow for no unplanned downtime in customer service E. to enable the company to adhere to industry rules Ans: A Response: IT’s About Business 8.1 Difficulty: Hard

9. Which of the following is not a function of functional area information systems?

A. providing information to managers in the functional areas B. supporting the managerial tasks of planning, organizing, and controlling operations C. providing information mainly in the form of reports D. providing data from business events to the corporate database E. providing analysis capabilities to middle level managers and staff Ans: D Response: Functional Area Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

10. _____ reports contain special information not found in routine reports.

A. Ad hoc B. Summary C. Drill-down D. Key-indicator E. Exception Ans: A Response: Functional Area Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

11. _____ reports are produced at scheduled intervals.

A. Ad hoc B. Routine C. Exception D. Detailed E. Key indicator Ans: B Response: Functional Area Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

12. _____ reports summarize the performance of critical activities.

A. Ad hoc B. Routine C. Exception D. Detailed E. Key indicator Ans: E Response: Functional Area Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

13. When the chief financial officer of a company wants a report on business units who have spent 10 percent more than their allotted budget, she would be requesting which type of report?

A. Ad hoc B. Routine C. Exception D. Detailed E. Key indicator Ans: C Response: Functional Area Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

14. _____ reports include only information that falls outside certain threshold standards.

A. Ad hoc B. Routine C. Exception D. Detailed E. Key indicator Ans: C Response: Functional Area Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

15. To effectively manage by exception (i.e., use exception reports), the company must first create: A. performance standards B. best practices C. user information requirements D. a database E. employee evaluation guides Ans: A Response: Functional Area Information Systems Difficulty: Easy

16. Enterprise resource planning systems take a(n) _____ view of the overall organization.

A. User’s B. Management C. Functional D. Business process E. Transactional Ans: D Response: Enterprise Resource Planning Systems Difficulty: Medium

17. _____ integrate the planning, management, and use of all of an organization’s resources, and are designed to tightly integrate the functional areas of the organization.

A. Transaction processing systems B. Supply chain management systems C. Functional area information systems

D. Enterprise resource planning systems E. Corporate extranets Ans: D Response: Enterprise Resource Planning Systems Difficulty: Easy

18. The characteristics of ERP systems include all of the following except: A. integrating the planning, management, and use of all resources of the organization B. providing information necessary to control the business processes of the organization C. including a set of interdependent software modules D. typically fitting an organization’s existing business processes E. they are expensive and time-consuming Ans: D Response: Enterprise Resource Planning Systems Difficulty: Easy

19. Enterprise resource planning systems are very _____ software products, meaning that companies typically have to change their _____ to accommodate how the software functions.

A. unstructured, business processes B. structured, reporting relationships C. structured, accounting processes D. unstructured, inventory control E. structured, business processes Ans: E Response: Enterprise Resource Planning Systems Difficulty: Medium

20. _____ are interorganizational ERP systems that provide Web-enabled links between an organization’s key business systems and its customers, suppliers, business partners, and others.

A. Functional area information systems B. Supply chain management systems C. Transaction processing systems D. Office automation systems E. ERP II systems Ans: E Response: Enterprise Resource Planning Systems Difficulty: Easy

21. _____ are the most successful solutions or problem-solving methods for achieving a business objective.

A. Business functions B. Best practices C. Optimal strategies D. Business processes E. Enterprise solutions

Ans: B Response: Enterprise Resource Planning Systems Difficulty: Easy

22. The drawbacks of ERP systems include all of the following except: A. they are complex B. they are expensive C. they are time-consuming to implement D. companies may need to change existing business processes to fit the software E. they consist of modules Ans: E Response: Enterprise Resource Planning Systems Difficulty: Easy

23. Why did the World Bank implement an ERP system as the first of its IT initiatives?

A. It was the cheapest initiative B. It was the least complex initiative C. It was the initiative that provided the foundation for all subsequent initiatives D. It was the initiative with the most clearly defined user information requirements E. It was mandated from headquarters Ans: C Response: IT’s About Business 8.3 Difficulty: Hard

24. Which best describes the NoFly list at the Transportation Security Agency?

A. Routine report B. Ad hoc report C. Detailed report D. Exception report E. Summary report Ans: D Response: Chapter closing case Difficulty: Medium

Short Answer

1. Differentiate between transaction processing systems and functional area information systems.

Response: Transaction Processing Systems and Functional Area Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

2. Differentiate between batch processing and online transaction processing.

Response: Transaction Processing Systems Difficulty: Medium

3. Describe the various reports that can be obtained from functional area information systems.

Response: Functional Area Information Systems Difficulty: Medium

4. Define enterprise resource planning systems and discuss why they were developed.

Response: Enterprise Resource Planning Systems Difficulty: Medium

Essay Questions

1. Describe the IT applications deployed in the UPS Worldport.

Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

2. Define source data automation and describe why this process is so important to transaction processing systems.

Response: Transaction Processing Systems Difficulty: Hard

3. Differentiate between ERP systems and ERP II systems.

Response: Enterprise Resource Planning Systems Difficulty: Medium

File: ch09, Chapter 9: Information Systems, Management, and Decision Making

True/False

1. In the chapter opening case, Dell received better results from its mobile promotion than from its print promotion.

Ans: True Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Easy

2. In the future, Dell plans to continue to spend most of its advertising dollars on traditional advertising.

Ans: False Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Easy

3. Over time, the customer relationship with vendors has become more personal.

Ans: False Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Easy

4. Today, customers are becoming increasingly powerful.

Ans: True Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Easy

5. The real problem with interacting with customers over the Web is that the company does not have an opportunity to make a good first impression in person.

Ans: True Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Easy

6. CRM systems focus on marketing to large amounts of people.

Ans: False Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Easy

7. CRM systems are designed to achieve customer intimacy.

Ans: True Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Easy

8. The basic idea of CRM is to treat all customers in the same excellent way.

Ans: False Response: Defining Customer Relationship Management Difficulty: Easy

9. CRM means that a company should interact with its customers as a group.

Ans: False Response: Defining Customer Relationship Management Difficulty: Easy

10. Properly designed CRM systems provide a single, enterprise-wide view of each customer.

Ans: True Response: Defining Customer Relationship Management Difficulty: Easy

11. In the past, customer data has been located all over the company, typically in the functional areas.

Ans: True Response: Defining Customer Relationship Management Difficulty: Easy

12. Blogs and wikis can be used as customer touch points.

Ans: True Response: Defining Customer Relationship Management Difficulty: Easy

13. Transactional CRM systems provide interactive communication with the customer throughout the organization.

Ans: False Response: Defining Customer Relationship Management Difficulty: Easy

14. For purposes of efficiency, customer data are best stored in the functional areas of the organization.

Ans: False Response: Defining Customer Relationship Management Difficulty: Easy

15. Collaborative CRM systems provide interaction with customers throughout the entire organization.

Ans: True Response: Defining Customer Relationship Management Difficulty: Easy

16. Operational CRM systems support the front-office business processes which directly interact with customers.

Ans: False Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

17. Some companies conduct live chat with customers using a computer with natural language processing software, rather than a real person.

Ans: True Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

18. Sales force automation is a customer-facing application.

Ans: True Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

19. If you have visited Amazon’s Web site previously and then return, Amazon recommends other books that you might like. This is called cross-selling.

Ans: True Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

20. Electronic CRM applications are the same thing as customer-touching CRM.

Ans: True Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. Over time, the customer relationship with vendors has become more impersonal for all of the following reasons except: A. people move from farms to cities B. consumers became mobile C. supermarkets and department stores proliferated D. customer relationship management systems were developed E. the Internet grew rapidly Ans: D Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

2. Which of the following best describes CRM? A. a process B. a set of technologies C. an information system D. a way of thinking and acting E. a set of decisions Ans: D Response: Defining CRM Difficulty: Medium

3. The most important action taken by U.S. Airways after Flight 1549 landed on the Hudson River was which of the following?

A. providing ticket refunds to passengers B. not requiring passengers to waive their legal rights C. arranging rental cars and train tickets for passengers who did not want to fly D. activating an 800 number for families to call E. dispatching more than 100 employees to assist passengers Ans: B Response: IT’s About Business 9.1 Difficulty: Hard

4. Which of the following is an important enabler of CRM? A. recognizing that there are many customer touch points B. recognizing the necessity of treating all customers the same C. recognizing the need for sophisticated CRM information systems D. recognizing the need for sophisticated customer databases

E. recognizing the need for a data warehouse Ans: A Response: Defining CRM Difficulty: Medium

5. Which of the following is not a customer touch point?

A. telephone contact B. e-mail C. Web sites D. customer visits to a store E. none of the above – all are touch points Ans: E Response: Defining CRM Difficulty: Medium

6. The complete data on a customer is called: A. a profile B. a record C. a 360-degree view D. a file E. a consolidated customer map Ans: C Response: Defining CRM Difficulty: Easy

7. Which of the following is the most important enabler of the 360-degree view of the customer across an organization?

A. the organization’s database B. the organization’s data warehouse C. the organization’s CRM systems D. the organization’s collaborative CRM systems E. the organization’s analytical CRM systems Ans: B Response: Defining CRM Difficulty: Hard

8. _____ systems provide interactive communication with the customer throughout the organization.

A. CRM B. Collaborative CRM C. Operational CRM D. Analytical CRM E. Transactional CRM Ans: B

Response: Defining CRM Difficulty: Easy

9. _____ systems support the front-office business processes which directly interact with customers.

A. CRM B. Collaborative CRM C. Operational CRM D. Analytical CRM E. Transactional CRM Ans: C Response: Defining CRM Difficulty: Hard

10. _____ systems study customer behavior and perceptions to provide business intelligence.

A. CRM B. Collaborative CRM C. Operational CRM D. Analytical CRM E. Transactional CRM Ans: D Response: Defining CRM Difficulty: Easy

11. _____ includes those areas where customers directly interact with the company.

A. CRM B. Analytical CRM C. Customer-facing CRM D. Customer-touching CRM E. Transactional CRM Ans: C Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

12. When customers help themselves, often through electronic touch points, this process is called: A. CRM B. analytical CRM C. customer-facing CRM D. customer-touching CRM E. transactional CRM Ans: D Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

The sales, marketing, and service functions are part of: A. CRM B. analytical CRM C. operational CRM D. collaborative CRM E. transactional CRM Ans: C Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

13. In _____, company representatives use multiple communication channels to support the communications preferences of customers.

A. telesales rooms B. group decision support rooms C. videoconferencing centers D. sales team meetings E. customer interaction centers Ans: E Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

14. Which of the following allows customers to connect to a company representative and conduct an instant messaging session?

A. information help desk B. live chat C. customer interaction center D. teleconference E. videoconference Ans: B Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

15. At Amazon, _____ occur(s) only when customers deal with Amazon employees.

A. customer service B. customer transactions C. customer experience D. customer satisfaction E. customer relationship Ans: A Response: IT’s About Business 9.2 Difficulty: Medium

16. At Amazon, _____ include(s) having the lowest price and the fastest delivery.

A. customer service B. customer transactions C. customer experience D. customer satisfaction E. customer relationship Ans: C Response: IT’s About Business 9.2 Difficulty: Medium

17. Amazon wants _____ to be the exception rather than the rule.

A. customer service B. customer transactions C. customer experience D. customer satisfaction E. customer relationship Ans: A Response: IT’s About Business 9.2 Difficulty: Medium

18. To ensure superb customer service from merchants who sell through its Web site, Amazon has provided all of the following except: A. Amazon customers with the opportunity to rate their experience with merchants B. merchants who use the Amazon Web site to use an e-mail service on the Amazon site C. Amazon monitors e-mail exchanges between merchants and customers D. Amazon the ability to remove merchants who have problems with more than 1 percent of their orders E. the deployment of a sophisticated CRM system throughout its organization Ans: E Response: IT’s About Business 9.2 Difficulty: Hard

19. In Amazon’s _____ process, merchants send their products to Amazon’s warehouses, and Amazon does the rest.

A. web services B. search C. fulfillment D. shopping E. advertising Ans: C Response: IT’s About Business 9.2 Difficulty: Medium

20. In Amazon’s fulfillment process, Amazon does all of the following except: A. take orders online B. pack boxes

C. answer questions from customers D. process returns E. produce the product Ans: E Response: IT’s About Business 9.2 Difficulty: Medium

21. In improving its relationship with its customers, Amazon’s ultimate goal is which of the following?

A. to gain more control over the shopping experience B. to reduce transaction costs C. to improve customer satisfaction D. to make better decisions E. to make its Web site more functional Ans: A Response: IT’s About Business 9.2 Difficulty: Medium

22. _____ is the component of an operational CRM system that automatically records all the aspects in a sales transaction process.

A. Inbound telesales B. Outbound telesales C. Sales team efforts D. Sales force automation E. The customer help desk Ans: D Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

23. _____ is the practice of marketing additional related products to customers based on a previous purchase.

A. Bundling B. Up-selling C. Re-selling D. Additional selling E. Cross-selling Ans: E Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

24. AT&T sells telephone services that include local and long-distance service, voice mail service, caller ID, and digital subscriber line access to the Internet. This is a form of: A. up-selling B. cross-selling C. bundling

D. customer relationship management E. customer intimacy Ans: C Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Medium

25. You are in the market for a small economy car. The salesperson has you drive the economy car, and then hands you the keys to a mid-size car of the same brand for you to drive. The salesperson is engaged in: A. up-selling B. cross-selling C. bundling D. customer relationship management E. customer intimacy Ans: A Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Medium

26. _____ is a sales strategy where the business person will provide to customers the opportunity to purchase higher-value related products.

A. Bundling B. Up-selling C. Re-selling D. Additional selling E. Cross-selling Ans: B Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

27. _____ occurs when a business sells a group of products or services together at a lower price than the combined individual prices of the products.

A. Bundling B. Up-selling C. Re-selling D. Additional selling E. Cross-selling Ans: A Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

28. _____ is a form of _____.

A. Up-selling, re-selling B. Bundling, cross-selling C. Up-selling, bundling

D. Cross-selling, re-selling E. Re-selling, additional selling Ans: B Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

29. _____ are applications and technologies with which customers interact and typically help themselves.

A. Customer facing CRM applications B. Up-selling activities C. Inbound telesales D. Customer touching applications E. Outbound telesales Ans: D Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

30. A check-in kiosk at the airport would be what type of CRM application?

A. Inbound telesales B. Customer touching C. Outbound telesales D. Sales E. Customer facing Ans: B Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Medium

31. Electronic CRM applications are considered to be what type of CRM application?

A. Inbound telesales B. Customer touching C. Outbound telesales D. Sales E. Customer facing Ans: B Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

32. _____ are simple tools for answering repetitive customer questions.

A. Personalized Web pages B. Customized products and services C. Frequently asked questions D. E-mail systems E. Automated response systems Ans: C

Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Easy

33. Subway’s new loyalty card program was difficult for the company’s IT department to implement.

Which of the following is the main reason for this difficulty?

A. The program provided too much data for the IT department to handle.

B. The program was too expensive for the IT department budget.

C. The program included too many Subway stores.

D. Subway stores are owned by franchisees.

E. Subway store owners refused to adopt the new program.

Ans: D Response: IT’s About Business 9.3 Difficulty: Hard

34. The main reason for Subway’s implementation of its new loyalty card program was which of the following?

A. fraud in its old loyalty program B. lack of participation in its old program C. old program was too expensive to maintain D. no IT support for the old program E. no demonstrated results from the old program Ans: A Response: IT’s About Business 9.3 Difficulty: Hard

35. The benefits from Subway’s new loyalty card program include all of the following except: A. the ability to target customer behavior B. the ability to reduce Subway transaction costs C. the ability to reward customer behavior D. the ability to analyze customer behavior in different geographical regions E. allowing Subway managers to analyze customer behavior in individual stores Ans: B Response: IT’s About Business 9.3 Difficulty: Hard

36. _____ creates statistical models of customer behavior and the value of customer relationships over time.

A. CRM B. Analytical CRM C. Operational CRM D. Collaborative CRM E. Transactional CRM Ans: B Response: Analytical CRM Difficulty: Easy

37. _____ analyze customer data for designing and executing targeted marketing campaigns.

A. CRM B. Analytical CRM C. Operational CRM D. Collaborative CRM E. Transactional CRM Ans: B Response: Analytical CRM Difficulty: Easy

38. _____ is a CRM system that is hosted by an external vendor in the vendor’s data center.

A. Mobile CRM B. Analytical CRM C. Operational CRM D. On-demand CRM E. Customer-facing CRM Ans: D Response: Other Types of CRM Difficulty: Easy

39. Potential problems with on-demand CRM include all of the following except: A. increases costs for the organization B. vendor could prove unreliable C. difficult to modify hosted software D. may be difficult to integrate hosted software with existing software in the organization E. giving strategic data to a vendor is risky Ans: A Response: Other Types of CRM Difficulty: Medium

40. The benefits of open-source CRM include all of the following except: A. it is easy to customize B. it is favorably priced C. it has more functionality than in-house CRM systems D. updates and error fixes occur rapidly E. it has extensive support information available Ans: C Response: Other Types of CRM Difficulty: Medium

Short Answer

1. Describe the various customer touch points in any organization. Which ones are more effective for you as college students?

Response: Defining Customer Relationship Management Difficulty: Medium

2. Describe the various customer-facing applications in an organization.

Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Medium

3. Describe how sales force automation works at Nike.

Response: Operational CRM Difficulty: Medium

4. What are the problems associated with on-demand CRM? Response: Other Types of CRM Difficulty: Medium

5. Describe the reasons that so many companies think mobile CRM is the CRM system of the future.

Response: Other Types of CRM Difficulty: Medium

Essay Questions

1. Explain why Dell’s responses from its mobile campaign were so much higher than its responses from its print campaign.

Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

2. Describe why the customer – vendor relationship has become more impersonal.

Response: Material following the chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

3. Describe the Disney mobile CRM effort.

Response: IT’s About Business 9.4 Difficulty: Hard

4. What are the benefits of open-source CRM? Response: Other Types of CRM Difficulty: Medium

5. Why did Tesco’s new way of thinking about its customers draw comparisons with England’s corner grocers of 40 years ago?

Response: Chapter closing case Difficulty: Medium

File: ch10, Chapter 10: Planning for, Acquiring, and Maintaining Information Systems

True/False

1. In the chapter opening case, Disney is transitioning from traditional film making to digital film making.

Ans: True Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty : Easy

2. The biggest problem with digital film making is the added time necessary to produce a motion picture.

Ans: False Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty : Easy

3. Modern organizations are concentrating on their core competencies and on becoming more flexible and agile.

Ans: True Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty : Easy

4. Supply chain visibility is the time between the receipt of incoming goods and the dispatch of finished, outbound products.

Ans: False Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty : Easy

5. Sourcing from external suppliers occurs in the upstream portion of the supply chain.

Ans: True Response: Supply Chains Difficulty : Easy

6. Packaging and assembly take place in the downstream portion of the supply chain.

Ans: False Response: Supply Chains Difficulty : Easy

7. There are typically four flows in the supply chain: materials, information, returns, and financial.

Ans: False Response: Supply Chains Difficulty : Easy

8. The goal of SCM systems is to reduce friction along the supply chain.

Ans: True Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty : Easy

9. The pull model is make-to-stock.

Ans: False Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty : Easy

10. The push model begins with a forecast.

Ans: True Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty : Easy

11. Whether forecasters overestimate or underestimate demand, the company still faces problems.

Ans: True Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty : Easy

12. A major source of supply chain uncertainty is the supply forecast.

Ans: False Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty : Easy

13. The most common solution to supply chain problems is building inventories.

Ans: True Response: Supply Chain Management Diffculty: Easy

14. Vertical integration is a business strategy in which a company buys its suppliers.

Ans: True Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

15. Just-in-time inventory systems try to maximize inventories to protect against uncertainties along the supply chain.

Ans: False Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

16. Internet protocol data interchange is a communication standard that enables business partners to electronically exchange routine documents.

Ans: False Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty : Easy

17. Unfortunately, electronic data interchange does not help much in reducing paper.

Ans: False Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty : Easy

18. Electronic data interchange requires only a small initial investment.

Ans: False Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty : Easy

19. Electronic data interchange is a problem for small businesses.

Ans: True Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

20. The Internet-based extranet is much less costly than proprietary networks.

Ans: True Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management

Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. The benefits from Disney’s conversion to digital film making include all of the following except: A. lower costs B. tighter integration of filming and post-production C. the public’s favorite movies will be higher quality, even though they will take more time to reach theaters D. decreased prices to the public E. improved workflow processes Ans: C Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

2. Trends that have led to the supply chain concept include all of the following except: A. modern organizations are focusing on their core competencies B. modern organizations are concentrating on becoming more agile and flexible C. modern organizations are buying their suppliers in order to have more transparency along the supply chain D. modern organizations are relying on other companies to supply necessary goods and services E. modern organizations are relying on an increasing number of suppliers Ans: C Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

3. _____ is the ability for all organizations in a supply chain to access or view relevant data on purchased materials as these materials move through their suppliers’ production processes and transportation networks to their receiving docks.

A. Supply chain visibility B. Horizontal integration C. Vertical integration D. Supply chain intelligence E. Supply chain integration Ans: A Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Medium

4. _____ is the time between the receipt of incoming goods and the dispatch of finished, outbound products.

A. Inventory turnover B. Inventory velocity C. Inventory speed

D. Inventory time E. Inventory production Ans: B Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Easy

5. A(n) _____ refers to the flow of materials, information, money, and services from raw material suppliers, through factories and warehouses to the end customers.

A. demand chain B. business process C. manufacturing process D. supply chain E. enterprise resource process Ans: D Response: Supply Chains Difficulty: Easy

6. A company’s suppliers, suppliers’ suppliers, and the processes for managing them is the: A. suppliers’ chain B. external supply chain C. upstream portion of the supply chain D. downstream portion of the supply chain E. entire supply chain Ans: C Response: Supply Chains Difficulty: Easy

7. Packaging, assembly, or manufacturing take place in which segment of the supply chain?

A. upstream B. internal C. downstream D. external E. none of the above Ans: B Response: Supply Chains Difficulty: Easy

8. A company’s organization and processes for distributing and delivering products to its final customers is the: A. suppliers’ chain B. external supply chain C. upstream portion of the supply chain D. downstream portion of the supply chain E. entire supply chain

Ans: D Response: Supply Chains Difficulty: Easy

9. Distribution or dispersal takes place in which segment of the supply chain?

A. upstream B. internal C. downstream D. external E. none of the above Ans: C Response: Supply Chains Difficulty: Easy

10. _____ are the physical products, raw materials, and supplies that flow along a supply chain.

A. Reverse flows B. Reverse logistics C. Material flows D. Information flows E. Financial flows Ans: C Response: Supply Chains Difficulty: Easy

11. Returned products, recycled products, and disposal of materials or products are called: A. reverse flows B. returns C. material flows D. information flows E. financial flows Ans: A Response: Supply Chains Difficulty: Easy

12. _____ consist of data that are related to demand, shipments, orders, returns, and schedules.

A. Reverse flows B. Reverse logistics C. Material flows D. Information flows E. Financial flows Ans: D Response: Supply Chains Difficulty: Easy

13. _____ involve money transfers, payments, credit card information and authorization, payment schedules, e-payments, and credit-related data.

A. Reverse flows B. Reverse logistics C. Material flows D. Information flows E. Financial flows Ans: E Response: Supply Chains Difficulty: Easy

14. The goals of supply chain management include which of the following?

A. to reduce uncertainty and risks along the supply chain B. to reduce inventory levels C. to reduce cycle time D. to improve customer service E. all of the above Ans: E Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

15. Which of the following is not a goal of supply chain management?

A. to reduce uncertainty along the supply chain B. to decrease inventory levels C. to increase cycle time D. to improve customer service E. to improve business processes Ans: C Response: Supply Chain Mangement Difficulty: Medium

16. IOSs result in all of the following except: A. reduced costs of routine business transactions B. improved quality of information flow C. reduced errors D. increased cycle time E. eliminated paper processing Ans: D Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

17. _____ connect two or more companies in two or more countries.

A. Global systems B. Virtual systems C. Management information systems D. Transaction processing systems E. B2B trading systems Ans: A Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

18. In the _____, the production process begins with a forecast.

A. supply chain model B. inventory model C. pull model D. vertical integration model E. push model Ans: E Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

19. In the _____, the production process begins with a customer order.

A. supply chain model B. inventory model C. pull model D. vertical integration model E. push model Ans: C Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

20. The _____ is known as make-to-stock.

A. supply chain model B. inventory model C. pull model D. vertical integration model E. push model Ans: E Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

21. The _____ is known as make-to-order.

A. supply chain model B. inventory model C. pull model

D. vertical integration model E. push model Ans: C Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

22. Dell’s business model would be best known as which of the following?

A. Supply chain model B. Inventory model C. Pull model D. Vertical integration model E. Push model Ans: C Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

23. The business model of large automobile manufacturers would be best known as which of the following?

A. Supply chain model B. Inventory model C. Pull model D. Vertical integration model E. Push model Ans: E Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

24. Which of the following is not a problem along the supply chain?

A. poor customer service B. high inventory costs C. loss of revenues D. decreased cycle times E. extra cost of expediting shipments Ans: D Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

25. The _____ is erratic shifts in orders up and down the supply chain.

A. demand forecast effect B. supply forecast effect C. bullwhip effect D. inventory effect E. customer coordination effect Ans: C

Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

26. The bullwhip effect comes from which of the following?

A. poor demand forecast B. price fluctuations C. order batching D. rationing within the supply chain E. all of the above Ans: E Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

27. Which of the following is not responsible for the bullwhip effect?

A. poor demand forecast B. price fluctuations C. order batching D. rationing within the supply chain E. poor supply forecast Ans: E Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

28. In the _____ process, individual OfficeMax stores purchase goods in minimum quantities, which were determined by the supplier’s minimum-order quantities rather than the store’s needs.

A. direct-to-forecast environment B. direct-to-stock environment C. direct-to-store environment D. direct-to-warehouse environment E. direct-to-inventory environment Ans: C Response: IT’s About Business 10.2 Difficulty: Medium

29. Which of the following is not a possible solution to supply chain problems?

A. vertical integration B. building inventories C. information sharing D. horizontal integration E. the bullwhip effect Ans: D Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

30. _____ is the strategy of purchasing upstream suppliers, in order to ensure availability of supplies.

A. Horizontal integration B. Vertical integration C. Just-in-time inventory management D. Supply chain integration E. Customer order integration Ans: B Response: Supply Chain Management Systems Difficulty: Easy

31. When Wal-Mart sells a package of diapers, the company captures data on that sale at its point-of-sale terminal and transmits that data to the company that makes the diapers. When it is necessary, the diaper company restocks the diapers in that Wal-Mart store. This process is called: A. supply chain management B. demand chain management C. vendor-managed inventory D. enterprise resource planning inventory E. just-in-time inventory Ans: C Response: Supply Chain Management Systems Difficulty: Medium

32. The major components of EDI include which of the following?

A. EDI translators B. business transactions messages C. data formatting standards D. all of the above Ans: D Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

33. The benefits of EDI include which of the following?

A. data entry errors are minimized B. length of messages is shorter C. messages are secured D. fosters collaborative relationships E. all of the above Ans: E Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

34. Which of the following is not a benefit of EDI?

A. data entry errors are minimized B. length of messages is longer C. messages are secured D. fosters collaborative relationships E. reduced cycle time Ans: B Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

35. Which of the following is not a limitation of EDI? A. it is inflexible B. business processes may have to be restructured C. it is expensive, but ongoing operating costs are low D. multiple EDI standards exist E. it is difficult to make quick changes Ans: C Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

36. The primary goal of extranets is to do which of the following?

A. foster collaboration between and among business partners B. to provide security for corporate intranets C. to provide effective communications inside corporate intranets D. to enable corporate employees to view inventory information for their companies E. to enable business partners to better plan mergers and acquisitions Ans: A Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

37. Extranets use _____ technology to make communication over the Internet more secure.

A. telepresence B. anti-malware C. virtual private network D. voice-over IP E. videoconferencing Ans: C Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

38. The FedEx extranet that allows customers to track the status of a package is an example of which type of extranet?

A. a company and its dealers, customers, and/or suppliers B. an industry’s extranet C. joint venture

D. B2B exchange E. B2C exchange Ans: A Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

39. The Bank of America extranet for commercial loans links lenders, loan brokers, escrow companies, title companies, and others. This is an example of which type of extranet?

A. a company and its dealers, customers, and/or suppliers B. an industry’s extranet C. B2C exchange D. B2B exchange E. joint venture Ans: E Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

40. _____ portals automate the business processes involved in purchasing products between a single buyer and multiple suppliers.

A. Distribution B. Corporate C. Affiliate D. Intranet E. Procurement Ans: E Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

41._____ portals automate the business processes involved in selling products from a single supplier to multiple buyers.

A. Distribution B. Corporate C. Affiliate D. Intranet E. Procurement Ans: A Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Easy

Short Answer

1. Describe supply chain visibility and explain why it is important to an organization.

Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Medium

2. Describe inventory velocity and explain why it is important to an organization.

Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Medium

3. Describe the three flows along a supply chain.

Response: Supply Chains Difficulty: Medium

4. Differentiate between the pull model and the push model.

Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

5. Describe the various methods that companies use to solve problems along their supply chains.

Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

Essay

1. Describe the supply chain of your university. Be sure to include all three segments.

Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

2. Describe vertical integration. How does this concept relate to supply chain management?

Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Hard

3. What is the bullwhip effect?

Response: Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

4. Define EDI and how it works.

Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

5. Describe the three main types of extranets.

Response: Information Technology Support for Supply Chain Management Difficulty: Medium

File: ch11, Chapter 11: Managerial Support Systems

True/False

1. A manager’s primary function is strategic planning.

Ans: False Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

2. The ratio between organizational inputs and outputs is an indication of the organization’s productivity.

Ans: True Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

3. Modern information systems support all three managerial roles.

Ans: True Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

4. In the choice phase of the decision making process, managers construct a model that simplifies the problem.

Ans: False Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

5. In the implementation phase of the decision making process, managers set criteria for the evaluation of alternative potential solutions.

Ans: False Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

6. The number of alternatives to be considered in decisions today is increasing.

Ans: True Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

7. Structured decisions address routine, repetitive problems for which standard solutions exist.

Ans: True Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

8. Human intuition often plays a role in making unstructured decisions.

Ans: True Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

9. Unstructured decisions require a combination of standard solution procedures and individual judgment.

Ans: False Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

10. Management control is the acquisition and efficient use of resources in accomplishing organizational tasks.

Ans: True Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

11. Targeted marketing is a good example of discovery of previously unknown patterns.

Ans: False Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Easy

12. Decision support systems support only lower and middle level managers.

Ans: False Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Easy

13. Goal-seeking analysis attempts to find the value of the inputs necessary to achieve a desired level of output.

Ans: True

Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Easy

14. A group decision support system is an interactive, computer-based system that facilitates a group’s efforts to find solutions to semistructured and unstructured problems.

Ans: True Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Easy

15. An executive dashboard is very user friendly, supported by graphics, provides exception reporting and drill down, and provides information related to critical success factors.

Ans: True Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Easy

16. Executive dashboards provide support primarily to analytical, quantitative types of decisions.

Ans: False Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Easy

17. Artificial intelligence is perishable, where natural intelligence is permanent from an organizational point of view.

Ans: False Response: Intelligent Systems Difficulty: Easy

18. It is difficult to document the knowledge of artificial intelligence, but easy to document the knowledge of natural intelligence.

Ans: False Response: Intelligent Systems Difficulty: Easy

19. Expertise refers to the extensive, task-specific knowledge acquired from training, reading, and experience.

Ans: True Response: Intelligent Systems Difficulty: Easy

20. Expert systems attempt to mimic human experts by applying expertise in a specific domain.

Ans: True Response: Intelligent Systems Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. Blue Mountain Resorts implemented a business intelligence system for all of the following reasons except: A. old system could not handle all the resort’s data input B. no one in the resort’s IT department was responsible for maintaining the old information system C. the resort wanted to use the new system to attract more guests D. the old system was not automated E. the resort was purchased b another company and it had to upgrade its system Ans: C Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

2. The Blue Mountain data warehouse integrated data from all of the following sources except: A. historical data B. weather data C. guest booking data D. employee schedules E. none of the above – the data warehouse integrated data from all of these sources Ans: E Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

3. The benefits of Blue Mountain Resort’s new business intelligence system included all of the following except: A. saved the resort money B. streamlined the budget process C. enabled the resort to accurately set staffing levels once per year at the beginning of each season D. enabled the resort to optimally staff its call center E. enabled the resort to optimize inventory levels in its retail shops Ans: C Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

4. _____ is the process by which organizational goals are achieved through the use of organizational resources.

A. Organizational decision making B. Operations C. Organizational strategy D. Organizational productivity E. Management Ans: E Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

5. Which of the following is not a basic role of managers?

A. interpersonal B. entrepreneurial C. informational D. decisional E. confrontational Ans: B Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

6. Being a figurehead and leader is part of the _____ managerial role.

A. interpersonal B. entrepreneurial C. informational D. decisional E. confrontational Ans: A Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

7. Being an entrepreneur, disturbance handler, and negotiator is part of the _____ managerial role.

A. interpersonal B. entrepreneurial C. informational D. decisional E. confrontational Ans: D Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

8. In the _____ phase of the decision making process, managers examine a situation and identify and define the problem.

A. implementation

B. choice C. design D. intelligence E. consideration Ans: D Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

9. In the _____ phase of the decision making process, managers construct a model that simplifies the problem.

A. implementation B. choice C. design D. intelligence E. consideration Ans: C Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

10. Success in the _____ phase of the decision making process results in resolving the original problem, and failure leads to a return to previous phases.

A. implementation B. choice C. design D. intelligence E. consideration Ans: A Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

11. In the _____ phase of the decision making process, managers test potential solutions “on paper.”

A. implementation B. choice C. design D. intelligence E. consideration Ans: B Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

12. Which of the following is not a reason that managers need IT support?

A. number of alternatives is decreasing B. decisions must typically be made under time pressure C. decisions are becoming more complex

D. need to access remote information sources E. decision makers are often in different locations Ans: A Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

13. Decisions today are becoming _____ complex, due to _____ uncertainty in the decision environment.

A. less, decreased B. more, decreased C. less, increased D. more, increased E. about the same, decreased Ans: D Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Medium

14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a structured decision?

A. routine B. repetitive C. human intuition not involved D. first three phases of the decision making process occur in no particular sequence E. standard solutions exist Ans: D Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Medium

15. The type of decision that can be made by following a definite procedure is called a(n) ______ decision.

A. structured B. unstructured C. undocumented D. semistructured E. procedural Ans: A Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

16. These types of decisions are more common at lower organizational levels.

A. Structured B. Unstructured C. Undocumented D. Semistructured E. Procedural Ans: A

Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

17. Rank-and-file employees tend to make more of these types of decisions.

A. Structured B. Unstructured C. Undocumented D. Semistructured E. Procedural Ans: A Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

18. Calculating gross pay for hourly workers falls into which category of decision making?

A. Structured B. Unstructured C. Undocumented D. Semistructured E. Procedural Ans: A Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

19. Which of the following is not a characteristic of unstructured decisions?

A. complex B. fuzzy and unclear C. standard solutions exist D. human intuition involved E. first three phases of the decision making process occur in no particular sequence Ans: C Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Medium

20. When there is no well-understood or agreed-on procedure for making a decision, it is said to be: A. undocumented B. structured C. unstructured D. semistructured E. documented Ans: C Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

21. A large foreign automobile manufacturer was considering where to build a new manufacturing plant in the United States. They were making which type of decision?

A. structured B. semistructured C. unstructured D. informational E. wisdom Ans: C Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Medium

22. Which type of decision requires a combination of standard solution procedures and individual judgment?

A. structured B. semistructured C. unstructured D. informational E. wisdom Ans: B Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

23. Annual evaluation of employees best fits which type of decision?

A. unstructured B. structured C. semistructured D. confrontational E. wisdom Ans: C Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Medium

24. _____ is the efficient and effective execution of specific tasks.

A. Operational control B. Management control C. Strategic planning D. Expertise E. Wisdom Ans: A Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

25. _____ is the acquisition and efficient use of resources in accomplishing organizational goals.

A. Operational control B. Management control C. Strategic planning D. Expertise E. Wisdom Ans: B Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

26. Computer support is greatest for which of the following problems?

A. semistructured and strategic planning B. unstructured and operational control C. structured and operational control D. semistructured and management control E. structured and management control Ans: C Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

27. Computer support is least for which of the following problems?

A. semistructured and strategic planning B. unstructured and strategic planning C. semistructured and management control D. unstructured and operational control E. structured and strategic planning Ans: B Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Easy

28. Searching for valuable business information in a database, data warehouse, or data mart refers to _____.

A. structured queries B. database queries C. data mining D. query by example E. expert system queries Ans: C Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Easy

29. _____ provides users with a view of what is happening, where _____ addresses why it is happening.

A. Multidimensional data analysis, structured query language B. Data mining, multidimensional data analysis C. Data mining, expert system D. Multidimensional data analysis, neural networks

E. Multidimensional data analysis, data mining Ans: E Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Medium

30. Credit card companies would most likely use which of the following to check for fraudulent credit card use?

A. Data mining B. Expert systems C. Neural networks D. Multidimensional data analysis E. Structured query language Ans: A Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Medium

31. A company wants to use data from past promotional mailings to identify people who would likely respond favorably to future mailings. This company would most likely use: A. structured query language B. multidimensional data analysis C. neural networks D. expert systems E. data mining Ans: E Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Medium

32. Which of the following is not a characteristic of DSS? A. support only lower and middle-level managers B. easy to use and construct C. adaptable to changing conditions D. usually utilize quantitative models E. support all phases of the decision making process Ans: A Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Medium

33. At the end of a semester, a student knows that she must make at least an 81 on the final exam to make an A in the course. She decided that she can make the 81 by studying the material only the night before the exam. She has just performed what kind of analysis?

A. What-if B. Statistical C. Sensitivity D. Goal-seeking

E. Simulation Ans: D Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Medium

34. _____ attempts to find the value of the inputs necessary to achieve a desired level of output.

A. What-if analysis B. Statistical analysis C. Sensitivity analysis D. Goal-seeking analysis E. Simulation Ans: D Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Easy

35. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational decision support systems?

A. affects several organizational units or corporate problems B. cuts across organizational functions or hierarchical layers C. involves computer-based technologies D. is a standalone system E. involves communications technologies Ans: D Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Medium

36. A(n) _____ provides rapid access to timely information and direct access to management reports.

A. decision support system B. expert system C. neural network D. digital dashboard E. data warehouse Ans: D Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Easy

37. Which capability of digital dashboards enables users to obtain the latest data available on key performance indicators or some other metric, ideally in real time?

A. Drill down B. Key performance indicators C. Status access D. Trend analysis E. Exception reporting Ans: C

Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Easy

38. Which of the following information systems are very user friendly, supported by graphics, and provide exception reporting and drill down?

A. decision support systems B. digital dashboards C. functional area information systems D. group decision support systems E. expert systems Ans: B Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Easy

39. Which of the following are not provided by digital dashboards?

A. drill down B. transaction processing C. status access D. key performance indicators E. exception reporting Ans: B Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Medium

40. The management cockpit best exemplifies which type of system?

A. decision support system B. expert system C. digital dashboard D. functional area information system E. group decision support system Ans: C Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Medium

41. The most distinguishing characteristic of geographical information systems is: A. every record or digital object has a unique identifier B. every record or digital object is visible to the user C. every record or digital object must be accessed by programmers D. every record or digital object has an identified geographical location E. every record or digital object is encrypted Ans: D Response: Data Visualization Technologies Difficulty: Medium

42. Geocoding is: A. integrating maps with spatially oriented databases and other databases B. encrypting spatial information C. accessing geographical information D. integrating organizational transactions with spatially oriented databases E. programming spatially oriented databases Ans: A Response: Data Visualization Technologies Difficulty: Medium

43. An important trend is the combination of geographical information systems with _____ to form geospatial technologies.

A. dashboards B. global positioning systems C. decision support systems D. expert systems E. neural networks Ans: B Response: Data Visualization Technologies Difficulty: Medium

44. The benefits that Sears gained from its geographical information system included all of the following except: A. Reduced average travel time per service call B. Improved productivity of technicians C. Enabled Sears to increase the number of dispatchers for better control of technicians’ service calls D. Increased size of district territories E. Increase customer retention Ans: C Response: IT’s About Business 11.3 Difficulty: Hard

45. _____ allows analysts to extract information from usage patterns of mobile phones and other wireless devices.

A. Mobile intelligence B. Business intelligence C. Geographical mining D. Sensory mining E. Reality mining Ans: E Response: IT’s About Business 11.4 Difficulty: Medium

46. Virtual reality systems accomplish which one of the following?

A. Provide engineers, designers, and factory managers with precise control over industrial design and manufacturing B. Provide an important source of expertise for organizations C. Allow groups to work together on documents D. Provide drug designers, architects, engineers, and medical workers with precise, photorealistic simulations of objects and environments E. Help organizations process vast amounts of transactional data Ans: D Response: Data Visualization Technologies Difficulty: Hard

47. Which of the following is not a characteristic of natural intelligence?

A. perishable from an organizational point of view B. easy, fast, and inexpensive C. erratic and inconsistent D. high creativity E. easy to explain patterns and relationships Ans: B Response: Intelligent Systems Difficulty: Medium

48. Which of the following is not a characteristic of artificial intelligence?

A. permanent B. easy, fast, and inexpensive C. high creativity D. good only in narrow domains E. consistent and thorough Ans: C Response: Intelligent Systems Difficulty: Medium

49. Expert systems: A. solve problems too difficult for human experts B. are based on procedural computer programming languages C. work in limited domains D. can apply to any business problem E. share characteristics with mainframe computing Ans: C Response: Intelligent Systems Difficulty: Medium

50. An inference engine is:

A. a data mining strategy used by intelligent agents B. the programming environment of an expert system C. a method of organizing expert system knowledge into chunks D. a strategy used to search through the rule base of an expert system E. the user interface of an expert system Ans: D Response: Intelligent Systems Difficulty: Medium

51. Which of the following is not a benefit of expert systems?

A. increased output and productivity B. capture and dissemination of scarce expertise C. increased decision-making time D. reliability E. works with incomplete, uncertain information Ans: C Response: Intelligent Systems Difficulty: Medium

52. Which of the following is not a benefit of natural language understanding?

A. easy to use B. more people can speak than can type C. faster than typing D. manual freedom E. can recognize long sentences Ans: E Response: Intelligent Systems Difficulty: Medium

53. _____ are/is computer reasoning that deals with uncertainties by simulating the process of human reasoning.

A. Expert systems B. Artificial neural networks C. Speech understanding systems D. Fuzzy logic E. Computer vision systems Ans: D Response: Intelligent Systems Difficulty: Medium

Short Answer

1. Describe the three major roles of managers.

Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Medium

2. Describe why managers need IT support.

Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Medium

3. Discuss the information technologies that are available to support managers.

Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Medium

4. Discuss the structure of problems, the nature of decisions, and the framework for computerized decision analysis.

Response: Managers and Decision Making Difficulty: Medium

5. Compare and contrast fuzzy logic and neural networks.

Response: Intelligent Systems Difficulty: Medium

Essay Questions

1. Describe how your university could use a decision support system in its admissions process.

Response: Business Intelligence Difficulty: Hard

2. Describe how your university could use an expert system in its admissions process.

Response: Intelligent Systems Difficulty: Hard

3. Describe how your university could use a geographical information system in its admissions process.

What value could your university gain from using such a system?

Response: Data Visualization Technologies Difficulty: Hard

4. Describe the relationship between reality mining and privacy.

Response: IT’s About Business 11.4 Difficulty: Medium

5. Speculate on the future of virtual reality applications in higher (college and university) education.

Describe some possible applications.

Response: Data Visualization Technologies Difficulty: Hard

6. Differentiate between operational business intelligence and business intelligence.

Response: Chapter closing case Difficulty: Medium

File: ch12, Chapter 12: Acquiring Information Systems and Applications

True/False

1. Organizations typically move slowly to acquire new information technologies due to the risks involved.

Ans: False Response: Material following chapter opening case Difficulty: Easy

2. The application portfolio in an organization is a set of recommended applications resulting from the planning and justification process in application development.

Ans: True Response: Planning for and Justifying IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

3. The IT infrastructure delineates the way an organization’s information resources should be used to accomplish its mission.

Ans: False Response: Planning for and Justifying IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

4. The IS operational plan is a set of projects that will be executed by the IS department and by functional area managers.

Ans: True Response: Planning for and Justifying IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

5. Costs are harder to quantify than benefits.

Ans: False Response: Planning for and Justifying IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

6. The Return on Investment method of cost-benefit analysis measures the effectiveness of management in generating profits with its available assets.

Ans: True Response: Planning for and Justifying IT Applications

Difficulty: Easy

7. The buy option is particularly attractive if the software vendor allows the company to modify the package to meet its needs.

Ans: True Response: Strategies for Acquiring IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

8. Insourcing application development is usually less time consuming and less expensive than buying or leasing.

Ans: False Response: Strategies for Acquiring IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

9. The earlier in the development process that errors are detected, the less expensive they are to correct.

Ans: True Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

10. The SDLC is relatively inflexible.

Ans: True Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

11. The SDLC encourages changes to user requirements once they have been established.

Ans: False Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

12. Technical feasibility determines if the project is an acceptable financial risk and if the organization can afford the expense and time needed to complete the project.

Ans: False Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

13. Systems analysis describes how a system will solve the business problem, and systems design describes what the system must do to accomplish the task.

Ans: False Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

14. Writing computer code is as much art as it is science.

Ans: True Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

15. Logic errors are easier to find than syntax errors.

Ans: False Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

16. Pilot conversion is the process where the new system is introduced in one part of the organization.

Ans: True Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

17. Maintenance ends when the new system is implemented and has run long enough for a systems audit.

Ans: False Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

18. Prototyping allows the users to clarify their information requirements as they use the prototype.

Ans: True Response: Alternative Methods and Tools for Systems Development Difficulty: Easy

19. Outsourcing is the use of outside contractors or external organizations to acquire IT services.

Ans: True Response: Outsourcing and Application Service Providers Difficulty: Easy

20. The most difficult task in evaluating a vendor and software package is to determine the financial health and “staying power” of the vendor.

Ans: False Response: Vendor and Software Selection Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1.The Leukemia & Lymphoma Society had to regain control over its information systems for all of the following reasons except: A. the organization had shifted much of its fundraising from traditional methods to online methods B. the organization’s service provider went out of business C. the organization has placed increasing emphasis on Team in Training D. the organization’s service provider has been unable to manage the increase in donations E. the organization’s IT group had to manage customer calls Ans: B Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

2. The benefits realized from the Leukemia & Lymphoma Society’s new information system included all of the following except: A. improvements in the performance of the organization’s Web site B. improvements in user satisfaction C. reduced fees per transaction D. increased donations E. IT group can manage even more customer calls Ans: E Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Hard

3. The Leukemia & Lymphoma Society utilized which of the following in its new information system?

A. outsourcing B. software-as-a-service C. service-oriented architecture D. joint application development E. rapid application development Ans: C Response: Chapter opening case Difficulty: Medium

4. _____ are short-term efforts to create a specific business-related outcome.

A. Projects B. Processes C. Transactions D. Prototypes E. Information systems Ans: A Response: Project Management for Information Systems Projects Difficulty: Easy

5. The triple constraints of information systems projects are: A. user requirements, technical specifications, and time B. time, cost, and scope C. cost, stakeholder requirements, and technical specifications D. technical feasibility, behavioral feasibility, and economic feasibility E. scope, user requirements, and economic feasibility Ans: B Response: Project Management for Information Systems Projects Difficulty: Easy

6. The reasons that so many information system software development projects do not deliver their potential value include all of the following except: A. Lack of sufficient planning B. Technology compatibility problems C. Management not providing necessary resources D. Poorly defined project scope E. Poor definition of user requirements Ans: E Response: Project Management for Information Systems Projects Difficulty: Medium

7. The information systems planning process proceeds in which order?

A. organization mission – organization strategic plan – IS strategic plan – new IT architecture B. organization mission – IS strategic plan – organization strategic plan – IS operational plan C. organization strategic plan – organization mission – IS strategic plan – new IT architecture D. IT architecture – IS strategic plan – organization strategic plan – organization mission E. IS development projects – IS operational plan – new IT architecture – organization mission Ans: A Response: Planning for and Justifying IT Applications Difficulty: Medium

8. Which of the following is not a part of the typical IS operational plan?

A. mission of the IS function B. organizational mission C. IT architecture

D. application portfolio E. IS function’s estimate of its goals Ans: B Response: Planning for and Justifying IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

9. Evaluating the benefits of IT projects is more complex than evaluating their costs for all of the following reasons except: A. benefits are harder to quantify B. benefits are often tangible C. IT can be used for several different purposes D. probability of obtaining a return from an IT investment is based on the probability of implementation success Ans: B Response: Planning for and Justifying IT Applications Difficulty: Medium

10. The _____ method converts future values of benefits to today’s value by “discounting” them at the organization’s cost of funds.

A. net present value B. cost-benefit analysis C. return on investment D. internal rate of return E. business case approach Ans: A Response: Planning for and Justifying IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

11. The _____ method measures the effectiveness of management in generating profits with its available assets.

A. net present value B. cost-benefit analysis C. return on investment D. internal rate of return E. business case approach Ans: C Response: Planning for and Justifying IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

12. Which of the following is not an advantage of the buy option for acquiring IS applications?

A. few types of off-the-shelf software are available, thus limiting confusion B. software can be tried out C. saves time D. company will know what it is getting

E. all of the above Ans: A Response: Strategies for Acquiring IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

13. Which of the following are disadvantages of the buy option for acquiring IS applications?

A. software may not exactly meet the company’s needs B. software may be impossible to modify C. company will not have control over software improvements D. software may not integrate with existing systems E. all of the above Ans: E Response: Strategies for Acquiring IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

14. Which of the following systems acquisition methods results in software that can be tried out, has been used for similar problems in other organizations, and can save time?

A. systems development life cycle B. prototyping C. end-user development D. buy option E. object-oriented development Ans: D Response: Strategies for Acquiring IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

15. Which of the following systems acquisition methods results in software that is controlled by another company, may be difficult to enhance or modify, and may not support desired business processes?

A. systems development life cycle B. prototyping C. end-user development D. buy option E. component-based development Ans: D Response: Strategies for Acquiring IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

16. Which of the following systems acquisition methods forces staff to systematically go through every step in the development process and has a lower probability of missing important user requirements?

A. systems development life cycle B. prototyping C. end-user development D. external acquisition E. object-oriented development

Ans: A Response: Strategies for Acquiring IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

17. Which of the following systems acquisition methods is time-consuming, costly, and may produce excessive documentation?

A. systems development life cycle B. prototyping C. end-user development D. external acquisition E. object-oriented development Ans: A Response: Strategies for Acquiring IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

18. _____ is a method of delivering software, in which a vendor hosts the applications, and customers access these applications over the Internet.

A. Software-as-a-service B. Prototyping C. Leasing applications D. Service oriented architecture E. Buy the applications Ans: A Response: Strategies for Acquiring IT Applications Difficulty: Easy

19. In order to focus on its core competencies in chemical research and development, DuPont decided to: A. Use software-as-a-service B. Outsource its entire IT function C. Use an application service provider D. Insource its entire IT function E. Centralize its IT function Ans: B Response: IT’s About Business 12.2 Difficulty: Medium

20. Place the stages of the systems development life cycle in order: A. investigation – analysis – design – programming/testing – implementation – operation/maintenance B. investigation – design – analysis – programming/testing – implementation – operation/maintenance C. analysis – design – investigation – operation/maintenance – programming/testing – implementation D. investigation – analysis – design – programming/testing – operation/maintenance – implementation E. investigation – implementation – analysis – programming/testing – design – operation/maintenance Ans: A

Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

21. The _____ that changes are made in the systems development life cycle, the _____ expensive these changes become.

A. sooner, less B. later, less C. more frequently, more D. more extensively, more E. sooner, more Ans: A Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Medium

22. _____ feasibility determines if the project is an acceptable financial risk and if the organization can afford the expense and time needed to complete the project.

A. technical B. economic C. organizational D. behavioral Ans: B Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

23. _____ feasibility addresses the human issues of an information systems project.

A. technical B. economic C. organizational D. behavioral Ans: D Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

24. _____ feasibility concerns a firm’s policies and politics, power structures, and business relationships.

A. technical B. economic C. organizational D. behavioral Ans: C Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

25. Which of the following is not a part of systems analysis?

A. definition of the business problem B. identification of the causes of, and solution to, the business problem C. identification of the information requirements that the solution must satisfy D. identification of the technical specifications of the solution Ans: D Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

26. Any systems acquisition effort is mainly driven by: A. Organizational change B. Feasibility studies C. Data needs D. User information requirements E. Corporate strategy Ans: D Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Medium

27. Users prefer information systems that: A. Are oriented toward facilitating organizational tasks and solving business problems B. Work with existing database management systems C. Work with existing organizational applications D. Are able to optimize hardware and software efficiency E. Are capable of storing huge amounts of data Ans: A Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Medium

28. In the traditional systems development life cycle, users: A. Are important and ongoing members of the development team throughout the life of the project B. Are important only in the testing phases of the project C. Have no input D. Are important only in the maintenance phase of the project E. Are limited to providing information requirements Ans: E Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Medium

29. The deliverable of the systems design stage is: A. user requirements B. technical system specifications C. the prototype D. the source code

E. a working application Ans: B Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

30. Systems design answers the question, _____: A. How will the information system do what it must to obtain a solution to the business problem?

B. Why must the information system do what it must to obtain a solution to the business problem?

C. What is the problem the information system must address?

D. Who will benefit from use of the information system being developed?

E. What is the effective operational life of the system?

Ans: A Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Medium

31. When users ask for added functionality during a systems development project, this is called: A. user-defined software B. scope creep C. bloatware D. out-of-control project E. runaway project Ans: B Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

32. Which of the following statements about scope creep is true?

A. Scope creep is relatively cheap, regardless of when it occurs in a project.

B. Because scope creep is relatively cheap, successful project managers allow it.

C. Because scope creep is expensive, successful project managers will not allow it.

D. Because scope creep is expensive, successful project managers limit it.

E. Scope creep means that user requirements are being successfully taken care of.

Ans: D Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Medium

33. In the _____ stage of the systems development life cycle, the design specifications are translated into computer code.

A. Systems analysis B. Programming C. Systems design D. Prototyping E. Feasibility study Ans: B

Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

34. The riskiest type of conversion process is: A. parallel B. direct C. pilot D. phased Ans: B Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

35. If a firm shuts down its old COBOL legacy system and starts up the new PeopleSoft ERP system immediately, this is called _____: A. phased conversion B. direct conversion C. parallel conversion D. pilot conversion Ans: B Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

36. If a firm implements a new information system in one of its plants, assesses the new system’s performance, and then implements the new system in its other plants, this is called: A. phased conversion B. direct conversion C. parallel conversion D. pilot conversion Ans: D Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

37. As systems age, maintenance costs _____: A. decrease B. increase C. stay the same D. remain negligible E. are not considered Ans: B Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Easy

38. The major difficulty with implementing the new Automated Commercial Environment system at the Department of Homeland Security has been which of the following?

A. Poor user requirements definition B. Lack of funding C. Scope creep D. Difficulty in integrating the new information system with existing systems E. Incomplete technical specifications for the new system Ans: D Response: IT’s About Business 12.3 Difficulty: Hard

39. Which of the following systems acquisition methods helps clarify user requirements, promotes genuine user participation, and may produce part of the final system?

A. systems development life cycle B. prototyping C. end-user development D. external acquisition E. component-based development Ans: B Response: Alternative Methods and Tools for Systems Development Difficulty: Easy

40. Which of the following systems acquisition methods may encourage inadequate problem analysis, is not practical with large numbers of users, and may result in a system with lower quality.

A. systems development life cycle B. prototyping C. end-user development D. external acquisition E. component-based development Ans: B Response: Alternative Methods and Tools for Systems Development Difficulty: Easy

41. When systems are created rapidly, without a formal development methodology: A. End users can take over the work of MIS analysts B. The organization quickly outgrows the new system C. Hardware, software, and quality standards are less important D. Testing and documentation may be inadequate E. The organization saves money Ans: D Response: Alternative Methods and Tools for Systems Development Difficulty: Easy

42. As an MIS analyst, you have decided to use a prototyping methodology for a small, Web-based design project. What is the order of steps that you will follow in the project?

A. Develop the prototype; use the prototype; revise and enhance the prototype B. Identify user requirements; develop the prototype; use the prototype; revise and enhance the prototype C. Develop the prototype; identify user requirements; use the prototype; revise and enhance the prototype D. Identify user requirements; develop solutions; select the best prototype; implement the prototype E. Identify user requirements; develop the prototype; revise and enhance the prototype Ans: B Response: Alternative Methods and Tools for Systems Development Difficulty: Medium

43. The _____ approach to systems development is a group-based tool for collecting user requirements.

A. integrated computer-assisted software engineering B. joint application design C. rapid application development D. prototyping E. systems development life cycle Ans: B Response: Alternative Methods and Tools for Systems Development Difficulty: Easy

44. Which of the following is not an advantage of the Joint Application Design approach to systems development?

A. involves fewer users in the development process B. saves time C. greater user acceptance of the new system D. can produce a system of higher quality Ans: A Response: Alternative Methods and Tools for Systems Development Difficulty: Easy

45. Which of the following is not an advantage of computer-aided software engineering tools?

A. can produce systems with longer effective operational lives B. can produce systems that more closely meet user requirements C. can require fewer developers D. can speed up the development process Ans: C Response: Alternative Methods and Tools for Systems Development Difficulty: Easy

46. _____ is a software development methodology that delivers functionality in rapid iterations, usually measured in weeks.

A. Agile development B. Prototyping

C. The systems development life cycle D. Joint application development E. Component-based development Ans: A Response: Alternative Methods and Tools for Systems Development Difficulty: Easy

47. Which of the following systems acquisition methods may eventually require maintenance assistance from the IT department, produce inadequate documentation, and result in a system with inadequate interfaces to existing systems?

A. systems development life cycle B. prototyping C. end-user development D. external acquisition E. component-based development Ans: C Response: Alternative Methods and Tools for Systems Development Difficulty: Easy

48. Which of the following is the most difficult and crucial task in evaluating a vendor and a software package?

A. identifying potential vendors B. determining the evaluation criteria C. evaluating vendors and packages D. choosing the vendor and package E. negotiating a contract Ans: B Response: Vendor and Software Selection Difficulty: Medium

49. A(n) _____ is sent to potential vendors inviting them to describe their product and how it would meet the firm’s needs.

A. Prototype B. Request for proposal C. Technical specification D. Request for bid E. Request for requirements Ans: B Response: Vendor and Software Selection Difficulty: Easy

50. _____ specify how work is to be divided between the company and its vendors.

A. Service level agreements B. Prototypes

C. User requirements D. Vendor requirements E. Feasibility studies Ans: A Response: Vendor and Software Selection Difficulty: Easy

Short Answer

1. Differentiate between the IT strategic plan and the IS operational plan.

Response: Planning for and Justifying IT Applications Difficulty: Medium

2. Discuss tangible and intangible benefits of a proposed system.

Response: Planning for and Justifying IT Applications Difficulty: Medium

3. Describe the various methods of conducting cost-benefit analyses.

Response: Planning for and Justifying IT Applications Difficulty: Medium

4. Describe the feasibility study of the SDLC and discuss why it is so important.

Response: The Traditional Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: Medium

Essay Questions

1. Compare and contrast the various strategies for acquiring IT applications.

Response: Strategies for acquiring IT Applications Difficulty: Hard

2. Compare and contrast rapid application development and joint application design.

Response: Alternative Methods and Tools for Systems Development

Difficulty: Medium

3. What are application service providers and how do they differ from outsourcing?

Response: Outsourcing and Application Service Providers Difficulty: Medium

4. How do application service providers differ from software-as-a-service vendors?

Response: Outsourcing and Application Service Providers Difficulty: Medium

5. Describe the vendor selection process.

Response: Vendor and Software Selection Difficulty: Medium

File: Technology Guide 1: Computer Hardware

True/False

1. Computer technologies become obsolete faster than other technologies in the organization.

Ans: True Response: Introduction Difficulty: Easy

2. Buses are the electrical pathways on which the data and instructions travel.

Ans: True Response: The Central Processing Unit Difficulty: Easy

3. The length of the bus determines how much information can flow at any time.

Ans: False Response: The Central Processing Unit Difficulty: Easy

4. The word length is the number of bits (0’s and 1’s) that can be processed at any one time.

Ans: True Response: The Central Processing Unit Difficulty: Easy

5. Microcontrollers are computer chips that are embedded in products and technologies of various types and sizes.

Ans: True Response: The Central Processing Unit Difficulty: Easy

6. Computers can run any type of program regardless of the amount and type of memory that the computer has.

Ans: False Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

7. A byte represents a particular alphanumeric character or simple mathematical operation.

Ans: True Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

8. Primary storage is the main memory of a computer, in which small amounts of data that will be used immediately are stored.

Ans: True Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

9. Random access memory is that part of primary storage that holds a software program (or portion of it) and small amounts of data when they are brought from secondary storage.

Ans: True Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

10. If your computer loses its power supply, you will lose the contents of your random access memory, because it is volatile.

Ans: True Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

11. Sequential access is a type of data access most associated with magnetic disks.

Ans: False Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

12. Magnetic tape provides faster access to data than magnetic disks.

Ans: False Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

13. An optical storage device is a form of secondary storage device on which data are recorded and read by laser in a computer’s disk drive.

Ans: True Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

14. Digital video disks (DVDs) have higher storage capacities than CD-ROMs. Ans: True Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

15. The cost per megabyte of storage is greater for traditional hard disk storage than for PC memory cards.

Ans: False Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

16. An enterprise storage system is an independent, external, intelligent system that includes two or more storage devices.

Ans: True Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

17. Each generation of computer hardware has exhibited increased processing power and decreased costs.

Ans: True Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Easy

18. Minicomputers are relatively small, inexpensive computers that perform the same functions as mainframe computers, but to a limited extent.

Ans: True Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Easy

19. Embedded computers are computers placed inside another product to add features and capabilities.

Ans: True Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Easy

20. Active badges are clip-on devices that contain a microprocessor that transmits its location to a computer via sensors on the premises.

Ans: True Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Easy

21. The mouse is the most common input device.

Ans: False Response: Input and Output Technologies Difficulty: Easy

22. Source data automation uses various technologies to input data with minimal human intervention.

Ans: True Response: Input and Output Technologies Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following does not affect decisions about hardware?

A. power B. appropriateness for the task C. size D. cost E. speed Ans: C Response: Introduction Difficulty: Easy

2. Which of the following is not a component of hardware?

A. primary and secondary storage B. the operating system C. input and output technologies D. central processing unit E. communication technologies Ans: B Response: The Central Processing Unit Difficulty: Medium

3. Which of the following is not a component of the central processing unit?

A. registers B. control unit C. secondary storage D. arithmetic-logic unit E. keyboard Ans: C Response: The Central Processing Unit Difficulty: Medium

4. Server farms have all of the following characteristics except: A. providing fault tolerance B. requiring massive amounts of power C. requiring proximity to fiber optic communications links D. employing large numbers of technicians E. being expensive Ans: D Response: Innovations in Hardware Utilization Difficulty: Medium

5. The advantages of server virtualization include all of the following except: A. cost savings B. organization uses more servers to respond to quickly changing demands C. increased organizational agility D. focus of IT department shifts to services rather than supporting the technology E. reduced number of employees Ans: B Response: Innovations in Hardware Utilization Difficulty: Medium

6. In _____, tasks are performed by computers physically removed from the user and accessed over a network, particularly the Internet.

A. edge computing B. virtualization C. intranets D. extranets E. cloud computing Ans: E Response: Innovations in Hardware Utilization Difficulty: Easy

7. _____ manage themselves without human intervention.

A. Edge computing systems B. Nanotechnology systems C. Autonomic computing systems

D. Virtualized systems E. Server farms Ans: C Response: Innovations in Hardware Utilization Difficulty: Easy

8. _____ applies the unused processing resources of many geographically dispersed computers in a network to form a virtual supercomputer.

A. A server farm B. Virtualization C. Grid computing D. Utility computing E. The Internet Ans: C Response: Innovations in Hardware Utilization Difficulty: Easy

9. In _____, a service provider makes computing resources and infrastructure management available to a customer as needed.

A. server farms B. virtualization C. grid computing D. utility computing E. the Internet Ans: D Response: Innovations in Hardware Utilization Difficulty: Easy

10. _____ is the process in which parts of Web site content and processing are located close to the user to decrease response time and lower processing costs.

A. Edge computing B. Virtualization C. Grid computing D. Utility computing E. The Internet Ans: A Response: Innovations in Hardware Utilization Difficulty: Easy

11. Which of the following does not affect the speed of the machine instruction cycle?

A. clock speed B. word length C. bus width D. line width

E. physical design of the chip Ans: D Response: The Central Processing Unit Difficulty: Medium

12. Processing speed increases with which of the following?

A. increased clock speed B. increased bus width C. decreased line width D. increased word length E. all of the above Ans: E Response: The Central Processing Unit Difficulty: Medium

13. Processing speed increases with all the following except: A. increased bus width B. increased line width C. increased clock speed D. increased word length E. none of the above Ans: B Response: The Central Processing Unit Difficulty: Medium

14. The _____ is measured in megahertz or gigahertz.

A. clock speed B. word length C. bus width D. line width E. bandwidth Ans: A Response: The Central Processing Unit Difficulty: Easy

15. The _____ is the size of the physical paths down which the data and instructions travel in the CPU. A. clock speed B. word length C. bus width D. line width E. bandwidth Ans: C Response: The Central Processing Unit

Difficulty: Easy

16. The _____ is the distance between transistors on a chip.

A. clock speed B. word length C. bus width D. line width E. bandwidth Ans: D Response: The Central Processing Unit Difficulty: Easy

17. Gordon Moore (with Moore’s Law) predicted that microprocessor complexity would do which of the following?

A. double every year B. double every two years C. increase slowly D. decrease slowly E. decrease rapidly Ans: B Response: The Central Processing Unit Difficulty: Medium

18. Increased microprocessor complexity comes from which of the following?

A. decreasing line width B. increasing transistor miniaturization C. using new materials for the chip that increase conductivity D. putting more transistors on the chip E. all of the above Ans: E Response: The Central Processing Unit Difficulty: Easy

19. Microcontrollers are all of the following except: A. less powerful than regular computer chips B. embedded in a variety of devices C. smaller than microprocessors D. more expensive than microprocessors E. none of the above Ans: D Response: The Central Processing Unit Difficulty: Medium

20. The amount and type of memory that a computer possesses affects which of the following?

A. the type of program the computer can run B. the speed of the computer C. the cost of the computer D. the cost of processing data E. all of the above Ans: E Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

21. The amount and type of memory that a computer possesses affects all the following except: A. the type of program the computer can run B. the speed of the computer C. the cost of the computer D. the cost of processing data E. the speed of data entry Ans: E Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Medium

22. Arrange the following in the correct sequence, from smallest to largest: A. megabyte – kilobyte – gigabyte – terabyte – exabyte – petabyte B. exabyte – petabyte – terabyte – gigabyte – megabyte – kilobyte C. kilobyte – megabyte – gigabyte – terabyte – petabyte – exabyte D. petabyte – exabyte – kilobyte – gigabyte – kilobyte – terabyte E. kilobyte – gigabyte – megabyte – exabyte – petabyte – terabyte Ans: C Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

23. Primary storage stores which of the following for very brief periods of time?

A. data to be processed by the CPU B. instructions for the CPU as to how to process the data C. operating system programs that manage various aspects of the computer’s operations D. all of the above Ans: D Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

24. Which of the following is not stored in primary storage?

A. data to be processed by the CPU B. instructions for the CPU as to how to process the data C. archival data

D. operating system programs E. none of the above Ans: C Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

25. The main types of primary storage are: A. register B. random access memory C. cache memory D. read-only memory E. all of the above Ans: E Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

26. The part of primary storage that holds a software program (or portion of it) and small amounts of data when they are brought from secondary storage is called: A. read-only memory B. random access memory C. cache memory D. registers E. flash memory Ans: B Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

27. Random access memory is _____ and _____.

A. volatile, temporary B. nonvolatile, permanent C. nonvolatile, temporary D. volatile, permanent E. volatile, inexpensive Ans: A Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Medium

28. Registers have all of the following characteristics except: A. a type of primary storage B. least capacity storage C. fastest storage D. slower than RAM E. none of the above

Ans: D Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Medium

29. Which of the following is not a type of primary storage?

A. random access memory B. registers C. cache D. read-only memory E. optical Ans: E Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Medium

30. The type of primary storage, closest to the CPU where the computer can temporarily store blocks of data used most often is called: A. read-only memory B. registers C. random access memory D. cache memory E. flash memory Ans: D Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

31. The type of primary storage where certain critical instructions are safeguarded because the storage is nonvolatile and the instructions can be read only by the computer and not changed by the user is called: A. read-only memory B. random access memory C. cache memory D. registers E. flash memory Ans: A Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

32. Secondary storage has which of the following characteristics?

A. nonvolatile B. more cost effective than primary storage C. slower than primary storage D. can utilize a variety of media E. all of the above Ans: E Response: Computer Memory

Difficulty: Easy

33. Which of the following is not a characteristic of secondary storage?

A. nonvolatile B. more cost effective than primary storage C. slower than primary storage D. can utilize only chips as its medium E. none of the above Ans: D Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Medium

34. The characteristics of magnetic tape include all of the following except: A. fastest magnetic storage medium B. cheapest magnetic storage medium C. sequential access D. greater capacity than thumb drives E. often used for archival storage Ans: A Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Medium

35. If you wished to store a large amount of archival data for a long period of time, you would choose which of the following?

A. magnetic disk B. magnetic tape C. read-only chips D. cache chips E. thumb drives Ans: B Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Medium

36. To access a specific piece of information, _____ are usually faster than _____.

A. sequential access storage devices, direct access storage devices B. direct access storage devices, sequential access storage devices C. streaming tape devices, DVDs D. optical storage devices, random access memory E. sequential access storage devices, thumb drives Ans: B Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Medium

37. _____, a type of enterprise storage system, links groups of hard drives to a specialized microcontroller, which coordinates the drives so that they appear to be a single, logical drive.

A. Redundant array of independent disks B. Storage area network C. Network-attached storage D. Secondary storage E. Primary storage Ans: A Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

38. _____, a type of enterprise storage system, is an architecture for building dedicated networks that allow rapid and reliable access to storage devices by multiple servers.

A. Redundant array of independent disks B. Storage area network C. Network-attached storage D. Secondary storage E. Primary storage Ans: B Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

39. _____ are electronic storage devices that contain no moving parts.

A. Hard drives B. Flash memory devices C. Magnetic tape D. DVDs E. CDs Ans: B Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Easy

40. The _____ of computers used vacuum tubes to store and process information.

A. first generation B. second generation C. third generation D. fourth generation E. fifth generation Ans: A Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Easy

41. The _____ of computers used transistors to store and process information.

A. first generation B. second generation C. third generation D. fourth generation E. fifth generation Ans: B Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Easy

42. The _____ of computers used integrated circuits for storing and processing information.

A. first generation B. second generation C. third generation D. fourth generation E. fifth generation Ans: C Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Easy

43. The _____ of computers used massively parallel processing to process information.

A. first generation B. second generation C. third generation D. fourth generation E. fifth generation Ans: E Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Easy

44. To model the weather or simulate nuclear weapons testing, you would most likely use a(n): A. mainframe computer B. workstation C. supercomputer D. personal computer E. active badge Ans: C Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Easy

45. A _____ refers to the fastest computing engines available at any given time.

A. supercomputer B. mainframe C. midrange computer D. microcomputer

E. laptop computer Ans: A Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Easy

46. An example of a computer system designed to accommodate multiple users simultaneously is a _____.

A. microcomputer B. mainframe C. laptop D. palmtop E. wearable computer Ans: B Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Easy

47. A _____ is used in large enterprises for extensive computing applications that are accessed by thousands of concurrent users.

A. supercomputer B. mainframe C. midrange computer D. microcomputer E. laptop computer Ans: B Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Easy

48. Firms are recentralizing their applications to mainframes for all the following reasons except: A. to support the large number of transactions caused by electronic commerce B. to reduce the total cost of ownership of distributed systems C. to more adequately support end-user computing D. to improve system performance E. none of the above Ans: C Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Medium

49. A _____ is designed for specific tasks such as process control, scientific research, and engineering applications.

A. supercomputer B. mainframe C. minicomputer D. microcomputer E. laptop computer

Ans: C Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Easy

50. A _____ is the least expensive general-purpose computer.

A. supercomputer B. mainframe C. midrange computer D. microcomputer E. laptop computer Ans: D Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Easy

51. _____ refers to the creation of materials, devices, and systems on a scale of billionths of a meter.

A. Nanotechnology B. Ultra-large scale integration C. Very-large scale integration D. Utility computing E. Edge computing Ans: A Response: Innovations in Hardware Utilization Difficulty: Easy

Short Answer

1. Discuss why it is difficult to make hardware decisions today.

Response: Introduction Difficulty: Medium

2. Describe the components that make up hardware.

Response: Introduction Difficulty: Medium

3. Define the machine instruction cycle and discuss the factors of chip design that affect the speed of the cycle.

Response: The Central Processing Unit Difficulty: Medium

4. What are the types of primary storage?

Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Medium

5. What are the types of secondary storage?

Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Medium

Essay Questions

1. What are the types of enterprise storage systems?

Response: Computer Memory Difficulty: Medium

2. Compare and contrast supercomputers, mainframes, midrange computers, and microcomputers.

Response: Computer Hierarchy Difficulty: Medium

3. Describe server farms. What would be the differences in how small organizations and large organizations would use server farms? (Hint: Consider Google, Yahoo, and Amazon, and the services they provide with their server farms.)

Response: Innovations in Hardware Utilization Difficulty: Hard

4. Compare and contrast grid computing, utility computing, and computing on demand.

Response: Innovations in Hardware Utilization Difficulty: Medium

5. Describe edge computing and the advantages it provides to individuals and organizations.

Response: Innovations in Hardware Utilization Difficulty: Medium

File: Technology Guide 2: Computer Software

True/False

1. Software is typically quite complex.

Ans: True Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Easy

2. As hardware costs have decreased over the past twenty years, software costs have also decreased.

Ans: False Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Easy

3. Software consists of computer programs, which are sequences of instructions for the computer.

Ans: True Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Easy

4. Computer hardware and software are designed to be general purpose.

Ans: False Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Easy

5. Application software cannot be run on computer hardware without systems software.

Ans: True Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Easy

6. Computer code is generally efficient, well designed, and contains very few errors.

Ans: False Response: Software Issues Difficulty: Easy

7. Companies who develop software for sale license that software for use to protect their product from being copied and distributed illegally.

Ans: True Response: Software Issues Difficulty: Easy

8. Open systems refers to a model of computer products – hardware, operating systems, and application software – that allow any computing device to be seamlessly connected to and interact with any other computing device.

Ans: True Response: Software Issues Difficulty: Easy

9. The operating system supervises the overall operation of the computer.

Ans: True Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Easy

10. The user interface is the most sophisticated on enterprise operating systems and the least sophisticated on desktop operating systems.

Ans: False Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Easy

11. Performance monitors and security monitors are examples of system control programs.

Ans: False Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Easy

12. Proprietary application software addresses a specific or unique business need for a company.

Ans: True Response: Application Software Difficulty: Easy

13. Off-the-shelf application software consists of specific software programs developed for a particular company by a software vendor.

Ans: False

Response: Application Software Difficulty: Easy

14. Personal application software consists of widely used packages such as word processing, spreadsheet, communications, and graphics software.

Ans: True Response: Application Software Difficulty: Easy

15. Assembly language is a lower-level programming language that is slightly more user-friendly than machine language.

Ans: True Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Easy

16. Assembly language consists entirely of 0s and 1s.

Ans: False Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Easy

17. Machine languages allow the user to specify the desired result of a computer program without having to specify step-by-step procedures.

Ans: False Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Easy

18. Assembly languages are languages used within a graphical environment.

Ans: False Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Easy

19. Hypertext Markup Language is designed to improve the functionality of Web documents by providing more flexible and adaptable information identification.

Ans: False Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Easy

20. Extensible Markup Language (XML) describes where an item appears on a page, where Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) describes what the item is.

Ans: False Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. Over the past twenty years, hardware costs have _____, while software costs have _____.

A. increased, increased B. decreased, decreased C. decreased, increased D. increased, decreased E. increased, remained level Ans: C Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Medium

2. Today, software comprises a larger percentage of the cost of modern computer systems than it did in the early 1950s for which of the following reasons?

A. hardware costs have decreased B. hardware performance has increased C. software has become increasingly complex D. building software applications remains slow, complex, and error-prone E. all of the above Ans: E Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Medium

3. Which of the following is not a reason that today, software comprises a larger percentage of the cost of modern computer systems than it did in the early 1950s?

A. hardware costs have increased B. hardware performance has increased C. software has become increasingly complex D. building software applications remains slow, complex, and error-prone E. none of the above Ans: A Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Medium

4. Which of the following is not an overall trend in software?

A. Increased complexity B. Increased cost C. Increased number of errors D. Increased amount of mainframe software written by users E. Increasingly large percentage of information systems’ costs Ans: D Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Medium

5. _____ is a written description of a computer program’s functions.

A. Explanatory instructions B. Documentation C. Graphical user interface D. Plug and play E. README files Ans: B Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Easy

6. The overall trends in software include all of the following except: A. increased complexity B. increased cost C. increased number of defects D. increased security E. increasing percentage of cost of modern computer systems Ans: D Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Easy

7. Unlike the hardwired computers of the 1950s, modern software uses the _____, where computer programs are executed in the computer’s CPU. A. stored program concept B. multitasking C. multithreading D. multiprogramming E. plug and play Ans: A Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Easy

8. The _____ complexity of software means a _____ potential for errors.

A. decreasing, decreasing B. decreasing, increasing C. increasing, decreasing

D. increasing, level E. increasing, increasing Ans: E Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Medium

9. _____ are sequences of instructions used to direct the workings of a computer.

A. Computer programs B. Microcode instructions C. Assembler commands D. Systems software E. Input/Output instructions Ans: A Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Easy

10. The set of computer programs used to manage hardware resources is called: A. Microsoft Office Suite B. application software C. general software D. systems software E. personal application software Ans: D Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Easy

11. The set of computer instructions that provides specific functionality to a user is called: A. transaction processing software B. application software C. general software D. systems software E. microcode Ans: B Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Easy

12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of today’s typical software?

A. efficient B. full of errors C. poorly designed D. expensive E. an art as well as a science Ans: A

Response: Software Issues Difficulty: Medium

13. Which of the following is not a factor in the selection of software?

A. Size and location of the user base B. Size of the database required for the software C. Costs D. In-house technical skills E. System capabilities Ans: B Response: Software Issues Difficulty: Easy

14. The concept of _____ refers to competing computing products working together.

A. open source software B. software-as-a-service C. object oriented software D. application software package E. open systems Ans: E Response: Software Issues Difficulty: Easy

15. In order to protect their software from illegal distribution, vendors often rely on _____.

A. encryption B. private security agents C. software licensing D. Internet-based distribution methods Ans: C Response: Software Issues Difficulty: Easy

16. _____ is software whose source code is available at no cost to developers and users.

A. Freeware B. Shareware C. Open systems D. Open source software E. Software-as-a-service Ans: D Response: Software Issues Difficulty: Easy

17. Which of the following is not an advantage of open-source software?

A. produces high quality code B. produces code that can be changed to meet the needs of the users C. bugs are discovered quickly D. support is available only through online communities of core developers E. produces reliable code Ans: D Response: Software Issues Difficulty: Medium

18. _____ is copyrighted software that is made available to the user at no cost for an unlimited period of time.

A. Freeware B. Shareware C. Open systems D. Open source software E. Software-as-a-service Ans: A Response: Software Issues Difficulty: Easy

19. _____ is software that typically allows no access to the underlying source code.

A. Freeware B. Shareware C. Open systems D. Open source software E. Software-as-a-service Ans: B Response: Software Issues Difficulty: Easy

20. Which of the following is not a function of the operating system?

A. allocates CPU time and main memory to programs running on the computer B. provides an interface between the user and the hardware C. supervises the overall operation of the computer D. increases the complexity of the system to the user E. none of the above Ans: D Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Medium

21. The main system control program is the _____.

A. operating system B. cache software

C. virtual memory D. security monitor E. multithread register Ans: A Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Easy

22. Virtual memory allocates hard disk space to supplement the immediate, functional memory capacity of what?

A. ROM B. EPROM C. extended memory D. RAM E. the registers Ans: D Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Easy

23. _____ means that several parts of the same application can work simultaneously.

A. Multithreading B. Multitasking C. Time-sharing D. Scalability E. Multiprocessing Ans: A Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Easy

24. _____ occurs when a computer system with two or more processors can run more than one program or thread at a given time by assigning them to different processors.

A. Multithreading B. Multitasking C. Time-sharing D. Scalability E. multiprocessing Ans: E Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Easy

25. _____ means that two or more programs can run on the computer system at the same time.

A. Multithreading B. multitasking C. Time-sharing D. Scalability

E. Multiprocessing Ans: B Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Easy

26. The _____ allows users to exert direct control of icons on the computer screen.

A. systems software B. application software C. graphical user interface D. plug-and-play E. operating system Ans: C Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Easy

27. Early versions of Windows were _____ that provided a graphical user interface and could only work with _____, which was a(n) _____.

A. operating systems, MS-DOS, operating environment B. MS-DOS, the operating system, operating environment C. operating systems, the operating environment, application package D. operating environments, MS-DOS, operating system E. application packages, systems software, graphical user interface Ans: D Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Medium

28. _____ are programs that sort records and create directories and sub-directories.

A. System utilities B. General application software C. Personal application software D. System performance monitors E. System security monitors Ans: A Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Easy

29. _____ are programs that manage the processing of jobs on a computer system.

A. System utilities B. General application software C. Personal application software D. System performance monitors E. System security monitors Ans: D

Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Easy

30. _____ are programs that protect a computer system from unauthorized use, fraud, and destruction.

A. System utilities B. General application software C. Personal application software D. System performance monitors E. System security monitors Ans: E Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Easy

31. Which of the following is not offered by desktop operating systems?

A. most functionality B. support for the fewest number of users C. most sophisticated interface D. same functionality as mobile operating systems Ans: A Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Medium

32. Which of the following is not offered by enterprise operating systems?

A. most functionality B. support for the greatest number of users C. most sophisticated interface D. same functionality as desktop operating systems Ans: C Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Medium

33. Creating specific application software using an organization’s own resources is called what?

A. outsourcing B. consultant-based development C. in-house development D. contract software E. application service providers Ans: C Response: Application Software Difficulty: Easy

34. Off-the-shelf software _____.

A. may not match an organization’s current work processes and data B. is more flexible in making modifications C. requires more risk because all features and performance are not known D. is rarely tested prior to release Ans: A Response: Application Software Difficulty: Easy

35. _____ programs are often used when analyzing financial data.

A. Database B. Word processing C. Spreadsheet D. Graphics E. Communications Ans: C Response: Application Software Difficulty: Easy

36. Developers use _____ to write new application and systems software.

A. code generators B. applets C. programming languages D. developer workbenches Ans: C Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Easy

37. Which programming language uses mnemonics to help users with programming?

A. machine language B. assembly language C. procedural language D. non-procedural language E. visual programming language Ans: B Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Easy

38. Which programming language consists entirely of 0’s and 1’s?

A. machine language B. assembly language C. procedural language D. non-procedural language E. visual programming language

Ans: B Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Easy

39. Place the following programming languages in order of programmer ease of use, from easiest to most difficult: A. machine language – assembly language – procedural language – non-procedural language B. assembly language – machine language – procedural language – non-procedural language C. non-procedural language – procedural language – assembly language – machine language D. non-procedural language – procedural language – machine language – assembly language E. procedural language – machine language – non-procedural language – assembly language Ans: C Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Medium

40. Languages that use icons, symbols, and pull-down menus to develop applications are called _____.

A. object-oriented languages B. second generation languages C. visual programming languages D. Java E. third generation languages Ans: C Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Easy

41. A(n) _____ consists of data and actions that can be performed on that data.

A. utility program B. object C. template D. applet E. computer program Ans: B Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Easy

42. One of the primary advantages of an object is that it contains _____.

A. reusable code B. reusable data C. embedded graphics D. messages E. no errors Ans: A Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Easy

43. Which of the following is not a benefit of Java to organizations?

A. companies need to purchase only one network copy of software B. companies will need powerful personal computers for their employees C. companies will have better control over their data and applications D. software management will be easier E. none of the above Ans: B Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Medium

Short Answer

1. Discuss the reasons that software is now more costly than hardware in today’s information systems.

Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Hard

2. What are the overall trends in software?

Response: Significance of Software Difficulty: Medium

3. Differentiate between the various types of operating systems.

Response: Systems Software Difficulty: Medium

4. Describe the various types of application software.

Response: Application Software Difficulty: Medium

5. Describe the importance of software defects.

Response: Software Issues Difficulty: Medium

Essay Questions

1. Describe the factors to be considered for software selection.

Response: Software Issues Difficulty: Medium

2. Discuss the importance of software licensing.

Response: Software Issues Difficulty: Medium

3. Describe the five generations of programming languages.

Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Medium

4. Differentiate between XML and HTML. Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Medium

5. Discuss the benefits of object-oriented programming languages.

Response: Programming Languages Difficulty: Medium

File: Technology Guide 3: Protecting Your Information Assets

True/False

1. As businesses improve their information security, organized crime is turning its attention to consumers.

Ans: True Response: Introduction Difficulty: Easy

2. You will face social engineering attacks at work but typically not at home.

Ans: False Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

3. You should ask whether or not your Social Security number is necessary for identification, or if any combination of nine numbers and letters will do just as well.

Ans: True Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

4. Using credit cards with your face on them will decrease your information security because clerks will look for your signature.

Ans: False Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

5. Virtual credit cards cannot be used for in-store purchases that require a traditional plastic card.

Ans: True Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

6. You should keep close track of your credit card billing cycles.

Ans: True Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

7. You should use debit cards because they are directly linked to your bank account and therefore, you cannot overspend.

Ans: False Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

8. Your credit card company bears the liability for fraudulent charges, regardless of when you notify them.

Ans: False Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

9. You should not use a mailbox at your home.

Ans: True Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

10. A single-cut shredder is sufficient to shred your documents at home, where a cross-cut (confetti) shredder is necessary at work because of the sensitivity of the documents there.

Ans: False Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

11. Companies that provide proactive protection of your personal information allow customers to lock their credit files.

Ans: True Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

12. It is possible for criminals to gain information about many people from social networking sites.

Ans: True Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

13. It is OK to open an e-mail attachment, as long as you know and trust the person who sent the e-mail.

Ans: False

Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

14. You should update your definitions before scanning your system with anti-malware software.

Ans: True Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

15. One way to help with spam is to set up multiple free e-mail accounts.

Ans: True Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. A(n) _____ offers you the option of shopping online with a disposable credit card number.

A. credit card B. debit card C. driver’s license D. virtual credit card E. bank card Ans: D Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

2. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. You should use credit cards with your picture on them.

B. You may use virtual credit cards for additional security.

C. You should use debit cards whenever possible for additional security.

D. Virtual credit cards cannot be used for in-store purchases.

E. Signatures on credit cards are often impossible to read.

Ans: C Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Medium

3. Your liability with credit cards is typically _____, where your liability with debit cards is _____.

A. the amount in your bank account, your credit limit B. your credit limit, the amount in your bank account C. the amount in your bank account, zero D. your credit limit, zero

E. zero, the amount in your bank account Ans: E Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Medium

4. Which of the following statements about companies that provide proactive protection of your information assets is not correct?

A. These companies allow their customers to lock their credit files.

B. These companies ensure that new lines of credit cannot be opened unless their clients unlock their credit files.

C. These companies operate independently of the three major credit reporting agencies.

D. Signing up with these companies means that merchants and banks must have verbal or written permission from their customers before opening new credit in their names.

E. These companies will proactively monitor their clients’ credit files at the three credit reporting agencies.

Ans: C Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Hard

5. If your identity is stolen, what is the first thing you should do?

A. change all your credit cards B. get a lawyer C. open a file with all your paperwork D. file a detailed police report E. notify the three major credit reporting agencies Ans: B Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Medium

6. Software installed on your computer that controls communications to and from your computer by permitting or denying communications based on your security settings is best described as a(n) _____.

A. proactive monitoring package B. anti-spyware package C. content-filtering package D. anti-malware package E. personal firewall Ans: E Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Medium

7. Personal firewalls perform all of the following functions except: A. They should make your computer invisible.

B. They should seek out the origin of malware in an attempt to block it in the future.

C. They should alert you to suspicious behavior.

D. They should block outbound connections that you do not initiate.

E. They should tell you when a program or connection is attempting to do something that you do not want.

Ans: B Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Medium

8. _____ software logs keystrokes, e-mails, applications, windows, Web sites, Internet connection, passwords, chat conversations, Web cams, and screenshots.

A. Firewall B. Anti-malware C. Monitoring D. Content filtering E. Anti-spyware Ans: C Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

9. Content filtering software performs all of the following functions except: A. blocks access to undesirable Web sites B. records all Web sites visited C. proactively monitors computers against malware attacks D. records both sides of chat conversations E. enables users to selectively filter content Ans: C Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Medium

10. It is important to have proactive intrusion detection and prevention software on your computer for all of the following reasons except: A. because anti-malware software is reactive B. to help decrease your vulnerability to zero-day attacks C. because you have to update malware signatures on a regular basis with anti-malware software D. to help decrease your vulnerability to distributed denial-of-service attacks E. None of these Ans: D Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Hard

11. Which of the following attacks is the one most closely associated with downloading and installing patches immediately?

A. Denial of service B. Zero day attacks C. Distributed denial-of-service D. Viruses E. Worms

Ans: B Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Hard

12. Methods you should use to protect your portable devices and information include all of the following except: A. using two-factor authentication B. do not leave your portable devices in plain view in a car C. keeping your portable devices in an inconspicuous container D. encrypting the hard drive of your laptop E. all of the above Ans: E Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Medium

13. A(n) _____ is a computer to which you connect, that in turn connects to the Web site you wish to visit.

A. proxy server B. Internet server C. intermediate server D. backbone server E. e-mail server Ans: A Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

14. A(n) _____ either originates on, or is sent to, the Web site that you are currently viewing.

A. tracking cookie B. monitoring cookie C. second-party cookie D. third-party cookie E. first-party cookie Ans: E Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

15. A(n) _____ either originates on, or is sent to, a different Web site than the one you are currently viewing.

A. tracking cookie B. monitoring cookie C. second-party cookie D. third-party cookie E. first-party cookie Ans: D

Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

16. For security in your wireless computing, you should use the _____ encryption standard, rather than the older _____ encryption standard.

A. WPA, WEP B. WPA2, WPA C. WEP, WPA D. WPA2, WEP E. WEP, WPB Ans: D Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Easy

Short Answer

1. Describe the functions of anti-malware software on your computer.

Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Medium

2. What functions should a personal firewall provide for you?

Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Medium

3. What functions should you expect from monitoring software on your computer?

Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Medium

4. What functions should you expect from content filtering software on your computer?

Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Medium

5. Describe the steps you should take to protect yourself when computing wirelessly.

Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Medium

Essay Questions

1. Why is it so important to protect your information assets?

Response: Introduction Difficulty: Hard

2. Discuss the pros and cons of using credit cards or debit cards.

Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Hard

3. Discuss the benefits of using the services of companies who provide proactive protection of your personal information.

Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Hard

4. Describe the actions you should take if your identity is stolen.

Response: Behavioral Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Hard

5. Discuss the dangers of social networking Web sites.

Response: Computer-Based Actions to Protect Your Information Assets Difficulty: Hard

File: Technology Guide 4: Basics of Telecommunications and Networks

1. Telecommunications systems can transmit text, data, graphics, voice, documents, and full motion video information.

Ans: True Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

2. Digital signals are continuous waves that transmit information by altering the characteristics of the waves.

Ans: False Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

3. Digital signals have two parameters, frequency and amplitude.

Ans: False Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

4. The U.S. public telephone system was designed as an analog network to carry voice signals.

Ans: True Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

5. Multiplexers are expensive and raise communications costs by allowing devices to maximize the use of communications channels.

Ans: False Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

6. Cable media use wires or cables to transmit data and information.

Ans: True Response: The Telecommunications System

Difficulty: Easy

7. Twisted-pair wire is the most prevalent form of communications wiring.

Ans: True Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

8. Cladding is the coating that surrounds fiber optic cables and prevents light from leaking out of the fiber.

Ans: True Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

9. Integrated services digital network uses existing telephone lines.

Ans: True Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

10. Modems are not necessary with digital subscriber lines.

Ans: False Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

11. Asynchronous transfer mode is cheaper than ISDN and DSL. Ans: False Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

12. Currently, ATM networks operate only on fiber optic cable.

Ans: True Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

13. A local area network connects two or more communicating devices in a limited geographical area.

Ans: True Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Easy

14. Gateways are special adapters that link an individual device to the communications medium on a local area network.

Ans: False Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Easy

15. Network interface cards are special adapters that link an individual device to the communications medium on a local area network.

Ans: True Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Easy

16. The network interface card typically houses the LAN’s network operating system.

Ans: False Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Easy

17. A bridge connects two networks of the same type.

Ans: True Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Easy

18. Wide area networks have large capacity and they typically use a single communications channel.

Ans: False Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Easy

19. Value-added networks are types of LANs. Ans: False Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Easy

20. An enterprise-wide network is the interconnection of multiple LANs and WANs to form a network that completely spans an entire organization.

Ans: True Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. The function of _____ is to convert digital signals to analog signals and vice-versa.

A. modems B. multiplexers C. front-end processors D. servers E. clients Ans: A Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

2. _____ signals convey information in wave form, where _____ signals convey information in digital, binary form.

A. Analog, packet B. Analog, digital C. Digital, packet D. Digital, analog E. Packet, analog Ans: B Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

3. _____ are hardware devices that support data transmission and reception across a telecommunications system.

A. Integrated services digital networks B. Digital subscriber lines C. Communications channels D. Peer-to-peer processing E. Communications processors Ans: E Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

4. _____ allow a single communications channel to carry data transmissions simultaneously from many sources.

A. Modems B. Multiplexers C. Front-end processors D. Servers E. Clients Ans: B Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

5. _____ manage all routing communications with peripheral devices for a large computer system.

A. Modems B. Multiplexers C. Front-end processors D. Servers E. Clients Ans: C Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

6. Which of the following is not a communications channel?

A. Fiber optic cable B. Satellite transmission C. Twisted-pair wire D. Integrated circuits E. Cellular radio Ans: D Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of twisted-pair wire?

A. Inexpensive B. Easy to work with C. Subject to interference from other electrical sources D. Secure transmissions E. None of the above Ans: D Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Medium

8. The cable medium with the highest bandwidth is: A. twisted-pair wire B. coaxial cable C. fiber optic cable D. cellular radio E. copper cable Ans: C Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

9. Data is sent through a fiber-optic cable by a(n): A. optical switch B. electromagnetic switch C. laser D. multiplexer E. optical modem Ans: C Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

10. By using an ISDN service, an organization will be able to transmit _____ data than if it used a T1 carrier.

A. more voice B. more C. less D. the same amount of E. more streaming video Ans: C Response: The Telecommunications System

Difficulty: Medium

11. Which data transmission technology requires fiber-optic cable, can transmit up to 2.5 gigabits per second, but is more expensive than ISDN and DSL? A. Digital subscriber line B. Asynchronous transfer mode C. Synchronous optical network D. T-carrier system E. ISDN Ans: B Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Medium

12. _____ refers to the range of frequencies available in any communications channel.

A. Protocol B. Broadband C. Capacity D. Narrowband E. Bandwidth Ans: E Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

13. Which transmission technology is an interface standard for transporting digital signals over fiber-optic lines that allows the integration of transmissions from multiple vendors?

A. Digital subscriber line B. Asynchronous transfer mode C. Synchronous optical network D. T-carrier system E. ISDN Ans: C Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

14. Which of the following is a digital transmission system that defines circuits which operates at different rates, all of which are multiples of the basic 64 Kbps used to transport a single voice call?

A. Digital subscriber line B. Asynchronous transfer mode C. Synchronous optical network D. T-carrier system

E. ISDN Ans: D Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Easy

15. Which of the following are advantages of computer networks?

A. enables organizations to be more flexible B. enables companies to share hardware, computer applications, and data C. enables geographically dispersed employees to work together D. provides a critical link between businesses and their customers E. all of the above Ans: E Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Easy

16. The components of a local area network include which of the following?

A. file server B. client computers C. wireline or wireless communications media D. network interface cards E. all of the above Ans: E Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Easy

17. Which of the following is not a component of a local area network?

A. file server B. client computers C. bridge D. network interface cards E. all of the above Ans: C Response: Types of networks Difficulty: Medium

18. A(n) _____ connects dissimilar networks.

A. router B. network interface card

C. bridge D. gateway E. file server Ans: D Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Easy

19. A(n) _____ connects two or more devices in a limited geographical area.

A. local area network B. wide area network C. personal area network D. enterprise network E. value added network Ans: A Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Easy

20. A(n) _____ connects similar networks.

A. router B. network interface card C. bridge D. gateway E. file server Ans: C Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Easy

21. A(n) _____ sends messages through several connected LANs or to a wide area network.

A. router B. network interface card C. bridge D. gateway E. file server Ans: A Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Easy

22. A(n) _____ allows a device to physically connect to a local area network’s communications medium.

A. file server

B. network interface card C. network operating system D. communications channel E. gateway Ans: B Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Easy

23. Characteristics of wide area networks include all of the following except: A. they are provided by individual companies B. they have large capacity C. they cover large geographical areas D. they combine multiple communications channels E. the Internet is an example of a wide area network Ans: A Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Medium

24. In order to ensure that computers developed by different manufacturers can communicate, _____ have been developed.

A. protocols B. client/server architectures C. WANs D. application software packages E. developmental architectures Ans: A Response: Network Fundamentals Difficulty: Easy

25. A protocol is: A. a device that handles the switching of voice and data in a local area network B. a standard set of rules and procedures for control of communications in a network C. a communications service for the connection of devices in a local area network D. the main communications channel in a wide area network E. synonymous with network interface card Ans: B Response: Network Fundamentals Difficulty: Easy

26. The part of a network that handles the major traffic is the: A. front end B. network interface C. multiplexer D. backbone E. front end processor Ans: D Response: Network Fundamentals Difficulty: Easy

27. Which of the following enables users to send data across sometimes unreliable networks?

A. Ethernet B. TCP/IP C. Protocols D. Digital subscriber line E. Integrated services digital network Ans: B Response: Network Fundamentals Difficulty: Easy

28. In TCP/IP, IP is responsible for: A. disassembling and reassembling of packets during transmission B. establishing the Internet connection between two computers C. moving packets over the network D. sequencing the transfer of packets across the network E. error checking Ans: A Response: Network Fundamentals Difficulty: Easy

29. Which of the following is not a characteristic of packet switching?

A. Packets contain a sequence number B. Packets are routed through different paths C. Packets require dedicated circuits D. Packets use TCP/IP to carry their data E. Packets contain destination addressing Ans: C Response: Network Fundamentals Difficulty: Medium

30. A type of processing that links two or more computers in an arrangement in which some machines provide computing services for user computers is best described as : A. open systems B. client/server C. peer-to-peer D. centralized E. mainframe-centric Ans: B Response: Network Fundamentals Difficulty: Easy

31. BitTorrent uses a process called _____, which eliminates file-sharing bottlenecks by having everyone share little pieces of a file at the same time.

A. leeching B. collaboration C. packet switching D. torrents E. swarming Ans: E Response: Network Fundamentals Difficulty: Medium

Short Answer Questions

1. Differentiate between analog signals and digital signals.

Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Medium

2. Describe the various communications processors.

Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Medium

3. Differentiate among twisted-pair wire, coaxial cable, and fiber-optic cable.

Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Medium

4. Define what network protocols are and why they are important.

Response: Network Fundamentals Difficulty: Medium

5. Describe the three basic types of peer-to-peer processing.

Response: Network Fundamentals Difficulty: Medium

Essay Questions

1. Describe the basic telecommunications system.

Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Medium

2. What are the implications of having fiber optic cable to everyone’s home?

Response: The Telecommunications System Difficulty: Hard

3. Differentiate among local area networks, wide area networks, value-added networks.

Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Medium

4. Describe the functions of the TCP/IP protocol.

Response: Types of Networks Difficulty: Medium

5. Differentiate between client/server computing and peer-to-peer processing.

Response: Network Fundamentals Difficulty: Medium

File: Technology Guide 5: Basics of the Internet and the World Wide Web

Rainer 3e

True-False

1. The Internet is a global network of computer networks.

Ans: True Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

2. An intranet is a network that uses Internet technologies and is designed to serve the information needs of a single organization.

Ans: True Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

3. Intranets give employees easy access to corporate information but are not used by employees to access corporate applications.

Ans: False Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

4. An extranet is a network that uses Internet technologies and is designed to serve the information needs of a single organization.

Ans: False Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

5. Extranets offer limited accessibility to the intranets of participating companies.

Ans: True Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

6. Darknets are private networks that run on the Internet but are open only to users who belong to the network.

Ans: True Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

7. An Internet service provider is a company that offers Internet connections for a fee.

Ans: True Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

8. Internet kiosks are terminals located in public places like libraries and airports for use by people who do not have their own computers.

Ans: True Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

9. A domain name is the official name assigned to an Internet site, consisting of multiple parts, separated by dots, which are translated from right to left in locating the site.

Ans: True Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

10. The rightmost part of an Internet name is the top-level specification, or the zone.

Ans: True Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

11. The World Wide Web is a global network of computer networks.

Ans: False Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

12. The World Wide Web is a system with universally accepted standards for storing, retrieving, formatting, and displaying information via a client/server architecture.

Ans: True Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

13. Uniform resource locators point to the address of a specific resource or site on the Web. Ans: True Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

14. Uniform resource locators are software applications through which users access the Web. Ans: False Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

15. The hypertext transport protocol is the communications standard used to transfer pages across the World Wide Web portion of the Internet.

Ans: True Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

16. Surfing is the process of navigating around the Web by means of pointing and clicking a graphical Web browser.

Ans: True Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

Multiple Choice

1. The _____ is a global wide-area network that connects approximately one million organizational computer networks.

A. global network B. extranet

C. Internet D. intranet E. World Wide Web Ans: C Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

2. A(n) _____ is a network designed to serve the internal informational needs of a single organization.

A. global network B. extranet C. Internet D. intranet E. World Wide Web Ans: D Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

3. A(n) _____ connects parts of the intranets of different organizations and allows secure communications among business partners.

A. global network B. extranet C. Internet D. intranet E. World Wide Web Ans: B Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

4. _____ are private networks that run on the Internet but are open only to users who belong to the network.

A. Darknets B. Extranets C. Value-added networks D. Intranets E. Packet-switched networks Ans: A Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

5. The major uses of darknets include which of the following?

A. freedom of speech B. corporate security C. copyright infringement D. all of the above Ans: D Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

6. If you are a dissident in China, you might use which of the following to communicate?

A. darknet B. Internet C. intranet D. extranet E. telephone system Ans: A Response: The Internet Difficulty: Medium

7. Internet service providers connect to one another through _____.

A. internet connection points B. common carrier connection points C. network access points D. network connection points E. an extranet Ans: C Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

8. _____ are means to access the Internet that are located in public places, such as libraries and airports.

A. Clients B. Servers C. Internet access computers D. Network computer E. Internet kiosks Ans: E Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

9. Each site on the Internet gets an assigned address, which is a(n) _____.

A. TCP address B. IP address C. URL address D. ISO/OSI identifier E. World Wide Web address Ans: C Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

10. Consider this domain name, www.business.gsu.edu. The “edu” is the: A. top-level domain B. URL C. web site locator D. name of the computer E. address of the Webmaster Ans: A Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

11. Consider this domain name, www.business.gsu.edu. The “gsu” is the: A. top-level domain B. name of the organization C. URL D. name of the specific computer E. address of the Webmaster Ans: B Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

12. Consider this domain name, www.business.gsu.edu. The “business” is the: A. top-level domain B. name of the organization C. URL D. name of the specific computer E. address of the Webmaster Ans: D Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

13. Consider this domain name, www.xyz.abc.ru. The “ru” is the: A. top-level domain B. name of the organization C. URL D. the country designator E. name of the computer Ans: D Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

14. Applications offered by the Internet2 include which of the following?

A. remote diagnosis B. digital libraries C. distance education D. virtual laboratories E. all of the above Ans: E Response: The Internet Difficulty: Easy

15. _____ is a system with universally accepted standards for storing, retrieving, formatting, and displaying information via a client/server architecture.

A. USENET B. FTP C. World Wide Web D. Newsgroups E. The Internet Ans: C Response: The World Wide Web Difficulty: Easy

1 Electronic Monitoring

In the 1920s, Frederick Taylor used time and motion studies to analyse the work practices of various types of employee. His theory has been criticised for treating some employees like machines, making them work to the detriment of their physical and psychological health.

In the late 1950s, McGregor developed his X-Y Theory to explain how people work According to Theory X, the average person dislikes work and therefore must be controlled and threatened with punishment to ensure that work is done. Most people prefer to be treated in this way, having relatively little ambition. According to Theory Y, working is as natural as playing or resting, with people naturally exercising self-control when trying to achieve their objectives. The average person learns to accept and to seek responsibility.

The ability to be imaginative and creative when solving problems is a skill possessed by most people.

In the 21st century, electronic monitoring is increasingly used to measure the productivity of employees. This monitoring can include measurements of typing speed and programme coding speed as well as clickstream analysis and the amount of time spent on non-work activities (e.g. toilet breaks, lunch breaks, etc.). At the same time, employees are increasingly concerned about their privacy, the quality of their work place and task environment, and their innate human dignity.

Imagine that you are an IT consultant who has been given the task of preparing a report for the Management Board of a Software House that is currently thinking of implementing electronic monitoring throughout its operations. Your task is to prepare a concise report that considers the relevant issues in Electronic Monitoring and makes recommendations. Your report should include a discussion of the current trend to use electronic monitoring to measure employee productivity, bearing in mind the theories of Taylor and McGregor. Make a recommendation to the Management Board about what it should do. You should include the key ethical issues and the stakeholders involved. You must justify your ideas and recommendations. You should also attempt to analyse how the impacts that electronic monitoring is likely to exert would affect you personally, as an employee.

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