Introduction to Hospitality, Global Edition, 7th Edition John R. Walker Test Bank

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Introduction to Hospitality

Edition:

7th Edition

Author(s):

John R. Walker

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) One of the most important in-room amenities that enables guest satisfaction is 1) _______ A) air conditioning B) remote control C) TV D) mini-bar E) internet 2) Since its introduction, the pineapple has been internationally recognized as A) a symbol of hospitality B) a widely used vegetable in the southwest C) non-nutritional D) a symbol of danger

2) _______

3) Key to being successful in the hospitality industry is A) knowing how to cook B) being service oriented C) waiting tables D) bartending skills

3) _______

4) Intangible means A) physical property B) Something the guest uses but does not possess C) A souvenir purchased as a gift D) assets of the business

4) _______

5) In the hospitality industry the concept of perishability means A) spoiled food that must be discarded B) it is intangible C) an unsold airline seat, hotel room or empty restaurant table D) it cannot be measured

5) _______

6) Inseparability refers to A) hospitality products being inherently heterogeneous B) hospitality products are tangible C) the fact that production and consumption occur simultaneously D) the fact that production and consumption occur independently

6) _______

7) Each of the following is a characteristic of the Hospitality Industry EXCEPT: A) the service product and the guest are separate B) characterized by shift work C) no such thing as business hours D) product is intangible and perishable

7) _______

8) Guest calls for reservations and a guest welcome are both examples of what?

A) Moments of Reason B) Moments of Reality C) Moments of Truth D) Moments of Fact

8) _______

9) Anyone who receives or benefits from the output of someone's work is

9) _______

A) an employee

B) a guest

C) a vendor

D) internal guest 10) ______

10) Internal customers are A) restaurant dining room customers C) loyal customers who return often

B) the employees D) hotel guests

11) Quality guest service requires that we A) Focus on food quality C) prioritize our profit motive

B) increase service advertising D) understand our guest's needs

11) ______

12) Which of the following would NOT be a moment of truth?

A) your car will not start when it is time to go to the restaurant B) server takes your order C) hostess greets you and asks you to wait D) calling a restaurant for a reservation

12) ______

13) Empowerment is A) allowing all employees to make any decision they want B) delegated to management only C) a feeling of partnership in which employees feel responsible for their jobs and have a

13) ______

stake in the organization's success D) a process that eliminates the need for management

14) The central focus in hospitality is A) communication C) provide a profit

14) ______ B) attitude D) guest service 15) ______

15) TQM focuses on A) error detection C) profit

B) guest's needs D) error prevention

16) Recruiters are looking for A) well-rounded candidates C) service-oriented people

B) honesty D) creativity

16) ______

17) The concept of protecting the natural resources of the planet while achieving corporate profitability A) productivity C) operational values

17) ______

B) sustainability D) perishability

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

18) Using the four facets of the hospitality industry (travel, lodging, foodservice, and recreation), differentiate between the method of service offered to customers. Use specific examples.

19) Compare and contrast your ideal weekly work schedule with that of a typical manager in the hospitality field. Where are the main differences and how does the hospitality industry justify the differences.

20) You are a service leader for a national airline preparing to leave on a transcontinental flight from Atlanta to Los Angeles. List the "moments of truth" your customer will encounter from the time they arrive at the terminal to the time they land in LA.

21) Using the concept of "sustainability," describe at least three goals your hotel may target that will help to ensure a healthy and protected local environment and also achieve economic prosperity.

22) You are the owner of a new hotel chain. Outline the corporate culture you hope to create for your employees. Give examples.

23) Discuss the pros and cons of an internship program, a job-shadowing program, and a mentoring program.

Which do you think is most effective and why?

24) You are being interviewed for an entry-level management position with a cruise line. Generate a list of five questions that you think would best allow you to portray yourself as the perfect candidate for the job.

1) E 2) A 3) B 4) B 5) C 6) C 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) B 11) D 12) A 13) C 14) D 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) Student answers will vary according to specific type of service they choose from each facet.

19) Most students will note their perfect schedule as Monday-Friday 9 AM-5 PM with weekends and holidays off. The reality of a 60-70 hour workweek and holidays being the busiest days is not the most appealing schedule for young people. The rationale that the service the hospitality industry offers best is convenience, yet convenience to the guest does not always mean convenience to the provider.

20) The list will vary from student to student, depending on their perspective. Some lists will be all inclusive and some will be more limited to the moments that they more passionate about. Stress the importance of every nuance of the service experience.

21) The student should focus their answer on water conservation, solid waste management, alternative power, and reduction of energy. They should discuss the effectiveness of a cost effective program versus a sustained profitability. Students should also include a discussion about how the program may enable guest loyalty.

22) Students should outline how they want their employees to view them as a manager, how they intend to treat their employees, the importance of the customer in the day- to- day implementation of a cultural philosophy.

23) Students will look at each program with a variety of pros and cons. Internships are often viewed as an opportunity for "real world" experience but if they are not managed properly, students often fall into the "gopher " role.

Shadowing is effective for a short-term glimpse into the industry but the experience is exactly that: short term.

Mentoring is usually most effective as part of the new employee orientation process.

24) The common answers here will center around the proverbial "What are your strengths and weaknesses?" and "What makes you the best candidate for the job?" Encourage students to ask more open-ended questions that allow them the flexibility to showcase those strengths and minimize the weaknesses.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Purchasing the right to use a company's trademark and copyrighted materials is known as 1) _______ A) a partnership B) franchising C) leasing D) syndication 2) Hotel companies are increasingly opting for ________ because considerably less capital is tied up in managing as compared to ownership.

A) management companies C) referral companies

2) _______

B) real estate investment trusts D) franchising

3) In franchising, the franchisee is granted rights to A) full ownership of the land B) change the name of the business C) use trademarks, operating procedures and other business procedures D) full ownership of the building

3) _______

4) The primary growth and development strategy of hotels during the 1960's was A) franchising B) management contracts referral associations C) D) real estate investment trusts

4) _______

5) Franchising fees vary according to the agreements between franchisee and franchisor but the

5) _______

usual fees are between ________ of room revenue A) 2 and 3% B) 5 and 6%

C) 3 and 4%

D) 4 and 5%

6) The lack of operational power, high fees, low percentage of reservations from the central reservation system are all ________ of franchising.

A) drawbacks B) trends

C) benefits

6) _______

D) bonuses

7) The benefits of franchising include all of the following EXCEPT: A) national advertising B) set of plans and specifications for building C) high fee percentages charged by credit card companies D) participating in the volume purchasing discounts

7) _______

8) Hotels and motels that are part of a ________ share a centralized reservation system and a

8) _______

common image, logo or advertising slogan.

A) franchise C) REIT

B) proprietorship D) referral association

9) In this type of "ownership" investors do not pay corporate income tax, however they distribute

9) _______

the majority of net income to shareholders, and are publicly traded.

A) Independent ownership B) Partnerships C) Real estate investment trusts D) Franchises

10) Marriott builds a hotel for $34 million and sells it to a banking firm for $52 million. Marriott charges the banking firm 2-4 % of gross revenues to operate the hotel. This business transaction is known as A) REIT B) franchising

10) ______

C) Investment Partnership

D) management contract

11) Corporations that operate a hotel without capital outlay in exchange for a percentage of gross sales are known as A) vacation brokers C) management companies

11) ______

B) franchisees D) leasing companies

12) An organization that rates and classifies hotels and awards them Diamonds is the A) Exxon Excellence Association B) American Automobile Association C) United States Automobile Club D) American Hotel & Motel Association

12) ______

13) Hotels may be classified by A) country C) Location, price and service

13) ______ B) type of recreational facilities D) size

14) Examples of hotel location include A) spa, convention, casino, bed and breakfast B) luxury, all suites, economy, budget C) city, resort, airport, freeway D) full service, mid-scale, extended stay, limited service

14) ______

15) Examples of hotel price classification include A) spa, convention, casino, bed and breakfast B) luxury, all suites, economy, budget C) full service, mid-scale, extended stay, limited service D) city, resort, airport, freeway

15) ______

16) Examples of hotel level of service classification include A) full service, mid-scale, extended stay, limited service B) city, resort, airport, freeway C) luxury, all suites, economy, budget D) spa, convention, casino, bed and breakfast

16) ______

17) In order to determine if a hotel development project would likely succeed, we would perform a A) trust initiative B) property appraisal C) feasibility study D) operating assessment

17) ______

18) Airport hotels A) are often smaller, budget hotels B) face less competition than other types of hotels C) are generally not full service D) range from 200-600 rooms with full service

18) ______

19) Casino hotels A) are becoming more family friendly B) make more money from gaming than from rooms C) are focusing more on the budget traveler D) are marketing themselves as business hotels

19) ______

20) The following are characteristics of airport hotels EXCEPT: A) budget focused B) 200-600 rooms

20) ______

C) airport shuttle service

D) full service 21) ______

21) Hotels that are a cross between a chain and a marketing group for independent hotels are classified as A) chain hotels C) independent hotels

B) corporate hotels D) quasi-chain

22) City center, resort, airport and freeway are all examples of hotels being classified by A) service B) location C) amenities D) price

22) ______

23) Hotels that are typically furnished, have a well-stocked kitchen, and cater to guests staying for

23) ______

longer periods of time are A) extended-stay hotels C) boutique hotels

B) full service hotels D) convention hotels

24) Mixed use hotel development indicates that a hotel A) may also have residences B) is near transportation serves food C) D) can be used for meetings and lodging

24) ______

25) The fastest growing segment of the travel industry is A) cruise ships B) resort hotels C) city center hotels D) vacation ownership

25) ______

26) As the hotel industry matures, corporations are either acquiring or merging with each other.

26) ______

This is A) consolidation C) safety and security

B) capacity control D) diversification

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

27) List five factors involved in the growth of franchising.

27) ____________ 28) List three popular forms of ownership used in the lodging industry that allow for rapid

28) ____________

expansion.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

29) Compare and contrast the following concepts: franchise, partnership, leasing and syndication.

30) Of the ten hotel classifications, select five and give a general description of the types of hotels in each segment. Be sure to include price, location, and degree of service and target market.

31) List the six main types of hotels by price segment and give two examples of each. Outline a general profile of the typical customer for each segment.

32) Discuss marketability of the sustainable hotel industry. Discuss costs versus a standard hotel, guest demographic, and the positive or negative impact in the local community.

33) You own a three star hotel in an upscale area of town and find it necessary to upgrade to four-star to be competitive in your market. List and describe how you intend to accomplish the upgrade.

1) B 2) A 3) C 4) A 5) C 6) A 7) C 8) D 9) C 10) D 11) C 12) B 13) C 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) A 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) A 27) Fresh look-curb appeal Location-near highways, airports, and suburbs Expansion in smaller cities throughout the United States New markets-located in proximity to golf courses and other attractions Foreign expansion-increasing brand awareness 28) Franchising, management contracts, and REITs 29) Students should cover the positive aspects of each (liability issues, initial investment, and freedom to manage).

The negatives will mirror the positives (liability, over investment, and limited freedom to manage).

30) The text lists the classifications of hotels. Students should select five of those classifications on the list and give an outline of the segment. Answers will vary depending on which five they select.

31) In this question, the student needs to look at the needs and wants of the customer in each price range. The primary focus is the hotel meeting the customer's expectations. For example, a person looking for a budget hotel is most like price sensitive, needing a room for one night and is in transit from one destination to another.

32) The student may discuss the cost of building a sustainable building versus the cost saving in energy; gas, electric, air conditioning, water conservation, and waste disposal. Marketing the hotel as a LEED certified structure to conservation-minded, conscientious guests may find a new guest base. Using local materials and leaving a small "footprint" in the environment can foster partnerships with the local community and result in positive public relations which translates to low cost marketing opportunities.

33) By Student answers should reflect the various rating systems, the rating system requirements, and the projected impact on occupancy. Discussions will hover around hotel infrastructure upgrades, training of staff, technology, décor, menu selection, etc. In general, the type of clientele will change and the hotel must upgrade all services to accommodate the new guest.

The discussion may also involve which of the several rating agencies to focus efforts. AAA, Forbes, and Smith Travel each have their economic-minded followers.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The executive committee of a hotel is 1) _______ A) the top three executives in the hotel B) the general manager and director of sales C) the general manager and executive housekeeper D) made up of key executives who head major departments 2) The ultimate responsibility and authority of running a hotel rests with A) the general manager B) the front office manager C) the executive committee D) the regional vice president

2) _______

3) Which of the following would NOT be considered a hotel department?

A) food and beverage B) Housekeeping C) Property management system D) Front office

3) _______

4) The front office, housekeeping, security and communications all fall under what department?

A) Rooms division B) Concierge C) Night auditor D) Comptroller division

4) _______

5) The area of a hotel most often described as the nerve center or hub of a hotel is the A) front office B) night auditor C) housekeeping D) banquets

5) _______

6) The basic functions of the front office include all of the following EXCEPT: A) maintaining sales and catering records B) staffing and scheduling C) reviewing previous nights ADR and occupancy D) reviewing arrivals and departures

6) _______

7) When selling rooms a front desk associate might try to "upsell." This means A) selling the room at the rack rate B) honoring a guests discount coupon C) suggestively selling the features of a larger room, a higher floor or perhaps a better view D) providing a discount rate

7) _______

8) The more common name for a guests account is A) folio C) a file

8) _______ B) rewards account D) open ledger

9) Guest folios are typically managed by A) the general manager C) hotel property management system

B) concierge D) sales department

9) _______

10) Special hotel accounts for a company that has established credit with a hotel are called A) block rates B) city ledger C) city folios D) city rates

10) ______

11) The individual responsible for the task of balancing the guests accounts receivables is the A) night auditor B) front office manager

11) ______

C) front desk manager

D) guest services agent

12) The Hotel California has 642 rooms and 413 are occupied. The occupancy percentage is A) 60% B) 32% C) 73% D) 64%

12) ______

13) The Hotel California has 642 rooms with 413 occupied and the room revenue is $84,593. The

13) ______

REV PAR is A) $215.45

B) $131.76

C) $83.91

D) $130.94

14) The daily report preformed by the night auditor contains key operating ratios used by management including A) room occupancy percentage C) previous evening's banquets

14) ______

B) front office schedule D) total number of rooms in the hotel

15) Allocating the right type of room to the right guest at the right price is the job of A) the point of sale system B) the revenue management system C) the sales department D) the concierge

15) ______

16) Room occupancy percentage or ROP is A) total rooms occupied divided by total available rooms B) room revenue divided by number of rooms sold C) total rooms available divided by number of rooms sold D) room cost divided by room sales

16) ______

17) Average daily room rate is A) total rooms available divided by number of rooms sold B) room cost divided by room sales C) room revenue divided by number of rooms sold D) total rooms occupied divided by total available rooms

17) ______

18) Hotels can avoid overselling (overbooking) rooms by using a A) central reservation system B) energy management system C) point of sale system D) call accounting system

18) ______

19) One of the most important concerns for guests in a hotel is A) in-room movies B) food and beverage C) security D) cost of the room

19) ______

20) Property management systems are designed to assist front office employees in performing

20) ______

functions related to what tasks?

A) Catering and Banquet reservations B) Reservations, rooms and guest account management C) Restaurant reservations D) Guest's meeting schedules

21) A demand-forecasting technique used to maximize room revenue is known as A) upselling B) property management system C) return on investment D) revenue management

21) ______

22) Rack rate is A) the highest published room rate

22) ______ B) the price a room is sold for

C) discounted room rates

D) revenue management

23) The purpose of revenue management is to A) increase profitability B) monitor hotel restaurant and room service profitability C) assist housekeeping in scheduling D) sell more rooms at discounted rates

23) ______

24) In house and guest communications in a hotel are managed by A) the F.O.M. B) point of sales systems C) CBX or PBX D) the sales department

24) ______

25) The person at a desk in the lobby of a hotel who assists guests with restaurant reservations,

25) ______

directions, tickets to shows and other advice is the A) front desk associate C) the bell captain

B) the concierge D) rooms manager

26) The housekeepers are expected to clean how many rooms per day in an average hotel?

A) 15-18 B) 8-12 C) 12-18 D) 18-24

26) ______

27) Which of the following departments is the largest in a hotel in terms of people?

A) Reservations B) Guest services C) Security D) Housekeeping

27) ______

28) Leadership, insuring service of all guest rooms and public areas, operating the department

28) ______

within a budget, and accurate record keeping are all duties of the A) Food and Beverage Manager B) executive housekeeper engineering manager C) D) front office manager

29) Keying locks, guest and employee identification and ADA compliance falls under A) front desk B) engineering C) housekeeping D) security and loss prevention

29) ______

30) Which of the following is NOT a feature of an energy management system?

A) Automatic wake-up call functions B) Room occupancy status reporting C) Smoke detector alarms D) Minibar access reporting

30) ______

31) Which system can track guest room phone charges?

A) Telephone Charge System B) Guest Calls Reporting C) Room Charges Reporting D) Call Accounting Systems

31) ______

32) Housekeeping department measures productivity by A) occupied rooms divided by number of housekeepers B) number of rooms times hours worked C) hours worked divided by number of housekeepers D) person hours per occupied room

32) ______

33) The main function of a ________ is to escort guests and transport their luggage to their rooms.

A) front desk agent B) valet bellperson C) D) concierge

33) ______

34) An environment that can deliver a complete booking system tied to the hotel's inventory in real

time via the

____ __

Web is 34) called a(n)

A) Application Service Provider C) Web Reservation Systems

B) Real Time Application System D) Point of Sale System 35) ______

35) The main advantage of using an electronic door locking system is A) easy to replace B) record of who enters the room and when C) more cost efficient D) ease of employee use

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

36) List the members of the executive committee of a large hotel. What is the purpose of 36) ____________ this committee?

37) List and describe the duties of the front office manager.

37) ____________

38) Describe the duties of the night auditor.

38) ____________

39) The Hotel Walker is a luxury downtown property that includes lush suites and a five

39) ____________

star restaurant. The hotel has 750 rooms available with 680 of the rooms occupied.

What is the room occupancy percentage of Hotel Walker?

40) Hotel Walker has had a very successful weekend, booking the majority of its rooms at

40) ____________

close to rack rates. Room revenue for Saturday alone was $125,550 with 700 of the rooms sold for that evening. What was the average daily rate for Saturday at Hotel Walker?

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

41) Compare the management structure of a 300+ room resort hotel to that of a 75-room freeway hotel. Outline the reasons for the differences and discuss how one could argue that the responsibility of the general manager would be comparable in either setting.

42) Discuss the importance of keeping an accurate record of ADR and ROP. In what areas is this information used in the strategic planning of the hotel's operations?

43) List the steps in the guest cycle. Is one step more important than another? Why or why not?

44) Make an argument that the night auditor and the housekeeper are the backbone of hotel operations.

45) Discuss the concept of revenue management. Under what specific conditions can it be applied? Some critics of the concept argue that yield management is a form of legal discrimination. Do you agree or disagree?

Justify your answer.

1) D 2) A 3) C 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) C 8) A 9) C 10) B 11) A 12) D 13) B 14) A 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) A 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) A 27) D 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) D 32) D 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) Directors of HR, F and B, rooms division, security, marketing and sales, engineering, and accounting. The purpose of the committee is to compile the hotel's occupancy forecast together with all revenues and expenses to make up the budget. They meet regularly to discuss guest and employee satisfaction, TQM, occupancy forecasts, sales and marketing plans, training, renovations, ownership relations, energy conservation, recycling, new legislation, security and profitability.

37) Review night audit, previous night occupancy, average rates, compare market mix, check complimentary rooms, verify group rooms activity, review arrivals and departures, review VIP list and prepare preregistration, attend rooms divisions and operations meetings, make staffing adjustments as necessary, meet with guest service associates 38) 1. The night audit team runs a preliminary reconciliation report that shows the total revenue generated from room and tax, banquets and catering, food and beverage outlets, and other incidentals (phone, gift shop, etc.).

2. All errors on the report are investigated.

3. All changes are posted and balanced with the preliminary charges.

4. A comparison of charges is carried out, matching preliminary with actual charges.

5. Totals for credit card charges, rooms operations, food and beverages, and incidentals are verified.

6. The team "rolls the date"-they go forward to the next day.

Other any charges that the evening shift was not able to post. duties 2. Pass discrepancies to shift managers in the morning. The room and tax charges are then posted to each folio and of the a new balance shown. night 3. Run backup reports so that if the computer system fails, the hotel will have up-to-date information to operate a audit manual system. staff 4. Reconcile point-of-sale and PMS to guest accounts. If this does not balance, the auditor must balance it by includ investigating errors or omissions. This is done by checking that every departmental charge shows up on guest e the folios. follow 5. Complete and distribute the daily report. This report details the previous day's activities and includes vital ing: information about the performance of the hotel.

1. Post 6. Determine areas of the hotel where theft could potentially occur.

39) 90.6% 40) $179.36 41) Students should draw the conclusion that no matter how large a hotel is the function of the manager is basically the same. Jobs still need to get done, there are just less people to do them. The larger hotel most likely will host a food and beverage director, a director of housekeeping and a security team, whereas the smaller hotel may have vending, a limited housekeeping staff and a part-time security guard.

42) Students should acknowledge that ADR is an industry standard as is occupancy percentage. Finding out what the average for your area is critical in planning and setting and meeting goals. Also, the ROP is crucial when planning staffing needs and forecasting needs.

43) No one step is more important than another but each is critical to the end result. If a customer makes a reservation with a pleasant, helpful person at the reservation center and then checks in to find someone having a bad day, the good experience is forgotten. This is why we call the experience a "cycle." Everything plays in to one another for the complete circle.

44) The night auditor's role of billing and recording all financial transactions is critical to the financial success of the operation. The housekeeper's role of keeping the hotel aesthetically appealing is equally important. Hotel customers are interested in two primary areas, cost and cleanliness.

45) The idea of charging different prices for the same product is controversial until you place the conditions on the concept. Having a perishable item (seat on a plane) that needs to be sold or the revenue lost is a risky business.

What is wrong with an airline rewarding early buyers with lower rates?

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) All of the following are included in the Food and Beverage Division EXCEPT: 1) _______ A) banquets B) housekeeping C) room service D) stewarding 2) Labor cost benchmarks are measured by A) dividing labor costs by food costs C) comparing individual hotel food

2) _______ B) covers-per-person-hour D) food cost compared to labor cost

outlets

3) The second in command in the kitchen is called the A) sous chef B) station chef C) executive chef 4) An acceptable profit margin for food in many hotels is ________ percent A) 28-32 B) 30-35 C) 25-30

3) _______ D) chef tournant 4) _______ D) 20-25

5) The dollar differential between the cost and sales price of a menu item is called A) food cost B) contribution margin profit margin C) D) labor cost

5) _______

6) Introduced by Escoffier, this kitchen system organizes work stations more effectively.

A) Team B) Squad C) Task force D) Brigade

6) _______

7) Hotel restaurants present a challenge to Food and Beverage directors because A) guests generally prefer room service B) menus are limited C) hotel food is usually not as good as name brand establishments D) guests needs are unpredictable

7) _______

8) The sale price of a steak dinner is $22.95 and the cost is $5.45; the contribution margin is A) $17.50 B) $28.40 C) $13.72 D) 23.7%

8) _______

9) Food and Beverage Directors expect a pour cost of A) 20-27% B) 12-14% C) 16-24%

9) _______ D) 14-16%

10) The capture rate is defined as the A) number of guests drinking in the bar B) number of guests attending a banquet C) number of guests dining at the restaurant that are NOT hotel guests D) number of guests staying at the hotel who dine in the hotel's restaurant

10) ______

11) Responsibilities of the Chief Steward include which of the following?

A) Supervising the kitchen staff B) Pest control C) Cleanliness of the front of the house D) Cleanliness of guest rooms

11) ______

12) A banquet refers to A) a large group of people who eat together at one time in one place B) a dinner party in a private home

12) ______

C) A group of people eating a lunch at the zoo D) a candlelight dinner for two 13) The Catering Director normally works with the following people EXCEPT A) Food and Beverage Director B) Executive Chef Director of Sales C) D) Director of Housekeeping

13) ______

14) The cost of depleted inventory for a cocktail is $0.74 and the selling price is $3.75. What is the

14) ______

pour cost percentage?

A) 21.7%

B) 14.3%

15) Theatre style seating is best for A) a lecture C) a board meeting 16) One method to prevent pilferage in a bar is use A) coupons or tokens C) cash registers 17) Bar efficiency is measured by A) Pour/cost percentage C) profit margins on spirits 18) Room service is typically found in A) large city center hotels C) extended stay hotels

C) 19.7%

D) 23.4% 15) ______

B) a workshop D) training 16) ______ B) higher drink prices D) shoppers 17) ______ B) total bartender hours D) contribution margins 18) ______ B) midscale hotels D) freeway hotels

19) The document prepared for the catering department to follow that contains all of the critical information about the event is the A) catering event order C) catering Plan

B) chart of events D) banquet diagram

20) The hotel requires the number of guests attending a catering function at least seven days in advance. This number is called the A) certification B) pledge

19) ______

C) guarantee

D) agreement

21) Some hotels have a policy of preparing ________ % more meals than the number attending a function in order to accommodate additional people.

A) 5-7% B) 4-6% C) 3-5%

22) More hotels are converting at least one of their bar outlets to A) A sports-theme B) high-end wine bar nightclubs C) D) desert bars

20) ______

21) ______

D) 2-3% 22) ______

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

23) Why is contribution margin important? Give an example.

23) ____________ 24) What are the responsibilities of a restaurant manager?

24) ____________

25) How is the stewarding department important to the hotel operation?

25) ____________

26) Explain the significance of the catering event order (CEO).

26) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

27) Discuss the primary duties of the Director of Food and Beverage. Why is this position so critical in a full-service hotel?

28) Outline the pros and cons of hotel bars, room service and a concierge. Are these services always cost effective?

29) Describe how you would set up the room for a group of 24 business people holding a 2-hour training meeting followed by a sit-down lunch, and then a workshop requiring interaction between the presenter and the attendees. What do you see as the challenges with this event?

30) Explain how you will identify and correct a pour cost of 25.6% when the budget requires a pour cost of 22.5%. Identify what may have caused the pour cost to be this high and corrective action to bring it into line with the budget.

1) B 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) B 6) D 7) D 8) A 9) C 10) D 11) B 12) A 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) C 21) C 22) A 23) Chefs not only examine the food cost of particular items, but also examine the contribution margin of food items.

The contribution margin is the difference between the cost and the sale price of an item. The larger the contribution, the more cash can be deposited in the bank.

24) Restaurant managers are responsible for quality guest service, hiring, training, and developing employees, setting and maintaining quality standards, and presenting annual, monthly, and weekly forecasts and budgets to the food and beverage directors. In some hotel restaurants, managers may also be responsible for room service minibars and/or cocktail lounges.

25) The chief steward reports to the F&B manager and is responsible for: cleanliness of the back of the house, maintaining clean glassware, china, etc., maintaining strict inventory controls, maintaining dishwashing machines, pest control and coordination with exterminating company, and forecasting labor and cleaning supplies.

26) The Catering event order (CEO), or Banquet Event Order (BEO), is prepared and completed for each function to inform the client and the hotel personnel. It communicates essential information about the function - what needs to happen and when. It details all of the important criteria that make up the contract between guest and the hotel.

27) The role is so critical because hoteliers are in the business of selling rooms. F&B is not usually a profit center for the hotel so there needs to be someone in the position who can manage the food side in a cost effective and quality conscious manner.

28) Most full-service hotels offer a heightened level of service for their guests but those services are utilized by a small percentage of the clientele. There are many cases where the cost of a concierge is not justified but there is an expectation. So, guest services people often trade off the role so that someone is always available during peak hours. Hotel bars can be profitable if they are positioned properly and used by locals. Room service is always a gamble. To have personnel available for extended hours is a huge labor cost to be utilized so infrequently.

29) A diagram of each of the seating arrangements can be found in the text. Student answers will vary depending on their perspective. Students should focus on how the different segments will transition. Perhaps, if the hotel has room, the events might be held in different meeting rooms to accommodate the transitions.

30) The student should begin with a comprehensive list of factors that might lead to this high cost. Areas such as over-pouring bartenders, theft of spirits from outlets or storage areas, receiving and storage challenges, issuing, etc. Once a set of possibilities have been identified, corrective action might include re-training bar staff, instituting a check-and-balance system when ordering and receiving, securing the storage areas, adding a written system of issuing spirits to the outlets, installing cameras in critical locations throughout the hotel, employing spotters to

deter mine if bar staff is stealin g. The list will be endles s.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Wines with carbon dioxide produced either naturally or mechanically are known as 1) _______ A) refined B) still C) sparkling D) cuvée 2) White, rose, and red table wines are also known as A) fortified wines B) still wines C) aperitifs D) aromatic wines

2) _______

3) Cabernet sauvignon and pinot noir are types of ________ wine.

A) white B) red C) zinfandel

3) _______ D) rose

4) Pinot blanc, sauvignon blanc and Riesling are all types of ________ wine.

A) white B) red C) rose

D) zinfandel

4) _______

5) _______

5) The term, "varietal" means A) there are a variety of grapes in the bottle B) the bottle contains only "still" wine C) the bottle contains at least two types of grapes D) the label contains the name of the grape 6) In France, the wines are usually named after A) the wine region C) the name of the winemaker

6) _______ B) the village where the wine is produced D) the name of the grape

7) Any game or red meat is best served with ________ wine.

A) rose B) red C) sparkling

7) _______ D) white 8) _______

8) Champagne is best served A) only in the beginning of the meal C) anytime throughout the meal

B) immediately before dessert D) only at the end of the meal

9) Still wines are those with A) extra aging C) no carbonation

B) added color D) carbon dioxide added

9) _______

10) Methode champenoise refers to A) the type of grape used to make champagne in California B) a second fermentation in the bottle C) the color of the grape used to make champagne D) the type of glassware used to serve champagne

10) ______

11) Fortified wines have ________ added A) champagne B) wine C) color D) sugar E) brandy or wine alcohol

11) ______

12) Examples of fortified wines are A) chardonnay and champagne C) Riesling, Chablis, and Sauvignon Blanc

12) ______ B) Port, Sherry and Madeira D) cabernet and pinot noir

13) Aromatized wines are fortified and flavored with A) natural and organic vegetable juices B) grapes, stems and seeds C) herbs, flowers, bark and roots D) Port, grapes and coloring E) Madeira and Marsala

13) ______

14) Aromatic wines are known as ________, which generally are consumed before meals as a

14) ______

digestive stimulant A) aperitifs C) fortified wines

B) sparkling wines D) Chablis

15) The four characteristics of a good wine are A) soil conditions, winemaker expertise, cost of equipment, and grape quality B) the grape, the climate, the soil, and the winemaker C) the grape variety, the grape farmer, soil moisture, and the yeast variety D) climatic conditions, dry/arid soil, age of the grapevine, winemaker

15) ______

16) A good rule of thumb when paring wine and food it that A) the heavier the food, the heavier and more robust the wine should be B) champagne is only consumed after a meal, with dessert C) white wine should only be consumed with red meats that have been grilled to order D) red wine pairs well with lightly flavored foods

16) ______

17) Beer is a brewed and fermented beverage made from ________ and flavored with ________.

A) yeast; barley B) hops; grains and wheat C) malted barley, starchy cereals; hops D) grapes; fruits

17) ______

18) A(n) ________ tends to be fuller bodied and more bitter than the average beer.

A) lager B) Light beer C) pilsner D) ale

18) ______

19) ________ tends to be clear and light-bodied.

A) Hefeweizen B) Stout

19) ______ C) Lager

D) Ale 20) ______

20) A dark ale that is sweet, strong and hosts a malt flavor is known as a(n) A) lager B) stout C) pilsner

D) wheat beer

21) The most important, and abundant ingredient in beer is A) rice B) water C) wheat

D) hops

22) Spirits differ from wine and beer in that they are A) made from grapes and grain C) made only from potatoes 23) Proof is equal to A) age or vintage

21) ______

22) ______ B) fermented and then distilled D) only made from fruits 23) ______

B) the type of product used in a spirit C) twice the percentage of alcohol by volume D) a liter bottle of 80% alcohol 24) A spirit or liquor is made from a liquid that has been A) fermented and distilled B) cooked with grain or fruit C) treated with yeast D) proofed for alcohol

24) ______

25) Whisky refers to a spirit that A) is only made in Scotland B) is made from a variety of grapes combined after crushing C) the spirit that was first distilled in Scotland and Ireland centuries ago D) contain no grains or barley

25) ______

26) Gin is a white neutral spirit made using A) malted barley B) corn C) potato starch D) juniper berries E) grapes

26) ______

27) Bourbon whisky is made from A) 100% corn C) corn mixed with some rye

27) ______ B) peat smoked kilns D) barley

28) Rum is distilled from A) grapes B) potatoes or fruits C) corn syrup and hops D) fermented sugar cane juice or molasses E) wheat grain and hops

28) ______

29) Cognac is regarded as the best brandy in the world and is made A) from grapes that ripen on the vine until they are dried like raisins B) from wines that are considered vintage and grown in specific areas of Spain C) by Mêthode Champenoise, like fine champagne D) in the region of France with the same name

29) ______

30) Coffee first came from A) Central America B) Columbia C) Ethiopia and Mocha D) Europe E) Brazil

30) ______

31) A bottle of vodka costs $28.00 per liter and yields 25 each 1.25 ounce shots that sell for $7.75.

31) ______

What does this bottle bring in to liquor sales?

A) $188.25 B) $191.50 C) $195.95

D) $197.50

E) $193.75

32) A brewery and pub or restaurant that brews its own fresh beer on site to meet the taste of local customers is called a

32) ______

A) night club

B) brew pub

C) micropub

D) microbrewery

33) Legislation that governs the sale of alcoholic beverages is known as A) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration legislation B) federal liquor laws C) county liquor laws D) liquor license laws E) dram shop legislation

33) ______

34) One reasonable way in which a restaurant or bar owner can show responsible service of

34) ______

alcoholic beverages is to A) promote a one drink per person policy C) provide training programs like ServSafe

B) stop serving alcohol after dinner hours D) promote two for one happy hours

35) By providing training on the responsible service of alcoholic beverages to servers and

35) ______

bartenders a business owner will A) reduce bar profits due to less drinks served B) limit wine sales to half bottles only C) potentially lower liability insurance rates D) serve the appropriate number of shooters to customers

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

36) List the ways in which wine may be classified.

36) ____________ 37) What are the six steps in wine production?

37) ____________

38) Define the following terms associated with beer making; hops, wort, malt, lager and ale

38) ____________

39) Where do the different types of tea originate? Provide two examples of types of tea

39) ____________

from each location.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

40) Discuss dram shop legislation, what it is, how it works and the benefits of training versus having these laws.

41) Explain the traditional concept of matching wine with food.

42) Differentiate between the United States and Europe wine labeling. How do the two wine regions label their wines? List some examples.

43) Your restaurant just received a citation from your Liquor License Enforcement Agency for serving to underage individuals. Devise a short-term solution to correct the problem and ensure your service staff follows the laws regarding service of alcoholic spirits.

1) C 2) B 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) B 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) B 11) E 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) B 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) D 27) C 28) D 29) D 30) C 31) E 32) B 33) E 34) C 35) C 36) Color, vintage, varietal, still, sparkling, fortified, aromatic, regional, etc. There are major classifications as well as many sub-categories.

37) Crushing, fermenting, racking, maturing, filtering, and bottling.

38) Hops is the flower of a vine that adds bitterness to beer Wort is the liquid that is fermented into beer, containing hops, water, yeast, malt and grain Malt is germinated barley Yeast is what causes the fermentation process--brewers yeast, forms carbon dioxide Lager is a clear light bodied refreshing beer Ale is fuller bodied and more bitter, darker than lager 39) China: Oolong, Orange pekoe India: Darjeeling, Assams, Dooars Indonesia: Java, Sumatra 40) Dram shop is legislation that governs the sale of alcoholic beverages. These laws or civil damage acts, were enacted in the 1850s and dictated that owners and operators of drinking establishments are liable for injuries caused by intoxicated customers. Most states do not have dram shop legislation. Rather they advocate training developed by national and state restaurant and hotel associations (like ServSafe).

41) Over the years, traditions have developed a how-to approach to the marrying of wines and food. Generally, the following traditions apply: ∙ White wine is best served with white meat (chicken, pork, or veal), shellfish, and fish. ∙ Red wine is best served with red meat (beef, lamb, duck, or game). ∙ The heavier the food, the heavier and more robust the wine should be. ∙ Champagne can be served throughout the meal. ∙ Port and red wine go well with cheese. ∙ Dessert wines best complement desserts and fresh fruits that are not highly acidic. ∙ When a dish is cooked with wine, it is best served with that wine. ∙ Regional food is best complemented by wines of the region. ∙ Wines should never accompany salads with vinegar dressings, or curries; the tastes will clash or be overpowering. ∙ Sweet wines should be served with foods that are not too sweet.

42) In the United States, we label wines by their varietal grape and include the name of their region on the label. In Europe, wines tend to be labeled regionally rather than by varietal. The wine label on the front of the bottle generally has five headings: 1. The name of the vineyard 2. The grape variety 3. The growing area 4. The vintage 5. The producer Wine labels are helpful in telling you a lot about what is in the bottle. Most wine bottles have two labels applied to each bottle. The front label is meant to attract your attention, while the back label may be used to provoke your senses.

43) The focus should be on training all alcohol-serving staff members. Locate either a national or local service that provides authorized alcohol training to service staff. The National Restaurant Association and the American Hotel & Lodging Association might have training available to members or a national program developed by ServSafe trains and promotes responsible alcohol service. The training should include setting up records that ensure all service staff receives alcohol training on a regular basis (sometimes state regulated) and the certifications are kept on file for inspection.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The average household spends about what percent of their food dollar away from home?

1) _______ A) 50.0% B) 25.0% C) 33.0% D) 40.0% 2) With chain restaurants most of the important managerial decisions are made A) Local management B) At the district level C) At the corporate level D) By the franchise owner

2) _______

3) The word restaurant is a French word meaning to A) refuel B) respond

3) _______ C) restore

4) The ________ are credited with the "Culinary Arts."

A) Austrians B) Germans C) French

D) rest 4) _______ D) British

5) ________ simplified French cooking and reduced the number of sauces to five "mother sauces."

A) Auguste Escoffier B) Julia Child C) Charlie Trotter D) Marie-Antoine Carême

5) _______

6) "Nouvelle cuisine" translates into what?

A) new creation B) lighter cuisine

6) _______ C) creative foods

D) new ideas

7) ________ are operations owned by one or more owners who are usually involved with day to day operations of the business.

A) Chains C) Franchises

7) _______

B) Independent restaurants D) Fast food restaurants

8) Groups of restaurants identical in market, concept, design, service, food and name are know as A) quick-service restaurants B) chains ethnic restaurants C) D) multi-owner independent restaurants

8) _______

9) Franchises are most often affiliated with A) ethnic restaurants C) dinner houses

9) _______ B) chains D) independent ownership

10) The founders of classical cuisine are A) Marie Antoine Carême and Auguste Escoffier B) Alice Waters and Julia Child C) Thomas Jefferson and Auguste Escoffier D) Julia Child and James Beard

10) ______

11) Noise level, sounds, decorations, table settings, and other subconscious cues a customer

11) ______

receives when entering a restaurant collectively make up the A) demographics B) niche C) ambience D) location E) environment

12) A(n) ________ menu offers items that are individually priced.

A) a la carte B) du jour C) cyclical D) tourist E) table d' hote

12) ______

13) A(n) ________ menu offer a selection of one or more items for each course at a fixed price.

A) a la carte B) cyclical C) table d' hote D) tourist E) du jour

13) ______

14) A(n) ________ menu repeat themselves after a period of time A) a la carte B) tourist C) du jour D) table d' hote E) cyclical

14) ______

15) The ________ must harmonize with the theme of the restaurant.

A) kitchen equipment B) kitchen layout C) cooks D) menu

15) ______

16) The classification of restaurant categorized by price, decor, atmosphere, higher level of

16) ______

formality, and a menu made from scratch using quality fresh ingredients is A) fusion B) casual C) fine dining

D) family

17) The target market and concept, to a large extent, will determine the A) menu prices B) contribution margin rental/lease costs C) D) food cost percentage

17) ______

18) Fusion restaurants are A) French in style C) a blend of two cuisines

18) ______ B) dinner houses D) fast food establishments

19) TGI Friday's, Houlihan's and Bennigan's are examples of A) ethnic restaurants B) fusion restaurants C) dinner house theme restaurants D) celebrity-owned restaurants

19) ______

20) Ponderosa, Bonanza, Chart House and Outback are examples of A) fast food restaurants B) steak houses C) fine dining restaurants D) celebrity-owned restaurants

20) ______

21) Good examples of casual dining restaurants are A) Chipotle's and Baja Fresh C) McDonalds and Burger King

21) ______

22) Most ethnic restaurants are

B) Ruth's Chris and Morton's Steak House D) Macaroni Grill and Red Lobster 22) ______

A) family style C) franchised 23) Family restaurants evolved from the A) fusion restaurant C) coffee shop style restaurant

B) independently owned and operated D) celebrity owned 23) ______ B) steak house D) ethnic restaurant

24) Which of the following is a considered a themed restaurant?

A) McDonald's B) Kentucky Fried Chicken C) Rainforest Cafe D) Chipotle's

24) ______

25) Examples of quick-service/fast food restaurants are A) Ruth's Chris and Chart House B) Outback and Red Lobster C) TGI Friday's and Cheeseburger in Paradise D) Pizza Hut, KFC, and Subway

25) ______

26) Quick service restaurants have increased in popularity because of A) diverse cuisine B) their location strategies C) tasty food D) extensive menus

26) ______

27) Quick service restaurants have basically saturated the market. One strategy some QSR are

27) ______

using to increase sales is A) offering alcoholic beverages B) serving higher quality food C) hiring very skilled labor to enhance quality D) co-branding at stores and nontraditional locations

28) The ________ may be the most important ingredient in a restaurant's success.

A) staff B) kitchen C) manager D) menu

28) ______

29) Chinese, Spanish, Thai, Indian and Mediterranean are all examples of ________ restaurants.

A) casual dining B) quick service C) ethnic D) family

29) ______

30) Quick service restaurants are also known as A) fast food B) dinner house

30) ______

31) The most important goal in planning a menu is to A) minimize product storage C) keep costs low

C) casual dining

D) ethnic dining 31) ______

B) price the menu with profit in mind D) accommodate the needs of the guest

32) ________ operates on the principle that food costs are not as important as total contribution margin.

A) Costing and pricing C) Menu layout

32) ______

B) Staffing D) Menu engineering

33) ________ is the fastest growing segment of the ethnic market.

A) Thai B) Chinese C) Mediterranean 34) Theme restaurants are particularly appealing because they A) usually offer an extensive menu

33) ______ D) Mexican 34) ______

B) offer haute cuisine C) offer a total experience and a social meeting place D) are usually located in the suburbs 35) ______

35) Which of the following is a current trend in restaurant service?

A) Fewer twin and multiple locations B) Less competition from convenient stores

C) Focus on social media

D) Limited points of service

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

36) Compare and contrast independent restaurants and chain restaurants 36) ____________ 37) Briefly discuss the evolution of classical cuisine to the United States. Include those

37) ____________

individuals responsible for its legacy.

38) List five classifications of restaurants and briefly describe each

38) ____________

39) List five trends in the restaurant industry and discuss what they mean to you and how

39) ____________

they affect the business

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

40) Discuss the importance of matching the restaurant's concept to the location.

41) List the five facets that influence a restaurant's menu prices. Which do you think has the greatest impact?

Justify your answer.

42) Discuss the phenomena of celebrity-themed restaurants. Why do some fail and some succeed?

43) List and describe six main types of menus. Identify where each might be used.

44) Pricing is one of the most critical elements of designing the menu. Discuss some of the elements of designing a menu for your new independent, themed restaurant.

1) A 2) C 3) C 4) C 5) A 6) B 7) B 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) A 13) C 14) E 15) D 16) C 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) C 25) D 26) B 27) D 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) D 33) D 34) C 35) C 36) Independent-typically owned by one or more owners, usually involved in the day-to-day activities. If owners own more than one store they operate independently. Not affiliated with any national brand or name. Owner realizes all risks and opportunities. Owner is independent, can be creative and flexible.

Chain-rapid expansion due to franchising; using other people's money for growth. These groups of restaurants share markets, concepts, design, service, food, and name. The marketing strategy of a chain is to remove uncertainty from the dining experience-consistency is all but guaranteed from one location to another 37) Classical cuisines roots are in France. Two main events were responsible for the United States' culinary legacy from France. The French revolution in 1793-French chefs lost jobs or had the freedom to look for new jobs abroad.

Thomas Jefferson spent five years as an envoy to France and brought a French chef to the White House when he became president. This stimulated interest in French cuisine and enticed U.S. restaurateurs to offer better quality and more interesting cuisine. Carême is credited as being the founder of classical cuisine and Escoffier was known as the chef of kings.

38) Fine dining Theme Celebrity Steak house

Casua Family l Ethnic dining Quick service/fast food 39) Social media based marketing Sustainability and local foods Concerns over public health Environmental responsibility Globalizing the menu Locally sourced foods Healthful kids menus 40) The example in the textbook depicts the relationship between the concept and the market. The important factors dealing with location are listed in the text.

41) What is the competition charging?

What is food cost?

What is cost of labor?

What are other costs involved?

What profit is expected?

What is the contribution margin?

42) This trend has taken hold of many tourism-driven areas in the past 5 years. New Orleans (Emeril Lagasse), Las Vegas (Wolfgang Puck), and Miami (Jennifer Lopez, Britney Spears) are popular areas for celebrity restaurants.

Also, themed establishments like Planet Hollywood, Hard Rock Cafe, Fashion Cafe, and the NASCAR Cafe have found their niche markets. These facilities are not always profitable in the long haul. The ones that offer a quality product on a consistent basis are the ones that tend to last.

43) A la carte; offer items that are individually priced Table d'hote, offer a selection of one or more items for each course at a fixed price. This type of menu is used more frequently in hotels and in Europe. The advantage is the perception guests have of receiving good values.

Du jour, list the items of the day Tourist menu, are used to attract tourists' attention. They frequently stress value and food that is acceptable to the tourists California, are so named because, in some California restaurants, guest may order any item on the Menu any time of the day (sometimes called a static menu) Cyclical menu, repeat themselves over a period of time 44) The target market and concept determines the menu pricing. There are two main ways to price menus: A comparative approach analyzes the price ranges of the competition and determines the price range for appetizers, entrées, and desserts. The second method is to cost the individual dish item on the menu and multiply it by the ratio amount necessary to achieve the desired food cost percentage.

Menu engineering is a sophisticated approach to setting menu prices and controlling costs. It operates on the principle that the food cost percentage of each menu item is not as important as the total contribution margin of the menu as a whole.

A menu is a sales tool and motivational device. A menu's design can affect what guests order and how much they spend.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) There are ________ accounting periods per fiscal year in a typical restaurant.

1) _______ A) 13 B) 12 C) 11 D) 10 2) The person usually responsible for greeting and seating guests and to rotate arriving guests among the dining room stations is the A) waiter or waitress C) general manager

3) A "cover" is also known as A) a hat B) a table

2) _______

B) valet D) greeter or hostess or host 3) _______ C) an entree

D) a guest

4) Curbside appeal includes A) the speed of service B) the appearance of the property from the parking lot to the restrooms C) a well equipped kitchen D) the style of the menu

4) _______

5) The average guest check is calculate by A) weekly sales divided by the forecasted sales B) food sales divided by the number of entrees sold in a period C) dividing total sales by the number of tables used during a meal period D) dividing total sales by the number of guests

5) _______

6) If total sales are $2550.00 and 110 guests were served, the average guest check would be A) $15.82 B) $11.25 C) $19.50 D) $23.18

6) _______

7) Forecasting sales has two components, A) guest counts or covers, and average check amount B) average check amount and total sales C) total sales and average entrée price D) food budget and guest counts or covers

7) _______

8) Describing, recommending, showing and offering a variety of food and beverage choices to a

8) _______

guest is known as A) serving C) order taking

B) sales competition D) suggestive selling

9) Forecasting is used A) for determining all expenditures B) for sales projections, staff levels, and cost percentages C) to estimate profits D) to determine staff efficiency

9) _______

10) American Service refers to A) more formal dining C) number of servers

10) ______ B) style of the menu D) less formal, yet professionally served

11) The "back of the house" is usually run by the A) service manager C) kitchen manager

11) ______ B) expeditor D) sous chef

12) The first step in creating ________ is to count the product on hand for each station.

A) production sheets B) food cost percentages C) contribution margin D) cost containment

12) ______

13) The ________ is the most important part of the kitchen layout.

A) stove tops B) prep line C) cooking line

13) ______ D) food line

14) Personal digital assistants (PDAs) are usually used by A) accountants B) managers employers to track hours C) D) restaurant servers

14) ______

15) Organization and performance on the cooking line as well as good results depend on A) sales forecast B) the back-of-the-house manager C) servers D) teamwork

15) ______

16) Management can make an immediate impact on the quality of operations through A) promotions B) good relationships with guests C) staff recognition D) retaining employees

16) ______

17) Setting up purchasing systems that determine standards for each item involves creating A) cost analysis projections B) prime costs C) sales projections D) product specification sheets

17) ______

18) Production sheets serve which of the following purposes?

A) Determine projected sales B) Inventory the product used the day before C) Serve as the key to consistency and food quality D) Determine production level for day before

18) ______

19) Production sheet calculations include A) costs of food C) counting products on-hand

19) ______ B) expected daily sales D) number of workers in the kitchen

20) The person responsible for ordering should never be the A) same person B) chef C) line cook

20) ______ D) manager

21) Placing the most recent purchases , in rotation, behind previous purchases is called A) FIFA B) LIFA C) FIFO D) LIFO

21) ______

22) Prime cost is A) food and overhead costs C) food and beverage costs

22) ______

23) Product specification determines A) how to order food C) temperature and humidity

B) food and labor cost D) labor and overhead costs 23) ______ B) cut of meat, weight, fat, etc.

D) the cost of the food item

24) A par stock A) indicates who is responsible for ordering B) is the level to keep on hand C) is a record of product received D) is the total on hand E) is the reorder procedure

24) ______

25) Strict controls on food inventory is important for A) cost and waste records C) health department regulations

25) ______ B) creating product specifications D) receiving, storing, dating, and using

26) The contribution margin is the A) cost of a menu item B) food cost percentage C) contribution the business can afford to give to charity D) the gross profit made from a menu item E) difference between revenue and net profit

26) ______

27) Food cost percentage is defined as A) Food sales divided by food cost times 100 B) labor cost plus food cost divided by sales times 100 C) food cost minus labor cost divided by food sales times 100 D) food cost divided by food sales times 100

27) ______

28) The Beacon Drive Inn had food sales of $45,000, an opening inventory of $8,000, purchases of

28) ______

$13,000 and an ending inventory of $9,000. What was the food cost percentage?

A) 26.3% B) 27.3% C) 27.6% D) 26.7%

29) ______

29) Combined food and labor costs are known as A) prime costs C) variable costs

B) fixed costs D) controllable costs

30) Average beverage cost percentage runs A) 24-30% B) 18-24%

C) 12-16%

30) ______

31) The cost of a lease should be ________ to ________ percent of sales.

A) 10, 18 B) 2, 6 C) 7, 14 32) Which of the following is NOT a cost that management can control?

A) Rent B) Food cost C) Beverage cost

D) 16-18% 31) ______ D) 5, 8 32) ______ D) Labor cost

33) How is food cost percentage calculated?

A) Cost of food sales divided by net profit B) Cost of food sold divided by food sales C) Food sales minus beverage sales divided by sales D) Food cost plus beverage cost divided by sales

33) ______

34) If total food sales are $50,000 and the cost of food sold is $16,500 the food cost percent is A) 38.0% B) 20.0% C) 25.0% D) 33.0%

34) ______

35) If beverage sales are $25,600 and beverage costs are $7,500 the beverage cost percent is A) 32.9% B) 20.6% C) 29.3% D) 30.4%

35) ______

36) Which of the following costs is typically the highest cost in operating a restaurant?

A) Food B) Labor C) Beverage D) Liquor

36) ______

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

37) What are the seven suggested steps to take in table service?

37) ____________ 38) What are five reasons for setting up a purchasing system?

38) ____________

39) What are three concepts or ideas that could be used for suggestive selling?

39) ____________

40) Forecasting restaurant sales has two components. Identify and describe or define each.

40) ____________

41) Discuss the relationship between the purchase order and receiving.

41) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

42) What is the primary difference between the front of the house and the back of the house?

43) Explain the importance of forecasting. What are the pros and cons of relying solely on past performance to predict future performance?

44) Why is the purchasing, receiving, storing, and issuing cycle so critical to the financial stability of a foodservice facility?

45) Discuss the merits of installing a cash register or a P.O.S. system in your restaurant. List and describe several positive and/or negative challenges in making your choice.

1) A 2) D 3) D 4) B 5) D 6) D 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) D 11) C 12) A 13) C 14) D 15) D 16) C 17) D 18) C 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) B 24) B 25) D 26) D 27) D 28) D 29) A 30) B 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) B 37) Greet the guests Introduce and suggestively sell beverages Suggest appetizers Take orders Check to see that everything is to the guests liking within two bites of the entrees Ask if the guest would like another drink Bring out dessert tray/cart and suggest after dinner drinks and coffee 38) To develop standards for each item; product specifications To minimize effort and maximize control of loss (theft, pilferage or spoilage) and losses from other sources To determine the amount of each item that should be on hand (par stock and reorder point) To determine who will do the buying and keep the purchasing system in motion To determine who will do the receiving, storage and issuing of items 39) Dessert tray or cart Table tents Special wine or entree suggestions

Up-sel Guiding the guest through the dining experience ling 40) Guest counts or covers -the number of guests patronizing the restaurant over a given period of time Average guest check; determined by dividing total sales for a time period by number of guests served in the same period 41) Using the product specifications, a purchase order is generated to order a specific quantity and quality of product from a vendor that has been designated by the restaurant. The order is then delivered and the product is checked to ensure it matches the purchase order for product specifications and price.

42) The primary difference is that customers can see what happens in the front of the house. There is a trend towards a more open kitchen but the challenge is to create synergy between the front and the back.

43) Everything is based on forecasting. Staffing, budgeting, marketing, and every other kind of planning is based on the forecast. The challenge of only using past performance to predict future performance is that it does not take into account any new events or strategies the company may have implemented.

44) This process is critical in that your inventory is the basis of your bottom line. The degree to which you manage your inventory and decrease spoilage and keep theft and misuse to a minimum, your profit margin will increase.

45) A cash register is able to track limited data on a macro level. A P.O.S. system is used to track cash and other forms of payment but also is able to track all food and beverage sales on a micro scale. A P.O.S. is also able to interface with other terminals and the back office systems. Back-of-the-house systems are also known as product management systems and include inventory control and food costing, labor management, and financial reporting features. P.O.S. is considerably more expensive but able to overcome its expense in a very short period of time.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Managed foodservice differs from commercial foodservice in that 1) _______ A) commercial foodservice includes restaurants only B) managed foodservice includes only restaurants C) managed foodservice is contracted D) both are used to describe foodservice in hotels E) commercial includes only chain restaurants 2) Which of the following would be considered a disadvantage of using managed contract

2) _______

services?

A) Experience in size and types of operations B) May be perceived as institutional C) Resources and support available D) Variety of services

3) Which of the following is NOT usually included in managed services?

A) Colleges and universities B) Hotel cafeteria Airports C) D) Prisons

3) _______

4) Compared to commercial operations, managed services have the advantage of A) focusing exclusively on the guest B) being able to predict the number of meals and portion sizes C) busier weekends D) putting out all the food at the same time.

4) _______

5) Inflight foodservice refers to A) food service onboard aircraft B) chain restaurant foodservice establishments in airports C) airport kiosks D) airport terminal foodservice

5) _______

6) Airlines regard inflight foodservice as A) a way to promote business in chain restaurants in airports B) a way to test new menu items for use in partner chain businesses C) an expense that needs to be controlled, resulting in less food served onboard D) a major profit center with their business

6) _______

7) Inflight foodservice management operators A) plan menus, develop products specifications and arrange purchasing contracts B) develop specific tours for major commercial airlines and their partners C) can only contract with an airline if the airport facility provides customer foodservice D) prepare food for airlines as well as select airport restaurants

7) _______

8) Examples of the types of service a company like Sodexho might provide include A) nutrition consultation with fast food companies like McDonalds B) Sanitation and chemical services C) preventive maintenance contracts with independent restaurant owners in rural areas

8) _______

D) housekeeping, groundskeeping and plant operations 9) Sodexho, a leading food and facilities management services company in North America deals

9) _______

primarily in the areas of serving A) chain restaurant food service B) schools, health care, government, and corporate C) fast food restaurants D) airport terminal kiosks E) independently owned commercial operations

10) Which one is a major challenge in elementary and secondary school foodservice?

A) Balancing saleability with good nutrition B) Achieving acceptance of students C) Offering free meals D) Reducing carbohydrates

10) ______

11) Businesses use managed food services for many reasons, one of which is that A) quality and financial arrangements are better B) food service is not practical C) they invest in the food service company D) they don't like to cook

11) ______

12) Military food service is interested in management companies mostly to A) not cook for field troops B) save time C) save money and be more efficient D) have better diets E) make the quality better

12) ______

13) A popular trend in military foodservice that offers alternatives to its personnel is A) MREs that can be cooked a variety of ways, including grilled and braised B) more seafood choices in MREs C) a wide selection of meal choices and menu items D) McDonalds, Burger Kings and other QSR's on military bases

13) ______

14) In terms of managed services, feeding military personnel includes A) feeding troops on the battle field B) off premise catering to meet non-military public needs C) full service upscale foodservice on military bases D) feeding troops, officers in clubs, dining halls and military hospitals

14) ______

15) Schools that participate in the National School Lunch Program are able to take advantage of A) a direct line of contact and reduced costs with fast food chains B) higher profits for each school that participates and highly nutritious foods C) a higher quality food product, similar to that served in restaurants D) federal funding in the amount of about $2.72 per meal per student

15) ______

16) Elementary and secondary schools may participate or not in the National School Lunch

16) ______

Program. Participating allows the school to A) save money when federally funded B) control fat intake

C) create better diets D) get better food E) have more variety in food 17) Some of the driving forces and trends with college campus foodservice are A) McDonalds and Burger King Visa bank cards B) students pay one fee for all meals each day, whether they eat them or not C) branded concepts, privatization, campus cards and computer use D) programs similar to the National School Lunch Program

17) ______

18) The rationale behind the enactment of the National School Lunch Act of 1946 was A) students could be trained like military recruits B) More crops could be imported from foreign farmers C) fast food opportunities at schools could be increased D) if students received good meals, the military would have healthier recruits

18) ______

19) ________ is the process of producing food in large-quantities for consumption within fixed time

19) ______

periods.

A) consignment cooking C) mass pre-processing

B) contract production D) batch cooking

20) If foodservice expenses for one semester of 101 days amount to $695,000 for an operation with 1100 students eating the daily rate would be A) $7.65 B) $8.95

C) $6.25

20) ______

D) $5.50

21) Colleges are more diverse in their food service operations A) because costs may be prohibitive B) because the schedules of students are varied C) because there are many places and occasions for food service D) because the hours might be long E) so students are not bored with the same food

21) ______

22) Budgeting is easier with on campus college foodservice because A) students have prepaid for their meals and their numbers are easier to forecast B) there are few venues that provide foodservice on college campuses C) all the food is very inexpensive D) students do not expect great food, so costs can be lowered to accommodate that trend

22) ______

23) In college campus foodservice, the daily rate refers to the amount of A) student and faculty necessary to realize a profit each week, based on the number of days

23) ______

in a semester

B) number of meal plans offered to students who live on campus C) food needed to prepare each day D) money required per day from each person to pay for the foodservice 24) In an effort to increase cash sales and to manage profitability, managers of health care operations have become more resourceful by A) decreasing portion sizes of meals served to staff and patients in medical care facilities B) developing concepts like medical malls with retail shops, bakeries, catering and restaurants C) adding an extra charge to service users not affiliated with the medical facility

24) ______

D) charging more for cafeteria food and eliminating discounts to staff 25) Responsibilities in managed services do NOT include A) building and grounds B) safety administration C) employee relations D) human resource management E) financial budgeting

25) ______

26) The main focus of hospital foodservice is the A) MREs C) tray line

26) ______ B) uniform standards D) speed of service

27) Health care foodservice labor costs range from A) 55-66% B) 45-50%

C) 30-40%

27) ______ D) 20-25%

28) The leisure and recreation segment of managed services includes A) business and industry B) chain and fast food contract services C) secondary schools and colleges D) stadiums, arenas and parks

28) ______

29) Some hospitals have adopted a concept for patients whose diets are not restricted A) ala carte menu B) on-call menu C) room service menu D) take-out menu

29) ______

30) Companies that operate their own food service operations are called A) self-operators B) liaison personnel C) contractors D) commercially-branded restaurants

30) ______

31) Hospitals are trending toward offering A) high-end formal cuisine outlets C) more casual, fast foods

31) ______ B) vending machines D) handmade pizzas

32) Managed services contractors have about ________ of the Business and Industry market A) 80% B) 70% C) 90% D) 60%

32) ______

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

33) List five features that distinguish managed services from commercial foodservice.

33) ____________ 34) What are five reasons a company or organization might contract its food or other

34) ____________

services with a managed service company?

35) Using the following figures calculate the daily rate or amount of money required per

35) ____________

day from each person to pay for foodservice: foodservice expenses for one semester of 105 days amounts to $695,000 for an operation with 1350 students using the facilities.

You must show your work to receive full credit.

36) What are nine general areas of responsibility of a managed services manager?

36) ____________

37) How are soldiers fed while in the field? What do they eat?

37) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

38) Managed services are thought of as being one of the most lucrative areas of foodservice. Why is this facet more likely to thrive financially?

39) Discuss the impact the National School Lunch Act of 1946 had on managed services in the elementary and secondary schools.

40) Outline the scope of college and university foodservice. What are the advantages of managing a college dining hall versus a commercial restaurant.

41) Your company is large enough that employees have been asking for an in-house food service (cafeteria) to supply lunches so employees don't have to go out during lunch. Create a list of positives and negatives to help you make a decision whether you should hire a managed food service company or provide the service yourself.

1) C 2) B 3) B 4) B 5) A 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) C 13) D 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) C 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) C 27) A 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) A 33) In a restaurant the challenge is to please the guest, whereas managed services must please the client as well. In some operations the guest may or may not have alternative dining options available to them and are a captive clientele. These guests may be eating at the foodservice operation only once or on a daily basis. Many managed operations are housed in host organizations that do not have foodservice as their primary business. Most managed service operations produce food in large quantity batches for service and consumption within fixed periods of time.

The volume of business is more consistent and therefore easier to cater; it is easier to predict the number of meals and portion sizes. The atmosphere is less hurried that of a restaurant.

34) Financial reasons-there is increased pressure to either break even or make a profit.

Quality of program-if providing food is not the primary task of the company, quality probably suffers.

Recruitment of management and staff-contractors have the expertise and skills to manage food service personnel much better.

Expertise in management and of service operations-contractors have hundreds or even thousands of similar operations and are mire capable of managing these tasks.

Resources available; like people, management systems, labor relations, IT-contractors have developed support for the management of food service operations and are better equipped to do so.

35) = $4.90

36) Employee relations, human resource management, financial/budgeting, safety administration, foodservice production/service, sanitation and FBI prevention, Purchasing, and Staff training/development.

37) Technological advances mean that field troops do not eat out of tin cans anymore; instead, they receive their food portions in plastic-and-foil pouches called meals ready-to-eat (MREs).

38) This topic is discussed throughout the chapter. One of the primary reasons managed services are so lucrative is the concept of a captive audience. In a hospital, on an airplane, or in prison, the customer base is not given a list of choice of food service providers. The clientele is already determined. The managed food service company has contractual rights as the only provider on the property.

39) This 1946 legislation turned the focus onto nutritious meals for school age children. The government mandated that meals for children meet the federal dietary guidelines. The rationale was that if students received good meals, the military would have healthier recruits. In addition, the program would make use of surplus food that farmers produced.

40) The scope of college services ranges from regular dining services to food court-type facilities. Also included can be vending services, catering, special events, etc. Budgeting is made easier because the on campus students have already paid for their meals and their numbers are easy to forecast therefore planning and scheduling are easier.

41) The list should include areas such as: Financial-how will the program effect costs? Hiring a managed food service company would not cost the company anything whereas setting up our own restaurant service would be very expensive.

Quality of program-can another company do it better?

Recruitment of management and staff-add to our payroll or the managed food service company would be responsible for all hiring and management.

Expertise in management of service departments-The managed food service company are experts…we are not in the food business.

Resources available: people, programs, management systems, and information systems-they have the resources…we do not.

Labor relations and other support-they handle all labor from hiring to training, etc.

Outsourcing of administrative functions-Our expense or their business.

In short, they are in the business to supply food services and we are not. The discussion should include a financial component. How do we minimize the costs and maximize the benefit?

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) A person who spends less than a year traveling to places other than their usual environment is 1) _______ known as a A) sightseer

B) traveler

2) The greatest global employment opportunity is A) education C) health

C) tourist

D) resident 2) _______

B) computer systems D) tourism

3) Travel is on the increase and expected to continue to increase in the coming years due to A) fewer college graduates B) increased cost of travel C) lower incomes D) longer life span

3) _______

4) The leading international organization in the field of travel and tourism is A) Worldwide Tour Operations B) Western Tours Organization C) World Tourism Organization D) World Trade Organization

4) _______

5) What organization supports the World Tourism Organization?

A) United Nations B) Automobile Association of America United States C) D) Hotel Motel Association

5) _______

6) Interdependency between various segments of the hospitality industry means A) when airlines lower fares, tourism increases B) all segments are very independent and do not rely on one another at all C) tourism has little effect on other segments of the industry D) each segment, to an extent, depends on another for business

6) _______

7) Travel in the middle ages was mostly for A) health C) pleasure

7) _______ B) religious reasons D) education

8) Rail travel in the United States was established around A) 1830's B) 1910's C) 1870's

8) _______ D) 1930's

9) The benefits of the hub-and-spoke system include all of the following EXCEPT: A) larger capacity planes can be used B) passengers can travel from smaller city to smaller city via the hub C) airlines can provide services at lower costs D) passenger loads can be maximized

9) _______

10) One of the greatest influences on tourism is A) interdependency C) geography

10) ______ B) airlines D) national tourism

11) The airline industry, like other segments of the hospitality industry, rely on ________ markets as a source of business A) feeder

B) international

C) central

D) economic

11) ______

12) When major airline carriers eliminated unprofitable routes, it was replaced with A) the hub and spoke system B) alliance or partner airlines Amtrak C) D) rental cars

12) ______

13) Since the recent economic recession, business travelers A) stay shorter periods of time yet spend more money B) continue to spend less money C) spend more time traveling to cities in the U.S. D) stay longer and spend more money

13) ______

14) New money spent by tourist and then re-spent by hotels and restaurants in the community for

14) ______

goods and services is known as A) the ripple effect C) disposable income

15) The largest expense for most airlines is A) labor C) the cost of fuel

B) the multiplier effect D) a tax exemption 15) ______ B) the cost of airplanes D) landing fees at airports

16) The pleasure traveler constitutes what percentage of the rental car market?

A) 40% B) 30% C) 20% D) 10%

16) ______

17) Most cruise ships are registered under a foreign flag or government because A) foreign government visas are easier to obtain B) the taxes are either very low or non-existent C) most cruise ship passengers originate in foreign countries D) the U.S. limits the size of cruise ships

17) ______

18) Tour operators A) bring together tourists and rental companies B) are a middle person acting as a travel counselor on behalf of airlines, cruise lines, and

18) ______

hotels C) promote tours and trips that they plan and organize D) act in the same capacity as travel agents

19) Travel agents A) act in the same capacity as tour operators B) promote tours and trips that they plan and organize C) bring together tourists and rental companies D) are a middle person acting as a travel counselor on behalf of airlines, cruise lines, and

19) ______

hotels

20) Which of the following would be considered business travel?

A) Gaming B) River boat excursion C) Ecotourism D) Trade shows and expositions

20) ______

21) Business travelers stay over a Saturday night when they travel in order to A) take advantage of lower weekend hotel rates B) have a long weekend on the company's budget C) have quiet time to complete essential work tasks

21) ______

D) take advantage of lower airfares 22) The following are all considered part of the social and cultural impact of tourism on destinations EXCEPT: A) heightened cultural awareness C) lower rates of employment

22) ______

B) pollution D) damage to cultural artifacts

23) Ecotourism refers to A) geological digs for a fee B) dude ranches C) an emphasis on nature and native cultures D) visiting areas of a country that have the greatest impact on the economy

23) ______

24) The world's largest travel market is A) United States B) France

24) ______

25) The largest single cost for airline operations is A) fuel C) labor

C) Asia Pacific

D) Italy 25) ______

B) advertising and marketing D) terminal landing fees

26) Sustainable tourism A) places a broad-based obligation on society B) causes a decline in tourism C) has little effect on society D) is based primarily in Africa

26) ______

27) One yield management technique for maximizing sales income by lowering the price of seats

27) ______

according to expected demand is A) feeder market analysis C) capacity control

28) Ecotourism is synonymous with A) sustainable tourism C) infrastructure 29) Most ecotourism destinations can be found in A) developing countries C) inner cities

B) revenue streaming D) load factoring 28) ______ B) business travel D) train travel 29) ______ B) Africa and South America D) urban areas

30) An example of a popular ecotourism destination is A) Chicago B) Las Vegas C) Disney World 31) The cruise market has accommodated about ________ of Americans A) 27% B) 37% C) 17% 32) Cultural tourism is motivated by A) health and fitness opportunities B) lifestyle and heritage offerings of a community C) business travel D) infrastructure

30) ______ D) Costa Rica 31) ______ D) 23% 32) ______

33) Cultural tourism or World Heritage sites are often designated by A) The American Hotel and Lodging Association B) Sustainable Tourism Advisory Board C) United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization D) United Nations World Tourism Organization

33) ______

34) The country that is number one in world-wide tourism revenue is A) The United States B) France C) Spain D) Italy

34) ______

35) Cities often establish an organization to attract and retain visitors. This is called A) Destination Management Company B) Convention and Visitors Bureau C) State Office of Tourism D) National Office of Tourism

35) ______

36) This type of tourism is motivated by historic preservation; a combination of natural, cultural,

36) ______

and architectural environment.

A) Heritage Tourism B) Volunteer tourism C) Cultural tourism D) Nature tourism E) Medical tourism

37) Which major tourist country destination does NOT have a cabinet level official for tourism?

A) The United States B) Spain C) France D) Italy

37) ______

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

38) What are two main benefits of the airline hub and spoke system?

38) ____________ 39) List and describe three promoters of tourism.

39) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

40) Compare the reasons people traveled in the pre-Industrial Revolution period versus the reasons people travel in the 21st century. Do you see significant differences? In what areas? Discuss.

41) Create a chart outlining the evolution of modes of transportation over the past 200 years. Has the tourism industry seen stagnation in the creation of new methods of travel? If so, how can the industry continue in a growth pattern? Discuss.

42) Discuss the multiplier effect of tourism dollars on a community. Could you argue that the effect is not always positive? Defend your position with examples.

43) Some argue the Internet has diminished the need for travel agents. Others boast that travel agents offer a unique level of personalized service the Internet lacks. Profile the customer that would utilize a travel agent versus the typical Internet consumer.

44) You have been asked to organize a golf outing for 24 salespeople to Sedona, Arizona for a three-day stay.

Organize your plan by steps. These people are high maintenance, high energy, and have a need to stay busy. How will you get them to Sedona (not a major airline hub), where will they stay, where will they play golf, what will they eat, and what will they do after they finish their day of golf? Research Sedona and find areas of entertainment, cuisine…generally keep them busy. Money is no object.

1) C 2) D 3) D 4) C 5) A 6) D 7) B 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) A 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) B 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) C 25) C 26) A 27) C 28) A 29) A 30) D 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) A 38) Airlines can service more cities at lower cost and can maximize passenger loads from small cities, thereby saving fuel.

39) Tour operators-promote tours/trips that they plan and organize Travel Agencies-middle person that sells on behalf of hospitality industries; a broker of sorts that brings together client and supplier Tour wholesalers and Consolidators-wholesalers take open airline seats and package a tour along with it and sell these to retail agents.

40) Students should draw the conclusion that people have traveled over history for basically the same reasons: business, leisure or necessity.

41) Methods of travel have been the same for over 50 years. The quality of service buses, airplanes, and cruise ship operators offer has improved significantly but the actual mode has not changed.

42) Economists argue that the multiplier effect on an economy is always a good thing. Others counter with discussion about the destruction of tourist infrastructure, national treasures, and the land itself.

43) The customer that is less price-sensitive would be more likely to use a travel agent. To some customers, the service is the driving force in the buying decision so having to service themselves on the Internet is not very appealing.

Others may argue that many people fear using the Internet for commerce and prefer to use a face-to-face relationship. Using the Internet is not always the less expensive path.

44) Start with researching hotels, resorts, spas, golf courses, off road activities, western activities like horseback riding, hot-air ballooning, restaurants, etc.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Recreation is defined as 1) _______ A) not working B) playing an organized sport C) refreshment of body and mind D) a healthy workout 2) There is a direct relationship between recreation and A) Wellness and balance B) stress C) leisure D) burnout

2) _______

3) The National Park Service has more than ________ designated parks around the country A) 407 B) 253 C) 362 D) 157

3) _______

4) In 1916, which one of the following organizations was founded to conserve park resources and

4) _______

to provide for their use by the public?

A) National Park Service B) American Park Service C) New England Association of Park Superintendents D) Recreation Management

5) Commercial recreation is also defined as A) adventure tourism C) fee-based tourism

5) _______ B) leisure tourism D) themed tourism

6) The most visited National Park is A) Great Smokey Mountains B) Death Valley C) Yosemite D) Grand Tetons E) Yellowstone

6) _______

7) Recreation offered to the public with an incentive of making a profit A) Knott's Berry Farm B) The Elks Club C) Special Olympics D) YMCA

7) _______

8) Typical theme parks are Opryland and Disneyland, areas set aside just for A) shows B) refreshments C) recreation for families D) hotels E) music

8) _______

9) The two major themes of Epcot are?

A) Future World and World Showcase C) Frontierland and Tomorrowland

9) _______ B) Tomorrowland and Fantasyland D) Fantasyland and Adventureland

10) Which destination attraction is known for its success in adapting movies into thrill rides?

A) Sea World B) Disneyland

10) ______

C) Hershey's

D) Universal Studios

11) Which theme park allows faculty and students members to intern?

A) Universal Studios B) Busch Gardens C) Walt Disney World D) Six Flags E) Hershey's

11) ______

12) Which park is considered to be the first major water park opened in the United States?

A) Wet 'n Wild B) Six Flags C) Sea World D) Blizzard Beach

12) ______

13) Which company originally opened its theme park for employees to relax and have fun when

13) ______

they were not on the job?

A) Six Flags

B) Disney

C) Busch

D) Hershey's

Gardens

14) Which theme park company is dedicated to preserving marine life and uses innovative

14) ______

programs to research wildlife dilemmas?

A) Knott's Berry Farm B) Disney C) Six Flags America D) Sea World Parks E) Universal Studios

15) What attraction features more than 700,000 exotic plants?

A) San Diego Zoo B) Walt Disney World C) The National Aquarium D) Hershey's

15) ______

16) The most popular destination resort in the world is A) Walt Disney World B) Knott's Berry Farm C) Six Flags D) Universal Studios

16) ______

17) Which parks create the atmosphere of another place and time?

A) Private clubs B) Zoos C) National parks

17) ______ D) Theme parks

18) Concerts, musicals, and comedy shows are examples of A) city park entertainment B) heritage tourism C) adventure parks D) performance arts

18) ______

19) Places where members gather for social, recreational, professional, or fraternal reasons are

19) ______

called

A) attractions C) private clubs

B) conference centers D) theme parks

20) What destination breeds endangered animal species, participates in visitor education programs and biological research?

A) Smithsonian Institute C) Sea World

20) ______

B) National Zoo, Washington, D.C. D) GatorLand Theme Park

21) The type of club that is predominantly business oriented is a

21) ______

A) social club B) professional club C) military club D) city club E) dining club 22) With country clubs, the type of membership that enables members to use all the facilities all the

22) ______

time is a A) seasonal membership B) monthly membership C) annual membership D) full membership E) social membership

23) Which of the following is the primary difference between club management and hotel

23) ______

management?

A) Clubs are used more frequently than hotels.

B) Hotels cost more to operate.

C) Hotels offer more services than clubs.

D) Club members feel more ownership of the property than hotel guests.

24) Foodservice, a pool, a tennis court and a golf course are all services offered in a(n) A) festival B) country club C) convention D) attraction

24) ______

25) The hierarchy (from the top down) of club management is as follows A) general manager, executive committee, board of directors, members B) members, board of directors, executive committee, general manager C) executive committee, board of directors, general manager, members D) board of directors, executive committee, members, general manager

25) ______

26) Voluntary organizations, armed forces, and employee recreation fall under A) commercial recreation B) private club recreation C) noncommercial recreation D) for-profit organizations

26) ______

27) Voluntary recreation includes A) churches B) athletic clubs C) commercial health clubs D) YMCA/YWCA, boy and girl scouts E) armed forces

27) ______

28) Voluntary organizations have all the following characteristics EXCEPT: A) membership restrictions B) nonprofit C) nongovernmental D) serve the public at large

28) ______

29) The Special Olympics is an example of A) commercial recreation C) campus recreation

29) ______

30) Trends in recreation and leisure include all but A) more VIP experiences in theme parks

B) recreation for special populations D) for-profit recreation 30) ______

B) hands-on rides and attractions C) an increase in golf programs D) combining shopping and entertainment experiences E) the blending of park experiences 31) Historic places, sites, and museums are a part of what is now called A) historic attractions B) heritage tourism C) theme park tourism D) parks and entertainment

31) ______

32) The Liberty Bell resides in which city?

A) Baltimore C) Washington, D.C.

32) ______ B) New York City D) Philadelphia

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

33) Briefly describe the purpose of private clubs.

33) ____________ 34) Describe the following type of clubs and their membership: professional, social,

34) ____________

athletic, military and fraternal.

35) Discuss the elements of management as they relate to theme park management.

35) ____________

36) Name five theme parks and the focus or attraction of each.

36) ____________

37) Aside from the hospitality employment areas (food, beverage and lodging) what other

37) ____________

employment opportunities are there in the theme park industry?

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

38) Studies have shown a direct correlation between recreation and leisure to wellness. Do you agree with this assertion? Justify your answer.

39) Discuss the rationale behind the national park service. Do you think this concept has outlived its original mission?

40) Compare a country club to a city club.

41) The Walker Golf Club is an exclusive, upscale golf facility in south Florida and you are the general manager. A new member has approached you with a complaint about a dining room server that has been employed by the club for more than 15 years. The club member wants this person terminated. The Board of Directors requires all hires and terminations to be approved at official board meetings. Discuss how you will research, document, and ultimately handle this situation.

1) C 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) D 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) D 15) A 16) A 17) D 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) D 23) D 24) B 25) B 26) C 27) D 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) D 33) They are places where members gather for social, recreational, professional or fraternal reasons. Members enjoy entertaining guests at their clubs as they are like second homes. They have diverse facilities and staff to accommodate member needs and expectations.

34) Professional-clubs for people in the same profession Social-different professions, similar socioeconomic status Athletic-give city workers and residents an opportunity to work out, swim or other sports with some social aspects like a lounge or community center or meeting rooms Military-cater to noncommissioned and enlisted officers for recreation and entertainment Fraternal-include many special organizations like Veterans of foreign Wars, Elks, Shriners to foster camaraderie and to assist charitable causes.

35) Planning-two parts, pre opening and then operations Organizing-creating a structure of support in the various departments Decision making-long range decisions by top management and short range decisions by front line managers and supervisors Communicating-at all levels and using all types of technology Motivating-for guest satisfaction, keeping employees happy Control-providing information to management for decision-making.

36) Knott's Berry Farm-rides, attractions, historical exhibits, emphasis on learning, one of the first theme parks Walt Disney World-four major theme parks based on all aspects of entertainment and learning

Unive ions, adaptation of movies into thrill rides and commitment to guest participation rsal Anheuser-Busch Companies-largest corporate owned theme/animal park, a leader in conservation and education, Studio development of educational programs based on animal, conservation and environmental issues s-mov Six Flags-largest regional U.S. theme park, parks in forty of the fifty metropolitan areas in the United States, ie sets, licensing agreements with DC comics and Warner Brothers rides, Hershey Park-originally developed for employees to relax and have fun when not at work, chocolate theme attract Others include Dollywood, LegoLand, GatorLand, Wet 'n Wild 37) Designer, artists, inspectors, engineers, scientists, computer specialists, landscape architects, public relations, human resources, sales and marketing, actors.

38) Student answers will vary mainly depending on their personal experiences. Some students will have worked in facilities that promote wellness through some kind of program. Some students will use their interest in a recreational activity to make this assessment.

39) The original mission of the national park services was to allow Americans to access their most beautiful resource, the land. There could be an argument that with the vast growth in destination vacationing, travelers will not be interested in "roughing it." On the other hand there is also an increase in ecotourism, which is directly related to the outdoors.

40) The biggest difference between them is the offering of activities such as swimming, golf, tennis and croquet in the country club setting. City clubs are predominantly business oriented with very few, if any, activities.

41) Answers will vary.

Clubs are sensitive to members needs and the general manager's primary job is to mediate issues to the guest's satisfaction. These issues may be difficult, particularly if the complaint comes from only one member.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The "house" sets the odds on casino games to ensure a profit over a period of time. This is the 1) _______ A) benefit B) house edge C) yield D) proceeds 2) The total amount wagered in gambling is called the A) win B) handle C) bet

2) _______ D) wager 3) _______

3) Placing a bet on an unknown outcome with the hope of securing a gain is A) An opportunity B) gambling C) gaming D) risk 4) Betting against the "house" is ________ gambling A) social B) resort

4) _______ C) mixed

D) commercial

5) Offering free goods and services to casino patrons in return for their business is called A) comps B) on-the-house C) guest satisfaction D) gratis

5) _______

6) Gaming revenue is produced from A) entertainment B) lodging C) food and beverage D) tours and attractions E) casino win

6) _______

7) Casinos track patron play (gambling) through the use of A) dealers B) loyalty programs C) pit bosses D) spotters

7) _______

8) A horse track that also has slot machines A) racino C) horse parlor

8) _______

9) The origins of gambling are ________ years old A) 6,500 B) 5,000

B) off-track betting D) slot parlor 9) _______ C) 7,000

D) 2,500

10) A public gambling house was legalized for the first time in 1626 in A) Venice B) Paris C) Russia D) England E) North America

10) ______

11) IGRA stands for A) Indian Gaming Regulatory Act C) Indian Gambling Regulatory Act

11) ______ B) Intermediary Gaming Regulatory Act D) International Gaming Regulatory Act

12) In most parts of the United States, slot machines produce ________ of the casino revenue.

A) the bulk B) about 25% C) about 10% D) about half

12) ______

13) The fastest growing sector of casino gaming in the world is A) Europe B) Las Vegas C) Africa

13) ______ D) Asia

14) Nevada legalized gambling in A) 1931 B) 1941

D) 1950

14) ______ C) 1910

15) The first modern casino in Las Vegas was opened on the strip in A) 1931 B) 1941 C) 1951 16) Atlantic City legalized casino gambling in A) 1947 B) 1970

15) ______ D) 1947 16) ______

C) 1961

D) 1976

17) The Supreme Court allowed Indian reservation gambling in 1987 with the ________ decision A) Cabazon B) Mallory C) Arizona D) Fernandez

17) ______

18) Tribal gambling now consists of more than ________ facilities in ________ states.

A) 400 / 28 B) 200 / 30 C) 150 / 25 D) 250 / 35

18) ______

19) ________ has become the highest grossing casino market in the world.

A) Atlantic City B) Las Vegas C) Mexico City

19) ______ D) Macau

20) Which of the following is NOT one of the five functional areas of casino operations?

A) Marketing B) Food and Beverage C) Casino services D) Human Resources

20) ______

21) Some of the first forms of gambling were A) dog races B) poker

21) ______ C) roulette

D) dice throwing

22) From the early 1940s until 1976 what city had a virtual monopoly on the gaming entertainment business?

A) Reno

B) Las Vegas

C) Atlantic City

D) New Orleans

23) Las Vegas and what other city are the most popular gaming entertainment resort cities in the United States?

A) New Orleans

B) Atlantic City

C) San Diego

22) ______

23) ______

D) Reno

24) Gourmet dining and increased restaurant revenues for casinos began in 1992 with A) Emeril Lagasse B) James Beard C) Wolfgang Puck D) Jacques Pepin

24) ______

25) Outside of Nevada ________ is still illegal in the United States.

A) sports betting B) dog betting C) roulette

25) ______ D) horse betting

26) What operation is typically described as having a bar, restaurant, and less than 16 electronic gambling devices?

A) Nevada-style gaming tavern C) sports book

B) mini-casino D) theme restaurant

26) ______

27) Stand-alone casinos are usually small and are often called A) slot parlors B) mini-casinos C) bingo parlors D) gambling taverns

27) ______

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

28) How would you define gambling?

28) ____________ 29) What does gaming entertainment refer to and what forms does gaming entertainment

29) ____________

take?

30) Define the term "win" in reference to a casino.

30) ____________

31) Describe how and why tribal gambling was legalized in 1987?

31) ____________

32) What are five initial career tracks in the gaming industry?

32) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

33) Outline the rationale for the Native American involvement in the gaming industry.

34) Why are there so many career opportunities in the gaming industry?

35) Outline the government's involvement in the gaming system.

1) B 2) B 3) B 4) D 5) A 6) E 7) B 8) A 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) A 27) A 28) Gambling is playing a game of risk for the thrill of the action and the chance of making money-gamblers learn and understand the game of risk and enjoy trying to beat the house or odds.

29) The casino gaming business and all its aspects, including hotel operations, entertainment offerings, retail shopping, recreational activities as well as wagering on the gaming floor. Gaming entertainment forms include Vegas, Atlantic City, riverboats, cruises, Native American tribes.

30) A casino win is the cost of gambling to guests, who often win over the house in the short run, and are therefore willing to place bets and try their luck.

31) Indian gaming has its roots in the concept of tribal sovereignty, meaning that a tribe is not subject to the commercial restrictions of the state in which it is located. In the 1987 Cabazon decision, the Supreme Court affirmed that if a state allowed betting on bingo or card games, Indian tribes could offer these games without limits imposed by state regulator.

32) Hotel operations, food and beverage operations, casino operations, retail operations, and entertainment operations 33) Native Americans have often been to Washington fighting for the right to ownership of land they felt was taken from them unjustly. The U.S. government has allowed Native Americans the right to govern their own people on their own reservations for many years. Another incentive is the right to own and operate gaming facilities on these reservations with limited tax liability and limited governmental influences.

34) Gaming involves so many of the hospitality facets. There are hotels, restaurants, attractions, recreational activities, and games that have to be managed. Workers are needed en masse to fill this growing segment.

35) Students should mention IGRA, the Casino Control Act and the other legislative acts mentioned in the text. The efforts of the Federal government to regulate Native American casinos should be mentioned. The issue of taxes will also be a topic.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Associations began in the United States at the beginning of the eighteenth century when what 1) _______ group organized itself?

A) Orlando conventioneers C) U.S. restaurateurs

B) Rhode Island candle makers D) New York hoteliers

2) Which of the following are NOT benefits of being part of an association?

A) Banking B) Networking Education/Professional development C) D) Government/Political voice

2) _______

3) What group or market sector is the greatest percentage of convention center utilization?

A) Educational B) Religious C) Government and social services D) Exposition trade shows E) Professional and trade shows

3) _______

4) What is the primary outcome of the responsibilities of a convention and visitors bureau?

A) Increase government involvement in hospitality B) Generate and increase revenues for the city C) Increase city population D) Develop infrastructure

4) _______

5) A FAM trip is A) a trip an event planner takes after a trade show B) the trip visitors take when they attend a convention or an event in a city C) a visit to a city to do a site inspection for an event D) a trip to relax prior to a big convention in a large city

5) _______

6) A not-for-profit organization that represents an urban area that tries to solicit business or

6) _______

pleasure seeking visitors is a A) Convention and Visitors Bureau C) Destination Management Company

B) familiarization trip D) exposition

7) A service organization within the visitor industry that offers a host of programs and services to meet clients' needs is a A) convention management company C) Destination Management Company

B) convention and exposition D) Convention and Visitors Bureau

8) Which of the following would NOT be included on the staff of a destination management company?

A) Operations manager B) Theme/events creative director C) Audio visual specialist D) Special events manager E) Chef

7) _______

8) _______

9) Attendee registration, exhibit space rentals, and sponsorship are all sources of revenue for A) Destination Management Companies B) meetings C) conventions D) Convention and Visitor's Bureaus

9) _______

10) Expositions have also been called A) meetings B) trade shows

10) ______ C) conventions

11) The combination of a meeting and an exposition is called a A) forum B) convention C) workshop

D) workshops 11) ______ D) trade show

12) A person that contracts out their services to (or work for) associations and corporations and plan meetings down to the last detail is a(n) A) service contractor C) meeting planner

12) ______

B) DMC D) catering manager

13) Individuals hired by the convention center and responsible for providing all of the services

13) ______

needed to run the facilities for a trade show are known as A) meeting planners B) service contractors C) convention and visitor bureaus D) event planners E) destination managers

14) A workshop-type educational experience in which attendees learn by doing is called a A) symposium B) clinic C) forum D) seminar

14) ______

15) What is an assembly for the discussion of common concerns where experts in a given field take

15) ______

opposite sides of an issue in a panel discussion, with opportunity for audience participation?

A) Seminar B) Forum C) Clinic D) Workshop E) Symposium

16) A lecture and a dialogue that allow participants to share experiences in a particular field is

16) ______

known as a A) forum B) seminar C) workshop D) symposium E) clinic

17) An event as which a particular subject is discussed by experts and opinions are gathered is

17) ______

known as a A) symposium B) clinic C) forum D) seminar E) workshop

18) A small group led by a facilitator or trainer-generally including exercises to enhance skills or

develop

____ __

knowledg 18) e in a specific topic is a

A) forum B) clinic C) workshop D) symposium E) seminar 19) Which type of meeting room set up is generally intended for a large audience that does not need to make a lot of notes or refer to documents?

A) Classroom B) Theater style

C) Boardroom

D) Tea room

20) Which type of meeting room set up is used when the meeting format is more instructional and participants take detailed notes or refer to documents?

A) Tea room B) Classroom C) Boardroom

C) Theater style

20) ______

D) Theater style

21) Which type of meeting room setup is for small numbers of people with the meeting taking place around one, block rectangular table?

A) Ball room B) Tea room style

19) ______

21) ______

D) Boardroom

22) Large meetings with some form of exposition or trade show included are called A) symposiums B) conventions C) workshops D) seminar

22) ______

23) An event that brings together sellers of products and services, where they can show their

23) ______

products and services to a group of attendees is known as A) a clinic B) an exposition C) a convention

D) a symposium

24) Large facilities where meetings and expositions are held, usually in city centers are called A) destination centers B) visitors bureaus convention centers C) D) conference centers

24) ______

25) An industry group that is generally a public relations organization founded by and funded by a

25) ______

corporation that operates in a specific industry A) trade association C) religious organization

B) professional association D) government organization

26) Convention Bureaus primarily A) coordinate service staff for large conventions B) set up trade show floors in convention centers C) prepare menus for events D) market convention centers and destinations

26) ______

27) Convention centers primary purpose is to A) market destinations and make travel arrangements B) service clients convention needs when they come to town C) Bring revenue into the city D) prepare menus for events

27) ______

28) These groups are price conscious, because the majority of the functions are paid for by the

indi vidual

or attendee

____ __

28) A) SMERF C) trade association

B) annual meeting D) corporation

29) To enter into a convention management career one should have A) transferrable skills from a variety of hospitality areas B) many years of hotel experience C) in depth knowledge of culinary arts D) extensive business management experience

29) ______

30) A key characteristic of a convention center manager might be the ability to A) marketing and sales B) cook large quantities of food for hundreds of people C) configure large room set ups D) manage and lead people

30) ______

31) Before a meeting planner can start planning a meeting, a ________ is done to determine the

31) ______

purpose and desired outcome of a meeting.

A) needs analysis C) Meeting agenda

B) budget D) meeting objectives

32) The payment exchanged for the promise(s) stated in a contract is called the A) offer B) acceptance C) consideration D) compensation

32) ______

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

33) What are the five primary responsibilities of a convention and visitors bureau?

33) ____________ 34) Describe what staff responsibilities would fall under a sales manager in a destinations

34) ____________

management company.

35) Name five types or forms of meetings, and describe each.

35) ____________

36) What are five types of associations?

36) ____________

37) What are the components that make up an enforceable contract?

37) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

38) Explain the differences between meetings, expositions, and conventions.

39) Outline the role of the CVB in your area.

40) Discuss the steps you would take to organize a meeting at a nearby hotel for 100 members of a local sports league. Discuss areas such as; the meeting's purpose, location, meeting agendas, food, activities, speakers, etc. Be thorough.

1) B 2) A 3) E 4) B 5) C 6) A 7) C 8) E 9) C 10) B 11) B 12) C 13) B 14) B 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) C 19) B 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) D 27) C 28) A 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) C 33) 1. enhance the image of tourism in the area 2. market the area and encourage people to visit and stay longer 3. target and encourage selected associations and others to hold meetings, expositions and conventions in the city 4. to assist associations and others with convention preparations and to give support 5. to encourage tourists to partake of the historical, cultural, and recreational opportunities 34) Special events manager who sill have expertise in sound, lighting, and staging, accounts manager who is an assistant to the sales manager, a theme/events creative director, audio visual specialist, operations manager who coordinates 35) 1. clinic-a workshop-type educational experience in which attendees lear by doing; small groups interacting with each other 2. forum-an assembly for the discussion of common concerns where experts in a given field take opposite sides of an issue in a panel discussion, with opportunity for audience participation 3. seminar-A lecture and a dialogue that allow participants to share experiences in a particular field 4. symposium-an event at which a particular subject is discussed by experts and opinions are gathered 5. workshop-A small group led by a facilitator or trainer--generally includes exercises to enhance skills or develop knowledge in a specific topic 36) Trade association-industry trade group that is generally a public relations organization Professional association-professional body or organization the exists to further a profession; usually non profit Medical and scientific associations-usually based on specific specialties offering conferences and continuing

educa ous organizations-groups that are part of churches, mosques, synagogues or other spiritual congregations. They tion come together to further develop their faith Religi Government organizations-made up of numerous public bodies and agencies--federal, state and local 37) An offer-what the offering party is willing to do and what is expected in return.

Consideration- the payment exchanged for the promises made in a contract-considerations must flow both ways, for example, services provided and payment for services.

Acceptance-the unconditional agreement to the terms and conditions of an offer.

38) Meetings are conferences, workshops, seminars are other events designed to bring people together for the purpose of exchanging information. Expos are events designed to bring together purveyors of products where they can demo and show their wares. Conventions are a combo of meetings and expos.

39) The answers here will vary depending on where you live. Some areas enjoy an active CVB that is aggressive in attracting new businesses and tourist to the area and some areas have more passive bureaus.

40) The discussion will focus on planning a meeting from the needs analysis to post event evaluation.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is NOT true of a special event?

1) _______ A) Are always planned B) Occur spontaneously C) Are usually motivated by a reason for celebration D) Always arouse expectations 2) Which of the following events would NOT be considered a special event?

A) Wedding B) Convention C) Festival

2) _______ D) Sales meeting

3) Which of the stages of event management is the time for asking questions about a potential

3) _______

event?

A) Design stage B) Planning stage C) Research stage D) Coordination stage E) Evaluation stage

4) Which of the stages of event management is the time for freedom in creativity and

4) _______

implementation of new ideas that support the objectives of the special event?

A) Design stage B) Planning stage C) Research stage D) Coordination stage E) Evaluation stage

5) Which of the stages of event management is often driven by the determined budget for the

5) _______

event and the time for contracting out services and activities that will become part of the event?

A) Design stage B) Planning stage C) Research stage D) Coordination stage E) Evaluation stage

6) Which of the stages of event management involves decision making skills and abilities as the

6) _______

event progresses?

A) Design stage B) Planning stage C) Research stage D) Coordination stage E) Evaluation stage

7) Which of the stages of event management should take place at each stage of the event and is the final step that can measure the success of the event in meeting the goals and objectives?

A) Design stage B) Planning stage C) Research stage

7) _______

D) Coordination stage E) Evaluation stage 8) According to the Event Solutions Black Book, what is the most popular site for holding events?

A) Clubs B) Hotel/resort C) Outdoors D) Banquet hall E) Convention center

8) _______

9) Which type of event would include annual meeting, sales meetings, workshops, training

9) _______

meeting or awards ceremony?

A) Corporate event C) Charity or fundraising event

B) Association event D) Social event

10) Which type of event would usually be based on a theme, have a very limited budget and

10) ______

provide a great return for the group having the event?

A) Corporate event B) Association event C) Charity or fundraising event D) Social event

11) Which type of event would be planned two to five years in advance and the destination is a determining factor in the planning process?

A) Corporate event C) Charity or fundraising event

11) ______

B) Association event D) Social event

12) Which type of event would include SMERFs as well as wedding and party planners?

A) Corporate event B) Association event C) Charity or fundraising event D) Social event

12) ______

13) What events purpose is usually related to the agriculture industry and evokes memories of

13) ______

games, attractions and fun food?

A) Mardi Gras B) Festivals

C) Oktoberfest

D) Fairs

14) Which type of events are often themed to the celebrations purpose, like Mardi Gras celebrates the beginning of lent A) Catering

B) Fairs

C) Festivals

D) Weddings

15) A contract or ________ stipulates in writing all the client's requirements and gives all of the relevant information.

A) budget C) event profile

14) ______

15) ______

B) financial plan D) request for proposal (RFP)

16) Mega events are made up mainly of what type of attraction?

A) Sporting events B) Festivals C) Fairs D) Weddings

16) ______

17) Which of the following event management skills would be characterized by the process by

17) ______

which a meeting planner and supplier reach an agreement on the terms and conditions that will govern their relationship?

A) Delegating skills B) Project management sills Budgeting skills C) D) Negotiating skills

18) Which of the event management skills aids in completing projects on time and within budget

18) ______

and where parts of an event can be managed as separate components?

A) Negotiating skills B) Project management skills C) Budgeting skills D) Delegating skills

19) The use of flow charts and graphs for scheduling, clearly defined work setup and breakdown

19) ______

and policy statements to help guide decision-making and the fulfilling of commitments are examples of A) project management B) coordination management C) human resource management D) budgeting management

20) Which group or agency does not engage in the actual planning or organization of meetings, conventions, and other events?

A) Hotels/resorts C) Convention and visitor bureau

20) ______

B) Conference center D) Event planner

21) Sporting events, festivals, and social events are all part of the ________ market.

A) corporate B) convention C) special event D) private party

21) ______

22) A special event consultant A) should have climbed the "experience ladder" B) must have been a hotel manager C) should have at least a bachelor's degree D) should be a CPA E) should have been a food and beverage manager

22) ______

23) An event such as the Olympics requires ________ to provide money or in-kind contributions

23) ______

and receive recognition in return.

A) caterers C) consultants

B) sales representatives D) sponsors

24) Management of events often takes place at convention centers or hotels where ________ handle

24) ______

all arrangements after the sales manager has completed the contracts.

A) Event managers B) catering managers C) banquet managers D) Food and Beverage Directors

25) The final and most important tool for event planners and manager is A) technology B) time management financial management C) D) human resources

25) ______

26) What are the most widely recognized social events?

A) anniversaries B) weddings C) birthday parties D) graduation parties

26) ______

27) Corporate event planners should have strong (a) ________ to book lodging and convention

27) ______

services as needed.

A) negotiating skills C) financial background

B) social skills D) hotel background

28) ________ provide(s) training, certification, networking, and assistance with business plans and other consulting services for their members.

A) Corporate meetings

B) CVB's

28) ______

C) Professional associations

D) Event planners 29) ______

29) ________ are critical skills in making those you do business with feel comfortable and in handling situations appropriately.

A) Coordinating B) Negotiating

C) Budgeting

D) Social skills

30) ________ refers to the implementation of practices and procedures which will help conserve

30) ______

both the natural environment and the special event space.

A) Sustainable event tourism B) Social event coordination C) Sports event management D) Negotiating

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

31) What are the key differences in planning a wedding and planning a fundraising event? 31) ____________ 32) What does it mean to have sponsorship for a large event and why is it important?

32) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

33) What special skills are necessary for event management?

34) What are the five stages of the event planning process?

35) In the research stage of event planning, what important questions must the planner ask/answer?

36) Describe the process you would use to create a charity event for your organization. Include what questions you would ask and what information you need to complete the process.

1) B 2) D 3) C 4) A 5) B 6) D 7) E 8) B 9) A 10) C 11) B 12) D 13) D 14) C 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) D 26) B 27) A 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) Weddings are social events where the event manager works from a specific budget. A fundraiser usually has no formal budget and bases its "profits" on spending as little as possible while providing the attendees with an extravagant event. Strong negotiating skills are used in both to maximize the effects.

32) Sponsors provide money or in-kind contributions and receive recognition as a sponsor of the event, including use or display of their logo in the events promotion. Sponsorship is important because is it too costly to stage an event without their financial support.

33) Marketing and sales-attracting the business Planning-attention to details Organization-keeping staff organized Financial-formulating and adhering to budgets Human resources-hiring the right people with the right job motivation 34) Research Design Planning Coordination Evaluation 35) Why should a special event be held?

Who should hold it?

Where should it be held?

What should the focus on the event be?

What outcomes are expected

36) The student should list and discuss the event-planning process including research, design, planning, coordination, and evaluation of the event.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Courage, endurance, integrity, and judgment are all traits common to 1) _______ A) CEOs B) supervisors C) leaders D) managers 2) Some of the important characteristics for good leadership are A) using ideas from your peers B) dependence on others to give you answers C) neatness and appearance D) integrity, judgment, and dependability E) ability to give unquestioned orders

2) _______

3) Leadership can be identified as A) someone who has followers B) showing transactional or transformational traits C) achieving a goal D) acting out theories E) always giving rewards

3) _______

4) Which of the following is NOT an identifiable practice common to leaders?

A) Inspiring a shared vision B) Encouraging the heart C) Challenging the process D) Creating a model

4) _______

5) The ________ model outlines the coming together of a leader, the followers and the situation.

A) transformational leader B) charismatic leader C) traditional leader D) transactional leader

5) _______

6) Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. was an example of what specific type of leadership?

A) Incentive B) Experienced C) Transactional D) Transformational E) Peer led

6) _______

7) ________ leadership involves charisma, individual consideration and intellectual stimulation.

A) Transactional B) Transformational C) Traditional D) Charismatic

7) _______

8) ________ is the set of moral principle and values that people use to answer question about right

8) _______

and wrong A) Codes

B) Beliefs

C) Ethics

D) Values

9) Leaders possess a mental and physical intensity that causes them to be assertive by showing A) guaranteed outcomes B) performance, regardless of method C) control, assuming responsibility D) moderated risks

9) _______

10) Some important leadership skills in the hospitality work area are A) not showing excessive enthusiasm B) reading and public speaking

10) ______

C) honor, integrity, and sense of humor

D) taking moderate risks

11) One of the first questions a leader asks is usually A) "What needs to be done?"

B) "What are the organization's missions and goals?"

C) "What can and should I do to make a difference?"

D) "Do I pass the mirror test?"

11) ______

12) Which of the following is NOT a distinction of management?

A) Enforce organizational rules B) Work in the system C) Coordinate effort D) Control risks E) Create opportunities

12) ______

13) Management is defined as A) the process of coordinating work activities B) the authority to control the work process C) the control of a work situation D) the ability to lead a group of workers

13) ______

14) Looking at the past and using that information to predict the future is known as A) organizing B) forecasting C) motivating D) planning

14) ______

15) Decision making, communicating and controlling are key functions of a A) CEO B) leader C) supervisor

15) ______

16) ________ manages the work of line employees.

A) Executives C) Top managers

D) manager 16) ______

B) Frontline managers D) Midlevel managers

17) Efficiency and effectiveness are most important for A) controlling B) decision-making C) management to have good results D) housekeeping employees

17) ______

18) Management is simply what managers do to A) answer the phone and make reservations B) schedule employees C) research the market D) plan, organize, and control the business E) pay bills and do office work

18) ______

19) ______

19) ________ are responsible for short term planning.

A) Supervisors C) Midlevel managers

B) Top managers D) Frontline managers

20) Long range strategic goals are determined by A) midlevel management C) Supervisors

B) frontline management D) top management

20) ______

21) Setting goals and creating objectives to achieve those goals is the process of

21) ______

A) organizing

B) controlling

C) forecasting

D) planning

22) Keeping morale high and managing conflict is part of the ________ function.

A) motivating B) controlling C) organizing D) planning

22) ______

23) Setting standards and comparing actual performance to the standard is known as A) planning B) controlling C) leading D) organizing

23) ______

24) The ability to view a corporation as a complete entity is a ________ skill.

A) communication B) conceptual C) technical D) interpersonal

24) ______

25) Managers with ________ skills have the ability to communicate with a wide range of

25) ______

employees.

A) technical

B) interpersonal

C) functional

D) conceptual

26) A manager that starts their career on the front line and works their way up must have the ________ skills they acquired along the way.

A) technical C) communication

26) ______

B) interpersonal D) conceptual

27) Performing ceremonial duties is part of the ________ role of leaders.

A) communicator B) negotiator C) figurehead

27) ______ D) liaison

28) Key skills for a successful manager are A) to know the owner's needs and wants B) the ability to be a team player and work with others C) to always rise from the ranks D) to be a computer expert E) to do every job better than their employees

28) ______

29) The difference between leadership and management is that A) managers provide a vision B) leadership is a formal process C) managers coordinate efforts D) leaders work outside the system E) leaders control risks and people

29) ______

30) The three management skill areas are A) planning, hiring, and housekeeping B) services, knowledge of guests, and building maintenance C) conceptual, interpersonal, and technical D) knowing the company, profit making, and investing E) bookkeeping, office management, and scheduling

30) ______

31) Great leaders A) are the individuals who have been on the job the longest and may have the most

31) ______

experience

B) are motivated and grow into their roles C) are hired at entry levels D) must be highly educated and aggressive to get the job done

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

32) Of the three management skill areas (technical, human and conceptual) which is the 32) ____________ most important and why?

33) Define leadership in terms of hospitality.

33) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

34) What is a transformational leader and what three practices are common?

35) List the five main approaches to being a leader rather than a manager.

36) Define management in terms of efficiency and effectiveness.

37) Discuss a situation where you will be in a position to justify your decisions and satisfy the demands of guests, employees, the owners (stakeholders), and the community. How do you balance each of these groups?

1) C 2) D 3) B 4) D 5) D 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) C 11) A 12) E 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) B 24) B 25) B 26) A 27) C 28) B 29) C 30) C 31) B 32) Answers will vary depending on the student point of view. All three are important to be an effective manager.

33) In terms of hospitality leadership, the definition "Leading is the process by which a person with vision is able to influence the activities and outcomes of others in a desired way" is appropriate. Leaders know what they want and why they want it-and they are able to communicate those desires to others to gain their cooperation and support 34) A transformational leader is one that elicits performance above and beyond normal expectations, inspires others to reach beyond themselves to do more.

35) The text outlines the practices common to leaders: challenge the process, inspire a shared vision, enable others to act, model the way, and encourage the heart.

36) Efficiency is getting the most done with the fewest number of inputs, where effectiveness is "doing the right thing." Ideal management balances the two.

37) Answers will vary. Some suggestions may be to plan, organize, and delegate many tasks to free up the time to evaluate. Using the three managerial skills will free up the time to look at the big picture.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Planning involves selecting the various ________ that the organization wants to achieve and the 1) _______ ________ to be taken to ensure that they are accomplished.

A) goals and strategies B) targets and tactics C) objective and strategies D) strategies and objectives

2) Which of the following is NOT a key operating area?

A) Guest satisfaction B) Productivity Employee satisfaction C) D) Scheduling

2) _______

3) ________ planning is often done at the last minute with little or no sharing of goals and

3) _______

strategies A) Strategic

B) Recognized

C) Formal

D) Informal

4) Which of the following gives direction NOT only to top management but to all associates as they focus on goal accomplishment?

A) Forecasting C) Strategies

B) Planning D) Staff scheduling

5) Which of the following creates long-term plans that steer the organization toward its goals in the accomplishment of its mission and vision?

A) Strategic planning C) Informal planning

4) _______

5) _______

B) Scheduling D) Forecasting

6) ________ develops the mission, goals, and strategies by identifying the business of the

6) _______

corporation today and the business it wants for the future.

A) Planning department B) In-formal planning C) Line-level management D) Strategic management

7) Most of the strategic planning that takes place at the top management level is A) corporate-level strategy B) pre-planning strategy C) goal oriented strategy D) mission and goals development

7) _______

8) Which of the following is NOT one of the key corporate level strategies?

A) Growth B) Restructure C) Diversification D) Strategic Alliance

8) _______

9) ________ aims to increase market share by promoting sales aggressively in existing markets.

A) Horizontal integration B) Market penetration C) Product development D) Geographic expansion

9) _______

10) ________ is the process of acquiring ownership or control of competitors with similar products

10) ______

in the same or similar markets.

A) Product development C) Market penetration

B) Horizontal integration D) Geographic expansion

11) A ________ is used to assess the company's internal and external processes and use them to their advantage.

11) ______

A) Internal analysis C) Operating analysis

B) Productivity analysis D) SWOT analysis

12) Which of the following is NOT one of the traditional four P's of marketing?

A) Product B) Price C) Position D) Place

12) ______

13) What is the process of screening large amounts of information to anticipate and interpret

13) ______

changes in the surrounding economic area?

A) Forecasting C) SWOT analysis

14) ________ is the prediction of future outcome.

A) Scheduling B) Development

B) Environmental scanning D) Planning 14) ______ C) Planning

D) Forecasting

15) ________ are generally created for periods of up to one year and fit in with long range plans of the organization.

A) Strategic plans C) Goals and objectives

15) ______

B) Operational plans D) Financial scheduling

16) What is the process of determining outcomes for each area and associate?

A) Forecasting B) Environmental analyzing C) Selecting alternatives D) Goal setting

16) ______

17) ________ refers to the amount of labor (input) it takes to do a particular task.

A) Productivity B) Demand scheduling C) Value pricing D) Task analysis

17) ______

18) ________ are operational statements of activities that should be quantifiable and attainable

18) ______

within a stated time?

A) Strategies

B) Plans

C) Tactics

D) Objectives

19) What is the managerial process that determines the goals of the organization and then plans the objective?

A) Management by objectives C) Operational assessment

B) Operational analysis D) Strategic goals assessment

20) ________ involves planning but also involves improving efficiency and increasing productivity while placing emphasis on quality.

A) Total quality management C) Organizational planning

20) ______

B) Management by objectives D) Strategic forecasting

21) This concept identifies the best way of doing something, which companies excel in that area, and how our company can improve upon it.

A) Scaling B) Targeting

19) ______

C) Benchmarking

21) ______

D) Leveling

22) ________ are broad guidelines for associates to use when making decisions.

A) Policies B) Rules C) Strategies D) Procedures

22) ______

23) ________ are specific actions that associates must follow.

A) Strategies B) Procedures C) Policies

23) ______ D) Rules

24) A plan allocating money to a specific activity is A) Arrangement B) Forecast

24) ______ C) Schedule

D) Budget

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

25) Discuss the purpose of planning. Who does it and why?

25) ____________ 26) How would you create an operational plan? Discuss the seven steps of operational

26) ____________

planning.

27) What is an environmental scan? How and why would you perform one?

27) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

28) Discuss the Strategic planning process and how it coordinates with corporate level and operational planning. Include the three corporate strategies in your discussion.

29) Define and give an example of using Total Quality Management in a hotel environment.

1) A 2) D 3) D 4) B 5) A 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) B 10) B 11) D 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) D 19) A 20) A 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) D 25) Planning gives direction not only to top management but to all associates as they focus on goal accomplishment.

Top executives do most of the strategic planning and operational or front-line managers do the short-term or operational planning.

26) Operational plans are generally created for periods of up to one year and fit in with the strategic plan. Operational plans provide managers with a step-by-step approach to accomplish goals. The overall purpose of planning is to have the entire organization moving harmoniously toward the goals. These are the seven steps in operational planning: Setting goals, analyzing and evaluating the environment, determining alternatives, evaluating alternatives, selecting the best solution, implementing the plan, and controlling and evaluating the results.

27) Environmental scanning is the process of screening large amounts of information to anticipate and interpret changes in the environment. Environmental scanning creates the basis for forecasts. Forecasting is the prediction of future outcomes. Information gained through scanning is used to form scenarios. The two main types of outcomes that managers seek to forecast are future revenues and new technology breakthroughs.

28) Student answers should include who performs this planning phase, the three corporate level strategies (Growth, strategic alliances and joint ventures, and diversification), a SWOT analysis, environmental scanning, and the process by which manager's plan.

29) TQM not only involves planning but also touches on the other functions of management. The idea of improving efficiency and increasing productivity while placing a larger emphasis on quality has caught on fast. Take guest check-in as an example. The TQM team would include members from the front office and guest services (bellpersons, etc.) who identify lineups for check-in from 4:00 to 7:00 P.M. The group writes a challenge or problem statement and various ways of improving the situations are presented.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) ________ refers to the arrangement of activities so that they systematically contribute to goal 1) _______ accomplishment.

A) Departmentalization C) Control

B) Organization D) Specialization

2) What provides the total framework by which job tasks are divided, grouped, and coordinated?

A) span of control B) project structure job rotation C) D) organizational structure

2) _______

3) What is used to describe the extent to which jobs in an organization are divided into separate

3) _______

tasks?

A) work specialization C) function analysis

B) job project D) job rotation

4) Once jobs have been divided up by work specialization, they have to be grouped back together

4) _______

so that the common tasks can be coordinated. This is called A) departmentalization B) organizational control C) job enrichment D) structure

5) ________ are created to coordinate the work of several associate in a given area.

A) Chains of command B) Departments Productive teams C) D) Fair Labor Standards Act

5) _______

6) The simplest form of departmentalization is by A) function B) guest

6) _______ C) territory

7) What is the term when an organization departmentalizes by brand?

A) Guest B) Function C) Product

D) product 7) _______ D) Territory

8) What is closely associated with chain of command because it gives manager the right to exercise their power in a given situation?

A) Power B) Influence

C) Control

9) When authority is delegated, so should commensurate A) command B) liability C) responsibility

D) Authority 9) _______ D) training

10) The ________ begins at the top of the organization with the board of directors selecting a president or CEO. A) control C) power

8) _______

10) ______

B) organizational chart D) chain of command

11) An increase in the number of associate a manager supervises refers to A) responsibility B) authority C) span of

11) ______ D) direct control

control

12) When an associate has the authority to solve problems without the intervention of a manager, this is

12) ______

A) authority B) chain of command C) empowerment D) responsibility E) span of control 13) Some organizations make most of the decisions at the corporate level and inform unit manager.

13) ______

This is A) centralization B) empowerment C) decentralization D) chain of command E) responsibility

14) Some organizations make most of the decisions at the unit level. This is A) decentralization B) chain of command C) responsibility D) empowerment

14) ______

15) A "what-if" scenario in the hospitality industry refers to A) unstructured B) forecasting C) contingency factor D) semi-structured E) organizational structure

15) ______

16) ________ are given a number of tasks by the manager, and the team gives specific assignments

16) ______

to members.

A) Empowered C) Integrated work teams

B) Independent D) Self-managed work teams

17) ________ are assigned a goal, and the team plans, organizes, leads, and controls to achieve the

17) ______

goal.

A) Empowered C) Self-managed work teams

B) Integrated work teams D) Independent

18) These structures are designed so that employees do not return to their departments after completion of the project.

A) Independent structures C) Project structure

18) ______

B) Work team structure D) Boundaryless organizations

19) This type of structure can implement strategies that will improve guest satisfaction or reduce

19) ______

costs by finding quicker or better ways of doing something.

A) Independent business unit B) Work team structure C) Project structure D) Integrated work teams

20) This type of organization is not defined by, or limited to, the horizontal, vertical, or external boundaries imposed by a predefined structure.

A) Work team structures C) Boundaryless organizations

B) Independent business unit D) Informal structure

21) The ________ seeks to eliminate the chain of command, to have appropriate spans of control, and to replace departments with empowered teams.

20) ______

21) ______

A) Informal structures C) Project structures

B) Boundaryless organizations D) Work team structures

22) These are task-oriented work groups either formally appointed or evolve informally.

A) teams B) boundaryless work groups project structures C) D) informal structures

22) ______

23) Saving manager's time and making decisions that were once made by managers is the task of A) self-managed teams B) project-task structures C) integrated work teams D) formal structures

23) ______

24) These are built by giving associates the authority, responsibility, and encouragement to come

24) ______

together to work on guest-related improvements that will not only enhance the guest experience but also make the associates' jobs easier.

A) productive teams B) self-managed teams C) empowered teams D) integrated team structures

25) ______

25) This is a way to relieve the boredom and monotony that can be a disadvantage of work specialization.

A) job rotation C) job enlargement

B) empowerment D) job enrichment 26) ______

26) This adds some planning and evaluating responsibilities to a position. It gives associates greater control over their work by allowing them to assume some tasks typically done by their supervisors.

A) empowerment B) job enlargement C) job enrichment D) job rotation

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

27) Discuss how structure is important to an organization.

27) ____________ 28) Describe the four forms of departmentalization and give an example of each.

28) ____________

29) How many associates can one manager supervise? Explain your answer.

29) ____________

30) Describe the relationship between job enlargement and job enrichment. How do they

30) ____________

differ and how are they similar?

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

31) Describe the changes that came about when the traditional organization chart was turned upside down.

32) Explain the advantage and disadvantage to empowerment.

33) Discuss the importance of contingency factors.

34) Explain the concept of group dynamics.

1) B 2) D 3) A 4) A 5) B 6) A 7) C 8) D 9) C 10) D 11) C 12) C 13) A 14) A 15) C 16) C 17) C 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) C 27) An organizational structure is like a skeleton in that it supports the various departments in an organization. It provides the total framework by which job tasks are divided, grouped, and coordinated

28) The simplest form of departmentalization is by function. A large hotel rooms division has a reservations department, uniformed service department, front desk, communications department, concierge, housekeeping, and so on-each with its own specialized function. Choice Hotels International departmentalizes its lodging properties by product in the form different hotel brands. Hotels may also departmentalize by guest needs or territory 29) The answer used to be between 8 and 12. Now, however, the answer is likely to be 12 to 18. The reason for this increase in span of control is that organizations needed to become more competitive with not only other U.S. companies but foreign ones, too.

Although hospitality corporations have increased their span of control, it is also fair to say that they realize that there is a point when the number of people reporting to managers overburdens associates. At that point, managers don't have the time to give advice, nor do they have time to properly supervise their associates, so standards decline.

30) Job enlargement increases the scope of the associates' work. Today, hospitality management professionals have more work and responsibilities than ever before. Job enrichment adds some planning and evaluating responsibilities to a position. It gives associates greater control over their work by allowing them to assume some tasks typically done by their supervisors 31) The general manager used to be at the top of the organizational chart and the frontline associate at the bottom, the guest never appeared on the chart. Now the guest is at the top of the inverted pyramid and the general manager at the bottom.

32) Advantage, guest gets what they need more quickly and smoothly without interruption of service. Disadvantage, staff may take advantage of this privilege and abuse of policy can occur.

33) Contingency factors deal with what hospitality organizations refer to as what-ifs.

34) Group Dynamics includes variables such as the abilities of the group's members, the size of the group, the level of

confli ct, and the intern al press ures on memb ers to confor m to the group' s norms .

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Communication is defined as 1) _______ A) understanding others B) listening to someone C) an exchange of information and meaning D) speaking to someone 2) Managerial communication includes A) managers to CEOs C) managers to manager

2) _______ B) computer to computer D) organizational

3) Interpersonal communications is only successful if A) a computer is used B) feedback has been received C) the message is decoded D) there is no noise present

3) _______

4) The largest part of a message in communicating interpersonally is seen in A) face-to-face conversation B) paying attention C) Gestures, facial expressions, postures, and clothing D) the response E) Communicating the message to someone else

4) _______

5) Emotions are typically conveyed by A) verbal communications C) electronic communications

5) _______ B) Face-to-face communications D) body language

6) In overcoming barriers in good communication, one must A) understand the language B) use feedback C) have a good self-image D) not interrupt E) not do two things at once

6) _______

7) The difference between formal and informal communication is that A) formal is job related and follows the chain of command B) informal is not within the company C) informal is job related D) formal is a form of the "grapevine" E) formal is not within the company

7) _______

8) It is important in lateral communication to remember to A) let the supervisor know decisions B) put the message in writing C) use the cross-functional team D) pass the message along

8) _______

9) Forms of communication networks are A) chain, wheel, and all-channel C) slow, moderate, and fast

9) _______ B) computer, phone, and cell D) dependent on the type & style

10) Which of the eight steps relevant to decision-making contain the following A) identifying problems and their levels of importance B) where, when, and why C) knowing data and communicating it D) managers and employees E) finances and revenue

10) ______

11) The final step in decision-making is A) selecting an alternative C) analysis of alternatives

11) ______ B) implementation D) evaluation of effectiveness

12) Managers make most decisions based on A) finances, rules, and time B) rationality, commitment, and intuition C) learned skills D) pleasing guests and employees E) food choices and schedules

12) ______

13) A non-programmed decision is A) clearly structured problem B) an unusual circumstance C) an alternative choice D) easier to decide E) a recurring problem

13) ______

14) Of the four major styles of decision-making, two are A) rational and practical B) direct and indirect C) analytical and conceptual D) certain and possible

14) ______

15) The ________ style entails having a low tolerance for ambiguity as well as being a rational

15) ______

thinker.

A) behavioral

B) directive

C) analytical

D) conceptual

16) Trends in communication and decision-making include A) improving technology in communication B) sharing profits C) an improved "grapevine" D) better record keeping systems E) better trained and experienced employees

16) ______

17) The MSS has two elements, which are the A) corporate financial systems B) internal and external communication C) the MIS and DSS D) criteria and development E) sales and face-to-face communication

17) ______

18) The first step to active learning is A) listening B) talking

18) ______ C) writing

D) feedback

19) ______

19) Semantics is A) rational C) active communications

B) nonverbal communications D) meaning of words

20) The first criteria for making a decision is A) intuition C) intelligence

B) information D) it must be rational

20) ______

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

21) Define the term communications.

21) ____________ 22) What are four things that can distort the sending of a message?

22) ____________

23) Explain the use of body language in the communications process.

23) ____________

24) Explain how semantics affects communications.

24) ____________

25) What is meant by active learning?

25) ____________

26) Explain the concept of the wheel communications network.

26) ____________

27) Explain the term bounded rationality.

27) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

28) How can feedback be used to help eliminate misunderstandings and inaccuracies regarding the message being conveyed?

29) Describe three ways to overcome communication barriers.

30) Explain the difference between formal and informal communications.

31) Explain the positive and negative aspects of the "grapevine" as a communications tool.

1) C 2) D 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) B 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) D 12) B 13) B 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) The exchange of information and the transfer of meaning 22) The sender can have too little or too much knowledge; he or she can't communicate what he or she does not know.

Receiver could falsely interpret the message if proper explanations are not given. Too much knowledge might cause the message not to be understood at all. Preexisting attitudes and the cultural system of the sender can influence the encoding of the message. Attitudes and beliefs about subject matters will leave their traces in the message and may be picked up by the receiver.

23) Body language is facial expressions, gestures, and any other ways of communicating a message with your body.

24) Semantics is the actual meaning of words. The literal meaning of words and actual meaning of words can be two different things, but can be expressed in the same way.

25) Active listening is really listening to the meaning of a message rather than just hearing it; listening for full meaning without making premature judgments or interpretations.

26) In the wheel network communication flows between a strong leader and each individual in a group or team; coworkers do not need to communicate with each other, they communicate solely with their leader.

27) Bounded rationality means that managers make decisions based on the decision-making process that is bounded, or limited, by an individual's ability to gain information and make decisions.

28) Feedback will eliminate misunderstandings and inaccuracies regarding the message being conveyed.

29) Use feedback, active listening, avoid triggering defensiveness, and interpersonal dynamics.

30) With formal communication the subject matter is work related and seen as essential to the employment, for example when a manager tells an employee his or her schedule for the following week. Informal communication may be job related but may not be essential to performing job duties.

31) The grapevine is an informal organizational communication network.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Control is a 1) _______ A) board of director's function B) management function C) financial function D) food and beverage function 2) _______

2) Control works by A) providing good benefits C) keeping records

B) monitoring activities D) having strong leadership

3) Control is important because it A) Produces better revenues C) requires desirable standards be set

B) Shows leadership D) Holds manager's accountable

3) _______

4) The control process has five steps, the first of which is A) determining goals B) managerial action to correct performance C) setting standards D) measuring performance E) comparing actual performance to standards

4) _______

5) Sources of information for measuring performance are A) word of mouth B) observations and reporting C) increases in business D) company financial records

5) _______

6) We measure results to compare with expectations. What is measured may be more important

6) _______

than how, as in the case of A) manager's reports B) profits C) food costs D) time management E) labor costs

7) The final step in the control process is A) measuring performance B) employee satisfaction C) changing procedures D) taking managerial action E) feedback control

7) _______

8) There are three main types of control, one of which is A) economic B) corporate C) feedback D) managerial E) food and beverage

8) _______

9) Concurrent control takes place

9) _______

A) from the corporate office B) at the time of correction C) after receipt of reports D) concurrently with another control method E) during work activity 10) An example of a written report-type of control is A) employee vacation C) an income statement 11) Two qualities of an effective control system are A) evaluation and standards C) speed and quality

10) ______ B) management's expectations D) capital expenditures 11) ______ B) quality of employees' performance D) flexibility and corrective action

12) The contingency plan factor that affects the control system most is the A) financial support B) technology C) flexibility D) experience of the management E) size of the organization

12) ______

13) Cultural differences may change controls by A) inability to communicate B) financial success in the global market C) keeping the managers closer D) measurement and corrective action E) fully scripted responses

13) ______

14) Workplace privacy is an increasing responsibility for managers because of A) wasted computer resources while on the job B) financial costs C) computer availability D) e-mails

14) ______

15) Unfortunately, employee theft and fraud is high, partly due to A) poor morals B) inappropriate behavior C) opportunity and lax controls D) weak rationalizing E) social problems

15) ______

16) Zero-based budgeting starts with A) controlling finances B) placing controls on all expenses C) budgeted costs D) a fixed dollar amount E) zero, and costs are added

16) ______

17) Correcting actual performance is A) a correcting methods C) actions taken due to observance

17) ______ B) analyzed results D) a goal oriented results

18) Workplace violence is a responsibility of A) the manager or supervisor C) the CEO

18) ______ B) training D) the HR department

19) In a global hospitality corporation, manager's may be controlled A) more by financial results B) more by the home office C) less by financial results D) less by the home office

19) ______

20) To make the job of control easier and quicker, the hospitality industry has increased the use of A) feedforward controls B) technology C) training D) financial reports

20) ______

21) An effective control system is important because manager's need to A) enhance performance B) delegate duties and empower staff C) decrease theft D) show better financial results

21) ______

22) When developing a method of measurement, one must be sure that the goals are A) objective B) attainable C) measurable D) fair

22) ______

23) Feedforward control is an activity performed A) with financial measurements C) simultaneously with the activity

23) ______ B) after completion D) in advance

24) This is used extensively in the hospitality industry as a means of control because it is results driven A) feedback C) performance appraisals

24) ______

B) budgets D) income statements

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

25) What is control?

25) ____________ 26) Identify the five steps in the control process.

26) ____________

27) Explain the concept of zero-based budgeting.

27) ____________

28) Discuss the significance of workplace privacy.

28) ____________

29) Explain four reasons why employees steal.

29) ____________

30) Discuss the factors that contribute to workplace violence.

30) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

31) Explain the difference between immediate corrective action and basic corrective action and give examples.

32) Explain the following types of control: feedforward, concurrent, and feedback.

33) Describe the ten qualities of effective control systems and why they are used by management.

1) B 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) B 6) A 7) D 8) C 9) E 10) C 11) D 12) E 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) E 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) D 25) Control is the management function that provides information on the degree to which goals and objectives are being accomplished. Management engages in controlling by monitoring activities and taking corrective actions whenever the goals are not being met. An effective control system ensures that activities are completed that lead to the attainment of the organization's goals.

26) The control process is a five-step process of Determining Goals, setting standards, measuring actual performance, comparing actual performance against those standards, and taking managerial action to correct deviations or inadequate performances. These standards are the specific goals created during the planning process against which performance progress can be measured.

27) The concept of zero-based budgeting has managers begin with a budget of zero dollars and justify all the cost of goods sold, controllable costs, and capital expenditures (things like equipment) they plan on making so that there will be an appropriate amount of profit.

28) Concern about sexual harassment is one of the reasons why the companies might want to monitor or keep the backup copies of all e-mail. This electronic device can help establish what actually happened if an incident arises and can help managers react instantly. Managers also need to be certain that employees are not inadvertently passing information on to others who could use that information to harm the company.

29) People steal because the opportunity presents itself through lax controls and favorable circumstances. Some people have different social financial problems or pressures such as gambling debts. People steal because they can rationalize whatever they're doing as being correct and appropriate behavior. Hospitality associates also steal because they often feel underpaid, so whether it's a phone call here or a knife, fork, and spoon there, if the opportunity arises, they may take advantage of it.

30) Factors contributing to workplace violence include employee stress caused by long working hours, information overload, daily interruptions, unrealistic deadlines, and uncaring managers.

31) Immediate corrective action corrects problems at once to get performance back on track, and basic corrective action looks at how and why performance has deviated and then proceeds to correct the source of deviation.

32) Feedforward control focuses on preventing anticipated problems since it takes place in advance of the actual work activity. Concurrent control is a type of control that takes place while a work activity is in progress. When control is enacted while the work is being performed, management can correct problems before they become too costly.

Feedb ack control is the most popular type of control, takes place after the activity is done.

33) 1. Accuracy. An effective control system is reliable and produces valid data.

2. Timeliness. An effective control system provides timely information.

3. Economy. An effective control system must be economical to operate.

4. Flexibility. An effective control system is flexible enough to adjust to changes and opportunities.

5. Understandability. The users can understand an effective control system.

6. Reasonable criteria. Control standards must be reasonable and attainable.

7. Strategic placement. Because managers can't control everything, they must choose to control those factors that are strategic to the organization's performance.

8. Emphasis on exceptions. Managers can't control all activities; control devices should call attention only to the exceptions.

9. Multiple criteria. Measures decrease tendencies toward a narrow focus.

10. Corrective action. The control system not only indicates significant deviations, but also suggests appropriate corrective action.