General Organic and Biological Chemistry An Integrated Approach, 4th Edition Test Bank

Type:

Test Bank

General Organic and Biological Resource: Chemistry An Integrated Approach Edition:

4th Edition

Author(s):

Kenneth W. Raymond

Package Title: Raymond Test Bank Course Title: Raymond, 4e Chapter Number: 1 Question type: Multiple Choice

1) If you have a toothache and the dentist taps your tooth to check for sensitivity, what part of the scientific method is being used? a) experiment b) hypothesis c) theory d) law Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Explain the terms law, hypothesis, experiment, and theory.

Section Reference 1: 1.1

2) A scientist, Dr. Sigma, states that a chemical taken internally once a day will prevent the common cold. However, no other scientist is able to duplicate the results. The statement by Dr. Sigma is ___. a) a law b) a hypothesis c) a theory d) not valid Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Explain the terms law, hypothesis, experiment, and theory.

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3) Which of the following explanations is a testable hypothesis? a) A sugar crystal is forming faster because it is grown in cold environment. b) A plant is dying because of the direction of spinning of the earth. c) A bird lays more eggs because of the intensity of thunderstorms. d) A burp increases the weight of a baby.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Explain the terms law, hypothesis, experiment, and theory.

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Section Reference 1: 1.1

4) All matter is composed of tiny, indivisible particles called atoms. All atoms are composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons. These statements are an example of a scientific ___. a) law b) theory c) hypothesis d) experiment Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Explain the terms law, hypothesis, experiment, and theory.

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5) Scientific laws differ from scientific theories in that a) laws explain observations and theories describe observations. b) laws describe observations and theories explain observations. c) theories eventually become laws. d) No difference exists. Laws and theories have the same meaning.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Explain the terms law, hypothesis, experiment, and theory.

Section Reference 1: 1.1

6) While attempting to start your car, when you turn the key, there is no response. You suspect that the battery is dead. To determine this, you turn on the light switch. Your suspicion about the battery is an example of a ___, and your attempt to turn on the headlight is an example of a ___. a) theory, law b) hypothesis, experiment c) experiment, hypothesis d) hypothesis, theory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Explain the terms law, hypothesis, experiment, and theory.

Section Reference 1: 1.1

7) Water flowing over a dam is an example of a) potential energy.

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b) chemical energy. c) electrical energy. d) kinetic energy.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

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8) The conversion of a solid directly into a gas is called ___. a) vaporization b) deposition c) sublimation d) melting Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

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9) Liquids have ___ shape and ___ volume. a) fixed/variable b) fixed/fixed c) variable/fixed d) variable/variable Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

Section Reference 1: 1.2

10) The energy available by virtue of a rock sitting at the top of a cliff is a) chemical energy. b) potential energy. c) thermal energy. d) kinetic energy.

Answer: b 3

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

Section Reference 1: 1.2

11) Which of the following is an example of a physical change? a) a piece of paper cut into small pieces b) burning of paper c) butter becoming rancid d) baking a cookie Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

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12) Which of the following is a chemical property? a) color b) flammability c) odor d) hardness Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

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13) Which of the following is a chemical change? a) evaporation of water b) melting of copper c) tearing paper d) frying an egg Answer: d Difficulty: Medium LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

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14) During melting of ice a) the temperature remains constant even as more heat is added until all of the ice has melted b) the temperature increases until all the ice has melted c) the temperature decreases until the ice has melted d) the energy that goes into converting ice to liquid water is called heat of vaporization Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

Section Reference 1: 1.2

15) Which of the following is a physical change? a) melting of ice b) burning oxygen in air c) rusting of iron d) baking cookies Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

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16) Which is a unit of measure of mass? a) liter b) ºC c) kilogram d) Joule Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Identify metric, English, and SI units.

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17) The correct conversion of 1 L is ___. a) 1 m3 b) 1000 m3 c) 0.001 m3 d) 100 m3 5

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Identify metric, English, and SI units.

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18) The number 390000, expressed correctly in scientific notation, is ___. a) 3.9 x 10-6 b) 3.9 x 105 c) 3.9 d) 3.9 x 10-5 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4 Express values using scientific notation and metric prefixes.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 19) A patient’s temperature is taken three times by two nurses. The results of three successive temperatures by each nurse are Nurse A 98 F 99 F 97 F

Nurse B 90 F 100 F 96 F

The patient’s actual temperature is 101 F. Which of the following statements is true? a) Nurse A’s results are more precise than those of nurse B. b) Nurse B’s results are more accurate than those of Nurse A. c) Both nurses have precise results. d) Nurse B’s results are both accurate and precise.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4 Express values using scientific notation and metric prefixes.

Section Reference 1: 1.4

20) 2.32 g is the same as ___. a) 232 kg b) 23.2 cg c) 2320 mg d) 0.0232 dg 6

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4 Express values using scientific notation and metric prefixes.

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21) Which of the following numbers contains the designated CORRECT number of significant figures? a) 30.1 C 2 significant figures b) 3.6 x 102m 3 significant figures c) 0.00450 m 3 significant figures d) 27.051 mL 4 significant figures Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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22) Perform the following calculation: 39.5 x 22.0 x 0.0067. Round your answer to the correct number of significant digits. a) 5.8223 b) 5.822 c) 5.82 d) 5.8 Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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23) The number 84.3759 rounded to the nearest 1 significant figure is ___. a) 90 b) 8 c) 80 d) 84 Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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24) When 15.5 + 0.125 + 2.55 are added, assuming each of the numbers below is measured, the answer with the correct number of significant figures is ___. a) 18.175 b) 18.2 c) 18.17 d) 18 Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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25) A mercury thermometer is used to take four temperatures of a solution. The temperatures are 44.8 ºC, 44.9 ºC, 45.0 ºC, and 45.1 ºC. An alcohol thermometer was also used and measured 44.9 ºC, 45.3 ºC, 45.4 ºC, and 45.9 ºC. The solution is correctly determined to be 45.0 ºC by other means. Which conclusion is correct? a) The mercury thermometer is the more precise. b) The alcohol thermometer is the more precise. c) There is no difference between the thermometers. d) There is no way to determine precision with these temperatures.

Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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26) Each of the numbers below is measured. Solve the calculation and give the correct number of significant figures.

(2.34 x 104 ) x (1.38 x 107) a) 3.2 x 1011 b) 3.23 x 1011 c) 3.229 x 1011 d) 3.23 x 1012 Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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27) Each of the numbers below is measured. Solve the calculation and give the correct number of significant figures.

3.52 x 10-16 – 8.16 x 10-17 a) 2.704 x 10-15 b) 4.64 x 1016 c) 2.7 x 10-16 d) 27.04 x 1014 Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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28) Each of the numbers below is a measured quantity. Solve the calculation and give the correct number of significant figures.

(17.8 x 0.1150) / 6.7 a) 0.31 b) 0.3 c) 0.306 d) 0.3055 Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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29) A patient weighs 205.0 pounds, but the weight is to be recorded in kilograms. What is the patient’s weight in kilograms using whole numbers? (Given: 1 kg = 2.205 lbs.) a) 451.4 kg b) 205.0 kg c) 100.4 kg d) 92.97 kg Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

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30) The density of ethanol at 20 C is 0.791 g/mL. How many milliliters of ethanol correspond to 12.0 g of ethanol at 20 C? a) 9.49 mL b) 15.2 mL c) 0.791 ml d) 30.6 mL Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

Section Reference 1: 1.6

31) The instructions for a cough syrup are to give 2 teaspoons every 8 hours. The cough syrup is supplied in 150-mL bottles. How many bottles must be purchased to treat 3 children for 5 days?

(Given 1 tsp = 5 mL.) a) 1 bottle b) 2 bottles c) 3 bottles d) 4 bottles Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

Section Reference 1: 1.6 32) A kitten’s normal body temperature is 102ºF. Express this temperature in ºC. a) 5.7 ºC b) 38.9 ºC c) 56.7 ºC d) 184 ºC Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

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33) A 33.0 g of aluminum is heated on a stove. The temperature of the aluminum increases from 25 C to 120 C. How much heat energy was absorbed? (The specific heat of aluminum is 0.0215 cal/gC.) a) 67 cal b) 0.0075 cal c) 0.61 cal d) 13 cal Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.7 Explain the terms density, specific gravity, and specific heat.

Section Reference 1: 1.7 34) At 20 C, chloroform (CHCl3) has a density of 1.489 g/mL. What is the mass of 7.52 mL of chloroform at 20 C? a) 0.198 g b) 13.4 g c) 5.05 g d) 11.2 g Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.7 Explain the terms density, specific gravity, and specific heat.

Section Reference 1: 1.7

35) How much will the temperature change when 3.0 g of tooth enamel (specific heat = 0.18 cal/g C) absorbs 0.80 cal of heat energy? a) 2.4C b) 3.7C c) 1.5C d) 8.6C Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.7 Explain the terms density, specific gravity, and specific heat.

Section Reference 1: 1.7

36) What is the number of 1-1/2 teaspoon doses of a liquid medication in a 250 mL bottle?

(Given 1 tsp = 5 mL.) a) 33 doses 11

b) 125 doses c) 167 doses d) 250 doses Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.7 Explain the terms density, specific gravity, and specific heat.

Section Reference 1: 1.7

37) At 20C, the density of ethyl alcohol is 0.789 g/mL, and that of water is 1.00 g/mL. Calculate the specific gravity of ethyl alcohol at 20 C. a) 0.651 b) 0.789 c) 1.45 d) 6.51 Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.7 Explain the terms density, specific gravity, and specific heat.

Section Reference 1: 1.7 38) A weather forecaster predicts that the temperature for the day will reach 88 F. What is the Celsius value for the predicted temperature? a) 88C b) 273C c) 31C d) 304C Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

Section Reference 1: 1.6 39) The temperature of a patient is found to be 38.5 C. What is this temperature in F? a) 96F b) 101F c) 69F d) 107F Answer: b 12

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

Section Reference 1: 1.6 40) A patient having a serious reaction caused by a peanut allergy has a doctor’s order to have 0.240 g of epinephrine. The liquid on hand contains 250 mg/5mL bottle. How many milliliters of the liquid are required? a) 4.8 mL b) 0.0048 mL c) 12 mL d) 1.2 mL Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

Section Reference 1: 1.6

41) The normal dosage for azinthromycin, an antibiotic, is 3.3 mg/kg. What is the proper dose for a 150 lb patient? (Given: 1kg = 2.205 lbs.) a) 100 mg b) 224 mg c) 300 mg d) 495 mg Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

Section Reference 1: 1.6 42) What is the weight of Amphotec®, an antibiotic preparation for aspergillus infection, necessary for a 135 pound patient at the rate of 3.5 mg/kg per dose? (Given: 1kg = 2.205 lbs.) a) 7.7 mg b) 61.4 mg c) 214 mg d) 2228 mg Answer: c Difficulty: hard 13

Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

Section Reference 1: 1.6 43) When aspirin is heated, it melts at 275 F. Convert this temperature into kelvins. a) 135 K b) 408 K c) -138 K d) 375 K Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

Section Reference 1: 1.6

44) The density of table salt is 2.16 g/mL. What is the volume in milliliters occupied by 356.0 g of table salt? a) 165 mL b) 769 mL c) 0.00607 mL d) 358 mL Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.7 Explain the terms density, specific gravity, and specific heat.

Section Reference 1: 1.7 45) Zenapax® is used as part of immunosuppressive therapy for transplant patients. The dosage is calculated on the basis of 1.0 mg/kg. What is the proper dose for a 175 lb patient? (Given: 1kg = 2.205 lbs.) a) 79 mg b) 175 mg c) 385 mg d) 875 mg Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.8 Recognize the difference between general chemistry, organic chemistry, and biochemistry.

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46) The density of gasoline is 0.73 g/mL at 20 C. Jenny’s car requires 16 gallons of gasoline to fill her car’s gas tank. How much mass (in pounds) of gasoline does she need to fill her tank?

(Given: 1 qt= 0.946 L, 1 gallon = 4 qt, 1 Ib = 454 g, 1 mL= 1 x 10-3 L.) a) 190 Ib b) 340 Ib c) 140 Ib d) 210 Ib Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.8 Recognize the difference between general chemistry, organic chemistry, and biochemistry.

Section Reference 1: 1.8

Question type: True/False

47) A hypothesis is a statement that proposes an explanation of a set of observations.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Explain the terms law, hypothesis, experiment, and theory.

Section Reference 1: 1.1

48) The higher the temperature of something, the greater the kinetic energy of the particles from which it is made.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

Section Reference 1: 1.2

49) Rusting of iron is a physical change.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

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50) A container holding a mixture of ice and water is placed in a 115 C oven. The ice-water mixture rises in temperature until all the ice has melted away.

Answer: false Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

Section Reference 1: 1.2

51) 1 mg is larger than 1 dg.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4 Express values using scientific notation and metric prefixes.

Section Reference 1: 1.4

52) 886.0 has four significant figures.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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53) Accuracy tells us how close a measurement is to the true value.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

Section Reference 1: 1.5

54) The zeros in 1700.85 cal are not significant.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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55) The zeros in 0.00958 cm are not significant.

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Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

Section Reference 1: 1.5

Question type: text-entry

56) A statement that explains observable phenomenon and has been tested by experimentation can be classified as a scientific ___.

Answer: theory Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Explain the terms law, hypothesis, experiment, and theory.

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57) A scientific ___ describes observable phenomenon.

Answer: law Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Explain the terms law, hypothesis, experiment, and theory.

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58) The energy required to melt a solid is called the ___.

Answer: heat of fusion Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

Section Reference 1: 1.2

59) When a steak is cooked on a grill the meat undergoes a ___ change.

Answer: chemical Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

Section Reference 1: 1.2

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60) A degree in the Kelvin scale is the same size as a ___ degree.

Answer: celsius Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Identify metric, English, and SI units.

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61) The value 0.000121 cm has ___ significant figures.

Answer: 3 Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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62) The value 1.000 kg has ___ significant figures.

Answer: 4 Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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63) The value 0.80010 cm has ___ significant figures.

Answer: 5 Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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64) A series of measurements that are within +/- 0.001 cm of each other would be described as being very ___.

Answer: precise Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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65) 0.4 meters is equal to ___ centimeters.

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Answer: 40 Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

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66) 5.000 pounds is ___ grams. (Given: 1 kg = 2.205 lbs.)

Answer: 2268 Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

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Question type: Matching

Show all necessary calculations. Round answers to the allowed significant figures.

67) Match the following as a theory or law: a) water flows downhill Answer: law b) all matter is composed of tiny particles called atoms Answer: theory c) when a gas is heated it expands Answer: law d) atoms are composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons Answer: theory e) a rock released above the surface of the earth will fall to the earth Answer: law Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Explain the terms law, hypothesis, experiment, and theory.

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Question type: short answer/essay

68) Write the following numbers in Scientific Notation. a) 34.56 b) 10700 c) 0.000890 d) 5600.1 Answer: a) 3.456 x 101 b) 1.07 x 104 c) 8.90 x 10-4 d) 5.6001 x 103 Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4 Express values using scientific notation and metric prefixes.

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69) Determine the number of significant figures in each value below. a) 34.56 b) 10700 c) 0.000890 d) 5600.1 Answer: a) 4 b) 3 c) 3 d) 5 Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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70) Calculate the following and round to the correct number of significant figures. a) (12.00 x 1.5) ÷ .00625 b) 3.61 x 103 ÷ 5.4008 x 10-4 Answer: a) 2900 b) 6.68 x 106 Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5 Describe the difference between the terms accurate and precise and use significant figures when doing calculations involving measured quantities.

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71) Ethanol has a density of 0.78 g/mL. What volume would 500 grams of ethanol occupy?

Answer: 640 mL Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.7 Explain the terms density, specific gravity, and specific heat.

Section Reference 1: 1.7

72) A 1-dollar bill is approximately 6.00 inches long. What is the length of a dollar bill in millimeters? (1 inch = 2.54 cm) Answer: 152 mm Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

Section Reference 1: 1.6

73) In a given class, the average male student weighs 185 lbs and the average female student weighs 125 lbs. What is the difference between the weight of the average male and average female in kilograms? (2.205 lb = 1 kg) Answer: 27 kg Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

Section Reference 1: 1.6 74) Convert 5.67 x 104 millimeters into centimeters.

Answer: 5.67 x 103 cm Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

Section Reference 1: 1.6 75) Iron has a density of 7.86 g/cm3. What is the mass of 12 cm3 of iron?

Answer: 94 g Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

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76) You stop to purchase gasoline. The price at the pump is 85.0 cents/liter. What is this price in dollars/gallon? (1 gal = 3.785 l) Answer: $3.22/gal Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

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77) A child with a mass of 35.4 kg has a fever. The proper dosage of acetominophen is 15.0 mg/kg of body weight. How many teaspoons of syrup will you give the child if the syrup contains 160 mg of acetominophen/teaspoon?

Answer: 3.3 tsp Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

Section Reference 1: 1.6

78) The high temperature on a given day is 76 ºF. Convert this to Celsius.

Answer: 24 ºC Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

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79) The low temperature on a winter night might be as low as -28 ºC. Convert this temperature to Fahrenheit and Kelvin.

Answer: -18 ºF and 2.5 x 102 K Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

Section Reference 1: 1.6

80) A doctor orders tetracycline, 240 mg. The bottle of tetracycline syrup indicates that the concentration is 120 mg per 5 mL. How many milliliters of syrup do you give the patient?

Answer: 10 mL 22

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.6 Identify conversion factors and use them to convert from one unit to another.

Section Reference 1: 1.6

81) The density of mercury is 13.6 g/ml and the density of gold is 19.3 g/mL. Which occupies a greater volume, 8.3 g of mercury or 8.3 g of gold?

Answer: Mercury Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.7 Explain the terms density, specific gravity, and specific heat.

Section Reference 1: 1.7

82) You are traveling in a country that uses the metric system. Your child is sick and a nurse determines her temperature to be 40.8 C. What is this temperature in F? Answer: 105 C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.8 Recognize the difference between general chemistry, organic chemistry, and biochemistry.

Section Reference 1: 1.8

83) Distinguish between the terms scientific theory and scientific law and give an example of each.

Answer: Scientific theories explain phenomenon and scientific laws describe phenomenon.

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Explain the terms law, hypothesis, experiment, and theory.

Section Reference 1: 1.1

84) Distinguish between the terms matter and energy.

Answer: Matter is anything that has mass and volume while energy is the ability to do work or transfer heat.

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

Section Reference 1: 1.2

85) Distinguish between the terms potential energy and kinetic energy.

Answer: Potential energy is stored energy and kinetic energy is energy due to motion.

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Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Describe the three states of matter and the two forms of energy, and give examples of physical properties and physical change.

Section Reference 1: 1.2

86) Describe an analogy between the molecules in the three states of matter and students found in a lecture hall, in a laboratory, and moving between classes on campus.

Answer: Molecules in a solid have fixed positions like students in a lecture hall. Molecules in a liquid have confined movement like students in a laboratory. Molecules in a gas move freely like students on campus.

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Package Title: Raymond Test Bank Course Title: Raymond, 4e Chapter Number: 2 Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which statement is incorrect? a) According to the atomic theory, all matter is composed of atoms. b) Protons, neutrons, and electrons are subatomic particles. c) Electrons have greater mass than protons. d) Neutrons are found in the nucleus of the atom.

Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the subatomic structure of an atom.

Section Reference 1: 2.1

2) Choose the incorrect statement about the proton: a) The proton has the atomic mass of 1 amu. b) The proton has the same charge as the neutron. c) The proton has greater mass than an electron. d) The proton and the neutron have approximately the same atomic mass.

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the subatomic structure of an atom.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 3) The atom’s structure characteristically has a) the protons and neutron within the nucleus. b) the electrons located outside the nucleus. c) mostly empty space. d) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the subatomic structure of an atom.

Section Reference 1: 2.1

4) Which of the following is not a type of subatomic particle?

15

a) alpha particle b) electron c) neutron d) proton Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the subatomic structure of an atom.

Section Reference 1: 2.1

5) Subatomic particle with a positive charge is a(n) ___. a) electron b) neutron c) proton d) cation Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the subatomic structure of an atom.

Section Reference 1: 2.1

6) Which of the substances listed below is not an element? a) sodium b) iron c) air d) carbon Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Define the terms element and atomic symbol.

Section Reference 1: 2.2

7) A Nutrition Facts label on a food package indicates that one serving contains 2% of the recommended daily allowance (RDA) of iodine. If the serving size is one cup and the RDA for iodine is 0.15 mg per day, calculate the amount (in milligrams) supplied by one serving. a) 0.0030 mg b) 15 mg c) 20 mg d) 0.15 mg Answer: a 16

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Define the terms trace element and Dietary Reference Intakes.

Section Reference 1: 2.3

8) Atomic number and mass number differ in that atomic number is the number of ___ and mass number is ___ in an atom’s nucleus. a) protons/the number of neutrons b) neutrons/the number of protons c) protons/the number of electrons d) protons/the sum of protons and neutrons Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4

9) An atom of cobalt with a mass number of 60 has how many neutrons? a) 27 b) 33 c) 59 d) 60 Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4 10) The mass in grams of one mole of an element is the element’s ___. a) atomic number b) atomic weight c) molar mass d) isotope number Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4 17

11) Mass number refers to a) total number of protons and electrons. b) total number of protons. c) total number of neutrons and protons. d) total number of neutrons and electrons.

Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4

23

12) 12 Mg has how many protons, neutrons, and electrons? a) 12 protons, 23 neutrons, and 23 electrons b) 12 protons, 11 neutrons, and 11 electrons c) 23 protons, 11 neutrons, and 23 electrons d) 12 protons, 11 neutrons, and 12 electrons Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4

13) The atomic number is a) the number of neutrons in an atom. b) the number of protons in an atom. c) the number of protons and neutrons in an atom. d) the number of subatomic particles in an atom.

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4

14) Which is the proper notation for the oxygen isotope with atomic number 8 and a mass number of 16?

18

a) b) c) d) Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4

15) An isotope of lithium contains 3 protons and 4 neutrons. What is the correct notation for this lithium isotope?

a) b) c) d) Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4

16) Two atoms that are isotopes of an element contain a) the same number of electrons and neutrons. b) the same number of protons and neutrons. c) the same number of protons and a different number of neutrons. d) different numbers of protons.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4 19

17) Which of the following is an isotope of iodine-131?

A (

133

B (

131

C (

131

D (

131

I)

53

52

Te )

52

53

I) I)

Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4

18) An isotope of sodium contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons. a) The atom also contains 11 electrons. b) The atom also contains 12 electrons. c) The atom also contains 23 electrons. d) There are no other factors related to the 11 protons and 12 neutrons.

Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4

19) Atoms of elements belonging to the same group have an identical number of a) total electrons. b) energy levels. c) inner electrons. d) valence electrons.

Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Explain how elements are arranged in the periodic table and define the term atomic weight.

Section Reference 1: 2.5 20

20) Which group contains the alkali metals? a) 1A b) 2A c) 3A d) 8A Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Explain how elements are arranged in the periodic table and define the term atomic weight.

Section Reference 1: 2.5

21) Which statement is correct? a) Cr is in period 6B. b) Fe is a transition metal. c) Mg is an alkali metal. d) Cl is an inert gas.

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Explain how elements are arranged in the periodic table and define the term atomic weight.

Section Reference 1: 2.5

22) Which of the following is the correct order of elements in increasing atomic radius: K, Mg, B? a) K<Mg<B b) B<Mg<K c) Mg<K<B d) B<K<Mg Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Explain how elements are arranged in the periodic table and define the term atomic weight.

Section Reference 1: 2.5

23) The periodic table of the elements does not list whole numbers for atomic weights. Why? a) The atomic weights are not predictable.

21

b) The atomic weights include protons and neutrons at 1 amu each, but they also include electrons, which weigh a lot less than one. c) The atomic weight is the weighted average of the masses of the known isotopes of an element. d) The atomic weights do not include isotopes.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Explain how elements are arranged in the periodic table and define the term atomic weight.

Section Reference 1: 2.5

24) Where are the metals located on the periodic table of the elements? a) On the right side of the metalloid line (not including the metalloids). b) On the last group of the periodic table. c) On the left side of the metalloid line (not including the methalloids). d) In the two sections separated from the rest of the table.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Explain how elements are arranged in the periodic table and define the term atomic weight.

Section Reference 1: 2.5

25) The higher up within a group or family on the periodic table, a) the heavier the nucleus. b) the more the element is likely to conduct electricity. c) the more nonmetallic in character. d) the more the element is likely to be a semimetal.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Explain how elements are arranged in the periodic table and define the term atomic weight.

Section Reference 1: 2.5 26) Boron, which occurs in nature as 105B (amu = 10.013) and 115B (amu = 11.009), has an atomic weight of 10.81. Which of the following statements is true? a) isotope115B predominates b) isotope105B predominates c) both isotopes have equal percentages in nature d) the atomic weight of 10.013 amu is nearest the correct value for boron 22

Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Explain how elements are arranged in the periodic table and define the term atomic weight.

Section Reference 1: 2.5

27) Glucose molecules produced during photosynthesis contain higher levels of carbon-12 than carbon -13 because a) carbon -12 reacts slightly slower than carbon-13. b) carbon-12 has more electrons than carbon -13. c) carbon-12 reacts slightly faster than carbon-13. d) carbon-13 has more number of protons than carbon -12.

Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Explain how elements are arranged in the periodic table and define the term atomic weight.

Section Reference 1: 2.5

28) What is the relationship of a metal atom to the right of another metal atom in the same period? a) The atom to the right is usually the smaller in diameter. b) The atom to the right is usually the smaller in atomic weight. c) The atom to the right is usually the smaller in atomic number. d) The atom to the right is more likely to have fewer isotopes.

Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Explain how elements are arranged in the periodic table and define the term atomic weight.

Section Reference 1: 2.5

29) How many atoms of sodium are there in 0.200 moles sodium atoms? a) 6.02 x 1024 atoms b) 6.02 x 1023 atoms c) 1.20 x 1023 atoms d) 1.20 x 1024atoms Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Define the terms mole and molar mass.

23

Section Reference 1: 2.6

30) How many carbon(C) atoms are present in 30 moles of carbon? a) 1.20 x 101C atoms b) 1.80 x 1023 C atoms c) 3.60 x 102 C atoms d) 6.02 x 1023 C atoms Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Define the terms mole and molar mass.

Section Reference 1: 2.6

31) The number of moles of calcium (Ca) represented by 7.39 g of calcium is a) 40.0 moles of Ca. b) 18.6 moles of Ca. c) 0.184 mole of Ca. d) 296 moles of Ca. Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Define the terms mole and molar mass.

Section Reference 1: 2.6

32) Iron has the atomic weight of 55.9. What is the number of atoms in one mole of iron? a) 55.9 atoms b) 1 x 1024 atoms c) 6.02 x 1023 atoms d) 12 dozen atoms Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Define the terms mole and molar mass.

Section Reference 1: 2.6

33) A sample of magnesium weighs 10 grams. How many moles of magnesium are there in the sample? a) 10 moles b) 6 x 1023 moles c) 60 x 1023 atoms 24

d) 0.4 moles Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Define the terms mole and molar mass.

Section Reference 1: 2.6

34) What is the number of atoms present in a 20.gram sample of lithium? a) 1.38 x 102 b) 1.20 x 1025 c) 1.70 x 1024 d) 4.00x 1024 Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Define the terms mole and molar mass.

Section Reference 1: 2.6

35) Sulfur has ___ electrons and ___ valence electrons. a) 16, 6 b) 32, 4 c) 16, 0 d) 32, 6 Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.7 Describe the difference between the Bohr model and the quantum mechanical model of the atom, define the term valence electron, and describe electron dot structures.

Section Reference 1: 2.7

36) The maximum number of electrons that a particular energy level n can hold is ___. a) n2 b) 2n c) 2n2 d) n-1 Answer: c Difficulty: medium

25

Learning Objective 1: LO 2.7 Describe the difference between the Bohr model and the quantum mechanical model of the atom, define the term valence electron, and describe electron dot structures.

Section Reference 1: 2.7

37) Which form of ionizing radiation is most penetrating? a) alpha b) beta c) gamma d) positron Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8

38) An alpha particle is identical to which of the following? a) the nucleus of a hydrogen atom b) an electron c) a beta radiation d) the nucleus of a helium-4-atom Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8 39) In an alpha therapy, Radium-223is used as a radioactive α-emitter. The correct nuclear equation for this emission event is?

26

a.

223 88

b.

223 88

c. d.

223 88 223 88

223 Ra

0e -1

Rn

+

4 He 2

Ra +

0 e -1

Fr +

0e 1

89 223

Ra

Ac +

89 223

Ra

88 223

Ra

87

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8

40) Which of the following statements is true about a beta particle?

a) it has the same mass as a helium nucleus b) when ejected from the nucleus formed has same mass as the original isotope c) when ejected from the nucleus of a radioisotope, the nucleus formed has one more proton d) it is the same as a gamma radiation Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8

41) When a radioactive isotope emits a(n)___, its atomic number increases. a) alpha particle b) beta particle c) gamma ray d) positron Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

27

Section Reference 1: 2.8

42) If radium,

, were to emit an alpha particle, what would be the other product?

a) 226Rn 86

b) c) d) Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8

43) Scandium-40 enters into a reaction in which a positron is emitted. Which is the correct equation for this reaction?

34 0 + a) 40 21Sc→21 Sc+ 1 β 36 0 + b) 40 21Sc→21 Sc+ 1 β 36 0 + c) 40 21 Sc→20 Ca + 1 β 40 0 + d) 40 21 Sc→20 Ca + 1 β

Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8

44) Which equation below correctly depicts nitrogen-13 emitting a positron? a) 137 N→136 C+ 01β + b) 137 N→77 N+ 01β + c) 137 N→146 C+ 01β + d) 137 N→138 O+ 01β + Answer: a 28

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8

45) The dosage unit related to the amount of energy absorbed by an object exposed to nuclear radiation is ___. a) curie b) rad c) rem d) Becquerel Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

46) The unit commonly used to measure the amount of tissue damage that is produced by an exposure to ionizing radiation is ___. a) rem b) rad c) curie d) Becquerel Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

47) Radioisotopes with short half-lives are used in diagnostic tests because a) they have high energy. b) they are inexpensive. c) they do not pose health risks by being present long after use. d) they have less penetration ability.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium 29

Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

48) Most elements have radioisotopes. What is a radioisotope? a) An isotope that has a different atomic number. b) An isotope that releases nuclear radiation. c) An isotope that releases electrical radiation. d) Any isotope that can absorb nuclear particles.

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8

49) What is the minimum protection against exposure to beta particles? a) None, beta particles are of low energy and cannot penetrate skin. b) Gloves, a lab coat, or over a meter’s distance from the source. c) A thin sheet of plastic or metal. d) A sheet of lead.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

50) Gamma rays require a thick slab of concrete or lead to block them because they a) have the lowest energy. b) are so energetic that they have a very high penetrating power. c) are large in size. d) are small in size.

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9 30

51)The quality factor (QF) for alpha particles is 20. What is the radiation dose in remsfor this patient if he absorbed 13 rads of alpha particles? a) 20 rems b) 13 rems c) 23 rems d) 260 rems Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

52) If one starts with 10.0 grams of a radioactive substance, how much will remain after 3 half lives? a) 1.25 g b) 2.50 g c) 3.33 g d) 5.00 g Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

53) Iron-59 has a half-life of 45 days. How much of a 50.0-gram sample would remain after 180 days? a) 1.00 g b) 3.13 g c) 25.0 g d) There is no way to determine the results.

Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9 31

54) A 35 mg dose of iodine-131 with a half-life of 8 days is administered to a patient. How long will it take for the iodine to decay so that there are only about 2 mg remaining? a) 8 days b) 16 days c) 32 days d) 64 days Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

55) Whereas x-ray works well for bones, the value of a CT scan is that a) it provides a 3 dimensional view of bones. b) it provides images of the inside of the body. c) it provides a clear picture of gamma rays produced within the tissue. d) it provides images used in studies, such as monitoring sugar usage.

Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

56) Whereas x-ray works well for bones, the value of MRI imaging is that a) it provides a 3 dimensional view of bones. b) it provides images of the inside of the body. c) it provides a clear picture of gamma rays produced within the tissue. d) it provides images used in studies, such as monitoring sugar usage.

Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

32

57) A patient who has undergone a PET scan that used fluorine-18 tagged glucose is likely to emit which of the following a few hours after the procedure? a) x-rays b) alpha particles c) gamma radiation d) beta particles Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

Question type: True/false

58) Trace elements and vitamins are required for the body to function properly Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Define the terms trace element and Dietary Reference Intakes.

Section Reference 1: 2.3

59) An atom contains 12 protons and 12 neutrons, and a different atom contains 10 protons and 12 neutrons. These two atoms are not isotopes.

Answer: true Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4

60) The isotope of hydrogen that is a radioisotope has a mass number of 3.

Answer: true Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4

61) Calcium is a transition metal as is indicated by its location in the periodic table.

33

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Explain how elements are arranged in the periodic table and define the term atomic weight.

Section Reference 1: 2.5 62) Emission of a beta particle increases the number of protons in an atom’s nucleus.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8

63) The emission of an alpha particle only decreases the atomic mass of the atom.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8

64) The higher the quality factor (QF) of a radiation, the less harmful the exposure to the radiation.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

Question type: text-entry

65) The element that is essential for human nutrition and is responsible for formation of bones and teeth is ___.

Answer: calcium Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Define the terms element and atomic symbol.

34

Section Reference 1: 2.2

66) The atomic number is equal to the number of ___ found in a specific element.

Answer: protons Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4

67) Complete the following table: Isotope

Nuclear Symbol

Atomic Number

Mass Number

magnesium-28

magnesium-28

bromine-81

scandium-45

# of neutrons

# of electrons

28

12

35

81

35

Nuclear Symbol

Atomic Number

Mass Number

# of protons

# of neutrons

# of electrons

28 Mg 12

12

28

12

16

12

Br

35

81

35

46

35

Sc

21

45

21

24

21

45 21

Answer: Isotope

# of protons

81 35

45 21

Sc

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4

68) Complete the following table: Subatomic Particle

Relative Mass

Relative Charge 35

Location

proton

0

-1

1

0

Answer: Subatomic Particle

Relative Mass

Relative Charge

Location

proton

1 amu

+1

nucleus

electron

0

-1

electron cloud/outside nucleus

neutron

1

0

nucleus

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4

69) Beryllium and magnesium can be predicted to have similar properties because they are in the same ___ on the periodic table.

Answer: family/group Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Explain how elements are arranged in the periodic table and define the term atomic weight.

Section Reference 1: 2.5

70) Given the following elements: calcium, selenium, and chlorine,arrange the three elements in order of: increasing atomic size: _____<_____<_____ increasing metallic character

_____>_____>_____

Answer: increasing atomic size: Cl<Se<Ca increasing metallic character Ca>Se>Cl

36

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Explain how elements are arranged in the periodic table and define the term atomic weight.

Section Reference 1: 2.5

71) The number of ___ is the same in one mole of sodium as in one mole of zinc.

Answer: atoms Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Define the terms mole and molar mass.

Section Reference 1: 2.6

72) In a living thing, light can be produced without heat in a process called ___.

Answer: bioluminiscence Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.7 Describe the difference between the Bohr model and the quantum mechanical model of the atom, define the term valence electron, and describe electron dot structures.

Section Reference 1: 2.7

73) An alpha particle is essentially a(n) ___ nucleus.

Answer: helium-4 Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8

74) ___ radiation is electromagnetic radiation much like x-rays.

Answer: gamma Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8

75) What type of radiation will be emitted in the reaction below?

97 40

Zr

97 41

Nb +

?

37

Answer: beta particle Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8

76) Complete the equation below.

Answer: Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8

77) The least penetrating form of ionizing radiation is the ___ particle.

Answer: alpha Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

78) The time required for one half of a sample to undergo radioactive decay is the ___.

Answer: half-life Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

79) 0.04 mSv is the same as ___millirads.

Answer: 4 mrad.

Difficulty: hard 38

Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

Show all necessary calculations. Round answers to the correct number of significant figures.

80) Calculate the number of moles in 2.61 grams of silicon.

Answer: 0.0929 mol Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Define the terms mole and molar mass.

Section Reference 1: 2.6

81) Calculate the number of atoms in 2.61 grams of silicon.

Answer: 5.59 x 1022 atoms Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Define the terms mole and molar mass.

Section Reference 1: 2.6

82) Define the term mole. Explain the relationship between mole and atomic weight.

Answer: A mole is a counting unit that represents 6.02 x 1023 items. The atomic weight is the mass in grams of 1 mol of a substance.

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Define the terms mole and molar mass.

Section Reference 1: 2.6 83) What is the mass in grams of 5.82 x 1015 moles of Ba? Answer: 7.99 x 1017 grams Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Define the terms mole and molar mass.

Section Reference 1: 2.6

84) 12.5 grams of gold contains how many gold atoms?

Answer: 3.82 x 1022 atoms 39

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Define the terms mole and molar mass.

Section Reference 1: 2.6

85) Draw the electron dot structure for a selenium (Se) atom.

Answer: Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.7 Describe the difference between the Bohr model and the quantum mechanical model of the atom, define the term valence electron, and describe electron dot structures.

Section Reference 1: 2.7

86) Write the nuclear equation for the alpha emission of bismuth-210.

Answer:

210 206 4 Bi ----> He + Tl 83 81 2

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8

87) Write the nuclear equation for the beta emission of iodine-131.

Answer:

131 131 0 I ----> β + Xe 53 54 −1

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Describe the four common types of radiation emitted by radioisotopes and write balanced nuclear equations.

Section Reference 1: 2.8

88) Technetium-99 is injected into a patient in order to monitor heart function. Technetium-99 is a gamma emitter with a half-life of 6 hours. A patient receives an injection of 21 mg of Technetium-99 on a Tuesday at 9:00 a.m.

Calculate the number of hours and the number of half-lives that occur between 9:00 a.m. on Tuesday and 11:00 p.m. on Wednesday.

Answer: 38 hours= 6.3 half-lives Difficulty: hard 40

Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

Question type: Essay

89) Define the term element. Give one example of an element that is a metal, an element that is a nonmetal, and an element that is a semimetal.

Answer: An element is a substance composed of only one kind of atom. It cannot be broken down into simpler substances. Examples of a metal, a nonmetal, and a semimetal will vary.

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Define the terms element and atomic symbol.

Section Reference 1: 2.2

90) Distinguish between the terms atomic number, mass number, and atomic weight.

Answer: Atomic number is the number of protons in an atom’s nucleus. Mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons in an atomic nucleus. Atomic weight is the average of atoms of an element as it is found in nature.

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain what atomic number and mass number indicate about an atom's nucleus and describe how isotopes of an element differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 2.4

91) Describe two ways to protect oneself from exposure to radiation when working in an environment that contains radioactive sources.

Answer: Distance and shielding are two means of protecting oneself from exposure to radiation.

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Explain the terms half-life and background radiation, describe how shielding can provide protection from radiation, and give examples of how radiation is used for the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

Section Reference 1: 2.9

41

Package Title: Raymond Test Bank Course Title: Raymond, 4e Chapter Number: 3

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is a cation? a) Ca2+ b) Na c) Br d) O2Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1

2) Which of the following is an anion? a) F b) Al3+ c) Mg d) IAnswer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 3) CO32- is the ___ ion. a) acetate b) hydrogencarbonate (bicarbonate) c) carbonate d) cyanide Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 31

4) The formula of a phosphate ion is ___. a) PO43b) P3c) HPO42d) H2PO4Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 5) The name for the Cu2+ ion is a) copper ion. b) cobalt (II) ion. c) copper (I) ion. d) copper(II) ion.

Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 6) NO3- is the ___ ion. a) nitrous b) nitrogen trioxide c) nitrite d) nitrate Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 7) HPO42- is the ___ ion. a) hydrogen phosphate b) monophosphate 32

c) phosphide d) phosphite Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1

8) Which symbol is representative of a halide ion? a) He b) Ne c) Id) Fe2+ Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 9) The name for the Ti4+ ion is a) Tin ion. b) Tin (IV) ion. c) Titanium ion. d) Titanium (IV) ion.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1

10) The formation of ions typically occurs when a) nonmetal atoms lose electrons and metals gain them. b) metal and nonmetal atoms are close together in the number of valence electrons. c) metal and nonmetal atoms have the same number of electrons. d) nonmetal atoms gain electrons and metal atoms lose them.

Answer: d Difficulty: medium 33

Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 11) Which is the appropriate description of Sr2+? a) This is an atom and can be used to form chemical compounds. b) This is an atom with a charge of +2 because there are more neutrons than protons. c) This is an ion with a charge of +2 because there are two more protons than electrons. d) This is an ion with a charge of +2 because there are more electrons than protons.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 12) How many protons and electrons does Mg2+ have? a) 12 protons and 12 electrons b) 12 protons and 14 electrons c) 14 protons and 12 electrons d) 12 protons and 10 electrons Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 13) Nitrogen can have an anion, N3-. This ion a) is the result of the atom gaining three electrons. b) can form three ionic bonds. c) has eight electrons in the outside orbit. d) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1

34

14) How many electrons are contained in sulfide ion?

a) 18 b) 14 c) 30 d) 16 Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1

15) Which ion has the same number of electrons as the noble gas argon? a) Fb) Mg2+ c) Brd) Ca2+ Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Explain how the electron dot structure of a representative element atom can be used to predict the charge on the monoatomic ion that it forms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2

16) Choose the electron dot structure for a magnesium atom. a) b) c) d)

Mg

Mg Mg

Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Explain how the electron dot structure of a representative element atom can be used to predict the charge on the monoatomic ion that it forms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 17) According to the octet rule, how many valence electrons are present in a chloride ion (Cl-)?

35

a) 1 b) 2 c) 8 d) 4 Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Explain how the electron dot structure of a representative element atom can be used to predict the charge on the monoatomic ion that it forms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2

18) How many valence electrons must S atom gain to reach an octet? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0 Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Explain how the electron dot structure of a representative element atom can be used to predict the charge on the monoatomic ion that it forms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2

19) According to the octet rule, strontium (Sr) will form which of the following monoatomic ions? a) Sr2b) Sr3+ c) Sr2+ d) Sr3Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Explain how the electron dot structure of a representative element atom can be used to predict the charge on the monoatomic ion that it forms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2

20) Generally, the octet rule works fairly well for predicting the behavior of atoms. However, there is an exception: a) The halogens do not form ions on the basis of the octet rule. b) The alkali metals only conform to the octet rule when producing neutral atoms. c) The transition metals do not necessarily conform to the octet rule. d) The nonmetals do not conform to the octet rule.

36

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Explain how the electron dot structure of a representative element atom can be used to predict the charge on the monoatomic ion that it forms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 21) When considering the octet rule, the explanation of the O2- ion is a) a loss of two electrons to get closer to 8 in the energy level. b) when an oxygen atom gains two electrons, it has the same electron arrangement as neon, an inert gas. c) oxygen’s nuclear charge of 8 can only hold 8 electrons in the outer shell. d) oxygen is an exception to the octet rule.

Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Explain how the electron dot structure of a representative element atom can be used to predict the charge on the monoatomic ion that it forms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2

22) A compound is a) two or more elements well mixed. b) two or more elements combined chemically. c) two or more elements carrying a positive charge. d) a physical blend of two or more elements.

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

23) The formula for ammonium chloride is ___. a) AlCl3 b) NH4Cl c) NCl d) AmCl Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 37

24) Which pair of elements cannot combine to form a chemical compound? a) Na and Ne b) Li and O c) Fe and S d) Ca and I Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

25) The formula of calcium sulfate is ___. a) CaSO3 b) CaSO4 c) CaS d) CaS2 Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

26) Which of the following atom pairs would most likely be connected by an ionic bond? a) K and Br b) O and Br C) S and Br d) F and Br Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

27) The compound BaBr2 is named a) barium dibromide. b) barium (II) bromide. c) barium bromide. d) barium bromate.

38

Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

28) Calcium chloride has the formula CaCl2. As an ionic compound it is a) composed of one cation and 2 anions. b) held together by means of covalent bonds. c) composed of two cations and one anion. d) more likely a molecular compound.

Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

29) Chose the formula of cobalt(II) nitrate. a) CoN b) Co2 NO3 c) Co(NO3)2 d) Co(II)(NO3)2 Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

30) What is the formula of beryllium sulfide? a) BeS b) Be2S c) Be2S3 d) Be3S2 Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

31) What is the proper name of the compound FePO4?

39

a) iron phosphide b) iron(III) phosphide c) iron(III) phosphate d) iron phosphorus tetraoxide Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

32) What is the formula of the ionic compound that forms between lithium ions and dichromate ions? a) LiCr2O7 b) Li3 Cr2O7 c) Li2 Cr2O7 d) Li4Cr2O7 Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

33) The name of the compound Na2CO3 is a) sodium carbonate. b) disodium carbonate. c) sodium bicarbonate. d) disodium bicarbonate.

Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

34) Which of the following is an ionic compound? a) CS2 b) CO2 c) Mg(OH)2 d) CH4 Answer: c Difficulty: hard 40

Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

35) What is the formula of the ionic compound that forms between calcium ions and phosphate ions? a) CaPO4 b) Ca2PO4 c) Ca2(PO4)3 d) Ca3(PO4)2 Answer: d Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

36) Which of the following atom pairs would most likely be connected by a covalent bond? a) Na and O b) O and Cl c) Na and Cl d) K and F Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Predict the number of covalent bonds that a nonmetal atom will form and draw or evaluate electron dot and Lewis structures.

Section Reference 1: 3.4

37) The difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond is that a) ionic bonds commonly occur between two metals and covalent bonds occur between metals and nonmetals. b) ionic bonds are between atoms that can share electrons; covalent bonds are between atoms that will donate/accept electrons. c) covalent bonds come about because of a sharing of electrons; ionic bonds do not. d) ionic bonds are between smaller atoms; covalent bonds are between large atoms.

Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Predict the number of covalent bonds that a nonmetal atom will form and draw or evaluate electron dot and Lewis structures.

Section Reference 1: 3.4

41

38) Predict the number of covalent bonds by S atom. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Predict the number of covalent bonds that a nonmetal atom will form and draw or evaluate electron dot and Lewis structures.

Section Reference 1: 3.4

39) Predict the number of covalent bonds by N atom. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Predict the number of covalent bonds that a nonmetal atom will form and draw or evaluate electron dot and Lewis structures.

Section Reference 1: 3.4

40) Which of the following is a binary compound? a) NaOH b) FeCl3 c) Ca 3(PO4)2 d) None of these choices is a binary compound.

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.5 Name and write the formulas of binary molecules.

Section Reference 1: 3.5

41) What is the proper name of the compound N2O3? a) nitrate b) nitrogen(II) oxide c) nitrogen trioxide d) dinitrogen trioxide 42

Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.5 Name and write the formulas of binary molecules.

Section Reference 1: 3.5

42) The name of the compound N2O4 is a) nitrogen oxide. b) nitrogen tetroxide. c) dinitrogen tetroxide. d) nitrogen dioxide.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.5 Name and write the formulas of binary molecules.

Section Reference 1: 3.5

43) The proper name for P2O5 is a) diphosphorus pentoxide b) phosphorus pentoxide c) phosphate oxide d) phosphorus oxide Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.5 Name and write the formulas of binary molecules.

Section Reference 1: 3.5

44) What is the correct name of the compound Cl2O3? a) dichlorine trioxide b) Chlorine oxide c) Chlorine trioxide d) Chloride oxide Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.5 Name and write the formulas of binary molecules.

Section Reference 1: 3.5

45) What is the molar mass of magnesium chloride?

43

a) 59.80 g/mol b) 90.40 g/mol c) 95.30 g/mol d) 125.90 g/mol Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

46) What is the molar mass of ammonium oxide? a) 30.00 g/mol b) 34.00 g/mol c) 44.00 g/mol d) 52.00 g/mol Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

47) What is the molar mass of isopentyl acetate, C7H14O2, a compound responsible for the odor of bananas? a) 130.19 g/mole b) 98.32 g/mole c) 146.58 g/mole d) 119.35 g/mole e) 13.19 g/mole Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

48) What is the molar mass of aspirin (C9H8O4), a drug often used to relieve minor aches and pains? a) 165.43 g/mol b) 106.21 g/mol c) 88.67 g/mol 44

d) 180.16 g/mol Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

49) A compound commonly called trisodium phosphate, Na3PO4, is used to clean grease and other organic materials from concrete surfaces. Calculate the formula weight of this cleaner. a) 70.20 amu b) 116.70 amu c) 118.30 amu d) 164.00 amu Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

50) Aluminum sulfate, Al2(SO4)3, can be used in water purification. What is the formula weight of this salt? a) 75.10 amu b) 342.30 amu c) 315.30 amu d) 150.10 amu Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

51) What is the mass in grams of 3 moles of calcium carbonate, CaCO3, a common antacid? a) 300 grams b) 150 grams c) 100 grams d) 68 grams Answer: a 45

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

52) Calculate the mass of 10.00 moles of nickel(II) cyanide, Ni(CN)2. a) 847.0 grams b) 987.0 grams c) 1107 grams d) 1694 grams Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

53) Glycerol, often called glycerine, was used as a skin moisturizer before more commercial preparations were made available. Calculate the weight of 7.85 moles glycerin.

H

H

O

H

O

H

C

C

C

H

H

H

O

H

a) 92.3 grams b) 228 grams c) 667 grams d) 722 grams Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

54) Ethanol, C2H5OH, is found in alcoholic beverages. If a 125-g sample is pure ethanol, how many moles of ethanol are present? a) 0.419 moles b) 2.72 moles c) 5750 moles d) 46.3 moles 46

Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6 55) A 1.0 x 102- gram sample is found to be pure alanine, an amino acid found in proteins. How many moles of alanine are in the sample?

H

H

H

O

C

C

C

H

N

H

O

H

H

a) 0.20 moles b) 0.90 moles c) 1.1 moles d) 890 moles Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

56) What is the mass of 0.00142 mole of vitamin C (C6H8O6)? a) 0.250 g b) 0.500 g c) 0.125 g d) 2.50 g Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

57) How many molecules of aspirin (C9H8O4) are present in 41.40 g of aspirin? a) 0.2300 aspirin molecules b) 2.700 x 1026 aspirin molecules c) 9.600 x 1023 aspirin molecules d) 1.383 x 1023 aspirin molecules 47

Answer: d Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

Question type: True/false 58) Ag+ is an ion with 47 protons and 108 electrons.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1

59) A Roman numeral is used in the name of transition metal ions. That numeral indicates the charge of the ion.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1

60) Helium forms an ion with a 2+ charge.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 61) SO32- is called the sulfur trioxide ion.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 48

62) Elements in family 8A tend to form anions.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1

63) Sodium carbonate is an ionic compound whose formula is NaCO3.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

64) The formula of the ionic compound that forms between aluminum ions and Sulfide ions is AlS2.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

65) Potassium and magnesium cannot form a binary compound together.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.5 Name and write the formulas of binary molecules.

Section Reference 1: 3.5

66) The formula weight of magnesium fluoride is 62.30 amu.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

Question type: Text-entry 49

67) The magnesium ___ is represented by Mg2+.

Answer: ion Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1

68) Roman numerals are used to denote the charge of ___ metal cations if they form more than one ionic charge.

Answer: transition Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1

69) The bicarbonate ion is different than the carbonate ion because it contains one ___ not found in the carbonate ion.

Answer: hydrogen atom Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1

70) Ionic compounds tend to exist in the ___ state at room temperature.

Answer: solid Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

71) ___ is the formula for aluminum fluoride.

Answer: AlF3 Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 50

72) The formula of manganese(II) oxide is ___.

Answer: MnO Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

73) The valence electrons not involved in bonds are called ___.

Answer: nonbonding electrons Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Predict the number of covalent bonds that a nonmetal atom will form and draw or evaluate electron dot and Lewis structures.

Section Reference 1: 3.4

74) The oxygen gas found in the atmosphere contains ___ atom(s) per molecule.

Answer: 2 Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.5 Name and write the formulas of binary molecules.

Section Reference 1: 3.5

75) The risk of heart attack and stroke increase when a person is given blood transfusion because ___ is lacking in stored blood.

Answer: nitric oxide Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

76) Complete the following table: symbol

number of protons

number of electrons

Na+ N351

BrAnswer: symbol

number of protons

number of electrons

Na+

11

10

N3-

7

10

Br-

35

36

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1

77) Sketch electron dot structures for each of the following atoms: a) Cl b) Al c) Ca d) N Answer: a) b) c) d)

Cl

Al Ca

N

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Explain how the electron dot structure of a representative element atom can be used to predict the charge on the monoatomic ion that it forms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2

78) Give the name for each of the following: a) SiF4 b) CuBr2 c) MgCO3 52

d) NH4NO3 Answer: a) silicon tetrafluoride b) copper(II) bromide c) magnesium carbonate d) ammonium nitrate Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 3.3

79) Draw the line bond structure of sulfuric acid.

Answer: Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Predict the number of covalent bonds that a nonmetal atom will form and draw or evaluate electron dot and Lewis structures.

Section Reference 1: 3.4

80) Draw a structure expected from the combination of nitrogen and three chlorine atoms?

Answer: Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Predict the number of covalent bonds that a nonmetal atom will form and draw or evaluate electron dot and Lewis structures.

Section Reference 1: 3.4

81) Name the following compounds: a) MgCl2 b) AgNO3 c) Fe(N03)3 d) SCl2 Answer: a) magnesium chloride b) silver nitrate 53

c) iron(III) nitrate d) sulfur dichloride Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.5 Name and write the formulas of binary molecules.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 Section Reference 2: 3.5

82) Give the formula for the following compounds: a) diphosphorus triiodide b) silver oxide c) cobalt (II) phosphate d) carbon disulfide Answer: a) P2I3 b) Ag2O c) Co3(PO4)2 d) CS2 Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.5 Name and write the formulas of binary molecules.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 Section Reference 2: 3.5

83) Give the formula for the following compounds: a) strontium bromide b) disulfur trioxide c) copper(II) nitrite d) lithium oxide Answer: a) SrBr2 b) S2O3 c) Cu(NO2)2 d) Li2O Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.5 Name and write the formulas of binary molecules.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 Section Reference 2: 3.5

84) Give the name for each of the following: a) N2Br4 54

b) NH4Cl c) Fe(NO3)3 d) NaF Answer: a) dinitrogen tetrabromide b) ammonium chloride c) iron(III) bromide d) sodium fluoride Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.5 Name and write the formulas of binary molecules.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 Section Reference 2: 3.5

85) Determine the molar mass for each of the following: a) Ca(NO3)2 b) AgNO3 c) FeBr2 d) SCl2 Answer: a) 164.10 g/mol b) 169.90 g/mol c) 215.60 g/mol d) 103.10 g/mol Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

Question type: Short answer/Essay Show all necessary calculations. Include all necessary units. Round answers to the correct number of significant figures.

86) Calculate the number of moles in 8.61 grams of calcium nitrate.

Answer: 0.0525 mol Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6 87) What is the mass in grams of 1.82 x 10-1 moles of phosphorus trichloride?

55

Answer: 25.0 g Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

88) What is the mass of 3.15 moles of calcium sulfate, CaSO4?

Answer: 429 g Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

89) How many moles are in 25.00 g of water?

Answer: 1.387 mole Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6

90) What is the mass of 13.00 moles of calcium carbonate, CaCO3, a common antacid?

Answer: 1301 g Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Define the terms formula weight and molecular weight and use the molar mass of a compound to carry out conversions involving moles and mass.

Section Reference 1: 3.6 91) Differentiate between the terms “anion” and “cation” and give an example of each.

Answer: Anions have a negative charge. Cations have a positive charge. Examples will vary.

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Define the term ion and describe the naming of monoatomic and polyatomic cations and anions.

Section Reference 1: 3.1

92) Differentiate between ionic and covalent bonds and give the name and formula of a binary ionic compound and a binary covalent compound.

56

Answer: Ionic bonds are the result of the transfer of electrons forming positive and negative ions that attract each other. Covalent bonds occur between atoms that share electrons. Examples will vary.

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Name and write the formulas of ionic compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.4 Predict the number of covalent bonds that a nonmetal atom will form and draw or evaluate electron dot and Lewis structures.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 Section Reference 2: 3.4

57

Package Title: Raymond Test Bank Course Title: Raymond, 4e Chapter Number: 4

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) The number of covalent bonds that a nitrogen atom is expected to form is ___. a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 4 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Represent molecules and polyatomic ions using Lewis structures, line-bond structures, condensed formulas, and skeletal structures.

Section Reference 1: 4.1

2) Which of the following statements is (are) true about hydrogen bonding interaction? a) It occurs only in molecules that contain H bonded to a highly electronegative atom, such as N, O, or F. b) It is a special type of dipole-dipole interaction. c) It is present in H2O. d) All of these choices.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

3) The correct condensed structure of Propylene glycol, a compound used as a solvent for drugs is

a) CH3CH2CH2OH 47

b) CH2HOHCOH2COH

c)

d) Answer: C Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

4) An isotope of fluoromethane, CH3F, has been used for cerebral blood flow measurement.

Which of the following represent the correct line-bond structure of fluoromethane? (C is the central atom.)

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 48

5) Dichloromethane, CH2Cl2, is widely used as a solvent. Which of the following represents its correct line-bond structure? In this molecule, carbon is the central atom.

Answer: D Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

6) Which of the following represents the correct line-bond structure of nitrosyl chloride (ONCl)?

In this molecule, nitrogen is the central atom.

Answer: C Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

49

7) Which of the following is the correct line-bond structure for the BrO3- ion?

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 8) The correct line-bond structure for SO42- ion is

50

Answer C Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 9) The correct line-bond structure for ClI2+ ion is

51

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

10) The ability of an atom in a molecule to attract bonding electrons to itself is its ___. a) polarity b) electronegativity c) ionic nature d) bonding character Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

11) Which of the following contains a nonpolar covalent bond? a) LiBr b) CaCl2 c) H2O d) O2 Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

12) Which of the following molecules is polar? a) H2CO (hint: C is the central atom) b) CH4 c) N2 d) BCl3 (hint: B is the central atom and doesn’t have an octet) Answer: a 52

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

13) The molecule CH4 has a tetrahedral shape. The angle between the bonds in CH4 is approximately ___. a) 104.5 b) 109.5 c) 90 d) 120 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

14) The shape of formaldehyde CH2O (C is the central atom), a substance often used in building insulation materials, is ___. a) trigonal planar b) tetrahedral c) linear d) pyramidal Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

15) Which molecule is nonpolar even though it contains polar bonds? a) NH3 b) H2O c) CCF4 d) CHClF2 Answer: c 53

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

16) Which of the following bonds can be classified as polar? a) NaCl b) CH c) CsBr d) ClF Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

17) Which bond is most polar? a) B-Cl b) C-Cl c) O-Cl d) Cl-Br Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

18) Oxygen is more electronegative than carbon, so when an oxygen atom pulls the shared pair of bonding electrons toward itself to form a covalent bond, the oxygen atom carries a) a partial positive charge. b) no charge. c) a partial negative charge. d) both a partial positive charge and a negative charge.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium 54

Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

19) In which bond does the oxygen atom possess a partial positive charge? a) O-H b) O-F c) N-O d) O-C Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 20) Which atoms in the following molecule would have δ- charge based on the electronegativities of the elements?

a) H and O b) O and C c) C and N d) N and O Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 21) Which atoms in the following molecule would have δ- charge based on the electronegativities of the elements?

55

a) H, C, and O b) N, O, and S c) C and N d) N, S, and C Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

22) Which bond is least polar? a) H-F b) H-Cl c) H-Br d) H-I Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

23) Which molecule has a linear geometry? a) SO2 b) H2O c) OF2 d) CO2 Answer: d Difficulty: Hard 56

Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

24) Which of the following molecules is nonpolar?

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

25) Which of the following molecules is polar?

Answer: B Difficulty: Hard 57

Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3 Name the different types of noncovalent interactions and be able to predict the important noncovalent interactions that hold molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 4.3 26) What is the shape around C atom in OCN-? a) linear b) bent c) pyramidal d) Trigonal planar Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

27) The strongest noncovalent interaction that can occur between hydrocarbons is ___. a) dipole-dipole forces b) hydrogen bonding c) ion-dipole interaction d) London force Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3 Name the different types of noncovalent interactions and be able to predict the important noncovalent interactions that hold molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 4.3

28) The strongest noncovalent interaction that can occur between two methyl alcohol molecules is ___.

a) dipole-dipole forces b) hydrogen bonding c) ion-dipole interaction d) London force Answer: b 58

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3 Name the different types of noncovalent interactions and be able to predict the important noncovalent interactions that hold molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 4.3

29) Organic compound must contain which of the following atoms? a) O b) H c) S d) C Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

30) The following molecule belongs to which family of compounds?

a) alcohols b) Ethers c) sulfides d) Thiols Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

31) Which pairs of molecules can form a hydrogen bond with one another? a) NF3 b) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 c) CH3CH2NH2 d) CCl4 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium 59

Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

32) Serotonin is a molecule involved in the transmission of nerve impulses. One of the organic families present in serotonin is ___.

a) ester b) alkyne c) phenol d) aldehyde Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

33) Which of the following organic families is present in the molecule provided below?

a) ether b) ketone c) aldehyde d) phenol Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

34) The following molecule belongs to which organic family?

60

a) ketone b) ether c) carboxylic acid d) ester Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

Question type: True/False

35) The CaF bond in CaF2 is nonpolar.

Answer: false Difficulty Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

36) Potassium has lower electronegativity than F. Answer: true Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

37) All molecules with polar covalent bonds are polar.

Answer: false Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

38) CH2Cl2 is polar.

61

Answer: true Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

39) The Si-Si bond in Cl3SiSiCl3 is expected to be polar.

Answer: false Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

40) The greater the difference in electronegativity of the atoms involved, the more polar the covalent bond.

Answer: true Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

41) Dioxygen difluoride whose actual three dimensional shape is provided below is non-polar.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3 Name the different types of noncovalent interactions and be able to predict the important noncovalent interactions that hold molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 4.3

42) The kinds of interactions that exist between CH3COOH molecules include dipole-dipole (including hydrogen bonding) interactions and London forces.

O

CH3 C

OH 62

Answer: true Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3 Name the different types of noncovalent interactions and be able to predict the important noncovalent interactions that hold molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 4.3

43) Hydrocarbons can take part in dipole-dipole interactions.

Answer: false Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

44) The molecule shown below contains an aldehyde functional group.

Answer: false Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

45) Ketone is present in Vanillin.

Answer: false Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

46) The shape of H2O is bent.

Answer: true 63

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

Question type: Text Entry

47) Of the two elements, lithium and chromium, ___ has greater electronegativity.

Answer: chromium Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

48) The ___ forces are the attraction of neighboring polar groups for one another.

Answer: dipole-dipole Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

49) The organic family present in this molecule is a (an) ___.

Answer: ketone Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Represent molecules and polyatomic ions using Lewis structures, line-bond structures, condensed formulas, and skeletal structures.

Section Reference 1: 4.1

Question type: Text Entry

50) Which share the stronger London force interactions, two CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 molecules or two

?

64

Answer: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 51) Sketch the line-bond structure of the NO3- ion. Specify its molecular geometry.

Answer: Geometry = trigonal planar

O O N O

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3 Name the different types of noncovalent interactions and be able to predict the important noncovalent interactions that hold molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 4.3

52) Draw two disulfides with the formula C4H10S2.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

53) Pseudoephedrine is a nasal decongestant found in several cold remedies. Which organic families are present in this molecule?

Answer: Aromatic, amine Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 65

54) This molecule is responsible for the aroma of grape fruit. Which organic families are present?

Answer: Alkene, thiol Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

55) Draw two ethers that have the formula C4H10O. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

56) Draw two esters with the formula C5H10O

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

57) Draw a molecule with the formula C7H8O that has both aldehyde and aromatic groups.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

66

Name the following: Question type: Matching Choose the type of shape from Column 2 that best matches each item in Column 1.

58) CO2 a) Bent Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 59) SO2

b) pyramidal

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 60) CH4

c) Trigonal planar

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 61) CH2O (Carbon is the central atom)

d) Tetrahedral

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard 67

Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 62) NH3

e) linear

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

Question type: Matching Choose the type of organic family from Column 2 that matches each compound in Column 1. a) disulfide 63) Answer: g Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 b) thiol 64) Answer j Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 68

c) aldehyde 65) Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 66)

d) sulfide

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 e) amine

67) Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 f) ether 68) Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

69

g) alkene 69) Answer: k Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 h) Amide

70) Answer: m Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

i) Carboxylic acid

71.

Answer: i Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 j) ketone

72) Answer: l

70

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 k) ester 73) Answer: f Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 l) Alkyl halide 74)

Answer: h Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 75)

m) alcohol

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Given the structure of a molecule, be able to identify the family to which it belongs.

Section Reference 1: 4.4

Sketch the line-bond structure for each molecule or polyatomic ion of the following.

Determine the molecular geometry and molecular polarity. (Indicate its shape and whether it is polar or nonpolar).

71

Formula 76)

Lewis Structure Answer: H H2S

Shape Answer: bent

Polar or nonpolar?

Answer: polar

Answer: pyramidal

Answer: polar

Answer: linear

Answer: nonpolar

H S

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 77)

Answer: AsCl3

Cl As Cl Cl

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 78)

Answer: CSe2

Se

C

Se

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the 72

shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 79)

Answer: PO43-

Answer: nonpolar

Answer: bent

Answer: polar

3-

O O

Answer:

Answer: tetrahedral

P O O

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 80)

Answer:

-

NO2Answer:

N O

O

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Explain why some covalent bonds are polar, describe how to predict the shape about an atom in a molecule, and explain how both polar covalent bonds and shape play a role in determining the overall polarity of a molecule.

Section Reference 1: 4.2

73

Package Title: Raymond Test Bank Course Title: Raymond, 4e Chapter Number: 5

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) What will you observe if you mix a solution of KOH with a solution of MgI2 in the reaction below?

a) bubbles of KI will form b) a solid of Mg(OH)2 will settle in reaction vessel c) a solid of KOH will form d) a clear solution will form Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

2) Which set of coefficients properly balance the equation below, going from reactants to products?

a) 1,2,1,4 b) 2,1,1,2 c) 2,2,3,1 d) 1,2,2,1 Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

3) Lithium is a metal that reacts vigorously with oxygen. Which set of coefficents balance the equation below? ____Li(s) + ____O2(g) ____Li2O(s) a) 1,2,1 b) 2,2,1 c) 1,2,2 d) 4,1,2 68

Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

4) In chemical reaction a) the covalent bonds and ionic bonds that hold elements and compounds together remain intact as new bonds are formed b) the covalent and ionic bonds that hold elements and compounds together are broken and no new bonds are formed c) the covalent and ionic bonds that hold elements and compounds together are broken and new bonds are formed d) neither new bonds are formed nor old bonds broken Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

5) Balance the equation and list the coefficients in the balanced equation below, going from reactants to products.

____HCl(aq) + ____Ca(s)

____H2(g)

+

____CaCl2(aq)

a) 2,1,1,1 b) 2,2,1,1 c) 1,1,2,1 d) 1,2,1,2 Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

6) When properly balanced with whole number coefficients, what is the coefficient on H2O? ____HCl + ____Ba(OH)2

___BaCl2 + ___H2O

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6 69

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

7) When properly balanced with whole number coefficients, what is the coefficient on N2 ?

a) 4 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

8) Aluminum will react slowly with the oxygen in the air. When the equation below is balanced, with whole number coefficients, what is the coefficient on aluminum oxide?

____Al(s) + ____O2(g)

____Al2O3(s)

a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1 Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

9) Pentose, C5H10O5, reacts with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water. What is the coefficient on O2 when the equation below is properly balanced?

____C5H10O5(s) + ____O2(g)

____CO2(g)

a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 15 Answer: b 70

+

____H2O(l)

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

10) Which set of coefficients properly balance the equation below?

____C5H12 + ____O2

____CO2

+

____H2O

a) 1,1,5,6 b) 1,5,5,6 c) 1,5,5,1 d) 1,8,5,6 Answer: d Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

11) Which set of coefficients properly balance the equation below, going from reactants to products?

a) 1,3,2,3 b) 1,7,4,3 c) 2,7,4,6 d) 2,3,2,3 Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

12) Classify the reaction below as involving synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, or double replacement.

CaCO3(s)

CaO(s) + CO2(g)

a) single replacement b) double replacement c) decomposition d) synthesis Answer: c 71

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify reactions as involving synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, or double replacement.

Section Reference 1: 5.2

13) Classify the reaction below as involving synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, or double replacement.

NH4Cl +

AgNO3

NH4NO3

+ AgCl

a) single replacement b) double replacement c) synthesis d) decomposition Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify reactions as involving synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, or double replacement.

Section Reference 1: 5.2

14) Classify the reaction below as involving synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, or double replacement.

2Mg(s) + O2(g)

2MgO(s)

a) double replacement b) single replacement c) decomposition d) synthesis Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify reactions as involving synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, or double replacement.

Section Reference 1: 5.2

15) Classify the reaction below as involving synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, or double replacement.

Al

+ 3AgNO3

Al(NO3)3 + 3Ag

a) synthesis b) single replacement c) double replacement 72

d) decomposition Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify reactions as involving synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, or double replacement.

Section Reference 1: 5.2

16) The following equation is an example of a ___ reaction.

2Ag(s) + S(s)

Ag2S(s)

a) synthesis b) decomposition c) single replacement d) double replacement Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify reactions as involving synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, or double replacement.

Section Reference 1: 5.2

17) The reaction below is an example of a ___ reaction.

O CH3CH2C OCH2CH3 + H2O

H+

O CH3CH2C OH + HOCH2CH3

a) hydrogenation b) hydrolysis c) dehydration d) neutralization Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Identify hydrolysis, hydration, and dehydration reactions of organic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 5.3

18) The reaction below is an example of a ___ reaction.

73

H OH + H C C H H

H C

H H

H

C H

+

H2O

H

a) dehydration b) hydrogenation c) hydrolysis d) combustion Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Identify hydrolysis, hydration, and dehydration reactions of organic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 5.3

19) The reaction below is an example of a ___ reaction.

H CH3C

CCH3 + H2O

H

H

H+

CH3C H

OH CCH3 H

a) hydrogenation b) hydrolysis c) dehydration d) hydration Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Identify hydrolysis, hydration, and dehydration reactions of organic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 20) If ethene (H2C=CH2) were to react with water in an acid solution (H+ present), the result would be which of the following?

a)

H

H

b) c)

H

H

H

C

C

H

H

C

C

H

H

C

C

O

H

O

H

O

H

74

H H

d)

C H

H H

+

H

C

O

H

H

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Identify hydrolysis, hydration, and dehydration reactions of organic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 5.3

21) The missing reactant is

Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Identify hydrolysis, hydration, and dehydration reactions of organic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 5.3

22) 2-methylcyclopentene reacts with hydrogen in the presence of platinum catalyst to form methylcyclopentane.

75

In this reaction: a) 2-methylcyclopentene is reduced b) Pt is oxidized c) methylcyclopentane is reduced d) cyclohexane is oxidized Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

23) A chemical reaction in which there is a transfer of electrons from one reactant to another reactant can be classified as a) decomposition reaction b) combustion reaction c) oxidation-reduction reaction d) double replacement reaction Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

24) In the reaction below, which element is oxidized?

Mg(s) + Br2(g)

MgBr2(s)

a) Mg b) Br2 c) neither Mg nor Br2 is oxidized Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4 76

25) In the reaction below, _____.

Zn(s)

+

S(s)

ZnS(s)

a) Zn and S are both oxidized b) Zn and S are both reduced c) Zn is reduced and S is oxidized d) Zn is oxidized and S is reduced Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

26) In the reaction below:

K2Cr2O7

CH3CH2OH

H2SO4

H O H C C OH H

a) CH3CH2OH is oxidized b) CH3CH2OH is reduced

H O C.

H C C O H is reduced H

d) CH3CH2OH in neither oxidized nor reduced Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

27) In the reaction below:

H H C

C C

H

H H

H H H H + H2

Pt

H C C C H H H

a) CH3CH=CH2 is oxidized 77

H

b) CH3CH=CH2 is reduced c) CH3CH2CH3 is reduced d) CH3CH=CH2 is neither oxidized nor reduced Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

28) Barium and sulfur react to produce barium sulfide. What is the role of barium in this reaction?

Ba(s) + S(s) BaS(s) a) Barium is not affected by the processes of the chemical reaction. b) Barium is being reduced. c) Barium serves as the reducing agent. d) Barium is the oxidizing agent.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

29) Regarding the following reaction,

3 Mg(s) + N2(g)

Mg3N2(s)

a) This reaction does not involve oxidation or reduction. b) Magnesium is oxidized and nitrogen is reduced. c) Both magnesium and nitrogen are reduced. d) Magnesium is reduced and nitrogen is oxidized.

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

30) What was the earliest reported method of fighting infection in the operating room? a) The patient was treated with Betadine before surgery. b) Carbolic acid was used on the surgeon’s tools.

78

c) Listerine was the antiseptic of choice. d) The surgeons washed with soap and chlorine water.

Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

31) Benzoyl peroxide can be used as a treatment for acne. Benzoyl peroxide a) has a reduction action that tends to neutralize the effects of the acne bacteria. b) is injected so that it will have a general immune action against bacteria causing acne. c) is an oxidizing agent used on the skin to kill the bacteria causing acne. d) is not used for acne; it is an antiseptic used to sterilize a surgeon’s hands.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

32) Which reaction is NOT an oxidation-reduction reaction?

Ag2S(s) a) 2Ag(s) + S(s) AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) NaNO3(g) + b) 2 NaOH(aq) + H2(g) c) 2 Na(s) + H2O(l)

AgCl(s)

d) All of these are oxidation-reduction reactions.

Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

33) Ethyne, C2H2, used in welding react with oxygen as shown below.

Which of the following is about this reaction? a) carbon is oxidized b) the reaction can be classified as a hydration reaction c) C2H2 is the oxidizing agent d) CO2 is the reducing agent 79

Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

34) Isooctane, C8H18, a component of gasoline is a liquid at room temperature. How many moles of oxygen are required to completely react with 4 moles of isooctane?

a) 50 b) 12 c) 100 d) 25 Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

35) In the following reaction, the aldehyde has been

a) Reduced b) Oxidized c) Hydrolysed d) None of these choices.

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Use balanced chemical equations to determine relationships between reactants and products.

Section Reference 1: 5.5

36) In the following reaction, 10.0 moles of potassium would require how many moles of bromine?

2 K(s) + Br2(l) 2 KBr(s) 80

a) 2.00 b) 5.00 c) 10.0 d) 20.0 Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Use balanced chemical equations to determine relationships between reactants and products.

Section Reference 1: 5.5

37) If 5.5 moles of pentane are burned according to the following equation: 2 C5H10(l) + 15 O2(g) 10 CO2(g) + 10 H2O(g) how many moles of oxygen are required? a) 41 b) 83 c) 11 d) 5.5 Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Use balanced chemical equations to determine relationships between reactants and products.

Section Reference 1: 5.5

38) According to the following equation, what mass of silver nitrate would be required to react with 0.500 grams potassium chloride?

AgNO3(aq) + KCl(aq) AgCl(s) + KNO3(aq) a) 0.500 g b) 1.14 g c) 85.0 g d) 170 g Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Use balanced chemical equations to determine relationships between reactants and products.

Section Reference 1: 5.5

39) Methanol burns in air according to the equation below. How many grams of methanol can be burned by 10 grams of oxygen?

81

2CH3OH(l) + 3O2(g)

2CO2(g)

+ 4H2O(g)

a) 2 g b) 7 g c) 10 g d) 20 g Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Use balanced chemical equations to determine relationships between reactants and products.

Section Reference 1: 5.5

40) Balance the equation below and determine the number of moles of oxygen required to completely burn 5.00 moles of propane.

____C3H8 + ____O2

____CO2

+

____H2O

a) 5.00 b) 10.0 c) 15.0 d) 25.0 Answer: d Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Use balanced chemical equations to determine relationships between reactants and products.

Section Reference 1: 5.5

41) How many grams of oxygen (O2) are needed to completely react with 24.0 g of propane (C3H8) according to the equation below?

C3H8 + 5O2

3CO2 + 4H2O

a) 0.545 g b) 2.73 g c) 87.2 g d) 28.8 g Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Use balanced chemical equations to determine relationships between reactants and products.

Section Reference 1: 5.5 82

42) In the following reaction, how many grams of water are needed to completely hydrolyze 30.8 g of the ester?

O CH3C OCH3

+ H2O

H+

O CH3C OH + HOCH3

a) 7.48 g b) 0.416 g c) 30.8 g d) 11.3 g Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Use balanced chemical equations to determine relationships between reactants and products.

Section Reference 1: 5.5

43) A test used by geologists to determine if the carbonate ion is present in rock can be performed by dripping a hydrochloric acid solution on the sample and looking for the bubbling of carbon dioxide. How many moles of carbon dioxide are produced by the reaction of 0.75 moles of limestone, CaCO3?

CaCO3(s) + 2 HCl(aq)

CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g)

+ H2O(l)

a) 2.35 moles b) 2 moles c) 1 mole d) 0.75 moles Answer: d Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Use balanced chemical equations to determine relationships between reactants and products.

Section Reference 1: 5.5

44) The percent yield of a reaction is determined by dividing ___ in grams or moles by the ___ in grams or moles times 100% a) theoretical yield, actual yield b) actual yield, theoretical yield c) amount of reactant, amount of products d) amount of products, amount of reactants Answer: b 83

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Determine the limiting reactant, theoretical yield, and percent yield of a reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.6

45) If 2.00 grams of potassium are allowed to react with 2.00 grams of bromine by the following equation, which reactant is the limiting reactant?

2 K(s) + Br2(l)

2 KBr(s)

a) K b) Br2 c) cannot be determined Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Determine the limiting reactant, theoretical yield, and percent yield of a reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.6

46) A chemist runs a reaction to prepare bromobenzene, C6H5Br, from the reaction of benzene (C6H6) with bromine(Br2):

C6H6 + Br2 C6H5Br + HBr The theoretical yield of the reaction is 87 g of bromobenzene. If 68 g of bromobenzene are obtained, what is the percent yield of the reaction? a) 93% b) 81% c) 78 % d) 45% Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Determine the limiting reactant, theoretical yield, and percent yield of a reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.6

47) If there is a "limiting reactant" in the hypothetical reaction, A + B C it is the substance a) on the right that is produced in a limited amount. b) on the left that is used to produce substance C on the right. c) on the left that is used up first.

84

d) on the left that is limited by the amount of C produced.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Determine the limiting reactant, theoretical yield, and percent yield of a reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.6

48) Sodium stearate is a soap that is produced from stearic acid, one of the fatty acids, by the reaction:

O

O C17H35C ONa + H2O Sodium stearate

C17H35C OH + NaOH Stearic acid

The reaction that was set up with 0.25 g stearic acid and an excess of sodium hydroxide produced 0.25 grams soap. The percent yield was a) 100%. b) 93%. c) 25%. d) 1%.

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Determine the limiting reactant, theoretical yield, and percent yield of a reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.6

49) What mass of potassium chloride, a salt substitute often used by heart patients, can be produced directly from 5.2 g potassium and 7.9 g chlorine?

2K + Cl2 2KCl a) 5.2 g KCl b) 4.9 g KCl c) 9.9 g KCl d) 10.1 g KCl Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Determine the limiting reactant, theoretical yield, and percent yield of a reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.6

85

50) While this isn’t a real reaction, we can say that carbonic acid, H2CO3, can be produced directly from the elements. Choose the statement that is correct when the given masses are supplied to react.

2H2 + 2C + 3O2 2H2CO3 47 g 282 g 940 g a) Hydrogen is the limiting reactant. b) Carbon is the limiting reactant. c) Oxygen is the limiting reactant. d) There is no limiting reactant.

Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Determine the limiting reactant, theoretical yield, and percent yield of a reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.6

51) Two methanol molecules can react in the presence of sulfuric acid to produce dimethyl ether.

Calculate the percent yield for this reaction that was run in a laboratory starting with 50 grams methanol and producing 26 grams dimethyl ether.

H

H

H

H

H C O C H H H dimethyl ether

H C OH + HO C H H H methanol methanol

+ H2O

a) 52% b) 57% c) 72% d) 200% Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Determine the limiting reactant, theoretical yield, and percent yield of a reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.6

52) Ethene, C2H4, burns in air according to the equation below. What is the theoretical yield (in grams) of CO2 when 3.24 g of C2H4 are reacted with 4.83 g of O2?

C2H4 + 3O2

2CO2 + 2H2O

a) 3.24 g b) 9.72 g c) 0.151 g d) 4.43 g 86

Answer: d Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Determine the limiting reactant, theoretical yield, and percent yield of a reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.6

53) Consider the burning of methane gas (CH4): CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O G = -3423 kcal Which statement is true about the reaction? a) energy is absorbed and it is non-spontaneous b) energy is released and it is non-spontaneous c) energy is absorbed and it is spontaneous d) energy is released and it is spontaneous Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Describe how free energy changes are different for spontaneous and nonspontaneous reactions, draw energy diagrams, and list the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.7

54) Which of the factors will increase the rate of a reaction? a) increasing activation energy b) increasing the temperature c) decreasing one of the reactant concentrations d) decreasing the temperature Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Describe how free energy changes are different for spontaneous and nonspontaneous reactions, draw energy diagrams, and list the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.7

55) ___ lower the ___ of a reaction and therefore increase the reaction rate. a) reactants, temperature b) catalysts, activation energy c) catalysts, concentration d) activation energy, temperature 87

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Describe how free energy changes are different for spontaneous and nonspontaneous reactions, draw energy diagrams, and list the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.7

56) Which of the following factors will increase the rate of a chemical reaction? a) addition of a catalyst b) increasing temperature c) increasing the concentration of the reactants d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Describe how free energy changes are different for spontaneous and nonspontaneous reactions, draw energy diagrams, and list the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.7

57) The catalyst utilized by biological systems for hydrogenation reactions is ___. a) platinum b) hydrogen c) an enzyme d) a carbon-carbon bond Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Describe how free energy changes are different for spontaneous and nonspontaneous reactions, draw energy diagrams, and list the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.7

58) Figures A and B below represent reaction energy diagrams. Diagram that represents an endothermic reaction is

88

a) B b) A c) Both A and B d) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Describe how free energy changes are different for spontaneous and nonspontaneous reactions, draw energy diagrams, and list the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.7

59) In the reaction energy diagram below, the activation energy is represented by:

a) c b) a c) d d) c Answer c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Describe how free energy changes are different for spontaneous and nonspontaneous reactions, draw energy diagrams, and list the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

89

Section Reference 1: 5.7

60) The function of an enzyme in a reaction is to a) cause a reaction to be reversible at the same reaction rate. b) increase the ∆G to increase the rate of reaction. c) increase the rate of reaction by reducing the activation energy. d) inhibit the reaction.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Describe how free energy changes are different for spontaneous and nonspontaneous reactions, draw energy diagrams, and list the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.7

61) Choose the comment that is appropriate for the reaction:

O C O + H2O

carbonic anhydrase

OH O C OH carbonic acid

a) Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the conversion of carbon dioxide into carbonic acid. b) The reaction runs in forward direction only. c) This reaction runs in backward direction only. d) This is a reaction that only occurs in the laboratory.

Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Describe how free energy changes are different for spontaneous and nonspontaneous reactions, draw energy diagrams, and list the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.7

Question type: True/false

62) The subscripts of a chemical formula can be changed to balance a chemical equation.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

90

63) The coefficients used to balance chemical equations can be interpreted in terms of atoms, moles, or grams.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

64) In a synthesis reaction, one compound breaks down to form elements or simpler compounds Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify reactions as involving synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, or double replacement.

Section Reference 1: 5.2

65) The reaction below can be classified as a double replacement reaction.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify reactions as involving synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, or double replacement.

Section Reference 1: 5.2

66) Platinum serves to catalyze some hydrogenation reactions.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Identify hydrolysis, hydration, and dehydration reactions of organic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 5.3

67) In a hydrolysis reaction, water is used to split a molecule Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Identify hydrolysis, hydration, and dehydration reactions of organic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 91

68) Oxidation involves loss of electrons.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

69) An oxidation reaction can be defined as when an atom loses an oxygen.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

70) An oxidizing agent is the reactant in an oxidation - reduction reaction that causes reduction of another reactant by providing electrons for the other reactant to accept.

Answer: false Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

71) Catalysts lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Describe how free energy changes are different for spontaneous and nonspontaneous reactions, draw energy diagrams, and list the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.7 72) When ∆G for a reaction is +286 kcal, the reaction is spontaneous.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Describe how free energy changes are different for spontaneous and nonspontaneous reactions, draw energy diagrams, and list the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

92

Section Reference 1: 5.7

Question type: fill-in-the-blank

73) Compounds are formed from elements in a ___ reaction.

Answer: synthesis Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify reactions as involving synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, or double replacement.

Section Reference 1: 5.2

74) A synthesis reaction in which water is added to a double bond is called ___.

Answer: hydration Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Identify hydrolysis, hydration, and dehydration reactions of organic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 5.3

75)

Answer:

+ H2O

H+

O CH3CH2C OH + HOCH2CH3

O CH3CH2C OCH2CH3

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Identify hydrolysis, hydration, and dehydration reactions of organic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 5.3

76) If the charge on an ion changes from 2+ to 4+, the process occurring is ___.

Answer: oxidation Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

77) For the following organic reactions, identify the reaction as an oxidation or reduction: 93

H+/K2Cr2O7 a)

b)

CH3CH2OH O CH3CH2C H O

c)

H2 Pt

O CH3C H CH3CH2CH2OH

LiAlH4

CH3C OH

CH3CH2OH

Answer: a) oxidation; b) reduction; c) reduction Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

78) The measured amount of product obtained in any reaction is known as the ___.

Answer: actual yield Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Determine the limiting reactant, theoretical yield, and percent yield of a reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.6

79) A reaction that releases heat is called ___.

Answer: exothermic Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Describe how free energy changes are different for spontaneous and nonspontaneous reactions, draw energy diagrams, and list the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.7

80) ___ is the energy released or gained in a reaction.

Answer: free energy (G) Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Describe how free energy changes are different for spontaneous and nonspontaneous reactions, draw energy diagrams, and list the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.7 94

81) Hydrolysis, hydration and dehydration reactions can take place in our cells with the aid of ____, which are proteins that catalyze reactions.

Answer: enzymes Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Describe how free energy changes are different for spontaneous and nonspontaneous reactions, draw energy diagrams, and list the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.7

Question type: Essay Show all calculations. Include all necessary units. Round answers to the correct number of significant figures.

82) Aluminum carbonate was once the active ingredient in Rolaids®. It reacts with stomach acid according to the following equation:

Al2(CO3)3(s) + HCl(aq)

AlCl3(aq) + CO2(g)

+ H2O(l)

Answer:

Al2(CO3)3(s) + 6HCl(aq)

2AlCl3(aq) + 3CO2(g)

+ 3H2O(l)

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

83) Balance the equation. Baking soda (NaHCO3) can be used as an antacid. It reacts with and neutralizes stomach acid (HCl). The equation for this reaction is as follows:

NaHCO3(s) + HCl(aq)

NaCl(aq) + CO2(g)

+ H2O(l)

Answer:

NaHCO3(s) + HCl(aq)

NaCl(aq) + CO2(g)

+ H2O(l) (balanced as written)))

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

84) Balance the equation. Tums® tablets are composed of the substance calcium carbonate. Two tablets have a combined mass of 5.0 grams. Calcium carbonate reacts with and neutralizes excess stomach acid (hydrochloric acid). The products of this reaction are: water, calcium chloride, and carbon dioxide.

Answer: 95

CaCO3(s) + 2 HCl(g)

CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g)

+ H2O(l)

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Interpret and balance chemical equations.

Section Reference 1: 5.1

85) Write and balance the equation for the complete combustion of pentane (C5H12).

Answer: C5H12 + 8O2

5CO2

+ 6H2O

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify reactions as involving synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, or double replacement.

Section Reference 1: 5.2

86) Write and balance the equation for the complete combustion of cyclohexane (C6H12) Answer: C6H12 + 9O2

6CO2

+ 6H2O

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify reactions as involving synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, or double replacement.

Section Reference 1: 5.2

87) Write and balance the equation for the complete combustion of decane (C10H22) Answer: 2 C10H22 + 31 O2

20 CO2

+ 22 H2O

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Classify reactions as involving synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, or double replacement.

Section Reference 1: 5.2

88) Draw the products of this reaction

Answer:

96

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Identify hydrolysis, hydration, and dehydration reactions of organic compounds.

Section Reference 1: 5.3

89) Write the chemical equation for the reaction that takes place when trans-2-butene is mixed with H2 and Pt. Answer:

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Identify oxidation, reduction, combustion, and hydrogenation reactions.

Section Reference 1: 5.4

90) How many moles of aluminum carbonate are required to neutralize 2.68 moles of HCl?

Al2(CO3)3(s) + HCl(aq)

AlCl3(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

Answer: 0.447 mol Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Use balanced chemical equations to determine relationships between reactants and products.

Section Reference 1: 5.5

91) Aluminum carbonate was once the active ingredient in Rolaids®. It reacts with stomach acid according to the following equation:

Al2(CO3)3(s) + HCl(aq)

AlCl3(aq) + CO2(g)

+ H2O(l)

A single aluminum carbonate tablet weighs 2.48 g. How many grams of AlCl3 would be produced by the reaction of a single tablet?

Answer: 2.83 g Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Use balanced chemical equations to determine relationships between reactants and products.

Section Reference 1: 5.5

92) Tums® tablets are composed of the substance calcium carbonate. Two tablets have a combined mass of 5.0 grams. Calcium carbonate reacts with and neutralizes excess stomach acid 97

(hydrochloric acid). The products of this reaction are: water, calcium chloride, and carbon dioxide. How many moles of calcium carbonate are in one tablet?

Answer: 0.025 mol Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Use balanced chemical equations to determine relationships between reactants and products.

Section Reference 1: 5.5

93) Tums® tablets are composed of the substance calcium carbonate. Two tablets have a combined mass of 5.0 grams. Calcium carbonate reacts with and neutralizes excess stomach acid (hydrochloric acid). The products of this reaction are: water, calcium chloride, and carbon dioxide. Calculate the moles of carbon dioxide that will be produced by the reaction of hydrochloric acid with 5.0 grams of calcium carbonate.

Answer: 0.050 mol Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Use balanced chemical equations to determine relationships between reactants and products.

Section Reference 1: 5.5

94) Tums® tablets are composed of the substance calcium carbonate. Two tablets have a combined mass of 5.0 grams. Calcium carbonate reacts with and neutralizes excess stomach acid (hydrochloric acid). The products of this reaction are: water, calcium chloride, and carbon dioxide. Calculate the mass in grams of the hydrochloric acid that can be neutralized by 5.0 grams of calcium carbonate.

Answer: 3.7 g Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Use balanced chemical equations to determine relationships between reactants and products.

Section Reference 1: 5.5

95) Baking soda (NaHCO3) can be used as an antacid. It reacts with and neutralizes stomach acid (HCl). The equation for this reaction is as follows:

NaHCO3(s) + HCl(aq) NaCl(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) Calculate the mass (in grams) of hydrochloric acid that would be neutralized by 5.0 g of NaHCO3.

Answer: 2.2 g Difficulty: hard 98

Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Use balanced chemical equations to determine relationships between reactants and products.

Section Reference 1: 5.5

96) Baking soda (NaHCO3) can be used as an antacid. It reacts with and neutralizes stomach acid (HCl). The equation for this reaction is as follows:

NaHCO3(s) + HCl(aq) NaCl(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) If 10.0 grams of NaHCO3 is added to 10.0 g of HCl, which is the limiting reactant?

Answer: NaHCO3 is the limiting reactant Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Determine the limiting reactant, theoretical yield, and percent yield of a reaction.

Section Reference 1: 5.6

99

Package Title: Raymond Test Bank Course Title: Raymond, 4e Chapter Number: 6

1) When the pressure is increased above 760 torr, the boiling point of water a) decreases to temperatures below 100 C. b) remains the same at 100C. c) increases to temperatures above. d) drops to temperatures below 0C. Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

2) The atmospheric pressure on a given day is 742 torr. What is this pressure in atmospheres? a) 0.976 atm b) 5.63 x 105 atm c) 50.5 atm d) 1.09 x 104 atm Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

3) Certain automobile tires are to be inflated to a pressure of 35.0 psi. What is this pressure in torr? a) 0.0461 torr b) 0.677 torr c) 515 torr d) 1810 torr Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

4) A steel tank is filled with nitrogen gas at a pressure of 2.30 atm. What is this pressure in torr?

a) 2.30 torr b) 1750 torr c) 3.03 x 10-3 torr d) 760 torr Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

5) Standard temperature and pressure corresponds to a) temperature of 0C and pressure of 1 psi. b) temperature of 25C and pressure of 1 atm. c) temperature of 0C and pressure of 2 psi. d) temperature of 0C and pressure of 1 atm.

Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

6) The equivalent of 1 atmosphere of pressure is ___. a) 14.7 mm mercury b) 650 mm mercury c) 700 torr d) 760 torr Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

7) A hurricane might be preceded by an atmospheric pressure of 727 torr. Express 727 torr in atmospheres of pressure. a) 0.727 atm b) 0.957 atm c) 1.05 atm d) 49.5 atm Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 8) The device used to determine a patient’s blood pressure is the a) manometer. b) barometer. c) sphygmomanometer. d) hyperbarometer.

Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

9) When a person inhales air, a) lung volume decreases and lung pressure increases. b) lung volume increases and lung pressure decreases. c) lung volume decreases and lung pressure decreases. d) lung volume increases and lung pressure increases.

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

10) When a person exhales air a) lung volume decreases and lung pressure increases b) lung volume decreases and lung pressure decreases c) lung volume increases and lung pressure decreases d) lung volume increases and lung pressure increases Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

11) In Death Valley, which is located below sea level, the atmospheric pressure exceeds 760 torr.

Water boils at ___. a) a temperature less than 100ºC b) 100ºC c) a temperature greater than 100ºC d) None of these choices.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

12) In a mountain location where the atmospheric pressure is less than 1.00 atm, water will boil at ___. a) a temperature less than 100ºC b) 100ºC c) a temperature greater than 100ºC d) None of these choices.

Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

13) The cause of chronic hypertension is a) high blood pressure. b) blood moving too fast though the arteries that are dilated. c) constricted movement of blood through blood vessels. d) the inability of the body to respond to a change in posture.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

14) Which blood pressure variation tends to double the risk of heart disease? a) an increase of 5 points systolic pressure b) an increase of 10 points systolic pressure c) an increase of 5 points diastolic pressure d) an increase of 10 points diastolic pressure Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

15) According to Charles’ law, when the Kelvin temperature of a gas doubles (at constant pressure), its volume will ___. a) double b) reduced to 1/2 c) quadruple d) remain the same Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 16) According to Gay-Lussac’s law, when the Kelvin temperature of a gas doubles (at constant volume), its pressure will ___ a) double b) reduced to 1/2 c) quadruple d) remain the same Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 17) According to Boyle’s law, when the pressure on a gas is doubled (at constant temperature), its volume will ___. a) double b) be reduced to 1/2 c) quadruple d) remain the same Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 18) Avogadro’s law describes the relationship of ___. a) volume and moles gas b) temperature and moles gas

c) temperature, pressure, and moles gas d) pressure and moles gas Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

19) The gas constant is used in some calculations. The value of the gas constant is a) to make certain that all gases are ideal gases. b) 0.0821 L atm/mol K. c) 25°C and 1 atm. d) 0°C and 1 atm at 1-L volume.

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

20) The law that concerns the pressure of a mixture of two or more gases in a container is ___. a) Dalton’s law b) Charles’ law c) Gay-Lussac’s law d) Boyle’s law Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

21) What will be the mass of hydrogen gas, H2, that is stored in a 15.0-L container at the pressure of 7.50 atm? The container is kept at 20.0°C. (Use the mass of 2.00 g/mol for the hydrogen.) a) 225 g b) 137 g c) 80.0 g d) 9.35 g Answer: d Difficulty: medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

22) A cylinder of gas originally at 28.0°C and 1.00 atm of pressure is heated to 112.0°C. What is the new pressure? a) 4.00 atm b) 0.250 atm c) 0.782 atm d) 1.28 atm Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

23) A balloon containing 0.56 mole of helium has a volume of 10.0 L. What volume will the balloon occupy if helium is lost and only 0.21 mole remain? a) 27 L b) 3.8 L c) 2.1 L d) 5.6 L Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

24) A gas sample occupies 10.28 L at 8.34 atm. Its volume at 6.98 atm (assuming constant temperature conditions) is ___. a) 12.3 L b) 5.66 L c) 8.60 L d) 15.6 L Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

25) At what pressure would methane gas occupy 13.8 L if it occupies 5.74 L at 3.67 atm assuming constant temperature? a) 8.82 atm b) 21.6 atm c) 1.53 atm d) 11.3 atm Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

26) A sample of nitrogen gas exerts a pressure of 9.80 atm at 32 C. What would its temperature be (in C) when its pressure is increased to 11.2 atm? a) 76 C b) – 6.2 C c) 49 C d) 3.5 x 102 C Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

27) A gas sample occupies 5.38 L at 36.0 C. What is its temperature if the volume is changed to 4.86 L? a) 69.1 C b) 44.8 C c) 11.9 C d) 6.12 C Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

28) A 0.45 mole of krypton gas occupies a volume of 1.6 L. What volume will 1.8 moles of krypton occupy assuming the temperature and pressure remain the same?

a) 6.4 L b) 0.51 L c) 0.40 L d) 3.2 L Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

29) The warning label on metallic aerosol cans state that one should not heat or incinerate them.

At high temperature a rigid container may have its pressure increase to the point that it may fail and explode. This is best explained by ___. a) Boyles’ law b) Charles’ law c) Gay-Lussac’s law d) Avogadro’s law Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

30) What is the volume of a mole of an ideal gas under standard conditions (STP)? a) 0.0821 liter b) 760 liters c) 22.4 liters d) 1.0 liter Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

31) A gas occupies a volume of 8.60 L at 45C and 764 torr. What pressure would it occupy if the volume is adjusted to 13.3 L at 20C? a) 536 torr b) 455 torr c) 109 torr d) 188 torr

Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

32) A sample of neon gas fills a 6.85-L container. What is the new temperature (in Kelvin) if the gas is transferred into a 9.64-L container and pressure adjusted to 604 torr? a) 305 K b) 483 K c) 244 K d) 656 K Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

33) An uninflated balloon full of air has a volume of 300.0 mL and contains 0.0240 mole of air.

A 2.00 g piece of dry ice (solid CO2) is placed in the vessel and sealed. What is the volume of the balloon after the dry ice has vaporized? Assume constant temperature and pressure. Also, assume no change in the initial amount of air. a) 869 mL b) 300 mL c) 240 mL d) 455 mL Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

34) Carbon dioxide gas occupies a volume of 20.0 L at 308K and 2.30 atm. What volume would it occupy at 416 K and 5.40 atm? a) 6.3 L b) 11.5 L c) 0.460 L d) 22.4 L Answer: b

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

35) A sample of hydrogen gas (H2) has a volume of 17.4 L at a temperature of 0.00C and a pressure of 1.60 atm. The number of moles of H2 molecules of hydrogen in the sample is a) 2.48 mol b) 0.652 mol c) 1.24 mol d) 4.41 mol Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 36) A cylinder of gas at a temperature of 21oC has a pressure of 3.8 atm. If the closed cylinder were heated in a fire to a temperature of 365oC, what would be the new pressure? a) 8.2 atm b) 66 atm c) 1.8 atm d) 0.22 atm Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

37) A pressurized tank contains nitrogen at 1.3 atm, oxygen at 0.7 atm, and helium at 0.1 atm.

The reading of the pressure gauge is expected to be ___. a) 0.5 atm b) 0.91 atm c) 1.3 atm d) 2.1 atm Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Explain Dalton's Law of partial pressure.

Section Reference 1: 6.3

38) A 155-L helium balloon is heated from 24.0 C to 38.0 C. What would be its new volume assuming the pressure remains constant? a) 148 L b) 162 L c) 597 L d) 258 L Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

39) A gas cylinder at a pressure of 4408 torr contains a mixture of N2, O2, and helium gases. If the partial pressure of N2 gas is 1520 torr and the partial pressure of helium is 25 torr, what is the partial pressure of O2? a) 760 torr b) 4020 torr c) 5953 torr d) 2863 torr Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Explain Dalton's Law of partial pressure.

Section Reference 1: 6.3

40) In a homogeneous mixture a) the substances are not evenly distributed. b) the substances are always liquid. c) the substances are always solids. d) the substances are uniformly distributed.

Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Define the terms pure substance, homogeneous mixture, heterogeneous mixture, solute, and solvent and describe the effect that temperature has on water solubility.

Section Reference 1: 6.4

41) Which of the following mixtures is heterogeneous?

a) sea water b) carbonated water c) Kool Aid® solution d) concrete Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Define the terms pure substance, homogeneous mixture, heterogeneous mixture, solute, and solvent and describe the effect that temperature has on water solubility.

Section Reference 1: 6.4

42) Oxygen is dissolved into water to make a solution. If the temperature of the solution is increased, the solubility of the oxygen will ___. a) decrease b) increase c) be unchanged Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Define the terms pure substance, homogeneous mixture, heterogeneous mixture, solute, and solvent and describe the effect that temperature has on water solubility.

Section Reference 1: 6.4

43) Which is a pure substance? a) calcium chloride and potassium chloride crystals in a beaker b) air c) water d) sodium chloride and potassium chloride dissolved in water Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Define the terms pure substance, homogeneous mixture, heterogeneous mixture, solute, and solvent and describe the effect that temperature has on water solubility.

Section Reference 1: 6.4

44) The solute of a solution is the component a) that is dissolved in the solvent. b) in the greatest supply. c) that must be ionic. d) that must be a solid.

Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Define the terms pure substance, homogeneous mixture, heterogeneous mixture, solute, and solvent and describe the effect that temperature has on water solubility.

Section Reference 1: 6.4

45) For solute particles to be soluble in liquid solvents a) they must be about the same size as the solvent molecules and be able to interact with the solvent molecules through noncovalent interactions. b) the solvent must be nonpolar. c) they must be polar. d) they must be of smaller size than solvent molecules and be able to interact with solvent molecules through covalent interactions.

Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Define the terms pure substance, homogeneous mixture, heterogeneous mixture, solute, and solvent and describe the effect that temperature has on water solubility.

Section Reference 1: 6.4

46) In water, Vanillin, C8H8O3, has a solubility of 0.070 moles of vanillin per liter of solution at 25C. What will be produced if 5.00 g of vanillin are added to 1 L of water at 25 C? a) a homogeneous mixture b) a heterogeneous mixture c) a precipitate d) a strong electrolyte Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Define the terms pure substance, homogeneous mixture, heterogeneous mixture, solute, and solvent and describe the effect that temperature has on water solubility.

Section Reference 1: 6.4

47) Which of the following ionic substances is insoluble in water? a) KNO3 b) BaSO4 c) Na3PO4 d) NH4Br

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Use solubility rules to predict when a precipitation reaction will take place between ionic compounds and write the ionic and net ionic reaction equations.

Section Reference 1: 6.5

48) Which of the following ionic substances is soluble in water? a) Ca(OH)2 b) PbCO3 c) AgCl d) KNO3 Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Use solubility rules to predict when a precipitation reaction will take place between ionic compounds and write the ionic and net ionic reaction equations.

Section Reference 1: 6.5

49) Identify the compound that is soluble in water. a) Ca(OH)2 b) Ba(NO3)2 c) AgCl d) Fe2(CO3)3 Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Use solubility rules to predict when a precipitation reaction will take place between ionic compounds and write the ionic and net ionic reaction equations.

Section Reference 1: 6.5

50) Identify the compound that is insoluble in water. a) Ba3(PO4)2 b) Ba(NO3)2 c) K3PO4 d) AgNO3 Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Use solubility rules to predict when a precipitation reaction will take place between ionic compounds and write the ionic and net ionic reaction equations.

Section Reference 1: 6.5

51) The net ionic equation for the reaction of sodium hydroxide, NaOH, and magnesium nitrate, Mg(NO3)2, contains which of the following species? a) 2Mg2+ (aq) b) Na+ c) Mg(OH)2 (s) d) NaNO3 (aq) Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Use solubility rules to predict when a precipitation reaction will take place between ionic compounds and write the ionic and net ionic reaction equations.

Section Reference 1: 6.5 52) The “bends” is a condition in which nitrogen gas is released from solution in the blood vessels of a scuba diver. It is caused by a diver rising too quickly to the surface of the water. This condition is explained by Henry’s Law. The solubility of a gas in solution ___ as the pressure ___. a) decreases/decreases b) increases/decreases c) decreases/increases Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.6 Explain Henry's law.

Section Reference 1: 6.6

53) Oxygen dissolves in water to the extent of 6 mL O2 per liter of water at 20°C and 1 atm pressure. Suppose the pressure were to be increased to 3 atm and the temperature is maintained at 20°C. How will the solubility of the oxygen be affected? a) The solubility will increase to 18 mL/L. b) The solubility will decrease to 2 mL/L. c) The solubility will remain at 6 mL/L. d) There is no predictable trend in solubility on the basis of temperature and pressure.

Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.6 Explain Henry's law.

Section Reference 1: 6.6

54) Unlike acetic acid (CH2COOH), which is completely soluble in water, 1-hexanoic acid (CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2COOH) is only slightly soluble in water because

a) only acetic acid forms hydrogen bonds. b) acetic acid has a higher boiling point than 1-hexanoic acid. c) the increased length of carbon chain in 1-hexanoic acid increases its hydrophobic character. d) acetic acid does not ionize in water.

Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Explain the terms hydrophilic, hydrophobic, and amphipathic and give examples of compounds that belong to each category.

Section Reference 1: 6.7

55) Which of the following is a general statement concerning the solubility of organic compounds? a) The larger molecules dissolve best in a solvent with a low molecular weight. b) The polar organic compounds dissolve best in polar solvents. c) The nonpolar compounds can dissolve well in polar solvents if the molecules are close to the same size. d) Those compounds that have only covalent bonds dissolve well in water.

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Explain the terms hydrophilic, hydrophobic, and amphipathic and give examples of compounds that belong to each category.

Section Reference 1: 6.7

56) A compound is likely to be hydrophilic if a) it contains polar groups. b) all of the chemical bonds are covalent. b) the compound forms strong London force interactions between molecules. d) there are many carbon atoms in the skeleton of the molecule.

Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Explain the terms hydrophilic, hydrophobic, and amphipathic and give examples of compounds that belong to each category.

Section Reference 1: 6.7

57) Soaps are amphipathic compounds. Which statement best describes them? a) Soaps cannot be attracted to either polar or nonpolar compounds. b) Soaps dissolve best in polar solvents, which is why they can remove dirt. c) Soaps have a hydrophobic end, which will attract nonpolar substances, such as soil on clothing. d) The soaps that are the most effective in cleaning contain the calcium ion.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Explain the terms hydrophilic, hydrophobic, and amphipathic and give examples of compounds that belong to each category.

Section Reference 1: 6.7

58) Based on its structure, menthol is expected to be ___.

a) hydrophilic b) hydrophobic c) predominantly polar d) ionic Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Explain the terms hydrophilic, hydrophobic, and amphipathic and give examples of compounds that belong to each category.

Section Reference 1: 6.7

59) Ethyl alcohol (CH3CH2OH) is completely soluble in water. It is made of both polar and non-polar groups. Ethyl alcohol is best classified as a(n) ___ substance. a) hydrophilic b) hydrophobic c) lipophilic d) amphipathic Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Explain the terms hydrophilic, hydrophobic, and amphipathic and give examples of compounds that belong to each category.

Section Reference 1: 6.7

60) A prodrug is a) used because it is less expensive than the regular medication. b) a more professional type of medication than is normally used. c) the metabolic result of normal bodily processes on commonly available materials. d) a precursor of a drug that is converted by metabolic processes to that drug.

Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Explain the terms hydrophilic, hydrophobic, and amphipathic and

give examples of compounds that belong to each category.

Section Reference 1: 6.7 61) A patient’s blood test indicates that 1.00 mL of serum contains 0.00140 g of fibrinogen (a protein that aids in coagulation of blood). What is the concentration of the fibrinogen in mg/dL? a) 280 mg/dL b) 14 mg/dL c) 0.014 mg/dL d) 140. mg/dL Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

62) How many milliliters of 6.0 M HCl must be diluted to make 500.0 mL of a 0.10 M solution? a) 1.2 mL b) 8.3 mL c) 30. mL d) 300 mL Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

63) What is the %(w/v) of a 1500mL solution containing 45 g of NaCl? a) 5.0% b) 3.0% c) 2.0% d) 0.030% Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

64) How many grams of vitamin B12 are present in a 100.0 mL blood serum sample with a vitamin B12 concentration of 148 ng/L?

a) 1.48 x 10-9 g b) 1.48 x 10-8 g c) 1.48 x 10-5 g d) 1.48 g Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

65) Sodium fluoride is added to drinking water. A 25-L sample of city water contains 0.018 g NaF. Express this concentration in molarity. a) 0.000017 M b) 0.00072 M c) 0.018 M d) 18 M Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

66) If 48L of city water contains 0.030 g sodium fluoride, what is the concentration in parts per thousand? a) 16 ppt b) 0.0025 ppt c) 0.00063 ppt d) 1.4 ppt Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

67) What is the concentration in parts per billion of an 8 L solution containing 0.017 g of potassium iodide? a) 2.1 x 102 ppb b) 3.1 x 102 ppb c) 1.1 x 102 ppb

d) 5.8 x 102 ppb Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

68) What volume of 2.00 % NaCl must be diluted to make 10.00 mL of 0.90% NaCl, also known as normal saline solution? a) 4.5 mL b) 0.18 mL c) 9.0 mL d) 22.2 mL Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

69) How many grams of AgNO3 are required to make 500.0 mL of a 0.10 M solution? a) 8.5 g b) 17 g c) 85 g d) 0.10 g Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

70) 15.0 g of KCl is dissolved into a solution with a total volume of 250.0 mL. What is the molarity of the solution? a) 0.200 M b) 3.75 M c) 0.804 M d) 1.24 M Answer: c Difficulty: medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

71) The concentration of calcium ion in blood is found to be 1.21 mmol/L. What is this concentration in mEq/L? a) 0.605 mEq/L b) 1.21 mEq/L c) 2.42 mEq/L d) 4.84 mEq/L Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8 72) Blood serum has a calcium ion (Ca2+) concentration of 3.9 x 10-4 M. What is the concentration in mEq/L? a) 0.78 mEq/L b) 0.39 mEq/L c) 2.3 mEq/L d) 6.8 mEq/L Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

73) An egg yolk with the volume of 3.75 mL contains 5.00 µg vitamin D (cholecalcifoerol).

What is the concentration of vitamin D in mg/dL? (1 µg = 10-6 g and 1 dL = 10-1 L) a) 0.0188mg/dL b) 0.133 mg/dL c) 0.750 mg/dL d) 1.30 mg/dL Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

74) Polocaine® is a local anesthetic administered by injection. A 50-mL, multidose vial is available containing 100 mg of mepivacaine hydrochloride. What is the percent concentration of the solution? a) 0% b) 0.2% c) 50% d) 5,000% Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

75) A water sample taken from the ocean is 36 ppt salt content. What is the mass of salt present in a liter of this ocean water? a) 0.028 g b) 27.8 g c) 36 g d) 36,000 g Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

76) Sucralfate (molecular weight: 2087g/mol) is a major component of Carafate®, which is prescribed for the treatment of gastrointestinal ulcers. The recommended dose for a duodenal ulcer is 1.0g taken orally in 10.0 mL (2 teaspoons) of a solution four times a day. Calculate the molarity of the solution. a) 0.0005 M b) 0.048 M c) 0.02087 M d) 0.010 M Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

77) A patient has been trying to achieve total blood cholesterol of 175 mg or less per 100 mL. A recent test result of a 3 mL blood sample found that 4.95 mg cholesterol were present. Has the patient reached the goal? a) No, 4.95 mg/3 mL is more than the goal. b) Yes, 4.95 mg/3 mL is equivalent to 165 mg/100 mL. c) Yes, the result (4.95 x 3) is much less than the goal (175 x 100). d) Undetermined; 100 mL blood would have to be drawn to do a valid test.

Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

78) A free thyroxine concentration in plasma of 1.1 ng/dL is in the normal range. At this concentration, how many milligrams of free thyroxine are present in 30.0 mL of plasma? a) 3.3 x 10-10 mg b) 3.3 x 103 mg c) 110 mg d) 3.3 x 10-7 mg Answer: d Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

79) A bottle of 6.000 M NaOH is on the lab bench. You are instructed to use 75.00 mL of 0.5000 M NaOH. How much 6.000 M NaOH do you have to dilute to 75.00 mL to meet the requirement? a) The solution cannot be produced from 6.000 M NaOH. b) 37.50 mL c) 9.000 mL d) 6.250 mL Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.9 Carry out calculations involving dilution.

Section Reference 1: 6.9

80) If 25.0 mL of 3.0 M HCl are diluted to give a final volume of 150 mL, what is the new concentration?

a) 0.50 M b) 75 M c) 2.0 M d) 4.5 M Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.9 Carry out calculations involving dilution.

Section Reference 1: 6.9

81) Whipped cream is an example of a ___. a) solution b) suspension c) colloid d) solvent Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.10 Distinguish between solutions, suspensions, and colloids.

Section Reference 1: 6.10

82) Which of these contains the largest particles? a) solution b) colloid c) suspension d) solvent Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.10 Distinguish between solutions, suspensions, and colloids.

Section Reference 1: 6.10

83) Milk of Magnesia is a heterogeneous mixture of magnesium hydroxide, Mg(OH)2, and water.

The label on the bottle says that one should “Shake Well Before Using.” Milk of Magnesia would be classified as a ___. a) solution b) suspension c) colloid d) solvent Answer: b Difficulty: medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 6.10 Distinguish between solutions, suspensions, and colloids.

Section Reference 1: 6.10

84) Arrange the terms solution, suspension, and colloid in order of increasing size of the dispersed particles. a) solution < suspension < colloid b) solution < colloid < suspension c) suspension < solution < colloid d) colloid < solution < suspension Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.10 Distinguish between solutions, suspensions, and colloids.

Section Reference 1: 6.10

85) Normal saline solution is 0.90% (w/v) NaCl. A solution that is 0.10 % NaCl is ___. a) isotonic b) hypertonic c) hypotonic d) osmotic Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.11 Describe the principles of diffusion and osmosis.

Section Reference 1: 6.11

86) A solution in which red blood cells undergo neither hemolysis nor crenation is ___. a) isotonic b) hypertonic c) hypotonic d) osmotic Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.11 Describe the principles of diffusion and osmosis.

Section Reference 1: 6.11

87.When red blood cells are placed into a NaCl solution more dilute than 0.9%(w/v), which is the same solute concentration as found inside the cells, they will undergo ___ since dilute solution is ___. a) crenation/hypotonic

b) crenation/hypertonic c) hemolysis/hypotonic d) hemolysis/hypertonic Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.11 Describe the principles of diffusion and osmosis.

Section Reference 1: 6.11

88) When a cucumber is placed into a concentrated salt solution (brine) during the pickling process, the cucumber will shrivel because water will move from the ___ to the ___ and this process is known as ___. a) cucumber/salt solution/diffusion b) salt solution/cucumber/osmosis c) cucumber/salt solution/osmosis d) salt solution/cucumber/diffusion Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.11 Describe the principles of diffusion and osmosis.

Section Reference 1: 6.11

89) If red blood cells were to be stored in a hypertonic solution in the blood bank, then a) there would be no problems as this matches the red blood cell’s composition. b) the cells would tend to explode due to the movement of water into the cells. c) the water would flow out of the cells resulting in shrinkage and wrinkling. d) there would be too much water present to store red blood cells effectively.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.11 Describe the principles of diffusion and osmosis.

Section Reference 1: 6.11

Question type: True/False

90) Barometers measure atmospheric pressure and temperature.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

91) The atmospheric pressure is greater at the top of the mountain than in the valley below.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

92) For a barometer constructed by filling a glass tube with mercury and carefully inverting the tube into a mercury-filled dish, the greater the pressure pushing down on the mercury in the dish, the shorter the column of mercury.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 93) The calculations of Boyle’s, Charles’, and Gay-Lussac’s laws assume that the gases involved behave as ideal gases.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

94) The total pressure of a mixture of gases is the sum of the partial pressures of its components.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Explain Dalton's Law of partial pressure.

Section Reference 1: 6.3

95) The solute of a solution is usually present in greatest amount.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Define the terms pure substance, homogeneous mixture, heterogeneous mixture, solute, and solvent and describe the effect that temperature has on water solubility.

Section Reference 1: 6.4

96) The net ionic equation focuses only on the species that have undergone a change in the reaction.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Use solubility rules to predict when a precipitation reaction will take place between ionic compounds and write the ionic and net ionic reaction equations.

Section Reference 1: 6.5 97) Henry’s law predicts that the higher the pressure the smaller the solubility of a gas in a liquid.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.6 Explain Henry's law.

Section Reference 1: 6.6

98) The particles of a colloid are larger than the particles of a solution.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.10 Distinguish between solutions, suspensions, and colloids.

Section Reference 1: 6.10

99) Red blood cells will shrink in a hypotonic solution.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.11 Describe the principles of diffusion and osmosis.

Section Reference 1: 6.11

Question type: Text-Entry

100) The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the ___.

Answer: atmospheric pressure Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1

101) Ions that are in an identical state on both sides of a total ionic equation are called ___.

Answer: spectator ions Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Use solubility rules to predict when a precipitation reaction will take place between ionic compounds and write the ionic and net ionic reaction equations.

Section Reference 1: 6.5

102) The net movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from the solution of lower concentration to one of higher concentration is called ___.

Answer: osmosis Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.11 Describe the principles of diffusion and osmosis.

Section Reference 1: 6.11

103) Red blood cells must be stored in a(an) ___ solution or they will lose or gain water.

Answer: isotonic Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.11 Describe the principles of diffusion and osmosis.

Section Reference 1: 6.11

104) When red blood cells (with 0.9% (w/v) NaCl solution) are placed into a solution of 5.5 % NaCl they will undergo ___.

Answer: shriveling/crenation Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.11 Describe the principles of diffusion and osmosis.

Section Reference 1: 6.11

Question type: Essay

Problems Show all necessary calculations. Include all necessary units. Round answers to the correct number of significant figures. Box final answers.

105) A basketball is inflated to a pressure of 70.0 psi. Convert this pressure to atmospheres and torr.

Answer: 4.76 atm, 3620 torr

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Convert between common pressure units.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 106) A typical spray can with an initial pressure of 5.1 atm at 21ºC is heated to 95 ºC. What is the final pressure?

Answer: 6.4 atm Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

107) How many moles of helium are present in a 5.00 L cylinder at a pressure of 3.85 atm and a temperature of 24.0 ºC? Answer: 0.789 mol He Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 List the variables that describe the condition of a gas and give equations for the gas laws.

Section Reference 1: 6.2

108) Write a net ionic equation for the precipitation reaction that takes place when an aqueous solution of sodium sulfate is mixed with one of lead(II) nitrate.

Answer: Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Use solubility rules to predict when a precipitation reaction will take place between ionic compounds and write the ionic and net ionic reaction equations.

Section Reference 1: 6.5

109) You are required to make 500.0 mL of a 2.50 M solution of MgCl2. How many grams of MgCl2 are required?

Answer: 119 g Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8 110) How many equivalents are in 0.65 mol of SO42-?

Answer: 1.3 Eq

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

111) How many grams of calcium are in 1.00 L of blood with a calcium ion concentration of 210. mEq/L? Answer: 4.21 g Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

112) A blood analysis shows the chloride level to be 85.0 mEq/L. How many grams of chloride are in 1.00 liter of the blood?

Answer: 3.02 g Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 List some of the commonly encountered concentration units and perform calculations involving concentration.

Section Reference 1: 6.8

113) If you begin with 25 mL of 0.9% (w/v) LiCl and add 50 mL of water to it, what will be the concentration of the diluted solution?

Answer: 0.3% (w/v) Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.9 Carry out calculations involving dilution.

Section Reference 1: 6.9

114) A 60 mL solution contains 200 ppm of iron. How many milliliters of water must be added to dilute this solution to a final concentration of 30 ppm?

Answer: 340 mL Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.9 Carry out calculations involving dilution.

Section Reference 1: 6.9

Package Title: Raymond Test Bank Course Title: Raymond, 4e Chapter Number: 7

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is not a common characteristic of an acid? a) it turns litmus pink/red b) it tastes bitter c) it dissolves common metals d) all of these choices are common characteristics of acids Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 List the common characteristics of acids and bases.

Section Reference 1: 7.1

2) Which of the following is not a common characteristic of a base? a) it turns litmus pink/red b) it feels slippery c) it tastes bitter d) all of these choices are common characteristics of bases Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 List the common characteristics of acids and bases.

Section Reference 1: 7.1

3) One characteristic of basic solution is that a) the solution would turn litmus red. b) the solution would have a slippery feel to it. c) the solution would have a sour taste. d) the solution would dissolve some metals.

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 List the common characteristics of acids and bases.

Section Reference 1: 7.1

110

4) A conjugate acid-base pair a) is related by the loss and gain of H+ between 2 corresponding compounds on opposite sides of the reaction arrow. b) has the base donating an H+ to form its conjugate base. c) has the acid donating an H+ to form its conjugate acid. d) is not related in any way.

Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2

5) Which of the following is the conjugate acid of NH3? a) NH2b) NH4+ c) HNO3 d) H3O+ Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2

6) In the reaction: HNO2 + H2O

H3O+ + NO2-

The conjugate acid of water is ___. a) HNO2 b) H2O c) H3O+ d) NO2Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2

111

7) In the reaction: HNO2 + H2O

H3O+ + NO2-

NO2- is the a) conjugate base of H2O. b) conjugate base of HNO2. c) conjugate acid of HNO2. d) conjugate base of H3O+.

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2

8) Which of the following is the conjugate base of the acid, carbonic acid?

HCO3- + H3O+ H2CO3 + H2O a) H2CO3 b) H2O c) H3O+ d) HCO3– Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2

112

9) Hydrogen sulfide ion, HS–, can react differently depending on the acidity of the solution in which it is present.

H2S + H2O HS- + H2O

HS- + H2O

S2- + H3O+

These two solutions show that the a) hydrogen sulfide ion is an acid. b) hydrogen sulfide ion is a base. c) hydrogen sulfide ion is amphoteric. d) hydrogen sulfide ion can only react with water.

Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2 10) Which of the following is the conjugate acid of the bicarbonate ion, HCO3-? a) H2CO3 b) CO32c) CO2 d) H3O+ Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2 11) Which of the following is the conjugate base of the bicarbonate ion, HCO3-? a) H2CO3 b) CO32c) CO2 d) H3O+ Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2

113

12) In the equation: H2CO3 + H2O

HCO3- + H3O+

a) H2CO3 and H3O+ are conjugate pairs b) H2CO3 is not amphoteric c) H2CO3 and HCO3 - are conjugate pairs d) H2CO3 and H2O are conjugate pairs Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2

13) Which of the following is the correct statement concerning the equation below?

H3O+ + SO42HSO4- + H2O a) HSO4– is the conjugate base of SO4– b) HSO4– is the conjugate base of H3O+ c) H2O is the conjugate base of HSO4– d) SO42– is the conjugate base of HSO4– Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2

14) Whenever an equilibrium constant, Keq, has a value greater than 1, which of the following statements is true at equilibrium? a) The concentration of reactants is greater than the concentration of the products. b) The concentration of products is the same as the concentration of reactants. c) The concentration of the products is greater than the concentration of the reactants. d) Relative composition of reaction mixture cannot be predicted.

Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Write the equilibrium constant expression for a reversible reaction.

Section Reference 1: 7.3

114

15) When a reaction is at equilibrium, a) it has no products. b) the rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of its reverse. c) it occurs very quickly using up all of the reactants. d) it produces the same amount of product as reactant.

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Write the equilibrium constant expression for a reversible reaction.

Section Reference 1: 7.3

16) Choose the equilibrium constant that indicates the greatest relative amount of reactant concentration at equilibrium. a) 1.1 x 10–7 b) 2.3 x 107 c) 6.7 x 102 d) 8.3 x 10–2 Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Write the equilibrium constant expression for a reversible reaction.

Section Reference 1: 7.3

17) The equation: C(s) + O2(g)

CO2(g)

has the following equilibrium constant expression.

[C][O2 ] [CO2 ] [CO2 ] b) K eq = [O2 ] [O2 ] c) K eq = [CO2 ] [CO2 ] d) K eq = [C][O2 ] a) K eq =

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Write the equilibrium constant expression for a reversible reaction.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 115

18) The equilibrium constant, Keq, for the ammonia synthesis below is found to be 6.0 x 10-2 at 500C. Which of the following statements is true at equilibrium?

N2(g) + 3H2(g)

2NH3(g)

a) Product concentration is greater than reactant concentration. b) Reactant concentration is greater than product concentration. c) Reactant concentration is the same as product concentration. d) Relative concentrations of reactants and products cannot be predicted.

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Write the equilibrium constant expression for a reversible reaction.

Section Reference 1: 7.3

19) The equilibrium constant Keq for the reaction of molecular hydrogen and molecular iodine in the gas phase is 54.3 at 430C.

H2 (g) + I2(g)

2HI(g)

Which of the following statements is true for this reaction at equilibrium? a) The reactant concentration is larger than the product concentration. b) The product concentration is larger than the reactant concentration. c) The reactant concentration is the same as the product concentration. d) None of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Write the equilibrium constant expression for a reversible reaction.

Section Reference 1: 7.3

116

20) When stress is applied to a system at equilibrium such that the equilibrium is disturbed, the reaction proceeds in the direction that counteracts the disturbance. This explanation best describes ___. a) Brønsted-Lowry concept b) Ion-Ion attraction c) Conjugate pair analysis d) Le Châtelier’s principle Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Use Le Châtelier's principle to explain how an equilibrium responds to being disturbed.

Section Reference 1: 7.4 21) The equation: N2(g) + 3H2(g)

2NH3(g)

has the following equilibrium constant expression:

[N 2 ][H 2 ] [NH 3 ] [NH 3 ] b) K eq = [N 2 ][H 2 ] a) K eq =

[N 2 ][H 2 ]3 c) K eq = [NH 3 ]2 [NH 3 ]2 d) K eq = [N 2 ][H 2 ]3 Answer: d Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Write the equilibrium constant expression for a reversible reaction.

Section Reference 1: 7.3

117

22) The effect of a catalyst on an equilibrium is a) to speed up the reaction to the left. b) to speed up the reaction to the right. c) to speed up the reaction equally in both directions. d) to shift the reaction in the direction of the catalyst.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Use Le Châtelier's principle to explain how an equilibrium responds to being disturbed.

Section Reference 1: 7.4

23) In the Haber process for the production of ammonia, N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) Which will not increase the amount of ammonia at equilibrium? a) increasing the concentration of N2 b) increasing the concentration of H2 c) increasing the concentration of N2 and H2 d) addition of a catalyst Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Use Le Châtelier's principle to explain how an equilibrium responds to being disturbed.

Section Reference 1: 7.4

24) Which of the conditions below would drive this reaction to the right?

H

H

H

O

O

C

C

C

O

H + H3O+

H

pyruvic acid

H

H

O

O

C

C

C

H

H

O

H + H2O

lactic acid

a) removing hydronium ion b) adding lactic acid c) adding water d) adding pyruvic acid Answer: d Difficulty: medium 118

Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Use Le Châtelier's principle to explain how an equilibrium responds to being disturbed.

Section Reference 1: 7.4

25) Which of the following statements is true? a) A catalyst used in a system that reaches a point of equilibrium decreases the reverse reactions and increases the forward reactions. b) A catalyst used in a reversible reaction decreases the forward reactions but increases the reverse reactions. c) A catalyst used in a reversible reaction increases the rate of both the forward and reverse reactions to the same extent but does not change the point of equilibrium. d) A catalyst used in a system that reaches a point of equilibrium changes the point of equilibrium and decreases the rate of forward reactions only.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Use Le Châtelier's principle to explain how an equilibrium responds to being disturbed.

Section Reference 1: 7.4

26) In the reaction below: PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) PCl5(g) Increasing the concentration of Cl2 will ___ at equilibrium. a) increase the concentration of PCl5 b) increase the concentration of PCl3 c) decrease the concentration of PCl5 d) have no effect Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Use Le Châtelier's principle to explain how an equilibrium responds to being disturbed.

Section Reference 1: 7.4

119

27) What is the concentration of [H3O+] in an aqueous solution when the [OH-] is 5.2 x 10-9 M? a) 1.9 x 10-6 M b) 5.7 M c) 1.0 x 10-14 M d) 9.8 x 10-9 M Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Use H3O+ concentration to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.5 28) Calculate the [OH-] in an aqueous solution when the [H3O+] is 1.2 x 10-2M. a) 3.8 x 10-10 M b) 8.3 x 10-11 M c) 2.0 x 10-10 M d) 1.0 x 10-14 M Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Use H3O+ concentration to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.5 29) Kw, the equilibrium constant for the ionization of water by the equation below, is 1.0 x 10-14.

What does that mean when we are considering pure water?

H3O+ + OH2H2O a) More ions exist than water molecules. b) The majority of the molecules present are in the form of H2O. c) The amount of water is the same as the amount of the ions present. d) There will always be more hydronium ions present than water at equilibrium.

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Use H3O+ concentration to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.5

120

30) A solution in which the concentration of H+ is greater than the concentration of OH- will a) have a pH greater than 7.0 and be basic. b) have a pH less than 7.0 and be basic. c) have a pH greater than 7.0 and be acidic. d) have a pH less than 7.0 and be acidic.

Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6 31) Basic solutions have an H+ concentration a) greater than the OH- concentration and a pH greater than 7.0. b) greater than the OH- concentration and a pH less than 7.0. c) less than the OH- concentration and a pH greater than 7.0. d) less than the OH- concentration and a pH less than 7.0.

Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6 32) Acidic solutions have an H+ concentration a) greater than the OH- concentration and a pH greater than 7.0. b) greater than the OH- concentration and a pH less than 7.0. c) less than the OH- concentration and a pH greater than 7.0. d) less than the OH- concentration and a pH less than 7.0.

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6

121

33) One liter of a solution is found to contain 0.022 moles of HCl. Calculate the pH of the solution. Assume complete dissociation. a) pH = 0.022 b) pH = 1.00 c) pH = 2.2 d) pH = 1.66 Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6

34) When one is referring to pH, what is the meaning of the p? a) Take the log of the number. b) Multiply the p constant by the number. c) Take the negative log of the number. d) All are possible depending on the number following the p.

Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6 35) What is the pH of a solution in which [H3O]+ is 2.2 x 10-12 M? a) 2.34 b) 4.54 x 10-3 c) 11.66 d) 8.42 Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6

122

36) When we talk about pH we are referring to the concentration of hydronium ions present. If the concentration of hydronium in a solution is 1.0 x 10-8 M, what is the hydroxide ion concentration? a) 1.0 x 10-6 M b) 9.0 x 10-8 M c) 1.0 x 10-14 M d) The concentration cannot be predicted.

Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6

37) Calculate the pH of solution produced by dissolving 0.001 moles of HNO3 in a liter of water.

Assume complete dissociation. a) pH = 3.0 b) pH = 0.001 c) pH = 1 x 10–3 d) pH = 1 x 103 Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6

38) What is the molar concentration of hydronium ions in a sample of a soft drink that has a pH of 4? a) 1/4 M b) 4 M c) 1 x 104 M d) 1 x 10-4 M Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6

123

39) You produce 500 mL of a 0.001 M HClO4, which ionizes completely in water. What is the pH you should expect? a) pH = 0.5 b) pH = 3.0 c) pH = 2.7 d) pH = 500 Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6 40) A sample of orange juice has a pH of 3.44. Its [H3O+] is ___. a) 5.4 x 10-1 M b) 3.6 x 10-4 M c) 1.8 x 10-5 d) 2.7 x 10-3 Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6 41) What is the [H3O+] of an antacid tablet solution with a pH of 8.32? a) 4.8 x 10-9 M b) 5.7 x 10-9 M c) 2.4 x 10-7 M d) 1.2 x 10-6 M Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6

124

42) Calculate the pH of a solution containing 0.15 moles KOH dissolved in enough water to produce 2 liters of solution. a) pH = 0.075 b) pH = 0.15 c) pH = 1.12 d) pH = 12.88 Answer: d Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6

43) A Ka can be calculated for some chemical reactions. The Ka is a) the Keq for the reaction to the right. b) the Keq for the reaction to the left. c) the Keq for the dissociation of an acid. d) the pH of a very weak solution.

Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.7 Use Ka and pKa values to assess the relative strength of acids and state the relationship between the strength of an acid and the strength of its conjugate base.

Section Reference 1: 7.7

44) Which of the following statements is true? a) The larger the Ka for an acid, the weaker the acid. b) The smaller the pKa of an acid, the stronger the acid. c) The larger the pKa of an acid, the stronger the acid. d) The smaller the Ka, the stronger the acid.

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.7 Use Ka and pKa values to assess the relative strength of acids and state the relationship between the strength of an acid and the strength of its conjugate base.

Section Reference 1: 7.7

125

45) What is the [OH-] of a solution whose pH is 3.00? a) 1.0 x 10-3 M b) 1.0 x 10-14 M c) 1.0 x 10-11 M d) 1.0 x 10-12 M Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.7 Use Ka and pKa values to assess the relative strength of acids and state the relationship between the strength of an acid and the strength of its conjugate base.

Section Reference 1: 7.7

46) Which material would be effective for neutralizing a minor acid spill? a) soap solution b) vinegar solution c) baking soda d) household ammonia Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.8 Describe the processes of neutralization and titration.

Section Reference 1: 7.8

47) 15.00 mL of 0.100 M NaOH is required to completely neutralize 25.00 mL of an HCl solution. What is the concentration of the HCl solution? a) 0.0600 M b) 0.100 M c) 0.167 M d) 1.50 M Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.8 Describe the processes of neutralization and titration.

Section Reference 1: 7.8

126

48) What volume of 0.200 M HCl is required to completely neutralize 50.00 mL of 0.150 M KOH? a) 7.50 mL b) 50.0 mL c) 66.7 mL d) 37.5 mL Answer: d Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.8 Describe the processes of neutralization and titration.

Section Reference 1: 7.8

49) The pH of blood is held reasonably stable by which buffer system? a) H3PO4/H2PO4– b) NaCl/Cl– c) H2CO3/HCO3– d) HCl/Cl– Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.11 Explain how the pH of a solution can affect the relative concentrations of an acid and its conjugate base.

Section Reference 1: 7.11

50) Excessive use of antacids can lead to a) an increase in blood pH known as acidosis. b) an increase in blood pH known as alkalosis. c) a decrease in blood pH know as acidosis. d) a decrease in blood pH known as alkylosis.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.11 Explain how the pH of a solution can affect the relative concentrations of an acid and its conjugate base.

Section Reference 1: 7.11

127

51) The ethylammonium ion, CH3CH2NH3+ has a pKa of 10.81. It reacts with water to form ethylamine, CH3CH2NH2 and H3O+ as shown below.

CH3CH2NH3+ + H2O

CH3CH2NH2 + H3O+

Which of the following statements is true at pH 7? a) ethylammonium ion predominates b) ethylamine predominates c) the concentration of ethylamine equals that of ethylammonium ion d) the pH is higher than pKa of the ethylammonium ion Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.11 Describe the role of buffers, respiration, and the kidneys in maintaining a stable blood serum pH. Section Reference 1: 7.11

52) The carbonic acid/bicarbonate buffer is important in maintaining the proper pH of human blood.

HCO3- + H3O+ H2CO3 + H2O Diarrhea can lead to the loss of HCO3-. According to LeChatelier’s principle, removal of HCO3will shift the above equilibrium to the ___ and result in a(n) ___ in blood pH. a) left/decrease b) right/decrease c) left/increase d) right/increase Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.11 Describe the role of buffers, respiration, and the kidneys in maintaining a stable blood serum pH. Section Reference 1: 7.11

128

53) The Ka for the reaction of acetic acid and water shown below is 1.8 x 10-5.

CH3CO2H + H2O acetic acid

CH3CO2- + H3O+ acetate ion

Which of the following statements is true at pH 7? a) there is much more acetic acid than acetate ion b) there is more acetate ion than acetic acid c) the concentration of acetate ion is equal to that of acetic acid d) the pH is lower than pKa of acetic acid Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: Section Reference 1: 7.11

54) The pH of blood is maintained at 7.35-7.45 by the following buffer system: HCO3- + H3O+ H2CO3 + H2O The H2CO3 is produced by the reaction of CO2 with water according to the equation: CO2 + H2O H2CO3 When one exercises, there is increased cellular output of CO2. What effect will this have on the pH of the blood if the excess CO2 is not eliminated? a) The pH will increase. b) The pH will decrease. c) The pH will remain the same. d) It is impossible to predict the effect.

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.11 Describe the role of buffers, respiration, and the kidneys in maintaining a stable blood serum pH. Section Reference 1: 7.11

129

55) Antacids may contain which ion to reduce acidity? a) Na+ b) CO32– c) Al3+ d) Cl– Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.11 Describe the role of buffers, respiration, and the kidneys in maintaining a stable blood serum pH. Section Reference 1: 7.11

Question type: True/false

56) Acids and bases can react with and damage many compounds that are vital to living organisms.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 List the common characteristics of acids and bases.

Section Reference 1: 7.1

57) HNO3 can act as acid and as a base.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2

58) Chemical reactions are at equilibrium when the concentration of product is equal to the concentration of reactant.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Write the equilibrium constant expression for a reversible reaction.

Section Reference 1: 7.3

130

59) The higher the numerical value of an equilibrium constant (Keq), the further to the right the reaction will proceed.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Write the equilibrium constant expression for a reversible reaction.

Section Reference 1: 7.3

60) A catalyst lowers the activation energy for a chemical reaction. This increases the rate of the forward reaction and drives an equilibrium to the right.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Use Le Châtelier's principle to explain how an equilibrium responds to being disturbed.

Section Reference 1: 7.4

61) The greater the hydronium ion concentration, the higher the pH. Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6

62) For a buffer to continue to work effectively, the pH of a buffer has to be close to the pKa of the conjugate acid.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.10 Describe buffers and explain how to predict the pH range over which they are most effective.

Section Reference 1: 7.10

63) A buffer is capable of reducing the effect of the addition of small amounts of hydronium or hydroxide ion to a solution.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.10 Describe buffers and explain how to predict the pH range over which they are most effective.

Section Reference 1: 7.10 131

Question type: Text-entry

64) If a wine has fermented beyond the step that produces alcohol, it becomes acidic, making the wine taste ___.

Answer: sour Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 List the common characteristics of acids and bases.

Section Reference 1: 7.1

65) Basic substances tend to have a ___ taste.

Answer: bitter Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 List the common characteristics of acids and bases.

Section Reference 1: 7.1

66) The formula of the conjugate base of HClO4 is ___.

Answer: ClO4Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2

67) A base is a compound that produces an ion with the formula ___ in aqueous solution and an acid is a compound that produces the ___ ion in aqueous solution, which is also written as the hydronium ion (___).

Answer: OH-, H+, H3O+ Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2

132

68) Compounds that can act as acids and bases are called ___.

Answer: amphoteric Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2 69) The conjugate base of the hydrogen sulfate ion (HSO4-) is ___.

Answer: SO42Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2 70) The conjugate acid of the hydrogen sulfate ion (HSO4-) is ___.

Answer: H2SO4 Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2

71) In the following equation, identify the acid, base, conjugate acid, and conjugate base.

CH3NH3+ + NO3CH3NH2 + HNO3 Answer: acid ___, base ___, conjugate acid ___, conjugate base ___ Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2

133

72) Increasing the concentration of a ___ at equilibrium will drive the system toward the reactants.

Answer: product Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Use Le Châtelier's principle to explain how an equilibrium responds to being disturbed.

Section Reference 1: 7.4

73) A is red, B is colorless, and C is yellow. Initially the system is in equilibrium and has an orange color.

C(g) + Heat A(g) + 2B(g) What color will the system become if B is removed?

Answer: red Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Use Le Châtelier's principle to explain how an equilibrium responds to being disturbed.

Section Reference 1: 7.4

74) A is red, B is colorless, and C is yellow. Initially the system is in equilibrium and has an orange color.

C(g) + Heat A(g) + 2B(g) What color will the system become if B is added?

Answer: yellow Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Use Le Châtelier's principle to explain how an equilibrium responds to being disturbed.

Section Reference 1: 7.4

134

75) A is red, B is colorless, and C is yellow. Initially the system is in equilibrium and has an orange color.

C(g) + Heat A(g) + 2B(g) What color will the system become if it is heated?

Answer: red Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Use Le Châtelier's principle to explain how an equilibrium responds to being disturbed.

Section Reference 1: 7.4

76) A is red, B is colorless, and C is yellow. Initially the system is in equilibrium and has an orange color.

C(g) + Heat A(g) + 2B(g) What color will the system become if concentration of A is increased?

Answer: yellow Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Use Le Châtelier's principle to explain how an equilibrium responds to being disturbed.

Section Reference 1: 7.4

77) A sample of blood has a pH of 7.37, which means that the sample of blood is slightly ___.

Answer: basic Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6 78) Nitrous acid (HNO2) has Ka = 4.0 x 10-4, and carbonic acid (H2CO3) has Ka= 4.4 x 10-7. The acid with a stronger conjugate base is ___ Answer: carbonic acid (H2CO3) Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.7 Use Ka and pKa values to assess the relative strength of acids and state the relationship between the strength of an acid and the strength of its conjugate base.

Section Reference 1: 7.7 135

79) The symptoms of alkalosis appear when blood serum pH is ___.

Answer: high Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.11 Describe the role of buffers, respiration, and the kidneys in maintaining a stable blood serum pH. Section Reference 1: 7.11

80) ____ is a condition in which the pH of blood is below the normal range.

Answer: acidosis Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.11 Describe the role of buffers, respiration, and the kidneys in maintaining a stable blood serum pH. Section Reference 1: 7.11

Question type: Essay Show all calculations. Include all necessary units. Round answers to the correct number of significant figures.

81) Which of the following are the strong acids? List all.

HF, HNO3, HCN, CH3COOH,

H2SO4

Answer: HNO3, H2SO4 Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 List the common characteristics of acids and bases.

Section Reference 1: 7.1

82) Calculate the pH of a 0.0019 M HNO3 solution.

Answer: 2.72 Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6

136

83.) A solution of stomach acid contains 1.21 g of HCl in 480.0 mL of solution. Calculate the molarity of the solution. Assume complete dissociation.

Answer: 0.0691 M Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6

84) A solution of stomach acid contains 1.21 g of HCl in 480.0 mL of solution. Calculate the pH of the solution. Assume complete dissociation.

Answer: 1.161 Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6

85) Calculate the pH of a 0.01 M NaOH solution. Assume complete dissociation.

Answer: 12.0 Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6 86) Calculate the pKa of water whose Ka is 1.8 x 10-16.

Answer: 15.74 Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.7 Use Ka and pKa values to assess the relative strength of acids and state the relationship between the strength of an acid and the strength of its conjugate base.

Section Reference 1: 7.7

137

87) Write the equation illustrating how H2CO3 reacts as an acid with H2O. Answer: H2CO3 + H2O

HCO3- + H3O+

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases and explain how they differ from their conjugates.

Section Reference 1: 7.2

88) Carrot juice has a pH of 5.1 while asparagus juice has a pH of 5.6. Are they both acidic or basic? Which is more so?

Answer: Both are acidic. Carrot juice is more acidic.

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6 89) What is the [H3O+] of a solution whose pOH is 11.00?

Answer: 1.0 x 10-3 M Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.6 Perform pH calculations and use pH to identify a solution as being acidic, basic, or neutral.

Section Reference 1: 7.6

90) The carbonate/hydrogen carbonate buffer is responsible for maintaining the pH of human blood in a narrow range between 7.35-7.45. The following equation shows the equilibrium that exists between carbonic acid (H2CO3) and its conjugate base, hydrogen carbonate (HCO3-).

H2CO3 + H2O

HCO3- + H3O+

In your own words, explain what happens when a solution containing acid is added to the system and how the buffer prevents the pH from changing.

Answer: When acid is added to the system it is neutralized by the conjugate base (HCO3-).

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.11 Describe the role of buffers, respiration, and the kidneys in maintaining a stable blood serum pH. Section Reference 1: 7.11 138

91) The carbonate/hydrogen carbonate buffer is responsible for maintaining the pH of human blood in a narrow range between 7.35-7.45. The following equation shows the equilibrium that exists between carbonic acid (H2CO3) and its conjugate base, hydrogen carbonate (HCO3-).

H2CO3 + H2O

HCO3- + H3O+

In you own words, explain what happens when a solution containing hydroxide ions is added to the system and how the buffer prevents the pH from changing.

Answer: Added OH- will react with the H3O+ forming water. The lost H3O+ is replaced by ionization of the H2CO3.

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.11 Describe the role of buffers, respiration, and the kidneys in maintaining a stable blood serum pH. Section Reference 1: 7.11 92) In your own words, describe how the HPO42-/H2PO4- buffer system stabilizes the pH inside a cell.

H2PO4- + H2O

HPO42- + H3O+

Answer: HPO42- is basic and reacts with any added acid. H2PO4- is acidic and reacts with any added base Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.11 Describe the role of buffers, respiration, and the kidneys in maintaining a stable blood serum pH. Section Reference 1: 7.11

93) One serious effect of cholera is to destroy the hydrogen carbonate ion in the buffer system in the blood. Would the body then suffer from acidosis or alkalosis? Explain.

Answer: Loss of the hydrogen carbonate ion would cause one to suffer from acidosis.

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.11 Describe the role of buffers, respiration, and the kidneys in maintaining a stable blood serum pH. Section Reference 1: 7.11

139

Package Title: Raymond Test Bank Course Title: Raymond, 4e Chapter Number: 8

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following statements is true about alkanes? a) alkanes contain polar bonds b) alkanes are attracted to one another by London forces c) alkanes are polar molecules d) alkanes are unsaturated hydrocarbons Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Explain how alkanes are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.1

2) Hydocarbons are organic compounds that a) contain carbon and hydrogen atoms only. b) are soluble in water. c) are polar molecules. d) contain carbon, hydrogen, and halogen atoms.

Answer: A Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Explain how alkanes are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.1

3) Carbon must form how many bonds? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Explain how alkanes are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.1

4) The linear alkane that contains seven carbon atoms is called ___.

128

a) butane b) heptane c) hexane d) nonane Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Explain how alkanes are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.1

5) Which of the following molecules is an alkane?

Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Explain how alkanes are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.1

6) Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point and melting point? a) Hexane b) Propane c) Pentane d) Octane Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Explain how alkanes are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 7) Give the correct IUPAC name for the following molecule:

129

CH3 CH3CH2CHCH2CH2CH2CH3 a) 2-Ethylpentane b) 3-Methylhexane c) 3-Methylcycloheptane d) 3-Methylheptane Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Explain how alkanes are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 8) Give the correct IUPAC name for the following molecule:

CH3 CH3CH2CHCHCH3 CH3 a) 3, 4-Dimethylpentane b) 2,3-Dimethyl heptane c) 2,3-Dimethylpentane d) 1,1,2-Trimethylpentane Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Explain how alkanes are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.1

9) Which of the following statements is true about nonane? a) It is a polar molecule. b) It dissolves in water. c) It is a liquid at room temperature. d) It contains one double bond.

Answer: C Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Explain how alkanes are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 10) Which of the following structures is a constitutional isomer of 2-Methylheptane?

130

CH3 A

CH3CH2CH2CH2CHCH3 CH2CH3

B

CH2CH2CH2CHCH3 CH3

CH3 C

CH2CH2CH2CH2 CH3 CH CH3 CH3

D

CH3CHCH2CH2CHCH3 CH3

Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Explain how alkanes are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 11) The name of the following compound is H HC H H H C H

C H

H H CH H C H

C

H C H H

H C H H

a) 2,2,4-trimethylpentane. b) 1,1,1,3-tetramethylbutane. c) 1,1,1,3,3-pentamethylpropane. d) Both 1,1,1,3-tetramethylbutane and 1,1,1,3,3-pentamethylpropane are correct names.

Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Explain how alkanes are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 12) Which of the following pairs of compounds represent constitutional isomers? a) 2-methylpropane and Pentane b) 2,2-dimethylbutane and 3-methylpentane 131

c) 2,2-dimethylpropane and 2-methylpentane d) 2-methylbutane and 2-methylpropane Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2 Describe constitutional isomers.

Section Reference 1: 8.2 13) How many alkane constitutional isomers exist with the formula C5H12? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) more than 5 Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2 Describe constitutional isomers.

Section Reference 1: 8.2 14) The following is an example of what type of reaction?

a) Hydration b) Combustion c) Hydrogeneation d) Halogenation Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain how alkenes, alkynes, and aromatic compounds are named and describe the geometric isomers formed by some alkenes.

Section Reference 1: 8.5 15) The correct IUPAC name for the molecule below is ___.

a) 1-pentene b) 2,3-dimethyl-1-pentyne c) 2,3,3-trimethyl-1-butyne d) 2,3-dimethyl-1-heptene 132

Commented [ADW1]: Is this correct for question 14?

Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: Section Reference 1: 8.5 16) Which of the following molecules represent trans- 2-Hexene?

Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain how alkenes, alkynes, and aromatic compounds are named and describe the geometric isomers formed by some alkenes.

Section Reference 1: 8.5 17) What is the major organic product of the following reaction?

a) 1-propanol b) 2-propanol c) propanal d) propanone Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.6 Describe the product formed when an alkane reacts with Cl2 and light, when an alkene reacts with H2 and Pt or with H2O and H+, and when an aromatic hydrocarbon reacts with Cl2 and Fe. Section Reference 1: 8.6

133

18) Provide IUPAC name for the following molecule.

a) 3-methyl-5-Hexene b) 4-ethyl-1-pentene c) 3-methyl-5-heptene d) 4-methyl-1-hexene Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.6 Describe the product formed when an alkane reacts with Cl2 and light, when an alkene reacts with H2 and Pt or with H2O and H+, and when an aromatic hydrocarbon reacts with Cl2 and Fe. Section Reference 1: 8.6 19) What is the major product of the reaction below?

CH2CH3

+ H2O

H+

CH2CH3

A.

OH

CH2CH3 B. OH CH2CH3

C.

OH

D.

CH2CH2OH

Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.6 Describe the product formed when an alkane reacts with Cl2 and light, when an alkene reacts with H2 and Pt or with H2O and H+, and when an aromatic hydrocarbon reacts with Cl2 and Fe. Section Reference 1: 8.6

134

20) Which of the following can participate in hydrogen bonding? a) alcohols b) carboxylic acids c) primary amines d) all of these choices Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.7 Explain how carboxylic acids are named and identify the major noncovalent force that holds them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.7

21) Rank butane (CH3CH2CH2CH3), butanoic acid (CH3CH2CH2COOH), and pentane (CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3) in order of increasing boiling point. (From lowest to highest.) a) butane < butanoic acid < pentane b) butane < pentane < butanoic acid c) butanoic acid < pentane < butane d) pentane < butanoic acid < butane Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.7 Explain how carboxylic acids are named and identify the major noncovalent force that holds them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.7

22) Carboxylic acids, when compared with other molecules of similar size, a) have relatively lower melting points. b) have relatively higher boiling points. c) have a smaller number of hydrogen bonds. d) have more nonpolar locations.

Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.8 Explain how phenols are named and identify the major noncovalent force that holds them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.8

135

23) Give the IUPAC name of the following carboxylic acid?

CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3

O

CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH CH CH2 C OH

a) 4-propylnanoic acid b) 3-octyl-butanoic acid c) 4-butyl-3-methylheptanoic acid d) 3-methyl-4-propyloctanoic acid Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.7 Explain how carboxylic acids are named and identify the major noncovalent force that holds them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.7

24) What is the IUPAC name of the molecule below?

CH3

O

CH3CH2CHCH2CHCH2CH2C OH CH3 a) octanoic acid b) 6-ethyl-4-methylhexanoic acid c) 4,6-dimethyloctanoic acid d) 3,5-dimethyloctanoic acid Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.7 Explain how carboxylic acids are named and identify the major noncovalent force that holds them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.7

25) Provide the IUPAC name for the compound below.

O C OH CH3CH2CHCH2CH2CHCH3 CH3 a) 2-methyl-5-heptanoic acid b) 2-ethyl-5-methylhexanoic acid c) 6-methyl-3-heptanoic acid d) 6-methylheptanoic acid 136

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.7 Explain how carboxylic acids are named and identify the major noncovalent force that holds them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.7

26) The molecule responsible for the hot taste of chili peppers is capsaicin. Capsaicin is a phenol because it has a) a double bond. b) an amide within its structure. c) a trans stereochemistry at its double bond. d) an -OH attached to a benzene ring.

Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.8 Explain how phenols are named and identify the major noncovalent force that holds them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.8

27) The carboxylic acids share which characteristic with the phenols? a) They have relatively high boiling points. b) They are capable of forming hydrogen bonds. c) They are weak acids. d) All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.8 Explain how phenols are named and identify the major noncovalent force that holds them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.8

28) The IUPAC name of the molecule below is

OH Cl Cl a) hydroxyl -2,4-dichlorocyclohexene b) 3,4-dichlorophenol c) 2,4-dichlorophenol 137

d) 1,3-dichlorophenol Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.8 Explain how phenols are named and identify the major noncovalent force that holds them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.8

29) Phenol and toluene (structures shown below) have similar molecular weights.

OH

CH3

phenol

toluene

Which of the following statements accounts for the higher boiling point of phenol (182C) than that of toluene (111C)? a) Toluene is more soluble in water than phenol. b) Phenol molecules are primarily attracted to one another by London forces. c) Toluene has greater hydrogen bonding interactions than phenol. d) Phenol molecules are primarily attracted to one another by hydrogen bonds.

Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.8 Explain how phenols are named and identify the major noncovalent force that holds them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.8

30) The carboxylic acids with less than 11 carbons are likely to have a) lower vapor pressure than the larger carboxylic acids. b) lower water solubility than larger carboxylic acids. c) lower boiling points than the larger carboxylic acids. d) the same chemical and physical properties as those with 11 to 20 carbons.

Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.9 Describe the reaction of carboxylic acids and phenols with water or with strong bases and explain how the conjugate bases of carboxylic acids and phenols are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.9

31) Which of the following produce acidic solutions in water?

138

a) phenols b) 2º amines c) carboxylic acids d) both phenols and carboxylic acids Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.9 Describe the reaction of carboxylic acids and phenols with water or with strong bases and explain how the conjugate bases of carboxylic acids and phenols are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.9

32) Which of the following lowers the pH when added to water? a) ethyl alcohol b) propanoic acid c) methyl amine d) methyl alcohol Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.9 Describe the reaction of carboxylic acids and phenols with water or with strong bases and explain how the conjugate bases of carboxylic acids and phenols are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.9

33) The chapter refers to physiological pH, which is approximately a a) pH of 6.3. b) pH of 7. c) pH of 8. d) pH of 10.

Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.9 Describe the reaction of carboxylic acids and phenols with water or with strong bases and explain how the conjugate bases of carboxylic acids and phenols are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.9

34) Phenols are organic acids, as are carboxylic acids. The difference is that a) the phenols have a Ka that is larger than the carboxylic acids. b) the phenols are much stronger acids.

139

c) the carboxylic acids are significantly stronger. d) the carboxylic acids are much larger than the phenols.

Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.9 Describe the reaction of carboxylic acids and phenols with water or with strong bases and explain how the conjugate bases of carboxylic acids and phenols are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.9

35) Both carboxylic acids and phenols react with strong bases to produce a) the conjugate base of the carboxylic acid or phenol. b) a stronger acid or phenol. c) a complex with water. d) gaseous products.

Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.9 Describe the reaction of carboxylic acids and phenols with water or with strong bases and explain how the conjugate bases of carboxylic acids and phenols are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.9

36) The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium hydroxide a) produces sodium benzoate, a salt. b) results in a compound that is water soluble. c) goes all the way to the right. d) All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.9 Describe the reaction of carboxylic acids and phenols with water or with strong bases and explain how the conjugate bases of carboxylic acids and phenols are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.9

37) Provide the organic product formed when NaOH reacts with 3-bromophenol. a) sodium 3-bromophenoxide b) sodium phenoxide c) 3-bromobenzoic acid d) 3-bromobenzoate 140

Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.9 Describe the reaction of carboxylic acids and phenols with water or with strong bases and explain how the conjugate bases of carboxylic acids and phenols are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.9

38) Given: benzene, phenol, and sodium phenoxide. Rank these in order of increasing water solubility. (From lowest to highest.) a) benzene < phenol < sodium phenoxide b) phenol < benzene < sodium phenoxide c) benzene < sodium phenoxide < phenol d) sodium phenoxide < phenol < benzene Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.9 Describe the reaction of carboxylic acids and phenols with water or with strong bases and explain how the conjugate bases of carboxylic acids and phenols are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.9

39) The forces that hold one ester molecule to another are predominantly a) hydrogen bonding. b) dipole-dipole interactions and London forces. c) ionic. d) covalent.

Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.10 Explain the naming of esters and describe their synthesis and hydrolysis.

Section Reference 1: 8.10

40) Carboxylic acids and alcohols can react under acidic conditions a) to produce compounds that exist only under acidic conditions. b) to produce esters with water being formed. c) to produce phenols, if the appropriate hydrolyzing agents are present. d) only if the carboxylic acid is an extremely strong acid.

Answer: B Difficulty: easy 141

Learning Objective 1: LO 8.10 Explain the naming of esters and describe their synthesis and hydrolysis.

Section Reference 1: 8.10

41) The organic product of the reaction between NaOH and 3-methylbutanoic acid is named a) 3-methylbutane sodium. b) 3-methylbutanoate. c) methylbutanoate. d) sodium 3-methylbutanoate.

Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.9 Describe the reaction of carboxylic acids and phenols with water or with strong bases and explain how the conjugate bases of carboxylic acids and phenols are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.9

42) The organic product formed when propanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of an acid catalyst is called a) ethyl propanoic acid. b) ethylpropanoate. c) propylethanoate. d) propylethanoic acid.

Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.10 Explain the naming of esters and describe their synthesis and hydrolysis.

Section Reference 1: 8.10

43) The reaction below is an example of what kind of reaction?

CH3 O CH3 CH C O

+

H2O

CH3 O

H+

CH3 CH C OH

a) neutralization b) hydrolysis c) esterification d) saponification Answer: B Difficulty: hard 142

+

OH

Learning Objective 1: LO 8.10 Explain the naming of esters and describe their synthesis and hydrolysis.

Section Reference 1: 8.10

44) The missing product from the following reaction is

O CH3 CH2 C O

?

+ NaOH(aq)

+

OH

O C OH

A.

O B.

C ONa O

C. CH D.

3

CH2 C ONa O

CH3 CH2 C H

Answer: C Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.10 Explain the naming of esters and describe their synthesis and hydrolysis.

Section Reference 1: 8.10

45) When the ester ethyl butanoate, CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH3, is hydrolyzed under acidic conditions, which compounds are the products? a) ethyl alcohol and butanoic acid b) butanol and ethanoic (acetic acid) c) ethyl alcohol and the butanoate ion d) butanol and the ethanoate ion Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.10 Explain the naming of esters and describe their synthesis and hydrolysis.

Section Reference 1: 8.10

143

46) When the ester ethyl butanoate, CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH3, is hydrolyzed under basic conditions, which compounds are the products? a) ethyl alcohol and butanoic acid b) butanol and ethanoic (acetic) acid c) ethyl alcohol and the butanoate ion d) butanol and the ethanoate ion Answer: C Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.10 Explain the naming of esters and describe their synthesis and hydrolysis.

Section Reference 1: 8.10

47) Which raises the pH when added to water? a) ethyl alcohol b) propanoic acid c) methyl amine d) methyl alcohol Answer: C Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.11 Explain how amines are classified and named and identify the major noncovalent forces that hold them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.11

48) The structure of amphetamine is shown.

CH3 CH2CHNH2

Amphetamine is a ___ amine. a) 1o b) 2o c) 3o d) 4o Answer: A Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.11 Explain how amines are classified and named and identify the major noncovalent forces that hold them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.11 144

49) The amide containing anti-flea drug Lufenuron is hydrophobic, therefore it dissolves easily in ___. a) fatty tissue b) aqueous solutions c) hair d) water Answer: A Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.11 Explain how amines are classified and named and identify the major noncovalent forces that hold them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.11

50) Which of the following cannot participate in hydrogen bonding? a) phenols b) primary amines c) secondary amines d) tertiary amines Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.11 Explain how amines are classified and named and identify the major noncovalent forces that hold them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.11

51) To which class of compounds would a physiological stimulant most likely belong? a) carboxylic acids b) phenols c) alcohols d) amines Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.11 Explain how amines are classified and named and identify the major noncovalent forces that hold them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.11

52) Which compound is not an amine?

145

CH CH H2N

CH2 C

CH CH CH

a)

CH CH

O H3C

CH2 NH C

C

c)

CH CH CH

b)

CH3 CH2 NH CH2 CH3 CH3 CH2

d) CH3 N CH2 CH2 CH3 Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.11 Explain how amines are classified and named and identify the major noncovalent forces that hold them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.11

53) This compound is mescaline, a hallucinogen.

CH3O CH3O

CH2CH2NH2

CH3O

Which of the following statements is true? a) Mescaline is an amine. b) Mescaline contains an alcohol group. c) Mescaline is a carboxylic acid. d) Mescaline is an amine and contains an alcohol group.

Answer: A Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.11 Explain how amines are classified and named and identify the major noncovalent forces that hold them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.11

54) What is the name of this compound?

CH 3 CH3 CH2 N CH3 CH2 CH CH3

a) ethylmethyl-sec-butyl-ammonium b) ethylmethylbutylammonium c) N-ethyl-N-methyl-3-butamine 146

d) N-ethyl-N-methyl-2-butanamine Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.11 Explain how amines are classified and named and identify the major noncovalent forces that hold them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.11

55) Given the following amines: H3C H3C

CH2

1ºamine

CH2

NH2

H3C

CH2 CH3 NH

2ºamine

N

CH3

CH3

3º amine

These three amines all have the same formula weight. Rank them in order of increasing boiling point. (From lowest to highest.) a) 1º < 2º < 3º b) 2º < 1º < 3º c) 3º < 2º < 1º d) 3º < 1º < 2º Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.11 Explain how amines are classified and named and identify the major noncovalent forces that hold them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.11

56) Provide the IUPAC name for the following organic compound.

NH CH3 CH3 CH2 CH CH3 a) N-Methyl-2-butamine b) methylbutanamine c) dimethypropyllamine d) butylmethanamine Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.11 Explain how amines are classified and named and identify the major noncovalent forces that hold them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.11

147

57) Provide the IUPAC name for the following organic compound.

CH3 NH CH3

CH3 CH CH CH2 CH3 a) methylpentanamine b) dimethylpentanamine c) 2,N-Dimethyl-3-pentanamine d) N-methyl-2-methylpentanamine Answer: C Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.11 Explain how amines are classified and named and identify the major noncovalent forces that hold them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.11

58) What is the product if butanoic acid reacts with ammonia? a) a secondary amine b) the ammonium salt c) a butane compound with a nitrogen attached to each carbon d) a cyclic compound with one nitrogen and four carbons in the ring Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.12 Describe the reaction of amines with water or with strong acids and explain how the conjugate acids or amines are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.12

59) Diproylamine and HBr react to produce a) dipropylammonium bromide. b) dipropyl bromide. c) propylammonium bromide. d) ammonium bromide.

Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.12 Describe the reaction of amines with water or with strong acids and explain how the conjugate acids or amines are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.12

60) Amine salts formed from amines are mainly used in the drug industry because a) they are acidic and react with bases.

148

b) they do not have a strong, unpleasant odor as do amines. c) they are weak acids. d) they are more soluble in water and blood fluids than the amines.

Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.12 Describe the reaction of amines with water or with strong acids and explain how the conjugate acids or amines are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.12

61) Salts of quaternary (4º) ammonium salts a) have low boiling points. b) have high melting points. c) have weak covalent bonds. d) are liquids at room temperature.

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.12 Describe the reaction of amines with water or with strong acids and explain how the conjugate acids or amines are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.12

62) An amine will be converted into its conjugate acid by a) application of heat. b) reaction with an oxidizing agent. c) reaction with a strong acid. d) reaction with a strong base.

Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.12 Describe the reaction of amines with water or with strong acids and explain how the conjugate acids or amines are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.12

63) Predict the organic product formed when heat is applied to the compound below: O O– NH4+

HC O

a) b)

HC

H2N

OH

CH3

149

c)

CH3 NH CH3 O

d)

HC

NH2

Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.13 Explain the naming of amides and describe their synthesis and hydrolysis.

Section Reference 1: 8.13

64) The IUPAC name of the molecule below is

O CH3 CH2 CH2 C NH CH3 a) N-methylbutanamide b) methylbutyramide c) methylbutylamide d) N-methyl-1-butylamine Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.13 Explain the naming of amides and describe their synthesis and hydrolysis.

Section Reference 1: 8.13

65) The products of the hydrolysis reaction below are

O CH3 CH2 CH2 C NH CH3 + H O 2 O CH CH CH A. 3 2 C OH 2

H+ heat

+ CH3OH

O B. CH3 CH2 CH2 C CH3 + CH3NH2 O C. CH3 CH2 CH2 C NH3 + CH OH 3 D.

O CH3 CH2 CH2 C OH

+ CH3NH3+

Answer: D 150

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.13 Explain the naming of amides and describe their synthesis and hydrolysis.

Section Reference 1: 8.13

66) An amide can be identified by noting that a) there is a nitrogen incorporated in the structure. b) there is a nitrogen attached to an oxygen from a carbon. c) all of the carbon chains attach to a nitrogen. d) a nitrogen attaches to a carbonyl carbon.

Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.13 Explain the naming of amides and describe their synthesis and hydrolysis.

Section Reference 1: 8.13

Question type: True/false

67) The larger the carboxylic acid, the more hydrogen bonding occurs between molecules.

Answer: False Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.7 Explain how carboxylic acids are named and identify the major noncovalent force that holds them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.7

68) The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence of butanoic acid.

Ans. true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.7 Explain how carboxylic acids are named and identify the major noncovalent force that holds them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.7

69) A common feature of carboxylic acids and phenols is that they contain an O-H group.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.8 Explain how phenols are named and identify the major noncovalent force that holds them to one another.

151

Section Reference 1: 8.8

70) When a carboxylic acid or phenol reacts with a strong base, one of the products is the conjugate base of the carboxylic acid or the phenol.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.9 Describe the reaction of carboxylic acids and phenols with water or with strong bases and explain how the conjugate bases of carboxylic acids and phenols are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.9

71) Carboxylic acids have lower boiling points than esters of similar size.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.10 Explain the naming of esters and describe their synthesis and hydrolysis.

Section Reference 1: 8.10

72) A 4º ammonium ion has four carbon atoms attached to a nitrogen atom causing it to have a 1+ charge.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.11 Explain how amines are classified and named and identify the major noncovalent forces that hold them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.11

73) Water soluble amines form solutions with a pH that is greater than 7.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.12 Describe the reaction of amines with water or with strong acids and explain how the conjugate acids or amines are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.12

74) Phenol forms a basic solution in water.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy 152

Learning Objective 1: LO 8.12 Describe the reaction of amines with water or with strong acids and explain how the conjugate acids or amines are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.12

Question type: Fill In The Blank

75) Alcohols are not generally considered to be acids because they cannot donate a(n) ___ ion.

Answer: H + Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.9 Describe the reaction of carboxylic acids and phenols with water or with strong bases and explain how the conjugate bases of carboxylic acids and phenols are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.9

76) Determine the major organic product of the following reaction: CH2

CH2 CH2

CH3

O C

+

H2O

+

H3O+

OH

Answer: CH2

CH2 CH2

CH3

O C O

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.9 Describe the reaction of carboxylic acids and phenols with water or with strong bases and explain how the conjugate bases of carboxylic acids and phenols are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.9

77) Determine the major organic product of the following reaction: CH2

CH2 CH2

CH3

O C

+

NaOH

OH

Answer: CH2 CH3

CH2 CH2

O C +

+

H2O

O Na

Difficulty: medium 153

Learning Objective 1: LO 8.9 Describe the reaction of carboxylic acids and phenols with water or with strong bases and explain how the conjugate bases of carboxylic acids and phenols are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.9

78) Determine the major organic product of the following reaction: OH

NaOH

+ Answer: +

O Na

+

H2O

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.9 Describe the reaction of carboxylic acids and phenols with water or with strong bases and explain how the conjugate bases of carboxylic acids and phenols are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.9

79) Generally, carboxylates are ___ in water if they contain fewer than 12 carbon atoms.

Answer: soluble Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.10 Explain the naming of esters and describe their synthesis and hydrolysis.

Section Reference 1: 8.10

80) A ___ amine is not capable of forming hydrogen bonds with a similar amine.

Answer: tertiary Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.10 Explain the naming of esters and describe their synthesis and hydrolysis.

Section Reference 1: 8.10

81) A ____ amine is a ring compound in which at least one atom in the ring is nitrogen.

Answer: heterocyclic 154

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.11 Explain how amines are classified and named and identify the major noncovalent forces that hold them to one another.

Section Reference 1: 8.11

82) Determine the major organic product of the following reaction: CH2

NH2

+

H2O

+

OH

CH2

CH3

Answer: CH2

NH3 CH2

CH3

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.12 Describe the reaction of amines with water or with strong acids and explain how the conjugate acids or amines are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.12

83) Determine the major organic product of the following reaction: CH2

NH2 CH2

CH3

+

HCl

Answer: CH2 CH3

NH3 Cl CH2

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.12 Describe the reaction of amines with water or with strong acids and explain how the conjugate acids or amines are named.

Section Reference 1: 8.12

155

Package Title: Raymond Test Bank Course Title: Raymond, 4e Chapter Number: 9

Question type: Multiple Choice 1) The IUPAC name for the organic compound below is

a) 3-Butanol b) 2-Butanol c) Ethyl methyl ether d) 3-butanethiol Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 2) The common name for CH3-O-CH3 is ___. a) methanal b) dimethanol c) ethyl ether d) dimethyl ether Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 3) The short thiols tend to have a disagreeable odor. Which is a thiol?

146

H

A.

H

H

C

S

C

H

B.

H

H

H

H

H

S

H

C

C

C

H

H

H

H

C.

S

H

H

D. None of these choices.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 4) The compound that is expected to have the highest boiling point is ___. a) the alcohol produced from methane. b) the thiol produced from methane. c) methane. d) They all boil at the same temperature since methane is the basis for the compounds.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 5) Each of these is based on the propane molecule. Which is NOT capable of forming hydrogen bonds to another molecule of the same type? a) 1-propanol b) 1-propanethiol c) 2-propanol d) propanoic acid Answer: b Difficulty: medium 147

Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 6) Which statement concerning thiols is correct? a) Thiols are more soluble in water than are alcohols of similar size. b) The thiols are of lower polarity than disulfides of similar size. c) A thiol is much less polar than is the parent hydrocarbon. d) The larger the thiol, the lower the solubility in water.

Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 7) Which of the following molecules can form hydrogen bonds with other molecules of the same type?

A

O CH3C OH

B CH3

O C CH3

C CH3 O CH3 D

O CH3C H

Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 8) Which of the following molecules has the highest boiling point?

148

A

CH3CH2CH3

B CH3

O C H

C CH3 O CH3 D CH3CH2OH Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 9) Which of these compounds is a properly named 2° alcohol?

H

O

a) 1,3-Propandiol H

H

c) 1-Propanol

H

H

C

C

C

H

H

H

H

H

H

O

H HC H

C

C

C

C

C

H

H

H C H H

H

H

H

H

H

C

C

C

H

H

H

b) 2-Methyl-3-methyl-3-pentanol

H

H

O

O

H

H

H

H

d) 3-Hexanol

H

H

H

O

H

H

C

C

C

C

C

C

H

H

H

H

H

H

Answer: d Difficulty: medium 149

H

H

Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 10) The molecule below is ___.

O CH3 a) butyl methyl ether b) butyl ether c) cyclopropyl methyl ether d) a hemiacetal Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 11) Which nucleophile, when reacted with 1-bromopropane (CH3CH2CH2Br), would produce an ether? a) OHb) SHc) Id) -OCH3 Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Explain how nucleophilic reactions can be used to prepare alcohols, ethers, thiols, and sulfides.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 12) Which nucleophile, when reacted with 1-bromopropane (CH3CH2CH2Br), would produce an alcohol? a) OHb) SHc) Id) -OCH3 Answer: a Difficulty: easy 150

Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Explain how nucleophilic reactions can be used to prepare alcohols, ethers, thiols, and sulfides.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 13) Which nucleophile, when reacted with 1-bromopropane (CH3CH2CH2Br), would produce a thiol? a) OHb) SHc) Id) -OCH3 Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Explain how nucleophilic reactions can be used to prepare alcohols, ethers, thiols, and sulfides.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 14) The product of the nucleophile substitution reaction below is:

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Explain how nucleophilic reactions can be used to prepare alcohols, ethers, thiols, and sulfides.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 15) What is the product of the nucleophilic substitution reaction below?

151

Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Explain how nucleophilic reactions can be used to prepare alcohols, ethers, thiols, and sulfides.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 16) Which compound type is most susceptible to a nucleophillic substitution reaction? a) hydrocarbon b) alcohol c) alkyl halide d) acid Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Explain how nucleophilic reactions can be used to prepare alcohols, ethers, thiols, and sulfides.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 17) Suppose we were assigned to produce the compound below in the laboratory: H

H

H

C

C

H

H

S

H

Which of the following would be a good precursor (reactant) for a one-step process?

H

a)

H

H

C

C

H

H

H

152

H

O

C

C

O

H

H

b)

H

c)

H

d)

H

H

H

C

C

H

H

H

H

C

C

H

H

Cl

O

H

H

C

C

H

H

H

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Explain how nucleophilic reactions can be used to prepare alcohols, ethers, thiols, and sulfides.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 18) Identify the nucleophile in this reaction.

CH3CH 2Br + KOH ¾ ¾® CH3CH2 OH + KBr

a) K+ b) CH3CH2Br c) CH3CH2OH d) OH– Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Explain how nucleophilic reactions can be used to prepare alcohols, ethers, thiols, and sulfides.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 19) The product of the nucleophilic substitution reaction below is

153

Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Explain how nucleophilic reactions can be used to prepare alcohols, ethers, thiols, and sulfides.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 20) Oxidation of a secondary alcohol results in the formation of a(n) ___. a) tertiary alcohol b) acid c) aldehyde d) ketone Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 21) Provide the product of the following reaction.

OH K2Cr2O7 CH3CH2CHCH3

154

OH A.

CH3CH2CHCH3

B.

O CH3CH2CH2CH

C.

CH3CH2

O

CH3

O D.

CH3CH2CCH3

Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 22) An important reaction in chemistry is oxidation. Which is an oxidation reaction? a) An alcohol is converted into a ketone. b) An oxygen is removed from an alcohol. c) A double bond between an oxygen and a carbon is broken. d) A carbonyl group is modified to produce an alcohol.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 23) What would be the product if we attempt to oxidize a 3º alcohol? a) There would be no product, 3º alcohols cannot be oxidized. b) The product is a ketone. c) The product is a carboxylic acid. d) The product is a thiol.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

155

Section Reference 1: 9.3 24) The oxidation of methanethiol by I2 produces what product?

H H

C

H S

S

H

a)

H

b)

C

H

H

H

H

C

C

H

H

S

H

H I

C

S

H

H

c)

H H

d)

C

I

H

Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 25) Disulfide bonds in a protein have some responsibility for holding the protein molecule in its three-dimensional shape. Which statement is correct when considering disulfide bonds? a) The disulfide bond is established by an oxidation reaction. b) The disulfide bond can be broken by a reduction process. c) Two thiol molecules combine to form a disulfide when treated with the oxidizing agent I2. d) All three statements are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 156

26) Which family of compounds is most likely to be relatively unreactive? a) alcohols b) ethers c) sulfides d) carboxylic acids.

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 27) Which of the following is the product expected from the reaction below?

2CH3CHCH2CH3 SH

+ I2

A. CH3CHCH2CH3 I B. CH3CHCH2CH3 SH C. CH3CH2CH2CH2SSCH2CH2CH2CH3 D. CH3CHCH2CH3 S S CH3CHCH2CH3 Answer: d Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 28) The organic product expected from the following reaction is: 157

Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 29) The organic product expected from the following reaction is:

Answer: d Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

158

Section Reference 1: 9.3 30) The organic product expected from the following reaction is:

Answer: a Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 31) The organic product expected from the following reaction is:

159

A.

CH3

H

CH3

C

C

CH2

CH3 CH3 B.

C.

CH3

CH3

CH3 C

C CH3

O

CH3

C

C

CH3

H D.

CH3O CH3

C

CH3 CH

CH3

H Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 32) What is the product of the reaction below?

OH K2Cr2O7 CH3

160

Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 33) What is the major organic product of the following reaction?

CH3CH2CH2OH

K2Cr2O7

a) CH3CH=CH2 b) CH3CH2CH2Cr c) CH3CH2CH3 d) CH3CH2CO2H Answer: d 161

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 34) Aldehydes and ketones both contain a carbonyl carbon atom. They differ in that ___. a) the carbonyl carbon atom in ketones is attached to two other carbons and in aldehydes, the carbonyl carbon atom is also attached to at least one hydrogen atom. b) the carbonyl carbon atom in ketones is primary and in aldehydes, the carbonyl is secondary. c) the carbonyl carbon atom in ketones has a hydrogen attached to it. d) the carbonyl carbon atom in aldehydes has two carbon atoms attached to it Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4 Explain how aldehydes and ketones are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.4

35) The name for:

is ___.

a) ethanol b) dimethyl ketone c) dimethyl aldehyde d) ethanal Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4 Explain how aldehydes and ketones are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 36) Which of the following statements is true about aldehydes? a) Aldehydes have much lower boiling points than alcohols with a similar molecular weight. b) Aldehydes interact with like molecules through hydrogen bonding. c) The carbonyl carbon atom in an aldehyde can never be in position number 1. d) The parent chain of an aldehyde is named by dropping the final “e” from a corresponding alkane and adding “one.”

Answer: a Difficulty: easy 162

Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4 Explain how aldehydes and ketones are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 37) To which family of organic compounds does this compound belong?

O CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 C CH2 CH2 CH3

a) ketone b) aldehyde c) acid d) ether Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4 Explain how aldehydes and ketones are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 38) Which compounds contain a C=O? a) aldehydes and ketones b) acetals c) ketals d) alcohols Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4 Explain how aldehydes and ketones are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 O

39) Shown here is the structure of acetone, a common laboratory solvent: H3C Another name for acetone is ___. a) dimethyl aldehyde b) propanone c) methyl ethyl aldehyde d) propanal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy 163

C

CH3

Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4 Explain how aldehydes and ketones are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 40) MEK is the abbreviation for methyl ethyl ketone. It is the common name for a solvent that is O

sold at hardware and automotive parts stores. Its structure is: H3C IUPAC name for MEK?

C

CH3 CH2

What is the

a) butanal b) butanone c) 2-butanol d) methyl propanal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4 Explain how aldehydes and ketones are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 41). Rank the following compounds in order of increasing boiling point (lowest to highest).

CH3

O

CH H3 C CH3

H3C

C

2-methyl propane

acetone

OH

CH3

H3 C

CH CH3

2-propanol

a) 2-methyl propane < acetone < 2-propanol b) 2-methyl propane < 2-propanol < acetone c) 2-propanol < acetone < 2-methyl propane d) acetone < 2-methyl propane < 2-propanol Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4 Explain how aldehydes and ketones are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 42) What is the IUPAC name of this compound?

H H C H H H H H O H C C C C C C H H H H H H

a) 4-methy-4-propylbutylaldehyde 164

b) 4-methylhexanal c) 4-ethylpentanal d) 4-ethylpentylaldehyde Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4 Explain how aldehydes and ketones are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 43) If an aldehyde is oxidized, what type of compound would be produced? a) a ketone b) a different aldehyde c) a carboxylic acid d) an alcohol Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Identify the oxidation reactions of aldehydes.

Section Reference 1: 9.5 44) A reducing agent found in some biological systems is ___. a) H2O2 b) acetaldehyde c) Pt d) NADH Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Identify the oxidation reactions of aldehydes.

Section Reference 1: 9.5 45) Which of the following oxidizing agents is necessary to complete the biochemical reaction below?

O CH3C H

aldehyde dehydrogenase + ?

O CH3C OH

a) K2Cr2O7 b) NAD+ c) Cu2+ d) NADH 165

Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Identify the oxidation reactions of aldehydes.

Section Reference 1: 9.5 46) Benedict’s solution is added to a test tube containing ethanal. Which of the following statements is correct? a) ethanal is oxidized to ethanol b) ethanal is reduced to ethanol c) ethanal is oxidized to ethanoate ion d) ethanal is oxidized to propanone Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Identify the oxidation reactions of aldehydes.

Section Reference 1: 9.5 47) If the compound below is oxidized, the resulting product is ___.

O CH3 CH2 CH2 C H

a) methane and propane b) butanal c) butanoic acid d) butane Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Identify the oxidation reactions of aldehydes.

Section Reference 1: 9.5 48) Which of the following will be oxidized by Benedict’s reagent? a) ethanol b) ethanal c) acetic acid d) ethane Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Identify the oxidation reactions of aldehydes.

Section Reference 1: 9.5 166

49) What is the major organic product of the following reaction?

O CH3CH2C H

+ H2

Pt

a) CH3CH=CH2 b) CH3CH2CH2OH c) CH3CH2CH3 d) CH3CH2COOH Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.6 Explain what happens when an aldehyde or ketone is reacted with H2 and Pt. Section Reference 1: 9.6 50) What is the expected product when acetaldehyde and hydrogen react in the presence of platinum? a) ethanol b) ethanal c) ethanoic acid d) propane Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.6 Explain what happens when an aldehyde or ketone is reacted with H2 and Pt. Section Reference 1: 9.6 51) Which of the following reactant is missing in the reaction below?

?

+

H2

Pt

H

OH CH3 CH3

167

O A.

CH3 CH3 O C H

B. CH3 CH3 CH2 C.

CH3 CH3 H

D.

SH CH3 CH3

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.6 Explain what happens when an aldehyde or ketone is reacted with H2 and Pt. Section Reference 1: 9.6 52) Which compound is a hemiacetal?

OH A.

CH3CH2CHCH3 OH

B.

CH3C

H

OCH2CH3 C.

CH3CH2

O

CH3

CH3O D.

CH3CH2CCH3 CH3O

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7 Describe the structure and formation of hemiacetals and acetals.

168

Section Reference 1: 9.7 53) A reaction occurs in an acid solution during which two alcohol molecules react with a ketone. The product will be a(an) ___. a) ketose b) acetal c) alcoholic ketone d) acidic ketone Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7 Describe the structure and formation of hemiacetals and acetals.

Section Reference 1: 9.7 54) If formaldehyde reacts with methanol in an acid solution, the product formed is ___. a) a new aldehyde b) an alcohol that is very polar c) a hemiacetal d) an acid Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7 Describe the structure and formation of hemiacetals and acetals.

Section Reference 1: 9.7 55) The structural similarity of acetals and ethers is the presence of ___. a) C—O—C b) a carboxylic carbon c) C—O—H d) CHO Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7 Describe the structure and formation of hemiacetals and acetals.

Section Reference 1: 9.7 56) Which of the following is formed when an aldehyde or a ketone undergoes an addition reaction with an alcohol molecule in the presence of an acid catalyst? a) ester b) ether 169

c) hemiacetal d) alkene Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7 Describe the structure and formation of hemiacetals and acetals.

Section Reference 1: 9.7 57) This compound, glucose, is important in the chemistry of living things. To which class of compounds does glucose belong?

a) thiol b) carboxylic acid c) sulfide d) hemiacetal Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7 Describe the structure and formation of hemiacetals and acetals.

Section Reference 1: 9.7 58) Which of the following is the missing reactant in the reaction below?

?

+

H+ CH3CH2OH

OH CH3CH2C H CH3CH2O

170

O A.

CH3CCH3 O

B. CH3C H O C. CH3CH2C H D. CH3CH2CH2OH Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7 Describe the structure and formation of hemiacetals and acetals.

Section Reference 1: 9.7 Question type: True/False 59) Ethanol is miscible in water, while 1-pentanol has a solubility of just 2.2g/100 mL because solubility in water decreases with increasing alcohol size.

Answer: True Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 60) Thiols, sulfides and disulfides have high solubility in water.

Answer: False Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 61) Tertiary alcohols have three carbon atoms attached to carbon that has the OH directly attached.

Answer: True Difficulty: hard 171

Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 62) The reaction in which a primary alcohol becomes an aldehyde is an oxidation reaction.

Answer: True Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 63) When alcohols are dehydrated in the presence of H+ and heat, the major product is that formed by removal of –OH from one carbon atom and removal of –H from the neighboring C atom that carries more H atoms.

Answer: False Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 64) Benedict’s solution turns a blue color in the presence of glucose.

Answer: False Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Identify the oxidation reactions of aldehydes.

Section Reference 1: 9.5 65) The reduction of a ketone produces a 2° alcohol.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.6 Explain what happens when an aldehyde or ketone is reacted with H2 and Pt. Section Reference 1: 9.6 66) Reduction can convert an aldehyde into a secondary alcohol.

Answer: False 172

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.6 Explain what happens when an aldehyde or ketone is reacted with H2 and Pt. Section Reference 1: 9.6 Question type: Fill-in-the-blank 67) Alcohols and thiols are similar in structure with the thiol possessing a(an) ___ atom in place of the oxygen atom found in alcohols.

Answer: sulfur Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 68) Dehydration of an alcohol results in the formation of a(n) ___.

Answer: Alkene Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 69) Ketones and aldehydes contain a ___ carbon.

Answer: carbonyl Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4 Explain how aldehydes and ketones are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 70) Comparing polar compounds and non-polar compounds, the ___ compounds in this chapter have higher boiling points .

Answer: Polar Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4 Explain how aldehydes and ketones are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 173

71) Benedict’s reagent oxidizes ___ into carboxylic acids.

Answer: Aldehydes Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Identify the oxidation reactions of aldehydes.

Section Reference 1: 9.5 72) The reduction of a carbon-carbon double bond can be performed by reacting it with ___ while using platinum as a catalyst.

Answer: hydrogen Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.6 Explain what happens when an aldehyde or ketone is reacted with H2 and Pt. Section Reference 1: 9.6 73) The reaction of an aldehyde or ketone with an alcohol results in the formation of a(n) ___.

Answer: Hemiacetal Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7 Describe the structure and formation of hemiacetals and acetals.

Section Reference 1: 9.7 74) A hemiacetal has a carbon atom attached to a(an) ___ group and an -OC group.

Answer: Hydroxyl Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7 Describe the structure and formation of hemiacetals and acetals.

Section Reference 1: 9.7 75) The reaction of two alcohol molecules with an aldehyde or ketone in the presence of H+ results in the formation of a(an) ___.

Answer: Acetal Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7 Describe the structure and formation of hemiacetals and acetals.

Section Reference 1: 9.7 Question type: Essay 174

76) Sketch and name a thiol with 3-carbon atoms.

SH SH

Answer:

1-propane thiol or

or 2-propane thiol

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 77) Sketch and name an ether with 3-carbon atoms.

Answer:

O

ethyl methyl ether

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 78) Sketch and name a primary alcohol with 4-carbon atoms.

Answer:

OH

1-butanol

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 79) Sketch and name a tertiary alcohol with 4-carbon atoms.

Answer:

OH

2-methyl-2-propanol or t-butyl alcohol

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Explain how alcohols, thiols, ethers, sulfides, and disulfides are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Question type: Molecular Drawing 80) Sketch the major organic product of the following: 175

OH CH

CH3

K2Cr2O7

CH2

CH3

O

Answer: Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 81) Sketch the major organic product of the following:

CH2 CH3

+

CH2 CH2

H OH

Heat

Answer: Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 Question type: Essay 82) When oxidized, which thiol produces the disulfide shown below?

CH3CH2SSCH2CH3?

Answer: CH3CH2SH Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 83) Sketch and name the product formed as a result of oxidation of 2-Propanol.

176

O Answer:

CH3CCH3

propanone

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Identify the products formed from the oxidation of alcohols and thiols and predict the major product for the elimination reaction that takes place when an alcohol is heated under acidic conditions.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 84) Sketch and name an aldehyde with 4-carbon atoms.

Answer:

O

butanal or butyraldehyde

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4 Explain how aldehydes and ketones are named and identify the noncovalent forces that attract like molecules to one another.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 85) Sketch and name a ketone with 4-carbon atoms.

O

Answer:

butanone or ethyl methyl ketone

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Identify the oxidation reactions of aldehydes.

Section Reference 1: 9.5 Question type: Molecular Drawing 86) Sketch the major organic product of the following: CH2

CH2 C

CH3

CH3

H2 Pt

O

H3C

Answer:

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH3

OH

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.6 Explain what happens when an aldehyde or ketone is reacted with H2 and Pt. Section Reference 1: 9.6 177

87) Draw the missing reactant for the reaction below.

OH Pt +

H2 CH2CH3 CH3

O CH2CH3 CH3

Answer:

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.6 Explain what happens when an aldehyde or ketone is reacted with H2 and Pt. Section Reference 1: 9.6 88) Draw the organic product obtained from the following reaction.

O CH3CH

H+ +

2CH3CH2OH

CH3CH2O CH3C H Answer: CH3CH2O Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7 Describe the structure and formation of hemiacetals and acetals.

Section Reference 1: 9.7 Question type: Essay 89) Provide the missing reactant for this reaction.

178

OH

O

H+ +

CH3CH2C

CH3

OH

_

O Answer: CH3CH2CCH3 Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7 Describe the structure and formation of hemiacetals and acetals.

Section Reference 1: 9.7

179

Package Title: Raymond Test Bank Course Title: Raymond, 4e Chapter Number: 10

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) What is the classification of this monosaccharide?

H

O C

HO

H

H

OH CH2OH

a) aldotriose b) ketotriose c) aldotetrose d) ketotetrose Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Describe the difference between mono-, oligo-, and polysaccharides and explain the classification system used to categorize monosaccharides.

Section Reference 1: 10.1

2) What is the classification of this monosaccharide?

CH2OH C

O

H

OH

H

OH

H

OH CH2OH

a) aldopentose b) aldohexose c) ketopentose d) ketohexose Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Describe the difference between mono-, oligo-, and polysaccharides and explain the classification system used to categorize monosaccharides.

Section Reference 1: 10.1 168

3) An aldose is a carbohydrate that contains a) hydroxy groups on the terminal carbons. b) water molecules on the alpha carbon. c) an aldehyde group. d) monosaccharides.

Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Describe the difference between mono-, oligo-, and polysaccharides and explain the classification system used to categorize monosaccharides.

Section Reference 1: 10.1

4) How would this compound be classified?

H

H

H

H

C

C

C

O

OH OH

a) carboxylic carbohydrate b) hydroxyaldehyde c) ketotriose d) aldotriose Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Describe the difference between mono-, oligo-, and polysaccharides and explain the classification system used to categorize monosaccharides.

Section Reference 1: 10.1

5) Choose the compound that is a ketotetrose.

H

a) H

b) H

c)

H

O

H

H

C

C

C

C

OH

OH H

H

OH OH H

C

C

C

OH H

H

H

H

OH O

C

C

C

OH

C

C

O

O

H

OH OH H

169

H

H

H

H

H

C

C

C

C

O

H

OH OH OH OH

d)

Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Describe the difference between mono-, oligo-, and polysaccharides and explain the classification system used to categorize monosaccharides.

Section Reference 1: 10.1

6) Which of the following properties of an enantiomer does not influence the amount of its rotation of plane polarized light? a) temperature b) wavelength of light c) number of molecules that the light passes through d) its chemical property Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

7) Which of the following is an L monosaccharide?

CH2OH C

O

H

OH

H

OH

H

OH

a).

CH2OH

CH2OH C

O

H

OH

H

OH

HO

H

b)

CH2OH

H

O C

c)

HO

H

H

OH CH2OH

170

H

O C

H

OH

HO

H

H

OH

d)

CH2OH

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

8) Which of the following molecules contain a chiral carbon?

CH3 A.

CH3CHCH2OH Br

B.

CH3CH2CCH2CH3 CH3

C.

O CH3CH2CH2CHCCH3 Br

D.

CH3CH2Cl

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

9) Which of the following molecules contain a chiral carbon?

171

NH2 A.

CH3CH2C

CH3

H B.

O CH3CH2CCH3

C.

CH3OH Br

D.

CH3CCH3 H

Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

10) How many chiral carbons are present in the structure below?

CH2-CH-CH-CH-CH2 OH OH OH OH OH a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

11) The structure of the compound 2,3,4-trihydroxybutanal is shown below. How many stereoisomers are possible for this molecule?

172

O C H H C OH H C OH CH2OH a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16 Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

12) Stereoisomers that are not mirror images of one another are called a) enantiomers b) anomers c) diastereomers d) Fischer projections Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

13) The structural formula for erythrose is drawn here. The carbon atoms are numbered from the carbonyl group.

H

O C

H

OH

H

OH CH2OH

a) This is the only formula for erythrose; there are no stereoisomers. b) This is both a D and an L structure, as determined by carbons #1 and #2. c) This is D-erythrose, as determined by carbon #3. d) This is L-erythrose, as determined by carbon #4.

173

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

14) How many stereoisomers would a carbohydrate with 5 chiral carbons have? a) 5 stereoisomers b) 20 stereoisomers c) 32 stereoisomers d) 60 stereoisomers Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

15) What is the relationship of these compounds to each other?

COOH

I.

COOH

COOH

H

OH

HO

H

H

OH

H

OH

HO

H

HO

H

CH3

II.

CH3

III.

CH3

a) Compounds II and III are enantiomers; compound I is not related to II and III. b) Compounds I and II are enantiomers; III is a diastereomer of I and II. c) Compounds I and II are enantiomers; compound III is not related to I and II. d) These three compounds are not related to each other; they only look similar.

Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

16) What can be said about the relationship of these two carbohydrates?

174

H

H

O

O C

C H

OH

HO

H

HO

H

H

OH CH2OH

CH2OH

a) These two structures are not related. b) Both have four chiral carbons. c) They are superimposable. d) They are enantiomers.

Answer: d Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

17) Which of the following is a deoxy sugar?

H

O C

H

H

H

OH

H

OH

a)

CH2OH

H

O C

H

NH2

HO

H

HO

H CH2OH

b)

COOH HO

H

H

OH

HO

H CH2OH

c)

CH2OH

d)

H

H

H

OH

H

OH CH2OH

Answer: a 175

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Identify common monosaccharides and describe the structure of the four common types of monosaccharide derivatives.

Section Reference 1: 10.3

18) Which of the following is an alcohol sugar?

H

O C

H

H

H

OH

H

OH

a)

CH2OH H

O C

H

NH2

HO

H

HO

H

b)

CH2OH

COOH HO

H

H

OH

HO

H CH2OH

c)

CH2OH HO

H

H

OH

H

OH

d)

CH2OH

Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Identify common monosaccharides and describe the structure of the four common types of monosaccharide derivatives.

Section Reference 1: 10.3

19) Which of the following is a carboxylic acid sugar?

H

O C

a)

H

H

H

OH

H

OH CH2OH

176

H

O C

H

NH2

HO

H

HO

H

b)

CH2OH

COOH HO

H

H

OH

HO

H CH2OH

c)

CH2OH H

H

H

OH

H

OH CH2OH

d)

Answer: c Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Identify common monosaccharides and describe the structure of the four common types of monosaccharide derivatives.

Section Reference 1: 10.3

20) Which of the following is an amino sugar?

H

O C

H

H

H

OH

H

OH

a)

CH2OH H

O C

H

NH2

HO

H

HO

H

b)

CH2OH

COOH

c)

HO

H

H

OH

HO

H CH2OH

177

CH2OH

d)

H

H

H

OH

H

OH CH2OH

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Identify common monosaccharides and describe the structure of the four common types of monosaccharide derivatives.

Section Reference 1: 10.3

21) Which are the most commonly found monosaccharides in nature? a) those with 4 carbons b) those with 5-6 carbons c) those with 7-9 carbons d) those with 10 or more carbons Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Identify common monosaccharides and describe the structure of the four common types of monosaccharide derivatives.

Section Reference 1: 10.3

22) D-glucose is often called by other names, such as corn sugar and grape sugar. It is also referred to as ___. a) dextrose b) fruit sugar c) blood sugar d) dextrose and blood sugar Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Identify common monosaccharides and describe the structure of the four common types of monosaccharide derivatives.

Section Reference 1: 10.3

23) Which of the following is a fruit sugar? a) D-glucose b) Galactose c) Lactose 178

d) D-Fructose Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Identify common monosaccharides and describe the structure of the four common types of monosaccharide derivatives.

Section Reference 1: 10.3

24) Fructose is different from glucose and galactose because a) fructose is a pentose; the other sugars are hexoses. b) fructose is a ketose; the other sugars are aldoses. c) the cyclic form is a square; the other sugars display hexagons. d) fructose doesn’t have an open form; the other sugars do have an open form.

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Identify common monosaccharides and describe the structure of the four common types of monosaccharide derivatives.

Section Reference 1: 10.3

25) Which of the following is an aldonic acid?

179

Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Identify common monosaccharides and describe the structure of the four common types of monosaccharide derivatives.

Section Reference 1: 10.3

26) Which of the following is a uronic acid?

180

Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Identify common monosaccharides and describe the structure of the four common types of monosaccharide derivatives.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 27) Benedict’s reagent is used for detecting reducing sugars because a) a reduction of the sugar occurs producing an acid. b) the aldehyde group in the sugar is oxidized. c) the copper ion in the reagent is oxidized as the sugar is reduced. d) the —OH groups are exchanged for hydrogens.

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Explain what happens when a monosaccharide is reacted with H2 and Pt or with Benedict's reagent.

181

Section Reference 1: 10.4

28) What is the product of the following reaction?

O

H C HO H HO H

H OH H OH

+

Benedict's Solution

CH2OH O

H C A.

H H HO H

COOH H OH H OH

C.

HO H HO H

H OH H OH

CH2OH

CH2OH CH2OH

CH2OH B.

H H HO H

H OH H OH CH2OH

D.

HO H HO H

H OH H OH CH2OH

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Explain what happens when a monosaccharide is reacted with H2 and Pt or with Benedict's reagent.

Section Reference 1: 10.4

29) What is the product of the following reaction?

182

O

H C HO H HO H

H OH H OH

+

H2

Pt

CH2OH O

H C A.

H H HO H

COOH H OH H OH

C.

HO H HO H

CH2OH

CH2OH CH2OH

CH2OH B.

H H HO H

H OH H OH

H OH H OH

D.

CH2OH

HO H HO H

H OH H OH CH2OH

Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Explain what happens when a monosaccharide is reacted with H2 and Pt or with Benedict's reagent.

Section Reference 1: 10.4

30) Which are anomers? a) aldotetrose and ketotetrose b) D-glucose and L-glucose c) glucopyranose and glucofuranose d) -D-galacose and -D-galactose Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the difference between pyranoses and furanoses and between α and β anomers and explain what is meant by the term mutarotation.

Section Reference 1: 10.5 183

31) What is mutarotation? a) The conversion of a D-monosaccharide into an L-monosaccharide. b) The conversion of -D-galacose into -D-galactose. c) The conversion of a pyranose into a furanose. d) The conversion of an aldose into a ketose.

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the difference between pyranoses and furanoses and between α and β anomers and explain what is meant by the term mutarotation.

Section Reference 1: 10.5

32) Shown below is a cyclic form of D-galactose. This structure is classified as ___.

CH2OH HO

O H OH

H

H

H

OH OH

H

a) -D-galactopyranose b)  -D-galactofuranose c) -D-galactofuranose d)  -D-galactopyranose Answer: a Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the difference between pyranoses and furanoses and between α and β anomers and explain what is meant by the term mutarotation.

Section Reference 1: 10.5

33) Shown below is a cyclic form of D-mannose. This structure is classified as ___.

CH2OH H

O H OH

OH

OH

HO

H H

H

a) -D-mannopyranose 184

b) -D-mannofuranose c) -D-mannofuranose d) -D-mannopyranose Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the difference between pyranoses and furanoses and between α and β anomers and explain what is meant by the term mutarotation.

Section Reference 1: 10.5

34) Shown below is a cyclic form of D-Fructose. This structure is classified as ___.

O

OH

HOCH2 H

HO

H

CH2OH OH

H

a) -D-fructopyranose b) -D-fructopyranose c) -D-fructofuranose d) -D-fructofuranose Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the difference between pyranoses and furanoses and between α and β anomers and explain what is meant by the term mutarotation.

Section Reference 1: 10.5

35) Shown below is a cyclic form of D-glucose. This structure is classified as ___.

CH2OH O

H H OH HO

H

H OH

OH H a) -D-glucopyranose b) - D-glucofuranose c) -D-galactopyranose d)  - L-glucopyranose

Answer: a 185

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the difference between pyranoses and furanoses and between α and β anomers and explain what is meant by the term mutarotation.

Section Reference 1: 10.5

36) What is the name of this compound?

a) -D-ribofuranose b) -D-2-deoxyribofuranose c) -D-3-deoxyribofuranose d) -D-ribose Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the difference between pyranoses and furanoses and between α and β anomers and explain what is meant by the term mutarotation.

Section Reference 1: 10.5

37) What is the name of this carbohydrate?

a) -D-aminogalactose b) -D-galactosaminofuranose c) -D-galactosaminopyranose d) -D-galactosaminopyranose Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the difference between pyranoses and furanoses and between α and β anomers and explain what is meant by the term mutarotation.

186

Section Reference 1: 10.5

38) Which of the following can be obtained from hydrolysis of simple glycosides? a) Alcohol b) Ester c) Ether d) amine Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: Section Reference 1: 10.6

39) Maltose is hydrolyzed by the enzyme maltase into two molecules of glucose. Maltose is classified as a ___. a) onosaccharide b) disaccharide c) cellulose d) polysaccharide Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.6 Identify four important disaccharides and describe how the monosaccharide residues in them are joined to one another.

Section Reference 1: 10.6

40) Oligosaccharides are digested in the ___. a) stomach b) intestines c) mouth d) blood plasma Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.6 Identify four important disaccharides and describe how the monosaccharide residues in them are joined to one another.

Section Reference 1: 10.6 41) Sucrose is a disaccharide of D-glucose connected to D-fructose by an ,-(1 →2)- glycosidic bond. Sucrose is not a reducing sugar because 187

a) it is a disaccharide. b) it reacts with Benedict's solution. c) it contains both glucose and fructose. d) it cannot react to produce an aldehyde group.

Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.6 Identify four important disaccharides and describe how the monosaccharide residues in them are joined to one another.

Section Reference 1: 10.6

42) Relative sweetness is a measure of the sweetness of any chosen sweetener compared to that of a) invert sugar. b) the sweetest carbohydrate, fructose. c) sucrose. d) saccharin.

Answer: c Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.6 Identify four important disaccharides and describe how the monosaccharide residues in them are joined to one another.

Section Reference 1: 10.6

43) The disaccharides are important in nature; a few examples of disaccharides are a) D-abqueose, D-fructose, galactose, and glucose. b) raffinose, stachyose, and verbascose. c) cellobiose, lactose, maltose, and sucrose. d) amylopectin, amylose, and starch.

Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.6 Identify four important disaccharides and describe how the monosaccharide residues in them are joined to one another.

Section Reference 1: 10.6

44) Glycogen and amylopectin are similar in that they are both polymers of glucose. Glycogen is the glucose storage form for ___ and starch is the glucose storage form for ___. a) plants/plants b) animals/animals c) plants/animals d) animals/plants 188

Answer: d Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

45) ___ is the structural material for plants while ___ is the energy storage material of plants. a) Cellulose/starch b) Starch/cellulose c) Glycogen/starch d) Starch/glycogen Answer: a Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

46) The carbohydrates which contain the largest molecules are the a) monosaccharides. b) polysaccharides. c) oligosaccharides. d) aldohexoses.

Answer: b Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

47) ___ is the energy storage polysaccharide of plants and ___ is the energy storage polysaccharide for animals. a) Cellulose/starch b) Starch/cellulose c) Glycogen/starch d) Starch/glycogen Answer: d Difficulty: medium 189

Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

48) Starch and cellulose are both polysaccharides of glucose. Cellulose differs from starch in that a) cellulose contains glucose molecules connected by - (1→4) glycosidic bonds. b) cellulose contains glucose molecules connected by - (1→4) glycosidic bonds. c) cellulose is more highly branched than starch. d) cellulose is the energy storage molecule of plants.

Answer: b Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

49) Starch contains two polymers of glucose, they are amylose and amylopectin. Amylose differs from amylopectin in that a) amylopectin contains fructose and amylose does not. b) amylose contains fructose and amylose does not. c) amylose is highly branched and amylopectin is not. d) amylopectin is highly branched and amylose is not.

Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

50) Chose the incorrect statement referring to starches. a) Starches are produced by plants for the storage of energy. c) Starch is composed of two homopolysaccharides—amylose and amylopectin. c) Starch forms helical shapes, rather than forming up in sheets of polysaccharides. d) Starches are the structural material of animal cells.

Answer: d Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7 190

51) Hyaluronic acid solutions serve as lubricants in the fluid of joints and are present in the vitreous humor of the eye. A section of the structure for hyaluronic acid is:

CH2OH H

O H

COOH

H COOH

O H O

HO O

O H OH

H

H

OH

O

H

CH2OH O

H H O NHCCH3

H

H H O NHCCH3

O

H OH

H

H

OH

O

H H

H

O

Which of the following statements about hyaluronic acid is true? a) The alternating pattern of glycosidic bond types are -(1→3) and -(1→4). b) The alternating pattern of glycosidic bond types are - (1→3) and - (1→4). c) The alternating pattern of glycosidic bond types are - (1→3) and - (1→4). d) The alternating pattern of glycosidic bond types are - (1→3) and - (1→3).

Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

52) Hyaluronic acid solutions serve as lubricants in the fluid of joints and are present in the vitreous humor of the eye. A portion of its structure is shown below.

CH2OH H H

COOH H

CH2OH H COOH O H OH

H

H

OH

HO O

O H O H

O

H H O NHCCH3

H

O

191

O

O H OH

H

H

OH

O H H

O

H H O NHCCH3

Which of the following statements is true? a) Hyaluronic acid is a homopolysaccharide. b) Hyaluronic acid is a heteropolysaccharide. c) Hyaluronic acid is made of D-glucose residues. d) The monosaccharide residues in hyaluronic acid are of furanose form.

Answer: b Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

Question type: True/False 53) The method to determine the number of stereoisomers of a monosaccharide is to calculate 2n, where n is the total number of carbons in the molecule.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

54) A pair of compounds are stereoisomers and they are nonsuperimposable mirror images. This pair of isomers is referred to as a pair of enantiomers.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 55) -D-glucose and

-D-glucose are anomers.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

192

Section Reference 1: 10.2

56) A drug's enantiomers can be responsible for the desired physiologic effects, while the other enantiomer is less active, inactive, or sometimes even responsible for adverse effects.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

57) A racemic mixture can rotate a plane-polarized light in a clockwise direction.

Answer: False Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 58) In deoxy sugars a hydrogen atom replaces one or more of the –OH groups in a monosaccharide.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Identify common monosaccharides and describe the structure of the four common types of monosaccharide derivatives.

Section Reference 1: 10.3

59) Mutarotation is an enzyme-catalyzed process by which a pyranose is changed into a furanose.

Answer: false Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the difference between pyranoses and furanoses and between α and β anomers and explain what is meant by the term mutarotation.

Section Reference 1: 10.5

60) Oligosaccharides contain 2-10 monosaccharide residues.

Answer: true 193

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.6 Identify four important disaccharides and describe how the monosaccharide residues in them are joined to one another.

Section Reference 1: 10.6

61) Maltose is a monosaccharide Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.6 Identify four important disaccharides and describe how the monosaccharide residues in them are joined to one another.

Section Reference 1: 10.6

62) Both starch and cellulose are polysaccharides of glucose.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

63) Glycogen is a polymer of glucose produced by plants for energy storage.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

64) Blood type is determined by oligosaccharides attached to the surface of red blood cells.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7 65) Cellulose is composed of glucose molecules connected by -glycosidic linkages.

Answer: false 194

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7 66) Glycogen contains -1,4- and -1,6-glycosidic bonds.

Answer: true Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

Question type: Fill-in-the-blank

67) carbohydrate containing six carbons is broadly referred to as a(an) ___.

Answer: hexose Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Describe the difference between mono-, oligo-, and polysaccharides and explain the classification system used to categorize monosaccharides.

Section Reference 1: 10.1

68) A monosaccharide has an aldehyde functional group as well as five carbon atoms. This monosaccharide is a(n) ___.

Answer: aldopentose Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Describe the difference between mono-, oligo-, and polysaccharides and explain the classification system used to categorize monosaccharides.

Section Reference 1: 10.1 69) In a D sugar, the —OH on the highest numbered chiral carbon in a Fischer projection points to the ___.

Answer: right Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 195

70) A 50:50 mixture of enantiomers is called ___.

Answer: racemic Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

71) In sugar chemistry, diastereomers that differ at only one chiral carbon atom are called ___.

Ans: epimers Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

72) Monosaccharides that react with Benedict's solution are known as ___ sugars.

Answer: reducing Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Explain what happens when a monosaccharide is reacted with H2 and Pt or with Benedict's reagent.

Section Reference 1: 10.4

73) Monosaccharides that form anomers containing five -membered rings are called ___.

Answer: furanoses Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the difference between pyranoses and furanoses and between α and β anomers and explain what is meant by the term mutarotation.

Section Reference 1: 10.5

74) Alpha and beta anomers can interconvert by a process known as ___.

Answer: mutarotation

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the difference between pyranoses and furanoses and between α and β anomers and explain what is meant by the term mutarotation.

196

Section Reference 1: 10.5

75) A pyranose is composed of a ___-membered ring.

Answer: six Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the difference between pyranoses and furanoses and between α and β anomers and explain what is meant by the term mutarotation.

Section Reference 1: 10.5 76) Acetals formed between  or  monosaccharide anomers and alcohols are called ___ and the bond that connects the acetal carbon to the newly added –OC group is called a ___.

Answer: glycoside, glycosidic bond Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.6 Identify four important disaccharides and describe how the monosaccharide residues in them are joined to one another.

Section Reference 1: 10.6

77) Even though maltose is an animal product and cellobiose is produced by plants, both carbohydrates produce ___ molecules when hydrolyzed.

Answer: glucose Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.6 Identify four important disaccharides and describe how the monosaccharide residues in them are joined to one another.

Section Reference 1: 10.6

78) A molecule humans produce by combining glucose molecules for energy storage is ___.

Answer: glycogen Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

79) The enzyme ___ in saliva begins the digestion of starch.

Answer: amylase Difficulty: hard 197

Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

Question type: Essay

Shown below is a Fisher projection of galactose.

H

O C

H

OH

HO

H

HO

H

H

OH CH2OH

80) Is the galactose structure shown above a D or an L sugar?

Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Explain the terms chiral molecule and chiral carbon atom, distinguish between enantiomers and diastereomers, define the terms dextrorotatory and levorotatory, and describe what distinguishes a D-monosaccharide from an L-monosaccharide.

Section Reference 1: 10.2

Question type: Molecular Drawing

81) Sketch the structure of the product formed when galactose is reduced by H2 and Pt. Answer:

CH2OH H

OH

HO

H

HO

H

H

OH CH2OH

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Explain what happens when a monosaccharide is reacted with H2 and Pt or with Benedict's reagent.

Section Reference 1: 10.4 198

82) Sketch the structure of the product formed when carbon 1 of galactose is oxidized by Benedict's solution.

Answer: COOH H

OH

HO

H

HO

H

H

OH CH2OH

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Explain what happens when a monosaccharide is reacted with H2 and Pt or with Benedict's reagent.

Section Reference 1: 10.4

Question type: Essay 83) What is the structural difference between -D-galactopyranose and -D-glucopyranose?

Answer: The two compounds differ only in the configuration of the hydroxyl group and the hydrogen group on Carbon #4. In -D-galactopyranose, the __OH group on carbon #4 is on the same side as the CH2OH group attached to Carbon #5. In -D-glucopyranose, the ___OH group on carbon #4 is on the opposite side of the ring from the CH2OH group attached to carbon #5.

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the difference between pyranoses and furanoses and between α and β anomers and explain what is meant by the term mutarotation.

Section Reference 1: 10.5 84) Shown below is -D-galactopyranose. How is this molecule different than glucopyranose? Sketch -D-galactospyranose.

H2C HO C OH

-D-

OH

C H

O H H

C

H C

C

OH

H

OH

Answer: This molecule differs from -D-Glucopyranose in that the -OH group on carbon #4 is up. Sketched here is -D-galactopyranose: H2C HO C OH

OH

C H

O OH H

C

H C

C

H

H

OH

199

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the difference between pyranoses and furanoses and between α and β anomers and explain what is meant by the term mutarotation.

Section Reference 1: 10.5

85) Why can't humans digest cellulose, but can digest starch?

Answer: Our enzymes can hydrolyze alpha glycosidic linkages (starch) and not beta glycosidic linkages (cellulose).

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

86) Explain why starch is a source of food while cellulose is a source of fiber in the human diet.

Answer: Starch is a food source because enzymes in our bodies digest it by breaking it down into glucose. Cellulose is a source of fiber because our bodies lack the enzymes to digest it.

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

87) Name and describe the two types of polysaccharides in starch.

Answer: Starch is composed of two polymers: linear amylose and branched amylopectin.

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

88) Complete the following table: starch

cellulose

Where is it found in nature? (plants or animals) Function 200

glycogen

Answer: starch

cellulose

glycogen

Where is it found in nature? (plants or animals)

plants

plants

animals

Function

energy storage

structural support

energy storage

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

89) Shown below is Lactose. Explain why lactose is a reducing sugar.

CH2OH H CH2OH HO

O H OH

H

H

OH

O H OH

H

H

OH

OH H

O H

H

Lactose Answer: The cyclic glucose residue with the hemiacetal carbon (D-glucopyranose unit) can undergo mutarotation to an open chain with a free aldehyde functional group. The aldehyde end can be oxidized by Benedict’s Solution to a carboxylic acid.

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.6 Identify four important disaccharides and describe how the monosaccharide residues in them are joined to one another.

Section Reference 1: 10.6

90) How are the molecular structures of starch, glycogen, and cellulose similar and how are they different?

Answer: Starch, glycogen, and cellulose are all polymers of glucose. Starch is composed of two polymers: linear amylose and branched amylopectin. Glycogen is similar to amylopectin but more highly branched. Cellulose is similar to amylose except the linkages between glucose molecules are beta glycosidic linkages. Glycogen and starch have alpha glycosidic linkages.

Difficulty: hard 201

Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

91) What are the similarities and differences between starch and glycogen?

Answer: Starch is composed of two polymers: linear amylose, and branched amylopectin.

Glycogen is similar to amylopectin but more highly branched. Glycogen and starch have alpha glycosidic linkages.

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Distinguish homopolysaccharides from heteropolysaccharides and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 10.7

202

Package Title: Raymond Test Bank Course Title: Raymond, 4e Chapter Number: 11

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) In which solvent would lipids be most soluble? a) hexane b) water c) methyl alcohol d) ethyl alcohol Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

2) Triglycerides composed of glycerin and mostly polyunsaturated fatty acid residues are likely to be ___ at room temperature. a) solid fats b) liquid oils c) gases d) waxes Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

3) Shown below is the structure of the fatty acid, lauric acid: H3C

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

OH C O

The boxed portion is considered to be both a) hydrophilic and hydrophobic. b) polar and hydrophobic. c) polar and hydrophilic.

190

d) nonpolar and hydrophilic.

Answer: C Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

4) The structure of the fatty acid, palmitic acid, is H3C

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

OH C O

Palmitic acid is a(n) ___ fatty acid. a) saturated b) monounsaturated c) polyunsaturated d) waxy Answer: A Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

5) The fatty acid, palmitoleic acid, is CH2 H3C

CH2 CH2

CH2 CH2

CH CH2

CH2 CH

CH2 CH2

CH2 CH2

CH2 CH2

OH C O

Notice the double bond. Palmitoleic acid is a ___ fatty acid. a) saturated b) monounsaturated c) polyunsaturated d) waxy Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

6) Fatty acids can produce ions that are ___.

191

a) highly charged at the tail b) nonpolar c) amphipathic d) hydrophobic Answer: C Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

7) A saturated fatty acid is a) a fatty acid with a carbon chain which has just one carbon-carbon double bond. b) a fatty acid chain in which a carbon chain has two or more carbon-carbon double bonds. c) a fatty acid which has all single carbon-carbon bonds joining carbon atoms. d) a fatty acid with cis-carbon-carbon double bonds.

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

8) The melting point of lauric acid, CH3(CH2)10CO2H , is 43C and the melting point of stearic acid (CH3(CH2)16CO2H) is 69C. Which of the following statements best explains why the melting point of lauric acid is lower than the melting point of stearic acid? a) The hydrophobic tail of lauric acid is longer than the hydrophobic tail of stearic acid. b) Stearic acid is soluble in water and lauric acid is not soluble in water. c) Stearic acid is a fatty acid, whereas lauric acid is not a fatty acid. d) The London force interactions are stronger in stearic acid than they are in lauric acid.

Answer: D Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

9) The skeletal structure of Arachidonic acid, an essential fatty acid, is provided below.

Arachidonic acid is best classified as: O

OH 192

a) Omega-3-fatty acid b) Omega-6-fatty acid c) Saturated fatty acid d) Wax Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

10) In which solvent below would lipids be least soluble? a) hexane b) water c) methyl alcohol d) ethyl alcohol Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

11) The structure of palmitate ion derived from the fatty acid, palmitic acid, is H3C

CH2 CH2

CH2 CH2

CH2 CH2

CH2 CH2

CH2 CH2

CH2 CH2

CH2 CH2

OH C O

Its molecular structure has both polar and nonpolar portions. Therefore, palmitate ion is classified as ___. a) hydrophobic b) lipophobic c) hydrophilic d) amphipathic Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

12) Omega-3 and Omega-6-fatty acids are essential fatty acids. Which of the following statement best describes these essential fatty acids?

193

a) They are very soluble in water. b) They are saturated fatty acids that the body absorbs faster. c) They are not produced in the body and must be obtained through diet. d) They are waxes found in the body.

Answer: C Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

13) The skeletal structure of docosahexaenoic acid, an essential fatty acid, is provided below.

Docosahexaenoic acid is best classified as:

HO O a) Omega-3-fatty acid b) Omega-6-fatty acid c) Saturated fatty acid d) Wax Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

14) The structure below is best classified as a ___.

O CH3(CH2)13CH2C OCH2(CH2)28CH3 a) triglyceride b) wax c) steroid d) phospholipid Answer: B Difficulty: easy 194

Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Identify the primary biological function of waxes and describe the esters that predominate in them.

Section Reference 1: 11.2

15) Waxes are compounds that are a) the result of the reaction of a fatty acid and sodium hydroxide. b) extremely hydrophilic due to the head end of the compound. c) mixtures of water insoluble compounds, especially esters. d) small compounds produced when short chain fatty acids react with an alcohol.

Answer: C Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Identify the primary biological function of waxes and describe the esters that predominate in them.

Section Reference 1: 11.2

16) Compounds found in feathers and leaves of most plants, which serve as protective coatings to keep water from entering or leaving an organism, are ___. a) glycolipids b) steroids c) waxes d) sphingolipids Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Identify the primary biological function of waxes and describe the esters that predominate in them.

Section Reference 1: 11.2

17) Carnauba wax is widely used for high-gloss car and floor polishes. A major component of carnauba wax ester is provided below. The condensed structure of the alcohol from which carnauba wax ester is formed is: O

CH3(CH2)30

C

O(CH2)33CH3 O

A.

CH3(CH2)30 C

B.

CH3(CH2)33OH

C.

CH3(CH2)29OH

D.

CH3(CH2)30 CH2OH

OH

195

Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Identify the primary biological function of waxes and describe the esters that predominate in them.

Section Reference 1: 11.2

18) Identify the class of lipid to which the following molecule belongs.

O CH2

O C

(CH2)6

(CH2

(CH2)4

CH CH)2

CH3

O CH

O

C

(CH2)7CH

CH

(CH2)7

(CH2)6

(CH2

CH CH)3

CH3

O CH2

O

C

CH2

CH3

a) fatty acid b) triglyceride c) wax d) glycerophospholipid Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Describe the makeup of triglycerides and list their biological functions.

Section Reference 1: 11.3

19) Saponification a) is a hydrolysis reaction. b) results in the production of triglycerides. c) is used to store energy for later use. d) is a reaction found in plant metabolism.

Answer: A Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Describe the makeup of triglycerides and list their biological functions.

Section Reference 1: 11.3

20) How many molecules of H2 will react with one molecule of the following triglyceride?

196

O CH2

O C

(CH2)14CH3

O CH

O

C

(CH2)7CH

CH(CH2)7CH3

O CH2

O

C

(CH2)16CH3

a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6 Answer: A Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Describe the makeup of triglycerides and list their biological functions.

Section Reference 1: 11.3

21) The effect of the hydrogenation of oils is to a) remove double bonds. b) cause the oils to remain as liquids. c) make the oils boil at a lower temperature. d) make the oils oxidize.

Answer: A Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Describe the makeup of triglycerides and list their biological functions.

Section Reference 1: 11.3 22) Oleic acid has the formula CH3(CH2)7(CH = CH(CH2)7CO2H. The carbon –carbon double bond in oleic acid is usually cis. Compared to saturated fatty acids with the same number of carbon atoms, cis-oleic acid will have a) a lower melting point due to a kink in the hydrocarbon tail. b) stronger London forces and a higher melting point. c) bonds that fit in the packing of the hydrophobic tails, creating stronger interaction between molecules. d) no reaction with hydrogen in the presence of platinum catalyst.

Answer: A 197

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Describe the makeup of triglycerides and list their biological functions.

Section Reference 1: 11.3

23) Animal fats and vegetable oils become rancid when exposed to air because a) they are hydrogenated to form saturated fatty acids. b) carbon-carbon double bonds are oxidized in air, producing small organic molecules. c) they form amino acids in air. d) they are partially hydrogenated.

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Describe the makeup of triglycerides and list their biological functions.

Section Reference 1: 11.3

24) Identify the class of lipid to which the following molecule belongs.

O CH2

O C

(CH2)10CH3

O CH

O

C

(CH2)10CH3

O CH2

O

P

O (CH2)2

+ N(CH3)3

a) sphingophospholipid b) triglyceride c) cholesterol d) glycerophospholipid Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Describe the makeup of triglycerides and list their biological functions.

Section Reference 1: 11.3

25) Which of the following is one of the products formed when the lipid below is saponified?

198

O CH2

O C

(CH2)14CH3

O CH

O

C

(CH2)7CH

CH(CH2)7CH3

O CH2

O

C

(CH2)16CH3 O

A

CH3(CH2)16

C O

H

B

CH3(CH2)14

C

O

C

CH3(CH2)7CH CH(CH2)7CH3 O CH3(CH2)16 C CH3

D

Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Describe the makeup of triglycerides and list their biological functions.

Section Reference 1: 11.3

26) Phospholipids ___. a) are really a wax b) are very polar on both ends c) contain a sugar, which may be simple or a chain d) are part of the structure of cell membranes Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

27) The structure of glycerophospholipids contains a) a phosphate group, glycerol, three fatty acids, and a sugar molecule. b) a phosphate group, glycerol, two fatty acids, and an alcohol molecule. c) a phosphate group, a cyclic carbon ring, and variable numbers of fatty acids. d) a phosphate group, a carbohydrate molecule, an alcohol, and fatty acids.

199

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

28) Determine the number of molecules of H2 that will react with one molecule of the following triglyceride.

O CH2

O C

(CH2)6

(CH2

(CH2)4

CH CH)2

CH3

O CH

O

C

(CH2)7CH

CH

(CH2)7

(CH2)6

(CH2

CH CH)3

CH3

O CH2

O

C

CH2

CH3

a) three b) four c) six d) five Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

29) Because of the components that are found in phospholipids, the phospholipid molecules a) are long molecules with multiple polar points. b) have a head that is nonpolar, as is the tail. c) have a polar end and a nonpolar end. d) have two ends that are nonpolar with a polar middle.

Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

30) The phosphate head group of phospholipids is ___ and is found on the ___ of a membrane's lipid bilayer. a) hydrophilic/inside b) hydrophilic/outside 200

c) hydrophobic/inside d) hydrophobic/outside Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

31) The difference between the sphingolipids and the glycerophospholipids is that the sphingolipids a) have three alcohol residues that replace the fatty acid residues. b) have one phosphate, but it is attached to the fatty acid residue, not the glycerol. c) have three phosphates, not one, and they are attached to all of the fatty acids. d) include sphingosine with a phosphate attached to it, and an alcohol residue.

Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

32) The glycolipid molecule is characterized by having a specific residue attached to the backbone. Which is that residue? a) phosphate b) glycerol c) lipid d) sugar Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

33) The lipid that is a cell surface receptor for hormones and drugs is a a) glycerophopholipid. b) ganglioside. c) sphingomyelin. d) cerebroside.

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

201

Section Reference 1: 11.4

34) Lecithin is found in egg whites and can be used as an emulsifying agent to keep mayonnaise from separating. Lecithin is classified as a ___. a) phospholipid b) wax c) steroid d) glycolipid Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

35) Sphingomyelins are found in ___. a) waxes b) egg whites c) skin cells d) nerve cell membranes Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

36) How many products are obtained when the phospholipid below is saponified?

O CH2

O C

(CH2)16CH3

O CH

O

C

(CH2)7CH=CH(CH2)7CH3

O CH2

O

P

O (CH2)2

+ N(CH3)3

O a) 2 b) 5 c) 3 d) 6 202

Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

37) The structure shown below represents which of the following?

HO

CH

CH

CH

+ NH3

CH2

OH

CH(CH2)12CH3

a) sphingosine b) glycerophospholipid c) triglyceride d) sphingoglycolipid Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

38) The structure shown below represents which of the following?

a) sphingophospholipid b) shingoglycolipid c) glycerophospholipid d) disaccharide Answer: B Difficulty: hard 203

Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

39) The structure shown below is the skeletal structure of a ___.

a) wax b) triglyceride c) phospholipid d) steroid Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5 Identify the basic steroid structure and list important members of this class of lipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.5

40) The steroid that is the raw material for the production of other steroids is a) triglyceride. b) cholesterol. c) progesterone. d) eicosanoid.

Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5 Identify the basic steroid structure and list important members of this class of lipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.5

41) The hormone that is the starting point for the production of the adrenocorticoid hormones and testosterone is a) progesterone. b) estrogen. c) cholesterol. d) chylomicrons.

Answer: A Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5 Identify the basic steroid structure and list important members of this class of lipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.5 204

42) Which of the following is released from the gallbladder into the small intestine to aid digestion by dispersing dietary lipids into fine emulsions? a) Bile salts b) cholesterol c) eicosanoids d) phospholipids Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5 Identify the basic steroid structure and list important members of this class of lipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.5

43) Cholesterol contains nonpolar rings and hydrocarbon chains, and also has an alcohol group (–OH). Which statement below is correct? a) The molecule is totally hydrophobic. b) Most of the molecule is hydrophobic with the –OH being hydrophilic. c) The molecule is totally hydrophilic. d) Cholesterol molecules would line up with the alcohol group attracted by the rings.

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5 Identify the basic steroid structure and list important members of this class of lipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.5

44) Which of the following compounds share the steroid ring structure? a) cholesterol and phospholipids b) phospholipids and arachidonic acid c) arachidonic acid and bile salts d) bile salts and cholesterol Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5 Identify the basic steroid structure and list important members of this class of lipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.5

45) Anabolic steroids can cause some serious health problems including 205

a) reduced circulation to the brain and liver. b) muscle atrophy and blocked arteries. c) high blood pressure and testicular atrophy. d) the interruption of nerve impulses and reduced intestinal function.

Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5 Identify the basic steroid structure and list important members of this class of lipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.5

46) The thromboxanes are a) anabolics that may be involved in increasing blood pressure. b) eicosanoids that are involved in blood clotting. c) adrenocroticoids that aid in the activation of sex hormones. d) lipids that have the capacity to cause membranes to grow.

Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Name the tree types of eicosanoids and describe their biological function.

Section Reference 1: 11.6

47) ___ is the eicosanoid involved in blood clotting. a) Prostaglandin b) Leukotriene c) Progesterone d) Thromboxane Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Name the tree types of eicosanoids and describe their biological function.

Section Reference 1: 11.6

48) ___ is the eicosanoid involved in muscle contractions. a) Prostaglandin b) Leukotriene c) Progesterone d) Thromboxane Answer: B 206

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Name the tree types of eicosanoids and describe their biological function.

Section Reference 1: 11.6

49) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) block the actions of the COX enzymes and their production of eicosanoids from ___. a) steroids b) arachidonic acid c) sphingolipids d) phospholipids Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Name the tree types of eicosanoids and describe their biological function.

Section Reference 1: 11.6

50) The lipid hormones that are derived from arachidonic acid are the ___. a) arachidonics b) eicosanoids c) adrenocorticoid hormones d) sex hormones Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Name the tree types of eicosanoids and describe their biological function.

Section Reference 1: 11.6

51) Which compounds are responsible for causing pain and inflammation? a) anabolic steroids b) adrenocorticoids c) prostaglandins d) leukotrienes Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Name the tree types of eicosanoids and describe their biological function.

Section Reference 1: 11.6 207

52) Which of the following lipids is not derived from cholesterol? a) progesterone b) thromboxane c) cortisol d) testosterone Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Name the tree types of eicosanoids and describe their biological function.

Section Reference 1: 11.6

53) Eicosanoids are hormones derived from arachidonic acid. Which is not an eicosanoid? a) prostaglandin b) leukotriene c) progesterone d) thromboxane Answer: C Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Name the tree types of eicosanoids and describe their biological function.

Section Reference 1: 11.6

54) What is the function of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID)? a) To interrupt the production of prostaglandins from arachidonic acid. b) To interfere with the production of anabolic steroids. c) To facilitate the production of cyclooxygenase. d) To stimulate the production of leukotrienes.

Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Name the tree types of eicosanoids and describe their biological function.

Section Reference 1: 11.6

55) Which enzyme is involved in the conversion of arachidonic acid into prostaglandins and thromboxanes in the body? a) rybozymes 208

b) cyclooxygenase c) transferases d) isomerases Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Name the tree types of eicosanoids and describe their biological function.

Section Reference 1: 11.6

56) The fluid mosaic model proposes that a) membranes can move like a fluid. b) proteins are embedded into the cell membrane. c) materials that are fluid move across a membrane. d) the composition of membranes includes a mosaic fluid.

Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.7 Describe the makeup of a cell membrane and explain how various compounds cross the membrane.

Section Reference 1: 11.7

57) Suppose a highly positive ion was attracted to a membrane. At what location would that most likely occur? a) the head of a lipid b) the tail of a lipid c) the nonpolar portion of a protein d) the double bond located within a lipid Answer: A Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.7 Describe the makeup of a cell membrane and explain how various compounds cross the membrane.

Section Reference 1: 11.7

58) Some molecules and ions are transported across a membrane via ___, which requires energy. a) osmosis b) diffusion c) facillitated diffusion d) active transport Answer: D 209

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.7 Describe the makeup of a cell membrane and explain how various compounds cross the membrane.

Section Reference 1: 11.7

59) Active transport, a function of membranes, a) requires an input of energy. c) moves amino acids and small ions across the membrane. c) requires an input of energy and moves amino acids and small ions across the membrane. d) None of these choices.

Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.7 Describe the makeup of a cell membrane and explain how various compounds cross the membrane.

Section Reference 1: 11.7

Question type: True/False

60) Saturated fatty acids have lower melting points than unsaturated fatty acids with the same number of carbon atoms.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

61) All commonly occurring fatty acids contain trans alkene groups.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

62) Trans fats are produced during the hydrogenation of fats and oils.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium 210

Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Describe the makeup of triglycerides and list their biological functions.

Section Reference 1: 11.3

63) Sphingolipids are a class of phospholipids.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

64) Sphingolipids are amphipathic hydrolysable lipids based on glycerol.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

65) Testosterone is produced from arachidonic acid.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5 Identify the basic steroid structure and list important members of this class of lipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.5

66) Low density lipoproteins (LDLs) transport cholesterol and phospholipids from the liver to the cells.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5 Identify the basic steroid structure and list important members of this class of lipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.5

67) Adrenocorticoid hormones are produced from cholesterol.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5 Identify the basic steroid structure and list important members of this class of lipids.

211

Section Reference 1: 11.5

68) Bile acids are attached to glycerol backbone by ester bonds.

Answer: false Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5 Identify the basic steroid structure and list important members of this class of lipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.5

69) Membranes are composed entirely of phospholipids; this factor explains the ease with which facilitated diffusion functions.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.7 Describe the makeup of a cell membrane and explain how various compounds cross the membrane.

Section Reference 1: 11.7

Question type: fill-in-the-blank

70) The hydrophobic end of a phospholipid is the ___ end.

Answer: tail Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1:11.4

71) ___ are used by both plants and animals as waterproofing.

Answer: waxes Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Identify the primary biological function of waxes and describe the esters that predominate in them.

Section Reference 1: 11.2

72) ___ fats form when vegetable oil, which contain cis-double bonds, undergoes partial hydrogenation.

Answer: trans 212

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Describe the makeup of triglycerides and list their biological functions.

Section Reference 1: 11.3

73) A phospholipid contains a total of ___ fatty acid residues.

Answer: two Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

74) Glucose is a simple sugar used in the structure of the ___, a class of lipids that includes the cerebrosides.

Answer: glycolipids Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

75) The steroid, ___, is the compound from which sex hormones are produced.

Answer: cholesterol Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5 Identify the basic steroid structure and list important members of this class of lipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.5

76) The LDL/HDL ratio should be less than ___ to avoid those problems inherent with high cholesterol.

Answer: 2.5 Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5 Identify the basic steroid structure and list important members of this class of lipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.5

77) The ___ steroids are associated with growth.

Answer: anabolic 213

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5 Identify the basic steroid structure and list important members of this class of lipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.5

78) ___ is the eicosanoid involved in causing pain, inflammation and affects blood pressure.

Answer: prostaglandin Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Name the tree types of eicosanoids and describe their biological function.

Section Reference 1: 11.6

Question type: Matching

79) Mixtures of water insoluble compounds including esters, alcohols, and alkanes. a. emulsifier _____ Answer: G Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Identify the primary biological function of waxes and describe the esters that predominate in them.

Section Reference 1: 11.2

80) Reaction that produces glycerol and fatty acid salts from triglycerides. b. facilitated diffusion _____ Answer: J Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Describe the makeup of triglycerides and list their biological functions.

Section Reference 1: 11.3

81) Substance that can make or stabilize water insoluble substances as colloids. _____ Answer: A Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Describe the makeup of triglycerides and list their biological 214

c. lecithin

functions.

Section Reference 1: 11.3

82) An emulsifying agent found in egg white. d. leukotriene _____ Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

83) Glycolipid found at nerve synapses. _____ Answer: I

e. eicosanoid

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

84) Eicosanoid that causes pain and inflammation. _____ Answer: H

f. active transport

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Name the tree types of eicosanoids and describe their biological function.

Section Reference 1: 11.6

85) Eicosanoid that is responsible for muscle contraction. g. wax _____ Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Name the tree types of eicosanoids and describe their biological function.

Section Reference 1: 11.6

86) Lipids synthesized from arachidonic acid. _____ Answer: E

h. prostaglandin 215

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.6 Name the tree types of eicosanoids and describe their biological function.

Section Reference 1: 11.6

87) Movement of material across a cell membrane against the diffusion gradient. _____ Answer: F

i. cerebroside j. saponification

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.7 Describe the makeup of a cell membrane and explain how various compounds cross the membrane.

Section Reference 1: 11.7

Question type: Molecular drawing

88) Stearic acid is an 18 carbon saturated fatty acid. a) sketch the structure of stearic acid b) circle the hydrophilic region c) underline the hydrophobic region

OH O Answer: Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

89) Lauric acid is a 12 carbon saturated fatty acid. a) sketch the structure of lauric acid b) circle the hydrophilic region c) underline the l hydrophobic region

OH O

Answer: 216

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

Question type: Essay

90) The following sketch is a structure of a compound.

O CH3CH2

C OCH2

O CH3CH2CH2

C OCH C C H

H

CH3

CH3

O

N CH2CH2 O

P OCH2

CH3

O

a) Is this a saponifiable or nonsaponifiable lipid? b) Circle the unsaturated fatty acid chain. c) Is this a triglyceride, phospholipid or glycolipid?

O CH3CH2

C OCH2

O CH3CH2CH2

C OCH C C

H CH3 CH3

Answer: a) saponifiable; b)

H O

N CH2CH2 O

P OCH2

CH3

O

; c) phospholipid

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.4

91) Explain the structural differences between solid fats and liquid oils.

Answer: Solid fats have a greater number of saturated fatty acids while liquid oils have more unsaturated fatty acids.

217

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

92) Explain why fatty acids are water insoluble.

Answer: Their long non-polar hydrocarbon tails overcome their small polar carboxyl head groups.

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Section Reference 1: 11.1

93) The condensed structure of a major component of beeswax, a structural material for beehives, is shown below. Draw a condensed structure of the fatty acid from which the beeswax ester is formed.

O CH3(CH2)24 C

O(CH2)29CH3

O Answer: CH3(CH2)24 C

OH

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Identify the primary biological function of waxes and describe the esters that predominate in them.

Section Reference 1: 11.2

94) Trans fats are inadvertently formed during the hydrogenation of vegetable oils. Is the hydrogenation of oils an oxidation or reduction reaction? How do trans fats differ from cis fats?

Answer: The hydrogenation of oils is a reduction of the oil. Trans bonds have double bonds with like groups on opposite sides of the bond while cis bonds have like groups on the same side.

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Describe the makeup of triglycerides and list their biological functions.

Section Reference 1: 11.3

95) List three lipids and their biological functions.

Answer: Answers will vary 218

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the structure of fatty acids and explain how saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids differ from one another.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2 Identify the primary biological function of waxes and describe the esters that predominate in them.

Learning Objective 3: LO 11.3 Describe the makeup of triglycerides and list their biological functions.

Learning Objective 4: LO 11.4 Describe the structure of phospholipids and glycolipids.

Section Reference 1: 11.1 Section Reference 2: 11.2 Section Reference 3: 11.3 Section Reference 4: 11.4

219

Package Title: Raymond Test Bank Course Title: Raymond, 4e Chapter Number: 12

Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which is an α-amino acid?

CH3 NH2 O

a)

CH3 CH CH C OH CH3 CH3 C

O CH C OH

NH2

b)

NH2 CH3

c)

d)

O

H2C

CH CH C OH

H2N

CH2

O

CH3 CH CH C OH

Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

2) At physiological pH, most amino acids carry both a 1+ and 1- charge. This form is known as a ___. a) zwitterion b) anion c) cation d) isoelectric ion Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

3) Shown here is the amino acid glycine at a pH of ___.

209

a) 1 b) 7 c) 14 d) both 1 and 14 Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

4) Stereoisomers exist for most of the amino acids found in nature. Which statement below is correct? a) Both the D-amino acids and the L- amino acids are used by living things. b) Only the L-amino acids are incorporated in proteins. c) A common conversion is from the D-amino acid to the L-amino acid. d) L-amino acids are toxic.

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

5) If an amino acid is in a neutral solution, the form the carboxyl group takes is ___. a) —CO2– b) —CO2H+ c) —CO2– d) —CO2H Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

6) The side chain of the amino acid phenylalanine is shown here.

-H2C

The side chain is classified as ___.

210

a) nonpolar b) polar-acidic c) polar-basic d) polar-neutral Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

7) The side chain of the amino acid tyrosine is shown here.

-H2C

The side chain is classified as ___.

OH

a) nonpolar b) polar-acidic c) polar-basic d) polar-neutral Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

8) The side chain of the amino acid histidine is shown here.

The side chain is classified as ___.

H N

a) nonpolar b) polar-acidic c) polar-basic d) polar-neutral

-H2C

+

N

Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: Section Reference 1: 12.1

9) The structure of the amino acid glutamine is shown below. Glutamine can be classified as

211

H

O + H3 N

CH

C

O

CH2 CH2 C NH2 O a) polar-neutral b) polar –acidic c) polar basic d) nonpolar Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

10) Shown here is the amino acid glycine at a pH of ___.

a) 1 b) 7 c) 14 d) both 1 and 14 Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

11) The structures of the amino acids proline and glycine are shown below. Which of the following statements is true?

212

COO N C H

COO

CH2

H3N+ C H

H2C

CH2 Proline

H Glycine

a) glycine is an α-amino acid, but proline is not b) both proline and glycine are chiral molecules c) glycine is achiral and proline is chiral d) proline exists as four enantiomers Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

12) Shown here is the amino acid glycine at a pH of ___.

a) 1 b) 7 c) 14 d) both 1 and 14 Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

13) Aspartic acid is classified as a polar-acidic amino acid due to O H3N CH C O CH2 C O O

a) the —CH group to which the amide group is attached. b) the —CH2 group in the middle of the side chain. c) the amide group located on a side chain.

213

d) the carboxyl group located on the side chain.

Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

14) What form does isoleucine take at pH 14?

H

H

O

N

CH C O– CHCH3 CH2 CH3

a) H

H

O

N

CH C O– CHCH3 + CH CH3

b) H H

N

O +

CH C O– CHCH3 CH2 CH3

c) H H

N

O +

H

CH C OH CHCH3 CH2

d)

CH3

Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

15) The peptide bond that connects amino acids in proteins is actually an ___ linkage.

214

a) amine b) amide c) ether d) ester Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Distinguish between oligopeptides, polypeptides, and proteins and describe the bond that joins amino acid residues in these compounds.

Section Reference 1: 12.2

16) The term commonly used for a chain of amino acids 100 units long is ___. a) peptide b) oligopeptide c) polypeptide d) centapeptide Answer: C Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Distinguish between oligopeptides, polypeptides, and proteins and describe the bond that joins amino acid residues in these compounds.

Section Reference 1: 12.2

17) Which reaction is capable of breaking polypeptides into their component amino acids? a) hydrogenation (adding hydrogen) b) hydrolysis (adding water) c) dehydrogenation (removing hydrogen) d) dehydration (removing water) Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Distinguish between oligopeptides, polypeptides, and proteins and describe the bond that joins amino acid residues in these compounds.

Section Reference 1: 12.2

18) Leucine-enkephalin, a pentapeptide, is a naturally occurring pain reliever found in the brain.

How many peptide bonds are there in leucine-enkephalin? a) 5 b) 4 c) 6 d) 3 215

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Distinguish between oligopeptides, polypeptides, and proteins and describe the bond that joins amino acid residues in these compounds.

Section Reference 1: 12.2

19) A tetrapeptide is given as: Ser-Lys-Ala-Pro. Which of the following statements is true? a) The serine provided a nitrogen for the peptide bond. b) The N-terminus is serine (Ser). c) There are four peptide bonds because there are four amino acids. d) The listing should be in alphabetical order.

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Distinguish between oligopeptides, polypeptides, and proteins and describe the bond that joins amino acid residues in these compounds.

Section Reference 1: 12.2

20) The form of dipeptide aspatylserine (Asp-Ser) obtained from two amino acids, aspartic acid and serine, whose structures are shown here, is

O H3N+ CH C CH2

O O

H3N+ CH C CH2OH

COO aspartic acid

serine

216

O

A

O

O

H3N+ CH C

O N CH C

O

H CH2OH

CH2 COO

B

O

O

H3N+ CH C

O CH C

O

CH2OH

CH2 COO C

O

O

H3N+ CH C

N CH C

O

H CH2OH

CH2 COO D

O

O

H3N+ CH C

CH C

CH2

O

CH2OH

COO Answer: C Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Distinguish between oligopeptides, polypeptides, and proteins and describe the bond that joins amino acid residues in these compounds.

Section Reference 1: 12.2

21) Where is the peptide bond located in this dipeptide?

O H2N

CH CH2

C

O NH

CH

H 3C

CH

OH

C OH

CH3

serine

valine

a) the CO—NH joining serine and the valine b) the doubly bonded oxygen just left of center between the amino acids c) the CH—CO on the top of the serine going to the right d) the NH—CH between the serine and valine Answer: A 217

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Distinguish between oligopeptides, polypeptides, and proteins and describe the bond that joins amino acid residues in these compounds.

Section Reference 1: 12.2

22) What is the net charge on the oligopeptide in the figure shown here at pH 1?

O

O

O

H3N+ CH C

N CH C

N CH C

(CH2)4

O

H CH2OH H CH2 COO

H3N+ a) 3+ b) 1+ c) 2+ d) 0 Answer: C

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Describe how pH affects the net charge on a peptide.

Section Reference 1: 12.3

23) The structure of the dipeptide, Phe-Gly, in a solution of pH 14 is ___.

O NH2

O

CH C NHCH2 C O CH2

a) O NH3

O

CH C NHCH2 C OH CH2

b) O

O

NH CH C NHCH2 C OH3 CH2

c)

218

O NH3

O

CH C NHCH2 C O CH2

d) Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Describe how pH affects the net charge on a peptide.

Section Reference 1: 12.3

24) The sequence of the amino acids in a protein is known as the ___ structure. a) primary b) secondary c) tertiary d) quaternary Answer: A Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 25) The α-helix and β-pleated sheet are both forms of the ___ structure of proteins. a) primary b) secondary c) tertiary d) quaternary Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

26) A biologically active protein referred to as a simple protein contains a) very few hydrogen bonds. b) only one heme group. c) less than three different amino acids. d) no prosthetic groups.

219

Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

27) The element found in the center of the heme prosthetic group is ___. a) iron b) sulfur c) nitrogen d) carbon Answer: A Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

28) Which interactions are involved in establishing and holding the three-dimensional structure of a protein? a) salt bridge and disulfide bonds b) hydrogen bonds c) hydrophobic effects d) all of these choices Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

29) The most abundant protein in the human body is a) collagen b) enzymes c) globular protein d) α-keratin Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

220

Section Reference 1: 12.4

30) Proteins tend to assume a specific overall three-dimensional shape. This is referred to as the protein's ___. a) primary structure b) secondary structure c) tertiary structure d) quaternary structure Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

31) A contributing factor to the tertiary structure of a protein is a covalent bond between two atoms of ___. a) sulfur b) hydrogen c) carbon d) nitrogen Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

32) Which of the following sentences is true? a) Rearranging the amino acid residues in a peptide or protein changes its function. b) In an α-helix form, portions of polypeptide chain line up side by side with hydrogen bonds holding neighboring strands of sheet together. c) The order of amino acid residues in a protein is referred to as its tertiary structure. d) The overall three-dimensional shape of a protein is referred to as its primary structure.

Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

221

33) Some proteins require more than one polypeptide chain to be biologically active. The level of protein structure involved is the ___ of a protein. a) primary b) secondary c) tertiary d) quaternary Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

34) The overall three-dimensional shape of a protein is determined by its ___ and is known as the ___ structure of a protein. a) amino acid residues/primary b) amino acid residues/tertiary c) isoelectric point/secondary d) hydrogen bonding/secondary Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

35) Which of the following is an example of a protein that exhibits a quaternary structure? a) insulin b) hemoglobin c) collagen d) keratin Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

36) Which of the following do not contribute to the overall stability of a tertiary structure of proteins? a) salt bridges 222

b) hydrogen bonding c) hydrophobic effect d) hormones Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

37) Globular proteins in water typically assume their specific shapes because a) they are water-soluble due to the polar points located along the length of the protein molecules. b) the nonpolar portion of the molecule is inside and the polar portion is outside, as stated by the folding rule. c) they can assume the β–sheet form, which stretches along the surface of the solution. d) all of the polar side chains in the molecular structure fold inward to be protected from the effects of the polarity of water.

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

38) The hydrophobic portions of a protein tend to a) form chemical bonds between them so that the structure of the protein is rigid. b) be attracted to each other by means of strong interatomic forces. c) be strongly attracted to the water in the surroundings, pulling portions of the molecule away from its center. d) fold into the interior of the three-dimensional shape away from water.

Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

39) In which of the following levels of protein structure can hydrogen bonding NOT play a role? a) primary b) secondary c) tertiary 223

d) quaternary Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

40) Proteins can contain prosthetic groups, which are a) polypeptide chains that contain only one kind of amino acid. b) polypeptide chains that come off the main chain to form a branch. c) groups containing nonpeptide components. d) groups of amino acids that form accessory structures to the protein.

Answer: C Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 41) What kind of noncovalent interaction occurs between the –NH3+ ending of one side chain of an amino acid with the –COO– ending of sidechain of another amino acid in tertiary structure of a protein? a) salt bridge b) hydrogen bonding c) covalent disulfide bond d) hydrophobic effect Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

42) Which of the following substances recognized by immune system evoke production of one or more antibodies? a) secondary proteins b) antigens c) globular proteins d) glycolipids Answer: B 224

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

43) Which is a means of denaturing a protein? a) changes in temperature b) changes in pH c) use of detergents or soaps d) all of these choices Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5 Explain what is meant by the term denaturation and list some of the ways to denature a protein.

Section Reference 1: 12.5

44) What level of protein structure is not disturbed by denaturing? a) tertiary structure b) primary structure c) secondary structure d) quaternary structure Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5 Explain what is meant by the term denaturation and list some of the ways to denature a protein.

Section Reference 1: 12.5

45) The ___ is the location on the protein molecule where enzyme catalyzed reactions take place. a) substrate b) zymogen c) active site d) coenzyme Answer: C Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6 Distinguish between absolute specificity, relative specificity, and stereospecificity.

Section Reference 1: 12.6 225

46) An enzyme displays ___ when the enzyme accepts only one specific substrate. a) absolute specificity b) relative specificity c) stereospecificity d) no specificity Answer: A Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6 Distinguish between absolute specificity, relative specificity, and stereospecificity.

Section Reference 1: 12.6

47) Catalysts, including enzymes, have the role of a) changing a nonspontaneous chemical reaction to spontaneous. b) lowering the activation energy of a reaction. c) heating up the reactants to make the reaction progress faster. d) changing the pH to a favorable pH for the reaction to progress.

Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6 Distinguish between absolute specificity, relative specificity, and stereospecificity.

Section Reference 1: 12.6

48) The enzyme known as alcohol dehydrogenase is capable of oxidizing ethanol, methanol and other hydroxyl group containing organic compounds into their corresponding aldehydes. Such an enzyme with ___ catalyzes the reaction of structurally related substances. a). absolute specificity b) relative specificity c) stereospecificity d) no specificity Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6 Distinguish between absolute specificity, relative specificity, and stereospecificity.

Section Reference 1: 12.6

49) Organic compounds that are not polypeptides but are necessary for enzymes to properly function are called ___.

226

a) substrates b) zymogens c) active sites d) coenzymes Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6 Distinguish between absolute specificity, relative specificity, and stereospecificity.

Section Reference 1: 12.6

50) A change in pH usually produces a change in enzyme activity because a) pH of the environment changes the conformation of the enzyme. b) enzyme activity increases at extreme pH values (either acidic or basic). c) enzyme activity is usually least active below its optimum pH. d) enzyme activity is most active above its optimum temperature.

Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6 Distinguish between absolute specificity, relative specificity, and stereospecificity.

Section Reference 1: 12.6

51) Many of the chemical reactions of living things involve enzymes, which are a) proteins that are in the form of parallel sheets. b) proteins that catalyze reactions. c) small DNA molecules. d) denatured proteins.

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6 Distinguish between absolute specificity, relative specificity, and stereospecificity.

Section Reference 1: 12.6

52) A certain enzyme's name is glucose-6-phosphorylase. This enzyme most likely catalyzes a reaction that a) converts glucose into six phosphorous atoms. b) synthesizes six glucose molecules. c) joins six glucose molecules to a phosphate. d) places a phosphate on the sixth carbon of glucose.

227

Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6 Distinguish between absolute specificity, relative specificity, and stereospecificity.

Section Reference 1: 12.6

53) The enzyme hexokinase catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to carbon #6 of D-glucose and other D-hexoses. L-hexoses are not substrates to the enzyme. hexokinase D-glucose-6-phosphate + ADP D-glucose + ATP Hexokinase displays a) relative specificity b) stereospecificity c) absolute specificity d) both relative specificity and stereospecificity Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6 Distinguish between absolute specificity, relative specificity, and stereospecificity.

Section Reference 1: 12.6

54) ___ are inactive enzyme precursors that are synthesized, stored and may be activated where needed. a) Substrates b) Zymogens c) Active sites d) Coenzymes Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7 Identify the steps required for a typical Michaelis-Menten enzyme to convert a substrate into a product and explain how reversible and irreversible inhibitors affect these enzymes.

Section Reference 1: 12.7

55) An inhibitor is a substance that affects an enzyme by a) reducing the ability to act as a catalyst. b) removing the prosthetic group from an enzyme. c) reacting with the enzyme so there is less effect of the chemical reaction’s surroundings on the rate of reaction.

228

d) stopping the separation of the enzyme from the product keeping the reaction from going to completion.

Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7 Identify the steps required for a typical Michaelis-Menten enzyme to convert a substrate into a product and explain how reversible and irreversible inhibitors affect these enzymes.

Section Reference 1: 12.7

56) The function of feedback inhibition is to a) affect the polarity of a substrate so that it will not be picked up by an enzyme. b) provide a stimulus to the enzyme that makes it active during a reaction. c) provide a way of keeping the wrong substrate from coming in contact with an enzyme. d) control an enzyme reaction so that there isn’t an overproduction of the product.

Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7 Identify the steps required for a typical Michaelis-Menten enzyme to convert a substrate into a product and explain how reversible and irreversible inhibitors affect these enzymes.

Section Reference 1: 12.7

57) An allosteric enzyme differs from a Michaelis-Menten enzyme because the allosteric enzyme a) has a more active binding site that is more polar and will hold the substrate longer. b) displays cooperativity in which the binding of a substrate to the active site on one subunit affects .the binding of substrate at other subunits. c) operates to change reaction rates of all of the stereoisomers of a compound, not just one. d) will catalyze all the reactions of a substance produced in a series of steps.

Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7 Identify the steps required for a typical Michaelis-Menten enzyme to convert a substrate into a product and explain how reversible and irreversible inhibitors affect these enzymes.

Section Reference 1: 12.7

58) A characteristic of a Michaelis-Menten enzyme is that it a) inhibits the formation of a complex under the reaction conditions. b) forms an enzyme—substrate complex that is stable. c) forms an enzyme—substrate complex after which the product and the enzyme separate. d) is a system specific to the hydrolysis of complex carbohydrates.

229

Answer: C Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7 Identify the steps required for a typical Michaelis-Menten enzyme to convert a substrate into a product and explain how reversible and irreversible inhibitors affect these enzymes.

Section Reference 1: 12.7

59) When a patient has accidentally ingested methanol, a physician can order the use of ethanol to overwhelm the alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme. This prevents the liver from producing deadly formaldehyde from the methanol. This is an example of _____. a) covalent modification b) feedback inhibition c) competitive inhibition d) protein denaturation Answer: C Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7 Identify the steps required for a typical Michaelis-Menten enzyme to convert a substrate into a product and explain how reversible and irreversible inhibitors affect these enzymes.

Section Reference 1: 12.7

Question type: True/false 60) Alanine is the only α-amino acid that does not have a chiral carbon.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

61) Because amino acids contain polar covalent bonds, they are hydrophilic and will dissolve water.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 230

62) The net charge of peptides and proteins affects their solubility.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

63) Hydrogen bonding plays a role in the primary structure of protein.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

64) Fibrous proteins, because of their long fibers, tend to be soluble in water.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

65) Protein molecules with the appropriate structure to be biologically active are native molecules.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

66) A characteristic that distinguishes between secondary and tertiary structures is the fact that hydrogen bonding in all secondary structures are between backbone –C=O and H-N- groups.

Answer: true Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 231

67) Proteins can be denatured by changes in temperature or pH. Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5 Explain what is meant by the term denaturation and list some of the ways to denature a protein.

Section Reference 1: 12.5

68) Cofactors for some enzymes are not considered prosthetic groups because they are loosely held during the course of reaction.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6 Distinguish between absolute specificity, relative specificity, and stereospecificity.

Section Reference 1: 12.6

69) Enzymes that display stereospecificity are those that will catalyze the reactions of both the Lform and the D-form of a carbohydrate.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6 Distinguish between absolute specificity, relative specificity, and stereospecificity.

Section Reference 1: 12.6

70) Noncompetitive inhibitors resemble the substrate and bond to the active site of an enzyme.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7 Identify the steps required for a typical Michaelis-Menten enzyme to convert a substrate into a product and explain how reversible and irreversible inhibitors affect these enzymes.

Section Reference 1: 12.7

Question type: fill-in-the-blank

71) ___ is the pH at which an amino acid solution has no net charge because it has equal positive and negative charges.

232

Answer: Isoelectric point Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

72) ___ are composed of more than 10 amino acid residues.

Answer: Polypeptides Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Distinguish between oligopeptides, polypeptides, and proteins and describe the bond that joins amino acid residues in these compounds.

Section Reference 1: 12.2

73) The amide bond between two amino acids is referred to as a ___ bond.

Answer: peptide Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Distinguish between oligopeptides, polypeptides, and proteins and describe the bond that joins amino acid residues in these compounds.

Section Reference 1: 12.2

74) The oligopeptides have from 2 to ___ amino acid units in their molecules.

Answer: 10 Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Distinguish between oligopeptides, polypeptides, and proteins and describe the bond that joins amino acid residues in these compounds.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 75) As in α-helix, and the β-sheet are held together by ___ between amide-N-H and C=O groups.

Answer: hydrogen bonds Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

76) The ___ structure of a protein is the overall three-dimensional shape that a protein assumes.

Answer: tertiary 233

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

77) The ___ of a protein largely determines its secondary and tertiary structures.

Answer: primary structure Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

78) Proteins with quaternary structures have structures involving two or more ___ that are independent of each other.

Answer: polypeptide chains Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

79) Tertiary structure for some proteins sometimes include nonpeptide groups called ___, and proteins that require a such groups for biological activity are called ___ proteins.

Answer: prosthetic/ complex Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

80) In a treatment called ___, a monoclonal antibody is combined with a radioisotope.

Answer: radioimmunotherapy Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

81) If a biologically active protein is sufficiently changed in its conformation so that it no longer is biologically active, that protein has been ___.

234

Answer: denatured Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5 Explain what is meant by the term denaturation and list some of the ways to denature a protein.

Section Reference 1: 12.5

82) Enzymes that only catalyze the reaction of a particular stereoisomer are referred to as ___.

Answer: stereospecific Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6 Distinguish between absolute specificity, relative specificity, and stereospecificity.

Section Reference 1: 12.6

83) A ___ inhibitor is a substance that attaches to an enzyme at sites other than the active sites causing the enzyme to lose its ability to bind with the appropriate substrate.

Answer: noncompetitive Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7 Identify the steps required for a typical Michaelis-Menten enzyme to convert a substrate into a product and explain how reversible and irreversible inhibitors affect these enzymes.

Section Reference 1: 12.7

84) Enzymes that are composed of more than one peptide chain and for which binding of a substrate to one active site affects the bonding of the substrate to other active sites are referred to as a(n) ___ enzyme(s).

Answer: allosteric Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7 Identify the steps required for a typical Michaelis-Menten enzyme to convert a substrate into a product and explain how reversible and irreversible inhibitors affect these enzymes.

Section Reference 1: 12.7

Question type: Molecular Drawing

85) Given the following amino acids and their R groups: aspartic acid (R group is -CH2COO-)

glycine (R group is -H) 235

lysine (R group is -(CH2)4NH3+)

cysteine (R group is -CH2SH) Sketch a generic amino acid.

R

H3N

CH

+

O C

Answer:

O-

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

Question type: Essay

86) Given the following amino acids and their R groups: glycine (R group is -H)

aspartic acid (R group is -CH2COO-)

cysteine (R group is -CH2SH)

lysine (R group is -(CH2)4NH3+)

Which amino acid is not optically active?

Answer: glycine Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

Question type: Molecular drawing

87) Given the following amino acids and their R groups: glycine (R group is -H)

aspartic acid (R group is -CH2COO-)

cysteine (R group is -CH2SH)

lysine (R group is -(CH2)4NH3+)

Sketch cysteine.

CH2SH

H3N

Answer:

+

CH

O C O-

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

236

Section Reference 1: 12.1

88) Given the following amino acids and their R groups: glycine (R group is -H)

aspartic acid (R group is -CH2COO-)

cysteine (R group is -CH2SH)

lysine (R group is -(CH2)4NH3+)

Sketch aspartic acid.

CH2COO-

H3N

Answer:

+

CH

O C O-

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

Question type: Essay

89) Classify each amino acid side chain as (nonpolar, polar-acidic, polar-neutral, or polar-basic.) glycine __________

aspartic acid __________

cysteine __________

lysine

Answer: glycine nonpolar cysteine polar-neutral

__________

aspartic acid polar-acidic lysine polar-basic

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Describe the structure of amino acids and the system used to classify them.

Section Reference 1: 12.1

Question type: Molecular Drawing

90) Draw the dipeptide Asp-Ser and label the peptide bond, the N-terminus, and the C-terminus.

Answer:

237

N-terminus

Peptide bond

O

O H3N+ CH C CH2

C-terminus

N CH C O H CH2OH

COO Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Distinguish between oligopeptides, polypeptides, and proteins and describe the bond that joins amino acid residues in these compounds.

Section Reference 1: 12.2

Question type: Essay

91) Differentiate between the primary, secondary, and tertiary structure of proteins.

Answer: Primary structure is the sequence of amino acids. Secondary structure is the way that the peptide chain is folded, twisted, or bent due to hydrogen bonding between the N-H and C=O groups of the peptide backbone causing the α-helix and the β-pleated sheet. Tertiary structure is the overall three-dimensional shape of the protein caused by interactions between the side chains.

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4 Define primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure and name the covalent and/or noncovalent forces responsible for each level of structure.

Section Reference 1: 12.4

92) Differentiate between the terms absolute specificity and relative specificity regarding enzyme activity.

Answer: An absolutely specific enzyme catalyzes the reaction of only one specific substrate. A relatively specific enzyme will catalyze the reactions of several similar substrates.

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6 Distinguish between absolute specificity, relative specificity, and stereospecificity.

Section Reference 1: 12.6

93) Explain whether or not both the inhibitor and the substrate can bind to the enzyme at the same time in competitive inhibition.

Answer: A competitive inhibitor competes with a substrate at the active site and both of them cannot bind at the active site at the same time.

238

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7 Identify the steps required for a typical Michaelis-Menten enzyme to convert a substrate into a product and explain how reversible and irreversible inhibitors affect these enzymes.

Section Reference 1: 12.7

94) Define the term zymogen. Explain why some enzymes are initially produced as zymogens.

Answer: A zymogen is an enzyme precursor. Some proteins are initially produced as zymogens to prevent their activity from damaging the body.

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7 Identify the steps required for a typical Michaelis-Menten enzyme to convert a substrate into a product and explain how reversible and irreversible inhibitors affect these enzymes.

Section Reference 1: 12.7

239

Package Title: Raymond Test Bank Course Title: Raymond, 4e Chapter Number: 13

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) The following image is a sugar found in nucleic acids: HO

CH2

OH O

H

H H

H

It is ___ and is found in the nucleic acid ___.

OH

OH

a) ribose/DNA b) deoxyribose/DNA c) ribose/RNA d) deoxyribose/RNA Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

2) The following is a sugar found in nucleic acids: HO

CH2

OH O

H

It is ___ and is found in the nucleic acid ___.

H

H

H OH

a) ribose/DNA b) 2-deoxyribose/DNA c) ribose/RNA d) 2-deoxyribose/RNA Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

3) Which of the following organic bases is found in DNA and not in RNA? a) guanine b) cytosine c) thymine d) uracil 230

H

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

4) Which of the following organic bases is found in RNA and not in DNA? a) guanine b) cytosine c) thymine d) uracil Answer: D Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

5) Which of the following organic bases is found in DNA and not in RNA? a) guanine b) cytosine c) thymine d) uracil Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

6) In the following structure, which labeled structure is the sugar residue?

NH2

a N O HO

P

N O

CH2

OH

a) a b) b c) c

N

b

C

H

H

OH

OH

H

N

O

H

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

231

c

Section Reference 1: 13.1

7) The purines and the pyrimidines are organic bases which a) contain alcoholic carbons. b) have carbonyl carbons. c) are amines. d) include oxygen in the ring structure.

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

8) A major base associated with the formation of nucleic acids is ___. a) adenosine b) thymine c) uridine d) deoxycytidine Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

9) The most common nucleotides in nature are ___. a) 3’-monophosphates b) 5’-monophosphates c) 1’ monophosphates d) 3’-5’-diphosphates Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

10) Deoxyribonucleic acid a) is an enzyme found in the cell. b) can move about the cell. c) is found in the nucleus of cells. d) is a major component of cell membranes.

232

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

11) How many bonds are broken when the following molecule is completely hydrolyzed?

O N

HN H2N

N

P O CH2

O

N

O_ O

O H

H

H H

OH OH a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: A Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

12) What is present in a nucleotide that is not found in a nucleoside? a) a phosphate b) a monosaccharide c) an alcohol group d) a nitrogen base Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1 233

13) When a purine or pyrimidine base is combined with a sugar residue such as ribose or deoxyribose, the resulting compound is known as a ___. a) nucleoside b) nucleotide c) polynucleotide d) oligonucleotide Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

14) The following structure is known as a ___.

NH2 N O

a) nucleoside b) nucleotide c) polynucleotide d) oligonucleotide

HO

P

N O

CH2

OH

N

O C

H

H

OH

OH

H

N

H

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

15) Which of the following organic bases is a purine derivative? a) Cytosine b) Thymine c) Pyrimidine d) Guanine Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

16) Phosphoric acid can enter in reactions to produce a phosphate ester. Which of these is a phosphate ester?

234

O –O

P

Na

O–

a)

O CH3

P

–O

O–

b)

O CH3CH2CH2

O

O–

O–

c) O –O

d)

P

P O–

O O

P

O–

O–

Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

17) A monosaccharide incorporated in a nucleic acid is ___. a) β-deoxyribose b) 2-deoxyribose c) β-glucose d) N-glycosidose Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

18) A nucleoside is the result of the reaction of a) phosphate and a monosaccharide. b) ribose and deoxyribose. c) a monosaccharide and an organic base. d) a disaccharide, a phosphate, and a base residue.

Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1 235

19) The base that will NOT combine with 2-deoxyribose to form a nucleic acid is ___. a) thymine b) adenine c) guanine d) uracil Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

20) N-glycosides are a) produced when the N-carbon of the alcohol reacts with a monosaccharide. b) the result of the reaction of an N-monosaccharide and an acid. c) β-N-alcohols produced from the reaction of a monosaccharide and phosphate. d) the result of an amine reacting with the hemiacetal carbon of a monosaccharide.

Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

21) The following structure represents which of the following nucleotides?

O N

HN

_ O

H2N

N

P O P O

P O CH2

O

O

O

O

O

O

N

O

H

H

H H

OH OH a) UMP b) GDP 236

c) GTP d) ATP Answer: C Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

22) DNA and RNA a) differ in both their monosaccharide and nitrogen base components. b) contain the same nitrogen bases, but different monosaccharides. c) have the same composition, except for the monosaccharides. d) are both produced by animals, but RNA is not produced by plants.

Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

23) To form the molecule below, dehydration takes place at C1 of the pentose ring and at an N-H hydrogen at position ___ of the purine base.

O N

HN H2N

N

P O CH2

O

N

O_ O

O H

H

H H

OH OH a) 6 b) 1 c) 9 d) 7 Answer: C Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

237

Section Reference 1: 13.1

24) A cyclic nucleotide is produced when a) the monosaccharide in the nucleotide is in the closed form. b) the nitrogen base is in the cyclic form. c) the phosphate attaches to the monosaccharide and the base. d) the phosphate attaches to the monosaccharide in two places.

Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Describe the makeup of nucleoside di- and triphosphates and cyclic nucleotides.

Section Reference 1: 13.2 25) The triphosphate in ATP is linked to C-5’ of the ribose by a) a β-N-glycosidic linkage. b) a phosphoester bond. c) a peptide bond. d) a hydrogen bond.

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Describe the makeup of nucleoside di- and triphosphates and cyclic nucleotides.

Section Reference 1: 13.2

26) The C-1 of a ribose is linked to purine bases by a) an ester bond. b) an α-glycosidic bond. c) a phosphate anhydride bond. d) a β-N-glycosidic bond.

Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Describe the makeup of nucleoside di- and triphosphates and cyclic nucleotides.

Section Reference 1: 13.2

27) Cyclic nucleotides a) are effectors for allosteric enzymes; they control the activities of an enzyme.

238

b) differ from most nucleotides; they have a single phosphate on the 3’ and the 5’ carbons. c) contain two cyclic monosaccharides instead of one. d) are those nucleotides that cause the triphosphate to bond to the monosaccharide twice.

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Describe the makeup of nucleoside di- and triphosphates and cyclic nucleotides.

Section Reference 1: 13.2

28) The following molecule is

H2N N N N _ O

O

O

O

P O P O

P O CH2

O

O

O

N

H

O H

H H

OH OH a) adenosine 5’-monophosphate (AMP) b) adenosine 5’-triphosphate (ATP) c) deoxythymidine 5’ –monophosphate (dTMP) d) guanosine 5’ –triphosphate (GTP) Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Describe the makeup of nucleoside di- and triphosphates and cyclic nucleotides.

Section Reference 1: 13.2

29) Which of the following statements is true about the given nucleotide?

239

O N

HN

_

O O P O O

H2N

N

P O CH2

O

N

O

O H

H

H H

OH OH a) The nitrogen-containing base is a pyrimidine derivative. b) The nucleotide can be found in both RNA and DNA. c) The monosaccharide unit is 2-deoxyribose. d) The phosphate group is attached to the monosaccharide at carbon 3’.

Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Describe the makeup of nucleoside di- and triphosphates and cyclic nucleotides.

Section Reference 1: 13.2

30) Which sugar residue is present in the sugar-phosphate backbone of RNA? a) 3-deoxyribose b) 2- deoxyribose c) ribose d) sucrose Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3 Explain the structure of oligo- and polynucleotides.

Section Reference 1: 13.3

31) The structures of DNA and RNA a) alternate monosaccharide and phosphate components. b) have a nitrogen base projecting off each monosaccharide. c) are due to the chemical bond between the nitrogen base and the phosphate d) have alternate monosaccharide and phosphate components and have a nitrogen base projecting off each monosaccharide.

240

Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3 Explain the structure of oligo- and polynucleotides.

Section Reference 1: 13.3

32) Transgenic goats have had human genes inserted into their DNA that code for the production of which of following serum protein anticoagulants? a) thrombin b) hemoglobin c) antithrombin d) insulin Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3 Explain the structure of oligo- and polynucleotides.

Section Reference 1: 13.3

33) Two strands of DNA are held in position relative to each other by means of ___. a) covalent bonds b) ionic bonds c) disulfide bonds d) hydrogen bonding Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

34) A characteristic of RNA that is not shared with DNA is a) RNA is not found in the nucleus of cells; DNA is found in the nucleus. b) the backbone of RNA does not contain phosphate. c) RNA substitutes A for C in the base pairings. d) RNA molecules are composed of a single strand.

Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4 241

35) Although the primary structures of proteins and DNA are defined in the same manner, the secondary structures are not. The secondary structure of DNA is a) the β-helix formed by the strand b) the sheets of DNA molecules laying side-by-side c) the globular portions of the DNA structure d) the double helix Answer: D Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

36) Which of the following determines the secondary structure of DNA? a) the sequence of sugar molecules b) complimentary base pairing c) coiling of the helices into a tight, compact shape d) the sequence of nucleotide residues Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

37) DNA molecules in the nuclei are coiled around basic protein molecules called ___. a) histones b) chromatins c) chromosomes d) amino acids Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

38) DNA carries the information for life a) in the super coiled portions of the molecule. b) by storing information in the patterns of the coils of the helices.

242

c) by the way in which the deoxyribose is oriented within the helices. d) in a code which is a sequence of nitrogen bases.

Answer: D Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

39) Which of the following determines the tertiary structure of DNA? a) the sequence of sugar molecules b) complimentary base pairing c) coiling of the helices into a tight, compact shape d) the sequence of nucleotide residues Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

40) Which is a base pairing that DOES NOT occur within the DNA molecule? a) G—C b) A—T c) C—A d) all three pairings occur Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

41) Chromatin is a molecule that a) is produced from chromosomes during early cell reproduction. b) coils and folds to become a chromosome before cell division occurs. c) is a special form of DNA where protein interacts with the nitrogen bases. d) is a special part of the tertiary structure of DNA composed of a single helix.

Answer: B Difficulty: medium 243

Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

42) Which of the following determines the primary structure of both DNA and RNA? a) the sequence of sugar molecules b) complimentary base pairing c) coiling of the helices into a tight, compact shape d) the sequence of nucleotide residues Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

43) Which of the following sequence of bases in the DNA strand will be complimentary to the single DNA strand shown here to produce a double strand?

3’ G-C-T-T-A-G-G-A-T 5’ a) 5’ G-A-T-T-A-G-G-A-A 5’ b) 5’ C-G-A-A-T-C-C-T-A 3’ c) 3’ C-C-G-T-G-G-G-A-T 5’ d) 3’ G-C-T-T-A-G-G-A-T 5’ Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

44) If DNA is heated and then cooled, a) the DNA becomes denatured and then renatured. b) the DNA becomes denatured and then twists into new shapes. c) the strands of DNA separate and then come together end to end. d) the strands of DNA establish more chemical bonds than before the heating.

Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Explain denaturation of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.5 244

45) The process by which DNA unwinds and synthesizes a copy of new DNA is known as ___. a) replication b) transcription c) translation d) reverse transcription Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Describe, in general terms, the processes that govern the formation of DNA, RNA, and proteins.

Section Reference 1: 13.6

46) The process by which the primary structure of RNA is used to generate the correct primary structure of a particular protein is known as ___. a) replication b) transcription c) translation d) reverse transcription Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Describe, in general terms, the processes that govern the formation of DNA, RNA, and proteins.

Section Reference 1: 13.6

47) Replication is a) the process by which DNA produces RNA prior to protein synthesis. b) the process by which DNA produces a copy of itself prior to cell division. c) the process by which RNA molecules generate the primary structure of proteins. d) the process by which viral RNA is read to produce new DNA. Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Describe, in general terms, the processes that govern the formation of DNA, RNA, and proteins.

Section Reference 1: 13.6

48) Reverse transcription is a) the process by which DNA produces RNA prior to protein synthesis. b) the process by which DNA produces a copy of itself prior to cell division.

245

c) the process by which RNA molecules generate the primary structure of proteins. d) the process by which viral RNA is read to produce new DNA. Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Describe, in general terms, the processes that govern the formation of DNA, RNA, and proteins.

Section Reference 1: 13.6

49) Translation is a) the process by which DNA produces RNA prior to protein synthesis. b) the process by which DNA produces a copy of itself prior to cell division. c) the process by which RNA molecules generate the primary structure of proteins. d) the process by which viral RNA is read to produce new DNA. Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Describe, in general terms, the processes that govern the formation of DNA, RNA, and proteins.

Section Reference 1: 13.6

50) Transcription is a) the process by which DNA produces RNA prior to protein synthesis. b) the process by which DNA produces a copy of itself prior to cell division. c) the process by which RNA molecules generate the primary structure of proteins. d) the process by which viral RNA is read to produce new DNA. Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Describe, in general terms, the processes that govern the formation of DNA, RNA, and proteins.

Section Reference 1: 13.6

51) The function of RNA polymerase is to a) cause the RNA molecule to increase in length during protein production. b) cause the RNA molecule to coil into a shape that helps in DNA replication. c) disrupt the double helix by isolating one strand from the other. d) synthesize an RNA molecule that remains attached to the DNA. Answer: C Difficulty: hard 246

Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Describe, in general terms, the processes that govern the formation of DNA, RNA, and proteins.

Section Reference 1: 13.6

52) DNA polymerase is an enzyme involved in which process? a) replication b) transcription c) translation d) reverse transcription Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.7 Explain how replication takes place, and describe the roles of DNA polymerase in this process.

Section Reference 1: 13.7

53) Replication begins at a point in the DNA called the ___. a) promoter site b) origin c) template strand d) transcription site Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.7 Explain how replication takes place, and describe the roles of DNA polymerase in this process.

Section Reference 1: 13.7

54) The ___ has a "cloverleaf" shape and carries the amino acids to the site of protein synthesis. a) transfer RNA b) messenger RNA c) ribosomal RNA d) transfer DNA Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.8 Explain how transcription takes place, describe the role of RNA polymerase in this process, identify the three types of RNA, and describe the triplet code.

Section Reference 1: 13.8

55) tRNA is a type of RNA that is responsible for 247

a) transferring the information for protein synthesis from DNA to the ribosomes. b) supplying amino acids to the site of protein synthesis. c) carrying the newly formed protein out of the nucleus of the cell. d) cutting long proteins into shorter molecules when the proteins are needed by the cell.

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.8 Explain how transcription takes place, describe the role of RNA polymerase in this process, identify the three types of RNA, and describe the triplet code.

Section Reference 1: 13.8

56) Ribosomal RNA a) is part of the ribosome and is a chemical complex of RNA and protein. b) is the form of RNA that goes from the DNA to the ribosome. c) is a short-strand RNA that is generally found outside of the nucleus. d) is produced in the nucleus and remains there in contact with the ribosomes.

Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.8 Explain how transcription takes place, describe the role of RNA polymerase in this process, identify the three types of RNA, and describe the triplet code.

Section Reference 1: 13.8

57) Messenger RNA a) carries information that specifies which protein is to be made. b) supplies amino acids to the site of protein synthesis. c) carries the newly formed protein out of the nucleus of the cell. d) is the form of RNA that goes from the DNA to the ribosome.

Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.8 Explain how transcription takes place, describe the role of RNA polymerase in this process, identify the three types of RNA, and describe the triplet code.

Section Reference 1: 13.8

58) A codon is a) a code that is used to assemble long chains of amino acids. b) the coded information carried on the DNA molecule which starts a new protein. c) a set of 3 bases that call for a specific amino acid. d) the special code of bases that cannot have more than one meaning.

248

Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.8 Explain how transcription takes place, describe the role of RNA polymerase in this process, identify the three types of RNA, and describe the triplet code.

Section Reference 1: 13.8

59) The ___ contains a 3-base sequence known as a codon that specifies a particular amino acid in protein synthesis. a) transfer RNA b) messenger RNA c) ribosomal RNA d) transfer DNA Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.8 Explain how transcription takes place, describe the role of RNA polymerase in this process, identify the three types of RNA, and describe the triplet code.

Section Reference 1: 13.8

60) Viruses are particles that a) contain DNA or RNA which can be injected into a cell. b) have an exterior coat composed of protein. c) can contain an enzyme which catalyzes the reaction to make DNA from the viral RNA. d) All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.9 Explain how translation takes place.

Section Reference 1: 13.9

61) Which is involved in expression? a) replication b) transcription c) translation d) both transcription and translation Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.10 Describe one way that E. coli control the expression of genes.

Section Reference 1: 13.10 249

62) A group of genes under control of one promoter site is a(n) ___. a) recombinant DNA b) operon c) reverse transcription d) mutation Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.10 Describe one way that E. coli control the expression of genes.

Section Reference 1: 13.10 63) Among the mechanisms Escherichia coli has for the control of β-galactosidase production is a) that the combination of cAMP and CAP restricts the ability of RNA polymerase to function. b) the presence of the lac operon necessary for the production of the enzyme to be halted reducing overproduction. c) that glucose must be absent and galactose present for the production to begin. d) that the speed with which the enzyme is produced is accelerated by the presence of both galactose and glucose.

Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.10 Describe one way that E. coli control the expression of genes.

Section Reference 1: 13.10

64) ___ is any permanent change in the primary structure of DNA. a) Recombinant DNA b) Gene expression c) Operon d) Mutation Answer: D Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.11 Explain the term mutation.

Section Reference 1: 13.11

65) If BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes are defective a) the probability of breast cancer is increased for women, but not for men. b) the genes can be repaired by recombinational repair. c) the probability of having breast cancer is nearly 100%. d) the risk of having breast cancer rises from below 15% to as much as 85%.

250

Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.11 Explain the term mutation.

Section Reference 1: 13.11

66) Combining DNA from two or more sources produces ___. a) recombinant DNA b). gene expression c) an operon d) mutation Answer: A Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.12 List the steps involved in producing recombinant DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.12

67) The production of recombinant DNA requires cutting a gene from the DNA molecule. This cut can be made with the use of ___. a) restriction enzymes b) an electron microscope and forceps c) a bacterial plasmid d) ligases Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.12 List the steps involved in producing recombinant DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.12

68) When recombinant DNA is inserted into bacteria, a) the bacteria no longer produce their own proteins and are very short lived. b) the metabolism of the bacteria is not affected. c) both the bacterial proteins and the new protein are produced. d) the protein produced is exactly the same as if it were produced by the original cells.

Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.12 List the steps involved in producing recombinant DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.12

251

69) Recombinant DNA technology has been used to produce a) tomatoes with a longer shelf life. b) insulin produced by bacteria. c) human growth hormone. d) All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.12 List the steps involved in producing recombinant DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.12 70) ___ are short segments of single-stranded DNA that are complimentary to the DNA at the 3’ end of the region being copied. a) Codons b) Primers c) Histones d) Chromatins Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.13 Describe the role of the polymerase chain reaction and STRs in DNA fingerprinting.

Section Reference 1: 13.13

Question type: True/false

71) Thymine is a base found in RNA and not in DNA. Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.13 Describe the role of the polymerase chain reaction and STRs in DNA fingerprinting.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

72) The bases adenine, guanine, and uracil are used in both DNA and RNA nucleotides.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.13 Describe the role of the polymerase chain reaction and STRs in DNA fingerprinting.

Section Reference 1: 13.1 252

73) A nucleoside triphosphate contains two phosphoanhydride bonds.

Answer: true Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Describe the makeup of nucleoside di- and triphosphates and cyclic nucleotides.

Section Reference 1: 13.2

74) Polynucleotides have definite 5’ and 3’ ends (terminus).

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3 Explain the structure of oligo- and polynucleotides.

Section Reference 1: 13.3

75) In the double strand of DNA, the sugar-phosphate backbones with their negatively charged phosphate groups are on the inside and the bases are on the outside.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

76) Guanine and cytosine bases will pair through hydrogen bonding in DNA. Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

77) Adenine and Cytosine bases will pair through hydrogen bonding.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4 253

78) DNA can be denatured by processes that disrupt hydrogen bonding and cause the strands to separate.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Explain denaturation of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.5

79) An example of reverse transcription in human cells is the production of new DNA by the cell from the information stored in the RNA of the HIV virus.

Answer: true Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Describe, in general terms, the processes that govern the formation of DNA, RNA, and proteins.

Section Reference 1: 13.6

Question type: fill-in-the-blank

80) A ___ is an N-glycoside formed by combining a monosaccharide with a purine or a pyrimidine base.

Answer: nucleoside Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

81) Formation of ___ bonds converts a nucleotide into a nucleoside diphosphate or triphosphate.

Answer: phosphoanhydride Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Describe the makeup of nucleoside di- and triphosphates and cyclic nucleotides.

Section Reference 1: 13.2

82) The sequence of bases of a nucleic acid strand is read from the ___ end to the ___ end.

Answer: 5’ / 3’ Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3 Explain the structure of oligo- and polynucleotides.

254

Section Reference 1: 13.3

83) The ___ structure of a nucleic acid is the sequence of nucleotides.

Answer: primary Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

84) ___ are pairs of bases in a nucleic acid structure that can form hydrogen bonds to each other.

Answer: Complementary bases Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

85) The chain of nucleosomes is coiled to form a highly supercoiled ___.

Answer: chromatin Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

86) The process by which information in an RNA molecule is read so that a specific protein can be produced is ___.

Answer: translation Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Describe, in general terms, the processes that govern the formation of DNA, RNA, and proteins.

Section Reference 1: 13.6

87) Prior to cell division, the DNA in the nucleus of the cell undergoes ___.

Answer: replication Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Describe, in general terms, the processes that govern the formation of DNA, RNA, and proteins.

255

Section Reference 1: 13.6

88) ___ catalyzes the production of new DNA. Answer: DNA polymerase Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.7 Explain how replication takes place, and describe the roles of DNA polymerase in this process.

Section Reference 1: 13.7

89) The ___ is the portion of the tRNA molecule that makes certain the correct amino acid is selected.

Answer: anticodon Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.8 Explain how transcription takes place, describe the role of RNA polymerase in this process, identify the three types of RNA, and describe the triplet code.

Section Reference 1: 13.8

90) The base pairing between the ___, successive set of three consecutive bases, and anticodon ensures that the proper amino acid is added to a growing protein chain at the correct time.

Answer: codon Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.8 Explain how transcription takes place, describe the role of RNA polymerase in this process, identify the three types of RNA, and describe the triplet code.

Section Reference 1: 13.8

91) Translation and transcription join together to make up a process known as ___.

Answer: gene expression Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.10 Describe one way that E. coli control the expression of genes.

Section Reference 1: 13.10

92) A mutation is a permanent change in the ___ structure of DNA. Answer: primary Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.11 Explain the term mutation.

Section Reference 1: 13.11 256

Question type: Matching

93) A base found in RNA but not DNA

a. recombinant DNA

Answer: e

b. replication

_____

_____

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

94) A base found in DNA but not RNA Answer: f

_____

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

c. polymerase chain reaction

95) The opposite directions run by two strands of DNA double helix Answer: j d. anticodon _____

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe the primary structure of DNA and RNA and the secondary and tertiary structure of DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.4

96) Protein synthesis Answer: l e. uracil _____

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Describe, in general terms, the processes that govern the formation of DNA, RNA, and proteins.

Section Reference 1: 13.6

97) When mRNA is synthesized from DNA 257

Answer: g f. thymine

_____

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Describe, in general terms, the processes that govern the formation of DNA, RNA, and proteins.

Section Reference 1: 13.6

98) When a strand of DNA makes a new copy prior to cell division Answer: b g. transcription

_____

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Describe, in general terms, the processes that govern the formation of DNA, RNA, and proteins.

Section Reference 1: 13.6

99) The RNA that carries amino acids to the site of protein synthesis Answer: k h. codon

_____

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.8 Explain how transcription takes place, describe the role of RNA polymerase in this process, identify the three types of RNA, and describe the triplet code.

Section Reference 1: 13.8

100) A series of three bases on tRNA complimentary to a codon Answer: d i. mutation

_____

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.8 Explain how transcription takes place, describe the role of RNA polymerase in this process, identify the three types of RNA, and describe the triplet code.

Section Reference 1: 13.8

101) A three base sequence on mRNA that specifies an amino acid Answer: h 258

j. antiparallel _____

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.8 Explain how transcription takes place, describe the role of RNA polymerase in this process, identify the three types of RNA, and describe the triplet code.

Section Reference 1: 13.8

102) A change in the base sequence of DNA Answer: i k. tRNA

_____

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.11 Explain the term mutation.

Section Reference 1: 13.11 103) DNA containing DNA material from two or more sources Answer: a l. translation

_____

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.12 List the steps involved in producing recombinant DNA. Section Reference 1: 13.12

104) Process by which copies of DNA are duplicated Answer: c Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.13 Describe the role of the polymerase chain reaction and STRs in DNA fingerprinting.

Section Reference 1: 13.13

Question type: Short Answer/Essay

105) Describe two structural differences between DNA and RNA. Answer: DNA exists as a double helix and RNA exists as single strands. DNA contains thymine and RNA contains uracil. DNA has the sugar 2-deoxyribose and RNA has the sugar ribose.

Difficulty: hard 259

Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Identify the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Section Reference 1: 13.1

Question type: Molecular Drawing 106) Draw cytosine 5’ –monophosphate.

Answer:

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Describe the makeup of nucleoside di- and triphosphates and cyclic nucleotides.

Section Reference 1: 13.2

Question type: Essay 107) How does the 5’ end of DNA or RNA differ from the 3’ end?

Answer: The 5’ end is a phosphate monoester and the 3’ end a free – OH group.

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3 Explain the structure of oligo- and polynucleotides.

Section Reference 1: 13.3

108) Distinguish between the terms translation and transcription.

Answer: Transcription is the transfer of information stored in DNA to RNA. Translation is protein synthesis done by RNA. Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Describe, in general terms, the processes that govern the formation of DNA, RNA, and proteins.

Section Reference 1: 13.6 260

109) What is the function of polymerase chain reaction?

Answer: To duplicate copies of specific DNA sequence in short notice.

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.7 Explain how replication takes place, and describe the roles of DNA polymerase in this process.

Section Reference 1: 13.7

110) Describe the functional differences between DNA and RNA. Answer: DNA is found in the nucleus and contains the genetic information for the cell. RNA is involved in protein synthesis.

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.8 Explain how transcription takes place, describe the role of RNA polymerase in this process, identify the three types of RNA, and describe the triplet code.

Section Reference 1: 13.8

261

Package Title: Raymond Test Bank Course Title: Raymond, 4e Chapter Number: 14

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) ___ is the sum of all of the reactions that take place in a living thing. a) Metabolism c) Catabolism c) Anabolism d) Hydrolysis Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Describe three different types of metabolic pathways and explain what a coupled reaction is.

Section Reference 1: 14.1

2) A metabolic pathway in which a series of reactions is used to repeatedly break down or build up a molecule is defined as a ___ pathway. a) linear b) circular c) spiral d) coupled Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Describe three different types of metabolic pathways and explain what a coupled reaction is.

Section Reference 1: 14.1

3) A metabolic pathway in which the product of one reaction is the reactant in the next reaction in a continuous series is defined as a ___ pathway. a) linear b) circular c) spiral d) coupled Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Describe three different types of metabolic pathways and explain 250

what a coupled reaction is.

Section Reference 1: 14.1

4) The amount of energy obtained from hydrolysis of ATP is a) -11.8 kcal. b) - 36 kcal. c) -4.5 kcal. d) -7.3 kcal.

Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Describe three different types of metabolic pathways and explain what a coupled reaction is.

Section Reference 1: 14.1

5) ___ is defined as the reactions that break down large molecules into small ones and release energy in the form of ATP. a) Metabolism b) Catabolism c) Anabolism d) Hydrolysis Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

6) A metabolic pathway in which the final product is also a starting material is defined as a ___ pathway. a) linear b) circular c) spiral d) coupled Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

251

7) ___ is defined as the reactions that biosynthesize large molecules from small molecules consuming energy in the form of ATP. a) Metabolism b) Catabolism c) Anabolism d) Hydrolysis Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

8) Protein synthesis is a form of ___. a) metabolism b) catabolism c) anabolism d) hydrolysis Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

9) The biosynthesis of fatty acids is a form of ___. a) metabolism b) catabolism c) anabolism d) hydrolysis Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

10) Which is the structure for ATP?

252

O –O

P

O

O–

O

O

P

O

O–

b)

P

O–

a)

–O

O

P

O adenosyl

O

P

O–

O– O O

P

O–

adenosyl

O–

O O –O –O

c)

P

P

adenosyl

O–

O–

O O

P

O–

O–

d) All of these choices are correct formulas for ATP. Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

11) The location in the cell where ATP is produced is the ___. a) mitochondria b) lysosome c) nucleus d) cell membrane Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

12) Which choice is a goal of catabolism? a) the production of heat b) the attachment of the coenzyme A residue c) the generation of ATP molecules 253

d) the production of two-carbon fragments Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

13) The acetyl-CoA from the fatty acid catabolism enters the ___ whereas the reduced coenzymes NADH and FADH2 enter ___. a) citric acid cycle/the electron transport chain b) electron transport chain/glycolysis c) citric acid cycle/glycolysis d) glycolysis/the citric acid cycle Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

14) During glycolysis and under aerobic conditions, pyruvate is converted into ___. a) lactate b) acetyl-CoA c) ketones d) ADP Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

15) ___ takes place in the cytoplasm while ___ takes place in the mitochondria. a) Citric acid cycle/electron transport chain b) Electron transport chain/glycolysis c) Citric acid cycle/glycolysis d) Glycolysis/citric acid cycle Answer: D Difficulty: medium 254

Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

16) The NADH or FADH2 produced from fatty acid oxidation can enter ___ where these coenzymes are recycled to their oxidized forms. a) glycolysis b) gluconeogenesis c) citric acid cycle d) electron transport chain Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

17) Glycolysis is a form of ___. a) metabolism b) catabolism c) anabolism d) hydrolysis Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

18) Acetyl-CoA produced as a result of glycolysis enters the ___ metabolic pathway. a) glycolysis b) gluconeogenesis c) citric acid cycle d) electron transport chain Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

255

19) The process by which ADP is converted to ATP takes place in the ___ and one of the processes by which this change occurs is known as ___. a) mitochondria/oxidative phosphorylation b) cytoplasm/oxidative phosphorylation c) mitochondria/citric acid cycle d) cytoplasm/citric acid cycle Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

20) Which of the following bonds is broken when ATP is hydrolyzed? a) hydrogen bond b) phosphoester bond c) N-glycosidic bond d) phosphoanhydride bond Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

21) ___ is exclusively used to for reductive biosynthesis reactions. a) NADPH b) ATP c) ADP d) NAD+ Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

22) Most of triglyceride digestion occurs in the ___. a) mouth b) stomach c) small intestine 256

d) liver Answer: C Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Name the products formed during the digestion of polysaccharides, triglycerides, and proteins and state where the digestion of each takes place.

Section Reference 1: 14.3

23) The digestion of proteins begins in the stomach with hydrolysis being catalyzed by ___. a) chymotrypsin b) pepsin c) amylase d) lipase Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Name the products formed during the digestion of polysaccharides, triglycerides, and proteins and state where the digestion of each takes place.

Section Reference 1: 14.3

24) Amylase a) is an enzyme that continues functioning in the stomach. b) is the only enzyme in the saliva that hydrolyzes proteins. c) is a carbohydrate easily digested in the stomach. d) catalyzes hydrolysis of some of the α − (1 → 4) bonds in amylose.

Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Name the products formed during the digestion of polysaccharides, triglycerides, and proteins and state where the digestion of each takes place.

Section Reference 1: 14.3

25) How do the monosaccharides produced during digestion get into the circulatory system? a) They are absorbed by the cells in the intestinal lining and are released into the blood. b) They are absorbed by the cells in the stomach lining and released into the blood. c) They are able to move between the cells of the stomach lining directly into the blood. d) They are transported by the action of the cell membranes of the digestive tract.

Answer: A Difficulty: medium 257

Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Name the products formed during the digestion of polysaccharides, triglycerides, and proteins and state where the digestion of each takes place.

Section Reference 1: 14.3

26) The digestion of ___ begins in the mouth and continues in the small intestine where the large molecules are broken down into ___. a) proteins/amino acids b) carbohydrates/monosaccharides c) lipids/fatty acids and glycerol and monoacylglycerides d) fiber/starch Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Name the products formed during the digestion of polysaccharides, triglycerides, and proteins and state where the digestion of each takes place.

Section Reference 1: 14.3

27) Digestion of ___ begins in the stomach. a) starch and proteins b) starch and triglycerides c) triglycerides and proteins d) starch and all other oglio-orpolysaccharides Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Name the products formed during the digestion of polysaccharides, triglycerides, and proteins and state where the digestion of each takes place.

Section Reference 1: 14.3

28) The digestion of lactose to galactose and glucose occurs in the ___. a) mouth b) stomach c) intestine d) liver Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Name the products formed during the digestion of polysaccharides, triglycerides, and proteins and state where the digestion of each takes place.

Section Reference 1: 14.3

258

29) The digestion of ___ takes place in the stomach by the actions of enzymes operating at low pH. This digestion continues in the small intestine and the large molecules are broken down into ___. a) proteins/amino acids b) carbohydrates/monosaccharides c) lipids/fatty acids and glycerol and monoacylglycerides d) fiber/starch Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Name the products formed during the digestion of polysaccharides, triglycerides, and proteins and state where the digestion of each takes place.

Section Reference 1: 14.3

30) The digestion of ___ occurs in the small intestine where the large molecules are emulsified by bile and are broken down into ___ before being absorbed into the blood stream. a) proteins/amino acids b) carbohydrates/monosaccharides c) lipids/fatty acids/glycerol and monoacylglycerides d) fiber/cellulose Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Name the products formed during the digestion of polysaccharides, triglycerides, and proteins and state where the digestion of each takes place.

Section Reference 1: 14.3

31) The allosteric enzyme phospofructokinase is switched off by ___. a) glucose b) isocitrate c) AMP d) ATP Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 Identify the initial reactant and final products of glycolysis and describe how this pathway is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.4

32) One step in the catabolism of glucose involves the conversion of glucose 6-phosphate into ___.

259

a) glucose b) fructose 6-phosphate c) glucose 3-phosphate d) pyruvate Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 Identify the initial reactant and final products of glycolysis and describe how this pathway is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.4

33) Where in a cell do the formation of acetyl-CoA and the citric acid cycle occur? a) cytoplasm b) mitochondria c) nucleus d) lysosome Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 Identify the initial reactant and final products of glycolysis and describe how this pathway is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.4

34) Glycolysis is controlled in steps: a) 1, 2, and 3 b) 2, 5 and 7 c) 1, 3 and 10 d) 3, 5 and 8 Answer: C Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 Identify the initial reactant and final products of glycolysis and describe how this pathway is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.4

35) Gluconeogenesis is a process by which glucose is produced a) in the liver from noncarbohydrate sources. b) in the mitochondrion if there is an excess of fructose. c) by the enzymes located on the cristae. d) by exactly reversing the process of glycolysis.

Answer: A 260

Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.5 Explain how gluconeogenesis differs from glycolysis.

Section Reference 1: 14.5

36) The biosynthesis of glucose takes place in a series of reactions known as ___. a) glycolysis b) gluconeogenesis c) the citric acid cycle d) the electron transport chain Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.5 Explain how gluconeogenesis differs from glycolysis.

Section Reference 1: 14.5

37) Gluconeogenesis is a form of ___. a) metabolism b) catabolism c) anabolism d) hydrolysis Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.5 Explain how gluconeogenesis differs from glycolysis.

Section Reference 1: 14.5

38) One way that insulin reduces blood sugar is by a) increasing the rate of change of blood sugar to fructose. b) increasing the rate of glycogen metabolism. c) increasing the rate of glucose uptake by cells. d) increasing the concentration of glycogen phosphorylase.

Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.6 Describe how the manufacture and breakdown of glycogen are related to glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.

Section Reference 1: 14.6

39) Which kind of a process is glycogenesis?

261

a) catabolic b) anabolic c) hydrolysis d) hydrogenation Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.6 LO Describe how the manufacture and breakdown of glycogen are related to glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.

Section Reference 1: 14.6

40) What is a possible response to a drop in blood glucose concentration? a) Anaerobic metabolism of sugars occurs instead of aerobic pathways. b) The rate of the production of the enzymes necessary to produce glucose is increased. c) Glycogenolysis is switched on and glycogenesis is switched off. d) The production of glucose 6-phosphate is switched off.

Answer: C Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.6 Describe how the manufacture and breakdown of glycogen are related to glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.

Section Reference 1: 14.6

41) The total NADH produced in one citric acid cycle are ___. a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6 Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.7 Give an overview of the citric acid cycle and explain how it is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.7

42) Which of the choices below present products of the citric acid cycle? a) ATP, ADP, and CO2 b) NADH, FADH2, and GTP c) FAD, NAD+, ADP, and H2O d) CO2, H2O, ATP, and GTP, and NAD+ Answer: B 262

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.7 Give an overview of the citric acid cycle and explain how it is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.7

43) The citric acid cycle has which step as a main control? a) step 3, isocitrate ® α-ketoglutarate b) step 1, acetyl-CoA ® citrate c) step 7, fumarate ® malate d) step 8, malate ® oxaloacetate Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.7 Give an overview of the citric acid cycle and explain how it is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.7

44) The compounds needed to start the citric acid cycle are a) acetyl-CoA and citrate. b) isocitrate and NAD+. c) acetyl-CoA and NADH. d) acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate.

Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.7 Give an overview of the citric acid cycle and explain how it is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.7

45) Sometimes the reduction of oxygen to water is incomplete, resulting in a) a greater production of ATP because there are more hydrogen ions present. b) toxic products, which are superoxide or hydrogen peroxide. c) a greater production of FADH2 from the extra hydrogen ions. d) hydrogen gas, which can be excreted and does not build up.

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.8 Describe how the products of the citric acid cycle are used by the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation.

Section Reference 1: 14.8 263

46) What is the total yield of ATP obtained when 1 glucose molecule goes through glycolysis and the citric acid cycle? a) 25 ATP b) 28 – 29 ATP c) 30 – 32 ATP d) 35 ATP Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.8 Describe how the products of the citric acid cycle are used by the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation.

Section Reference 1: 14.8

47) The oxidation of which of the following provides rapid generation of heat in newborn infants? a) White fat cells b) Brown fat cells c) ATP synthase d) glutamate Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.8 Describe how the products of the citric acid cycle are used by the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation.

Section Reference 1: 14.8

48) The electron transport chain a) takes place in the special membranes located in the nucleus of the cell. b) produces FADH2 by means of hydrolysis reactions. c) utilizes the H+ released to produce complexes for later reaction. d) and oxidative phosphorylation together produce ATP. Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.8 Describe how the products of the citric acid cycle are used by the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation.

Section Reference 1: 14.8

49) The NADH and FADH2 used by the electron transport chain are normally produced in the mitochondria; however, 264

a) NADH is also produced during glycolysis in the cytoplasm. b) NADH is only produced and used in the mitochondria; FADH2 can be used elsewhere. c) FADH2 is also produced by the citric acid cycle; NADH is not. d) FADH2 produced in the mitochondria has more energy than does NADH. Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.8 Describe how the products of the citric acid cycle are used by the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation.

Section Reference 1: 14.8 50) Each spiral of the β-oxidative spiral of fatty acid catabolism removes ___ carbon atoms from a fatty acid producing acetyl-CoA, NADH and FADH2. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.9 Describe the catabolism of triglycerides, the b oxidation spiral, and how the b oxidation spiral differs from fatty acid biosynthesis.

Section Reference 1: 14.9

51) The fatty acids produced from the hydrolysis of triglycerides can a) be used to enter directly into glycolysis, producing extra ATP. b) be oxidized to produce acetyl-CoA, which enters the citric acid cycle. c) produce glucose by a pathway separate from gluconeogenesis. d) be modified to undergo either glycolysis or gluconeogenesis.

Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.9 Describe the catabolism of triglycerides, the b oxidation spiral, and how the b oxidation spiral differs from fatty acid biosynthesis.

Section Reference 1: 14.9 52) Which of the following products are formed in one pass through the -oxidation spiral when a fatty acyl-CoA is shortened by two carbon atoms? a) NADH and pyruvate b) FADH2 and pyruvate c) NADH and FADH2 d) ATP and glycogen 265

Answer: C Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.9 Describe the catabolism of triglycerides, the b oxidation spiral, and how the b oxidation spiral differs from fatty acid biosynthesis.

Section Reference 1: 14.9

53) If acetyl-CoA concentrations reach too high levels, a) ketone bodies can be produced leading to a toxic condition. b) the citric acid cycle increases in reaction rate to use the excess acetyl-CoA. c) pathways other than the citric acid cycle activate to remove the excess acetyl-CoA. d) the ketone bodies are stored in special cells and used as a source of energy when required.

Answer: A Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.9 Describe the catabolism of triglycerides, the b oxidation spiral, and how the b oxidation spiral differs from fatty acid biosynthesis.

Section Reference 1: 14.9

54) Lipogenesis a) produces fatty acids by means of a spiral pathway. b) produces fatty acids by joining two carbon atoms at a time. c) does not produce all of the fatty acids required by humAnswer: d) All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.9 Describe the catabolism of triglycerides, the b oxidation spiral, and how the b oxidation spiral differs from fatty acid biosynthesis.

Section Reference 1: 14.9

55) In a cell, fatty acid biosynthesis occurs in ___. a) mitochondria b) the cytoplasm c) the nucleus d) lysosome Answer: B Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.9 Describe the catabolism of triglycerides, the b oxidation spiral, and how the b oxidation spiral differs from fatty acid biosynthesis.

266

Section Reference 1: 14.9

56) The condition of ketoacidosis is a) a potentially fatal buildup of acetoacetate or 3-hydroxybutyrate lowering blood pH. b) due to a lowered production of ketone bodies than is normal. c) the increase in pH of the cells due to ketone body production. d) only found when anaerobic catabolism of fat occurs.

Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.9 Describe the catabolism of triglycerides, the b oxidation spiral, and how the b oxidation spiral differs from fatty acid biosynthesis.

Section Reference 1: 14.9 57) Beginning with octanoic acid, how many passes through the -oxidation spiral will take place? a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 Answer: A Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.9 Describe the catabolism of triglycerides, the b oxidation spiral, and how the b oxidation spiral differs from fatty acid biosynthesis.

Section Reference 1: 14.9

58) Protein digestion produces amino acids a) that are further digested by glycolysis to produce ATP. b) that can be used to produce new peptides and proteins. c) that undergo transamination to produce all known amino acids. d) that can be linked together with glycerol to produce lipids.

Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.10 Explain the metabolic fate of the amino groups in amino acids.

Section Reference 1: 14.10 59) NH4+ is normally excreted from the human body by means of ___. a) ammonium ions 267

b) urea c) uremic acid d) uric acid Answer: B Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.10 Explain the metabolic fate of the amino groups in amino acids.

Section Reference 1: 14.10

60) During catabolism, proteins are broken down into amino acids. The amine groups are transferred to an -keto acid by a process known as ___. The amino acids of -keto acids are then converted into ___ before being excreted in urine. a) oxidative phosphorylation/pyruvate b) glycolysis/acetyl-CoA c) ketosis/acetone d) transamination/urea Answer: D Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.10 Explain the metabolic fate of the amino groups in amino acids.

Section Reference 1: 14.10

61) During oxidative deamination a) ammonium ions are removed from one amino acid and placed on another amino acid. b) oxygen reacts with the amino acid releasing nitrogen-oxygen compounds. c) new compounds are produced by the addition of a carboxyl group. d) potentially toxic ammonium ions are produced.

Answer: D Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.10 Explain the metabolic fate of the amino groups in amino acids.

Section Reference 1: 14.10

62) Which of the following is produced when the amino acid aspartate undergoes transamination reaction shown here?

268

O C O + H3N C

O

_

C O

H

+

CH3

_

pyruvate

aspartate

O

O C O A.

+ H3N C

C O

H

C O O

+ H3N C

+

H

CH3

_

O

O

C O

_

C O

C O + H3N

+

CH2

C

_

H

CH3

C O O

_

O

O

C O C.

_

C O

_

CH2

B.

transaminase

C O

CH2 C O O

_

_

C O

C O +

+ H3N

CH3

C

_

H

CH3

O D.

C O C O CH3

_

CH2OH +

+ H3N

C

H

CH3

Answer: B Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.10 Explain the metabolic fate of the amino groups in amino acids.

269

Section Reference 1: 14.10

Question type: True/False

63) In a coupled reaction of a metabolic pathway, a spontaneous reaction provides the energy needed by a nonspontaneous one.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Describe three different types of metabolic pathways and explain what a coupled reaction is Section Reference 1: 14.1

64) Catabolism reactions are those that produce more complex molecules from the simpler molecules along with a release of energy.

Answer: false Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

65) Glycogen can be broken down to form glucose 1-phosphate, which is directly involved in glycolysis.

Answer: true Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 Identify the initial reactant and final products of glycolysis and describe how this pathway is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.4

66) The overall net result of glycolysis is the conversion of one glucose to two pyruvates, 3 NADH, 4 ATP and energy.

Answer: false Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 Identify the initial reactant and final products of glycolysis and describe how this pathway is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.4

67) ATP is used up in glycolysis and produced in glucogenesis.

270

Answer: false Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.6 Describe how the manufacture and breakdown of glycogen are related to glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.

Section Reference 1: 14.6

68) Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm; the next step in carbohydrate metabolism, the citric acid cycle, occurs in mitochondria.

Answer: true Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.7 Give an overview of the citric acid cycle and explain how it is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 and 14.7

69) The brown fat cells found in newborn babies have a greater number of mitochondria than other fat cells and are capable of much faster metabolism of triglycerides than the fat cells found in adults.

Answer: true Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.8 Describe how the products of the citric acid cycle are used by the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation Section Reference 1: 14.8

70) The fatty acid synthesis in the body occurs primarily in the cytoplasm.

Answer: true Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.9 Describe the catabolism of triglycerides, the b oxidation spiral, and how the b oxidation spiral differs from fatty acid biosynthesis.

Section Reference 1: 14.9

Question type: fill-in-the-blank

71) ___ are subcellular organelles that have an outer and an inner membrane used for transport of electrons and molecules.

Answer: Mitochondria Difficulty: medium 271

Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Name the products formed during the digestion of polysaccharides, triglycerides, and proteins and state where the digestion of each takes place.

Section Reference 1: 14.3

72) Starch digestion is initiated by the enzyme ___.

Answer: amylase Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Name the products formed during the digestion of polysaccharides, triglycerides, and proteins and state where the digestion of each takes place.

Section Reference 1: 14.3

73) Complete the following table: Where Digestion Takes Place

Products of Digestion

Carbohydrates

Proteins

Lipids

Answer: Complete the following table: Where Digestion Takes Place

Products of Digestion

Carbohydrates

mouth/small intestine

monosaccharides

Proteins

stomach/small intestine

amino acids

Lipids

small intestine

glycerol, fatty acids, monoand diglycerides

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Name the products formed during the digestion of polysaccharides, triglycerides, and proteins and state where the digestion of each takes place.

Section Reference 1: 14.3

74) The process by which glucose is split into pyruvate is ___.

272

Answer: glycolysis Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 Identify the initial reactant and final products of glycolysis and describe how this pathway is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.4

75) In humans, pyruvate is reduced to lactate when the conditions are ___ such as after a vigorous exercise.

Answer: anaerobic Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 Identify the initial reactant and final products of glycolysis and describe how this pathway is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.4

76) ___ molecule of glucose can produce 30-32 ATP during catabolism.

Answer: One Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 Identify the initial reactant and final products of glycolysis and describe how this pathway is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.4

77) The hydrolysis of triglycerides is performed by the ___ enzymes.

Answer: lipase Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.9 Describe the catabolism of triglycerides, the b oxidation spiral, and how the b oxidation spiral differs from fatty acid biosynthesis.

Section Reference 1: 14.9

78) Of the 20 amino acids used by humans, ___ can be converted into citric acid cycle intermediates.

Answer: 11 Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.10 Explain the metabolic fate of the amino groups in amino acids.

Section Reference 1: 14.10

79) Is glycolysis catabolism or anabolism?

273

Answer: catabolism Difficulty: easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 Identify the initial reactant and final products of glycolysis and describe how this pathway is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.4

80) Is gluconeogenesis catabolism or anabolism?

Answer: anabolism Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.5 Explain how gluconeogenesis differs from glycolysis.

Section Reference 1: 14.5

81) Is citric acid cycle catabolism or anabolism?

Answer: catabolism Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.7 Give an overview of the citric acid cycle and explain how it is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.7 82) Is -oxidation spiral catabolism or anabolism?

Answer: catabolism Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.9 Describe the catabolism of triglycerides, the b oxidation spiral, and how the b oxidation spiral differs from fatty acid biosynthesis.

Section Reference 1: 14.9

83) Is oxidative deamination catabolism or anabolism?

Answer: catabolism Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.10 Explain the metabolic fate of the amino groups in amino acids.

Section Reference 1: 14.10

Question type: Essay

84) Define metabolism and differentiate between the terms catabolism and anabolism.

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Answer: Metabolism is the sum of all chemical reactions in an organism. Catabolism breaks larger molecules down into smaller molecules and usually releases energy. Anabolism builds larger molecules from smaller molecules and usually requires energy.

Difficulty: medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

85) Draw ATP and label the ribose and also the phosphoanhydride bond, that when cleaved, results in the conversion of ATP into ADP. Answer:

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Define the terms metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism, and describe the role of ATP and coenzymes in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: 14.2

86) Differentiate between the products of glycolysis under aerobic and anaerobic conditions.

Answer: Under aerobic conditions, glucose is converted into pyruvate which forms acetyl-CoA, which enters the citric acid cycle. Under anaerobic conditions, glucose is converted into pyruvate, which undergoes fermentation to lactate.

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 Identify the initial reactant and final products of glycolysis and describe how this pathway is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.4

87) Explain why there is a net yield of two ATPs from the passage of one glucose molecule through glycolysis when four ATP molecules are formed.

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Answer: During glycolysis, glucose is converted to two pyruvates yielding four ATPs in the process. However, two ATPs are required in earlier phosphorylation reactions to form sugar phosphates.

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 Identify the initial reactant and final products of glycolysis and describe how this pathway is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.4

88) Provide the overall equation for the net result of glycolysis.

Answer: Glucose + 2NAD+ + 2ADP + 2 Pi

2 pyruvate + 2 NADH + 2ATP + energy

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 Identify the initial reactant and final products of glycolysis and describe how this pathway is controlled.

Section Reference 1: 14.4

89) In your own words, describe what occurs during the electron transport chain.

Answer: The electron transport chain occurs in the inner membrane of the mitochondria. The reduced coenzymes NADH and FADH2 release electron pairs, which result in H+ moving into the intermembrane space. This results in a proton gradient. The H+ pass from the intermembrane space through ATP synthase channels, resulting in the production of ATP. Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.8 Describe how the products of the citric acid cycle are used by the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation Section Reference 1: 14.8

90) An adult person, when cold, generates some additional body heat differently from the way an infant does. Explain.

Answer: In infants, brown fat is the major source of heat because they have very little stored fat.

Brown fat deposits are located near major blood vessels of infants, which carry the warmed blood to other parts of the body. Adults have very little brown fat and rely on shivering. The metabolism resulting from shivering of adults produces heat.

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.9 Describe the catabolism of triglycerides, the b oxidation spiral, and how the b oxidation spiral differs from fatty acid biosynthesis.

Section Reference 1: 14.9

91) Describe the fate of amino acids during metabolism.

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Answer: Amino acids can undergo anabolism and form new proteins or they can undergo transamination and form α-ketoglutarate or oxidative deamination, where the amine group is lost.

The products of this catabolism can ultimately enter the citric acid cycle.

Difficulty: hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.10 Explain the metabolic fate of the amino groups in amino acids.

Section Reference 1: 14.10

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